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ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an administrative order passed pursuant to a show-cause notice can be set aside and the matter remitted for fresh consideration where the affected party filed an irrelevant reply due to negligent/incorrect advice from a consultant.
2. Whether the Court may condition remittal on interim deposit/payment of a portion of the disputed tax and prescribe timelines for filing fresh reply and for adjudicatory action by the authority.
3. Whether an attachment/freeze on the taxpayer's bank account, effected in consequence of the impugned order, must be lifted once the impugned order is set aside.
4. Whether the revenue department can be directed to issue a circular advising assessees to engage qualified consultants to avoid recurrence of ill-advice, and the extent to which such administrative guidance is appropriate relief from the Court.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Setting aside administrative order and remittal where reply filed was irrelevant owing to consultant's negligence
Legal framework: Administrative decisions made after service of a show-cause notice must be based on opportunity to be heard; where a reply is filed but is irrelevant or ineffective, the adequacy of the opportunity and fairness of the proceeding are in issue. The Court has inherent supervisory jurisdiction in writ jurisdiction to examine procedural fairness and to remit for fresh consideration where prejudice is shown.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial precedents were relied upon or cited in the judgment; the Court addressed the issue on principle rather than by reference to specific authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the petitioner's reply to the show-cause notice was irrelevant and attributable to ill advice by a consultant. The Court noted recurrent instances where unqualified consultants give poor advice, leading to parties being unable to present proper replies supported by documents. Given that the ineffective reply resulted from negligence of the consultant and caused prejudice (leading to an adverse order and business standstill), the Court considered it appropriate to afford another opportunity by setting aside the impugned order and remitting the matter for fresh consideration.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an affected party files an ineffective/irrelevant reply due to negligent advice, the Court may set aside the resultant order and remit the matter for fresh consideration to secure a fair opportunity to be heard. Obiter - observations about the widespread practice of unqualified consultants and its social/economic consequences, though grounded in fact, are ancillary to the remedial decision.
Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the matter remitted for fresh consideration to cure procedural unfairness caused by the irrelevant reply attributable to consultant negligence.
Issue 2: Conditioning remittal on payment of a portion of disputed tax and imposition of timelines for further proceedings
Legal framework: Courts exercising equitable supervisory jurisdiction in tax matters may impose conditions when granting interim relief or remitting matters, including security or partial payments, to balance the rights of the revenue and the taxpayer and to prevent misuse of the remedy. Courts may also prescribe reasonable timelines for filing objections and for the authority to decide so as to ensure expeditious adjudication.
Precedent Treatment: No case law was cited; the Court acted on established supervisory principles and practical equities between revenue protection and preservation of business continuity.
Interpretation and reasoning: Recognising the respondent's legitimate interest in revenue protection and the petitioner's plea of business prejudice and employment impact, the Court accepted a consensual proposal (and petitioner's willingness) to pay 25% of the disputed tax. The Court held it reasonable to condition remittal on payment of that amount within a fixed period. The Court also imposed schedules: three weeks from payment to file reply/objection, and the authority to give 14 days' clear notice fixing personal hearing before passing orders expeditiously. These directions were framed to ensure both procedural fairness and protection of revenue interest while preventing undue delay.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the Court may remit an adjudicatory matter on condition of interim payment of a proportionate amount of disputed tax and may stipulate timelines for compliance and fresh adjudication to protect both parties' interests. Obiter - the precise percentage (25%) is case-specific and reflects agreement and the Court's balancing exercise, not a general rule binding in other cases.
Conclusion: Remittal was ordered subject to payment of 25% of disputed tax within four weeks; timelines for filing fresh reply (three weeks after payment) and for the authority to issue 14 days' notice and decide expeditiously were mandated.
Issue 3: Lifting of bank attachment/de-freezing accounts where impugned order set aside
Legal framework: An attachment or freeze that is founded on an order that is set aside loses the operative legal basis for restraint; courts can direct immediate release where the underlying order has been vacated, subject to any conditions imposed by the Court to protect revenue or secure compliance.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents were cited in the judgment; the Court applied basic legal principle that an order dependent on a set-aside adjudication cannot subsist independently.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Court set aside the impugned order, it held that the bank attachment could not lawfully persist. To restore the petitioner's ability to continue business and to alleviate hardship (including unemployment of workers), the Court directed the authority to instruct the bank to release the attachment and de-freeze the account immediately upon production of a copy of the order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an order giving rise to an attachment is set aside, the consequent attachment may be ordered lifted forthwith. Obiter - the policy considerations about business continuity and worker unemployment underpinning the remedial urgency are contextual rather than binding principles.
Conclusion: The attachment on the bank account was to be lifted immediately upon production of the Court's order; the bank instructed to release the attachment and de-freeze the account.
Issue 4: Direction to department to issue circular advising engagement of qualified consultants
Legal framework: Courts can issue directions to administrative bodies to adopt procedural or policy measures within the scope of their statutory powers where such directions are necessary to prevent recurring injustice or to improve administrative fairness; however, such directions must respect separation of powers and be practicable.
Precedent Treatment: No authority was cited. The Court's direction arises from observed recurrent administrative problems rather than adjudication of a statutory duty in the particular case.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed recurring instances where unqualified consultants give erroneous advice causing prejudice to assessees and burdening adjudicatory processes. To mitigate recurrence, the Court thought it appropriate to direct the revenue department to issue a note/circular advising assessees to engage qualified consultants and cautioning against relying on unqualified advisors. The Court characterised this as an administrative remedial measure to be taken by the department.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter leaning toward practical guidance - the direction is administrative and corrective rather than a dispositive legal principle; it addresses systemic concerns observed by the Court but is not premised on a statutory mandate adjudicated in the case.
Conclusion: The Court directed the department to issue a circular advising assessees to engage qualified consultants to prevent repetition of ill-advice; this direction is administrative and intended to reduce procedural prejudice in future cases.
Net Disposition and Practical Directions (expressing the operative conclusions)
The Court set aside the impugned order and remitted the matter for fresh consideration on condition of payment of 25% of the disputed tax within four weeks; the petitioner to file reply/objection within three weeks of payment; the authority to issue 14 days' clear notice fixing a personal hearing and then pass orders on merits expeditiously; the bank attachment to be lifted immediately upon production of the order; and the department directed to issue a circular advising engagement of qualified consultants. No costs were awarded.
Setting aside of order and conditional remand - payment of a portion of disputed tax as condition for restoration of rights - remand for fresh consideration with opportunity for personal hearing - lifting of bank attachment upon production of court order - administrative direction to ensure engagement of qualified consultants
Setting aside of order and conditional remand - payment of a portion of disputed tax as condition for restoration of rights - Impugned order dated 21.08.2024 set aside and the matter remitted to the first respondent for fresh consideration on specified conditions. - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the petitioner had filed an irrelevant reply to the show cause notice due to ill advice by an unqualified consultant, which led to the impugned order. Taking into account the standstill of the petitioner's business and unemployment of workers, the Court exercised its remedial discretion to set aside the impugned order and remit the matter for fresh consideration, subject to the petitioner paying 25% of the disputed tax within four weeks. The Court directed that the setting aside will take effect from the date of payment and required the petitioner to file a proper reply/objection with supporting documents within three weeks of such payment. The respondent was directed to consider the reply, issue a clear 14-days notice fixing a personal hearing, and thereafter decide the matter on merits and in accordance with law expeditiously. [Paras 9]
Impugned order set aside; matter remitted to the first respondent for fresh consideration on payment of 25% of the disputed tax and compliance with filing and hearing directions.
Lifting of bank attachment upon production of court order - Attachment on the petitioner's bank account to be lifted as a consequence of setting aside the impugned order. - HELD THAT: - Having set aside the impugned order, the Court held that the prior attachment on the petitioner's bank account cannot be permitted to continue. The first respondent was directed to instruct the concerned bank to release the attachment and de-freeze the account immediately upon production of a copy of this order, thereby restoring the petitioner's access to banking facilities pending fresh adjudication as provided above. [Paras 9]
Bank attachment to be released and account de-frozen immediately upon production of a copy of this order.
Administrative direction to ensure engagement of qualified consultants - Direction issued to the department to circulate guidance advising assessees to engage qualified consultants. - HELD THAT: - The Court observed recurring instances where unqualified consultants gave ill advice, resulting in procedural lapses and prejudicial outcomes for assessees. To mitigate such harms, the Court directed the respondent department to issue an appropriate note or circular advising assessees to engage qualified consultants and warning against reliance on unqualified persons who may give incorrect advice or violate statutory provisions. [Paras 8]
Respondent department directed to issue a circular advising assessees to engage qualified consultants.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is allowed in part: the impugned order dated 21.08.2024 is set aside and remitted for fresh consideration subject to payment of 25% of the disputed tax and procedural compliance by the petitioner; the bank attachment is to be released on production of this order; and the department is directed to issue a circular advising engagement of qualified consultants. No costs.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether, for invoices/debit notes pertaining to Financial Year 2018-19, a registered person is entitled to take input tax credit (ITC) in respect of returns filed after the due date specified in Section 16(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (the Act), by virtue of the proviso contained in Section 16(5) (limitation extended till 30th November, 2021).
2. Whether the adjudicating authority's disallowance of ITC claimed for February 2019 and March 2019 on the ground of Section 16(4) is sustainable in view of the amendment embodied in Section 16(5), and whether such reasoning can support a demand.
3. Whether the Petitioner must be relegated to the appellate remedy under Section 107 of the Act and, if so, whether the usual requirement of pre-deposit should be imposed or waived in the circumstances.
4. Ancillary administrative reliefs in the context of an appeal: (a) access to the electronic portal and documents required for filing an appeal; (b) protection against dismissal on limitation grounds if appeal is filed within the stipulated period; and (c) effect of any pending higher court decision on the appellate outcome.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework for entitlement to ITC: applicability of Section 16(4) vis-à-vis Section 16(5)
Legal framework: Section 16(1) entitles registered persons to take input tax credit subject to conditions; Section 16(4) prescribes that ITC shall not be available after the thirtieth day of November following the end of the financial year to which the invoice pertains or furnishing of the relevant annual return, whichever is earlier; Section 16(5) (amendment) expressly provides that, notwithstanding subsection (4), for invoices/debit notes pertaining to Financial Years 2017-18, 2018-19, 2019-20 and 2020-21 a registered person shall be entitled to take ITC in any return under Section 39 filed up to 30th November, 2021.
Precedent Treatment: The Court did not rely on or distinguish any prior judicial precedent in its reasoning; it proceeded on textual interpretation of statutory amendment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The amendment in Section 16(5) unambiguously extends the limitation period for the specified financial years to 30th November, 2021. For Financial Year 2018-19 the amendment operates "notwithstanding anything contained in subsection (4)", thereby overriding the limitation effect of subsection (4) for the specified years. The returns/invoices for February and March 2019 fall within Financial Year 2018-19; therefore, if returns claiming the ITC were filed on or before 30th November, 2021, entitlement arises under Section 16(5).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the statutory text of Section 16(5) extends the period for taking ITC for FY 2018-19 and thus, prima facie, precludes disallowance solely on the basis of subsection (4) where returns were filed within the extended period. Obiter - no extensive analysis of collateral facts, supplier uploads or reconciliation obligations was conducted; those issues remain open for adjudication.
Conclusions: The adjudicating authority's reliance on Section 16(4) to disallow ITC for February and March 2019 is prima facie not sustainable because Section 16(5) extends the period for claiming ITC for FY 2018-19 till 30th November, 2021. The Court expresses a prima facie view in favour of entitlement but refrains from making a final adjudication on merits.
Issue 2 - Validity of the demand/order based on non-reconciliation and timing of return filing
Legal framework: The SCN and demand rely on (i) reconciliation between GSTR-01 and GSTR-3B, (ii) excess ITC claimed due to non-reconciliation, and (iii) excess ITC availed in GSTR-3B compared to suppliers' declarations; Section 16 provisions govern entitlement and limitation.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents were invoked; the Court limited itself to statutory interpretation and the record before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The impugned order initially raised reconciliation and timing objections, but the order under challenge dropped the reconciliation ground; the adjudicating authority's primary stated basis for demand in the order excerpt relied upon the limitation date under subsection (4) (20 October 2019 for certain returns) and noted that ITC was availed after that date. Given Section 16(5)'s express extension, that reasoning is prima facie unsustainable for FY 2018-19. The Court, however, declined to substitute its final decision for the appellate process and left factual/contention issues open for the appellate authority to decide on merits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a demand based solely on subsection (4) limitation, without considering subsection (5)'s express extension, cannot stand prima facie for FY 2018-19. Obiter - the Court's statement that other contentions and rights are left open, and that the appellate authority must decide without being bound by the Court's observations.
Conclusions: The demand insofar as it rests on disallowance under Section 16(4) for FY 2018-19 is prima facie unsustainable; factual and reconciliatory issues remain for adjudication on appeal.
Issue 3 - Availability of appellate remedy under Section 107 and waiver of pre-deposit
Legal framework: Orders of the adjudicating authority are appealable under Section 107 of the Act; statutory appellate procedure ordinarily requires pre-deposit for filing appeal as a condition precedent to maintainability (subject to provisions/exceptions in law and rules).
Precedent Treatment: The Court did not cite or rely upon precedent; it applied principles of appellate deference and interim equitable relief when the appellant appears prima facie entitled to substantial relief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court acknowledged that the order is appealable and that the Petitioner should ordinarily be relegated to the appellate remedy. Given the Court's prima facie conclusion that the Petitioner is entitled to the ITC (or refund), and the substantial nature of the ITC claimed, the Court exercised its equitable discretion to waive the pre-deposit in the unique facts of the matter to permit effective access to appellate remedy.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a court forms a prima facie view that the appellant is entitled to substantial relief, it may, in appropriate circumstances, waive the pre-deposit requirement to allow lodging and adjudication of the appeal on merits. Obiter - the scope and applicability of such waiver in other factual matrices is not addressed.
Conclusions: The Petitioner is relegated to file the statutory appeal under Section 107; in the present facts the pre-deposit is waived. All substantive rights and contentions remain open for adjudication by the Appellate Authority.
Issue 4 - Ancillary administrative directions and effect of pending higher court decision
Legal framework: Administrative facilitation for filing appeals (portal access, document retrieval) and principles preventing dismissal of appeals on limitation where the Court grants a specific period; appellate decisions remain subject to higher court pronouncements.
Precedent Treatment: None cited; directions given as case-specific relief aimed at effective exercise of appellate rights.
Interpretation and reasoning: To enable the effective filing and adjudication of the appeal, the Court directed that portal access be provided within one week for document download, that an appeal filed within the stipulated period shall not be dismissed on limitation grounds, and that the Appellate Authority shall decide the appeal on merits without being influenced by the Court's interim observations. The Court also clarified that the Appellate Authority's decision will be subject to the outcome of a pending Supreme Court matter that addresses related issues.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative directions to enable appeal (portal access, non-dismissal on limitation) are appropriate where pre-deposit is waived and the Court has formed a prima facie view in favour of the appellant. Obiter - the interplay between the present order and the pending higher court decision is acknowledged but not resolved.
Conclusions: Procedural reliefs were granted (portal access, protection against dismissal on limitation) and the appellate authority was directed to adjudicate the appeal on merits, subject to any future binding pronouncement of the higher court in the pending matter.
Challenge to validity of N/N. 09/2023 Central Tax dated 31st March, 2023 - rejection of ITC for filing of the return beyond the prescribed period - Petitioner submits that the Petitioner is willing to avail the appellate remedy, but the pre-deposit may be waived, as the Petitioner is entitled to substantial amount of ITC - HELD THAT:- A bare perusal of the reasoning makes it clear that the relevant financial year in the present case is FY 2018-19 and Section 16(5) clearly extends the period for filing returns up till 30th November, 2021. The reasoning given is therefore, prima facie not sustainable However, the Court would not like to make a final order, as the entire order is an appealable order.
In the unique facts of this case, where prima facie, the Court is of the view that the Petitioner is entitled to credit/refund of ITC, the pre-deposit is waived.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether cancellation of Goods and Services Tax (GST) registration with retrospective effect is sustainable where the show cause notice does not put the taxpayer on notice of retrospective cancellation.
2. Whether cancellation of GST registration on the sole ground of non-existence of business at the declared place of business is sustainable where the taxpayer has filed a reply and produced evidence controverting that ground.
3. What are the required hallmarks of an order effecting retrospective cancellation of GST registration (reasoned satisfaction, application of mind, consideration of consequences)?
4. Appropriate remedial directions where retrospective cancellation is found unsustainable (restoration, rehearing, access to portal, filing of returns).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of retrospective cancellation where SCN is silent on retrospective effect
Legal framework: Section providing power to cancel GST registration permits cancellation from such date including a retrospective date if circumstances are satisfied; show cause notice and order must reflect reasons for cancellation.
Precedent treatment: Court relied on settled precedent that retrospective cancellation cannot be mechanically applied and that the show cause notice and order must disclose reasons for retrospective effect; such precedent was applied and followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the mere statutory power to cancel retrospectively does not permit invocation without objective satisfaction and reasoned articulation. The SCN must put the registrant on notice that retrospective cancellation is sought and the order must set out reasons that justify retrospective effect. Absent such notice and reasons, retrospective cancellation is beyond permissible exercise of power.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - retrospective cancellation requires specific notice and reasoned satisfaction; an order lacking such basis is unsustainable. Obiter - observations on related consequences (e.g., denial of input tax credit to customers) were noted as considerations the authority ought to weigh.
Conclusions: Retrospective cancellation cannot be sustained where the SCN does not indicate retrospective cancellation and the order fails to record reasons justifying retrospective effect; cancellation in such circumstances must be set aside.
Issue 2: Sufficiency of sole ground of absence at declared place of business when controverted by taxpayer
Legal framework: Cancellation may be grounded on specified statutory limbs (including non-existence at declared place), but the power must be exercised after due application of mind and on objective criteria.
Precedent treatment: Court followed precedent that cancellation based on such grounds must not be routine and must consider responses and evidence produced by the taxpayer.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the record showing that the SCN relied solely on non-existence at declared premises and the taxpayer had filed a reply with photographs and other material contesting that finding. Given the contested factual position and absence of reasoned findings, the impugned order could not be sustained. The authority must consider the taxpayer's reply and evidence and afford a personal hearing before finalizing cancellation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - when the basis for cancellation is disputed and evidence is placed on record, the authority must examine such evidence and not proceed to cancellation on a mechanical basis. Obiter - none beyond emphasis on need for personal hearing and consideration of consequences.
Conclusions: Cancellation founded solely on alleged absence at the declared place, without reasoned consideration of the taxpayer's rebuttal, is unsustainable and requires reconsideration.
Issue 3: Requirement of reasoned order, application of mind, and consideration of consequences for retrospective cancellation
Legal framework: Statutory power to cancel registration retrospectively must be exercised based on objective satisfaction; consequences of retrospective cancellation (including impact on third parties' input tax credit) are relevant to the exercise of the power.
Precedent treatment: Court applied established principles that retrospective exercise of cancellation power demands explicit reasoning, demonstrative due application of mind, and cannot be routine.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized that retrospective cancellation has deleterious consequences and therefore the order must explain the reasons that weighed with the authority to apply retrospective effect. Satisfaction must be objective and recorded; the possibility of adverse effects on third parties is a relevant factor that the adjudicating authority should consider when deciding on retrospective cancellation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - orders effecting retrospective cancellation must be reasoned and demonstrate objective satisfaction; absence of such reasoning invalidates retrospective effect. Obiter - the Court observed that authorities should consider denial of input tax credit to buyers as a factor when deciding retrospective cancellation.
Conclusions: Reasoned recording of satisfaction and explicit consideration of consequences are mandatory preconditions for sustainable retrospective cancellation; their absence necessitates setting aside the retrospective element of the order.
Issue 4: Appropriate remedy and directions where cancellation with retrospective effect is found unsustainable
Legal framework: Judicial review under constitutional writ jurisdiction permits setting aside orders and remanding for fresh consideration consistent with law; courts may grant interim and consequential reliefs to protect rights pending reconsideration.
Precedent treatment: Consistent with precedent, the Court ordered restoration and remand for fresh adjudication while permitting filing of replies and returns.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the defects (SCN silence on retrospective cancellation, lack of reasoned order, disputed factual basis), the Court set aside the impugned order, restored registration, and remitted the matter for fresh hearing on merits. The remedial directions included permitting the taxpayer to file a detailed reply by a specified date, granting a personal hearing, ensuring access to the GST portal, permitting filing of returns for the entire period, and requiring the adjudicating authority to pass a fresh reasoned order after considering submissions and evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where retrospective cancellation is unsustainable for lack of notice and reasoned satisfaction, restoration and remand for fresh consideration with opportunity to be heard is the appropriate remedy. Obiter - procedural details (specific modes of communication) were given as pragmatic directions.
Conclusions: The correct remedy is to set aside the retrospective cancellation, restore access/registration, allow the taxpayer to file replies and returns, grant a personal hearing, and direct the authority to pass a fresh reasoned order after due consideration of consequences and evidence.
Cancellation of GST registration of petitioner - SCN does not raise the issue of retrospective cancellation - scope of SCN - HELD THAT:- The power to retrospectively cancel the GST registration cannot be exercised in a mechanical manner. The reasons for retrospective cancellation have to be contained in the order, which is clearly absent in this case. As pointed out above, the Petitioner seems to have filed a reply to the SCN on 3rd December, 2024 and certain photographs of the premises have also been placed on record.
Under these circumstances, particularly considering the fact the impugned order solely relies on the ground of the Petitioner’s absence in the declared place of business which in itself has been reasonably controverted by the Petitioner, the impugned order including the retrospective cancellation with effect from 7th June, 2024 in the opinion of this Court deserves to be set aside.
The matter is remanded back to the concerned Adjudicating Authority to be reheard on merits.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether purchases of M-sand (HSN 25061020), P-sand (HSN 25061020), Boulders (HSN 25171010), Blue Metal and Bricks (HSN 25171010), and Hollow Bricks (HSN 68101110) from intra-state unregistered persons attract liability to pay tax under the reverse charge mechanism (RCM) under Section 9(3) of the CGST Act.
2. Whether the goods notified under Section 9(3) specifically exclude the above-mentioned goods purchased from unregistered persons.
3. Whether the amended Section 9(4) (and Notification issued thereunder) excludes the applicant from liability to pay tax under RCM for purchases of the above goods received from unregistered persons, having regard to the category of recipient specified (notably "promoter").
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of Section 9(3) RCM to purchases of specified construction-related materials from unregistered suppliers
Legal framework: Section 2(98) defines "reverse charge" as liability to pay tax by the recipient under sub-sections (3) or (4) of Section 9; Section 9(3) empowers the Government to notify categories of supplies the tax on which shall be paid on reverse charge basis by the recipient; Notification No. 04/2017-CTR (as amended) lists goods/suppliers/recipients for RCM.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial precedent is cited or relied upon in the ruling; determination is made on statutory text and notifications alone.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Notification No. 04/2017-CTR (reproduced and examined) enumerates specific tariff items and descriptive entries (e.g., cashew nuts, bidi wrapper leaves, tobacco leaves, certain essential oils, silk yarn, raw cotton, metal scrap, used/old goods, etc.) where RCM applies to supplies from unregistered persons to registered persons or to other specified recipients. The materials in question (M-sand, P-sand, Blue Metal, Boulders, Hollow Bricks) do not appear in any entry of that notification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the absence of the specified goods from Notification No. 04/2017-CTR means they are not subject to RCM under Section 9(3) as notified; Obiter - none additional on unrelated classes of goods.
Conclusions: Purchases of M-sand, P-sand, Blue Metal, Boulders, Hollow Bricks from intra-state unregistered persons are not liable to tax under RCM pursuant to Section 9(3), because those goods are not covered by the entries in Notification No. 04/2017-CTR.
Issue 2 - Whether Section 9(3) notification specifically excludes the subject goods
Legal framework: Section 9(3) notifications specify categories of supplies on which RCM will apply; the notification's entries determine coverage by positive enumeration.
Precedent Treatment: None cited; approach is textual and purposive-notification lists covered items; items not listed fall outside.
Interpretation and reasoning: The notification operates by positive specification of goods and suppliers. The ruling notes that the goods received by the applicant "do not get covered under any of the entries" of the reproduced notification and are therefore outside its ambit. The Authority treats the absence from the notification as de facto exclusion for RCM under Section 9(3).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - exclusion follows from non-inclusion in the notification; Obiter - implicit commentary that notifications may be amended to include other goods in future.
Conclusions: Yes - the goods notified under Section 9(3) exclude the applicant's listed goods purchased from unregistered persons within the State because those goods are not specified in the notification.
Issue 3 - Applicability of amended Section 9(4) (and Notification No. 07/2019) to purchases from unregistered suppliers and the status-based exclusion for non-promoters
Legal framework: Section 9(4) permits notification of a class of registered persons who must pay tax on RCM in respect of specified categories of goods/services received from unregistered suppliers; Notification No. 07/2019-CTR (effective 01.04.2019) identifies categories of supply and specifies the class of recipient (notably "Promoter").
Precedent Treatment: No judicial authorities referred to; determination based on the text of Section 9(4) and the terms of Notification No. 07/2019.
Interpretation and reasoning: Notification No. 07/2019 identifies very specific categories (shortfall in minimum purchases by a promoter for construction of a project, cement shortfall, capital goods to promoters) and designates the recipient class as "Promoter." The applicant, on inquiry, confirmed it is solely a trader (wholesale and retail) and does not undertake construction nor act as a promoter. As such the applicant does not fall within the class of registered persons specified in the notification and therefore cannot be subject to RCM under Section 9(4) pursuant to that notification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a notification under Section 9(4) limits RCM to a specified class of registered persons (e.g., promoters), a registered person who does not fall within that class is not liable under that notification; Obiter - comment that liability under Section 9(4) would attach if the recipient's nature of business were that of a promoter.
Conclusions: The amended Section 9(4), as operationalized by Notification No. 07/2019, excludes the applicant from liability to pay tax under RCM for purchases of the listed goods from unregistered intra-state suppliers because the applicant is not a "Promoter." The exclusion is conditional - if the recipient's nature of business were to change to that of a promoter, the position would differ (cross-reference to Issue 1 and Notification wording).
Ancillary legal observations relied upon in reasoning
1. Binding effect of advance ruling: The Authority notes statutory provisions that an advance ruling under Chapter XVII is binding on the applicant and the concerned officer, and is liable to be void ab initio if obtained by fraud or suppression of material facts; the ruling assumes facts as stated by the applicant (exclusive trading activity; suppliers unregistered).
2. Fact sensitivity: The conclusions are expressly tied to the facts presented - the applicant's representations that it is solely a trader and that suppliers are unregistered were taken as the factual matrix for the ruling; any change in law, facts, or circumstances (including the applicant's nature of business) would affect binding effect under Section 103(2).
Final Determinations (Ratio of the Ruling)
i. Purchases of M-Sand, P-Sand, Boulders, Blue Metals, Bricks and Hollow Bricks from unregistered persons are not liable to RCM under Section 9(3) or Section 9(4) as per the existing notifications, because the goods are not specified in Notification No. 04/2017-CTR and the applicant does not fall within the class of recipients (Promoter) specified in Notification No. 07/2019-CTR.
ii. The notification under Section 9(3) excludes the subject goods by virtue of their non-inclusion in the notification's entries.
iii. The amended Section 9(4) (Notification No. 07/2019) excludes the applicant from RCM liability for the purchases in question so long as the applicant's nature of business remains that of a trader and not a promoter; change of status to promoter would bring different consequences (cross-reference to Issue 3).
Liability under reverse charge mechanism - purchase of goods from unregistered person - goods notified under Section 9(3) specifically excludes the goods purchased from unregistered person or not - amended Section 9(4) excludes the applicant to pay tax under reverse charge mechanism for purchase of the goods from unregistered person - HELD THAT:- When enquired specifically during the personal hearing held on 23.07.2025, as to whether acts as a ‘Promoter’ in any manner, the applicant stated that they are involved only in trading of the said goods and that they are not involved in any construction activity. Hence, the Applicant cannot be considered as a Promoter’, as mentioned in the Notification No. 7/2019-Central Tax (Rate) dated 29.03.2019, and they do not fall within the ambit of the aforesaid notification, as well.
It can be said that the goods received by the applicant, namely M-sand, P-sand, Blue Metal, Boulders, Hollow Bricks from unregistered suppliers are neither notified under Section 9(3) nor the activity of the applicant falls under the category notified under Section 9(4) of the Act.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether input tax credit (ITC) is eligible on GST paid for electrical works (supply, installation, testing & commissioning) executed for expansion of a factory used for manufacturing.
2. If ITC on such supplies is available, what is the appropriate timeline to avail ITC in respect of a supplier's tax invoice issued for an advance payment and subsequent adjustments in running/RA bills (i.e., timing of availment where advance is invoiced prior to receipt of supply)?
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Eligibility of ITC on electrical works for factory expansion
Legal framework: Section 16(1) entitles registered persons to claim ITC on supplies "used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business" subject to prescribed conditions and restrictions. Section 17(5) prescribes blocked credits including (c) works contract services supplied for construction of immovable property (other than plant and machinery) and (d) goods or services received for construction of immovable property (other than plant and machinery) on own account; Explanation defines "construction" to include capitalization. The Explanation to Section 17 defines "plant and machinery" as apparatus, equipment and machinery fixed to earth by foundation or structural support used for making outward supply of goods or services and includes such foundations/structural supports but excludes land, buildings and specified items. Composite supply and works contract definitions (Sections 2(30) and 2(119)) and Schedule II para 6 (works contract treated as service) are applied to determine character of the contract.
Precedent treatment: Applicant relied on AAR Maharashtra (Nipro), AAR Gujarat (Elixir) and CESTAT Delhi (Steel Authority) where credits on certain electrical installations/cables/fixtures were held admissible. The Authority distinguished these precedents on facts: Elixir involved removable cables in ducts and transmission from power station; Nipro's ruling treated systems individually and predates contrary AAR/Appellate Authority orders (Embassy, Varachha) that found similar works to be ineligible. The Authority treated those decisions as persuasive at best and distinguished them on factual and later-authority grounds.
Interpretation and reasoning: The contract before the Authority was a composite "works contract" for supply and installation of comprehensive electrical systems for a new factory. Contract terms obliged the contractor to deliver "Permanent Work" and the cost abstract separates supply and installation but contemplates delivery of a permanent electrical installation. Electrical fittings and associated civil works are ordinarily concealed/fastened to the building (walls/roof/pillars) and thereby become part of immovable property under General Clauses Act Section 3(26) (include things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth). The Authority emphasized that whether items are labelled "plant and machinery" in accounting does not determine their legal character. The statutory definition of "plant and machinery" requires (i) apparatus/equipment/machinery, (ii) fixed to earth by foundation or structural support, and (iii) used for making outward supply of goods or services. The electrical installation in question: (a) forms an integrated system serving the factory generally (not an individual apparatus/equipment/machinery performing a specific function), (b) becomes assimilated into the building as permanent work (thus fixed to earth or permanently fastened), and (c) does not itself make an outward supply of goods or services (it facilitates the factory but does not directly perform production output). Consequently the installation does not fall within the statutory "plant and machinery" exclusion from Sections 17(5)(c)/(d) and is captured by the blocked categories. The Authority also considered that the transaction is a works contract (Section 2(119)) and Schedule II para 6 treats it as service, reinforcing blockage under 17(5)(c)/(d). Accounting characterisation and portability arguments (movability) were rejected because permanence and integration into immovable property govern the legal classification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a contract delivers an electrical installation that is a permanent work assimilated into a building and does not qualify as "plant and machinery" under the statutory explanation (i.e., not apparatus/equipment/machinery fixed by foundation/structural support and used for outward supply), ITC on GST paid for such works is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d). Distinguishing observations about precedents (Elixir, Nipro) and factual comparisons are obiter or persuasive commentary insofar as they address differences in facts and subsequent contrary rulings.
Conclusion (Issue 1): The GST paid on the electrical installation work for the factory expansion is not eligible for ITC; such credit is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST/TNGST Acts given the contractual obligation to deliver permanent immovable work, the composite/works-contract nature of the supply, and the installations' assimilation into immovable property rather than qualifying as "plant and machinery" within the statutory meaning.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Timing to avail ITC in respect of advance invoicing and subsequent adjustments
Legal framework: Section 16(2) lists conditions for availing ITC including possession of tax invoice and receipt of goods or services; Section 16(4) prescribes a time limit-no entitlement to claim ITC after 30th November following the end of the financial year to which the invoice pertains (or furnishing the relevant annual return), whichever is earlier.
Precedent treatment: Applicant cited pre-GST jurisprudence (Allahabad High Court - Century Laminating) to argue procedural rules should not defeat substantive credit where delays are bona fide. The Authority observed that Section 16(2)'s non-obstante clause must be read harmoniously with Section 16(4) and other statutory provisions; however, because the primary question of eligibility was answered negatively, detailed determination of timing was rendered unnecessary.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Authority noted that ITC can be availed only upon fulfilment of conditions in Section 16(2), including receipt of goods/services; where an advance invoice is issued before receipt, the condition is not met until actual receipt or until the advance is adjusted in subsequent invoices reflecting supply receipt. Section 16(4) imposes an outer temporal limit which, on its plain reading, may expire before receipt/adjustment occurs. The Authority acknowledged the doctrine of harmonious construction and the non-obstante clause in Section 16(2) but did not adjudicate a general rule resolving conflicts between Section 16(2) and 16(4) because Issue 1 was decided against the applicant.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - Observations on timing, interaction of Sections 16(2) and 16(4), and reliance on pre-GST authority are ancillary; no binding conclusion on the timing issue was reached since eligibility was negatived.
Conclusion (Issue 2): The question of timeline to avail ITC in respect of the advance component does not arise in the present ruling because ITC on the underlying contract was held ineligible; therefore the Authority did not determine a binding rule on timing for advance invoicing adjustments.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND ADDITIONAL FINDINGS
1. Precedents cited by the applicant were considered but distinguished on facts or superseded by later authority holding otherwise; advance rulings are binding only on the applicant but persuasive value was assessed.
2. Accounting classification (capitalization as plant & machinery or CWIP) and assertions of removability/movability do not override statutory tests for immovability or the specific definition of "plant and machinery" under Section 17.
3. Because the main query was answered adversely, any further question dependent on eligibility (including timing of availing credit for advances) is moot and was left unanswered.
Eligibility to avail ITC - electrical works carried out for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity - basis to arrive the timeline to avail ITC on tax invoice raised by Supplier to bill “Advance Component” of the Contract and Subsequent Adjustment of Advance in the Service Bills showing both Gross and Net amount - HELD THAT:- From the scope of the contract entered into between the parties, it could be seen that the agreement is not just for installation/commissioning of electrical works, and it is a composite one of ‘Works Contract’ Service involving “Supply, Installation, Testing and Commissioning of Electrical Works”, as indicated in the table above, wherein the break-up of the cost involved on Supply and Installation of Electrical works has been provided separately. In this regard, it is observed that when a comprehensive electrical installation for a new factory set-up begins, the electrical fittings are mostly concealed into the wall/floor of the building - irrespective of the fact whether a particular thing is directly attached to earth, or permanently fastened to anything that is attached to earth like the walls, pillars, etc., it becomes part of such immovable property. It could be seen that electrical installations are normally fastened to the wall or roof of the building which in turn is attached to earth, thereby becoming part of the immovable property. The fact that a clause in the contract itself, specifies the permanent and immovable nature of the executed project, viz., “(3) The Contractor shall complete the Work and deliver the Permanent Work to the owner in accordance with the Contract,”, proves the case in point.
Thus, it is seen that the Accounting Standards prescribe accounting of revenue expenses and capital expenses. If the expenses are in the nature of capital expenses and are related to fixed assets, then they are capitalised. Merely, accounting an immovable property as a movable property or accounting a particular item under a different head, does not preclude the immovable nature of the item being accounted.
Whether the resultant electrical installation for the factory gets categorised as ‘Plant and Machinery’ or not? - HELD THAT:- The comprehensive electrical installation involving various items like LT panels, bus-ducts, electrical LT works, lightning protection and light fixtures are meant to perform a whole lot of functions including regulating and conducting the flow of electrical energy, providing lighting, etc., in relation to the entire factory set-up, which is very much general in nature. Whereas, a Machinery, Apparatus, or an Equipment on the other hand are seen as individual units, meant for a specific or an intended function. It is opined that the overall electrical installation meant to carry out varied functions cannot be considered as an apparatus, equipment or machinery - As far as the phrase ‘fixed to earth either by foundation or by structural support’, goes, it clearly conveys the fact that the apparatus, equipment or machinery is to be either fixed to earth or supported through a structure. Whereas, the electrical installation in the instant case get assimilated into the building/infrastructure, thereby becoming a part of the immovable property.
The GST paid on the receipt of ‘Works Contract’ service involving electrical installations for the new factory project, do not become eligible for availment of ITC as they are blocked under clause (c) of the Section 17(5) of the CGST Act, 2017. Notwithstanding the same, even in the event of considering the said supply as an independent ‘Construction’ or ‘Installation’ service, the same again stands blocked under clause (d) of the Section 17(5) of the Act, ibid.
Once it is held that the ITC related to electrical installation for the new factory is not available to the applicant in the instant case, the question of answering the other query, viz., “What should be the basis to arrive the timeline to avail ITC on tax invoice raised by Supplier to bill “Advance Component” of the Contract and Subsequent Adjustment of Advance in the Service Bills showing both Gross and Net amount.”, does not arise, as the same is directly related to the specific contract involved in the instant case, and is very much dependent on the main query.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether input tax credit (ITC) is admissible on GST paid for supply, installation, testing and commissioning of fire-fighting systems (FFS) and public health engineering (PHE) works executed as part of expansion of a factory.
2. If ITC on invoices issued for an advance component (mobilisation advance) can be availed when actual receipt of goods/services (and final adjustment of advance) occurs after the statutory time-limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the Act. (Considered contingent upon resolution of Issue 1.)
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Eligibility of ITC on FFS and PHE works
Legal framework: Section 16(1) entitles ITC for inputs/inputs services "used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business", subject to conditions. Section 17(5) lists blocked credits, notably clauses (c) and (d) which deny ITC for works contract services and goods/services received for construction of immovable property (other than plant and machinery). The Explanation to Section 17 defines "plant and machinery" as apparatus, equipment and machinery fixed to earth by foundation or structural support, used for making outward supply of goods or services.
Precedent treatment: Applicant relied on a Maharashtra AAR ruling (Nipro) that allowed ITC on certain fire alarm and PHE items; cited a Delhi High Court decision accepting fire-fighting equipment as plant/machinery for investment allowance; applicant cited other supportive authorities. The Authority considered later AAR/Appellate AAR rulings (Karnataka AAR in Embassy Industrial Park; Gujarat Appellate AAR in Varachha) which held similar installations assimilate into immovable property and are not plant and machinery for Section 17(5) purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The contract is a composite "works contract" for supply, installation, testing and commissioning and delivers "Permanent Work" to the owner. The Authority examined: (a) whether the executed output creates immovable property; (b) whether resultant installations qualify as "plant and machinery"; and (c) whether the contract qualifies as a works contract. The Authority found the installations are normally concealed/fixed into building structure, become part of the building (immovable), and are delivered as permanent work per contract terms. The statutory definition of "plant and machinery" requires apparatus/equipment fixed to earth AND used for making outward supply of goods or services; even if components satisfy the first limb (fixed to earth/structural support), they do not satisfy the second limb because FFS/PHE are not used directly for making outward supply of goods or services. Accounting classification by the taxpayer (capitalising as plant/machinery) does not determine legal character.
Treatment of precedents: The Authority treated the Maharashtra AAR ruling as persuasive but fact-sensitive and distinguished it on facts; it found later AAR decisions (Karnataka; Gujarat Appellate AAR) more consistent with the present facts where installations were held to lose independent existence and become part of immovable property. The Delhi High Court revenue (investment allowance) decision was noted but not treated as decisive for GST-Section 17(5) analysis because GST statutory tests differ (especially the "used for making outward supply" requirement).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where supply, installation and commissioning of FFS/PHE in a new factory are part of a composite works contract that results in permanent works assimilated with building/infrastructure, such works constitute construction of immovable property and are blocked from ITC under Section 17(5)(c)/(d). Obiter - Discussion of dictionary definitions and Factories Act safety/mandate considerations; persuasive citations to investment allowance jurisprudence do not alter statutory GST test.
Conclusion: ITC on GST paid for the FFS and PHE works carried out for the new factory is not admissible; such supplies are blocked by Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) because the contract constitutes a works contract producing immovable property and the installations do not qualify as "plant and machinery" under the statutory definition.
Issue 2: Timeline for availing ITC on invoices issued for advance (mobilisation) payments
Legal framework: Section 16(2) prescribes conditions for availing ITC including receipt of goods/services; Section 16(4) imposes a time limit - ITC cannot be taken after 30th November following the end of the financial year to which the invoice pertains (or filing of annual return, whichever is earlier). Section 16(2) contains a non-obstante clause.
Precedent treatment: Applicant relied on an Allahabad High Court decision (Century Laminating) in erstwhile excise/modvat context to contend procedural rules should not disallow bona fide claims where goods/services receipt straddles time limits; the Authority noted that such precedents are procedural and fact-sensitive and that Section 16(4) imposes a statutory outer limit.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Authority declined to answer the timeline question substantively because admissibility of ITC on the contract was decided negatively on Issue 1, making the second question contingent and moot. The Authority observed that if the primary supply is ineligible for ITC, questions about timing for availing such ineligible credit do not arise. The Authority also noted the doctrine of harmonious construction but emphasised that Section 16(4) sets an express statutory cutoff which interacts with the receipt condition in Section 16(2); resolution of that interaction would be unnecessary where the underlying credit is blocked.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - observations on interplay between Section 16(2) and Section 16(4) and on procedural precedents; Ratio - the second query is non-justiciable once the main query (ineligibility of the credit) is resolved adversely.
Conclusion: The question of the timeline to avail ITC on the advance component does not arise because ITC on the underlying contract (FFS/PHE) is ineligible; therefore no ruling on the timing of availing such advance-related credit was given.
Cross-references and ancillary points
1. The Authority reiterated statutory binding effect and limits of advance rulings: they bind only the applicant and the concerned officers and are void if obtained by fraud/suppression (Sections 103-104 referenced).
2. The Authority emphasized that factual matrix (contract scope, manner of installation, permanence, whether items retain independent existence) is decisive; prior rulings carry persuasive value only to the extent facts align.
Eligibility of ITC - fire-fighting system and public heath equipment for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity - timeline to avail ITC on tax invoice raised by supplier to bill “Advance Component” of the contract - HELD THAT:- The embargo in relation to availment of ITC in the instant case revolves very much around clauses (c) and (d) of Section 17(5) of the Act, ibid, and both the clauses restricts ITC availment on receipt of Works Contract service, or on receipt of any goods or service or both, when made for ‘construction of an immovable property.
It could be seen from the provisions of section 17(5)(c) of the Act, that the phrase, viz., ‘other than plant and machinery’, finds a place under the said clause, from which it gets conveyed that availment of ITC on ‘plant and machinery’ is not blocked under the said provision. It is to be noted here that even the phrase ‘other than plant or machinery’ that was part of clause (d) of Section 17(5), now stands amended as ‘other than plant and machinery’, retrospectively with effect from 1.07.2017 onwards, through SI.No.124 of the Finance Act, 2025 (No.7 of 2025).
From the scope of the contract entered into between the parties, it could be seen that the agreement is not just for installation/commissioning of Fire-Fighting System and Public Health Engineering and it is a composite one of ‘Works Contract’ Service, wherein the break-up of the cost involved on Supply and Installation of Fire-Fighting System and Public Health Engineering has been provided separately - when a comprehensive installation for a new factory set-up begins, these fittings are mostly concealed into the wall/floor of the building. They are concealed or fitted on to the building through pipes as it serves the dual purpose of safety and aesthetics. Further, on installation of the above fittings meant for the factory/facility, they do not have an independent existence and it becomes part and parcel of the entire building/infrastructure and thereby a part of the immovable property. This apart, we find under the General Clauses Act, 1897, ‘Immovable Property’ has been defined under Section 3(26) as “Immovable Property shall include land, benefits arising out of land and things attached to the earth, or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth.” It could be seen that these installations are normally fastened to the wall or roof of the building which in turn is attached to earth. The fact that the clause in the contract itself, which specifies the permanent and immovable nature of the executed project, viz., “(3) The Contractor shall complete the Work and deliver the Permanent Work to the owner in accordance with the Contract,”, proves the case in point.
The GST paid on the receipt of ‘Works Contract’ service involving the said installations for the new factory project, do not become eligible for availment of ITC as they are blocked under clause (c) of the Section 17(5) of the CGST/TNGST Act, 2017. Notwithstanding the same, even in the event of considering the said supply as an independent ‘Construction Service, the same again stands blocked under clause (d) of the Section 17(5) of the CGST/TNGST Act, 2017.
As per the records furnished by the Applicant, the Contract is for installing the fire-fighting systems and public health equipment permanently to the building. These items once fitted, no longer remains movable goods as it gets assimilated in a permanent structure. As the supply and installation of fire-fighting systems and public health equipment as pointed out above, makes it an immovable property, it ceases to be a plant and machinery. Hence, in view of the above discussions, it is found that the Applicant is not entitled to ITC of GST paid on Fire Safety Systems & Public Health Equipment in view of the provisions of Section 17(5)(c) of CGST /TNGST Act, 2017.
Thus, once it is held that the ITC related to fire-fighting systems and public health equipment for the new factory is not available to the applicant in the instant case, the question of answering the other query, viz., “What should be the basis to arrive the timeline to avail ITC on tax invoice raised by Supplier to bill “Advance Component” of the Contract and Subsequent Adjustment of Advance in the Service Bills showing both Gross and Net amount.”, does not arise, as the same is directly related to the specific contract involved in the instant case, and is very much dependent on the main query.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether amounts recovered by the applicant from its permanent employees towards dormitory accommodation constitute a "supply" under section 7 of the CGST Act and are liable to GST.
2. Whether amounts recovered by the applicant from student trainees towards dormitory accommodation constitute a "supply" under section 7 of the CGST Act and are liable to GST.
3. Whether input tax credit (ITC) of GST charged by a third-party accommodation service provider (ASP) for accommodation provided to permanent employees is admissible to the applicant and, if so, to what extent.
4. Whether ITC of GST charged by the ASP for accommodation provided to student trainees is admissible to the applicant.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Whether recoveries from permanent employees for dormitory accommodation are "supply" under section 7
Legal framework: Section 7 defines "supply" to include all forms of supply of goods or services made for a consideration by a person in the course or furtherance of business; Schedule III excludes "services by employee to employer in the course of or in relation to his employment" from supply; Circular No. 172/04/2022-GST clarifies that perquisites provided by the employer to its employees in terms of the employment contract will not be subjected to GST.
Precedent treatment: The applicant relied on multiple advance rulings of various authorities interpreting employer-provided facilities as perquisites not subject to GST. The Authority considered the circular as authoritative guidance. The Respondent (Assistant Commissioner) submitted otherwise but did not produce controlling precedent overturning the circular.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined whether (a) there is a contractual/per contractual provision treating accommodation as a perquisite under employment contracts; (b) the recipients are on payroll (permanent employees); and (c) the recovery is nominal and intended to recover cost rather than represent consideration for a supply in the course or furtherance of business. Applying Circular No. 172/04/2022-GST, the Authority found that accommodation furnished under company policy as a perquisite arising from employment does not constitute supply. The Authority noted that Schedule III and the circular together indicate that perquisites provided in terms of employment contract are not subject to GST. The Authority limited this conclusion to permanent employees (i.e., those on payroll) and factual matrix where accommodation is optional and recoveries are nominal/cost-recovery.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - amounts recovered from permanent employees in respect of employer-provided accommodation given as a perquisite under employment contract do not constitute "supply" under section 7 and are not liable to GST. Obiter - observations regarding absence of profit margin, facilitation role of the employer, and lack of quid pro quo are factual supports but not separately framed as general law beyond the facts.
Conclusion: GST is not liable to be discharged on the portion of amounts recovered from permanent employees towards dormitory accommodation (subject to the factual findings regarding employment relationship and nature of recovery).
Issue 2: Whether recoveries from student trainees for dormitory accommodation are "supply" under section 7
Legal framework: Same statutory definition of "supply" (section 7) and Circular No. 172/04/2022-GST which distinguishes perquisites provided to employees in terms of an employment contract.
Precedent treatment: Applicant conceded that student trainees are not employees on payroll and thus not covered by the circular's protection; this position aligns with prior rulings treated by the Authority distinguishing trainees/contractual personnel from employees for GST/perquisite purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Authority accepted the applicant's concession and applied the statutory test: student trainees are not employees for the purpose of Schedule III/Circular No.172; the accommodation provided to them is for consideration and in the course or furtherance of business and therefore constitutes supply under section 7. The Authority therefore found recoveries from student trainees to be taxable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - amounts recovered from student trainees (not on payroll and not employees) for accommodation constitute "supply" under section 7 and are liable to GST. Obiter - none material beyond the factual concession.
Conclusion: GST is liable to be discharged on the portion of amounts recovered from student trainees towards dormitory accommodation.
Issue 3: Admissibility and extent of ITC for accommodation provided to permanent employees
Legal framework: Section 16(1) entitles ITC where inputs/services are used in the course or furtherance of business; Section 17(5) lists blocked credits, including certain specified services (17(5)(b)) and goods/services used for personal consumption (17(5)(g)). The proviso to 17(5)(b) allows ITC where the inward supply is used to make an outward taxable supply of the same category or is obligatory under law.
Precedent treatment: The Authority relied on prior Gujarat Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling decisions (e.g., Tata Motors Ltd) and several GAAR rulings recognizing ITC on employer-provided facilities (transportation, canteen) where used in furtherance of business. The Assistant Commissioner contended that ITC is blocked under 17(5)(b)(i) as akin to personal consumption unless obligatory by law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Authority held that accommodation services provided to employees do not fall squarely within the specific exclusions of 17(5)(b)(i) (which lists food and beverages, outdoor catering, beauty treatment, health services, cosmetic surgery, leasing/renting/hiring of motor vehicles etc.) and are not per se goods/services used for personal consumption under 17(5)(g) where the ultimate benefit accrues to the employer. The Authority distinguished personal consumption (immediate and ultimate personal benefit) from employer-provided facilities where ultimate corporate benefit exists (e.g., facilitating employment services). Consequently, ITC is available under section 16(1). However, where employees pay a portion of the cost (through recoveries), the portion of ITC corresponding to the cost borne by employees cannot be claimed by the applicant; ITC is restricted to the extent of cost borne by the applicant, disallowing proportionate credit attributable to amounts recovered from employees.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - ITC is admissible for GST charged by the ASP for accommodation provided to permanent employees, subject to restriction pro rata to the cost borne by the applicant (i.e., excluding proportionate credit attributable to recoveries from employees). Obiter - discussion distinguishing "personal consumption" versus corporate benefit and critique of the Assistant Commissioner's reliance on 17(5)(b)(i) in facts where that clause does not specifically list accommodation.
Conclusion: Applicant is eligible to avail ITC of GST charged by the ASP for accommodation provided to permanent employees, but ITC must be restricted to the portion of cost borne by the applicant, disallowing credit proportionate to amounts recovered from employees.
Issue 4: Admissibility of ITC for accommodation provided to student trainees
Legal framework: Sections 16(1) and 17(5) as above; additional principle that ITC is available where inward supplies are used for making outward taxable supplies.
Precedent treatment: Applicant and Authority relied on rulings where ITC was allowed where inward services supported an outward taxable supply; Authority considered prior GAAR decisions permitting ITC for similar employee-related services where used in furtherance of business or for making outward taxable supplies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Authority first held that accommodation provided to student trainees constitutes a taxable outward supply (Issue 2). Where the applicant procures accommodation services from ASP and uses them to make an outward taxable supply (i.e., providing accommodation to trainees for consideration), the proviso in section 17(5)(b)(i) and the core principle of section 16(1) permit ITC. The Authority therefore allowed ITC for the accommodation provided to student trainees, noting that the applicant bears the entire cost and GST is discharged on recoveries from trainees.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - ITC is admissible for GST charged by the ASP for accommodation supplied to student trainees because the inward supply is used to make an outward taxable supply. Obiter - none material beyond application of statutory proviso.
Conclusion: Applicant is eligible to avail ITC of GST charged by the ASP for accommodation provided to student trainees.
Cross-references and clarifications
1. The non-taxability conclusion for permanent employees is fact-sensitive: it hinges on existence of employment relationship (payroll status), provision as a perquisite under the employment contract/policy, nominal/cost-recovery nature of recoveries, and absence of profit motive. Employers with different facts must evaluate applicability.
2. The ITC conclusions distinguish between (a) accommodation provided as a non-taxable perquisite to employees (ITC allowed but restricted to employer's borne cost) and (b) accommodation provided as an outward taxable supply to trainees (ITC allowed unambiguously as supporting an outward taxable supply).
3. The Authority relied on Circular No. 172/04/2022-GST and prior advance rulings as guiding precedents; contrary administrative submissions invoking blocking under section 17(5)(b)(i) were rejected on textual and purposive grounds.
Levy of GST - amount recovered by the Applicant from its employees towards the accommodation facility provided - amount recovered by the Applicant from student trainees towards the accommodation facility provided - eligibility to avail input tax credit of the GST charged by the third-party service provider for the accommodation facility provided to its employees - eligibility to avail input tax credit of the GST charged by the third-party service provider for the accommodation facility provided to student trainees.
Whether the amount recovered by the applicant from the employees who are availing accommodation facilities would be considered as a ‘supply’ under the provisions of section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017? - HELD THAT:- In terms of Section 7 ibid, supply means all forms of ‘supply’ of goods/services or both such as sale, transfer, barter, exchange, licence, rental, lease or disposal made or agreed to be made for a consideration by a person in the course or furtherance of business. The exception being Schedule I, which includes the activities made or agreed to be made without a consideration and Schedule III, which includes activities which shall be treated neither as a supply of goods or services.
Now in terms of circular No. 172/04/2022-GST dated 6.7.2022, it is clarified that perquisites provided by the ‘employer’ to the ‘employee’ in terms of contractual agreement entered into between the employer and the employee, will not be subjected to GST when the same is provided in terms of a contract between the employer and employee. It is found that factually there is no dispute that the dormitories accommodation facility is provided by the applicant as part of the company policy. In view of the foregoing, the nominal deduction, made by the applicant from the employees who are availing accommodation facility would not be considered as a ‘supply’ under the provisions of section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017. However, the aforementioned finding is only in respect of permanent employees.
Whether GST is liable to be discharged on the amount recovered by the applicant from student trainees towards the accommodation facility provided to them? - HELD THAT:- As far as this question is concerned, even the applicant agrees that the accommodation facility provided to student trainees will be considered as supply as these student trainees are not on the payroll of the applicant and since they are not employees, the facility so provided cannot be termed as a perquisite.
Whether ITC of GST charged by the ASP for the accommodation facility provided to its employees and student trainees can be availed by the applicant? - HELD THAT:- The ITC in respect of the accommodation facility provided by the applicant is not blocked under section 17(5), ibid. We find that the Assistant Commissioner, Sales Tax, Unit 11, Ahmedabad, vide his letter has submitted that the ITC is blocked in terms of section 17(5)(b)(i), except when it is provided under statutory obligations - it is not agreed with this since [a] the services do not find a specific mention under section 17(5)(b)(i) and [b] the accommodation services provided to employees, cannot be termed as services used for personal consumption. The personal consumption means that goods or services used for non business purposes like personal use or consumption by partners, directors, proprietors, etc., would not be eligible for ITC. Further, section 17(5)(g), ibid, blocks the ITC when the ‘immediate and ultimate’ use or consumption of any item is for personal benefit of the person (employee or director or any person who can consume on behalf). If the immediate benefit is for the said person but the ultimate benefit is for the supplier company, the credit would not be restricted - ITC will be available to the applicant in respect of accommodation facility provided to its employees. Having said so, it is further held that the ITC on GST charged by the ASP will be restricted to the extent of cost borne by the appellant only.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the refusal by the Central Processing Centre (CPC) to allow exemption claimed under section 12A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 in the return processed under section 143(1), and the dismissal of a rectification application under section 154, was permissible where the return purportedly claimed exemption but the CPC recorded no such claim.
2. Whether an assessee claiming exemption under section 12A is required to furnish Form 10BB (audit report prescribed for section 10(23C)) when it has furnished Form 10B (audit report prescribed for section 12A/section 11) within the statutory time, and whether failure to file Form 10BB precludes allowance of exemption under section 12A where section 10(23C) was not claimed.
3. Whether the matters above can be remanded to the Assessing Officer (AO) for factual verification of registration under section 12A and satisfaction of statutory conditions (including filing of audit report and other prescribed formalities), and the proper scope of relief on such remand.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legality of CPC refusal and competence of section 154 rectification
Legal framework: Section 143(1) permits processing of returns and computing tax as per information available; section 154 permits rectification of mistakes apparent from record. Exemption under section 12A is available to eligible charitable/educational entities if statutory conditions (including registration) are met and appropriately claimed.
Precedent treatment: No judicial precedents were cited or relied upon by the Tribunal in the text; the decision proceeds on statutory construction and record review.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the CPC order refusing exemption and the reasons recorded (absence of claim in the processed return). The Tribunal noted the assessee's assertion that exemption under section 12A had been claimed in the return and that audit report/Form 10B had been filed. Given this factual divergence between the CPC record and the assessee's claim, the Tribunal found that the dispute raised a triable factual issue (existence of valid registration and compliance with conditions) not amenable to summary finalization at CPC or by way of denial under section 154 when adequacy of record and compliance were in question.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where CPC processing fails to reflect a claimed exemption and there is a disputed factual claim of entitlement supported by statutory filings (e.g., Form 10B), the appropriate course is factual verification by the AO rather than denial by way of summary rectification refusal under section 154. Obiter - observations on the precise boundaries of "mistake apparent on record" were made in context but not exhaustively defined beyond the facts.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the CPC/rectification outcome on this point and remanded to the AO to verify existence of valid registration under section 12A and fulfillment of prescribed conditions; if satisfied, exemption to be allowed.
Issue 2 - Requirement of Form 10BB versus Form 10B when claiming section 12A exemption (and relation to section 10(23C))
Legal framework: Section 12A/section 11 reliefs have prescribed documentary requirements, including audit report in Form 10B where applicable. Exemptions under section 10(23C) require compliance with separate prescribed conditions and, where applicable, audit report in Form 10BB. The statutory scheme differentiates between section 12A/11 regime and section 10(23C) regime.
Precedent treatment: None cited in the impugned order; Tribunal relied on statutory differentiation and on the record showing Form 10B filing.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the CPC and the CIT(A) treated the absence of Form 10BB as a disqualifying factor for exemption generally. The Tribunal held that where the assessee has not claimed exemption under section 10(23C) but has claimed exemption under section 12A and has filed the audit report prescribed under that regime (Form 10B) within the statutory timeline, the absence of Form 10BB is not a ground to deny section 12A exemption. The Tribunal emphasized that the two audit- report requirements pertain to different statutory provisions and cannot be conflated; the requirement to file Form 10BB arises only if exemption under section 10(23C) is claimed or otherwise attracted by statute.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of Form 10BB cannot be used to deny exemption under section 12A where section 10(23C) was not claimed and Form 10B (the audit report relevant to section 12A/11 claims) was filed within the statutory time. Obiter - the Tribunal's remark that lower authorities "have not considered this aspect" serves as guidance that administrative processing must differentiate statutory regimes.
Conclusion: The Tribunal remanded for factual verification of section 12A registration and compliance; it held that if registration and conditions are satisfied and Form 10B was timely filed, exemption under section 12A should be allowed despite no filing of Form 10BB when section 10(23C) was not claimed.
Issue 3 - Scope and effect of remand to Assessing Officer for verification of registration and statutory conditions
Legal framework: AO is vested with fact-finding and verification functions; appellate/tribunal bodies may remit matters to AO where factual verification is necessary to determine entitlement to statutory relief.
Precedent treatment: No authorities were cited; the Tribunal applied general appellate principles permitting remand when material facts require secondary verification.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given conflicting records (CPC processing indicating no claim vs. assessee's records showing claim and filing of Form 10B), the Tribunal concluded that the AO is best placed to verify: (a) existence and validity of registration under section 12A; (b) whether all prescribed conditions (including timely filing of audit report Form 10B and any other documentary requirements) are satisfied; and (c) whether the relief claimed was indeed under section 12A and not section 10(23C). The Tribunal directed the AO to examine these aspects and to allow exemption under section 12A if all conditions are met.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - remand for factual verification is appropriate where entitlement to exemption depends on documentary proof (registration and audit report) and where processing records are inconsistent. Obiter - the Tribunal's classification of the resultant allowance as "for statistical purposes" signals that the Tribunal did not finally adjudicate amounts but directed fact-sensitive relief; this phrasing is administrative and not a substantive adjudication of quantum.
Conclusion: The Tribunal remitted the matters to the AO with clear directions to verify registration and statutory compliance and to allow exemption under section 12A if conditions are satisfied; the appeals were allowed for statistical purposes accordingly.
Overall Disposition and Legal Findings
The Tribunal concluded that the CPC's summary processing and section 154 dismissal were not dispositive in light of the assessee's documentary assertions; the absence of Form 10BB cannot defeat a properly claimed section 12A exemption where Form 10B was timely filed and section 10(23C) was not claimed; factual verification by the AO is required and appropriate; accordingly, the matters were remitted and the appeals allowed for statistical purposes.
Denial of exemption claimed u/s 12A - application u/s 154 denied - claim denied by the CPC for the reasons that there was no such claim in the return of income filed - HELD THAT:- Though assessee claimed that it was eligible and claimed exemption u/s 12A in the return of income filed. In view of these facts, we set aside this issue to the file of AO with the direction to verify whether the assessee is having valid registration u/s 12A of the Act. If the assessee is eligible for exemption u/s 12A of the Act and if all the conditions prescribed therein i.e. filing of Audit Report etc. were fulfilled, in our considered opinion, it is entitled for exemption u/s 12A of the Act. Thus, AO is directed to verify all these facts and allow the exemption u/s 12A if all the conditions are satisfied coupled with the fact that assessee must have valid registration u/s 12A.
Denial of exemption u/s 10(23C) as the assessee has not filed the Audit Report in Form No.10BB as prescribed under the Act for claiming exemption u/s 10(23C) - It was the claim of the assessee that it had claimed exemption u/s 12A of the Act for which the Audit Report as prescribed under the Act under Form 10B was filed well within the statutory time which fact had not been disputed therefore, it is entitled for exemption u/s 12A of the Act. It is further stated that once the exemption was not claimed u/s 10(23C) of the Act, there is no requirement to file the Audit Report in Form 10BB. We find that this aspect has not been considered by the lower authorities. This being so, we set aside the orders of the lower authorities and remand the matter to the file of AO for verification of the fact whether assessee has valid registration certificate to claim exemption u/s 12A.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalty under section 271(1)(c) can be imposed in respect of amounts surrendered in a return filed under section 153A when the revised/153A return has been accepted by the Assessing Officer.
2. Whether a first-instance appellate authority (CIT(A)) can initiate and impose penalty under section 271(1)(c) where the Assessing Officer had initiated/actually proceeded under a different penal provision (section 271AAB) in respect of the same surrendered amount.
3. Whether a penalty under section 271(1)(c) is valid where the authority imposing it has not recorded the mandatory 'satisfaction' required by law and where the show-cause/penalty notice does not specify the particular limb of section 271(1)(c) (i.e., concealment of income vs. furnishing inaccurate particulars).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Imposability of section 271(1)(c) penalty on surrendered amount declared in a return filed under section 153A
Legal framework: Section 153A provides for assessment when search or seizure has taken place and permits filing of a return/revised return for the relevant assessment year. Section 271(1)(c) penalizes concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars. The concept of 'concealment' must be ascertained with reference to the operative return before the authority.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows the binding view of the higher court that where a revised return filed under section 153A is accepted by the Assessing Officer, the original return abates and becomes non-est, so 'concealment' must be assessed with reference to the revised return; mere showing of higher income in the revised return does not automatically attract section 271(1)(c).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasons that if the Assessing Officer accepts the return filed under section 153A, the factual and legal basis for alleging concealment vis-à-vis the original return disappears; the accepted revised return is the operative return. Thus, amounts declared/surrendered in the accepted 153A return cannot form the foundation for imposing section 271(1)(c) absent additional material showing concealment relative to that operative return.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalty under section 271(1)(c) cannot be imposed solely because a revised/153A return shows higher income and has been accepted; concealment must be judged against the accepted return. Obiter - elaborations on factual permutations where Explanation 5 or other tests apply.
Conclusion: The penalty under section 271(1)(c) cannot be sustained against the surrendered amounts declared in an accepted section 153A return; such imposition is contrary to the controlling legal principle.
Issue 2 - Competence of appellate authority to initiate and impose a different penalty when AO initiated proceedings under a specific penal provision
Legal framework: Penal jurisdiction is tied to initiation of proceedings under proper statutory provision and the authority competent to initiate or impose a particular penalty. Principles of jurisdictional competence require that a penalty be both initiated and imposed under the same statutory limb unless law permits otherwise.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows established authority holding that an appellate authority cannot assume or reframe the penal jurisdiction in respect of a specific amount where the Assessing Officer had initiated proceedings only under a different penal provision for that amount.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observes that the Assessing Officer initiated penalty proceedings under section 271AAB in respect of the surrendered sum; the CIT(A) deleted that penalty but then purported to initiate and impose penalty under section 271(1)(c) for the same sum. The Tribunal holds this to be impermissible because the CIT(A) lacked the power to initiate a distinct penal proceeding in place of the AO's chosen penal provision; the initiation notice under section 271(1)(c) issued by the CIT(A) was not in accordance with law and is therefore quashed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an appellate authority cannot assume jurisdiction to initiate a different penal proceeding (271(1)(c)) in respect of amounts where the AO had initiated proceedings under another penal provision (271AAB); initiation by the competent authority is a precondition for valid levy. Obiter - commentary on procedural fairness of re-initiating penalties at appellate stage.
Conclusion: Penalty proceedings initiated and imposed by the appellate authority under section 271(1)(c) in respect of amounts for which the AO had initiated section 271AAB proceedings are ultra vires and are to be quashed.
Issue 3 - Requirement of recording mandatory 'satisfaction' and specification of the limb in the show-cause/penalty notice under section 271(1)(c)
Legal framework: Section 271(1)(c) requires the authority imposing penalty to form and record satisfaction that concealment or furnishing inaccurate particulars has occurred; procedural fairness demands that the notice specify the basis and the particular limb relied upon so that the assessee can adequately meet the case.
Precedent treatment: The Court relies on authorities establishing that failure to specify the corresponding limb in the show-cause notice or to record the requisite satisfaction vitiates penalty proceedings; such omissions are not curable by later statements and go to the root of the validity of penalty proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examines the appellant's contention that the CIT(A) did not record the mandatory satisfaction and did not clearly state the charge (concealment versus furnishing inaccurate particulars) in the penalty proceedings. While the CIT(A) purported to record satisfaction in the appellate order, the Tribunal notes precedents holding that where the Assessing Officer's initial notice does not specify the limb and the AO did not form the satisfaction, the entire penalty proceeding is vitiated. The Tribunal also cites authority that absence of specification/satisfaction in the notice undermines the validity of the imposition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - omission by the initiating authority to specify the relevant limb of section 271(1)(c) and to record the mandatory satisfaction vitiates the penalty proceedings. Obiter - observations on remedial possibilities and the effect of later articulation of satisfaction by appellate authority where initial notice was deficient.
Conclusion: The penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(c) are invalid where the initiating authority failed to specify the particular limb in the penalty notice and did not record the mandated satisfaction; such procedural deficiencies require quashing of the penalty.
Cross-references and Overall Conclusion
These issues are interlinked: because the surrendered amounts were declared in an accepted section 153A return, penal liability under section 271(1)(c) could not be predicated solely on those declarations (Issue 1), and because the Assessing Officer had initiated proceedings under section 271AAB (Issue 2), the CIT(A)'s initiation/imposition of section 271(1)(c) was beyond jurisdiction. Additionally, the lack of a clear specification of the limb and recorded satisfaction in the initiating notice (Issue 3) further vitiates the penalty proceedings. The Court, applying binding precedent and these legal principles, sets aside and deletes the impugned penalty.
Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) OR 271AAB - amount as surrendered by the assessee in his return of income filed u/s. 153A -CIT(A) has deleted the penalty u/s. 271AAB and initiated penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) - HELD THAT:- Jurisdiction u/s. 271(1)(c) assumed by the CIT(A) is not in accordance with law and notice u/s. 271(1)(c) so issued by CIT(A) is also not in accordance with law, hence, the same quashed. To support our aforesaid view, we draw our support from the decision of Neeraj Jindal [2017 (2) TMI 1002 - DELHI HIGH COURT]
Contention of the assessee that CIT(A) has erred in law and on facts in imposing the penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) and passing the impugned penalty order and that too without recording the mandatory ‘satisfaction’ - We quote PCIT vs. Sahara India Life Insurance Co. Ltd. [2019 (8) TMI 409 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and PCIT vs. Gopal Kumar Goyal [2023 (7) TMI 690 - DELHI HIGH COURT] to conclude that once the AO has not specified the corresponding limb in his section 271(1)(c) penalty show cause notice forming part of the case records, his failure to this clinching effect indeed vitiates the penalty proceedings itself. We order accordingly.
Issues: Whether interest paid to a foreign bank without deduction of tax at source was liable to disallowance under section 40(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The assessee paid interest to a foreign bank and did not deduct tax at source or furnish the required undertaking. The earlier decision in the assessee's own case for an earlier assessment year had already held, after considering Article 11(1) and Article 11(2) of the India-Switzerland tax treaty, that the interest was taxable in India and that tax was deductible under section 195 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the absence of any contrary material, the earlier view was followed. Since tax was not deducted at source on the interest payment, the expenditure attracted disallowance under section 40(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Conclusion: The assessee was liable to deduct tax at source on the interest payment and the disallowance under section 40(a)(i) was in law; the issue was decided against the assessee.
TDS u/s 195 - assessee in his individual capacity and paid interest to RBS Coutts Bank Ltd., Singapore, which is having its Head Office in Switzerland, without deducting TDS - HELD THAT:- The expression "any person" referred to in section 195 should mean any person who is a resident in India. Section 195 applies only if payments are made by a resident to another non- resident and not between two non-residents. Section 195 of the Act does not apply to the present transaction because it was between two non-resident entities.
Admittedly, the assessee neither deducted TDS from interest payment made to foreign bank nor filed undertaking with the remitting bank. In view of the provisions of section 9(1)(v)(c) of the Act, the Assessing Officer disallowed the entire interest expenditure under section 40(a)(i) of the Act for violation of non-deduction of tax under section 195 of the Act. We note that the ITAT in assessee’s own case for AY 2008-09, wherein, the Tribunal has taken due cognizance of Article 11(1) and 11(2) of the DTAA between India and Switzerland and taking cognizance of Article 11(2), held that the rate of tax could not exceed 10% and the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source on the payment of interest under section 195 of the Act. Considering the order of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for AY 2008-09, the ld. CIT(A) observed that non-deduction of tax at source under section 195 of the Act, the provisions of section 40(a)(i) of the Act clearly attracts and confirmed the disallowance made by the Assessing Officer. In the absence of any contrary view, having no option except to follow the ITAT order in assessee’s own case, the submissions of the ld. AR are not acceptable, therefore, we are of the opinion that the ld. CIT(A) is justified in holding that the assessee is liable to deduct tax on interest payment made to RBS Coutts Bank Ltd., Singapore. Thus, the grounds raised by the assessee are dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the appellate authority was justified in deleting additions made under Section 69C of the Income Tax Act for alleged unexplained purchases where the creditworthiness, identity and genuineness of suppliers were not established.
2. Whether the appellate authority was justified in deleting additions treated as income arising from purchases from parties found untraceable or non-genuine where evidential defects existed.
3. Whether reconciliation of Input Tax Credit (ITC) under the GST regime and related GST returns of the suppliers is a material aspect that must be examined to determine the genuineness of purchases and whether the matter should be restored to the Assessing Officer for such examination and further enquiry (including suppliers' bank accounts and correlating proceedings against suppliers).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Deletion of addition under Section 69C for purchases from suppliers whose business activity/turnover was not commensurate with purchases
Legal framework: Section 69C permits treating certain unexplained credits/expenditure as income where the assessee fails to explain the source; Assessing Officer may make additions where identity, creditworthiness or genuineness of transactions are not established. Administrative/verificatory steps (e.g., notices under Section 133(6), physical verification by Designated Verification Units) are relevant evidentiary sources.
Precedent treatment: No judicial precedents were cited in the judgment; therefore, precedent treatment is not applied in the Court's reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the Assessing Officer relied on adverse findings from DVU physical enquiries - suppliers engaged in unrelated low-scale occupations and having turnovers not commensurate with amounts shown by the assessee - to make large additions under Section 69C. The appellate authority (CIT(A)) confined its review to bills, invoices, ledger confirmations and bank statements and did not address the adverse evidences collected by DVU regarding identity/creditworthiness. The Tribunal emphasized that the adverse findings are material and required consideration; deletion of additions without dealing with those adverse findings was insufficient.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the AO records adverse material on identity/creditworthiness derived from independent physical verification, the appellate authority cannot properly delete additions under Section 69C solely on the basis of invoices, ledger confirmations and bank entries without addressing and reconciling such adverse evidence. Obiter - none beyond observations about evidentiary sufficiency.
Conclusion: Deletion by the appellate authority was not sustainable without addressing adverse DVU findings; matter restored to Assessing Officer for further enquiry and reasoned decision on genuineness, including examination of additional material as directed.
Issue 2 - Deletion of addition on account of purchases from parties found untraceable / treated as non-genuine
Legal framework: Where suppliers are not traceable or where there are serious doubts about the identity/existence of suppliers, Assessing Officer may treat purchases as non-genuine and make additions; corroborative evidence (delivery proofs, commercial substance, third-party confirmations, GST returns/ITC) bears on genuineness.
Precedent treatment: No precedents were relied upon in the order; therefore, none followed/distinguished/overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that three suppliers were found untraceable by DVU and that the AO treated 10% of purchases from them as additional profit while two other suppliers were found to have occupations inconsistent with the volume of purchases. The CIT(A) deleted additions relying on invoices, ledgers and bank payments but failed to address (a) non-traceability findings, (b) absence of evidence of actual delivery/commercial substance, and (c) whether GST Input Tax Credit in respect of these purchases was claimed or accepted. The Tribunal held these are material lacunae that could not be ignored.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where suppliers are found untraceable or independent enquiries raise serious doubts about the commercial substance of transactions, appellate relief cannot be granted without thorough examination of delivery evidence, corroborative commercial records and GST/ITC implications. Obiter - the adequacy of ledger confirmations and bank payments as sole proof of genuineness is questioned.
Conclusion: Deletion of additions in respect of purchases from untraceable/non-genuine parties was set aside; the matter remitted to Assessing Officer to examine GST/ITC status, suppliers' bank accounts, and related proceedings to determine genuineness and correct tax treatment, with opportunity to the assessee to be heard.
Issue 3 - Necessity and materiality of reconciling Input Tax Credit (ITC) and GST returns in assessing genuineness of purchases
Legal framework: GST regime records (GST returns, ITC claims/acceptance) are material evidence in income-tax scrutiny for purchases; reconciliation between ITC claimed and underlying commercial transactions demonstrates whether supply was genuine and whether the tax incidence was borne/accepted under GST.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedents were invoked; the Tribunal treated GST/ITC reconciliation as a necessary element of inquiry based on statutory and commercial rationale.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted an unexplored GST component (3% on aggregate purchases) and that neither AO nor CIT(A) examined whether ITC was claimed, accepted or rejected by GST authorities. The Tribunal reasoned that GST/ITC treatment has direct bearing on commercial reality and economic burden - e.g., if purchases were fictitious, ITC loss or mismatch should arise and be traceable. Consequently, verification of GST returns/ITC and coordination with GST authorities and supplier proceedings is a material and necessary step before concluding on genuineness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - reconciliation of GST returns and ITC claims is a material aspect in determining genuineness of purchases and must be examined where there is doubt; remand is appropriate to procure and examine GST records and correlate them with income-tax enquiries. Obiter - steps such as calling suppliers' bank accounts and correlating with suppliers' assessments are recommended investigative measures.
Conclusion: The Tribunal directed restoration to the Assessing Officer to obtain and reconcile GST/ITC information from GST authorities (if required), examine suppliers' bank accounts and any proceedings against suppliers, provide the assessee a reasonable opportunity to be heard, and thereafter pass a speaking, reasoned order determining genuineness and tax consequences.
Cross-references and Procedural Directions
The Tribunal emphasized that the Assessing Officer should: (a) obtain GST return/ITC status and, if necessary, seek information from GST authorities; (b) correlate findings with any assessments/proceedings against the five suppliers; (c) call and examine suppliers' bank accounts to trace ultimate destination of funds; (d) afford the assessee a reasonable opportunity of being heard and permit submission of evidence/clarifications; and (e) pass a speaking and reasoned order thereafter. These directions form the operative relief and constitute the binding procedural mandate on remand.
Addition u/s 69C - unexplained purchases -creditworthiness and genuineness of the two suppliers was not established - status of input text credit (ITC) claimed under the GST regime in respect of purchases made from these five parties
HELD THAT:- Disallowance was made by the AO considering the non-availability of the parties, serious concern regarding the identity of the supplier, credibility of the supporting documents and in the absence of evidence establishing the actual delivery of the goods and also the commercial substance of the transactions.
In the course of hearing, we enquired from the AR about the status of input text credit (ITC) claimed under the GST regime in respect of purchases made from these five parties.
AR was unable to elucidate about the input credit in respect of these transactions under the GST regime. Neither the status of GST return of these five suppliers was clarified, so as to treat the transactions made with them as genuine.
On the purchases from these five parties, GST component @ 3% was involved. It remains unexamined whether this GST credit was claimed and, if so, whether it was accepted or rejected by the GST Authorities. This is a material aspect which has a direct bearing on the genuineness of the underlying transactions. This aspect was neither examined by the Assessing Officer nor by the Ld. CIT(A). From the stand point of commercial rationality, it was required to be examined as to how the assessee had reconciled or sustained the economic burden of ITC loss, if the transaction to the extent of Rs. 25,17,23,938/- was fictitious.
We deem it fit and proper to restore the matter to the file of Assessing Officer with a direction to reconcile the ITC claimed under the GST law in respect of bogus purchase from the five parties which were held as non-genuine in the course of original assessment. For this purpose, the AO may obtain the information from the GST authorities about their GST returns and the status of ITC claims, if so required. Appeal of the Revenue is allowed for statistical purpose
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the First Appellate Authority erred in dismissing the appeal on the ground of delay without adjudicating the penalty matter on merits.
2. Whether the Supreme Court's suo moto exclusion of the period 15/03/2020 to 28/02/2022 for limitation purposes (COVID extension) exempts an assessee from complying with notices issued under Section 142(1) of the Income Tax Act during that period.
3. Whether the assessment completed under Section 147 read with Section 144 is invalid or without jurisdiction on account of approval under Section 151 being granted by PCIT instead of JCIT (challenge to jurisdiction/approval).
4. Whether penalty under Section 271(1)(b) (failure to comply with notices under Section 142(1)) can be imposed as a single penalty for multiple defaults, or whether separate penalty proceedings/notice are required for each failure; and the appropriate quantum of penalty.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Dismissal for delay vs. adjudication on merits
Legal framework: Appellate authorities have jurisdiction to decide appeals on merits unless a valid procedural bar (e.g., limitation) applies; principles of natural justice require adjudication where procedural defects do not preclude jurisdiction.
Precedent Treatment: No external precedents cited in the judgment; the Court applies administrative-law principles regarding duty to adjudicate where possible.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the First Appellate Authority dismissed the appeal for delay but the impugned appellate decision did not preclude consideration of merits where delay was the only ground. The Tribunal noted the assessee's contention but found no substantive legal bar preventing merit adjudication in the record before it.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - appellate authority should not decline to decide substantive merits solely on procedural delay where the record permits consideration; where dismissal for delay is effected, consequences must be within law. Obiter - procedural discretion of appellate authorities when delay is pleaded.
Conclusions: The Tribunal found that the First Appellate Authority erred in failing to consider the merits to the extent relevant to penalty quantum, and proceeded to examine the penalty issue itself.
Issue 2 - Effect of Supreme Court COVID period exclusion on compliance with Section 142(1) notices
Legal framework: The Supreme Court's suo moto order excluded a specific period for purposes of limitation for filing of appeals; statutory notices under Section 142(1) and compliance obligations are governed by the Act and are distinct from limitation for filing appeals.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal treats the Supreme Court's extension as limited to limitation for filing appeals and not as a blanket suspension of statutory notice compliance obligations; the Court's approach distinguishes the extension's scope from procedural duties under the Act.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized that the Court's order related specifically to limitation for filing appeals and did not stipulate that assessees were excused from complying with notices issued by the Assessing Officer. The assessee's reliance on the COVID extension therefore did not constitute a legally acceptable excuse for non-compliance with Section 142(1) notices or for non-participation in penalty proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a time-extension order for limitation of appeals does not automatically suspend an assessee's obligation to comply with statutory notices under Section 142(1); such extension cannot be read as immunizing non-compliance in assessment or penalty proceedings. Obiter - factual observations about practical difficulties during pandemic not amounting to legal excuse.
Conclusions: The Tribunal rejected the contention that the COVID-era limitation exclusion justified non-compliance with Section 142(1) notices or penalty proceedings; absence of compliance and lack of explanation weighed against the assessee.
Issue 3 - Validity of assessment where approval under Section 151 granted by PCIT instead of JCIT
Legal framework: Assessments under Section 147 r.w.s.144 require statutory approvals as prescribed (Section 151 and related provisions govern sanction/approval for reopening). Legitimacy of assessment can be challenged if mandatory approval is vested in a specific authority and an incorrect authority purportedly grants it.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal noted the ground raised but did not elaborate on authority-specific jurisprudence; the issue was not pursued to a positive finding in the present order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee pleaded that approval was granted by an incorrect officer (PCIT instead of JCIT), challenging jurisdiction. The Tribunal's order does not record a finding annuling the assessment on that basis; instead, the Tribunal focused on penalty proceedings and non-compliance issues, implicitly treating the jurisdictional challenge as not determinative for the penalty matter before it.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - the Tribunal did not decide the jurisdictional/approval point on merits in this order; therefore no binding ratio on correctness of approving authority is laid down here.
Conclusions: The jurisdictional challenge to the assessment approval was raised but not adjudicated to affect the penalty outcome; no conclusion for or against validity of assessment approval is recorded in the reasoning resolving the penalty appeal.
Issue 4 - Requirement of separate penalty proceedings for multiple defaults and appropriate quantum under Section 271(1)(b)
Legal framework: Section 271(1)(b) authorizes imposition of penalty for failure to comply with notices under Section 142(1); statutory scheme contemplates penalty per failure. Principles of fair procedure require separate notice/proceedings for each distinct default where statute prescribes per-default penalty.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal treats the statutory provision literally and follows settled procedural fairness principles; no external case law is cited or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the Assessing Officer imposed a single penalty of Rs. 20,000 for two defaults without initiating separate penalty proceedings for each failure. The Tribunal interpreted Section 271(1)(b) as permitting a penalty of Rs. 10,000 for each failure; to impose penalty for multiple failures, separate notices/proceedings should be initiated for each failure. Because the AO had not initiated distinct proceedings for each default, the Tribunal considered the imposition of Rs. 20,000 procedurally improper.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where Section 271(1)(b) contemplates a per-failure penalty, separate penalty proceedings/notice are required for each failure; absent such separate proceedings, aggregate imposition for multiple defaults is improper. Ratio - quantum must reflect statutory per-failure limit unless proper separate proceedings justify multiplication.
Conclusions: The Tribunal reduced the penalty from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 10,000, holding that a single valid penalty equivalent to one failure could be sustained given absence of separate proceedings for each default; the assessee's casual non-compliance was noted but procedural deficiency in AO's approach required reduction of penalty.
Cross-references and operative conclusions
1. The Tribunal upheld that lack of explanation and non-compliance with Section 142(1) notices and penalty proceedings reflected a casual approach by the assessee (see Issue 2), but procedural irregularity in initiating separate penalty proceedings for multiple defaults necessitated reduction of penalty (see Issue 4).
2. The Supreme Court's limitation exclusion for the COVID period is distinguished from obligations to comply with statutory notices; reliance on that exclusion does not excuse non-compliance with Section 142(1) notices or penalty hearing obligations.
3. The jurisdictional challenge to approval under Section 151 (PCIT v. JCIT) was raised but not decided in this order and did not affect the Tribunal's conclusion on penalty quantum; it remains an unadjudicated point in this judgment.
Penalty proceedings u/s 271(1)(b) - non-compliance to the notices u/s 142(1) - HELD THAT:- It is not the case that the assessee was unaware about the assessment proceeding or that the notices issued u/s 142(1) of the Act were not received by him. In fact, the assessee had complied to the first notice issued u/s 142(1) of the Act and had sought adjournment.
There was no compliance to the subsequent two notices and the reason for the non-compliances was also not explained.
Thereafter, AO had also issued notice in the course of penalty proceedings and the matter was fixed for hearing on 08.12.2021. Assessee neither made any compliance nor any written submission was filed, in the course of penalty proceeding. This reflects a very casual approach of the assessee.
Before the Ld. CIT(A) also, no compliance was made and the reasons for non-compliance to the notices before the AO was not explained. The assessee has referred to the general extension granted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court for the period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 due to Covid pandemic. The extension granted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court was in respect of filing of appeals. There was no stipulation in this extension that the assessee will not be required to comply to the notices issued by the Assessing Officer. We, therefore, do not find any reasonable explanation for the non-compliance made by the assessee to the notices issued u/s 142(1) of the Act in the course of assessment proceedings as well for the non-compliance in the course of penalty proceedings.
AO was not correct in imposing the penalty of Rs. 20,000/-. The provision of Section 271(1)(ii) of the Act stipulates that for the failure to comply to the notice u/s 142(1) of the Act, a penalty of Rs. 10,000/- can be imposed for each failure. However, in order to impose penalty for multiple failures, separate notice u/s 271(1)(b) of the Act was required to be initiated for each failure. We, therefore, deem it proper to reduce the quantum of penalty imposed by the AO to Rs. 10,000/- only. Accordingly, the appeal filed by the assessee is partly allowed.
Appeal of the assessee is partly allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Tribunal should condone a one-day delay in filing the appeal under section 253(3) where the delay was neither deliberate nor due to negligence.
2. Whether the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) erred in dismissing the appeal for non-prosecution without adjudicating the ground challenging the validity of proceedings under section 148.
3. Whether the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and Assessing Officer properly adjudicated the claim for deduction under section 10AA where the assessment was reopened and additions were made on account of alleged bogus purchases.
4. Whether the Assessing Officer was justified in making an addition under section 69C on the basis that purchases were from a bogus concern, in circumstances where the assessee submitted documents and partial compliance which were not considered.
5. Whether ex parte orders passed by the Assessing Officer (under section 144 read with section 147) and by the Commissioner (for non-prosecution) require setting aside and remand where material filed by the assessee (albeit incompletely) was not considered.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation of One-Day Delay
Legal framework: Statutory time limit for filing appeal under section 253(3) is strict, but the Tribunal has jurisdiction to condone delay in appropriate circumstances.
Precedent treatment: Authorities commonly allow condonation where delay is innocuous, not deliberate, and interests of justice favor admission.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the one-day delay to be neither negligent nor deliberate. Having heard both parties on the preliminary issue, the Tribunal exercised discretion to condone the delay in the interest of justice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - discretion to condone short, inadvertent delays where no prejudice shown; not an obiter remark.
Conclusion: Delay of one day condoned and appeal admitted for hearing.
Issue 2 - Failure to Adjudicate Ground Challenging Section 148 Proceedings
Legal framework: Re-opening of assessment under section 147/148 must be subjected to adjudication on merits; appellate authorities must consider grounds raised against validity of re-opening and provide a speaking order.
Precedent treatment: Administrative and judicial authorities require that appeals not be dismissed solely for non-appearance where material issues require adjudication, particularly when some material has been filed electronically.
Interpretation and reasoning: The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal for non-prosecution relying on prior case law, yet the assessee had made partial filings (e.g., return in response to notice, audit report screenshots, other documents). The Tribunal observed that CIT(A) did not consider these materials or adjudicate the section 148 challenge on merits before confirming additions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - appellate authority must consider available material and adjudicate substantive grounds (including validity of re-opening) before dismissing for non-prosecution; not mere obiter.
Conclusion: CIT(A)'s dismissal without adjudication on the section 148 ground was erroneous; matter remanded to AO for fresh adjudication after affording opportunity to be heard.
Issue 3 - Claim for Deduction under Section 10AA in Re-assessment
Legal framework: Deductions under section 10AA are allowable subject to conditions and may be disallowed if purchases or transactions shown to be bogus or accommodation entries; burden of proof lies on the assessee to establish genuineness.
Precedent treatment: Revenue relied on decisions holding disallowance justified where accounting entries found to be accommodation entries and genuineness not proved.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal did not decide the entitlement to section 10AA on merits because AO and CIT(A) passed ex parte orders without considering the partial documentary material submitted by the assessee. The Tribunal held that AO should examine the materials already filed and call for further clarification if needed rather than proceed ex parte.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter as to merits of section 10AA claim - Tribunal refrained from adjudicating substantive entitlement, directing fresh consideration instead.
Conclusion: Deduction claim under section 10AA to be adjudicated afresh by AO after considering documents and providing hearing; no final conclusion at this stage.
Issue 4 - Addition under Section 69C for Bogus Purchases
Legal framework: Section 69C permits additions where payments or investments are explained inadequately; when purchases are alleged to be from bogus concerns, revenue must establish that entries are accommodation entries and assessee failed to prove genuineness.
Precedent treatment: Revenue cited decisions upholding additions where statements under section 132(4) and other material established accommodation entries; courts have sustained additions where assessee failed to rebut evidence of benami or bogus transactions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO made addition u/s 69C via an order under section 144 r.w.s. 147 due to non-compliance. However, the Tribunal found that the assessee had furnished some documents (invoices, bank statements, audit report screenshots) which were not considered. The Tribunal emphasized that AO should verify the submitted material, seek further clarification, and only then determine whether purchases are bogus; blanket ex parte addition was inappropriate.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where partial relevant material is on record and not examined, AO cannot validly make a conclusive addition under section 69C without affording opportunity to the assessee and conducting necessary verification; not mere obiter.
Conclusion: Addition under section 69C set aside for fresh adjudication by AO after considering submitted documents and affording opportunity to explain; no final finding on genuineness.
Issue 5 - Validity of Ex Parte Orders and Requirement of Speaking Orders
Legal framework: Orders under section 144 and appellate dismissals for non-prosecution must still satisfy the requirement of a speaking order and principled consideration of available material; procedural fairness requires notice and opportunity to be heard before adverse ex parte orders where documents have been filed.
Precedent treatment: Authorities permit ex parte action for non-compliance, but courts have set aside ex parte orders where the assessee had made material filings that were ignored and no opportunity to explain was afforded.
Interpretation and reasoning: Both AO and CIT(A) passed ex parte orders without considering the partial compliance by the assessee. The Tribunal concluded that the AO should have examined the uploaded documents, called for further details if necessary, and issued a speaking order; similarly, CIT(A) should not have dismissed the appeal without considering the paper filings. In the interest of justice, the Tribunal remitted the matter for fresh adjudication and directed that sufficient opportunity of being heard be afforded. The assessee was directed to cooperate and not seek adjournments without valid reasons.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - procedural fairness mandates that authorities consider material on record and issue speaking orders; failure to do so warrants remand; not obiter.
Conclusion: Ex parte orders of AO and CIT(A) set aside; matter restored to AO for fresh adjudication with direction to consider submitted documents, call for further clarification if necessary, and pass a speaking order after affording adequate opportunity of hearing.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - deduction u/s 10AA on basis of statements recorded u/s 132(4) wherein it was established that assessee was beneficiary of accommodation entries from two concerns by obtaining bogus purchase bills and, further assessee also failed to prove genuineness of such purchases - HELD THAT:- AO has passed the order u/s 144 r.w.s.147 of the Act due to non-compliance by the assessee. CIT(A) had also observed that the appeal of assessee was liable to be dismissed due to non-prosecution.
Subsequently, he confirmed the addition on merit because the assessee did not file any written submission or evidence in support of the grounds of appeal.
Assessee has filed paper book and submitted that details in respect of seven items were submitted before the AO and CIT(A). He has filed screenshot of e-filing portal of Department in support of filing of some details during the assessment proceedings u/s 147 of the Act.
Assessee had made partial compliance of the details called for by the AO. However, even these part details were not considered by AO. AO should have verified these details and thereafter called for further details, if he needed any clarification or further evidence - CIT(A) has also passed an ex parte order without considering the facts discussed above. For statistical purposes, the appeal of the assessee is treated as allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a transfer pricing adjustment made by the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO) can be computed by applying reworked entity-level profit margins to the entire turnover/operating costs of the assessee, including transactions with non-associated enterprises (non-AEs), or must be confined to international transactions with associated enterprises (AEs) under section 92 of the Act.
2. Whether an order under section 154 (rectification of mistake apparent from record) can be used to rectify a TPO's adjustment that, it is contended, contradicts binding judicial precedent of the jurisdictional High Court.
3. Whether submission of post-proceedings computations (purported AE/non-AE segmental profitability) that were not verified during transfer pricing proceedings can constitute a "mistake apparent from record" within the scope of section 154.
4. Ancillary relief issue: Whether recovery of demand arising from an alleged excessive transfer pricing adjustment should be restrained pending disposal of the statutory appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) (CIT(A)).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Scope of transfer pricing adjustments: entity-level application versus restriction to international transactions
Legal framework: Section 92 read with related provisions requires that transfer pricing adjustments relate to international transactions between the assessee and its AEs; the adjustment process under section 92CA pertains to determining arm's length price (ALP) for such international transactions.
Precedent Treatment: The Court refers to binding decisions of the jurisdictional High Court which hold that transfer pricing adjustments must be confined to international transactions and cannot be applied to the assessee's entire turnover or costs that include non-AE transactions. These precedents were relied upon by the assessee before the TPO and in the petition.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court, prima facie, finds that the impugned TPO order reworked margins and applied the difference between reworked and original margins to the assessee's entire operating revenue/costs (entity-level) to arrive at the adjustment figure. The Court observes that this application to entire turnover/costs, inclusive of non-AE transactions, is contrary to the statutory mandate restricting transfer pricing adjustments to international transactions and inconsistent with the cited High Court jurisprudence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Court affirms the principle (as per jurisdictional precedent) that transfer pricing adjustments must be confined to international transactions and not applied to entire entity turnover/costs. Obiter - The Court's prima facie view on the exact computation mechanics underlying the TPO's reworked margins, subject to adjudication on appeal, is advisory.
Conclusions: The Court holds that the TPO's methodology of applying reworked margins to the entire operating costs/turnover is impermissible in law as it extends beyond international transactions and contradicts binding High Court authority. The matter is to be examined and urged in the statutory appeal (CIT(A)). (Cross-reference: Issues 2 & 4 concerning rectification and stay.)
Issue 2 - Availability of rectification under section 154 for orders contrary to jurisdictional High Court decisions
Legal framework: Section 154 permits rectification of "mistakes apparent from the record" and is intended for correcting clear, glaring arithmetical or clerical errors or obvious legal errors demonstrable on the face of the record; it is not a substitute for appeal or revision when the claim requires examination and verification.
Precedent Treatment: The Court notes reliance by the assessee on jurisdictional High Court judgments to contend that an order inconsistent with such precedents is a mistake apparent on the record and hence rectifiable under section 154. The TPO rejected rectification on the ground that reliance on case law and legal argument does not constitute a mistake apparent from the record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examines the scope of section 154 and recognizes the distinction between (a) a genuine mistake apparent on the face of the record (e.g., arithmetical errors, obvious clerical mistakes) and (b) a legal contention requiring adjudication, verification, and possibly factual inquiries. The TPO's rejection is premised on the proposition that the assessee's claim relied on unaudited computations and legal arguments not placed or verified during TP proceedings; such matters cannot be corrected under section 154 because they are not pure arithmetical or clerical mistakes apparent on the record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An order contrary to jurisdictional High Court authority may, in principle, constitute a challengeable error, but rectification under section 154 is not appropriate where the contention requires verification, factual inquiry, or re-examination of issues that are properly the subject of appeal. Obiter - The Court's observation that an order ignoring jurisdictional High Court authority can amount to a mistake apparent on the record is noted as persuasive but not applied to mandate rectification without the statutory appeal process.
Conclusions: The TPO correctly refused rectification on the ground that the assessee's post-proceedings computations and reliance on case law do not constitute a mistake apparent from the record amenable to correction under section 154. The proper remedy is to pursue the statutory appeal (CIT(A)), where these issues can be fully adjudicated.
Issue 3 - Effect of post-proceedings unaudited computations and requirement of verification
Legal framework: Transfer pricing proceedings require evidence and computations to be placed on record and subjected to verification during the proceedings; rectification cannot be used to admit and rely upon material not presented/verified in the original proceedings.
Precedent Treatment: The TPO relied on the absence of separate, verifiable computations in the TP proceedings showing AE and non-AE segmental profitability, thereby treating the assessee's later-provided computation as unverified and hence inadmissible for rectification.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepts the TPO's rationale that a computation submitted after completion of proceedings, which was not available for verification in the course of the TP proceedings, cannot be treated as a mere arithmetical mistake. Determination of segmental profitability involves factual scrutiny and verification, which falls outside the narrow ambit of section 154.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Post-proceedings unaudited computations that require verification are not rectifiable under section 154 as mistakes apparent on the record; they must be considered through the appellate process. Obiter - The Court's acceptance that had such computations been placed and verified during TP proceedings, the outcome might differ, but this is not determinative here.
Conclusions: The TPO's rejection of rectification on this ground is sustained; the assessee must present and seek adjudication of such computations in the appeal forum (CIT(A)). (Cross-reference: Issue 2.)
Issue 4 - Interim relief: restraint on recovery pending appeal
Legal framework: Courts possess jurisdiction to grant interim relief, including restraining recovery of disputed demands, particularly where a view contrary to jurisdictional High Court precedent is taken and a statutory appeal is pending.
Precedent Treatment: The Court notes established principle that pending appeal, recovery of disputed tax amounts based on a view inconsistent with jurisdictional High Court law is inappropriate.
Interpretation and reasoning: While recognizing that the assessee has filed the statutory appeal, the Court, finding prima facie merit in the contention that the TPO's adjustment was applied to entity-level turnover contrary to law, deems it just to protect the assessee from immediate recovery of the portion of demand attributable to the alleged excess transfer pricing adjustment until the appellate authority disposes of the appeal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Interim restraint on recovery of the portion of demand attributable to the excess transfer pricing adjustment is appropriate where there is prima facie infirmity and an appeal is pending; such restraint should be time-bound and linked to the appellate disposal process. Obiter - The Court's direction on the precise quantum subject to restraint is provisional and requires recalculation in appeal.
Conclusions: The Court grants interim relief: the Revenue shall not recover taxes and interest arising from the excess transfer pricing adjustment (specified figure indicated by petitioner) until disposal of the appeal by the CIT(A) and for four weeks thereafter; no further proceedings shall be taken on that issue until disposal of the appeal and for four weeks thereafter. The CIT(A) is requested to decide the appeal expeditiously (preferably within 12 months). (Cross-reference: Issues 1-3.)
TP Adjustment - Subcontracting charges and other aggregated transactions - adjustment is computed by applying the alleged reworked margins, (i.e., difference between 16.02% and 21.24%) to the entire revenue of the Petitioner so as to derive a reworked figure of the Petitioner’s Operating Costs, and then make adjustment of such reworked Operating Costs when compared to the actual Operating Costs of the Petitioner.
Petitioner filed an application seeking rectification of the mistake apparent from the record. In this application, it was contended that irrefutably, the transfer pricing adjustment made was on an entity level, taking into account the entire value of the transactions, including third party (non-AE) transactions. This, according to the Petitioner, was contrary to law
HELD THAT:- The adjustment made by the 1st Respondent is clearly not restricted to the international transactions alone, but is based upon and applied to the entire turnover/operating costs of the Petitioner.
This is contrary to well settled law and several judgments passed by this Court including Alstom Projects [2016 (12) TMI 1408 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and Goldstar Jewellery [2016 (3) TMI 459 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] - However, considering the fact that a statutory appeal has been filed by the Petitioner, and these contentions can be urged therein, and also the well settled principle that pending an appeal, recovery of demand by taking a view contrary to that of a jurisdictional High Court, is not appropriate, we deem it just and proper to dispose of the present petition with the following order:-
(i) The Petitioner may urge all contentions available to it in law before the CIT(A) in the Appeal so filed by it, including those raised in the present Petition.
(ii) We request the CIT(A) to dispose of the Appeal in accordance with law, as expeditiously as possible and preferably within a period of 12 months from the date of this order.
(iii) Until this Appeal is disposed of, and for a period of four weeks thereafter, the Revenue shall not recover the taxes and interest arising as a result of the excess impugned transfer pricing adjustment of Rs. 11,55,90,71,049/- or such other figure as may be correctly computed.
(iv) No further proceedings shall be taken against the Petitioner on the issue of the excess transfer pricing adjustment impugned in the present Petition until disposal of the Appeal filed by the Petitioner before the CIT(A) and for a period of 4 weeks thereafter.
(v) Insofar as the demand arising from other additions made in the final assessment order dated 28th May 2025, the Petitioner’s stay application presently pending before the jurisdictional Principal Commissioner of Income Tax-2, Mumbai be disposed of by him in accordance with law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an order under Section 148A(d) passed after the expiry of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year, and after obtaining approval from an authority specified under Section 151(i) instead of the higher authority specified under Section 151(ii), is valid and vitiates the jurisdiction to issue a subsequent notice under Section 148.
2. Whether the prior-approval requirements under the substituted reassessment regime (Finance Act, 2021) - specifically the need for sanction under Section 151 at stages under Sections 148A(d) and 148 - remain mandatory notwithstanding the Court's earlier directions treating pre-existing Section 148 notices as Section 148A(b) show-cause notices in consequence of Ashish Agarwal.
3. Whether the temporal extension under the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA) affects which specified authority under Section 151 may validly grant sanction when the three-year period falls within the TOLA window.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of Section 148A(d) order and consequent Section 148 notice where approval was obtained from authority under Section 151(i) though Section 151(ii) was applicable
Legal framework: The substituted reassessment regime (Finance Act, 2021) prescribes that sanction of the specified authority under Section 151 is a precondition for assuming jurisdiction to issue reassessment notices under Section 148. Section 151(i) applies where three years or less have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year; Section 151(ii) prescribes higher authorities where more than three years have elapsed. Section 148A(d) requires an order deciding whether a notice under Section 148 should be issued.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied and followed the reasoning in the Supreme Court decision in Rajeev Bansal, which explicated the linkage between time-limits and the level of authority under Section 151 and reiterated that non-compliance with Section 151 affects the Assessing Officer's jurisdiction. The decision in Ashish Agarwal was also considered for its directions treating prior Section 148 notices as Section 148A(b) show-cause notices but was distinguished to the extent it waived only certain prior-approval requirements.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the timing: the three-year period for the relevant assessment year expired before the order under Section 148A(d) was passed. Under the substituted regime, when more than three years have elapsed, prior approval must be from the authorities listed in Section 151(ii). The impugned order recorded approval from an authority falling under Section 151(i) (Principal Commissioner), not the higher authority mandated by Section 151(ii). The Court treated grant of sanction by the appropriate authority as a jurisdictional precondition; obtaining sanction from an incorrect level therefore failed to confer jurisdiction to pass Section 148A(d) order or to issue a Section 148 notice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Non-compliance with the level-of-authority requirement in Section 151(ii) where it is applicable vitiates the Assessing Officer's jurisdiction and renders the Section 148A(d) order and consequent Section 148 notice void. Obiter - none of the Court's key findings on this point were framed as non-binding commentary; they tracked the binding Supreme Court pronouncements.
Conclusions: The Section 148A(d) order and consequential Section 148 notice are invalid for having been preceded by approval from an authority specified under Section 151(i) when Section 151(ii) applied; such non-compliance vitiates jurisdiction and requires quashing of the order and notice.
Issue 2: Scope of waiver effected by earlier directions treating pre-existing Section 148 notices as Section 148A(b) show-cause notices and the continuing requirement of sanction under Section 151 for Sections 148A(d) and 148
Legal framework: Ashish Agarwal directed that pre-existing Section 148 notices be treated as Section 148A(b) show-cause notices and relaxed certain pre-approval requirements under the transitional circumstances. However, the substituted law explicitly requires prior sanction under Section 151 for actions at multiple stages, including Sections 148A(d) and 148.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed Rajeev Bansal's clarification that while Ashish Agarwal waived the need for prior approval under Sections 148A(a) and 148A(b), it did not dispense with the requirement of approval for Section 148A(d) or Section 148. Rajeev Bansal was applied to hold that those later-stage approvals remain mandatory under Section 151.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the distinction drawn in Rajeev Bansal: the earlier waiver was limited to initial enquiry and show-cause stages (148A(a) and (b)), but did not extend to the order under 148A(d) or to the issuance of a Section 148 notice. Thus, assessing officers must obtain the appropriate sanction under Section 151 before passing orders under 148A(d) or issuing notices under 148, in accordance with the time-linked specified authorities.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The requirement of prior sanction under Section 151 for Section 148A(d) and for issuing notices under Section 148 persists notwithstanding the earlier waiver for Sections 148A(a) and 148A(b); failure to obtain appropriate sanction invalidates subsequent action. Obiter - explanatory remarks about the scope of Ashish Agarwal's exercise of Article 142 were referenced from Rajeev Bansal but do not alter the binding ratio.
Conclusions: The Assessing Officer must obtain sanction from the authority specified under Section 151 before passing orders under Section 148A(d) or issuing notices under Section 148; Ashish Agarwal's waiver does not relieve these requirements.
Issue 3: Application of TOLA extension to determine applicable sanctioning authority under Section 151 where the three-year period fell within TOLA dates
Legal framework: TOLA extended certain statutory time-limits for actions falling between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021. Rajeev Bansal explained how TOLA affects the deadline for the authority specified under Section 151(i) to grant sanction: where the three-year limit falls within the TOLA period, the approving authority under Section 151(i) has an extended window (until 30 June 2021 in the illustration) to grant sanction; beyond that extended date, higher authorities under Section 151(ii) must be involved if sanction is granted later.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed and applied the illustration and analysis in Rajeev Bansal concerning TOLA's temporal effect on the permissible sanctioning authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the three-year period for the relevant assessment year fell within the TOLA window and that the extended permissive period for Section 151(i) authorities expired on 30 June 2021. The impugned Section 148A(d) order was passed on 13 July 2022, well beyond the extended date; consequently, sanction by an authority under Section 151(i) was no longer competent and the sanction should have been granted by authorities listed under Section 151(ii).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - TOLA's temporal extension does not authorize a Section 151(i) authority to grant sanction beyond the finite extended date (e.g., 30 June 2021 in the illustration); where sanction is granted after that date, the authority under Section 151(ii) must be the sanctioning authority. Obiter - general legislative intent behind TOLA (relief to Revenue during COVID) was noted but did not affect the mandatory linkage between time and authority.
Conclusions: Application of TOLA did not validate the post-30 June 2021 approval by a Section 151(i) authority; the approval was therefore ineffective and the subsequent action invalid for lack of proper sanction.
Cross-References and Overall Conclusion
1. The Court's holdings on Issues 1-3 are interdependent: the mandatory character of Section 151 sanction (Issue 2) and the temporal linkage governed by TOLA (Issue 3) together determine which authority must sanction under Section 151; failure on either count vitiates jurisdiction (Issue 1).
2. Applying the above, the Court concluded that the Section 148A(d) order and consequential Section 148 notice issued after the relevant three-year/TOLA window and on the basis of approval from an authority specified under Section 151(i) (instead of Section 151(ii)) are bad in law and are quashed. The decision follows and applies the reasoning in Rajeev Bansal and distinguishes the limited waiver in Ashish Agarwal to the earlier procedural stages only.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - no appropriate prior approval/sanction mandated u/s 151 - order passed beyond three years from the end of the relevant Assessment Year
HELD THAT:- In the case of Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] the Hon'ble Supreme Court waived off the requirement of obtaining prior approval under section 148A(a) and Section 148A(b) of the Act only. Therefore, the AO was required to obtain prior approval of the 'Specified Authority' according to Section 151 of the new regime before passing an order under Section 148A(d) or for issuing a notice under Section 148.
Under new regime, if income escaping assessment is more than Rupees 50 lakhs, a reassessment notice could be issued after the expiry of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year only after obtaining the prior approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or Chief Commissioner or Director General.
Section 151(ii) of the substituted provisions prescribes a higher level of authority if more than three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. Thus, non-compliance with the provisions of section 151 vitiates the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer to issue a notice under section 148.
Grant of sanction by the appropriate authority is a precondition for the assessing officer to assume jurisdiction under section 148 to issue a reassessment notice.
In the present case the period of three years from the end of the Assessment Year 2016-17 fell for completion on 31st March 2020. Since the expiry date fell during the time period of 20th March 2020 and 31st March 2021 contemplated under Section 3(1) of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (for short “TOLA”), the authority specified under Section 151(i) of the new regime could have granted sanction till 30th June 2021.
On perusal of the order, dated 13.07.2022, passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act, we find that the aforesaid order was passed after taking approval from Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (Respondent No. 2). Since the aforesaid order was passed after the expiry of three years from the end of the Assessment Year 2016-17, as per the substituted provisions of re-assessment, the authority specified under Section 151(ii) of the Act (i.e. Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner) was required to grant approval. Accordingly, we conclude that in the present case the approval has been obtained from the authority specified under Section 151(i) of the new regime instead of the authority specified under Section 151(ii) of the new regime.
Thus, accordingly hold that the order dated 13.07.2022 passed u/s 148A(d) of the Act and the consequential notice issued under section 148 are bad in law for being violative of the provisions of Section 151(ii) of the Act. Hence they are required to be quashed and set aside. Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Assessing Officer's issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 was justified on the basis of information arising from bogus share-loss transactions, recorded statements under Section 132(4), and search/survey material.
2. Whether the disposal of the objections to the Section 148 notice (including the timing and extent of production of material relied upon by the Department) was legally infirm where the assessee contended that material evidence linking it to entry operators was not produced prior to or at the time of forming satisfaction.
3. Whether directions given in an earlier order remitting the matter for reconsideration (including grant of personal hearing and consideration of GKN Driveshafts jurisprudence) were complied with and whether subsequent disposal forecloses renewed writ challenge.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of satisfaction to issue notice under Section 148 (legal framework)
Legal framework: Section 148 permits issue of notice where the Assessing Officer has information suggesting income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; issuance is subject to prior approval of specified authority and the explanations defining "information" (including information from searches/surveys and related material) are part of the statutory scheme.
Precedent treatment: The Court directed earlier consideration of the Supreme Court's decision in GKN Driveshafts (treatise on scope of reopening and the requirement for fresh satisfaction) in remand directions; the present order treats that jurisprudence as the applicable law to be followed by the authority on reconsideration (followed insofar as compliance with principles governing formation of satisfaction and personal hearing are concerned).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined whether, at the initial and reconsideration stages, there was material constituting "information" under Section 148 (including recorded statements of promoters/directors under Section 132(4) and search/survey results). It found that the Assessing Officer had information suggesting escapement of income (bogus share transactions and related accommodation entries producing long-term capital gain) and that statutory requirements for issuing a notice under Section 148 were engaged. The Court emphasized that the core enquiry at the judicial review stage is limited to whether information suggesting escapement of income existed and whether requisite procedural steps (prior approval, disposal of objections) were followed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where contemporaneous material (such as recorded statements and search/survey inputs) suggests escapement of income, issuance of a Section 148 notice is sustainable at the stage of challenge to the notice, subject to statutory safeguards. Obiter - peripheral remarks about the nature of the bogus share transactions and the Department's investigation tactics.
Conclusion: The formation of satisfaction for issuance of notice under Section 148 was not shown to be legally flawed on the material before the authority; judicial interference was not warranted on this ground.
Issue 2 - Adequacy and timing of production of material relied upon, and correctness of disposal of objections
Legal framework: The statutory scheme contemplates that objections to a Section 148 notice may be filed by the assessee; the scope of review of the objection disposal by courts is constrained to procedural legality and sufficiency of the basis for the AO's satisfaction. There is no free-standing obligation to furnish all underlying material prior to issuing a notice, and the Act provides for specified authorities and procedural stages (including, post-amendment, protections under Section 148A).
Precedent treatment: The Court required consideration of GKN Driveshafts principles (on reopening) during remand; however, it held that providing documentation at the time of disposal of objections satisfied the remand direction, and that late provision of documents does not automatically invalidate the formation of satisfaction unless material demonstrates mala fides or absence of any information suggesting escapement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the contention that the assessee was entitled to all documentary material before the Department could validly dispose of objections or form satisfaction. It noted that the assessee had been supplied with the disposal order and later provided available material; the Court treated the assessee's further challenge as delay-oriented and not demonstrating that the respondents failed to consider material or record reasons for reopening. The Court also observed that the earlier remand directed personal hearing and application of GKN; the respondents conducted a disposal dated 02.02.2017 and supplied material thereafter, which the Court found to comply with directions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - mere production of material contemporaneously with or subsequent to the disposal of objections does not, without more, invalidate the disclosure of reasons for reopening where the statutory threshold of "information" suggesting escapement existed and procedural steps were complied with. Obiter - observations implying that an assessee cannot indefinitely avoid proceedings by insisting on pre-issuance disclosure of every investigative document.
Conclusion: The disposal of the objections and the timing of production of supporting material were not shown to be legally defective so as to warrant interference; the assessee's challenge based on non-production of material was rejected.
Issue 3 - Effect of earlier remand/directions and the scope for renewed writ after compliance; interplay with higher court orders
Legal framework: When a matter is remitted by a Court for reconsideration in accordance with specified legal principles (including application of precedents and grant of personal hearing), the authority's compliance can be tested only to the extent of whether the directions were followed and whether the reconsideration was in accordance with law.
Precedent treatment: The earlier remand incorporated application of Supreme Court authority (GKN Driveshafts) and personal hearing. The present Court found that the authority reconsidered objections, disposed of them, and furnished available material. A subsequent Special Leave Petition to the Supreme Court against the earlier High Court order was dismissed on merits (no interference), with liberty to raise all questions of law including limitation before the authority concerned; that dismissal was treated as reinforcing the correctness of the authority's action and limiting scope for further collateral attack in writ jurisdiction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court assessed whether the authority had complied with the remand directions. Finding that personal hearing was granted and materials were furnished, the Court concluded that the petitioner's renewed writ was an attempt to delay proceedings rather than a bona fide challenge to non-compliance. The Court also took into account the Supreme Court's dismissal of the SLP (keeping questions open for administrative adjudication), interpreting that outcome as a signal that judicial interference was not warranted at that stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - once a remand direction is complied with by reconsideration (personal hearing and consideration of relevant precedent) and relevant documents are furnished, a fresh writ challenging the same disposal will not ordinarily be entertained absent demonstrable illegality. Obiter - comments preserving the assessee's administrative remedies (e.g., raising limitation or other legal issues before the authority as kept open by the Supreme Court).
Conclusion: Directions of the remand were satisfied by the authority's disposal and production of material; the writ petition was dismissed as the petitioner failed to establish non-compliance or compelling legal error. The petitioner retains the right to canvass legal questions (including limitation) before the authority in accordance with the Supreme Court's order.
Cross-references
- Issue 1 and Issue 2 are interlinked: the sufficiency of "information" under Section 148 (Issue 1) depends on the nature of investigative material and its role in forming satisfaction (Issue 2).
- Issue 3 intersects with Issues 1-2 because the remand required reconsideration of the propriety of reopening in light of governing precedent (GKN) and due process (personal hearing); compliance with those directions was central to rejecting renewed collateral challenge.
Validity of reopening of assessment - Reasons to believe - disposal of the objections -whether the income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, since the objection of the petitioner-Company was that the material has not been found to it which was the basis of arriving to the satisfaction and the Court allowed to raise the said objection? - HELD THAT:- Authorities cannot be said to find out any error in disposing of the original documents made by it on 02.02.2017 and also supplying it with the said disposal order, the material which was relied upon for the purposes of arriving to the satisfaction of the escapement of income of the assessee. The assessee, therefore, cannot be allowed to state now that the details have been provided to it only alongwith the order passed. The order, therefore, does not warrant any interference by this Court.
No reason to interfere with the order passed by the respondents and leave the petitioner-Company in terms of the directions of the Supreme Court in Sandeep Stocks Pvt. Ltd. [2025 (4) TMI 1680 - SC ORDER] to canvass all its arguments before the authority concerned.
Issues: Whether the late filing fee levied under section 234E of the Income-tax Act, 1961, while processing the TDS statement under section 200A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was sustainable for a default relating to the third quarter of financial year 2015-16, and whether the order of the first appellate authority confirming the levy called for interference.
Analysis: The record showed that the impugned order purportedly under section 272A(2)(k) was not in existence, but the revenue established from the intimation and correction statement that a late filing fee of Rs. 85,200 was in fact levied for the relevant quarter. The precedents relied upon by the assessee concerned periods prior to 01.06.2015, when the enabling provision in section 200A(1)(c) had not come into force. The default in the present case related to a period after 01.06.2015, so the levy fell within the operative statutory regime.
Conclusion: The late filing fee under section 234E read with section 200A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was upheld and no infirmity was found in the order confirming the levy.
Mistake apparent on record u/s 254(2) - non-existence of impugned order u/s 272A(2)(K) - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, the non-existence of impugned order u/s 272A(2)(K) has been proved by the revenue and such fact could not be invalidated by the assessee.
As per intimation u/s 154 and Intimation U/s 200A/206CB both dated 30/03/2017, copies of which are furnished by the revenue before us it cannot be disputed that a late filing fee has been imposed on the assessee for defaults pertaining to Q3 of the FY 2015-16 (AY 2016-17).
Whether such late fee penalty imposed by the revenue u/s 234E r.w.s. 200A is sustainable or not ? - On this issue assessee placed its reliance on the decision of Bathline India (P) Ltd [2020 (9) TMI 147 - ITAT DELHI] wherein the late filing fee u/s 234E r.w.s. 200A was deleted observing that the defaults involved therein pertains to a period prior to 01.06.2015, whereas the relevant provision u/s 200A(1)(c) has been enacted to force w.e.f. 01.06.2015.
Similar is the finding in the case of Fatehraj Singhvi& Ors [2016 (9) TMI 964 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] that late filing fee on delay in filing of intimation of payment u/s 234E relating to period of deduction prior to 01.06.2015 was not maintainable.
Coming to facts of present case, the default committed by the assessee pertains to 3Q of FY 2015-16, i.e from 01.10.2015 to 31.12.2015, which falls after the effective date of applicability of the said provision i.e. w.e.f. 01.06.2015, consequently the cases relied by the assessee (supra) for periods prior to 01.06.2015, would not rescue the case of assessee.
No infirmity in the order of Ld CIT(A) in confirming the late fee-imposed u/s 234E r.w.s. 200A of the act, we thus uphold the same.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Assessing Officer exceeded the scope of limited scrutiny (CASS) by making additions not covered by the three specified scrutiny issues.
2. Whether royalty paid on sale of scrap is an allowable deduction under the Act where the payment is made pursuant to a royalty/technical know-how agreement between the taxpayer and its parent.
3. Whether expenditures (royalty and SAP maintenance) previously disallowed in earlier years for non-deduction of tax at source can be allowed in the current year under section 40(a) when TDS has subsequently been deducted and remitted, where related appeals for earlier years are pending.
4. Whether carry forward of business losses must be restricted to assessed losses as per prior section 143(3) assessment orders, or whether recomputation is required pending final adjudication of related additions in earlier years.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 1. Scope of limited scrutiny (CASS)
Legal framework: Limited scrutiny under the Centralised Application Screening System (CASS) permits examination of specified issues only; conversion to full scrutiny requires competent authority approval per CBDT circulars governing limited scrutiny.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedent was invoked in the text; the Tribunal applied the governing CASS limited-scrutiny principles.
Interpretation and reasoning: The three CASS issues were (i) correct taxation of foreign remittances, (ii) correct offer of sales turnover/receipts, and (iii) whether outward foreign remittances are from disclosed sources and withholding/reporting compliance. The Tribunal found the AO's additions (disallowance of royalty on scrap and recomputation of carry forward losses) to be connected to the second and third CASS issues: royalty claimed against scrap affected the correctness of sales turnover/receipts; carry forward losses flowed from determination of total income. Consequently, the AO's actions were held to arise from the limited scrutiny remit rather than an impermissible expansion requiring conversion to full scrutiny.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an assessment issue is logically connected to a declared limited-scrutiny issue (e.g., deduction claimed against sales turnover), the AO may examine and make adjustments without conversion to full scrutiny. Obiter - none additional.
Conclusion: The Tribunal rejected the ground that the AO exceeded the scope of limited scrutiny; the AO's additions were within the ambit of the specified CASS issues.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 2. Allowability of royalty on scrap under the agreement
Legal framework: Deductibility of business expenses is tested by the agreement's scope and the nature of the payment; royalty for use of technical know-how/brand is allowable to the extent it is germane to the product or activity that generated the receipts.
Precedent treatment: No binding precedent was cited; Tribunal applied contractual interpretation principles to the royalty agreement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The taxpayer relied on the definition of "products" (including "other products") in the agreement to argue that scrap fell within the royalty charge. The Tribunal analysed the contractual language and the commercial nature of scrap, distinguishing scrap from by-products or component parts arising in manufacturing. The Tribunal concluded that scrap, being generated as waste in manufacturing, is not encompassed as a product entitled to royalty under the technical know-how agreement; royalty on scrap thus appeared to be an arrangement to shift funds rather than a genuine royalty expense linked to know-how use.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - royalty payable under a technical know-how agreement does not extend to scrap sales where the agreement's definitions, commercial context, and nature of scrap do not support inclusion; such royalty may be disallowed. Obiter - analysis of potential commercial motivations (ploughing back funds) used to support the interpretive conclusion.
Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld the disallowance of the royalty portion attributable to scrap sales; the AO and CIT(A) conclusions on disallowance were sustained.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 3. Allowance under section 40(a) for royalty and SAP maintenance expenses tied to earlier years
Legal framework: Under section 40(a), an expenditure disallowed in an earlier year for non-deduction of tax at source may be allowable in a later year if TDS has been deducted/paid in the later year; deductibility depends on factual and legal nexus with the year of allowance and compliance with TDS provisions. Where related issues for earlier years are pending adjudication, the outcome may affect the current year's entitlement.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal referenced prior remittal of the same issue for earlier assessment years by the Tribunal itself (orders dated 23.11.2023) and recognized that the earlier appeals are pending; accordingly, the Tribunal treated the issue as factually and legally interlinked across years.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted as correct the legal proposition that expenditure disallowed earlier for non-deduction of TDS can be claimed in the year when TDS is deducted. However, because appeals in respect of the disallowances for earlier assessment years remain pending (and those adjudications may alter the status of the contested expenditures), the Tribunal concluded that the current-year claim cannot be finally adjudicated independently. Given the direct nexus between the current-year claim and the earlier years' disputes, the Tribunal exercised case management and remitted the issue to the CIT(A) for reconsideration alongside the pending appeals to ensure consistent and final determination.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where current-year deduction depends on the resolution of identical issues pending in earlier-year appeals, the correct course is to remit the current year to the appellate authority for joint consideration to avoid inconsistent outcomes. Obiter - affirmation of the general principle that section 40(a) allows deductions when TDS is subsequently deducted.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the CIT(A)'s rejection of the grounds regarding royalty and SAP maintenance expenses and restored the issue to the CIT(A) for reconsideration together with the pending earlier-year appeals.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 4. Restriction and recomputation of carry forward losses
Legal framework: Carry forward and set-off of losses are governed by sections 71-72 and related provisions; the quantum of losses available depends on earlier years' final assessment outcomes. An assessing authority's recomputation in a later year must respect the finality of prior assessments, but if prior assessments are under challenge, the correct carry-forward amount may be unsettled.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the settled administrative/appeal process logic rather than cited case law: inability to determine correct carry-forward until earlier-year disputes are finally resolved.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO restricted carry forward losses based on assessed losses as per earlier section 143(3) orders. The Tribunal agreed that, prima facie, restriction per assessed figures is permissible. However, because the assessee has contested additions in earlier years (which affect the amount of assessed losses) and those contests remain pending on appeal, the Tribunal held that the precise loss to be carried forward cannot be finally determined until earlier appeals reach finality. For consistency and correct adjudication, the Tribunal remitted the carry-forward issue to the CIT(A) for reconsideration in light of the pending earlier appeals.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where carry-forward quantum depends on unsettled earlier-year assessments, the matter should be remitted for reconsideration after or in conjunction with resolution of those earlier appeals to achieve accurate computation. Obiter - concurrence that assessed orders can govern carry-forward computations in the absence of pending disputes.
Conclusion: The Tribunal found no substantive error in the AO's reasoning for restricting carry forward losses to assessed figures, but set aside the CIT(A)'s dismissal and remitted the matter to the CIT(A) for reconsideration in accordance with law and pending appellate outcomes.
OVERALL DISPOSITION
The appeal was partly allowed: the Tribunal upheld the limited-scrutiny scope finding and the disallowance of royalty on scrap, but set aside the CIT(A)'s rejection of the section 40(a) issues (royalty and SAP maintenance) and the carry-forward recomputation issue and remitted those matters to the CIT(A) for reconsideration in conjunction with the pending earlier-year appeals to ensure consistent final adjudication.
Scope of limited scrutiny - Whether Assessing Officer erred in traversing beyond the three issues while completing the assessment? HELD THAT:- The case has been selected for limited scrutiny under CASS for verifying three issues, i.e., to examine (i) whether receipt of foreign remittance has been correctly offered for tax (ii) whether sales turnover/receipts has been correctly offered for tax and (iii) whether outward foreign remittance is from disclosed sources and appropriate withholding and reporting obligations have been complied with.
If we consider the issues for limited scrutiny assessment and the additions made by the AO towards disallowance of royalty expenses, it was stemmed from sales turnover/receipts that has been correctly offered for tax, because the assessee had claimed deduction towards royalty expenses against the receipts/sales turnover from sale of scrap.
The other issue considered by the AO, i.e. carry forward of losses of earlier years on the basis of assessed income/loss as per the order passed u/s 143(3) is also stemmed from the issues taken up for limited scrutiny, because, once the total income has been determined for any assessment year, on the basis of assessment order passed by the AO, then the consequent brought forward losses if any has to be allowed in accordance with the provisions of section 71 to 72 of the Act. Therefore, we are of the considered view that there is no merit in the arguments of the assessee that the AO has travelled beyond the scope of limited scrutiny and made additions towards other issues. Thus, we reject the ground taken up by the assessee.
Additions made towards disallowance of royalty and restriction of carry forward losses of earlier assessment years as per the order passed u/s 143(3) - Scope of products defined in Section 1, Definitions of the agreement between the parties and more particularly another product, whether by virtue of being a component part or raw material or otherwise cannot be extended to a scrap generated during the course of manufacturing process, because the scrap is not a by-product or any other product arises in the course of manufacturing activity. Therefore, we are of the considered view that there is no merit in the arguments of the assessee. Thus, royalty payment on scrap is covered by the agreement between the parties and thus, we reject the ground taken up by the assessee on the issue of disallowance of royalty.
Royalty expenses and SAP maintenance expenses - Addition u/s 40(a) for non-deduction of taxes - As argued by the learned counsel for the assessee, the issue of disallowance of royalty expenses and SAP maintenance expenses for the earlier assessment year 2009-10, 2011-12 and 2014-15 was set aside to the file of the CIT(A) by the ITAT on 23.11.2023 and the matter is pending for adjudication. Since the issue involved for the year under consideration is having nexus with the appeals filed by the assessee for the A.Y.2009-10, 2010-11 and 2014-15 and pending before the CIT(A), as per the order of the Tribunal in [2023 (11) TMI 1388 - ITAT HYDERABAD] in our considered view, this issue needs to be set aside to the file of the Ld.CIT(A) for reconsideration.
Restriction of carry forward losses - AO has restricted the carry forward losses on the basis of assessed income/losses as per the orders passed u/s 143(3) of the Act for the earlier assessment years. In our considered view, there is no error in the reasons given by the AO for restricting the losses as per the assessment order. However, the fact remains that, since the assessee has challenged the additions made towards various expenditure for the earlier assessment years, which is the reason for restriction in brought forward losses, in our considered view, unless the issue reaches finality in the appellate proceedings, the correct loss to be carried forward to subsequent years cannot be determined. Therefore, we are of the considered view that this issue also needs to go back to the file of the Ld.CIT(A) for reconsideration.
Appeal filed by the assessee is partly allowed for statistical purpose
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether loss from derivative trading can be set off against normal business/professional income where the assessee claims such loss as non-speculative business loss under section 43(5) read with Explanations 1 & 2.
2. Whether time-stamped contract notes or alternative broker certifications/statements are requisite and sufficient evidence to treat derivative trading as non-speculative business transactions under the Explanations to section 43(5).
3. Whether prior favourable findings in earlier assessment years operate as estoppel or res judicata to mandate allowance of derivative losses in the subsequent year without production of requisite documents.
4. Whether failure to produce contract notes/demat/broker statements during assessment proceedings, or to seek time to produce voluminous material, justifies denial of set-off; and whether restoration to the AO is warranted where evidence may exist with brokers or was procured by survey.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Treatability of derivative trading loss as business (non-speculative) loss under section 43(5)
Legal framework: Section 43(5) contains a deeming provision treating certain transactions as speculative unless they meet criteria in Explanations 1 & 2; Explanations carve out transactions in derivatives executed electronically on recognized exchanges through brokers/sub-brokers and supported by time-stamped contract notes from being speculative.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal had in earlier assessment years adjudicated in favour of treating the assessee's derivative transactions as business income/loss where supporting broker certificates/statements were furnished; such prior decisions do not bind subsequent proceedings in income tax matters (res judicata not applicable).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognizes that the statutory scheme allows classification of derivative trades as non-speculative only upon satisfaction of the conditions in the Explanations. Mere assertion or inclusion of derivative results in audited financials is insufficient; primary compliance requires demonstrable linkage to trades executed on screen-based systems via recognized brokers and supported by time-stamped contract notes or, in appropriate circumstances, corroborative broker statements certifying trades.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Conditions in Explanations to section 43(5) are mandatory prerequisites for treating derivative transactions as business/non-speculative; audited trading account alone does not substitute for statutory documents. Obiter - Practical observation that time-stamped contract notes may be voluminous and may be supplemented by broker certificates in lieu of producing all contract notes.
Conclusion: The Assessee must satisfy the AO that Explanations' conditions are met; absent such proof, set-off of derivative loss against normal business income cannot be allowed.
Issue 2 - Requirement and sufficiency of time-stamped contract notes versus broker statements/certificates
Legal framework: Explanations 1 & 2 to section 43(5) expressly refer to time-stamped contract notes as evidentiary support for the transactions being non-speculative; transactions carried out electronically on recognized exchanges through brokers/sub-brokers are covered if supported by such notes.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal in earlier years accepted broker certificates/statements as adequate to verify trades where contract notes were not feasible to produce; courts/tribunals have recognized practical difficulties in producing voluminous time-stamped notes and accepted alternative proof where reliability is established.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal acknowledges that while time-stamped contract notes are the ideal statutory proof, voluminous nature of such notes may render production impracticable; in such cases, a verified statement or account from the brokers certifying that the trades occurred and produced the stated results can be accepted as satisfactory evidence. However, the assesee bears the onus to produce such broker statements before the AO or demonstrate receipt of same by departmental enquiries (e.g., under section 133(6)). Where there is dispute as to whether such broker statements were filed, the AO must examine material on record or obtain brokers' responses.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Broker statements/certificates may, in appropriate circumstances, substitute for time-stamped contract notes if they credibly certify the trades and results; nevertheless, statutory conditions must be demonstrably complied with. Obiter - Acceptance that contract notes are voluminous and practical alternatives may be accepted does not negate the requirement of credible corroboration.
Conclusion: Time-stamped contract notes are primary proof; verified broker statements/certificates can be accepted as sufficient substitute when produced and credible; absence of either justifies disallowance unless AO is satisfied after examination.
Issue 3 - Effect of prior favourable tribunal decisions (res judicata/estoppel) on subsequent assessments
Legal framework: Principles of res judicata/estoppel do not operate in income-tax proceedings to bind assessment outcomes across years unless the same question in the same factual matrix and the assessee produces identical proof before the AO; each assessment year is adjudicated on the facts and material for that year.
Precedent treatment: Earlier favourable Tribunal findings for the assessee in other assessment years were noted but not treated as conclusive for the year under consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reiterates that prior decisions in other assessment years, even if favourable, do not absolve the assessee of the obligation to produce year-specific evidence required by the statute for the year in question. The onus remains on the assessee each year to place on record necessary documents to satisfy statutory conditions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Prior favourable findings do not operate as estoppel to compel allowance in a later year absent year-specific compliance with statutory requirements. Obiter - The Court acknowledges the relevance of consistent trading pattern and prior adjudications as a factor in assessing credibility but not as a substitute for contemporaneous evidence.
Conclusion: Prior Tribunal decisions help but do not eliminate the requirement to produce requisite documents for the assessment year; res judicata does not apply to compel allowance.
Issue 4 - Procedural compliance, opportunity to produce documents, and restoration to AO for fresh examination
Legal framework: AO may call for documents under section 142(1) and may examine records; if material exists with third parties, AO may procure it under section 133(6); Tribunal may remand matters to AO for fresh consideration where primary documents are not on record or require examination.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal has, in prior matters, restored cases to AO where there is reasonable possibility that requisite material exists and where examination by AO is necessary to arrive at truth; yet restoration should not be routine where assessee has not availed opportunity or deliberately withheld documents.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found dispute of fact about whether broker statements/contract notes were filed with AO or obtained via section 133(6). Given history of similar transactions in prior years and enquiries made with brokers, the Tribunal considered it in the interest of justice to remit the matter to the AO to examine available material (including brokers' replies) and determine compliance with Explanations 1 & 2. The Tribunal also noted that the assessee did not demonstrate that the hard disk seized contained complete time-stamped notes for the full year and that the AO had given specific requisitions under section 142(1) to produce details which were not satisfactorily complied with. Nonetheless, because the brokers may possess corroborative material and prior years' records indicate similar patterns, remand was directed rather than outright dismissal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where factual dispute exists as to availability/production of requisite proof and brokers/third parties have been queried, Tribunal may restore the matter to AO for fresh examination rather than decide on incomplete record. Obiter - Restoration for "interest of justice" may be appropriate when prior patterns and external enquiries suggest potential existence of material.
Conclusion: Matter remanded to AO to examine whether Explanations' conditions are satisfied using material on record and enquiries to brokers; appeal allowed for statistical purposes and case restored for fresh decision in accordance with law.
Disallowance of set-off of loss from 'Derivative Trading' against the normal income from business and professional - as per DR appellant has not submitted any of the contract notes of the broker and sub-broker - HELD THAT:- Ideally, the assessee should submit the time stamped contract notes but considering that the time stamped contract notes may be very voluminous, the ITAT has held that where the assessee furnishes a statement of account from its brokers certifying that the trades have actually taken place and yielded the results claimed by the assessee, there is no reason to doubt that the conditions of the Explanations had been met.
There is a controversy in this year as to whether such statements from brokers have been submitted or not. AR submits that he has filed the statements vide his submission dated 10.08.2017 but the ld. Sr. DR disputes this, stating that though the submission state that they are being filed, in fact they have not been filed.
CIT(A) has also disallowed the appeal of the assessee on this account.
We have also considered the submission of the assessee that he has filed digital copy of the contract notes immediately after the survey on his hard disk, but we note that there is no evidence presented before us, that the hard disk that were impounded / handed over, contained the digital copies of the contract notes. Furthermore, as the ld. Sr. DR has pointed out, these could only contain the details upto 17.12.2014 and not beyond because the survey was conducted in the middle of the year. Therefore, it is fairly clear that the assessee has not filed these details before the ld. AO which are required to satisfy the ld. AO that the assessee fulfills all the conditions that are laid down in the Explanations 1 & 2 to section 43(5). Be that as it may, we also observe that enquiries have been made under section 133(6) with the brokers, the results of which have not been brought on record.
We also cannot be oblivious to the history of the assessee’s case where the assessee has, year after year, been trading in derivatives through the exact same brokers and in previous years, the trades have been held to be of such a nature that they fulfilled the conditions, as laid down in the Explanations to section 43(5).
In the circumstances, in order to arrive at the truth of the nature of the income / loss, we believe it is in the interest of justice that the matter should be restored to the file of the ld. AO for examination of the material to determine whether the trade executed by the assessee meet the conditions of the Explanations 1 & 2 to section 43(5). Therefore, since the matter is being restored to the file of the ld. AO for a fresh decision in accordance with law, the appeal of the assessee is held to be allowed for statistical purposes.
Issues: Whether additions made on the basis of loose papers and a retracted statement were sustainable.
Analysis: The additions were founded on loose papers found during search, but the papers were held to be unsigned, undated, and unsupported by any independent incriminating material linking them to the assessee's unaccounted sales or alleged investment. The entries in the papers were found to match the Excise Department notification and therefore did not by themselves establish undisclosed transactions. The statement recorded during search was retracted promptly and, in the absence of corroboration, could not by itself justify the additions. The settled principle applied was that a loose paper or admitted statement, without reliable supporting evidence, cannot sustain an addition, and suspicion or guesswork cannot substitute proof.
Conclusion: The additions were deleted and the challenge to them failed; the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Addition on account of @2% of total revenue and on account of capital investment for obtaining 35 group shops u/s. 69C - dumb documents relied upon -Addition based on loose papers seized during search and a retracted statement recorded u/s 132(4) - Whether loose papers found could not be termed in any way as incriminating material? - any co-relation or direct link with regard to any tax evasion - whether there is any independent incriminating material that were found by the revenue suggesting any capital investment and unaccounted sales of liquor by the assessee?
HELD THAT:- Loose papers that were found, there were no independent corroborative evidence brought on record by the revenue. Documents found during search was also undated and unsigned which is similar and directly applicable to the facts of the present case before us.
We uphold the order of the CIT(Appeals) and sustain the relief provided to the assessee. As per the above terms grounds of appeal raised by the revenue are dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether expenses debited to profit and loss account can be disallowed as pre-operative expenditure where the assessee is setting up a project but has not yet earned business revenue.
2. Whether the characterisation of receipts of Rs. 12,34,61,000 (interest on bank deposits, interest from related parties and miscellaneous income) is "Income from Business or Profession" or "Income from Other Sources", and the scope for deduction of finance costs under section 57(iii) when such receipts are so classified.
3. Whether mark-to-market foreign exchange gains on loans to an overseas party, arising from year-end restatement, constitute taxable income where there is no evidence that the loan was on revenue account.
4. Consequential issue: entitlement to set off brought-forward business losses in light of adjustments sustained or directed.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Allowability of expenses treated as pre-operative where business is being set up but no revenue earned
Legal framework: Deductibility of expenditure depends on whether expenditure was incurred "for the purpose of business" and whether the business has been "set up" (established/ready to commence) as distinct from mere commencement of commercial operations; expenses incurred after the setting up and before commencement may be deductible, while those incurred prior to setting up must be capitalised.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the test articulated by the Hon'ble High Court in Western India Vegetable Projects Ltd. distinguishing "setting up" and "commencement", and followed a coordinate-bench Tribunal decision in Orient Green Power Co. Ltd. which held that substantial pre-commencement steps (PPA, land acquisition, approvals, staffing, purchase orders, EPC arrangements) establish that the business was "set up" and thus revenue-nature expenses incurred thereafter are deductible.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined documentary evidence - Power Purchase Agreement, land acquisitions, statutory permissions/clearances, acquisition of equipment, contracts, and deployment of project personnel - and concluded that these steps manifested that the project business had been established (set up) even though commercial revenue had not yet arisen. The Tribunal held that mere absence of business receipts in the year is not a condition precedent for allowance; the correct enquiry is whether the business was set up such that expenses were incurred for the purpose of business. The AO's blanket treatment of all P&L debits as pre-operative, without granular examination of nature and nexus of each expense, was found to be incorrect.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - expenses incurred after business is set up and for the purpose of business are allowable even if no business receipts arise in that year; mere non-generation of revenue does not convert such expenses into pre-operative capital expenditure. Obiter - emphasis on the need for item-wise examination of nature and details of expenses by the AO, and that some items may still require capitalization depending on their character.
Conclusion and directive: The Tribunal concluded that the business of setting up the thermal power project was set up and remitted the matter to the jurisdictional AO to examine the nature and details of the P&L-debited expenditures and, where established to be for the purpose of business, allow them as deductions. Grounds relating to this issue were allowed for statistical purposes and issue restored for verification.
Issue 2 - Characterisation of interest and miscellaneous receipts (Rs. 12,34,61,000) as business income or income from other sources and consequent deduction of finance costs
Legal framework: Income classification depends on the nature and purpose of activity giving rise to receipts; section 57(iii) permits deduction of expenditure incurred in relation to income from other sources subject to nexus.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the established principle that classification must reflect nexus between receipts and the business activity; where funds are not deployed for the project or ordinary business purpose, receipts from deposits/advances are typically income from other sources.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the interest income arose from bank deposits and advances to sister concerns, funded by borrowed funds that were not shown to be linked to the power project and were held for general business purposes. There was no material to establish that the lending/placement of funds was for the purpose of the assessee's core business (setting up and running the power project). Therefore, such receipts could only be classified as "income from other sources". Given that classification, the Tribunal directed the AO to examine and allow finance costs/interest expenditure under section 57(iii) to the extent of its nexus with that other-source income, ensuring no double allowance and providing the assessee reasonable opportunity of hearing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - receipts from deposits/advances not demonstrated to be for the core business constitute income from other sources; finance costs may be deductible under section 57(iii) if nexus is established, but expenditure cannot be allowed twice. Obiter - guidance that AO must verify nexus and grant deduction either as business expenditure (if recharacterised on verification) or as allowable under section 57(iii), but only once.
Conclusion and directive: The Tribunal upheld classification of Rs. 12,34,61,000 as income from other sources and remitted to the AO the question of allowance of finance costs, directing a single allowance after nexus verification and opportunity of hearing. Grounds on this issue were decided accordingly.
Issue 3 - Taxability of foreign exchange gains on loans to overseas party arising from year-end restatement
Legal framework: Foreign exchange gains/losses arising from restatement of monetary items are taxable or allowable depending on whether the underlying asset/liability is on revenue account; mark-to-market/accounting adjustments do not automatically become taxable unless they reflect income of a revenue nature.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied standard accounting/tax distinctions between revenue account transactions and capital/monetary restatements, considering the nature of the underlying loan.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record did not establish that the loan to the overseas party was on revenue account. The foreign exchange fluctuation gain arose solely from year-end reinstatement using the closing exchange rate (mark-to-market). Since there was no evidence that the loan constituted a revenue transaction generating assessable income, the reprofiling gain on account of translation was not considered income chargeable to tax for the year.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - translation/mark-to-market gains arising from year-end exchange rate restatement of loans not shown to be on revenue account do not constitute taxable income. Obiter - none significant beyond the directive to delete such addition in the circumstances.
Conclusion and directive: The Tribunal directed deletion of the addition for foreign exchange gain. Grounds on this issue were allowed.
Issue 4 - Set off of brought-forward business losses (consequential)
Legal framework: Entitlement to set off brought-forward business losses is consequential upon the final determination of taxable income after allowable deductions and disallowances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the issue as consequential and remitted computation to the AO to consider brought-forward losses in light of directions given on allowability of expenditures, classification of income and deletion of exchange gain.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - computational and consequential; no independent substantive finding beyond directing AO to apply law consistent with the Tribunal's findings. Obiter - none.
Conclusion and directive: Grounds concerning set off were allowed for statistical purposes and the AO was directed to compute total income and set off brought-forward losses in accordance with the Tribunal's directions.
Expenses incurred as pre-operative expenses - Addition made in absence of any business activity/revenue - HELD THAT:- The business of the assessee of setting up Thermal Power Project was already set up and thus the expenditure incurred for the purpose of business after setting up of the business are allowable for deduction. Further, we are also of the considered view that the mere fact that the assessee did not derive any income from its business operation is not a condition precedent to allow the expenditure incurred for the purpose of business.
AO merely treating the expenditure debited to the profit and loss account as pre-operative, disallowed the same without examining the nature and details of these expenditures incurred by the assessee.
As we have come to the conclusion that business of the assessee has been set up and the expenditure incurred for the purposes of business is allowable, accordingly we direct the jurisdictional AO to allow the expenditure debited by the assessee to its profit and loss account after examining the nature and details of such expenditure if the same are found to have been incurred for the purpose of business.
For this limited examination, this issue is restored to the file of the jurisdictional AO. As a result, grounds raised in assessee’s appeal are allowed for statistical purposes.
Correct head of income - treating the income as “income from other sources” as against “income from business and profession” - HELD THAT:- It is an accepted fact that the borrowed funds were not linked to the power project. As per the assessee, the funds were received for general business purposes. Thus, there is no material available on record to prove that granting of advances/loans to the sister concerns and maintaining the deposits in the bank was for the purpose of business. Therefore, we are of the considered view that the amount earned by the assessee from interest on bank deposits, interest from related parties and miscellaneous income can only be treated as “income from other sources”.
From the perusal of the profit and loss account for the year ending 31.03.2017, we find that the assessee also incurred interest expenditure/finance costs. Accordingly, as the afore-noted interest income has been considered as income from other sources, therefore, we direct the jurisdictional AO to allow the deduction of interest expenditure/finance costs as per the provisions of section 57(iii) of the Act after examining the nexus of the same with interest income.
We further direct that no order shall be passed without affording reasonable and adequate opportunity of hearing to the assessee. We further find that this interest expenditure/finance costs also forms part of the total expenditure debited by the assessee to its profit and loss account.
As we have directed allowance of deduction of expenditure debited to the profit and loss account after necessary verification, we further direct that the interest expenditure/financial costs be allowed as deduction only once after necessary examination, i.e., either as an expenditure incurred for the purpose of business or as an expenditure allowable under section 57(iii) of the Act, if it satisfies necessary criterion. Grounds no.4 and 5 raised in assessee’s appeal are decided accordingly.
Addition on account of gain due to foreign exchange fluctuation in respect of loans given to overseas party -HELD THAT:- There is no evidence on record to suggest that the loan to the overseas party was on the revenue account. Since the foreign exchange fluctuation gain, in the present case, is only due to the reinstatement of the accounts at the end of the year by considering the year-end rate of exchange, no question arises for considering the said gain as income of the assessee for the year under consideration. Accordingly, we direct the AO to delete this addition.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an application for regularisation of provisional approval under Section 10(23C) (Form 10AB/10AC regime) filed after the prescribed/extended due date is maintainable, and whether the delay can be condoned.
2. Whether the learned Commissioner (Exemptions) was justified in rejecting the application as non-maintainable solely on the ground of delayed filing without considering condonation and merits.
3. The relevance and effect of CBDT Circular No. 7/2024 (extension of due date to 30.06.2024 subject to conditions) in determining maintainability and condonation of delay.
4. The applicability of established principles on condonation of delay (including those distilled in Vishwa Jagriti Mission) to registration/regularisation applications under Section 10(23C)/12AB regime and the extent to which Tribunal precedents (coordinate bench) should be followed.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Maintainability and condonation of delay in filing application for regularisation under Section 10(23C)
Legal framework: The proviso to sub-section (5) of Section 10(23C) prescribes time-limits for filing application for regularisation of provisional approval; Form No. 10AC/10AB is the statutory form for provisional approval and regularisation. CBDT Circular No. 7/2024 extended the operative due date for filing to 30.06.2024 subject to conditions.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal and High Court authorities (noted in the judgment) have adopted a liberal approach to condoning delay in filing registration/regularisation applications, applying principles set out in Vishwa Jagriti Mission. A coordinate bench decision addressing substantially similar facts condoned a short delay beyond the extended date and directed treatement of the application on merits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the principle that procedural/technical delay should not defeat substantive justice where there is no mala fide, deliberate default, or gross negligence. The CBDT circular evidences administrative intent to provide a further opportunity; technical non-compliance with the strict statutory timeline should be weighed against the interest of substantial justice. The Tribunal found parity of facts with the coordinate bench decision and followed its ratio.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that delay in filing the regularisation application (where facts show absence of mala fide/gross negligence) is condonable and that the application should be treated as filed within time is ratio; observations on the rationale behind the CBDT circular and general policy preference for substantial justice over technical dismissal are ratio insofar as they underpin the decision to condone. General statements about the desirability of liberal approach are supportive reasoning but partly obiter where not strictly necessary to the specific result.
Conclusions: Delay in filing the application for regularisation under Section 10(23C) was condoned. The application is to be treated as if filed within the prescribed time and considered on merits.
Issue 2 - Whether rejection as non-maintainable solely on delayed filing was justified
Legal framework: Administrative authority (CIT(E)) has discretion to examine preliminary maintainability and merits; however, exercise of that discretion must account for established legal principles on condonation and, where applicable, administrative extensions.
Precedent treatment: Coordinate Tribunal authority and High Court jurisprudence emphasize that courts/tribunals should prefer deciding matters on merits where delay is technical and not tainted by mala fide-thus implying rejection as non-maintainable solely for delay is not invariably appropriate.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the CIT(E)'s summary rejection on the sole ground of late filing was not appropriate where (i) a CBDT circular had extended the due date in the circumstances and (ii) no mala fide or gross negligence was shown. The Tribunal applied the established condonation principles and found that the preliminary rejection prevented adjudication on merits and would contravene the aim of substantial justice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The direction that a preliminary non-maintainability rejection based solely on delay should not be sustained where delay is condonable and merits remain undecided is ratio. Any ancillary comments about the adequacy of documentary proof are obiter to the extent they were not finally adjudicated but left for the CIT(E) to examine on remand.
Conclusions: The CIT(E)'s order rejecting the application as non-maintainable on the ground of late filing was set aside; the matter is remitted for fresh consideration on merits after treating the application as timely filed.
Issue 3 - Effect of CBDT Circular No. 7/2024 on time-limits and condonation analysis
Legal framework: Administrative circulars extending compliance timelines are relevant to the equitable assessment of whether delay is excusable and indicate administrative intent to afford additional opportunity to applicants.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal decisions have taken into account such circulars as reflecting a facilitative approach and as a factor in condoning delay where applicants filed shortly after the original or extended cutoff.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the circular as evidence that the board intended a liberal/facilitative regime for filing regularisation applications. Where an applicant files after the statutory but within or shortly after the extended administrative window, the circular is a material consideration favoring condonation unless countervailing facts (mala fide/gross neglect) exist.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The use of the CBDT circular as a factor in condoning the delay and directing fresh adjudication is ratio for the result reached. Broader policy comments about administrative intent are supportive reasoning.
Conclusions: The CBDT circular materially supported the exercise of the Tribunal's discretion to condone the delay and to remit the application for fresh consideration.
Issue 4 - Application of condonation principles (Vishwa Jagriti Mission) to registration/regularisation under Section 10(23C)
Legal framework: Principles guiding condonation include: preferment of substantial justice over technicalities; no presumption of mala fide in a mere delay; rational/pragmatic application of the "every day's delay must be explained" maxim; and balancing technical compliance against merits.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed the distilled principles from Vishwa Jagriti Mission and related authorities; coordinate bench jurisprudence applying those principles to Form 10AB/10AC matters was followed as binding for like facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that, applying these principles, a short or non-deliberate delay in filing a regularisation application should not result in ouster from statutory consideration. The absence of mala fide, the presence of an administrative extension, and the importance of deciding on merits weighed in favor of condonation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The application of those established condonation principles to the facts and the consequent direction to treat the application as timely and decide on merits constitutes the operative ratio.
Conclusions: Established condonation principles apply to Section 10(23C)/12AB regularisation applications; where facts are analogous and no mala fide is shown, delay can and should be condoned to enable adjudication on merits.
Final Disposition (as derived from the Court's conclusions)
The delay in filing the regularisation application under Section 10(23C) was condoned; the order rejecting the application as non-maintainable solely for late filing was set aside; the file was remitted to the Commissioner (Exemptions) with directions to treat the application as having been filed within time and to decide the application afresh on merits and in accordance with law. The appeal was allowed for statistical purposes.
Rejection of application for registration u/s 10(23C) - delay in the filing of the application for regularisation of provisional approval - HELD THAT:- Hon’ble Delhi High Court in Vishwa Jagriti Mission [2013 (1) TMI 157 - DELHI HIGH COURT] reiterated the settled principles governing condonation of delay— namely, that justice should not be defeated on account of a mere technical or procedural lapse, particularly where no mala fides or deliberate default is established. As in Amba Shanti Foundation [2025 (5) TMI 2178 - ITAT MUMBAI] further observed that the CBDT’s circular extending the due date reflects a legislative intent to offer a fair opportunity to applicants and is indicative of a liberal and facilitative approach.
As applying the principle that procedural delay should not defeat substantive rights in the absence of mala fide conduct or gross negligence, we are inclined to take a liberal view in the matter. Accordingly, we deem it just and appropriate to condone the delay in the filing of the application for regularisation of provisional approval under Section 10(23C) of the Act.
The impugned order passed by the learned CIT(E) is, therefore, set aside. The matter is restored to the file of the learned CIT(E) with a direction to treat the assessee’s application as having been filed within the prescribed time - Assessee appeal allowed for statistical purposes.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Order-in-Original (which denied free allowance, declared the passenger an "ineligible Passenger", ordered confiscation of four gold bangles under sections 111(d), 111(j) and 111(m) of the Customs Act, 1962 and allowed option of redemption with fine and duty) as confirmed by the Appellate Authority, should be given effect to by the Court.
2. Whether the detained personal jewellery must be released without imposition of any warehouse/warehousing charges.
3. Whether the purity of the seized jewellery (24 carat/998 purity) renders it "primary gold" or otherwise justifies absolute confiscation as being in commercial quantity or part of smuggling activity.
4. Whether the mere prospect or filing of a review application by the Department bars immediate implementation of an affirmed adjudicatory order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Enforcement of the affirmed Order-in-Original
Legal framework: Sections 111, 112, and 125(3) of the Customs Act, 1962 (confiscation, penalty, and release on payment of fine/duty); Notification No. 50/2017 - Customs dated 30.06.2017 and Baggage Rules, 2016 (free allowance and eligibility provisions); appellate review under Customs procedure.
Precedent Treatment: The Appellate Authority reviewed prior judicial pronouncements and applied those ratios to the facts; the Court accepted the Appellate Authority's consideration of those precedents.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Appellate Authority examined factual findings (ownership, quantity, absence of habitual offending or syndicate involvement) and legal standards for confiscation versus redemption. The Authority concluded that absolute confiscation would be harsh and unjustified given the absence of commercial quantity, habitual offending, or evidence of organized smuggling, and therefore upheld the adjudicator's grant of redemption on payment of fine and duty. The Court found that the Appellate Authority had considered relevant legal principles and facts comprehensively.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - affirmed conclusion that, on the facts, redemption (payment of fine and duty) rather than absolute confiscation was appropriate; that adjudicatory findings on non-habitual status and absence of smuggling nexus are sufficient to deny absolute confiscation. Obiter - ancillary comments on valuation methodology or general remarks about purity not treated as binding law beyond the facts.
Conclusion: The Court directed implementation of the confirmed Order-in-Original and permitted release subject to the conditions in the order (payment of redemption fine and applicable customs duty and completion of legal/regulatory formalities), thereby enforcing the adjudicatory and appellate conclusions.
Issue 2 - Liability to pay warehousing/warehouse charges on release
Legal framework: Section 125(3) of the Customs Act (release upon payment) and general Customs practice allowing recovery of charges and dues incurred during detention/ warehousing.
Precedent Treatment: The Appellate Order upheld the redemption option but did not direct waiver of warehousing charges; the Court noted that the possibility of review does not suspend implementation and addressed warehousing charges in exercise of supervisory jurisdiction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that while the substantive order allowing redemption must be implemented, costs incidental to detention such as warehouse charges are recoverable unless expressly waived by the authority. No authority or finding in the affirmed orders absolved the passenger of warehousing charges; accordingly, the Court declined to direct release without such charges.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - release under the affirmed order is subject to payment of warehousing charges applicable on date of detention; Obiter - none regarding automatic waiver of incidental charges.
Conclusion: Petitioner is liable to pay warehousing charges applicable as on the date when detention occurred; release to follow after verification and compliance with payment and other conditions as per the nodal authority's directions.
Issue 3 - Characterization of jewellery purity as "primary gold" and its effect on confiscation
Legal framework: Distinction in Customs law between personal jewellery and primary/commercial gold; criteria for confiscation include commercial quantity, evidence of smuggling syndicate involvement, and breach of declaration obligations.
Precedent Treatment: The Appellate Authority considered judicial pronouncements distinguishing high-purity articles used as jewellery from "primary gold" for commercial smuggling; it applied those ratios to reject a presumption that high purity alone equates to primary gold warranting absolute confiscation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Appellate Authority found that the impugned jewellery, though of high purity (998), was owned by the passenger and not in commercial quantity, and there was no material to show habitual offending or syndicate involvement. The Authority held that deeming such high-purity jewellery automatically as primary gold is not a reasonable conclusion absent other indicia. The Court accepted this reasoning and observed that purity alone, without corroborating evidence of commercial intent or organized smuggling, cannot justify absolute confiscation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - purity alone does not convert personal jewellery into primary gold for purposes of automatic confiscation; ownership, quantity, and absence of syndicate/habitual offending are material. Obiter - technical observations about malleability of 24-carat gold and normal jewellery composition were noted by the Department but were not adopted as grounds to overturn the adjudicatory findings.
Conclusion: The finding that the jewellery was not in commercial quantity and that the passenger was not a habitual offender or part of a smuggling syndicate supports allowing redemption rather than absolute confiscation; the Court upheld the Appellate Authority's rejection of the Department's contention that high purity alone warrants confiscation.
Issue 4 - Effect of potential departmental review on implementation of affirmed order
Legal framework: Powers to review or file further departmental appeals do not ordinarily operate as automatic stay of execution unless stayed by appropriate forum or continuing injunction/ stay order is obtained.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied established administrative law principle that speculative or potential review does not restrain immediate implementation of a final adjudicatory order affirmed in appeal when no stay or review has been filed or granted.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Department indicated an intention to file review but had not done so. The Court held that the mere prospect of filing a review cannot be a ground to withhold enforcement of the affirmed orders, particularly where the appellate decision is dated and there is no stay. The Appellate Authority had already addressed the core issues; withholding implementation on speculative review would frustrate finality.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an unfiled or speculative review application does not stay enforcement of an affirmed adjudicatory order; absent a stay, the order must be given effect. Obiter - procedural encouragement to pursue review expeditiously if intended.
Conclusion: The Court directed implementation of the affirmed Order-in-Original notwithstanding the Department's stated intention to seek review, subject only to compliance with the order's conditions and payment of warehousing charges.
Operational Directions (stemming from conclusions)
For release: The detained items shall be released after due verification of credentials and completion of legal formalities; the Petitioner must approach the designated nodal officer who will guide compliance. The Petitioner remains liable for warehousing charges applicable on the date of detention.
Smuggling of gold bangles - denial of free allowance for not declaring the detained goods to the Proper Officer at Red Channel - ineligible Passenger for the purpose of the N/N. 50/2017- Customs dated 30.06.2017 (as amended) read with Baggage Rules, 2016 (as amended) - Confiscation - redemption fine - penalty - HELD THAT:-Considering that no review has been filed till date and the Order-in-Appeal has been issued way back on 26th May, 2025, the mere prospect of filing a review cannot be a ground to hold back implementation of these orders. Moreover, a perusal of paragraph 5.10 of the Appellate Authority’s order would show that the Authority has considered the entire aspect and has held that the Petitioner is not a habitual offender. The Appellate authority has also held that it cannot be presumed that the Petitioner is part of a smuggling syndicate.
The Petitioner shall be liable to pay the warehousing charges as applicable on the date when the detention was made - The concerned authority shall release the detained items after due verification of the credentials of the Petitioner.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the FOB value declared in the shipping bill could be treated as cum-duty price for recomputing customs duty liability.
Analysis: The issue was treated as settled by earlier decisions holding that no deduction of duty is permissible while determining customs duty on FOB value in such matters. The Tribunal also noted that the appellant's own earlier case had been decided on the same footing following the existing precedent.
Conclusion: The claim to treat the declared FOB value as cum-duty price was rejected and the appeal was dismissed in favour of the Revenue.
Declared FOB to be considered as cum-duty price or not - re-determination of duty liability - HELD THAT:- In catena of judgments including the decision of this Tribunal in Essel Mining & Industries Ltd Vs CC, Visakhapatnam [2023 (8) TMI 949 - CESTAT HYDERABAD], the Coordinate Benches have examined this issue and held that no deduction of duty can be allowed.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether a review or recall of an order passed in proceedings initiated under Section 340 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is permissible, and whether a review under Order XLVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 could be entertained in such criminal proceedings.
Analysis: Proceedings under Section 340 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 are criminal in nature and are governed by the CrPC as a self-contained code. Once a judgment or final order is signed, Section 362 of the CrPC bars alteration or review except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error, or where a different power is expressly conferred by law. A criminal court becomes functus officio after disposal, and the bar cannot be bypassed by invoking Section 482 of the CrPC. Only a limited procedural recall is recognised in exceptional circumstances such as lack of jurisdiction, fraud, or a mistake of court causing prejudice, and not a substantive review on merits. The application for review under Order XLVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 was not maintainable in criminal proceedings under the CrPC. The ground relied upon for recall was available earlier and did not justify reopening the concluded order.
Conclusion: The recall and review of the earlier criminal order was impermissible, and the impugned order could not be sustained. The challenge succeeds in favour of the appellants.
Ratio Decidendi: A final order in criminal proceedings cannot be reviewed or altered except within the narrow statutory exceptions, and a civil-law review mechanism cannot be imported into proceedings governed by the CrPC.
Prosecution of offences of perjury - power of review under Criminal Procedure Code of 1973 - whether a review or recall of an order passed in a criminal proceeding initiated under section 340 of CrPC is permissible or not? - HELD THAT:- The law relating to power of a criminal court to review or alter its own judgment or order is governed by the provisions of Section 362 of CrPC (equivalent to Section 403 of Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023). The Provision explicitly provides that except for clerical and arithmetical error, no court shall alter or review its judgment - The comparison of the power of review of a civil court vis- a-vis power of criminal court to review or recall its own judgment or order arising out of criminal proceedings has been put to rest by numerous decisions of this Court. It would be appropriate at this juncture to discuss the relevant decisions of this court pertaining to review or recall power of criminal courts to ascertain the correct position of law before proceeding to refer and deal with the factual matrix of the present case.
The scope of Section 362 of CrPC has been discussed and elaborated by a three-judge bench decision of this Court in State of Kerala vs. M.M. Manikantan Nair, [2001 (4) TMI 962 - SUPREME COURT] wherein it held that CrPC does not authorize High Court to review its judgment or order passed either in exercise of its appellate, revisional or original jurisdiction. Section 362 explicitly prohibits the court after it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of case from altering or reviewing the said judgment or order except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error. This prohibition is complete and no criminal court can review its own judgment or order after it is signed - Similarly, in Hari Singh Mann vs. Harbhajan Singh Bajwa and Others [2000 (11) TMI 1221 - SUPREME COURT], this Court observed that section 362 of CrPC is based on the acknowledged principle of law that once a matter is finally disposed of by a court, the said court, in absence of specific statutory provisions, becomes functus officio and is disentitled to entertain fresh prayer for same relief.
A careful consideration of the statutory provisions and the aforesaid decisions of this Court clarify the now-well- settled position of jurisprudence of Section 362 of CrPC which when summarize would be that the criminal courts, as envisaged under the CrPC, are barred from altering or review their own judgments except for the exceptions which are explicitly provided by the statute, namely, correction of a clerical or an arithmetical error that might have been committed or the said power is provided under any other law for the time being in force. As the courts become functus officio the very moment a judgment or an order is signed, the bar of Section 362 CrPC becomes applicable, this, despite the powers provided under Section 482 CrPC which, this veil cannot allow the courts to step beyond or circumvent an explicit bar.
In the present case, the review application was filed by Khosla Group under Order XLVII of CPC 1908 before High Court. The CPC 1908 does not expressly provide for a provision wherein a review can be filed in the proceedings of criminal nature initiated under CrPC. As a result, the said petition filed by Khosla Group under provisions of CPC 1908 could not have been entertained by the High Court for being patently not maintainable in light of above discussion. This finding itself leads to the disposal of case at hand, however, in our view, it is pertinent to delve into the merits of the review application so moved by the Khosla Group and leading to the Impugned Order vis-à-vis the jurisdiction and expanse of Section 362 of CrPC.
Further, neither the Impugned Order falls within the ambit of “procedural review” to not attract the bar of Section 362 CrPC, nor is it the case of the Khosla Group that they were either denied a hearing before the High Court or were not given an opportunity to inform the court of the said development - The ground on which recall was later sought was one that was fully available to the Khosla Group at the time of the original hearing and thus, could have been duly raised but was not so taken. Later, in their attempt to abuse the process, they had moved the Company Application No 579 of 2020 for review that too under Order XLVII of CPC, 1908 which, any way, would not be permissible leading to passing of the Impugned Order by the High Court.
The Impugned Order dated 05.05.2021 cannot be allowed to hold the field, being antithetical to the law as laid down by this Court relating to Section 362 of CrPC and, thus, ought to be set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the order dismissing the application for default called for appellate interference, and whether the secured creditor's failure to intimate its decision within the stipulated time under the liquidation regulations resulted in the assets being treated as part of the liquidation estate.
Analysis: The liquidation order had already been passed and the secured creditor did not intimate, within thirty days of the liquidation commencement date, that it intended not to relinquish its security interest. Under Regulation 21A of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, the assets covered by the security interest were therefore presumed to form part of the liquidation estate. The application before the Adjudicating Authority sought condonation of delay in communicating non-relinquishment and consequential directions regarding the secured asset, but it was dismissed for default when no appearance was made. The record also showed that the asset had already been dealt with in liquidation and sold, and the assignee did not take steps to substitute itself or seek recall of the dismissal order.
Conclusion: No error was found in the impugned order, and no appellate interference was warranted. The challenge failed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a secured creditor does not intimate its election regarding relinquishment or realisation of security interest within the period prescribed under the liquidation regulations, the secured asset is presumed to be part of the liquidation estate, and an appeal against dismissal for default will not succeed absent any demonstrated error or procedural irregularity warranting interference.
Relinquishment of security asset - presumption of the security interest - dismissal of interlocutory application praying for condonation of delay in communicating a secured creditor's decision under Regulation 21A of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 - HELD THAT:- The liquidation order was passed by the Adjudicating Authority on 30.04.2024 relying on the resolution of the CoC held in meeting dated 16.12.2023. A copy of the liquidation order has been brought on the record at page 89 of the appeal. The Adjudicating Authority in the order dated 30.04.2024 has quoted the resolution of the CoC, which indicate that RBL Bank has also voted for the liquidation.
In the present case, no information was sent by the RBL Bank, the Secured Creditor that it does not intend to relinquish security in the assets. The RBL Bank for the first time on 25.07.2024 sent an email to the Liquidator requesting for release of security interest.
The Appellant is presumed to be well aware of the proceedings pending in the NCLT, New Delhi; the application which was filed by the RBL Bank praying for condonation of delay in communicating its intention not to relinquish security interest. The application has been dismissed by the impugned order. Neither RBL Bank nor the Appellant took any steps to pursue the application. The RBL Bank has not filed any application to recall the order dated 01.04.2025 showing any sufficient cause for non-appearance on 01.04.2025. It has also been submitted by learned counsel for the Liquidator and learned counsel for the Respondent No.2 that after dismissal of the application, the secured assets have already been sold and Sale Certificate has been issued in favour of the Respondent No.2 on 05.06.2025 by the Liquidator.
There are no error in the order which warrant any interference in exercise of appellate jurisdiction by this Tribunal. No relief can be granted to the Appellant in this appeal - Appeal is dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an Adjudicating Authority may refuse, in exercise of its discretion, to permit a corporate debtor to place additional documents on record after filing its affidavit-in-reply in a Section 9 proceeding where the reply was filed within time and no adjournment was sought.
2. Whether the scope of reply to a statutory demand under Section 8(2) compels a corporate debtor to file all contemporaneous documentary evidence with the initial reply, or whether additional documents may be permitted later under procedural rules.
3. The proper approach to exercise of discretion by the Adjudicating Authority in admitting additional documents after pleadings are complete, including the relevance of delay, prejudice to the opposing party, and the duty to do substantial justice.
4. Whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in relying on a period of elapsed time between filing of affidavit-in-reply and an interlocutory application to reject the application without considering the reasons for late filing and the procedural provisions permitting subsequent filing.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Discretion to refuse additional documents post-reply where reply was timely filed
Legal framework: The Adjudicating Authority Rules empower the Tribunal to grant leave to file documents after filing of reply; the Adjudicating Authority exercises discretion to admit or refuse additional documents until a final order admitting or dismissing the petition is passed.
Precedent treatment: Higher court authority has recognised there is no absolute bar to filing additional documents until final disposal, while also acknowledging that discretion may be exercised to refuse when delay is inordinate or manifestly intended to obstruct disposal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the chronology: reply filed within the time fixed, no extension sought, no adjournment requested, and an interlocutory application filed before the next listed date after settlement discussions failed. The Tribunal's rejection rested on the view that the corporate debtor had 'adequate opportunity' earlier and on the lapse of days between reply and the IA. The Court concluded that the discretion to refuse must be exercised objectively and judicially, and that mere lapse of time, absent a finding of deliberate delay or prejudice, cannot be sole basis to deny leave.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An Adjudicating Authority may not decline to admit additional documents solely because earlier opportunities existed where the party filed reply within time and has offered cogent reasons for later filing. Obiter - Observations on general conduct that may constitute undue delay when a party prolongs proceedings.
Conclusions: The Adjudicating Authority erred in rejecting the application on the ground of elapsed time and the notion of prior opportunity without assessing whether sufficient cause existed; the additional documents should have been permitted to be placed on record subject to the Authority's consideration of relevance and any prejudice.
Issue 2: Scope of reply to statutory demand under Section 8(2) and requirement to file all documents with reply
Legal framework: Section 8(2) prescribes that the corporate debtor, within ten days of receipt of demand notice, must bring to the operational creditor's notice (a) existence of a dispute or record of pendency of suit/arbitration, and (b) payment of unpaid operational debt by specified proof forms.
Precedent treatment: Judicial guidance accepts that Section 8(2) does not enumerate an exhaustive requirement to file extensive documentary records contemporaneously with the reply and procedural rules preserve court's power to admit additional material thereafter.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that Section 8(2) contemplates only specific disclosures and does not require filing of all contemporaneous correspondence or supporting documents with the reply to the demand notice. Rule-based power to grant leave post-reply contemplates situations where voluminous or collated documents are produced later. Hence, the Tribunal's assertion that the corporate debtor had adequate opportunity at the demand-reply stage to file all such documents misconstrued Section 8(2).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 8(2) does not mandate filing of all supporting documentary evidence with the initial reply; admission of additional documents thereafter can legitimately be sought. Obiter - Practical observations on volume and collation issues leading to later filing.
Conclusions: The Adjudicating Authority's reliance on Section 8(2) as a ground to refuse later-produced contemporaneous documents is unsound; the statutory provision does not preclude subsequent placing of relevant material on record under the Rules.
Issue 3: Exercise of judicial discretion - delay, prejudice, and substantial justice in admitting additional documents
Legal framework: Adjudicating Authority has discretion to admit or refuse additional pleadings/documents under the Rules; discretion should be exercised objectively, judicially, and in furtherance of substantial justice. Procedural provisions and jurisprudence permit filing until final order, subject to Court's discretion where delay is inordinate or prejudicial.
Precedent treatment: Higher court pronouncements endorse liberal approach to admitting documents to enable resolution on merits unless delay is undue or prejudicial; procedural technicalities should not thwart substantial justice where prejudice is absent.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the principle that procedure is the handmaid of justice and that courts should lean towards enabling adjudication on merits when procedural non-compliance does not cause serious prejudice. It evaluated facts: no recorded finding of deliberate delay by the corporate debtor, filing occurred before the reserved hearing date, reasons provided for collation from multiple project offices, and the Authority itself had adjourned for settlement. Taking these into account, the Court found sufficient cause to admit the additional documents and ordered the Authority to receive them and allow the operational creditor time to reply.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Discretion to refuse additional documents must consider whether there is inordinate delay or prejudice; absent such factors and where cogent reasons for late production are shown, leave ought to be granted to secure fair adjudication. Obiter - Emphasis on courts' duty to enable discovery of underlying truth and the permissive tenor of Rule-based leave provisions.
Conclusions: The Adjudicating Authority's rejection based on elapsed time without addressing sufficiency of reasons and prejudice was an incorrect exercise of discretion. The correct approach is to admit documents where sufficient cause is demonstrated and allow the opposing party reasonable opportunity to respond.
Issue 4: Consequences and remedial direction where Adjudicating Authority rejects application to admit documents without proper exercise of discretion
Legal framework: Appellate oversight ensures that discretionary orders are exercised judicially; where discretion is misapplied, appellate court can set aside and remit for further consideration or direct admission subject to conditions.
Precedent treatment: Appellate courts have remitted or allowed filing where lower tribunals declined to admit documents without proper judicial consideration of reasons and prejudice.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given absence of findings that the corporate debtor caused delay or sought to prolong proceedings, and in view of rules permitting subsequent filings and the need for substantial justice, the appellate court concluded that the appropriate remedy was to set aside the rejection, admit the documents, and grant the operational creditor time to reply, while making no pronouncement on the merits of those documents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where discretionary denial to admit documents is unsustainably founded on elapsed time without assessment of reasons or prejudice, appellate court may set aside the order and permit filing, providing time for adversarial response. Obiter - Directions as to fixing fresh dates by the Adjudicating Authority to continue adjudication in accordance with law.
Conclusions: The Court set aside the impugned order, allowed the additional documents to be taken on record, directed a limited timeline for the opposing party to file reply, and left substantive evaluation of the documents to the Adjudicating Authority. The direction preserves both the right to fair adjudication and procedural fairness to the opposing party.
Rejection of application filed by the Appellant, the Corporate Debtor for taking additional documents on record - Adjudicating Authority while rejecting the application observed that the Corporate Debtor had adequate opportunity to place the documents on record at two prior stages - HELD THAT:- Corporate Debtor did not take any extension of time and complied the order by filing the reply on the date fixed. The Operational Creditor took time for filing rejoinder-affidavit and thereafter when the matter was taken on 27.06.2025 where Adjudicating Authority passed following order noticing that the parties have expressed their willingness to explore the settlement.
In the reply to demand notice, the Corporate Debtor has to bring to the notice of the Operational Creditor (a) existence of a dispute, if any, or record of the pendency of the suit or arbitration proceedings; (b) the payment of unpaid operational debt. Sub-section (2) of Section 8 does not contemplate filing of any other record or document except those referred to in sub-section (2). The view of the Adjudicating Authority is not subscribed that at the time of submitting reply to the demand notice Corporate Debtor had opportunity to place the documents which are sought to be filed along with the IA on record. It is true that at the time of filing of Affidavit-in-Reply, all necessary documents could have been filed but the question of submission of additional documents only arises when pleadings are complete and any document which may deem necessary by the parties has not been brought on the record. Rule 55 of the NCLT Rules, 2016 empowers the Court to grant leave on such terms as the Tribunal may deem fit subsequent to filing of reply, thus, accepting additional documents after filing reply is contemplated by the rule itself.
The present is a case where the Corporate Debtor has neither taken any adjournment nor has been prolonging the proceeding. Neither any finding has been recorded by the Adjudicating Authority that the Corporate Debtor is causing delay in disposal of the proceeding. It is true that if a party causes undue delay and is prolonging proceeding, Adjudicating Authority can refuse to exercise its discretion in accepting the document. The facts of the present case, as noted above, clearly indicate that reply was filed by the Corporate Debtor within the time allowed by the Court without seeking any extension of time. Adjudicating Authority itself granted opportunity to explore settlement by its order passed on 27.06.2025 and on 27.06.2025, the next date fixed was 17.07.2025 when parties to report the outcome of the settlement - The relevancy of the document has neither been adjudicated by the Adjudicating Authority nor it is necessary to express any opinion on the relevancy of the documents which are sought to be brought on the record by the Corporate Debtor and it is for the Adjudicating Authority to consider the same.
The present is not a case where application filed by the Corporate Debtor was held not maintainable nor any such finding has been entered by the Adjudicating Authority in the impugned order. Adjudicating Authority although have not held that application is not maintainable but rejected the application on merits where order was reserved for issuance of notice and maintainability.
Present was a case where sufficient cause has been made out by the Corporate Debtor in IA No.3245 of 2025 to take additional documents on record - the impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Adjudicating Authority could entertain an application in insolvency proceedings for enforcement of an arbitral award. (ii) Whether insufficiency of stamp duty rendered the arbitral award unenforceable. (iii) Whether delay beyond 90 days under the MSME framework made the award a nullity.
Issue (i): Whether the Adjudicating Authority could entertain an application in insolvency proceedings for enforcement of an arbitral award.
Analysis: The jurisdiction conferred by the insolvency statute was treated as wide enough to entertain claims by or against the corporate debtor and questions arising out of or in relation to insolvency resolution. The overriding effect of the insolvency statute was applied to hold that, where there is inconsistency, it prevails over the arbitration law. The award had attained finality and could be pursued in aid of resolution of the corporate debtor.
Conclusion: Yes. The Adjudicating Authority could entertain the application and the objection on lack of jurisdiction failed.
Issue (ii): Whether insufficiency of stamp duty rendered the arbitral award unenforceable.
Analysis: The defect of insufficient stamping was treated as curable and not a ground to ignore the award altogether in insolvency proceedings. The award was not held to be void on that account.
Conclusion: No. The stamp defect did not nullify the award or prevent its consideration.
Issue (iii): Whether delay beyond 90 days under the MSME framework made the award a nullity.
Analysis: The 90-day timeline was held to be directory rather than mandatory. Non-compliance with that timeline and delayed submission of the award did not by itself render the award invalid or a nullity.
Conclusion: No. The award was not invalidated merely because it was issued beyond the 90-day period.
Final Conclusion: The challenge to the impugned order failed, the award was treated as capable of being pursued in the insolvency proceedings, and the appeal was rejected.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the insolvency statute expressly confers jurisdiction and overrides inconsistent laws, an arbitral award forming part of the corporate debtor's claim may be pursued in insolvency proceedings, and curable defects such as insufficient stamping or delay beyond a directory timeline do not, by themselves, render the award a nullity.
Jurisdiction of Adjudicating Authority under Section 60(5) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 to entertain claims and enforce awards during CIRP - overriding effect of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code over other laws (Section 238) - enforceability of arbitral awards in insolvency proceedings/CIRP - directory nature of the 90day timeline under Section 18(5) of the MSME Act, 2006 - curability of insufficient stamping of documents in IBC proceedings
Jurisdiction of Adjudicating Authority under Section 60(5) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 to entertain claims and enforce awards during CIRP - overriding effect of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code over other laws (Section 238) - enforceability of arbitral awards in insolvency proceedings/CIRP - Adjudicating Authority was competent to entertain and decide IA for enforcement of the Arbitral Award during the CIRP instead of the Resolution Professional approaching a civil court under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the IBC is a self-contained, timebound code whose provisions, including Section 60(5), vest the Adjudicating Authority with jurisdiction to entertain applications and claims arising out of or in relation to insolvency resolution proceedings. Given the nonobstante clause in Section 60(5) and the overriding provision in Section 238, matters within the domain of the Code must be adjudicated by the Adjudicating Authority to ensure timely resolution. Acceptance that the RP must first seek execution in a civil court would frustrate the Code's timelines and purpose. The Adjudicating Authority therefore acted within jurisdiction in entertaining and allowing the IA filed by the Resolution Professional to give effect to the Arbitral Award in the CIRP. [Paras 31, 32, 33, 34, 35]
The Adjudicating Authority had jurisdiction under Section 60(5) of the IBC to entertain and decide the IA for enforcement of the Arbitral Award during CIRP; the appeal on this ground fails.
Directory nature of the 90day timeline under Section 18(5) of the MSME Act, 2006 - enforceability of arbitral awards in insolvency proceedings/CIRP - Delayed submission of the arbitral award beyond the 90day period under Section 18(5) of the MSME Act, 2006 does not render the award a nullity for the purposes of enforcement in CIRP. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal agreed with the Resolution Professional's submissions and relevant authorities that the 90day timeline prescribed under Section 18(5) of the MSME Act is directory rather than mandatory. Noncompliance with the timeline and delayed submission of the award, without demonstrable prejudice, does not invalidate the award such that it cannot be enforced in insolvency proceedings. The Tribunal noted supportive judicial precedent and applied that principle to sustain the award's enforceability in the CIRP. [Paras 38]
Noncompliance with the 90day timeline under Section 18(5) MSME Act does not render the arbitral award a nullity; this plea of the appellant is rejected.
Curability of insufficient stamping of documents in IBC proceedings - enforceability of arbitral awards in insolvency proceedings/CIRP - Insufficient stamping of the Arbitral Award is curable and does not preclude the Adjudicating Authority from entertaining enforcement in CIRP. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal accepted the Resolution Professional's contention, supported by recent authorities, that deficiency of stamp on the award is a curable irregularity and does not bar the NCLT from considering the claim in insolvency proceedings. Consequently, the plea that the award was inadmissible for want of sufficient stamping was not a valid ground to set aside the Adjudicating Authority's order allowing enforcement in CIRP. [Paras 37]
The contention that the award is invalid due to insufficient stamping is repelled; the defect is curable and does not defeat enforcement in the CIRP.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is dismissed. The Tribunal finds no error in the Impugned Order: the Adjudicating Authority rightly entertained and allowed the IA for enforcement of the Arbitral Award in the CIRP under the IBC; the award is not a nullity for delay under Section 18(5) MSME Act; and insufficient stamping is curable in the insolvency context. The appeal is rejected and stands dismissed; no costs.
Issues: (i) Whether the homebuyer-appellants had locus and could maintain the appeal despite not filing claims within the original claim period; (ii) Whether the withdrawal of the corporate insolvency resolution process was vitiated by fraud and suppression of material facts, warranting recall of the withdrawal order.
Issue (i): Whether the homebuyer-appellants had locus and could maintain the appeal despite not filing claims within the original claim period.
Analysis: The appellants were allottees in the real estate project and their agreements and payment records were available in the corporate debtor's own records. The public announcement and creditor-communication process were found to have been ineffective, and the resolution professional did not take adequate steps to identify and include the known homebuyers as financial creditors. The class of homebuyers could not be denied participation merely because they had not filed claims during the claim window where the omission was attributable to the deficient insolvency process.
Conclusion: The appellants had locus and the appeal was maintainable.
Issue (ii): Whether the withdrawal of the corporate insolvency resolution process was vitiated by fraud and suppression of material facts, warranting recall of the withdrawal order.
Analysis: The record showed that a committee of creditors had already been constituted and meetings had been held, yet the withdrawal application proceeded on the assertion that the matter was still at a pre-committee stage. Since withdrawal after constitution of the committee requires compliance with Section 12A and approval of 90% of the voting share, the misstatement about the non-formation of the committee was material. The omission of known homebuyers from the process, despite their availability from the debtor's records, further demonstrated suppression of material facts. The Tribunal also recognised that recall is available in exercise of inherent jurisdiction where an order is obtained by fraud.
Conclusion: The withdrawal order was vitiated by fraud and suppression of material facts and was liable to be recalled.
Final Conclusion: The impugned dismissal of the recall application was set aside, the withdrawal of insolvency proceedings was undone, and the corporate insolvency resolution process was restored for continuation before the Adjudicating Authority.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a withdrawal of CIRP is sought after constitution of the committee of creditors, strict compliance with Section 12A is mandatory, and any material misrepresentation or suppression that bypasses this requirement constitutes fraud on the tribunal and justifies recall in exercise of inherent jurisdiction.
Rejection of application seeking recall of the order, which had allowed withdrawal of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) of Corporate Debtor - failure to appreciate the existence of substantial evidence on recall of orders obtained by fraud - violation of principles of natural justice - locus of Appellants’ (homebuyers) to agitate their claim at this belated stage due to non-filing of claim within stipulated period.
Whether the Appellants’ (homebuyers) have the locus to agitate their claim at this belated stage due to non-filing of claim within stipulated period and whether their application is maintainable at this stage when the CIRP Process has been completed? - HELD THAT:- The public announcement made by the earlier IRP was not done properly and failed to reach many genuine homebuyers. Although the IRP had access to Builder Buyer Agreements and payment records, he did not make the necessary efforts to inform or include all the homebuyers who had financial claims. As a result, the Committee of Creditors (CoC) was formed using claims from only a few homebuyers who happened to file them in time. More than 20 similarly placed homebuyers, including the Appellants, were completely left out. This means the CoC was incomplete and did not truly represent the full class of financial creditors - This led to a situation where the ex-management of the Corporate Debtor settled dues only with those few homebuyers whose claims were filed— while leaving out others from the same class of creditors. Such selective treatment of creditors within the same class is against the basic principles of the IBC and cannot be accepted.
The present case is squarely covered by Puneet Kaur [2022 (6) TMI 108 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELH] where the IRP-despite being in possession of Builder Buyer Agreements and payment receipts - failed to recognise the claims of Appellants and other similarly placed homebuyers as financial creditors, and proceeded to file a withdrawal application without disclosing their exclusion - This omission runs directly counter to the obligations outlined in Puneet Kaur and reinforces the contention that the CIRP was conducted in breach of statutory duties and in disregard of the rights of an entire class of creditors.
The public notice of the CIRP was not circulated properly due to which the Homebuyers (Financial Creditors in class) could not submit their claims to the IRP. IRP did not make any effort to ensure that Homebuyers whose names feature on the Financial Records of the CD were contacted and duly informed about initiation of CIRP process. It is due to such laxity on the part of IRP that all homebuyers could not filed their claim in time - the Appellants have the locus and the appeal is maintainable.
Whether the withdrawal of CIRP of Hector Realty Venture Private Limited by order dated 07.09.2022 was vitiated by fraud and suppression of material facts? - HELD THAT:- A CoC was constituted by the Respondent No.2/ IRP during the CIRP. The minutes of the 2nd CoC meeting dated 07.09.2020 have been placed on record by the Appellants as Annexure-5, confirm that not only was a CoC in place, but meetings were being held and decisions were being taken on financial matters. This fact has not been rebutted by the Appellant.
It is undisputed that a public announcement was made by the IRP in January 2020. The CIRP remained in force for more than two years before the withdrawal application was filed in 2022. What is materially relevant is the fact that in the withdrawal application filed by the IRP, it was asserted that the CoC had not been constituted, and therefore, the CIRP could be withdrawn without following Section 12A. This assertion was the foundational basis of the withdrawal order dated 07.09.2022.
A withdrawal application under Section 12A, once CoC is constituted, is permissible only with the approval of 90% voting share of the CoC. The misrepresentation by the IRP that no CoC was constituted effectively nullified this statutory protection, allowing withdrawal without creditor participation. This amounted to suppression of facts and also distorted the judicial process by misleading the court on a crucial jurisdictional fact. Such suppression, when deliberate and material, constitutes fraud on the court.
In the present case, it is clear that the CoC of corporate Debtor was constituted prior to 07.09.2020 i.e. before the date of 2nd CoC meeting, minutes for which were placed on record by the appellants. However, the IRP, in the withdrawal application filed vide I.A. No. 4281on 05.09.2022, falsely represented that no CoC had been formed. As a result, the withdrawal was processed and granted without the required 90% approval of the CoC under Section 12A. Due to this misrepresentation the Adjudicating authority allowed the withdrawal of CIRP on 07.09.2022 without creditor consultation or consent. It is this violation that goes to the very root of the subsequent recall plea filed in NCLT.
The law on the power of recall by NCLT and NCLAT is also well settled. There are precedents which make it abundantly clear that where fraud is alleged and prima facie demonstrated, recall is not only permissible—it becomes necessary to prevent abuse of the process.
The withdrawal order dated 07.09.2022 was vitiated by fraud. The Appellants have substantiated the allegation through documentary evidence, and the Respondents have not been able to rebut or explain the contradictions. The Adjudicating Authority’s refusal to recall the order, in the face of such evidence, constitutes a serious error of law and a failure of judicial duty. This issue is also answered in affirmative.
The order dated 14.05.2024 passed by the Adjudicating Authority is set aside - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the petitioner is entitled to grant of regular bail in proceedings under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), having regard to the mandatory twin conditions in Section 45(1)(i)-(ii).
2. Whether the material in the ECIR/prosecution complaint discloses prima facie involvement of the petitioner in "processes or activities" connected with proceeds of crime within the meaning of Section 3 and Section 2(1)(u) of PMLA.
3. Whether the pendency or non-completion of proceedings in the predicate offences (scheduled offences) affects the maintainability or merits of a money-laundering prosecution and the entitlement to bail under PMLA.
4. Whether statements recorded under Section 50 of PMLA and the other investigation material (bank analyses, audit reports, seized documents) can be relied upon at the bail stage to satisfy the twin conditions of Section 45.
5. Whether the period of incarceration or delay in trial (approx. six months) constitutes an independent ground for bail in a PMLA prosecution alleging large-scale embezzlement of public funds.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Entitlement to bail under Section 45 of PMLA
Legal framework: Section 45(1) of PMLA imposes a statutory bar on release unless (i) Public Prosecutor permitted to oppose; and (ii) court is satisfied on reasonable grounds that accused is not guilty and is not likely to commit an offence while on bail. Sub-section (2) clarifies non-bailable, cognizable nature. Section 71 gives PMLA overriding effect over other laws; Section 65 makes CrPC applicable only insofar as not inconsistent.
Precedent treatment: The judgment follows and applies the law laid down by the Supreme Court in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary and subsequent decisions (e.g., Tarun Kumar) that the twin conditions are mandatory and must be satisfied even when bail is sought under general CrPC provisions; the rigours of Section 45 apply irrespective of the procedural form of the plea. The Court also relies on authorities treating economic offences as grave for bail considerations (e.g., Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy; Nimmagadda Prasad) and recent pronouncements on restrictive bail jurisprudence for special statutes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasizes the mandatory character of Section 45 and holds that the twin conditions require satisfaction on reasonable grounds at the bail stage. The statutory presumption under Section 24 (that proceeds of crime are involved unless contrary proved) shifts the burden on the accused. Given the prosecution material, the Court finds that the petitioner has not discharged any burden to create reasonable grounds to believe he is not guilty or that he will not reoffend.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 45's twin conditions are mandatory and apply to bail applications in PMLA prosecutions; the accused bears burden in face of statutory presumptions. Obiter - comparative references to UAPA and other special statutes illustrating restrictive bail policy.
Conclusion: The Court concludes the twin conditions of Section 45 are not met; bail application is to be dismissed.
Issue 2 - Prima facie involvement in money-laundering (Sections 2(1)(u) and 3)
Legal framework: "Proceeds of crime" defined in Section 2(1)(u) (as broadened by explanation), and the offence under Section 3 covers concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projecting/claiming as untainted property. Section 4 prescribes punishment.
Precedent treatment: Reliance on Vijay Madanlal Choudhary for broad reach of "proceeds of crime" and the independent and standalone nature of the offence under Section 3 vis-à-vis predicate offences.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examines ECIR/prosecution complaint paragraphs detailing bank transfers, audit findings, diversion of NRHM funds, alleged layering through associates and family accounts, acquisition of assets, search and seizure results and statements recorded under Section 50. The Court treats the combination of (i) bank analysis showing large transfers and misappropriation; (ii) special audit report; (iii) seizure of cash, documents and assets; and (iv) witness statements describing modus operandi, as material that prima facie establishes involvement in processes enumerated in Section 3 (concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projection as untainted property).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the prosecution produces cogent documentary and testimonial material (bank analyses, audit, S.50 statements, seizures), a prima facie case under Section 3 can be made at bail stage; the offence is independent of predicate FIRs. Obiter - detailed factual inferences about specific transactions and asset purchases.
Conclusion: The prosecution material, on a prima facie view, indicates involvement of the accused in money-laundering processes; petitioner failed to negate statutory presumption under Section 24.
Issue 3 - Effect of pendency of predicate FIRs/charge-sheets on money-laundering prosecution and bail
Legal framework: PMLA links to scheduled offences but Section 3 is a distinct offence; explanation to Section 2(1)(u) and judicial precedents clarify independence.
Precedent treatment: Cites Vijay Madanlal Choudhary and subsequent authorities holding that money-laundering prosecution and satisfaction of charges under Section 3 do not depend on the completion of proceedings in the predicate case; money-laundering is autonomous for prosecution and bail considerations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejects the contention that non-filing of charge-sheets in predicate offences prevents PMLA prosecution or entitles accused to bail. The statutory scheme and judicial decisions support independent application of Section 3 and applicability of Section 24 presumption at bail stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Pendency of predicate proceedings does not entitle the accused to bail in a PMLA prosecution if the twin conditions of Section 45 are not met.
Conclusion: The pendency of predicate proceedings does not assist the petitioner; argument is legally unsustainable.
Issue 4 - Reliance on investigative material (Section 50 statements, banks, audit, seizures) at bail stage
Legal framework: Section 50 permits summons and recording of statements; admissibility and probative value of such statements have been upheld in precedent (Rohit Tandon).
Precedent treatment: Court follows Rohit Tandon on admissibility and Vijay Madanlal Choudhary on scope of material required to meet Section 45 twin conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treats statements recorded under Section 50, bank analyses, special audit reports and seizure material as cogent evidence that can form the basis for a prima facie conclusion at bail stage. These items collectively demonstrate modus operandi, money trail and asset acquisition inconsistent with known lawful income.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Investigative material including S.50 statements and audit/bank analyses can be relied upon to assess the twin conditions under Section 45 at bail stage.
Conclusion: The investigative material furnishes reasonable grounds that the petitioner is prima facie guilty; reliance on that material to deny bail is justified.
Issue 5 - Custodial period/delay as ground for bail
Legal framework & precedent: Supreme Court authorities recognise personal liberty but also hold that delay or custody, by itself, cannot override gravity of offence and statutory bail restraints in special laws (Tarun Kumar; decisions on UAPA/UAP Act jurisprudence).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes petitioner's custody of around six months but reiterates that for grave economic offences with complex investigations and strict statutory regime, delay alone is not a sufficient ground for bail. Given the prima facie material and potential to influence witnesses/obstruct investigation, incarceration period does not tilt balance in favour of bail.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Period of custody, without more, does not mandate bail where statutory conditions for PMLA bail are unmet and the offence is grave.
Conclusion: Delay/custody does not justify grant of bail in the present circumstances.
Overall conclusion
On the totality of facts, statutory scheme, and precedents, the Court finds the twin conditions of Section 45(1) PMLA unsatisfied, that prima facie material establishes involvement in money-laundering processes, and that neither pendency of predicate proceedings nor custody period warrants bail; the bail application is dismissed. The findings recorded are confined to bail consideration and without prejudice to trial merits.
Money Laundering - schdeduled offences/predicate offences - large-scale conspiracy involving the criminal misappropriation of public funds under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) - petitioner has failed to present any material or credible ground that would dismantle the case of the prosecution at this prima facie stage - condition of Section 45 of PMLA not met - HELD THAT:- The objective of the PMLA is to prevent money laundering which has posed a serious threat not only to the financial systems of the country but also to its integrity and sovereignty. The offence of money laundering is a very serious offence which is committed by an individual with a deliberate desire and the motive to enhance his gains, disregarding the interest of the nation and the society as a whole, and such offence by no stretch of imagination can be regarded as an offence of trivial nature. The stringent provisions have been made in the Act to combat the menace of money laundering.
The reason for giving explanation under Section 2(1)(u) is by way of clarification to the effect that whether as per the substantive provision of Section 2(1)(u), the property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence or the value of any such property or where such property is taken or held outside the country but by way of explanation the proceeds of crime has been given broader implication by including property not only derived or obtained from the scheduled offence but also any property which may directly or indirectly be derived or obtained as a result of any criminal activity relatable to the scheduled offence - the conditions enumerated in Section 45 of PMLA will have to be complied with even in respect of an application for bail made under CrPC/BNSS, coupled with the provisions of Section 24 provides that unless the contrary is proved, the authority or the Court shall presume that proceeds of crime are involved in money- laundering and the burden to prove that the proceeds of crime are not involved, lies on the petitioner.
It needs to refer herein that while dealing with bail applications under UAP Act 1967, the Hon'ble Apex Court recently in the case of Gurwinder Singh Vs. State of Punjab and Anr. [2024 (3) TMI 175 - SUPREME COURT] has observed that the conventional idea in bail jurisprudence vis-à-vis ordinary penal offences that the discretion of Courts must tilt in favour of the oft-quoted phrase - ‘bail is the rule, jail is the exception’ - unless circumstances justify otherwise - does not find any place while dealing with bail applications under UAP Act and the ‘exercise’ of the general power to grant bail under the UAP Act is severely restrictive in scope.
The material collected during investigation including detailed bank analysis, audit reports, and voluntary statements recorded under Section 50 of the PMLA collectively indicates that the Petitioner/accused, in criminal conspiracy with others, knowingly indulged in the concealment, possession, acquisition and projection of proceeds of crime, thereby committing the offence of money laundering - It is evident from the prosecution complaint that during searches conducted under Section 17 of PMLA on 04.07.2024, cash amounting to 22.17 lakhs was seized from the premises of the Petitioner/accused, along with loose sheets indicating benami ownership structures, handwritten ledgers, diaries, cheque books, and bank statements.
The conditions enumerated in Section 45 of P.M.L.A. will have to be complied with even in respect of an application for bail made under Section 439 Cr.P.C. That coupled with the provisions of Section 24 provides that unless the contrary is proved, the authority or the Court shall presume that proceeds of crime are involved in money laundering and the burden to prove that the proceeds of crime are not involved, lies on the petitioner - on the basis of the discussion made hereinabove the contention of the learned counsel for the petitioner that even if the entire ECIR will be taken into consideration, no offence will be said to be committed so as to attract the ingredients of Sections 3 & 4 of the P.M.L. Act, 2002, is totally misplaced in the light of accusation as mentioned in prosecution complaint.
Admittedly, the petitioner has been in judicial custody since 19.02.2025 but delay, under the aforesaid circumstances, does not entitle the petitioner to bail. The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Tarun Kumar v. Directorate of Enforcement [2023 (11) TMI 904 - SUPREME COURT], has authoritatively held that while the period of custody may be a relevant factor, it cannot by itself override the gravity of the offence, the seriousness of allegations or the statutory twin conditions under Section 45 of the Act 2002 - Similarly, in Satyendar Kumar Jain v. Enforcement Directorate, [2024 (3) TMI 862 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon’ble Apex Court refused bail despite protracted proceedings, noting that the complexity inherent in economic offences.
Having regard to the totality of the facts and circumstances of the case, this Court is of the opinion that the petitioner has miserably failed to satisfy this Court that there are reasonable grounds for believing that he is not guilty of the alleged offences. On the contrary, there is sufficient material collected by the respondent ED to show that he is prima facie guilty of the alleged offences - The material on record, prima facie, indicates that the petitioner knowingly and intentionally participated in the processes and activities connected with the concealment, possession, acquisition, and use of proceeds of crime, thereby satisfying all ingredients of the offence of money laundering under Section 3 of the PMLA.
This Court is of the view that the instant application is fit to be dismissed and as such, stands dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a property provisionally attached as "value/equivalent" of proceeds of crime under the PMLA should be released after the ED subsequently confirms attachment of certain other properties as direct/indirect proceeds of crime.
2. Whether the pendency of a subsequent Adjudicating Authority order confirming attachment of other properties (alleged direct proceeds) mandates release of a property earlier attached as equivalent value when the total proceeds of crime exceed aggregate attachments.
3. Whether reliance on the proposition that "alternative/tenant" properties (attached as equivalent value) stand released upon attachment/confirmation of direct proceeds is sufficient to compel release where overall proceeds of crime remain substantially higher than total attachments.
4. Procedural scope: Whether an appellant's narrow focus on release (rather than challenging merits) affects the Tribunal's exercise of discretion under Section 26 PMLA.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Release of property attached as "value/equivalent" after subsequent confirmation of other properties as direct/indirect proceeds
Legal framework: Attachment and confirmation under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 permit provisional attachment of property as proceeds of crime or as equivalent/value where direct proceeds are not traceable; the Adjudicating Authority confirms attachment after consideration of material.
Precedent treatment: The appellant relied on a High Court exposition that properties attached as equivalent (alternative attachable properties) are to be treated as tenant properties and may be released when direct proceeds are found/attached. The Tribunal considered that precedent but did not apply it to mandate release in the facts of this matter.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the quantum of alleged proceeds of crime (calculated at Rs. 743 Crore) and compared it to the aggregate value of all attachments made by the Enforcement Directorate (including the subsequently confirmed direct/indirect attachments). The total attachment value remained substantially lower than the total proceeds of crime. The Tribunal reasoned that where overall proceeds of crime significantly exceed total attachments, the mere fact that some properties have later been confirmed as direct/indirect proceeds does not automatically entitle the release of a property previously attached as equivalent/value.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the aggregate attachment value (direct and equivalent attachments) is materially less than the quantified proceeds of crime, an application for release of a property attached as equivalent/value will not be allowed solely because some other properties were later confirmed as direct proceeds. Obiter - Observations on the treatment of "tenant" properties and the cited High Court view were considered but not treated as obliging release in such factual matrix.
Conclusions: The Tribunal denied release of the property attached as equivalent/value because the total proceeds alleged substantially exceeded total attachments; thus the ground of subsequent confirmation of other properties did not satisfy release criteria.
Issue 2 - Effect of aggregate quantum of proceeds of crime vis-à-vis aggregate attachments
Legal framework: PMLA contemplates attachment of proceeds of crime and allows enforcement authorities to attach properties whose value corresponds to proceeds when direct proceeds are not available in India; quantification of proceeds is material to determining sufficiency of attachments.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied upon the submissions and investigation record to treat the quantification of proceeds as determinative for the release application; no authority was held to override an uncontested or sufficiently supported quantification that exceeds attachments.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the ED's calculation of proceeds (Rs. 743 Crore) derived from investigation (siphoning of FCCB funds and bogus purchases), and noted that total attachments (including the subsequently confirmed properties) were far less than that figure. Given this imbalance, the Tribunal concluded that permitting release of any attached property would frustrate the statutory scheme and the investigatory object of PMLA.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - When the quantified proceeds of crime exceed the total value of all attachments by a substantial margin, an application to release an attached property on the basis that alternative/direct properties were later attached should be refused. Obiter - Remarks that further quantification remains under investigation and that attachments may be reassessed at trial or in the Adjudicating Authority.
Conclusions: The Tribunal dismissed the release application and appeal because the overall confiscatable pool (proceeds) remained far greater than the sum total of attachments.
Issue 3 - Reliance on authority treating "alternative/tenant" properties and effect of subsequent direct-attach confirmations
Legal framework: Judicial pronouncements recognize the concept of alternative/tenant properties and permit attachment of equivalent value; courts have grappled with when such properties must be released if direct proceeds are later located and attached.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal acknowledged the cited High Court decision explaining the concept of tenant/alternative properties. That authority was examined but not applied to produce the relief sought because factual thresholds (aggregate proceeds vs attachments) differed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the legal proposition relied upon by the appellant does not automatically mandate release in every case where some direct proceeds are later attached. The decisive factor is whether the aggregate value of attachments satisfies the quantified proceeds of crime. Since the attachments remained insufficient to cover the alleged proceeds, the principle invoked by the appellant did not operate to require release.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The applicability of precedents on "alternative" properties depends on factual parity between proceeds quantified and aggregate attachments; courts/tribunals need not release an equivalent-attached property where overall attachments are insufficient. Obiter - The Tribunal did not undertake a detailed overruling or distinction of the cited precedent beyond applying it factually.
Conclusions: Reliance on the High Court exposition did not entitle the appellant to release under the facts; the Tribunal distinguished the cited authority on the basis of insufficiency of total attachments relative to total proceeds.
Issue 4 - Procedural posture and scope of appeal where appellant limited its challenge to release
Legal framework: Appeals under Section 26 PMLA permit challenge to Adjudicating Authority orders; appellants may raise substantive and/or interlocutory reliefs (including release). The Tribunal retains discretion to decide reliefs on merits and in light of the record.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal noted the appellant's strategic narrowing of arguments to seek release rather than contest the merits of attachment; this limited scope informed the Tribunal's assessment but did not preclude consideration of the ED's broader factual matrix.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the appellant did not press substantive merits of the original attachment order but confined submissions to the release claim based on subsequent confirmations. The Tribunal nonetheless examined the full quantification and investigative material submitted by the ED to determine whether release was appropriate.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - The Tribunal's observation that appellants remain free to raise all valid defenses at trial or before the Special Judge (PMLA) is permissive and procedural. Ratio - An appeal limited to seeking release can be decided against the appellant where the broader evidentiary picture (quantified proceeds v. total attachments) negates entitlement to interim or permanent release.
Conclusions: The appeal and related interlocutory application were dismissed; the Tribunal granted liberty to raise defenses before the Special Judge, preserving statutory and procedural rights without affecting substantive adjudication by the trial court.
Money Laundering - provisional attachment of properties - proceeds of crime - HELD THAT:- The total alleged proceeds of crime made by the accused persons is much more than the total attachment made by the ED, till date. Hence, the question of releasing the properties of the present appellant does not arise, just because additional properties (quite less than POC of Rs. 743 Crores) are attached by ED as direct/indirect proceeds of crime.
Application dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Adjudicating Authority rightly confirmed the Provisional Attachment Order (PAO) under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 by treating specified immovable properties as proceeds of crime.
2. Whether the valuation of attached immovable properties for the purpose of attachment (valuation fixed at Rs. 5.40 Crores vs. claimed market value Rs. 10.21 Crores) was legally correct and consistent with the definition of "value" under the Act.
3. Whether limned admissions and statements (including statements recorded under Section 50(2) of the Act) and documentary material were sufficient to infer possession of proceeds of crime by the persons whose properties were attached.
4. Whether properties alleged to belong to certain appellants were mis-identified or otherwise incorrectly attached (including claims of prior sale/registered title and transfers after alleged fraud).
5. Whether failure by a claimant to disclose source of consideration in response to a notice under Section 8(1) of the Act disentitles the claimant to challenge attachment or supports confirmation of PAO.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of confirmation of PAO treating immovable properties as proceeds of crime
Legal framework: The Adjudicating Authority may confirm provisional attachment where property is shown to be proceeds of crime or of equivalent value; attachment may follow investigation under the Act where predicate offences and laundering are alleged.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal considered standard principles of the Act (definition of proceeds, attachment for equivalent value) as applied by the Adjudicating Authority; no contrary precedent was invoked or overruled in the text.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal assessed the investigation material (ECIR, statements, charge-sheet and admitted facts) showing large-scale fraudulent loan sanctioning and siphoning of bank funds. The investigation linked specified loans and transfers to firms/partners controlled by the accused and showed amounts transferred to entities associated with the appellants. The Tribunal found that the appellants (notably those who had arranged land and entities receiving funds) were implicated sufficiently to justify attachment. The Tribunal emphasized that where proceeds of crime in cash/other forms are not available in the hands of the person, properties of equivalent value can be attached.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - confirmation of PAO justified where investigation and statements link person to receipt/possession of proceeds and equivalent-value attachment is permissible when proceeds are not available. Obiter - factual observations about conduct of specific co-accused and bank officers beyond what was strictly necessary to the legal conclusion.
Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the Adjudicating Authority's confirmation of PAO as lawful on the basis of the material showing involvement of the appellants in laundering and receipt/possession of proceeds of crime.
Issue 2: Correctness of valuation of attached immovable properties
Legal framework: "Value" for attachment under the Act is determined in accordance with the statutory definition (valuation linked to consideration/price paid as per section defining "value").
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied the statutory definition of "value" under the Act to determine valuation for attachment; no contrary authority was relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellants challenged valuation (claimed market value higher than value adopted). The Tribunal held that valuation was to be determined based on the amount of consideration on which property was purchased in view of the statutory definition of "value." The appellant's own written arguments admitted proceeds received and disputed only higher market valuation; the Tribunal treated the admitted amounts and record as determinative for the purpose of attachment valuation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - valuation for attachment is to be determined by the statutory meaning of "value" (consideration), not by a broader asserted market valuation; admissions in pleadings/written arguments are material to valuation assessment. Obiter - commentary on other orders (bank account freezes, gold loan) not part of the present challenge.
Conclusions: The Tribunal found no fault with the Adjudicating Authority's valuation method and upheld the adopted valuation for attachment purposes.
Issue 3: Reliance on statements under Section 50(2) and other investigative material to establish possession/receipt of proceeds of crime
Legal framework: Investigative statements and admissions made under the Act, together with transaction records and other documents, form part of material to infer involvement in money-laundering and possession/receipt of proceeds.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal accepted the probative value of statements made under Section 50(2) as part of the investigative matrix corroborating transactions and conspiracy, without treating them as sole determinative evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reviewed multiple co-accused statements, banking transaction records, charge-sheet facts and admitted portions of appellants' written arguments. It concluded that statements by various loanees and participants implicated the appellants in a scheme to obtain loans by misusing documents, arranging land in others' names, and transferring funds to firms associated with the appellants. Where the appellant had effectively admitted receipt of specified amounts in written submissions, those admissions further supported the finding of proceeds in their hands.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - statements under Section 50(2), when part of a larger framework of corroborative documentary/investigative material, can legitimately be relied upon to uphold an attachment. Obiter - observations critiquing attempts to expand appellate arguments beyond oral submissions.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that reliance on these statements and the totality of material was sufficient to conclude involvement in money laundering and possession of proceeds of crime by the appellants whose properties were attached.
Issue 4: Claims of mis-identification, prior sale and registered title - whether attachment was erroneous
Legal framework: Attachment may be set aside if the attached property demonstrably belongs to third parties and is not proceeds of crime; claimants must show title and, where required, sources of consideration.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal required claimants asserting independent title or mis-identification to produce documentary proof and, where a notice under the Act was issued, to comply with disclosure obligations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined claims of registered sale deeds and asserted prior purchases. It found that several claimants had admitted associations or had failed to substantiate independent sources of consideration. In at least one instance, the Tribunal found evidence of a deliberate transfer scheme to place property in others' names to avoid attachment. Where claimants failed to disclose sources in response to statutory notice, their title claims were weakened. The Tribunal treated isolated claims of mis-identification or subsequent registered sale as insufficient where the investigative material suggested the transfers were part of a device to conceal proceeds.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - bona fide third-party ownership and documentation can defeat attachment only when supported by credible documentary proof and disclosure of lawful source; mere registered deeds are insufficient if the transaction is shown to be a device to evade enforcement and the claimant cannot explain source of funds. Obiter - detailed factual findings about individual transfers.
Conclusions: The Tribunal rejected mis-identification and prior-title challenges where unsupported by source-disclosure or where transfers appeared to be part of a scheme to defeat attachment; such appeals failed.
Issue 5: Effect of failure to disclose source under Section 8(1) of the Act
Legal framework: A notice under Section 8(1) seeks disclosure of source of property acquisition; failure to disclose may be treated adversely in assessing whether property is proceeds of crime.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied the statutory scheme that places an onus on those claiming the property to show legitimate source when required by notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where a claimant failed to satisfactorily disclose source of consideration for acquisition (notably the claimant who relied on a registered sale deed but failed to explain how he could furnish consideration), Tribunal treated non-disclosure as material against the claimant. The Tribunal noted that the notice serves to elicit proof of legitimate acquisition; absence of such proof supported the inference that the transfer was to save property from attachment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - failure to disclose source in response to a statutory notice is a valid ground for denying relief from attachment and supports confirmation of PAO. Obiter - factual inferences about the claimant's means and the timing of transfers.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that non-disclosure under Section 8(1) fatally undermined the appellant's challenge and justified continuation of the attachment.
Overall Conclusion
The Tribunal concluded that the Adjudicating Authority rightly confirmed the PAO: investigative material, admissions and statements sufficiently linked the appellants to receipt/possession of proceeds of crime; valuation for attachment was in accordance with the statutory definition; claims of mis-identification or prior title failed for want of corroborative proof and source-disclosure; and failure to comply with statutory disclosure obligations further supported confirmation. All appeals were dismissed.
Money Laundering - attachment of properties - proceeds of crime - erroneus valuation for attachment of proceeds of crime - property in the hands of the appellants have been valued for Rs. 5.40 Crores which according to the appellant is worth of Rs. 10.21 Crores - Purchase of property - Acquisition pf property through the registered Sale Deed.
Property in the hands of the appellants have been valued for Rs. 5.40 Crores which according to the appellant is worth of Rs. 10.21 Crores - HELD THAT:- The appellant admitted about the fraudulent transaction by Shri Ravindra Kumar Bordia and dragged him in it where Rs. 1.55 Crores was shown to be personal gain of Shri Ravindra Kumar Bordia leaving appellant with Rs. 3.64 Crores only out of Rs. 5.19 Crores. This is virtual admission of the appellant to be in possession of the proceeds of crime and at this stage it may be clarified if the property is attached for the value thereof to the proceeds of crime, it happens when the proceeds of crime acquired or obtained directly or indirectly is not available in the hands of the person.
The statement of the witnesses recorded under Section 50(2) of the Act of 2002 and more specifically associated with Shri Ravindra Kumar Bordia has been referred by the appellant. The statement of aforesaid was sufficient to show that Shri Ravindra Kumar Bordia and Shri Dev Kishan Acharya had siphoned off bank funds for which a categorical statement was made by the witnesses. The statement of Shri Karan Sharma revealed withdrawal of Rs. 5.67 Crores from the loan account of the Co-operative Bank on the instructions of Shri Ravindra Kumar Bordia and Shri Dev Kishan Acharya. In the statement of Shri Jaakir Hussain Pathan, Shri Gotu Singh Rajput, Shri Chander Singh apart from Shri Ganpat Singh and other loanees had also implicated Shri Dev Kishan Acharya in conspiracy and in association with Shri Ravindra Kumar Bordia - the plea of Shri Dev Kishan Acharya cannot be accepted for causing interference in the impugned order. This is a fit case of money laundering in the hands of the appellants.
Purchase of property - HELD THAT:- There is an admission by the appellants in their written arguments that they had agreed to sale properties to Shri Dev Kishan Acharya and execution of Sale Deed was made in the name of the persons assigned by him. In any case, the appellants could not show the reason for filing appeal because the properties attached by the respondent are not claimed by them so as to save it by challenge to impugned order and therefore all the issues raised in the written arguments other than oral are for the sake of it and without showing as to how the appellants have been affected by the attachment of the property and certain arguments have been raised going contrary to their own admission about the association with Shri Dev Kishan Acharya. Thus, the arguments raised by two appellants are summarily rejected when they alleged to have not been named in the FIR or ECIR.
Acquisition pf property through the registered Sale Deed - appellant Shri Bheru Singh Dabar has challenged the order of attachment alleging that he acquired the property from Shri Chander Singh Bheel on 12.03.2016 through the registered Sale Deed - HELD THAT:- The appellant has failed to disclose the source to acquire the property even while filing the appeal. He has not produced any document to prove his earning from any of the legal sources to enable him to pass on consideration of Rs. 17,11,000/- for purchase of the property. The appellant in his written argument raised the issue that the property in question is not proceeds of crime while material on record indicates it to be nothing but the proceeds of crime and therefore appellant failed to disclose the source to pass on consideration of Rs. 17,11,000/- to purchase the property - The allegation about non-application of mind is also for the sake of it and without realizing that appellant himself failed to disclose the source for purchase of the property which was used by Shri Dev Kishan Acharya firstly getting it in the name of Shri Chander Singh Bheel and others and then to use it for obtaining the loan. If the property in question was under mortgage, how it was sold to the appellant is another question. In the light of aforesaid and in the absence of source to purchase the property in question, there are no substance in the appeal and accordingly it fails.
There are no substance in any of the appeals - appeals dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the attachment of the appellant's property was sustainable on the ground that the loan funds were diverted and formed part of the proceeds of crime; (ii) Whether proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act could be interdicted because insolvency proceedings and moratorium were stated to be pending.
Issue (i): Whether the attachment of the appellant's property was sustainable on the ground that the loan funds were diverted and formed part of the proceeds of crime.
Analysis: The appellant's own pleadings showed sanction and disbursement of the loan in the relevant period, including disbursement on 24.09.2018, and the record disclosed further diversion of the borrowed amount for purposes other than the sanctioned project. The transfer of funds to another entity, the admitted utilisation of part of the amount for unrelated repayment, and the surrounding circumstances supported the finding that the money was diverted and that the attached shares represented value equivalent to the tainted funds. The challenge based on a later factual narrative was found inconsistent with the pleadings and record.
Conclusion: The attachment was held to be justified and the appellant's challenge on this issue failed.
Issue (ii): Whether proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act could be interdicted because insolvency proceedings and moratorium were stated to be pending.
Analysis: The mere initiation of insolvency proceedings or the existence of a moratorium was held not to bar action under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act where the object was to protect the proceeds of crime. The Tribunal treated the anti-money laundering statute as operating in its own sphere and held that, absent approval of a resolution plan or other final insolvency consequence affecting the property, attachment proceedings could continue.
Conclusion: The insolvency-based objection was rejected and did not prevent the impugned attachment.
Final Conclusion: The appeal did not succeed because the Tribunal affirmed the finding that the property was liable to attachment as proceeds of crime and that insolvency proceedings did not oust the enforcement action under the money-laundering .
Ratio Decidendi: Where the record supports diversion of tainted funds, property traceable to or representing those funds may be attached under the prevention of money laundering framework, and pending insolvency proceedings or moratorium do not by themselves bar such action.
Money Laundering - provisional attachment order - scheduled offence - diversion of funds - misuse of official position and obtaining undue pecuniary advantage in conspiracy - initiation of proceedings of attachment during the pendency of the proceedings before the NCLT against M/s DHFL - HELD THAT:- The order of the Special Court, PMLA, Bombay is under challenge thus it has not attained finality and otherwise it is based on incorrect facts, thus under challenge. This Tribunal cannot pass an order going contrary to the pleading of the appeal and records available before us. It may be that the Special Court, PMLA, Bombay was misled in reference to the subsequent loan of Rs. 750 Crores sanctioned in favour of M/s Belief Realtors Pvt. Ltd. beneficially owned by Wadhawans. It has nothing to do with the loan of Rs. 678 Crores to the appellant company for the project “Avenue 54”. In any case, there are no substance in the argument of appellant that Rs. 115 Crores transferred to M/s Mentor Capital Ltd. was not out of the loan amount of Rs. 678 Crores sanctioned by M/s DHFL for the project “Avenue-54” - it is found a case of money laundering in view of the diversion of fund out of the proceeds generated by scheduled offence.
The issue now remains in reference to the proceedings before the NCLT where the matter has been taken against Sanjay Chhabria in reference to the litigation initiated by Beacon Trusteeship Ltd. A reference of the order dated 13.05.2022 of the NCLT has been given for initiation of Insolvency Resolution Process against Sanjay Chhabria where Mr. Pratul Thadi was appointed as Insolvency Resolution Professional for personal assets and business of Sanjay Chhabria and accordingly the shareholding of Sanjay Chhabria is presently covered by the Insolvency Resolution Process of IBC. It is with a further statement that Sanjay Chhabria was arrested by the CBI on 28.04.2022 and remained in judicial custody. The charge sheet was thereupon filed on 26.07.2022. The Enforcement Directorate also filed prosecution complaint on 04.08.2022. However, in the light of the appointment of Insolvency Resolution Professional, the proceedings under the PMLA would not sustain. It is unable to accept the argument aforesaid. It is not only in the light of the fact that merely initiation of the proceedings before the NCLT, the respondents were not precluded to proceed in pursuance to the ECIR but to pass an order for attachment of property to protect the proceeds of crime. The law has been settled by the Delhi High Court even in reference to Section 14 of the IBC to hold that proceedings under the Act of 2002 are not precluded even if the moratorium has been issued.
The amount of Rs. 678 Crores was sanctioned by M/s DHFL to the appellant company for construction of the project “Avenue- 54” but the amount aforesaid was diverted for different purpose which includes Rs. 115 Crores transferred to M/s Mentor Capital Ltd. not as in the course of business but with the object to purchase shares of M/s DHFL to stop its price to go further down. In the light of the aforesaid, when the appellant company was assigned the project of “Avenue-54” with sanction of the loan, it was not authorized to divert the loan amount which ultimately remained unpaid and, therefore, the attachment of the property of equivalent amount cannot be said to be illegal.
There are no substance in any of the arguments raised by the appellant. Appeal accordingly fails and is dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether generation of electricity by the power plant for captive use constituted manufacture and, therefore, fell outside the taxable scope of Business Auxiliary Service; (ii) whether the pre-16.06.2005 and post-16.06.2005 language of the Business Auxiliary Service definition could fasten service tax liability on the arrangement; (iii) whether the demand was barred by limitation.
Issue (i): Whether generation of electricity by the power plant for captive use constituted manufacture and, therefore, fell outside the taxable scope of Business Auxiliary Service.
Analysis: The activity was examined as one of generation of electricity/steam under the contractual arrangement for captive use in the manufacturing facility. Electricity was treated as goods for the purpose of Section 2(f) of the Central Excise Act, 1944, and the activity of generating it was held to amount to manufacture. Since manufacture is expressly excluded from Business Auxiliary Service, the activity could not be brought to tax under that head.
Conclusion: The activity was not exigible to service tax under Business Auxiliary Service and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the pre-16.06.2005 and post-16.06.2005 language of the Business Auxiliary Service definition could fasten service tax liability on the arrangement.
Analysis: For the relevant period prior to 16.06.2005, the statutory phrase covered production of goods on behalf of the client, and the later inclusion of production or processing of goods for, or on behalf of, the client was treated as a prospective expansion. The arrangement involved only two parties and did not satisfy the requirement of production on behalf of a client in the taxable sense. The amended wording was held not to operate retrospectively against the assessee.
Conclusion: The service tax demand could not be sustained on the basis of the pre-amendment or amended wording, and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the demand was barred by limitation.
Analysis: The Department had been informed of the arrangement much earlier, including the power-generation setup and its operational manner. In these circumstances, invocation of the extended period on the basis of suppression was not justified.
Conclusion: The demand was time-barred by limitation and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The service tax demand, interest, and penalties were not sustainable, and the assessee obtained complete relief.
Ratio Decidendi: Generation of electricity as an activity amounting to manufacture falls outside Business Auxiliary Service, and a later widening of the taxable definition cannot be applied retrospectively to sustain a demand where the Department already knew the relevant facts.
Levy of service tax on the facilitation charges received - HPLCL has generated electricity on behalf of HPL - said processing/job work amounts to manufacture as per Section 2(f) of the Central Excise Act or constitutes Business Auxiliary services - interest and penalty - extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- In the present case, it is found that in terms of the Power Purchase Agreement dated 10th June 1998, HPL was to supply Naphtha and other utilities as free issue to HPLCL, which would be converted by HPLCL to generate electricity/steam in its power plant and supply it to HPL for exclusive use in its manufacturing facility. HPLCL received “facilitation charges” for the work done. In the impugned order service tax has been demanded from HPLCL, under the category of 'Business Auxiliary Service' on the ground that the electricity generated by them on behalf of HPL does not amount to 'manufacture' as per Section 2(f) of the Central Excise Act as electricity was not covered under the Central Excise Tariff during the relevant period.
The requirement of the manufactured goods/resultant goods to be ‘excisable’ was made effective only from 01.09.2009. Prior to this date, no such requirement existed. Thus, during the relevant period under dispute, 'electricity' manufactured by the appellant was 'goods' as defined under Section 2(f) of the Central Excise Act, 1994. The activity of 'manufacture' has been specifically excluded from the definition of 'Business Auxiliary Service'. Thus, the generation of electricity being manufacture of goods, cannot be chargeable to service tax under the category of 'Business Auxiliary Service' - In the instant case, HPLCL produced power exclusively for supply to HPL only. Since, only two parties were involved in the said transaction, HPLCL cannot be said to have undertaken job work “on behalf of” Appellant. Thus, the facilitation charges paid by Appellant shall not be exigible to service tax, as generation of electricity by HPLCL for use by the Appellant was not covered under the definition of Business Auxiliary Service during the impugned period - the demand confirmed in the impugned order is legally not sustainable and is set aside.
Interest and penalty - HELD THAT:- As the demand itself is not sustainable, the question of demanding interest or imposing penalties does not arise.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- HPL had apprised the Departmental authorities about the production process of the Combined Cycle Cogeneration Power Plant. Hence, it is observed that the Department was all along aware of the arrangement between HPLCL and HPL. Thus, the demand cannot be confirmed by invoking extended period of limitation.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the conditions requiring surrender of passport and prior permission of the Special CBI Court for foreign travel, imposed while granting anticipatory bail, should be deleted; (ii) Whether the applicant's appearance on summons and the legal position under Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 justified modification of the bail conditions.
Issue (i): Whether the conditions requiring surrender of passport and prior permission of the Special CBI Court for foreign travel, imposed while granting anticipatory bail, should be deleted.
Analysis: The applicant had participated in investigation, the charge-sheet had been filed, and he had demonstrated repeated foreign travel for business and medical treatment. The restriction of depositing the passport after each trip and seeking court permission for every departure was found to be cumbersome, time-consuming, and detrimental to urgent business and medical travel. The Court also noted the applicant's deep roots in India and the absence of any demonstrated misuse of liberty during earlier travels.
Conclusion: The twin conditions were deleted in favour of the applicant.
Issue (ii): Whether the applicant's appearance on summons and the legal position under Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 justified modification of the bail conditions.
Analysis: The Court relied on the principle that where a person is present in court pursuant to summons, the court may require execution of a bond for appearance under Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. On the facts, the applicant had appeared when summoned and had not been arrested during investigation. The Court treated this as supporting interference with the additional travel restrictions and held that appropriate safeguards could be imposed by requiring prior disclosure of travel particulars to the investigating agency.
Conclusion: The legal position supported deletion of the impugned conditions, subject to disclosure safeguards, in favour of the applicant.
Final Conclusion: The interim applications succeeded and the travel-related bail restrictions were modified, while ensuring continued attendance at trial and prior intimation of foreign travel.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an accused has appeared on summons, has cooperated in investigation, and demonstrates genuine need for foreign travel, passport-surrender and prior-permission conditions may be varied if they operate as an unnecessary fetter, provided adequate safeguards are imposed to secure appearance at trial.
Imposition and modification of bail conditions - anticipatory bail - power to take bond for appearance under Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. - requirement to surrender passport and seek prior court permission for foreign travel as a bail condition - proportionality of travel restrictions imposed on an accused - distinction between acceptance of bond under Section 88 and grant of bail
Imposition and modification of bail conditions - requirement to surrender passport and seek prior court permission for foreign travel as a bail condition - proportionality of travel restrictions imposed on an accused - Whether the twin bail conditions requiring surrender of passport and prior court permission for foreign travel (conditions (c) and (d) of the order dated 21.12.2022) should be deleted as onerous and disproportionate in the applicant's case. - HELD THAT: - The Court examined factual materials showing that investigation was complete, charge-sheet filed, and the applicant consistently cooperated with investigation and was never arrested. The applicant made multiple foreign trips for business and for essential medical treatment, complying with the impugned conditions each time. The Court accepted that repeated requirement to apply to the Special CBI Court for release of passport and permission to travel caused practical hardship - including loss of short-term business opportunities and difficulty in attending time-sensitive medical appointments - and amounted to a disproportionate fetter on the applicant's freedom to travel given his deep roots in India, substantial business interests and history of timely return. Balancing the prosecution's legitimate concern about attendance at trial against these factors, the Court found interference with the twin conditions warranted. Accordingly, the Court deleted conditions (c) and (d) as they applied to the applicant, while tailoring alternative safeguards to protect the prosecution's interest and ensure the applicant's availability for trial. [Paras 11, 18, 20]
Twin conditions (c) and (d) in the order dated 21.12.2022 stand deleted as far as the applicant is concerned; interim applications allowed in part.
Power to take bond for appearance under Section 88 of the Cr.P.C. - distinction between acceptance of bond under Section 88 and grant of bail - anticipatory bail - Whether the ratio of the Supreme Court in Tarsem Lal regarding Section 88 (that acceptance of bond under Section 88 does not amount to grant of bail) applies and requires the Trial Court to have directed the applicant to furnish bond instead of imposing the impugned passport and travel-permission conditions. - HELD THAT: - The Court noted the subsequent Supreme Court decision holding that an order accepting bonds under Section 88 is not a grant of bail and that Section 88's object is to secure appearance by bond with or without sureties. In the present case the applicant had been summoned and had appeared pursuant to an interim order and was not arrested prior to filing of the charge-sheet; consequently, the Trial Court ought to have considered directing security under Section 88. Having regard to that legal position and the peculiar facts of the applicant (non-arrest, co-operation, medical exigencies, and substantial residential/business nexus in India), the Court found the Section 88 principle material to the applicant's entitlement and relied upon it as a reason to upset the passport-surrender and prior-permission conditions. The Court, however, did not hold that no conditions could be imposed; it substituted specific reporting and attendance safeguards in place of the deleted conditions. [Paras 14, 15, 17]
Section 88 principles apply; the Court proceeded to delete the passport-surrender and prior-permission conditions and substitute tailored procedural safeguards consistent with ensuring the applicant's availability for trial.
Final Conclusion: The High Court deleted conditions (c) and (d) of the anticipatory bail order dated 21.12.2022 as they applied to the applicant, directed immediate return of the passport if in custody, and imposed alternative safeguards - written advance travel details to the Investigating Officer, ensuring attendance at trial or securing exemption through counsel, and liberty to apply in case of difficulty; interim applications are allowed and disposed.
Outcome: The appeal was permitted to be withdrawn with liberty to prefer an appeal before the Sessions Judge within the time granted by the Court, and the court below was directed not to insist upon limitation if such appeal is filed within that period.
Dishonour of Cheque - acquittal of respondent/accused of the charge under section 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 - leave to appeal under section 378(4) of the Cr.P.C. has been granted by this Court - complainant qualifies as a "victim" within the meaning of Section 2(wa) of the Cr.P.C., thereby entitling the complainant to prefer an appeal under the proviso to Section 372 of the Cr.P.C. as a matter of right or not - HELD THAT:- This Court is inclined to permit the appellant to withdraw this appeal by granting him liberty to prefer the appeal against the judgment/order dated 29/09/2021 before the concerned Sessions Judge within a period of 60 days from the date of receipt of copy of this order. Order accordingly. It is clarified that if such an appeal is filed before the concerned Session Judge within the time given by this Court, it would not insist upon the limitation while deciding the same and will proceed to decide the same in accordance with law.
The record of the case may be sent back to the concerned J.M.F.C. forthwith.
Appeal disposed off.
TaxTMI