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ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether revocation of cancellation of GST registration can be permitted where the application for revocation is filed long after the time limits prescribed under Rule 23 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017.
2. Whether, in lieu of revocation of an old cancelled GST registration, the affected person can continue the same business under the same trade name or pursue revocation of the same GSTIN after a prolonged gap, or must seek a fresh GST registration after clearing past dues and compliances.
3. Whether an earlier judgment granting one-time restoration of registration upon furnishing returns and payment of dues is applicable where the factual matrix and chronology (including pre-pandemic cancellation) differ materially.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Permissibility of revocation where application is filed after the statutory period in Rule 23
Legal framework: Rule 23, CGST Rules, 2017 prescribes the procedure and time limits for revocation of cancellation of registration: application within 90 days of service of cancellation order on the common portal, with a discretionary extension by the Commissioner (or authorized officer) for sufficient cause not exceeding a further 180 days; requirements for furnishing outstanding returns and payment where cancellation was for failure to furnish returns; and procedural steps for the proper officer to accept or reject an application (FORM GST REG-21 to REG-24 and orders in FORM GST REG-22 or REG-05).
Precedent treatment: The Court considered a prior Division Bench decision that allowed one-time restoration after filing returns and payment of dues (referred to in the judgment) but treated that decision as fact-specific.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the text of Rule 23 to the undisputed chronology: the cancellation occurred on 18.12.2018 while the application for revocation was filed many years later (application date stated as 23.06.2025). Rule 23's prescribed windows (90 days plus discretionary extension up to 180 days) were held to be mandatory time-limits for seeking revocation by way of the statutory procedure. Given the prolonged interval between cancellation and application, the statutory remedy of revocation under Rule 23 was not available as a matter of course. The Court further noted the statutory condition that where cancellation was due to non-furnishing of returns, outstanding returns and dues must be furnished/paid as preconditions to revocation-emphasising that the scheme contemplates prompt, time-bound revival, not revival after an extended lapse.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Rule 23's time limits are mandatory and applications for revocation filed beyond those limits cannot be entertained under the revocation mechanism unless statutory extension/enabling facts exist within the prescribed framework. Obiter - general observations about the practical ability to conduct business under the same name (see Issue 2) and administrative discretion to grant fresh registration after clearing dues.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that revocation under Rule 23 could not properly be ordered in the present factual matrix where the application was made years after cancellation and beyond the statutory windows; hence direct revival of the original registration was not an available remedy.
Issue 2 - Continuation of business under the same name and requirement of fresh registration after clearing dues
Legal framework: Rule 23 and the overall GST registration regime do not separately grant an unfettered right to continue a business under a previous GSTIN once registration has been cancelled; the statutory mechanism provides for revocation within set timelines or else for obtaining fresh registration in accordance with law.
Precedent treatment: The Court noted representations made on instructions by the revenue that a person may undertake business in the same trade name but must obtain a fresh registration number after clearing previous dues; this administrative position was accepted by the Court for present purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the revenue's position that the practical commercial identity (trade name) may be retained by the taxpayer, but the legal status of the GSTIN is distinct and, once cancelled and not timely revived, cannot simply be reinstated without compliance. The statutory scheme and safeguards (returns, payment of tax/interest/penalty/late fee) underpin the requirement that outstanding obligations be cleared before any fresh registration is permitted. The Court also implicitly recognised that the regulatory interest in ensuring compliance and collection of dues justifies requiring clearance of past liabilities prior to issuing a fresh GSTIN.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where revocation under Rule 23 is not available due to lapse of statutory time, the proper course is to grant liberty to apply for fresh registration after discharging outstanding statutory obligations; administrative practice permitting continuation of business in the same trade name does not equate to automatic revival of the old GSTIN. Obiter - remarks about commercial continuity and the revenue's willingness to allow business under same name (subject to fresh registration) are contextual administrative observations.
Conclusions: The Court disposed of the petition by granting liberty to the petitioner to apply for fresh registration in the same name upon clearing dues and statutory compliances; the authorities were directed to consider such an application in accordance with law if filed within the specified short period.
Issue 3 - Applicability of earlier one-time restoration order to the present facts
Legal framework: Judicial decisions granting relief in tax or regulatory matters must be applied with attention to their factual matrices; equity or one-time measures by courts are fact-sensitive and do not automatically create a general entitlement when statutory conditions differ.
Precedent treatment: The Court examined the earlier Division Bench decision relied upon by the petitioner, which had permitted restoration upon filing all returns and payment of dues as a one-time measure.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court distinguished the earlier decision on facts: in that case, the sequence and timing involved failures to file returns during a later period (show cause issued in January 2023) rather than a cancellation that predated the COVID pandemic by several years (here cancellation in December 2018). Given this material factual distinction, the Court declined to extend the same one-time relief. The judgment emphasised that the prior order was fact-specific and could not be treated as a blanket rule to revive registrations long after prescribed statutory periods had elapsed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A judicial order restoring registration as a one-time measure is limited to the specific factual circumstances of that case and cannot be mechanically applied where the chronology and facts are materially different. Obiter - general comments about the scope of discretionary relief in different factual settings.
Conclusions: The prior decision relied upon was distinguished and not followed as a binding precedent to justify revocation in the present case; the Court therefore refused to order restoration under the earlier template and instead allowed the administrative remedy of fresh registration subject to compliance.
Relief and administrative direction
Interpretation and reasoning: Balancing statutory limits and practical commercial considerations, the Court exercised restrained judicial relief by disposing the petition with a limited direction: liberty to apply for fresh registration within 10 days, and a mandate that respondent authorities consider such application in accordance with law. The Court declined to order costs and closed miscellaneous applications.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where statutory revocation remedy is time-barred, courts may grant applicant a limited procedural liberty to seek fresh registration; administrative authorities must consider timely applications in accordance with law after dues/returns are cleared. Obiter - ancillary directions about consideration in accordance with law and the absence of costs.
Conclusions: Petition dismissed insofar as seeking revival of the cancelled GSTIN; petitioner granted limited procedural liberty to seek fresh registration on clearing past dues and statutory compliances, with the authorities directed to consider any timely application in accordance with law.
Revocation of cancellation of GST registration of petitioner - HELD THAT:- From perusal of the judgment in APITCO LTD. VERSUS THE UNION OF INDIA AND ORS. [2024 (3) TMI 1161 - TELANGANA HIGH COURT], it appears that the petitioner could not file returns from time to time leading to issuance of a show cause notice on 14.01.2023. In the instant case, before the COVID pandemic intervened, the GST registration of the petitioner was cancelled on 18.12.2018. The facts of the cited judgment are, therefore, distinguishable.
It is deemed proper to dispose of the writ petition with liberty to the petitioner to seek a fresh registration in the same name after clearing its dues and other statutory compliances. If such an application is made within a period of 10 days, the respondent authorities would consider it, in accordance with law.
Petition disposed off.
Outcome: The writ petition was disposed of with liberty to the petitioner to make a fresh representation before the Chief Executive Officer, Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority, who was expected to decide it in accordance with law within the specified time.
Seeking to release the security deposit amount and also pay the difference of GST amount, due to revision of rate of GST from 12% to 18% along with 18% interest on delayed payment - HELD THAT:- The writ petition stands disposed of with an observation that in case petitioner moves a fresh representation within a week's time before the Chief Executive Officer, Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority alongwith all documents as is required by the Authority through correspondence, it is expected the said representation must be decided in accordance with law in further six weeks time, after giving opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether writ petitions challenging adjudication orders made pursuant to notices issued under Section 74 of the CGST Act are maintainable when statutory appeals against those adjudication orders have been filed and are pending.
2. Whether a show cause notice issued under Section 74 is vitiated for want of jurisdiction if it does not expressly allege fraud, willful misstatement or suppression of facts to evade tax.
3. Whether a notice that quotes an incorrect provision (Section 74) can be sustained by re-characterisation under Section 73 where it is issued within the three-year period prescribed by Section 73(10).
4. Whether notices issued by State authorities under Section 73 (as invoked substantively) are beyond the jurisdiction of State authorities such that the writ forum should entertain challenges notwithstanding available statutory appellate remedies.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Maintainability of writs where statutory appeals are available and invoked
Legal framework: The CGST Act provides an appellate mechanism to challenge adjudication orders. Constitutional writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary and traditionally restrained where efficacious alternate remedies exist, particularly in fiscal matters and where specialist appellate fora are available.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relies on settled principles emphasising exhaustion of alternate remedies and the supervisory role of writ jurisdiction. The judgment refers to higher-court authorities that have stressed the need to resort to appellate forums in fiscal disputes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that petitioners had already instituted statutory appeals against the adjudication orders, thereby invoking the alternate remedy. Given that appeals are available, efficacious and pending, and that issues raised are substantially arguable and likely within the competence of the appellate authority, the writ forum should not ordinarily entertain the petitions. The Court emphasised the appellate authorities' domain expertise in fiscal matters.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio. The Court's decision to dismiss the petitions primarily on the ground of alternate remedy constitutes a core holding applicable to similar circumstances.
Conclusion: Writ petitions challenging adjudication orders under the CGST Act are not entertained where effective statutory appeals have been filed and are pending; petitioners must pursue the appellate remedy.
Issue 2 - Necessity of explicit allegations of fraud, willful misstatement or suppression to sustain a Section 74 notice
Legal framework: Section 74 of the CGST Act contemplates extended limitation for issuance of notices where fraud, willful misstatement or suppression of facts is alleged. Section 73 deals with general recovery for tax not paid or short paid and prescribes a three-year limitation.
Precedent Treatment: The Court declined to decide at length whether the impugned notices in fact contained allegations of fraud etc., noting that such factual and legal questions are appropriately examined by the appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: Even assuming absence of express allegations of fraud, the Court found that where a notice is issued within the three-year period provided by Section 73(10), the notice can be sustained under Section 73 and no jurisdictional error is made out merely because Section 74 was quoted. The requirement of alleging fraud applies to invoking the extended five-year period under Section 74; it is not a prerequisite for a valid notice under Section 73 issued within three years.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio with respect to sustenance of notices within three years under Section 73 despite incorrect reference to Section 74; obiter as to whether particular notices in the record truly contained fraud allegations (left undecided).
Conclusion: Absence of express fraud allegations does not render a notice a-priori without jurisdiction if the notice can be sustained under Section 73 and was issued within the three-year limitation period; the writ court will not interfere on that ground where appeals are available.
Issue 3 - Effect of incorrect citation of statutory provision in the show cause notice
Legal framework: Validity of administrative notices depends on whether they can be sustained under the statutory scheme applicable at the time; mis-quotation of provisions does not automatically invalidate action if the substantive requirements of a correct provision are met.
Precedent Treatment: The Court treated the incorrect quotation as not determinative of jurisdiction when the notice, without prejudice, is capable of being sustained under Section 73.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that mere quotation of an incorrect section (Section 74 instead of Section 73) is insufficient to render the notice void for want of jurisdiction. If the facts and timing support a notice under Section 73(10), the notice survives despite erroneous reference. The writ forum should not permit bypass of the appellate remedy on this basis alone.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio. The Court's conclusion that mis-quotation does not vitiate jurisdiction where the notice fits within another statutory provision is a binding aspect of the decision.
Conclusion: A show cause notice that quotes an incorrect statutory provision can be sustained if it otherwise falls within the correct provision's parameters (here Section 73(10)); such mis-quotation is not a ground for writ interference when appeals are available.
Issue 4 - Jurisdiction of State authorities to issue notices and whether a purported admission by Central authorities changes the analysis
Legal framework: CGST scheme contemplates allocation of powers between Central and State authorities; challenges to territorial or functional competence of issuing authorities raise jurisdictional questions which may be examinable on facts.
Precedent Treatment: The Court noted authorities interpreting the division of powers between Central and State tax authorities but declined to resolve the complex issue on the present record, preferring leave to the appellate forum.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioners urged that State authorities lacked power to issue the notices and relied on an alleged admission by Central authorities. The Court observed that the Central authority's affidavit on record did not, on a plain reading, unequivocally concede absence of State power; thus the contention of admission could not be accepted without detailed examination. The Court regarded the question as arguable but not so manifestly without jurisdiction as to permit bypassing the appellate remedy. The Court pointed to the appellate forum as the proper forum to adjudicate such factual and legal disputes (including any plea on jurisdiction raised or amended in appeals).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Mixed. The guidance that jurisdictional objections based on authority to issue notices are to be examined by the appellate authority (and do not automatically permit writ relief when an appeal exists) is ratio. Observations on the insufficiency of the affidavit to constitute admission are interlocutory/obiter inasmuch as they relate to factual assessment.
Conclusion: Allegations that State authorities lacked jurisdiction to issue notices are arguable but not, on the present record, manifestly ex facie without jurisdiction; such contentions should be ventilated before the appellate authority rather than in a writ petition when statutory appeals are available.
Cross-references and supplemental points
1. The Court reiterated that where notices are issued within the three-year limitation under Section 73(10), the necessity to invoke Section 74 (and its fraud requirement) does not arise; see Issues 2 and 3.
2. The Court left all substantive contentions open for adjudication by the appellate authority and clarified that its prima facie observations are not intended to influence the appellate forum; this limits the precedential effect of factual remarks made in the course of deciding maintainability.
3. In line with higher-court jurisprudence emphasising exhaustion of alternate remedies, the Court refused to entertain writ petitions in fiscal disputes where specialized appellate remedies have been invoked and are pending; see Issue 1.
Final disposition
The petitions were dismissed on the ground that alternate statutory remedies (appeals) exist and have been invoked; all parties' contentions remain open for determination by the appellate authority in the appeals already instituted.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy - Challenge to to the impugned adjudication orders made pursuant to notices u/s 74 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 - challenge to notices u/s 74 of the CGST Act - HELD THAT:- At this stage, it would not be appropriate for this Court to go into the question as to whether the allegations in the impugned show cause notice make out a case of fraud, willful misstatement or suppression of fact to evade tax. On a demurer or even assuming that there are no such allegations, admittedly, the notices in this case have been issued within the 3-year period prescribed under Section 73 (10) of the CGST Act. This is not a case where the notices have been issued within the extended period of 5 years as contemplated by Section 74 (10) of the CGST Act.
The mere quotation of an incorrect section is not sufficient to hold that the notice is without jurisdiction. If the notice can be sustained by reference to the correct provision, then the Writ Court is not obliged to interfere with the notice only because some incorrect provision may have been invoked or quoted. In any event, notice could always be competent under Section 73 of the CGST Act as long as it is issued within the three-year period prescribed under Section 73(10) of the CGST. For a notice under Section 73 of the CGST Act there is no requirement of alleging fraud, willful misstatement or suppression of fact.
Therefore, prima facie, it cannot be held that the impugned notices are expressly without jurisdiction, and allow the petitioner to bypass the alternate, efficacious and statutory remedy which the petitioners have already invoked by instituting the appeal against the impugned adjudication orders.
Petition dismissed leaving it open to the petitioners to pursue the appeals which they have instituted against the impugned adjudication orders.
Issues: Whether the assessment order confirming the GST demand and the appellate order rejecting the appeal for delay were liable to be quashed and the matter remitted for fresh consideration, with conditional opportunity to comply and reply.
Analysis: The petition challenged the assessment order as well as the order rejecting the statutory appeal on the ground of delay. The Court, following the consistent view adopted in similar matters, held that the impugned orders could be set aside and the matter sent back to the assessing authority. The relief was made conditional on deposit of 25% of the disputed tax through the electronic cash ledger within 30 days and filing of a reply to the show cause notice, treating the assessment order as an addendum to that notice. Upon compliance, the assessing authority was directed to pass a fresh final order in accordance with law after affording personal hearing.
Conclusion: The impugned orders were quashed and the matter was remitted to the first respondent for fresh adjudication subject to compliance with the stipulated conditions.
Dismissal of appeal on the ground that there was a delay of 42 days in filing the appeal - petitioner submits that no reply was filed to the show cause notice, and consequently, the petitioner suffered the assessment order dated 30.11.2024 for the Assessment Year 2023-2024 - HELD THAT:- This Court is inclined to quash the impugned orders and remit the matter back to the first respondent, subject to the following conditions:-
(i) The petitioner shall deposit 25% of the disputed tax amount through the electronic cash ledger within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
(ii) The petitioner shall also file a reply to the show cause notice in Form GST DRC - 01 dated 20.08.2024, treating the impugned assessment order dated 30.11.2024 as an addendum to the said notice, within the above said period.
(iii) Upon such compliance, the first respondent shall pass a fresh final order, in accordance with law and after providing an opportunity of personal hearing to the petitioner.
(iv) In the event of non-compliance with the above stipulations, it shall be open to the respondents to proceed against the petitioner as if the Writ Petition had been dismissed on merits.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether service of personal hearing notices by e-mail to the e-mail address furnished at the time of GST registration constitutes valid service under Section 169(1)(c) of the CGST Act and suffices for issuance of an order under the Act.
2. Whether the concept of "deemed service" under Section 169(2) limits issuance of an order to only those modes of service specifically described as constituting deemed service, thereby affecting the validity of service by e-mail for the purpose of limitation and issuance of orders under Section 74(10)/73(10).
3. Whether a consolidated show cause notice (SCN) and consolidated order covering multiple financial years is permissible under Sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act in cases involving alleged fraudulent availment/utilisation of Input Tax Credit (ITC).
4. Whether there was a violation of principles of natural justice where the petitioner alleged non-receipt of personal hearing notices, in light of departmental documents showing e-mails to the registered e-mail address on the GST portal, and whether suppression/non-pleading of material facts warrants dismissal with costs.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of e-mail service under Section 169(1)(c)
Legal framework: Section 169(1) prescribes modes of service of decisions, orders, summons, notices or other communications under the Act, including sub-clause (c) "by sending a communication to his e-mail address provided at the time of registration or as amended from time to time."
Precedent Treatment: The Court referred to its recent view in W.P. (C) 4374/2025 (Rishi Enterprises) where communication by e-mail was held sufficient. The petitioner relied upon an Income Tax decision concerning notice to a Chartered Accountant, which the Court distinguished on statutory language differences.
Interpretation and reasoning: The GST portal record showed that the e-mail address used was the registered e-mail of the proprietor (authorised signatory), not merely a practitioner's address; the departmental e-mails were sent to that address. The Court emphasised the plain language of Section 169(1)(c), construing sending to the registered e-mail as adequate service. The Court rejected the petitioner's contention equating notices to a Chartered Accountant under a different statute with service under Section 169(1)(c) of the CGST Act.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Sending communication to the e-mail address provided at registration under Section 169(1)(c) constitutes valid service for issuance of an order under the Act. Distinguishing observations regarding the Income Tax decision are obiter to the extent they comment on statutory language differences.
Conclusion: Service by e-mail to the registered e-mail address on the GST portal constituted valid service of personal hearing notices in the present matter.
Issue 2 - Relationship between "issuance of order" and "deemed service" under Section 169(2)
Legal framework: Section 169 sets out modes of service and Section 169(2) provides for "deemed service" in particular circumstances; Rule 142 (referenced) uses the expression "summary of the order issued" under Section 74.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on its analysis in W.P. (C) 4374/2025 for interpretive guidance on issuance vs. deemed service.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court drew a distinction between (a) issuance of an order by any of the prescribed modes in Section 169(1), and (b) deemed service as a statutory fiction applicable to certain modes under Section 169(2). It held that issuance of an order does not require that the mode used be one that attracts the deeming fiction; issuance by email suffices even if deemed service is not statutorily provided for that mode. The Court linked this interpretation to the scheme of Sections 74/73 and the requirement of issuance for limitation purposes (e.g., Section 74(10)).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The issuance of an order may be effected by any mode specified in Section 169(1), and such issuance is distinct from the statutory concept of "deemed service" under Section 169(2); therefore email service can constitute issuance even where deemed service is not invoked. Commentary on interplay with Rule 142 is explanatory (supporting ratio).
Conclusion: The petitioner's argument that only modes attracting "deemed service" can constitute issuance of an order is rejected; e-mail service fulfills the statutory requirement for issuance of an order.
Issue 3 - Permissibility of consolidated SCNs/orders for multiple financial years in fraudulent ITC cases under Sections 73 and 74
Legal framework: Sections 73 and 74 govern determination of tax not paid/erroneously refunded/ITC wrongly availed or utilised; subsections (3)-(4) permit service of statements "for any period" or "for such periods," whereas subsections (10) refer to issuance of orders within specified periods from the due date of furnishing of the annual return for the financial year to which the tax relates.
Precedent Treatment: The petitioner relied on sales tax decisions (Bennet & White; Caltex) and a High Court decision (Titan Co.) addressing "bunching" of SCNs; the Court distinguished those authorities as inapposite because they arose in different statutory contexts (sales tax) or under a different provision (Section 73 interpretation in other contexts). The Court also relied upon its earlier decision in Ambika Traders (W.P.(C) 4853/2025), which upheld consolidated notices and orders in fraudulent ITC cases.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court analysed statutory language, noting deliberate legislative choices: Sections 73(3)/(4) and 74(3)/(4) employ "for any period"/"for such periods," enabling notices/statements across periods; the limitation provisions (73(10)/74(10)) use "financial year," but this does not preclude notices covering multiple periods in fraud investigations. The Court reasoned that fraudulent availment/utilisation of ITC often requires tracing transactions across tax periods and financial years to establish patterns of bogus supplies, fabricated firms, or systematic misuse; thus consolidated SCNs/orders may be necessary and permissible. The Court found the sales-tax precedents distinguishable because they concerned discrete assessable items easily dissectible by period, whereas fraudulent ITC investigations are fact-driven and may necessarily span periods.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - In cases involving allegations of fraudulent availment/utilisation of ITC where transactions and fabricated schemes span multiple periods/financial years, issuance of consolidated SCNs and consolidated orders for multiple years is permissible under the statutory scheme of Sections 73 and 74. Distinguishing of older sales tax authorities is ratio to the extent necessary for application here; observations on legislative history and policy (ITC mechanism aims) are explanatory but support the ratio.
Conclusion: Consolidated SCNs/orders across financial years are tenable in fraudulent ITC cases; the language of the statute and the practical nature of ITC fraud validate such consolidation.
Issue 4 - Natural justice, pleading duty, suppression of material facts and costs
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice require opportunity of personal hearing; writ relief under Articles 226/227 permits interference where jurisdictional error or natural justice violation is established. Parties are duty-bound to plead relevant facts in writ petitions.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on its own prior findings demonstrating that email communication to the registered address sufficed; the petitioner's reliance on non-receipt was tested against departmental evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the departmental record established that personal hearing notices were sent to the petitioner's registered e-mail; the writ petition did not plead that notices were received on that registered e-mail nor disclose material facts about the registered email being that of the proprietor. After departmental proof of emails, the petitioner shifted contention to the emails being to a Chartered Accountant, which the Court held was incorrect given portal data. The Court concluded there was no breach of natural justice and that material facts were concealed, amounting to conduct warranting dismissal with costs.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where departmental records show service to the registered e-mail and the petitioner fails to plead or discloses material facts, a contention of non-service will not succeed; concealment of material facts may justify dismissal and imposition of costs. Observations on duty to plead and conduct are integral to the determination (ratio) in this matter.
Conclusion: No violation of natural justice occurred; the petition failed to disclose/materially misrepresented facts regarding receipt and registration of the e-mail address, justifying dismissal and imposition of costs upon the petitioner.
Violation of principles of natural justice - notices for personal hearing were not received by the Petitioner - issuance of combined SCN and orders for separate financial years - HELD THAT:- This Court has, in the past, considered several orders-in original involving demands on the ground of allegations of fraudulent availment of ITC and has held that there are several factual issues in such cases, which would need to be looked into, which cannot be adjudicated in a writ petition.
In the case of Ambika Traders through Proprietor v. Additional Commissioner, Adjudication, DGGSTI, CGST Delhi North [2025 (8) TMI 315 - DELHI HIGH COURT], in the context of issuance of multiple consolidated SCNs and passing of a consolidated order, this Court observed 'It is seen that the said feature of ITC has been misused by large number of unscrupulous dealers, businesses who have in fact utilized or availed of ITC through nonexistent supplies/purchases, fake firms and non-existent entities. The ultimate beneficiary of the ITC in the most cases may not even be the persons in whose name the GST registration is obtained. Businesses, individuals, and entities have charged commissions for passing on ITC. In several cases, it has also been noticed that the persons in whose name the GST registration stands are in fact domestic helps, drivers, employees, etc., of businessmen who are engaged on salary and who may not even be aware that their identities are being misused.'
In the above decision, the Court has fully considered the statutory scheme as also the legislative history of the GST Act and held that in cases relating to availment of Input Tax Credit, considering the maze of transactions and due to the fact that the transactions may be spread over several years, issuance of a consolidated notice for multiple Financial Years would be permissible and tenable - this Court is of the opinion that in cases involving allegations of fraudulent availment of ITC, where the transactions are spread across several years, a consolidated notice may in fact be required in such cases in order to establish the illegal modality adopted by such businesses and entities. The language of the legislation, itself, does not prevent issuance of SCN or order for multiple years in a consolidated manner.
This Court is of the opinion that on both the contentions made by the Petitioner, there is no jurisdictional error and there is also no violation of the principles of natural justice - the impugned order does not warrant interference under writ jurisdiction of this Court.
Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the condition of pre-deposit for filing the statutory appeal under Section 107 could be modified from 20% of the tax demand to 10%.
Analysis: The appellant had been relegated to the appellate authority and required to deposit 20% of the demand while preferring the appeal. The respondents fairly accepted that the statutory requirement under the GST law was a 10% pre-deposit. In the circumstances, and in view of the appellant's willingness to avail the appellate remedy by making the statutory deposit, the higher condition imposed in the writ proceedings was found liable to be modified.
Conclusion: The pre-deposit condition was reduced to 10% of the tax demand, enabling the appellant to file the statutory appeal.
Maintainability of petition - availability of appellate remedy - writ petition was filed after the period of expiry of time contemplated under Section 107 of the Goods and Service Tax Act - HELD THAT:- The appellant/petitioner had initially without exhausting the appeal remedy under Section 107 of the Act had preferred the writ petition, but however, the Writ Court had disposed of the writ petition by relegating the petitioner / appellant to file the statutory appeal, further imposing a condition to deposit 20% of the demand.
In view of the fact that the petitioner / appellant is now prepared to file an appeal under section 107 of the Act by making the deposit of 10% of the statutory requirement, it is felt that the order of the Writ Court imposing the deposit of 20% could be modified and the petitioner / appellant could be allowed to exhaust the statutory appeal remedy by making a deposit of 10% of the Tax demand as per the statutory requirement.
The writ appeal is partly allowed to the effect that the petitioner / appellant shall file an appeal under 107 of the GST Act by making a deposit of 10% of the tax demand, within a period of four weeks from the date of receipt of copy of this order.
Issues: Whether the amount deposited during GST inspection proceedings could be retained or was liable to be adjusted if found excessive at the time of final adjudication.
Analysis: The petition arose from a deposit made during proceedings initiated under the State Goods and Services Tax regime. The Court accepted that the authorities had not yet issued a notice under the substantive recovery provisions and that the dispute, at this stage, concerned the treatment of the amount already deposited. In the circumstances, and on the alternative relief sought, the Court considered it appropriate that any amount deposited in excess should not be finally treated as payable without adjudication. The Court also observed that inspection-related proceedings under the GST framework should be taken to their logical conclusion expeditiously.
Conclusion: The excess amount, if any, is to be adjusted at the time of final adjudication or against any amount due in favour of the petitioner. The petition is partly allowed to that extent.
Refund of excess deposit made by the Petitioner-Firm during the proceeding u/s 71 of the State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - fraud and willful misstatement or suppression of facts - HELD THAT:- Having heard learned Counsel for the parties and having considered the alternative prayer of the Petitioner, it is directed that the amount so deposited by the Petitioner-Firm, if found in excess, may be adjusted at the time of final adjudication or with the amount of dues, if any, in his favour.
It is further expected that whenever any inspection is carried out in terms of Section 71 of the Act of 2017, further course of action must be initiated by the concerned authorities in an expeditious manner in the spirit of Act of 2017.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Notification No.09/2023 (Central Tax) and the corresponding State notification issued under Section 168A of the Tamil Nadu GST Act are legally sustainable insofar as they affect the reckoning of limitation by excluding the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022.
2. Whether the impugned notifications operate to diminish or curtail limitation made available by a judicial order under Article 142 of the Constitution and thereby unlawfully extinguish vested rights or render exercise of assessment powers arbitrary.
3. Whether the impugned notifications are vitiated by erroneous assumptions of law, failure to examine relevant materials, or by being issued before or on improper recommendations (i.e., without requisite GST Council recommendation or relying on an improper recommending body).
4. Whether the consequential assessment order passed by the assessing authority in view of the impugned notifications is sustainable, and if not, what remedial course (quashing and remand, treating the order as show cause notice, opportunity to be heard) should follow.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework for reckoning limitation vis-à-vis the period 15.03.2020-28.02.2022
Legal framework: The limitation regime under the Central/State GST enactments (Section 73 and Section 168A contextually) governs time-limits for assessment and related proceedings; this interacts with the judicial order issued under Article 142 of the Constitution which directed exclusion of the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 for limitation reckoning.
Precedent treatment: The Principal Bench decision (referred to and followed) held that authorities shall have the benefit of exclusion of that period while reckoning limitation under relevant GST provisions in accordance with the Supreme Court order under Article 142.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepts the Principal Bench conclusion that the exclusion proclaimed by the Supreme Court governs limitation computation and that statutory or executive measures cannot curtail the benefit thereby conferred.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The acceptance that the exclusion period must be given effect is ratio; reliance on the higher court's Article 142 order is central to the decision.
Conclusion: The exclusion of 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 must be applied when computing limitation for GST assessments; notifications purporting otherwise are impermissible.
Issue 2 - Validity of the impugned notifications for diminishing limitation and extinguishing vested rights; arbitrariness
Legal framework: Executive notifications under fiscal statutes must not operate contrary to constitutional orders or arbitrarily curtail substantive or procedural rights conferred by judicial pronouncements.
Precedent treatment: The Principal Bench held Notification Nos.9 and 56 of 2023 vitiated for diminishing limitation and for being arbitrary in crucial respects; this treatment is followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The notifications were found to proceed on an erroneous assumption regarding the limitation available post the Article 142 order, and by so doing they curtailed limitation that was available to authorities, thereby extinguishing vested right of action and exhibiting arbitrariness. The issuance without proper examination of relevant materials further underpins arbitrariness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that notifications which diminish judicially-declared limitation are invalid is ratio. Observations about arbitrariness and extinguishment of vested rights support the legal conclusion and form part of the operative reasoning.
Conclusion: The impugned notifications are legally unsustainable to the extent they curtail the exclusion period and thereby diminish limitation; they are vitiated by arbitrariness and erroneous assumptions.
Issue 3 - Validity of notifications issued prior to or without proper recommendatory process
Legal framework: Notifications affecting GST regime that require recommendation/consultation (as per the statutory scheme) must comply with mandated processes; non-compliance can render them illegal.
Precedent treatment: The Principal Bench treated a notification made prior to recommendations of the GST Council or based on an improper recommending body as vitiated; this position is applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: A notification issued before required recommendations or based on recommendations of a body that cannot substitute the GST Council fails the statutory mandate and is therefore invalid.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The requirement of compliance with statutory recommendatory processes is a ratio supporting invalidation where mandates are disregarded.
Conclusion: Notifications issued without adherence to the statutory recommendatory process are invalid to that extent.
Issue 4 - Validity of the consequential assessment order and appropriate remedy (quashment, remand, opportunity to be heard)
Legal framework: Where foundational notifications are held invalid, consequential adjudications premised on them may be quashed and remitted for fresh consideration; principles of natural justice require opportunity of hearing before fresh orders are passed.
Precedent treatment: The Court, following the Principal Bench, remanded matters to assessing authorities to pass fresh orders afresh after treating impugned assessments/acts as show cause notices and affording opportunity to object/hear.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the assessment order was passed in the shadow of the impugned notification(s) now held unsustainable, the assessment is quashed as tainted and must be reconsidered on merits in light of the correct legal position on limitation and after affording the taxpayer hearing. The impugned order is to be treated as an addendum to the show cause notice; timelines for filing objections and for authorities to pass fresh orders are prescribed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The quashment of the assessment and remand with directions to treat the order as a show cause notice and to afford hearing is ratio for remedying orders founded on invalid notifications.
Conclusion: The assessment order is quashed and remitted for fresh decision within a stipulated time; the impugned order shall be an addendum to the show cause notice, the petitioner must file a reply within the prescribed period, and the assessing authority must afford hearing before passing fresh orders.
Cross-references
All remedies and conclusions follow and are cross-referenced to the Principal Bench decision which held (i) exclusion of 15.03.2020-28.02.2022 applies, (ii) impugned notifications are vitiated for the reasons enumerated, and (iii) remand with opportunity to be heard is the appropriate course for assessments affected thereby.
Extension of time limitation - challenge to N/N. 09/2023 - Central Tax, dated 31.03.2023, issued by the third respondent, Union of India, and the corresponding notification in G.O. (Ms) No.41, Commercial Taxes and Registration (B1) Department, dated 05.04.2023, issued by the second respondent u/s 168A of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - HELD THAT:- It is noticed that a detailed order has recently been passed by the Principal Bench of this Court in a batch of cases in M/s.Tata Play Limited vs. Union of India and others, [2025 (7) TMI 772 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] where it was held that 'The authorities under the CGST Act shall have the benefit of exclusion of the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022, while reckoning limitation under sub section (2) and (10) to Section 73 of CGST Act, in terms of the of the Supreme Court dated 10.01.2022 passed under Article 142 of the Constitution.'
Since the issue is covered in favour of the petitioner, the present Writ Petition is liable to be allowed in terms of the aforesaid order. Accordingly, the impugned assessment order dated 16.08.2024, passed by the first respondent for the assessment year 2019-2020, is quashed, and the case is remitted back to the first respondent to pass a fresh order on merits - petition allowed by way of remand.
Issues: Whether penalty and detention orders could be sustained where the goods were accompanied by the tax invoice, e-way bill and builty, there was no discrepancy in quality or quantity, and the action was based only on alleged misclassification of goods.
Analysis: The record showed that the goods were intercepted during transit, but the relevant documents accompanied the consignment at the time of detention and seizure. There was no dispute regarding the quality or quantity of the goods. The impugned action rested only on alleged misclassification. In such circumstances, the governing principle applied was that penalty under section 129 cannot be imposed on mere speculative grounds of misclassification or undervaluation.
Conclusion: The detention and penalty orders were not sustainable and were liable to be quashed, with refund of any amount deposited in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The petitioner obtained complete relief against the detention and penalty action.
Ratio Decidendi: Penalty under section 129 of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 cannot be sustained merely on alleged misclassification when the statutory transport documents are in order and no discrepancy in the goods is found.
Detention and seizure of goods on the ground of misclassification of goods - all documents i.e. etax invoice, builty and e-way bill were produced - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that in the present proceeding the penalty has been imposed only on the basis of alleged misclassification of the goods. It is also not in dispute that there is no discrepancy with regard to quality and quantity of the goods in question. Further the record reveals that e-tax invoice, e-way bill and builty were accompanying with the goods in question at the time of detention / seizure.
This Court in the case of M/s Tirupati Agro Commodities [2025 (7) TMI 789 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] has categorically held that the penalty under Section 129 of UP GST Act cannot be imposed on mere speculation of undervaluation.
The impugned orders dated 4.1.2025 and 22.5.2024 cannot be sustained in the eyes of law and same are hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether assessment orders under the Goods and Services Tax regime are valid when they do not contain a dynamic identification number (DIN); (ii) whether the bank attachment arising from such assessment orders can survive once the orders are set aside.
Issue (i): Whether assessment orders under the Goods and Services Tax regime are valid when they do not contain a dynamic identification number (DIN).
Analysis: The assessment orders were admittedly issued without a DIN. The controlling circular and the earlier decisions referred to in the order treated DIN as a mandatory feature intended to ensure authenticity and traceability of GST communications. On that basis, non-mention of DIN was held to affect the validity of the proceedings.
Conclusion: The assessment orders without DIN were invalid and liable to be set aside.
Issue (ii): Whether the bank attachment arising from such assessment orders can survive once the orders are set aside.
Analysis: The attachment was consequential to the impugned assessment orders. Once the assessment orders were annulled, the foundation for recovery by attachment also ceased to exist. The order also preserved the authority to undertake fresh assessment after notice and assignment of DIN, and directed exclusion of the intervening period for limitation purposes.
Conclusion: The bank attachment could not survive and was also set aside.
Final Conclusion: The impugned GST assessment orders were quashed for want of DIN, consequential recovery attachment was nullified, and the matter was left open for fresh assessment in accordance with law.
Ratio Decidendi: A GST assessment order issued without a DIN is invalid, and any consequential recovery action based solely on such order cannot stand.
Challenge to assessment order on the ground that the said proceedings did not contain a DIN number - HELD THAT:- The question of the effect of non-inclusion of DIN number on proceedings, under the G.S.T. Act, came to be considered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Pradeep Goyal Vs. Union of India & Ors [2022 (8) TMI 216 - SUPREME COURT]. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, after noticing the provisions of the Act and the circular issued by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (C.B.I.C.), had held that an order, which does not contain a DIN number would be invalid.
A Division Bench of this Court in the case of M/s. Cluster Enterprises Vs. The Deputy Assistant Commissioner (ST)-2, Kadapa [2024 (7) TMI 1512 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT] on the basis of the circular, dated 23.12.2019, bearing No.128/47/2019-GST, issued by the C.B.I.C., had held that non-mention of a DIN number would mitigate against the validity of such proceedings. Another Division Bench of this Court in the case of Sai Manikanta Electrical Contractors Vs. The Deputy Commissioner, Special Circle, Visakhapatnam [2024 (6) TMI 1158 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], had also held that non-mention of a DIN number would require the order to be set aside.
In view of the aforesaid judgments and the circular issued by the C.B.I.C., the non-mention of a DIN number in the order, which was uploaded in the portal, requires the impugned order to be set aside.
This Writ Petition is disposed of, setting aside the impugned orders, dated 26.04.2024 and 18.09.2024, issued by the 1st respondent, with liberty to the 1st respondent to conduct fresh assessment, after giving notice to the petitioner and assigning a DIN number to the said orders. By virtue that the petitioner has also stated that the account of the petitioner has been attached for recovery of amount, the order of bank attachment also stands set aside.
Outcome: The special leave petitions were dismissed on the ground of delay as well as on merits, and the pending applications were disposed of.
TDS u/s 195 - Royalty or FTS or business profits - payment made to NTOs is towards interconnectivity charges - Assessee is an ILD license holder and responsible for providing connectivity to calls originating/terminating outside India - HELD THAT:- We dispose of these Special Leave Petitions by following the order passed by this Court in M/s Vodafone Idea Limited [2024 (10) TMI 601 - SC ORDER] passed in M/s Singapore Telecommunications Limited, Singapore and Anr. [2025 (3) TMI 1525 - SC ORDER] and order passed in M/s Communication Global Network Services Ltd.[2025 (5) TMI 2062 - SC ORDER] realised that this petition is covered by the judgment of this Court in Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Private Limited [2021 (3) TMI 138 - SUPREME COURT] which has been followed in other cases also. SLP dismissed.
Outcome: Delay condoned. The special leave petitions were dismissed by following prior orders of the Court.
TDS u/s 195 - Royalty or FTS or business profits - payment made to NTOs is towards interconnectivity charges - Assessee is an ILD license holder and responsible for providing connectivity to calls originating/terminating outside India - HELD THAT:- We dispose of these Special Leave Petitions by following the order passed by this Court in M/s Vodafone Idea Limited [2024 (10) TMI 601 - SC ORDER] passed in M/s Singapore Telecommunications Limited, Singapore and Anr. [2025 (3) TMI 1525 - SC ORDER] and order passed in M/s Communication Global Network Services Ltd.[2025 (5) TMI 2062 - SC ORDER] realised that this petition is covered by the judgment of this Court in Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Private Limited [2021 (3) TMI 138 - SUPREME COURT] which has been followed in other cases also. SLP dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
i) Whether continuation of a prosecution under Section 276C(1) of the Income Tax Act, initiated by Revenue prior to an application under Section 245C, amounts to abuse of the process of court where the Settlement Commission subsequently, under Section 245D(4), grants immunity from penalty and records full and true disclosure?
ii) Whether the departmental guidelines, circulars and prosecution manual regulating initiation of prosecution under Section 276C(1) are binding on Income-tax authorities and relevant to the legality of lodging/continuation of prosecution, including the threshold and requirement of confirmation by ITAT?
iii) Whether sanction under Section 279(1) (permission by specified income-tax authority) was lawfully and competently accorded for instituting prosecution under Section 276C(1), in the factual matrix where no adjudication of concealment/penalty had occurred?
iv) Whether the High Court erred in refusing to quash the prosecution in circumstances where (a) the Settlement Commission's order under Chapter XIXA found full disclosure and granted immunity from penalty, and (b) Revenue's officers flagrantly disregarded departmental instructions governing prosecution?
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue i - Effect of settlement order under Sections 245D(4), 245H and conclusive character under Section 245-I; abuse of process.
Legal framework: Sections 245C-245I create a statutory settlement mechanism; Section 245H empowers the Settlement Commission to grant immunity from prosecution and penalty subject to proviso that no immunity shall be granted where prosecution proceedings were instituted before receipt of the application under Section 245C; Section 245I declares every order of settlement under Section 245D(4) to be conclusive as to matters stated therein.
Precedent treatment: The legislative history (Wanchoo Committee) and statutory text demonstrate intent to make settlement an effective and conclusive device to avoid unnecessary criminal proceedings against taxpayers who fully disclose. No precedent was overruled; the Court relied on statutory purpose and existing jurisprudence on administrative-finality principles.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed a distinction between the literal saving in the first proviso to Section 245H(1) (which preserves prosecutions instituted prior to application) and the conclusive effect of a subsequent settlement order under Section 245I. Where the Settlement Commission, after full disclosure, records that additional income is not due to suppression and grants immunity from penalty, the continuing of prosecution despite absence of any finding of wilful evasion undermines the conclusive object of settlement and may render continuation abusive. The Court emphasized that an order under Section 245I is conclusive as to matters stated therein and that prosecutorial persistence in face of such a conclusive finding, particularly when prosecution lacks essential proof of mens rea, can constitute abuse of process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A prosecution continued notwithstanding a conclusive settlement order that finds full disclosure and grants immunity from penalty, and in the absence of evidence of wilful evasion, may be quashed as an abuse of process. Obiter - Observations on the balance between the literal proviso to Section 245H(1) and the practical effect of Section 245I, and the policy underpinning settlement machinery.
Conclusion: Where Settlement Commission under Section 245D(4) records full and true disclosure and grants immunity from penalty and there is no subsequent reopening under Section 245D(6), continuation of prosecution that cannot establish mens rea is an abuse of process and susceptible to quashing despite the prima facie saving in proviso to Section 245H(1).
Issue ii - Binding nature and relevance of departmental circulars, Prosecution Manual and CBDT clarification to initiation/continuation of prosecution under Section 276C(1).
Legal framework: CBDT issues administrative circulars under Section 119 of the Income Tax Act and general administrative instruments (Prosecution Manual) to regulate identification and processing of prosecution cases; courts have held such circulars binding on Revenue authorities in administration of the Act, though courts retain power to declare statutory meaning.
Precedent treatment (followed): The Court cited authoritative precedents establishing that departmental circulars and instructions issued under statutory powers are binding on the revenue authorities (subject to judicial interpretation), and that such circulars may mitigate the rigour of the statute for the benefit of taxpayers.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that departmental instructions (2008 circular, Prosecution Manual 2009, 2019 CBDT clarification) set thresholds and conditions (e.g., confirmation by ITAT, tax liability thresholds, Collegium approval for lower amounts) which were in force when sanction was accorded. Where authorities disregard those binding departmental directions and proceed with prosecution absent required preconditions (e.g., confirmation of concealment/ITAT order or Collegium approval for tax below threshold), such disregard is a serious procedural lapse undermining fairness and consistency and could render prosecution improper.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Departmental circulars and prosecution guidelines are binding on authorities administering the Income Tax Act and non-compliance with mandatory procedural prerequisites relevant to prosecution is material to the question of abuse of process. Obiter - Discussion of policy reasons and historical context for issuance of such circulars.
Conclusion: The departmental circulars and Prosecution Manual were binding on prosecuting authorities; their non-compliance in this matter was a material irregularity warranting quashing of prosecution where the prosecution otherwise lacked the necessary confirmation of concealment and compliance with thresholds/procedures.
Issue iii - Competence of sanctioning authority under Section 279(1) where no penalty or confirmation for concealment exists.
Legal framework: Section 279(1) requires previous sanction of specified senior income-tax authorities for instituting prosecution under Section 276C and related sections; Section 279(1A) bars proceedings where penalty imposed or imposable has been reduced/waived under specified provisions.
Precedent treatment: No direct precedent overruled; Court applied statutory construction and administrative law principles to evaluate competence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that sanction was formally obtained from the specified authority (PDIT) but emphasized that competence to sanction is not divorced from reasonableness and adherence to departmental policy and statutory purpose. Where sanction is given while essential factual predicates (confirmation of concealment, compliance with circular thresholds) are absent, sanctioning authority's act, though facially conforming to Section 279, may nonetheless reflect neglect of binding departmental instructions and thereby contribute to prosecutorial abuse. The Court also stressed that prosecution under Section 276C(1) requires proof of mens rea - wilful attempt to evade imposition of tax - and that absence of such proof renders prosecution futile.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Formal sanction under Section 279(1) must be exercised in consonance with statutory scheme and binding departmental guidelines; absence of the factual/legal predicates relevant to prosecution undermines the legitimacy of sanction and may justify quashing. Obiter - Broader remarks on internal discretion of sanctioning authorities.
Conclusion: Although sanction was formally accorded, the failure to ensure compliance with binding departmental procedures and absence of a factual basis (confirmed concealment) rendered the sanction unsustainable in context and contributed to abuse of process.
Issue iv - High Court's approach to quashing and final relief.
Legal framework: High Courts possess powers under Section 482 CrPC to quash criminal proceedings in cases of abuse of process, futility, or where continuation would offend fairness and justice.
Precedent treatment: Applied established principles about quashing and abuse of process; relied on binding nature of circulars and conclusive effect of settlement orders.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the High Court failed to give due weight to (a) the Settlement Commission's express finding of full disclosure and grant of immunity from penalty, (b) the binding departmental circulars and CBDT clarification which required confirmation/threshold compliance before prosecution, and (c) absence of material to establish mens rea required under Section 276C(1). The combined effect of these factors rendered continuation of the prosecution unreasonable and abusive. Accordingly, the High Court's refusal to quash was misdirected.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where prosecutorial conduct flagrantly disregards binding departmental instructions and persists despite a conclusive settlement order finding full disclosure and no suppression, the High Court should quash the prosecution under its inherent powers; continuation would amount to abuse. Obiter - Observations on appropriate interplay between settlement machinery and criminal process.
Conclusion: The High Court's dismissal of the quashing petition was set aside; prosecution quashed as amounting to abuse of process. The Court imposed costs on Revenue to vindicate abuse and deter similar conduct.
Final operative conclusion (The Court): Prosecution under Section 276C(1) was quashed because (i) departmental guidelines and CBDT clarifications binding on authorities were not complied with; (ii) Settlement Commission under Section 245D(4) recorded full disclosure and granted immunity from penalty with conclusive effect under Section 245I; (iii) prosecution lacked requisite factual foundation to prove wilful attempt to evade tax; and (iv) continuation of prosecution in such circumstances constituted abuse of process. Costs were imposed on Revenue.
Wilful attempt to evade tax (offence under Section 276C(1)) - Power of the Settlement Commission to grant immunity from prosecution and penalty under Chapter XIXA (Sections 245C, 245D, 245H and 245-I) - Binding nature of departmental circulars and prosecution guidelines (CBDT circulars / Prosecution Manual) - Sanction for prosecution under Section 279(1) and competence of sanctioning authority
Wilful attempt to evade tax (offence under Section 276C(1)) - Power of the Settlement Commission to grant immunity from prosecution and penalty under Chapter XIXA (Sections 245D, 245H and 245-I) - Binding nature of departmental circulars and prosecution guidelines (24.04.2008 circular; Prosecution Manual, 2009; CBDT clarification 09.09.2019) - Continuation of prosecution after the Settlement Commission granted immunity from penalty (and having recorded full disclosure) amounted to abuse of the process of court and justified quashing of the prosecution. - HELD THAT: - The Court analysed the statutory scheme of Chapter XIXA, in particular the power of the Settlement Commission to grant immunity under Section 245H and the conclusiveness of its order under Section 245-I. The Settlement Commission had recorded that the applicant had disclosed all facts material to computation of additional income, that there was no suppression and that immunity from penalty was granted (order dated 26.11.2019). Departmental instructions (the 24.04.2008 circular, the Prosecution Manual, 2009, and the CBDT clarification of 09.09.2019) prescribe when prosecution under Section 276C(1) should be processed (including, inter alia, initiation only after confirmation of penalty by ITAT and administrative thresholds). This Court held that those departmental circulars are binding on the authorities administering the Act. In the present facts the complaint was lodged without compliance with those binding internal guidelines, no finding of concealment or imposition of penalty had been recorded by ITAT, and no material was placed on record to show compliance with the prescribed procedure. Continuation of the prosecution despite the Settlement Commission's conclusive findings and in blatant disregard of binding departmental instructions reflected unfair and unreasonable conduct by the revenue and therefore amounted to abuse of process. The Court accordingly concluded that the prosecution could not be permitted to continue and must be quashed. [Paras 33, 35, 36, 37, 38]
Prosecution lodged by the Revenue under Section 276C(1) quashed as continuation after the Settlement Commission's order and without compliance with binding departmental guidelines amounted to abuse of process.
Sanction for prosecution under Section 279(1) and competence of sanctioning authority - Effect of proviso to Section 245H(1) preserving prosecutions instituted before receipt of settlement application - High Court's dismissal of the quashing petition was incorrect in the circumstances and appellate interference was warranted; the prosecution was quashed notwithstanding that sanction had been accorded under Section 279(1). - HELD THAT: - Although the proviso to Section 245H(1) saves prosecutions instituted before receipt of an application under Section 245C, the Court examined whether, having regard to the Settlement Commission's conclusive findings (Section 245-I) and the Department's own binding guidelines about when prosecution ought to be processed, continuation of the prosecution was sustainable. The Court found that PDIT had sanctioned prosecution under Section 279(1) and DDIT filed the complaint before the Settlement application; however, there was no evidence that the statutory and departmental prerequisites for a meaningful prosecution (including confirmation of concealment or penalty by ITAT where applicable and adherence to the CBDT guidelines) were satisfied. The High Court failed to appreciate these aspects and erred in dismissing the quashing petition. In view of the Settlement Commission's findings and the revenue's non-compliance with its own binding instructions, the appropriate relief was to set aside the High Court order and quash the prosecution. [Paras 17, 33, 36, 37, 38]
High Court order dismissing the quashing petition set aside; appeals allowed and prosecution quashed despite prior sanction under Section 279(1).
Final Conclusion: Appeals allowed; the prosecution under Section 276C(1) in relation to assessment year 2017-2018 is quashed on grounds of abuse of process and non-compliance with binding departmental prosecution guidelines in the face of a conclusive settlement order; costs awarded against the Revenue.
Issues: Whether the purchase and sale of shares through stock exchange transactions, resulting in set-off of short-term capital loss against long-term capital gains, constituted an impermissible avoidance arrangement attracting the General Anti-Avoidance Rule under Section 96 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and justified the order passed under Section 144BA(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The statutory scheme of Section 96 requires an arrangement between two or more parties, coupled with the existence of one or more of the specified attributes, namely creation of non-arm's length rights or obligations, misuse or abuse of the Act, lack of commercial substance, or employment of means not ordinarily used for bona fide purposes. The material before the Court showed that the transactions were undertaken through stock exchange and DMAT account, the Department had not established any nexus with known persons or any cogent material beyond the timing of purchase and sale, and the assessee had an established investment portfolio with all transactions reflected in the return filings. The presumption under Section 96(2) was not sufficiently supported by independent material to bring the transactions within the mischief of GAAR.
Conclusion: The transactions did not constitute an impermissible avoidance arrangement, and the order passed under Section 144BA(6) could not be sustained.
Impermissible avoidance arrangement u/s 96 - transactions undertaken by the petitioner were one which falls under impermissible avoidance arrangement as is envisaged u/s 96 of the Act - HELD THAT:- In order to hold a transaction of purchase and sale of shares to be impermissible avoidance arrangement, first of all there has to be an arrangement arrived at between two or more parties and secondly, the said arrangement has the four ingredients those which are envisaged in clauses (a) to (d) of Sub-Section (1) of Section 96.
What is a commercial substance or an arrangement which lacks commercial substance is that which is mentioned in Section 97 of the Act.
Department has not been able to show any arrangement to have been made by the petitioner in the course of selling its shares of M/s. HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd., and it was a pure trading done by the petitioner with no knowledge of purchase and sale carried out by the petitioner.
In the absence of any strong material made available by the Department meeting the requirements and ingredients that are reflected under Section 96(1) of the Act, we are of the considered opinion that the writ petition deserves to be and is accordingly allowed. The impugned order passed by respondent No.3 u/s 144BA(6) of the Act for the Assessment Year 2020-21 is set aside.
Issues: Whether external development charges were liable to tax deduction at source, and whether the matter required remand to the Assessing Officer for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The assessment proceeded on the footing that the payment represented rent and attracted deduction under section 194I, while the Revenue alternatively pressed for remand on the basis that the payment should be treated as one made to a contractor under section 194C. The Court held that the very question had already been decided in the assessee's own matter, where the attempt to sustain the order on a different TDS provision and to remand the matter was rejected. In view of that binding and final determination between the same parties on an identical issue, no substantial question of law survived for reconsideration in the present appeal.
Conclusion: The challenge to the deletion of the demand failed. The Court declined remand and upheld the position that the assessee was not liable to the impugned TDS demand on the basis urged by the Revenue.
TDS u/s 194C/194I - External Development Charges (EDC) were received by HUDA from some private persons/builders in which TDS has not been deducted - HELD THAT:- In DLF Homes Panchkula Pvt. Ltd. [2023 (4) TMI 399 - DELHI HIGH COURT] we find any merit in the contention that the substratum of the impugned order is correct, and the AO has merely referred to a wrong provision of law. In this case it was held as "The question as to the nature of EDC payment was squarely one of the issues that was required to be addressed by the AO. He had concluded that the same was ‘rent’ as it was in nature of an arrangement to use land. It is not open for the respondents"(Revenue) to now contend that EDC charges are payment made to a contractor under a contract and not ‘rent’ under an arrangement to use land."
In view of the fact that the issue with regard to the same assessee in respect of an identical nature of an assessment order has been decided in favour of the assessee-respondent.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether failure to e-file Form 10-IC before the due date under section 139(1) is a mandatory condition that disentitles a company from claiming concessional tax rate under section 115BAA.
2. Whether the doctrine of substantial compliance / equitable condonation of delay (including "genuine hardship") permits acceptance of Form 10-IC filed after the statutory due date where the assessee has otherwise manifested clear intent and paid tax at the concessional rate.
3. Whether an intimation under section 143(1) can validly apply the normal tax regime and MAT provisions when the assessee has claimed and paid tax under section 115BAA but has not filed Form 10-IC by the due date.
4. Whether consequential issues (surcharge rate and applicability of MAT under section 115JB) require separate adjudication where the primary denial of section 115BAA relief is set aside as a procedural lapse.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Mandatory versus directory nature of Form 10-IC filing to avail section 115BAA
Legal framework: Section 115BAA provides an option for companies to pay tax at a concessional rate subject to conditions; Rule 21AE/Form 10-IC prescribes e-filing of a declaration to exercise the option and the due date for filing return is governed by section 139(1). The procedural requirement of filing Form 10-IC interacts with the substantive right to the concessional regime.
Precedent treatment: Multiple coordinate-bench Tribunal and High Court decisions were considered which have treated the filing of the prescribed form as directory rather than mandatory where the substantive intention is otherwise clear; Supreme Court authority on substantial compliance was cited as setting the general test for when procedural non-compliance may be excused.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined objective indicia of intent (selection of the option in the income-tax return, tax calculated and paid at 22%, and declaration in audit records such as clause 8(a) of Form 3CA/3CD) and found full substantive compliance notwithstanding delay in e-filing Form 10-IC. The Tribunal accepted the assessee's explanation of bona fide delay caused by exceptional circumstances (search and consequent late finalization of accounts) and held that the procedural lapse had no material objective to be served by strict timing. Reliance was placed on the doctrine of substantial compliance which distinguishes mandatory statutory conditions (core to entitlement) from procedural/directory requirements; the form-filing was held to fall in the latter category in the facts of the case.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an assessee has clearly manifested intent to opt for section 115BAA in statutory returns/audit documents and has paid tax at the concessional rate, non-filing of Form 10-IC by the return due date amounts to a procedural/directory lapse and, in the absence of any material object frustrated by the delay, should not disentitle the assessee to the concessional rate. Obiter - broader remarks on CBDT circulars and administrative flexibility supporting leniency (used to buttress the ratio but not essential to the holding).
Conclusion: Filing Form 10-IC before the due date is directory in nature in the facts of the present case; the assessee's substantive entitlement under section 115BAA survives the procedural delay and the form may be accepted with condonation of delay where genuine hardship/substantial compliance is shown.
Issue 2 - Application of doctrine of substantial compliance / condonation of delay ("genuine hardship")
Legal framework: Doctrine of substantial compliance permits treating procedural non-compliance as excused where mandatory requirements relevant to the substantive right are met and the lapse is procedural, or where genuine hardship justifies condonation; statutory power to condone delay and principles of beneficial interpretation apply to tax concession statutes.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on authoritative pronouncements endorsing substantial compliance and on various decisions treating "genuine hardship" and administrative leniency as legitimate bases for condonation; coordinate bench rulings and High Court findings were followed to the extent they held that procedural non-compliance should not defeat substantive benefits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the assessee acted in good faith, manifested intent clearly in the return and audit records, and paid tax at the concessional rate; exceptional circumstances (search and delay in final accounts) qualified as genuine hardship. Given these facts, the Tribunal treated the late filing as substantially compliant and deserving of condonation to advance substantive justice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - genuine hardship and substantial compliance justify condoning delay in filing the prescribed form for section 115BAA where substantive entitlement is otherwise evident. Obiter - specific policy observations about CBDT circulars and administrative practice (used to support the approach but not essential to the holding).
Conclusion: Condonation of delay was appropriate on the facts; the Department should accept the belated Form 10-IC and allow the benefit of section 115BAA.
Issue 3 - Validity of altering tax treatment under section 143(1) where Form 10-IC was filed late but substantive indicia of election existed
Legal framework: Section 143(1) intimation processes the return based on information available at filing and the CPC may compute tax accordingly; however, processing should reflect the true entitlement when the return and ancillary records disclose a clear option and payment consistent with the concessional regime.
Precedent treatment: Coordinate Tribunals held that where the prescribed form was available to or filed with the authorities during processing (or where other documents disclosed the election), the processing authority should have allowed the concessional regime instead of mechanically applying normal rates or MAT; administrative discretion must be exercised judiciously.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the intimation applying the normal tax rate and MAT was not justified in the circumstances because the return itself declared the option and tax was paid at 22%; the procedural lapse in filing Form 10-IC did not change the substantive position and the CPC should have considered the available material rather than deny the benefit at the processing stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an intimation under section 143(1) that applies a different tax regime solely due to a procedural delay in filing a directory form is unsustainable where substantive intent and payment evidence the option under section 115BAA. Obiter - scope and limits of CPC's processing powers generally.
Conclusion: The section 143(1) intimation denying the 115BAA rate was set aside; the AO/CPC is directed to recompute tax under section 115BAA on acceptance/condonation of the belated Form 10-IC.
Issue 4 - Consequential questions (surcharge and MAT applicability)
Legal framework: Surcharge and MAT consequences follow from the primary determination of the applicable tax regime; MAT under section 115JB is not applicable if the assessee validly opts and is entitled to section 115BAA.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treated consequential issues as derivative of the primary finding that entitlement to section 115BAA should be recognized; coordinate decisions direct recalculation of tax and related components on acceptance of the option.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Tribunal found that the assessee is entitled to the concessional rate and directed recomputation accordingly, MAT and surcharge questions were consequential. The Tribunal allowed grounds 1-4 (including surcharge point) and observed that ground 5 (MAT) was consequential; no separate full adjudication on MAT was required once the primary relief was granted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the primary denial of section 115BAA is set aside on substantial compliance/condonation grounds, consequential relief (appropriate surcharge and non-application of MAT where applicable) follows and can be adjusted upon recomputation. Obiter - detailed treatment of surcharge percentages and MAT computations.
Conclusion: Consequential relief including correct surcharge computation and non-application of MAT (if displaced by valid exercise of section 115BAA) shall follow from recomputation of tax under section 115BAA; primary appeal allowed and tax to be recomputed accordingly.
Denial of benefit u/s 115BAA of concessional rate of tax - mandatory v/s directory provision - Form 10IC was not filed in the prescribed time i.e. before the due date u/s 139(1) for filing the return - HELD THAT:- As in the case of Aprameya Engineering Ltd. [2024 (6) TMI 538 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] wherein it was held that considering the principle of beneficial interpretation, the procedural requirements should not override substantive benefits. Hence, delay in filing of Form 10-IC, being a procedural requirement, should not invalidate the assessee's right to claim the benefit of Section 115BAA of the Act.
It was further held that CBDT circulars extending due dates for filing of such forms in the earlier years indicate a degree of administrative flexibility and recognition that procedural lapses should not lead to denial of substantive benefits.
As in the case of Akshay (Akshay Devendra Biruri [2024 (6) TMI 272 - ITAT PUNE] held that in order to claim the benefit of the new tax regime, filing of Form 101E under Rule 21AG of the Rules, is not a mandatory requirement but it is rather directory in nature. The Hon'ble Tribunal directed the Revenue to allow the benefit of the new tax regime by taking into consideration the Form 101E as the same was available with the Revenue at the time of processing the return of income.
Thus, in our considered opinion assessee should not be deprived from the concessional rate of tax available in the statute merely for the procedural lapse. Decided in favour of assessee.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether amounts recorded in impounded diaries/ledgers seized during a survey under section 133A, alleged as cash transactions aggregating Rs. 4,29,92,220/-, can be treated as unexplained income of the assessee where the assessee pleads the entries relate to third parties and the assessee acted only as a property broker.
2. Whether amounts recorded in another impounded ledger entry aggregating Rs. 1,61,98,000/- can be treated as unexplained income of the assessee when contemporaneous documents and bank statements demonstrate those sums belong to third parties and the assessee discharged or rebutted the presumption under section 292C.
3. Whether the assessee was denied adequate opportunity of being heard or natural justice by the authorities in relation to verification of originals and production of third parties, and whether the failure to produce originals/third parties operated against the assessee given the powers available to tax authorities.
4. Consequential question: the legal effect on interest levied under sections 234A/234B/234C/234D where the underlying additions are contested (raised as a ground but not separately adjudicated once additions are deleted).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Treatment of Rs. 4,29,92,220 recorded in impounded documents as unexplained income
Legal framework: Survey under section 133A may result in seizure of documents whose contents are admissible, and section 292C creates a presumption as to the correctness of entries in documents found during survey unless the person in possession explains otherwise.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the principle that section 292C is "double-edged" and cited the approach in the Kerala High Court decision (referred to as DAMAC HOLDINGS) which treats the presumption as rebuttable and requires reading the impounded material in context favourably to the person in possession where third-party linkage is established.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the impounded document reproduced by the assessing officer and the additional material placed on record by the assessee (agreement copies, bank statements of the third-party Bharatpal, purchase deed, confirmations, and ledger cross-references). The Tribunal found (a) the impounded materials, when read with the bank statements and agreement copies, showed that the transactions related to identified third parties (Bharatpal, Garg family, Kulbir) in respect of property transactions; (b) cheque numbers, dates and amounts in the bank statements matched entries in the impounded documents; (c) the assessee's role as property broker/agent was contemporaneously admitted in the survey statement and supported by documents indicating commission; and (d) the assessing officer had reproduced only parts of the impounded document and did not undertake further verification available to him (such as summoning the third party or verifying originals), thereby drawing a presumption against the assessee on incomplete appreciation of material.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where impounded documents on their face and corroborated by third-party bank statements and agreements indicate transactions belong to third parties and the person in possession acted as broker, entries cannot be treated as the unexplained income of the person in possession; the presumption under section 292C is rebuttable and must yield to cogent documentary linkage to third parties. Obiter - criticism of AO's partial reproduction of documents and remarks on administrative ability to summon third parties, while persuasive, are ancillary to the core holding.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the addition of Rs. 4,29,92,220/- as unexplained income could not be sustained and deleted the addition, allowing the assessee's ground on this point.
Issue 2 - Treatment of Rs. 1,61,98,000 recorded in Trison Ledger as unexplained income
Legal framework: Same statutory framework applies - entries in impounded documents attract the presumption under section 292C but the assessee has the onus to rebut by cogent evidence showing entries relate to third parties or are otherwise explained.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the same legal approach as for Issue 1, following the principle that presumption is rebuttable and that documents must be read in context (citing the same Kerala High Court authority for the interpretive stance on section 292C).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analyzed the Trison Ledger entry and the agreement between the third-party (Bharatpal/GWC) and the Garg family, together with Bharatpal's bank statements showing payments totalling Rs. 1.52 crores that corresponded to amounts in the ledger. The assessee's explanation that the ledger entries related to the third-party transaction - not to cash in hand of the assessee - was supported by documentary consistency (agreement covenants, matching cheques and bank debits). The Tribunal found it unrealistic to expect a property broker to produce originals or third parties when those documents/parties are in possession of the contracting parties, and noted that the revenue had powers to procure or verify such documents/parties but did not do so. Since the explanation was corroborated by available primary bank records and agreement photocopies, the presumption of correctness of the entries in favour of the revenue could not be sustained against the assessee.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where impounded ledger entries correspond with third-party bank debits and contractual documents indicating the assessee acted as broker, the ledger entries cannot be converted into unexplained income of the broker. Obiter - observations on practical impossibility of producing originals by the broker and expectations on revenue to exercise powers under the Act are explanatory and situational.
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 1,61,98,000/- was held to be unsustainable and deleted.
Issue 3 - Alleged violation of natural justice and failure to produce originals/third parties
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice require that an assessee be afforded opportunity to substantiate explanations; procedural steps during remand and appellate proceedings must be reasonably directed to test veracity of claims, including calling for originals or third-party evidence where necessary.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied established principles that an assessee cannot be saddled with an impossible burden (e.g., producing originals held by third parties) and that the assessing authority has statutory powers to secure third-party evidence which it should have exercised if needed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted that the assessee produced photocopies and contemporaneous bank statements corroborating the third-party transactions and that the assessing officer did not exercise available statutory powers (e.g., issuing summons) to call third parties or demand originals. The appellate directions to produce originals and third parties were not complied with by the assessee, but the Tribunal reasoned that non-production of originals by a broker whose role is evidenced elsewhere cannot be fatal when sufficient corroboration exists and when revenue could have verified by its own processes. Consequently, the Tribunal treated the failure to produce originals as not justifying adverse inference where the documentary nexus to third parties was otherwise established.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - failure to produce originals/third parties does not automatically validate additions where credible corroborative material (bank statements, agreements, matching cheque details) exists and where revenue failed to utilize statutory powers to verify; adverse inference under section 292C is not inexorable. Obiter - remarks on the limits of the assessee's burden and expectations from revenue are contextual guidance.
Conclusion: The Tribunal found no violation of natural justice warranting adverse treatment of the assessee's substantiation; on the merits, the corroborative material sufficed to rebut the presumption and the appellate directions' non-compliance did not sustain the additions.
Issue 4 - Effect on interest charged under sections 234A/234B/234C/234D
Legal framework: Interest provisions operate consequentially upon assessment additions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal did not separately adjudicate merits of interest once the primary additions were deleted; deletion of the underlying additions removes the basis for the impugned interest charges.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where primary additions are deleted, related interest charges predicated on those additions are rendered untenable. Obiter - no detailed analysis of statutory interest provisions was required or undertaken.
Conclusion: Deletion of the impugned additions effectively negates the basis for the interest levied; the appeal was allowed and the additions deleted. Cross-reference: see conclusions under Issues 1-3 above.
Unexplained cash balance recorded in the Day Book -statement of the appellant at the time of Survey admitting property broking income - impugned addition was made on the basis of Document Trison Ledger reproduced of the Assessment Order - HELD THAT:- This document belonged to 3rd parties and relation of the appellant with this document was in the capacity of Property Broker and hence, addition based on such document could have been made in the hands of the appellant.
We are in agreement with contention of ld. Counsel that Section 292C of the Act, is double edged sword. Reliance can be placed on DAMAC HOLDINGS [2017 (12) TMI 1170 - KERALA HIGH COURT] If we are to presume that the contents of the document found in Survey are correct then aforesaid discussion establishes that these are the transactions relating to 3rd parties and as such content of document needs to be read in favour of the appellant.
We acknowledge the contention of ld. Counsel that how can assessee as property dealer could have produced the party and originals which are retained by the parties and not by the property dealer. The burden of assessee cannot be stretched to such an extent that ld. Tax authorities expect assessee to perform impossible task while they could had sufficient powers under the Act to have issues processes to concerned for appearance or call for documents.
In any case, photocopy of agreement shows bank transactions details which matches the bank statement of Bharat Pal. Thus as such without alleging on the basis of some cogent material or circumstance that same is not credible piece of evidence it should have been relied and assessee should have been benefitted. That being not done, the order of ld. CIT(A) cannot be sustained. Accordingly these grounds are allowed.
Addition based om impounded document found in search - By reffering to impounded document, that three figures including commission i.e. 1% of amount which is appearing at the right side extreme below in the document reproduced by AO in the assessment order. Confirmation from Bharat Pal confirming the cheques issued by him.
These circumstances could not have been left unrebutted and on basis of general assumption and presumptions additions could not have been made. Assessee being a property dealer has sufficiently established that the content of impounded document were not self-speaking or patently decipherable to draw a inference against the income being of assessee, and not of persons for whom he was transacting, so needed more inquisitive approach, which ld. Tax authorities failed to proceed with. The assessee needs to be benefitted. The grounds are sustained in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the disallowance of provision for leave encashment and the corresponding deletion by the first appellate authority required interference, and whether the matter should be restored to the Assessing Officer for fresh adjudication.
Analysis: The appeal arose from a disallowance of provision for leave encashment made in the assessment completed under section 143(3). The appellate authority had deleted the addition, but the Tribunal noted that the Supreme Court had reversed the earlier High Court view on allowability of such provision and that only actual payment towards leave encashment is deductible. Since the assessee had made actual payment in respect of existing liability, the Tribunal considered it appropriate to send the matter back for fresh examination by the Assessing Officer after granting reasonable opportunity of hearing.
Conclusion: The deletion was set aside for fresh consideration, the provision for leave encashment was to be added back subject to allowance of actual payment, and the issue was remanded to the Assessing Officer.
Addition made in respect of provisions for leave encashment allowable paid by the assessee - CIT (A) in the appellate order deleted the addition - HELD THAT:- No provision for leave encashment is to be allowed in the computation of income and it is only the actual payment of leave encasement which is to be allowed.
Assessee has paid sum during the year in respect of liability which were existing on the first day of the previous year.
Consequently, we deem it fit and proper to restore the issue to the file of the ld. AO to decide the issue afresh after affording reasonable opportunity of hearing to the assessee. Provisions created for leave encashment during the year are to be added back to the income of the assessee but actual payment made against the provisions is to be allowed as expense. Appeal of the Revenue is allowed for statistical purposes.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the notice issued under section 143(2) without prior compliance with CBDT Instruction F.No.225/157/2017/ITA-II dated 23.06.2017 renders the notice and consequent assessment proceedings invalid.
2. Whether the appellate authority erred in dismissing the appeal without considering written submissions filed during appellate proceedings.
3. Whether, in circumstances where the assessee failed to produce books and records and did not substantiate the source of cash deposits, the appropriate remedy is confirmation of additions or restoration to the Assessing Officer for fresh adjudication after affording opportunity to produce evidence.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of notice under section 143(2) for non-compliance with CBDT Instruction
Legal framework: Section 143(2) empowers the Assessing Officer to issue a notice for scrutiny assessment. Administrative instructions issued by the Board (CBDT Instruction dated 23.06.2017) prescribe steps to be followed before issuing such notices, aiming to ensure reasoned selection and fairness.
Precedent treatment: The judgment considers the contention that non-compliance with Board instructions may vitiate proceedings, but does not undertake a full precedent-based overruling or distinction. The Tribunal does not hold as a general proposition that every non-compliance automatically voids the notice; rather, it treats the contention as a legal ground raised by the assessee to be adjudicated on merits by the Assessing Officer.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal notes the legal ground raised by the assessee challenging the validity of the section 143(2) notice for alleged non-compliance with the CBDT instruction. However, because the assessee did not produce relevant documentary evidence before the authorities below to substantiate its case on the primary factual issue (source of cash deposits), the Tribunal found it appropriate to remit the matter to the Assessing Officer for fresh adjudication on both merits and legal grounds. The Tribunal implicitly recognizes that questions of validity flowing from administrative non-compliance may require factual and procedural examination by the Assessing Officer, and that summary dismissal at appellate stage without such adjudication is not appropriate where evidence is lacking or has not been tested.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a validity challenge to a 143(2) notice based on administrative instruction compliance is raised, it is appropriate to remit the matter to the Assessing Officer for fresh consideration if the assessee has not adduced documentary evidence before either authority; the Tribunal will not decide the validity in the absence of full factual matrix. Obiter - the decision does not establish a general rule that non-compliance per se always invalidates a notice.
Conclusions: The Tribunal did not finally decide the legal validity of the notice; instead it restored the issue to the Assessing Officer to adjudicate afresh on the legal ground (and merits), after affording opportunity to the assessee to produce evidence and be heard.
Issue 2 - Appellate authority's alleged failure to consider written submissions
Legal framework: Appellate proceedings require consideration of submissions and materials filed by the appellant; denial of opportunity or failure to consider submissions may vitiate appellate disposal.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treats the allegation as an aspect of procedural fairness to be remedied by providing opportunity rather than by reversing on that ground alone where factual non-production of evidence is central.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee contended that written submissions filed before the CIT(A) were not considered. The Tribunal examined the record and observed that both the CIT(A) and AO recorded the absence of production of substantive documents (sales bills, cash book, bank book, purchase and sales registers) and the assessee's failure to furnish source details. Given this factual backdrop, the Tribunal concluded that the remedy of restoration for fresh adjudication with direction to produce documents and to permit full consideration is appropriate to ensure submissions are considered on a complete record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an appellant alleges non-consideration of written submissions but the record shows absence of essential evidentiary material before both authorities, the proper course is to remit for fresh adjudication and to direct that submissions and evidence be considered. Obiter - the finding does not amount to a blanket reproach of the appellate authority's conduct beyond the facts of the case.
Conclusions: The Tribunal directed restoration to the Assessing Officer and ordered that the assessee be given opportunity to produce relevant documents so that written submissions and evidence are duly considered in fresh proceedings.
Issue 3 - Appropriate remedy where assessee fails to substantiate cash deposits and records are not produced
Legal framework: Assessing Officer may make additions under section 69 when unexplained cash credits/deposits cannot be satisfactorily explained by the assessee. Principles of natural justice and right to be heard require that the assessee be afforded an opportunity to substantiate sources before finalization.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal follows established principles that assessments founded on unexplained cash deposits require the assessee to be given reasonable opportunity to explain and to produce corroborative records; where such records are not produced at earlier stages but can be produced, a restoration for fresh adjudication is permissible.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessment record reflected sizeable additions under section 69 on account of cash deposits. The Tribunal observed that the assessee failed to produce purchase and sales registers, cash/bank books, sales bills or source explanations before the AO and CIT(A). In these circumstances, rather than affirming the addition or deciding complex legal challenges in the absence of documentary proof, the Tribunal restored the matter so the AO can re-examine the source of deposits, consider any documentary evidence produced, and adjudicate the legal challenge to the 143(2) notice if raised again.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an assessee has not furnished primary records to substantiate cash deposits, a Tribunal may remit the matter for fresh adjudication with direction to permit production of documents and to consider explanations before confirming additions. Obiter - the decision does not preclude confirmation of additions if, upon fresh consideration, the assessee fails to substantiate deposits.
Conclusions: The Tribunal allowed the appeal for statistical purposes by restoring the issue to the Assessing Officer with directions that the assessee cooperate, produce all relevant documents, and be afforded a sufficient opportunity of being heard; the Tribunal thereby did not decide the correctness of the addition or the legal validity of the notice finally, reserving those determinations to fresh proceedings.
Cross-references
Where the validity of a notice under section 143(2) is challenged on grounds of non-compliance with administrative instructions, that legal question may be remitted to the Assessing Officer for determination on an evidentiary record; see analysis under Issue 1 and Issue 3.
Addition u/s. 69 - cash deposits in the bank accounts HELD THAT:- We find that the ld. CIT(A) in its order has mentioned that the assessee was failed to produce the sales bill, cash book/bank book, purchase register and sales register to substantiate its claim.
Even a perusal of the assessment order also shows that the assessee has not furnished any details with respect to source of cash deposits made during the year under consideration nor produced the purchase register and sales register as asked for.
Since the assessee was unable to furnish any details before either of the authorities below, therefore, in the interest of justice, we restore the issues in this appeal to the file of ld.AO to adjudicate the issue afresh on merit
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment under section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is valid where no notice under section 143(2) was issued by the jurisdictional assessing officer prior to framing the assessment.
2. Whether issuance of a notice under section 143(2) by a non-jurisdictional assessing officer cures the absence of a section 143(2) notice from the jurisdictional officer, when the assessment is ultimately framed by the jurisdictional officer.
3. Whether defects in issuance of statutory notices that go to the jurisdiction of the assessing officer render the assessment a nullity and require quashing of the assessment order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of assessment framed under section 143(3) without a section 143(2) notice from the jurisdictional AO
Legal framework: Section 143(2) empowers the assessing officer to issue a notice requiring the assessee to produce evidence in support of the return; section 143(3) provides for assessment after making enquiries. Jurisdictional competence and the statutory sequence of notices are integral to a valid assessment.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on prior decisions of the High Court (identified in the record as two Kolkata High Court decisions) which held that where a non-jurisdictional officer issues a section 143(2) notice and the jurisdictional officer subsequently frames the assessment without issuing his own section 143(2) notice, such assessment is invalid.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the factual matrix showing (i) the return was filed with one ward; (ii) a section 143(2) notice was issued by a different ward (non-jurisdictional); (iii) the assessee sought migration of PAN to the proper jurisdiction; (iv) the jurisdictional ward ultimately issued section 142(1) notices and framed the assessment under section 143(3) without having issued its own section 143(2) notice. The Tribunal treated the absence of a section 143(2) notice from the jurisdictional AO as a "serious lapse" that "goes to the root of the matter", holding that the statutory preconditions for valid assessment were not satisfied.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the jurisdictional assessing officer frames an assessment under section 143(3) without issuing the mandatory section 143(2) notice (and where the only section 143(2) notice on record was issued by a non-jurisdictional officer), the assessment is invalid and void ab initio. The Tribunal's reliance on High Court authority as binding on the point is presented as central to the decision, not as obiter.
Conclusion: The assessment framed under section 143(3) without a section 143(2) notice issued by the jurisdictional AO is quashed as invalid.
Issue 2 - Effect of section 143(2) notice issued by a non-jurisdictional AO
Legal framework: Jurisdiction to issue statutory notices is vested in the assessing officer within whose charge the assessee falls; notices issued by officers lacking jurisdiction cannot substitute for notices required from the jurisdictional officer.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed High Court rulings holding that a section 143(2) notice issued by a non-jurisdictional AO does not validate an assessment later framed by the jurisdictional AO unless the jurisdictional AO itself issues the requisite notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered the sequence where a non-jurisdictional AO had issued a section 143(2) notice but the assessment was ultimately framed by a different ward which had not issued its own section 143(2) notice. The Tribunal concluded that the mere existence of a section 143(2) notice from a non-jurisdictional officer did not cure the jurisdictional defect when the assessing officer who framed the assessment had not performed the statutory act of issuing the section 143(2) notice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - issuance of a section 143(2) notice by a non-jurisdictional officer cannot validate an assessment framed by the jurisdictional officer who himself did not issue a section 143(2) notice.
Conclusion: The presence of a section 143(2) notice from a non-jurisdictional AO is not a cure; the assessment remains invalid if the jurisdictional AO did not issue the statutory section 143(2) notice before framing the assessment.
Issue 3 - Consequence of jurisdictional defects in statutory notices
Legal framework: Fundamental fairness and statutory compliance require that notices be issued by competent officers; defects that vitiate jurisdiction are capable of rendering subsequent orders nullities.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied High Court authority concluding that jurisdictional defects in notice issuance are fatal to the validity of the assessment and warrant quashing of the assessment order.
Interpretation and reasoning: On facts, the Tribunal found that the jurisdictional notice under section 143(2) was not issued by the assessing officer who ultimately framed the assessment, despite the assessee's attempts to regularize jurisdiction. The Tribunal characterized this omission as a defect "going to the root of the matter" and therefore incapable of being treated as a mere procedural irregularity.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - jurisdictional defects in issuance of mandatory statutory notices that affect the authority of the assessing officer render the resulting assessment void; such defects are not curable and require quashing of the assessment order.
Conclusion: The assessment was quashed on the ground that the jurisdictional defect in not issuing the mandatory section 143(2) notice rendered the assessment void ab initio.
Cross-references and outcome
See Issue 1 and Issue 2: The Tribunal's conclusion on invalidity rests on both the absence of a section 143(2) notice from the jurisdictional AO and the insufficiency of a section 143(2) notice issued by a non-jurisdictional AO to cure that absence. The Tribunal expressly followed the relevant High Court decisions on these points and allowed the appeal by quashing the assessment framed under section 143(3).
Assessment framed u/s 143(3) by non jurisdictional officer - HELD THAT:- Assessee filed the return of income for the impugned assessment year on 29.11.2012, with ITO, Ward 4(1)/ Kol while the notice u/s 143(2) of the Act was issued by ITO, Ward 34(1), Kolkata
ITO, Ward 4(3), Kolkata has not issued the jurisdictional notice u/s 143(2) of the Act which is a serious lapse on the part of the AO which goes to the root of the matter rendering the assessment framed u/s 143(3) of the Act by the ld. AO to be nullity and invalid in the eyes of law.
The case of the assessee is squarely covered by the following decisions Nopany & Sons [2022 (2) TMI 399 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] and Cosmat Traders (P) Ltd. [2022 (11) TMI 895 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] wherein as held that the assessment framed by the jurisdictional AO without issuing notice u/s 143(2) of the Act is invalid while notice u/s 143(2) was issued by the non-jurisdictional AO. Therefore we, accordingly, hold that the assessment framed by the AO Ward-4(3) Kolkata is invalid and is accordingly quashed. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether reopening assessment under section 147 on account of unexplained cash deposits in bank when no return was filed was valid.
2. Whether the assessing officer was obliged to supply reasons recorded under section 148(2) and sanction of competent authority where reopening was undertaken.
3. Whether an income-tax return filed after issuance of notice under section 148 but prior to completion of assessment can be treated as a valid return where e-verification occurred after filing but before completion - and whether rejection of such return and consequent non-issuance of notice under section 143(2) was permissible.
4. Whether assessment completed under section 144 (best judgement) was sustainable when the assessee subsequently produced bank statements and a detailed cash/fund-flow statement alleging withdrawals as the source of deposits.
5. Whether additions under section 69A (undisclosed cash credits) and consequential application of section 115BBE are justified where contemporaneous bank statements and a fund-flow statement purportedly establish source of cash.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of reopening under section 147 for unexplained cash deposits
Legal framework: Reopening under section 147 is permissible where the Assessing Officer forms belief that income has escaped assessment; section 148 requires issuance of notice for reassessment based on recorded reasons.
Precedent treatment: Assessee relied on prior decisions to challenge reopening as based on mere suspicion; the Tribunal noted these authorities were placed but did not follow them factually.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that absence of a filed return left the source of substantial cash deposits unsubstantiated; such unexplained bank deposits constitute escapement of income giving jurisdiction to reopen. The court emphasized that where material (cash deposits with no declared source) exists, reopening is not mere suspicion but a reasonable basis for reassessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - When no return is filed and bank cash deposits remain unexplained, reopening under section 147 is valid as income appears to have escaped assessment. Obiter - References to contrary precedents were considered but not adopted on the facts.
Conclusion: Ground challenging reopening dismissed; reopening held valid on the available material of unexplained cash deposits.
Issue 2 - Obligation to supply reasons recorded and sanction under section 148(2)
Legal framework: Section 148 requires recording of reasons for issue of notice; assessee is entitled to be apprised of the basis for reopening and any sanction required under the Act.
Precedent treatment: The assessee contended non-supply of reasons and sanction; the Tribunal considered the contention but treated it substantively tied to validity of reopening.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated lack of an earlier filed return and unexplained deposits as sufficient justification for reopening. Because reopening was upheld, the challenge on non-supply of reasons did not succeed on its own merits; the Tribunal did not separately annul the reopening on procedural grounds.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter/Ratio blend - The Tribunal's primary reasoning was factual (existence of unexplained deposits) rather than procedural; absence of separate relief on non-supply of reasons is consequential to upholding the substantive validity of reopening.
Conclusion: Ground complaining of non-supply of reasons/sanction rejected as reopening itself was sustained on merits.
Issue 3 - Validity/rejection of return filed after notice under section 148 and effect on notice under section 143(2)
Legal framework: A return filed in response to notice under section 148 must meet statutory requirements to be treated as valid; issuance of notice under section 143(2) presupposes a valid return for processing and scrutiny.
Precedent treatment: Assessee argued there is no power to "reject" an e-filed return and relied on timing and e-verification; Revenue treated the belatedly validated return as invalid, hence no 143(2) notice issued.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal accepted AO's factual finding that return was not filed within time stipulated in the section 148 notice and that e-verification occurred close to completion making the AO treat the return as invalid for assessment purposes. As a result, absence of a valid return obviated requirement to issue notice under section 143(2). The Tribunal found no illegality in treating the late/invalid return as not invoking statutory safeguards under section 143(2).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A return not complying with the timeline/requirements of a section 148 notice and/or not validly filed/e-verified in the requisite manner may be treated as invalid for purposes of section 143(2), and AO can proceed under section 144 without issuing 143(2) notice.
Conclusion: Grounds challenging rejection of return and non-issuance of 143(2) dismissed; AO acted within powers given the facts of late filing/validation.
Issue 4 - Sustainment of assessment under section 144 in light of subsequently produced bank statements and cash/fund-flow statement
Legal framework: Section 144 empowers AO to make best judgement assessment where return is not filed/treated as invalid. However, if the assessee furnishes credible material establishing source of deposits before completion of proceedings, AO must consider that material before making additions.
Precedent treatment: The Commissioner(Appeals) had remitted the matter for verification; the Tribunal examined the contemporaneous bank statements and cash flow statement filed before the Tribunal to decide whether addition was justified without further verification.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analyzed the bank statements and a detailed date-wise cash flow statement showing withdrawals and corresponding deposits and concluded that these documents were self-explanatory and established that sufficient funds were available from withdrawals to account for deposits. The opening balance claimed in the fund-flow statement was accepted as brought forward from earlier years and not susceptible to being taxed in the current year. The Tribunal held that where the source is adequately demonstrated by contemporaneous records, no addition under section 69A is warranted and further verification was unnecessary to sustain the addition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Best judgement assessment under section 144 cannot be upheld where the assessee produces contemporaneous bank records and a coherent fund-flow statement establishing sufficiency of funds as the source of cash deposits; in such circumstances additions under section 69A must be deleted.
Conclusion: Addition of INR 1,83,65,000 as unexplained cash credited was deleted; ground allowed and the order of lower authorities set aside on this point.
Issue 5 - Application of section 69A and section 115BBE following deletion of additions
Legal framework: Section 69A deals with unexplained cash credits; section 115BBE prescribes special rates for tax on certain incomes including unexplained cash credits where additions stand.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treated the claim under section 115BBE as consequential on whether additions under section 69A stood.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having deleted the additions under section 69A on evidentiary grounds, the Tribunal held the question of invoking section 115BBE does not arise and thus requires no adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where additions under section 69A are deleted for lack of justification, consequential application of section 115BBE is rendered infructuous.
Conclusion: Ground disputing levy under section 115BBE held infructuous; no separate adjudication required.
Cross-references and Overall Disposition
Cross-reference: Issues regarding validity of reopening and procedural compliances (Issues 1-3) are interlinked; the Tribunal upheld reopening and the AO's treatment of the late/invalid return, but on merits (Issue 4) accepted the substantive evidence filed by the assessee and deleted the addition, thereby making the tax-rate issue (Issue 5) moot.
Final outcome (ratio): Reopening under section 147 was lawful given unexplained cash deposits; late/e-verified return could be treated as invalid for purposes of section 143(2); however, contemporaneous bank statements and a coherent cash/fund-flow statement demonstrating sufficiency of prior funds can negate additions under section 69A, and when such additions are deleted, consequential provisions like section 115BBE do not apply.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - cash deposit in bank account unexplained - Whether AO has issued notice u/s 148 of the Act on mere suspicion? - HELD THAT:- We find that no return of income was filed by the assessee and therefore, the source of cash deposited in the bank accounts remained unsubstantiated. Once there was no material to suggest the source, we find no error in the order of AO in re-opening the case as the income to the extent of cash deposits in the bank account remained unexplained and is the escaped income. Thus, Ground of appeal No.1 raised by the assessee is dismissed.
Non-issue of notice and validity of the return of income filed - We find that the assessee has not filed the return of income within the time provided in the notice issued u/s 148 - AO treated the return filed on 20.02.2022 and validated on 04.03.2022 as invalid return. Since the return was held as invalid, there is no requirement of issue of notice u/s 143(2) of the Act.
Cash deposited in the bank account - Assessee has not filed the return of income in time therefore, the AO has treated the same as non-est and the order was passed u/s 144 of the Act. It is further seen that the assessee has filed bank statement and the cash flow statement wherein the withdrawals made from time to time and the deposits in cash were date-wise arranged.
According to the said fund flow statement, there was no deficit of funds as and when the cash was deposited in the bank accounts. These facts are self-explanatory with respect to the bank statement vis-a-vis fund flow statement and therefore, require no verification on the part of the AO. Once it is established that there are sufficient funds available with the assessee out of the cash withdrawals which were re-deposited in the bank account, no addition is required to be made for the same - Assessee claimed sum as brought forward from earlier years and shown as opening balance in fund flow statement thus, the same cannot be doubted in current year and no addition could be made for the said in the present year. We hereby set aside the order of the lower authorities and direct the AO to delete the addition made.
Application of provision of section 115BBE not required.
Issues: Whether the addition made by attributing a portion of offshore sales to an alleged permanent establishment in India was sustainable on the basis that two persons were treated as the assessee's employees for computing the stay period under Article 5(3)(b) of the India-Korea DTAA.
Analysis: The addition rested on the assumption that the travel reimbursement details for two named persons showed them to be employees of the assessee and that their stay in India pushed the relevant threshold beyond 183 days. On the material produced, including employment agreements and Form 16, those persons were found to be employees of the assessee's associated enterprise and not of the assessee. Their presence in India could not, therefore, be counted against the assessee for the purpose of determining the stay period under Article 5(3)(b). The rejection of the assessee's explanation was held to be based on surmises and conjectures, and the factual foundation for the attribution failed.
Conclusion: The addition was deleted and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded to the extent of the disputed addition, and the remaining grounds were left without adjudication after the core addition was deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Persons shown to be employees of an associated enterprise cannot be treated as the assessee's employees for computing the treaty stay threshold or for sustaining an alleged permanent establishment without reliable contrary evidence.
Computation of the Appellant's stay period under Article 5(3)(b) of the DTAA - Two personnel for whom travel reimbursement has been made to the Appellant are employees of the Appellant - Assessee has reimbursed the travelling expenses of two persons in addition to the employees declared by the Assessee whose total account of stay is more than 183 days in India - Lower Authorities submitted that the Assessee Company is deemed to have PE in India as per Article 5(3) of India-Korea DTAA -
HELD THAT:- Both personnel were employees of its AE - EPI and not the employees of the Appellant. Therefore, their presence in India had no relevance for computation of the stay period in India under Article 5(3)(b) of the DTAA. Therefore, we are of the opinion that, the Department has made the addition contrary to the above factual aspects brought on record by the Assessee and committed error in negating the contention of the Assessee based on surmises and conjectures.
We delete the additions made by the A.O. which has been confirmed by the Ld. CIT(A). Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether additions made under section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of unabated assessment years in proceedings under section 153A could be sustained without reliance on seized or incriminating material.
Analysis: The assessment years were held to be unabated after search action under section 132 and initiation of section 153A proceedings. In such cases, the addition must rest on seized or incriminating material. On scrutiny of the assessment discussion, no material of that kind was found to support the impugned unexplained cash credit additions.
Conclusion: The additions under section 68 were deleted and the assessee succeeded.
Assessment u/s 153A - Unexplained cash credit u/s 68 - impugned assessment years 2006-07 and 2007-08 are “unabated” one
HELD THAT:- CIT(DR) could hardly dispute the clinching fact emerging from the case file that the impugned assessment years 2006-07 and 2007-08 are “unabated” one since the departmental authorities had carried out section 132 search action in assessee’s case on 19.10.2010, leading to initiation of Section 153A proceedings.
And that hon’ble apex court’s recent landmark decision in PCIT Vs. Abhisar Builwell P. Ltd.[2023 (4) TMI 1056 - SUPREME COURT] has settled the law that such an addition involving an “unabated” assessment has to be based on the seized/incriminating material only.
There is not even an iota of evidence indicating that AO has made the addition in assessee’s hands based on such an incriminating material. We thus find it a fit case to delete the impugned section 68 additions - Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether long-term capital loss arising from shares acquired after 1 April 2017 could be carried forward under section 74 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and whether dividend income assessable under the head income from other sources could be adjusted against such loss, where long-term capital gains from grandfathered shares had been treated as exempt under the India-Mauritius DTAA.
Analysis: The assessee's exempt long-term capital gains related to shares acquired before 1 April 2017, which were covered by the grandfathering protection under Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA. The loss for which carry forward was claimed arose from a separate set of shares acquired after 1 April 2017, and the resulting net long-term capital loss was computed under section 74 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The relevant transactions were held to be distinct sources of income, and the treaty benefit available for one stream could not defeat the statutory carry forward entitlement for another distinct stream. The dividend income declared under the head income from other sources was also not liable to be adjusted against long-term capital loss, because such loss can be set off only against long-term capital gains.
Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to carry forward the long-term capital loss under section 74, and the adjustment of dividend income against that loss was impermissible.
Ratio Decidendi: For the purposes of section 90(2), treaty benefits and domestic-law treatment apply to distinct streams of income separately, and long-term capital loss can be carried forward under section 74 only in accordance with the statutory scheme of set-off against long-term capital gains.
Denial of carry forward of long-term capital loss - assessee is a Foreign Portfolio Investor and is a tax resident in Mauritius - AO-CPC adjusted the dividend income declared by the assessee under the head “income from other sources” against the long-term capital loss
HELD THAT:- Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Indium IV Mauritius Holdings Ltd. [2023 (10) TMI 1013 - ITAT MUMBAI] held that gains/loss arising from different transactions are distinct transactions and a separate source of income and therefore short-term capital gains/loss and long-term capital gains/loss are distinct and separate streams of income arising to an assessee and section 90(2) of the Act will apply to each source of income. Also held that under the head “capital gains”, the short-term and long-term assets are different sources of income, but each transaction constituting the short-term and long-term assets is a different source of income.
We are of the considered view that the same, in fact, supports the case of the assessee and further substantiates its claim that the choice of Act or Treaty is qua the separate source of income and each transaction resulting in gain or loss is a distinct source of income. In the present case, it cannot be disputed that the benefit of the Treaty was claimed by the assessee in respect of gains arising from the sale of shares which were acquired prior to 01.04.2017.
Assessee claimed carry forward of long-term capital loss from the sale of shares which were acquired after 01.04.2017. Therefore, in the present case, it is quite apparent that both transactions are distinct and, hence, result in different sources of income.
Accordingly, we are of the considered view that the reliance placed by the learned CIT(A) on the decision of the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Indium IV Mauritius Holdings Ltd. (supra) to decide the issue on merits against the assessee is wholly misplaced.
We may also note the well-settled principle of International Tax Jurisprudence that the Treaty does not levy any tax on the assessee, and only in a case wherein income is taxable under the Act, the Treaty may provide benefit to the assessee by exempting the income from taxability either by applying the resident rule of taxation or the source rule of taxation, as the case may be. Insofar as the gains arising from the sale of shares which were acquired prior to 01.04.2017, Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA, applying the resident rule of taxation, provides that such gains shall only be taxable in Mauritius.
In respect of shares acquired after 01.04.2017, Article 13(3A) of India-Mauritius DTAA, applying the source rule of taxation, provides that such gains will be taxable in the contracting state in which the company, whose shares are sold, is resident.
Accordingly, in the present case, the gains from the sale of shares acquired prior to 01.04.2017, which would otherwise have been taxable under the provisions of the Act, by application of the provisions of Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA, became exempt from taxation in India. However, in respect of the transaction of sale of shares acquired after 01.04.2017, though it was taxable in India, even as per Article 13(3A) of India-Mauritius DTAA, the assessee incurred net long-term capital loss in any case. Such being the facts, by applicability of the provisions of the Act, particularly section 74 as noted in the following paragraph, we are of the considered view that the assessee is entitled to claim carry forward of the long-term capital loss to subsequent years.
Such long-term capital loss can only be set off against the long-term capital gains. Therefore, the dividend income declared as taxable under the head “income from other sources” cannot be adjusted against the long-term capital loss carried forward by the assessee. Accordingly, the AO is directed to allow the carry forward of long-term capital loss to subsequent years as per the provisions of section 74 of the Act. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the revisional jurisdiction under section 263 can be validly invoked where the Assessing Officer issued specific notices, received voluminous replies and documents, and proceeded to frame assessment under section 143(3) accepting the returned income.
2. Whether "inadequate enquiry" by the Assessing Officer (as opposed to "lack of enquiry") suffices to render an assessment order erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of Revenue under section 263, including Explanation 2 thereto.
3. Whether the Commissioner can, in exercise of section 263, reappraise evidence and import findings or treatment from a different assessment year (A.Y.2017-18) without independent inquiry into facts of the year under appeal.
4. Whether the Commissioner could legitimately doubt genuineness of documents (agreement to sale, sale bills, etc.) and treat agricultural receipts as unexplained income/expenses without demonstrating absence of any inquiry by the AO or that the AO's view was unsustainable in law.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity of s.263 invocation where AO conducted enquiries and accepted returned income
Legal framework: Section 263 permits revisional jurisdiction if the assessment order is "erroneous" and "prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue." Explanation 2 expands the scope by deeming an order erroneous if made without inquiries which should have been made.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on settled authorities establishing that revision cannot be used to substitute the Commissioner's opinion where the AO has taken a permissible view after enquiry - e.g., principle in Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. and related High Court precedents distinguishing mere disagreement from jurisdictional error.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record showed multiple section 142(1) notices, a specific show-cause notice by the AO on yield/production, and extensive documentary replies and annexures filed by the taxpayer which formed part of the assessment record. The AO considered these materials and framed the assessment under section 143(3) accepting the returned income. Because the AO had made enquiries and applied his mind, the revisional jurisdiction could not be invoked merely because the Commissioner preferred a different view.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the AO conducts enquiries and adopts one of the plausible views, the Commissioner cannot exercise section 263 to overturn that view absent unlawfulness or unsustainability of the AO's approach. Obiter - observations on scope of material placed on record are explanatory.
Conclusion: The Court held the assumption of jurisdiction under section 263 was invalid in law as the AO had in fact made enquiries and taken a possible view; the assessment was not shown to be erroneous or prejudicial to Revenue.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: "Inadequate enquiry" v. "No enquiry" under Explanation 2 to s.263
Legal framework: Explanation 2 deems an order erroneous if passed without making inquiries which should have been made. Jurisprudence differentiates lack of any enquiry (permitting revision) from inadequate enquiry (not permitting revision where AO took a possible view).
Precedent Treatment: Reliance was placed on precedents that lay down that mere inadequacy of enquiry does not confer revisional jurisdiction; only total absence of enquiry or adoption of an unsustainable legal position does so.
Interpretation and reasoning: The factual record established that enquiries were made - specific notices, show-cause, and documentary responses - and therefore the case fell into the "inadequate enquiry/acceptable view" category rather than "no enquiry." The Commissioner's disagreement with the sufficiency of the AO's inquiry does not convert it into lack of enquiry under Explanation 2.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - inadequate enquiry by AO is not a ground for revision under section 263 if AO applied mind and took a plausible view; Explanation 2 does not empower the Commissioner to reappraise evidence merely because he considers the inquiry inadequate. Obiter - comments on boundaries of "inadequate" vs "no" enquiry.
Conclusion: The Court concluded Explanation 2 was inapplicable since enquiries had been conducted and the AO's view was one of the permissible outcomes; therefore, section 263 could not be validly invoked on the ground of inadequate enquiry.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Reliance on findings from another assessment year and requirement of independent inquiry
Legal framework: Each assessment year is to be treated independently; conclusions in one year cannot be mechanically applied to another without fresh, year-specific inquiry.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied established principle that inter-year comparison requires careful, independent consideration of facts and cannot by itself justify revisional action for the year under appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Commissioner's adoption of a 40% disallowance treatment from A.Y.2017-18 into the present year lacked independent factual foundation for A.Y.2020-21; the facts of the earlier year were materially different (e.g., purchase with standing crop) and could not be imported without fresh verification. The record for the year under appeal already contained specific inquiries and replies regarding the cultivation arrangement with the cultivator who bore expenses.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - findings from another assessment year cannot be imported into the year under appeal to justify exercise of s.263 without independent inquiry into facts of the relevant year. Obiter - the Court's criticism of mechanical transposition of percentages across years.
Conclusion: The Court found the PCIT erred in relying on the earlier year's treatment without independent inquiry; that reliance did not justify setting aside the assessment under section 263.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 4: Doubt as to genuineness of documents and treating agricultural receipts as unexplained receipts/expenses
Legal framework: For the Commissioner to invoke revision on document genuineness or to treat receipts as unexplained, there must be demonstrable absence of inquiry, or the AO's view must be unsustainable in law; mere suspicion or preference for another conclusion is insufficient.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities prohibit the Commissioner from substituting his opinion for that of the AO where the latter has examined documents and taken a plausible view. Questioning genuineness of documents must be grounded in material showing absence of any inquiry or legal unsustainability.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record showed the AO had called for and examined the sale agreement, sale bills, cash-flow statements and ledgers; the AO issued a pointed show-cause on yields and accepted the explanation supported by documents. The Commissioner's adverse comments on registration, notarisation, stamp paper and handwritten sale bills amounted to reappraisal of evidence. No demonstration was made that the AO's factual conclusion was legally unsustainable or arrived at without any inquiry.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Commissioner cannot treat documents as non-genuine or convert receipts into unexplained income under s.69C via s.263 where AO examined the documents and took a tenable view; reappraisal of evidence is beyond s.263. Obiter - remarks on indicia of genuineness the Commissioner relied upon.
Conclusion: The Court held that doubts raised by the Commissioner about document genuineness and consequent quantification of unexplained expenditure were not sustainable under section 263 in the face of AO's enquiry and accepted view.
OVERALL CONCLUSION
The Court set aside the revisional order under section 263 and restored the assessment under section 143(3), holding that the PCIT's exercise of revisional jurisdiction was not valid in law because: (i) the AO had made specific enquiries and applied his mind; (ii) mere inadequacy of enquiry or disagreement of the Commissioner does not render an order erroneous under section 263 (including Explanation 2); and (iii) importing treatment from a different assessment year without fresh inquiry and reappraising documentary evidence are not permissible bases for revision. The appeal was allowed and the assessment restored.
Revision u/s 263 - inadequate enquiry V/S no enquiry - as per CIT AO had grossly failed to conduct proper and meaningful inquiry with regard to the assessee’s claim of substantial agricultural income without showing even a single rupee as agricultural expenditure - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the assessment records unmistakably show that enquiries were in fact made by the AO. The notices u/s 142(1) specifically raised queries relating to the assessee’s claim of agricultural income, and the assessee filed replies along with documents.
AO also issued a show cause notice questioning the high yield of jeera and increase in agricultural income despite reduction in landholding.
After considering the explanations and documents, the AO accepted the claim. Thus, this is not a case where the AO passed the assessment order without any enquiry at all. At best, it may be a case of inadequate enquiry or acceptance of explanation which, in the opinion of the PCIT, was not sufficient. As per the ratio of the judicial precedents referred above, inadequacy of enquiry cannot be equated with “no enquiry” so as to render the order erroneous and prejudicial to the Revenue.
We also find merit in the contention of the assessee that the PCIT has erred in drawing comparison with AY 2017-18 where agricultural income was partly disbelieved in proceedings under section 263.
The facts of AY 2017-18 and the year under consideration are distinct. Each assessment year is separate and independent, and the outcome of one year cannot be imported mechanically into another year without independent enquiry into the facts of the relevant year.
Explanation 2 to section 263, no doubt, expands the scope of revision by deeming an order erroneous if passed without making inquiries which should have been made. But once it is demonstrated from record that inquiries were indeed made and AO has taken a possible view, Explanation 2 does not empower the Commissioner to reappraise evidence and substitute his own opinion.
Assumption of jurisdiction by the ld. PCIT under section 263 in the present case is not valid in law. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether the electronic material relied upon by the department was admissible despite the absence of a formal certificate under Section 138C(4) of the Customs Act, 1962, and whether the Tribunal was correct in setting aside the demand on that ground.
Analysis: Section 138C(4) requires a certificate identifying the electronic record, describing how it was produced, and relating the device and conditions of production. The provision is pari materia to Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. On the facts, the record of proceedings and the statements recorded under Section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962, all duly signed by the respondents, showed that the electronic material was produced and acknowledged in the course of investigation. The statements were not retracted, and their contents were not disputed in reply to the show cause notice. In these circumstances, the requirement of Section 138C(4) stood substantially complied with, and the Tribunal's view of total non-compliance was unsustainable. The other objections were left to be examined by the Tribunal on remand.
Conclusion: The challenge to the Tribunal's finding on Section 138C(4) succeeded, and the matter was remitted to the Tribunal to decide the appeals afresh on all grounds other than Section 138C(4).
Ratio Decidendi: A formal certificate under Section 138C(4) of the Customs Act, 1962 is not indispensable where the record otherwise establishes substantial compliance through duly signed proceedings and un-retracted statements acknowledging the electronic material.
Demand of differential Customs Duty - Compliance of the provision of Section 138C (4)of the Act, 1962. - Admissibility of micro films, facsimile copies of documents and computer print outs as documents and as evidence - Scope of Sections 65A and 65B of the Indian Evidence Act - failure to declare the actual RSP/MRP at which the goods were being sold to the ultimate consumers.
- HELD THAT:- Sub-section 4 of Section 138C makes it abundantly clear that if any statement is to be read into evidence and such documents are computer printouts, then a certificate has to be obtained in accordance with (a), (b) and (c) of sub-section 4 - The Indian Evidence Act also declares that the expressions “Certifying Authority”, “electronic signature”, “Electronic Signature Certificate”, “electronic form”, “electronic records”, “information”, “secure electronic record”, “secure digital signature” and “subscriber” shall have the meanings respectively assigned to them in the Information Technology Act.
Considering the Record of Proceedings duly signed by the respondents, including the various statements of the respondents recorded under Section 108 of the Act, 1962, that there was due compliance of Section 138C(4) of the Act, 1962. When it is said due compliance, the same should not mean that a particular certificate stricto senso in accordance with Section 138C(4) must necessarily be on record. The various documents on record in the form of record of proceedings and the statements recorded under Section 108 of the Act, 1962 could be said to be due compliance of Section 138C(4) of the Act, 1962.
It is pertinent to note at this stage that at no point of time the statements recorded under Section 108 of the Act, 1962 came to be retracted - Even while giving reply to the show cause notice, the contents of such statements recorded under Section 108 of the Act, 1962 were not disputed. This, of course, would be relevant only insofar as determining whether there has been due compliance of Section 138C(4) of the Act, 1962 is concerned. The evidentiary value of such Section 108 statements in any other proceedings, if any would have to be considered in accordance with law, including the compliance of Section 138B of the Act, 1962.
Matter restored back before the Tribunal.
The appeals of the Revenue partly allowed.
Outcome: The appeal was dismissed on the ground of the monetary limit prescribed for departmental appeals, with the question of law left open.
Maintainability of appeal - monetary limit for prosecuting the appeals filed by the Department of CESTAT, before High Courts and Supreme Court - Determination of FOB values - Entitlement for export incentives in the form of drawback, MEIS and ROSL - suspicion of the department is that the exporters had overvalued their goods so as to claim excess export benefits - It was held by CESTAT that 'The order of the Joint Commissioner is restored upholding the declared FOB values with the modification that the FOB values stand accepted because the officer had no power to modify the FOB values nor any power to direct that the export incentives should be paid on some other values.'
HELD THAT:- Having regard to the Circular of Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue dated 02.11.2023, where under, the monetary limit for prosecuting the appeals filed by the Department of CESTAT, before High Courts and Supreme Court, has been fixed and in the instant case, the value of the tax effect/ revenue involved, even according to the appellant(s) being Rs. 25,32,891/-, we are of the considered view that it is not a fit case for being entertained.
Hence, leaving open the question of law, if any, the appeal(s) stand dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a writ petition is maintainable challenging classification of imported goods under the Customs Tariff Act where a statutory appeal to the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT) is available.
2. Whether the High Court should, in exercise of its writ jurisdiction, direct the CESTAT to consider specific earlier appellate/tribunal decisions when an appeal is filed against a classification order.
3. Whether the existence of prior decisions (Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) and CESTAT) uniformly classifying identical goods under a particular tariff item removes the question of classification from being res integra for subsequent proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Maintainability of writ petition challenging tariff classification when statutory appeal exists.
Legal framework: The constitutional writ jurisdiction is subject to availability of alternative statutory remedies; classification disputes under the Customs Tariff Act are ordinarily addressed through the statutory appellate route (appeal to CESTAT).
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied the established principle that matters amenable to adjudication by a statutory appellate forum are not ordinarily entertained by writ petition when such avenues remain available.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that classification of imported goods is a quintessentially adjudicatory matter for the appellate mechanism prescribed under customs law. Since a statutory appeal to the CESTAT is available against the impugned classification order, entertaining the writ would circumvent the prescribed remedial scheme. The petitioner conceded non-pressing of the writ petition in light of the alternative remedy and sought only a direction to the appellate tribunal to consider specified precedents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Court's dismissal of the writ as not pressed, grounded on availability of statutory appeal, affirms the principle that writ jurisdiction is not to supplant statutory appellate remedies in classification disputes. Obiter - The Court's remark that it is not expressing any opinion on the merits preserves substantive adjudication to the appellate forum.
Conclusions: The writ petition is not entertained on merits and is dismissed as not pressed; the petitioner is directed to pursue the statutory appeal to the CESTAT within the specified time frame.
Issue 2: Judicial power to direct appellate tribunal to consider specific earlier decisions when appeal is to be filed.
Legal framework: High Courts possess supervisory and constitutional powers under writ jurisdiction, but must respect the independence and adjudicatory role of specialized tribunals; directions to tribunals to consider legal authorities are permissible if they do not usurp adjudicatory functions.
Precedent Treatment: The Court, while declining to adjudicate the classification issue itself, exercised its supervisory role to ensure that the CESTAT will consider identified decisions when the appeal is filed, thereby striking a balance between non-interference and ensuring fairness in appellate consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that issuing a direction that the CESTAT consider the specified earlier orders will not prejudice the respondents and will preserve the petitioner's right to have relevant precedents examined by the appellate forum. The direction was limited and procedural - it does not predetermine the outcome or substitute the CESTAT's fact-finding or legal reasoning. The Court explicitly refrained from expressing any view on the merits of classification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - It is within the High Court's power to require an appellate tribunal to consider specific authorities when an appeal is filed, provided the direction does not decide the substantive controversy. Obiter - The Court's view that no prejudice would be caused to respondents is ancillary and fact-specific.
Conclusions: The Court directed that upon institution of the statutory appeal, the CESTAT shall consider the three specified earlier orders/decisions while passing final orders; the direction is procedural and does not bind the substantive outcome.
Issue 3: Effect of prior appellate/tribunal decisions on res integra status of classification question.
Legal framework: Where binding or persuasive precedent exists on classification of identical goods, subsequent adjudicatory authorities must consider such precedents; whether a question remains res integra depends on the scope, ratio and authority of prior decisions.
Precedent Treatment: The Court acknowledged the petitioner's reliance on earlier orders from the Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) and the CESTAT which, according to the petitioner, classified similar goods under a different tariff item. The Court did not itself evaluate or overrule those precedents; rather it recognized their potential relevance for the appellate tribunal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the petitioner contends the classification was no longer res integra because prior appellate/tribunal decisions had settled the matter. However, the Court declined to resolve whether those decisions conclusively bind the first respondent or the CESTAT in the pending appeal. Instead, the Court ensured that the CESTAT will have the opportunity to consider those decisions when adjudicating the appeal. This preserves the hierarchical adjudicatory process for determining whether the question is indeed no longer res integra.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - The Court's statement that the question was argued by the petitioner to be not res integra is treated as the petitioner's contention; the Court stopped short of a definitive ratio on binding effect of the cited decisions. Ratio - Directing the appellate forum to consider earlier decisions implicitly recognizes that prior tribunal decisions are relevant to classification issues and must be examined in appellate determination.
Conclusions: The Court did not decide whether the classification question is res integra; it mandated consideration of the cited prior decisions by the CESTAT so that the appellate body can determine their applicability and whether they settle the classification issue.
Ancillary procedural conclusions and directives
1. The writ petition is dismissed as not pressed; no adjudication on merits of classification was undertaken by the Court.
2. The petitioner is directed to file the statutory appeal before the CESTAT within two weeks from receipt of the order.
3. The CESTAT is directed to consider the three specified orders/decisions when hearing and deciding the appeal; this direction is procedural and does not preclude the CESTAT from reaching an independent conclusion after considering facts, evidence, and law.
4. No costs were awarded.
Maintainability of petition - classification of imported goods - the goods were rightly classified under CTI 8471 41 90, but in the impugned order, erroneously, without following the earlier orders passed by the Commissioner of Customs Appeals as well as the CESTAT, has classified the imported goods of the petitioner under CTI 8528 59 00 - HELD THAT:- The petitioner's imported goods will fall only under classification CTI 8471 41 90 under the Customs Tariff Act, while passing the final orders in the appeal to be filed by the petitioner, aggrieved by the impugned order dated 24.03.2025 passed by the first respondent in Appeal Seaport.C.Cus.II No.360/2025. The petitioner shall file the statutory appeal in terms of this order within a period of two weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a customs broker violated Regulation 10(n) of the Customs Broker Licensing Regulations, 2018 by handling exports for exporters subsequently found to be "non-existent" by departmental verification.
2. Whether the obligation in Regulation 10(n) requires the customs broker to physically visit and continuously surveil the client's declared business premises to verify functioning at the declared address, or whether verification by reliable, independent, authentic documents, data or information suffices.
3. Whether verification obligations under Regulation 10(n) extend to policing the correctness/authenticity of Government-issued certificates (IEC, GSTIN) or require investigation into whether such certificates were validly issued by the issuing authorities.
4. Whether departmental reliance on an analytics report identifying "risky" exporters (DGARM) and subsequent field verification that an exporter had vacated premises after the broker's last dealings can sustain punitive action (license revocation, forfeiture, penalty) against the broker.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Breach of Regulation 10(n) by handling exports for exporters subsequently found non-existent
Legal framework: Regulation 10(n) requires customs brokers to "verify correctness of Importer Exporter Code (IEC) number, Goods and Services Tax Identification Number (GSTIN), identity of his client and functioning of his client at the declared address by using reliable, independent, authentic documents, data or information."
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on and followed the Tribunal's earlier reasoning in Mauli Worldwide Logistics v. Commissioner, which parsed Regulation 10(n) into discrete obligations and interpreted the methods and limits of verification.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the actual material relied upon by the Revenue - a DGARM list of 89 "risky" exporters and enclosed verification reports for only four exporters (RUD-1 to RUD-4). There was no evidence the broker had handled exports for RUD-1, RUD-2 and RUD-3; the Revenue produced no contrary material. For RUD-4, the verification report itself established prior GST registration and filing of returns up to August 2019 and that the last exports handled by the broker were in February 2019. The departmental physical verification that found the exporter absent occurred in February/March 2020 (after the broker's last dealings), and a letter sent was returned marked "left", indicating the exporter had vacated premises after the broker's dealings. The Tribunal concluded these facts do not establish that the exporter never existed or that the broker failed to verify at the relevant time.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - revenue cannot sustain revocation/penalty solely because subsequent departmental verification (after the broker's last transaction) finds the exporter absent; the broker's earlier compliance with Regulation 10(n) must be assessed by what was reasonably verifiable at the time of engagement. Obiter - ancillary observations on the impracticability of continuous surveillance by brokers (while persuasive, they follow from statutory construction).
Conclusion: The impugned punitive action based on alleged handling of consignments for "non-existent" exporters cannot be sustained where the broker did not handle the majority of named exporters and where the remaining exporter was shown to have existed and to have ceased functioning after the broker's last handling. The order revoking licence and imposing penalties was set aside on this ground.
Issue 2 - Whether Regulation 10(n) mandates physical verification / continuous surveillance of client premises
Legal framework: Text of Regulation 10(n) permits verification "by using reliable, independent, authentic documents, data or information" and specifies no express requirement of physical inspection.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed Mauli Worldwide Logistics, which held that Regulation 10(n) offers options - documents, data or information - and does not mandate physical visits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that (a) customs formations are located in limited places while clients may be geographically dispersed, (b) Regulation 10(n) expressly permits non-physical means of verification, and (c) physical attendance at each client's premises would be practically impossible and is not contemplated by the Regulation. If authentic, independent documents or official registrations demonstrate the client's functioning at the declared address, that satisfies the obligation. Further, Regulation 10(n) does not require brokers to keep continuous surveillance to ensure the client continues operating at that address after initial verification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a customs broker discharges the obligation to verify functioning at declared address by relying on reliable, independent, authentic documents/data/information; physical visit is not required as a matter of law. Obiter - practical difficulties and policy considerations concerning surveillance and geographic dispersal of clients.
Conclusion: The broker was not legally obliged to physically visit the exporter's premises at the time the Department later conducted verification; relying on authentic governmental registrations and documents satisfied Regulation 10(n).
Issue 3 - Extent of duty to verify authenticity/correctness of Government-issued documents (IEC, GSTIN)
Legal framework: Regulation 10(n) requires verification of correctness of IEC and GSTIN; general evidentiary presumptions (e.g., presumption as to genuineness of certified copies) were invoked in the Tribunal reasoning.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed Mauli Worldwide Logistics, which held that Regulation 10(n) does not require brokers to supervise or re-examine the correctness of actions by issuing Government officers.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal interpreted the obligation to verify the IEC/GSTIN as limited to satisfying oneself that the certificate/registration was indeed issued by the competent authority - achievable by online checks or comparison with originals. The broker is not required to investigate whether the issuing officer erred or whether the document was procured by fraud; the law presumes genuineness of government certificates. If the broker learns of fraud/misrepresentation, it may bring it to authorities' notice, but it does not become the broker's duty to adjudicate the validity of government issued documents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - verification duties do not extend to policing the correctness of governmental issuance; reliance on official documents that are on their face genuine satisfies Regulation 10(n). Obiter - practical steps for brokers (online verifications, document comparison) as acceptable means of satisfying the obligation.
Conclusion: The broker fulfilled the document/identity verification limb of Regulation 10(n) by relying on valid governmental registrations and was not at fault for not investigating issuance correctness absent reason to suspect fraud.
Issue 4 - Sufficiency of DGARM analytics and subsequent field reports to sustain punitive action against broker
Legal framework: Administrative enforcement actions must be based on relevant and adequate evidence demonstrating the broker's breach of regulatory duties.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied Mauli Worldwide Logistics' principles to evaluate whether post-hoc departmental verification could be the sole basis for finding a broker in breach of Regulation 10(n).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found DGARM analytics identifying "risky" exporters insufficient by themselves; the Revenue relied on a list of 89 names but produced substantive verification only for four, and for three of those the broker had no dealings. For the fourth, timing showed the exporter had ceased operations after the broker's last engagement. Therefore, the analytics plus delayed field verification did not establish failure of the broker to discharge the duties set out in Regulation 10(n). The Tribunal emphasized that enforcement cannot penalize brokers for subsequent events (exporter vacating premises after last transaction) or for absence of direct evidence linking the broker to fraudulent exporters.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative reliance on analytics and delayed verifications cannot substitute for evidence that, at the time of engagement, the broker failed to satisfy Regulation 10(n); such reliance is insufficient to justify revocation/forfeiture/penalty absent direct proof. Obiter - admonition to Revenue to provide specific evidence linking broker conduct to alleged exporter fraud when initiating disciplinary steps.
Conclusion: The DGARM list and the subsequent belated field verification did not constitute adequate material to sustain the disciplinary order against the broker; the impugned order was set aside with consequential relief to the broker.
Revocation of Customs Broker License - forfeiture of security deposit - levy of penalty - appellant had not verified the exporter’s existence - violation of Regulation 10 (n) of the Customs Broker Licensing Regulations, 2018 - HELD THAT:- It is found that of the alleged 89 exporters who did not exist, verification reports was enclosed only for 4 exporters as RUD-1 to RUD-4. Of these, according to the appellant it had not handled any exports in respect of the exporters indicated 1, 2 and 3. There is no contrary evidence from the Revenue.
As far as exporter in RUD-4 (M/s Lalit Enterprises) is concerned, the verification report itself states that it was registered with the GST department and the department has been receiving its returns until August 2019. A letter was sent and physical verification was also attempted in February 2020. The letter was returned from the postal authorities with remarks “left” and the officer also found that the exporter did not exist and the shipping bills were filed in February 2019 and before. In fact, report of the postal authorities shows that the exporter had left by February 2020. It implies that he had existed before at the premises. On this ground alone, the impugned order deserves to be set aside.
The impugned order cannot be sustained and deserves to be set aside - Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a tendering authority, while formulating tender conditions or procurement manuals, must take into account the objectives, scheme and remedial purpose of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) - particularly the concept of revival of corporate debtors as an "ongoing concern" through a Successful Resolution Applicant (SRA) - before prescribing disqualification criteria that bar entities which have undergone Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) within a specified period.
2. Whether a blanket ineligibility clause in tender conditions that disqualifies bidders merely because they or their bidding entity underwent CIRP within the last seven years is arbitrary or discriminatory, having regard to the IBC's intent to rehabilitate corporate debtors and to the need for a level playing field and widest possible competition in public procurement.
3. The extent of judicial review in respect of tender conditions: whether courts may add, delete or reframe tender conditions in the exercise of writ jurisdiction under Article 226 when the challenge concerns compatibility of tender conditions with other statutory regimes (here, the IBC).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Incorporation of the IBC's objectives into procurement policy and tender conditions
Legal framework: The IBC is a comprehensive statutory scheme for time-bound reorganisation and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, emphasizing maximisation of asset value, promotion of entrepreneurship, availability of credit, balancing stakeholder interests and reviving corporate debtors as ongoing concerns. Procurement manuals and tender conditions are governed by administrative policy objectives including transparency, competition and commercial due diligence.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on established pronouncements interpreting the IBC (drawing on Innoventive and Swiss Ribbons) to extract the Code's primary focus on revival and protection of corporate debtors and the beneficial nature of the regime. Those precedents were followed for the proposition that IBC aims to resuscitate corporate debtors and protect assets and stakeholders during resolution.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that since procurement manuals (such as the Manual for Procurement of Works, 2022) expressly consider laws affecting commercial aspects of public contracts, the IBC is a relevant enactment that ought not to be omitted when framing tender conditions. The IBC's specific purpose - to enable SRAs to revive corporate debtors as ongoing concerns - has material implications for procurement policy because an SRA-revived entity is transformed into a rehabilitated economic actor whose participation may further public interest, continuity of employment and preservation of creditor and stakeholder value. The absence of IBC from the enumerated laws in the Manual is a notable lacuna given the Code's pervasive impact on the commercial viability and legal status of firms emerging from CIRP.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's statement that the IBC ought to be considered in procurement manuals constitutes an authoritative ratio on the obligation of tendering authorities to account for materially relevant statutes when framing eligibility conditions. Observations on the social and stakeholder implications of rehabilitation (workers, banks, continuity) are explanatory but tied to the main holding and thus part of the operative reasoning rather than mere obiter.
Conclusions: Tendering authorities formulating procurement manuals and tender conditions must give due regard to the IBC's objectives and scheme; omission of the IBC from relevant considerations is a material oversight that should be rectified in policy-making and tender drafting.
Issue 2 - Validity of blanket ineligibility for entities subject to CIRP within seven years
Legal framework: Public procurement principles require promotion of widest possible competition and a level playing field, while tender conditions may legitimately require proof of financial capacity, turnover and technical competence. The IBC, however, contemplates rehabilitation and confers on a Successful Resolution Applicant a re-created ongoing concern status that changes the legal and commercial character of the entity.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied the reasoning of higher court authorities recognising the IBC as a beneficial code aimed at revival (Swiss Ribbons, Innoventive). No precedent was overruled; precedents were invoked to underline that resolution and resurrection are primary legislative aims.
Interpretation and reasoning: A blanket rule disqualifying bidders solely because they underwent CIRP within a prescribed period (seven years) fails to recognise that a successfully approved resolution plan results in an SRA reviving the corporate debtor as an ongoing concern with new management and possibly new financial and operational credentials. Such a blanket disqualification risks nullifying the rehabilitative intent of the IBC and may exclude entities that, post-CIRP, are capable and solvent. Nonetheless, tendering authorities retain a legitimate interest in ensuring bidders meet financial capacity and technical benchmarks; such requirements may justify exclusion in particular cases based on objective financial criteria rather than inflexible presumptive disqualification linked solely to CIRP history.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's conclusion that arbitrary blanket exclusion for CIRP participation is conceptually inconsistent with the IBC's objectives is ratio where tender conditions indiscriminately bar SRAs or rehabilitated entities. The observation that financial capacity and technical criteria remain valid grounds for exclusion is part of the operative balancing and therefore also ratio. Suggestions on how to treat "time spent in CIRP as zero period" are advisory and constitute obiter guidance on remedial approaches to reading down clauses.
Conclusions: Tender clauses imposing automatic ineligibility for entities that underwent CIRP in a specified period are prima facie inappropriate unless justified by objective, proportionate financial or technical requirements. Tendering authorities should avoid mechanical disqualification and instead adopt nuanced standards that recognise successful resolution under the IBC and evaluate post-resolution capacity on its merits.
Issue 3 - Scope of judicial review in challenges to tender conditions involving statutory regimes like the IBC
Legal framework: Judicial review of tender conditions under constitutional writ jurisdiction is limited: courts cannot ordinarily introduce, delete or reframe tender conditions; intervention is permissible where conditions are arbitrary, discriminatory or violative of law, subject to deference to administrative expertise and commercial considerations.
Precedent Treatment: The Court reiterated settled principles limiting judicial interference in procurement policy and tender drafting, while recognising the Court's role in ensuring legality and non-arbitrariness. No precedent was distinguished or overruled; the Court applied established restraint doctrine.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court acknowledged its circumscribed role: it would not itself alter the impugned clause in the absence of a direct legal challenge to the clause and given the administrative domain of tender drafting. However, the Court emphasized its power to direct reconsideration when a legal regime materially affecting tender eligibility (the IBC) appears to have been overlooked. The Court thus balanced non-intervention with supervisory responsibility to ensure policies conform to relevant laws and statutory objectives.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that courts will not rewrite tender conditions but may direct administrative reconsideration where relevant statutory mandates were ignored is ratio. The procedural directions to permit representation and reconsideration in the instant matter are case-specific relief and thus operative, not obiter.
Conclusions: Courts will exercise restraint in interfering with tender clauses but may require administrative authorities to revisit tender conditions where omission of a material statutory regime (e.g., the IBC) raises legal questions about arbitrariness or inconsistency with legislative purpose. Remedies should prefer administrative reconsideration over judicial amendment unless statutory violation compels further intervention.
Remedial Directions and Practical Guidance (Operative Conclusions)
The Court granted liberty to the affected bidder to make representation and directed respondents to consider such representation in light of the Court's views, to decide with written reasons within stipulated timelines and provide a copy of the decision; petitioner may approach the Court against that decision. These directions reflect the Court's preference for administrative reassessment rather than judicial re-writing of tender conditions.
Requirement to take into account the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, under which a company is resurrected as an ongoing concern by a Successful Resolution Applicant (SRA), while formulating the tender conditions - HELD THAT:- It is found from perusal of Clause 1.8 of the said Manual that the government has indeed not only considered various laws but has also examined the impact that such laws may have on the commercial aspects of the contracts that the government may enter into. It is found that the government has been aware of and sensitive to various laws like the Indian Contract Act, the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, the Competition Act, 2002, the Information Technology Act, 2002, the Delhi Police Establishment Act, 1946, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, various labour laws applicable at the works’ site, various building and safety Acts, Codes and other relevant laws including the provisions of the Constitution of India, 1950. The IBC, 2016 is conspicuous by its absence in Clause 1.8 of the Manual. In the period of constantly evolving laws, Acts and Codes, it appears that the impact of IBC on such Procurement of Goods and Services for the purpose of formulation of tender conditions would be profound and indispensable.
Plainly, the IBC, 2016 was engrafted with the purpose to amalgamate many laws surrounding revival, resurrection and liquidation of various companies, “to be read in that order”, and underscored the importance of reviving an entity so as to infuse fresh life into it and rehabilitate it back into the mainstream industry as an “on going concern”.
The entire emphasis appears to be, to ensure that an entity, whose resolution plan is accepted by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and declared to be “Successful Resolution Applicant” is successful in reviving and resurrecting such Corporate Debtor. The underlying object clearly appears to be to rid the “Corporate Debtor” of the previous unsuccessful management by introducing and involving an entity declared to be “SRA” who would be given the task of reviving the Corporate Debtor as an “on going concern”. If that is the aim and purport of the IBC, 2016, it is necessary to underscore the fact that this law must and ought to be considered as a crucial component to Clause 1.8 of the said Manual alongwith all other relevant laws.
In view of the fact that the petitioner in the present case has not laid challenge to the offending Clause, it is not inclined to interfere in the present matter at this stage, however, are of the considered opinion that the respondent/Union of India as also the tender issuing authority must examine the view expressed - liberty granted to the petitioner to submit its representation on or before 04.09.2025 in respect of the challenge laid and direct the respondents to consider such representation in the light of, and giving due regard to the aforesaid view expressed and dispose of the same on or before 20.09.2025 giving adequate reasons in writing.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether clauses 5(c), 5(h), 5(i), 5(j) and 5(l) of the resolution plan took away the Energy's ownership rights or contravened the memorandum of understanding and joint development agreement; (ii) whether the approved resolution plan took away the Energy's ownership in the 10.19 acres of land; (iii) whether the resolution plan was contingent and conditional so as to be incapable of approval; (iv) whether the successful resolution applicant satisfied the eligibility criteria.
Issue (i): Whether clauses 5(c), 5(h), 5(i), 5(j) and 5(l) of the resolution plan took away the Energy's ownership rights or contravened the memorandum of understanding and joint development agreement.
Analysis: The clauses in the resolution plan were read in the light of the memorandum of understanding, the joint development agreement and the earlier adjudication that recognised development rights in favour of the corporate debtor. Clause 5(c) reflected the agreed mechanism for refund and appropriation of security deposit under the joint development agreement and did not accelerate repayment merely by reason of approval of the plan. Clause 5(h) was consistent with the existing contractual permission to create project finance security. Clause 5(i) only substituted the designated power of attorney holders in aid of implementation of the plan and did not create any independent right in the land. Clause 5(j) continued the agreed shareholding and directorship arrangements. Clause 5(l) also operated within the framework of the development arrangement and did not alter ownership of the land.
Conclusion: The clauses neither took away the Energy's ownership rights nor contravened the memorandum of understanding or the joint development agreement.
Issue (ii): Whether the approved resolution plan took away the Energy's ownership in the 10.19 acres of land.
Analysis: The earlier binding determination had held that the corporate debtor possessed development rights constituting property and assets under the insolvency code, while the land owner continued to remain the owner of the land. The approved plan proceeded on that basis and did not transfer title to the corporate debtor or the successful resolution applicant. The plan regulated implementation of the existing development arrangement and not divestment of ownership.
Conclusion: The Energy's ownership in the land was not taken away under the approved resolution plan.
Issue (iii): Whether the resolution plan was contingent and conditional so as to be incapable of approval.
Analysis: The repayment and implementation schedule in the plan contained defined timelines and did not provide any exit route for the successful resolution applicant. The contingencies referred to by the appellant did not make the plan uncertain in the legal sense or render it contrary to the insolvency regulations. The plan remained capable of implementation in accordance with its terms.
Conclusion: The resolution plan was not held to be a contingent or conditional plan barring approval.
Issue (iv): Whether the successful resolution applicant satisfied the eligibility criteria.
Analysis: The record contained audited financial statements and the resolution professional's affidavit supporting the financial worth and deployed funds of the successful resolution applicant. On that material, the eligibility threshold prescribed in the invitation process stood satisfied.
Conclusion: The successful resolution applicant fulfilled the eligibility criteria.
Final Conclusion: The challenge to the rejection of the appellant's objection failed, and the approved resolution plan was sustained.
Resolution plan submitted by Respondent No.3, take away ownership rights of the Energy or not - ownership rights of the Energy in the land of 10.19 acres are being taken away by the Resolution Applicant, under the approved Resolution Plan - Resolution Plan submitted by SRA is contingent and conditional Resolution Plan - fulfilment of eligibility by SRA or not.
Whether Resolution Plan submitted by Respondent No.3, specially Clauses 5(c), (h), (i), (j) and (l), take away ownership rights of the Energy and the aforesaid Clauses contravene the provisions of MoU dated 24.01.2008 and JDA dated 16.06.2008? - Whether ownership rights of the Energy in the land of 10.19 acres are being taken away by the Resolution Applicant, under the approved Resolution Plan? - HELD THAT:- The apprehension of Appellant is misplaced that on approval of Resolution Plan, immediately the owner’s shares shall be appropriated towards the repayment of the security deposit. The submission of the Appellant that ownership rights of the Energy is being taken away by the above Clause, also cannot be accepted. Appropriation @ Rs. 1400/- per sq. ft. on account of non-refund of the amount by Energy was contemplated in the JDA, relevant Clause of the JDA 8.3 has been noted above, which provided for agreed rate of Rs. 1400/- per sq. ft. Hence, neither the ownership right of the Energy was taken away by the aforesaid Clause nor Clause 5(c) contravenes the provisions of JDA. More so, in view of the clear stipulation in Clause 5(m), the Resolution Applicant is obliged to act in accordance with the various Clauses of JDA and Clauses of Resolution Plan are to be implemented, subject to fulfillment of pre-condition as contemplated in the JDA.
Clause 5(c), (h), (i), (j) and (l) of the Resolution Plan neither take away ownership right of the Energy, nor contravene any provisions of MoU dated 24.01.2008 and JDA dated 16.06.2008 - Ownership of the Energy in the land of 10.19 acres, is not taken away under the approved Resolution Plan.
Whether Resolution Plan submitted by SRA is contingent and conditional Resolution Plan, which could not have been approved? - HELD THAT:- The Resolution Plan provides for details of amount to be provided to each stakeholders. Schedule-A of the letter dated 20.10.2023 at page 834 of the paper book, which provides for payment, the payment of Rs. 5,24,67,647 and Rs. 12,69,60,000/- have been referred to at Item Nos.3 and 4 of the Schedule-A. The timeline for payment is clearly mentioned. The above timeline for payments cannot be said to be contingent or conditional. Further, in the Resolution Plan, there is no Clause, which provides for exit of the Resolution Applicant. The Resolution Applicant and all stakeholders are fully bound to implement the Resolution Plan by taking substantial steps - there are no such contingency in the Resolution Plan, which makes the Plan violative of any provisions of Section 30, sub-section (2) (e) of the IBC. No fault can be found with the Resolution Plan.
Whether the SRA has not fulfilled necessary eligibility? - HELD THAT:- The Financial Statements of the SRA were on the record before the Adjudicating Authority and RP referring to the Financial Statements has filed the affidavit, giving relevant figures to support the contention that the SRA fulfilled the eligibility criteria - SRA has fulfilled the eligibility criteria for a Resolution Applicant.
There are no error in the order of the Adjudicating Authority - There is no merit in the Appeal - appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the existence of financial debt and default was established for admission of the application under Section 7 despite the challenge to the NPA classification and the RBI circular; (ii) Whether the application was maintainable and within limitation.
Issue (i): Whether the existence of financial debt and default was established for admission of the application under Section 7 despite the challenge to the NPA classification and the RBI circular.
Analysis: The record showed overdue amounts in the term loan and cash credit accounts, supported by bank statements, the ZLCC minutes, the recall and SARFAESI notices, the corporate debtor's own request for restructuring, and repeated OTS proposals. The challenge to the NPA date did not displace the core requirement under Section 7, namely proof of a financial debt and a default under the Code. The RBI circular relied upon by the appellant was held to be prospective and in any event did not negate the established default. The account statements and surrounding correspondence demonstrated continuing non-payment and acknowledgment of liability.
Conclusion: The existence of financial debt and default was proved and the challenge based on NPA classification failed.
Issue (ii): Whether the application was maintainable and within limitation.
Analysis: The financial creditor had asserted a debt above the statutory threshold and the materials on record showed continuing default from the stated date. The repeated restructuring requests, OTS proposal and subsequent conduct amounted to acknowledgment of liability and supported the creditor's case on limitation. The objection that withdrawal of the SARFAESI steps undermined the Section 7 application was rejected because the SARFAESI action was not shown to have been withdrawn in the manner suggested.
Conclusion: The application was maintainable and within limitation.
Final Conclusion: The admission order was sustained and no interference was warranted in appeal, resulting in dismissal of the challenge to the CIRP trigger.
Ratio Decidendi: For admission under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, the requirements are proof of financial debt and default; classification of the account as NPA is not a substitute for, nor a precondition to negate, established default, and repeated acknowledgments of liability may extend limitation.
Admission of Section 7 application - existence of financial debt u/s 5(8) of the IBC owed by the Corporate Debtor to the Financial Creditor - existence of default under Section 3(12) of the IBC, 2016, with respect to the financial debt in the Term Loan and Cash Credit Accounts as on the NPA date (30.09.2017), accepted as the date of default - default on the date of classification of the Corporate Debtor's account as an NPA or not - applicability of time limitation.
HELD THAT:- When the Corporate Debtor had committed default which is reflected from bank statements which were produced by Financial Creditor before the Adjudicating Authority and even noticed in the minutes of the ZLCC meeting dated 13.09.2017 as well as in the CIBIL Report which was filed by the Financial Creditor, Adjudicating Authority did not commit any error in holding that the debt and default is proved against the Corporate Debtor which is more than Rs. 1 Crore which is the threshold for filing Section 7 application.
From the facts brought on the record, it is clear that the Bank had not withdrawn notice under Section 13(2) dated 06.11.2017 rather Bank had made a request to the Additional District Magistrate for permitting the Bank to return the application filed before the Additional District Magistrate for taking possession of the assets of the Corporate Debtor. The letter dated 03.06.2019 written by the Bank to Additional District Magistrate, District Dewas has been brought on the record as Annexure A-20.
Notice under Section 13(2) was not withdrawn rather Bank wrote to the Additional District Magistrate that Bank is not interested in pursuing application for taking possession of the assets of the Corporate Debtor. The letter written by the Corporate Debtor is on record where Corporate Debtor after notice under Section 13(2) has been consistently writing to the Bank not to take any coercive action and suspend the action against the company. The notice under Section 13(2), thus, was never withdrawn and the letter dated 03.06.2019 written by the Bank to the Additional District Magistrate does not come to any aid to the Appellant. Section 13(2) notice dated 06.11.2017 clearly mentions overdue amount totalling to Rs. 1,10,19,003/-. It is also relevant to notice that even after revocation of the earlier approved OTS dated 06.08.2019, Corporate Debtor again gave an OTS to the Bank on 08.01.2020 offering to revising the OTS offer to the extent of Rs. 525 Lacs which OTS also thus, clearly acknowledged the over dues amount and default on the part of the Corporate Debtor. Consistent OTS proposal and prayer for re-structuring the debt is ample proof of the default by the Corporate Debtor. Adjudicating Authority after the order of this Tribunal elaborately considered all the objections raised by the Corporate Debtor and considering all relevant materials has correctly come to the finding that debt and default more than a threshold amount is proved.
There are no error in the order of the Adjudicating Authority admitting Section 7 application. There is no merit in the Appeal. The Appeal is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a property acquired prior to or during the period of commission of scheduled offences can be treated as "proceeds of crime" within the meaning of Section 2(1)(u) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and therefore be subject to provisional attachment (including attachment by value when actual tainted property is not traceable).
2. Whether, in circumstances where the actual proceeds of crime have "vanished" or are not traceable, attachment of untainted property of equivalent value (including property acquired prior to commission of the scheduled offence) is permissible under the second limb of the definition of "proceeds of crime".
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Scope of "proceeds of crime" - whether property acquired prior to or during commission of scheduled offences falls within Section 2(1)(u)
Legal framework: Section 2(1)(u) defines "proceeds of crime" in three parts: (i) property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence; (ii) the value of any such property; and (iii) where such property is taken or held outside the country, then the property equivalent in value held within the country or abroad. The Explanation further clarifies inclusion of property directly or indirectly derived or obtained as a result of criminal activity.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal analyzed a three-Judge apex decision which construed the definition expansively, particularly para treating the second limb as extending to value-equivalent property even where proceeds are not traceable. The Tribunal contrasted High Court decisions that read the definition narrowly (treating only tainted property) and upheld the Delhi High Court's decision characterizing three categories: tainted property, and two categories of "untainted" or "deemed tainted" property attachable as equivalent in value, subject to safeguards.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the definition must be read in three limbs; to ignore the middle limb ("the value of any such property") would render it redundant and frustrate the legislative purpose of preventing dissipation of proceeds and protecting victims. The second limb permits attachment of untainted property of equivalent value when tainted property is not available, vanished or siphoned off. The Tribunal relied on the purposive interpretation to prevent circumvention by immediate dissipation of proceeds post-offence, and on precedent that requires an assessment (even tentative) of the wrongful gain before confirming attachment of untainted property. The Tribunal rejected narrower readings that would restrict attachment to only property directly traceable to the crime.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the three-limb interpretation of Section 2(1)(u) is substantive: (a) first limb covers property obtained directly/indirectly from criminal activity; (b) second limb permits attachment of property equivalent in value where actual tainted property is not available; (c) the second limb is not confined to cases where property is outside India. Observations distinguishing certain High Court decisions and emphasizing the purposive impact of the second limb are ratio in support of this construction. Obiter - commentary on strategic misuse by accused and some comparative remarks about third-party bona fides as discussed in other decisions are ancillary.
Conclusion: Property acquired during the currency of the scheduled offence can fall within the first limb as directly/indirectly derived from criminal activity; property acquired prior to the scheduled offence may nevertheless be attachable under the second limb as "value of any such property" if the tainted proceeds are not available or have been siphoned off, subject to statutory safeguards and an assessment of illicit gain.
Issue 2: Permissibility and safeguards for attaching untainted property of equivalent value when proceeds are not traceable
Legal framework: Attachment powers under the Act operate only in respect of "proceeds of crime" as defined; the second and third limbs permit proceeding against untainted or equivalent-value property where tainted property cannot be traced. The Tribunal referred to the requirement of some assessment of the value of wrongful gain and established safeguards for third parties as articulated in precedent.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on authoritative decisions (including a three-Judge apex ruling and detailed High Court analyses) that (i) recognized the "deemed tainted" or "alternative attachable" categories, (ii) insisted on an assessment of illicit gain before confirming attachment of untainted property, and (iii) preserved bona fide third-party interests acquired for valid consideration. It rejected High Court authorities that would nullify the second limb or confine its application to property held outside India.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that where proceeds of crime have been quantified and found to be not traceable in the accused's possession, enforcement agencies may provisionally attach property of equivalent value to secure victim interests and statutory objectives. The Tribunal emphasized that attachment of equivalent-value property requires at least a tentative quantification of wrongful gain and that such attachment is a means to preserve the recovery potential pending trial. The Tribunal also noted that attachment of equivalent-value untainted property must respect established safeguards (assessment of illicit gain; protection of bona fide third-party rights), drawing on the analytical framework applied in prior decisions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - confirmation that, consistent with Section 2(1)(u), attachment of untainted property of equivalent value is permissible when tainted proceeds are not available, provided there is an assessment of illicit gain and protection of third-party bona fides. Obiter - examples or hypotheticals about siphoning off proceeds and policy considerations, while persuasive, serve illustrative purposes rather than novel legal propositions.
Conclusion: Attachment of untainted property of equivalent value is permissible where the proceeds of crime are vanished or not traceable; such attachment must be predicated on an assessment (even if tentative) of the wrongful pecuniary gain and must observe safeguards for bona fide third-party interests.
Application to the present facts and final conclusion
Legal reasoning applied: The Tribunal found the period of commission of scheduled offences undisputed and that proceeds had been quantified with the appellant alleged to have received a specified sum which was not available (vanished). The flat attached was purchased during the currency of the offences and thus could be captured by the first limb; even if argued otherwise, the second limb would permit attachment by value where proceeds are not traceable.
Conclusion: The challenge that property acquired prior to commission of crime cannot be attached was rejected. On the facts (purchase during the period of offence and quantified vanished proceeds), provisional attachment of the property to the stated value was upheld and the appeal dismissed.
Money Laundering - provisional attachment order - proceeds of crime have vanished or not - written test for the recruitment of 597 posts of Sub-Inspector of Police (UB) of Assam Police scheduled on 20.09.2020 had to be cancelled due to the leak of the question paper on WhatsApp - HELD THAT:- The order of the Tribunal rests on the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Vijay Madanlal Choudhary Vs. Union of India [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and other judgments, apart from the definition of “proceeds of crime”. The issue was elaborately discussed in the case of Enforcement Directorate v. Axis Bank, [2019 (4) TMI 250 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and was referred in the order passed by this Tribunal. In the case of Prakash Industries Ltd. v. Directorate of Enforcement [2022 (1) TMI 1487 - DELHI HIGH COURT], same issue was decided.
It is not found that even if the proceeds of crime has been vanished and is not available with the person accused, properties of equivalent value cannot be attached.
The facts of this case otherwise shows that the respondents have quantified the proceeds of crime to the tune of Rs. 6,13,74,440/- and out of which the appellant remained recipient of Rs. 40,00,000/-. Since the amount aforesaid has vanished and was not available with the appellant, the property worth of Rs. 16,60,000/- was provisionally attached. The property aforesaid was not purchased by the appellant prior to the scheduled offence, rather during the period of scheduled offence itself.
Thus, finding no merit in the only issue raised by the appellant, the appeal is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether retention of frozen bank accounts under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is justified where the noticee is alleged to be a recipient of proceeds of crime routed through related corporate entities and fails to satisfactorily disclose sources under Section 8(1) of the Act.
2. Whether mere receipt of commission or being on payroll, without further incriminating material, is sufficient to sustain freezing/retention of bank accounts as proceeds of crime pending trial.
3. Whether the existence of an alleged Ponzi / money-circulation / fraudulent MLM scheme and demonstrated money trails between entities (including sham purchases and routing to family-controlled concerns) justify retention of bank accounts of persons and firms found to be common links or ultimate beneficiaries.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework for retention of frozen bank accounts under the Act of 2002
Legal framework: The Act empowers search and seizure under Section 17(1) and permits issuance of notices under Section 8(1) requiring disclosure of source of acquisition of property; retention of frozen assets is permissible where proceeds of crime are shown or reasonable grounds exist to believe the assets are proceeds of crime.
Precedent treatment: The judgment does not expressly cite or apply external precedents; the Court proceeded on the statutory scheme and facts of investigation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the investigative findings - FIRs, ECIR, search results, bank trails and inter-company transfers - and treated compliance (or lack thereof) with Section 8(1) disclosures as central. Failure to satisfactorily disclose source of funds when formally noticed permitted the inference that funds are tainted. Corroboratory material (ITR analysis showing commission income rather than product sales, recovered incriminating material at premises, routing of funds through related companies and family members, sham purchases) reinforced the statutory grounds for retention.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where formal notice under Section 8(1) is served and the noticee fails to disclose satisfactory sources for funds appearing in bank accounts, and investigative material shows money-trail linking the accounts to proceeds of an alleged scheduled offence, retention of frozen bank accounts is justified pending trial. (This is applied as the operative rule.)
Conclusion: Retention of the frozen bank accounts was justified on statutory grounds given the investigative findings and the appellants' failure to disclose legitimate sources under Section 8(1).
Issue 2 - Sufficiency of receipt of commission or payroll status as a basis for retention
Legal framework: The Act targets proceeds of crime; mere receipt of income is not ipso facto proceeds of crime unless linkage to predicate offence or money-laundering transaction is established. However, statutory notice and investigation can establish such linkage.
Precedent treatment: No precedent was invoked or distinguished in the text; assessment proceeded on evidence of linkage between payments and the alleged criminal scheme.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal rejected the contention that being paid commission or being on a payroll alone precludes retention. It relied on corroborative documentary evidence (ITR showing income classified as commission, pattern of payments totaling significant sums, routing through accused companies, and apparent benami / family-controlled entities) and material recovered in search. The Court treated the appellants' receipt of large commissions, when combined with other incriminating facts and their failure to explain sources, as sufficient to establish reasonable grounds to treat the account balances as proceeds of crime for retention purposes.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Receipt of commission or payroll remuneration, when contextualized by money trails, sham transactions, recovery of incriminating material and inability/unwillingness to explain sources after notice under Section 8(1), can constitute sufficient basis to retain frozen bank accounts as proceeds of crime pending trial. (Not an absolute rule; fact-dependent application.)
Conclusion: The fact of commission/payroll alone did not protect the accounts; the cumulative evidence and non-disclosure justified retention.
Issue 3 - Effect of demonstrated modus operandi, sham purchases and inter-company routing on treatment of bank accounts
Legal framework: Proceeds of scheduled offences include property derived from criminal activity; tracing and forensic accounting that demonstrate routing of illicit funds through front companies or sham transactions form the evidentiary basis for freezing/retention under the Act.
Precedent treatment: No prior authority was relied upon; the Court applied statutory principles to the investigative record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal relied on the recorded modus operandi: creation of hype, misrepresentation, sham product purchases, creation and misuse of user credentials, fictitious deliveries and 30-day refund misrepresentations; forensic findings (Regional MCA inspection reporting Ponzi operations and scale of fraud); routing of funds from the primary accused company to the appellants' corporate and personal accounts (including transfers through companies and family members); and usage of the appellants' entities as conduits. The presence of these interconnected elements, together with recovered incriminating material and ITR inconsistencies, supported the inference that the appellants' accounts contained proceeds of the alleged money-circulation scheme and were subject to retention pending adjudication/trial.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where investigation demonstrates a coherent modus operandi and traceable flows of funds from an alleged money-circulation/Ponzi scheme into accounts of related persons or family-controlled entities (including sham purchases and fictitious invoicing), such accounts may be lawfully retained as containing proceeds of crime until trial resolves the allegations. (Fact-driven legal conclusion.)
Conclusion: The demonstrated modus operandi and money-trail furnished sufficient justification for retention of the frozen bank accounts; the Tribunal found no merit in the appellants' contention that the accounts were merely recipients of legitimate commission.
Cross-reference and cumulative assessment
All three issues converge on a common factual and legal axis: statutory notice under Section 8(1), investigatory findings demonstrating routing of funds from the primary accused entity into the appellants' accounts via sham transactions and family-controlled conduits, recovery of incriminating material and failure to explain sources. The Tribunal treated these elements cumulatively to uphold retention of the frozen accounts; each element reinforced the others and the collective weight satisfied the statutory threshold for retention pending trial.
Disposition
Given the foregoing reasoning and conclusions, the appeals challenging retention of the frozen bank accounts were dismissed for lack of merit.
Retention of the frozen bank account of the appellant - allegation against the Company and its Director was for cheating gullible people promising huge commissions on the investment in their Company by running money circulation scheme under the guise of direct selling of products in front end. It was found to be franchise of QNet Company in India - HELD THAT:- It is found from the Impugned Order that Shri Suresh Thimiri, Ex-Director of M/s Transview Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. is one of the accused along with present and past Directors of the said Company. Shri Suresh Thimiri owned registered trademark of QNet in India and alleged to be instrumental in running fraudulent MLM scheme. The Company, M/s Transview Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. of the appellant was involved importing and manufacturing products for selling it to VDSIPL, the official franchise of QNet in India. It was found during the course of investigation that M/s VDSIPL has routed huge funds to M/s Transview Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. in guise of purchase of sham products used in the MLM scheme. The appellant, Shri Suresh Thimiri was common link between VDSIPL and M/s Transview Enterprises Pvt. Ltd.
The trail of proceeds of crime was that M/s VDSIPL had routed money to the Company of Shri Suresh Thimiri and Smt. Manju Suresh Thimiri and also to personal accounts of the Thimiri family through M/s Transview Enterprises India Private Limited and M/s Ciera Technologies Private Limited through various channels. It was then revealed that Shri Suresh Thimiri was the whole sole in-charge of the firm and partners were for namesake. He was active in MLM scheme behind curtain by using device of creation of benami firm of which he remained the ultimate beneficiary. The premises of the appellant was searched where incriminating material was recovered. Various types of watches were found in the premises which were used by M/s VDSIPL for running the Ponzi scheme in the guise of direct selling business.
The appellants have failed to disclose their sources of the amount lying in the bank accounts for which notice was caused under Section 8(1) of the Act of 2002. As per Section 8(1) of the Act of 2002, noticee is required to disclose the source for acquisition of the property, but in the instant case, the appellants have failed to disclose the sources of the money lying in the bank accounts. It was, rather, found during the course of investigation that Shri Suresh Thimiri received huge amount in the name of ‘commission’. He was key person in establishing the Ponzi MLM scheme floated by the QNet through the entities of M/s VDSIPL. The money was circulated even through M/s Transview Enterprises Pvt. Ltd., which has also been named as an accused - The sum received by them further diverted / invested through various channels, otherwise, appellants would have disclosed the source of the amount lying in the bank accounts. The statement recorded under Section 50(2) and 50(3) of the Act of 2002 was taken as a corroboratory evidence to prove that the appellant was involved in money-laundering and therefore there exists justification to retain the frozen bank accounts till the conclusion of the trial.
There are no merit in any of the arguments of the appellants, hence the appeals fail and are dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a Provisional Attachment Order (PAO) confirmed under Section 8(3)(a) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 ("the Act") continues beyond 365 days where investigation is not completed within that period.
2. Whether the pendency of "proceedings relating to any offence under this Act before a court" (the second limb of Section 8(3)(a)) is triggered by (a) sending a copy of the ECIR to the Special Court, (b) filing of a bail application, or (c) only by filing of a Prosecution Complaint and cognizance by the Court.
3. Whether the period of an interim order passed by a higher court restraining "coercive action" is to be excluded from computation of the 365-day investigation period under the Explanation to Section 8(3)(a), and, relatedly, whether an interim order that does not clearly restrain filing of a Prosecution Complaint can justify filing the complaint beyond 365 days without causing lapse of the PAO.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Continuation of PAO where investigation not completed within 365 days
Legal framework: Section 8(3)(a) provides that, where the Adjudicating Authority confirms attachment, such attachment shall continue during investigation for a period not exceeding 365 days or the pendency of proceedings relating to any offence under the Act before a court; an Explanation permits exclusion of any period during which investigation is stayed by a court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reads the two temporal alternatives conjunctively as intended by the legislature: if the Adjudicating Authority confirms attachment, continuation beyond confirmation requires either completion of investigation within 365 days or the existence of pendency of court proceedings. The 365-day limit is a substantive legislative condition for continuation of attachment absent genuine pendency of prosecutorial proceedings; allowing extension without either would frustrate legislative purpose.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal considered an interim order of the apex court in a separate matter but treated it as a factual proposition for exclusion only if it restrains investigation; no precedent was followed, distinguished or overruled on the interpretive point.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - PAO cannot continue beyond 365 days where investigation is not completed and no qualifying court proceedings are pending on the 365th day. Obiter - discussion of prosecutorial conduct where complaint filed after 365 days under facts of this case.
Conclusion: Where investigation was not completed within 365 days and no qualifying court proceedings were pending on the 365th day, the confirmed PAO ceases to operate on expiry of the 365-day period.
Issue 2 - What constitutes "pendency of the proceedings relating to any offence under this Act before a court"
Legal framework: The operative phrase in Section 8(3)(a) and related provisions in Section 44 dealing with cognizance by Special Court and the initiation of proceedings (complaint, cognizance, and subsequent treatment) inform when court proceedings are to be regarded as pending.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal rejects the respondent's expansive construction that pendency is triggered by sending a copy of the ECIR to the Court or by filing a bail application. The Tribunal holds that "proceedings" for the purpose of Section 8(3)(a) commence with filing of a Prosecution Complaint and taking of cognizance by the competent court; prior actions (sending ECIR, bail applications) do not, by themselves, amount to pendency of proceedings because no court material or complaint resides with the Court until the complaint is filed. Reliance is placed on Section 44 which contemplates cognizance on complaint by the authorized authority and describes the complaint as initiating the court's jurisdiction under the Act.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relies on statutory scheme rather than case law; prior practice or submissions suggesting bail filings or ECIR transmission create pendency are expressly rejected as frustrating the statutory 365-day safeguard.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Pendency of proceedings under Section 8(3)(a) means pendency following filing of a Prosecution Complaint and cognizance; mere transmission of ECIR or filing of bail application is insufficient. Obiter - practical observations on case diaries and routine court practice in bail applications.
Conclusion: For continuance of attachment beyond 365 days, there must be pendency of court proceedings arising from a filed Prosecution Complaint and cognizance; incidental filings or transmissions do not satisfy Section 8(3)(a).
Issue 3 - Exclusion of period of interim order and filing of Prosecution Complaint during such interim order
Legal framework: Explanation to Section 8(3)(a) excludes from computation any period during which the investigation is stayed by any court under any law; separate principles govern interpretation of interim orders restraining "coercive action."
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasizes that exclusion under the Explanation applies only where there is a court-ordered stay of investigation. An interim order restraining "coercive action" must, on its face or by necessary implication, restrain the filing of the Prosecution Complaint or investigation steps for exclusion to apply. Where a prosecuting authority files a Prosecution Complaint during the currency of an interim order that is said to restrain coercive action, and there is no discernible prohibition on filing the complaint, the fact of filing indicates either that the interim order did not restrain filing or that the authority treated it as not restricting such filing; consequently, the Explanation cannot be invoked to exclude the interim period from the 365-day computation in such circumstances.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal considered the text of the apex court's interim order in the related matter and analyzed its scope factually; no controlling precedent altered the statutory interpretation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Period of interim order is excluded from the 365-day computation only if the court order actually stays the investigation (or otherwise restrains the prosecutorial step whose delay is sought to be excused); mere existence of an interim order restraining unspecified "coercive action" does not automatically suspend the 365-day clock unless it clearly affects filing of the Prosecution Complaint. Obiter - observations on prosecutorial knowledge and conduct where complaint is filed during alleged restraint.
Conclusion: The Explanation applies only where investigation is stayed by court order; if a Prosecution Complaint is filed during an interim order that does not in substance or effect stay the investigation or bar filing, the interim period cannot be excluded and the PAO may lapse if 365 days elapse with no qualifying pendency.
Cross-references and Practical Effect
Where an Adjudicating Authority confirms a PAO, continuity beyond 365 days requires either completion of investigation within that period or qualified pendency of court proceedings originating from a filed Prosecution Complaint and cognizance. Attempts to treat procedural acts short of complaint filing (ECIR transmission, bail applications) as constituting pendency are rejected. Exclusion of interim judicial restraint from the 365-day computation is permissible only where the order in fact stays investigation or otherwise bars the prosecutorial act; otherwise the PAO lapses on expiry of 365 days.
Money Laundering - provisional attachment order - respondent failed to complete the investigation within a period given under Section 8(3)(a) of the Act of PMLA 2002 and even no proceeding is pending before a Court for an offence under the Act of 2002 - HELD THAT:- The perusal of the order would reveal a restrain order on the respondent for taking coercive action, but the petitioner therein said to be other than the appellant before this Tribunal and whether the order of the Apex Court dated 24.02.2022 was on filing of the Prosecution Complaint. The fact, however, remains that during the currency of the Interim Order, the respondent filed the Prosecution Complaint and thereby they were knowing it well that there is no Interim Order on the filing of the Prosecution Complaint otherwise there was no reason for the Investigating Officer to file the Prosecution Complaint during the currency of the order of the Apex Court. If the Interim Order of the Apex Court was to restrain filing of the Prosecution Complaint, then it should not have been filed till the stay is vacated by the Apex Court or modified. In fact, the respondent could analyze that there is no Interim Order restraining them to file the Prosecution Complaint, thus, it was filed later on but by the time, a period of 365 had passed and therefore the PAO ceased, if the argument of the appellant is accepted. It is for the reason that investigation results in filing of the Prosecution Complaint and the investigation has to be completed within 365 days and if there remains failure of the prosecution to do so, continuation of the order cannot be claimed contrary to the provisions of Section 8(3)(a) of the Act of 2002.
The case in hand has peculiarity for the reason that after the impugned order dated 09.11.2021, the Apex Court passed an Interim Order on 24.02.2022 restraining the respondent for coercive action. If the coercive action means a restrain on filing Prosecution Complaint, it could not have been filed by the respondent subsequently during the currency of the Interim Order because it was subsisting even on the day of filing of the Prosecution Complaint. Ld. Counsel for the respondent could not explain as to why the Prosecution Complaint was filed during the currency of the Interim Order if they took it to be a restrain order for filing the Prosecution Complaint - there was no Interim Order and therefore no question for exclusion of the period of Interim Order.
The case in hand is covered by Section 8(3)(a) of the Act of 2002 and as per the provisions aforesaid, the Impugned Order cannot continue in absence of the completion of the investigation within 365 days of the order passed by the Adjudicating Authority and absence of the pendency of the proceedings before the Court for the offence under the Act of 2002 on 365th day of the order. The impugned order came to an end with the expiry of the period of 365 days in absence of completion of the investigation and pendency of the proceedings before the Court.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: Whether commission agent services availed for export and domestic sale of rice fell within the exemption for services relating to agricultural produce under Notification No. 13/2003-ST.
Analysis: The definition of agricultural produce in the notification includes produce resulting from cultivation or plantation that is marketable after limited processing and expressly includes cereals, with rice specifically mentioned in the inclusive part. The clarification issued by the CBIC also states that commission agent services for promotion of export of rice are covered by the notification because rice is included within agricultural produce. On this basis, the service of commission agents used by the assessee for rice export was treated as exempt.
Conclusion: The exemption applied to the commission agent services, and the assessee was entitled to refund relief.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a notification specifically includes rice within agricultural produce, commission agent services used for its export are covered by the exemption for agricultural produce-related services.
Refund of service tax under Reverse Charge Mechanism due to a mistaken understanding - service of commission agents for export/ domestic sale - exempt from payment of service tax in terms of N/N.13/2003 dated 20.06.2003 or not - scope of “Agricultural Produce” as given in the notification - HELD THAT:- It can be seen that the inclusive clause of the definition covers cereals and there should not be any doubt as to the fact that rice is a cereal.
CBIC vide Circular dated May 26, 2011 clarified that 'Also where the commission agents stationed abroad provide business auxiliary service to promote the export of rice, said business auxiliary service is covered by notification 13/2003-ST (as amended) because, the word 'rice' is mentioned under the explanation to the term 'agricultural produce', in the inclusive portion along with other items like cereals, pulses, etc.'
The exemption is applicable, to the services of commission agent (Business Auxiliary Service), availed by the appellants, in terms of the above Notification. In view of the same, there is substantial force in the arguments of the learned Counsel for the appellants.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether exemption under Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 (cl.9 read with cl.(oa) of Part 2) applies to consideration received by the appellant for imparting education to students enrolled under a University's Distance Learning Programme.
2. Whether exemption under Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 (cl.9 read with cl.(oa) of Part 2) applies to consideration received by the appellant for providing government-approved vocational education/training under the National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM).
3. Whether demand of service tax, interest and penalties confirmed by the adjudicating authorities are sustainable where the underlying taxable service is held to be exempt under the Notification.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of Notification No.25/2012-ST to Distance Learning fees
Legal framework: Clause (9) of Notification No.25/2012-ST exempts services provided by an "educational institution" to its students, faculty and staff. Clause (oa) of Part 2 defines "educational institution" to include institutions providing "education as part of curriculum for obtaining a qualification recognized by any law for the time being in force" and "education as a part of an approved vocational education course."
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal's prior decision in the matter of services rendered by an educational institution imparting education as per a university curriculum (referred to in the record) held such services exempt; that decision was applied here (followed).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the record and found that the appellant imparted education to students of the University under the Distance Learning Programme according to the University's curriculum and that the University was duly recognized under relevant law (State/UGC). The fees paid by the University to the appellant were for services of imparting education under the University curriculum. No material on record supported the Department's adverse finding (i.e., that the University had closed study centres or that the appellant was not providing the services). The Court treated the nature of services (imparting education as per a University curriculum that issues qualifications) as falling squarely within clause (oa)(ii)/(iii) and thus within the exemption scope of cl.9.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that Distance Learning services provided in accordance with a recognised University curriculum fall within the Notification exemption is ratio; reliance on absence of any record supporting the Department's contrary factual assertion is also integral to the ratio (fact-driven). The reference to the prior Tribunal decision as directly applicable is treated as determinative precedent (ratio), not obiter.
Conclusion: Demand of service tax of Rs.1,48,500/- on consideration received for Distance Learning fees is not sustainable and is set aside.
Issue 2 - Applicability of Notification No.25/2012-ST to NULM vocational training
Legal framework: Same provisions of Notification No.25/2012-ST (cl.9 and cl.(oa) of Part 2) govern exemption; clause (oa)(iii) specifically covers "Education as a part of an approved vocational education course."
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the statutory definition and prior reasoning that approved vocational courses forming part of an educational curriculum are within the exemption (followed by analogy to the cited Tribunal authority concerning university-based education).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found on the record that the appellant provided vocational education to urban youth pursuant to NULM programmes based on curricula approved by the State Government. Training modules (bank linkage, bookkeeping, micro-planning, etc.) were provided as per government-approved courses. Such training qualifies as "education as a part of an approved vocational education course." Consequently, the appellant falls within the definition of "educational institution" under cl.(oa) and the services are exempt under cl.9.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that government-approved vocational training under NULM is exempt where it constitutes an approved vocational education course is ratio. The factual finding that the courses were government-approved (and hence qualify) is factual and integral to the ratio.
Conclusion: Demand of service tax confirmed on consideration received from NULM is not sustainable and is set aside.
Issue 3 - Liability for interest and penalties where underlying demand is unsustainable
Legal framework: Penalties were imposed under Sections 77(1)(c) and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 and demand/interest under Sections 73(1) and 75 were proposed. Penalty liability ordinarily flows from sustained taxable demand or proved suppression/fraud as per statutory scheme.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the principle that penalties and associated consequences cannot be sustained if the underlying tax demand is not maintainable on the facts and law (followed).
Interpretation and reasoning: Having held that the services in question fall under the statutory exemption, the Tribunal concluded that no taxable liability subsists. There was no independent finding of fraud, deliberate suppression or mens rea that would sustain penalties despite the absence of tax liability. The absence of evidence supporting allegations of suppression or closure of study centres further negated any basis for penalties.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that penalties are not leviable in the absence of a sustainable tax demand (and absent proven suppression/fraud) is ratio. Observations about lack of record supporting departmental factual claims are factual findings supporting the ratio.
Conclusion: No penalty is leviable against the appellant; consequential relief follows from setting aside the impugned order.
Cross-references
Findings on Issues 1 and 2 are interrelated and both rest upon interpretation of cl.9 and cl.(oa) of Notification No.25/2012-ST; the conclusion on Issue 3 flows directly from the conclusions on Issues 1 and 2.
Eligibility for exemption granted under N/N. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 - educational institution who provide services to its student, faculty and staff - HELD THAT:- The Appellant had been imparting education to the students of Swami Vivekananda Subharti University, enrolled under the distant learning programme, as per the curriculum provided by the said University and the said University was duly recognized under the laws of the Uttar Pradesh Government/UGC. For such services provided by the Appellant, the Swami Vivekananda Subharti University, Meerut had been paying some fees to the Appellant. Therefore, the Appellant had been working as an educational institution during the relevant period. Services provided by the Appellant were therefore exempted from service tax.
In the case of Asian School of Media Studies, [2024 (2) TMI 616 - CESTAT ALLAHABAD], the Tribunal has held that services provided for imparting education as per curriculum of a University who issues qualification certificate was exempted from service tax - The ratio of the said decision is squarely applicable in relation to services given by the Appellant towards Distant Learning to the students of Swami Vivekanand Subharati University. The demand of Rs.1,48,500/- on account of consideration received for Distance Learning fee is not sustainable and is liable to be set aside.
It is found that the Appellant was providing vocational education to urban youth as per programme approved by NUML. These programmes are based on the curriculum approved by Uttar Pradesh Government. As the Appellant was providing service by way of education as a part of an approved vocational education, it would be treated as educational institution in the light of definition given under clause (oa) of Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 and services provided by him would be exempted from service tax under clause (9) of the notification. The demand of service tax confirmed on services rendered by the Appellant on the consideration received from NULM is not sustainable - As no demand is sustainable against the Appellant, no penalty would be leviable on him.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the value of goods/materials supplied free of cost by the service recipient is includible in the "gross amount charged" for valuation of taxable construction services under Section 67.
2. Whether benefit of Notification No.1/2006-ST (abatement of 67%) can be availed when goods/materials are supplied free by the service recipient and not charged by the service provider.
3. Whether services rendered to Government/ULB projects under JNNURM/BSUP are exempt for periods prior to the effective date of exemption Notification No.28/2010-ST (01.07.2010).
4. Whether the proviso to Section 73(1) (extended period of limitation for suppression) was correctly invoked; i.e., whether there was willful suppression of facts attracting extended limitation.
5. Whether separate work orders for ancillary activities (road, drainage, car-parking, plumbing, etc.) preclude treating those activities as part of a single composite "construction of complex" service.
6. Whether penalties under Sections 76, 77 and 78 can be imposed concurrently and whether imposition of penalty under Section 76 is permissible when Section 78 proviso applies.
7. Whether the adjudicating authority's demand, interest and penalties require re-quantification in light of legal determinations and available documentary evidence (including CA certificate).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Inclusion of free supply materials in "gross amount charged"
Legal framework: Valuation for service tax is governed by Section 67 - value is "the gross amount charged by the service provider for such service provided or to be provided by him", with Explanation(s) and prescription for manner of determination.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment follows and relies on the Supreme Court decision (Bhayana Builders) holding that value of goods/materials supplied free by the service recipient is not part of "gross amount charged" since no amount is charged by the service provider for such goods; Explanation (c) to Section 67 does not expand gross amount to include free supplies unless reflected as charged/credited in accounts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that "gross amount charged" refers to amounts charged/billed by the service provider and requires nexus between amount charged and the taxable service. Free supply materials involve no charge by the provider and therefore lack that nexus; inclusions listed in Explanation (c) relate to modes of payment/book adjustments and do not convert free supplies into charged consideration. If no amount is charged, it cannot be included in valuation; legislative scheme and linked precedents (including Larsen & Toubro discussion) support this.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - free supply by service recipient not includible in gross amount charged for valuation under Section 67. Obiter - commentary on Explanation (c) and policy considerations supporting the ratio.
Conclusion: Demand premised on inclusion of free supply raw materials must be reworked excluding the value of such materials; matter remanded for recomputation with that deduction considered (including appellant's CA certificate).
Issue 2 - Applicability of Notification No.1/2006-ST (abatement)
Legal framework: Notification No.1/2006-ST prescribes abatement (67%) for construction contracts subject to satisfaction of its conditions; valuation and abatement operate vis-à-vis gross amount "charged".
Precedent Treatment: Interpreted in light of Section 67 principles and Bhayana; the notification applies only to the gross amount charged by the service provider and cannot be used to claim abatement if the gross amount is inflated by inclusion of values not charged.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since Notification No.1/2006-ST fixes abatement as a percentage of the gross amount "charged", and because free supply materials are not part of gross amount charged, denial of abatement on account of failure to include value of recipient-supplied materials is not tenable if those materials were, in fact, not charged. Conversely, where provider has irregularly availed abatement while documentary evidence shows that supplied materials were includible in gross billed amounts, abatement is inadmissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - entitlement to abatement depends on actual gross amount charged by provider; if materials were charged or included, abatement cannot be availed irregularly. Obiter - policy observations on basis of the 67%/33% split.
Conclusion: Abatement claims must be evaluated after correct determination of gross amount charged; where abatement was irregularly availed based on exclusion of includible material value, demand is justified; where free supplies were not charged, abatement may stand - recomputation required on remand.
Issue 3 - Exemption Notification No.28/2010-ST and pre-notification period
Legal framework: Exemption notifications are construed strictly; burden lies on assessee to show applicability; exemption operates only from its effective date unless the notification language or antecedent instrument suggests retrospective application.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal cites principle that exemption notifications are to be strictly construed and Himalayan Co-op decision does not permit extending exemption backwards beyond notification date; reference to authoritative guidance (Dilip Kumar & Co.) on strict interpretation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The exemption under Notification No.28/2010-ST took effect from 01.07.2010. Services provided to JNNURM/BSUP projects prior to that date are not covered unless a previous notification expressly provided exemption; no such prior exemption was shown. The fact that projects were for public welfare does not create a legal basis to extend exemption retrospectively.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - exemption notification applies prospectively as expressed and cannot be extended to earlier periods absent express provision. Obiter - policy sympathy for public projects does not alter statutory construction rules.
Conclusion: Exemption cannot be read to cover periods prior to 01.07.2010; demands for pre-notification period stand unless specific prior exemption is proved by assessee.
Issue 4 - Extended period of limitation (Section 73 proviso) and suppression
Legal framework: Proviso to Section 73(1) allows extended limitation where tax or duty has been "suppressed"; suppression entails failure to disclose material facts with intent to evade tax.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal applied settled principles distinguishing bona fide errors/valuation disputes from suppression; relied on facts showing non-disclosure of recipient-supplied materials until DGCEI investigation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority found evidence of suppression: material facts regarding free supply of materials were not disclosed in returns/registrations and surfaced only on investigation. The noticee's reliance on interpretation disputes and interim orders was rejected as not amounting to bona fide disclosure. Accordingly, invocation of extended period was held proper.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where assessee suppresses material facts (non-disclosure of taxable services/values), extended limitation applies. Obiter - discussion of relevance of bona fide belief and interim orders.
Conclusion: Extended period invocation sustained on facts showing suppression; limitation defence fails where suppression and intent to evade are established; however re-quantification on remand may affect amounts but not the applicability of extended limitation given suppression findings.
Issue 5 - Composite contract treatment of ancillary work (roads, drainage, etc.)
Legal framework: Determination of whether ancillary works are part of composite "construction of complex" depends on contractual terms, work order descriptions and whether activities are inseparable from entire project.
Precedent Treatment: The authority examined work orders and applied CBEC circular guidance (para 14.4/14.5) and treated integral road/ancillary works executed within complex as part of composite contract even if separate work orders issued.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that separate work orders for road/drainage within integrated township did not ipso facto render those works distinct where work orders, bills of quantities and scope show those activities are integral and inseparable from the construction of the complex; hence service tax leviable on composite contract gross value.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - ancillary activities integral to a composite construction contract are taxable as part of construction of complex notwithstanding separate work orders. Obiter - remarks on evidentiary weight of work order descriptions.
Conclusion: Demand on account of integral ancillary works (roads etc.) is justified; genuinely distinct public road construction exempt must be identified and excluded during recomputation.
Issue 6 - Penalties under Sections 76, 77 and 78
Legal framework: Section 76 (penalty for contravention), Section 77 (penalty for failure to register/file returns/maintain accounts), Section 78 (penalty for suppression and failure to pay) with proviso affecting concurrent imposition.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal followed the settled position that penalty under Section 76 cannot be imposed where Section 78 is attracted post-proviso; cited authority to that effect. Penalty under Section 77 is maintainable where returns/accounts irregularities proved. Section 78 penalty sustainable where willful suppression with intent to evade is found.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the SCN was issued after the proviso to Section 78 came into force, simultaneous imposition of Section 76 and Section 78 penalties is improper; however Section 78 penalty is appropriate on suppression findings and Section 77 is appropriate for failures to register/file/maintain accounts as demonstrated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - cannot impose both Section 76 and Section 78 penalties concurrently where proviso prohibits; Section 78 and 77 may be applied as per facts. Obiter - quantification to follow recomputed tax liability.
Conclusion: Penalties under Section 78 and Section 77 sustainable on facts; penalty under Section 76 vacated. Penalties set aside for re-consideration and quantification after remand (to reflect recomputed tax).
Issue 7 - Re-quantification, interest and remand
Legal framework: Interest under Section 75 chargeable on determined tax; admitted/paid amounts are appropriable; adjudicating authority may re-compute demand when legal errors in valuation are identified.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal remanded for de novo consideration to recompute demand excluding value of free supplies, to consider CA certificate, to exclude legitimately exempt road works, and to re-quantify penalties and interest based on final tax figure.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the legal correction on inclusion of free supplies and need to identify exempt portions and documentary inputs, the Tribunal found remand necessary for accurate computation and fair application of penalties and interest. Appropriation of amounts already deposited remains subject to verification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where legal error affects valuation, remand for recomputation is appropriate; penalties and interest must be re-assessed on final tax. Obiter - timelines and administrative directions.
Conclusion: Matter remanded to original authority for de novo re-computation within three months, taking into account exclusions for free supply materials, CA certificate, exempt road construction where applicable, prior payments/appropriations and consequent recalculation of interest and penalties (with Section 76 penalty set aside and Section 77/78 re-quantified as appropriate).
Recovery of service tax alongwith interest and penalty - inclusion of value of free supply materials - benefit of N/N.1/2006-ST (abatement of 67%) - HELD THAT:- The issue with regard to inclusion of free supply of raw materials has been decided by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Bhayana Builders (P) Ltd. v Commissioner of Service Tax, Delhi [2018 (2) TMI 1325 - SUPREME COURT] wherein it was held that 'the service tax is to be levied in respect of ‘taxable services’ and for the purpose of arriving at 33% of the gross amount charged, unless value of some goods/materials is specifically included by the Legislature, that cannot be added.'
There are force in the submission of the appellant that the value of free supply of raw materials could not have been included in the value of taxable services provided by the appellant and Service Tax could not have been demanded on this value. The demand needs to be worked out after reducing the value of free supply of materials in the present case. Accordingly, the matter is remanded for re-computing the demand after deducting the value of free supply raw materials provided by the service recipient to the appellant for providing these services.
There are no merits in submissions made by the appellant in this respect for the demands for period prior to 01.07.2010 - the matter needs to be remanded back to the original authority for de novo consideration and re-quantification of the demand of Service Tax.
Appeal allowed by way of remand.
Classification of goods - Jarda Scented Tobacco (tariff sub-heading for scented tobacco) or Chewing Tobacco (different tariff sub-heading)? - it was held by CESTAT that 'We do not find any merits in the appeal filed by the revenue and in view of the discussions as above and the decision of Hon’ble Madras High Court relied upon by the adjudicating authority in his order.' - HELD THAT:- Having regard to the finding that in the re-test, which was permitted by the authorities, the product was found not “Jarda Scented Tobacco” but “Chewing Tobacco”, there are no good reason to interfere with the order impugned.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether this Tribunal (CESTAT) has jurisdiction to entertain an appeal against an order passed by the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 of the CGST Act, 2017 dismissing a claim for interest on a refund originally claimed under the Central Excise Act, 1944.
2. Whether an appeal against an order passed under Section 107 CGST can be entertained under Section 35B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 (i.e., whether the statutory appeal route under the Central Excise Act permits CESTAT jurisdiction when the impugned appellate order is by an Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under the CGST Act).
3. The relevance and applicability of the Larger Bench decision relied upon by the appellant (holding that certain refund orders passed under GST provisions relating to pre-GST liabilities are appealable before CESTAT) to the present controversy.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Jurisdiction of the Tribunal to hear appeal against order of Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 CGST
Legal framework: Section 107 of the CGST Act, 2017 confers appellate jurisdiction upon Commissioner (Appeals)/Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under the CGST appellate structure. Section 35B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 prescribes matters appealable to this Tribunal (CESTAT) and limits its jurisdiction to appeals against orders of Principal Commissioner/Commissioner of Central Excise (as adjudicating authority) or orders of the Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 35A of the Central Excise Act.
Precedent Treatment: The appellant relied on a Larger Bench decision of this Tribunal which held that an order passed under Section 142(3) of the CGST Act concerning refund of pre-GST service tax was appealable before CESTAT. That decision was invoked to support CESTAT jurisdiction in cases involving refund of erstwhile Central Excise/Service Tax liabilities determined in the GST regime.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the statutory scheme and observed that the impugned order was explicitly passed by the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 of the CGST Act. The Tribunal held that its jurisdiction under the Central Excise Act is circumscribed by the language of Section 35B: appeals lie only from orders of the Principal Commissioner/Commissioner as adjudicating authority or from orders of the Commissioner (Appeals) under the Central Excise Act (Section 35A). An order rendered by an Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under the CGST Act does not fall within the categories enumerated in Section 35B. The Tribunal therefore treated the statutory text as decisive and found that the institutional and statutory profiles of the appellate authorities under the CGST Act are distinct from those contemplated by the Central Excise Act's appellate provision for CESTAT jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Tribunal's operative conclusion is that CESTAT lacks jurisdiction to entertain an appeal against an order passed by an Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 CGST because Section 35B Central Excise Act limits appeals to orders specified therein, and an Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under CGST is not one such specified authority. Obiter - incidental factual matters (such as the practical difficulty in filing a refund physically versus online) are not relied upon for the jurisdictional conclusion.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that it does not have jurisdiction to entertain the present appeal against the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) order under Section 107 CGST and, accordingly, dismissed the appeal at the preliminary stage as non-maintainable.
Issue 2 - Whether the Central Excise statutory appeal provision (Section 35B) permits challenges to CGST appellate orders and the effect on refund/interest claims arising under pre-GST statutes
Legal framework: Section 35B of the Central Excise Act prescribes CESTAT jurisdiction and identifies the specific orders appealable to it; Section 11B/11BB of the Central Excise Act regulate refunds and interest on refunds under the pre-GST regime; Section 54 CGST provides for refund under the CGST Act and Section 107 CGST deals with appeals under the CGST appellate hierarchy.
Precedent Treatment: The appellant relied on the Larger Bench decision (Bosch LB) to argue that certain refund-related orders under CGST (concerning pre-GST liabilities) are appealable before CESTAT. The Tribunal acknowledged the precedent but did not extend it to confer jurisdiction in the present factual matrix where the impugned order is an appeal order rendered by an Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 CGST.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal distinguished the present situation on statutory grounds: regardless of the origin of the underlying liability (Central Excise Act), the appellate order impugned was rendered under the CGST appellate provision by an officer whose orders are not specified as appealable to CESTAT under Section 35B Central Excise Act. The Tribunal emphasized the primacy of the statutory appeal-matrix over the subject-matter origin of the refund claim. Consequently, the fact that the refund related to central excise duty or that interest was claimed under Section 11BB did not, in the Tribunal's view, override the clear limits set out in Section 35B regarding which authorities' orders are appealable to CESTAT.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A pre-GST revenue claim or reference to pre-GST statutes does not automatically confer CESTAT jurisdiction where the impugned appellate order is that of an Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under the CGST Act, because Section 35B prescribes the specific authorities whose orders are appealable. Obiter - commentary on administrative difficulties in online filing and the steps taken by the appellant are peripheral and do not affect the jurisdictional determination.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the appeal was not maintainable before it under Section 35B Central Excise Act and rejected the appellant's reliance on the Larger Bench decision for the purpose of altering the statutory scope of appeal; the appeal was dismissed on jurisdictional grounds.
Issue 3 - Effect of procedural facts (mode of filing refund; classification under CGST Section 54) on jurisdictional question
Legal framework and reasoning: The factual sequence (initial refusal to accept physical refund application, online filing under CGST Section 54 category, sanction of refund without interest under the Central Excise Act provisions, followed by departmental appellate process under CGST) was considered but found not to alter the statutory appeal route. The Tribunal treated such procedural difficulties as insufficient to confer jurisdiction where the statutory provision governing appeals (Section 35B Central Excise Act) does not encompass the particular CGST appellate authority whose order is impugned.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - factual procedural hurdles and the specific route chosen by the appellant to secure refund were noted but do not form the legal basis of the decision.
Conclusions: Procedural facts surrounding filing and classification of refund do not overcome the statutory limitation on CESTAT jurisdiction; the appeal remains non-maintainable.
Maintainability of appeal - Jurisdiction of Tribunal to hear the present appeal on the ground that the impugned order has been passed by the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 of the CGST Act, 2017 - rejection of claim of interest on the refund claim of central excise duty already sanctioned - HELD THAT:- The impugned order has been passed by the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 of the CGST Act, 2017. Further, it is found that as per Section 35B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, this Tribunal can entertain the entertain the appeal only against an order passed by the Principal Commissioner/Commissioner of Central Excise as an adjudicating authority or against an order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 35A of the Central Excise Act and cannot entertain the appeal against an order passed by the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 of the CGST Act, 2017. Hence, the objection raised by the learned Authorized Representative for the department has a force and this Tribunal does not have the jurisdiction to entertain the appeal against an order passed by the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 107 of the CGST Act, 2017.
The appeal is dismissed at this stage being non maintainable before this Tribunal.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether appellants are entitled to relief under the SVLDR Scheme in respect of confiscation, redemption fine and penalties where (a) separate show cause notices arose from the same search but concern different alleged irregularities (shortage versus excess stock), and (b) no declaration under the SVLDR Scheme was filed for the impugned demand.
2. Whether pleaded judicial precedents holding that SVLDR Scheme covers redemption fine and penalties apply where the declarant status and the identity/scope of show cause notices differ from those in the relied-on decisions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of SVLDR Scheme to demands involving confiscation, redemption fine and penalties where no declaration under the Scheme was filed
Legal framework: SVLDR Scheme (notification dated 21.08.2019) conditions relief on filing of a declaration by the person seeking benefit; the Scheme's ambit includes settlement of specified demands and, as interpreted by some courts, may extend to confiscation and redemption fine subject to meeting Scheme conditions.
Precedent Treatment: The appellants relied on judicial decisions that construed the Scheme to include redemption fine and penalties where declarations were filed and Scheme conditions met. The Tribunal noted those authorities but evaluated their factual parity.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the mandatory requirement of filing a declaration under the Scheme and held that benefit under SVLDR can be afforded only to a declarant. Because the appellants did not file the mandatory declaration for the impugned demand (confiscation/redemption/penalties), the Tribunal found the relied precedents inapplicable as they involved declarants who complied with Scheme procedural prerequisites. The Tribunal also emphasized that proceedings leading to the impugned order were initiated by a separate show cause notice and concluded in a separate impugned order; hence, settlement of a distinct demand under SVLDR does not automatically extend to demands for which no declaration was filed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Scheme's relief (including potential coverage for confiscation and redemption fine) is available only to those who file the mandatory declaration; non-declarants cannot claim Scheme benefits. Obiter - Observations that the Scheme can cover confiscation and redemption fine as a general proposition (derived from cited precedents) were discussed but distinguished on facts.
Conclusion: The appellants are not entitled to SVLDR relief in respect of the impugned confiscation, redemption fine and penalties because they did not file the mandatory declaration under the Scheme for the specific demand now under challenge.
Issue 2 - Effect of settlement under SVLDR of one show cause notice on separate, non-overlapping show cause notices arising from the same search
Legal framework: Administrative-scheme relief operates according to its terms and the scope of declarations/settlements made; separate show cause notices constitute distinct proceedings unless overlap or identity of demand is demonstrated.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal considered authorities where Scheme relief was held to embrace confiscation/redemption fine when the declarant's filings and the matters settled corresponded to those aspects; however, the Tribunal distinguished those authorities where relief applied to the same demand or declarant-position.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the department's submission that the two show cause notices, though emanating from the same search, addressed separate factual issues: one related to goods alleged short/clandestinely removed and the other to goods found in excess without duty documents. The Tribunal reasoned that settlement under SVLDR of one demand does not ipso facto cover a distinct demand confirmed by a separate impugned order where no declaration was filed. The requirement of identity/overlap of demand and compliance with Scheme formalities is determinative. Consequently, the Tribunal refused to extend the benefit of a settlement in one proceeding to a separate and distinct proceeding absent statutory/contractual basis for such extension.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Settlement under SVLDR for one show cause notice cannot be applied to a separate, non-overlapping show cause notice unless the declarant has properly filed for and obtained benefit for the specific demand; factual distinctness of demands precludes automatic cross-application. Obiter - Comments on potential applicability where demands are overlapping were made for contextual distinction.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that settlement of a separate show cause notice under SVLDR does not entitle appellants to relief for a distinct show cause notice/impugned order concerning different alleged irregularities, especially where no declaration was filed for that specific demand.
Ancillary procedural determination - Need to decide merits where SVLDR benefit denied
Legal framework: If Scheme relief is not available, contested matters are to be adjudicated on merits in accordance with statutory provisions and available evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having concluded that SVLDR relief cannot be extended to the impugned demand, the Tribunal directed that the matters be listed for final hearing on merits, signaling that substantive issues underlying confiscation, redemption and penalty claims remain open for adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Denial of Scheme relief necessitates adjudication of the underlying demand on merits. Obiter - Administrative assurances alleged to have been given by departmental officers were noted in submissions but not adopted as determinative.
Conclusion: The matters will be adjudicated on merits at a future hearing; the Tribunal ordered listing for final hearing on specified date.
Confiscation of goods found in excess then the recorded balance at the premises of the appellant and has given option to get the same released on payment of redemption fine and has also imposed penalties on the appellants under Rule 25 and 26 of Central Excise Rules, 2002 - HELD THAT:- It is found that in the present case the proceedings were initiated vide separate show cause notice which culminated into the passing of the impugned order. Further, in the present case the appellants have not even filed declaration which is mandatory under SVLDR Scheme as per the judgment relied upon by the appellant, the benefit of redemption fine can only be given to a declarant and not to a non-declarant. Therefore, the judgments relied upon by the appellants are not applicable in the present case and the benefit of SVLDR Scheme cannot be given to the appellant.
These matters need to be decided on merits, therefore, Registry is directed to list these matters for final hearing on merits on 25.09.2025 through virtual mode.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether sewing machines supplied with motors as an integral, housed unit - irrespective of transmission by belt or shaft - are excluded from exemption notifications applicable to "sewing machines other than those with inbuilt motors".
2. Whether a separately sold suspension unit with hanging hook, used to hang and operate the sewing machine, constitutes a "part" of the sewing machine for purposes of the exemption notifications or is an optional accessory classifiable separately.
3. Whether the extended period of limitation under section 11A could be validly invoked where there is no evidence of fraud, collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression by the assessee in relation to self-assessed clearances.
4. Whether penalty under section 11AC can be imposed where the statutory elements for invoking the extended limitation period are not established.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Availability of exemption where sewing machines have motors built into the factory-supplied assembled unit
Legal framework: Exemption notifications apply to "Sewing machines other than those with inbuilt motors"; there is no statutory definition of "in-built" in the notifications. The self-assessment regime requires correct duty assessment at clearance.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal's earlier authority held that where motor, pulley and V-belt are part of the machine assembly and encased, exemption is not available. Judicial and tribunal authorities cited in the record dealing with machines supplied without motors or with motors added separately were factually distinguished.
Interpretation and reasoning: The term "in-built" is to be understood in common parlance and market understanding; dictionary meaning equates "in-built" with "built-in" - part of and not separate from the article. The notification does not prescribe a particular power-transmission mechanism; whether transmission occurs via shaft, belt, gears or other means is irrelevant. If the motor and its transmission elements are factory-fitted, encased and sold as one article (not optional accessories), a purchaser would reasonably regard the motor as in-built. Expert opinions premised on a technical criterion that "in-built" requires direct-shaft transmission are rejected as inconsistent with natural meaning and market perception. Factual findings here: machines were cleared with motors, belts, pulleys and housing as integral to the machine and not optional extras.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the motor and transmission elements are factory-fitted and encased as part of the machine, the machine has an in-built motor and is not eligible for the exemption. Distinguishing remarks (obiter) - decisions concerning machines delivered without motors or where motors were separately procured/attached are fact-specific and do not govern assemblies sold complete.
Conclusion: Exemption notifications do not apply; the sewing machines supplied with factory-fitted, housed motors (even with belt transmission) have "in-built motors" and are not entitled to the concessional/nil rate.
Cross-reference: The Court distinguishes authorities where goods were cleared without motors or motors were added later; such authorities do not alter the outcome where the motor was part of the cleared article.
Issue 2 - Classification of suspension unit with hanging hook: part or optional accessory
Legal framework: Classification for exemption depends on whether an item is a part of the principal article or a separate accessory; the exemption applies to specified sewing machines, not indiscriminately to accessories.
Precedent treatment: No binding precedent required; analysis rests on factual and commercial characterisation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The suspension unit was marketed and sold as an optional accessory to facilitate hanging; it was not supplied as an integral component of the machine at factory clearance. Brochure and sales practice show voluntary purchase separate from the machine. Functionally it facilitates a mode of use but is not intrinsic to the machine's construction or operation. The exemption language targets sewing machines without in-built motors and does not extend to optional accessories or attachments sold separately.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an item is sold optionally and not as part of the machine, it is not a "part" qualifying for the exemption. Obiter - functional adjacency or compatibility alone does not convert an accessory into an integral part.
Conclusion: The suspension unit with hanging hook is an optional accessory, not a part of the sewing machine, and is not covered by the sewing-machine exemption.
Issue 3 - Validity of invoking extended period of limitation under section 11A
Legal framework: Extended limitation can be invoked where elements such as fraud, collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts with intent to evade duty are established. Self-assessment regime requires assessees to declare duty; enforcement agencies may later scrutinise.
Precedent treatment: The analysis applies statutory tests rather than relying on precedent differences; administrative policy on preliminary scrutiny versus detailed scrutiny is noted but not determinative of assessee's culpability.
Interpretation and reasoning: The extended period was invoked on the basis that the assessee wilfully mis-declared clearances to avail exemptions. The records demonstrate the assessee regularly filed returns and self-assessed under a genuine belief in entitlement to the exemption; there is no evidence of concealment, fraud or deliberate suppression. Any failure to detect non-payment within time is attributable to revenue-side scrutiny lapses (range officer or Board instructions limiting preliminary scrutiny), which reflects administrative policy favoring trade facilitation rather than concealment by the assessee. Trade facilitation measures that limit detailed scrutiny do not convert a bona fide self-assessment into fraudulent conduct by the assessee. Absent the statutory elements of intention or suppression, extended limitation is not sustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - extended limitation cannot be invoked where non-payment results from a bona fide, albeit incorrect, self-assessment without evidence of fraud, suppression or wilful mis-statement. Obiter - administrative instructions limiting scrutiny are policy choices that may shift revenue risk but do not prove assessee culpability.
Conclusion: Extended period of limitation under section 11A was incorrectly invoked and must be set aside.
Issue 4 - Imposition of penalty under section 11AC
Legal framework: Penalty under section 11AC requires the same elements (fraud, collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression) as are necessary to invoke extended limitation; proof of such elements is necessary to sustain penalty.
Precedent treatment: Penalty analysis follows statutory tests applied to the facts; no additional precedent changed the legal standard.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the Court's finding that the elements required for extended limitation are absent (no fraud, suppression, collusion or wilful mis-statement), the identical elements for penalty are also not established. Consequently, penalty cannot be sustained where the fundamental culpability is not proved.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalty under section 11AC is unsustainable in the absence of proof of the statutory elements justifying extended limitation. Obiter - assessment errors arising from genuine belief or administrative oversight do not attract penalty.
Conclusion: Penalty under section 11AC cannot be sustained and is set aside.
Final Disposition (issue-linked conclusions)
1. The exemption notifications are inapplicable to sewing machines cleared with factory-fitted, housed motors (including belt-driven transmission); the demand to that extent is upheld.
2. The suspension unit with hanging hook is an optional accessory, not a part of the sewing machine, and is not eligible for the sewing-machine exemption; the classification against the assessee is upheld.
3. Extended period of limitation under section 11A is not available on the facts; the extended-period demand is set aside.
4. Penalty under section 11AC is unsustainable and is set aside for lack of requisite culpability.
Benefit of exemption N/N. 6/2006-CE dated 1.3.2006 (S. No. 15) and its successor N/N. 1/2011-CE dated 1.3.2011 (S. No. 97) - Industrial sewing machines manufactured and cleared during the period 1.4.2009 to 10.7.2014 - classification of suspension unit with hanging hook - sewing machine classifiable under Central Excise Tariff Heading (CETH) 8452990 or is it a ‘suspending tool’ classifiable under CETH 84289090 - invocation of extended period of limitation - levy of penalty under section 11AC of CEA.
Benefit of N/N. 6/2006-CE and 1/2011-CE - HELD THAT:- The benefit of the notifications is available to sewing machines without in-built motors. The notification does not stipulate any mechanism of transmission of the power from the motor to the sewing unit. It is well known that any prime mover (electric motor, an internal combustion engine, an external combustion engine, etc.) provides mechanical power in the form of rotation using electricity petrol, diesel, coal or some other fuel. The mechanical power in the form of rotation is used by various machines to perform various functions. The power of the prime mover has to be transmitted to the rest of the machine. This transmission can take place by directly connecting the machine to the prime mover with a shaft or through a belt and pulley or through gears or through levers.
Identical question arose in Gabbar Engineering [2009 (8) TMI 255 - CESTAT, AHMEDABAD] and a bench of this Tribunal held that benefit of the exemption Notification No. 6/2006-CE was not available. It was held in that case that the motor, pulley as well as V-belt were all part of the sewing machine as it is in this case.
Thus, the appellant is not entitled to the benefit of the exemption notifications.
Suspension unit with hook - submission of the appellant is that since the suspension unit is meant to be used with the sewing machine, it should be classified as part of the sewing machine and accordingly should be treated as exempted by N/N. 6/2006-CE and 1/2011-CE - HELD THAT:- The suspension unit with the hook is, no doubt, meant to be used along with the machine but it is not the part of the sewing machine. It is an optional accessory available to those who want to buy it. By no stretch of imagination can this be called a part of the sewing machine. It is held in favour of the Revenue and against the appellant on the question of this classification of the suspension unit and hook.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is found from records that the appellant had been filing its central excise returns regularly assessing duty as per its understanding. The appellant had not failed in its duties. If the non-payment of duty was not detected within time, it is because, the range officer with whom the returns were filed failed in his duty to scrutinise the returns and raise a demand within time and not because the appellant had failed in its duties. The appellant’s responsibility is to self-assess duty as per its understanding and it has no obligation to anticipate if DGCEI would one day look into its records and if so, what view DGCEI would take and file returns accordingly. The appellant’s view was that it was eligible to the exemption and accordingly assessed the duty. It was for the range officer to have scrutinised the returns.
It is found that in tax administration, a balance is often maintained between assessment, scrutiny and enforcement on one hand and trade facilitation on the other- the former ensures better Revenue collection and the latter facilitates trade at the risk of losing Revenue. If the submissions of learned authorised representative are correct, the Board had taken a decision to facilitate trade and risk losing some revenue such as in this case and has lost revenue. It is a policy of the Board and it does not prove that the appellant had any intention to evade.
Thus, none of the elements necessary to invoke extended period of limitation was present in this case. Therefore, the demand for extended period of limitation deserves to be set aside.
Levy of penalty u/s 11AC of the Act - HELD THAT:- The elements necessary to invoke extended period of limitation and the elements necessary to impose penalty under section 11AC of the Act are the same. Since it has been found that none of these elements have been established, it is found that penalty under section 11AC cannot be sustained.
The appeal of the appellant partly allowed by setting aside the demand for the extended period of limitation and penalty under section 11AC - rest of the demand upheld - appeal allowed in part.
Issues: Whether the demand of central excise duty founded on alleged clandestine manufacture and removal could be sustained in the absence of corroborative evidence, whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked, and whether the consequential penalties and interest were sustainable.
Analysis: The demand rested mainly on seized challan books, packing slips, an assumed input-output ratio, and a statement of the director recorded during investigation. The record disclosed no independent verification of the production ratio, no evidence of excess procurement of raw materials, electricity consumption, transport movement, identified buyers, or flow back of sale proceeds. The director's later statement also diluted the earlier statement, and the statement evidence was not tested in the manner required for reliance upon such material. In matters of clandestine removal, the burden lies on the Revenue to establish the charge by tangible and corroborative evidence, and theoretical calculations or presumptions cannot replace proof.
Conclusion: The charge of clandestine manufacture and removal was not proved, the duty demand was unsustainable, the extended period could not be invoked, and the penalties and interest were liable to be set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded and the impugned demand and all consequential liability were annulled.
Ratio Decidendi: A charge of clandestine removal in central excise must be established by reliable and corroborative evidence, and where the Revenue relies only on assumptions, disputed statements, or theoretical input-output calculations, the demand, limitation notice, interest, and penalties cannot be sustained.
Requirement of corroborative evidence for clandestine manufacture and removal - admissibility of statements recorded during investigation under Section 9D - input-output ratio not to be adopted without independent verification - violation of principles of natural justice by reliance on undisclosed reconciliation - extended period/time-bar where suppression not established
Requirement of corroborative evidence for clandestine manufacture and removal - Whether the Department proved clandestine manufacture and removal by the appellant with sufficient and corroborative evidence. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the Department failed to produce positive, tangible and corroborative evidence to establish clandestine manufacture and clearance. The adjudication rested largely on private records (seized challan/packing lists) and theoretical input-output calculations without independent corroboration such as evidence of extra raw material purchases, increased electricity/consumable usage, transport or receipt/payment trails or statements from third parties. Reliance on uncorroborated confessional entries or private notebooks, in absence of supporting material, is insufficient to fasten liability for clandestine removal. [Paras 10, 11]
Finding of clandestine manufacture and clearance was not substantiated and the demand based thereon cannot be sustained.
Admissibility of statements recorded during investigation under Section 9D - Whether the recorded statements of the Director could be relied upon as evidence in absence of compliance with Section 9D safeguards. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted the Director gave two inconsistent statements recorded nearly three years apart. In such circumstances the adjudicating authority ought to have applied the procedure under Section 9D before treating the earlier statement as evidence of truth. Jurisprudence requires that statements recorded during investigation be tested by examination before the adjudicating authority and formation of an opinion on admissibility; otherwise they lose evidentiary value. The Revenue did not subject the statements to the safeguards mandated by Section 9D and did not produce corroboration to support reliance on them. [Paras 8]
Recorded statements could not be acted upon as reliable evidence in the absence of compliance with Section 9D and corroboration; reliance thereon vitiates the order.
Input-output ratio not to be adopted without independent verification - Whether the Revenue could quantify unaccounted production by adopting an input-output ratio not independently verified. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the Department adopted a conversion ratio based on assumption and a single month's ER1 figure without conducting independent verification or practical trials at the factory. Precedents establish that mechanical application of theoretical input-output ratios, without plant-specific examination or testing and without considering declared month-wise records, is impermissible. The appellant produced a chartered engineer's capacity certificate, electricity consumption records and month-wise production data which were not shown to be discredited by the Revenue. [Paras 6]
Quantification based on the Revenue's unverified input-output ratio is unsustainable.
Violation of principles of natural justice by reliance on undisclosed reconciliation - Whether reliance on a reconciliation purportedly carried out by Range officers, which was not disclosed to the appellant, violated natural justice and could support the demand. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal observed that the adjudicating authority relied upon an alleged reconciliation report prepared by Range officials that was not placed before the appellants nor were they given an opportunity to comment. Reliance on such undisclosed material in quantifying demand breaches principles of natural justice. The appellants had specifically pleaded non-disclosure and non-provision of the reconciliation particulars which the adjudicator nonetheless used. [Paras 2, 5]
Use of undisclosed reconciliation to arrive at demand offended natural justice and undermined the impugned order.
Extended period/time-bar where suppression not established - Whether demands for the extended period could be sustained in absence of established suppression. - HELD THAT: - Given that the Department failed to establish suppression or clandestine removal by cogent evidence and relied on uncorroborated assumptions and an unverified input-output ratio, the Tribunal found the invocation of extended period provisions unjustified. The appellants had maintained statutory ER1/ER7 returns and produced records; the Department did not show effective proof of suppression to justify extended-period demands. [Paras 12]
The confirmed demand for the extended period is time-barred and set aside for lack of established suppression.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeals, set aside the impugned adjudicating order; the excise demand, interest and penalties confirmed therein (including penalties on the Director) are quashed and the extended-period demand is held unsustainable, with the appellants entitled to consequential relief as per law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether interest is payable on an amount deposited with the department during investigation and subsequently refunded after judicial determination, and if so, from which date interest accrues.
2. Whether provisions governing interest on delayed refund - specifically the statutory schemes for refund of duty (Section 11B/11BB) and for pre-deposits in appeals (Section 35F/35FF) - apply to amounts deposited during investigation and determine the rate and commencement of interest.
3. What rate of interest is appropriate where statutory provisions prescribe a rate (or limit) but judicial decisions have awarded higher rates on equitable or restitutionary grounds; and whether Sandvik jurisprudence and its progeny require awarding interest from date of deposit at 12% (or other rates) in such cases.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Liability to pay interest on amounts deposited during investigation and later refunded
Legal framework: The statute contains distinct provisions addressing (a) refund of duty and interest claimed under the refund procedure (Section 11B with interest under Section 11BB), and (b) refund of pre-deposits made under appellate conditions (Section 35F with interest under Section 35FF). Constitutional principle (Article 265) forbids levy/collection without authority of law; unjustified collection/retention attracts restitutionary liability.
Precedent treatment: The Court reviewed authorities finding that money collected or retained without authority of law gives rise to restitution and an entitlement to interest as a corollary (i.e., doctrine of restitution; cases awarding interest where collection was illegal or retention unjustified). The Tribunal and several benches have treated deposits made during investigation as refundable with interest in appropriate cases.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal concluded the present deposit was made during investigation before issuance of the struck-down show cause notices and therefore was not a statutory pre-deposit under Section 35F. Because the department retained the sum without legal authority for a prolonged period, the retention constituted unjust enrichment and triggered restitutionary obligations including interest. The Tribunal invoked constitutional principle that no tax may be collected without authority of law and the consequent rule that refund liability dates from the date of collection when collection was without authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a departmental collection is without authority of law and later held non-sustainable, the collector's retention can give rise to restitutionary interest beginning from date of collection. Obiter - general observations about when restitution applies in other factual matrices (e.g., deposits made to avail interim orders) beyond the facts before the Tribunal.
Conclusion: Interest is payable on an investigation deposit refunded after judicial determination because the amount was retained without legal authority; entitlement to interest exists as restitutionary compensation for unlawful retention.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Applicability of Section 35FF (and Section 11BB) to deposits made during investigation and the proper commencement point for statutory interest
Legal framework: Section 35FF addresses interest on delayed refund of amounts deposited under Section 35F (pre-deposits in appeals), with different formulations pre- and post-amendment; Section 11BB prescribes interest on delayed refund of duty claims, starting after three months from date of receipt of refund application (or related triggering events as per statute and notifications fixing rates).
Precedent treatment: Authorities distinguish pre-deposits (Section 35F/35FF) from refunds of duty subject to 11B/11BB. Some tribunals/Benches have applied Section 35FF when amounts were pre-deposits; other decisions hold that a deposit made in investigation is not a pre-deposit and that Section 11BB (or restitutionary principles) governs. Supreme Court and High Court rulings emphasize statutory wording: Section 11BB interest generally begins after three months from receipt of refund application; Section 35FF begins on the date the amount becomes refundable under appellate order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the adjudicating authority wrongly applied Section 35F/35FF because the deposit pre-dated issuance of the show cause notices and was not made as a statutory pre-condition under Section 35F. Consequently Section 35FF does not apply. Separately, where Section 11BB is applicable (refund claims under Section 11B), interest runs only after three months from the date of receipt of the refund application. The Tribunal reconciled statutory triggers with restitutionary doctrine: statutory interest regimes govern when they apply; where they do not, equitable restitutionary principles supply relief.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 35FF is inapplicable to deposits not made under Section 35F; where Section 11BB governs, its temporal trigger (three months after receipt of refund application) controls statutory interest. Obiter - extended discussion of distinctions between various refund regimes and comparative statutory schemes.
Conclusion: Section 35FF does not apply to investigation deposits not made under Section 35F; when refund claims fall under Section 11B/11BB the statutory commencement (three months from application receipt) governs interest; however where retention was without authority of law restitutionary interest from date of deposit is available notwithstanding inapplicability of Section 35FF.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Appropriate rate of interest - statutory rates versus rates fixed by courts on restitutionary/equitable grounds and the scope of Sandvik and related authorities
Legal framework: Statute and executive notifications fix interest rates under various provisions: notifications under Sections 11BB, 11AA, 11DD, 11AB etc. grant rates ranging (in examples cited) from 5%-36%, 6%, 15%, 18% depending on provision and time. Where statute or notification prescribes a rate, courts are generally bound to apply that rate for statutory interest.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal surveyed a body of decisions following a leading precedent that on facts of extreme and inordinate delay courts have awarded higher or equitable rates (including 9% or 12%) as compensation. Several tribunals and High Courts awarded 12% on refunds of pre-deposits or investigation deposits relying on higher-court directions; other authorities confined awards to the statutory rate (e.g., 6%) where statute governs and delay was not inordinate. Supreme Court jurisprudence emphasizes that where statute prescribes interest, it governs; exceptional equitable awards depend on peculiar facts (e.g., decades-long delay) and are fact-sensitive.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal acknowledged decisions awarding interest from date of deposit at 12% in some benches but held that those outcomes derive from factual/ equitable considerations or different statutory contexts. Given that statutory provisions and their provisos applied to this case (and the deposit was governed by the statutory scheme in force when deposited), the Tribunal found no basis to depart from the statutory mechanism. The Tribunal endorsed the view that restitutionary relief may permit interest from deposit date, but the rate must conform to statutory prescriptions unless exceptional equities warrant a different figure.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the statutory provision governs the subject-matter and prescribes the rate or range, the court must ordinarily follow the statutory rate; exceptional awards above statutory rate require special facts (inordinate delay, distinct restitutionary grounds). Obiter - endorsement of particular quantum (12%) adopted by some tribunals in other cases is noted but not treated as binding in face of statutory prescriptions.
Conclusion: The Tribunal dismissed the appellant's claim for interest at 12% on statutory grounds: interest entitlement exists (for restitution) but, where the statutory refund procedure applies, interest must be awarded in accordance with the applicable statutory trigger and rate; the impugned order granting interest as per Section 11BB and dismissing the 12% claim is upheld.
OVERALL CONCLUSION (cross-references)
Where a departmental collection is without authority of law, restitution including interest may follow from the date of collection (Issue 1). However, whether statutory provisions for delayed refund (Section 11BB) or for pre-deposits (Section 35FF) apply depends on the nature of the deposit (Issue 2); statutory triggers (e.g., three months after application receipt for Section 11BB) ordinarily determine commencement of statutory interest. Where statute prescribes rates or limits, courts should ordinarily award interest in terms of the statute and notifications; departures to higher equitable rates require exceptional factual justification (Issue 3). Applying these principles to the facts, the Tribunal found the adjudicating authority erred in treating the deposit as a Section 35F pre-deposit, affirmed entitlement to interest for unlawful retention, but upheld awarding interest under the statutory framework rather than granting 12% as claimed by the appellant.
Eligibility of interest on amount of Rs. 50 lacs, retained by the department for such long period without authority of law - rate of interest prescribed in Section 11BB of the CE Act 1944, from the date of deposit to the date of actual refund - HELD THAT:- The same issue has been considered by this Tribunal in the case of M/s Dhampur Sugar Mills Ltd. [2025 (7) TMI 839 - CESTAT ALLAHABAD] wherein it was held that 'interest will be payable as per the provisions of Section 35FF read with Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act'.
There are no merits in this appeal. The interest will be payable as per the provisions of Section 35FF read with Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act. There are no infirmity in the impugned order.
Appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a new ground raised by the Revenue in appeal - that the assessees were not located in the notified khasras under a conditional area-based exemption notification - can be entertained when it was not a proposal in the show cause notices.
2. Whether the assessees were entitled to benefit under the conditional exemption notification and, if so, from what date, where declarations opting for the notification were filed indicating specific retrospective effective dates.
3. Whether demands for central excise duty for periods prior to the dates from which the assessees opted for the notification fall within the normal period of limitation and should be confirmed.
4. Whether penalty under section 11AC can be imposed on the assessees where duty is sought to be recovered for a period but there is no evidence of fraud, collusion, wilful mis-statement, suppression of facts or intent to evade.
5. Whether penalty under Rule 26 can be imposed on the principal (manufacturer/principal client) where the show cause notice does not allege confiscation, issuance of excise invoices without delivery, or facts bringing Rule 26(2) into play.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Admissibility of a new ground in appeal that assessees were not located in notified khasras
Legal framework: Principles of adjudication and statutory pleadings require that grounds on which liability is sought to be denied or imposed must ordinarily be the subject of proposals in the show cause notice; appeals cannot ordinarily be used to raise wholly new factual grounds not contained in the SCN.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treated the SCN as the defining document of proposals; reliance on prior Tribunal jurisprudence accepting that new grounds not in SCN cannot be entertained on appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the Revenue did not propose denial of benefit on this ground in the SCNs; it would be unfair to entertain a fresh factual contention in appeal. Counsel for respondents demonstrated presence in the notified khasras. Consequently, the new ground is rejected as not maintainable in appeal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - new factual grounds not canvassed in SCN are not entertainable in appeal; Obiter - none.
Conclusion: The Revenue's contention that assessees were not located in the notified khasras is not accepted and is rejected.
Issue 2: Entitlement to exemption notification and effective date where declaration specifies retrospective option date
Legal framework: Conditional area-based exemption notification requires exercise of option in writing before first clearance and informing jurisdictional authority with specified particulars including the date on which option is exercised; once exercised the option cannot be withdrawn during the remainder of the financial year.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal examined authorities invoked by respondents concerning liberal interpretation of beneficial notifications and curable defects in declarations (including a prior remand where defects were curable). It distinguished those decisions on their facts where declarations were defective and remediable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized the elective nature of conditional exemptions - assessees may choose to opt for exemption or not, bearing consequences such as loss of CENVAT credit. The statutory declaration requires specification of the date from which the option is exercised; an officer or adjudicating body cannot unilaterally apply an exemption retroactively to periods before the date opted for by the assessee. Where the assessee itself specified dates in declarations filed (even if filed after the nominal date), the Tribunal accepted the dates specified in the declarations as the effective dates for the exemption (Maxima: 15.3.2010; Today: 30.3.2010), giving the assessees the benefit of doubt as to retrospective effect from the stated dates.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - optional exemption notification cannot be applied for periods prior to the date expressly chosen by the assessee in its declaration; declarations specifying effective dates, even if filed later, will be accepted to the extent of the dates stated where facts support it. Obiter - general analogy to insurance choices is illustrative and non-binding.
Conclusion: Assessees were entitled to exemption only from the dates stated in their declarations (Maxima from 15.3.2010; Today from 30.3.2010); exemption cannot be extended for earlier periods where the assessee did not opt.
Issue 3: Confirmation of duty demands for periods prior to declaration dates and limitation
Legal framework: Section 11A (normal period of limitation) governs confirmation of duties for specified periods; if duties are payable for periods before entitlement to exemption, the demand may be confirmed subject to limitation rules.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal accepted Revenue's submission that demands were within the normal period of limitation.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since activities amounted to manufacture under the Chapter Note and the assessees had not opted for exemption for earlier months, the Tribunal held demands for duty for periods prior to the opted dates are sustainable. The Tribunal modified impugned orders to confirm duty demands for Maxima from 1.8.2009 to 14.3.2010 and for Today from 1.7.2009 to 29.3.2010, with applicable interest.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - duties can be recovered for periods prior to the date from which an assessee has opted into a conditional exemption, provided demands are within the normal period of limitation. Obiter - none.
Conclusion: The Tribunal confirmed demands for central excise duty for the respective pre-option periods and restored interest liability accordingly.
Issue 4: Imposition of penalty under section 11AC on assessees
Legal framework: Section 11AC permits imposition of penalty only where non-payment or short payment of duty is by reason of fraud, collusion, wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts, or violation of Act or Rules with intent to evade duty.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied settled principles that penal liability under 11AC requires specific culpable mental state or dishonesty in records.
Interpretation and reasoning: Records showed assessees believed service tax, not central excise, was payable and had paid service tax; there was no material to indicate knowledge of incorrect tax treatment, concealment, or intent to evade duty. No evidence officers had informed otherwise. Absent such mens rea or conduct, penalty under section 11AC cannot be imposed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts or intent to evade precludes imposition of penalty under section 11AC even if duty is later found payable. Obiter - none.
Conclusion: No penalty under section 11AC is imposable on the assessees for the confirmed demand periods.
Issue 5: Imposition of penalty under Rule 26 on the principal
Legal framework: Rule 26 penalizes persons who deal with excisable goods liable to confiscation or who issue excise duty invoices without delivery or abet issuance of documents enabling ineligible CENVAT credit; standalone requirements for invoking clauses must be met in SCN.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal required that the SCN must allege acts or omissions that fall within Rule 26's language (confiscation liability, issuance of invoices without delivery, enabling ineligible CENVAT credit).
Interpretation and reasoning: The SCN did not propose confiscation nor allege issuance of excise duty invoices without delivery or abetment enabling ineligible CENVAT credit against the principal. Therefore the ingredients of Rule 26 were not made out and penalty under Rule 26 could not be imposed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalty under Rule 26 cannot be imposed where SCN lacks allegations constituting the offences/acts enumerated in Rule 26; mere association with job work does not attract Rule 26 absent specified acts. Obiter - none.
Conclusion: No penalty under Rule 26 is imposable on the principal; Revenue's appeals on this score are dismissed.
Overall Disposition
The Tribunal (unanimously) rejected the new-location ground; held entitlement to exemption only from dates expressly indicated in assessees' declarations; confirmed duty demands for pre-option periods within limitation (specific date ranges modified); declined to impose penalties under section 11AC and Rule 26 for lack of requisite culpability or statutory ingredients.
Levy of Central Excise duty - process amounting to manufacture or not - wrapping, pouching, packing, labelling, etc. of the goods manufactured by HUL - entitlement of benefit of area based exemption under N/N. 50/2003-CE dated 10.6.2003 - levy of penalties.
Units located in the areas notified in 50/2003-CE or not - HELD THAT:- It is not disputed in the SCNs that Maxima and Today were located in the areas notified under notification no. 50/2003-CE. In the appeals, Revenue raised a new ground that Maxima and Today were not located in the notified areas. This ground cannot be entertained as it was not the proposal in the SCNs. Learned counsels for the respondents have also shown that they were located in the Khasras notified in the notification. Therefore, this ground deserves to be rejected.
Entitlement of Maxima and Today to the benefit of N/N. 50/2003-CE - HELD THAT:- There is no doubt that the appellants were entitled to the optional exemption. There is equally no doubt that it is for the assessee to opt for the exemption from any date or not opt at all. Once the assessee opts for an exemption, it cannot change it during the financial year. Evidently, the assessee could opt out of the exemption next year. As discussed above, once an exemption is claimed, the assessee will not get CENVAT credit and may lose some other benefits. Therefore, it cannot be said that the optional exemption notification should be applied even if the assessee does not opt for it or for even for period before it opts for it.
The impugned orders cannot be sustain to the extent they drop the demands even for the periods for which Maxima and Today had not opted for the exemption. Neither can an optional exemption notification be forced upon an assessee nor can any benefits (such as CENVAT) be denied by the Revenue which inevitably follow the benefit of the exemption notification - The demand of duty on Maxima for the period 1.08.2009 to 14.03.2010 needs to be confirmed. The demand of duty on Today for the period 1.07.2009 to 29.03.2010 needs to be confirmed along with interest as applicable.
Penalty u/s 11AC - HELD THAT:- Penalty u/s 11AC can be imposed only if the duty is not paid, short paid, etc. by reason of fraud or collusion or wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts or violation of act or rules with an intent to evade. Nothing in the records shows that there was any such intent. Both Maxima and Today were under the impression that service tax was payable and not central excise duty and were paying service tax. Nothing in the records shows that the officers had told them that service tax was not payable but central excise duty was payable. Therefore, there are no grounds whatsoever to impose any penalty under section 11AC.
Penalty u/s 26 on HUL - HELD THAT:- This Rule provides for penalty (a) for acts or omissions which rendered goods liable to confiscation; and (b) for issuing invoices without supplying goods to enable the recipient to avail ineligible CENVAT credit. In the SCNs there was no proposal to confiscate goods nor is there any allegation that HUL had issued invoices without supplying goods. Therefore, by no stretch of imagination can the penalty under Rule 26 be imposed on HUL.
Appeal allowed in part.
Issues: Whether steel grip insulating tape is classifiable as an "insulator" under Entry 50 of Part II of Schedule II of the Madhya Pradesh Value Added Tax Act, 2002 or under the residuary entry in Part IV of Schedule II.
Analysis: The product's dominant and primary function is to insulate electrical wires and prevent the flow of current. Its commercial identity is therefore determined by its functional character and common parlance understanding, not by its technical composition alone. Where a specific entry directly covers the commodity, recourse to a residuary entry is impermissible. The classification determination under Section 70 had to be based on the commodity's nature, characteristics, marketability and use, and the product answered the description of an insulator rather than a general electrical good.
Conclusion: The product is classifiable under Entry 50 of Part II of Schedule II as an insulator and not under the residuary entry.
Clasification of Steel Grip Insulating Tape - to be classified under the residuary entry in Entry No.1 of Part IV of Schedule II of the Madhya Pradesh Value Added Tax Act, 2002 or not - recovery of differential tax - HELD THAT:- Insulators are commonly used as a flexible coating on electric wire and cable. The wires which touch each other will produce cross connections, short circuits and fire hazards. Any wires which present voltages higher than 60V can cause human shock and electrocution hazards, which is why insulating coatings help to prevent all of these problems. When two electric wires are connected by removing the plastic coating, the electricians apply the insulating tape to cover the open part of the wire in order to prevent shock or loss of electricity, which is why they are called electrical tape or insulator tape. The varieties of electrical tapes in different colours are available. The electricians generally use black tape for insulation purposes and other colours of tape are used to indicate the voltage level and phase of the wire. The insulating tape has no other use except to insulate the open wires.
It is a matter of common experience that the identity of an article is associated with its primary function. Since Entry 50, Part – II Schedule – II of the M.P. VAT Act is a specific entry for classification and levy of tax on an insulator, in view of the settled legal position that if there is a specific entry, in which commodity falls, then the classification under the general or residual entry should be avoided. Even if the commodity in question falls in both entries, then the entry beneficial or favourable to the assessee should be applied.
The impugned order dated 31.08.2010 (Annexure-P/1) passed by the Commissioner of Commercial Tax, Madhya Pradesh, Indore, whereby the steel grip insulating tape has been classified in the residual entry (in Entry No.1, Part – IV Schedule – II of M.P. VAT Act) is hereby set aside. The steel grip insulating tape manufactured by the petitioner is an insulator and liable to be taxed under Entry 50 Part – II Schedule – II of the M.P. VAT Act @ 5%.
Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the bank's declaration of the petitioner's account as fraudulent, and the consequential action under the SARFAESI framework, could be interfered with on the ground of alleged non-compliance with the MSME notification and the rehabilitation framework.
Analysis: The impugned fraud classification was found to be in consonance with the RBI circular dated 15.07.2024, which provides a framework for prevention, early detection and reporting of fraud by banks. The Court relied on the later Supreme Court position that the binding circular cannot be bypassed merely by invoking MSME status at a belated stage, and observed that the petitioner, if aggrieved by the regulatory framework itself, would have to challenge the circular independently. In the absence of such a challenge, the petitioner could not resist the fraud declaration or the connected SARFAESI action on the basis urged.
Conclusion: The challenge to the declaration of the account as fraudulent was rejected, and the petitioner was not granted interference against the bank's action.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition failed on merits, with the petitioner left to pursue any other remedy available in law, including payment of the admitted liability or an independent challenge to the RBI circular.
Ratio Decidendi: A fraud declaration made in accordance with a binding RBI circular cannot be interdicted in writ jurisdiction merely on the plea of MSME protection or alleged non-compliance with the rehabilitation framework, unless the circular itself is directly challenged.
Recovery of dues - Borrower's account declared as fraudulent account - availability of alternative remedy - HELD THAT:- As far as the declaration of the petitioner's account as fraudulent in terms of the impugned order which is in consonance with the RBI notification/circular dated 15.07.2024 bearing reference RBI/DOS/2024-25/118 DOS.CO.FMG.SEC.No.5/23.04.001/2024-25 is concerned, no remedy is available to the petitioner in view of the latest decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Sri Sri Swami Samarth Construction & Finance Solution & Another vs. the Board of Directors of NKGSB Co-op. Bank Ltd & Ors [2025 (8) TMI 161 - SUPREME COURT].
Either the petitioner pays the amount and seeks for such relief as may be necessary. In case the petitioner is aggrieved, it is for the petitioner to challenge the RBI circular independently. As long as the RBI circular dated 15th July 2024 is in force, the petitioner cannot have any case to question the declaration of the petitioner's account as fraudulent as the purpose for which the said circular has been issued was to provide a framework to the bank for prevention, early detection and timely reporting of incidents of fraud to Law Enforcement Agency (LEAs), Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and NABARD and dissemination of the information by RBI and the matter is connected therewith or incidental thereto as has been stated in para 1.3 of the RBI circular/instruction dated 15.07.2025 bearing reference RBI/DOS/2024-25/118 DOS.CO.FMG.SEC.No.5/23.04.001/2024-25.
It is not inclined to admit this writ petition. This writ petition is liable to be dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether, after amalgamation of the original non-banking plaintiff with a bank, the pending recovery suit became amenable to the jurisdiction of the Debts Recovery Tribunal. (ii) Whether Section 31 of the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993 prevented transfer of the suit, or had to yield to the bar of civil court jurisdiction under Sections 17 and 18.
Issue (i): Whether, after amalgamation of the original non-banking plaintiff with a bank, the pending recovery suit became amenable to the jurisdiction of the Debts Recovery Tribunal.
Analysis: The suit was for recovery of a monetary claim originally advanced by a non-banking entity, but pending the suit that entity amalgamated with a banking company. After amalgamation, the bank became entitled to pursue the outstanding claim in the course of its banking business. The Court treated the resulting proceeding as one falling within the definition of debt and within the class of applications that the Tribunal is empowered to entertain and decide. The distinction between assignment and amalgamation was material: in amalgamation the transferor company loses its existence, and the surviving banking entity prosecutes the claim in its own right, not merely as an assignee.
Conclusion: The suit became subject to the jurisdiction of the Debts Recovery Tribunal after amalgamation, and the transfer was proper.
Issue (ii): Whether Section 31 of the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993 prevented transfer of the suit, or had to yield to the bar of civil court jurisdiction under Sections 17 and 18.
Analysis: Section 31 was treated as procedural, whereas Sections 17 and 18 were treated as substantive provisions conferring exclusive jurisdiction on the Tribunal and barring other courts. The Court adopted a purposive construction and held that Section 31 could not be read in isolation so as to defeat the statutory scheme. Since the claim, after amalgamation, fell within the Tribunal's jurisdiction, the pending civil/commercial proceeding had to be transferred notwithstanding that the original suit was instituted before the change in status of the plaintiff.
Conclusion: Section 31 did not defeat transfer, and the bar under Sections 17 and 18 operated in favour of transfer to the Tribunal.
Final Conclusion: The petition failed because the amalgamated banking company could prosecute the recovery claim only before the Debts Recovery Tribunal, and the civil court was no longer the proper forum for adjudication.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a recovery claim pending in civil court comes, by amalgamation, to vest in a bank, the claim falls within the Tribunal's exclusive jurisdiction and must be dealt with under the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993 by giving Sections 17 and 18 primacy over the procedural transfer provision in Section 31.
Principles of Statutory Interpretation - suit for recovery of amount advanced in two separate loan accounts - transfer of the suit to DRT, Aurangabad in view of Sections 17 and 18 of the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993 - HELD THAT:- Provisions of Sections 17, 18 and 31 of the RDB Act are required to be interpreted in the light of aforesaid legal principle. In this context, when Section 17 of the Act is perused, it is found that jurisdiction upon DRT is conferred to entertain and decide the applications by the banks for recovery of debt due to them. As stated above, Section 18 bars jurisdiction of any Court or Authority to deal with a matter, which falls within the jurisdiction of DRT under Section 17. Bar under Section 18 as can be seen from reading of the provision operates against exercising any jurisdiction. The bar does not operate only at the stage of institution of the suit. Section 18 clearly implies that the bar is applicable to pending suits as well. This interpretation is further reaffirmed by Section 31 of the Act.
Section 31 is included to ensure that even pending suits should go before DRT. Contingency of amalgamation of a non-banking entity with a bank though is not considered while enacting the said provision. However, having regard to the mandate of Section 18, in the considered opinion of this Court, it will be appropriate to resort to purposive interpretation while dealing with Section 31. Sections 17 and 18 are substantive provisions and Section 31 is a provision dealing with procedure. In view of the above, in the considered opinion of this Court, rather than literal interpretation purposive interpretation should be adopted while interpreting Section 31. Section 31 must submit to a mandate of Section 18 read with Sections 17, 2(d) and 19 of the Act. It will be appropriate to honour the scheme of the Act, which clearly bars jurisdiction of all Courts to exercise jurisdiction with respect to matters which fall within jurisdiction of DRT by directing that the suit must be transferred to DRT, although strictly speaking present case is not squarely covered by Section 31 of the RDB Act.
It must also be stated that the definition of the term "debt", as defined under Section 2(g) also means liability, which is claimed as due from any person by the Bank on assignment of the same. Section 2(g) specifically refers to a claim, which is secured or unsecured or assigned. A monetary claim, which is assigned to a Bank will also be a debt within the meaning of Section 2(g) of RDB Act.
It needs to be held that after amalgamation of original plaintiff (HDFC Limited) with the present plaintiff (HDFC Bank Limited), the DRT has jurisdiction over the subject matter of the suit and the suit is rightly transferred by the learned Commercial Court to DRT.
The petition is, therefore, dismissed with no orders as to costs.
TaxTMI