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Declaration of the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (ICERT), as an Attached Office.
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Attached-office status preserves continuing statutory agency functions under the Information Technology Act within ministerial administrative control.
Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (ICERT) is designated to function as an Attached Office under the administrative control of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, with immediate effect. ICERT remains the appointed agency for purposes of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as amended from time to time. Its continuing statutory agency role applies alongside its attached-office classification.
Digital Personal Data Protection (Removal of Difficulties) Order, 2026.
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Verifiable parental and guardian consent requirements are clarified alongside data audit terminology governing Significant Data Fiduciary compliance.
Section 9(1) is corrected to clarify that a Data Fiduciary must obtain verifiable consent before processing personal data of a child or of a person with disability having a lawful guardian. Section 10(2)(c)(ii) replaces "audit" with "data audit," aligning periodic audit terminology for Significant Data Fiduciaries with the independent data auditor requirement and clarifying the intended data protection audit obligation.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (Electronic Trading Platforms) Regulations, 2026.
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Electronic trading platform registration imposes governance, market-integrity, risk-management, clearing, data-retention, and supervisory compliance obligations in IFSCs.
Electronic trading platforms in an IFSC require registration unless an express exemption applies. Registration depends on financial soundness, governance, risk controls, business viability, net worth and continuing fit and proper status. Operators must maintain fair trading rules, participant due diligence, surveillance, market-abuse controls, resilient systems, algorithmic-trading safeguards, approved clearing and settlement arrangements, business continuity, cyber resilience and a compliance officer. They must preserve secure platform data, submit required returns and audited financial statements, and cooperate with supervisory inspection, inquiry, investigation and audit.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (Fund Management) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026.
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Fund management compliance now strengthens liquidity deployment, NAV disclosures, sponsor contributions, fiduciary oversight and governance controls for IFSC schemes.
Fund-management requirements in IFSC are amended to require pre-close or pre-threshold contributor monies to be invested only in permissible investments preserving capital and providing adequate liquidity. NAV computation, NAV disclosure and portfolio disclosure obligations are revised across Venture Capital, Restricted and Retail schemes from the commencement of investment activity. FME contribution rules, exemptions for relocated and specified passive structures, placement memorandum extensions, NAV methodology and conflict disclosures, policy approvals, record retention, and fiduciary pre-investor-agreement checks are also revised.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (Manner of Payment and Receipt of Premium) (Amendment) Regulations, 2026
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Re-insurance premium definition now covers consideration paid or payable under contracts to cover risk within the financial services framework.
Premium is redefined by adopting the meaning assigned under the Insurance Act, 1938. For re-insurance business, premium means the consideration paid or payable under a re-insurance contract to cover risk. The amendment takes effect from its publication in the Official Gazette and updates the premium-definition provision governing the manner of payment and receipt of premium.
Seeks to bring in force provisions of Tribunals Reforms Act, 2026
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Tribunal reforms commencement activates all statutory provisions from the appointed date under the enabling commencement power.
The Tribunals Reforms Act, 2026 enters into force in its entirety on 25 August 2026. The commencement power under the Act appoints that date for simultaneous operation of every provision, rather than staged commencement. A single effective date therefore applies to the statutory tribunal-reform framework and the Act's complete set of provisions.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (Prohibition of Market Abuse in Securities Markets) Regulations, 2026.
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Market-abuse compliance prohibits insider trading, fraud and manipulation while requiring listed entities to maintain disclosures and internal controls.
Insiders are prohibited from communicating, procuring or trading on material non-public information except for legitimate purposes, duties or legal obligations. Trading while in possession of such information is presumed to be based on it, subject to specified explanations, including informed inter-se transfers, bona fide statutory transactions, pre-priced stock-option exercises, effective information barriers and disclosed irrevocable trading plans. Listed entities must maintain transaction-disclosure policies for designated persons and internal controls that protect confidential information, restrict access, identify informed employees and undergo periodic review.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (Capital Market Intermediaries) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026
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Rating under approved policy may extend to certain situations within capital market intermediary regulatory requirements.
Regulation 28(5), first proviso, is amended by inserting the words "certain situations as per its approved policy, including but not limited to" after "a rating in" and before "the". The insertion connects the relevant rating-related requirement with situations covered by an approved policy and clarifies that those situations are not exhaustive. The amendment takes effect from publication in the Official Gazette.
International Financial Services Centres Authority (Employees' Service) Regulations, 2026
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Employee service framework establishes recruitment, leave, conduct, disciplinary procedures, and retirement protections for financial-services regulator personnel.
Employee service conditions govern appointments, recruitment, probation, pay, leave, promotion, conduct, discipline, retirement and benefits for whole-time, deputed and contractual employees. Recruitment is generally through competitive selection, while contract and deputation appointments may be used for work exigencies. The framework imposes confidentiality, conflict-of-interest and financial-dealing restrictions, and establishes suspension, penalties, inquiry procedures, appeals, revision and review.
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (Senior Secretariat Assistant and Junior Secretariat Assistant) Recruitment Rules, 2026.
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Secretariat recruitment framework sets direct entry qualifications, typing tests, probation, and promotion or deputation pathways for senior posts.
Recruitment establishes Group 'C'-equivalent Senior Secretariat Assistant and Junior Secretariat Assistant posts, with Senior vacancies filled through promotion and direct recruitment, subject to specified alternative methods, while Junior vacancies are filled by direct recruitment. Direct entrants must meet the prescribed age range, education standard, computer typing test and language requirements, followed by probation and induction training. Promotion to Senior Secretariat Assistant requires qualifying regular service as Junior Secretariat Assistant; deputation, absorption and re-employment are subject to service, qualification, tenure and age conditions.
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, (Director, Joint Director and Deputy Director) Recruitment Rules, 2026.
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Promotion-led recruitment for senior emergency response posts permits deputation when promotion cannot fill the positions.
Appointment to the Director, Joint Director and Deputy Director posts is by promotion, failing which by deputation including short-term contract; direct recruitment is inapplicable. Promotion to Director and Joint Director requires five years' regular service in the respective feeder grades and relevant training. Promotion to Deputy Director is available to specified Section Officer, Administrative Officer and Accounts and Finance Officer grades, with prescribed service and training. Deputation eligibility combines analogous or specified lower-grade service with a bachelor's degree and role-specific administrative, financial or personnel experience.
Notification of Navy Cyber Group as Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the information Technology Act 2000
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Electronic evidence examination now includes naval cyber laboratory expertise for computer media and mobile device forensics.
Cyber Forensic Laboratory, Navy Cyber Group, Naval Headquarters, is notified as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Its authorised scope covers computer media forensics, excluding floppy disk drives, and mobile device forensics. The earlier 2024 Gazette designation is rescinded.
Notification of BSF Central Drone Forensic Lab as Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the Information Technology Act 200
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Drone forensic electronic-evidence examination is assigned to a designated laboratory with authority limited to drone forensics.
Designation of the Special Instruments Wing, Border Security Force, Central Drone Forensic Lab as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence is made under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The designation applies within India, with its authorised scope limited to drone forensics.
Rajasthan State Forensic Science Laboratory as Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the information Technology Act 2000
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Electronic evidence examination covers computer media and mobile device forensics, while floppy disks remain outside the authorised scope.
Section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 designates the Cyber Forensic Division of the State Forensic Science Laboratory, Jaipur, Rajasthan, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India. Its authorised scope covers Computer (Media) Forensics, excluding floppy disks, and Mobile Devices Forensics. Examination authority is confined to those specified electronic-evidence categories.
Notification of National Forensic Science University, Goa, as Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the Information Technology Act 200
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Electronic evidence examination expands through designation of a specialised forensic university for computer media and mobile device forensics.
National Forensic Science University, Goa, is designated as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, with effect throughout India. Its authorised scope is confined to Computer (Media) Forensics and Mobile Devices Forensics. The designation identifies two distinct forensic domains for electronic-evidence examination.
Notification of Maharashtra DFSL as Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the information Technology Act 2000
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Electronic evidence examination is assigned to a designated forensic laboratory for computer-media and mobile-device forensics.
Central Government designates the Directorate of Forensic Science Laboratories, Mumbai, Maharashtra, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The authorised scope comprises computer-media forensics and mobile-device forensics.
Notification of Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Kolkata, under the Directorate of Forensic Science Services, Ministry of Home Affairs, as Examiner of Electronic Evidence under Section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000
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Electronic evidence examiner designation covers computer media and mobile-device forensics within India's authorised institutional scope.
Central Government designates the Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Kolkata, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Its examination authority is confined to computer-media forensics and mobile-device forensics, establishing its electronic-evidence examination remit within those specified technical areas.
Information Technology, Salary, Allowances and other Terms and Conditions of Service of officers and employees of the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team except Director General Rules, 2026.
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Cyber incident response staff service conditions align pay, benefits, pension, leave and discipline under public-service employment standards.
Service conditions for CERT-In officers and employees other than the Director General adopt Central Government standards for pay, allowances, housing, travel and medical facilities. National Pension System and gratuity arrangements apply subject to stated exclusions, while deputationists remain subject to applicable parent-organisation retirement schemes. Central Civil Services leave, leave travel concession, conduct and disciplinary frameworks apply, with appointing and disciplinary authority allocated by equivalent Group A, B and C status.
Seeks to bring in force provisions of Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 - Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
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Commencement of public premises eviction provisions notified under the Jan Vishwas amendment framework for scheduled amendments.
Commencement of the provisions at serial number 36 in the Schedule to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026 is notified for the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971. The Central Government appoints 1 July 2026 as the date on which those scheduled amendments relating to the Public Premises legislation come into force.
Seeks to bring in force provisions of Tea Act, 1953 - Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026
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Commencement of Tea Act amendments under the Jan Vishwas framework takes effect from 24 June 2026.
The Central Government has appointed 24 June 2026 as the commencement date for the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2026, insofar as it relates to serial number 17 and the corresponding Schedule entries concerning the Tea Act, 1953. The notification is a commencement instrument bringing the specified Tea Act-related amendment provisions into force from that date.

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