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1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, in exercise of writ jurisdiction, the Court should direct the tax authorities to accept a manual filing of GSTR-3B for the quarter ending March 2021 to enable an additional claim of Input Tax Credit, despite the petitioner's assertion that there is no statutory mechanism to permit such manual filing.
(ii) Whether permitting such manual filing should be ordered with an express clarification that it will have no automatic impact on an existing demand order confirming tax liability, leaving any modification to be decided only by the competent authority in appropriate proceedings.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Direction to accept manual GSTR-3B filing for additional ITC claim
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The petitioner invoked Article 226 of the Constitution. The Court noted the contention that there is no mechanism or provision under Section 16 of the CGST Act to permit manual filing of the relevant return with the additional ITC claim.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court considered the petitioner's explanation that the ITC was not claimed due to an error in the relevant financial year, that the error was noticed during preparation of the annual return, and that the petitioner believed the correction in the annual return would rectify the departmental record. The Court also weighed the respondents' objection that the petitioner became aware of the mistake in 2022 but did not take steps then, and that there is no provision for manual returns. On the overall facts and submissions, the Court found it appropriate to accede to the prayer for manual filing, particularly because the petitioner expressly asserted that such filing would not automatically negate the tax demand already confirmed.
Conclusion: The Court directed the respondents to allow the petitioner to file the manual return as prayed for (manual GSTR-3B for the quarter ending March 2021 with the additional ITC claim).
Issue (ii): Effect of permitting manual filing on the existing demand order
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis of its writ jurisdiction and the submissions regarding the continuing operation of the demand order passed by the competent authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated as material the petitioner's statement that the requested manual filing would not automatically affect the demand already confirmed, and that the demand order would remain intact unless modified or set aside by a competent authority in an appeal or other permissible proceedings. The Court relied on this clarification to ensure that the relief granted would not, by itself, nullify or dilute the existing adjudication and would leave any consequential adjustment to the statutory authorities through appropriate mechanisms.
Conclusion: The Court ordered that acceptance of the manual return shall have no automatic impact on the existing demand order, which would remain subject only to any further order passed by the competent authority.
Seeking direction to the Respondents to accept the manual filing of GSTR-3B for the quarter ending March 2021 with the additional claim of ITC - due to an error which occurred during the Financial Year 2020–21, the petitioner could not claim Input Tax Credit (ITC) in the original return filed for the said period - HELD THAT:- Taking into consideration the plea of the petitioner that filing of manual return would not automatically absolve the petitioner from meeting the demand raised vide order dated 19.02.2025 and that the same shall remain intact subject to any further order that may be passed by the competent authority, if so permissible to be agitated by the petitioner,it is opined that the prayer to allow the petitioner to file manual return, as prayed for, deserves to be acceded to.
The respondents are directed to allow the petitioner to file manual return, as prayed, but with no automatic impact on the order dated 19.02.2025, however, subject to any further order passed by competent authority - petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the State can be directed in writ jurisdiction to compensate for seized property (silver and cash) lost from police custody due to theft/negligence, notwithstanding the plea of sovereign function/immunity.
2. What is the quantification and mode of compensation payable for the shortfall in seized silver and the treatment/adjustment of cash already returned, given that the Court declined to determine purity disputes on the available material.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Maintainability and entitlement to compensation for loss of seized property from police custody
Legal framework: The Court examined State liability where loss occurs during police custody of seized property and addressed the objection based on "sovereign power" immunity, while also relying on the Court's approach recognising compensation in public law (constitutional tort) and the impact on constitutional rights.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the loss of silver and cash occurred because the property was stolen from the police station itself, making the loss attributable to negligence of State officials in protecting seized property. The Court rejected the respondents' reliance on sovereign-function immunity as a bar to compensation in the circumstances, and held that such a loss "absolutely" impinges upon the petitioner's right under Article 19(1)(g) to carry on trade or business. On that basis, the Court held the petitioner entitled to compensation for loss caused by "sheer negligence" in safeguarding seized property.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that compensation/delivery of equivalent value is payable for the loss/shortfall of seized silver from police custody attributable to negligence, and granted relief in writ jurisdiction.
Issue 2: Quantification of shortfall and directions on adjustment/value and mode of restitution
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on undisputed facts as to quantity seized and quantity returned, and fashioned restitution/compensation directions based on the market value of silver "as on date," with a time-linked valuation rule for delay.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the petitioner alleged that part of the returned silver was of reduced purity, the Court held it could not adjudicate purity because there was no material to ascertain impurity and it was not feasible to decide that issue in the writ petition. Therefore, the Court limited relief to the objectively verifiable shortfall between the seized quantity (105 kg) and the quantity actually returned (81.567 kg), computing a shortfall of 23.433 kg (rounded in the operative directions to 23.44 kg). As to cash, since more cash (Rs. 10 lakhs) had been returned than what was seized (Rs. 2,05,000), the Court treated the excess (Rs. 7,95,000) as available for adjustment against the value of the shortfall in silver, using the value of pure silver "as on today." The Court directed that the remaining balance after such adjustment must be made good either by delivering pure silver or paying cash equivalent, again pegged to the value of pure silver as on the applicable date. The Court further fixed a three-week period: if restitution occurs within three weeks, "today's" value applies; if delayed, the value on the date of return governs.
Conclusion: The Court ordered restitution for 23.44 kg of pure silver, directed valuation at the prevailing market value with a delay-sensitive valuation rule, mandated adjustment of Rs. 7,95,000 (excess cash returned) against the payable value, and required the respondents to satisfy any remaining amount by delivery of pure silver or cash equivalent. The Court left open the petitioner's liberty to establish the separate purity-based claim regarding the returned silver in appropriate proceedings.
Confiscation of silver and cas with an option to pay remedemption fine - maintainability of claim of compensation - seizure of silver by the officials of the 2nd respondent was in exercise of the sovereign power of the State - HELD THAT:- There have been a number of judgments, of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, wherein the concept of “Constitutional tort” was invoked and compensation had been granted, even in cases where the interests of private persons had been affected. A Constitution bench, of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Kaushal Kishor v. State of U.P. [2023 (1) TMI 1469 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], had held that 'the High Courts have been consistent in invoking constitutional tort whenever an act of omission and commission on the part of a public functionary, including a Minister, caused harm or loss. But as rightly pointed out by the learned Attorney General in his note, the matter pre-eminently deserves a proper legal framework so that the principles and procedure are coherently set out without leaving the matter open ended or vague.'
In the present case, the loss of silver can only be attributable to the negligence of the respondents as the silver was stolen from the police station itself. The loss of such a large amount of silver and cash would absolutely impinge on the right of the petitioner, under Article 19(1)(g) to carry on his trade or business. In such circumstances, the petitioner is entitled to compensation for the loss suffered by him on account of the sheer negligence on the part of the officials of the State in protecting the property which has been seized from the son of the deceased.
The undisputed facts are that 105 kgs of pure silver was seized from the son of the petitioner along with cash of Rs. 2,50,000/- weighting 81.567 kgs and cash of Rs.10 lakhs was handed over to the petitioner. The contention of the petitioner that only 27 kgs out of the aforesaid 81.567 kgs was pure silver and the remaining 54.567 kgs contained only 60% silver. It would not be possible for this Court to go into the question of the purity of the silver, handed over to the petitioner. There is also no material, on the basis of which this Court would be able to ascertain the impurity contained in 54.567 kgs of silver lumps. In the circumstances, this Court can only take into account the short fall of silver as the differences between 105 kgs of silver seized from the petitioner and 81.567 kgs of silver returned to the petitioner. This would mean there was a short fall of 23.433 kgs of silver - the cash of Rs. 2,05,000/- has been seized from the son of the petitioner and cash of Rs.10 lakhs has been returned to the petitioner. It is stated that the aforesaid Rs. 10 lakhs was the cash recovered from the persons who had stolen the silver and cash, as these persons had sold away some part of the silver and some of the proceeds of such sale, were recovered from these accused persons.
The petitioner is entitled to a return of 23.44 kgs of pure silver - the value of silver, as on date, shall be taken for purposes of supply of such silver to the petitioner - the additional cash of Rs. 7,95,000/- shall be adjusted against the return of 23.44 kgs, by taking the value of Silver, as on today.
Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a provisional attachment order issued under Section 83 of the CGST/KGST Act ceases to have effect automatically upon expiry of one year from the date of the order, rendering the attachment and consequential actions non-subsisting.
(ii) Whether, after the first provisional attachment order lapses by efflux of one year under Section 83(2), the revenue is legally entitled to issue a fresh/new provisional attachment order again under Section 83(1) in respect of the same taxable person/property.
(iii) Whether, notwithstanding the lapse of the attachment and the bar against re-invoking Section 83, the revenue retains liberty to proceed against the taxpayer through other lawful mechanisms (excluding Section 83).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Lapse of provisional attachment after one year and its effect on subsistence of attachment/consequential proceedings
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 83 and specifically applied Section 83(2), which provides that "every such provisional attachment shall cease to have effect after the expiry of a period of one year from the date of the order made under sub-section (1)."
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that a plain/literal reading of Section 83(2) leads to the conclusion that the attachment has a maximum statutory life of one year. Once that period expires, the provisional attachment and "all consequential proceedings, notices issued pursuant thereto" cannot continue to operate and become non-subsisting by operation of law.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that, as on the date of decision, the impugned provisional attachment and all actions pursuant to it had ceased to exist and had no legal effect due to expiry of the one-year period from the attachment order date.
Issue (ii): Power to issue a fresh/new provisional attachment order under Section 83 after lapse of the first order
Legal framework: The Court applied the principle stated in a binding decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court, as expressly relied upon and treated as decisive. The Court treated that decision as categorically holding that Section 83 does not permit issuance of a second/fresh provisional attachment order once the first has lapsed under Section 83(2).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that in view of the Apex Court's categorical holding, the revenue is precluded from invoking Section 83 again after expiry of one year from the initial provisional attachment. The Court treated the statutory one-year limit as not merely a temporal condition but also as a limitation preventing repeated or renewed resort to Section 83 once the first attachment has ceased.
Conclusion: The Court held that the revenue "shall not be entitled" to issue any fresh/new provisional attachment order under Section 83 after lapse of the earlier attachment by efflux of the one-year period.
Issue (iii): Availability of other lawful proceedings despite lapse of Section 83 attachment and bar against re-invoking Section 83
Legal framework: The Court expressly carved out the revenue's right to proceed "in accordance with law" through mechanisms other than Section 83.
Interpretation and reasoning: While concluding that Section 83 cannot be re-invoked through a fresh attachment after the statutory period has expired, the Court clarified that this determination is confined to Section 83 and does not extinguish the revenue's ability to pursue other proceedings permissible under law.
Conclusion: The Court held that the revenue remains entitled to take recourse to other proceedings against the taxpayer in accordance with law, except by invoking Section 83.
Challenge to provisional attachment order on the ground of time limitation - expiry of period of one year from the date of the order - HELD THAT:- A plain reading of provision of Section 83 is sufficient to come to the conclusion that upon the expiry of period of one year as contemplated under Section 83 of the CGST/KGST Act, the impugned provisional attachment shall cease to have effect as is clear from the aforesaid provision. Under these circumstances, it is opined that as on today i.e., 19.12.2025, the provisional attachment order dated 24.01.2024 and all consequential proceedings, notices issued pursuant thereto would cease to be subsisting and the same shall not have any effect any longer in view of expiry of the maximum period of one year that expired on 26.09.2025.
The question as to whether the respondents are entitled to issue a fresh/new provisional attachment order after expiry of the period of one year from the date of first provisional attachment order came before the Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of Kesari Nandan Mobile Vs. Office of Assistant Commissioner of State Tax (2), Enforcement Division - 5 [2025 (8) TMI 992 - SUPREME COURT], wherein it is held that upon the expiry of period of one year after issue of provisional attachment order as contemplated under Section 83 of the CGST/KGST Act, respondent-Revenue would be precluded from invoking said provision under Section 83 of the CGST/KGST Act once again and would not be entitled to issue fresh/new provisional attachment order as provided under Section 83(1) of the KGST/CGST Act.
The present petition deserves to be disposed of by issuing certain directions - Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the adjudication order confirming tax, interest and penalty, passed ex parte under Section 73(9) of the CGST/KGST Act for the relevant tax period, warranted interference and remand to enable the taxpayer to file reply/documents and be heard.
(ii) Whether, in view of the pending adjudication before the Supreme Court concerning the validity/effect of notifications relied on for extension of limitation under Section 73(10), the adjudicating authority should be directed to pass a fresh adjudication order only after the Supreme Court's decision, and how limitation should be protected in the interregnum.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Interference with ex parte adjudication and grant of opportunity
Legal framework: The Court noted that the show-cause notice was issued under Section 73(1) and the adjudication order was passed under Section 73(9) of the CGST/KGST Act for the relevant tax period, on the allegation of excess ITC claimed in GSTR-3B as compared to GSTR-2A.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court proceeded on the basis that the taxpayer had not replied to the notice and the adjudication culminated in an ex parte demand. The taxpayer asserted that the notices went unnoticed, resulting in non-filing of reply/documents, and sought an opportunity to submit reply and supporting material. Considering the circumstances and submissions, the Court formed the view that one more opportunity ought to be granted by setting aside the impugned adjudication order and remitting the matter for reconsideration in accordance with law.
Conclusions: The Court allowed the petition to the extent of setting aside the impugned adjudication order and remitting the matter to the adjudicating authority for fresh consideration and a fresh adjudication order in accordance with law.
Issue (ii): Effect of pending Supreme Court proceedings on limitation-extension notifications; timing of fresh adjudication; exclusion of time for limitation
Legal framework: The taxpayer contended that the proceedings were barred by limitation under Section 73(10) of the KGST Act, while the revenue contended that limitation stood extended by notifications. The Court considered the submission that the validity of such notifications was seized of by the Supreme Court in a pending special leave matter, which would have a bearing on the impugned proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: To avoid multiplicity of proceedings and conflicting orders, the Court determined that the adjudicating authority should reconsider and issue a fresh adjudication order only after the Supreme Court disposes of the pending special leave matter, since that decision may impact the limitation question and the proceedings founded on the asserted extension.
Conclusions: The Court directed the adjudicating authority to pass a fresh adjudication order in accordance with law after the Supreme Court's disposal of the pending special leave matter. It further directed that the period between the date of the impugned adjudication order and the date of disposal of the special leave matter by the Supreme Court shall stand excluded for the purpose of limitation.
Excess ITC claimed in GSTR 3B when compared to GSTR 2A - petition failed to reply to the notices - adjudication order passed without granting an opportunity of personal hearing to the petitioner - HELD THAT:- The validity of the Notifications are seized by the Apex Court and which will have an impact/bearing on the impugned proceedings.
One more opportunity is required to be granted in favour of the petitioner by setting aside the impugned orders and remitting the matter back to the 4th respondent for reconsideration afresh, in accordance with law, by issuing certain directions.
It is deemed just and appropriate to direct the 4th respondent to reconsider the matter afresh and pass a fresh adjudication order in accordance with law - petition allowed by way of remand.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the assessment order passed under Section 73 confirming demand, and the appellate order dismissing the appeal as time-barred, should be set aside and the matter remitted, when the assessee asserts inability to reply to the show-cause notice due to "bonafide reasons, unavoidable circumstances and sufficient cause".
(ii) Whether the Court should grant a "justice oriented approach" by providing one further opportunity to respond to the show-cause notice, and if so, on what conditions and safeguards.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Setting aside Section 73 adjudication order and the time-bar dismissal order, and remand for fresh consideration
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court considered that proceedings had culminated in an order under Section 73 after issuance of a show-cause notice, and that an appeal under Section 107 was dismissed as barred by limitation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted from the record that a show-cause notice had been issued and that the assessee did not submit a reply, leading to confirmation of demand comprising tax, interest, and penalty. The Court accepted the petitioner's specific assertion that the omission to respond and contest the proceedings was due to "bonafide reasons, unavoidable circumstances and sufficient cause". On that basis, the Court considered it appropriate to adopt a "justice oriented approach" and grant one more opportunity to participate in the adjudication at the stage of replying to the show-cause notice, rather than allowing the adverse order to stand.
Conclusions: The Court set aside both the adjudication order under Section 73 and the appellate order dismissing the appeal as time-barred, and remitted the matter to the adjudicating authority for reconsideration afresh from the stage of filing reply to the show-cause notice.
Issue (ii): Conditions for granting further opportunity and procedural safeguards
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court exercised discretion to impose costs and to issue directions ensuring timely participation and orderly reconsideration by the adjudicating authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: While granting a further opportunity, the Court balanced equities by making the relief conditional upon payment of costs to the High Court Legal Services Authority. The Court also ensured expeditious continuation of proceedings by directing the assessee to appear on a specified date without waiting for further notice. To prevent misuse of the indulgence, the Court provided that non-appearance on the fixed date would result in automatic recall of the order. The Court further directed that replies/documents submitted by the assessee be considered and that a sufficient and reasonable opportunity of hearing be provided before proceeding in accordance with law.
Conclusions: Relief was granted subject to payment of costs of Rs.15,000/-, appearance before the adjudicating authority on the specified date, consideration of replies/documents with reasonable opportunity of hearing, and an automatic recall consequence upon default of appearance.
Setting aside assessment and appellate orders - remand for fresh consideration - opportunity of hearing / right to be heard - justice-oriented judicial discretion - costs payable to High Court Legal Services Authority
Setting aside assessment and appellate orders - opportunity of hearing / right to be heard - remand for fresh consideration - justice-oriented judicial discretion - costs payable to High Court Legal Services Authority - Impugned orders dated 26.08.2024 and 29.08.2025 were liable to be set aside and the matter remitted for fresh consideration because the petitioner, due to bonafide reasons, had not filed replies to the show-cause notice and was deprived of an opportunity to contest the proceedings. - HELD THAT: - The court accepted the petitioner's assertion that inability to submit replies to the pre-intimation and show-cause notice dated 18.04.2024 was attributable to bonafide reasons and sufficient cause. Noting that the appeal filed by the petitioner was dismissed as barred by limitation and that the GST Appellate Tribunal had not been constituted, the court exercised a justice-oriented discretion to grant relief. The court set aside the impugned order passed under Section 73 and the subsequent appellate order passed under Section 107, and remitted the matter to the second respondent to reconsider the case afresh from the stage of the petitioner submitting his reply to the show-cause notice. The relief granted was made conditional upon the petitioner paying costs of Rs.15,000 to the High Court Legal Services Authority. The court directed the petitioner to appear before the second respondent on 02.02.2026 and preserved the petitioner's liberty to file replies and documents, which the authority must consider after providing sufficient opportunity; failure to appear would automatically recall the order.
Impugned orders set aside; matter remitted to the second respondent for fresh consideration from the stage of filing reply to the show-cause notice dated 18.04.2024, subject to payment of costs of Rs.15,000 to the High Court Legal Services Authority; directions issued for appearance and opportunity to be afforded to the petitioner.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is allowed: the assessment order and the appellate order are set aside and the matter is remitted for fresh consideration from the stage of filing the reply to the show-cause notice, subject to payment of costs to the High Court Legal Services Authority and compliance with the Court's directions regarding appearance and opportunity to be afforded.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, in the circumstances, the petitioner should be granted liberty to file a further and detailed reply to the impugned show cause cum demand notice, and whether the adjudicating authority must consider such reply along with the petitioner's earlier written materials already furnished (including the e-mail reply to the pre-show cause notice and the additional reply/annexures placed with the writ petition) before taking a final decision.
(ii) Whether the adjudicating authority should be directed to afford the petitioner an opportunity of personal hearing prior to passing the final order in the adjudication proceeding.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Liberty to file a detailed reply and direction to consider earlier materials
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis of the adjudication process under the impugned show cause notice and the requirement that the adjudicating authority consider the petitioner's replies and supporting documents before taking a final decision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded the petitioner's grievance that the impugned show cause cum demand notice was issued without considering the petitioner's e-mail reply sent within the time allowed to the pre-show cause notice, and that the show cause notice followed immediately thereafter. The respondent authorities objected that the writ petition should not be entertained due to delay. The petitioner then confined its request to a limited, fair relief: permission to file a detailed reply to the show cause notice and a direction that the adjudicating authority consider that reply together with specified earlier replies and annexures already on record. The Court accepted this course as fair and unobjectionable.
Conclusions: The Court granted liberty to file a detailed reply within four weeks and directed the adjudicating authority to consider (a) the further reply (if filed), and (b) the petitioner's earlier e-mail reply to the pre-show cause notice with attachments, and (c) the additional reply and annexures placed with the writ petition. The Court further held that if no further reply is filed within the granted period, the earlier materials identified in the order shall be treated as the petitioner's reply to the impugned show cause notice.
Issue (ii): Requirement of personal hearing before final decision
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court expressly directed observance of the opportunity of personal hearing before the final adjudication decision, to be taken "in accordance with law."
Interpretation and reasoning: Having chosen to dispose of the writ petition by facilitating an effective reply process and directing consideration of the petitioner's materials, the Court treated a personal hearing as an integral safeguard before final determination in the proceeding arising from the show cause notice.
Conclusions: The Court directed that the adjudicating authority shall afford the petitioner an opportunity of personal hearing before taking the final decision in the proceeding pursuant to the show cause notice.
Violation of principles of natural justice - validity of SCN - SCN has been issued without considering the petitioner’s reply to the pre-SCN - HELD THAT:- The petitioner is given liberty to file its detailed reply to the impugned notice to show cause within four weeks from date. The adjudicating authority named in the show cause notice dated June 25, 2025 i.e. the Additional Commissioner/ Joint Commissioner, Kolkata CGST & CX South Commissionerateis directed to consider the petitioner’s reply to the notice to the show cause impugned in the present writ petition, which the petitioner may be filing in terms of this order together with the petitioner’s e-mail dated June 24, 2025 alongwith the attachments thereto as also the petitioners reply which forms Annexure P-5 to the writ petition alongwith its annexures.
In case the petitioner does not file any further reply in terms of this order, the documents indicated herein above i.e. the e-mail alongwith its attachments and the reply annexed to the writ petition as Annexure P-5 alongwith its annexures shall be considered as the petitioner’s reply to the impugned notice to show cause dated June 25, 2025.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Court should entertain a writ petition challenging dismissal of a statutory appeal as time-barred, in circumstances where the appellate tribunal contemplated under the statute is not functional and the petitioner would otherwise be left without an effective remedy.
(ii) Whether a delay of 57 days in filing an appeal under Section 107 of the WBGST/CGST Act, 2017, explained on the ground of illness of the petitioner's accountant supported by an affidavit, ought to be condoned; and whether rejection of condonation solely because the accountant was not an authorised signatory is sustainable.
(iii) Whether, upon finding wrongful refusal to condone delay, the proper relief is to set aside the appellate order and remand the matter for decision on merits, with a limitation-related restriction arising from belated filing of the writ petition.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Entertainability of the writ petition in absence of a functional appellate tribunal
Legal framework: The Court considered the statutory appellate structure, noting the contemplated appellate tribunal under Section 112 of the Act of 2017 and the petitioner's challenge to the appellate authority's order under Section 107.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the appellate tribunal was not yet functional. It held that, in such circumstances, refusal to entertain the writ petition would leave the petitioner remediless against the appellate order dismissing the appeal on limitation.
Conclusion: The Court entertained the writ petition on the ground that an effective alternative forum was unavailable due to the non-functionality of the tribunal.
Issue (ii): Condonation of 57 days' delay in filing the statutory appeal and validity of refusal based on "authorised signatory" reasoning
Legal framework: The Court applied the principle of condonation of delay under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in the context of delay in filing an appeal under Section 107 of the Act of 2017.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted from the impugned appellate order that the petitioner's stated cause for delay was the illness of its accountant, and that the accountant had filed an affidavit affirming the illness. The appellate authority did not disbelieve the illness, but rejected condonation because the accountant was not the authorised signatory. The Court held that, although an accountant may not be an authorised signatory, the accountant's role in preparing an appeal by providing relevant facts and figures cannot be ignored. On these facts, the Court found no gross negligence or lackadaisical attitude attributable to the petitioner, and therefore the delay should have been condoned.
Conclusion: The Court condoned the 57 days' delay, holding that the appellate authority's refusal to condone delay on the sole ground that the accountant was not an authorised signatory was unsustainable where the illness was not doubted and the explanation did not reflect gross negligence.
Issue (iii): Appropriate relief-setting aside the appellate order, remand on merits, and limitation-related clarification
Interpretation and reasoning: Having condoned the delay, the Court held that the dismissal of the appeal solely on limitation could not stand. Since the merits of the appeal had not been examined, the proper course was to restore the appeal for fresh consideration on merits by the appellate authority.
Conclusions: The Court set aside the appellate order dismissing the appeal as time-barred and remanded the matter to the appellate authority to decide the appeal afresh on merits. The Court further clarified that, because the writ petition itself had been filed belatedly, the petitioner would not be entitled to challenge the appellate proceedings on the ground of limitation.
Rejection of petitioner’s appeal against an order passed u/s 73 of the said Act of 2017 dismissed on the ground of delay - HELD THAT:- It is evident from the impugned appellate order itself that the ground for the petitioner’s delayed filing of the appeal was its accountant’s illness and that the accountant himself had affirmed such fact by way of an affidavit. The delay occasioned by the petitioner is around 57 days in total. The appellate authority has not disbelieved the factum of illness of the petitioner’s accountant, yet has rejected the appeal on the ground that the accountant was not the authorized signatory of the petitioner.
An accountant may not be the authorized signatory of a person but the role of an accountant in getting the appeal ready by supplying relevant facts and figures cannot be ignored. In such view of the matter, it does not appear that the petitioner has been grossly negligent in pursuing its case.
Since delay occasioned by the petitioner in preferring appeal is not attributable to gross negligence or lackadaisical attitude of the petitioner, the same ought to have been condoned by the appellate authority in terms of Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 as held by the Hon’ble Division Bench of this Court in case of S.K. Chakraborty and Sons vs. Union of India & Ors. [2023 (12) TMI 290 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT].
The delay on the part of the petitioner in preferring the appeal under Section 107 of the said Act of 2017 is condoned and the order dated July 3, 2024 passed by the appellate authority is set aside. The matter is remanded to the file of the appellate authority for considering the petitioner’s appeal afresh on merit - appeal disposed off by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether the revisional order under section 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be sustained despite the assessee having been granted immunity under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016. (ii) Whether the immunity granted under the scheme barred reopening or revisional interference merely because the penalty was stated to have been imposed under an allegedly incorrect provision.
Issue (i): Whether the revisional order under section 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be sustained despite the assessee having been granted immunity under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016.
Analysis: The certificate issued under the scheme had not been challenged and continued to operate. The scheme certificate granted immunity from penalty proceedings in respect of the disputed tax, and the order passed under the scheme was conclusive under section 204(3) of the scheme. In that situation, the revisional authority could not direct a de novo penalty order merely on the basis of an audit objection.
Conclusion: The revisional order could not be sustained and the issue was answered against the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether the immunity granted under the scheme barred reopening or revisional interference merely because the penalty was stated to have been imposed under an allegedly incorrect provision.
Analysis: The immunity was general against penalty proceedings and was not confined to any particular penal provision. Therefore, even if the penalty was said to have been imposed under one provision instead of another, that distinction did not dilute the immunity already granted under the scheme. The question of whether the case fell within the exclusion mentioned in the scheme did not survive once the certificate had attained finality.
Conclusion: The immunity barred further penalty-related action and the issue was answered in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The challenge to the tribunal's order failed because the final scheme certificate operated as a conclusive bar against the proposed penalty revision, leaving no substantial question of law for interference.
Ratio Decidendi: A final immunity certificate issued under a dispute resolution scheme, once it attains conclusiveness, bars subsequent penalty revision or reopening in respect of the disputed tax, and such immunity is not defeated by a change in the statutory provision invoked for penalty.
Penalty u/s 271AB or 271AAB - petitioner applied under the amnesty scheme and was issued certificate under the Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016 - assessment was finalized under Section 153A or 153C - HELD THAT:- Under Section 204(3) of the scheme, the order passed u/s 204(1) is conclusive and matter covered by such order shall not be reopened in any proceeding under the Act.
Once there is immunity granted to the respondent against penalty proceedings, the fact as to whether the penalty should have been imposed u/s 271AAB or under Section 271AB of the Act, would make no difference. The immunity is general against the penalty proceedings and not with regard to a particular provision. The revision on the basis of the audit objection for passing a de novo order, as the penalty should have been imposed u/s 271AB, cannot be sustained in view of the immunity granted to the respondent. The substantial questions of law framed do not arise from the order of the tribunal.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether reassessment initiated under section 147/148 was invalid on the ground that, since information was linked to a third-party search, proceedings ought to have been initiated only under section 153C; and whether such plea could be admitted as an additional ground for the first time before the Tribunal.
(ii) Whether the reassessment notice under section 148 lacked valid "reason to believe" due to alleged factual mismatch in the recorded reasons and absence of jurisdictional preconditions for section 147.
(iii) Whether the additions treating share sale proceeds as unexplained cash credit under section 68 (and consequential denial of exemption claimed on long term capital gains) were sustainable on merits; and whether lack of confrontation of certain material required setting aside for fresh adjudication.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Reassessment under section 147 vs. alleged mandatory resort to section 153C; admissibility of additional ground
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal examined the operational preconditions of section 153C, namely satisfaction by the searched person's Assessing Officer that seized material belongs/pertains to the other person, recording of such satisfaction, handing over of material to the other person's Assessing Officer, and the latter's satisfaction before issuance of notice. It emphasized that section 153C is triggered only when these jurisdictional steps occur, and otherwise reassessment under section 147 is not automatically barred.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the assessee's contention that reopening was "pursuant to search" required determination whether the reopening was founded solely on search-seized incriminating material or on post-search investigation information. This was disputed and would require examination of records not forming part of the assessee's record (including searched person's records). The Tribunal found no material showing any satisfaction note by the searched person's Assessing Officer or handing over of seized material to the assessee's Assessing Officer. In absence of these events, the section 153C mechanism would be "unworkable" on the facts and accepting the plea would lead to "absurdity."
Conclusions: The additional ground was rejected as not a pure question of law and as requiring investigation into fresh facts/material not on record. On merits as well, the Tribunal held that section 147 was not barred because section 153C conditions were not shown to be satisfied and no jurisdiction had been assumed under section 153C.
(ii) Validity of reopening under section 147/148: existence of tangible material and effect of mismatch in recorded reasons
Legal framework (as applied): The Tribunal applied the standard that at notice stage the Assessing Officer must form a prima facie belief on fresh tangible material; adequacy/correctness is not tested conclusively at that stage. It also noted the return had only been processed under section 143(1), hence regular scrutiny considerations were not determinative.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the investigation report and the Assessing Officer's verification/inquiry constituted sufficient fresh tangible material. The recorded reasons referenced information that an identified group was providing bogus long term capital gain entries and that the assessee was a beneficiary, coupled with verification of beneficiary list and the assessee's claim of exemption in the relevant scrip. The Tribunal rejected the argument that reopening was invalid merely because the reasons mentioned sale of a larger number of shares/value than those sold in that specific year, since in aggregate the assessee had sold the stated number of shares across the two years and the core allegation related to the same scrip and claimed exemption.
Conclusions: Reopening was upheld for both years; the plea that notice was without jurisdiction or vitiated by factual mismatch was rejected, and the ground challenging reassessment validity was dismissed.
(iii) Additions under section 68 in respect of share sale proceeds and denial of exemption: whether sustainable or to be remanded
Legal framework (as applied): The Tribunal treated the sale proceeds credited as requiring explanation under section 68 and evaluated whether the assessee discharged the onus regarding nature and source, considering documentary substantiation of purchase, holding, and sale, and the surrounding circumstances indicating pre-arrangement/manipulation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found significant infirmities in the assessee's evidence on purchase/holding: the shares were claimed to be purchased off-market when the scrip was not listed, and only a confirmation letter was produced without corroborating contemporaneous bank evidence of payment. On sale, the Tribunal noted contract note data showing negligible gaps between order time and trade time across multiple trades, supporting the Revenue's case of pre-arranged trades. It also accepted that investigation material indicated the company was operationally dysfunctional and that the scrip price was manipulated during the relevant period, undermining the genuineness explanation. However, the Tribunal also found partial procedural deficiency: the Assessing Officer relied on certain data obtained from the stock exchange regarding trades/exit providers without confronting the assessee with it, and the appellate order had relied on some irrelevant discussion relating to another entity.
Conclusions: While holding that the assessee had not discharged section 68 onus on the existing record, the Tribunal set aside the section 68 additions for both years and remanded the issue to the Assessing Officer with directions: (a) permit the assessee to file complete bank statements and further material to establish purchase consideration through banking channels and otherwise discharge the onus; (b) require the Assessing Officer to confront the assessee with the stock exchange data relied upon, including exit provider details, and relevant regulatory orders; and (c) allow the Assessing Officer to conduct further enquiry as needed. The section 68 grounds were treated as allowed for statistical purposes, and reassessment grounds were dismissed for both years.
Validity of reassessment proceedings u/s 147 v/s 153C - as contended by Assessee that the reassessment proceedings were bad in law since the same have been initiated u/s 147 whereas the AO ought to have initiated proceedings under Section 153C - as per assessee reassessment proceedings have been initiated on the basis of information/material discovered during the search proceedings conducted on a third party - treating share sale proceeds as unexplained cash credit under section 68
HELD THAT:- We note that in the present case the relevant conditions precedent for invoking provisions contained in Section 153C of the Act were not satisfied. It is not the case of the Assessee that the Assessing Officer had taken recourse to Section 153C of the Act and despite having done the same, proceeded to initiate reassessment proceedings under Section 147 of the Act in the case of the Assessee. It is admitted position that no satisfaction note was prepared and/or forwarded by the AO of the searched person to the AO of the Assessee. Therefore, the AO could not have taken recourse to the provisions contained in Section 153C of the Act.
We reject the contention of contention of the Assessee that the AO was precluded from initiating reassessment proceedings u/s 147 of the Act in the facts and circumstances of the present case.
Also there is neither any material on record to suggest nor has there been any allegation that assessing officer of the searched person or Other Person had acted in any malafide or arbitrary manner. Assessee contended that the proceedings should have been u/s 153C instead of Section 147 of the Act.
In our view accepting the aforesaid contention advanced in behalf of the Assessee would amount to substitution of opinion of appellate authority in place of opinion of the AO of the Assessee but also the opinion of AO of the searched persons (to not prepare the aforesaid satisfaction note) and that too without examining the relevant material which does not form part of the record. Therefore, for this reason also the contention raised by the Assessee cannot be accepted.
AO had formed the belief that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment on the basis of fresh tangible material. It is admitted position that the Assessee had claimed long term capital gains exemption u/s 10(38) of the Act in respect of sale of shares of KGN Enterprises, a script in relation to which adverse findings were recorded in the report of the Investigations Wing as well as the orders passed by SEBI which prima facie showed that the trades undertaken in the said script were pre-arranged transactions undertaken to take advantage of provision of Section 10(38) of the Act. In view of the aforesaid, we do not find any merit in the contention advanced on behalf of the Assessee in relation to Ground No.1 and therefore, the same is dismissed.
Addition u/s 68 - onus to prove - As identified various infirmities in the documentary evidence furnished by the Assessee to arrive at the conclusion that the even by filing the documents/details forming part of the record, the Assessee has failed to discharge the onus case upon the Assessee under Section 68 of the Act. At the same time was have also noted that some of the material/data relied upon by the Assessing Officer was not put to the Assessee. Therefore, keeping in view the overall facts and circumstances of the present case, we deem the opportunity to the Assessee to place on record the complete bank statement to establish that the consideration for acquiring shares of KGN Enterprises was made through the banking channel as well as to bring on record relevant material to discharge the onus cast under Section 68 of the Act and to meet the infirmities pointed out by this Tribunal. At the same time the Assessing Officer is also directed to confront the Assessee with the relevant data gathered from BSE and relied upon during the assessment proceedings, including the names of the exit providers and copy of orders passed by SEBI.
Issues: (i) Whether short-term capital loss on securities transaction tax paid transactions could be set off against short-term capital gains on non-STT transactions without insisting on a hierarchy based on differential tax rates; (ii) Whether brought forward long-term capital loss could be adjusted against long-term capital gains that were exempt in India under Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA on grandfathered share sales.
Issue (i): Whether short-term capital loss on securities transaction tax paid transactions could be set off against short-term capital gains on non-STT transactions without insisting on a hierarchy based on differential tax rates.
Analysis: Section 70(2) permits set-off of short-term capital loss against income from any other capital asset computed in a similar manner under sections 48 to 55. The provision does not create any further distinction between STT-paid and non-STT transactions, and the computation provisions do not deal with rate of tax. The same issue had been decided in favour of the assessee in earlier tribunal decisions, which were followed.
Conclusion: The set-off methodology adopted by the assessee was accepted and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether brought forward long-term capital loss could be adjusted against long-term capital gains that were exempt in India under Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA on grandfathered share sales.
Analysis: Income that is exempt under the treaty does not enter the computation of total income, and a taxable income is a precondition for adjustment of brought forward losses. The exempt grandfathered gains could not be reduced by prior-year long-term capital loss. The loss could be set off only against taxable non-grandfathered long-term capital gains, while the exempt gains had to remain fully exempt under the treaty.
Conclusion: The adjustment against exempt grandfathered gains was disallowed and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The substantive disputes were resolved in favour of the assessee on both capital-loss set-off issues, while the remaining grounds were either consequential, not pressed, premature, or allowed only for statistical purposes.
Ratio Decidendi: For capital gains computation, the Income-tax Act does not permit a rate-based hierarchy for set-off of short-term capital loss under section 70(2), and treaty-exempt gains cannot be treated as taxable income for the purpose of setting off brought forward losses.
Manner of set off of short-term capital loss, which was incurred by the assessee from the transaction in shares on which Securities Transaction Tax (“STT”) was paid - assessee submitted that section 70 of the Act allows the assessee to set off the losses of lower taxable gains with the gains of higher taxable gains - whether the short-term capital loss (on which STT was paid) can be set off against short-term capital gains (on which STT was not paid)?
HELD THAT:- As per the provisions of section 70(2) of the Act, the short-term capital loss can be set off against gain from any other capital asset. Section 70(2) of the Act does not make any further classification between the transactions where STT was paid and the transactions where STT was not paid. The emphasis of the AO on the term "similar computation" also only refers to the computation as provided under sections 48 to 55 of the Act, and therefore, does not support the case of the Revenue.
We find that while deciding a similar issue in iShares MSCI EM UCITS ETF USD ACC [2024 (6) TMI 148 - ITAT MUMBAI] following the decision of Rungamatee Trexim (P.) Ltd. [2008 (12) TMI 759 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] allowed the set off of short-term capital loss (on which STT was paid) against the short-term capital gains (on which STT was not paid).
We direct the AO to accept the methodology adopted by the assessee for the computation of the short-term capital gains. As a result, Grounds no.2 to 6 raised in assessee’s appeal are allowed.
Set off of the taxable (non-grandfathered) brought forward long-term capital loss against the exempt (grandfathered) long-term capital gains - We find that a similar issue came up before the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Bay Capital India Fund Limited [2024 (6) TMI 1459 - ITAT MUMBAI] as deciding the issue in favour of the taxpayer, the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal vide order dated 20/06/2024 held that the entire long-term capital gains earned by the assessee are exempted from taxation in India by virtue of Article 13(4) of the Treaty and long-term capital loss, whether brought forward or not, cannot be adjusted against the same.
As in Matrix Partners India Investment Holdings, LLC [2025 (2) TMI 330 - ITAT MUMBAI] held that the capital gains that are already exempt under the provisions of DTAA cannot enter into computation of total income of the assessee in India, and therefore, the loss incurred by the taxpayer from the sale of non-grandfathered shares cannot be set off against the gain, which is exempt from taxation in India, as per Article 13(4) of the India Mauritius DTAA. The Co-ordinate Bench further held that the taxpayer is entitled to carry forward the loss arising from the sale of shares to the subsequent year.
Thus, long-term capital gains earned by the assessee from the transactions, which are grandfathered as per the provisions of Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA, cannot be adjusted against the brought forward long-term capital loss incurred by the assessee. Accordingly, the AO is directed to allow the exemption of the entire long-term capital gains earned by the assessee from the transactions which are covered under the provisions of Article 13(4) of the India-Mauritius DTAA. AO is directed to allow the set off of longterm capital loss brought forward from the previous years against the net long-term capital gains accrued during the year from the non-grandfathered sale of shares.
Short grant of TDS credit - During the hearing, AR submitted that the assessee has filed a rectification application before the AO on 28/10/2025 in this regard, which is still pending consideration. Accordingly, we deem it appropriate to restore this issue to the file of the AO with the direction to grant the credit of taxes deducted at source, in accordance with the law, after conducting the necessary verification
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether depreciation was allowable on manufacturing, supply and maintenance contracts acquired under earlier slump sale transactions, and/or whether the consideration attributable to such contracts was to be treated as goodwill eligible for depreciation.
2) Whether brought forward and unabsorbed depreciation claims for earlier years (including consequential depreciation on capitalised software) were to be allowed in the relevant years, and if so, in what manner.
3) Whether, for benchmarking purchase of finished goods under RPM, the exclusion of a particular comparable was justified and whether it was required to be included.
4) Whether TP benchmarking for receipt of indenting commission under CUP required exclusion of certain comparables, and whether the matter required remand for production/verification of underlying agreements.
5) Whether, for purchase of analysers, (i) the relevant comparable was to be included and (ii) TP adjustment was to be restricted proportionately to transactions with associated enterprises rather than applied at entity level.
6) Whether reimbursement transactions could be benchmarked at ALP "Nil" without conducting proper ALP analysis, and whether a double disallowance arose where the assessee had already made a voluntary disallowance.
7) Whether the assessee was entitled to credit of TDS/TCS/advance tax (including credits reflected for merged entities) subject to verification that corresponding income was offered.
8) Whether interest grounds required adjudication, and whether initiation of penalty proceedings was maintainable at this stage.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
A. Depreciation on acquired contracts / goodwill
Legal framework: The Court examined depreciation on "business or commercial rights"/intangible assets under section 32(1)(ii) and considered the consequence of characterising excess consideration in slump sale acquisitions as goodwill eligible for depreciation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court followed the Tribunal's earlier decisions in the assessee's own case which held that, in slump sale acquisitions, the consideration paid over and above the fair value of identified assets and liabilities is attributable to goodwill. The Court treated the debate on whether individual contracts independently satisfy intangible-asset recognition as ultimately academic, because even if such contracts were not separately depreciable, the excess consideration covering such rights would fall within goodwill on which depreciation had been allowed in the assessee's own earlier years.
Conclusion: Depreciation was directed to be allowed on the acquired contracts on the same lines as earlier years, by treating the excess consideration over net assets as goodwill and allowing depreciation accordingly; the corresponding grounds across the years were allowed.
B. Brought forward/unabsorbed depreciation and consequential software depreciation
Legal framework: The Court considered the allowability of brought forward/unabsorbed depreciation and consequential depreciation claims as dependent upon outcomes in earlier years.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that non-allowance in the impugned years was linked to earlier disallowances (including on intangible assets/goodwill and software). Following the approach adopted in the assessee's own case, the Court held the correct course was to direct recomputation/allowance in conformity with final outcomes for the preceding assessment years, rather than decide the quantum in isolation.
Conclusion: The issue was restored to the Assessing Officer with directions to allow/recompute brought forward and unabsorbed depreciation (including linked software depreciation) in accordance with Tribunal orders for the relevant preceding years; the grounds were allowed for statistical purposes.
C. TP-Purchase of finished goods under RPM: inclusion of a comparable
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis that RPM was accepted as the most appropriate method; the dispute was confined to comparable selection.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied its earlier-year findings that under RPM, functional comparability is primary and strict product identity is not decisive. It rejected the reasons used to exclude the comparable (including alleged product differences and differences in foreign currency purchases) as not materially affecting gross margins under RPM. Where computation required alignment, the Court directed exclusion of freight/forwarding elements as required in margin computation.
Conclusion: The Court directed inclusion of the comparable for benchmarking purchase of finished goods; the assessee's corresponding ground(s) were allowed (or allowed for statistical purposes where recomputation/effect giving was required).
D. TP-Indenting commission under CUP: exclusion of certain comparables and remand for agreement verification
Legal framework: The Court examined CUP benchmarking based on commission agreements and the need for proper comparability based on the underlying agreements.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court confined itself to the assessee's specific plea for exclusion of identified comparables on the basis of inconsistency in the TPO's selection approach. Because the relevant Sales Representative Agreement(s) for the year under consideration were not on record, the Court held that a conclusive exclusion could not be ordered without verification. However, it directed that if, upon production and examination of the agreements, functional/product profile similarity with already excluded comparables is found (as in the earlier year), the TPO should exclude the impugned comparable(s) on the same reasoning.
Conclusion: The TP adjustment on indenting commission was set aside and remanded to the TPO for verification based on production of the relevant agreements; the ground(s) were allowed for statistical purposes.
E. TP-Purchase of analysers: comparable inclusion and proportionate adjustment limited to AE transactions
Legal framework: The Court addressed RPM comparability and the principle that TP adjustment under Chapter X must be restricted to international transactions with associated enterprises.
Interpretation and reasoning: On comparables, the Court applied its finished-goods RPM analysis and directed inclusion of the same comparable for benchmarking. On scope of adjustment, the Court relied on the settled position (as applied in its reasoning) that TP adjustments cannot be made at entity level and must be confined to AE transactions; even where segmental accounts are not available, proportionate adjustment methodology is to be adopted to avoid adjusting non-AE transactions presumed to be at arm's length.
Conclusion: The Court directed (i) inclusion of the comparable for analyser purchases and (ii) recomputation of the adjustment restricted proportionately to AE transactions, after verification; the ground was partly allowed.
F. Reimbursements: ALP "Nil" and double disallowance
Legal framework: The Court examined ALP determination for reimbursements and the prohibition against disallowing the same expenditure twice.
Interpretation and reasoning: For reimbursement TP adjustment, the Court followed its earlier-year decision that treating ALP as "Nil" was unjustified where no benchmarking exercise or comparable search was conducted, and where the issue was approached as a benefit/need test rather than a Chapter X ALP determination. For double disallowance, the Court accepted that if the assessee had already made a voluntary disallowance in the return for specified reimbursements, the same amounts could not again be disallowed through TP adjustment; this required factual verification of overlap.
Conclusion: The Court allowed deletion of the "Nil ALP" approach for reimbursements and directed that no double disallowance be made, remanding the overlap aspect to the Assessing Officer for verification and deletion to the extent already disallowed; where verification was needed, the grounds were allowed for statistical purposes.
G. Effect of DRP directions and grant of TDS/TCS/advance tax credits (including merged entities)
Legal framework: The Court applied the requirement that the final assessment order must conform to DRP directions and considered entitlement to tax credits subject to verification of reflection in records and offer of corresponding income.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where the assessee showed that the assessing authority failed to give effect to DRP directions (including on TP relief), the Court directed compliance and restored the matter for effect giving. For TDS/TCS/advance tax credits (including of merged entities), the Court held the proper course was verification: if credits are reflected in the relevant tax statement(s) and corresponding income has been offered to tax, credit must be allowed.
Conclusion: Matters of non-grant/short grant of credits and non-compliance with DRP directions were restored to the Assessing Officer for verification and proper grant/effect; the grounds were allowed for statistical purposes.
H. Interest and penalty; abandoned issue
Legal framework: The Court treated interest as consequential and examined maintainability of penalty initiation challenge at the assessment stage.
Interpretation and reasoning: Interest grounds were held to be consequential and not requiring separate adjudication. Challenge to initiation of penalty proceedings was held premature. In one year, a disallowance relating to employees' contributions was expressly not pressed and therefore rejected on that basis.
Conclusion: Interest grounds were not adjudicated separately as consequential; penalty initiation grounds were dismissed as premature; the non-pressed ground was dismissed as not pressed.
Depreciation on manufacturing contracts, supply and maintenance contracts acquired by the assessee pursuant to the acquisition of two undertakings under slump sale arrangements in earlier years - HELD THAT:- We find that while deciding a similar issue in favour of the assessee, the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Thermo Fisher Scientific India Private Limited [2025 (7) TMI 1167 - ITAT MUMBAI] allowed the depreciation claimed by the assessee on the manufacturing contracts and supply/maintenance contracts acquired by the assessee under the aforementioned slump sale acquisitions.
Claim of brought forward and unabsorbed depreciation - As per the assessee, the AO has not allowed brought forward and unabsorbed depreciation on account of disallowance of depreciation on intangible assets in several preceding years and the allowance of depreciation on software as well as allowance on brought forward and unabsorbed depreciation for the assessment years 2008-09 to 2010-11 during the present year is linked to the outcome of the previous years. Thus, as per the assessee, this issue is consequential and depends on the outcome of the preceding years. We find that while considering a similar issue, the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2015-16 [2025 (7) TMI 1891 - ITAT MUMBAI] as held since the allowance of unabsorbed depreciation is linked to the outcome of the appeals for the Assessment Years 2008-2009 to 2014-2015, we deem it appropriate to direct the Assessing Officer to consider the claim of the Assessee in respect of unabsorbed depreciation as per the orders passed by the Tribunal in the appeals for each of the preceding assessment years (i.e. Assessment Years 2008-2009 to 2014- 2015).
TP adjustment in respect of the international transaction of the purchase of finished goods - Comparable selection - TPO/AO to consider Satyatej Commercial Co. Ltd. as comparable to the assessee for benchmarking the international transaction of purchase of finished goods.
TP adjustment in respect of the international transaction of receipt of indenting commission - exclusion of Hand Innovations Inc. and RG Medical Diagnostics as sought by the learned AR - HELD THAT:- Since the relevant Sales Representative Agreements entered into by these two companies for the year under consideration are not forming part of the record, we deem it appropriate to restore this issue to the file of the TPO, with a direction to the assessee to produce these documents before the TPO.
TPO is further directed that if in this year also, after perusing the Sales Representative Agreement for the year under consideration entered into by Hand Innovations Inc. and RG Medical Diagnostics, it is found that the functional profile is similar to the companies which have already been excluded, the TPO is directed to also exclude Hand Innovations Inc. and RG Medical Diagnostics in lines with the findings of the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2010-11. Therefore, with the above directions, the impugned transfer pricing adjustment on this issue is set aside.
TP adjustment in respect of the international transaction of purchase of analysers - TPO/AO is directed to consider Satyatej Commercial Co. Ltd. as a comparable to the assessee for benchmarking the international transaction of purchase of analysers.
TP adjustment to be done only in respect of international transactions with the associated enterprises and not at an entity level - As following the aforesaid decision of ALSTOM Projects India Ltd [2016 (12) TMI 1408 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] we direct the TPO to compute the transfer pricing adjustment, restricting it to the international transactions undertaken by the assessee with its associated enterprises, after necessary verification.
Double disallowance in respect of reimbursement of expenses already voluntarily disallowed by the assessee - As per the assessee, the TPO, vide its order passed under section 92CA(3) of the Act, considered the arm’s length price of the expenditure reimbursed by the assessee to its associated enterprises as Rs. Nil, and while doing so, the aforementioned reimbursement of communication expenses and reimbursement of professional expenses, which were suo motu disallowed by the assessee under section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, were again disallowed. We agree with the submissions of the assessee that no expenditure should be disallowed twice. Since this issue only requires factual verification, we restore this issue to the file of the jurisdictional AO to delete the double disallowance to the extent of the suo motu disallowance already made by the assessee in its return of income, after necessary verification of the facts. As a result, Ground raised in assessee’s appeal is allowed for statistical purposes.
TP adjustment relating to the reimbursement of expenses - We find that the learned DRP vide its direction in the assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2010-11 accepted the contentions of the assessee, and the said directions have not been disputed further. There is no dispute regarding the fact that these are year-on-year recurring expenses which are reimbursed by the assessee. Since similar expenses have already been allowed in assessee’s own case, on similar lines, we are of the considered view that the TPO as well as the learned DRP were not justified in treating the value of the international transaction of reimbursement of expenses as Rs. Nil in the instant case. Accordingly, Ground raised in assessee’s appeal is allowed.
TP adjustment in respect of the international transaction of receipt of indenting commission - Exclude Hand Innovations Inc. in lines with the findings of the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2010-11.
Grant of credit of TDS/TCS/advance tax of the assessee and/or the merged entities - As per the assessee, TDS, TCS, and advance tax credit were not granted for certain entities that have merged into the assessee. Further, as per the assessee, all the credits are duly reflected in Form 26AS for the year under consideration, and the corresponding income has been offered to tax in its entirety during the year under consideration.
We find that a similar issue also came up for consideration in assessee’s own case for the assessment 2015-16 [2025 (7) TMI 1891 - ITAT MUMBAI] wherein as in order to redress the grievance of the Assessee, we deem it appropriate to direct the Assessing Officer to verify the records. In case on verification it is found that the income corresponding to the differential TDS Credit claimed by the Assessee has been offered to tax, and the said TDS Credit is reflected in Form 26AS for the Assessment Year 2015-2016 of the Assessee Company and/or the merged entities, the Assessing Officer is directed to allow Credit for the TDS Credit.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether reassessment proceedings initiated by notice under section 148 after a search initiated on or after 01.04.2021 were invalid for want of incriminating material or for not furnishing recorded reasons at the notice stage.
2) Whether additions for alleged unrecorded coal purchases/cash payments based on third-party search material could be sustained where the seized material and statements were not properly confronted and cross-examination was not afforded, and where the documents were not clearly attributable to the assessee.
3) Whether addition for alleged bogus purchases based solely on a GST authority's report could be sustained when the assessing authority conducted no independent enquiry and the assessee produced purchase and payment evidence.
4) Whether additions for alleged cash loans/hundi transactions and related interest, based on third-party diaries/loose papers and a purported promissory note, could be sustained in absence of specific incriminating linkage to the assessee and in light of denial by the searched person and lack of independent enquiry.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1) Validity of notice under section 148 after post-01.04.2021 search
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal examined the post-01.04.2021 search reassessment scheme and treated the statutory design as requiring issuance of notice under section 148 for the prescribed assessment years after a qualifying search, with the existence or sufficiency of incriminating material to be tested in assessment proceedings rather than as a pre-condition to issuing notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that under the new search regime, the Assessing Officer is obliged to reopen the relevant years following a search and that absence of incriminating material in the assessee's premises does not, by itself, vitiate issuance of notice. The Tribunal expressly disagreed with a coordinate bench view relied upon by the assessee, and accepted the Revenue's contention that the reassessment notice mechanism is analogous to the earlier search assessment architecture in the sense that notice follows the search and merits/additions are to be examined during assessment.
Conclusion: Challenges to reopening on the grounds that no incriminating material was found at the assessee's premises and that additions were based on third-party searches were rejected; the notice and reopening were upheld and these grounds were dismissed.
2) Addition for alleged undisclosed coal purchases/cash payments based on third-party search material
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal applied principles of natural justice and the statutory requirement that material gathered at the back of the assessee and proposed to be relied upon must be confronted to the assessee and opportunity given to respond. The Tribunal also relied on the necessity of cross-examination where third-party statements are used adversely, and treated non-confrontation/non-cross-examination as fatal in the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the assessing authority based the addition primarily on documents seized from a third party and alleged statements, yet "hopelessly failed" to confront the assessee with the underlying material and did not examine the concerned third-party persons nor afford cross-examination. It also found serious infirmities in attribution and quantification: the alleged documents were not clearly in the assessee's name, lacked clear identification/initials, and the purchase-rate/quantity estimation was based on presumptions; further, the assessee's accounts and manufacturing/audit disclosures were not disturbed or rejected, and there was no corroborative evidence of corresponding unaccounted production/sales that would logically follow from large-scale unaccounted raw material purchases. The Tribunal held that such an addition could not be sustained on mere third-party papers and statements without proper confrontation, enquiry, and reliable linkage to the assessee.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held the addition (and the appellate estimation of profit on such alleged purchases) unsustainable and directed deletion of the addition relating to alleged undisclosed coal purchases/cash payments; consequential connected addition was also allowed.
3) Addition relating to alleged bogus purchases based on GST report
Legal framework (as applied): The Tribunal evaluated whether an addition could stand when founded solely on external departmental information without independent verification by the assessing authority, particularly where the assessee produced primary evidences of purchases and banking payments.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the assessing authority relied directly on the GST authority's report alleging non-existence/non-compliance of the supplier, but did not conduct any enquiry of its own. Against this, the assessee produced bills/vouchers and evidence of payments through banking channels. Given the lack of independent enquiry and the presence of documentary evidence produced by the assessee, the Tribunal held that the inference of bogus purchases and consequential profit addition could not be sustained on the record as used by the assessing authority.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the confirmation of the profit-rate addition on these purchases and directed deletion of the addition.
4) Addition under section 69D for alleged cash loans/hundi transactions and consequential interest under section 69C based on third-party loose papers/diaries
Legal framework (as applied): The Tribunal assessed evidentiary reliability of third-party loose papers/diary notings and the necessity of corroboration and enquiry linking such material to the assessee, as well as the impact of denial by the searched person and absence of meaningful examination by the assessing authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal upheld the appellate finding that the assessing authority's inference of large cash loans was based on "surmises" from incomprehensible/abbreviated diary notings and a single document on letterhead, without demonstrating a clear nexus to the assessee. The Tribunal accepted that the searched person's statement did not contain specific incriminating material against the assessee and that, in remand, the searched person denied transactions with the assessee. The Tribunal further found the assessing authority did not carry the suspicion to logical conclusion: no effective enquiry was made from alleged counterparties, and the circumstances of possession of the purported promissory note were not clarified. Consequently, the underlying material was treated as unreliable for fastening liability on the assessee, and the related notional interest addition also failed.
Conclusion: Deletion of the cash-loan/hundi addition and consequential interest addition was upheld; the Revenue's grounds on this issue were dismissed, and dependent grounds were treated as infructuous.
Validity of Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - Pursuant to the search & seizure operation, the case of the assessee was re-opened after taking approval from the competent authority - as argued AO has failed to provide copy of the reasons recorded in the proceedings u/s.148 and also the addition made by the AO are not arising out of the search conducted u/s.132 of the Act on the assessee, Rather the additions made were on the basis of material gathered during the course of searches on third party
HELD THAT:- There need not be any incriminating materials and whether there is any materials warranting additions that has to be examined by the AO during proceedings u/s 147 of the Act. Therefore we do not find any merit in the contentions of the assessee that the provisions of Section 148 for search conducted on or after 1.4.2021 cannot be considered in total oblivion of the fact that no incriminating material was found with the assessee during the course of search u/s.132 of the Act and the impugned assessment was unabated and hence no addition can be made.
We note that the plea of the assessee does not have force or merit as in this case the requirement of any incriminating material is not there for issuing notice u/s 148 and the assessment can be reopened because the provisions of Section 148 of the Act are analogous to Section 153A of the Act as applicable in the case of search pertaining to search prior to 1.4.2021.
AO is under obligation to reopen such assessment years prior to the date of search even if there is no incriminating material and then frame the assessment accordingly. In other words the existence of incriminating materials has to be examined during the assessment proceedings and not at the stage of issuance of notice.
AR also relied on the decision of Rosha Alloys (P) Ltd [2025 (7) TMI 238 - ITAT CHANDIGARH] however, with utmost humility and respectful disagree with the conclusion drawn by the coordinate bench of the Tribunal and, therefore, the ground Nos.1 to 5 raised by the assessee have no merit and accordingly the same are dismissed by upholding the appellate order on this issue.
Mandate of provisions of Section 142(2) and 142(3) of the Act as the information gathered at the back of the assessee was used - As perused the provisions of Section 142(2) and 142(3) of the Act and find that Section 142(2) of the Act deals with the obtaining full information in respect of income or loss of any person qua which the ld. AO wants enquire into as he considered necessary whereas the provisions of Section 142(3) of the Act provides that unless the assessment is made u/s 144 of the Act, the assessee has to be given an opportunity of hearing in respect of any material gathered on the basis of enquiry u/s 142(2) of the Act or any audit under sub section 2A of the Act, which are proposed to be relied for the purpose of assessment. However, in the present case, we note that the material gathered by the ld. AO during the course of enquiry were never confronted to the assessee thereby violating the mandate of provisions of Section 142(2) and 142(3) of the Act as the information gathered at the back of the assessee was used in framing the assessment against the assessee without providing any opportunity to the assessee.
The addition made on the said materials/statement and without cross-examination is not sustainable in the eyes of law.
Addition as made by the AO in respect of alleged bogus purchase based on the report of CGST Department by applying rate of 8.01% to the total purchases - As we find that the assessee was found to have made purchases from M/s Reeja trading Pvt. Ltd. and according to the Commissioner of CGST &CEx. Howrah the said company is not existing company. The transactions made by the said company was held to be sham transactions. AO found that the assessee has made purchases from the said company and in order to estimate the income, a rate of 8.01% was applied. We note that though the AO has not conducted any enquiry on the issue and directly relied on the report of the Commissionerate, however, on the other hand, we find that the assessee has made the purchases from the said party as evidenced by the bills and vouchers, cheques etc. produced before us. We note that the AO has not conducted any enquiry himself but relied solely on the report of Commissioner of CGST & C Ex. Howrah to treat the purchases as bogus. Thus the addition made on the basis of said report by the AO is wrong and can not be sustained. Therefore the order of ld CIT(A) directing the AO to apply a GP rate of 8.01% on the so called bogus purchases is set aside and we direct the Assessing Officer to delete the addition.
Addition u/s.69D in respect of cash loans taken from Kasera group - certain incriminating materials/documents were found on the basis of which the Assessing Officer reached a conclusion that the assessee had taken cash loans during the impugned financial year from Finance Broker on which interest @7% was also paid amount - HELD THAT:- We note that CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee holding that in the statement Shri Praveen Kumar Kasera he admitted that they were charging interest ranging from 5 to 10 percent on the amount lent. Ld.CIT(A) has recorded a finding that the AO has acted on presumption and surmises basis only. It was also observed by the CIT(A) that when the search was conducted upon the appellant on 22.09.2021, the Investigation team could have very well enquired from the assessee regarding the contents of the same, which we find has not been done. Even when in assessment, the assessee denied its contents, the AO has not made any further enquiries but simply rejected the same.
It is also not clear as to why was this document in possession of Mr. Kasera, and not the appellant or Mr. Deepak Agarwal, who by AO's logic ought to have been in possession of this supposed promissory note, it is indeed true that this document raises a suspicion against the assessee, but the AO in the original as well as remand proceedings did not take the matters to any logical conclusion. Rather than gathering evidences against the appellant, the AO acted only on surmises. We note that the AO had not conducted any enquiry from the persons who received the stated sums/amounts from the assessee Therefore this document has no relevance. Hence, for these reasons, even this document is found to be unreliable. Accordingly, the ld. CIT(A) held that that the documents seized from the premises of Mr. Kasera in the form of loose papers etc, are inadmissible evidences in as much as the same do not contain anything whatsoever to suggest that the appellant had taken any cash loans, particularly when Mr. Kasera had never named the assessee and had also denied having any transactions with the assessee in the remand proceedings. CIT(A) has rightly held that the impugned addition made under section 69D and the consequential addition under section 69C of the Act was unsustainable both on facts and in law - Decided in favour of assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether reassessment initiated after a search conducted on or after 01.04.2021 could be validly commenced by issuance of notice under section 148 even if no incriminating material was found/seized from the assessee in the search, and whether such "incriminating material" is a condition precedent at the notice stage.
(ii) Whether the addition under section 68 in respect of amounts received on sale of long-held investments in unlisted shares was sustainable when (a) purchasers responded to notices and confirmed transactions, (b) the Assessing Officer treated sales to the same purchasers as partly genuine and partly non-genuine and accepted similar sales in group concerns, and (c) the addition rested substantially on an un-confronted third-party statement/seized material without cross-examination or corroboration.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of reopening under section 148 post-search (search on/after 01.04.2021) in absence of incriminating material
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal examined the "new scheme" applicable to searches conducted on or after 01.04.2021 and compared it with the earlier search assessment regime. It treated the post-search notice under section 148, for the specified preceding years, as operating analogously to the earlier requirement of issuing notice for preceding years in search cases.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that, under the new post-search regime, issuance of notice under section 148 for the relevant assessment years does not require the presence of incriminating material as a pre-condition. Whether material exists to justify additions is a matter to be tested during the reassessment proceedings under section 147 and not at the threshold stage of issuing notice. The Tribunal expressly rejected the contention that "unabated assessment" and absence of incriminating material barred reopening/notice in such post-search cases, and it also expressly disagreed with a coordinate bench view relied upon by the assessee that insisted on such linkage at the notice stage.
Conclusion: Reopening and notice under section 148 were upheld as valid; lack of incriminating material was held not to vitiate the notice/assumption of jurisdiction in a search conducted on or after 01.04.2021.
Issue (ii): Sustainability of section 68 addition on sale proceeds of old investments in unlisted shares
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal considered the application of section 68 to the impugned receipts and evaluated the evidentiary basis relied upon by the Assessing Officer, including third-party statement/material and confirmations obtained from purchasers through statutory notices.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the assessee produced evidences regarding sale of investments and that the Assessing Officer himself issued notices to purchasers who replied confirming the purchase transactions with supporting particulars. Despite this, the Assessing Officer accepted sale proceeds aggregating to a substantial portion as genuine while treating sale proceeds from sales to certain purchasers as non-genuine, even though the purchasers were common within the overall set, which the Tribunal viewed as an impermissible and "unfair" dichotomy. The Tribunal further noted that similar sales to the same purchasing entities were accepted as genuine in the cases of other group concerns covered in the same search, making the rejection in the assessee's hands arbitrary and whimsical.
Third-party material / natural justice: The Tribunal held that reliance on a third-party statement and seized document was not sustainable because the material/statement was not properly confronted and no cross-examination was allowed. It also found absence of corroborative evidence establishing cash receipt or the alleged accommodation-entry linkage, and characterized the seized paper relied upon as lacking relevance without corroboration, treating it as a "dumb document" on the facts.
Prior acceptance and continuity of investment: The Tribunal noted that the investments sold were long-held, carried in books for years, and that the source (share capital/share premium leading to investment) had been examined and accepted in earlier scrutiny assessment for the year of acquisition. On these facts, the Tribunal held that such accepted investment could not be doubted in the year of sale without cogent material, particularly when the sale transactions stood confirmed through statutory verification.
Conclusion: The addition of the impugned sale proceeds under section 68 was held unsustainable due to (a) arbitrary inconsistent treatment of similar sales, including compared to other group concerns, (b) non-confrontation and denial of cross-examination on third-party material relied upon, (c) absence of corroboration for the alleged cash/accommodation-entry theory, and (d) evidentiary support for the sale transactions through purchaser confirmations and banking trail. The Tribunal directed deletion of the addition.
Validity of re-opening of reassessment u/s.147 on an invalid notice issued by the AO u/s. 148 - AR submitted that during the course of search operation, no incriminating materials/documents were found and seized, therefore the re-opening of assessment is bad in law - HELD THAT:- We have perused the provisions under old scheme vis a vis under new scheme and find that under the new scheme of search, the AO has to issue notice u/s 148 of the Act for the number of assessment years as provided in the Act. In other words there need not be any incriminating materials and whether there is any materials warranting additions that has to be examined by the AO during proceedings u/s 147 of the Act. Therefore we do not find any merit in the contentions of the assessee that the provisions of Section 148 of the Act for search conducted on or after 1.4.2021 cannot be considered in total oblivion of the fact that no incriminating material was found with the assessee during the course of search u/s. 132 of the Act and the impugned assessment was unabated and hence no addition can be made. We note that the plea of the assessee does not have force or merit as in this case the requirement of any incriminating material is not there for issuing notice u/s 148 and the assessment can be reopened because the provisions of Section 148 of the Act are analogous to Section 153A of the Act as applicable in the case of search pertaining to search prior to 1.4.2021.
AO is under obligation to reopen such assessment years prior to the date of search even if there is no incriminating material and then frame the assessment accordingly. Existence of incriminating materials has to be examined during the assessment proceedings and not at the stage of issuance of notice. Decided against assessee.
Addition of sale of investment - HELD THAT:- Action of the AO cannot be sustained for following reasons:
i) The statement/materials relied by the AO was not confronted to the assessee
ii) accepting the raising of funds and investments in private equities were itself examined and accepted by the AO in A.Y. 2010-11 in the scrutiny proceedings particularly when the scrutiny was selected for verification of funds raised and investments thereof and
iii) partly accepting the sale of shares during the instant under consideration and partly treating as non-genuine.
Therefore, the order of CIT(A) upholding the assessment order cannot be sustained. Considering all we set aside the appellate order and direct the AO to delete the addition.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether deduction under Section 10A was allowable from A.Y. 2012-13 onwards, and if not, whether the SEZ unit was entitled to deduction under Section 10AA for the unexpired portion of the ten consecutive assessment years; and how "export" is to be construed for computing deduction under Section 10AA.
(ii) Whether weighted deduction under Section 35(2AB) could be denied solely for non-availability of the prescribed authority's Form 3CL during assessment, where such certificate was received shortly thereafter.
(iii) Whether disallowance under Section 14A read with Rule 8D could be made where the assessee earned no exempt income during the year and had sufficient interest-free funds.
(iv) Whether interest expenditure was disallowable under Section 36(1)(iii) on the ground of interest-free advances, in the absence of proven nexus with borrowed funds and where own funds exceeded advances.
(v) Whether employees' contribution to PF/ESI was disallowable where payment was made on the next working day due to a holiday, and otherwise where paid beyond statutory due dates.
(vi) Whether addition for "prior period income" was sustainable where the computation showed only a net prior period income already embedded in the profit and loss account and reduced once in computation.
(vii) Whether disallowance of part of bad debts and disallowance of provision for pre-clinical test expenditure were sustainable where supporting evidence was subsequently produced, warranting verification.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
A. Deduction under Section 10A/10AA for SEZ unit; scope of "export" for Section 10AA computation
Legal framework: The Court applied the proviso to Section 10A debarring deduction from A.Y. 2012-13 onwards; considered Section 10A(7B) and Section 10AA (including the proviso to Section 10AA(3)); and applied the definition of "export in relation to the Special Economic Zones" in Explanation (1) to Section 10AA.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that Section 10A deduction is statutorily barred from A.Y. 2012-13 onwards. For the SEZ unit which had commenced manufacturing earlier and had already availed deduction for eight years, the Court held that the unit fell within the SEZ unit framework contemplated by Section 10A(7B) read with Section 10AA, entitling it to Section 10AA deduction for the unexpired period of the ten consecutive assessment years. On computation, the Court rejected the assessee's plea to import the broader SEZ Act "export" meaning (including supplies to domestic tariff area/other SEZ units) into Section 10AA, holding that for Section 10AA computation the applicable definition is the restrictive definition contained in Explanation (1) to Section 10AA (i.e., taking goods/services out of India from an SEZ). Consequently, local supplies such as EPCG/EOU/zone-to-zone sales could not be treated as "export" for Section 10AA.
Conclusions: Deduction under Section 10A was not allowable from A.Y. 2012-13 onwards. The assessee was held eligible for deduction under Section 10AA(1)(i) for the unexpired years of the ten-year period, subject to other statutory conditions. Quantification of deduction was remitted to the Assessing Officer to compute deduction strictly in accordance with the Section 10AA definition of "export," after providing opportunity of hearing. The same conclusion was applied for A.Y. 2013-14.
B. Weighted deduction under Section 35(2AB) where Form 3CL was received after assessment
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 35(2AB) compliance in relation to DSIR approval documentation, focusing on the role of Form 3CL as relied upon by the Assessing Officer for denial.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that disallowance was made only because Form 3CL was not available during assessment, though it was received shortly after assessment completion. Relying on the principle applied by the jurisdictional High Court (as noted in the judgment) that delay/omission by the prescribed authority in issuing/sending Form 3CL should not by itself defeat the deduction when approval evidence exists, the Court held that the matter required verification of the subsequently received Form 3CL.
Conclusions: The issue was remanded to the Assessing Officer to verify Form 3CL; if in order, deduction under Section 35(2AB) was to be allowed. The Court also upheld rejection of the alternative Section 37(1) claim on the reasoning that the assessee had not forgone the Section 35(2AB) claim while seeking the alternative.
C. Disallowance under Section 14A read with Rule 8D in absence of exempt income
Legal framework: The Court applied Section 14A and Rule 8D, and relied on binding precedent referred within the judgment that Section 14A cannot be invoked where no exempt income is earned in the relevant year.
Interpretation and reasoning: It was undisputed that no exempt income was earned. The Court further recorded that the assessee had sufficient interest-free funds to cover investments. In such circumstances, disallowance of interest and administrative expenditure under Rule 8D was held unjustified.
Conclusions: The disallowance under Section 14A was deleted for A.Y. 2012-13, and by identical reasoning deleted for A.Y. 2013-14 as well.
D. Disallowance of interest under Section 36(1)(iii) for interest-free advances
Legal framework: The Court applied Section 36(1)(iii) and examined whether borrowed funds were used for making interest-free advances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held the disallowance was based on presumption without evidence establishing nexus between interest-bearing borrowings and interest-free advances. It also accepted that the assessee's own surplus funds exceeded the interest-free advances, and followed the binding decision in the assessee's earlier year (as reproduced in the judgment) holding that where sufficient own funds exist, disallowance of interest on borrowings is not warranted absent nexus.
Conclusions: The interest disallowance under Section 36(1)(iii) was deleted for A.Y. 2012-13.
E. Employees' contribution to PF/ESI and Section 36(1)(va)
Legal framework: The Court applied the statutory due-date concept for employees' contribution and followed the Supreme Court decision (as noted in the judgment) governing belated employees' contributions.
Interpretation and reasoning: For the portion paid on the next working day because the due date fell on a closed holiday, the Court held it could not be treated as belated. For the remaining delayed payments, the assessee conceded the issue was against it in view of Supreme Court authority.
Conclusions: Partial relief was granted for the amount paid on the next working day; the balance disallowance was confirmed for A.Y. 2012-13. For A.Y. 2013-14, the employees' contribution addition under Section 36(1)(va) was confirmed.
F. Addition on account of prior period income
Legal framework: The Court evaluated the computation and financial statement disclosure of prior period items to ascertain whether there was double reduction or computational error.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that prior period income and prior period expense resulted in a net prior period income already included in the profit and loss account and reduced once in computation. It held that the Assessing Officer's premise of double reduction was incorrect and that there was no arithmetical or computational mistake shown.
Conclusions: The addition made for alleged double reduction of prior period income was deleted.
G. Bad debts (partial) and provision for pre-clinical test expenditure-fresh evidence
Legal framework: The Court addressed disallowances made solely for lack of supporting details/bills and considered the effect of fresh evidence produced before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: For the portion of bad debts disallowed due to absence of details, and for the provision disallowed due to absence of bills, the Court accepted that supporting documents were later produced and held that verification by the Assessing Officer was necessary.
Conclusions: Both matters were set aside to the Assessing Officer for verification of the fresh evidence and decision in accordance with law.
Deduction u/s. 10AA - Special provisions in respect of newly established Units in Special Economic Zones - deduction u/s 10A/10AA for the last two years of the ten consecutive years - assessee submitted that the assessee had set up a unit in Special Economic Zone (‘SEZ’), Surat - HELD THAT:- A conjoint reading of sections makes it evident that by insertion of sub-section (7B) to section 10A, the units in SEZ which were existing on or before commencement of SEZ Act were taken out from applicability of section 10A of the Act and the new regime of section 10AA was made applicable even to existing units in SEZ. Therefore, section 10AA was applicable to all SEZ units, whether they were established under the old regime or under newly enacted SEZ Act, 2005.
However, we don’t concur with the finding of the Tribunal that the existing SEZ units which had begun to produce or manufacture articles or things in old regime will be entitled for deduction u/s 10A of the 1961 Act only for unexpired period of consecutive ten years and thereafter they will be entitled for further deduction for a period of five years under newly enacted provisions of section 10AA(1)(ii) of the 1961 Act. In our opinion the assessee was entitled for deduction u/s 10AA of the Act only, for the unexpired period of consecutive ten years, after the introduction of section 10A(7B) and section 10AA of the Act on the statute.
Thus, we hold that the assessee was eligible for deduction u/s. 10AA of the Act for the unexpired period of ten consecutive assessment years. Accordingly, the assessee was entitled for deduction u/s 10AA(1)(i) of the Act for the A.Y. 2012-13, subject to fulfilment of other conditions as stipulated in that section.
Grievance of the assessee is that deduction u/s. 10AA of the Act should be allowed on EPCG sales, zone-tozone sales and EOU sales as well - contention of the assessee is that the provision of SEZ Act shall have overriding effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent with any other law - As per definition of export given in Section 10AA of the Act the export in relation to SEZ means taking goods or providing services out of India from SEZ by land, sea, air or by any other mode whether physical or otherwise. It is, thus, evident that only sub-clause (i) of Section 2(m) of SEZ Act defining export is included in the definition of export as provided in Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act. Considering the fact that Section 10AA of the Act was introduced under the provision of Section 27 of SEZ Act, only the restrictive definition of “export” as given in Explanation-1 to Section 10AA of the Act has to be taken into consideration while working out the deduction u/s. 10AA of the Act.
In view of this position of law, the contention of the assessee that the goods supplied or services rendered to domestic tariffs area or to another unit in SEZ is also covered in the definition of “export” for the purposes of working out the deduction u/s. 10AA of the Act, is not found correct and is, therefore, rejected. At the same time, we deem it proper to set aside the matter to the file of Jurisdictional AO with a direction to allow the deduction for the A.Y. 2012-13 in accordance with the “export” as defined u/s. 10AA of the Act, after allowing an opportunity of being heard to the assessee.
Disallowance u/s. 35(2AB) - no certificate in Form No.3CL from DSIR was produced, which was a mandatory requirement for allowing the claim for deduction - According to the assessee, this form was received from the competent authority two days after the completion of assessment - HELD THAT:- Hon’ble Gujarat High Court has held in the case of Schaeffler India Ltd. [2023 (10) TMI 920 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] that the assessee had filed Form No.3CM in the course of assessment certifying that its R&D facility was approved by the prescribed authority and merely because the Competent Authority had failed to send the intimation in Form 3CL during the course of assessment proceedings, it could not be a reason for denying the claim of deduction u/s. 35(2AB) of the Act. The facts involved in the present case are identical as the certificate in Form No.3CL was received two days after completion of assessment. In the interest of justice, we, therefore, deem it proper to set aside the matter to the file of the AO with a direction to verify the certificate in Form No.3CL issued by the prescribed authority. If the same is found to be in order, then the deduction as claimed by the assessee u/s. 35(2AB) of the Act should be allowed. The contention of the assessee regarding alternative deduction u/s. 37(1) of the Act, was rightly rejected by the AO as the assessee did not forgo its claim of deduction u/s. 35(2AB) of the Act while making this alternate claim.
Disallowance u/s. 14A r.w.r. 8D - AO noticed that the assessee had made investment in shares of foreign subsidiaries and in the shares of Indian subsidiaries, however, no disallowance u/s.14A of the Act was made by the assessee - HELD THAT:- There is no dispute to the fact that no exempt income was earned by the assessee during the year. Hon’ble Supreme Court [2018 (7) TMI 567 - SC ORDER] has upheld the decision of Chettinad Logistics (P.) Ltd. (2017 (4) TMI 298 - MADRAS HIGH COURT) that where no exempt income was earned in the relevant assessment year by the assessee, the provision of Section 14A of the Act could not be invoked.
In the case of UTI Bank Ltd. [2016 (6) TMI 961 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] had held that no disallowance could be made u/s. 14A of the Act where assessee’s interest free funds far exceeded its interest free investments. In the present case, the assessee had sufficient interest free funds to explain the investment in the shares of subsidiaries companies. In view of this fact and also considering that no exempt income was earned by the assessee during the year, no disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act on account of interest expenses and management fee was called for - Decided in favour of assessee.
Disallowance of interest u/s. 36(1)(iii) - According to the AO, the assessee could not prove the nexus between the interest free funds available and the interest free loans and advances, therefore, the interest @ 12% in respect of interest free loans and advances made by the assessee was disallowed u/s. 36(1)(iii) - AR submitted that the fact that the assessee had own funds far in excess of the interest free loans and advances was not considered by the AO - HELD THAT:- AO had disallowed the interest expense on the presumption that interest bearing funds were utilized for advancing interest free loan to Sahajanand Laser Technology Ltd., USA & SLT Energy Ltd. However, no evidence was on brought record to establish the nexus between the interest-bearing funds and the interest free advances made by the assessee. Thus, the addition is found to be on based on mere presumption. The fact that the assessee had its own surplus funds has not been controverted by the revenue.
An identical decision was taken by the Co-ordinate Bench of this Tribunal in the assessee’s own case [2016 (5) TMI 50 - ITAT AHMEDABAD]. Respectively following the above referred decisions in the assessee’s own case and also the fact the assessee had own funds far in excess of the interest free advances given to the two parties, we are of the view that no disallowance u/s. 36(1)(iii) of the Act was called for.
Belated Employees Contribution to PF & ESIC - AR submitted that for the month of July 2011, the due date of payment was 15.08.2011, which was a closed holiday. The assessee had made payment on next working day - HELD THAT:- As rightly pointed out, the payment for the month of July 2011 made on 16th August cannot be held as belated payment, as the due date of 15th August was a closed holiday. Accordingly, the assessee is allowed relief to the extent of Rs. 96,236/- and the balance addition stands confirmed.
Addition of prior period income of the assessee was reduced twice by an amount - AR submitted that there was no mistake in the computation and the addition was made due to wrong understanding - HELD THAT:- The contention of the assessee is that if the prior period expenses are not admissible as deduction in the current year, following the same principle the prior period income also cannot be considered as income for the current year. Accordingly, the assessee had righty reduced the net prior period income in the computation of income for the current year. We do not find any mistake or arithmetical error in the computation of assessee. There was no double reduction of net prior period income as contended by the AO. Therefore, the addition as made by the AO is deleted.
Disallowance of bad debts claim - AO had disallowed this claim only for the reason that the details of bad debts was not furnished - HELD THAT:- As assessee has now filed fresh evidence in this regard. We, therefore, deem it proper to set aside this matter to the file of the AO with the direction to verify the fresh evidence brought on record in respect of bad debt claim and, thereafter, decide the allowability of the claim in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
Provision for pre-clinical test expense - assessee had claimed provision for pre-clinical test expenditure on the basis of proforma invoice of Rs. 60 Lakhs from Shriram Institute for Industrial Research, as per which 50% of the payment was required to be made before the commencement of pre-clinical test - AR submitted that bills for Rs. 12 lakh were not readily available but the same has now been filed as fresh evidence in the paper book. Considering the fresh evidence filed by the assessee, we deem it proper to set aside the matter to the file of the AO with a direction to verify the fresh evidence and, thereafter, decide the claim of the assessee in accordance with law.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the assessment for the relevant year was liable to be framed under section 153A read with section 143(3), or whether it ought to have been treated as a "regular" assessment under section 143(3).
(ii) Whether a transfer of jurisdiction under section 127(2) could be substantively assailed before the Tribunal on the record placed.
(iii) Whether additions as "unexplained money" under section 69A read with section 115BBE could be sustained where the underlying evidence/cash was found from premises not belonging to the assessee, and whether such additions required recourse to section 153C.
(iv) Whether cash found/seized at the assessee's own premises could be presumed to belong to the assessee under section 292C in the absence of a cogent explanation, justifying addition under section 69A read with section 115BBE.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Nature of assessment: applicability of section 153A
Legal framework (as discussed): The Tribunal examined the assessment having been framed under section 153A read with section 143(3) and whether the relevant year fell within the block of six assessment years covered by section 153A.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered the record indicating that, apart from the search dated 27.02.2020 which was followed by issuance of notice under section 153A, there was also issuance of another warrant of authorization dated 19.11.2020. On this basis, the Tribunal treated the relevant assessment year as covered within the block period contemplated under section 153A.
Conclusion: The Tribunal rejected the assessee's legal objection seeking to treat the assessment as a "regular" assessment under section 143(3) and upheld framing of assessment under section 153A read with section 143(3) on the finding that the year was covered under section 153A.
(ii) Challenge to transfer order under section 127(2)
Legal framework (as discussed): The Tribunal addressed the objection to a jurisdictional transfer order under section 127(2) and whether such a transfer could be made a subject of challenge before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found no material on record to indicate that the transfer order was unsustainable in law. It further held that such transfer of jurisdiction could not form the subject matter of challenge before the Tribunal in the manner raised.
Conclusion: The challenge to the section 127(2) transfer order was rejected.
(iii) Additions under section 69A read with section 115BBE based on evidence/cash from third-party premises; requirement of section 153C
Legal framework (as discussed): The Tribunal evaluated whether additions under section 69A read with section 115BBE could be made in the assessee's case where the evidence/cash was recovered from premises belonging to another entity, and applied the principle that such material requires action through section 153C.
Interpretation and reasoning: On perusal of the record, the Tribunal found that two of the impugned sums (the larger addition and one of the cash sums) were based on evidence collected from official premises belonging to a third party and not from the assessee's possession. The Tribunal applied its earlier decision in the assessee's own case and held that, even if recovered in the same search action, an addition premised on material found from a third party's premises could be made only by taking recourse to section 153C proceedings, not by direct addition in section 153A assessment of the assessee.
Conclusion: The Tribunal deleted the additions that were founded on evidence/cash recovered from premises not belonging to the assessee, solely on the ground that the proper statutory route was section 153C.
(iv) Cash seized from assessee's own premises; presumption under section 292C and addition under section 69A read with section 115BBE
Legal framework (as discussed): The Tribunal invoked section 292C to draw a presumption regarding ownership of cash found/seized, and examined sustainment of addition under section 69A read with section 115BBE.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that a remaining cash amount was found/seized at the assessee's own premises, and that this fact was not effectively disputed. In these circumstances, the Tribunal applied section 292C to presume that the cash belonged to the assessee. As the assessee failed to offer any cogent explanation for the cash, the Tribunal confirmed the treatment as "unexplained money."
Conclusion: The addition relating to cash found at the assessee's own premises was sustained under section 69A read with section 115BBE on the basis of presumption under section 292C and absence of satisfactory explanation.
Assessment u/s 153A r.w.s. 143(3) than a “regular” one u/s 143(3) - HELD THAT:- We find reason to accept the same. This is for the precise reason that apart from the impugned search dated 27.02.2020 carried out on M/s. Raipur Group of cases which followed the AO’s section 153A notice, DR appear to have issued an yet another warrant of authorization on 19.11.2020 which renders the impugned assessment year AY 2020-21 as that covered in the block of six assessment years under 153A of the Act.
Challenging section 127(2) transfer order from ITO-1, Raipur to ACIT, Central Circle-1, Delhi - We are of the considered view that neither there is any material on record either indicating the same to be not sustainable in law no such a transfer of jurisdiction could form subject matter of challenge before the tribunal.
Addition of “unexplained” money u/s 69A r.w.s. 115BBE - This tribunal’s earlier order in assessee’s case itself [2026 (1) TMI 180 - ITAT DELHI] has already settled the issue in light of PCIT Vs. Anand Kumar Jain [2021 (3) TMI 8 - DELHI HIGH COURT] that such an addition based on evidence collected from a third party’s premises (even in the same search), could only be made by taking recourse of section 153C proceedings. We thus delete both these impugned additions for this precise reason alone.
Remaining addition found/seized at the assessee’s premises in Raipur -The assessee could hardly dispute this clinching fact before us during the course of hearing. We thus invoke section 292C of the Act to draw the necessary presumption that the above cash found belongs to the assessee only wherein he has failed to offer any cogent explanation all along. The same stand confirmed therefore.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the delay in filing the departmental appeal was liable to be condoned on the reasons shown and absence of opposition.
(ii) Whether an addition for "undisclosed income" could be sustained when it was based substantially on a statement recorded during survey and a computer printout treated as an incriminating document, where the statement was promptly retracted and no corroborative material was brought on record.
(iii) Whether disallowance under section 40A(3) could be sustained in respect of impounded vouchers/payments, when the appellate authority found (on scrutiny of records) that substantial payments were through account payee cheques and the remaining disallowance was appropriately restricted/deleted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Condonation of delay in filing appeal
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered the explanation offered in the condonation petition for delayed filing and the position of the opposing party.
Interpretation and reasoning: The delay was attributed to time taken in obtaining administrative approvals from competent authorities. The delay was not opposed by the respondent. Considering the stated cause as genuine and bona fide, the Tribunal exercised discretion to condone the delay.
Conclusion: Delay was condoned and the appeal was admitted for hearing.
Issue (ii): Addition based on survey statement and "dumb" computer printout; effect of prompt retraction and lack of corroboration
Legal framework: The Tribunal applied the principle that a statement recorded during survey under section 133A does not, by itself, have evidentiary value sufficient to sustain an addition unless supported by corroborative material. The Tribunal also relied on the administrative instruction that officers should not seek confessional disclosures during search/survey and should base additions on evidence/material gathered.
Interpretation and reasoning: The addition was made solely on the basis of (a) a statement recorded during survey and (b) an impounded computer printout (treated as page 33 of an impounded set) containing dates and amounts without identifying particulars. The assessee retracted the survey statement within a few days by affidavit, asserting it was made under pressure and denying nexus with the printout. The Tribunal noted that, despite the retraction being on record and acknowledged in the assessment order, the assessing authority did not bring any substantive corroborative evidence to prove undisclosed income, did not establish linkage of the printout to the assessee's business through investigation, and did not demonstrate any supporting indicators (such as unaccounted cash, assets, parallel books, or defects in regular books). The Tribunal accepted the appellate finding that the printout was a "dumb document" lacking signatures, names, transaction particulars, and contextual details, and therefore could not, by itself, justify an addition. The Tribunal also found the allegation of massive unaccounted turnover/profit implausible in the absence of any supporting material discovered during survey.
Conclusion: The deletion of the addition for undisclosed income was upheld; the Tribunal affirmed that no addition could be sustained merely on a retracted survey statement and an uncorroborated dumb document.
Issue (iii): Disallowance under section 40A(3) for cash payments reflected in impounded vouchers
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered the applicability of section 40A(3) to payments alleged to have been made in cash in excess of prescribed limits, as examined by the appellate authority on the basis of vouchers, bank payments, and recorded entries.
Interpretation and reasoning: The disallowance was made on the basis of impounded debit vouchers indicating payments allegedly in contravention of section 40A(3). The appellate authority analysed the impounded material along with books and supporting records and recorded findings that a part of the payments was made through account payee cheques, and the disallowance did not survive to the extent deleted. The Tribunal found that the appellate authority's findings were detailed and based on examination of the payment mode and particulars, and it found no infirmity warranting interference.
Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld the appellate order deleting/restricting the disallowance under section 40A(3), and dismissed the departmental challenge on this ground.
Undisclosed income admitted by the assessee during survey u/s 133A - AO accepted the profit on transportation business at 2.9% meaning thereby that if the income after addition is considered the turnover of the assessee would be 152 crores which is approximately 5.5 times higher than the declared turnover - CIT (A) allowed the appeal of the assessee on this issue after taking into account the contention and submission of the assessee and by relying upon the various decisions and also the fact that the statement relied by the ld. AO has been retracted by the assessee immediately within a few days - HELD THAT:- We note that AO has not brought on record any substantive evidences proving the undisclosed income. CIT (A) has recorded a very detailed finding on this issue and relied on series of decision including decision in case of CIT vs. S. Khader Khan Son [2013 (6) TMI 305 - SC ORDER] wherein it has been held that the statement recorded during the course of survey u/s 133A of the Act has no evidentiary value and no addition can be made on the basis of such statement.
We have perused the appellate order carefully. Moreover, the addition made on the basis of statement taken under coercion and duress cannot be the basis for making addition along unless the corroborative material is there.
CBDT has issued a Circular F No. 286/2/2003-IT (Investigation), wherein the ld. CBDT issued instructions revenue officers that during the course of search/survey operations no attempt should be made to obtain confession as to disclose income and the ld. AO should rely upon the evidences/ material gathered during the course of survey and search operations. Decided against revenue.
Addition u/s 40A(3) - AO found that the assessee has made some cash payments in violation of provisions of section 40A(3) - CIT (A) deleted the addition partly - HELD THAT:- We have perused the material on record as well as the appellate order and found that the ld. CIT (A) has recorded a very detailed finding on this issue by analyzing the expenses and recording a finding that some of the expenses were paid by an account payee cheque. Therefore, we do not find any infirmity in the order of ld. CIT (A) - Decided against revenue.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the assessee, being a financial corporation providing long-term finance for eligible infrastructure-related projects, is eligible for deduction under section 36(1)(viii) and whether denial of the entire deduction was sustainable.
(ii) Whether specified receipts-interest on short-term deposits, interest on staff loans, and specified items grouped as business service charges (refund of management fees, lead institution fees, documentation charges/fees-based activity, REEEP remuneration, interest rate swap income, and certain miscellaneous items)-were correctly assessable as business income rather than as income from other sources.
(iii) Whether interest on foreign deposits and miscellaneous income transferred from the UNDP-related grant account (interest component) were correctly treated as business income (and not income from other sources).
(iv) Whether enhancement of disallowance under section 14A in years where the assessee asserted no exempt income, and in absence of recorded satisfaction for disturbing suo motu disallowance, was sustainable.
(v) Whether depreciation on a building (residential flat) could be allowed where the property was not registered in the assessee's name, but was in its exclusive control and used for business, applying the concept of beneficial ownership under section 32.
(vi) Whether expenditure incurred on Hindi development/promotion pursuant to Government of India directions was allowable as business expenditure.
(vii) Whether disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) could be sustained where the allegation was of short deduction of tax at source, as opposed to complete non-deduction.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Eligibility for deduction under section 36(1)(viii)
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court considered section 36(1)(viii) and its Explanations relevant to "eligible business" and "long-term finance", and noted that the earlier proviso requiring specific CBDT approval stood omitted w.e.f. 01.04.2000.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it undisputed that the assessee is a financial corporation engaged in providing long-term finance for projects falling within "development of infrastructure facility" and that its long-term loans satisfy the statutory description. The Court held that post-omission of the approval requirement, the assessee's eligibility could not be denied on the ground of absence of continuing approval; correspondence acknowledging no further requirement supported this. The Court also relied on consistency, noting the assessee's eligibility being accepted in later assessment years as placed on record.
Conclusion: The assessee was held eligible for deduction under section 36(1)(viii); the Revenue's grounds seeking denial of the deduction were rejected.
Issues (ii) & (iii): Characterisation of specified receipts as "business income" vs "income from other sources"
Legal framework (as applied): The Court treated the dispute as one of correct head of income, and addressed section 41(1) where write-back/refund of earlier business expenditure or reversal items were involved. It also clarified that the controversy was not about allowing section 36(1)(viii) on "other income", because the assessee's deduction computation was confined to operational income and not claimed on Schedule L items.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having held the assessee to be engaged in eligible long-term financing business, the Court reasoned that activities integrally connected with fund mobilisation, fund deployment, hedging, ancillary charges, and incidental receipts arising in the ordinary course of financing operations bear a direct nexus with the business. The Court emphasised fund-flow management as an inseparable component of a finance institution's business, and held that income arising from temporary deployment of funds pending disbursement cannot be severed from the financing business.
Conclusions on specific items: (a) Interest on short-term deposits/government securities: Held to be business income, as deposits represented temporary parking of business funds between receipt and disbursement and were integral to financing operations and cost mitigation. (b) Interest on staff loans: Held to be business income, being incidental to employee welfare schemes necessary for business operations and workforce efficiency. (c) Refund of management fees: Held to be business income as a write-back/refund of an earlier business expense, offered under section 41(1), making "income from other sources" treatment unsustainable. (d) Lead institution fee: Held to be business income due to direct nexus with consortium lending and lender role. (e) Documentation charges and REEEP remuneration (fees-based activity): Held to be business income as charges/remuneration earned in the regular course of financing/related implementation activity. (f) Interest rate swap income: Held to be business income as hedging to reduce effective interest cost on foreign lines of credit, treated as operating in nature and consistent with treatment of swap losses/expenses in earlier years. (g) Miscellaneous income items (unspent subsidy transferred to income; bank credit on early repayment differences; stale cheques reversed; miscellaneous receipts): Held to be business income, being linked to business grants/schemes, interest cost adjustments, and reversals arising in business; stale cheque reversals were treated as business income in terms of section 41(1), rendering "other sources" classification untenable.
Foreign deposits interest: Interest earned on foreign currency deposits maintained under arrangements connected with foreign currency loans and hedging foreign exchange fluctuation risk was held business income, since the deposits were not independent investment activity and related interest expenditure was also accepted in business computation.
UNDP-related transfer (interest component): The Court held that the amount represented interest earned on loans advanced to small hydro projects pursuant to the fund arrangement, and was therefore business income. It found that lower authorities misconceived the nature of the receipt by confusing it with capital grants for fixed assets; nonetheless, on the true facts, treatment as business income was upheld and Revenue's challenge failed.
Issue (iv): Disallowance under section 14A
Legal framework (as applied): The Court applied the settled requirement that the Assessing Officer must record satisfaction to disturb an assessee's suo motu disallowance, and further considered the position that where there is no exempt income, no disallowance is required.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Assessing Officer enhanced disallowance by adopting a higher percentage of average investments without recording satisfaction as to why the assessee's suo motu disallowance was incorrect, and without discussing the financials in that context. It also accepted that in absence of exempt income, disallowance was not warranted.
Conclusion: The disallowance enhancement under section 14A was held unsustainable; the assessee's grounds were allowed.
Issue (v): Depreciation on building not registered in assessee's name
Legal framework (as applied): The Court applied the principle that depreciation eligibility under section 32 depends on beneficial ownership and use for business, rather than mere registered title.
Interpretation and reasoning: It was undisputed that the property was under the assessee's exclusive dominion and control and used for business purposes, though registration had not occurred despite efforts. The Court also noted consistent allowance of depreciation in later years after enquiry.
Conclusion: Depreciation was rightly allowed; the Revenue's challenge was rejected.
Issue (vi): Allowability of Hindi development expenditure
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that, being a public sector enterprise, the assessee was bound to comply with Government of India's annual programme and directions for conducting official work in Hindi, necessitating training and promotional activities. Non-compliance could have adverse repercussions affecting reputation and business functioning; hence the expenditure was business-related.
Conclusion: Deletion of disallowance was upheld; the Revenue's grounds were rejected.
Issue (vii): Disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for short deduction of TDS
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court upheld the finding that section 40(a)(ia) disallowance is attracted in cases of non-deduction and not merely short deduction, and noted absence of any contrary legal proposition by the Revenue.
Conclusion: Deletion of disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) was upheld; the Revenue's ground was rejected.
Deduction u/s 36(1)(viii) being 20% of the profits from long-term financing business - scope of ‘eligible business’ u/s 36(1) - HELD THAT:- Assessee is a financial corporation and providing long term finance for financial projects in new and renewable sources of energy and the same certainly falls in category of ‘development of infrastructure facility’ which is ‘eligible business’ u/s 36(1) Explanation (b). Revenue does not dispute that assessee is giving long term loans and advances as per the definition of long term finances provided in Explanation (h) to Section 36(1) of the Act.
As up to year 1999 to 2000 proviso to Section 36(1)(viii) of the Act mandated requirement of a specific approval from CBDT for claiming deduction u/s 36(1)(viii) of the Act and the same was omitted vide Finance Act, 1999 w.e.f 01.04.2000. Then CBDT had admittedly granted approval for AY: 1988-89 to 1994 -1995 onwards till 1999-2000. Subsequently, CBDT informed assessee vide letter dated 17.06.1998, that there is no further requirement of approval. This alone justifies the claim of assessee for eligibility for claiming deduction u/s 36(1)(viii) of the Act.
As a matter of fact in AY: 2020-21 to 2023-24 assessee is found eligible to claim deduction u/s 36(1)(viii) of the Act and the copy of assessment orders in that regard have been placed before us in the form of paper book. Thus, on principle of consistency also this issue deserves to be sustained in favour of the assessee.
Even otherwise too the copy of memorandum and Article of Association of the assessee company provided to us show that assessee was established exclusively to promote new and renewable and non conventional sources of energy and various financial activities, incidental and supplemental for providing financial support fall in the scope of memorandum and Article of Association.
DR has relied these only to counter the nature of income characterized as income from other sources instead of business income but the fact remains that the primary object of the assessee company is to work as a financial corporation engaged in providing long term finance for industrial or agricultural development or development of infrastructure facility in the form of financial projects in new and renewable sources of energy.
Recharacterization of incomes as ‘income from other sources’ against ‘business income’ claimed by the assessee - principle of "derived from" - Interest on short term deposits, Interest on staff loans and Incomes under the head business service charges - HELD THAT:- Interest income arising consequent to activity of management and deployment of business funds of the assessee is nothing but inextricably linked to and is integral part and parcel finance and investment business and hence assessable as 'business income'.
Interest on staff loans - Interest received on such loans/advances given to the employees is thus inextricably linked to and is part and parcel of business operations of the assessee and is thus, assessable in its entirety as 'business income' and not as 'income from other sources’. In this regard, emphatic reliance was placed on the decision of Paschim Gujarat Vij Company Ltd. [2025 (6) TMI 239 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] wherein interest on staff loans earned by an electricity company was held to be 'business income'. Further reliance as placed on the decision of Maruti Udyog Limited [2004 (10) TMI 278 - ITAT DELHI-A] also held assessee wherein it has been held that interest on loan/advances to employees is assessable as ‘business income’.
Interest on staff loans - Such advances/loans are given as part of employees' welfare scheme which is critical and necessary not only for retaining good personnel/ staff but also for better efficiency and performance. Such loans, are provided in the course of day to day running and operations of the business of the assessee, which cannot prosper and grow without the support of the employees/ personnel employed in the organization. Interest received on such loans/advances given to the employees is thus inextricably linked to and is part and parcel of business operations of the assessee and is thus, assessable in its entirety as 'business income' and not as 'income from other sources’.
Emphatic reliance was placed on the decision of Paschim GujaratVij Company Ltd. [2025 (6) TMI 239 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] wherein interest on staff loans earned by an electricity company was held to be 'business income'. Further reliance as placed on the decision of Maruti Udyog Limited [2004 (10) TMI 278 - ITAT DELHI-A] also held assessee wherein it has been held that interest on loan/advances to employees is assessable as ‘business income’.
Refund of management fee - AO proceeded to recharacterize the aforesaid amount refunded as 'income from other sources', without appreciating that the same merely represented write back of expense which was earlier claimed and allowed as business deduction. CIT(A) confirmed the aforesaid variation made by the assessing officer on the premise that the assessee was unable to provide any explanation in respect of the said amount. In view of the above, as the refund of management fee was mere write back of expense which was earlier claimed and allowed as business deduction was rightly offered to tax as business income in terms of section 41(1) of the Act and the action of the assessing officer calls for being reversed.
Head of lead institution fee - AO proceeded to recharacterize the aforesaid amount refunded as income from other sources' and further, the CIT(A) confirmed the aforesaid variation made by the assessing officer on the premise that the assessee was unable to provide any explanation in respect of the said amount. As explained above the lead institution fee undisputedly has direct nexus with the financing/lending activity of the assessee being earned as part of consortium financial action and directly related to the lending/financing activity undertaken by the assessee.
Head of fee based activity - assessee inter-alia received income from fees based activity which comprised of two components viz., i) Documentation charges and Share from Renewable Energy & Energy Efficiency Partnership ('REEEP') - Ministry of New & Renewable Energy engaged M/s. ABPS Infrastructure Advisory Pvt. Ltd. (ABPS Infra) for development of conceptual framework for REC mechanism in India. The conceptual framework for ABPS Infra has been acknowledged by MNRE and Forum of Regulators for further implementation. Therefore, the primary purpose of the proposal was to develop Mechanism for Implementation of REC in India'. Subsequently, the assessee, in partnership with ABPS Infra implemented the above project titled "Roadmap for implementation of REC mechanism in India". In this regard, copy of letter dated 04.02.2013 was filed by the assessee before the assessing officer giving detailed explanation on amount received and expended on account of REEEP which is filed @ pages 114 to 117 of the Paper Book (Refer pages 115 to 116).The aforesaid amount of Rs. 16,47,826 being thus received by the assessee in the regular course of its financing business, was rightly offered to tax as business income, and ld. Tax authorities failed to appreciate its true nature.
Interest rate swap income - As we find that in the relevant assessment year, the assessee had inter-alia entered into an Interest Rate Swap (IRS) agreement with Standard Chartered Bank for KfW line of credit, denominated in Euros, for hedging purposes on account of which interest was earned. The same pertains to currency and interest rate swap availed by the assessee with a view to reduce the burden of high interest rate on the foreign denominated line of credit. The appellant contracted with Standard Chartered Bank whereby the assessee swapped fixed-rate payments for floating-rate payments and at the time of settlement of this contract, net gain accrued to the assessee, which reduced the effective interest cost incurred by the assessee on account of high interest rates prevailing in the domestic market vis-à-vis international market. The currency and interest rate swap was availed by the assessee to merely reduce the interest cost on loans, which is an operating business expense. Accordingly, the gain settlement of such contracts is operating in nature and was rightly offered to tax as business income.
Unspent subsidy transferred to income - When the scheme/mission so operated by MNRE comes to an end, the unspent amount of grant/subsidy becomes available to the assessee unconditionally. Accordingly, such unspent amount is recognized as business income by the assessee and is duly offered to tax as business income. Since this surplus is arising out of primary purpose of encouraging Renewable Energy the aforesaid amounts finds direct nexus with the lending/financing activities undertaken by the assessee, the same was rightly offered to tax as business income. We also find substance in contention that even otherwise, the aforesaid amounts being in the nature of capital grants were in any case in the nature of capital receipt, not liable to tax under the provisions of the Act and could not have been assessed to tax under the head 'income from other sources'.
Interest saving on early repayment of loan has arisen out of differences that surface in the closing balance of the loan accounts as per the assessee and as per the lender banks at the closure of financial year. Such differences occur on account of various reasons such as difference in charge of interest on the outstanding loan amount etc. We find that by offering such differential amount as income, the assessee in essence only reduces its claim of interest expenditure as accounted for in its books of account and in reality, no actual income arises to the assessee.
Stale cheques reversed has been offered as part of Miscellaneous Income-Others which remained to be presented for payment. The said cheques having been issued in the regular course of business, was offered to tax as business income in terms of section 41(1) of the Act on reversal of the same. Revenue cannot dispute that write back of income is contemplated and allowed only under section 41(1) of the Act for the purpose of determination of 'business income' under Chapter IV of the Act so its characterization as 'income from other sources' is unsustainable income.
We are inclined to conclude that tax authorities have failed to understand the actual source of aforesaid incomes which was nothing but the diversified supplemental and incidental activities that were bound to taken up for attaining the fundamental institutional objective for which assessee came into existence and erroneously changed the nature of these incomes from ‘business income’ to ‘income from other sources.” Corresponding grounds in appeals of assessee are sustained.
Miscellaneous Income was rightly offered to tax as business income by the assessee.
Disallowance u/s 14A - Mandation of recording satisfaction - On going through the impugned assessment order apparently there is no satisfaction recorded by the AO as to how the disallowance made by the assessee on suo moto was incorrect and non of the financials of the assessee have been discussed in that regard while law as stand settled require recording of satisfaction by the Assessing officer to disturb the suo moto disallowance for which relevance can be placed on the decision of Coforge Limited [2021 (7) TMI 346 - DELHI HIGH COURT] Even otherwise when there was no exempt income no disallowance was required. Thus, the issue in corresponding grounds in AY: 2017-18 & 2018-19 raised by the assessee deserves to be sustained.
Disallowance of depreciation of building - said building was in exclusive dominion and control of the assessee and was used for the purposes of business - HELD THAT:- Assessee claims that to get the said property registered in its own name, all earnest efforts were and are being made by the assessee, even till now, however, the said residential flat is still not registered in the name of the assessee. In fact, the statutory auditor of the assessee, in its report for the financial year 2024-25, has duly mentioned that the assessee is making due efforts to get the said residential flat registered in its name. The decisive factor for determining whether a person is eligible for claiming depreciation u/s 32 of the Act shall be 'beneficial ownership' contrary to 'registered ownership'. and it is pertinent to note that the assessee has always been allowed depreciation in respect of the said building in subsequent AYs as well, viz., AYs 2020-21 & 2021-22. In fact in subsequent AYs 2020-21 and 2021-22, the assessing officer allowed the claim of depreciation after raising specific queries on the said issue. So the ground has no substance.
Expenses for development and promotion of Hindi language among its employees disallowed alleging the same was not related to assessee’s business - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- We find that assessee is a public sector enterprise and is bound to follow Government of India annual program for promoting Hindi language in official work. The directions of the Government of India for transacting the official work in Hindi language requires organizing events promoting uses of language and imparting training to employees. Compliance of directions of the Government of India certainly if result in any expenditure the same relate to the assessee’s business as otherwise defiance can lead to repercussion effecting the reputation and profitability too. The order of ld. CIT(A) requires no interference.
Short deduction of TDS u/s 194C OR 194I - Addition u/s 40(a)(ia) - Disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia) is only attracted in case of non deduction and not where there is alleged short deduction of tax at source.
Issues: (i) Whether the DRP order suffered from violation of the principles of natural justice and whether the assessee could rely on the rule of consistency and judicial discipline to dispute re-characterisation of receipts; (ii) Whether receipts from sale of software licences were taxable as royalty and whether maintenance support, education and training services were taxable as fees for technical services.
Issue (i): Whether the DRP order suffered from violation of the principles of natural justice and whether the assessee could rely on the rule of consistency and judicial discipline to dispute re-characterisation of receipts.
Analysis: The assessee had been afforded adequate opportunity and had also availed of it. The objections based on natural justice were treated as general and academic. The Tribunal further held that there is no res judicata in income-tax proceedings and each assessment year is a separate unit, so past treatment in earlier years does not preclude a different view for the year under appeal.
Conclusion: The challenge on natural justice and consistency failed and was decided against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether receipts from sale of software licences were taxable as royalty and whether maintenance support, education and training services were taxable as fees for technical services.
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted that the software-related support, maintenance, education and training services were intrinsically and inextricably connected with the software licences and were rendered in connection with their utilisation. Relying on the coordinate Bench decisions in the assessee's own case and the settled position that, where software receipts are not taxable as royalty, closely linked related services cannot be independently characterised as fees for technical services, the Tribunal also found that the Revenue had not shown satisfaction of the make available condition under the treaty. The receipts from these related services therefore could not be taxed as FTS, and the software licence receipts were not sustained as royalty on the reasoning adopted for the linked transactions.
Conclusion: The addition on the related service receipts was deleted and the assessee succeeded on the substantive royalty and FTS issue.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only in part, with the Tribunal upholding the rejection of the procedural objections but granting relief on the substantive taxability of the software-related receipts.
Ratio Decidendi: Where software receipts are not taxable as royalty, services that are intrinsically linked to the utilisation of that software cannot be taxed as fees for technical services in the absence of proof that the treaty's make available condition is satisfied.
Income deemed to accrue or arise in India - Sale of software and royalty - Scope of 'make available' clause - assessee has claimed that as per provisions of India-Singapore DTAA assessee's income from sale of software license is not taxable in India because it does not fall within the meaning of Royalty - HELD THAT:- As relying on TSYS Card Tech Ltd [2023 (4) TMI 1088 - ITAT DELHI] and in Assessee’s own case [2025 (9) TMI 91 - ITAT DELHI] given by the Coordinate Bench of ITAT, Delhi, we hold that the Maintenance support and other services; Education and training services are not taxable as FTS.
We also agree with the submission of the assessee that the said transactions do not satisfy the 'make available' clause as per Article 12(4)(b) of the India-Singapore DTAA. Burden is on the Revenue to demonstrate that make available condition is satisfied whereas neither the AO nor DR could bring any evidence on record to substantiate that 'make available' condition is satisfied in the case of the assessee for this assessment year. We accordingly direct the AO to delete the said addition. Therefore, ground of assessee allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether penalty under Section 271AAB(1A)(b) can be sustained where the alleged amount is based only on an admission during search, but no incriminating material is unearthed and the amount is not reflected in the return of income or balance sheet for the relevant year.
2) Whether, on the facts found, the amount admitted during the search qualifies as "undisclosed income" for the purpose of Section 271AAB(1A)(b), so as to satisfy the statutory precondition for levy of penalty.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of penalty under Section 271AAB(1A)(b) in absence of incriminating material, relying primarily on a search statement later deviated/retracted
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 271AAB(1A)(b) as a search-related penalty provision, and proceeded on the basis that the provision requires unearthing of "undisclosed income" in the course of, or as a result of, a search under Section 132 as a sine qua non for invoking the penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found, as a matter of fact, that no incriminating material was unearthed during the search. It also found that the additional income stated to have been offered during the search was not reflected in the return of income filed for the relevant year, which was based only on regular income from business operations, and that no such additional income was found in the balance sheet. The penalty order was seen as resting mainly on the assessee's deviation from the disclosure made in the statement under Section 132(4), rather than on any direct material found during search establishing receipt of income not declared in the return.
Conclusion: Mere admission under Section 132(4), subsequently retracted/deviated from, without any direct incriminating material found during search establishing undisclosed income, was held insufficient to sustain penalty under Section 271AAB(1A)(b). The deletion of penalty was upheld.
Issue 2: Whether the admitted amount constituted "undisclosed income" on the facts necessary for Section 271AAB(1A)(b)
Legal framework: The Court noted that penalty under Section 271AAB(1A)(b) is leviable on "undisclosed income" and referred to the definition of "undisclosed income" contained in the Explanation to Section 271AAB, as already considered by the first appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the factual findings, the Court recorded that there was no income represented by money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing, and no false entry in the books of account, nor any entry relating to an expense, as forming the basis of undisclosed income. It further found no material suggesting that any income received by the assessee had not been declared in its return. In these circumstances, the statutory condition that "undisclosed income" must be unearthed during search was not met, and the amount admitted in the search statement was not treated as meeting the necessary character of "undisclosed income" for penalty purposes.
Conclusion: Since the search did not yield material establishing "undisclosed income" as required, the penalty on the admitted amount under Section 271AAB(1A)(b) was held not supported by law and therefore unsustainable; the Revenue's challenge failed.
Penalty u/s 271AAB - additional income offered during the course of search -CIT(A) deleted penalty levy - HELD THAT:- It is found that no incriminating material was unearthed during the course of search and the statement recorded during the course of search of Shri Mool Chand Agarwal of offering additional income, has not been reflected in the return of income filed for A.Y. 2018-19 rather the same was on the basis of regular income through regular business operation.
As no such additional income has been found in the balance sheet and as such the assessee company deviated the line of disclosure as found during under Section 132(4) of the Act on 21.11.2017 the AO imposed penalty u/s 271AAB(1A)(b) of the Act.
We have further considered the provisions of law which specifically imposes the condition of unearthing of undisclosed income in the course of search or as the result of search conducted u/s 132 as sine qua non for invoking the penalty provision under Section 271AAB(1A)(b) of the Act in the absence of which merely on the basis of the admission made by the assessee u/s 132(4) which was subsequently retracted and particularly in the absence of any direct material during the search which leads and establishes the fact of receiving any income by the assessee and further that which has not been declared by the assessee the imposition of penalty under Section 271AAB(1A)(b) is found to have not being supported by any provision of law and, therefore, not sustainable in the eyes of law and thus, rightly deleted by CIT(Appeals) which does not warrant any interference. Decided against revenue.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether deduction under Section 80P can be denied where the return of income is filed beyond the due date prescribed under Section 139(1), in view of Section 80AC(ii).
(ii) Whether, for the relevant assessment year, the Central Processing Centre could lawfully make an adjustment in processing under Section 143(1)(a)(ii) treating such belated claim of Section 80P deduction as an "incorrect claim", and consequently reject rectification under Section 154.
(iii) Whether the Tribunal was bound to follow the view taken by a High Court on the same issue in the absence of any contrary High Court decision, notwithstanding contrary views of coordinate benches.
(iv) What consequential relief/direction, if any, should be given regarding the statutory mechanism for condonation of delay for claiming Section 80P deduction.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Effect of belated return on eligibility for Section 80P deduction
Legal framework: The Court considered Section 80P (deduction for eligible co-operative societies), Section 139(1) (due date for filing return), and Section 80AC(ii) (timely filing condition for Chapter VI-A deductions under Part C).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it undisputed on facts that the returns were filed after the due date under Section 139(1). It accepted that Section 80AC(ii), effective from 01.04.2018, mandates that deductions under Part C of Chapter VI-A (including Section 80P) are admissible only if the return is furnished within the prescribed due date.
Conclusion: A belated return renders the claim of deduction under Section 80P inadmissible, unless the delay is condoned through the permissible statutory route.
Issue (ii): Validity of CPC adjustment under Section 143(1)(a)(ii) and rejection of rectification under Section 154
Legal framework: The Court examined the scope of adjustments under Section 143(1)(a), particularly clause (ii) ("incorrect claim ... apparent from any information in the return"), and noted the existence of clause (v) introduced/expanded with effect from 01.04.2021 to specifically cover certain belated-return deduction disallowances during processing. The Court also considered whether rectification under Section 154 could be allowed when the original adjustment was legally sustainable.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the Court articulated an interpretive view that, prior to 01.04.2021, denial of a Chapter VI-A deduction solely because of belated filing may not automatically fit within the narrow "incorrect claim" categories, it held that a High Court decision had already upheld denial of Section 80P in belated returns through processing under Section 143(1)(a)(ii), treating the belated filing date as apparent from the return and the adjustment as a mechanical exercise within the processing scope. Applying that binding view, the Court held there was no infirmity in denying Section 80P through Section 143(1)(a)(ii) at the processing stage for the year under consideration, and consequently no rectifiable "mistake" warranting relief under Section 154.
Conclusion: The disallowance of Section 80P by CPC through adjustment under Section 143(1)(a)(ii) for a belated return was upheld as valid on the facts; the rejection of rectification under Section 154 was therefore sustained.
Issue (iii): Binding effect of a High Court decision vis-à-vis contrary coordinate bench decisions
Legal framework: The Court applied principles of judicial discipline regarding precedential hierarchy.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that where a High Court has decided the identical issue, the Tribunal must follow that view in the absence of any contrary decision of another High Court. It further held that declining to follow such a binding precedent would violate judicial discipline, even if coordinate benches had taken a different approach.
Conclusion: The Court followed the High Court view and declined to apply contrary coordinate bench decisions; the appeals were dismissed accordingly.
Issue (iv): Consequential direction regarding condonation mechanism for delayed returns claiming Section 80P
Legal framework: The Court considered Section 119(2)(b) as the statutory mechanism enabling condonation of delay, and noted that if condonation is granted, the belated return is treated as filed within the due date for the purpose of eligibility to claim Section 80P.
Interpretation and reasoning: While upholding the processing-stage disallowance, the Court recognized that eligible taxpayers may seek condonation of delay before the prescribed authority, particularly in view of practical difficulties such as audit delays. The Court therefore advised use of the condonation route and issued a time-bound facilitative direction to allow filing of such applications.
Conclusion: Though no deduction was granted in these appeals, the Court directed that time of 30 days be afforded for making condonation applications under Section 119(2)(b), and indicated that such applications should be considered in the spirit of the enabling mechanism.
Intimation u/s 143(1)(a)(ii) - disallow a deduction claimed u/s 80P by a co-operative society, when the return of income is filed beyond the due date prescribed u/s 139(1) - scope of specific clause, Section 143(1)(a)(v), which was amended with effect from April 1, 2021, to address such disallowances exists, but can be denied by CPC holding it to be an incorrect claim u/s 143(1)(a)(ii) of the act for assessment year 2019-20
HELD THAT:- Coordinate benches decision cited before us have held that such disallowances could not be made under the general Section 143(1)(a)(ii) either, as the definition of 'incorrect claim' in its Explanation did not cover belated filing.
The Madras High Court's decision for AY 2018-19, which upheld such a disallowance u/s 143(1)(a)(ii), has been distinguished by tribunals on the grounds that the specific legal argument regarding the effective date of Section 143(1)(a)(v) was not fully considered. Therefore, the decisions of coordinate benches also bind me.
However as honourable Madras high court has considered the whole section, reproducing it, being binding precedents of higher judicial forum, in absence of any contrary decision of other honourable high courts, accordingly, respectfully following the decision of Honourable Madras High court [2021 (4) TMI 1169 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] find no infirmity in the intimation passed by the CPC by denying deduction u/s 80P to the assessee for Ay 2018-19 where the assessee did not file the ROI within due date u/s 139(1) of the Act.
Appeal of the assessee is dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the scrutiny notice issued under section 143(2) by an Income Tax Officer lacking pecuniary jurisdiction under CBDT Instruction No. 1/2011 rendered the notice invalid.
(ii) Whether an assessment framed under section 143(3) pursuant to such invalid/non-jurisdictional notice could be sustained, or was liable to be quashed as invalid.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of notice under section 143(2) issued by an officer lacking pecuniary jurisdiction
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal considered CBDT Instruction No. 1/2011 (dated 31.01.2011) prescribing pecuniary limits for assigning cases between ITOs and ACs/DCs, including that for non-corporate returns in metro cities the ITO's jurisdiction is "upto Rs. 20 lacs" and above that lies with AC/DC. The Tribunal treated this instruction as governing the jurisdictional competence relevant to issuance of the section 143(2) notice in the facts before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the returned income was Rs. 20,45,560, i.e., above Rs. 20 lacs, and the assessee was assessed in Kolkata (a "metro city" under the Instruction). On these facts, it held that the section 143(2) notice dated 24.09.2018 issued by an ITO was in violation of the pecuniary jurisdiction laid down by CBDT Instruction No. 1/2011 and was therefore issued by a non-jurisdictional Assessing Officer.
Conclusion: The section 143(2) notice issued by the ITO was held to be invalid for want of jurisdiction in view of the applicable CBDT Instruction and the returned income exceeding the prescribed limit.
Issue (ii): Effect of invalid/non-jurisdictional notice on the validity of the assessment under section 143(3)
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that a valid scrutiny assessment under section 143(3) requires a valid, jurisdictionally competent notice under section 143(2), and treated the absence of such valid notice as fatal to the assessment's sustainability.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having concluded that the section 143(2) notice was issued by a non-jurisdictional officer, the Tribunal held that the assessment framed under section 143(3) was "dehors" the mandatory notice and could not be sustained. The Tribunal relied on decisions it considered supportive on the point that a scrutiny notice issued without valid jurisdiction vitiates the consequent assessment, and applied that approach to the present facts.
Conclusion: The assessment framed under section 143(3) was held invalid and was quashed; the appeal was allowed on this jurisdictional ground.
Scrutiny assessment - peculiar jurisdiction of ITO Ward 30(2), Kolkata - return of income of the assessee is above 20 lacs - return was processed u/s 143(1) of the Act by CPC, Bangalore - pecuniary jurisdiction of the CBDT instruction No.1/2011 (F. No. 187/12/2010-IT(A-1), Dated 31.01.2011 for Metro cities and Mofussil areas.
HELD THAT:- Notice u/s 143(2) of the Act dated 24.09.2018, was issued by the ITO, Ward 29(3), Kolkata, which is in violation of pecuniary jurisdiction of the CBDT instruction No.1/2011 (F. No. 187/12/2010-IT(A-1), Dated 31.01.2011. According to the said instruction, the ITO has pecuniary jurisdiction where the income is upto 20 lacs in the Metro Cities and 15 lacs in Mofussil areas whereas the DC/AC have jurisdiction above 20 lacs in Metro cities and above 15 lacs in the Mofussil areas.
In the present case, the assessee filed the return of income u/s 139(1) of the Act on 22.10.2017, disclosing total income of ₹ 20,45,560/-. We note that notice u/s 143(2) was issued on 24.09.2018 by ITO ward 29(3), Kolkata which is in violation of the CBDT Instruction No.1/2011 (F. No. 187/12/2010-IT(A-1), Dated 31.01.2011. Therefore, the said notice has been issued by non-jurisdictional AO while the assessment was framed u/s 143(3) of the Act dehors the mandatory notice u/s 142 of the Act by ITO Ward 30(2) Kolkata which is invalid and cannot be sustained. See M/s Shree Shoppers Ltd [2023 (3) TMI 1432 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] Assessee appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether unsecured loan credits could be treated as unexplained cash credits under section 68 where the assessee produced documentary evidence for identity, creditworthiness and genuineness, and also established repayment of the loans in subsequent years.
(ii) Whether the disallowance/addition of interest paid on such unsecured loans could survive once the underlying loan additions under section 68 were deleted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Addition of unsecured loans as unexplained cash credits under section 68
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis that section 68 requires examination of the creditor's identity, the creditor's creditworthiness, and the genuineness of the transaction. The Court also applied the principle (as noted from binding precedent referred to in the order) that where the assessee has furnished requisite evidence and repayment of the loan is established, section 68 should not be invoked on the same credits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the assessee had raised unsecured loans aggregating to the disputed amount and, when called upon, furnished evidence including confirmations, bank statements, and audited financial statements of the creditors. The Court found that the assessing authority treated the loans as accommodation entries and made the addition without pointing out any defect or deficiency in the evidence furnished. The appellate authority had recorded a factual finding that the loans were repaid in subsequent financial years, and the Court held that once such repayment is established through cogent evidence, the credit entries cannot be isolated to sustain an addition under section 68.
Conclusion: The deletion of the addition under section 68 was upheld because the assessee produced documentary evidence supporting the loan transactions and also proved subsequent repayment; therefore, the conditions for sustaining the addition were not met.
Issue (ii): Addition of interest on the unsecured loans
Interpretation and reasoning: The interest addition was made solely in relation to the unsecured loans treated as unexplained cash credits. Since the Court upheld deletion of the principal addition under section 68 on the finding that the loans were supported by evidence and repaid, the basis for adding the related interest also did not survive.
Conclusion: The deletion of the interest addition was sustained as consequential to the decision that the unsecured loans were not liable to be treated as unexplained cash credits under section 68.
Unexplained cash credit u/s 68 - unsecured loans and interest thereon - AO noted that the lender company has no creditworthiness to advance such loans as they have very meagre turnover and no credentials - AO concluded that the assessee has failed to establish the identity, creditworthiness of the lenders and genuineness of the transactions and added u/s 68 - HELD THAT:- Assessee furnished the details qua the loan creditors comprising names, addresses, audited balance sheets, confirmations and bank statements etc. However, the ld. AO treated these loans as accommodation entries and added the same u/s 68 of the Act as unexplained cash credit without pointing out any defect or deficiencies in the evidences furnished by the assessee.
In our opinion, once the assessee has established that loans were repaid in the subsequent assessment years with cogent evidences then the addition u/s 68 of the Act cannot be made.
Thus, where the assessee has filed all the evidences qua the loan creditors before the ld. AO and loans are also repaid then the same cannot be added us/ 68 of the Act. Similarly, the case of assessee is squarely covered by the decision of Ambe Tradecorp (P.) Ltd. [2022 (7) TMI 902 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] Appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the prior binding declaration that customs duty could not be levied on electrical energy cleared from a Special Economic Zone to the Domestic Tariff Area was limited to a particular notification/period or applied in principle to subsequent periods on the same statutory footing.
2. Whether, during the later period under consideration, any material change in law or relevant facts justified a different outcome from the prior declaration, despite later notifications prescribing different (specific) rates.
3. Whether relief (including refund) could be denied solely because later notifications were not separately and specifically challenged, when the petition sought enforcement of an earlier declaration that the levy lacked authority of law.
4. Whether a co-ordinate Bench could refuse to apply the earlier binding decision by confining it to an earlier notification/period, without referring the matter to a larger Bench.
5. What consequential directions were required once the levy was held to be without authority of law (refund, restraint on further demands, and conditions such as interest and timeline).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Scope and effect of the earlier declaration striking down the levy
Legal framework: The Court examined the charging basis under Section 12 of the Customs Act, the parity/deeming clause in Section 30 of the Special Economic Zones Act, and the limits of delegated power under Section 25 of the Customs Act, along with constitutional constraints under Articles 14 and 265, as applied in the earlier decision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the earlier decision was not a notification-specific or time-bound indulgence. It rested on four foundational determinations: absence of a lawful taxable event for "import into India" in such SEZ-to-DTA electricity clearances; impermissible use of an "exemption" notification to create a levy; impermissibility of retrospectively fastening the levy through delegated action; and arbitrariness/double burden given the existing mechanism for neutralising duty benefits on inputs. These determinations formed the ratio decidendi and, absent change in the statutory setting, governed later periods as well.
Conclusion: The earlier declaration was a principle-based exposition that, on the then-existing framework, customs duty could not be levied on electrical energy transmitted from an SEZ to the DTA; it therefore applied to subsequent periods standing on the same legal footing.
Issue 2: Whether later notifications/rates and the later period rested on a materially changed legal or factual basis
Legal framework: The Court applied the requirements of a valid fiscal levy: a clear charging provision, an identifiable taxable event, and statutory rate-making authority; and it construed Section 30 of the SEZ Act as a parity clause rather than an expansion of the customs charging event. It also considered Rule 47(3) of the SEZ Rules as already providing for neutralisation of duty benefits on inputs when power is supplied to the DTA.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found no material change in law or relevant facts during the later period: Section 30 remained unchanged; imported electrical energy continued at a nil customs duty rate; and constitutional parameters remained constant. Later notifications merely altered the form/rate (from ad valorem to per-unit) and operated prospectively, but did not cure the basic defect-absence of authority to levy customs duty on such clearances. The "recoupment of duty-free input benefits" rationale was rejected because Rule 47(3) already neutralised input duty benefits; imposing a further duty on the electricity output amounted to double counting and unfairness. The Court reaffirmed that Section 25 is a power to exempt from duty otherwise leviable, not a power to create a levy; therefore, changing the rate/structure did not validate an unauthorised tax.
Conclusion: No statutory or factual change justified departure; the later-period levy under subsequent notifications remained without sanction in law.
Issue 3: Necessity of separately challenging later notifications to obtain relief/refund
Legal framework: The Court relied on the remedial nature of constitutional jurisdiction and administrative law principles that when the foundation of a levy is declared ultra vires, derivative continuations of the same levy cannot be sustained absent a materially new statutory basis.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court characterised the later petition as a sequel seeking enforcement of the earlier binding declaration and restitution of amounts paid under protest. It rejected the contention that the absence of a fresh, specific challenge to each later notification barred relief, holding that constitutional adjudication must look to substance over form; otherwise, the State could perpetuate an invalid levy by reissuing it through successive notifications and force repetitive litigation. Since the commodity, movement (SEZ to DTA), asserted source of power, and foundational defect remained the same, the notifications did not create a new cause requiring fresh adjudication of the same illegality.
Conclusion: Relief and refund could be granted without requiring separate challenges to each later notification continuing the same unauthorised levy.
Issue 4: Binding effect of the earlier decision on a co-ordinate Bench
Legal framework: The Court applied the doctrine of judicial discipline and stare decisis: a co-ordinate Bench is bound by an earlier co-ordinate Bench decision on the same question of law and, if doubting correctness/applicability, must refer the matter to a larger Bench rather than narrowing or bypassing it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the later Bench impermissibly confined the earlier ruling to an earlier notification/period to deny relief, without undertaking a permissible course of referral. Given finality of the earlier declaration and absence of change in the governing legal framework, the co-ordinate Bench was duty-bound to apply the earlier ratio.
Conclusion: The refusal to apply the earlier binding declaration and the artificial narrowing of its effect was contrary to judicial discipline; the later decision was vitiated.
Issue 5: Consequential directions on refund and restraint once levy held unauthorised
Legal framework: The Court applied the principle that amounts collected under a levy held without authority of law cannot be retained, and restitution follows from the finding of illegality.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having declared the levy without authority of law for the relevant period, the Court directed refund after verification, set a strict timeline for completion by the competent customs authority, required cooperation in furnishing particulars, and prohibited "hyper-technical objections" defeating the substance of relief. The Court expressly denied interest on the refund and restrained enforcement of any further demand for the covered period, while clarifying it expressed no opinion on any future legislative regime.
Conclusion: Refund of amounts deposited under protest for the specified period was ordered without interest, to be completed within eight weeks after verification; no further demand for that period could be enforced.
Limits of delegated legislation in matters of taxation - discipline of judicial precedent and the obligation of co-ordinate Benches to adhere to settled law - obligation of the State to give effect to judicial declarations instead of reasserting.
What, in law, did the Gujarat High Court decide in its judgment dated 15 July 2015, and what is the true scope of that decision? - HELD THAT:- On the constitutional and statutory basis, the High Court held that the levy was ultra vires because there was, in substance, no “import into India” that could trigger the charge under Section 12 of the Customs Act. This went to the very root of the matter. The Court was not deciding a mere technical irregularity. It held that the alleged taxable event did not exist in law. The absence of a taxable event is a jurisdictional defect - On retrospectivity, the High Court found that fastening a 16% ad valorem duty with effect from 26 June 2009 through delegated action offended Article 265 of the Constitution, which requires authority of law for every tax levy and collection.
The judgment of the Gujarat High Court dated 15 July 2015 was not a limited adjudication confined to the validity of one notification or to a closed span of time. It was a declaration of law founded on constitutional and statutory interpretation, determining that on the then-existing legal framework no customs duty could be levied on electrical energy transmitted from an SEZ to the DTA - The reasoning of said decision went to the very root of the taxing power i.e., it identified the absence of a charging event, the misuse of the exemption power, and the inherent arbitrariness of the scheme. Once such a declaration of law was rendered and affirmed by this Court, it acquired binding normative force and governed all transactions resting on the same legal footing. The essence of that pronouncement was not temporal but structural; it struck at the authority to levy, not merely at the rate or the period.
Whether, in the period subsequent to 15 September 2010 and prior to 16 February 2016, there was any material changes in the statutory position or factual footing that would justify a different result from that arrived at in 2015 judgment? - HELD THAT:- The High Court in 2015 correctly detected that inversion: a provision designed to grant relief (exemption) had been inverted to impose a burden (levy). Such inversion is not a mere irregularity; it is an illegality at source. The said finding of the High Court is in consonance with settled principles of law declared by this Court.
That conclusion has a direct bearing on the respondent’s present defence. If the very manner in which the levy was introduced was beyond the scope of delegated authority, then subsequent notifications which continue to demand duty on the same taxable fiction namely, that SEZ- to-DTA electricity is to be treated as exigible to customs duty cannot be insulated merely because they altered the rate from 16% to ten paise to three paise, or because they framed the imposition of customs duty prospectively. In other words, where the root is ultra vires, the branch cannot claim legitimacy by altering its foliage.
The levy on electricity generated in the Special Economic Zone and supplied to the Domestic Tariff Area, as sought to be enforced against the appellant, has no sanction in law. The charge does not find support in the statutory scheme. We also find that, even after the decision rendered in 2015, there has been no change either in the law or in the relevant facts which could justify taking a view different from the one already taken. The legal position having remained the same, the conclusion reached earlier must continue to hold the field. Section 30 of the SEZ Act continued unchanged; the Customs Tariff continued to prescribe a nil rate on imported electrical energy; and the constitutional parameters of Articles 14 and 265 remained constant. The subsequent notifications merely varied the form and rate of duty; they did not cure the fundamental absence of authority to tax. The attempt of the executive to reintroduce the very same levy through the route of an “exemption” notification cannot be sustained.
Whether the High Court, in its impugned judgment of 28 June 2019, was justified in holding that no relief could be granted to the appellant in the absence of a specific and fresh challenge to Notification Nos. 91/2010-Cus. and 26/2012-Cus? - HELD THAT:- The High Court, in its judgment of 2019, fell into error in accepting the submission of the Union that the later notifications continued to operate merely because they were not specifically set aside in the decision of 2015. Once the levy itself had been held to be without authority of law, its continuance through subsequent notifications could not be sustained. The invalidity goes to the root and does not depend upon the form or sequence of the notifications - the respondents’ contention that the appellant could not be granted relief because the later notifications were not independently impugned is rejected.
Thus, where a levy has been declared to be without authority of law, a subsequent petition seeking enforcement of that declaration and consequential relief cannot be treated as a fresh challenge merely because the levy is sought to be continued under later or similar notifications. In the absence of any new statutory basis, such notifications do not create a new cause of action. A constitutional court is entitled to grant effective relief without insisting upon separate challenges to each such notification. The High Court, in the impugned judgment of 2019, erred in taking a contrary view.
Whether, in view of the 2015 declaration of law and its affirmation, the High Court in 2019 was at liberty, being a co- ordinate Bench, to deny relief by narrowing the effect of the earlier pronouncement? - HELD THAT:- In the present case, if the Division Bench in 2019 was of the opinion that the 2015 decision could not, or ought not, apply to the later notifications or to the later period, the proper course was to request that the question be placed before a larger Bench of the High Court. The Bench in 2019 did not do so. Instead, it narrowed the effect of the 2015 judgment and declined relief for the subsequent years. That course was impermissible. The 2019 Bench was bound by the declaration of law in 2015, unless duly referred to a larger Bench.
Once the 2015 judgment had declared the levy to be ultra vires and this Court had declined interference, it was incumbent upon the administrative authorities to conform their conduct to that declaration. Judicial pronouncements are not advisory opinions; they are binding commands of law. When the executive continues to enforce, under new guise, a levy that has been judicially struck down, it acts in defiance of constitutional discipline and erodes public confidence in the rule of law. Finality of adjudication is an essential component of good governance. The repetition of an invalidated levy through successive notifications compels needless litigation, burdens the courts, and subjects citizens to prolonged uncertainty - The doctrine interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium which essentially means, that it is in the public interest that there be an end to litigation would squarely apply; the State must exemplify obedience to judgments, not resistance to them.
The levy of customs duty on electrical energy cleared by the appellant from its SEZ unit to the DTA during the relevant period, as sought to be enforced through Notification No. 25/2010-Cus., Notification No. 91/2010-Cus., Notification No. 26/2012-Cus., and similar instruments, was without authority of law - the impugned judgment of the High Court dated 28 June 2019 cannot be sustained.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the acquittal required interference in appeal on the basis of the evidence relating to recovery and seizure of counterfeit currency notes; (ii) Whether the evidence established the offence under Section 489B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 or only the offence under Section 489C of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Issue (i): Whether the acquittal required interference in appeal on the basis of the evidence relating to recovery and seizure of counterfeit currency notes.
Analysis: The recovery was proved through the consistent testimony of the customs officers and independent panch witnesses. The statement recorded under Section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 was found to be voluntary and admissible, and it corroborated the seizure from the respondent. The sealed packet was traced through the customs, BNP and CBI process, and the discrepancy in the count was explained as a human error without breaking the chain of custody. The counterfeit nature of the notes was also confirmed by the expert report.
Conclusion: The acquittal was rightly interfered with, and the prosecution case was accepted to the extent of the proved recovery of counterfeit notes.
Issue (ii): Whether the evidence established the offence under Section 489B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 or only the offence under Section 489C of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Analysis: The evidence proved possession of counterfeit currency with knowledge and consciousness, but it did not establish sale, purchase, receipt or trafficking of counterfeit currency necessary for Section 489B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. The proved facts, however, satisfied the ingredients of Section 489C of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Conclusion: The offence under Section 489B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 was not proved, but the offence under Section 489C of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 was proved and the respondent stood convicted for that offence.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only in part by displacing the acquittal to the extent of Section 489C of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, while the broader charge under Section 489B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 failed.
Ratio Decidendi: A voluntary and admissible statement under Section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962, coupled with a credible chain of custody and corroborative witness evidence, can sustain a conviction for possession of counterfeit currency under Section 489C of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 even where trafficking under Section 489B is not proved.
Trafficking in FICNs - possession of FICNs - reasons to believe that the same is forged and counterfeit, with an intent to use them as genuine or not - genuineness of statements recorded or not - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the statement u/s108 Customs Act was recorded by PW-2 Sh. Prithish Chakravorty in the presence of Steno Abay Sikri. There is no tangible evidence either by way of cross-examination of the material witnesses or otherwise which has been led to even cast a slightest doubt on the genuineness of the Statement recorded under Section 108 Customs Act. Pertinently, this Statement under Section 108 Customs Act was never retracted by the Respondent. It is only at the stage of arguments, a plea has been taken that it was made under duress, which is clearly not made out from the record. The Statement under Section 108 Customs Act made by the Respondent corroborates that there was a recovery of FICNs from his possession.
The truthfulness of his statement is corroborated by independent facts. The Respondent had disclosed the name of Kuldeep Singh as the main perpetrator. Pertinently, this Kuldeep Singh (though not charge sheeted for want of sufficient evidence) was traced, which lends credence to the voluntariness of the statement made by the Respondent. The statement of the Respondent under Section 108 Customs Act is not only voluntary, but also proves the case of the Prosecution in regard to the recovery of FICN from the possession of the respondent.
Process of seizure of the Notes - discrepancy of there being one note of Rs. 1000/- and of Rs. 500/- respectively, found less in the sealed bundle - HELD THAT:- The Notes that were recovered from the Respondent Kulwant Rai at the Airport, were duly sealed with the Seal of Customs Seal No. ‘6’ and the packet with seal intact, was received by Bank Note Press, Dewas, wherein the serial numbers of all the FICNs were tallied and there was some discrepancy in few notes was found - It has established beyond reasonable doubt that the seized notes were sent in the sealed packet and there was no tampering in the transit. It is also proved that the FICNs recovered from the Respondent were found to be counterfeit, in terms of Report Bank Note Press, Dewas Ex.PW9/E.
The explanation given on behalf of the Prosecution that the discrepancy in counting the Notes leading to one short in the Bundle of Rs. 1000/- denomination, may have been on account of human error, cannot be ignored - there was some human error in the mentioning of the serial numbers. Even if the Notes in respect of which there is a discrepancy, is overlooked, then too, there were 600 Notes of Rs. 500/- and 300 notes of Rs. 1000/-, as mentioned in the List, which tallied completely and were found to be counterfeit. This is more so, as the prosecution has proved the recovery of FICNs from the Respondent, beyond reasonable doubt.
The Ld. Trial Court, therefore, fell in error in disbelieving the entire case of the Prosecution, despite there being overwhelming evidence establishing the guilt of the Respondent, beyond reasonable doubt - The Prosecution had proved its case of recovery of counterfeit notes from Respondent beyond reasonable doubt.
Though, the Respondent was charged under Section 489(B) IPC, but there is no evidence whatsoever to show that he had sold, bought, received or otherwise trafficked in the counterfeit currency notes. The offence under Section 489(B) IPC is, therefore, not proved.
This court is conscious that the judgement of Acquittal should not be easily disturbed in Appeal, but this is a case where there is overwhelming evidence against the Respondent for the offence under Section 489(C) IPC - The Respondent is convicted for the said offence under Section 489(C) IPC.
Appeal disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Tribunal, in an appeal filed only by the assessee, could set aside the adjudicating authority's direction permitting redemption on payment of fine for the purpose of re-export, when the Department had not challenged that direction by appeal, cross-objection, or other statutory remedy, and the direction had therefore attained finality.
(ii) The scope of the Tribunal's powers to "confirm, modify or annul" an order and pass such orders "as it thinks fit", and whether those powers extend beyond the grounds arising from the appeal actually before it.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii) - Tribunal's jurisdiction to interfere with an unchallenged and final direction permitting redemption and re-export
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the appellate scheme under the Customs Act. It noted that the statute provides a mechanism for the Department to challenge adverse portions of an order by filing an appeal and also permits filing a memorandum of cross-objections upon notice of the assessee's appeal. The Court also referred to the existence of a statutory power of suo motu revision/review by departmental authorities in specified circumstances. The Court further noted that the Tribunal's order-making power is wide, including the power to confirm, modify, annul, or remand, and to pass such orders "as it thinks fit", but that this power operates within the confines of the appeal before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the adjudicating authority had ordered confiscation but simultaneously permitted redemption in lieu of confiscation for the purpose of re-export on payment of a quantified fine. The assessee appealed on grounds relating to confiscation, penalties and interest. Critically, the Department neither filed an appeal nor filed cross-objections against the redemption/re-export direction, nor invoked any other available statutory remedy to challenge it. From this, the Court drew the legal inference that the Department was not aggrieved by that direction, and therefore that portion of the adjudicating authority's order had attained finality.
The Court accepted that the Tribunal has wide powers when deciding an appeal, but held that the "width" of those powers can relate only to the grounds of appeal placed before it by the party. Since the redemption and re-export direction was not put in issue by the Department through any authorized procedure, the Tribunal could not, in the assessee's appeal, set aside that final direction and order absolute confiscation. Such interference did not "arise from the appeal filed by the assessee" and amounted to the Tribunal acting in excess of jurisdiction.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively held that the Tribunal was not right in setting aside the adjudicating authority's direction permitting redemption and re-export which had attained finality due to the Department's failure to challenge it through the statutory avenues. The Tribunal's order to that extent was beyond jurisdiction. The substantial questions of law were answered in favour of the assessee and against the Department, and the appeal was allowed.
Traversing beyond the scope of the appeal preferred by the appellant - usurping the powers of the adjudicating authority to order the absolute confiscation of the goods, even when the adjudicating authority had allowed the re-export of the goods on payment of redemption fine imposed - no Bill of Entry for the clearance of said goods was filed under Section 46 of the Customs Act by the appellant - violation of principles of natural justice in not considering the provisions of Rule 41 of the Drugs and Cosmetic Rule - Absolute confiscation - HELD THAT:- This is an appeal under Section 130 of the Act and the substantial question that arises for consideration in this case is as to whether the tribunal was right in setting aside a direction that had attained finality even at the stage of the order-in-original - Section 129-A provides for appeals to the Appellate Tribunal and the appellant/assessee in this case has raised grounds of appeal in relation to the aspect of confiscation arising from the order-in-original.
The Department has neither filed an appeal under Section 129A(2) nor a memorandum of cross objections under Section 129A(4). Hence it has consciously chosen not to challenge the direction relating to redemption on payment of fine - It is true that Section 129-B which deals with ‘Orders of Appellate Tribunal’ vests in the tribunal, wide powers. The section says that the appellate tribunal may, after giving the parties a personal hearing, pass such orders thereon ‘as it thinks fit’.
The statute provides for adequate remedies to an aggrieved party (both assessee and department) to put forth their grievances before the tribunal by way of appeal and cross objection. The Department may also undertake suo motu review of an order of a lower authority. In this case, the department has not availed of any of the available remedies and the only inference in law, is that it is not aggrieved by the direction of the authority for redemption and re-export.
The direction of the tribunal setting aside the direction for redemption and re-export has attained finality at the stage of assessment, does not arise from the appeal filed by the assessee, and has hence been issued in excess of jurisdiction.
The questions of law are hence answered in favour of the assessee and against the Department - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the declared transaction value of imported melamine could lawfully be rejected and redetermined on the allegation that it was deliberately inflated to avoid anti-dumping duty, when the valuation finding was founded only on statements and cross-examination of those persons was denied.
2) Whether penalty under sections 112(a) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained against the appellant on the footing of abetment of mis-declaration of value and evasion of anti-dumping duty, when the valuation rejection itself was not legally sustainable on the evidentiary basis adopted.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Rejection/redetermination of transaction value on allegation of overvaluation to evade anti-dumping duty
Legal framework: The Court considered valuation under section 14 of the Customs Act read with the Customs Valuation Rules (as discussed in the applied Tribunal reasoning), and treated adherence to principles of natural justice as material where statements are relied upon for rejecting transaction value.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the earlier Division Bench decision on materially identical facts, where rejection of declared value had been founded substantially on statements of co-noticees. In the present case also, the department's allegation of intentional inflation of price above the anti-dumping duty benchmark rested only on statements recorded under section 108, while the appellant's request to cross-examine those persons was rejected. Following the applied reasoning, denial of cross-examination in these circumstances rendered reliance on such statements impermissible for rejecting the transaction value. Consequently, the foundational basis for discarding the declared value and substituting a redetermined value was held unsustainable.
Conclusions: The transaction value could not have been rejected or redetermined on the basis adopted in the impugned order; therefore, the valuation determination leading to anti-dumping duty demand could not be sustained.
Issue 2: Sustainability of penalties under sections 112(a) and 114AA for abetment of mis-declaration/evasion
Legal framework: The Court examined the imposition of penalty under sections 112(a) and 114AA as recorded in the impugned order, which proceeded on the finding that the appellant abetted mis-declaration of value to evade anti-dumping duty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The penalty findings were inseparably premised on the same valuation rejection and the same statement-based evidentiary foundation, without permitting cross-examination. Since the Court held that the transaction value could not have been rejected for the reasons applied from the earlier decision, the consequential finding of mis-declaration/abetment built upon that rejected valuation could not stand.
Conclusions: The penalties imposed under sections 112(a) and 114AA were unsustainable; the impugned order was set aside and the appeal was allowed.
Levy of penalty u/s 112(a) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 - invocation of extended period of limitation as contemplated under section 28(4) of the Customs Act - import of melamine - evasion of antidumping duty by over valuation of the goods imported - HELD THAT:- This issue was considered by a Division Bench of this Tribunal in Shubham Chemicals & Solvents Ltd. vs Principal Commissioner of Customs (Import), New Delhi [2020 (12) TMI 711 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] and it was held 'What needs to be noticed is that all the imports were made on the basis of High Sea Sales agreements which were executed and payments were made through proper banking channels. “High Sea Sales’ is a common trade practice whereby the original importer sells the goods to a third person before the goods are entered for customs clearance. It is after the “High Sea Sales’ of the goods that the Bill of Entry is filed by the person who buys the goods from the original importer during the said sale.' - The Division Bench also examined whether the extended period of limitation under section 28(4) of the Customs Act could have been invoked. After referring to various decisions, the Division Bench held that the extended period of limitation could not have been invoked. Accordingly, the impugned order was set aside.
In the present case also, the case of the department is based on the premise that the imported melamine was purchased by the appellant from a Chinese supplier @ US$ 1180 per MT and that the appellant had knowingly and intentionally inflated the value of the goods over US$ 1681.49 per MT to evade anti-dumping duty. The impugned order has imposed penalty upon the appellant under section 112(a) and section 114AA holding that the appellant had abetted the importer in mis-declaration of the value of the goods during the evasion of anti-dumping duty. This is based only on certain statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act, but the request of the appellant to cross-examine them has been rejected.
For the reasons stated by the Division Bench in Shubham Chemicals, the transaction value could not have been rejected.
The impugned order, therefore, cannot be sustained and is set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the interlocutory order permitting adoption of counter affidavit and directing filing of rejoinder was liable to appellate interference. (ii) Whether the interim stay order passed in the company petition was vitiated for want of detailed reasons, alleged non-service of the application, or for failure to first seek vacation of stay.
Issue (i): Whether the interlocutory order permitting adoption of counter affidavit and directing filing of rejoinder was liable to appellate interference.
Analysis: The order merely regulated exchange of pleadings and fixed the matter for further hearing. It did not determine any substantive right of the parties and was a routine procedural order within the tribunal's control of its own proceedings.
Conclusion: The order was not interferable in appeal and the challenge failed.
Issue (ii): Whether the interim stay order passed in the company petition was vitiated for want of detailed reasons, alleged non-service of the application, or for failure to first seek vacation of stay.
Analysis: The interim order was passed in exercise of the tribunal's interlocutory and inherent powers under the applicable procedural rules. For an interim arrangement, only prima facie satisfaction was required and not an elaborate judgment on merits. The appellants had participated in the proceedings, did not seek vacation of the stay before the tribunal, and could not rely on alleged non-service after contesting the application on merits. An appeal against such an interim arrangement was therefore not the appropriate course.
Conclusion: The interim order was not shown to be illegal or unsustainable, and the challenge failed.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were held to lack merit, with liberty reserved to seek vacation of the stay before the tribunal and to urge all contentions there.
Ratio Decidendi: An interlocutory order regulating pleadings or granting interim protection in pending company proceedings, based on prima facie satisfaction and without adjudicating substantive rights, is ordinarily not liable to appellate interference; the proper remedy is to seek vacation of the interim order before the tribunal in the first instance.
Seeking grant of an order of declaration for the relief - Invocation of provisions contained under Section 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, 2013 - impugned interlocutory order passed without assigning any reasons or justifying the reasons, which necessitated to pass an interim order - HELD THAT:- The impugned order of 25.08.2025, is an order which has been passed only after hearing the Appellants and it cannot now be said to be an ex parte order. The argument extended by the Ld. Senior Counsel for the Appellant is that the order doesn't assign any reason for grant of stay. But as far as the aspect of grant of the interim order is concerned during the pendency of the proceedings, it only requires a prima facie satisfaction of the Ld. Tribunal of the need to pass such order and it doesn't require a detailed analysis and an elaborate discussion of the respective cases, to justify the grant of the interim order for the reason being that, the aspect of grant of an interim order falls within the domain of discretionary jurisdiction of the Ld. Tribunal. And since the orders passed under Rule 32 of the NCLT Rules, 2016, takes the shape of an “order”, it will not amount to be a “judgment” adjudicating the rights of the parties on merits, which would require an elaborate discussion of the rival contentions or the pleadings. It is the sole prerogative and discretion of the Ld. Tribunal to grant the interim order, where only prima facie satisfaction is to be ensured by the Ld. Tribunal, for the exercise of its discretionary powers.
Sentencing a person on establishment of an offence covered under the Army Act,, since sentence attributes a criminal liability, as well as a stigma too, has had to be backed by the reasons. The situation therein is quite distinct from the instant case and therefore, the ratio laid down in the said judgment cannot be put to be applied herein on a common pedestal for the purposes of the orders, being passed at an interim stage, where the Ld. Tribunal exercises its powers vested in it while exercising its inherent jurisdiction as contemplated under Rule 11 and Rule 32 of the NCLT Rules, 2016. Hence, the said ratio will not apply.
The Appellant herein is directed to file an appropriate Stay Vacation Application, seeking vacation of the stay order dated 25.08.2025, with a request to the learned Tribunal to take up such application for consideration, in case if it is filed and to decide the same on merits, before taking a call on the principal company petition. It would be open for the parties to the Appeal to raise all their contentions at the stage when the stay vacation application is being considered by the Ld. Tribunal - It has been informed by the appellant that the next date fixed before the learned Tribunal is 09.10.2025. It is hoped and trusted that the learned Tribunal will make all efforts to decide the stay vacation application if it is filed, before the next date fixed and if it is not possible for any reason, then at least within a period of 3 weeks thereafter of uploading of this order.
These 'company appeals' lacks ‘merit’, and the same is accordingly ‘dismissed’.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, despite long default in filing statutory annual returns and financial statements leading to striking off, restoration of the company's name was warranted on the ground that it was "just and equitable" having regard to the company's continuing operations, fixed assets, and revenue generation.
(ii) What conditions and safeguards should accompany restoration, including payment of costs, filing of all pending statutory documents within a fixed timeline, and preservation of the Registrar's power to initiate action for past non-compliances.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Restoration on "just and equitable" basis notwithstanding past statutory defaults
Legal framework: The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that restoration may be ordered where it is found "just and equitable" to restore the company's name, and assessed whether the company's circumstances met that threshold despite admitted non-filing defaults that led to striking off.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that striking off was triggered by failure to file financial statements and annual returns for an extended period, with the last filings being for an earlier year. However, it placed decisive weight on material showing that the company had fixed assets and was generating income, including rental income and operational revenues reflected in financial statements placed on record. The Tribunal also considered the company's expressed willingness and inclination to submit all financial records and complete pending compliances upon restoration. Additionally, the Tribunal took note that there was no objection from the Income Tax Department and that the restoration application was within time, reinforcing that restoration would not be unjust on grounds of delay or competing statutory objections.
Conclusion: On the facts-continuing asset base, revenue generation, and readiness to regularise filings-the Tribunal held it "just and equitable" to restore the company's name and set aside the refusal of restoration.
Issue (ii): Conditions attached to restoration and continuing regulatory powers
Legal framework: The Tribunal treated restoration as conditional, balancing revival of the company against accountability for statutory non-compliances.
Interpretation and reasoning: While allowing restoration, the Tribunal ensured compliance discipline by imposing (a) a monetary cost payable to the Registrar within a specified period, and (b) a strict timeline for filing all pending annual returns and balance sheets after restoration, along with payment of requisite fees and applicable late fees. The Tribunal further clarified that restoration would not immunise the company or its directors from consequences of past defaults, expressly preserving the Registrar's liberty to take punitive or other steps permissible under the governing law for non-filing/late filing.
Conclusion: Restoration was granted subject to payment of costs, completion of all overdue filings within the stipulated time, and an express reservation of the Registrar's enforcement powers for past non-compliance.
Seeking restoration of the appellant company’s name in the Registrar of Companies - Income Tax Department had already given no objection for restoration of the name of appellant company and the impugned order notes the appeal filed before the Ld. NCLT was in time and there was no delay - HELD THAT:- Considering the facts and circumstances, more specifically the company has fixed assets with rental income etc. and its inclination to submit all its financial records, it is found just and equitable to restore the name of the company to the records of ROC.
The impugned order passed by the Ld. NCLT, New Delhi Bench-V is set aside and the name of the said company M/s. Llyod Logic Systems Pvt. Ltd. is restored to the Register of Companies maintained by RoC subject to fulfiment of required compliances - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the appeal was filed within the statutory limitation period prescribed under Section 421(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, taking into account the availability date of the impugned order.
2. Whether the limitation stood extended/excluded by the Supreme Court's COVID-related directions, and if so, whether the appeal filed on the relevant date fell within the resultant outer time limit.
3. Whether any further condonation/leniency could be granted on the ground that the delay was attributable to the COVID pandemic, despite the statutory cap on extension under Section 421(3).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Statutory limitation under Section 421(3) for filing the appeal
Legal framework: The Court considered Section 421(3), which requires an appeal to be filed within 45 days from the date on which a copy of the Tribunal's order is made available to the aggrieved person, with a further extendable period of up to 45 days on sufficient cause.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the relevant starting point as the date when the certified copy was made available. On the facts, the certified copy was made available on 23.12.2021. The Court held that, on a plain reading, the statutory scheme places an upper limit on extension and does not permit enlargement beyond that outer cap.
Conclusion: The Court held that the appeal had to satisfy the limitation structure of Section 421(3), including the statutory outer limit.
Issue 2: Effect of Supreme Court's COVID-related exclusion/extension of limitation and computation of the last date
Legal framework: The Court applied the Supreme Court's directions excluding the period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 for limitation purposes and granting, from 01.03.2022, a limitation period of 90 days or the actual balance period remaining, whichever is greater.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court computed that the 90-day period commencing from 01.03.2022 expired on 29.05.2022. Since 29.05.2022 was a Sunday, the Court treated the next working day, 30.05.2022, as the effective last date for filing. The appeal was filed on 31.05.2022. The Court rejected the contention that the Sunday should change the outcome, holding that even after giving the benefit of the next working day, the filing remained beyond time.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that the appeal filed on 31.05.2022 was beyond the extended/excluded limitation period as applied to the case, and therefore barred by limitation.
Issue 3: Request for condonation/leniency on the ground of COVID and opportunity to file a condonation application
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the appellant's submission that delay was due to the COVID pandemic and that it was not wilful, coupled with a request to permit filing of a condonation application. The Court reasoned that the Supreme Court's directions already granted a uniform additional window (90 days from 01.03.2022) to litigants. Since the appellant still failed to file within that time, the Court found lack of diligence and held that no further leniency could be granted when the delay crossed the maximum permissible period and was "specifically barred by law."
Conclusion: The Court refused any further condonation/leniency and dismissed the appeal as barred by limitation.
Maintainability of appeal on the ground of time limitation - appeal preferred beyond the prescribed period of limitation as provided under section 421(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 - HELD THAT:- A reference to Section 421(3) of the Companies Act which deals with the aspect of limitation becomes relevant. On a simpliciter reading of section 421(3) it provides that every appeal against an order shall be preferred within 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order the Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved, which in the instant case would be 23.12.2021. The proviso to Section 421(3) states that the Appellate Tribunal can extend the said period further by a maximum of 45 days on production of sufficient cause. Thus, the limitation period as per Companies Act expired on 23.03.2022.
The limitation period of 90 days from 01.03.2022 as provided by the order of the Hon'ble Apex Court in IN RE: COGNIZANCE FOR EXTENSION OF LIMITATION [2022 (1) TMI 385 - SC ORDER]. Since the said date was a Sunday, the next working day would be taken for the purposes of determining the limitation which would be 30.05.2022. Therefore, limitation period for filing the Appeal ended on 30.05.2022. Since the Appellant did not file the Appeal within 30.05.2022 and instead chose to file the same on 31.05.2022, it will have to be barred by limitation.
Since the appeal itself was filed on 31.05.2022 the same would be barred by limitation because the upper period of limitation prescribed under the proviso is not extendable beyond the limit given under the statute. In that eventuality on a simpliciter determination of the number of days delay which has chanced in preferring the appeal since being beyond the period of 90 days which is the upper limit provided under Section 421(3) and also beyond the extended limitation period.
Appeal is dismissed as barred by time limitation.
Issues: Whether the appellant should be permitted to have its application for defreezing of bank accounts heard and decided by the National Company Law Tribunal within a time-bound period.
Outcome: The appeals were disposed of with a direction to the National Company Law Tribunal to hear the appellant's application and pass an appropriate order within two weeks.
Freezing of bank accounts of the appellant - appellant argued before the Appellate Tribunal that the action was taken without giving any opportunity of hearing - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Since, the accounts have been freezed, the NCLT is expected to give top priority to the application which has been filed by the appellant herein.
Let the application be taken up for hearing and an appropriate order be passed within a period of two weeks from today.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: Whether the appeal could be entertained to indirectly challenge the approved resolution plan and the eligibility of the successful resolution applicant after the plan had attained finality and remained unchallenged.
Analysis: The Resolution Plan had already been approved by the competent adjudicating authority and had not been separately challenged through the available appellate channel. Once the statutory hierarchy of remedies for questioning acceptance of a resolution plan was not invoked, and the plan had attained finality and been acted upon, indirect interference with it at a later stage was held to be impermissible. The Court found that the approval of the Resolution Plan was independent of the impugned appellate order and that the late challenge could not reopen issues that had already concluded.
Conclusion: The appeal was not maintainable to the extent it sought indirect interference with the finalised Resolution Plan, and the challenge failed.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was dismissed on the ground that the approved Resolution Plan had attained finality and could not be disturbed indirectly at the present stage.
Ratio Decidendi: Once a resolution plan under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 has attained finality and the statutory remedies against its approval are not pursued, it cannot be challenged indirectly in collateral proceedings.
Seeking stay of implementation of the Resolution Plan - HELD THAT:- A hierarchy of remedies is provided in relation to the acceptance of a Resolution Plan in the IBC and once the appellant-promoter did not choose to take recourse to the same, it cannot seek relief in relation to the approved Resolution Plan indirectly. Even if there was any issue with regard to the eligibility of the NTPC, the fact that the Resolution Plan submitted by it attained finality and has also been acted upon, be it in part or fully, would obviate any possibility of this Court interfering therewith at this late stage.
Appeal dismissed.
Dismissal of appeal appeals preferred by the appellant - appellant is ready and willing to settle the matter with the respondents who are the assignee of the debts due to the banks - HELD THAT:- It is informed that the talks for the purpose of settlement have failed. It appears that the parties have not been able to arrive at any amicable settlement. In such circumstances and more particularly in view of the order passed by a Coordinate Bench of this Court dated 3.10.2023, nothing further is required to be done.
Appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Tribunal should exercise its inherent powers to recall its earlier order dismissing the appeal, when the statutory challenge to that order before the Supreme Court stood dismissed for non-compliance with a peremptory conditional order and the earlier order had thus attained finality.
(ii) Whether an allegation of "likelihood of bias" against a member who authored the earlier judgment-based on his past position as a nominee director in an institution claimed to be a lender-constituted a sufficient ground for recall, particularly when the allegation was not raised at the threshold during the pendency and hearing of the appeal and lacked specific material showing "real danger" or "reasonable apprehension" of bias.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Recall of a final order after dismissal of the statutory challenge for non-compliance
Legal framework: The application invoked the Tribunal's inherent powers under the Tribunal Rules to seek recall of its order dismissing the appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the consequence of the Supreme Court's peremptory conditional order granting time to cure defects, followed by dismissal of the statutory appeal for non-compliance. It held that, since the statutory appeal was not pursued and stood dismissed for failure to comply with the conditional direction, the Tribunal's earlier order had "attained finality" between the parties. The Court also inferred from the sequence of events that the applicant deliberately did not pursue the statutory appeal and instead filed the recall application after the conditional order, indicating an afterthought.
Conclusion: Once the statutory challenge to the Tribunal's order was dismissed for non-compliance and the Tribunal's order attained finality, no ground was made out to recall the order in exercise of inherent powers.
Issue (ii): Whether the belated allegation of likelihood of bias justified recall
Legal framework: The Court applied the principles that (a) automatic disqualification arises where there is a financial interest in the outcome, but (b) where interest is other than financial, disqualification is not automatic and requires an enquiry based on "real danger" or "reasonable apprehension" of bias; and (c) an objection based on bias can be waived and is generally not entertained if raised belatedly.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the allegation was raised only after the adverse decision and was admittedly not raised during the two-year pendency of the appeal, at hearing, or when the matter was reserved. The applicant did not explain how the alleged fact was discovered only later, especially when the concerned member's profile was publicly available. The Court characterised the bias plea as a "flimsy ground" and an afterthought, holding that a likelihood of bias "cannot be raised in the hindsight" when not taken at the threshold. The Court further held that the foreign decision relied upon by the applicant was inapplicable on the facts, and that the governing test in the present circumstances required specific material to demonstrate "real danger" or "reasonable apprehension" of bias. It noted that such an enquiry could have been undertaken only if the matter had been timely brought to the Court's notice with supporting material; no such material was placed to show any concrete involvement of the concerned member in any lender decision relating to the corporate debtor.
Conclusion: The belated and unsupported plea of likelihood of bias did not satisfy the applicable test and, having not been raised at the earliest opportunity, could not justify recall of the concluded judgment. The recall application was dismissed, with parties left to bear their own costs.
Recall of the order - exercise of inherent powers - invocation of Rule 11 of the NCLAT Rules, 2016 - forum shopping - non-re-filling of appeal - abuse of process of law - dismissal of appeal for non-compliance with conditional order - HELD THAT:- The Appellant did not pursue the appeal filed vide diary no. 2109 of 2025 deliberately because the appellant might be knowing the fate of it’s appeal and has rather filed the present application on 18.05.2025, after the order dated 25.04.2025 passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, for recalling of the order dated 26.11.2024 alleging that after passing of the judgment dated 26.11.2024, the applicant came to know that the author of the judgment dated 26.11.2024 was a former nominee director of the Central Government, on the board of Housing and Urban Development Corporation (HUDCO), from 02nd January, 2013 to May, 3, 2014.
The defects in the appeal were not cured and ultimately the said appeal was taken up in the chamber hearing by the Chamber Judge of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in which the order was passed on 25.04.2025 that “six weeks time from today is granted to cure the defects noted by the registry, failing which the matter(s) shall stand dismissed without further reference to the court” It exactly happened because the appellant did not pursue the appeal any further and allowed it to be dismissed for non- complying with the conditional order. Thus, in a way, the order under recall has become final between the parties on the dismissal of the appeal.
In the present case, the enquiry would have been held had the matter been brought to the notice of this Court and material been placed for the purpose of discussion as to how there is a likelihood of bias in the mind of the Appellant.
It is also pertinent to mention here that in case of Supreme Court Adv. on record [2015 (10) TMI 2687 - SUPREME COURT] the Hon’ble Judge about for whom the application was filed for recusal has observed that “a Judge before he assumes his office, takes an oath to discharge his duties without fear or favour. He would breach his oath of office, if he accepts a prayer for recusal, unless justified”.
There are no merit in the present application and the same is hereby dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether an application under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was barred by limitation and whether Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applied instead of Article 1 of the Limitation Act, 1963; (ii) whether the claim crossed the statutory threshold under Section 4 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 by adding interest to the principal amount despite no agreement for such interest.
Issue (i): Whether an application under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was barred by limitation and whether Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applied instead of Article 1 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
Analysis: The residuary period under Article 137 governs applications under Sections 7, 9 and 10 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. A proceeding under Section 9 is not a suit relating to accounts, and therefore Article 1, which applies to a mutual, open and current account with reciprocal demands, does not apply. The date relevant for limitation was the date on which the operational creditor's right to apply accrued on the last invoice raised by it, not the date of the corporate debtor's later invoice. On that basis, the application filed beyond three years was time-barred.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the appellant and against the respondent.
Issue (ii): Whether the claim crossed the statutory threshold under Section 4 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 by adding interest to the principal amount despite no agreement for such interest.
Analysis: The principal amount claimed was below the statutory threshold. Interest could not be added for determining the default amount unless there was material showing that the parties had agreed to payment of interest on delayed payment. A unilateral stipulation in the invoice or a varying interest figure mentioned in different documents was insufficient to support inclusion of interest in the threshold computation.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the appellant and against the respondent.
Final Conclusion: The impugned admission order could not be sustained, as the application was barred by limitation and the claimed amount did not satisfy the threshold on the basis of admissible principal and interest.
Ratio Decidendi: A Section 9 application is governed by the residuary limitation under Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, and interest cannot be added to meet the insolvency threshold unless it is shown to have been contractually agreed between the parties.
Time limitation for filing section 9 application - application u/s 9 was filed on 06.05.2021 in which the date of default has been mentioned as 30.11.2018 - HELD THAT:- The application u/s 9 was filed on the basis of the last invoice no. 287 dated 07.11.2016, therefore, the default had occurred on 07.11.2016, if the amount was not paid but the invoice issued by the CD on 29.11.2018 regarding the goods sold by to the OC cannot be made the basis for the date of default for filing the application within the period of three years.
Since the parties to the lis were selling goods to each other by raising invoices, therefore, it could be for the sake of argument presumed, that there was a running account between them regarding the goods being sold to each other. However, this court, in the case of Laxmi Trading Corporation [2024 (2) TMI 1259 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI], has clearly held that the proceedings under Section 9 of the IBC, 2016 cannot be said to be suit relating to accounts and thus Article 1 of the Act is not applicable rather the period of limitation for application under Section 9 of the IBC, shall be governed by Article 137 of the Act - It is also pertinent to mention that in Article 1 and Article 137 of the act the triggering point for counting the limitation is different. In so far as Article 137 is concerned, the triggering point is the date when the right to apply accrued. In the present case the right to apply accrued to the operational creditor on 07.11.2016 and not the date when the CD raised his own invoice for the payment of the sold goods by it.
The Tribunal has committed an error in holding that the application filed under Section 9 was within the period of Limitation - The tribunal also cannot rely upon the condition mentioned in the invoice qua the payment of interest because firstly, the interest, mentioned in the invoice by the OC is 36% whereas in the notice it has been mentioned as 18% and secondly, there is no evidence that interest mentioned in the invoice was ever agreed to by the CD.
The order passed by the Tribunal is erroneous and thus the impugned order is hereby set aside - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether rejection of registration could be sustained on the ground of prior receipt (and alleged transfer) of foreign contribution when the prior receipt had been formally compounded, and the alleged transfer was introduced for the first time in the rejection order without prior notice or particulars.
2) Whether rejection on the ground that the applicant "appears to be religious" satisfied the statutory standard requiring a definite conclusion as to the nature of the applicant's programme/activities, and whether the authority failed to consider relevant material bearing on the applicant's character.
3) Whether the writ petition was maintainable despite availability of a statutory appeal, in view of the Court's findings of fundamental breach of natural justice and other vitiating defects in the impugned order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1) Effect of compounding and legality of relying on unnotified/vague allegations of transfer of foreign contribution
Legal framework: The Court examined the statutory scheme concerning compounding of offences and the eligibility condition that an applicant should not have contravened the Act, and treated compounding as a relevant statutory event that must be considered while deciding registration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The authority's clarification initially concerned only receipt of foreign contribution without permission. The applicant admitted the lapse, was offered compounding, paid the amount, and a formal compounding order was passed. The Court held that once an offence is compounded, the contravention cannot be used adversely against the applicant for registration; otherwise, it would be disproportionate, particularly where the violation was technical, had no larger implication, and stood compounded. The Court further held that the authority failed to consider this relevant material, vitiating the decision.
Natural justice/vagueness: The rejection order additionally alleged transfer of foreign contribution to another organisation, a case never put to the applicant earlier. The applicant was not put on notice, and the order gave no particulars (no identification of the recipient, time, or details), rendering the ground vague and violative of principles of natural justice.
Conclusion: The first ground of rejection (contravention/transfer) was held unsustainable due to (i) compounding wiping the adverse effect of the technical contravention for registration purposes, (ii) failure to consider the compounding as relevant material, and (iii) breach of natural justice and vagueness regarding the alleged transfer.
2) Sustainability of rejection based on the applicant "appearing" to be religious and failure to consider relevant material
Legal framework: The Court examined the statutory requirement governing registration for persons having a definite programme including a religious programme, and held that the statutory text requires a clear, categorical conclusion founded on material.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the authority's conclusion that the applicant "appears to be religious" was tentative and did not meet the statutory standard implied by the word definite. The Court reasoned that if the authority intended to reject on this ground, it had to reach a definite conclusion based on materials, not a speculative or non-committal inference. The Court further treated the existing recognition of the applicant under another statutory regime as relevant material: the applicant had been found to be a charitable organisation under the applicable income-tax registration, and the authority's failure to consider this was held to reflect non-application of mind. The Court also relied on the principle that the Act operates "in addition to" other laws and does not override them, and therefore the charitable character accepted under another law remained a relevant consideration while assessing the applicant under this regime.
Conclusion: The second ground of rejection was held infirm because the authority did not record a definite, material-based conclusion about the applicant's nature and failed to consider relevant material bearing on its status/character, thereby vitiating the decision-making process.
3) Maintainability of writ jurisdiction despite statutory appeal
Legal framework: The Court considered the existence of a statutory appellate remedy to the High Court and applied the principle that writ jurisdiction may still be invoked where there is violation of natural justice, while noting that when the designated alternative forum is also the High Court, entertaining a writ should be exceptional and subject to a higher threshold.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the writ petition was maintainable because the impugned order suffered from fundamental breach of natural justice (new, unnotified and vague allegation of transfer), disproportionality in treating a compounded technical contravention as disqualifying, and other defects including failure to consider relevant materials. These vitiating factors satisfied the higher threshold for entertaining a writ despite the appellate remedy.
Conclusion: The writ petition was held maintainable on the facts due to serious procedural and decisional infirmities.
Result / Operative directions (as decided)
The Court set aside the rejection order and remitted the matter for fresh decision. The authority was directed to consider relevant materials identified by the Court, and to issue a fresh, non-vague notice (based on relevant material) specifically on the alleged transfer issue, obtain the applicant's response, and pass a fresh order within three months.
Rejection of application seeking grant of registration - petitioner had received foreign contribution funds without prior permission and there has been transfer of FC fund as donation to another organization - nature of the petitioner-organisation appears to be religious - HELD THAT:- The ground that the petitioner had received foreign contribution funds without prior permission is not sustainable. This is for more than one reason. In the queries raised in April 2025, the authority had only raised the issue of receipt of foreign funds without proper permission. In their reply dated 28.04.2025, the petitioner admitted their fault. On 24.07.2025, the authority once again drew the petitioner's attention to the very same receipt of funds and gave them an option of compounding the same. Availing the said option, the petitioner compounded the offence by paying Rs.3,70,500/-. On 01.08.2025, the Ministry of Home Affairs passed an order formally compounding the offence committed by the petitioner. It is relevant to note that the the source of the said donation was not of any suspect origin. It was from the author of the Trust who is based in USA.
While so, the impugned order not only refers to the improper receipt of foreign fund but also to a transfer by the petitioner to another organisation. The authorities had never come up with such a case of transfer. For the first time, in the impugned order, such an allegation is found. The petitioner was never put on notice in this regard. This is a clear violation of the principles of natural justice. That apart, the order does not mention the name of the organisation to which the transfer has been made. The details are blissfully absent. It does not state when the transfer was made. The impugned order suffers from the vice of vagueness in this regard. The petitioner in their affidavit had clearly stated that the fund received from the author of the trust was utilised for the trust activities and that it was not transferred to any other organisation.
The concept of legitimate expectation though evolved in a different context, can also be invoked in this case. The writ petitioner had applied to the respondents for registration way back in the year 2021 itself. The application remained unconsidered. The process of consideration picked up steam only from October 2024. A fresh application was submitted in January 2025. Queries were raised in April and in the very same month, reply was submitted. In this background, even while the application for registration is under consideration, the authority gave an option of compounding the offence to the applicant on 24.07.2025 - Even in criminal law, as soon as an accused is arrested, the police administer what is known as “Miranda warning”. If confession is taken without giving such a warning, the confession is inadmissible. If the authority had intended to reject the petitioner's application on the ground of contravention of the provisions of the Act, then, the authority even while giving an option of compounding should have made it clear that compounding will only shield them from prosecution and that it would amount to acceptance of guilt leading to disqualification under Section 12(4)(a)(vii) of the Act. The authority had not done so in this case. The writ petitioner had acted with all bonafides.
Petitioner appears to be a religious organization or not - HELD THAT:- The petitioner-trust has been registered under Section 12A of the Income Tax Act, 1961. The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal after considering the terms of the trust deed, gave a finding that the petitioner is a charitable organization. This order of the Tribunal and the certificate issued in favour of the petitioner is holding good. FCRA, 2010 does not contain any overriding provision. On the other hand, Section 52 of the Act reads that the provisions of the Act shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the provisions of any other law for the time being in force. Provisions analogous to Section 52 of the Act can be found in other statutes also - The effect of the provision such as Section 52 is that the Act does not have the effect of overriding other enactments with reference to matter dealt with in the Act. The Section only provides that it will be open to any person to claim the benefits of this Act and also avail himself of the provisions of other enactments if there is no inconsistency or conflict and if he is not barred otherwise by any other principle of law like estoppel or election. When according to the Income Tax Department, the petitioner is a charitable organization, it cannot cease to be one under FCRA regime. That is the true import of Section 52 of the Act. The certificate issued in favour of the petitioner under Section 12A of the I.T Act is definitely a relevant material and failure to consider the same indicates non-application of mind.
It is well settled that writ petition will be maintainable even though there is an alternative statutory remedy if there is violation of principles of natural justice - the petitioner is entitled to discretionary relief at the hands of this Court.
The impugned order is set aside. The matter is remitted to the file of the second respondent. The second respondent will take into account all the relevant materials mentioned above. A fresh notice shall be issued to the petitioner seeking their response as to whether the transfer of FC fund was made. But such a notice has to be based on relevant materials - Petition allowed by way of remand.
Issues: Whether the applicant was entitled to bail in a money-laundering prosecution under the stringent conditions of the special statute, and whether the circumstances of arrest, further investigation, parity, and prolonged custody justified release.
Analysis: The bail court examined the statutory rigour governing money-laundering offences alongside constitutional safeguards of liberty and fair trial. It held that the satisfaction contemplated by the bail restrictions is only prima facie and does not amount to a finding of guilt. On the material placed, the applicant was not shown to hold any official role in the excise administration or to have any direct documentary trail linking him to procurement decisions, official orders, or identifiable proceeds of crime. The court also noted that the investigation was largely documentary and digital, that relevant material had already been secured, and that no specific custodial necessity was demonstrated to justify continued detention. The omission to issue summons before arrest, the selective non-arrest of certain co-accused, and the existence of bail granted to similarly placed accused were treated as relevant circumstances. The court further considered the likelihood of a protracted trial, the applicant's custody since 18.07.2025, and the inability of the prosecution to show that continued incarceration was necessary to protect the investigation or trial.
Conclusion: The applicant was held entitled to bail, subject to stringent conditions, because continued custody was found disproportionate and unnecessary in the facts of the case.
Ratio Decidendi: In a prosecution under a stringent money-laundering regime, bail may be granted when the court finds only a prima facie case, no demonstrated custodial necessity, a substantial risk of prolonged trial, and a custody regime that would otherwise amount to pre-trial punishment inconsistent with Article 21.
Money Laundering - seeking grant of regular bail - proceeds of crime - large-scale criminal conspiracy in the excise administration of the State of Chhattisgarh during the period 2019 to 2023 - Non-Issuance of Summons under Section 50 of the PMLA - Grounds of arrest - necessity of Custodial Incarceration - selective arrest - pick and choose - parity with co-accused - HELD THAT:- This Court is conscious of the gravity and the seriousness of the offence alleged under the provisions of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. It is noteworthy that the applicant has not been named in the ECIR nor in the FIR in respect of the predicate offence underscoring the tenuousness of the prosecution’s narrative at this stage. At the same time, it is equally trite that the considerations governing the grant or refusal of bail must be tested on well settled principles of criminal jurisprudence and constitutional safeguards - This Court reiterates that at the stage of consideration of a bail application, the exercise of jurisdiction is neither punitive nor determinative of guilt. The Court is required to assess whether continued incarceration of the applicant is necessary, proportionate and constitutionally permissible, having regard to the nature of allegations, material collected, role attributed and the likelihood of the trial concluding within a reasonable time.
This Court, before adverting to the facts of the present case, deems it apposite to reiterate the settled parameters governing the grant of bail under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Undoubtedly, the statute incorporates stringent conditions; however, stringency of a statutory regime cannot be read as a license to disregard constitutional safeguards. The Apex Court in Satender Kumar Antil Vs. CBI [2022 (8) TMI 152 - SUPREME COURT], has held that even in cases involving special statutes, deprivation of liberty must satisfy the test of necessity and proportionality and that arrest and incarceration cannot be resorted to as a matter of course.
Similarly, in Sanjay Chandra Vs. CBI [2011 (11) TMI 537 - SUPREME COURT], it has been held that the object of bail is to secure the presence of the accused at trial and not to inflict punishment prior to conviction. In Manish Sisodia Vs. Directorate of Enforcement [2024 (8) TMI 614 - SUPREME COURT], has consistently held that the jurisdiction at the stage of bail is guided by the principles of necessity, proportionality and fairness and not by punitive considerations.
Non-Issuance of Summons under Section 50 of the PMLA - HELD THAT:- While it is correct that issuance of summons under Section 50 is not, in absolute terms, a statutory precondition for arrest under Section 19 of the PMLA, this Court is of the considered view that Section 50 embodies a substantive procedural safeguard, designed to ensure transparency, fairness and voluntary cooperation before the drastic measure of arrest is invoked. The Apex Court in Vijay Madan Lal Choudhary Vs. Union of India [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], while upholding the constitutional validity of the PMLA, has categorically observed that procedural safeguards under the Act cannot be reduced to empty formalities and must operate in substance. The complete omission to invoke Section 50 prior to arrest, when viewed in conjunction with the facts and circumstances of the present case, assumes relevance at the stage of bail, though it may not, by itself, invalidate the arrest.
The power of arrest under Section 19 of the PMLA is undoubtedly a drastic power, an its exercise is conditioned upon strict adherence to the statutory safeguards and constitutional limitations. The expression “reason to believe” is not an incantation to be mechanically reproduced, but a safeguard intended to ensure that personal liberty is not scarified at the altar of mere suspicion.
Grounds of arrest - necessity of Custodial Incarceration - HELD THAT:- The grounds of arrest furnished to the applicant essentially rely on the seriousness of the alleged offence and the supposed involvement of the applicant in laundering the proceeds of crime. The Apex Court has consistently held that mere non-appearance pursuant to summons under Section 50 of the PMLA is not by itself, sufficient to constitute a valid ground for arrest under Section 19 of the Act. However, seriousness of allegations, howsoever grave, cannot alone justify continued pre-trial incarceration. The Apex Court in Pankaj Bansal Vs. Union of India [2023 (10) TMI 175 - SUPREME COURT] and more recently in Senthil Balaji Vs. Directorate of Enforcement, [2024 (9) TMI 1497 - SUPREME COURT], has held that arrest under the PMLA must be founded upon demonstrable necessity and not on generalized assertions of gravity or suspicion.
In the present case, the investigation is largely documentary and digital in nature. Statements have already been recorded, material has been seized and the respondent has failed to demonstrate any specific investigative requirement which necessitates continued custodial interrogation of the applicant. Stated differently, it is urged that the custodial action taken against the applicant was unwarranted and disproportionate, inasmuch as there existed neither any necessity nor exigency justifying such coercive measure. It is a matter of record that the applicant was never served with summons under Section 50 of the PMLA nor was he required to appear before the Enforcement Directorate in relation to the alleged offence prior to his arrest. Consequently, the allegation of non-cooperation as reflected in the grounds of arrest, is stated to be factually incorrect.
From perusal of the grounds of arrest, it is evident that the arrest of the applicant is substantially based upon material already collected during investigation, including statements recorded under Section 50 of the Act and documentary evidence. No specific circumstance has been pointed out which necessitated the immediate arrest of the applicant at that stage, nor has it been demonstrated that custodial interrogation was indispensable once such material stood secured - the present matter is a complaint case. No doubt Section 44 (1) (d) permitting filing of supplementary complaints when fresh materials are available to the ED in relation with money laundering but the procedure prescribed for filing of complaint under Section 44 of the PMLA read with Chapter XV of the Cr.P.C. with Section 200 to 204 of the Cr.P.C. and is distinct from that of a police report under Section 173 of the Cr.P.C. Section 200 provides for a Magistrate taking cognizance of an offence on complaint. Thereafter, an enquiry is conducted by the competent Magistrate in terms of Section 201 to 204 Cr.P.C. and the Section 207 & 208 of the Cr.P.C. provides supply of documents, statements and other material to the accused.
Prima facie the conduct of the prosecution reveals a manifestly inconsistent and selective approach being both hot and cold in its approach and has acted in a pick and choose manner in investigation. While procedural lapses are apparent, it is clarified that such irregularities, though regrettable do not amount to illegality per se, and a distinction between irregularity and illegality.
Selective arrest - Pick and choose - HELD THAT:- The material placed on record prima facie reveals that certain individuals alleged to have played graver and more direct roles, including alleged beneficiaries, have not been arrested, despite being named in the ECIR and despite issuance of warrants in predicate proceedings. The selective invocation of coercive powers against the applicant, while similarly or more seriously placed persons remain at liberty, raises a legitimate concern regarding unequal application of law. The Delhi High Court in Vipin Yadav Vs. Directorate of Enforcement [2025 (10) TMI 114 - DELHI HIGH COURT], has recognized that selective arrest is a relevant consideration while adjudicating bail under the PMLA as it bears directly upon fairness of the process - It is thus contended that denial of bail to the applicant, in the face of non-arrest of a co-accused whose role is projected as more significant and culpable, would amount to discriminatory application of the coercive powers of arrest and would render the exercise of such power arbitrary and unjust.
Parity with co-accused - HELD THAT:- It is borne out from the record that several co-accused including Anil Tuteja, Arun Pati Tripathi, Trilok Singh Dhillon, Anwar Dhebar and Arvind Singh, who are the kingpins and key conspirators of the syndicate-who constitute the principle accused in the matter have already been enlarged on bail by the Apex Court. The role attributed to the present applicant is not shown to be severe or qualitatively different from those co-accused. In such circumstances, denial of bail would result in unequal treatment - The Apex Court in Tarun Kumar Vs. Enforcement Directorate [2023 (11) TMI 904 - SUPREME COURT] has held that parity cannot be denied unless clear and cogent distinguishing features are established.
Thus, this Court finds that the prosecution case against the applicant is predominantly document-centric, resting upon statements recorded under Section 50 of the PMLA, financial records, digital material and inferential links. The admissibility, credibility and evidentiary worth of such material are matters that can only be conclusively adjudicated during trial, after full fledged examination and cross examination.
As consistently held in a catena of judgments, constitutional courts retain the plenary power to grant bail on the grounds flowing from Part III of the Constitution. Section 45 of the PMLA does not, and cannot, operate as an absolute embargo where continued incarceration would infringe the fundamental right to personal liberty and fair trial. The sacrosanct guarantee under Article 21 must prevail even in the face of stringent provisions contained in special statutes.
On a cumulative consideration of the facts and circumstances and on a holistic appreciation of the factual matrix and legal position, this Court is of the considered opinion that the applicant has made out a case for grant of bail. The statutory rigour of Section 45 of the PMLA, when tested against the touchstone of constitutional proportionality, stands sufficiently satisfied at this stage. Continued incarceration of the applicant, in the facts of the present case, would amount to pre-trial punishment, which is alien to the settled principles of criminal jurisprudence.
This Court is satisfied that the ends of justice can be adequately secured by imposing stringent conditions to ensure the presence of the applicant during trial and to prevent any misuse of liberty. Accordingly, the bail application deserves to be allowed - the bail application is allowed subject to fulfilment of conditions imposed.
Issues: Whether the confirmed provisional attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act could survive when some accused persons had been discharged in the PMLA prosecutions and parts of the scheduled offence proceedings had been quashed.
Analysis: The attached properties were assailed on the ground that the predicate offence had been quashed or that the appellants stood discharged in the PMLA cases. The governing principle applied was that money-laundering action cannot continue once the person concerned is finally absolved in the scheduled offence by discharge, acquittal, or quashing. On the facts, however, the record showed that all appellants had not been finally absolved in the scheduled offence. In particular, a principal accused remained chargeable and the scheduled offence proceedings against him were still pending. The Tribunal also noted that PMLA attachment is not confined only to the named accused in the scheduled offence and may continue against a person involved in the proceeds of crime.
Conclusion: The provisional attachment did not fail on the pleaded ground of discharge or quashing, and the appeals were rejected.
Money Laundering - scheduled offences - provisional attachment order - appellants received significant illicit payments, which were layered through various entities to conceal their criminal origin - abuse of ministerial position to facilitate the scam and misuse official processes for wrongful financial gain - HELD THAT:- The FIR in the scheduled offence case has not been quashed insofar as it relates to Sh. K.S. Jagadish, s/o Sh. Katta Subramanya Naidu. He has also not been discharged in the PMLA case filed by the respondent against him.
Sh. Katta Jagadish alias K.S. Jagadish allegedly played a key role in the scheduled offence. As per the tabular summary submitted from both the appellant’s and the respondent’s side, Sh. K.S Jagadish was one of the accused in the scheduled offence case - In the present case, Sh. K. S. Jagadish, one of the principal figures in the case, has not been absolved of charges in the predicate offence case. The case against him has neither been quashed nor he has been discharged or acquitted in the said case. Accordingly, property linked to the stated scheduled offence cannot be released on the said ground so long as proceedings against him remain pending.
It is also by now well-established that the sweep of attachment provisions under the PMLA are not limited to the accused named in the scheduled offence. It would apply to any person (not necessarily being accused in the scheduled offence), if he is involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime. Thus, if it applies to a person who was never accused in the scheduled offence case, it would apply equally to a person accused but discharged in the scheduled offence case. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in its judgment in the case of Vijay Madanlal Choudhary [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] has also held that the objective of enacting the Act was the attachment and confiscation of proceeds of crime which is the quintessence, so as to combat the evil of money-laundering, by reaching the proceeds of crime in whosoever’s name they are kept or by whosoever they are held - Hence, even if the property is held by a person who was not accused or who was accused but has been discharged in the scheduled offence case, the property can remain attached so long as the allegations in the scheduled offence case against the persons accused therein remain pending.
All the appellants have not been absolved of charges in the scheduled offence case and one of the principal figures against whom serious allegations in the scheduled offence case have been levelled, remains accused.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether duty demand and penalties could be sustained by denying the exemption under Notification No. 23/2003-CE on the premise that the raw materials used for manufacture were treated as imported or as non-indigenous merely because they were supplied by another unit.
Analysis: The exemption in Serial No. 3 of the notification applied where the finished goods were cleared into the Domestic Tariff Area and were manufactured wholly from raw materials produced or manufactured in India. The dispute turned on whether the supplied raw materials were shown to be imported or otherwise not indigenous. The record did not establish that the supplier was an export oriented unit in the manner assumed by the adjudicating authority, nor was there evidence that the raw materials had been imported or had attracted the legal fiction relied upon in the impugned order. The tribunal held that the reasoning in the cited precedent on clearances by an EOU to DTA did not govern the present factual situation, which concerned supply of raw materials to the appellant. The denial of exemption was therefore unsupported by evidence and by the terms of the notification.
Conclusion: The duty demand and consequential penalties were not sustainable and the appeals were allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: An exemption conditioned on indigenous raw materials cannot be denied on conjecture or by importing a legal fiction from a different statutory setting; the revenue must establish, on evidence, that the condition was breached.
Benefit of concessional duty treatment under serial no. 3 of notification no. 23/2003-CE - manufactured goods had been produced from raw materials supplied by another similar unit - deemed exports - HELD THAT:- There is no evidence on record to support the conviction of the adjudicating authority that the raw materials were obtained from ‘export oriented unit (EOU)’ and supply against CT3 procedure is due evidence of duty free supply of indigenous raw material to an ‘export oriented unit’ by a domestic unit. Even if supply had been from ‘export oriented unit (EOU)’, contextual reference to source stipulated in the conditions supra is not to be seen as origin but that the raw materials had not been imported, which no manufacture effected in India can be so designated, and had been sourced without passing through procedures under Customs Act, 1962. There is no doubt that, if transfer had been from ‘export oriented unit (EOU)’ to ‘export oriented unit (EOU)’ with the former claiming fulfillment of export obligation thereupon, the receiving unit would have to include the value thereof for enhanced fulfilment of export obligation. That is also not in evidence here. Hence, the foundation of denial of the exemption in excess of excise duty otherwise chargeable on the finished goods is without any evidence whatsoever.
For the purposes of the condition supra, the origin does not have to be geographically identified for limiting the liability as per serial no. 3 in the table of the said notification for that is beyond the domain competence of, and legal empowerment vested in, central excise authorities. That duty liability under Central Excise Act, 1944 had been discharged, or particularized exemption availed, on the ‘goods’ of supplier – soon to be ‘raw material’ of the ‘export oriented unit (EOU)’ – suffices contextually. There is no controverting of the facts of such valid clearances.
The cited judicial determination in Sarla Performance Fibers Ltd [2010 (2) TMI 335 - CESTAT, AHMEDABAD] does not support proposition in the adjudication order that ‘raw materials’ are deemed to be imported.
It is also clear that there is no evidence of such ‘raw material’ having been obtained from ‘export oriented unit (EOU)’ or charged to duty in accordance with proviso to section 3 of Central Excise Act, 1944 for what it is worth.
The impugned order is without merit and is set aside - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a one-time "year-end discount" that was not known or disclosed at the time of clearance/sale could be mandatorily deducted from "transaction value" for assessing excise duty, so as to treat the higher duty actually paid (without such deduction) as leading to an "excess/erroneous" refund under the applicable area-based refund notification.
2. Whether, on the facts found, the refund granted on the duty actually paid on the declared transaction value was correctly admissible, and whether the lower appellate authority was justified in holding that the refund was excess and recoverable.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Deductibility of year-end discount from assessable value when not known at the time of sale
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied the principle under Section 4(1)(a) that duty is payable on the "transaction value" of the goods. The Court examined deductibility of discount from assessable value on the condition that such discount must be known and disclosed prior to sale.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found as a fact that the assessee paid duty on the full value at the time of clearance and that the "year-end discount" was a one-time practice intended to expedite realisation/appropriation of sale consideration, and was not a regular, pre-declared discount. Because the discount was not known at the time of sale, the Court held it was not eligible for deduction from assessable value. The Court further reasoned that the assessing authority cannot compel the assessee to adopt a discount deduction that was not available/entitled at the time duty liability arose.
Conclusion: The year-end discount, not being known at the time of sale, was not deductible from the assessable value; duty paid on the full transaction value was correctly paid and could not be reworked by forcing a discount deduction.
Issue 2: Whether the refund based on duty actually paid was "excess/erroneous" and recoverable
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined entitlement to refund under Notification No. 20/2007-CE on the basis of duty paid by the assessee, and assessed whether the refund could be treated as erroneous merely because a post-sale discount was later given.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having held that the discount was not deductible for valuation purposes, the Court found that the assessee had correctly paid duty on the transaction value at the time of clearance. Since the refund scheme operated on the duty so paid, the Court held that refund of the duty actually paid was correctly granted. Consequently, the premise adopted by the lower appellate authority-treating non-deduction of discount as leading to excess duty payment and therefore excess refund-was rejected as legally unsustainable on the facts.
Conclusion: The refund granted was not erroneous or excess; the lower appellate authority's finding to the contrary was set aside and the assessee's appeal was allowed with consequential relief as per law.
Claim of excess refund as provided under the N/N. 20/2007-CE, by purposely not availing the abatement of the year-end discount from the assessable value - liability of appellant to pay Central Excise Duty in terms of Section 4(1)(a) of the Excise Act - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the appellant had duly paid excise duty on the entire value of goods, which did not contain the year-end discount. It is noted that the year-end discount was provided as a one-time practise, in order to expedite the clearance or appropriation of the consideration towards such sale. As it was not a regular discount, it was not known prior to sale of the goods - the appellant would be eligible for deduction of the discount from the assessable value only if it is known and disclosed prior to sale of the goods. In the present case, this year-end discount was not known at the time of sale of the goods. Thus, this discount was not eligible for deduction from the assessable value. Accordingly, the appellant has rightly not availed the deduction of the discount and paid central excise duty on the entire transaction value of the goods - the submission of the appellant is agreed upon that the adjudicating authority cannot force them to avail a discount which was not entitled to them at the time of sale of the goods.
It is found that in terms of N/N. 20/2007-CE, the appellant was eligible for refund of the duty paid by them. As payment was made towards the entire duty amount, the refund of the duty paid by the appellant had been correctly granted. Thus, there are no infirmity of the Ld. adjudicating authority granting the refund of the duty paid by the appellant as provided under N/N. 20/2007-CE. Accordingly, the Ld. appellate authority has erred in holding that excess refund was granted to the appellant. As the refund granted to the appellant was not erroneous, the impugned order holding the refund granted as excess and erroneous, set aside.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether prolonged custody and the improbability of early conclusion of trial justified grant of bail notwithstanding the seriousness of the alleged economic offences. (ii) Whether Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 could be construed as a mandate to continue incarceration until completion of trial in a case involving grave charges.
Issue (i): Whether prolonged custody and the improbability of early conclusion of trial justified grant of bail notwithstanding the seriousness of the alleged economic offences.
Analysis: The right to personal liberty and speedy trial under Article 21 remains available to an undertrial, and pre-trial incarceration cannot be allowed to become punishment. Seriousness of the allegation is relevant, but it does not by itself justify continued detention where the investigation is complete, the case is documentary in nature, the charge has not yet been framed, and the trial is not likely to conclude within a reasonable time. The long custody already undergone and the voluminous record, together with the large number of witnesses, weighed in favour of release on bail.
Conclusion: The issue was answered in favour of the appellants and bail was warranted on the facts.
Issue (ii): Whether Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 could be construed as a mandate to continue incarceration until completion of trial in a case involving grave charges.
Analysis: Section 479 was construed as a liberty-enhancing provision intended to decongest prisons, not as a restrictive mandate forbidding bail until the accused completes one-half or one-third of the sentence in every case. Its operation does not exclude the ordinary bail jurisdiction of constitutional courts, and it must be read consistently with the protection of personal liberty under Article 21. The provision therefore could not be used to deny bail merely because the alleged offences carried severe punishment.
Conclusion: The contention based on Section 479 was rejected and did not bar grant of bail.
Final Conclusion: The appeals succeeded and the appellants were directed to be released on bail subject to conditions, without any expression on the merits of the prosecution case.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an undertrial has undergone substantial incarceration and the trial is not likely to conclude within a reasonable time, continued detention offends Article 21, and even in serious economic offences the constitutional courts may grant bail notwithstanding stringent statutory thresholds.
Seeking grant of Regular bail - siphoning off the funds by the appellant by making shell companies - right to speedy trial - case based on documentary evidences - HELD THAT:- There is no gainsaying that under Indian law “bail is the rule and jail is an exception” is etched in the ethos of criminal jurisprudence. This rule stems from the fact that criminal law presumes a person to be innocent unless proven otherwise. Meaning that generally an under-trial prisoner ought not be placed behind bars indefinitely unless there is clear threat to society, influencing witnesses/inquiry or he is a flight risk etc. This rule also ensures that process is also not made punishment, wherein a person is jailed for very many years pending trial. Bail under the Code is a qualified right of an accused before conviction, wherein the accused is not guaranteed bail, rather it puts onus on the prosecution to establish as to why the under-trial prisoner should not be enlarged on bail. Any deviation in the above proposition is constitutionally circumspect.
There has been many cases before this Court, which indicate that a separate treatment is meted out in large scale economic offenses regarding grant of bail. Wherein this Court has on many occasions held that strictest standards have to be applied while granting bail involving large scale economic fraud.
In V. Senthil Balaji Versus Deputy Director, Directorate of Enforcement [2024 (9) TMI 1497 - SUPREME COURT], this Court noted that even under special penal statutes prescribing a higher threshold for grant of bail, these stringent conditions are premised on the legislative expectation of expeditious completion of trial. Consequently, inordinate delay in trial and prolonged pre-trial incarceration cannot coexist with such rigors. While highlighting the “bail is the rule and jail is the exception”, this Court stated that provisions like Section 45 of the PMLA, Section 43D(5) of the UAPA or Section 37 of the NDPS Act cannot be used as tools to incarcerate an undertrial for an unreasonably long period without conclusion of trial.
It is clear that the appellant was made accused on account of non-payment of loan and credit facility availed from a consortium of 17 Banks and divesting of the money in 81 shell companies. Admittedly, this is a case based on documentary evidence and all the accused persons connected with these companies, except the appellants herein have been granted bail. In the present case, total 11 cases have been registered against the appellant as indicated in para 3 above. In all other cases, the appellants have been released on bail. The chargesheet filed by the CBI is voluminous in nature containing more than 4 lakh pages and having 736 witnesses. In addition, 17 trunks of documents are those which are not relied upon and may be brought on record subsequently if deemed necessary by the prosecution. The proceedings against the assets have already been taken up by the NCLT and the CIRP is in progress. In the present case, pending trial, the charges have not yet been framed by the Court.
Thus, it appears that if the case is taken up on day-to-day basis, even in two to three years, the conclusion is not possible. Considering all the facts and circumstances of the case, subject to putting the restrictions on movement of appellants out of India, and without expressing any opinion on the merits of the case, while disposing of these appeals, it is deemed appropriate to release the appellants on bail subject to fulfilment of conditions imposed.
Bail application allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the statutory demand notice under Section 138(b) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 was issued within the prescribed time so as to crystallize a valid cause of action.
(ii) Whether the complaint was filed within limitation under Section 142(b) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 as extended during the COVID-19 period, and whether cognizance could be taken without an application/order for condonation of delay.
(iii) Whether the court in which the complaint was instituted had territorial jurisdiction under Section 142(2)(a) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, based on the location of the payee's bank branch where the account is maintained.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of statutory demand notice under Section 138(b) NI Act
Legal framework: The Court examined the requirement under Section 138(b) that a written demand notice must be issued "within thirty days" of receipt of information from the bank regarding dishonour.
Interpretation and reasoning: The dishonour memo was dated 03.05.2021, whereas the demand notice was issued on 30.12.2021, i.e., nearly seven months later. The complaint contained no averment of any subsequent presentation of the cheque that could have renewed the cause of action. On the pleaded facts, the notice was therefore outside the statutory timeline and was treated as invalid for the dishonour in May 2021.
Conclusion: In the absence of a valid notice within the prescribed period, the cause of action under Section 138 did not crystallize on the complaint's own showing; the complaint did not satisfy the statutory pre-condition.
Issue (ii): Limitation for filing the complaint under Section 142(b) NI Act and effect of COVID extension; necessity of condonation
Legal framework: The Court applied Section 142(b), under which a complaint must be filed within one month of the cause of action, and also considered the proviso permitting cognizance beyond time only upon the complainant showing "sufficient cause" and the court condoning delay. The Court also applied the COVID-related extension directions referenced in the judgment, which granted 90 days from 01.03.2022 where limitation expired between 15.03.2020 and 28.02.2022.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the complaint's own dates, service of notice was stated as 31.12.2021; the 15-day period expired on 15.01.2022; and cause of action arose on 16.01.2022. Ordinary limitation would have run till 15.02.2022, which fell within the pandemic-extension bracket. Applying the extension, the complaint could be filed within 90 days from 01.03.2022, i.e., by 29.05.2022. The record reflected physical filing on 24.06.2022, beyond the extended deadline. No application for condonation of delay was filed, and the summoning order took cognizance without recording satisfaction regarding delay or condoning it.
Conclusion: The complaint was time-barred even after applying the extended limitation, and cognizance taken without an application/order condoning delay was held bad in law. This limitation defect was decisive and required rejection/quashing.
Issue (iii): Territorial jurisdiction under Section 142(2)(a) NI Act
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 142(2)(a), which fixes jurisdiction where the cheque is delivered for collection through an account at the branch of the bank where the payee/holder maintains the account.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although it was argued that the cheque was presented at another branch, the complaint stated that the payee's "Home Branch" (where the account is maintained) was located within the relevant district. On that pleaded basis, the Court held that the chosen forum satisfied Section 142(2)(a).
Conclusion: The territorial jurisdiction objection was rejected; however, despite jurisdiction being found proper, the complaint and summoning order were quashed because the proceedings were barred by limitation and did not comply with the statutory timeline requirements.
Dishonour of Cheque - Seeking the quashing of the Complaint Case under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 - maintainability of complaint when the Legal Notice was issued nearly 7 months after the dishonor of the cheque contrary to the 30-day mandate under Section 138(b) NI Act - time limitation - Complaint was filed in Patiala House Courts which lack territorial jurisdiction - raising of presumption under Sections 118 and 139 of the NI Act in favor of the holder - existence of debt or not.
Whether the Complaint has been filed in accordance with S.138 NI Act? - HELD THAT:- The Complaint merely states the cheque was presented on 30.04.2021 and returned on 03.05.2021. It is rightly stated by the petitioner that a Legal Notice issued on 30.12.2021 for dishonor of Cheque in May, 2021 makes it invalid - Without a valid statutory Notice within the prescribed 30-day of dishonor of the Cheque, the cause of action under Section 138 NI Act, did not crystallize. The Complaint is therefore, liable to be rejected as it does not meet the requirements of S.138 NI Act - considering that there was Covid -19 prevailing during the entire 2021, the delay in giving the Legal Notice is condonable, it may further be examined whether the Complaint is maintainable on other grounds.
Whether the Cheque was given as Security? - HELD THAT:- There is no cogent basis disclosed by the petitioner, to assert that it was a security cheque given to secure the Loan amount. Pertinently, the precise case is that since there was no security available, out of the total loan of Rs. Rs. 5,00,000/- along with interest, only an amount of Rs. 2,60,000/-, was disbursed. As per the Petitioner, the loan amount was paid between August, 2017 till February, 2019 and there was a misunderstanding about the small balance amount of Rs. 50,000/- and also that initial Security Cheque was misplaced. If only a small amount remained to be paid at the time of issuance of Cheque on, there was no question of giving the Cheque for the entire loan amount. There is no basis to claim it was a security Cheque and not given towards existing Legal Liability - Moreover, even if it is accepted that the cheque was given as security for a loan, it crystallizes into a legally enforceable debt on a subsequent date; the cheque, even if originally a “security” one, assumes the character of a cheque issued in discharge of that debt for the purpose of Section 138.
The Security Cheques are only given to be utilised if subsequently, during the business transactions, certain liabilities arise which are not fulfilled by the Petitioners - The petitioner has asserted that the entire Loan except a small amount of Rs.50,000/- remains to be paid. This contention that there is outstanding loan amount or that it stood paid, is a disputed facts to be proved by evidence, which cannot be a ground to challenge the maintainability of the Complaint itself. This contention of Petitioner is, therefore, not tenable.
Whether Complaint was Filed within Limitation? - HELD THAT:- Proviso to Section 142(b) NI Act allows the court to take cognizance of a Complaint after the prescribed period, if the complainant satisfies the court that he had “sufficient cause” for not filing the Complaint within the prescribed period. A perusal of the TCR reveals that the Complainant did not file any Application for condonation of delay along with the Complaint. The Complaint erroneously claims that the limitation was extended up to “28.03.2022” and claims the Complaint is within time - It is settled law that cognizance of a time-barred Complaint, without an Application for condonation of delay and an order condoning the delay, is bad in law - The Complaint under S.138 NI Act is liable for rejection as being barred by limitation.
Whether Complaint was filed in the Court having Territorial Jurisdiction? - HELD THAT:- When the cheque is delivered for collection through an account, the Complaint is to be filed before the Court where the payee or the holder in due course maintains his bank - The Complaint states the “Home Branch” of the Complainant’s Bank is situated at R.K. Puram, which falls within the New Delhi District. Therefore, this contention does not hold any merit.
Thus, it is established that the Complaint has not been filed within the timeline prescribed under S.138 NI Act and is barred by limitation - petition allowed.
TaxTMI