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      TMI Tax Updates e-Newsletter
      Jun 15,2026

      Contents
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      30 Highlights Toggle
      11 Articles Toggle
      By: Raj Jaggi
      Summary: Departmental adjudication and criminal prosecution under the Central Excise Act, 1944 may proceed in parallel at the initial stage, but prosecution cannot continue where the competent appellate authority has decided the same dispute on merits in favour of the assessee and held that the alleged contravention is not established. A criminal complaint founded only on that rejected allegation becomes vulnerable to being treated as an abuse of process, especially where no independent criminal basis survives apart from the failed revenue demand.
      By: Vivek Jalan
      Summary: Departmental appeals in income-tax matters are subject to monetary tax-effect limits, with interest and penalty included for threshold purposes. Tax effect must be calculated separately for each assessment year, and in composite orders or common orders involving multiple years or assessees, appeal lies only for the year or assessee crossing the applicable limit. The circular does not apply to constitutional validity challenges, cases where Board instructions are held ultra vires, accepted revenue audit objections, or cases where tax effect is not quantifiable, and it also extends to pending appeals.
      By: DR.MARIAPPAN GOVINDARAJAN
      Summary: Dishonour of a cheque with the endorsement "stop payment" can attract Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 where the cheque was issued towards a legally enforceable debt or liability and the statutory procedure is complied with. The liability is not avoided merely because the drawer instructed the bank not to honour the cheque. Once issuance and signature are admitted or proved, the reverse onus under Sections 118 and 139 operates, and the accused must rebut the presumption by a probable defence.
      By: Dr. Sanjiv Agarwal
      Summary: West Asia crisis and broader external pressures are said to affect fuel, freight, inputs, working capital and export orders, while government measures include tax cuts, credit lines with government guarantee and support to exporters. The commentary also refers to the Supreme Court's online gaming ruling upholding retrospective GST at 28% on the full face value of bets in real money gaming and recognising State power to prohibit online money gaming. GST collections for May 2026 are described as broadly normal, with modest gross and net revenue growth and stronger adjusted growth after excluding a one-time telecom payment from the comparable period.
      By: Sasi Kala
      Summary: GST registration cancellation is generally associated with persistent non-compliance, including failure to file returns within prescribed timelines, incorrect registration particulars, and non-responsive conduct during departmental proceedings. Taxpayers can reduce registration-related compliance risk by filing returns on time, reconciling GST records with books of account, monitoring notices and communications on the GST portal, updating registration details when business information changes, and maintaining supporting documentation for GST transactions.
      By: Bimal jain
      Summary: GST registration is governed by a harmonised structure under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the State GST Acts, under which compliance obligations in one State may affect registration in another State. A person seeking registration in a State must satisfy the statutory conditions attached to registration, and the framework treats registered persons in different States as operating within a connected compliance regime rather than isolated jurisdictions. A company that is already registered in one State and has failed to comply with GST requirements, including filing returns, may be treated as a defaulter and denied registration in another State until it complies with the Act.
      By: Raj Jaggi
      Summary:Input tax credit under GST is not to be denied merely because the supplier failed to deposit tax with the Government, where the purchasing dealer has acted bona fide and can show valid tax invoices, receipt of goods, payment through banking channels and other statutory compliance materials. The protection applies to genuine purchasers who satisfy the statutory and documentary requirements and does not extend to cases lacking bona fides.
      By: YAGAY andSUN
      Summary: Sanctions, geopolitical rivalry, maritime chokepoint insecurity, and international trade are presented as interlinked forces shaping economic growth. The article explains that trade depends on stable political relations, reliable transport corridors, and resilient supply chains, while disruptions can cascade across markets through higher costs, reduced investment, and slower growth. It also highlights sanctions, strategic competition, resource nationalism, and maritime insecurity as drivers of inflationary pressure, trade fragmentation, and vulnerability in developing economies.
      By: YAGAY andSUN
      Summary: Disposable cylinders for industrial gases are lightweight, non-refillable containers used for refrigerants, specialty gases, calibration gases and industrial gases across refrigeration, welding, laboratory, healthcare, electronics and fire-safety applications. India is described as a competitive manufacturing base because of its engineering capacity, steel-processing ecosystem, testing infrastructure and industrial clusters, supported by quality frameworks, international certifications and export classification. The article highlights export opportunities, support schemes, logistics and compliance challenges, and the need for technology upgradation, market diversification and stronger branding to expand India's presence in the global gas packaging market.
      By: YAGAY andSUN
      Summary: Self-assessment under customs law places the primary responsibility for classification, valuation, duty liability, exemption eligibility, origin, description, and related levy components on importers and exporters. Trade participants must file accurate customs declarations, pay duty on that basis, and comply with allied regulatory requirements, while customs authorities retain powers of verification, re-assessment, audit, post-clearance review, seizure, confiscation, and penal action for misdeclaration or undervaluation. The system seeks to balance trade facilitation with revenue protection through selective scrutiny and enforcement.
      By: YAGAY andSUN
      Summary: Standard Input Output Norms (SION) under the Directorate General of Foreign Trade establish the permissible input-output ratio for export products and serve as the basis for duty-free import entitlement under export incentive schemes such as Advance Authorisation and DFIA. The system standardises input consumption, prevents misuse of duty-free import benefits, and accounts for normal wastage and process loss. DGFT notifies SION after technical evaluation by Norms Committees, with sectoral inputs from exporters, Export Promotion Councils, and jurisdictional ministries. The framework also recognises ad-hoc norms and self-ratified norms for case-specific or trusted exporter situations, subject to audit and revision.
      15 News Toggle
      Summary: India's purchases of Russian crude increased in May as refiners expanded imports of discounted barrels, with Russian hydrocarbons accounting for a substantial share of the country's fossil fuel imports. Several major refining hubs recorded higher Russian crude arrivals, reflecting renewed buying by state-run refiners and continued dependence on Russian supply despite sanctions-related pressures. The report also notes that refineries using Russian crude continued to export oil products to sanctioning countries, underscoring the continued circulation of Russian-origin crude through international refining and product-trade channels.
      Summary: Energy supply conditions were described as comfortable, with no shortage of crude oil, LPG or natural gas and with stocks said to be sufficient for more than 60 days for crude oil and natural gas, and about 75-80 days for LPG. Fuel prices were said to have fallen in India after repeated reductions in central excise duty on petrol and diesel, while diesel sale capping was introduced to curb black marketing and E85 fuel infrastructure is being expanded.
      Summary: Aadhaar cards are to stop being issued in Assam to persons above 18 years, subject to limited exceptional cases requiring a district commissioner's proposal and state government approval. Aadhaar issuance will continue for persons below 18 years and, for the time being, for members of the Tea Tribe community, Scheduled Tribes, Scheduled Castes and persons with disabilities who have not yet received the document; the restriction is stated to become absolute for those communities above 18 years from April 1, 2027. The State says the measure is aimed at preventing illegal immigrants from obtaining Aadhaar cards.
      Summary: Advocate Aashutosh Srivastava was conferred an Honorary Doctorate in Law by Washington Digital University, USA, in recognition of his professional dedication, legal service, public-oriented work, and commitment to justice, rights protection, and the rule of law. The article also records his legal career, including his practice since 2006, his firm, appearances before the Supreme Court and High Courts, and his work in complex litigation, economic offences, bail matters, enforcement proceedings, public interest litigation, and RBI-related disputes.
      Summary: Custodial remand under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act was sought in an alleged diversion-of-loan-funds investigation involving Reliance ADA Group entities, offshore remittances, foreign bank accounts and the layering of funds. The court granted five days' custody to the Enforcement Directorate to enable confrontation with seized emails, electronic records, financial documents and witness statements for tracing the fund trail, identifying the ultimate beneficiaries and locating domestic and overseas assets, while directing arrangements for medical care.
      Summary: SEBI moved the Supreme Court challenging a Securities Appellate Tribunal order granting relief to managers and a company secretary in the Sahara OFCD matter. The roundup also notes a decision to stop Aadhaar issuance to persons above 18 years of age, fresh bail applications in the 2020 Delhi riots case, and the Centre's physical possession of the Jaipur Polo Ground in Delhi.
      Summary: Securities regulatory jurisdiction over optionally fully convertible debentures was affirmed on the basis that the debentures issued by Sahara India Commercial Corporation Ltd. were treated as a public offer rather than a private placement, in view of the large-scale mobilisation of funds from a very large number of investors. The tribunal separately granted relief to four managers and the company secretary, holding that they could not be treated as liable for the company's acts merely by reason of their employment. SEBI has challenged only this part of the ruling before the Supreme Court.
      Summary: A strategic divestment programme has been announced for AXISCADES' Aerospace Engineering Services business, under which Akkodis is to acquire a controlling interest in two tranches, beginning with 51% and followed by the balance over the next 24 to 30 months. The transaction covers design, engineering analysis, certification support and lifecycle engineering services, and is subject to customary regulatory and competition law clearances. The parties are to act as strategic partners during the transition, with transitional services for systems, certifications and employee continuity.
      Summary: Quality Council of India and Footwear Design and Development Institute have entered into a Memorandum of Understanding to strengthen the quality, testing, accreditation and skilling ecosystem in the leather and footwear sector. The collaboration is directed at building a structured framework for capacity building, certification, testing infrastructure development and quality ecosystem support across major footwear clusters, with emphasis on workers, MSMEs, supervisors and other stakeholders in the value chain. The partnership assigns QCI a role in providing technical guidance on accreditation principles, quality management systems and standards, while also supporting awareness initiatives on quality, testing, accreditation and applicable government schemes. FDDI is to lead cluster-specific skilling and training programmes, map testing and calibration laboratories, identify gaps in laboratory access, support sample collection centres and develop knowledge resources.
      Summary: Aadhaar card issuance in Assam is being restricted for persons above 18 years of age to prevent illegal immigrants from obtaining the document. In exceptional cases, a district commissioner may send a proposal to the State government seeking permission for issuance.
      Summary: DPIIT and ONDC convened an industry roundtable on DigiDukaan to digitise B2B procurement for kirana stores across India's General Trade ecosystem. The discussion focused on fragmented ordering, limited inventory visibility and manual sales processes, and on how open digital infrastructure can improve procurement efficiency, scheme visibility, fill rates, working capital management, distributor reach and access to retailer demand signals.
      Summary: The Enforcement Directorate arrested two former Reliance Anil Ambani Group executives under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act in connection with an alleged bank loan fraud involving Reliance Telecom Ltd. The agency took transit remand to move them to Delhi, where the case is registered. The ED is stated to have taken cognisance of a prior CBI complaint and is examining their roles in the alleged fraud.
      Summary: The Enforcement Directorate arrested two former executives of the Reliance Anil Ambani Group under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act in a money laundering case. The arrests were made in Mumbai, and the accused were taken to Delhi on transit remand because the case was registered in the national capital. The two individuals had previously served as directors in Reliance Telecom Ltd.
      Summary: India's macroeconomic position is described as having strengthened through robust growth, high foreign exchange reserves and expanding external resilience. The text states that concerns about recession were dismissed on the basis that India continued to record the highest growth rate among major economies, with GDP growth remaining strong in the latest quarter and the fiscal year. It also notes that India had become the world's fourth-largest economy and was on course toward a USD 5 trillion economy. The article further highlights external sector stability by stating that India's foreign exchange reserves were sufficient to cover nearly 11 months of imports and that the country had the capacity, if required, to repay 94 per cent of its foreign debt in a single day.
      Summary: Police registered a case of alleged abetment to suicide against three persons, including two employees of an IT company, after the death of a 48-year-old staffer. The complaint relied on a purported suicide note alleging defamatory emails, repeated humiliation before colleagues, denial of favourable work assignments, assignment of work outside the victim's expertise, and pressure to resign. The company said it was ascertaining the facts and reaffirmed its commitment to a respectful and inclusive workplace.
      22 Notifications Toggle

      Customs

      1.
      G.S.R. 476 (E) - dated - 12-6-2026 - Cus
      Corrigendum - Notification No. 45/2025-Customs, dated the 24th October, 2025
      Summary: A corrigendum to the customs exemption notification corrects a typographical reference in specified lines by substituting the incorrect year with the correct year. The correction is limited to the notification text and does not indicate any broader change in the substance, scope, or operative effect of the underlying customs notification.

      FEMA

      2.
      S.O. 3030 (E) - dated - 12-6-2026 - FEMA
      Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2026.
      Summary: The amendment rules broaden the non-debt instruments framework by replacing references to NRI or OCI with the wider category of an individual person resident outside India and revising the related investment and transfer provisions. They permit repatriation-based purchase, sale, and transfer of equity instruments and units subject to schedule-based conditions, prior Government approval in sensitive ownership or control cases involving land-border countries, and updated definitions of ownership and beneficial owner. The rules also restate foreign portfolio investor holding limits, breach consequences, divestment requirements, and reclassification of excess holdings as foreign direct investment.

      Indian Laws

      3.
      S.O. 2797(E) - dated - 2-6-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Petroleum and Minerals Pipelines (Acquisition of Right of User in Land) Act, 1962- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government has appointed 2 June 2026 as the commencement date for the relevant provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, limited to serial number 30 and the corresponding Schedule entries relating to the Petroleum and Minerals Pipelines (Acquisition of Right of User in Land) Act, 1962. The notification operates under the power to fix the date of commencement for the specified provisions only.
      4.
      S.O. 2796(E) - dated - 2-6-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: Brings into force, from 2 June 2026, the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 relating to serial number 61 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
      5.
      S.O. 2808(E) - dated - 1-6-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the British India Corporation Limited (Acquisition of Shares) Act, 1981- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government has appointed the date of publication of the notification as the date on which the provisions at serial number 44 of the Schedule to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 shall come into force in relation to the British India Corporation Limited (Acquisition of Shares) Act, 1981. The notification is issued under the power conferred by sub-section (2) of section 1 of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026.
      6.
      S.O. 2629(E) - dated - 25-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Lalit Kala Akademi (Taking Over of Management) Act, 1997- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appoints 25 May 2026 as the commencement date for the specified provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, limited to serial number 54 and the corresponding Schedule entries relating to The Lalit Kala Akademi (Taking Over of Management) Act, 1997.
      7.
      S.R.O. 7(E) - dated - 22-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Cantonments Act, 2006- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: Brings into force the amendments to the Cantonments Act, 2006 specified in the Schedule to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026. The Central Government appoints the date of commencement for the identified amendments under the power conferred by sub-section (2) of section 1, and the changes take effect from publication of the notification in the Official Gazette.
      8.
      S.O. 2552(E) - dated - 18-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Electricity Act, 2003- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appointed 1 June 2026 as the date on which the specified provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 come into force in relation to serial number 58 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Electricity Act, 2003. The notification is issued under sub-section (2) of section 1 of the 2026 Amendment Act and brings the identified provisions into effect from the appointed date.
      9.
      S.O. 2551(E) - dated - 18-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Damodar Valley Corporation Act, 1948- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government has appointed 1 June 2026 as the commencement date for the specified provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 insofar as they relate to serial number 11 and the corresponding Schedule entry concerning the Damodar Valley Corporation Act, 1948. The notification operates as a commencement instrument bringing the identified amendment provisions into effect for that statutory subject-matter.
      10.
      S.O. 2531(E) - dated - 15-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Prevention and Control of Infectious and Contagious Diseases in Animals Act, 2009- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appoints 1 July 2026 as the date on which the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, so far as it relates to serial number 65 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Prevention and Control of Infectious and Contagious Diseases in Animals Act, 2009, shall come into force. The notification is a commencement order limited to the specified provisions.
      11.
      S.O. 2533(E) - dated - 13-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Cattle-trespass Act, 1871- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appoints 1 June 2026 as the commencement date for the specified provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 relating to the Cattle-trespass Act, 1871. The notification is limited to serial number 2 and the corresponding Schedule entries, and does not extend to other parts of the Act.
      12.
      S.O. 2303(E) - dated - 7-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of Live-stock Importation Act, 1898 - Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government has appointed 15 May 2026 as the commencement date for the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, limited to serial number 4 and the corresponding Schedule entries relating to the Live-stock Importation Act, 1898. The notification operates as a commencement instrument under the statutory power in section 1(2) of the 2026 Act.
      13.
      S.O. 2287(E) - dated - 7-5-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government has brought into force, from the date of publication of the notification in the Official Gazette, the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 insofar as they relate to serial number 70 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. The notification is issued under sub-section (2) of section 1 of the 2026 Act and activates the specified amendment provisions relating to the real estate legislation.
      14.
      S.O. 2185(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appoints 15 May 2026 as the date on which the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, relating to serial number 26 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957, shall come into force. The notification is issued under section 1(2) of the 2026 Amendment Act and is confined to commencement of the specified provisions.
      15.
      S.O. 2184(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appointed 15 May 2026 as the date on which the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, relating to serial number 53 and the corresponding entries in the Schedule concerning the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994, would come into force. The notification was issued under sub-section (2) of section 1 of the 2026 Amendment Act as a commencement notification for the specified scheduled amendment.
      16.
      S.O. 2183(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Delhi Police Act, 1978- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 provisions relating to the Delhi Police Act, 1978 are brought into force by notification under the commencement power in section 1(2) of the Act. The Central Government appoints 15 May 2026 as the date on which serial number 41 and the corresponding Schedule entries, insofar as they relate to the Delhi Police Act, 1978, come into operation.
      17.
      S.O. 2182(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Civil Defence Act, 1968- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appoints 15 May 2026 as the date on which the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 shall come into force insofar as they relate to serial number 34 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Civil Defence Act, 1968. The notification fixes the operative commencement date for the identified schedule-based amendment.
      18.
      S.O. 2181(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Disaster Management Act, 2005- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appoints 15 May 2026 as the date on which the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, relating to serial number 60 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Disaster Management Act, 2005, come into force.
      19.
      S.O. 2180(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Private Security Agencies (Regulation) Act, 2005- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: Brings into force specified provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 in relation to the Private Security Agencies (Regulation) Act, 2005. The Central Government appoints 15 May 2026 as the date from which the provisions corresponding to serial number 59 and the related entries in the Schedule shall take effect.
      20.
      S.O. 2179(E) - dated - 30-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Delhi Land Holdings (Ceiling) Act, 1960- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government appointed 15 May 2026 as the date on which the relevant provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, relating to serial number 28 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Delhi Land Holdings (Ceiling) Act, 1960, would come into force.
      21.
      S.O. 2103(E) - dated - 27-4-2026 - Indian Law
      Seeks to bring in force provisions of relating to the Legal Metrology Act, 2009- Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government has appointed 1 May 2026 as the commencement date for the provisions of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 relating to serial number 66 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Legal Metrology Act, 2009. The notification is issued under sub-section (2) of section 1 of the 2026 Amendment Act and brings the specified amendment into force.

      Labour laws

      22.
      S.O. 2996(E) - dated - 11-6-2026 - Labour laws
      Delegation of Powers under Rule 9(3) of the Industrial Relations (Central) Rules, 2026
      Summary: The Central Government delegates to officers of the rank of Joint Secretary dealing with Industrial Relations in the Ministry of Labour and Employment the power under Rule 9(3) to appoint a verification officer for recognition of a negotiating union or negotiating council. The delegation applies to establishments where the Central Government is the appropriate Government and is made in exercise of section 100 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.
      7 Circulars Toggle

      GST

      1.
      Public Notice No. 01/2026 - dated 11-6-2026
      Functioning of The Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai Bench
      Summary: The Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai Bench, has commenced functioning from its temporary premises at Bandra Kurla Complex, and the notice informs stakeholders of the formal start of its judicial operations. The Mumbai State Bench, including the Panaji Circuit Bench, exercises jurisdiction over Mumbai City and Mumbai Suburban Districts in Maharashtra and all districts in Goa, and hears appeals under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the corresponding State and Union Territory GST Acts within those jurisdictions. All appeals, applications, and proceedings relating to the notified jurisdictions are to be instituted before the Mumbai Bench in accordance with the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (Procedure) Rules, 2025.
      2.
      GSTAT/Pr. Bench Jurisdiction/2026-27/173 - dated 10-6-2026
      Minutes of the meeting - 3rd & 4th meeting of the “Committee for Resolution of Representation received from various Trade / Bar Associations” of Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT)
      Summary: The Committee considered proposed amendments to the GSTAT (Procedure) Rules, 2025 covering certified copies, appeal filing, documentation, verification, translation, scrutiny of defects, interlocutory applications, cross-objections, replies, rejoinders, cause lists, rectification, and fee provisions. It recommended revised filing and verification requirements, portal-based compliance, relaxation of translation rules, expanded scrutiny and rectification timelines, weekly cause lists, and a no-fee proviso for rectification applications, while recording that no amendment was required to the rectification limitation rule and that fee prescriptions under the CGST Rules were outside its jurisdiction.

      Customs

      3.
      Instruction No. 08/2026 - dated 12-6-2026
      Implementation of MeitY Notification S.O. 1246(E) dated 10.03.2026 regarding exemption for Highly Specialized Equipment (HSE) under Electronics and Information Technology Goods (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2021.
      Summary: Highly Specialized Equipment (HSE) is exempted from the Electronics and Information Technology Goods (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2021 where a specific exemption is issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and the equipment is manufactured or imported in less than 100 units per model per year. The exemption covers equipment powered by three-phase supply, single-phase supply above 16 Ampere, equipment exceeding specified dimensions, and equipment weighing more than 80 Kg. The amendment takes effect from 15 June 2026.
      4.
      Instruction No. 09/2026 - dated 12-6-2026
      Implementation of MeitY Notification S.O. 2204(E) dated 05.05.2026 regarding “Standalone Hard Disk Drives” under Electronics and Information Technology Goods (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2021
      Summary: Amends the Electronics and Information Technology Goods (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2021 by substituting the entry at Serial No. 50 with Standalone Hard Disk Drives. USB Type External Hard Disk Drives continue under the existing notified provisions, while all other standalone HDDs are brought under the Order from 5th November.
      5.
      Public Notice No. 37/2026 - dated 10-6-2026
      Pan India implementation of ASR(Allowed for Shipment Request) message and SFCN (Stuffing Cancellation) message under SCMTR,2018- w.e.f 25.05.2026
      Summary: Pan India implementation of the ASR (Allowed for Shipment Request) message and the SFCN (Stuffing Cancellation) message under SCMTR, 2018 is brought into effect from 25.05.2026. The ASR message is made live for shipment readiness in transshipment operations, to be filed by the Authorized Transhipper after the Custodian files the SF message. The SFCN message is introduced to enable custodians to reset an already filed SF message.
      6.
      Public Notice No. 06/2026-27 - dated 9-6-2026
      Procedure for cancellation of Out of Charge (OOC)
      Summary: Procedure is prescribed for cancellation of Out of Charge (OOC) for imported goods. An importer or customs broker must submit a request letter or email stating the grounds for cancellation to the DC/AC (Import Assessment) or DE, with a copy to the CFS where the goods are lying. The CFS must confirm that the goods are physically available in the CFS. The AC/DC then examines the request, cancels the OOC, and communicates the cancellation to the importer and the CFS.
      7.
      Public Notice No. 18/2026 - dated 3-6-2026
      Implementation of Universal E-Seal Reader at New Mangalore Port [INNML1]- Commencement of export container e-seal verification through ICEGATE Integration
      Summary: Universal e-seal readers at New Mangalore Port enable real-time scanning of export container e-seals, ICEGATE validation of exporter-entered data, and gate-entry confirmation for verification. The system supports auto-goods registration and auto-out of charge for eligible export shipping bills, while unreadable e-seals are subject to physical verification by Customs officers using handheld devices. The custodian must provide weekly reporting on scanned, unmapped, and physically verified e-seals.
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