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1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the adjudication order levying GST at 18% on the works component relating to laying of internal roads (infrastructure/road works) was sustainable, in light of the certificate issued by the Industrial Area Local Authority stating that the roads are treated as public roads and maintained for the benefit of all stakeholders including the general public.
(ii) Whether the Court should interfere with the assessment order in respect of tax levied on other components apart from the road-laying works, and whether the assessing authority should pass separate year-wise orders.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of levy at 18% on internal road-laying works; necessity of fresh determination
Legal framework: The Court dealt with the adjudication made under Section 73 of the GST Act and considered the petitioner's reliance on Entry-3 of Notification No.24 of 2017 dated 21.09.2017, as pressed in argument, for the applicable rate of tax on road works treated as public in nature.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court considered that, during pendency, a certificate dated 11.12.2025 was produced from the Executive Officer, Industrial Area Local Authority, stating that the roads laid were for facilitating industrial activity and the movement of general public, vehicles and goods, that such roads are treated as public roads, and are maintained for the benefit of stakeholders including the general public. On that basis, the Court held that the petitioner had made out a case requiring reconsideration of the applicable rate of tax for the road-laying works by the assessing authority afresh, taking the said certificate into account.
Conclusions: The adjudication order was set aside only to the extent it levied tax at 18% on the works executed in relation to laying of roads. The assessing authority was directed to redo the assessment for the road-laying component after considering the certificate dated 11.12.2025.
Issue (ii): Extent of judicial interference with other components and requirement of year-wise orders
Legal framework: The Court confined its interference to the specific component requiring reconsideration and addressed the manner in which the reassessment should be undertaken for the relevant financial years.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court expressly limited the setting aside of the adjudication order to the road-laying works, and found that the remaining portions of the assessment concerning other components did not warrant interference. Further, since the dispute related to multiple financial years, the Court directed the authority to issue separate orders for each financial year while redoing the assessment for the road component.
Conclusions: The assessment order was left undisturbed for other components. The assessing authority was directed to pass separate orders year-wise while completing the fresh determination for the road-laying works.
Demand of differential tax - wrongful payment of output tax @ 12% instead of 18% on the Infrastructure Development Works (laying of internal roads) - HELD THAT:- This Court feels that the petitioner has made out a case for consideration based on the certificate issued by the Executive Officer, IALA, so as to decide the rate of tax in respective of works executed by it to be decided by the 1st respondent afresh.
Accordingly, the impugned order dt.14.08.2025 passed by the 1st respondent is set aside only to the extent of levying tax @ 18% for the works executed by the petitioner in relation to laying of roads. The 1st respondent is further directed to redo the assessment by taking into consideration of the certificate dated 11.12.2025 issued by the Executive Officer, IALA, IP-Gudipalli.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the supply of electricity made to an Indian intermediary for onward supply to a foreign buyer qualifies as "export of goods" and hence "zero rated supply" under the IGST framework, entitling refund of unutilised input tax credit.
2. Whether the arrangements and documents relied upon created such privity/integration as to treat the intermediary arrangement as a single export supply by the generator, notwithstanding separate contracts and an Indian "delivery point".
3. What relief, if any, should be granted where refund claims were rejected on the basis that the intermediary supply is domestic, while the generator also had direct export supplies.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Characterisation of supply to an intermediary as "export of goods" / "zero rated supply" for ITC refund
Legal framework (as discussed and applied by the Court): The Court applied Article 286 principles and the IGST framework, specifically Section 16 (zero rated supply) read with Section 2(5) (export of goods: "taking goods out of India to a place outside India"). The Court also relied on the constitutional understanding of "in the course of export" as interpreted in the decision it treated as directly interpreting Article 286 without CST Section 5 overlay.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that, under Section 2(5), the decisive test for "export of goods" is whether the supply is for taking goods out of India and the goods are in fact taken out. The Court nevertheless distinguished between (i) the export supply from the Indian intermediary to the foreign buyer (which moved electricity out of India), and (ii) the generator's supply to the intermediary, which was a separate supply completed in India at the contractually defined "delivery point" located in India. The Court reasoned that a prior/penultimate supply made for the purpose of fulfilling an export contract remains a distinct domestic supply and does not become an export merely because it is linked commercially to a subsequent export by another party.
Conclusion: The supply of electricity by the generator to the Indian intermediary was held not to be "export of goods" / "zero rated supply"; it was a domestic supply within India. Consequently, the generator was not entitled to claim refund of unutilised ITC by treating the intermediary turnover as zero-rated export turnover.
Issue 2: Whether the contracts/meetings created privity or a single integrated export transaction attributable to the generator
Legal framework (as discussed and applied by the Court): The Court applied the constitutional concept that preparatory or preceding transactions undertaken "for the purpose of export" do not, without more, become transactions "in the course of export" for exemption/zero-rating; it treated the separation of contracts and absence of privity as legally decisive on the facts before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined that the intermediary had a contract with the foreign buyer and the generator had a separate contract with the intermediary. The "delivery point" for measurement and transfer was explicitly in India, and the contractual structure contemplated transfer from the generator to the intermediary and from the intermediary to the foreign buyer at that Indian point. The Court rejected the argument that meeting minutes and contractual references to the generator as the source created privity of contract between the generator and the foreign buyer, noting there was no contractual variation creating a direct legal relationship. The Court also noted that the generator was not a party to the intermediary's supply contract with the foreign buyer, and therefore its supply could only be described as a supply for export rather than an export itself.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that the generator's and intermediary's supplies remained two separate supplies; there was no privity or contractual integration sufficient to recharacterise the generator's supply to the intermediary as an export/zero-rated supply.
Issue 3: Relief and directions concerning resubmission of refund claims for direct export supplies
Legal framework (as discussed and applied by the Court): The Court referred to Section 54 CGST and the refund computation mechanism under Rule 89(4), directing recomputation consistently with the Court's characterisation of supplies.
Interpretation and reasoning: While dismissing the challenge to rejection insofar as it treated intermediary supplies as domestic, the Court recognised that the generator also made direct supplies to the foreign buyer which could be considered for refund as export/zero-rated supplies. To enable proper computation, the Court allowed resubmission of refund applications by treating the intermediary supplies as domestic in the Rule 89 formula, and directed that the authorities should not reject the resubmitted applications on limitation and should decide them within a fixed time.
Conclusion: The writ petitions were dismissed, but the petitioner was permitted to resubmit refund applications limited to direct export supplies within four weeks; the authorities were directed to process them without raising limitation and to pass orders within six weeks.
Export of goods or not - Supply of electricity made by the petitioner to the Bangladesh Board directly as well as the supply made by the petitioner to the Bangladesh Board, through PTC - Refund of the input tax credit, which accrued on account of the purchase of goods and services from various third parties - export supply, which are zero rated supplies, under the provisions of Section 16 of the IGST Act, 2017 or not - HELD THAT:- The supply of electricity, in the present case, would be a sale and Article 286 would be applicable. This would mean that any sale of electricity, in the course of export would be an export supply. However, one difference between the CST regime and the IGST regime is that, the principles formulated, in section 5 of the CST Act would not be applicable and only such principles, as can be discerned from a reading of Article 286 and Section 2(5) and 16 of the IGST Act would have to be applied. Section 2(5) of the IGST Act, read with Article 286(1)(b) would mean that all supply of goods, in the course of taking goods out of India, would be export of goods. The further requirement, of Section 5 (2) of the CST Act, that only such sales which occasion the movement of goods, would amount to export sales, would not apply.
In the present case, PTC had entered into a contract with the Bangladesh Board to supply electricity. That agreement specifically mentioned that the electricity would be sourced from the petitioner. A separate agreement was executed between PTC and the petitioner. Under the agreement between PTC and the petitioner, the electricity would be loaded into the Grid at the interconnection point, in Andhra Pradesh, to be wheeled to the Delivery point, which is the Bohronpur sub-station, in West Bengal. It is at this point that the electricity would stand transferred from the petitioner to PTC and from PTC to the Bangladesh Board.
Even if the judgments in K.G. Khosla and Co.(P) Ltd. Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Commercial Taxes Madras Division, Madras [1966 (1) TMI 54 - SUPREME COURT], Union of India & another vs. K.G. Khosla & Co. (P). Ltd. [1979 (3) TMI 176 - SUPREME COURT], and M/s. Indure Limited vs. Commercial Tax Officer [2010 (9) TMI 883 - SUPREME COURT], are pressed into service, the dealer there, was common in both transactions and the question of privity of contract did not come up. The minutes of the meetings held between the representatives of the petitioner, PTC and the Bangladesh Board do not make out privity of contract as these meetings were held to ensure smooth supply of electricity and there was no variation in the contracts to create a direct relationship between the petitioner and the Bangladesh Board. The supply, of electricity, between the petitioner and PTC can only be called a supply for export of goods and not, per se, an export of goods. The petitioner, though mentioned in the agreement, is not a party to the contract of supply of electricity, by PTC to the Bangladesh Board. The inevitable conclusion is that the supply of electricity, by the petitioner, to PTC is not a exports supply of goods and is a supply within India.
These writ petitions are dismissed, leaving it open to the petitioner, to resubmit it’s applications, within a period of four weeks from today, for refund of ITC, relating to the supply made by the petitioner to the Bangladesh Board directly, by treating the supply of electricity to PTC, as domestic supply of electricity, in the formula set out in Rule 89. Upon such resubmission, the respondent authorities shall consider the applications, without going into the question of limitation, and pass orders within a period of six weeks from the date of submission.
Issues: (i) Whether the writ petition suffered from delay for want of service of the assessment order; (ii) Whether a composite assessment order covering multiple assessment years was sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether the writ petition suffered from delay for want of service of the assessment order.
Analysis: The material placed before the Court did not establish service of the assessment order on the petitioner. The returned covers indicated non-availability or refusal, and there was no proof of effective service on the petitioner after cancellation of registration and closure of business.
Conclusion: The objection based on delay was not accepted.
Issue (ii): Whether a composite assessment order covering multiple assessment years was sustainable.
Analysis: The impugned assessment order covered three separate assessment years in one composite order. Such clubbing of distinct assessment years in a single order was held to be impermissible, and the assessment had to be made year-wise.
Conclusion: The composite assessment order was unsustainable and was set aside, with a direction to pass separate orders for each assessment year.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition succeeded, the assessment order was annulled, and the matter was sent back for fresh year-wise adjudication with exclusion of the intervening period for limitation purposes.
Ratio Decidendi: An assessment order covering multiple assessment years in a single composite order is impermissible and must be set aside, with fresh consideration required for each year separately.
Inordinate delay in the petitioner approaching this Court - petitioner claims of no delay due the delayed service of order - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the material placed before this Court does not show any proof of service of the impugned order, dated 07.07.2023, on the petitioner. In such circumstances, the High Court is mandated to accept the delay in the petitioner approaching this Court.
The impugned Order of assessment, dated 07.07.2023, covers three separate assessment years. Such a composite order in relation to three separate years is impermissible in view of the Judgment of a Division Bench of this Court, in W.P.No.11028 of 2025 & batch, in the case of SJ Constructions Vs. The Assistant Commissioner & Ors.[2025 (9) TMI 1215 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT].
The matter is remanded back to the assessing authority to pass an appropriate order for each assessment year separately - petition allowed by way of remand.
Outcome: The impugned appellate order was directed to be withdrawn and the authorities were directed to pass a fresh order after hearing the petitioner.
Excess ITC claimed in the GSTR 3B return which was delayed filed - major ITC was disallowed based on timing and matching grounds - respondent without considering the unintended delay, rejected the appeal on the ground of limitation - HELD THAT:- The respondent authorities are directed to pass a fresh order, dealing with all the contentions raised by the petitioner and after affording due opportunity of hearing. The said exercise shall be completed within a period of twelve weeks from the date of receipt of a writ of this order.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether dismissal of the statutory appeal solely on the ground of delay was sustainable when the notices and the adjudication order were served only through uploading on the GST portal under the "Additional Notices and Orders" tab, and the taxpayer asserted lack of due knowledge until later email intimation.
(ii) What consequential relief and directions were warranted upon finding that the taxpayer lacked due knowledge of the proceedings concluded against it, including restoration of the appeal and the scope of contentions to be considered on merits by the appellate authority.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of dismissal of appeal for delay where service was only by portal uploading and taxpayer claimed lack of due knowledge
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court noted that the impugned appellate order was passed by the appellate authority under Section 107 and that the underlying adjudication order was under Section 73 of the 2017 GST enactments. The Court proceeded on the admitted position regarding the mode of service adopted in the case.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated it as undisputed that the relevant notices in the adjudication proceeding and the adjudication order were served only by uploading on the GST portal and not by any other mode. The taxpayer's case, accepted for the purpose of deciding the writ petition, was that it became aware of the notices and the adjudication order only upon receiving an email reminder about outstanding demand. On that basis, the Court concluded that it could not be said the taxpayer had "due knowledge" of the proceedings that were continued and concluded against it. The Court applied the approach taken in a coordinate bench decision dealing with a similar factual situation and stated it had no reason to take a different view.
Conclusion: The Court held that, in the circumstances, the appellate authority's dismissal of the appeal on delay could not be sustained; accordingly, the appellate order deserved to be set aside.
Issue (ii): Appropriate relief-restoration of appeal and directions on consideration of merits
Interpretation and reasoning: Having found that the taxpayer lacked due knowledge of the proceedings, the Court determined that the proper course was to restore the statutory appeal for a fresh decision on merits rather than allow the dismissal for delay to stand. The Court further addressed the taxpayer's request that a subsequent development in its own case-where a similar demand for another financial year was dropped upon considering the taxpayer's reply-be considered by the appellate authority. The Court did not itself adjudicate the merits of the demand but held that the taxpayer should be permitted to raise all points before the appellate authority, including reliance on the stated dropping of a similar demand, and that the appellate authority must decide in accordance with law after considering those facts.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the appellate order and restored the appeal to the appellate authority for a fresh decision on merits, with liberty to the taxpayer to raise all points (including the fact of dropping of a similar demand in its own case) and a direction that the appellate authority consider such aspects while deciding the appeal in accordance with law.
Dismissal of appeal on the ground of delay - fault with uploading of notices under the “Additional Notices and Orders” or not - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the petitioners have been served with the notices in respect of the proceeding and the order impugned only by way of uploading thereof on the relevant GST portal and not by any other mode. It is the petitioners’ case that they could get to know of the notices and the order impugned only after receiving intimation through mail.
In such view of the matter, it cannot be said that the petitioners had due knowledge of the proceedings that had been continued and concluded against them. Sankar Agarwala [2025 (11) TMI 295 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] has elaborately dealt with a similar issue.
This Court has no reason to take a different view. The order impugned herein dated May 21, 2025, therefore, deserves to be set aside - Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Court should exercise writ jurisdiction to set aside a tax demand and penalty where the taxpayer did not respond to the show cause notice, did not attend personal hearing, and approached the Court after a substantial delay, while disputing service through an "unauthorized" email.
(ii) Whether, in the circumstances, the appropriate course is to permit recourse to rectification under Section 161 of the CGST Act so that the taxpayer's claim to benefit under the amended Section 16(5) of the CGST Act can be examined by the Department on merits with a reasoned order and personal hearing.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Maintainability/relief in writ in light of non-response to SCN, non-participation, and delay
Legal framework: The Court proceeded under Articles 226 and 227, and considered the taxpayer's conduct in relation to the departmental show cause process and the belated challenge to the final adjudication order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the taxpayer did not file any reply to the show cause notice, did not attend personal hearing, and challenged the adjudication order long after it was passed. The Court rejected the approach of remaining silent upon receipt of an email from the Department and later challenging the final order, particularly where the challenge was raised after a prolonged delay. On the facts, the Court found the taxpayer's conduct recalcitrant and held that the Department could not be faulted for proceeding to pass the impugned order in such circumstances.
Conclusion: The Court did not set aside the demand and penalty in writ on the basis urged, and declined to fault the Department given the taxpayer's failure to respond/participate and the belated approach.
Issue (ii): Whether to direct recourse to rectification under Section 161 to consider benefit under amended Section 16(5) CGST Act
Legal framework: The Court considered the amendment to Section 16(5) of the CGST Act as relied upon by the taxpayer, and directed use of rectification proceedings under Section 161 of the CGST Act, including consideration of the third proviso to Section 161 as to passing a reasoned order.
Interpretation and reasoning: While the Department asserted that a mechanism existed for availing ITC after the amendment and that the taxpayer did not use it, the Court considered that rectification would be a proper course because the amendment to Section 16(5) might confer some benefit on the taxpayer. The Court therefore opted to dispose of the writ by permitting a rectification application, requiring the taxpayer to set out in detail the benefit claimed under Section 16(5), mandating that the Department consider that claim and pass a reasoned order, and directing that a personal hearing be granted. The Court also protected the rectification application from rejection on limitation if filed by the stipulated date, and fixed a timeline for disposal.
Conclusion: The petition was disposed of by permitting filing of a rectification application under Section 161 by a specified date; the Department was directed not to reject it on limitation if filed within that time, to decide it on merits with a reasoned order after personal hearing, and to pass the rectification order within two months; all further rights and remedies were left open.
Cancellation of GST registration of petitioner - entitlement to take Input Tax Credit (ITC) in respect of four financial years i.e., 2017-18, 2018-19, 2019-20 and 2020-21 - retrospective effect of the provision or not - HELD THAT:- No tax payer who receives an email from the Department can simply remain silent and not reply to the same and, thereafter, file a writ petition challenging the final order which has been passed that too in such a belated manner.
In this case, the Petitioner did not file the reply to the SCN, did not attend any personal hearing and the impugned order was also passed on 8th April, 2024, but the challenge has been raised almost 18 months later. In the opinion of this court the Petitioner has been recalcitrant in the manner in which it has dealt with the SCN. The Department cannot be faulted under such circumstances and for passing the impugned order.
In the opinion of this Court, this would be a proper course of action especially considering the fact that Section 16(5) of the CGST Act has been amended and the Petitioner may be entitled to some benefit under the said provision - the writ petition is disposed of permitting the Petitioner to file a rectification application under Section 161 of the CGST Act by 15th January 2026.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, in a writ petition challenging a confiscation show cause notice, the Court should confine relief to expeditious adjudication with fixed timelines, while expressly leaving merits open.
(ii) Whether the Court should flag and direct institutional consideration of the apparent incongruity between the statutory provision permitting provisional release of seized goods on bond/security and the rule-based mechanism effectively insisting on payment/bank guarantee for the full amount of applicable tax, interest and penalty, particularly where seized electronic goods risk becoming outdated.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Time-bound adjudication of the show cause notice and filing of reply
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis that the petition invoked writ jurisdiction under Article 226, but did not examine the merits of the confiscation proposal. The Court focused on ensuring an adjudication mechanism for the pending show cause notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the notice had remained without a reply and adjudication for a substantial period, and recorded the willingness of both sides to proceed if time-bound directions were fixed, particularly considering that the seized goods were electronic goods likely to become technologically outdated. The Court accepted the departmental submission that the concerned division was willing to adjudicate the notice in a time-bound manner, and balanced this with the petitioner's request for certainty on timelines.
Conclusions: The Court disposed of the petition by directing the noticee to file a reply by a fixed date, mandating that a personal hearing be granted, and requiring the adjudicating authority to render a decision by a fixed outer date. The Court expressly clarified that it had not examined the merits and that all rights and remedies in the adjudication were left open.
(ii) Need for policy-level resolution on provisional release mechanism for seized goods
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the statutory allowance for provisional release of seized goods upon execution of a bond and furnishing of security, and contrasted it with the rule mechanism specifying security in the form of a bank guarantee equivalent to the amount of applicable tax, interest and penalty payable. The Court also noted that the show cause notice recorded an "option" of provisional release but did not quantify the amount payable or stipulate conditions for such release.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court identified an "incongruity" in practice: although the statute contemplates provisional release on bond/security (or on payment), the rule-based prescription, as noticed by the Court, results in a mechanism effectively requiring payment/coverage of the entire tax, interest and penalty, without providing alternative acceptable security modalities that may exist under other enactments. In the Court's assessment, this issue becomes particularly significant where goods (such as older imported electronic goods) may depreciate or become obsolete during prolonged seizure/adjudication. Given these circumstances, the Court held that the inconsistency deserved resolution through a policy decision regarding how provisional release is to be considered in seizures effected on alleged suspicion of GST evasion.
Conclusions: The Court directed that the matter be placed before the GST Council for consideration of the identified incongruity and also directed communication of its order to the concerned authority within the tax administration for information and compliance.
Confiscation of the excess stock of Televisions and Motherboards - Petitioner is also willing to file a reply to the SCN so long as time bound directions are fixed, considering the nature of the goods being electronic goods are becoming outdated - HELD THAT:- In the present case, it is recorded that the Petitioner was given an option of provisional release, however, there was no quantification of the amount payable for provisional release and neither there were any conditions imposed for provisional release.
The goods themselves are electronic goods imported 6 years ago and technologically they may have become outdated - this incongruity deserves to be resolved by taking a policy decision on the manner in which provisional release can be considered even when the seizures are effected on alleged suspicion of evasion of GST.
Let this matter be placed before the GST Council - Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether an application for anticipatory bail is maintainable/available in relation to alleged offences under Section 132(1)(b) and 132(1)(c) of the CGST Act, in the absence of any statutory embargo.
(ii) Whether, on the facts found by the Court, custodial interrogation and arrest were necessary for investigation in an alleged fake-invoice/fraudulent input tax credit case punishable up to five years, so as to justify denial of anticipatory bail.
(iii) Whether anticipatory bail should be granted subject to conditions to secure cooperation, prevent tampering, and ensure availability of the accused for investigation, given repeated non-appearance to summons.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Availability of anticipatory bail for offences under the CGST Act
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the CGST Act provisions on arrest and offences. It noted that Section 69 empowers arrest on the Commissioner's "reasons to believe" for specified Section 132 offences, and Section 70 empowers summons for evidence/documents. The Court analysed Section 132, including that offences under Section 132(1)(b) and (c) punishable under Section 132(1)(i) (where the amount exceeds the specified threshold) are cognizable and non-bailable, with maximum imprisonment of five years and fine. It also noted Section 138, under which offences are compoundable subject to statutory conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court expressly held that there is no embargo under the CGST Act restraining an accused from seeking pre-arrest bail. While economic offences are grave, arrest entails deprivation of liberty and must be subject to safeguards. The Court treated the statutory structure-maximum punishment of five years for the relevant offences and the availability of compounding-as relevant to assessing "heinousness" and whether custody is indispensable.
Conclusion: Anticipatory bail is legally available and can be considered on merits for alleged offences under Section 132(1)(b) and (c) of the CGST Act.
Issue (ii): Necessity of custodial interrogation/arrest in the facts of the case
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered the CGST scheme on arrest (Section 69) and summons (Section 70), and the punishment framework under Section 132. It also considered that offences under the Act are, in general, not punishable beyond five years for the present category, and that compounding under Section 138 is contemplated by the statute.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the allegation is an economic offence concerning fraudulent availment/passing of input tax credit and fake invoicing, with the alleged wrongful ITC amount exceeding the threshold attracting up to five years' imprisonment and fine. However, it reasoned that, under the CGST scheme, despite the economic nature of the offence, the punishment cap of five years and the statutory availability of compounding are material in evaluating whether custody is a sine qua non. The Court specifically found that custodial interrogation was neither warranted nor provided for by the statute in the circumstances presented. It further considered that the Department could obtain required information through cooperation pursuant to summons, and that arrest might not be necessary if cooperation is ensured through conditions.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively determined that custodial interrogation/arrest was not necessary in the case to achieve investigative purposes and could be avoided by ensuring cooperation through stringent bail conditions.
Issue (iii): Grant of anticipatory bail and appropriate conditions
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied general anticipatory bail principles, emphasising protection of personal liberty while ensuring investigation is not hampered, and noted that conditions may be imposed to secure attendance, prevent tampering, and prevent flight risk.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted repeated summons and the Department's concern regarding non-appearance, but held that cooperation could be secured through conditions. It also considered that judicial custody would serve no purpose and could adversely impact business, and that the balance between liberty and investigation could be maintained through stringent safeguards.
Conclusion: Anticipatory bail was granted, subject to conditions requiring cooperation and appearance as summoned, non-interference with witnesses/evidence, continuous availability via operational mobile number and location pin, commission of no offence while on bail, surrender of passport and restriction on leaving India without permission, with liberty to seek cancellation upon breach.
Seeking grant of anticipatory bail - fraudulent availment and passing of fake input tax credit, without actual supply of goods/services - petitioner has not paid the GST for transactions worth Rs. 100 Crores - economic offence - maximum punishment for cognizable and non-bailable offence - HELD THAT:- There is no embargo under the CGST Act restraining the petitioner from seeking pre-arrest bail. Economic offences such as tax evasion, money laundering, etc., affect the economy of the country and thus are considered grave in nature. To deter persons from indulging in such economic offences, criminal sanctions are required to be imposed. One of the most prominent criminal sanctions imposed with regard to economic offences is that of arrest. It is widely acknowledged that arrests result in deprivation of liberty of a person. Thus, while it is imperative to maintain law and order in society, the power to arrest must also always be subject to necessary safeguards. Against this backdrop, analysing the arrest provisions under the goods and services tax law, with a view to study the adequacy of the safeguards and authorisation built into the text of the statute, the interplay between these provisions and the standards of arrest has to be established through judicial precedents, as well as other sources such as the Constitution of India and general statutes such as the Code of Criminal Procedure.
The case of Shravan A Mehra v. Superintendent of Central Tax, Anti evasion, Commissionerate [2019 (3) TMI 431 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] is the one that squarely applies to the present case. In this matter, bail was granted in relation to offences under the Act in view of the fact that the offences were not punishable with imprisonment for more than five years. In this case, the petitioner was alleged of having obtained invoices from the company of the respondent without delivery of the goods and thereby evading payment of tax and committing an offence under section 132(1)(b) of the Act. Therein, the petitioner once appeared before the authorities concerned but on a subsequent summon, they were apprehending arrest because another witness who was called to tender statement was arrested by the police. Thus, an application for anticipatory bail was filed before the court.
In the present case, there cannot be any conflict with the fact that petitioner has been charged with economic offence. However, it is to be reiterated that the offence does not contemplate punishment for more than five years or commission of any serious offence along with the economic offence as it is usually the case in offences under other special statutes dealing with economic offences like Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2003. Thus, as per the scheme of the CGST Act, though the offence is of economic nature yet the punishment prescribed cannot be ignored to determine the heinousness of the offence. To conclude, the offences under the Act are not grave to an extent where the custody of the accused can be held to be sine qua non.
In the present case, the petitioner has been accused of wrongly utilizing input tax credit amounting to Rs. 31,62,57,181/- under Section 132(1)(b) and (c). Since the alleged amount exceeds Rs.500 lakhs, the accused can be punished maximum for five years of imprisonment and with fine. Also Sectoin 138 of the Act states that the offences under the Act shall be compoundable either before or after the prosecution. It is very well possible that the respondent – Department might get the information as required if the petitioner co-operates with the authorities concerned and arrest might not be necessary.
The custodial interrogation in the instant matter is neither warranted nor provided for by the statute. Detaining the petitioner in judicial custody would serve no purpose rather would adversely impact the business of the petitioner - this Court is inclined to allow the anticipatory bail application with some conditions imposed.
Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(a) Whether the cancellation of GST registration for continuous non-filing of returns for six months ought to be revoked in writ jurisdiction when the assessee attributes the default to financial constraints and undertakes to file returns and discharge dues.
(b) If revocation is granted, what enforceable conditions should govern restoration, including timelines for compliance and restrictions on utilisation of any available Input Tax Credit (ITC).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (a): Revocation of cancellation of GST registration
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the registration had been cancelled for continuous non-filing of returns for six months. The petitioner explained the default as arising from financial constraints and expressed willingness to file all pending returns and to pay the entire tax liabilities along with applicable interest and penalty. The Court formed the view that the reason furnished for non-compliance within the prescribed time "appears to be genuine", and therefore considered it appropriate to intervene and restore the registration.
Conclusion: The Court revoked the cancellation order and restored the GST registration, subject to compliance with specified conditions.
Issue (b): Conditions for restoration; timelines and ITC restrictions
Interpretation and reasoning: While granting revocation, the Court imposed conditions to ensure prompt statutory compliance and to safeguard revenue. It required a fixed monetary payment as a condition precedent, directed the respondent to enable filing on the GST portal upon proof of such payment, and prescribed a strict time window for filing all pending returns and paying dues. The Court expressly restricted payment/adjustment of tax, interest, fine/fee from any unutilised or unclaimed ITC, and further directed that any ITC remaining unutilised must not be used unless and until scrutinised and approved by a competent departmental officer; only approved ITC could be used for future liabilities. The Court also provided that non-compliance with any condition would result in the benefit of restoration automatically ceasing to operate.
Conclusions (operative conditions): (i) A payment of Rs. 1,000/- was mandated as a prerequisite. (ii) Upon proof, the respondent must take steps, including instructing the GST Network, to enable portal changes to allow return filing and payment within four weeks. (iii) The petitioner must file all returns up to date and pay tax dues with interest and belated filing fee within four weeks from restoration. (iv) Payments under this process cannot be made/adjusted from ITC; any ITC cannot be utilised until departmental scrutiny and approval, and only approved ITC may be utilised thereafter. (v) Failure to comply with any condition causes the restoration benefit to automatically cease.
Cancellation of GST Registration of the petitioner - due to financial constrains, the petitioner had not filed the GST returns for a period of 6 months - HELD THAT:- In this case, the GST registration of the petitioner was cancelled by the respondent vide the impugned order dated 24.04.2024. According to the petitioner, due to financial constrains, he had failed to file his returns continuously for a period of 6 months. The reason provided for non-compliance with the relevant provisions of the Act within the prescribed time, in the considered opinion of this Court, appears to be genuine.
In view of the above, this Court is inclined to revoke the impugned order dated 24.04.2024 passed by the respondent canceling the GST registration of the petitioner. The cancellation of registration is hereby revoked, subject to the fulfillment of the conditions imposed.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(a) Whether rejection of a part of the refund claim solely on the ground of limitation was legally sustainable.
(b) Whether the subsequent order refusing rectification of the refund rejection could stand once the limitation-based rejection itself was unsustainable.
(c) What consequential relief was appropriate-direct sanction of refund or remand for reconsideration on merits within a stipulated period.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (a): Sustainability of limitation-based rejection of refund
Legal framework (as examined by the Court through adoption of prior ruling): The Court proceeded on the basis of the statutory scheme governing refund, including that a refund claim had been rejected on "limitation" alone, and relied on the Court's earlier determination (applied to the present case) that the relevant two-year prescription for such refund claims is not to be treated as mandatory in the circumstances addressed there.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the "sole reason" assigned in the impugned refund order for rejecting the disputed portion was limitation. The Court applied its earlier ruling rendered in identical circumstances, where limitation-based rejection was held contrary to law, including on the reasoning that the concerned limitation provision is directory in such cases and the authority cannot retain tax not legally due. On that basis, the Court concluded that the limitation ground could not sustain the rejection.
Conclusion: The Court held that the refund application/claim was not barred by limitation, and therefore the partial rejection premised only on limitation was unsustainable.
Issue (b): Validity of rejection of rectification request
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the rectification request concerned the very rejection founded on limitation, and the Court held that the refund claim was not barred by limitation, the later order rejecting rectification could not independently survive.
Conclusion: The order rejecting rectification was quashed along with the original limitation-based refund rejection.
Issue (c): Appropriate relief-remand and timeline
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the limitation ground was rejected, the Court directed reconsideration "afresh in accordance with law," bearing in mind the earlier ruling relied upon, rather than itself undertaking a merits adjudication of the refund entitlement. The Court found remand appropriate for the proper authority to pass fresh orders consistent with the Court's holding on limitation.
Conclusion: The Court quashed both impugned orders, held the claim within time, and remitted the matter to the refund authority for reconsideration and fresh decision within three months from receipt of the order.
Refund claim filed in time or not - rejection of refund claim on the ground of time limitation - HELD THAT:- Under identical circumstances, this Court in the case of M/s. Merck Life Science Private Limited v. The Union of India and others [2025 (11) TMI 1419 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], has held that 'the impugned orders passed by respondent No.3 holding that the refund claim is barred by limitation is contrary to facts and law and the same deserves to be set aside by holding that the refund application/claim of the petitioner is within time and is not barred by limitation.'
Thus, it is deemed just and appropriate to set aside the impugned order and remit the matter back to respondent No.1 for reconsideration afresh in accordance with law - petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the verification report rejecting the claim for want of supporting documents, and the consequential adjudicatory orders founded upon that report, required interference where the claimant sought one further opportunity to produce pleadings and documents.
(ii) Whether the appropriate relief, in the circumstances, was to set aside the verification report and consequential orders and remit the matter for fresh verification and reconsideration with "sufficient and reasonable opportunity" and personal hearing.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Interference with verification report and consequential orders due to non-production of documents and request for further opportunity
Legal framework: The Court noted that the consequential orders were passed under the Karnataka Goods and Services Act / Central Goods and Services Act, 2017 (including reference to Section 73(9), Section 140 read with Rule 117), but its determination turned on the manner in which the verification process culminated in an adverse report due to non-submission of documents.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found from the record that during verification, reminders were issued to the claimant to produce documents; upon non-production, the verifying authority concluded against the claimant and issued an adverse verification report. The Court accepted the claimant's specific assertion that, if granted one more opportunity, the claimant would appear and produce appropriate pleadings and documents. In these circumstances, the Court considered it "just and appropriate" to adopt a "justice oriented approach" and held that the adverse report and the consequential orders should not stand solely on the basis of the earlier non-production, when a further opportunity could enable a proper merits-based verification.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the verification report and, because the subsequent orders were consequential to and founded upon that report, the Court also set aside the consequential orders.
Issue (ii): Appropriate remedial directions-remand, opportunity, and further action based on fresh verification
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the requirement that the claimant be afforded "sufficient and reasonable opportunity" and a personal hearing at the relevant stages, before any fresh adverse action is taken.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having decided to provide a further opportunity, the Court directed remand to the verifying authority for reconsideration "afresh in accordance with law." To operationalize the opportunity, the Court fixed a date for appearance without awaiting further notice and granted liberty to file additional pleadings and documents. The Court further structured the subsequent steps: preparation of a fresh verification report, forwarding it to the authorities who would then proceed further, again ensuring sufficient and reasonable opportunity and granting personal hearing before passing any further orders in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The Court allowed the petition; set aside the verification report and both consequential orders; remitted the matter for fresh verification; mandated appearance on a specified date; preserved liberty to file additional material; required preparation and transmission of a fresh verification report; and directed that further proceedings be conducted with sufficient and reasonable opportunity and personal hearing.
Demand of GST / Transitional Credit - Challenge to verification report rejecting the claim for want of supporting documents - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the impugned verification report at Annexure - M1 dated 24.02.2023 will indicate that respondent No.4 has come to the conclusion that the petitioner had not submitted relevant documents in support of his claim.
Under these circumstances, it is deemed just and appropriate to adopt a justice oriented approach and in the light of the specific assertion on the part of the petitioner that, if one more opportunity is provided, the petitioner would appear before respondent No.4 and produce appropriate pleadings and documents, the impugned report at Annexure - M1 dated 24.02.2023 and subsequent impugned orders at Annexures - A and B dated 31.08.2024 and 27.02.2023 deserve to be set aside and the matter remitted back to respondent No.4 for reconsideration afresh in accordance with law.
Petition allowed by way of remand.
Issues: Whether the writ petition was maintainable in view of the statutory appeal under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, and whether the issue concerning pre-deposit was required to be examined by the appellate authority.
Analysis: The impugned assessment order was appealable under the statutory appellate mechanism. The writ jurisdiction was therefore not entertained, and the petitioner was relegated to the appellate authority. On the question of pre-deposit, a prima facie view was taken that the demand in the order-in-original could not exceed the demand in the show cause notice, and the correctness of the amount to be deposited was left for determination by the appellate authority.
Outcome: The writ petition was disposed of by directing the petitioner to avail the statutory appeal, with the pre-deposit issue left to the appellate authority.
Demand of the tax more than the tax mentioned in the SCN - whether the petitioner is required to deposit only 10% of the demand mentioned in the show cause notice, not the demand assessed by a Assessing Officer in order-in -original? - HELD THAT:- Since, the impugned order is appealable, therefore it is declined to entertain the writ petition. Instead, the petitioner is relegated to prefer an appeal before the Appellate Authority.
So far the question of deposit of 10% is concerned, prima facie, there are substance in the argument advanced by learned counsel for the petitioner that by virtue of Section 75 of the CGST Act, 2017, the demand by way of order -in - original cannot be more than the demand made in SCN. Therefore, the order over and above, the demand made in SCN is unsustainable - Let this issue be also decided by the Appellate Authority, whether the petitioner is required to deposit 10% of the demand mentioned in the SCN or total demand assessed in order -in- original. If appeal is filed alongwith copy of this order, the same be permitted to be filed with an application for deposit of 10% physically.
Petition dispsoed off.
Issues: Whether the goods detained under section 130 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 should be released on furnishing bank guarantee or solvency security pending examination of the factual dispute.
Analysis: The dispute involved factual aspects requiring independent examination by the authorities. The goods were stated to be perishable, and the Court directed provisional release on furnishing security equivalent to the invoice value, while making it clear that such release would not affect the merits of the departmental demand, which would be examined separately after consideration of the parties' replies and documents.
Outcome: The goods were ordered to be released on furnishing bank guarantee or solvency security within the time granted, and the writ petitions were disposed of without adjudication on the merits of the demand.
Levy of fine and penalty - invocation of provisions of Section 130 of the CGST Act - seeking release of the goods and setting aside of the confiscation order - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, the arecanuts are such goods that come under the definition of perishable goods.
Considering the dispute, which needs to be examined on factual aspects, it is directed that upon furnishing of a bank guarantee or solvency security of an amount equivalent to the amount as reflected in the invoice of purchase, the goods shall be released to the petitioner, however, releasing of the goods in no manner will affect the merits relating to the demand being raised by the Department which is to be examined independently by the Authorities after considering the replies and documents of the respondents and the petitioner in this regard. The exercise in this regard will be taken up within a period of three months. The goods shall be released if the solvency security is filed within a period of fifteen days.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the petitioners should be permitted to file and pursue an appeal against the ex parte adjudication order on terms.
Analysis: The petitioners did not participate in the adjudication proceedings and the notice to show cause remained unanswered, resulting in an ex parte order. The petitioners showed sufficient cause for not approaching the appellate forum earlier, but the explanation was not wholly satisfactory. The Court therefore balanced the right to an appellate remedy against the delay by imposing costs and requiring compliance with the statutory pre-deposit condition before the appeal could be entertained without objection on limitation.
Conclusion: The petitioners were granted an to prefer the appeal subject to payment of costs and compliance with the statutory pre-deposit requirement, and the appellate authority was directed to hear the appeal on merits without raising a limitation objection.
Challenge to adjudication order passed by the proper officer u/s 73 of the WBGST Act, 2017 / CGST Act, 2017 - petitioners could not prefer appeal in time inasmuch as the authorized signatory of the petitioner no. 1 was seriously unwell and the business of the petitioner no. 1 also got closed much prior to the time when the notice to show-cause was issued - HELD THAT:- It is evident that the petitioners have not been able to participate in the adjudication proceedings and has not filed any reply to the notice to show-cause by reason whereof the said proceedings were conducted and concluded ex-parte. If the petitioners are not given one opportunity to challenge the adjudication order before the appellate authority, the petitioners would be losing one important forum of appeal.
In such view of the matter, this Court is of the view that the petitioners should be afforded a chance to contest the validity of the adjudication order impugned herein. However, since explanation furnished by the petitioners is not fully satisfactory, this Court is of the view that the petitioners should be put on terms. Accordingly, it is directed that if the petitioners pay costs to the tune of Rs. 20,000/- to the State Legal Services Authority within four weeks from date and file appeal before the appellate authority within the same period of four weeks from date upon furnishing proof of such payment of costs to the appellate authority then the petitioners’ appeal shall be entertained by the appellate authority.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the detained goods were liable to be released under Section 129(1)(a) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 on the basis of invoice valuation, and whether the impugned order computing the matter under Section 129(1)(b) could be sustained.
Analysis: The challenge arose from detention of goods and vehicle and the consequential order passed under Section 129(3) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Section 20 of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The Court accepted the petitioner's position that the dispute was confined to the proceeding under Section 129, and relied on the earlier view that where the petitioner asserts ownership and the transaction is supported by invoice and e-way bill, the authorities cannot enhance valuation while proceeding under Section 129(1)(a). On the record and the binding precedents cited, the Court found no reason to depart from that view.
Conclusion: The goods were directed to be released under Section 129(1)(a) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 on the basis of the invoice value, and the order dated 08.11.2025 was quashed.
Detention of the goods and vehicle of the petitioner - petitioner is the owner of the goods - whether the goods may be released by the authorities under Section 129(1)(a) or 129(1)(b) of the CGST Act read with IGST Act? - HELD THAT:- On a bare perusal of the record and the judgments cited, it is found that there are no reason why this Court should take a different view of the matter. Ergo, the goods would have to be released in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the CGST Act read with IGST Act.
Accordingly, the order passed by the authorities dated 08.11.2025 is quashed and set aside. The respondent authorities are directed to carry out the exercise in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the CGST Act read with IGST Act within a period of three weeks from today on the basis of valuation as specified in the invoice - As the petitioner has not pressed for the other prayers in the writ petition, the same may be pursued by it before the appropriate forum.
Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Self-Assessment Tax payment made for the relevant assessment year, attributable solely to the declared undisclosed income becoming taxable under the regular law due to non-payment under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016, must be treated as a valid payment towards the Scheme liability upon grant of the subsequent payment opportunity.
(ii) Whether, upon such treatment and completion of payments, the authority is required to issue Form-4 acknowledging acceptance of the declaration, and whether consequential exclusion of the declared undisclosed income from the assessment year's total income and modification of the assessment computation and demand must follow.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Treatment of Self-Assessment Tax as payment towards the Scheme liability
Legal framework (as considered by the Court): The Court examined the Scheme's consequence of non-payment whereby the declared undisclosed income becomes chargeable to tax under the regular law in the year of declaration, and the later statutory/notification-based "second opportunity" permitting defaulting declarants to regularise payment. The Court also applied the constitutional requirement that tax collection must have authority of law (Article 265), and considered the CBDT clarification (Circular No. 25/2016) to the extent it was relied upon to allow credit of taxes related to income declared under the Scheme where not otherwise already claimed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the case "unique" because the Self-Assessment Tax liability arose "for one reason and one reason alone": the prior failure to pay the Scheme's final instalment, which by operation of the Scheme shifted taxation of the same undisclosed income to regular assessment. The Self-Assessment Tax payment was therefore "inextricably linked" to that undisclosed income. When the later beneficial relaxation provided a second opportunity to revive the declaration, the intent was to enable regularisation and revenue collection, not to create a situation of double taxation from procedural complexities. The Revenue's objection that no express provision permitted adjustment was held "hyper-technical" and contrary to the "substance of the transaction." Requiring payment again under the Scheme while retaining the Self-Assessment Tax already paid for the same income was held unjust, inequitable, and contrary to Article 265. The Court further reasoned that the Self-Assessment Tax payment effectively arose from the Scheme's own deeming consequences, and thus could be considered a tax payment arising by virtue of the Scheme's legal fiction. Relying on the CBDT clarification that taxes related to declared income should be allowed under the Scheme (where not already claimed), the Court held that this rationale applied "with more force" because the payment was made only due to non-acceptance at that stage and directly related to the declared undisclosed income.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively held that the Self-Assessment Tax amount must be treated as a valid payment towards the Scheme's instalment liability, directed the authorities to take steps including changing the payment head in the challan/system if necessary, and held that refusal to recognise it and the consequential failure to issue Form-4 was arbitrary and unsustainable in law.
Issue (ii): Mandatory issuance of Form-4 and consequential modification of assessment to avoid taxing the same income
Legal framework (as considered by the Court): The Court applied the consequence provision requiring exclusion/reduction of the declared undisclosed income from total income once the declaration is accepted under the Scheme (as directed to be given effect to under Section 188 as referred to by the Court), and ordered consequential modification of the assessment, computation, and demand for the relevant assessment year.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having concluded that the Scheme liability stood satisfied when the Self-Assessment Tax was treated as part of the instalment payment and the balance amounts (with interest) were paid within the extended window, the Court held that the declaration must be acknowledged through issuance of Form-4. The Court further reasoned that once Form-4 is issued and the declaration is accepted, the undisclosed income covered by the Scheme cannot simultaneously remain taxed in the regular assessment for the same year; otherwise it would perpetuate double taxation of the same income. Accordingly, the assessment order, computation, and demand required recalibration to reflect removal of the declared undisclosed income from the assessed total income, and to ensure the Self-Assessment Tax amount (now treated as Scheme payment) is not again granted as credit in the regular assessment computation.
Conclusions: The Court directed issuance of Form-4; directed reduction of the declared undisclosed income from the total income for the assessment year and modification of the assessment order accordingly; and directed revision of the computation and demand after reducing total income by the declared amount and by not granting credit of the Self-Assessment Tax in that assessment year (since it was to be treated as Scheme payment). The Court treated the petitioner's alternative argument as academic and declined adjudication on it. A time-bound completion of the entire exercise within 60 days was ordered.
Inaction of the Respondents in not issuing Form No. 4 under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 despite the Petitioner having paid the due taxes, surcharge, and penalty - Petitioner seeks consequential reliefs, including the setting aside of the assessment order for Assessment Year (A.Y.) 2017-18, which taxes the very income declared under the Scheme, leading to double taxation -Whether the Self-Assessment Tax paid by the Petitioner can be considered as payment towards the liability under the Scheme? - HELD THAT:- The Petitioner’s liability to pay Self-Assessment Tax arose for one reason and one reason alone: the initial failure to pay the third instalment under the Scheme, which, by operation of law [Section 197(b) of the Finance Act, 2016], shifted the tax liability for the undisclosed income to the regular assessment under the IT Act. The payment of Rs. 45,00,000/- is, therefore, inextricably linked to or related to the undisclosed income of Rs. 3,51,10,300/-.
When the Central Government, through the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, and the subsequent notification, provided a second opportunity to declarants, the intent was clearly to allow them to regularise their declarations and come clean. This was a beneficial provision aimed at resolving disputes and collecting revenue. The objective was not to penalise declarants with double taxation arising from procedural complexities.
We find that the payment of Self-Assessment Tax was made only because the declaration under the Scheme was deemed to have been rejected. There was no other reason for the Petitioner to offer the undisclosed income to tax in the revised return of income for A.Y. 2017-18. Therefore, in a way, the payment of self-assessment tax can also be considered to arise on account of the deeming fiction created by Section 197(b) of the very same Scheme. Thus, such self-assessment tax is also, in a way, a payment of tax under the scheme or by virtue of a fiction created under the Scheme. Since this payment is directly linked to the undisclosed income, credit for the same ought to have been given when the Petitioner made the final payment under the revived Scheme. The refusal of the Respondents to acknowledge this payment and their failure to issue Form-4 is therefore arbitrary and unsustainable in law.
We find support from the clarification issued by the CBDT in Circular No. 25/2016.
In light of the above findings, the petition succeeds. We accordingly, pass the following order:
a) Respondent No. 1 is directed to treat the payment of Rs. 45,00,000/- made as Self-Assessment Tax by the Petitioner on 27 March 2018, as a valid payment towards the third instalment liability under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016. Respondents shall take all necessary steps in this regard, including a change in the head of payment in the challan as well as in their system, if so necessary.
b) Respondent No. 1 shall issue Form-4 to the Petitioner, acknowledging the acceptance of the declaration filed on 26 September 2016.
c) As a consequence of the issuance of Form-4, and in accordance with Section 188 of the Finance Act, 2016, undisclosed income of Rs. 3,51,10,300/- should be reduced from the total income of the Petitioner for A.Y. 2017-18. Respondent No. 2 shall pass necessary orders giving effect to this order in this regard and modify the assessment order dated 11th December 2019 for the A.Y. 2017-18.
d) As a consequence, Respondent No. 2 shall revise the computation of income and notice of demand issued for A.Y. 2017-18, after reducing the total income by Rs. 3,51,10,300/- and by not granting credit of self-assessment tax of Rs. 45,00,000/- in A.Y. 2017-18.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the orders passed under Section 148A(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 were unsustainable for want of reasons, particularly for not disclosing the grounds on which the Assessing Officer disagreed with the assessee's replies to the Section 148A(1) notices before issuing notices under Section 148.
2. Whether, in the circumstances of the case, the Assessing Officer was required to supply the information intended to be relied upon while deciding the proceedings initiated by notices under Section 148A(1), and to provide the assessee an opportunity to file additional reply after such disclosure.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of the Section 148A(3) orders and consequential Section 148 notices in absence of reasons
Legal framework: The Court examined the statutory scheme under which notices are issued under Section 148A(1), an order is passed under Section 148A(3), and thereafter a notice under Section 148 may follow.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found, on perusal of the Section 148A(3) orders, that they did not reveal the grounds or reasons for disagreeing with the assessee's replies to the Section 148A(1) notices. The Court treated this deficiency as material, especially because the assessee had set out its explanation regarding the receipts referred to in the notices. The absence of reasons in the Section 148A(3) orders rendered the decision-making process non-speaking and, therefore, the consequential step of issuing notices under Section 148 could not be sustained.
Conclusions: The Section 148A(3) orders dated 29.06.2025 were set aside as unsustainable for being devoid of reasons, and the consequential notices under Section 148 of the same date were also set aside. The matters were remanded to the Assessing Officer to pass reasoned orders afresh on the basis of the replies already submitted to the Section 148A(1) notices.
Issue 2: Obligation to provide relied-upon information and opportunity to file additional reply
Legal framework: The Court addressed the requirement that the assessee be provided the information which the Assessing Officer intends to rely upon while deciding the proceedings initiated by notice under Section 148A(1).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the assessee's objection that the notices were incomplete for not providing complete information. It held that, while reconsidering the matter on remand, the Assessing Officer shall provide the information intended to be relied upon for deciding the Section 148A(1) notice proceedings. To preserve fairness in the decision-making process, the Court granted liberty to the assessee to file additional reply(ies) within two weeks from receipt of such information.
Conclusions: The Assessing Officer was directed to furnish the information proposed to be relied upon, permit additional reply within two weeks thereafter, and complete the remand exercise within eight weeks from receipt of the Court's order, whereafter parties were left to proceed in accordance with law.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - reasons to believe - As alleged vague notices issued and does not specify the reasons to allege that the income of the petitioner has escaped assessment except stating in paragraph no. 3.1; “Search and seizure u/s 132 on MLBEs of Insurance Sector (Ajay Mehta Group)” - HELD THAT:- On a perusal of the orders passed u/s 148A(3) of the Act the same does not reveal the grounds/reasons on which the AO has disagreed with the replies filed by the petitioner, to issue notices u/s 148. The same being devoid of reasons more particularly, considering the stand taken by the petitioner in its replies to notices under Section 148A(1) of the Act, the orders u/s 148A(3) dated 29.06.2025; the notices issued u/s 148 of the same date have to be held as unsustainable.
Accordingly, we deem it appropriate to set aside the impugned orders dated 29.06.2025 passed u/s 148A(3) and the consequential notices issued under Section 148 and remand the matters back to the AO for passing reasoned orders, afresh on the basis of the replies given by the petitioner to the notices under Section 148A(1).
We also make it clear that the petitioner in its replies has also stated that the notices issued by the respondents are incomplete as same does not provide complete information.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether exemption under Section 54 was available where the original residential house had been demolished pursuant to a development arrangement long before the eventual sale deeds, but the transfer giving rise to capital gains occurred later.
2. Whether the "date of transfer" for Section 54 relief was the date of the development agreement/permissions or the later date of execution of sale deeds, for purposes of testing the reinvestment timeline.
3. Whether compliance with Section 54(2) (deposit in the Capital Gains Scheme) was mandatory despite actual purchase of a new residential house within the time limits under Section 54(1).
4. Whether the Tribunal was justified in refusing to entertain an alternative claim under Section 54F when it was not pursued before the first appellate authority and was not placed before the Tribunal in a proper form with necessary supporting facts.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1-3 (Grouped): Entitlement to Section 54 exemption; relevance of demolition/JDA; date of transfer; necessity of Section 54(2) deposit
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 54 as requiring (i) transfer of a long-term capital asset being a residential house (buildings or lands appurtenant thereto) whose income is assessable under the head "house property", and (ii) purchase/construction of a residential house within the stipulated period. Section 54(2) applies where the capital gain is not appropriated/utilised for purchase/construction before the return-filing timeline, requiring deposit in the notified scheme.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held the transaction had to be viewed in a wholistic and continuous sequence. Although the residential house was demolished earlier to enable development activity, the Court rejected the view that Section 54 became inapplicable merely because the house did not physically exist at the time of the later sale deeds. The property was not disputed to be a residential property, and demolition was a consequence of development permissions; the Department could not insist that the house remain standing until the eventual sale/transfer.
The Court found the Tribunal erred in treating the date of transfer as 1994; the Court held the transfer for capital gains purposes occurred when the relevant sale deeds were executed (March 1999 in respect of the transfers under consideration). It further noted the Tribunal's assumption that the assessee had itself adopted 1994 as the transfer date was contrary to the admitted factual position that sale deeds were executed only in 1999.
On timelines, the Court concluded that since the transfer was in March 1999, the purchase of the new residential property on 30.01.2001 fell within the statutorily permitted post-transfer period under Section 54(1), thereby satisfying the reinvestment condition.
On Section 54(2), the Court held the deposit requirement was not attracted because the assessee had exercised the option of actual reinvestment in a residential house within the time stipulated in Section 54(1). Section 54(2) could not be insisted upon so as to negate the reinvestment option when the statutory conditions for direct purchase were met.
The Court also rejected the Tribunal's rationale that exemption failed because no income had been "offered" under "house property". Section 54 only requires that income from the original asset should be assessable under that head; actual offering of such income was not treated as a precondition.
Conclusions: The Court held Section 54 exemption was available on the facts; demolition pursuant to development did not defeat eligibility; the relevant date of transfer was March 1999 (sale deeds), not the earlier development agreement; and deposit under Section 54(2) was unnecessary where the new house was purchased within the Section 54(1) timeframe. The Court decisively answered the first two issues in favour of the assessee and against the revenue.
Issue 4: Refusal to entertain alternative claim under Section 54F
Legal framework: The Court addressed the Tribunal's power to entertain additional grounds/claims and the requirement that necessary material facts be available to decide such a claim. It also treated Section 54F as a distinct provision with its own statutory preconditions, including conditions in the proviso (such as ownership constraints regarding residential houses).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted a factual error in the Tribunal's statement that the Section 54F contention had not been raised earlier, because it had been raised before the assessing authority but was not pursued before the first appellate authority; therefore, the assessing authority's rejection on Section 54F was not contested at that stage. The Court emphasised that Section 54F was not an automatic fallback upon failure under Section 54: the provisions were "stand-alone" and require separate satisfaction of specific conditions.
The Court held the Tribunal could consider an alternative claim only if the assessee properly put forward the claim with necessary pleadings/documents demonstrating compliance with all statutory preconditions. Here, the Court found the material facts essential to Section 54F-such as whether the assessee owned more than one residential house-were not on record because Section 54F had not been the subject of consideration before the authorities, and the assessee did not place the claim before the Tribunal in the required manner with supporting particulars. In such circumstances, the Tribunal could not be compelled to adjudicate the alternative Section 54F relief.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the Tribunal's refusal to entertain the alternative Section 54F plea, holding that in the absence of a properly advanced claim with requisite facts and materials to prove statutory compliance, rejection was justified. The third issue was answered against the assessee and in favour of the revenue.
Exemption u/s 54 - Profit on sale of property used for residence - exemption was not available to the assessee, by virtue of the Joint Development Agreement entered into by the assessee - As submitted sales of the property have been made over 4 financial years and hence, even assuming that the benefit of Section 54 was available, it would not be granted in the manner as claimed by the assessee - HELD THAT:- The transaction must be seen in a wholistic conspectus. The admitted sequence of the events is that, the JDA was executed on 15.12.1994, and enter-upon permission granted to the builders/developers. Demolition of the house was in early 1995.
The appellant’s father passed away on 03.11.1996. It is true that development continued and the appellant and his mother executed deeds in March, 1999 for the sale of their shares of the property.
Section 54 requires the satisfaction of the conditions that, firstly, that the property transferred is one, wherefrom the income would be assessable under the head ‘house property’ and second, the gain from the transfer must be invested in the manner stipulated under the provision. The assessee has been extended the option either to invest the capital gain in another residential house (i) within one year before the date on which the transfer of the original asset took place, (ii) two years after the date on which the transfer took place or (iii) construct a house within three years within the date of transfer.
In the present case, the date of transfer is March, 1999. Hence, the purchase of asset in New Delhi on 30.01.2001 would fall within the period of one year after the date on which the transfer took place, per the stipulation under Section 54(1) of the Act. The Department has argued that as the property has been demolished in 1995 itself, Section 54 would be inapplicable in the year 1999. We do not agree as, in our view, the transaction must be seen wholistically.
JDA had been executed in 1994 and as a consequence, the house had been demolished in 1995 to pave the way for the developmental activity to take place. It is true that developmental activity took place from 1995 onwards. However, in our view, the execution of the JDA does not per se, give rise to the incident of transfer, and it has never been the case of the authorities that the transfer of the asset took place in 1994 on execution of the JDA.
One of the reasons for the rejection of the claim under Section 54, by the Tribunal is that the assessee has not invested the gain in Capital gains in a Scheme under Section 54(2). Section 54(2) states that if the amount of capital gain has not been appropriated in a new asset, then it shall be deposited in the Bank or Institution as specified under the Capital Gains Scheme by the Central Government, as notified in the Official Gazette.
In the present case, the circumstance adumbrated u/s 54(2) does not stand attracted, as the assessee has exercised the option of re-investment in residential property within the time stipulated u/s 54(1) of the Act. Section 54(2) cannot be insisted upon effacing the option available to an assessee to either invest the gain in a Scheme, or re-invest/construct a new property. The assessee in this case has availed the option of re-investment in property within the stipulated time, and that would suffice.
The Tribunal negates the plea for relief under Section 54 also on the basis that no income has been offered from house property. There is no necessity to do so, as Section 54 only requires that income from the property in question, should be assessable under the head ‘house property’. This conclusion of the Tribunal is contrary to the statutory stipulation.
Substantial questions of law answered in favour of the assessee and adverse to the revenue.
Whether the appellant owns only one house property is not a matter of record, simply because Section 54F has not been the subject matter of consideration before any of the authorities? - Tribunal could certainly have considered the alternate claim if only such claim had, in fact, been put forth before it with all facts necessary to decide it. In the absence of a claim, the Tribunal had no choice but to reject the plea for relief under Section 54F.
The decision in Ciba of India Ltd. [1993 (1) TMI 35 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]does not advance the case of the assessee. In that case, the question related to whether certain expenditure must be treated as revenue or capital. The Bombay High Court held that if the claim for revenue expenditure is to be disallowed, then the capitalisation of that expenditure would have to be correspondingly considered by the authorities, as the two claims are only two sides of the same claim.
In the present case, we are not concerned with such a situation. Sections 54 and 54F are not two sides of the same coin. They are stand-alone provisions requiring satisfaction of the conditions mentioned therein. Any claim for relief by an assessee can be considered and granted by the authorities only if a claim is made indicating compliance with those conditions. Likewise, the judgment in Gordhandas Bhanji [1951 (11) TMI 17 - SUPREME COURT] also not advance the case of the assessee for the same reasons.
Undoubtedly, the Tribunal has wide powers enabling it to consider an alternate claim, though at its discretion. However, such power can be exercised only if the assessee performs its duty to put forth the claim in proper form and manner, disclosing clearly the compliance of all statutory pre-conditions for the claim. The Tribunal cannot be compelled to admit and adjudicate upon issues, in the absence of a claim along with necessary documents/pleadings to establish compliance with the statutory conditions under Section 54F.
This has admittedly not been done, and hence we do not find anything untoward in the conclusion of the Tribunal in this regard. Accordingly, substantial question of law No.3 is answered against the assessee and in favour of the revenue.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether penalty for "under-reporting of income" under section 270A was leviable where additions arose from (a) a lump-sum/estimated disallowance of expenses due to unverifiable accounts, and (b) disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of tax at source on interest.
(ii) Whether the estimated addition could be excluded from "under-reported income" under section 270A(6)(b) on the footing that it was determined on estimate.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Levy of penalty u/s 270A on additions/disallowances
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court applied section 270A(2)(a), under which a person is considered to have under-reported income if the income assessed is greater than the income determined in the return processed under section 143(1)(a). It also considered section 270A(6) providing exclusions from "under-reported income".
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee accepted that assessed income exceeded the income processed under section 143(1)(a), thus satisfying section 270A(2)(a). The penalty was based on additions comprising an estimated/lump-sum expense disallowance due to unverifiable accounts and a separate disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for failure to deduct tax at source on interest. Since the statutory condition in section 270A(2)(a) stood fulfilled and no applicable exclusion was established, the additions were treated as "under-reported income" for penalty purposes.
Conclusion: Penalty under section 270A for "under-reporting of income" on the additions/disallowances was upheld.
Issue (ii): Applicability of exclusion in section 270A(6)(b) to estimated addition
Legal framework (as discussed): Section 270A(6)(b) excludes from "under-reported income" an amount determined on estimate only if the accounts are correct and complete to the satisfaction of the tax authorities, but the method employed is such that income cannot properly be deduced therefrom.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the Assessing Officer had categorically found the accounts not correct and not complete, citing absence of supporting records/registers and unverifiable expenses due to lack of vouchers/bills and other details. The assessee could not controvert these findings. Because the statutory precondition for section 270A(6)(b)-that accounts are correct and complete-was not satisfied, the estimated basis of the addition did not by itself take the case outside "under-reporting".
Conclusion: The estimated/lump-sum disallowance was not eligible for exclusion under section 270A(6)(b); it remained "under-reported income" attracting penalty.
Additional determination on section 40(a)(ia) disallowance
Reasoning and conclusion: No substantive submissions were advanced to challenge penalty as it related to the disallowance under section 40(a)(ia). The Court therefore upheld the penalty on this component as well, and confirmed the appellate order sustaining the levy under section 270A.
Penalty levied u/s 270A - under reporting of income - addition made to the income of the assessee by disallowing expenses on lump sum basis and disallowing interest expenses for non-deduction of tax at source u/s 40(a)(ia) - assessee is noted to be engaged in the business of carrying the work of construction on contract basis for the Government/semi-government and private organization and also carries out the work of supply of building material
HELD THAT:- As per the law any ‘underreported income’ determined on the basis of estimate is to be excluded for the levy of penalty u/s. 270A of the Act only if the accounts are correct and complete to the satisfaction of the AO but the method employed is such that the income cannot be properly deduced therefrom.
Assessee was pointed out from the assessment order that the AO had categorically noted the accounts of the assessee to be not correct and complete, since he found several discrepancies in the same with regards to maintenance of proper registers and records as also vouchers being not duly supported. Assessee was unable to controvert the above facts.
No hesitation in holding that the assessee’s case clearly qualifies as ‘underreporting of income’ in terms of Section 270A(2) of the Act and is not excluded from the same as per Section 270A(6) of the Act. The assessee has been unable to demonstrate as to how still addition made to its income on estimation basis does not qualify for levy of penalty u/s. 270A of the Act.
With respect to the penalty levied on the addition made to the income of the assessee on account of disallowance of expense u/s 40(a)(ia) of the Act, no submissions were advanced against the same before me.
Order of the ld. CIT(A) confirming the levy of penalty u/s. 270A of the Act for ‘underreporting of income’ stands confirmed. Appeal of the assessee is dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a penalty under section 270A could be sustained where there was an apparent variance between (i) the charge recorded at initiation in the assessment order, (ii) the allegation in the penalty notice, and (iii) the basis actually adopted in the penalty order (under-reporting simpliciter versus under-reporting in consequence of misreporting).
2. Whether the first appellate authority could uphold the levy by rejecting "misreporting" and effectively substituting/altering the charge to "under-reporting only" while modifying the quantum of penalty.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of penalty where initiation, notice, and levy proceeded on divergent charges under section 270A
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court examined the distinction between penalty for "under-reporting" and the aggravated category of "under-reporting in consequence of misreporting" under section 270A, including the invocation of subsection (8) for the aggravated form leading to a higher penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found a material inconsistency in the record: the assessment order recorded initiation for "under reported" income "in consequence of misreporting"; the penalty notice called upon the assessee to show cause for "under reported income"; and the penalty order ultimately imposed penalty by invoking section 270A(8) for "under reporting income in consequence of any misreporting thereof" at the aggravated rate. The Court held that where proceedings are levied for an aggravated fiscal violation but the notice is framed for a lighter form, penalty for the aggravated violation cannot be imposed. The Court noted that the Departmental Representative could not defend the variance and divergence between the charge of initiation, the notice, and the basis of levy.
Conclusion: The penalty could not be sustained because it was levied on an aggravated "misreporting" footing despite the notice reflecting a lighter charge, rendering the levy unsustainable on the charge actually imposed.
Issue 2: Power of the first appellate authority to substitute/modify the penalty charge from "misreporting" to "under-reporting only"
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court addressed the role of the first appellate authority in adjudicating a challenge that the penalty was levied under a "wrong charge" and considered whether the authority could modify the penalty order by changing the applicable limb of section 270A.
Interpretation and reasoning: The first appellate authority sustained the penalty while directing imposition at a lower rate and rejected the plea of inconsistency, but also accepted that "misreporting" was not established and held section 270A(8) inapplicable, concluding that the penalty was "initiated" for under-reporting only. The Court held that, when the levy is challenged as being under the wrong charge, the first appellate authority cannot cure the defect by substituting the charge and modifying the penalty order in the manner done. The Court treated this substitution as impermissible, particularly where the original levy was for the aggravated category.
Conclusion: The first appellate authority could not validly substitute the charge and modify the penalty from "misreporting" to "under-reporting only"; the defect in the levy could not be cured on appeal. The Court therefore allowed the challenge and deleted the penalty.
Penalty u/s 270A - variance and divergence in the grounds for initiating the penalty - allegation of under reporting of income in consequence of misreporting -levy of penalty under wrong charge - assessee is engaged in development of roads, on build operate and transfer basis in Madhya Pradesh and assessee had claimed depreciation @ 25% on ‘Right under service agreement’ as intangible asset. However, the AO considered it to be not an asset and allowed the project to be amortized
HELD THAT:- What ld. DR was unable to defend was that there was apparent variance and divergence in the grounds for initiating the penalty, as to violation for which notice was actually issue and the one for which penalty is actually levied. We are of considered view that if proceedings were initiated invoking subsection (8) of Section 270A of the Act, which is an aggravated form of fiscal violation and notice is for lighter form, then the penalty could not have been levied for aggravated violation.
Though vice versa may be legal. We are of further view that as first appellate authority, CIT(A), while dealing with allegation and ground of challenge of levy of penalty under wrong charge CIT(A) cannot substitute the charge and modify the penalty order, as done in the case before us by the CIT(A). The impugned penalty is deleted. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the final assessment orders were liable to be quashed for failure to pass them in conformity with the binding directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel under section 144C.
Analysis: The assessment orders were passed after the Dispute Resolution Panel had directed that the income, if assessed, be treated on a protective basis. The Tribunal found that the Assessing Officer instead made substantive additions and did not implement the directions in letter and spirit. It held that once directions are issued under section 144C, they are binding on the Assessing Officer, who must complete the assessment strictly in conformity with them.
Conclusion: The final assessment orders were without jurisdiction and void ab initio for non-compliance with the binding directions under section 144C, and were quashed.
Non-compliance with Dispute Resolution Panel directions under Section 144C(10) and Section 144C(13) - Binding nature of DRP directions - Final assessment order void ab initio for failure to implement DRP directions - Protective taxation under Section 44DA - Taxation as Fees for Technical Services (FTS) under Article 13 of IndiaUK DTAA
Non-compliance with Dispute Resolution Panel directions under Section 144C(10) and Section 144C(13) - Binding nature of DRP directions - Final assessment order void ab initio for failure to implement DRP directions - Whether the final assessment orders for the assessment years were void for not giving effect to the DRP's directions and for taxing the receipts on a substantive basis contrary to DRP's direction to treat them on a protective basis. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the factual matrix for AY 2018-19 and AY 2020-21 was identical to earlier years wherein the DRP had issued directions holding that the assessee had a PE in India and that receipts should be treated as attributable to the PE, with any FTS characterization to be applied only on a protective basis under section 44DA. The AO reproduced the DRP order in the final assessment orders but proceeded to tax the receipts on a substantive basis, thereby failing to implement the DRP's specific directions. Relying on the statutory scheme of section 144C which makes DRP directions binding on the AO and on precedents establishing that nonimplementation renders the final order without jurisdiction, the Tribunal held that the AO exceeded jurisdiction and the final assessment orders were void ab initio for noncompliance with DRP directions. [Paras 13, 14]
The final assessment orders for AY 2018-19 and AY 2020-21 are void ab initio for not implementing the binding DRP directions and are quashed.
Protective taxation under Section 44DA - Taxation as Fees for Technical Services (FTS) under Article 13 of IndiaUK DTAA - Whether any other grounds raised (including characterisation of receipts as FTS under the IndiaUK DTAA and computation of income) required independent adjudication after quashing the assessment orders for noncompliance with DRP directions. - HELD THAT: - Having held that the final assessment orders were void for failure to implement the DRP directions, the Tribunal treated all other grounds as academic. The Tribunal did not decide the merits of the characterisation of receipts as FTS or the correctness of the AO's computation, because the primary defect-nonconformity with binding DRP directions-rendered the assessment orders invalid. Consequently, no adjudication on merits of the FTS characterisation or related computations was undertaken. [Paras 16, 18, 19, 20, 21]
Other grounds become academic; no further adjudication is necessary after quashing the assessment orders.
Final Conclusion: Appeals for Assessment Years 2018-19 and 2020-21 are allowed: the Tribunal quashed the final assessment orders as void ab initio for failure to implement binding DRP directions (including the directive to treat taxability on a protective basis under section 44DA), and consequently declined to decide the other grounds which have become academic.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the addition made as alleged unexplained income under section 69, computed by applying the peak credit method to bank deposits/credits, was sustainable on the facts of the case.
2. Whether, in the circumstances where similar transactions in an earlier year were finally accepted on a profit-rate (commission) estimation basis, the current year's income should likewise be determined by applying a profit rate on turnover rather than by treating the peak credit as unexplained.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of section 69 addition based on peak credit in bank accounts
Legal framework (as discussed in the decision): The impugned addition was made under section 69 on the premise that the bank credits/deposits represented unexplained money, and the amount was quantified by taking the peak credit reflected in the bank accounts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the assessee claimed the bank credits represented amounts received on behalf of another entity in connection with commission-based trading activity, with onward transfers made as instructed, and that the assessee's income was commission. The Tribunal found merit in the contention that, in similar circumstances in the immediately preceding year, the appellate authority had not sustained a peak-credit-based unexplained money addition but had instead determined income by estimating profit on turnover. Since those findings remained unaltered (not challenged further), the Tribunal found no merit in the lower authorities' rejection of that earlier accepted approach and in sustaining a peak-credit-based section 69 addition for the year under consideration.
Conclusion: The section 69 addition computed on the basis of peak credit was held to be inappropriate on these facts, and the addition was directed to be replaced by an estimation of profit on turnover.
Issue 2: Appropriate method-profit-rate estimation on turnover and applicable rate
Legal framework (as discussed in the decision): The Tribunal applied an income-determination approach based on estimating profit/commission as a percentage of turnover, consistent with the earlier year's adjudication on comparable facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal relied on the unchallenged findings in the earlier year where profit was directed to be computed at 0.25% of turnover after noting that disclosed profit in earlier years ranged from 0.2% to 0.25% and that the transactions were not properly explained as "circular" with supporting confirmations. For the year under consideration, however, the Tribunal noted that the assessee had offered profit at 0.5% of turnover. In view of the overall facts and circumstances and the assessee's own offered rate, the Tribunal considered it appropriate to compute income by applying 0.5% on total turnover instead of making an addition under section 69 by peak credit. The Tribunal further directed that credit be given for the profit already declared.
Conclusion: The Assessing Officer was directed to apply a profit rate of 0.5% on the total turnover and allow credit for profit already offered; consequently, the challenge to the peak-credit method and section 69 addition succeeded to that extent, and the relevant grounds were partly allowed.
Addition made u/s 69 - Addition on the basis of peak credit appearing in bank accounts of the assessee - HELD THAT:- It is an undisputed fact that the order passed by the CIT(A) for the assessment year 2010-11 was not challenged by any party before a higher appellate forum, and the findings as rendered by the learned CIT(A) are unaltered. Therefore, we do not find any merit in the findings of the lower authorities in rejecting the approach adopted by the Revenue in preceding years and making the impugned addition by considering the peak credit in the assessee’s bank account.
CIT(A) in its order for the assessment year 2010-11, after noting the fact that the disclosed profit is in the range of 0.2% to 0.25% of the turnover, directed the AO to apply a profit rate of 0.25% on a total turnover.
Assessee offered the profit at the rate of 0.5% of the total turnover. Accordingly, in view of the facts and circumstances of the present case as noted in the foregoing paragraphs, we deem it appropriate to direct the AO to apply the profit rate of 0.5% on the total turnover instead of considering the peak credit for making the addition under section 69 - AO is directed to give credit for already declared profit - Appeal by the assessee is partly allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether reassessment was validly initiated and conducted, and whether any violation of principles of natural justice vitiated the reassessment and consequential assessment.
(ii) Whether the land sold by the assessee was proved to be rural agricultural land outside the definition of "capital asset" under section 2(14), so as to escape long-term capital gains taxation.
(iii) Whether the addition on account of long-term capital gains was sustainable, including the partial denial of deductions claimed under sections 54F and 54B due to lack of proof of eligible investment/construction and joint purchase of new assets, and the effect of non-filing of additional evidence/Rule 46A application before the first appellate authority.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of reassessment and natural justice
Legal framework: The Court examined reassessment initiation under section 147, issuance/service of notice under section 148, and issuance of notice under section 143(2).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that reasons were recorded, requisite approval was obtained, statutory notices were duly served, and the assessee participated in proceedings. On these facts, the Court rejected the plea that principles of natural justice were violated.
Conclusion: Reassessment proceedings were held to be validly initiated and conducted; the natural justice challenge was held to be without merit.
Issue (ii): Whether the land sold was rural agricultural land (not a "capital asset")
Legal framework: The Court considered the definition of "capital asset" under section 2(14) as applied to agricultural land, and the reliance placed by the assessing authority on a relevant statutory notification showing proximity to municipal limits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee's distance certificate was found illegible, and no cogent documentary evidence was furnished either during assessment or before the first appellate authority to substantiate the claim that the land was rural agricultural land outside the notified municipal distance. The assessing authority's reliance on the statutory notification indicating the land was within the prescribed municipal limits remained unrebutted.
Conclusion: In the absence of effective rebuttal evidence, the Court upheld the treatment of the land as a "capital asset" and rejected the claim that it was rural agricultural land exempt from capital gains taxation.
Issue (iii): Sustainability of long-term capital gains addition and partial disallowance of deductions under sections 54F and 54B
Legal framework: The Court examined the assessee's claims under sections 54F and 54B in the context of the factual requirements noted by the assessing authority and the confirmation by the first appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the assessee's own claim of deductions under sections 54F and 54B presupposed the existence of a capital asset. On the section 54F claim, the assessing authority's factual finding-failure to produce documentary evidence establishing construction/completion of a residential house within the prescribed period, and insufficiency of mere ledger/bank withdrawal entries-was not displaced. The Court also noted the joint purchase of the residential plot with the assessee's son as part of the factual basis considered by the lower authorities. On the section 54B claim, the Court recorded that the agricultural land was purchased jointly with the assessee's spouse and that the assessing authority restricted the cost/exemption to the proportionate share as per the registered deed, with disallowance of exemption for the jointly purchased property as applied by the lower authorities. The Court further relied on the fact that, even at the first appellate stage, the assessee neither produced cogent additional evidence nor filed a Rule 46A petition to controvert the assessment findings.
Conclusion: The Court found no infirmity in the confirmation of the recomputed long-term capital gains addition and the partial disallowance/restriction of deductions under sections 54F and 54B, and upheld the appellate order dismissing the assessee's challenge.
Reopening of assessment - taxability of capital gains on land sold - Nature of land sold - definition of “capital asset” u/s 2(14) - deductions under sections 54F and 54B claimed - AO observed that the assessee failed to substantiate the claim that the land was rural agricultural land - HELD THAT:- We find that the reassessment proceedings were validly initiated u/s 147 of the Act after due recording of reasons and obtaining the requisite approval. The notices u/s 148 and 143(2) were duly served and the assessee participated in the proceedings. Hence, the allegation of violation of principles of natural justice is without merit.
Capital gain - Assessee failed to substantiate the claim that the land sold was rural agricultural land not falling within the definition of “capital asset” u/s 2(14) of the Act. The distance certificate produced was illegible and no cogent documentary evidence was furnished either before the Assessing Officer or before the Ld. CIT(A). AO rightly relied upon the relevant statutory notification showing that the land was situated within the prescribed municipal limits. In the absence of any effective rebuttal, the treatment of the land as a capital asset is justified.
Assessee himself claimed deductions under sections 54F and 54B, which presupposes the existence of a capital asset. The partial disallowance of these deductions by the AO was based on factual findings, including failure to prove construction within the prescribed period and joint purchase of properties, and the same has been duly confirmed by the Ld. CIT(A). The assessee also failed to file any additional evidence or Rule 46A application before the first appellate authority. Decided against assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the addition of the full amount received through the alleged accommodation-entry transactions as unexplained cash credits under section 68 was justified on the facts recorded by the authorities.
(ii) Whether a separate addition towards alleged commission for obtaining accommodation entries (computed at 0.50% of the amount) was justified.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability and quantum of addition in respect of alleged accommodation-entry transactions under section 68
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The assessment treated the impugned receipts as unexplained cash credit under section 68 on the footing that the transactions were with "dummy/paper concerns" and not genuine.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the transactions were "unsubstantiated purchase and sale" from parties which were verified by the Department, and that despite recording "huge transaction", the assessee declared only "meagre profit". On an overall consideration of the record and "for the sake of justice", the Court considered it appropriate not to uphold the entire section 68 addition, but to sustain an estimation representing the profit element that would reasonably arise from such transactions.
Conclusion: The Court directed that only 10% of the alleged purchase and sale based on the cash credit be sustained as addition, treating it as "just and proper profit" that would have been earned from the impugned transactions, instead of sustaining the entire cash-credit addition.
Issue (ii): Separate addition for alleged commission at 0.50% of the impugned amount
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The assessment made an additional addition by estimating commission at 0.50% of the impugned amount for arranging accommodation entries.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having decided to sustain only an estimated profit component (10%) in relation to the impugned transactions, the Court held that an additional commission estimate was not warranted on the facts as appreciated by it.
Conclusion: The Court held that the 0.50% commission addition was uncalled for and therefore deleted it, while sustaining only the 10% addition as directed.
Unexplained cash credits u/s 68 - Assessee has not provided complete details and documentary evidences to prove the genuineness of the transactions - HELD THAT:- We observed that the assessee has taken theunsubstantiated purchase and sale from the parties verified by the Department.
Considering the overall facts on record, for the sake of justice, we are inclined to direct the Assessing Officer to sustain only 10% of the alleged purchase and sale based on the cash credit received by the assessee. It is also observed that even though the assessee has recorded such huge transaction, declared only meagre profit. The proposed addition of 10% of the cash credit will be just and proper profit, they would have earned in this transaction. Further, the alleged commission of 0.50% of the cash credit is uncalled for.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the reassessment jurisdiction was validly assumed when the notice under section 148 was issued after three years from the end of the relevant assessment year, but sanction/approval was taken from an authority not contemplated by section 151 as applied by the Court.
(ii) Whether the reassessment initiation suffered from fatal defects where (a) the reasons stated in the notice under section 148A(b) and the order under section 148A(d) were materially inconsistent, and (b) the order under section 148A(d) was passed before expiry of the time granted to respond, amounting to violation of natural justice.
(iii) Whether the reassessment culminated in an addition/disallowance on an issue (bogus purchases) that was not the stated basis in the section 148A(b) notice or section 148A(d) order, thereby undermining the reassessment proceedings as conducted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of sanction/approval under section 151 for issuing notice under section 148 beyond three years
Legal framework (as discussed/applied): The Court applied section 151 to hold that where notice under section 148 is issued after three years from the end of the relevant assessment year, approval must be taken from the higher specified authority (not the authority from whom approval was actually taken in the case).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the relevant assessment year was 2018-19 and the notice under section 148 was issued on 05.04.2022, i.e., after three years from the end of that assessment year. On these facts, the Court held that section 151 required sanction from the specified higher authority (Pr. CCIT/Pr. DGIT/CCIT/DGIT). Since approval was obtained from PCIT, the Court agreed with the appellate finding that the sanction was not from the appropriate authority and that this defect went to the root of jurisdiction.
Conclusion: Assumption of jurisdiction for reassessment was held invalid because the notice under section 148 was issued without obtaining proper sanction from the appropriate authority required under section 151 in the circumstances.
Issue (ii): Inconsistency between section 148A(b) notice and section 148A(d) order; and passing section 148A(d) order before reply due date (natural justice)
Legal framework (as discussed/applied): The Court examined compliance with the statutory process under sections 148A(b) and 148A(d) and applied principles of natural justice in relation to the opportunity granted to respond.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the reasons communicated in the notice under section 148A(b) and the reasons recorded in the order under section 148A(d) were "totally different." The notice under section 148A(b) referred to one set of allegations, whereas the order under section 148A(d) proceeded on different information (cash withdrawals/deposits). The Court also found that the order under section 148A(d) was passed on 05.04.2022 even though time to respond had been granted up to 07.04.2022, thus the statutory order was made before the response time expired, which the Court treated as violation of natural justice. The Court held that such defects defeat the purpose of reassessment and reflected "irreparable mistakes" in the process.
Conclusion: The Court affirmed that the reassessment initiation was vitiated by (a) material mismatch between the stated reasons at the notice stage and the reasons in the statutory order, and (b) denial of the full opportunity to respond because the section 148A(d) order was passed before expiry of the granted time.
Issue (iii): Disallowance in reassessment on grounds not forming the basis of reopening
Legal framework (as discussed/applied): The Court assessed the linkage between the recorded/communicated basis for reopening and the additions ultimately made in the reassessment order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the reopening was to verify cash withdrawals and cash deposits, and the reassessment order itself recorded that the assessee's response was considered and the cash deposit/withdrawal was verified. Despite this, the reassessment culminated in disallowance of substantial purchases as "bogus," which the Court found was not the reason communicated in the section 148A(b) notice or reflected in the section 148A(d) order. This disconnect reinforced the Court's view that the reassessment proceedings, as conducted, could not be sustained.
Conclusion: The Court upheld deletion of the disallowance because it arose from reassessment proceedings whose jurisdictional foundation and stated reasons did not support the action taken; consequently, the appellate direction to delete the disallowance was maintained and the challenge to that relief was rejected.
Reopening of assessment - notice u/s 148 was issued after three years - notice issued by JAO or FAO - AO disallowed bogus purchase - HELD THAT:- On careful perusal of the reassessment order, it is seen that the AO reopened the assessment to verify cash withdrawal from HDFC bank and cash deposit into the same bank and in assessment order, it is recorded that the assessee has submitted the response to the show cause notice and both the deposit and withdrawal has been verified.
AO disallowed bogus purchase which was not the reason communicated in the notice issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act or order passed u/s 148A(d) of the Act. Accordingly, we are of the considered view that CIT (A) has rightly upheld that the assumption of jurisdiction itself is not valid as the approval was taken from PCIT, Rohtak instead of CCIT or Pr. CCIT and directed the AO to delete such disallowance made in the reassessment order. We are inclined not to disturb the findings of the ld. CIT (A). Accordingly, the grounds raised by the Revenue are dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether exemption claimed under Sections 11/12 could be denied at the stage of processing under Section 143(1)(a) solely because the audit report in Form 10BB was filed after the stipulated time, when the Form 10BB had been filed and was available on record before issuance of the intimation.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Denial of Sections 11/12 exemption due to delayed filing of Form 10BB though filed before Section 143(1)(a) intimation
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court/Tribunal): The Tribunal considered the assessee's claim of exemption under Section 11 and the processing/intimation mechanism under Section 143(1)(a), in the context of the requirement to furnish the audit report in Form 10BB within the prescribed time.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal confined the controversy to the legality of denying exemption under Section 11 on the ground of delay in filing Form 10BB. It accepted the factual position that Form 10BB was filed before the return was processed and before issuance of the intimation under Section 143(1)(a). The Tribunal applied the principle that the requirement of filing Form 10BB is a procedural requirement; once the audit report is filed and is available to the tax authorities before the completion of the relevant proceeding culminating in the intimation, mere delay does not extinguish the substantive entitlement to claim exemption. The Tribunal also noted that no contrary decision of the jurisdictional High Court was shown by the Revenue.
Conclusions: Since Form 10BB was duly filed and available on record prior to issuance of intimation under Section 143(1)(a), denial of exemption under Section 11 on the sole ground of delayed filing of Form 10BB was held to be not justified. The appeal was allowed and the exemption claim was directed to be accepted on this legal ground.
Denial of benefit of exemption u/s 11(1) and 11(2) - delay in filing Form 10BB - HELD THAT:- As rightly pointed out by the Ld. Counsel for the assessee Hon'ble High Courts and the coordinate Benches of the ITAT have consistently held the requirement of filing Form 10BB to be a mere procedural requirement and not a mandatory condition therefore holding the denial of deduction for the said reason to be not sustainable in law.
It has been held that as long as the requisite form is filed and is made available during assessment proceedings for scrutiny, it is sufficient compliance with the condition of filing Form 10BB and the mere fact of delay in the same would not adversely affect the right of the assessee to claim exemption u/s. 11 of the Act.
The coordinate Benches of the Tribunal have also consistently held that delayed filing of Form 10BB is a procedural lapse and cannot be the basis for denial of exemption u/s. 11 and 12.
As audit report in Form 10BB was duly filed and was available on record prior to the issuance of intimation u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act, hold that the denial of exemption u/s. 11 of the Act was not justified. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the discounts/margins allowed to stockists on sale of pharmaceutical products attracted deduction of tax at source under section 194H of the Income-tax Act, 1961. (ii) Whether tax was deductible under section 192 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ESOP-related benefit in the year of grant. (iii) Whether interest on delayed payments to MSMEs constituted interest within section 2(28A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 so as to attract section 194A and consequential liability under section 201(1A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Issue (i): Whether the discounts/margins allowed to stockists on sale of pharmaceutical products attracted deduction of tax at source under section 194H of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The stockist arrangements were treated as sales on a principal-to-principal basis. The invoices reflected sale transactions, GST was charged on the supplies, and the stockists were shown to bear the risks and incidents of ownership after purchase. The controls referred to by the Revenue were held to be consistent with the regulated pharmaceutical trade and not sufficient to convert the arrangement into a principal-agent relationship. The sale proceeds were received as sale consideration and not as commission or brokerage.
Conclusion: Section 194H did not apply and the assessee was not liable to deduct tax at source on the stockist margins or discounts.
Issue (ii): Whether tax was deductible under section 192 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ESOP-related benefit in the year of grant.
Analysis: The perquisite under section 17(2)(vi) was held to arise on exercise of the option and not at the stage of mere grant. The CBDT circular and the cited authorities supported the view that tax deduction obligation arises when the benefit is actually availed and the employee becomes liable to tax on the perquisite value at the relevant stage of exercise.
Conclusion: Deduction under section 192 was not required in the year of grant, and the deletion of the addition was upheld.
Issue (iii): Whether interest on delayed payments to MSMEs constituted interest within section 2(28A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 so as to attract section 194A and consequential liability under section 201(1A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The amount was treated as compensation for delayed payment of sale consideration and not as interest on borrowed money. It was therefore outside the statutory definition of interest in section 2(28A). In addition, the assessee had made a voluntary disallowance, and the authorities held that the assessee could not be treated as an assessee in default on these facts.
Conclusion: Section 194A did not apply and the consequential levy under section 201(1A) was deleted.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on all substantive issues, with the Revenue's challenge failing and the cross objection being allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: A stockist arrangement structured as a sale on principal-to-principal terms does not attract section 194H merely because the seller regulates commercial terms; ESOP perquisite tax arises on exercise of the option; and delayed-payment compensation for goods is not interest on borrowed money for section 194A purposes.
TDS on margins/discounts earned by stockists u/s 194H -Payments were made to employees under Employee stock Ownership Plan (ESOP) and tax was not deducted at source u/s 192 - Payments were made to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and TDS was not made u/s 194 - Assessee in default and orders were passed u/s 201/201(1A) - CIT(A) deleted all the additions made by Ld. AO by adjudicating that TDS provisions under section 194H, 192 and 194 of the Act are not applicable to the Respondent company - relationship between appellant company and stockists is of the Principal to Agent OR Principal to Principal - HELD THAT:- Bench is of the opinion that the relationship between appellant company and stockists is not that of the Principal to Agent but of Principal to Principal and hence, the TDS provisions are not applicable as
a) The sale invoices of company to stockists clearly show that the goods were forwarded as “sale” and not as “commission” because GST applicable was paid by company.
b) Whatever controls exercised by company is only as per the guidelines of Medical Council of India and company is not exercising any other control. The goods once sold to stockists are kept with them at their risk only.
c) The stockists are showing the “sales” of company as their “purchases” and as per their Sale Invoices. After deducting the expenditure, the net profit/loss was offered for taxation in their Income Tax Returns. Even presuming that appellant company pays “commission” as contended by Revenue, they would deduct the tax and as per TDS certificate, the sellers would reduce their tax payment.
d) The stockists are at liberty to sell the goods as per MRP mentioned and they only earns their margin, expenditure would be incurred by them and they filed their Income Tax Returns as their “purchases” from company and “sales” to retail customers.
For TDS provisions to be applicable, the appellant must be the one making a payment of commission or brokerage. In our case, the appellant company was receiving sale price and not paying to stockist.
In view of the above detailed discussion Bench decides that appellant company need not deduct TDS as TDS provisions are not applicable.
Non-deduction of TDS under section 192 of the Act on Employees Stock Options (ESO’s) - The Bench decides the issue in favour of appellant company for the following reasons :-
a) The CBDT Circular No. 9/2007 says that the tax liability on company arises only when the benefit is exercised and actually availed, but not at the stage of mere grant.
b) Section 17(2)(vi) of the Act and the Explanation says that on the date of transfer or allotment, the difference between FMV of option on the date of option exercised and price paid by employee is liable to tax in the hands of employee.
This issue is squarely covered in favour of the appellant in Total Energies Marketing India Pvt. Ltd. [2023 (8) TMI 877 - ITAT MUMBAI], Infosys Technologies Ltd. [2008 (1) TMI 17 - SUPREME COURT] AND Bharat Financial Inclusion Ltd. [2018 (8) TMI 343 - ITAT HYDERABAD]. Thus. addition made by Ld. AO is deleted
Applicability of section 194A on interest on delayed payments to MSMEs - The Bench agrees with the view of Ld. AR of the appellant company because Section 2(28A) of the Act defines interest to mean interest payable in any manner in respect of moneys borrowed. The interest paid on account of delay in payment of consideration is in the nature of sale of price of goods and hence such interest is outside the purview of interest u/s 2(28A) of the Act. The Bench agrees with the view of Ld. AR of the appellant company because no person can be treated as “assessee in default” under section 201 where there is a voluntary disallowance under section 37(1) of the Act. In other words, when the appellant company itself disallowed the expenditure voluntarily, section 194A and consequent interest under section 201(1A) cannot be applied. This view is fortified by the decision of Coordinate Bench of Mumbai in the case of Wokhardt Ltd. [2024 (8) TMI 1662 - ITAT MUMBAI]
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether cash deposited in bank during the demonetization period, claimed to be out of recorded cash sales and existing cash-in-hand reflected in the audited books and supported by stock movement, could be treated as unexplained income merely because sales for a short period were higher than average sales.
(ii) Whether such cash deposits could be brought to tax under section 68 or section 69 when the corresponding sales were already declared and offered to tax, and the assessing authority did not find defects in stock movement or in the assessee's books relevant to the deposits.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of addition for demonetization-period cash deposits based on "abnormally high" sales compared to averages
Legal framework: The Court examined the addition made by treating the demonetization-period cash deposits as unexplained, based on a comparative average-sale analysis adopted by the assessing authority, and the factual explanation offered that deposits were sourced from recorded cash sales and cash-in-hand as on the demonetization date, supported by stock records.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the assessing authority proceeded on an assumption that the sales pattern must remain uniform throughout the year and determined expected sales on the basis of averages. The Court held this approach insufficient because it ignored (a) the assessee's available cash-in-hand as on 08.11.2016, and (b) the absence of any adverse finding regarding stock movement. The Court accepted that sales during the relevant days coincided with a festive period and the broader context in which increased gold/jewellery sales during demonetization were recorded, and held that the mere fact of higher-than-average cash sales, without cogent corroborative material, could not justify treating recorded receipts as unexplained.
Conclusion: The addition could not be sustained where it rested only on assumptions drawn from average-sale comparisons and the record did not disclose defects in stock movement or other cogent material contradicting the assessee's explanation that deposits came from recorded business sales and cash-in-hand.
Issue (ii): Applicability of section 68/69 to cash deposits representing declared sales; risk of double taxation
Legal framework: The Court addressed whether cash sales receipts deposited in bank, already forming part of declared turnover and offered to tax, could still be assessed as unexplained under section 68 or section 69.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized that the assessee had already declared the sales and offered the corresponding income to tax. Treating the cash sales receipts again as unexplained under section 68 or 69 would create a situation where the same income is taxed twice. The Court further noted that the assessing authority did not bring any cogent material to support the addition beyond assumptions about sales averages, and that the assessee demonstrated that stock movement and sales matched the book results.
Conclusion: Cash deposits representing recorded cash sales already declared and offered to tax were not liable to addition under section 68 or section 69 on the facts found; such an addition would amount to impermissible double taxation in the circumstances, particularly where no cogent contrary material and no stock-movement discrepancy was established. The appeal was allowed and the addition deleted.
Addition u/s 68 - cash deposits during demonetization period - addition on the basis that the cash sales declared during demonetization are more than the average cash sales in the past
HELD THAT:- It is fact on record that the sales declared by the assessee are during festive period and also during demonetization, huge sale of gold and jewellery were recorded. This fact cannot be denied.
We observe that the assessee had already declared the sales and offered to tax. The cash sales cannot be subjected to addition u/s 68 or 69 of the Act. It leads to the situation wherein the same income is subjected to tax twice. Therefore, we are inclined to allow the grounds raised by the assessee as the AO has not brought any cogent material to make addition, merely on the basis of assumptions. The assessee has demonstrated that the stock movement and sales are matching the books results. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether cash deposits made during the demonetization period were liable to be treated as unexplained cash credits under section 68 on the ground that the assessee failed to satisfactorily establish their source as cash sales.
2) Whether the Assessing Officer's method of inferring "negative stock" (and hence non-genuine sales) without factoring gross profit and direct expenses in trading results was a proper basis to sustain the section 68 addition.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Taxability of demonetization-period cash deposits as unexplained cash credits under section 68
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court examined the addition made under section 68 in respect of cash deposits during the demonetization period and evaluated whether the assessee had established a credible source for such deposits through business cash sales and corresponding trading records.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the Assessing Officer treated the entire cash deposited during the demonetization period as unexplained primarily because (i) the assessee allegedly did not submit "relevant information" for the deposits, (ii) the cash sale vouchers produced were without names/addresses even where sale amounts exceeded the stated threshold, and (iii) the Assessing Officer questioned why substantial cash was held and not deposited earlier or in one instance after demonetization. The Court, however, accepted that the assessee had produced trading-related material (including audited financials and indirect tax returns) to substantiate that deposits were sourced from cash sales backed by sufficient stock, and further observed that the appellate authority sustained the addition without properly appreciating the factual material already on record. The Court also recorded its view that there was no requirement to maintain purchaser details for sales below a specified limit, thereby weakening the adverse inference drawn solely from absence of names/addresses on such cash vouchers.
Conclusion: The Court held that the cash deposits were satisfactorily explained as arising from business cash sales supported by trading records, and therefore the section 68 addition was not sustainable. The addition was deleted and the assessee's grounds were allowed.
Issue 2: Validity of "negative stock" inference when gross profit and direct expenses are ignored
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court evaluated the correctness of the stock and trading computation approach used to doubt the genuineness of sales and treat the related cash deposits as unexplained.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Assessing Officer's month-wise stock working (used to suggest sales without corresponding purchases and thus "negative stock") was flawed because it did not take into account gross profit earned on sales and direct expenses debited to the trading account. The Court accepted the assessee's revised computation (placed before the first appellate authority) as reflecting a proper accounting basis aligned to trading results, including direct expenses and gross profit, and concluded that when computed correctly the assessee had sufficient stock to support the sales during the relevant period. On this basis, the foundational premise for treating cash sales as non-genuine and deposits as unexplained was rejected.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that the Assessing Officer's method for determining closing stock and drawing adverse inference was "not proper", accepted the assessee's chart as "proper", and held that the assessee had enough stock to make the cash sales during the demonetization period. Consequently, the section 68 addition could not survive.
Addition under section 68 as unexplained cash deposits - genuineness of cash sales and proof of source of cash - computation of closing stock including gross profit and direct expenses - reliability of vouchers and statutory requirement for details in cash sales
Addition under section 68 as unexplained cash deposits - genuineness of cash sales and proof of source of cash - computation of closing stock including gross profit and direct expenses - Sustainability of the addition made under section 68 in respect of cash deposits during demonetisation period - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined whether the Assessing Officer was justified in treating the bank cash deposits as unexplained income under section 68. The Assessing Officer had aggregated cash deposits made during the demonetisation period and disbelieved the assessee's claim that deposits arose from cash sales, observing alleged deficiencies in vouchers and a negative closing stock position based on the AO's chart. The assessee, both before the AO and the CIT(A), furnished audited accounts, VAT returns, bank statements, sales and purchase bills and submitted a revised month-wise trading chart that incorporated direct expenses and gross profit to compute closing stock on accounting principles. The Tribunal found the AO's method of determining closing stock to be improper because it omitted gross profit and direct expenses; by contrast the chart produced by the assessee correctly reflected trading results and showed sufficient stock to account for the sales during the period in question. The Tribunal also noted that there is no requirement to maintain detailed particulars for cash sales below the statutory threshold and that the AO's conclusions rested on assumptions and surmises rather than on authenticated evidence. On these findings the Tribunal concluded that the assessee had satisfactorily established the genuineness of sales and the source of cash deposits, making the addition under section 68 unsustainable. [Paras 10, 11, 12]
Addition under section 68 in respect of cash deposits during the demonetisation period set aside and appeal allowed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the Assessing Officer's methodology to compute closing stock was improper and, on the basis of the trading chart, audited records and supporting documents furnished by the assessee, accepted the genuineness of cash sales and source of deposits; the addition under section 68 for AY 2017-18 was therefore deleted and the appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether one of two revenue appeals, filed against the same appellate order with identical grounds, should be treated as withdrawn/infructuous and dismissed.
2. Whether the addition of the claimed exempt long-term capital gains from sale of listed shares as unexplained money (treated by the assessing authority as accommodation entries in a "penny stock" scrip) was sustainable where the assessee produced contemporaneous documentary evidence of purchase, dematerialisation, and stock-exchange sale, and the Revenue relied mainly on generic investigation material, third-party statements without cross-examination, and a regulatory order not naming the assessee and covering a different period.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Dismissal of duplicate appeal as infructuous
Legal framework: Not discussed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the Revenue's submission that two separate appeals had been filed due to inadvertence against the same appellate order and on identical grounds. Since the later-filed appeal served no independent purpose, it was treated as withdrawn/infructuous.
Conclusion: The subsequently filed appeal was dismissed as infructuous.
Issue 2: Sustainability of addition treating share-sale proceeds/LTCG as unexplained money based on "penny stock" allegations
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis of the reassessment and the addition made as unexplained money, and considered the claim of exemption on long-term capital gains; it evaluated the evidentiary burden and the permissibility of relying on generic investigation reports and third-party statements without cross-examination.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the assessee demonstrated the investment and exits through regular and verifiable channels: payment for acquisition through banking channels, allotment of shares, dematerialisation in a demat account, and sale through a recognised stock exchange supported by broker contract notes and settlement records. The source of investment was explained as capital withdrawal from a partnership concern. These evidences were described as undisputed and showing transactions executed in the ordinary course on the exchange's online platform.
Against this, the assessment was found to rest "almost wholly" on general investigation findings about penny stock modus operandi, abnormal price movement, and statements of alleged exit providers, without any specific material establishing a live nexus between the assessee and any operator/entry provider. The Court additionally held that mere reliance on third-party statements without affording cross-examination could not justify the addition. On the price movement aspect, the Court noted the company's turnover growth and observed that the price rise was gradual and largely within circuit-filter norms; thus price movement alone could not establish manipulation in the assessee's hands.
The Court also treated the regulatory order relied upon by the assessing authority as misplaced because it neither named the assessee nor referred to his transactions, and it examined a different period and conduct of another entity rather than the assessee's purchase/sale window.
Conclusion: In the absence of a specific "live nexus" linking the assessee to manipulation or cash exchange, and in view of unimpeachable transactional documentation and recognised-channel execution, the addition treating the claimed exempt gains as unexplained money was unsustainable; deletion of the addition was upheld and the Revenue's surviving appeal was dismissed.
Reopening of assessment under section 147 by issuance of notice under section 148 - treatment of alleged bogus longterm capital gains as unexplained money under section 69 / section 69A - exemption claimed under section 10(38) for longterm capital gains - onus on assessee to prove genuineness of investment and source of funds - use of demat records, broker contract notes and banking channels as evidence of genuine transactions - reliance on investigation reports and SEBI orders as basis for additions
Duplicate appeals and withdrawal of subsequent appeal as infructuous - Whether the subsequently filed Revenue appeal (ITA No. 3777/Mum/2025) against the same Ld. CIT(A) order is to be treated as withdrawn / infructuous. - HELD THAT: - The Revenue conceded that two separate appeals were filed against the same appellate order dated 21st March, 2025 for A.Y. 201213 and that the appeals contained identical grounds. The Tribunal accepted the concession and held that the laterfiled appeal (ITA No. 3777/Mum/2025) is rendered infructuous and stands dismissed. [Paras 1]
ITA No. 3777/Mum/2025 treated as infructuous and dismissed.
Treatment of alleged bogus LTCG as unexplained income under section 69 / section 69A - exemption under section 10(38) for LTCG and challenge to its genuineness - reliance on demat account, broker contract notes and banking trail to establish genuineness - probative value of investigation reports and SEBI orders visavis specific evidence linking the assessee - Whether the Assessing Officer was justified in treating the declared LTCG from sale of Banas Finance Ltd. shares as unexplained money and making addition, or whether the deletion by the Ld. CIT(A) should be sustained. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the material: the assessee's share application, allotment letter, cheque evidencing payment, demat account entries, broker contract notes, bank statements showing payment and sale proceeds, and a favourable ITAT order in the company's own appeal upholding genuineness of preferential allotments. The Assessing Officer's case rested largely on general findings of the Investigation Wing and a SEBI order imposing penalty on the company for separate periods and without naming the assessee. The Tribunal noted that the transactions were executed through recognised stockexchange channels, were dematerialised, supported by broker notes and routed through banking channels. Price movement in the scrip was analysed and found to be gradual and within circuit limits; extraordinary rise was linked to the company's contemporaneous revenue growth. In the absence of any specific material establishing a live nexus between the assessee and alleged operators or exit providers, and without crossexamination of third parties relied upon by the AO, the Tribunal held that the AO could not dismiss the documentary evidence as a sham merely on the basis of generic investigation reports or probability. Applying the established burdenofproof principles, the Tribunal found that the assessee had satisfactorily demonstrated the genuineness and source of the investment and that the reliance on SEBI's order was misplaced when it did not implicate the assessee or cover the relevant period. [Paras 12, 14, 15, 16, 17]
The deletion of the addition of the declared LTCG by the Ld. CIT(A) is upheld and the Revenue's appeal (ITA No. 3726/Mum/2025) is dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal dismissed the subsequently filed duplicate appeal as infructuous and, on the merits, upheld the Ld. CIT(A)'s deletion of the addition treating declared LTCG as unexplained money-finding the assessee's documentary and transaction evidence sufficient and the Revenue's reliance on generic investigation reports and a nonspecific SEBI order insufficient to establish sham transactions.
Revocation of customs broker license under Rule 14 of the CBLR, 2018 - levy of penalty under Regulation 18 of the CBLR, 2018 - violation under Regulation 10(a), (d), (e), (m) and (n) respectively - non-extension of an opportunity to cross examine Customs Officers - Failure to produce relevant documents to the appellant at the time of issuance of Show Cause Notice - it was held by High Court that the appellant's license revocation and penalty imposition were valid and justified under the CBLR, 2018.
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court.
SLP dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the imported "IV3-500MA Smart Vision Sensor" is classifiable as a "measuring or checking" instrument/machine under Heading 9031, specifically under subheading 9031 49 00 as "Other optical instruments and appliances", applying the General Rules for Interpretation and relevant Section/Chapter Notes.
(ii) Whether classification under Chapter 85 (including Heading 8525 relating to television/digital cameras and video camera recorders) is excluded on the basis of the product's principal function and the statutory exclusion of Chapter 90 articles from Section XVI.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Classification under Heading 9031 (CTI 90314900) based on principal function as an optical checking/inspection instrument
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied Rule 1 of the General Rules for Interpretation (classification according to terms of headings and relevant Section/Chapter Notes). It also applied Note 3 to Section XVI (composite/multi-function machines classified according to the principal function), as made applicable to Chapter 90 via Chapter Note 3 to Chapter 90.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the product is fundamentally designed for high-precision industrial inspection and checking-presence, orientation, quality verification, and differentiation-forming part of quality control on production lines. It captures images using optical elements and then performs AI-based image processing to generate inspection "judgment" outputs (e.g., OK/NG signals). The Court treated image capture as part of an integrated inspection system, and emphasized that the product's effectiveness lies in analyzing captured images to perform checks; without such evaluation, the images would lack practical utility for quality control. The Court relied on the product's suite of standard and advanced inspection tools (e.g., width/diameter/edge/pitch checks, OCR, blob count, learning mode, multi-position adjustment) as showing "precise checking" capability consistent with Heading 9031. The Court concluded that the principal function is inspection/checking using optical image analysis, and therefore the product fits within Heading 9031 as an "other optical instrument and appliance", and not as a mere camera-like device.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that the product merits classification under Heading 9031, and more specifically under CTI 9031 49 00 ("Other - Other optical instruments and appliances").
Issue (ii): Exclusion of Chapter 85 / Heading 8525 classification due to Chapter 90 coverage and principal function
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied Note 3 to Section XVI to identify the product's principal function. It further applied Section Note 1(m) to Section XVI, which excludes "articles of Chapter 90" from Section XVI (which includes Chapter 85). The Court also examined the scope of Heading 8525 and contrasted it with the product's functionality.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that once the product is found to fall under Heading 9031 (Chapter 90), Section Note 1(m) operates to exclude it from Section XVI, and therefore from Chapter 85. Independently, the Court found the product does not satisfy the essential character of Heading 8525 devices, because its principal function is not the capture and transmission/recording of images for viewing, but inspection and judgment based on AI processing and comparison with pre-registered OK/NG data, producing industrial output signals. Any image storage was treated as incidental and limited (inspection history), not a primary recording function. On this basis, the Court rejected Chapter 85/Heading 8525 classification.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively determined that Chapter 85 (including Heading 8525) does not apply; the product remains classifiable under Chapter 90, Heading 9031, specifically CTI 9031 49 00.
Classification of imported 'IV3- 500MA Smart Vision Sensor' in India for further sale - whether the product merits classification under Chapter 85? - HELD THAT:- Based upon the literature provided by the applicant, technical specification, GRI 1 and explanatory notes, it is ampule clear that the IV3-500MA Smart Vision Sensor is specifically designed and primarily intended for automated industrial inspection and checking. The product integrates advanced optical components and AI-based image processing tools to perform high- precision visual inspections, including presence detection, orientation verification, and defect identification across a wide range of manufacturing applications. The IV3-500CA Smart Vision Sensor uses optical components (camera, lenses, illumination) to capture images and performs automated checking of objects based on pre-registered OK/NG image data. Does not perform general-purpose image recording or transmission. Its principal function is checking and inspection using optical image analysis. Therefore, just like the AIM, the IV3-500CA uses optical elements not for viewing but for functional image-based checking. Currently, IV3- 500CA Smart Vision Sensor is classified as "other Parts and accessories" under subheading 9031.90.
However, as the product itself has capability of checking function with equipped optical components (i.e., lens), therefore, it is found that subject goods are appropriately classifiable under CTH 9031 49 00 "Other" under the subhead 'Other optical instruments and appliances.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the imported "embolization coil" is classifiable as an "other artificial part of the body" under tariff item 9021 39 00, or as an "other appliance ... implanted in the body, to compensate for a defect or disability" under tariff item 9021 90 90.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Classification between tariff items 9021 39 00 and 9021 90 90
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied the General Rules for Interpretation, primarily Rule 1 (classification by terms of headings and relative notes) and considered the scope of Heading 9021 and its competing "other" sub-categories, read with the explanatory material reproduced and relied upon in the reasoning to distinguish (a) "artificial parts of the body" that replace defective parts, from (b) other wearable/carried/implantable appliances compensating a defect or disability.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that Heading 9021 covers the product at the four-digit level as an implanted device intended to compensate for a defect. The determinative question was whether it qualifies as an "artificial part of the body" under 9021 39 00. On the facts, the embolization coil is implanted into an existing blood vessel/aneurysmal cavity to induce controlled thrombosis and achieve occlusion; it does not replicate, replace, or substitute the anatomical structure of a vessel or aneurysm wall segment. The Court treated anatomical replacement/substitution as a necessary condition for 9021 39 00, and held that while "resemblance" may not be an absolute test, the requirement of substitution/replacement of anatomy is non-negotiable for classification as an artificial body part. The coil's therapeutic mechanism-deliberate intravascular occlusion while the native vessel continues to exist-fails that replacement test. The Court further reasoned that, by elimination, once 9021 31/39 is inapplicable, the appropriate residual classification is 9021 90 90, which covers implanted appliances compensating a defect or disability but not replacing anatomy.
Conclusions: The Court rejected classification under 9021 39 00 and conclusively held that the embolization coil is classifiable under Heading 9021, specifically tariff item 9021 90 90, as an implanted appliance compensating for a defect/disability without anatomical substitution.
Classification of imported embolization coil - classifiable as an other artificial part of the body under tariff item 9021 39 00, or as an other appliance, implanted in the body, to compensate for a defect or disability under tariff item 9021 90 90? - HELD THAT:- The product satisfies the legal scope of CTI 9021 90 90 as it is implanted in the body and compensates a medical defect (aneurysm/vascular malformation/blood- flow leakage risk) but it does not replace anatomy and the same is not covered by preceding single- dash entries CTI 9021 10 to 39.
Although the Harmonized System is aligned globally at the six-digit level, the Indian tariff at the eight-digit CTI level, along with the accompanying legal notes and interpretative principles, diverges in material respects. Moreover, none of the cited rulings pertain to devices whose therapeutic effect is achieved by inducing a controlled occlusion within an existing native vessel, as is the case with the Embolization coil. In view of above, the functional analogy sought to be drawn cannot override the explicit tariff language or the primary classificatory criterion under Heading 9021, which is the replacement or anatomical substitution of a defective body part, a condition not satisfied in the present matter. Accordingly, while the foreign rulings have been duly noted, they do not hold persuasive value for classifying the Embolization coil as an artificial part of the body under Indian CTI 9021 39 00.
The goods viz. "Embolization coil", proposed to be imported by the Applicant, merits classification under Tariff Heading 9021 and specifically under CTI 9021 90 90.
Issues: (i) Whether the imported goods described as Crude Rapeseed Oil / Crude Canola Oil / Crude Rape Oil / Low Erucic Acid Rape Oil are classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20; (ii) Whether the preferential Basic Customs Duty rate of 8% under the India-UAE CEPA applies to imports of CTSH 1514 11 20 from UAE for the period May 2025 to April 2026.
Issue (i): Whether the imported goods described as Crude Rapeseed Oil / Crude Canola Oil / Crude Rape Oil / Low Erucic Acid Rape Oil are classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20.
Analysis: Apply General Rule of Interpretation 1 and the Chapter 15 sub-heading note defining "low erucic acid rape or colza oil" as fixed oil with erucic acid content below 2% by weight. The descriptions provided correspond to crude fixed oil derived from rapeseed and fit within the heading for rape/colza oil and its subheadings for crude low erucic acid rape oil. No other heading more specifically describes the product.
Conclusion: The goods are classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20.
Issue (ii): Whether the preferential Basic Customs Duty rate of 8% under the India-UAE CEPA applies to imports of CTSH 1514 11 20 from UAE for the period May 2025 to April 2026.
Analysis: Annex 2A of the India-UAE CEPA lists tariff item 1514 11 20 with a five-year Tariff Elimination Phased schedule; the agreed annual effective rates are implemented in domestic law via Notification No. 22/2022-Customs as amended by Notifications No. 21/2025-Cus and No. 25/2025-Cus. The amended Table-I entry for the relevant tariff item prescribes a BCD rate of 8% for the fourth year (May 2025April 2026). Availability of the preferential rate is conditional on fulfilment of the applicable Rules of Origin and production of the requisite Certificate of Origin.
Conclusion: For imports of CTSH 1514 11 20 from UAE during May 2025 to April 2026, the preferential BCD rate is 8%, subject to compliance with the Rules of Origin and production of a valid Certificate of Origin.
Final Conclusion: The advance ruling determines the correct tariff classification of the goods as CTSH 1514 11 20 and confirms entitlement to the India-UAE CEPA preferential BCD rate of 8% for the fourth year tranche, contingent on meeting origin requirements.
Ratio Decidendi: A product meeting the Chapter 15 sub-heading definition of low erucic acid rape or colza oil (erucic acid <2% by weight) is classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20, and where that tariff item is listed in Annex 2A of the India-UAE CEPA with an implemented year-wise rate, the corresponding preferential BCD prescribed in the domestic notification applies for the specified period subject to compliance with Rules of Origin.
Classification under Chapter 15 (heading 1514) by application of General Rules for Interpretation - Statutory definition of "low erucic acid rape or colza oil" (erucic acid content below 2% by weight) - Preferential tariff commitments under India-UAE CEPA (Tariff Elimination Phased schedule) - Notifications issued under Section 25 of the Customs Act giving effect to CEPA tariff commitments - Compliance with Rules of Origin as condition for claiming preferential rate
Classification under Chapter 15 (heading 1514) by application of General Rules for Interpretation - Statutory definition of "low erucic acid rape or colza oil" (erucic acid content below 2% by weight) - Proposed imports described as Crude Rapeseed/Canola/Rape Oil with erucic acid below 2% are classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20. - HELD THAT: - The product is a crude fixed oil derived from rapeseed. Classification is governed by GRI 1: headings and chapter/section notes determine legal classification. Chapter SubHeading Note 2 to Chapter 15 defines "low erucic acid rape or colza oil" as fixed oil having erucic acid content of less than 2% by weight. The applicant has asserted that the goods meet that specification and the trade name "Canola" denotes the lowerucic variety. No other heading more specifically describes the product. Applying the chapter note and GRI 1, the product falls within the subheading for crude low erucic acid rape oil and is therefore classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20. [Paras 7, 8]
Classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20.
Preferential tariff commitments under India-UAE CEPA (Tariff Elimination Phased schedule) - Notifications issued under Section 25 of the Customs Act giving effect to CEPA tariff commitments - Compliance with Rules of Origin as condition for claiming preferential rate - For imports from the UAE during May 2025 to April 2026, goods under CTSH 1514 11 20 attract a preferential Basic Customs Duty rate of 8% under the IndiaUAE CEPA, subject to fulfilment of Rules of Origin. - HELD THAT: - Annex 2A of the CEPA lists tariff item 1514 11 20 at Serial No. 1195 and prescribes a fiveyear Tariff Elimination Phased schedule with yearwise effective rates. The schedule (May 2022-Apr 2023: 32%; May 2023-Apr 2024: 24%; May 2024-Apr 2025: 16%; May 2025-Apr 2026: 8%; May 2026-Apr 2027: 0%) has been implemented in India by Notification No. 22/2022Cus as amended by Notifications No. 21/2025Cus and No. 25/2025Cus. The amended TableI records tariff item 1514 11 20 with a BCD rate of 8% for the fourth year. The preferential rate is not automatic; entitlement requires production of a valid Certificate of Origin and compliance with the Customs Tariff (Determination of Origin under CEPA) Rules, 2022 and the Customs (Administration of Rules of Origin under Trade Agreements) Rules, 2020, and satisfaction of conditions in the relevant notification. [Paras 7, 8]
Preferential BCD @ 8% for May 2025 to April 2026, subject to production of Certificate of Origin and compliance with Rules of Origin and notification conditions.
Final Conclusion: The Authority ruled that crude rapeseed/canola/rape oil meeting the "low erucic acid" definition (erucic acid <2% by weight) is classifiable under CTSH 1514 11 20, and that imports of that tariff item from the UAE during May 2025 to April 2026 are eligible for a preferential Basic Customs Duty rate of 8% under the India-UAE CEPA, provided the importer produces a valid Certificate of Origin and complies with the applicable Rules of Origin and conditions of the implementing notifications.
Issues: (i) Whether the Wireless Remote is classifiable as radio remote control apparatus under Heading 8526; (ii) Whether the Remote Charger is classifiable as a battery charger under Heading 8504; (iii) Whether the Top Card Assembly, Pinky Assembly, Batman Rev.0 - PCBA, Folding Mechanism Handle, Flexible Neck Connector, Breathable Vent, Battery Clip, Wheels with Motor and Wheels without Motor are classifiable as parts of the Tactical Hauler under Heading 8709 or excluded as independently classifiable goods; (iv) Whether the Battery Plastic Cover A / Battery Plastic Cover B are classifiable as articles of plastics under Heading 3926; and (v) Whether the Battery Cover Screw / Body Screws are classifiable as screws of iron or steel under Heading 7318.
Issue (i): Whether the Wireless Remote is classifiable as radio remote control apparatus under Heading 8526.
Analysis: The Wireless Remote was found to operate on radio frequency and to transmit directional and speed commands to the vehicle's electronic control unit. Applying Rule 1 of the General Rules for Interpretation and the description of Heading 8526, the device answered the tariff description of radio remote control apparatus.
Conclusion: The Wireless Remote is classifiable under CTI 8526 92 00, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the Remote Charger is classifiable as a battery charger under Heading 8504.
Analysis: The Remote Charger was found to serve the sole function of recharging the remote's embedded battery. Heading 8504 specifically covers static converters, including battery chargers, and the item fit that tariff description.
Conclusion: The Remote Charger is classifiable under CTI 8504 40 30, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the Top Card Assembly, Pinky Assembly, Batman Rev.0 - PCBA, Folding Mechanism Handle, Flexible Neck Connector, Breathable Vent, Battery Clip, Wheels with Motor and Wheels without Motor are classifiable as parts of the Tactical Hauler under Heading 8709 or excluded as independently classifiable goods.
Analysis: The Tactical Hauler was treated as a self-propelled works truck of Heading 8709. For the disputed items, the controlling test was whether they were not excluded by Note 2 to Section XVII, were suitable solely or principally for use with the Heading 8709 vehicle, and were not more specifically covered elsewhere. On that reasoning, the electronic control units, the customised handles/connectors/vents/clips, and both wheel assemblies were treated as vehicle parts. The folding and plastic components were found to be specially designed for exclusive use with the Tactical Hauler and not general-purpose articles.
Conclusion: The listed items are classifiable under CTI 8709 90 00, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the Battery Plastic Cover A / Battery Plastic Cover B are classifiable as articles of plastics under Heading 3926.
Analysis: These covers were found to be general-purpose plastic items not uniquely designed for exclusive use with the Tactical Hauler. By virtue of Note 2(b) to Section XVII, such plastic articles fall outside Chapter 87 and are classifiable under Chapter 39.
Conclusion: The Battery Plastic Cover A / Battery Plastic Cover B are classifiable under CTI 3926 90 99, against the assessee.
Issue (v): Whether the Battery Cover Screw / Body Screws are classifiable as screws of iron or steel under Heading 7318.
Analysis: The screws were found to be standard fasteners of iron or steel used for assembly and securing, falling within the scope of Heading 7318 and excluded from classification as vehicle parts under Section XVII Note 2(b).
Conclusion: The Battery Cover Screw / Body Screws are classifiable under CTI 7318 19 00, in favour of the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The ruling accepted the proposed vehicle-part classification for the specialised electronic and mechanical components, while separating out general-purpose plastic parts and standard metal fasteners for classification under their respective headings.
Ratio Decidendi: For goods claimed as parts of a Chapter 87 vehicle, classification depends on the General Rules for Interpretation read with Section XVII Note 2: the article must not be excluded, must be suitable solely or principally for use with the vehicle, and must not be more specifically covered elsewhere in the tariff.
Classification of parts of the Tactical Hauler (Loader Carrier) - classifiable under CTH 8709 or not - Wireless Remote, Remote Charger - Top Card Assembly (Electronic Control Unit) - Pinky Assembly (Electronic Control Unit), Batman Rev.0 - PCBA - Folding Mechanism Handle - Flexible Neck Connector - Breathable Vent - Battery Clip - Battery Plastic Cover A / Battery Plastic Cover B - Battery Cover Screw / Body Screws - Wheels with Motor |Wheel + Tyre + Motor] - Wheels without Motor |Rim with Tyre].
Tactical Hauler (Loader Carrier) - HELD THAT:- Tactical Hauler is a self-propelled, electrically powered vehicle designed for short-distance transport of goods such as military equipment and supplies, similar in function to works trucks used in factories, warehouses, or airports. The Tactical Hauler is not fitted with any lifting or handling equipment and is not suitable for passenger transport or for use on public roads, aligning with the design limitations noted in the heading. Its operational speed is generally low and it is capable of maneuvering in tight spaces due to a small turning radius. It features a load platform for direct carrying of goods and includes ergonomically designed handles or a folding mechanism that allows it to be pushed or pulled manually when required, especially in cases of battery depletion or silent movement. Additionally, it may be controlled remotely, further aligning with the category of pedestrian-controlled works trucks. Given these characteristics and its intended use in confined, operational areas similar to those described in the Explanatory Notes, the Tactical Hauler clearly meets the criteria outlined under Heading 8709 - Accordingly, based on the Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Tactical Hauler qualifies for classification under CTH 8709, as it fulfils all the essential conditions prescribed therein.
Wireless Remote - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the product in question, Wireless Remote is an electronic device that uses radio frequency (RF) technology to control the Tactical Hauler remotely, by transmitting directional and speed control signals to the vehicle's Electronic Control Unit (ECU). This functionality falls squarely within the scope of "radio remote control apparatus" as described in the Explanatory Notes to heading 8526 - in view of the HSN Explanatory Notes and as per the application of General Interpretative Rule (GIR) 1, the Wireless Remote is appropriately classifiable under Customs Tariff Item (CTI) 8526 92 00 (Radio remote control apparatus) of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Remote Charger - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the remote charger qualifies as a battery charger because its sole function is to supply electrical energy to recharge the battery embedded within the wireless remote control unit. A battery charger is a type of static converter that converts electrical energy (typically from an AC mains supply) into a suitable form, usually direct current (DC) to recharge a rechargeable battery - Accordingly, in view of the HSN Explanatory Notes and as per the application of General Interpretative Rule (GIR) 1, the Remote Charger merit classification under CTI 85044030 (Battery Charger) of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Top Card Assembly (Electronic Control Unit) - HELD THAT:- The Top Card Assembly does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Top Card Assembly is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Top Card Assembly is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - Since all the three conditions have been satisfied, it can be concluded that the 'Top Card Assembly' qualifies as parts of Tactical Hauler under Chapter 87 in accordance with the Rule 1 of GIR, Section Note 2 and Explanatory Notes to Section XVII - by virtue of General Interpretative Rule 1, the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to heading 8709, the Top Card Assembly merits classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Pinky Assembly (Electronic Control Unit) - HELD THAT:- The 'Pinky Assembly' referred as ECU-2 qualifies as parts of Tactical Hauler under Chapter 87 in accordance with the Rule 1 of GIR, Section Note 2 and Explanatory Notes to Section XVII - Therefore, by virtue of General Interpretative Rule 1, the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to heading 8709, the Pinky Assembly merits classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Batman Rev.0 - PCBA - HELD THAT:- The Batman Rev.0 - PCBA does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Batman Rev.0 - PCBA is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Batman Rev.0 - PCBA is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Batman Rev.0 - PCBA merit classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Folding Mechanism Handle - HELD THAT:- The Folding Mechanism Handle does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Folding Mechanism Handle is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Folding Mechanism Handle is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Folding Mechanism Handle merit classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Flexible Neck Connector - HELD THAT:- The Flexible Neck Connector does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Flexible Neck Connector is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Flexible Neck Connector is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Flexible Neck Connector merit classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Breathable Vent - HELD THAT:- The Breathable Vent does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Breathable Vent is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Breathable Vent is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Breathable Vent classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Battery Clip - HELD THAT:- The Battery Clip does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Battery Clip is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Battery Clip is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Battery Clip merit classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of a Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Battery Plastic Cover A / Battery Plastic Cover B - HELD THAT:- As per Section Note 2(b) to Section XVII of the Customs Tariff, general-purpose plastic items that do not have the essential character of a vehicle part and are not uniquely identifiable as such are excluded from classification under Chapter 87. Given that the Battery Plastic Cover A and Battery Plastic Cover B do not meet the criteria for classification as a specific vehicle part and are not custom-designed for the Tactical Hauler, it is excluded from Chapter 87 - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2(b) to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes, the Battery Plastic Cover A and Battery Plastic Cover B merit classification under CTH 3926(Other articles of plastics and articles of other materials of headings 3901 to 3914), more specifically under CTI 39269099 (Other) of the First Schedule of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Battery Cover Screw / Body Screws - HELD THAT:- Since the Battery Cover Screws and Body Screws are made of iron or steel, serve a general fastening function, are standard articles of general use that are not unique or specifically engineered solely for use in the Tactical Hauler, fall squarely within the scope of Heading 7318, and they are excluded from classification under Heading 8709 (as vehicle parts) - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2(b) to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes, the Battery Cover Screws / Body Screws merit classification under CTI 7318 (Screws, bolts, nuts, coach screws, screw hooks, rivets, cotters, cotter-pins, washers (including spring washers) and similar articles, of iron or steel), more specifically under CTI 73181900 (Other), of the First Schedule of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Wheels with Motor [Wheel + Tyre + Motor] - HELD THAT:- The Wheel with Motor does not fall under any of the exclusion clauses listed in Section Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff. Accordingly, the first condition for classification as a "part" under Section XVII is satisfied. Additionally, based on the technical description and functional use submitted by the applicant, it is clear that the Wheel with Motor is exclusively or principally used in the Tactical Hauler, which falls under Heading 8709. This satisfies the second condition. Finally, the Wheel with Motor is not more specifically classified elsewhere in the Customs Tariff, fulfilling the third condition - applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Wheel with Motor merit classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of the Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Wheels without Motor |Rim with Tyrel - HELD THAT:- Although tyres alone are generally classifiable under Heading 4011 or 4012, and wheels or rims under 8709(for vehicles of headings 8709), in this case, the combined rim with tyre is specifically configured and manufactured for exclusive use in a Tactical Hauler, which is classifiable under Heading 8709 as a "self-propelled works truck not fitted with lifting or handling equipment." Moreover, the Explanatory Notes to parts under Heading 8709 as mentioned above specifically clarify that this heading includes wheels, whether or not fitted with tyres, when they are parts of vehicles of this heading - Accordingly, applying General Interpretative Rule 1, and considering the Section Note 2 to Section XVII and Explanatory Notes to Heading 8709, the Wheel without motor (comprising rim and tyre) merit classification under CTI 8709 90 00 as a part of the Tactical Hauler, falling under Heading 8709.
Thus, the classification is summarised as follows:
i) Wireless Remote - to be classified under CTI 85269200.
ii) Remote Charger - to be classified under CTI 85044030.
iii) Pinky Assembly (Electronic Control Unit), Batman Rev.0 - PCBA, Folding Mechanism Handle, Flexible Neck Connector, Breathable Vent, Battery Clip, Wheels with Motor [Wheel+Tyre +Motor] and Wheels without Motor [Rim with Tyre] - to be classified under CTI 87099000.
iv) Battery Plastic Cover A /Battery Plastic Cover B - to be classified under CTI 39269099.
v) Battery Cover Screw/ Body Screws - to be classified under CTI 73181900.
Issues: (i) Whether the claims were barred by limitation or were saved by the Supreme Court's exclusion of limitation period; (ii) Whether the Resolution Professional and the Adjudicating Authority were justified in rejecting the claims on the basis that the alleged loan agreements were unreliable and the amounts did not constitute financial debt.
Issue (i): Whether the claims were barred by limitation or were saved by the Supreme Court's exclusion of limitation period.
Analysis: The claims were invited on 24.02.2022, which fell within the period covered by the Supreme Court's exclusion order extending limitation for matters where limitation would have expired between 15.03.2020 and 28.02.2022. On that basis, the claimants were entitled to the benefit of the extended limitation window and were not required to seek condonation of delay as a precondition for admission of their claims.
Conclusion: The claims were not barred by limitation and the rejection on the ground of delay was not sustainable.
Issue (ii): Whether the Resolution Professional and the Adjudicating Authority were justified in rejecting the claims on the basis that the alleged loan agreements were unreliable and the amounts did not constitute financial debt.
Analysis: The statutory framework requires the RP to verify claims and call for supporting material. The alleged loan documents suffered from serious inconsistencies, including defective stamping, absence of reliable authorization, discrepancies in dates and execution details, and lack of contemporaneous demand or repayment correspondence for many years. The corporate debtor's audited balance sheets reflected the amounts under 'Other Advances' or similar heads, not as borrowings, and did not disclose interest provision or supporting tax evidence. In these circumstances, the authorities were justified in examining the supporting material and in concluding that the claims were not supported by cogent proof of a genuine financial debt.
Conclusion: The rejection of the claims on merits was upheld and the amounts were held not to be established as financial debt.
Final Conclusion: The appeals failed because the claims were not proved as genuine financial debts and the impugned orders rejecting the claims were sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: In insolvency proceedings, a claimed debt may be rejected where the supporting documents and corporate records do not reliably establish a genuine financial debt, and the RP and Adjudicating Authority are entitled to verify the authenticity and tenability of the claim on the basis of the materials produced.
Rejection of claims of the Appellants in the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Proceedings of the Corporate Debtor - case of the Appellant is that the Adjudicating Authority had erroneously rejected their claim by treating them as delayed - HELD THAT:- The stamp paper on which the Loan agreement was executed does not carry the stamp of the licensed vendor, serial number and date of purchase. Clearly, therefore, the Stamp Paper was not obtained from regular, identifiable, authorised or verifiable sources. Further, no material has been placed on record to show that there was any formal authorisation from the Corporate Debtor by way of Board Resolution for execution of the Loan Agreement for any signatory to execute the Loan Agreement on their behalf. The Corporate Debtor had also allegedly not submitted the original Loan Agreement with the RP. All these factors, seen cumulatively, casts a shadow of doubt on the authenticity and bonafide of the Loan Agreement. Hence, NCLAT is inclined to agree with the Respondents that there existed substantial and compelling grounds for the Adjudicating Authority to have exercised its inherent powers bestowed under Rule 11 of the NCLT Rules to look into the authenticity of the Loan Agreement as denoted at para 13 of the impugned order.
The Appellant was admittedly a shareholder of the Corporate Debtor when the Loan Agreement was signed in 2007 and later became one of the Directors of the Corporate Debtor from 2009-2012. Thus, it is undisputable that the Appellant was very much in control of the management of the Corporate Debtor until 2012. We also notice that either the Appellant or his brother who was a signatory of the Loan Agreement remained at the helm of affairs of the Corporate Debtor all along. That being the case, the Appellant cannot absolve itself of the responsibility of explaining as to why the financial statement of the Corporate Debtor did not reflect levy of interest till FY 2011-12 even when they were in control of the Corporate Debtor - The Adjudicating Authority, at best, had a limited jurisdiction to examine the decision of the RP on the rejection on the claim and not on the reasonability of computation of the claim or quantum of the debt.
There are substance in the contention raised by the Respondents that the claim filed by the Appellant was not bonafide as it was not premised on a genuine loan transaction and was bereft of cogent supporting proof - there are no error on the part of the Adjudicating Authority in passing the impugned order rejecting the claims filed by the Appellant.
Rejection of claim on the ground of time limitation - HELD THAT:- There was no delay as such in filing of claims by the Appellant as the RP had invited the claims with effect from 24.02.2022 which date fell within the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 and therefore the Appellant was clearly entitled to the benefit of Para (III) of the orders of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Suo Motu Writ Petition (Civil) No. 3 of 10.01.2022 [2022 (1) TMI 385 - SC ORDER]. In fact, after considering IA No 2768 of 2022, the Adjudicating Authority on 22.12.2023 in pursuance of the Suo Moto order had held the claim to not barred by limitation and directed the RP to verify the claim on merit. In such circumstances, for the Adjudicating Authority to now having taken the stand that the claim was inadmissible on grounds that it was belated and hit by limitation lacks foundation.
There are substance in the contention raised by the Respondents that the claim filed by the Appellant was not bonafide and hence the rejection of the claims filed by the Appellant company by the Adjudicating Authority is sustainable in the eyes of law.
There are no infirmity in the impugned orders - appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the appeal against the liquidator's decision under Section 42 of the I&B Code was liable to be rejected as time-barred on the ground that it was filed beyond the prescribed period, despite the appellant's plea attributing delay to the Covid-19 situation.
(ii) Whether rejection of the Section 42 appeal was sustainable on the reasoning that an independent delay-condonation application was mandatory, and that delay could not be condoned in its absence, having regard to the Court's understanding of Section 5 of the Limitation Act and the Covid-19 limitation extension directions applied by the Court.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Limitation for Section 42 appeal; necessity of a separate condonation application; effect of Covid-19 limitation extension
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined limitation in the context of Section 42 of the I&B Code, the power to admit an appeal/application after the prescribed period under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, and the application of the Covid-19 limitation exclusion period as recognised in the Court's reasoning (excluding the period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 for limitation purposes in judicial/quasi-judicial proceedings).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the tribunal's basis for rejecting the Section 42 appeal-namely, that delay could not be condoned because no independent condonation application accompanied the appeal-was erroneous. The Court reasoned that Section 5 of the Limitation Act does not, by its text, require a separate condonation application; it is sufficient if the tribunal is satisfied from the pleadings that there was "sufficient cause" for not filing within time. The Court further found that the appellant had, in the limitation paragraph of its Section 42 filing, pleaded that the delay occurred due to Covid-19 circumstances and sought condonation on that basis, which the Court treated as a sufficient explanation to trigger consideration of condonation. Even assuming the appellant had stated that a separate application was filed but did not in fact file it, the Court held that this omission could not defeat consideration of condonation in light of the Covid-19 limitation exclusion period that the Court treated as applicable for computing limitation.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively decided that the impugned rejection on limitation was unsustainable; delay ought to have been condoned because (a) a supporting/independent condonation application was not mandatory, (b) condonation could be considered under Section 5 based on sufficient cause shown in the pleadings, and (c) limitation stood extended/excluded during the Covid-19 period as applied by the Court. The Court accordingly condoned the delay and remitted the Section 42 appeal to the adjudicating authority for decision on merits, leaving all substantive contentions open. The Court expressly declined to decide any distribution-related objection (including contentions touching Section 53) at this stage, confining its determination to limitation and maintainability for merits adjudication.
Rejection of proceedings u/s 42 of I&B Code on the ground of delay - time taken to file the appeal is beyond the time limit provided under Section 42 of I&B Code - suo moto powers for condoning the delay - HELD THAT:- The reason assigned in the Impugned Order, for denying to condone the delay in filing of the appeal under Section 42 of I&B Code is not sustainable, on the grounds that (i) no supporting application was required to be filed for seeking condonation of delay, (ii) the suo- moto powers for condoning the delay could be exercised in the light of the provisions contained under Section 5 of Limitation Act and (iii) the period of Limitation for the appeal was expiring during the period of Covid-19 situation and the period of limitation should have been extended for the Appellant as per the prescription of Hon'ble Apex Court in COGNIZANCE FOR EXTENSION OF LIMITATION [2022 (1) TMI 385 - SC ORDER] and therefore, the delay in filing of the Appeal preferred by the Appellant under Section 42 of I&B Code should have been condoned and it ought to have been heard and decided on merits.
In that eventuality, while condoning the delay, that has chanced in preferring the Appeal under Section 42 of I&B Code, the matter is remitted back to the Learned Adjudicating Authority to decide the Appeal under Section 42 of I&B Code, itself on its own merits.
Appeal allowed by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether the earlier corporate guarantees of 22.08.2015 and 18.11.2016 stood extinguished by the later arrangements of 06.11.2020 so as to require invocation of the later guarantee alone for maintainability of the Section 7 application; (ii) Whether the Section 7 application could fail on the ground that the earlier guarantee deeds were insufficiently stamped and therefore unenforceable.
Issue (i): Whether the earlier corporate guarantees of 22.08.2015 and 18.11.2016 stood extinguished by the later arrangements of 06.11.2020 so as to require invocation of the later guarantee alone for maintainability of the Section 7 application.
Analysis: The later sanction letters and the working capital consortium arrangement preserved the existing securities, and the later corporate guarantee was found not to have displaced the earlier guarantees. The later facilities were held to be covered by the continuing security framework already created under the earlier guarantees. The notice of invocation dated 06.03.2023 was therefore treated as a valid invocation of the binding earlier guarantees. The plea of novation was rejected because the later documents did not show an intention to wipe out the earlier contractual obligations.
Conclusion: The earlier guarantees continued to bind the corporate debtor, and invocation of the later guarantee was not a precondition for maintaining the Section 7 application.
Issue (ii): Whether the Section 7 application could fail on the ground that the earlier guarantee deeds were insufficiently stamped and therefore unenforceable.
Analysis: The Court treated insufficient stamping as a curable defect. It noted the existence of stamp duty exemption certificates, the absence of any timely objection, and the undertaking to pay any deficit if raised. The Court held that technical objections of this nature could not defeat insolvency proceedings where debt and default were otherwise established. The defect, even if assumed, had not been cured by the appellant or the corporate guarantor, and no basis was found to ignore the guarantee deeds in the insolvency proceedings.
Conclusion: The objection based on insufficient stamping was rejected and did not render the Section 7 application non-maintainable.
Final Conclusion: The appeal failed on both the asserted grounds, and the admission of the Section 7 application was upheld because the debt and default stood established and no legal infirmity in the invocation of the guarantees was shown.
Ratio Decidendi: Where later finance documents expressly preserve existing securities, earlier corporate guarantees are not extinguished by novation; and an insufficiently stamped guarantee is a curable defect that does not defeat a Section 7 insolvency application when debt and default are undisputed.
Maintainability of section 7 petition against the Appellant-Corporate Debtor/Corporate Guarantor - Guarantee Deeds were insufficiently stamped documents - documents are inadmissible as evidence - HELD THAT:- Clause 1 of the above Guarantee Deed dated 22.08.2015 clearly stipulates that if at any time default is made by the borrower in making payment, the Corporate Guarantor-SEPL shall forthwith on demand pay to the Central Bank of India amount not exceeding Rs. 73.61 Cr. It is also clear from the language employed in the above Guarantee Deed that the guarantee could be invoked either by the consortium or any of the members. Thus, no bar was placed on individual constituent member of the consortium to proceed with invocation of the guarantee on a default committed by the Principal Borrower.
Whether there was a novation of contract between the parties which necessitated invocation of Guarantee Deed of 06.11.2020 to render the Section 7 application maintainable? - HELD THAT:- It is noticed that even though sanction letters were issued on 26.12.2019 and 09.09.2020 for Ad- Hoc Limit and FITL by the Respondent Bank in respect of which the Appellant- Corporate Debtor/Corporate Guarantor had given a guarantee on 06.11.2020, the sanction letters had clearly mentioned that the securities which were covered in the guarantees dated 22.08.2015 and 18.11.2016 were to continue. Thus, the guarantees issued by the Corporate Guarantor on 22.08.2015 and 18.11.2016 continued to hold ground. Thus, the Corporate Debtor continued to remain bound by the earlier bank guarantees dated 22.08.2015 and 18.11.2016 to discharge the debt liability of the Principal Borrower - the submission of the Appellant that Guarantee Deed dated 06.11.2020 which was for term loan of Rs. 114.22 Cr. had wiped off the earlier guarantees cannot be accepted.
This cannot be viewed as a novation of contract between the parties. The invocation of guarantee on 06.03.2023 by the Bank was therefore a correct invocation which obligated the Corporate Guarantor to clear the dues.
There are also no merit in a related contention raised by the Appellant that the Respondent No.1 Bank being one of the constituents of the consortium of banks which had extended credit facilities to the Principal Borrower, it could not have filed the Section 7 application on its own - when the loan account of the Principal Borrower had been declared NPA on 29.11.2020, each of the consortium members was entitled to file the Section 7 application on their own steam without any need of consent or approval or permission from the other members. That being so, the right of the Respondent No.1 Bank to file the Section 7 petition cannot be questioned.
Both the Principal Borrower and the Corporate Guarantor who were involved in the loan transaction held valid Stamp Duty Exemption Certificates. The SPML-Principal Borrowers’ Certificate covered Plot No. E-29 and E-39, Taluka Parner, Distt. Ahmednagar which was offered as primary security for the loan. Similarly, the property described at page 760 of Appeal Paper Book in Corporate Guarantor-SEPL’s own stamp duty exemption certificate viz. GAT No. 53, Km No. 17, Post Bhalwani was the same property which was mortgaged to secure the loans sanctioned to the Principal Borrower. The above properties referred to in the Stamp Duty Exemption Certificates were the same properties as was mentioned in the Section 13(2) SARFAESI Notice. Even at that stage, no objections were raised regarding insufficient stamping - Once the opportunity available to object to the admissibility of the document was not availed by the Appellant, the validity of the document cannot be ignored, discarded or wished away by them now.
The insufficiently stamped Deed of Guarantee is a curable defect and the onus to cure the same was on the Principal Borrower or the Corporate Guarantor as it was their obligation to pay the stamp duty. Furthermore, we find that the Principal Borrower had even undertaken to pay the deficit stamp duty payable in case any such demand was raised. The deficit was admittedly not paid by the Principal Borrower as no such demand was raised. In such circumstances, when the Principal Borrower was expressly aware of the stamp duty that was required to be paid and having given an explicit undertaking to pay for any shortfall, they had ample opportunity to remedy the purported deficiency in the stamp duty payment - it is inclined to agree with the Respondent No.1 Bank that the issue of insufficient stamping has been raised as an after-thought in the present appeal and that such technical objections cannot be a ground to defeat the substantive rights of the Respondent Bank to initiate insolvency proceedings against the Corporate Debtor/Corporate Guarantor.
The core issue of any insolvency proceeding is debt and default. Debt and default have not been contested by the Appellant. There is no submission of the Appellant that no amount is due qua their guarantee obligations. The Appellant has only tried to get over their liabilities on the ground that the earlier contract of guarantee having been novated, there was no liability on the part of the Corporate Guarantor until the new Guarantee Deed was invoked and on the ground that no occasion had arisen for the Appellant to discharge their liabilities due to insufficient stamping of the Guarantee Deeds.
The admission of the Section 7 application cannot be obfuscated or defeated by raising such unfounded technical pleas. In the present case, when debt and default is undisputedly established, the Adjudicating Authority did not commit any error in accepting the Section 7 application.
There are no error in the order passed by the Adjudicating Authority admitting Section 7 application. There is no merit in the Appeal - appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether, after admission of the corporate debtor into corporate insolvency resolution process and the commencement of moratorium, the provident fund authority can initiate or continue assessment proceedings for interest and damages under Section 7Q and Section 14B of the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, and then seek admission of the resulting claim in the insolvency process.
Analysis: The assessment proceedings under Section 7Q and Section 14B were initiated after the commencement of the corporate insolvency resolution process and after moratorium under Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 had come into force. The Court applied the settled principle that once moratorium begins, no fresh assessment can be initiated or continued against the corporate debtor so as to fasten pecuniary liability. The fact that the underlying period related to a time before insolvency did not permit post-moratorium assessment proceedings. The judgments relied upon by the appellant were distinguished as they did not decide the specific issue of assessment after commencement of insolvency proceedings.
Conclusion: The post-CIRP assessment and consequential claim were impermissible, and the rejection of the appellant's application was in law.
Rejection of claims submitted by the petitioner - assessment has been made post the date of CIRP but it is contended that it was pertaining to the period prior to CIRP - assessment of the interest and damages, under Section 7Q and 14B of the Act can take place after the admission of the application under Section 7, 9 and 10 after the CD is slipped into CIRP, because of imposition of moratorium under Section 14 of the Code or not - HELD THAT:- The judgement relied upon by the Respondent in CA Pankaj Shah vs. Employee Provident Fund Organisation & Anr. [2025 (9) TMI 337 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI] fully covers the issue because in the said case the CIRP was initiated on 17.02.2023. The inspection was carried out by the EPFO on 10.05.2023 and report was submitted by Enforcement Officer by which it was communicated that amount of Rs. 33,99,135/- was worked out as due from the CD for the period from April, 2015 to March, 2021. The said period was before the date of CIRP i.e., 17.02.2023 but the inspection report of the assessment was post CIRP i.e., 10.05.2023.
This court has held that after the imposition of moratorium under Section 14 of the Code, the assessment cannot be carried out much less no claim can be raised.
Thus, in view of the law laid down by this Court in case of CA Pankaj Shah, it is opined that there is no error committed by the Learned Tribunal in rejecting the application filed by the Appellant - appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether the applicant was entitled to bail under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 in view of prolonged incarceration and the unlikely early conclusion of the trial.
Analysis: The application was considered in the backdrop of the statutory restriction under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and the requirement to satisfy the twin conditions. The Court found that no role could be attributed to the applicant in delaying the proceedings and that the adjournments were attributable to other accused persons. It also noted that charges had not been framed, that the case involved a large number of witnesses and voluminous documentary material, and that the trial of the predicate offences had not commenced. Relying on the constitutional principle against prolonged pre-trial detention and the need to harmonise statutory restrictions with the right to personal liberty and speedy trial, the Court held that continued incarceration could not be justified merely by reference to the statutory bar.
Conclusion: The twin conditions under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 were held to be satisfied in favour of the applicant, and bail was granted on conditions.
Seeking garnt of bail - Money Laundering - case of the prosecution is based on the alleged documents, which are already in the possession of the ED - main trust of the arguments of the learned counsel appearing for the ED is about the fact that the earlier bail applications of the applicant have been dismissed on merit - twin conditions, as per Section 45 of the PMLA satisfied or not - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, charges have not been framed and considering the total number of witnesses to be examined by the prosecution and the voluminous record, relied upon, this Court can foresee the fact that in near future, chances of conclusion of the trial, against the applicant, are not so bright.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in a case, titled as Bachhu Yadav versus Directorate of Enforcement [2023 (9) TMI 360 - SUPREME COURT], has released the applicant, before it, after considering the fact that out of 42 witnesses, five had been examined and the custody period of the said applicant was little over one year.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Manish Sisodia versus Directorate of Enforcement [2024 (8) TMI 614 - SUPREME COURT], has elaborately discussed the provisions of PMLA, viz-a-viz, offences, which are punishable for death, imprisonment for life, ten years or more like offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, murder, cases of rape, dacoity, kidnapping for ransom, mass violence, etc.
Whether the twin conditions, as per Section 45 of the PMLA, are existing in favour of the applicant, on account of his long custody? - HELD THAT:- In view of the ratio of law, laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in K.A. Najeeb [2021 (2) TMI 1212 - SUPREME COURT], this Court is of the view that the twin conditions, as enumerated in Section 45 of the PMLA can be said to be existing in favour of the applicant, on account of his long incarceration, by holding that, at this stage, it can be said that he is not guilty of such offence and while, on bail, he will not commit any offence. Moreover, for the second condition, that he will not commit any offence, reasonable conditions can be imposed on him.
In this case, the earlier bail applications of the applicant were dismissed by this Court, on the basis of the non-fulfilment of the conditions, as enumerated under Section 45 of the PMLA, however, considering the fact that there is no possibility regarding the commencement and conclusion of the trial, against the applicant, in near future and considering the fact that the trial, arising out of the RC, registered by CBI, has also not yet been commenced, this Court is of the view that the embargo, as created by Section 45 of the PMLA, does not come in the way of releasing the applicant, on bail, as the applicant is in custody for about two years and four months, since, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Athar Parwez versus Union of India [2024 (12) TMI 1682 - SUPREME COURT], has held that the constitutional jurisdiction, viz-a-viz, the restrictions, under the statute need to be harmonized.
It has rightly been pointed out by the learned counsel for the applicant that the applicant is permanent resident of Punjab and for securing his presence, during the trial, stringent conditions can be imposed. Even otherwise, the applicant has not misused the liberty, which was granted to him, by way of interim bail, on various occasions.
Considering all these facts, this Court is of the view that the bail application is liable to be allowed and is accordingly allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether testing and pairing of smart cards with set top boxes amounted to job work or further processing within the meaning of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004. (ii) Whether the assessee was required to reverse Cenvat credit on clearance of the smart cards under Rule 3(5) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
Issue (i): Whether testing and pairing of smart cards with set top boxes amounted to job work or further processing within the meaning of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
Analysis: The movement of smart cards to the set top box manufacturer was not a mere removal of inputs as such. The receiving unit only paired and tested the smart cards with the set top boxes so that the cards could function in the conditional access system. Such activity fell within the concept of processing of inputs sent to a job worker and was covered by the wider language of Rule 4(5)(a)(i). The activity did not cease to be job work merely because it did not culminate in manufacture.
Conclusion: The activity was covered by job work and further processing under the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the assessee was required to reverse Cenvat credit on clearance of the smart cards under Rule 3(5) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
Analysis: Since the smart cards were sent for further processing and testing, the case did not attract reversal of credit as if the inputs had been cleared as such. The statutory scheme permitted retention of credit where inputs were sent out for the purposes contemplated by Rule 4(5)(a), and the object of the credit system was to avoid cascading of duty.
Conclusion: Reversal under Rule 3(5) was not required, and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: No substantial question of law arose from the tribunal's view on the treatment of the smart cards, and the Revenue's challenge failed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where inputs are sent out for processing, testing, or other permitted purposes under Rule 4(5)(a)(i), and the activity is integrally connected with the intended use of the inputs, Cenvat credit is not to be reversed under Rule 3(5) merely because the process does not amount to manufacture.
Admissibility of Cenvat Credit availed by the assessee on smart cards - inputs are cleared ‘as such’ - activity of pairing and testing of smart cards and subsequent assembling of the Set Top Boxes falls within the term job-work or not - assessee has not maintained the job work register - HELD THAT:- The basic objective behind allowing Cenvat Credit on inputs, input services or capital goods is to provide instant credit of duties/taxes paid thereon and consequential reduction in the cost, by avoiding the cascading effect. The pairing and testing of smart cards with the Set Top Boxes get completed only when the bar code of the smart card matches with the bar code of Set Top Box, which is essential in providing access to DTH services under the conditional access system. The adjudicating authority has not considered the entire process but had considered only the part of it.
There is no dispute regarding the facts, in a way that though the smart cards were imported, yet they were not inserted in the Set Top Boxes as it is. They were required to be given for processing to M/s. Trend Electronics Limited. Now, M/s. Trend Electronics Limited has not carried out any manufacturing activities as regards the smart cards received from the assessee. They have simply paired the bar code of the smart card with that of Set Top Box. Rule 2(n) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 prescribes “job work”. It means processing or working upon of raw material or semi-finished goods supplied to the job worker, so as to complete a part or whole of the process resulting in the manufacture or finishing of an article or any operation which is essential for aforesaid process. The testing and pairing was only with a view to see whether they are suitable for the customer i.e. the end user.
If the Cenvat credit availed on inputs or capital goods are not used for the intended purpose then to counteract such eventualities, an embargo has also been created in the statute for not extending the benefit of Cenvat facility. Rule 2(n) has to be read in conjunction with Rule 4(5)(a)(i) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004. Job work per se may or may not lead to manufacture. But the usage of the Rule 4(5)(a) is wide enough to cover any activity carried on the input by the job worker and in those cases the Cenvat credit on inputs need not be reversed under Rule 3(5) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004. In fact, the facts of the case disclose that the operations of testing and pairing of the smart cards sent to the Set Top Box manufacturer would be covered under the phrase ‘further processing, testing or any other purpose.’
Thus, no substantial question of law is arising in the present matter - Appeal stands dismissed.
TaxTMI