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Issues: Whether the applicant was entitled to pre-arrest bail in view of the stage of investigation, his cooperation with the Investigating Officer, and the apparent absence of any need for further custodial interrogation.
Analysis: The applicant had already appeared before the Investigating Officer and his statement had been recorded. The record indicated that his statement corresponded with bank transactions and WhatsApp communication with the principal accused. The investigation had substantially progressed, the material already collected was sufficient for the purposes of inquiry, and no further custodial interrogation of the applicant appeared necessary. On this assessment, the request for pre-arrest protection was considered justified.
Conclusion: The applicant was held entitled to pre-arrest bail.
Final Conclusion: The application succeeded and the earlier interim protection was made absolute, resulting in the grant of anticipatory bail to the applicant.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an accused has cooperated with investigation, his statement has been recorded, and no further custodial interrogation is shown to be necessary, pre-arrest bail may be granted.
Seeking grant of anticipatory bail - availing fake ITC - fraudulently obtaining a GST ID using a forged rent agreement with a fake seal of the Judicial Magistrate First Class - HELD THAT:- On careful perusal of the Case Diary and the investigation as projected by the police, it prima facie appears that the accused persons had fraudulently obtained the GST ID using forged rent agreement with fake seal of Judicial Magistrate First Class, Changlang along with other forged documents including Aadhar Card, PAN Card and electricity bill and thereby subsequently raised fake invoices with huge amounts defrauding the government exchequer. The main accused is one Shri Ashutosh Kumar Jha, who appears to have relations with the present accused/applicant as can be seen from the correspondence/communication made between them. However, same appears to be a matter of investigation.
It is also seen that the accused/applicant has appeared before the Investigating Officer on 20.10.2025 and he is co-operating with the investigation and his statement has been recorded which indicates that the same corroborates with the bank statement and whatsapp conversation with the main accused- Shri Ashutosh Kumar Jha. It is also noted that on being examined and recording of statement, custodial interrogation of the accused/applicant appears to be not required. Thus, the accused/applicant is entitled to be admitted to the privilege of pre-arrest bail.
The accused/applicant, namely, Shri Faiz Ahmed, is granted with the privilege of pre-arrest bail in connection with Itanagar P.S. Case No. 182/2024, under Sections 120B/420/467/ 468/471/473/474 of the Indian Penal Code. Consequently, the interim bail granted to the accused/applicant vide order dated 17.09.2025 is hereby made absolute in the same terms and conditions.
The anticipatory bail application stands disposed of.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether cancellation of GST registration under Section 29(2)(c) for non-filing of returns for six continuous months was lawfully susceptible to being set aside or reconsidered where no personal hearing date was communicated and order was passed ex parte.
2. Whether the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22, CGST Rules, 2017 obliges the proper officer to drop cancellation proceedings and pass FORM GST REG-20 where the taxpayer furnishes all pending returns and makes full payment of tax, interest and late fee after cancellation.
3. Whether the statutory timelines for filing application for revocation of cancellation (270 days) or other limitation bars relief where the taxpayer was unable to file revocation within the portal timeline but seeks to furnish pending returns and payment to the proper officer, and what relief the Court may grant by writ.
4. Whether computation of limitation for recovery under Section 73(10) of the CGST Act/SGST Act is to be adjusted when a court permits restoration of registration, and how Section 44 applies to the financial year 2024-25.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of cancellation under Section 29(2)(c) where no hearing date notified and order passed ex parte
Legal framework: Section 29(2)(c) empowers an officer to cancel registration where returns not furnished for six continuous months; Rule 22 prescribes notice in FORM GST REG-17 and reply in FORM REG-18 with a seven working day period to show cause.
Precedent Treatment: The Court noted an earlier order in WP(C) No.6366/2023 involving similar facts and referred to it in reasoning (followed as persuasive authority for analogous circumstances).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined Rule 22(1)-(4) and observed that where the proper officer has reasons to believe cancellation is liable, a show cause notice with a specified short period must be issued and the reply furnished. The absence of communicated hearing date and the passing of an ex parte cancellation order without assigning reasons weighed in favour of permitting reconsideration where statutory safeguards and procedural opportunities contemplated by Rule 22 had not been effectively available to the taxpayer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Cancellation conducted without effective opportunity to respond under Rule 22 is amenable to reconsideration by the proper officer upon compliance with the proviso to Rule 22(4). Obiter - Observations on administrative difficulties faced by taxpayers unfamiliar with online procedures.
Conclusions: The Court held that cancellation effected for non-filing under Section 29(2)(c) must be open to being dropped if the taxpayer subsequently furnishes pending returns and pays dues as per the proviso to Rule 22(4); procedural deficiencies in notice/hearing support equitable relief by directing the authority to consider restoration upon compliance.
Issue 2 - Effect and operation of proviso to Rule 22(4): duty to drop proceedings upon filing of pending returns and payment of dues
Legal framework: Proviso to Rule 22(4) states that where a person served with notice under sub-rule (1) furnishes all pending returns and makes full payment of tax along with interest and late fee, the proper officer shall drop proceedings and pass FORM GST REG-20.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on comparable judicial treatment in the cited writ order (WP(C) No.6366/2023) as guiding, treating that order as supporting the practical application of the proviso (followed).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court construed the proviso as conferring an operative, mandatory course where the taxpayer meets its conditions - furnishing pending returns and making full payment - entitling the taxpayer to the officer dropping proceedings and passing FORM GST REG-20. The provision was read to permit restoration even after cancellation where requirements are satisfied, subject to administrative processes and officer's compliance with the prescribed formality.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The proviso creates a clear mechanism for ending cancellation proceedings upon compliance; the proper officer is to drop proceedings and issue FORM GST REG-20 when conditions are met. Obiter - Remarks on the serious civil consequences of cancellation and the Court's equitable approach to avoid disproportionate hardship.
Conclusions: The Court directed that if the taxpayer approaches the proper officer within the period fixed by the Court and furnishes all pending returns plus payment of tax, interest and late fee, the officer shall consider the application and take steps for restoration by passing an appropriate order in FORM GST REG-20.
Issue 3 - Effect of statutory timelines (270 days) and availability of writ relief when portal timeline for revocation has expired
Legal framework: Rule 22 and statutory provisions contemplate an application for revocation within a prescribed period (portal indicating "timeline of 270 days from the date of cancellation order provided to taxpayer to file application for revocation of cancellation is expired").
Precedent Treatment: The Court acknowledged similar judicial intervention in related matters; such precedents were adopted as grounds for permitting reconsideration despite expiry of portal timeline (followed in principle).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognized the administrative cutoff on the portal but held that where procedural non-compliance by the officer or practical difficulties prevented timely filing, writ relief may be appropriate to allow the taxpayer an opportunity to comply with the proviso to Rule 22(4). The remedy granted was prospective: a limited period (two months) to approach the authority to seek restoration, during which the authority must consider the submission in accordance with law.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A court may, by writ, grant a time-limited opportunity to approach the proper officer to comply with the proviso to Rule 22(4) where portal timelines have lapsed and the taxpayer evidences readiness to comply. Obiter - Observations on the portal message and administrative timelines as not being absolute where procedural fairness dictates relief.
Conclusions: The Court disposed of the writ by directing the taxpayer to approach the concerned authority within two months for restoration; if the taxpayer complies with the proviso, the authority shall consider and take necessary steps expeditiously notwithstanding the portal's elapsed 270-day timeline.
Issue 4 - Computation of limitation for recovery under Section 73(10) and application of Section 44 for financial year 2024-25
Legal framework: Section 73(10) prescribes limitation for recovery of tax not paid; Section 44 deals with annual return particulars. Restoration of registration may affect computation of limitation and recovery periods.
Precedent Treatment: No contrary precedent was overruled; the Court applied statutory scheme to the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court directed that the period stipulated under Section 73(10) shall be computed from the date of the instant order for purposes of recovery, thereby adjusting limitation timelines in light of judicially granted restoration opportunity. Exceptionally, for the financial year 2024-25, computation shall follow Section 44 as applicable to that year.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a court permits restoration under the proviso to Rule 22(4), the computation of limitation under Section 73(10) may be reset from the date of the court order; Section 44 governs the financial year 2024-25. Obiter - No additional commentary on detailed computation methodologies.
Conclusions: The Court held that limitation for recovery under Section 73(10) will be reckoned from the date of the order (except FY 2024-25 governed by Section 44) and confirmed taxpayer liability for arrears of tax, penalty, interest and late fees upon restoration.
Cancellation of GST registration of petiitoner - petitioners are ready and willing to comply with all the formalities required as per proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 - HELD THAT:- As per Section 29(2)(c) of the Act, an officer, duly empowered, may cancel the GST registration of a person from such date, including any retrospective date, as he deems fit, where any registered person, has not furnished returns for a continuous period of 6 (six) months. Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 has laid down the procedure for cancellation of the registration - It is discernible from a reading of the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the Rules of 2017 that if a person, who has been served with a show cause notice under Section 29(2)(c) of the Act, is ready and willing to furnish all the pending returns and to make full payment of the tax itself along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer, duly empowered, can drop the proceedings and pass an order in the prescribed Form i.e. Form GST REG-20.
Having regard to the fact that the GST registration of the petitioner has been cancelled under Section 29(2)(c) of the Act, for the reason that the petitioners did not submit returns for a period of 6 (six) months and more and the provisions contained in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 and cancellation of registration entails serious civil consequences, this Court is of the considered view that in the event the petitioners approach the officer, duly empowered, by furnishing all the pending returns and make full payment of the tax dues, along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer duly empowered, may consider to drop the proceedings and pass an appropriate order in the prescribed Form.
This writ petition is disposed of by providing that the petitioners shall approach the concerned authority within a period of 2 (two) months from today seeking restoration of her GST registration.
Issues: Whether the applicant was entitled to regular bail in a prosecution arising under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: The application was considered in light of the stage of investigation, the applicant's criminal antecedents, the extent of custody already undergone, the deposit already made with the GST Department, and the absence of any expressed apprehension that the applicant would abscond or tamper with evidence or witnesses. On these facts, the request for release on bail was found to warrant acceptance, subject to appropriate conditions safeguarding the investigation and trial.
Conclusion: Regular bail was granted to the applicant on conditions.
Seeking grant of regular bail - without subjective satisfaction and in absence of 'reason to believe' as required under section 69 of CGST Act, on 26.08.2025, applicant has been arrested - principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Following picture emerges on record:- (i) Substantial investigation is over. (ii) No past antecedent is registered qua the applicant. (iii) As submitted by learned advocate for the petitioner, the petitioner has deposited a sum of Rs. 84,00,000/- before the GST Department and produced on record the Payment Receipt (Universal Enterprises) which is ordered to be taken on record. (iv) The applicant has deep root in the society, no apprehension as to flee away or escape trial or tempering with the evidence /witnesses is expressed. (v) In view of above position emerging at the end of hearing, the application deserves consideration, but by imposing suitable condition to be observed by the applicant, pending investigation and trial.
The applicant is ordered to be released on bail subject to fulfilment of the conditions that imposed - bail application allowed.
Computation of undisclosed income of the block period - Scope of section 158-BB of the Income Tax Act for assessment of undisclosed income in search cases - As decided by HC [2024 (11) TMI 1034 - PUNJAB & HARYANA HIGH COURT] Assessment u/s 158-BC of the Act is required to be made both on the basis of result of search as well as post search enquiry and other proceedings which are in the nature of consequences of the evidence found as a result of search.there is cross-examination of almost all persons, whose statements were relied upon, was afforded to the assessee and after the cross-examination was conducted when nothing contrary to the earlier statements was emerged and in some cases the assessee did not even come forward to cross-examine, the inference could be drawn. Tribunal has found that there was undisclosed income of the assessee which he was earning through ghost and benami companies, which were running on the properties taken on rent by him. The assessment order was found to have been correctly re-assessed by the three Judges Bench of the Tribunal.
HELD THAT:- Having heard the learned senior counsel appearing for the petitioner and having gone through the materials on record, we find no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court. Special Leave Petition is, accordingly, dismissed.
Disallowance u/s 36(1)(iii) - assessee had advanced interest bearing funds without charging any interest to its associated concerns - concept of 'Matching Principles' - tribunal deleted addition - HC [2022 (7) TMI 1603 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] decided whether it is commercially expedient or not for the Assessee cannot be decided by the Revenue authorities and unless a decision taken in the usual course of business by the Assessee can be held to be arbitrary or motivated, deliberately taken to defeat the purpose of the Revenue, it cannot be held that the lower interest rate paid to the borrowers on the borrowings made by the assessee company is disallowable u/s 36 (1) (iii). Tribunal, rightly held that when the cash system of accounting was adopted by the Assessee, an Investment Company, whose business is only to borrow and lend or invest, the same cannot be said to be not in the business interest or commercially expedient for the purpose of business and the concept of 'Matching Principles', which has been applied by the Assessing Authority and the CIT (A) in the present case, was not really applicable - no substantial question of law can be said to be arising.
HELD THAT:- We are not inclined to interfere with the impugned order in exercise of our jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.
Special Leave Petition is, accordingly, dismissed and the accompanying interlocutory application(s), if any, stands disposed of.
Transfer of the jurisdiction u/s 127 -Assessment of the petitioners as centralised with DCIT/ACIT (Central), Circle-01, Faridabad - as held by HC [2025 (5) TMI 1802 - DELHI HIGH COURT] case of the petitioners has been centralized with the relevant income tax authority as specified in the office order. The search was conducted in case of Shri Pavel Garg and other related persons in the State of Haryana, and the petitioners’ case has been centralized in connection with the said search.
Insofar as the reason for centralizing the assessments is concerned, the same is clearly spelt out by the impugned orders. The impugned orders set out that the centralization is being done for the purpose of coordinated investigation and assessment proceedings. The same has been considered expedient on the ground that the search and seizure operations were conducted in the case of Shri Pavel Garg and Others on 29.06.2022 by the Investigation Wing of the Income Tax Department. And, as noted above, the contention that Shri Pavel Garg has no connection with the petitioners is not correct.
HELD THAT:- We do not find good ground to interfere with the impugned judgment and order of the High Court. Hence, the Special Leave Petition is dismissed. Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether the respondent company was rightly acquitted of the offence under Section 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of the delay in depositing TDS and the defence of reasonable cause under Section 278AA; (ii) Whether the sentence of fine imposed for the offence under Section 276B required interference.
Issue (i): Whether the respondent company was rightly acquitted of the offence under Section 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of the delay in depositing TDS and the defence of reasonable cause under Section 278AA.
Analysis: The material on record showed that TDS deducted during the relevant financial year was not deposited within the prescribed time and the delay ranged from four to fifteen months. The respondent did not dispute the delay. Once default in timely deposit was established, the burden shifted to the respondent to prove reasonable cause under Section 278AA. The only defence was a bald assertion of financial hardship in the statement under Section 313 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, unsupported by any witness or documentary evidence. Such an unsubstantiated plea was insufficient to discharge the statutory burden.
Conclusion: The acquittal was unjustified and the finding of guilt under Section 276B read with Section 278B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was restored.
Issue (ii): Whether the sentence of fine imposed for the offence under Section 276B required interference.
Analysis: The tax deducted, together with compensatory interest, had already been deposited. The Court treated the matter as a technical default and also noted that the company was in liquidation and in a poor financial position. In these circumstances, further imposition of fine was not considered necessary, and the sentence was modified.
Conclusion: The fine of Rs. 25 lakhs was set aside and the respondent company was sentenced to admonition.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded on the challenge to acquittal, while the monetary sentence was reduced, resulting in restoration of conviction with modification of punishment.
Ratio Decidendi: In a prosecution for failure to deposit TDS, once the default is established, the accused must prove reasonable cause under Section 278AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by cogent evidence; a bare plea in a statement under Section 313 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is insufficient, though the sentence may be moderated where the tax and compensatory interest have already been paid.
Offence u/s 276B r/w Section 278B - delay in depositing the TDS -Failure to pay tax to the credit of Central Government under Chapter XllD or XVIIB - Reasonable cause of delay - HELD THAT:- TDS amount deducted in a month has to be deposited on or before 7th day of the subsequent month in terms of the IT Act and rules made thereunder. Ex.CW1/4 proves that Respondent had committed default in timely deposit of TDS amount during the Financial Year 2012-13 showing the details of the tax deducted. The Ld. ACMM concluded that the document and the evidence on record reflected a delay in deposit of TDS ranging from 4-15 months. The Respondent also had not disputed that there was delay in deposit of TDS amount. The offence as provided under Section 276B is, therefore, shown to have been committed.
Section 278AA of IT Act provides that notwithstanding anything contained in the provisions of Section 276A, 276AB or Section 276B or Section 276BB, no person shall be punishable for any failure referred in the said provisions if he proves that there was reasonable cause for such failure.
Whether the Respondent was able to give any reasonable cause for the delay, which is not denied. In the Statement under Section 313 Cr.P.C, the Accused Company through its Director Sumit Singhal, took the defence of the bad financial condition of the Company on account of which the TDS could not be deposited in time and was ultimately deposited after the availability of funds and interest.
ACM had rightly observed that aside from a bald assertion about the financial condition, no cogent evidence had been led by the Respondent in proof thereof. Pertinently, no witness was examined by the Respondent Company nor any documents placed on record to explain the alleged financial condition of the Company.
The onus to prove special circumstance of bad financial condition was on the Respondent to dispel the absolute liability imposed by a Company under Section 276B of IT Act. The best evidence to establish this defence was to produce the documentary evidence to reflect the poor financial condition, which it has miserably failed to do.
There was a delay of 4-15 months, in deposit of TDS. This shows that the Respondent was functioning and had the financial capacity to pay, though delayed by 4 months to 15 months. There is no circumstance brought forth by the Respondent to show that there existed any reasonable cause in depositing the TDS with delay. The bald assertion in the Statement of Accused under S.313 cannot be considered as a defence proven in terms of S. 278AA IT Act, so as to entitle the Respondent to an Acquittal.
Respondent miserably failed to establish its defence under Section 278AA of IT Act. The Ld. ACMM in the Impugned Judgment dated 17.12.2018 was right in holding the Respondent guilty for the offence under Section 276B IT Act for not depositing the TDS for the Financial Year 2012-13 in time, despite deducting it in the Government Account within the prescribed period.
Quantum of fine imposed upon the Respondent - ACMM had sentenced the Company to a fine of Rs.25 lacs u/s 276B IT Act. However, it is not in dispute that the entire amount along with compensatory interest has already been deposited by the Respondent. Considering that it is a technical offence and the Respondent has already deposited the entire amount along with the compensatory interest, and that the Company is facing Liquidation proceedings, reflecting its poor financial status, further imposition of fine is not merited in the given circumstances.
Judgment of the Ld. ASJ setting aside the Judgment of Ld. ACMM is, therefore, erroneous and based on wrong appreciation of facts and is hereby, set aside. The Sentence of fine of Rs.25 lacs, as imposed by learned ACMM, is hereby modified and the Respondent Company is sentenced to admonition.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether expenditure by way of licence fee paid for use of a law-firm name/goodwill is disallowable under Explanation 1 to Section 37 as an expenditure incurred for the commission of an offence or for a purpose prohibited by law, having regard to the Bar Council of India Rules and the Advocate's Act, 1961.
2. Whether the "purpose test" (i.e., whether the expenditure was incurred for a purpose prohibited by law) or other tests (capital v. revenue character tests) govern the assessment of disallowance under Explanation 1 to Section 37 in the context of licence fees paid for use of goodwill.
3. Whether reference to a percentage of revenue in a licence agreement amounts to "sharing of remuneration" prohibited by the Bar Council Rules and therefore renders the licence fee a payment for a purpose prohibited by law.
4. Whether reliance on a precedent concerning prohibition on receipt of "freebies" by professionals (medical regulator context) is applicable to licence-fee payments for use of goodwill by a legal practice.
5. Whether the Assessing Officer could disallow an ad hoc 5% of travelling and entertainment expenses on the basis of auditors' caution in Form 3CD and on conjecture/surmise where no specific evidence of personal element was identified.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 & 2 (Grouped): Applicability of Explanation 1 to Section 37; the "purpose test" and characterisation of licence fee for use of goodwill
Legal framework: Explanation 1 to Section 37 disallows expenditure "incurred for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law." The assessment of whether an expenditure falls within this Explanation depends on the purpose for which it was incurred. Separately, tests distinguishing capital and revenue expenditure (benchmarks: initiation/extension of business; acquisition of an enduring asset or advantage; purpose/aim and object of expenditure) remain relevant to characterisation.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on established decisions articulating the "purpose test" and on authorities that set out the broad tests for distinguishing capital from revenue expenditure (enduring benefit test, fixed v. circulating capital, and aim/object of expenditure). Prior departmental and judicial pronouncements applying the purpose test to determine disallowance under Section 37 were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasised that Explanation 1 targets expenditure genuinely incurred to commit an offence or for a purpose prohibited by law; the expression "prohibited by law" is coupled with "commission of an offence," and therefore the object of the expenditure must be to pursue a legally prohibited purpose. A mere contravention of professional conduct rules which do not constitute an offence at law is not ipso facto an expenditure "for a purpose prohibited by law." The primary, indeed sole, purpose of the licence payments was held to be the purchase/use of an asset-like advantage (the goodwill and the right to use the name), not the sharing of professional fees or a design to flout statutory prohibition. The Court analysed the nature of goodwill as a transferable asset that can be monetised and held that payments to exploit that goodwill are consideration for use of an asset conferring enduring benefit, thus falling outside Explanation 1. The Court rejected attempts to treat the underlying gift/transferor's motive as determinative of the licence-fee question, as motive behind a gift was not germane to whether the licence fee itself was expended for a prohibited purpose.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The decisive proposition is that Explanation 1 applies only where the expenditure is incurred for the commission of an offence or for a purpose prohibited by law as such; expenditure genuinely paid for use of goodwill (a transferable asset) is not caught by Explanation 1 merely because professional conduct rules proscribe sharing of fees. Obiter - Observations on the irrelevance of questioning the validity/motive of the antecedent gift deed are ancillary to the main finding.
Conclusions: Expenditure by way of licence fee to use the law-firm name/goodwill was not disallowable under Explanation 1 to Section 37. The "purpose test" governs; the dominant purpose was exploitation of goodwill (a lawful, transferable asset) and not commission of an offence or a purpose prohibited by law. Appeals challenging allowance on this ground were dismissed.
Issue 3: Whether percentage linkage to revenue in licence agreement amounts to proscribed "sharing of remuneration"
Legal framework: Bar Council Rules prohibit sharing of remuneration/fees of a lawyer with a non-lawyer (i.e., splitting of fees/revenue). The question is whether a contractual formula linking licence consideration to firm revenue converts a licence payment into prohibited sharing of remuneration.
Precedent treatment: The Court examined the Bar Council Rule's language and scope, and applied settled principles requiring analysis of substance over form and the primary purpose of an arrangement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court construed the Bar Council Rule as addressing arrangements that effectuate a split/share of fees or remuneration earned from practice. By contrast, where a contractual reference to firm billing merely provides a measurable, objective basis to compute consideration for the use of goodwill, it does not equate to sharing of revenue. The linkage to revenue was characterized as a method of fixing consideration (a metric), not as a mechanism for transferring a portion of fees earned by lawyers to non-lawyers. Thus, the arrangement was not aimed at sharing remuneration but at remunerating the right to exploit goodwill.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A revenue-linked formula for computing licence consideration does not, without more, convert the payment into prohibited sharing of remuneration under bar-council rules. Obiter - Discussion of alternative formulations or hypotheticals where linkage might amount to sharing was unnecessary to the decision.
Conclusions: The percentage linkage to revenue constituted a basis to compute consideration for goodwill and did not amount to a proscribed sharing of remuneration; the Bar Council Rules were not violated for purposes of Explanation 1 disallowance.
Issue 4: Applicability of precedent concerning "freebies" (medical regulator case) to the facts
Legal framework and precedent treatment: A prior decision holding that gifts/freebies were prohibited by medical regulation was cited by the Revenue. That precedent turned on an express statutory/regulatory prohibition against receipt of gifts, hospitality, monetary grants by medical practitioners.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court distinguished the medical regulation precedent on its facts and regulatory scope. The medical regulation contained an express prohibition in law against receiving certain benefits; by contrast, the Bar Council Rules regulate sharing of fees but do not create an offence in the same manner and do not categorically prohibit monetisation of goodwill or licence arrangements that remunerate the right to use a name. Therefore the medical-context precedent was inapposite.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Precedents premised on express statutory/regulatory prohibitions (leading to disallowance under Explanation 1) cannot be extended to arrangements which are lawful monetisation of goodwill absent a comparable prohibition. Obiter - Observations distinguishing policy rationales of medical regulation were ancillary.
Conclusions: Reliance on the medical "freebies" precedent was misplaced; that authority is distinguishable and does not warrant disallowance under Explanation 1 in the present factual and regulatory matrix.
Issue 5: Disallowance of 5% of travelling and entertainment expenses on ad hoc basis in light of auditors' Form 3CD caution
Legal framework: Assessing Officer may disallow expenditure only on evidence demonstrating that portion is not incurred wholly and exclusively for business; conjecture and surmise without specific material is impermissible. Auditors' Form 3CD containing a caution that auditors did not examine nature of certain expenses is a relevant fact but does not substitute for concrete evidence of personal expenditure.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal and appellate authorities followed earlier appellate orders for identical issues in preceding assessment years, applying the principle that ad hoc disallowance cannot be sustained on mere assumptions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the view that the AO made an ad hoc 5% deduction merely on assumptions and surmises and that the CIT(A) correctly followed a prior year decision deleting such disallowance where AO had not pointed to any discrepancy in books or produced evidence of personal use. The auditors' caution in Form 3CD that the auditors had not examined the nature of expenses did not amount to evidence that a specific part of expenses was personal; absent positive material, disallowance on conjecture was not tenable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Disallowance cannot be sustained purely on conjecture; auditors' general caveat does not justify ad hoc percentage disallowance without concrete evidence of personal expenditure. Obiter - None material beyond affirmation of following precedent.
Conclusions: The 5% ad hoc disallowance of travelling and entertainment expenses on the basis of conjecture and auditors' caution was not sustainable. No substantial question of law arose from the Tribunal's affirmance of the appellate deletion; the appeal was dismissed.
License fee paid for use of goodwill by the assessee - nature of expenditure - scope of provisions in the Bar Council Rules and the Advocate's Act, 1961 - Did the ITAT overlook the effect of first Explanation to Section 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, in the circumstances of the case?
HELD THAT:- Issue which arises for consideration in all these appeals is covered against the Revenue/appellant in terms of the judgment of M/S Remfry & Sagar [2025 (2) TMI 194 - DELHI HIGH COURT] find that the reference to a percentage of the revenue earned by the law practise was intended to principally provide for a basis to compute the consideration liable to be paid for use of goodwill and the utilisation of the name. The primary purpose of referring to the total billing of the law firm was to provide a firm, definite and fixed basis to compute the consideration liable to be paid for use of goodwill. The consideration so paid is thus clearly not liable to be characterised as a sharing of revenue derived from the practise but fundamentally for the exercise of the right to exploit and derive advantage from goodwill.
The linking of the consideration for the aforesaid purpose to the revenue earned by the firm only constituted a basis and a measure to determine the consideration that was to be paid. The arrangement was clearly not driven by a motive to share revenues earned by the legal firm. It was purely consideration paid for use of the goodwill attached to the name “Remfry & Sagar”. We thus find ourselves unable to accept the argument of the appellant that the Bar Council of India Rules were violated.
The sheet anchor of the submissions advanced by Mr. Rai was the judgment of the Supreme Court in Apex Laboratories [2022 (2) TMI 1114 - SUPREME COURT] and where the “freebies” provided to legal practitioners was found to be an expenditure incurred for a purpose prohibited by law.
In our considered opinion, the reliance placed on Apex Laboratories is clearly misplaced since the said judgment turned upon Regulation 6.8 of the Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 and which clearly prohibited a medical practitioner from receiving gifts, travel expenses, hospitality as well as cash or other monetary grants. It was that prohibition in law which was found to have been violated. In view of all of the above, we find ourselves unconvinced of the challenge that stands raised in these appeals. As no substantial question of law arises, the appeals are dismissed.
Disallowance of 5 per cent of the total travelling and entertainment expenses - CIT(A) deleted the disallowance - ITAT held AO without disputing the expenses claimed by the assessee on account of travelling expenses and entertainment expenses made ad hoc disallowance of 5% merely on the basis of assumptions and surmises by introducing some personal element in the claimed expenditure - HELD THAT:- Noting the conclusion drawn by the CIT(A) with which the ITAT has agreed, we find that the justification given by the CIT(A) is correct and we do not find any substantial question of law which arises for consideration on this particular issue and as such this appeal is also dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the authority hearing a stay application under Section 220(6) of the Income-tax Act was justified in directing payment of 20% of the disputed demand as a pre-condition to consider/stay recovery, having regard to CBDT instructions/office memoranda governing stay of demand at the first appeal stage.
2. Whether the impugned orders were vitiated by failure to afford an effective opportunity of hearing before imposing conditions for stay and before rejecting the stay application.
3. Whether an attachment/freeze of the taxpayer's bank account pursuant to a notice issued after the impugned orders can be sustained when those orders are quashed for non-compliance with applicable guidelines and failure to afford hearing.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity of directing payment of 20% of disputed demand as pre-condition
Legal framework: The statutory provision relied upon is Section 220(6) of the Income-tax Act (expression "stay of demand" not used in the section; authorities must "treat the assessee as not being in default" subject to conditions). Administrative guidance consists of CBDT Instruction No.1914 (21.3.1996) and subsequent Office Memoranda dated 29.02.2016 (revising guidelines to 15%) and 31.07.2017 (raising the standard rate to 20%) dealing with stay of demand and conditions to be imposed at first appeal stage.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated the CBDT instructions and the decision in the earlier Madras High Court authority (Kannammal) as governing the approach to stay petitions; those authorities explicate that stay decisions should be guided by CBDT instructions and be speaking, reasoned orders.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined whether the impugned orders comported with the procedural and substantive standards embodied in the CBDT instructions - namely, that (i) stay petitions at first appeal stage must be disposed within specified timeframes, (ii) the AO/first appellate authority may impose conditions including lump sum payments, and (iii) a standard percentage (20% after the 2017 OM) applies subject to case-specific deviation by higher authority with reasons. The Court found the impugned orders directed payment of 20% as a pre-condition but did not demonstrate compliance with the mandate to consider all relevant factors and to pass a speaking order applying the guidelines; thus the orders were contrary to the CBDT instructions as construed by the Court in prior authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative directions in CBDT OMs form binding procedural guidance for authorities deciding stay applications under Section 220(6); where a standard percentage is prescribed (20%), deviation or imposition must be in accordance with the procedures set out (reference to higher authority, reasoned decision). Obiter - observations on the merits of the underlying assessment or quantification of "high-pitched" demand were not adjudicated; the Court did not evaluate substantive correctness of the assessment.
Conclusions: The imposition of 20% payment as effected in the impugned orders was found to be procedurally defective because the orders did not reflect compliance with CBDT guidelines as interpreted by the Court; hence the orders are liable to be quashed and the matter remitted for fresh consideration in accordance with those guidelines.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Failure to afford effective opportunity of hearing
Legal framework: Principles of administrative law and statutory scheme under the IT Act require that conditions imposed under Section 220(6) be communicated by a speaking order and that affected persons be afforded an opportunity to make submissions on conditions that affect rights (right to be heard / audi alteram partem).
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on its earlier exposition that CBDT instructions require timely disposal and that decisions on stay should be transparent and reasoned; lack of effective opportunity vitiates the procedure.
Interpretation and reasoning: The chronology showed the stay application was filed 07.07.2025, an order directing 20% payment was issued the next day (08.07.2025), and a representation requesting an opportunity to be heard was made on 14.07.2025 but not considered before a subsequent order dated 30.07.2025 rejecting the stay. The Court concluded that the petitioner was not afforded an effective opportunity to be heard prior to imposition of the condition or rejection of the stay; therefore procedural fairness requirements were breached.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a condition (payment of a percentage of disputed demand) is imposed or a stay application is rejected, the authority must provide effective opportunity to the applicant and pass a speaking order addressing relevant submissions. Obiter - the Court did not issue a categorical rule as to the exact timing for hearing in every case beyond requiring compliance with the CBDT timelines and fairness.
Conclusions: The impugned orders were procedurally flawed for failure to afford an effective hearing; that procedural infirmity independently warranted quashing and remand for fresh consideration with opportunity to the taxpayer.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Validity of bank account attachment consequent to impugned orders
Legal framework: Attachment/freeze of bank accounts for tax recovery flows from assessment and recovery procedures under the tax statutes and implementing notices; however, attachments consequent to conditions or orders that are subsequently quashed cannot stand if founded solely on those orders.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated attachments issued pursuant to orders that are void for procedural illegality as unsustainable; this follows settled administrative law principles that consequential steps based on void orders collapse when the foundational order is quashed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The notice to the bank dated 08.09.2025 to freeze the account was issued after the impugned orders that were quashed for non-compliance with CBDT instructions and failure to afford hearing. Because those foundational orders were quashed, the consequent attachment could not survive.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an attachment/notice issued in furtherance of an order which is quashed for procedural illegality must be set aside; the Court ordered immediate lifting of the attachment. Obiter - no determination was made on whether attachment would be permissible if the stay application had been validly rejected in a reasoned order.
Conclusions: The attachment of the taxpayer's bank account pursuant to the impugned orders and the subsequent notice is quashed and the bank is directed to lift the attachment forthwith.
REMEDIAL DIRECTIONS AND TIMING (linked to Issues 1-3)
Legal framework and reasoning: In the exercise of writ jurisdiction to remedy procedural illegality and to secure compliance with CBDT guidelines and principles of natural justice, the Court remanded the matter for fresh consideration.
Conclusions and operative outcome (ratio): The impugned orders directing payment of 20% and rejecting the stay were quashed; the stay application must be considered afresh, on merits and in accordance with law and the CBDT instructions, within two weeks from uploading of the web copy of the order. The subsequent notice to freeze the bank account is quashed and the bank attachment is ordered to be lifted immediately. No order as to costs.
Stay application - Mandation of providing effective opportunity of hearing - lift the attachment of the petitioner's Bank Account towards recovery of the demands raised for A.Y 2023-24 and to direct the respondents to refrain from taking any coercive steps towards recovery of demands for A.Y 2023-24 - HELD THAT:- It is seen that 1st respondent has passed the impugned orders dated 08.07.2025 and 30.07.2025 contrary to the Instructions/Circulars issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) referred to in the decision rendered by this Court in Kannammal's case [2019 (3) TMI 1 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] It is also seen that prior to the passing of impugned orders, the petitioner was not provided with an effective opportunity of hearing. Therefore, this Court is of the opinion that the impugned orders passed by 1st respondent are liable to be quashed.
This Court is inclined to dispose of this Writ Petition on the following terms: (i) The impugned orders dated 08.07.2025 and 30.07.2025 passed by 1st respondent are quashed and the matter is remanded back to the 1st respondent for fresh consideration.
(ii) The 1st respondent is directed to consider the petitioner's Stay Application dated 07.07.2025 afresh and dispose of the same, on merits and in accordance with law, within a period of two weeks from the date of uploading of web copy of this order without waiting for the receipt of a certified copy of this order.
(iii) Since the impugned orders dated 08.07.2025 and 30.07.2025 itself have been quashed, the impugned Notice dated 08.09.2025 issued to 5th respondent cannot survive any longer and hence, the same is also quashed. Consequently, the attachment made in petitioner's Bank Account is ordered to be lifted forthwith.
Issues: Whether the notice under section 143(2) was issued by a competent jurisdictional assessing officer and, if not, whether the assessment framed under section 143(3) was liable to be quashed as void ab initio.
Analysis: The assessee's returned income exceeded the monetary limit prescribed in CBDT Instruction No. 1/2011 for assessment by the Income-tax Officer, so jurisdiction lay with the Assistant/Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax. The notice under section 143(2) was issued by the ITO, while the assessment was completed by the ACIT. The objection under section 124(3) was rejected as the controversy concerned pecuniary jurisdiction rather than territorial jurisdiction. Following the cited precedents, the defect in the jurisdictional notice was treated as an inherent defect that could not be cured, and the assessment founded on such notice was held unsustainable.
Conclusion: The notice under section 143(2) was invalid for want of jurisdiction, and the assessment under section 143(3) was quashed.
Jurisdictional notice u/s 143(2) issued by non jurisdictional officer - jurisdiction lies only with DCIT or ITO - As argued notice u/s 143(2) was issued by the ITO, Ward 47 (1) on 21.09.2018, who do not have jurisdiction over the assessee in the case considering the fact that the return of income declared by the assessee is over and above Rs. 20 lakhs
HELD THAT:- We observe that the jurisdiction lies only with DCIT, however the statutory notice u/s 143(2) was issued by the ITO instead of the present Assessing Officer i.e. DCIT. Ld. DR objected to the submissions of the assessee for the reason that the present jurisdictional issue raised now instead of raising the same during assessment itself within one month from the date of receipt of the notice u/s 124 (3) of the Act. After considering the factual matrix in this case, we observe that similar issue under consideration is considered by the coordinate Bench in the case of YKM Holdings Pvt. Ltd. [2024 (5) TMI 92 - ITAT DELHI] as held that the assessment framed under section 143(3) of the Act deserves to be quashed in the instant case as the initial scrutiny notice issued under section 143(3) of the Act dated 12.04.2016 by ITO was without jurisdiction as he did not possess jurisdiction over the assessee for the A.Y. 2015-16.
Since the issue of notice u/s 143(2) is the basis of initiation of the assessment u/s 143(3) and the jurisdictional officer should have issued the notice and also completed the assessment. The present Assessing Officer has completed the assessment without following the due process of law and we, respectfully following the decisions of the coordinate Bench in Sapna Rastogi [2024 (8) TMI 1517 - ITAT DELHI] and ITAT Mumbai Monarch & Quershi Builders [2024 (1) TMI 968 - ITAT MUMBAI] are inclined to hold that the jurisdictional notice u/s 143(2) was not issued by the DCIT before completing the assessment u/s 143(3) of the Act and that there is an unwarranted defect in this case which is not curable. Accordingly, the assessment passed in the given case is quashed and accordingly, the additional grounds raised by the assessee are allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the approval granted under section 153D was mechanical and invalid for want of application of mind; (ii) whether the addition of Rs. 42,98,086 as unexplained expenditure under section 69C was sustainable on the basis of the seized diary and surrounding evidence; and (iii) whether the tax treatment under section 115BBE could be applied at 60% for the relevant assessment year.
Issue (i): Whether the approval granted under section 153D was mechanical and invalid for want of application of mind.
Analysis: Approval under section 153D is administrative in nature and serves as supervisory confirmation of the draft assessment. The absence of detailed reasons in the approval order does not by itself establish non-application of mind. The burden to rebut the statutory presumption of regularity in official acts lay on the assessee. On the record, there was no material to show that the approving authority had not examined the seized material, appraisal material, or draft assessment before granting approval.
Conclusion: The approval under section 153D was valid and the challenge to jurisdiction failed.
Issue (ii): Whether the addition of Rs. 42,98,086 as unexplained expenditure under section 69C was sustainable on the basis of the seized diary and surrounding evidence.
Analysis: The seized diary contained election-related expenditure entries, references to the assessee, his family members, and his concerns, along with phone numbers and other connecting details. The author of the diary offered only a selective explanation and did not satisfactorily explain the full contents, source of receipts, or complete expenditure trail. The surrounding circumstances and seized material were treated as sufficient to connect the diary entries with the assessee and to reject the claim that the entries were merely estimates or belonged wholly to a third party. The presumption under section 292C and the factual links from the record were held to support the addition.
Conclusion: The addition under section 69C was sustained.
Issue (iii): Whether the tax treatment under section 115BBE could be applied at 60% for the relevant assessment year.
Analysis: The applicable tax rate had to be determined with reference to the law in force for the relevant assessment year. The higher rate of 60% was not applicable for that year, and the issue was confined only to the applicability of that rate.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee to the extent that the 60% rate was held inapplicable.
Final Conclusion: The jurisdictional challenge failed, the addition for unexplained expenditure was upheld, and only the tax-rate issue was decided for the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Approval under section 153D is an administrative safeguard whose validity is not vitiated merely by brevity of reasons unless the assessee rebuts the presumption of regularity with material showing non-application of mind; a seized diary, read with surrounding circumstances and statutory presumptions, can sustain an addition for unexplained expenditure under section 69C where the explanation offered is incomplete or uncorroborated.
Validity of approval u/s 153D - as contended that the approval had been given in mechanical manner and without application of mind - phrase “application of mind” which is at the core of the controversy here is a well-established expression in jurisprudence - HELD THAT:- The power to make assessment is confined to the AO only. Only directions issued under section 144A of the Act by the Range Head are binding. Therefore, while giving approval under section 153D of the Act, the Range Head does not enter the realm of appellate jurisdiction and hence cannot go into the legal merits of the additions proposed in the draft order or other jurisdictional issues. Hence, the application of mind by approving authority must be ascertained in the limited context only.
The approval u/s 153D of the Act is mandatory as the Ld. Approving Authority has no option except to approve it within the statutory time available before the Ld. AO for completion of assessment. At best, the Ld. Approving Authority can only direct the AO to recheck on certain procedural aspects and due consideration of seized material, appraisal reports, etc., etc. The provisions of 153D of the Act are for maintaining the internal checks and balances only within the functioning of Income Tax Department and are not intended to provide any relief or adjudicate the rights of the assessee at that stage.
The Office Procedure Manual is not an/a order/direction u/s 119 of the Act, but it is Standard Operating Procedure (‘SOP’). Non-proper follow-up of office procedure of the Income Tax Department by its lower authorities may be, at most, misconduct/insubordination. Hence, it may be irregular in office decorum but it will not invalidate any statutory function performed under the Act as it has no legal sanctity under the Act.
Approving Authority under section 153D of the Act does not act as an Appellate Authority to reduce/enhance/allow/disallow any addition proposed in the draft assessment order while giving approval as the Addl. CIT is not empowered to do so u/s 153D of the Act
Thus, approval u/s 153D of the Act is administrative in nature and any defect/error having crept therein is a curable one and not fatal. However, in the case in hand no such fact of any ‘non-application of mind’ and any error in approval under section 153D of the Act has been brought on the record by the Ld. AR. The involvement of the Range Head/Addl. CIT/Joint CIT/Approving Authority under section 153D of the Act is a continuous process and not a onetime activity. Hence, the claim that the approval was accorded in a very limited time, by itself does not indicate that the approval is given mechanically in haste without application of mind as no prejudice is caused on approving the draft assessment order in a limited time, once the Range Head/Addl. CIT/Joint CIT/Approving Authority under section 153D of the Act is fully aware of the background material.
Action of Range Head/Addl. CIT/Joint CIT justified while approving under section 153D of the Act. We are not inclined to interfere with the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) that the approval granted under section 153D of the Act is a valid in the eyes of the law. We therefore, dismiss the jurisdictional/technical ground raised by the appellant assessee. The ground no. 4 stands dismissed accordingly.
Addition u/s 69C - unexplained expenditure - holding the diary of Mr. Rohit Sharma seized from the office of the assessee as belonging to the assessee by applying the presumption u/s 132(4) - No confirmation of third parties to whom the payment was done - HELD THAT:- From the perusal of the extracted contents of the diary in impugned order, it is evident that the expenses were made for the purpose of election. The said diary was admittedly authored by Shri Rohit Sharma.
Whom the expenses mentioned in the diary incurred and belonged to? - The material available on the record and circumstantial evidence clearly pin-point that the expenses mentioned therein were not incurred for the election purpose and for the exclusive benefit of the appellant assessee. Owning of part expenses in absence of any corroboratory material by Shri Rohit Sharma the author of the diary in affidavit is prima-facie inadmissible as Shri Rohit Sharma is of meagre income and have not any source to meet such expenditure without any purpose. In the affidavit, Shri Rohit Sharma stated that only an amount of Rs. 10,95,700/- was incurred for promotion of AAM ADMI PARTY and its candidates in west Delhi constituencies; however, the AAM ADMI PARTY has not admitted so to have source it and have accounted for. In the said diary, we notice that payments have been actually done as evident from the narration therein. There are instances of payment by cheque/banking channels also. Hence, the said expenses cannot be claimed estimates of expenses. We notice that the affidavit Shri Rohit Sharma does not contain and own all the details mentioned in the seized diary. In the affidavit, the only a selective portion has been owned up by Shri Rohit Sharma.
AR failed to contradict the above finding by submitting the confirmation of third parties to whom the payment was done. Section 292C is clearly attracted here to draw the inference that the material belonged to the appellant assessee in whose possession the same was seized proved unless otherwise. Shri Rohit Sharma in his affidavit has not explained the entire contents, source of money received and purpose of expenditure. In the diary there are clear cut narration of the appellant assessee, Shri Kallash Gahlot (referred as KG Sir) on various pages for various issues like speak with KG Sir for buses arrangement, Mail sent to KG sir w.r.t 14th February buses schedule; speak with KG Sir for Manjeev expense on election date; speak with KG Sir on pending payment of vendors etc. etc. In the first page of the diary, the phone number (011-25873455) belonging to the appellant is mentioned. The website is written as www.kailashgahlot.in. The organization where the author Shri Rohit Sharma is working is written as Shri Ram Chander Gahlot Charitable Trust (in father name of the appellant assessee) with address at A Block, Prem Nursery, Gopal Nagar, Najafgarh, New Delhi. Shri Rohit Sharma is a person basically working for the appellant and his concerns.
We are not inclined to interfere with the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) that the expenditure is unexplained expenditure of the appellant assessee u/s 69C
Applicability of tax rate of 60% in accordance with section 115BBE - applicability of tax rate of 60% was not in the Act in the relevant AY. Therefore, the old provisions of section 115BBE of the Act wef 01.04.2013 is held applicable here. The tax should be charged as per the law applicable in the relevant year. Hence this issue is decided in favour of the assessee to the extent of applicability of tax rate of 60% only.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Marketing and Reservation Contributions (MRC) received by a non-resident licensor of trademarks are taxable in India as Royalty or Fees for Technical Services (FTS)/Fees for Included Services (FIS) under the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA).
2. Whether amounts received as reimbursement from Indian hotels, specifically Travel Agent Commission Program (TACP) receipts and other reimbursements, constitute FTS/FIS taxable in India.
3. Whether the Assessing Officer correctly allowed/credited Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) claimed by the taxpayer under Rule 37BA(2) and related provisions (i.e., whether there was short grant of TDS credit and entitlement to refund/TDS credit).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Taxability of MRC as Royalty/FTS/FIS
Legal framework: The assessment involves characterization of receipts as 'royalty' and/or 'fees for technical services' under the Income-tax Act and the India-USA DTAA (Article addressing FIS/FTS). The domestic definition of FTS (Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii)) requires consideration to be quid pro quo for rendering managerial, technical or consultancy services (including provision of personnel), and royalty definitions require transfer or use of intellectual property as per applicable provisions.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on a series of earlier coordinate decisions in the taxpayer's own cases and decisions of other Benches which consistently held marketing and reservation related receipts not taxable as Royalty/FTS. These include multiple ITAT orders for earlier assessment years, acceptance by revenue (no appeal), and a combined order from another Bench covering later years; the Tribunal followed those ratios.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the character of MRC (marketing contribution, reward club receipts, reservation contribution, Holidex fees) and treated the issue as squarely covered by prior Tribunal rulings which concluded that such receipts are not consideration for managerial, technical or consultancy services (nor constitute royalty under the DTAA/domestic law). The Tribunal accepted the reasoning of coordinate decisions that the nature of services/consideration did not meet the statutory tests for FTS/royalty.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that MRC is not taxable as Royalty/FTS/FIS is applied as the operative ratio in the present appeals (binding on the coordinate Bench in like circumstances). Observations describing factual underpinnings of earlier rulings are treated as ratio insofar as they control characterization; ancillary remarks about the history of litigation are obiter.
Conclusion: Ground relating to non-taxability of MRC for both assessment years is allowed by following the precedents; MRC receipts are not taxable as Royalty/FTS/FIS under the Act or the India-USA DTAA.
Issue 2 - Taxability of TACP and other reimbursements as FTS/FIS
Legal framework: Characterization under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) (FTS) and corresponding DTAA provisions. FTS requires quid pro quo for managerial, technical or consultancy services rendered by the recipient to the remitter.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal referred to its own coordinate Bench decision for a subsequent assessment year where the TACP issue was considered and decided in favour of the taxpayer. The decision also relied on multiple judicial precedents holding that commission charged by commission agents outside India is not taxable in India (decisions of High Courts and ITATs cited in the Tribunal's reasoning).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied the explanatory test for FTS and found: (i) travel agents rendered services to the Indian hotels, not to the non-resident licensor; (ii) the non-resident paid travel agents on behalf of Indian hotels and recovered such payments on a cost-to-cost basis without any income element; (iii) the non-resident did not render managerial/technical/consultancy services to Indian hotels in relation to TACP; and (iv) commission charged by agents outside India is not ordinarily taxable in India. These factual and legal findings led to the conclusion that TACP and similar reimbursements lack the necessary quid pro quo and service content to be FTS.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that TACP/reimbursements are not FTS is treated as the operative ratio applied to the assessment year under appeal; the catalogue of precedents is relied upon as authority and forms part of the ratio insofar as they establish legal principle regarding commission/agency receipts.
Conclusion: Ground challenging the addition of INR 8,10,38,864 (TACP and reimbursements) as FTS/FIS is allowed; such receipts are not taxable as FTS/FIS under the Act or India-USA DTAA.
Issue 3 - Short grant of TDS credit / entitlement to refund
Legal framework: Claim for TDS credit as per Rule 37BA(2) of the Income-tax Rules, entitlement to adjust/claim TDS credits and refunds in accordance with law; Assessing Officer's duty to allow credit where properly claimable.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedent was necessary; issue remitted to AO for verification and application of law consistent with Tribunal directions and statutory provisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the assessee's claimed TDS credits (specified amounts for each assessment year) and found that the final assessment orders did not grant those credits. Given factual questions of entitlement and documentary verification, the Tribunal remitted the matter to the Assessing Officer for examination and directed the AO to grant TDS credit in accordance with law after considering the assessee's submissions. The assessee was also permitted to press existing refund or TDS credit claims for consideration by the AO.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The remand and direction to grant TDS credit where supported by law and proof is an operative procedural direction (ratio for implementation); incidental observations about amounts claimed are factual and obiter beyond the remand instruction.
Conclusion: The Tribunal remanded the TDS credit/ refund issue to the AO for determination in accordance with law and allowed the assessee liberty to press claims; appeals are partly allowed for statistical purposes to the extent indicated.
Cross-References
1. Issues 1 and 2 are interrelated through the common legal test under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) (quid pro quo and nature of services); the Tribunal applied coordinate Bench authority on both questions.
2. The direction under Issue 3 is procedural and contingent on factual/documentary verification arising from issues decided under Issues 1 and 2 (i.e., taxability outcomes affect net tax/TDS consequences), and is therefore remitted to the AO for consequential adjustment.
Taxability of Marketing and reservation related receipts - Assessee is a company incorporated and a tax resident of USA. The Assessee is part of the Inter-Continental Hotel Group ('IHG') and was the legal and beneficial owner of the registered trademark of certain IHG brands including 'Holiday Inn', 'Holiday Inn Express' and 'Crowne Plaza' - HELD THAT:- Issue of taxability of MRC has been subject to scrutiny in the past years and it has been consistently held that MRC receipts are not taxable as royalty/FIS by the Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court and the said issue is covered by the order of the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal, allowing Ground No. 1 of both the Appeals.
Addition proposed in relation to receipts in the nature of reimbursement received from India Hotels - The issue involved in the above ground is covered in Assessee’s own case for Assessment Year 2020-21 [2024 (6) TMI 697 - ITAT DELHI] wherein it has been held by the Tribunal that the amount of travel agent commission program received by the Assessee is not in the nature of Fees for Technical Services under the Act and under India US-DTAA. The amount charged by the Assessee as TACP for booking hotel rooms for third-party Indian Hotels cannot be said to be in the nature of managerial, technical or consultancy in nature for treating the same as FTS under the provisions of section 9(1)(vii) of the Act.
Short grant of TDS credit - Assessee submitted that the TDS Credit were not granted by the A.O. in the Final Assessment Orders - Considering the submission made by the Assessee's Representative, we remand the issue to the file of the A.O. to examine the claim of the Assessee and direct the A.O. to grant TDS Credit in accordance with law in both the Assessment Years after considering the submissions of the Assessee. Assessee is also at liberty to claim/press the claim already made for income tax refund or TDS credit, which shall be considered by the A.O. in accordance with law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO)/Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) was justified in determining the arm's length price (ALP) of intra-group services (Business Support Services and Business Technology Services) as NIL, despite the assessee's transfer pricing documentation, allocation methodology and benchmarking analyses.
2. Whether the intra-group service (IGS) payments are allowable as deduction under Section 37 of the Act where the TPO/DRP concluded that no services were rendered.
3. Whether allocation keys and cost-plus (5%) mark-up methodology applied by the assessee for allocation of centralised group costs is permissible under the transfer pricing provisions and OECD guidance.
4. Whether the assessee discharged the burden to satisfy the need/purpose/rendition/benefit tests for IGS and whether the revenue could substitute commercial prudence for ALP determination.
5. Whether an addition under Section 41 resulting in alleged double inclusion of income is permissible without verification of whether the amount already forms part of total income.
6. Ancillary/procedural: whether grounds on limitation (Section 153) and lack of personal hearing required separate adjudication (grounds not pressed or general).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - ALP determination: whether ALP could be fixed at NIL.
Legal framework: Determination of ALP under Chapter X (Sections 92C, 92CA) and Rules 10A-10E; prescribed methods including TNMM; TPO's role limited to determining ALP based on most appropriate method and comparables; revenue to demonstrate non-arm's-length on statutory parameters.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal precedent in the assessee's own earlier year (AY 2013-14) held TPO/DRP not justified in fixing ALP at NIL where substantial documentary evidence, allocation workings and benchmarking were on record; coordinate bench decisions (e.g., Sulzer Tech, Jabil Circuit) and High Court observations on limits of TPO's role were relied upon and followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the total record - TP study report, intercompany agreements, invoices, detailed cost allocation workings, emails/screenshots, ticket snapshots, employee headcount and benchmarking (primary: AE as tested party; corroborative: Indian entity as tested party using TNMM). The TPO/DRP's conclusion of ALP = NIL rested on alleged failure to prove rendition/benefit and on purported discrepancies, but no independent benchmarking or search for uncontrolled comparables was performed by revenue to justify NIL determination. The Tribunal held that treating value as NIL without searching for comparable uncontrolled transactions or applying a valid method was not sustainable. DRP itself acknowledged TNMM or other methods could be used, undermining revenue's position. OECD guidance permits allocation keys and approximations for centralised services; coordinate Tribunal jurisprudence endorses allocation keys where substantiated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - TPO/DRP cannot fix ALP at NIL merely by asserting non-rendition without conducting appropriate benchmarking or demonstrating inadequacy of taxpayer's method when substantial supporting material exists. Obiter - observations on commercial expediency and generalized criticisms of allocation keys where already addressed by OECD/precedents.
Conclusion: The determination of ALP as NIL is set aside. Transfer pricing addition of INR 19,42,69,527 is deleted and the matter remitted to TPO to recompute ALP by verifying the corroborative benchmarking (TNMM) and computation of Profit Level Indicator (PLI).
Issue 2 - Allowability under Section 37: whether IGS payments are deductible.
Legal framework: Section 37 permits deductions for bona fide business expenditure not covered by other provisions; separate exercise from ALP determination - AO/TPO limited to ALP determination under Chapter X; disallowance under Section 37 requires AO to justify non-allowability on statutory parameters.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal and High Court authorities cited (including the assessee's earlier year and Lever India Exports reasoning) confirm that TPO's role is confined to ALP and not to test genuineness/commercial expediency for Section 37; Revenue cannot convert ALP finding into Section 37 disallowance without material contradicting receipt/benefit.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having accepted that services were rendered and benefits accrued (documented agreements, invoices, emails, IT-ticket snapshots, absence of local support staff), Tribunal rejected DRP's direction to disallow IGS payments under Section 37. Revenue cannot sit in the assessee's chair to challenge commercial prudence where receipt and benefit are substantiated; Section 37 disallowance could not be sustained in face of accepted documentation and accepted benchmarking avenues.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Direction to disallow under Section 37 cannot stand where TPO/DRP's ALP finding is vacated and receipt/benefit are substantiated; disallowance under Section 37 is a separate exercise and cannot be a substitute for proper ALP determination.
Conclusion: DRP's direction to disallow IGS payments under Section 37 is set aside; deduction to be considered consistent with recomputed ALP and applicable provisions.
Issue 3 - Use of allocation keys and cost-plus mark-up for centralised services.
Legal framework: OECD Transfer Pricing Guidelines (Chapter VII) recognise cost allocation techniques and use of appropriate allocation keys (headcount, turnover) for intra-group services where direct measurement is impractical; Chapter X statutory methods permit TNMM and other methods if most appropriate.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal decisions (Jabil Circuit and others) upheld allocation keys and cost allocation methods consistent with OECD guidance; the assessee's earlier Tribunal decision accepted similar allocation methodology.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the assessee's allocation methodology (service cost and pass-through cost; direct/regional/pool allocation; 5% cost-plus markup) as prima facie acceptable where supported by agreements, headcount data and allocation workings. Discrepancies noted by revenue were not sufficient to discard an otherwise documented allocation method in absence of contrary material or unrebutted evidence of non-rendition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Well-documented allocation keys consistent with OECD guidance are permissible; revenue must demonstrate specific infirmities that invalidate the allocation key or benchmarking to displace the assessee's methodology.
Conclusion: Allocation keys and the 5% cost-plus approach accepted for purposes of recomputation; TPO to verify PLI computations and apply corroborative benchmarking as directed.
Issue 4 - Burden of proof: need/purpose/rendition/benefit tests and revenue's role.
Legal framework: Taxpayer must substantiate international transactions and arm's-length nature; revenue must support any adverse finding with material, appropriate application of methods and comparables. TPO's jurisdiction is confined to ALP; not to reassess commercial expediency in the guise of TP adjustment.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal earlier order and cited authorities emphasize that mere assertion by revenue that services were not rendered is insufficient where substantial documentary evidence exists and no comparative search was undertaken.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal found that assessee furnished extensive evidence (agreements, invoices, emails, IT system tickets, employee headcount, cost allocations, benchmarking). Revenue's objections (vague discrepancies, absence of AE cost ledgers) did not negate the documentary trail of rendition/benefit. Consequently, the Tribunal disagreed with revenue's substitution of commercial judgment for ALP determination.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Burden to displace a documented TP position lies on revenue, which must perform methodical exercise (comparables search, method application) rather than relying on negative inferences; where burden is met by taxpayer with primary and corroborative benchmarking, ALP cannot be fixed at NIL without cogent contrary material.
Conclusion: The assessee discharged burden on need/purpose/rendition/benefit; revenue's contrary finding reversed and ALP recomputation ordered per corroborative benchmarking.
Issue 5 - Section 41 addition (double inclusion).
Legal framework: Section 41 applies to income that is again credited or included; AO must verify whether amount was already offered to tax before making addition to avoid double taxation.
Interpretation and reasoning: Assessee contended the INR 4,38,873 had already been offered to tax. Tribunal directed AO to verify factual averment and delete the addition if the amount formed part of total income, observing that double inclusion cannot be sustained without verification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - AO must verify whether the contested amount was already included in total income before making an addition under Section 41; deletion ordered subject to verification.
Conclusion: Ground relating to Section 41 allowed for statistical purposes with direction to delete addition upon verification.
Issue 6 - Procedural/ancillary grounds.
Legal framework & reasoning: Grounds relating to limitation under Section 153 and denial of personal hearing were not pressed at hearing; general grounds requiring no separate adjudication were disposed of accordingly.
Conclusion: Grounds on limitation and natural justice dismissed/not pressed; general grounds disposed as not requiring separate decision.
TP Adjustment - benchmarking analysis taking Indian entity as tested party and TNMM (as opposed to ‘Other Method’) - determining the arm's length price (ALP) of intra-group services as NIL - rejection of the corroborative benchmarking analysis of the Assessee - Assessee submitted that the authorities below had failed to appreciate the Transfer Pricing Study Report (TPSR) and the supporting documentation furnished by the Assessee - TPO rejected all the contentions and supporting documents submitted by the Assessee holding that the Assessee had failed to satisfy the need, purpose, rendition and benefit test - As concluded by the TPO that no third party would have made payment to AEs in such situation and therefore, ALP of BSS and BTS was ‘Nil’
HELD THAT:- In the facts of the present case we are not inclined to accept the contention of the Revenue that approach adopted by the TPO can be regarded as equivalent to adopting ‘Other Method’ the Assessee has furnished primary Benchmarking Analysis (taking foreign AE as tested party) as well as the corroborative benchmarking analysis (taking the Indian entity as tested party).
Corroborative benchmarking analysis done by the Assessee by taking the Indian entity as the tested party; with TNMM as Most Appropriate Method; and OP/Sales as PLI was rejected by the TPO/Assessing Officer by simply taking ALP of BSS/BTS as ‘Nil’.
During the course of hearing, clarification was sought from the Revenue in relation to the same and opportunity was granted to the AO to file report on the corroborative benchmarking analysis furnished by the Assessee. Availing the said opportunity, vide Letter dated 25/09/2025, clarification/report was from furnished by the Revenue which has been taken into consideration.
We are of the view that the aforesaid clarification/report does not advanced the stand taken by the Revenue. In the aforesaid clarification/report it has been reiterated that during the assessment proceedings, the Assessee had failed to establish the need/purpose/benefit/rendition of IGS and therefore, ALP of IGS was determined ‘Nil’.
Thus, the benchmarking undertaken by the Assessee was liable to be rejected.
DRP itself had accepted that benchmarking analysis taking Indian entity as tested party and TNMM (as opposed to ‘Other Method’) could be considered for determining ALP of IGS payments made by the Assessee to its AEs.
Only reason for the rejection of the corroborative benchmarking analysis of the Assessee is based upon the conclusion of the TPO/DRP that the Assessee had failed to satisfy the need/purpose/benefit/rendition test.
Since we have accepted the contentions of the Assessee in this regard and have overturned the aforesaid finding of TPO/DRP by following the decision of the Tribunal in the case of the Assessee for the Assessment Year 2013-2014 [2024 (1) TMI 1032 - ITAT MUMBAI] the stand taken by the Revenue cannot be accepted. We have already concluded hereinabove that the Assessee had discharge the burden to satisfy that the need, purpose, rendition and benefit test for the relevant previous year by furnishing relevant documents and details during the proceedings before the TPO and DRP.
Therefore, for the same reasons, even the directions given by the DRP to disallow deduction for IGS payments under Section 37 of the Act cannot be sustained. Accordingly, the Transfer Pricing Addition is set aside with the directions to the TPO to compute the ALP as per the corroborative benchmarking analysis after verifying the computation of PLI.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether share capital and share premium received by the assessee can be treated as unexplained cash credit under Section 68 where the assessee furnished details of subscribers, bank statements, audited financials and other documentary evidence, but the Assessing Officer doubted identity, creditworthiness and genuineness, and shareholders did not fully comply with summons under section 131.
2. Whether share issuance at substantial premium is objectionable when fair market value is supported by a valuation report under Rule 11UA and when premium appears high relative to face value.
3. Whether mere low recurring income of shareholders, or change/mismatch of names between application forms and share certificates, justifies treating subscription monies as undisclosed income under Section 68.
4. Whether non-compliance with summons issued under section 131 permits sustaining additions under Section 68 where the assessee has otherwise discharged the onus by adducing documentary evidence and the AO issued summons under section 133(6) and received responses.
5. Whether disallowance under Section 14A read with Rule 8D is sustainable where no exempt income was earned in the year, but investments existed which could yield exempt income in future; and whether post-2022 amendments to Section 14A affect the AO's power to disallow in absence of exempt income.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Treating share capital/premium as unexplained cash credit under Section 68
Legal framework: Section 68 places onus on assessee to explain nature and source of credit; once onus discharged, burden shifts to AO to disprove the explanation. Summons provisions (section 131) and enquiry powers (section 133(6)) are relevant to fact-gathering.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on prior decisions of coordinate benches holding that when an assessee proves identity, creditworthiness and genuineness with documentary evidence, AO must disprove those documents; absence of further investigation cannot justify additions. Decisions of higher courts citing that mere suspicious circumstances without evidence do not justify treating subscription monies as unexplained income were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined documentary material filed by subscribers (PAN, bank statements, ITRs, audited accounts, confirmations) produced in response to section 133(6) notices and contained in a detailed paper book. The Tribunal found these documents sufficient to discharge the assessee's onus under Section 68. The AO's adverse inferences - broad-brush doubts about identity/creditworthiness, assertion of non-compliance with summons, and high premium - were considered unsupported by specific evidence or independent inquiry. The Tribunal held that six shareholders' name-mismatch was a clerical consequence of name-change after application filing and did not impeach identity. Where group companies were subscribers, the Tribunal noted that disclosed resources and inter-group common directors/shareholding supported creditworthiness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where assessee furnishes credible documentary evidence proving identity, genuineness and source of subscriptions, AO must disprove; mere suspicion or non-investigation does not sustain addition under Section 68. Obiter - observations on clerical name-mismatches as non-determinative in all contexts (fact-specific).
Conclusions: Addition under Section 68 of Rs.9.86 crore was not sustainable; appellate order deleting the addition was upheld. AO's generalized doubts and lack of targeted investigation were insufficient to override the documentary proof.
Issue 2 - Reasonableness of share premium and valuation under Section 56(2)(viib) / Rule 11UA
Legal framework: Post-amendment provisions require that shares issued above face value correspond to fair market value ascertained in accordance with Rule 11UA; valuation reports by independent valuers are relevant evidence of FMV.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal accepted decisions recognising valuation reports by chartered accountants and independent valuers as relevant to justify premium; held no necessary correlation between premium and assessable return of investors.
Interpretation and reasoning: The valuation report placed on record computed intrinsic value exceeding the issue price, supported by market value of shares & securities held by the investment company, justifying premium. The Tribunal treated the valuation report as credible evidence negating AO's suspicion about excessive premium.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - valuation under Rule 11UA, if credible, establishes reasonableness of premium for purposes of taxation; AO cannot disregard independent valuation without contrary material. Obiter - linkage between premium amount and investor return considered context-specific.
Conclusions: Premium of Rs.540 per share sustained as justified by the valuation report; not a ground to treat subscriptions as unexplained credits.
Issue 3 - Low recurring income of subscribers and name mismatches as indicators of sham transactions
Legal framework: Creditworthiness is not determined solely by current income; adequacy of own funds and disclosed sources are relevant. Identity must be established on credible records; procedural clerical mismatches do not ipso facto negate identity.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal relied on authorities holding that low return of income alone does not discredit creditworthiness and that clerical mismatches in names do not by themselves impugn legitimacy.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that several subscribers had funds or returns adequate relative to amounts invested and that documentary evidence supported their transactions. Name changes occurring between application filing and allotment explained the discrepancies. Therefore AO's sweeping characterization of entities as shell companies lacked foundation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - low declared income alone insufficient to rebut creditworthiness where documentary proof of funds and source exists. Obiter - factual application of name-change explanation.
Conclusions: Neither meagre recurring income nor name mismatches justified additions under Section 68 in the facts of this case.
Issue 4 - Effect of non-compliance with summons under Section 131
Legal framework: Section 131 empowers summons; however, judicial precedent establishes that non-compliance with summons does not automatically permit additions where assessee has otherwise discharged onus under Section 68.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed binding authority that when assessee proves identity, creditworthiness and genuineness, non-compliance with section 131 by third parties does not justify treating receipts as undisclosed income; AO must produce affirmative evidence to disprove explanations.
Interpretation and reasoning: Here, notices under section 133(6) elicited responses and documentary proof from subscribers; thus the absence of further compliance with section 131 was not held to be material. The Tribunal emphasized AO's failure to conduct independent enquiries despite available details.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of compliance with section 131 cannot by itself sustain additions under Section 68 if assessee otherwise discharges its onus. Obiter - emphasis on AO's duty to make enquiries when documentary evidence is furnished.
Conclusions: Non-compliance with section 131 did not justify sustaining Section 68 additions on these facts; deletion by appellate authority upheld.
Issue 5 - Disallowance under Section 14A / Rule 8D when no exempt income earned and relevance of post-2022 amendment
Legal framework: Section 14A disallows expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income; Rule 8D provides methodology for calculation. The 2022 Finance Act amended Section 14A with a non-obstante clause and Explanation, raising questions of prospective application.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal relied on earlier decisions and coordinate-bench rulings holding that, pre-amendment, Section 14A disallowance is not sustainable in absence of exempt income; the tribunal also noted judicial determinations that amendments in 2022 operate prospectively from 1-4-2022 and cannot be treated as retrospective.
Interpretation and reasoning: In the year under consideration no exempt income was earned. The AO applied CBDT circular and made a Rule 8D-based disallowance despite absence of exempt income. The Tribunal, following precedents and reasoning that the amendment to Section 14A is prospective, concluded that pre-amendment law precludes disallowance where no exempt income arises. Additionally, on facts, the assessee's expenditures were not shown to be incurred to earn exempt income.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - under pre-2022 law, disallowance under Section 14A is not warranted where no exempt income is earned; post-2022 amendment is prospective and cannot be applied to prior years. Obiter - application of specific coordinate-bench decisions to analogous facts.
Conclusions: Addition of Rs.51,123 under Section 14A was unsustainable and correctly deleted by the appellate authority; Revenue's contention rejected.
Final disposition: The Tribunal upheld the appellate authority's deletions of additions under Sections 68 and 14A and dismissed the Revenue's appeal.
Addition u/s 68 - bogus share capital/ share premium - treating the same as unexplained cash credit - HELD THAT:- As we are in agreement with the AR that, the bald observations made by the AO doubting the identity and creditworthiness of all the share subscribers in a sweeping manner was unjustified and that the AO had not cited any basis or material for alleging so.
It is seen that each of these shareholders had filed all the relevant documents which they were required to maintain in the ordinary course of business to substantiate their identity and creditworthiness and genuineness of the transactions.
AR has filed a detailed paper book which is comprising of the documents furnished by these nineteen (19) shareholders in response to notices issued u/s 133(6) of the Act, which is available. The share investors are noted to have filed all the documents including their bank statements, ITR acknowledgement, audited accounts, confirmations etc. Having gone through these documents, we are in full agreement with the CIT(A) that the shareholders had filed the relevant evidences to discharge their onus of substantiating the identity and creditworthiness of the lenders and genuineness of the transactions.
Coming to the reasonableness of the share premium which was doubted upon by the Ld. DR, we observe that the shares were issued at the prevailing fair market value of the assessee computed in terms of Section 56(2)(viib) read with Rule 11UA of the Rules. Having gone through the copy of the valuation report, the intrinsic value of shares of the assessee was higher than book value due to the market value of the shares & securities held by it due to which the shares issued during the year commanded a premium.
Creditworthiness not being there in case of subscribers, we are of the opinion that the mere fact that they had meagre recurring income is not relevant and creditworthiness cannot be doubtful when their own funds are several times the investment made in the assessee company. The case of the assessee find support from the decision in the case of CIT Vs M/s Mayawati [2011 (8) TMI 12 - DELHI HIGH COURT]
Also, the doubts raised by the AO on the identity of share subscribers due to mismatch of names in share certificates is found to be superfluous. As observed that, the names of six (6) share subscribers were changed just prior to the allotment of shares but after the filing of share application forms with the assessee and therefore understandably, the allotment / share certificates, which were issued later on, carried their erstwhile names.
As for the non-compliance of summons u/s 131 case of the assessee is squarely covered by the decision of Orissa Corporation Pvt. Ltd. [1986 (3) TMI 3 - SUPREME COURT] wherein it has been held that where the assessee has discharged the onus of proving the identity and creditworthiness of the of creditors and genuineness of the transactions, no addition can be made on the ground of non-compliance to the summons u/s 131 of the Act.
The case of the assessee is also squarely covered by a series of decisions of M/s Maninya Comfin Pvt. Ltd. [2024 (5) TMI 1517 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT], M/s Sitka Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. [2024 (6) TMI 1233 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] M/s Hirak Vyaapar Pvt. Ltd. [2024 (5) TMI 1519 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] AND Vish Realty Solutions Pvt. Ltd. [2025 (7) TMI 1594 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] wherein it has been held that where the assessee has discharged its burden of proof by satisfying all three conditions as envisaged u/s 68 of the Act and therefore no addition u/s 68 of the Act is called for.
Addition u/s 14A -expenditure incurred in respect to income not includable to total income of the assessee - CIT(A) deleting the disallowance - HELD THAT:- As we find that the case of the assessee is squarely covered by the various decisions of judicial forums, wherein Hon'ble Courts have held that where there is no exempt income, no disallowance is called for u/s 14A of the Act. We note that the appellate order passed by CIT (A) by following the decision of the Hon'ble Delhi High Court in the case of PCIT v. Era Infrastructure [2022 (7) TMI 1093 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and is a very reasoned and speaking order and does not require any interference at our end.
Appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether approval under section 153D (statutory prior approval for assessments following search) granted in a consolidated/mechanical manner without recorded application of mind vitiates assessment orders passed under section 153A.
2. Whether additions under section 68 (unexplained cash credits) and allied sections based on seized tally data / parallel books (Jai Shree Ram / Hari Om) are sustainable where (a) those seized records are alleged to be preliminary/internal/error-ridden and (b) many of the amounts represent opening balances carried forward from prior periods.
3. Whether, after rejection of books under section 145(3), the Assessing Officer may (i) estimate business/profitability under section 144 and simultaneously (ii) make separate additions under section 68/69/69A for unexplained credits, or whether such separate additions are precluded.
4. Whether ledger entries or loose one-page seized documents (pertaining to other concerns or "operational units" such as Gopala Garments / Race Kids Wear) found at partner/residential premises can be treated as assessee's books/accounts and used to make additions in assessee's hands absent corroborative material linking ownership/control.
5. Whether penalty initiation based on alleged contraventions is prematurely challengeable before adjudicating authority for assessment (i.e., whether appellate forum should decline to adjudicate initiation of penalties).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of Approval under Section 153D
Legal framework: Section 153D mandates prior approval by a specified senior officer before finalising assessments under section 153A arising out of search/seizure; approval must reflect application of mind to draft orders.
Precedent treatment: Recent judicial authorities require that approval under the provision not be a mere rubber stamp; approving authority must record at least minimal indication that draft orders were examined (approval cannot be mechanically granted in bulk for multiple years without consideration).
Interpretation and reasoning: The approvals in the record were consolidated, mechanically worded and devoid of any indication of consideration of seized material, appraisal or draft orders, or of reasons. The Tribunal applied the principle that absence of any recorded application of mind by the approving authority renders the approval vitiated. Reliance was placed on controlling jurisprudence that treated mechanical/bulk approvals as invalid and emphasised statutory safeguard purpose of section 153D.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an approval that is mechanistic and without indication of application of mind invalidates consequent section 153A assessments. Obiter - none significant beyond supporting authority references.
Conclusion: Approvals granted in consolidated/mechanical form without recorded application of mind are invalid; therefore assessments framed under such defective approvals are quashed. This technical ground succeeds for all impugned years in the batch and vitiates the assessments made pursuant to those approvals.
Issue 2: Additions under Section 68 based on Seized Tally Data / Parallel Books and Treatment of Opening Balances
Legal framework: Section 68 casts onus on assessee to explain identity, capacity and genuineness of credits appearing in books; special presumptions operate for documents found during search (statutory presumptions regarding ownership and truthfulness of seized books). Opening balances are ordinarily carried forward entries from prior years and additions under section 68 typically apply to credits introduced/appearing in the year under assessment.
Precedent treatment: Courts distinguish (a) credits introduced in the relevant year (s.68 additions sustainable) and (b) genuine carried forward opening balances from prior years (not to be added in the current year). Precedents also recognise that where seized documents are reliable, their contents attract statutory presumptions; conversely, courts have set aside additions founded on unreliable/incomplete seized material.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analysed the seized tally data and assessment material. It noted: (i) assessee's consistent contention that the seized tally records were preliminary/internal drafts (used for staff incentives), calendar-year based, with classification and inventory deficiencies; (ii) AO's acceptance that seized data had defects and consequently invoked section 145(3) to reject books; (iii) the impugned additions included substantial amounts described by AO as opening capital/opening unsecured loans (i.e., balances carried forward). On this factual matrix the Tribunal held that additions attributable to opening balances carried forward from earlier years cannot be sustained under section 68 for the year under appeal. The Tribunal also observed that where seized material is demonstrably error-ridden and not corroborated by other evidence, additions based solely on such material are unsustainable; but it balanced that against statutory presumptions operative on seized material and accepted only those additions that could not be characterised as prior year opening balances or were otherwise unproved by the assessee. The Tribunal allowed deletion of those opening-balance additions and directed limited relief where ledgers/bank corroboration supported reduction; remaining additions were partly allowed/deleted as per detailed factual comparison performed at appellate stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - opening balances carried forward from earlier years cannot be added under section 68 in the assessment year; where seized records are preliminary/unreliable and not corroborated, section 68 additions based solely on them are not sustainable. Obiter - general observations on interplay of presumptions under search provisions and on burden of proof.
Conclusion: Additions representing opening capital/unsecured loans carried forward from prior years were deleted. Additions based solely on uncorroborated/seized tally data that represented carried forward balances or notional entries were unsustainable. Limited adjustments where audited books or bank records matched were directed (some specific reductions upheld by appellate authority).
Issue 3: Validity of Simultaneous Estimation under Section 144 after Rejection under Section 145(3) and Separate Additions under Section 68/69/69A
Legal framework: Section 145(3) permits rejection of books; thereafter AO may estimate income under section 144 on best judgment. Sections 68/69/69A are special deeming provisions treating unexplained credits, investments, money as income unless satisfactorily explained; scheme contemplates taxation of such deemed income even where business income is separately estimated.
Precedent treatment: Authorities are divided but settled lines of decisions hold that (a) AO in appropriate cases may both estimate business income and make additions under section 68/69/69A where unexplained credits are not referable to the estimated business income, and (b) where unexplained credits are referable to the same suppressed sales that were estimated, separate additions may be impermissible because estimation should encompass suchitems. Cases also recognise that rejection of books does not immunise assessee from separate unexplained credit additions when facts warrant.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied this bifurcated approach. It examined whether unexplained credits/loans were referable to the same business receipts that had been estimated. Where unexplained credits were distinct in character (capital/loans, not simply undisclosed sales) and not accounted for by the AO's estimation of trading profit, AO could lawfully make additions under section 68/69A. Conversely, where the unexplained credits were essentially part of the same sales/purchase suppression that formed the basis of the estimation, separate additions were not permitted. The Tribunal also confirmed that rejection of books does not preclude invocation of section 68 in appropriate circumstances (relying on apex and high court precedents), but emphasised careful fact-based application to avoid double taxation/double counting.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - AO may in an appropriate case both estimate business income after rejection of books and make separate additions under sections 68/69/69A provided unexplained credits are not referable to the same suppressed business receipts encompassed by the estimation; if they are referable, separate additions may not be permissible. Obiter - observations on manner of allocation and need to avoid double counting.
Conclusion: Tribunal allowed/deleted additions after applying the above test: several section 68 additions (especially opening balances) were deleted; where AO had not demonstrated that unexplained credits were distinct from estimated business receipts, separate additions were disallowed; in limited instances where corroborative material supported AO's view that entries represented unexplained funds distinct from trading profits, additions sustained or partly sustained.
Issue 4: Use of Loose One-Page Documents (Gopala Garments / Race Kids Wear) Found at Partner's Residence
Legal framework: To treat a document as a book of account of the assessee and to make additions under section 68, revenue must establish link between documents and assessee (ownership/control/operation), and adequate corroboration is necessary. Seized loose papers without corroborative digital data or independent indicia are weak foundation for additions.
Precedent treatment: Courts require proof of ownership, control or that entries relate to assessee's affairs; mere possession of loose papers does not automatically make them assessee's books. Absent corroboration, additions based on such papers are unsustainable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the seized pages were one-page sheets found at a partner's residence, bore addresses inconsistent with assessee's place of business, contained manufacturing expense heads not matching search findings, and lacked corroborative digital entries. The partner's statements denying ownership and absence of other connecting materials weighed against revenue. On these facts the Tribunal concluded that the loose papers did not qualify as assessee's books and could not be the sole basis for additions. It further noted the risk of double-addition where such items are alleged separately while consolidated books already reflect operations.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - loose/unverified seized documents not corroborated by other material cannot, by themselves, sustain additions in assessee's hands. Obiter - cautionary note on double taxation where consolidated records exist.
Conclusion: Additions based solely on those loose seized sheets were deleted. Where documents were not linked to the assessee by independent evidence, Tribunal disallowed Section 68 additions and trading adjustments premised only on such loose papers.
Issue 5: Challenge to Initiation of Penalty Proceedings
Legal framework: Penalty proceedings under chapters concerning contraventions (e.g., sections 271D/271(1)(c)) are separate and independent proceedings; assessments and penalty adjudications are distinct processes.
Precedent treatment: Appellate courts/tribunals routinely treat grounds premised on mere initiation of penalty proceedings as premature and non-justiciable until final penalty order is passed by competent authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that challenge to mere initiation of penalty proposals is premature before the penal adjudicating authority; the assessee must raise objections in penalty proceedings before the designated officer. Consequently, appellate treatment of such grounds was treated as disposed of (premature).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - challenge to mere initiation of penalty is premature; such grounds are to be adjudicated in appropriate penalty proceedings. Obiter - procedural direction to avail remedy before designated penalty authority.
Conclusion: Grounds challenging initiation (not imposition) of penalties were treated as disposed of as premature.
Overall Disposition - Synthesis
The Tribunal (on a consolidated hearing) allowed the technical ground that approvals under section 153D were mechanically granted and quashed the consequent assessments for the impugned years. On merits (to the extent considered), the Tribunal directed deletion of additions representing opening balances and loose or uncorroborated entries; it applied established tests on simultaneous estimation and section 68 additions, allowing or disallowing specific additions after factual scrutiny. Penalty initiation grounds were held premature. The Tribunal emphasised fact-sensitive application of principles, need for corroborative evidence when relying on seized material, and avoidance of double taxation where consolidated records exist.
Mandatory approval required as per provision of section 153D - Validity of assessment orders framed u/s 153A - HELD THAT:- We hold that the approval granted u/s 153D in the present case was accorded in a mechanical and consolidated manner, without due application of mind and without separate consideration of each assessment year. Such approval being invalid, the consequential assessment orders framed u/s 153A read with Section 153D for Assessment Years 2014-15 to 2019-20 cannot be sustained in law and are therefore quashed.
Additions on account of unexplained capital and unsecured loans - It is a well-established principle of law that opening balances cannot be added to income u/s 68 of the Act. This provision is specifically designed to address the issue of unexplained credits in the books of account for the current financial year, and not for balances carried forward from previous years. Additions u/s 68 must be made for credits appearing during the year under consideration. The court clarified that opening balance, which are carried forward from previous years, cannot be subject to additions u/s 68.AO did not raise any issues regarding new unsecured loans taken during the year under consideration, and these were deemed genuine. Therefore, if there were any discrepancies or issues, they should have been addressed with respect to fresh credits introduced during the current year, not with opening balances. We also note that on one hand, books of accounts have been rejected and on the other hand falling on the very same set of books to make the addition u/s 68.
As submitted above, AO has pointed out the several defects in the books of accounts viz. not maintained financial year wise, not maintaining any stock records thus taking the stock value at the end of year on presumption only and any other deficiencies pointed out by the assessee and admitted by the Ld.AO and on the basis of these defects and deficiencies, the books of accounts were rejected u/s 145(3). While doing so ld. AO observed that all bank transactions related to purchases and sales were recorded both in the books of Shri Ram Enterprises and Hari Om, including instrument numbers. Despite this, the AO relied on the tally data seized during the search proceedings to conclude that the assessee was involved in unaccounted sales and purchases. Consequently, the AO deemed the regular books of account maintained under the trade name Shri Ram Enterprises to be unreliable and not reflective of the true profit of the assessee. Having done so of rejecting the books of account u/s 145(3), the AO estimated the average gross profit rate at 10.09% based on best judgment, resulting in a trading addition of Rs. 8,28,572/ -. This estimation was made u/s 144, which pertains to assessments based on the best judgment of the AO.
Therefore, once that books were not relied upon no separate addition u/s 68 can be made, even if the assessee has not fully discharged the burden of proof concerning amounts shown in the books of account. This principle is established in several judicial precedents as held in the case of CIT Vs. G.K. Contractor [2009 (1) TMI 840 - RAJASTHAN HIGH COURT] wherein held that when net profit is estimated by the AO by rejecting the book result u/s 145(3) of the Act, no separate addition can be made on account of cash creditor.
From the records the bench noted that the nature of the entries recorded in the Raghaw Karnani account, the impugned ledger account, which was found and seized, pertains to the period from January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2017. Over the span of these four years, the account solely consists of book entries, with no evidence of any actual flow of funds. This clearly indicates that the account is merely a notional record and does not reflect any real transfer of money or funds by the assessee to constitute any alleged unexplained capital. The nature of entries posted in the said account clearly highlights that opening balance is nothing but the amount lying accumulated in the account due to certain book entries passed without involving any actual flow of the funds, therefore, it cannot be construed as a basis for any addition u/s 68. The bench also noted the opening amount punched in the tally were not indicating any actual balances or financial positions of the assessee.
From the submission made we note that the names listed above shows that these were accounts created in the name of family members and amounts have been shown therein by way of book entries. Certain accounts are towards expense payable to advocate, which is in fact in the nature of creditor. Similarly, Jain Vastralay is a supplier of clothes thus in the nature of sundry creditor. Similarly, Mahesh Mundhra account is also towards purchases made, thus not falling under category of unsecured loans to make any addition u/s 68 of the Act. Therefore, considering the facts and judicial precedent we hold that the addition (opening capital) and (unsecured loans) represent balances from earlier financial years and cannot be added in the year under consideration as per provision of section 68 of the Act and therefore, the same is directed to be deleted and thereby Ground of assessee are allowed.
Additions made on account of Race Kids wear and Gopala Garments - The burden of proof lies with the tax authorities to establish the legitimacy of any claims regarding the source of loans. If there is a need to evaluate the loans extended by Shri Ramesh Kumar Mundhra or Mahesh Kumar Mundhra, this should be carried out distinctly in their assessments rather than incorrectly attributing these loans to the assessee without sufficient or corroborative evidence. We also note that no digital data or supporting materials were discovered during the search that could substantiate this claim.
As argued by assessee that the contention of the ld. AO was that M/s. Gopala Garments and M/s. Race Kids Wear are not independent entities but rather operational units of M/s Ambica Garments. This characterization carries significant implications for the assessment of income and taxation. Given this relationship, the consolidated financial affairs of Ambica Garments are already reflected in the financial statements of Jai Shri Ram. Since any profits generated by Gopala Garments and Race Kids Wear are included within the overall profits reported by Jai Shri Ram, it follows that any attempt to add these profits to the assessee's income would constitute double taxation - duplicative assessments, which result in double taxation of the same income, are not permissible under tax law.
Issues: (i) Whether the assessee's Mumbai office was a Permanent Establishment or merely a Liaison Office; (ii) whether receipts from offshore supply and claimed fees for technical services were taxable in India; (iii) whether interest income on delayed payment from the associated enterprise was taxable at the maximum marginal rate under the DTAA.
Issue (i): Whether the assessee's Mumbai office was a Permanent Establishment or merely a Liaison Office.
Analysis: The dispute was controlled by the earlier decision in the assessee's own case, where the Bombay office was held not to constitute a Permanent Establishment in view of the relevant treaty provision. Following that binding view and the principle of consistency, the office at Mumbai was treated as a liaison office and not as a taxable permanent establishment.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether receipts from offshore supply and claimed fees for technical services were taxable in India.
Analysis: The contracts were treated as divisible, and the income relatable to supplies made outside India was held to have no nexus with any permanent establishment in India. In the absence of a contrary precedent, the receipts from offshore supplies were not brought to tax in India. The ground relating to fees for technical services for one year was also not entertained because it did not arise from the impugned appellate order, while the similar revenue grounds on outside-India revenue were rejected on merits as not warranting interference.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether interest income on delayed payment from the associated enterprise was taxable at the maximum marginal rate under the DTAA.
Analysis: The interest income was treated as debt-claim income under the treaty. Since the assessee did not have a permanent establishment in India, the exclusionary clause under the treaty did not apply, and the beneficial treaty rate was held applicable instead of the higher domestic rate.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The Revenue's challenges failed on the core substantive issues, and the assessments were not sustained to the extent contested in these appeals.
Ratio Decidendi: A liaison office that does not carry on the core income-generating functions of the foreign enterprise is not a Permanent Establishment, and income from offshore supplies lacking nexus with such establishment is not taxable in India; treaty benefits prevail where the exclusionary provision is inapplicable because no Permanent Establishment exists.
Mumbai Liaison Office is a Permanent Establishment or not? - whether Liaison Office is a PE or not? - HELD THAT:- By respectfully following the ratio laid down by the Hon'ble High Court of Uttarakhand in Assessee’s own case in [2019 (3) TMI 2095 - UTTARAKHAND HIGH COURT] we hold that the Ld. CIT(A) committed no error in treating the Assessee’s office situated in Mumbai as Liaison Office. Accordingly, we dismiss Ground No. 1 & 2 of the Revenue.
Addition being the amount received by the Assessee during the year as FTS from various projects - As found that after the order of the Tribunal dated 12/02/2016, in the second round, A.O. while giving effect to the order of the Tribunal, following the Tribunals order for Assessment Year 2007-08 and 2008-09, deleted the addition on account of outside India revenues from GMR and accepted the income declared by the Assessee from inside India operations. Thus, no addition has been made by the A.O. on account of income determination for GMR Projects either on account of revenues from operation inside India or operation outside India, therefore, even the those grounds on the issue of revenue from GMR outside from India are also not emanating from the order of the Ld. CIT(A).
Addition being the amount received during the year as FTS from various projects - It is the case of the Assessee that the supplies from outside India were made outside the territorial jurisdiction of India and had no nexus with a PE in India and as per the provisions of Section 9(1) (i) of the Act, there is no business connection between off shore supplies and the activities carried out within India, therefore, the income for the said supplies are not taxable in India either under DTAA or domestic law.
CIT(A) relied on Assessee’s own case [2007 (5) TMI 196 - SUPREME COURT] and the order of the Tribunal in Assessee’s own case for Assessment Year 2005-06 and 2006-07 [2011 (5) TMI 858 - ITAT DELHI]. In view of the above, in the absence of any contrary judicial precedents, we find no reason to interfere with the findings and the conclusion of the Ld. CIT(A), accordingly, Ground No. 2 of the Revenue is dismissed.
Interest income from its AE, on delayed payment - As the Assessee does not have PE in India, the exclusionary clause 12(6) of DTAA does not applicable. Accordingly, we dismiss Ground No. 3 of the Revenue
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the word "may" in Section 43 of the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 is to be construed as "shall", i.e., whether imposition of penalty is mandatory upon non-disclosure in Schedule FA or whether the Assessing Officer has discretion to impose or waive the penalty.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Nature of the word "may" in Section 43: mandatory or discretionary?
Legal framework: Section 43 prescribes that where a resident fails to furnish information or furnishes inaccurate particulars in the return relating to any asset located outside India, "the Assessing Officer may direct that such person shall pay, by way of penalty, a sum of ten lakh rupees", subject to a de minimis proviso. Section 46(3) requires that no order imposing penalty shall be made unless the assessee has been given an opportunity of being heard.
Precedent treatment: Authorities including decisions interpreting analogous provisions using "may" in tax and fiscal statutes were considered, notably a Supreme Court authority holding that penalty need not be levied where breach is technical or venial, and High Court/Tribunal decisions construing "may" as vesting discretion in the authority and emphasizing the significance of the hearing requirement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied established rules of statutory interpretation: words are to be given their plain and ordinary meaning unless such reading leads to absurdity; charging/penal provisions are to be construed strictly; and legislative usage of distinct words is significant. The use of "may" in Section 43 was held to denote discretion. This conclusion is reinforced by the co-existence in the same provision of "may" (decision to impose penalty) and "shall" (quantum), indicating a deliberate legislative distinction. Further, Section 46(3)'s requirement of an opportunity of hearing would be rendered redundant if penalty followed automatically from non-disclosure; thus, purposive and non-redundant construction supports discretion. The Court also rejected treating the provision as creating strict/automatic liability irrespective of bona fides or veniality where the legislature chose permissive language.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The plain meaning of "may" in Section 43 is directory/discretionary and does not convert into a mandatory "shall"; the Assessing Officer has discretion to impose or waive the penalty depending on facts and circumstances. Obiter - Observations on related case law distinctions and the comparative treatment of quantum under the section are ancillary but support the main holding.
Conclusion: The word "may" in Section 43 must be given its ordinary meaning - discretionary. Imposition of penalty under Section 43 is not automatic or mandatory; the Assessing Officer may, after affording the opportunity of hearing, exercise discretion to impose or not impose the penalty based on the facts of each case.
Issue 2 - Relevance of opportunity of hearing (Section 46(3)) to interpretation of Section 43
Legal framework: Section 46(3) conditions imposition of penalty on prior opportunity of hearing.
Precedent treatment: Reliance placed on authorities holding that a statutory requirement to afford a hearing indicates legislative intent that the decision whether to impose penalty is not automatic but contingent on consideration of explanations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that if Section 43 were to operate mandatorily, the hearing provision would be a pointless formality; statutory interpretation disfavors construing enactments to render provisions superfluous. Therefore, the hearing requirement supports the inference of discretion in the decision to impose penalty. The hearing is a substantive safeguard permitting consideration of bona fides, inadvertence, or venial breaches before exercising penal imposition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 46(3) is integral to the interpretation of Section 43 and indicates that imposition of penalty is discretionary and must follow an effective opportunity to be heard. Obiter - Discussion of how hearing safeguards align with general principles of administrative fairness.
Conclusion: The requirement of a pre-imposition hearing under Section 46(3) is material and confirms that Section 43 confers discretion on the Assessing Officer; hearing cannot be treated as a mere formality where penalty were automatic.
Issue 3 - Application of established authorities on discretion to penalize for technical or venial breaches
Legal framework: Established principle that where penal/charging provisions permit discretion, authorities may refuse to levy penalty in cases of technical, venial, or bona fide inadvertent breaches.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed and applied precedent holding that minimum or mandatory quantum does not preclude refusal to impose penalty where breach is technical/venial; it distinguished prior decisions of co-ordinate benches where facts showed lack of bona fides or absence of consideration of hearing requirement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated prior tribunal decisions that upheld penalties as fact-specific: where the assessee failed to substantiate bona fide mistake or where the authority's discretion was exercised judiciously, upholding penalty was appropriate. Those decisions do not constitute authority for the proposition that imposition is automatic. The Court emphasized that where two plausible constructions exist, the one favorable to the assessee should be adopted in fiscal statutes.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Authorities permitting refusal to impose penalty for venial breaches are applicable; co-ordinate bench decisions upholding penalties on facts are distinguishable and do not negate the discretionary character of Section 43. Obiter - Remarks on the desirability of construing taxing statutes in favour of the assessee when ambiguity exists.
Conclusion: Prior decisions upholding penalties on their facts do not undermine the holding that Section 43 is discretionary; where a bona fide, inadvertent or venial breach is established, the Assessing Officer may justifiably refrain from imposing penalty.
Issue 4 - Effect of legislative wording and non-redundancy principle
Legal framework: Canon of statutory construction that different words used by legislature should be given distinct meanings and that provisions should not be construed to render portions redundant.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on the general interpretive principle and applied it to the juxtaposition of "may" and "shall" within Section 43.
Interpretation and reasoning: The deliberate use of "may" for imposition and "shall" for the penalty amount indicates legislative intent to create a discretionary power to impose a fixed penal sum. The Court declined to conflate the two terms so as to attribute mandatory operation to the initial decision to impose penalty.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Legislative choice of language in Section 43 demonstrates discretion to levy penalty but fixed quantum if imposed. Obiter - No ruling on challenges to the quantum itself, which was left open for adjudication on merits by the Division Bench.
Conclusion: Legislative wording and non-redundancy principles support construing Section 43 as conferring discretion to impose penalty while prescribing the quantum if penalty is imposed.
Disposition and Scope
The issue was answered in the negative: "may" in Section 43 is not to be construed as "shall"; imposition of penalty is discretionary and depends on facts and circumstances. The Special Bench did not decide the merits of the penalty orders themselves; those remain for adjudication by the Division Bench in accordance with law.
Black money - penalty for non-disclosure of foreign assets - Whether the use of word “may” in Section 43 of the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 should be construed as “shall”? - imposition of penalty is mandatory once the requirements of Section 43 of the said Act are satisfied or there is a discretion in the Assessing Officer to impose the penalty or otherwise.
Appellants in these appeals are husband and wife, against whom orders imposing penalty of Rs. 10 lacs each, has been passed by the learned DDIT/ADIT (Inv.)-4(1), FAIU, Mumbai on account of the fact that the appellant-assessee’s have failed to disclose in their Return of Income (RoI) for the relevant assessment year 2020-21, the foreign investments with Avestar Global Opportunities SPC (Cayman Islands) in foreign assets schedule (Schedule FA).
HELD THAT:- The BM Act was enacted with an avowed purpose to deal with the menace of stashing away of black money abroad by the resident individuals with the intent to evade taxes. The Act makes elaborate provisions for dealing with the undisclosed foreign income and assets and for imposition of tax on such undisclosed foreign income and assets. In the present reference, we are only concerned with the provisions of Section 43 of the BM Act providing for imposition of penalty on account of failure of the assessee’s to disclose foreign investment/asset/income in Schedule FA.
Whether non-disclosure would automatically lead to imposition of penalty or whether there is discretion in the AO to waive imposition of penalty in the appropriate circumstances? - Assessee had failed to establish that there was a bona fide mistake in the non-reporting of the investment in Schedule FA. This finding has been recorded by the Bench after reproducing the break-up of the total investment and the amount which was actually reported. This Tribunal found that even insofar as the investment in his own name of Rs. 5,50,44,320/- is concerned, assessee only reported an amount of Rs. 3,91,04,805/-. It was in these circumstances found that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of investment in his own name and there was altogether non-reporting of the investment made in the name of the children. That apart, we find that the Division Bench had no occasion to consider the provisions of Section 46 of BM Act requiring an opportunity of hearing being given to the assessee before imposition of penalty and the necessary implication of such a requirement on the question whether the imposition of penalty is automatic or otherwise. The decision therefore cannot be said to be an authority holding that the imposition of penalty is mandatory/automatic, upon failure to disclose foreign assets in Schedule FA.
We answer the issue as framed in the negative. The word “may” used in Section 43 of the BM Act has to be given its plain meaning as being directory in nature and cannot be construed as “shall”. Thus, the imposition of penalty is not mandatory. There is a discretion in the AO to impose the penalty or otherwise depending upon the facts and circumstances of each case.
The appeals shall now be placed before the Division Bench for disposal according to law. We make it clear that we have not examined the merits of the order imposing penalty, which is left to be decided by the Division Bench on its own merits and in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether the consideration paid for use of IT infrastructure facility under the India-Belgium tax treaty constituted royalty taxable in India and attracted withholding tax liability, thereby justifying disallowance under section 40(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The payment was found to be for use of an IT infrastructure facility and the treaty text was examined against the domestic royalty definition and the applicable treaty provision. The decisive factor was that the India-Belgium treaty, as modified by the relevant notification, did not retain the clause covering consideration for the use of, or the right to use, industrial, commercial or scientific equipment. The word appearing in the treaty text was read as "Plan" and not "Plant", and the latter was treated as a typographical error. On that construction, the payment could not be brought within industrial or equipment royalty under Article 12(3)(a) of the treaty.
Conclusion: The payment was not taxable as royalty under the India-Belgium treaty, no withholding tax was exigible, and the disallowance under section 40(a)(i) was not sustainable.
Infrastructure facility falls within the specified definition of "plant" - scope of term "scientific equipment" -taxability of the impugned payments as Royalty under the treaty - Whether payment consideration made by the assessee falling within the definition of royally u/s 9(1)(vi) of the Act (as per Tribunals order) whether falls within the ambit of article 12(3)(a) of Indo-Belgium Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement entered between India and Belgium as applicable for the year under consideration? - matter reffered to Third Member
HELD THAT:- The Hon’ble Third Member while concurring with the view point of Hon’ble Judicial Member held that payment for the “use of IT infrastructure facility” do not fall within the definition of “Plant” since the language in the Article 12(3)(a) of the India Belgium Tax Treaty contains the words ‘Plan” and not “Plant”. Therefore, on account of absence of the relevant clause ‘for the use of or right to use industrial / commercial, scientific equipment’, the payments made by the assessee for the use of IT infrastructure facility would not be liable for TDS. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Requirement to satisfy the conditions for export of brown basmati rice laid down as per Sl. No. 57 of ITC (HS) – Schedule-2 – Export Policy for basmati Rice (De- husked brown) or also required to satisfy the condition laid down vide Notification dated 11.01.2023, issued by FSSAI - It was held by CESTAT that 'It is opined that the revenue could not establish that the exported goods were mis- declared and therefore, liable for confiscation. When the department failed to establish that the goods are liable for confiscation, imposition of redemption fine, demand of duty and imposition of penalties cannot be sustained.'
HELD THAT:- Upon consideration of submissions and perusal of the order passed by the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT), it is found that there is no good reason to interfere with the order, the appeal stands dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Policy Relaxation Committee (PRC) acted without adequate reasoning and in a manner contrary to principles of fairness and legitimate expectation in rejecting applications for revalidation of import licences/authorisations that remained largely unutilised due to protracted litigation and regulatory inaction.
2. Whether the PRC was obliged to take into account the totality of relevant facts - including successful litigation establishing non-liability to the alleged regulatory impediment and comparative treatment of similarly situated applicants - before rejecting revalidation requests.
3. Whether the High Court should issue pre-emptory relief (mandamus) directing revalidation of import licences, or remit the matter for fresh consideration with directions about the manner and time within which PRC must decide.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Adequacy of PRC's reasoning and conformity with principles of fairness and legitimate expectation
Legal framework: Administrative action requires reasoned decisions, adherence to principles of natural justice and fairness, and consideration of material facts; discretionary regulatory bodies must state cogent reasons when denying relief such as revalidation of licences/authorisations.
Precedent treatment: The Court noted prior judicial determinations in related proceedings that resolved the underlying disputes in favour of the licence-holder; those outcomes constitute relevant material facts that an administrative decision-maker must account for. The PRC's minutes were contrasted with earlier departmental practice in other cases where revalidation was referred for further consideration or granted relief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The PRC's expressed basis for rejection - that "the applicant has not submitted any cogent reason/justification in support of any genuine hardship" - was held to be cryptic and perfunctory. The Court observed that the PRC failed to engage with the salient facts (including the pendency and ultimate disposition of litigation that prevented use of the licences) and did not explain why those facts did not amount to genuine hardship or justification for revalidation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An administrative committee must record reasons addressing material facts and cannot rest a decision on a conclusory statement when the documentary record establishes substantial justification for the relief sought. Obiter - The Court's remarks about the appellants' financial collapse and supplier advances were descriptive of the facts and supportive of the finding that PRC's reasoning was inadequate, rather than establishing new law.
Conclusions: The PRC's decision was legally inadequate for want of reasoned consideration of material facts; the Court found prima facie merit in the contention that the committee did not apply its mind to the full factual matrix and failed to justify its rejection.
Issue 2 - Obligation to consider successful litigation and comparative treatment of similarly situated applicants
Legal framework: Administrative fairness includes consideration of relevant material, consistency in administrative action, and avoidance of arbitrariness and discrimination. Comparative administrative decisions may be relevant to demonstrate consistency or inconsistency in treatment of similarly situated applicants.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on its own records of prior decisions in related proceedings where the petitioner prevailed and on PRC minutes showing different treatment of another importer whose similar revalidation request was referred for further consideration or favourably treated. The Division Bench had earlier noted regulatory confusion among agencies, which bears on administrative consistency.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that PRC ought to have considered (a) that litigation prevented utilisation of the licences, (b) that final judicial orders favoured the licence-holder, and (c) comparative decisions showing a different approach in respect of other applicants. The PRC's failure to address these comparators and the controlling judicial outcomes rendered its decision vulnerable to review for arbitrariness and inconsistency.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Administrative decisions refusing relief must engage with both controlling judicial outcomes and relevant comparable administrative decisions to guard against arbitrary or discriminatory treatment. Obiter - Observations concerning the broader "complete state of confusion and lack of clarity" in the regulatory regime (as noted by a Division Bench) were noted to contextualise the Board's duty but were not applied as binding law on PRC decision-making.
Conclusions: The PRC should have considered the successful litigation and the existence of comparable administrative outcomes; its omission supports remanding the matter for reconsideration with directions to address these aspects.
Issue 3 - Appropriateness of issuing pre-emptory relief versus remittal with directions and timeline
Legal framework: Courts exercise discretion when administrative action is flawed: remedies range from quashing and remitting for fresh consideration to issuing mandatory directions where the right to relief is clear and no factual inquiry remains. The proportionality of remedy depends on whether the tribunal's error is remediable by reconsideration or whether immediate relief is warranted.
Precedent treatment: The Court acknowledged that the petitioner had a prima facie case and had prevailed in prior litigation, but it also recognized that the PRC's decision-making function and consideration of policy-level factors remain within the competence of the committee. Comparative PRC decisions and the need for a reasoned exercise of discretion indicated that remittal, rather than mandamus, was the appropriate remedy.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court declined to issue a writ of mandamus or to direct automatic revalidation because the PRC retains policy and discretionary jurisdiction that must be exercised in a reasoned manner. Instead, the Court directed the PRC to re-examine the applications afresh, taking into account the full factual record (including prior judicial outcomes and comparable decisions), to render a reasoned decision. A time-bound direction (preferably within six weeks) and requirement for a reasoned order in the event of rejection were imposed to prevent further delay and to ensure accountability.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where administrative discretion is exercisable and material factual controversies or policy considerations exist, the appropriate judicial remedy for defective administrative reasoning is remittal for fresh, reasoned consideration within a specified timeframe rather than immediate mandamus to grant the relief. Obiter - The Court's insistence that any subsequent rejection "shall necessarily be subject to the rights and remedies of the petitioner" is a procedural admonition rather than a binding legal principle.
Conclusions: The Court ordered remittal to the PRC for fresh consideration within a fixed period and required issuance of a reasoned order if rejection is maintained; the Court refused to mandate revalidation directly, preserving the PRC's discretionary role while ensuring legal accountability and expediency.
Ancillary observations bearing on all issues
1. The Court emphasised the need for administrative bodies to avoid cryptic or conclusory reasoning and to address material facts and prior judicial determinations.
2. The Court noted regulatory fragmentation and inter-agency confusion in the arms and ammunition regulatory regime as relevant background that administrative decision-makers must factor into their reasoning.
3. The directions given to the PRC were applied uniformly to all pending applications raising identical issues before the Court, ensuring consistent administrative reconsideration.
Rejection/inaction on part of the respondent/ Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) as regards the applications submitted by the petitioners seeking revalidation of import licenses/ authorizations issued by the respondent authority - It is submitted that the attendant facts and circumstances surrounding the case of the petitioner are even more glaring and require that the requisite relaxation be granted to the petitioner - HELD THAT:- Prima facie, there is merit in the contention of the petitioner. However, this Court is not inclined to issue any pre-emptory directions to the PRC or to issue a writ of mandamus directing revalidation of the subject Import licenses.
This Court is of the view that it would be apposite for the PRC to reconsider the matter, taking into account the relevant facts and circumstances including the decision taken by it in the context of a similarly situated importer, and thereafter take an appropriate and reasoned decision.
Let the petitioner’s request for revalidation of its Import licenses be re-examined afresh by the PRC and appropriate decision be rendered thereon. Let the same be done as expeditiously as possible and preferably within a period of six weeks from today.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the absolute confiscation of Indian currency and the penalty imposed under Section 114 of the Customs Act, 1962 were sustainable.
Analysis: The show cause notice contained contradictory versions regarding the place and time of interception and recovery, and the record did not consistently establish that the currency was being transported towards the border for illegal export to Bangladesh. The area map produced on record also supported the contention that the alleged place of recovery was away from the border. In these circumstances, the evidentiary burden to establish illicit export activity was not discharged and the appellant was entitled to the benefit of doubt.
Conclusion: The confiscation of the currency and the penalty under Section 114 of the Customs Act, 1962 were not sustainable and were set aside in favour of the appellant.
Absolute confiscation of Indian currency - Levy of penalty u/s 114 of the Customs Act, 1962 - smuggled goods or not - Indian currency seized from a person intercepted near Rabindranagar unfenced border area of Bangaldesh - reasonable doubt exists or not that the seized currency transported for illegal export - HELD THAT:- Admittedly the Rabindranagar is 3 km away from the border of Bangladesh border. In that circumstances, also the benefit of doubt goes in favour of the appellant.
The Revenue has failed to prove that the appellant were involved in the activity of transportation of Indian currency illegally to Bangladesh. Therefore, the Indian currency seized from Shri Ali Hossain is not liable for confiscation as the Indian currency seized is not liable for confiscation, therefore, no penalty can be imposed on the appellant.
The impugned order qua absolute confiscation of Indian currency and imposing penalty under Section 114 of the Customs Act, 1962 on the appellant is set aside - the release is ordered of Indian currency of Rs. 15,00,000/- which is deposited to SBI seized from Shri Ali Hossain to the appellant as Shri Ali Hossain in his statement stated that the impugned Indian currency belongs to the appellant.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a company placed under provisional winding up can be held liable to reimburse security and preservation expenses incurred by the Official Liquidator in respect of a property identified as the company's asset when the company later disputes ownership.
2. Whether statements and undertakings made by a company's director under Rule 130 of the Companies (Court) Rules, 1959 and the statutory statement of affairs under Section 454 of the Companies Act constitute admissible and binding bases for the Official Liquidator to act and for fixing liability on the company.
3. Whether the Official Liquidator's bona fide reliance on director's disclosures and consequent protective measures can be displaced by a belated claim of mistaken identification or by allegations that the director's statements were procured under coercion.
4. Whether failure to challenge court orders that identify an asset as belonging to the company and impose liability for expenses vitiates subsequent contrary pleas by the company (issues of estoppel, waiver, delay, and laches).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Liability of the Company for Liquidator's Security Expenses when Ownership Is Later Disputed
Legal framework: The Companies Act and Rules place duties on directors to disclose assets upon appointment of a liquidator; the Official Liquidator has statutory functions to secure and preserve company assets. Judicial orders recalling winding-up can conditionally impose payment of liquidator's expenses.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedent was overruled; the Court applied settled principles regarding the duties of directors and the powers of the Official Liquidator, treating prior binding orders as final unless successfully appealed.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where a liquidator, acting in bona fide reliance upon available documentary record, director's statements and court direction, takes possession and incurs security expenses for what is represented as a company asset, the company may be held liable to reimburse those expenses. The Court emphasized the reciprocal statutory scheme: directors must make full disclosure under Section 454 and Rule 130, and the liquidator's protective steps taken on that basis are lawful and reasonable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A company which, through its officers, represents an asset as belonging to it and accepts liability for liquidator's expenses can be held liable to reimburse bona fide expenses incurred in protecting that asset; a contrary, belated claim of non-ownership is barred where prior statements and unchallenged orders establish the position. Obiter - Observations on the practical impact of complete disclosures on the liquidation process generally.
Conclusions: The company was liable to bear the security expenses because the subject property was represented as its asset in the record (including an MoU and undertakings), the Official Liquidator acted bona fide in securing the property, and the relevant court orders imposed liability which remained unchallenged.
Issue 2 - Binding Effect of Rule 130 Statements and Section 454 Statement of Affairs
Legal framework: Section 454 mandates submission of a verified statement of affairs by directors/officers; Rule 130 permits recording of statements by directors. Statutory scheme contemplates reliance upon such disclosures to enable the liquidator to perform duties.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed established statutory import of Section 454 and Rule 130; no authority was distinguished or overruled; reliance on directors' verified statements is treated as legitimate foundation for liquidator's actions.
Interpretation and reasoning: Statements and undertakings made under Rule 130 and the statutory statement under Section 454 are obligatory, expected to be full and accurate, and may constitute binding admissions for purposes of liquidation. A clear and unqualified undertaking to bear official liquidator's expenses is a binding acknowledgment that can support an order directing payment by the company.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Unqualified undertakings and statutory statements made by directors under the Companies Act/Rules can be treated as binding and as a legitimate basis for the Official Liquidator's actions and for fixing liability. Obiter - Comments that suppression or misrepresentation in such statements may attract civil and penal consequences.
Conclusions: The director's handwritten undertaking and Rule 130 statements constituted a valid basis for the Official Liquidator to act and for the court to impose liability on the company; the company could not escape that liability by later contradicting those statements without timely challenge.
Issue 3 - Bona Fide Reliance by Official Liquidator and Effect of Allegations of Negligence or Coercion
Legal framework: Official Liquidator's duty to secure assets and reliance on available verified disclosures; duties of directors not to mislead; requirement that coercion allegations be particularized and supported by evidence to undermine prior statements.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied the standard that bona fide actions taken by the liquidator on the basis of director-provided information are protected unless adequate proof of coercion or mala fide action is established.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Official Liquidator's engagement of security services and incurring of expenses were reasonably grounded in the director's statements and the MoU. Allegations that Rule 130 statements were procured under coercion were unparticularized and unsupported; absence of contemporaneous objection or appeal negated their efficacy. The liquidator is not required to perform independent title adjudication in the first instance when statutory disclosures purport to show ownership.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the Official Liquidator reasonably and bona fide relies on director's statements and documentary indications of ownership, the liquidator's protective expenditures are validly chargeable to the company unless and until the company promptly establishes otherwise with evidence. Obiter - Remarks on the impracticality of imposing on the Official Liquidator a primary duty to verify every asserted asset where statutory statements have been made.
Conclusions: The Official Liquidator acted in good faith; unsupported and belated coercion claims failed; negligence by the Official Liquidator was not established as a basis to absolve the company from liability, given the directors' statutory obligations and representations.
Issue 4 - Finality of Court Orders, Estoppel, Waiver, Delay and Laches
Legal framework: Courts' orders attain finality absent timely challenge; doctrines of estoppel and waiver prevent parties from adopting inconsistent positions after acquiescence; delay and laches bar belated contentions that prejudice bona fide action taken in reliance on the prior position.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied general equitable principles of estoppel, waiver and finality of judicial orders to the facts, treating unchallenged orders imposing liability as binding.
Interpretation and reasoning: The company had opportunity to object or appeal the orders of 12.12.2017 and 03.10.2018 which identified the plot as company asset and required payment of security expenses; no challenge was made. The director's subsequent contradictory claim was first raised only after liability had crystallised, constituting a belated change of stance barred by estoppel and waiver. Delay undermined the credibility of the new claim and prejudiced the Official Liquidator who had acted on the earlier position.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Failure to challenge express court orders which declare an asset to be that of the company and fix liability for expenses precludes later contradictory claims; estoppel and waiver apply to prevent reneging on prior accepted positions. Obiter - Observations on impact of unexplained delay on credibility and the protection of bona fide third-party reliance.
Conclusions: The company's present attempt to repudiate prior undertakings and unchallenged court positions is barred by estoppel, waiver, and laches; the orders treating the property as the company's asset attained finality and justify affirmance of liability for security expenses.
Overall Disposition (Ratio of the Judgment)
The Court affirmed that where (i) directors/officers have statutory obligations under Section 454 and Rule 130 and make clear undertakings regarding liquidation expenses, (ii) the Official Liquidator acts bona fide on those representations to secure an asset identified as belonging to the company, and (iii) the company fails to timely challenge judicial directions treating the asset as company property, the company is liable to reimburse the Official Liquidator's bona fide expenses; belated, unsupported assertions of non-ownership or coercion do not displace that liability.
Liability to make good the expenses incurred bona fide by the Official Liquidator for the preservation of the assets - property belonged to appellant or not - liability of appellant to bear security expenses for a property that never belonged to it but was owned by a distinct legal entity - HELD THAT:- The efficacy and integrity of the liquidation process are wholly dependent on the truth and completeness of such disclosures, for the Official Liquidator cannot discharge his statutory functions of securing, managing, and realizing assets or protecting creditors’ interests unless he is equipped with correct and reliable information. Any failure, suppression, or misrepresentation strikes at the very foundation of the liquidation machinery, prejudices creditors and stakeholders, and exposes the defaulting officers to civil and penal consequences, while also estopping them from subsequently adopting inconsistent or contrary positions - In the present case, the record unequivocally establishes that at no stage prior to the Orders dated 12.12.2017 and 03.10.2018 did Mr. Anil Sharma, in his statements under Rule 130 of the Company Rules, disavow liability for the security expenses of the subject property.
The attempt by the Appellant to now repudiate its director’s unequivocal undertakings and to challenge the implications of the unchallenged court Orders is nothing more than a belated and technical objection, which is squarely barred by the well-established principles of estoppel and waiver. The Official Liquidator acted entirely in bona fide reliance on the representations and undertakings of the Appellant, securing what was presented as an asset of the company under liquidation, and did so in strict compliance with the statutory mandate and the directions of the Court - The Appellant’s unexplained delay in raising this objection, only after obligations under binding court Orders had been incurred, fatally undermines the credibility of its present claim. Such a belated plea cannot be allowed to thwart the lawful and bona fide actions of the Official Liquidator, who was executing his statutory duties with diligence and in good faith.
Thus, it is clear that the acts undertaken by the Official Liquidator, as affirmed by the Impugned Order, were wholly reasonable and founded on a bona fide belief, which was directly informed by the statements, undertakings, and conduct of the officers of the Appellant Company.
The Appeal is wholly devoid of merit and must fail. The Impugned Order dated 20.04.2022 is accordingly affirmed, and the present appeal is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is barred where the date of default, as specified in the creditor's demand notice/Form-3, falls within the exclusion period prescribed by Section 10A.
2. Whether the adjudicating authority must treat the date of default stated in the demand notice/Form-3 as determinative for the purpose of applying Section 10A, even if the creditor subsequently asserts an extended or later date of default based on alleged verbal extensions.
3. Whether absence of documentary evidence of any extension of the repayment date permits a creditor to change the date of default for the purpose of overcoming the Section 10A bar.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Whether Section 10A bars initiation of CIRP where the date of default falls within the exclusion period
Legal framework: Section 10A suspends initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process for defaults arising on or after 25 March 2020 for a prescribed exclusion period; the proviso clarifies that no application shall ever be filed for defaults occurring during that period.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied governing authority that the date of default stated in the demand notice/Form-3 must be followed and that Section 10A must be given a purposive construction to effectuate its protective object.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the creditor's own Form-3/demand notice which identified the date from which the debt fell due; that date fell within the statutorily excluded period. The Tribunal observed that Section 10A creates an absolute bar for defaults occurring during the specified period and that the protective purpose was to prevent insolvency filings prompted by pandemic-related temporary distress.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the Section 10A bar applies where the date of default, as specified in the demand notice/Form-3, falls within the exclusion period; the adjudicating authority is bound to apply the statutory embargo without further factual inquiry into pandemic-related impact on corporate financial health.
Conclusion: The application under Section 7 was not maintainable because the creditor's stated date of default fell within the Section 10A exclusion period; dismissal on that ground was upheld.
Issue 2: Whether the date of default stated in the demand notice/Form-3 is determinative for applying Section 10A
Legal framework: Procedural rule and settled approach require that the date of default specified in statutory demand documentation is to be treated as the operative date for initiating insolvency proceedings; the creditor's pleadings (Form-3/Form-1 Part-IV) form the basis for computation of the default date.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on higher authority endorsing the proposition that an attempt to retrospectively or prospectively alter the date of default contrary to the demand notice is untenable; accordingly, the demand notice date governs subsequent steps.
Interpretation and reasoning: The creditor's own Form-3 and Part-IV disclosed a date from which the debt fell due; absent documentary support for any later date, the Tribunal held that the pleadings must be followed. The Court declined to permit re-characterisation of the default date based on unproven verbal extensions or subsequent assertions by the creditor.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the adjudicating authority shall proceed on the basis of the date of default specified in the demand notice/Form-3; a creditor cannot displace that date in order to evade statutory bars like Section 10A without supporting evidence.
Conclusion: The demand notice/Form-3 date was determinative; because that date fell within the exclusion period, the Section 7 application could not be entertained.
Issue 3: Effect of alleged verbal extensions and absence of documentary evidence on the determination of the date of default
Legal framework: Establishment of default under the Code requires clear pleading of the date on which the debt became "due and payable"; evidentiary support for any modification of agreed payment terms is necessary to alter that date.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal considered authorities acknowledging that a mistake in a demand notice may not always be fatal, but held that where the creditor's own pleading establishes a default date within the exclusion period, and no corroborating documents exist for an asserted extension, the creditor's later assertion cannot be accepted to override the stated date.
Interpretation and reasoning: The creditor claimed oral/implicit extensions but produced no written agreement, correspondence or conduct conclusively evidencing a revised repayment schedule. The respondent denied any request for extension. Given the conflict and absence of documentary proof, the Tribunal refused to treat the asserted later date as effective for purposes of Section 10A; the Court emphasized reliance on the formal notice and pleadings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - in the absence of documentary evidence, alleged verbal extensions cannot be relied upon to change the date of default for statutory computations; the adjudicating authority need not embark on a detailed factual probe into disputed commercial arrangements where the pleadings themselves fix the date.
Conclusion: Allegations of time-to-time extensions unsupported by contemporaneous documents are insufficient to displace the default date stated in the demand notice/Form-3; the absence of proof meant the claimed later default date could not be adopted.
Ancillary reasoning on scope of enquiry under Section 10A
Legal framework and reasoning: Section 10A's embargo is absolute for defaults occurring during the notified period; it does not mandate the adjudicating authority to conduct an enquiry into whether the corporate debtor's financial health was affected by the pandemic. The provision must be construed purposively to protect companies from insolvency filings arising from temporary pandemic distress.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the authority is not required to investigate pandemic impact; the statutory bar operates mechanically once the date of default falls within the exclusion period.
Conclusion: No further inquiry into pandemic causation or financial impact was required once the default date fell within the excluded period; the Section 7 petition was correctly dismissed on that basis.
Dismissal of application filed u/s 7 of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) requesting for initiating CIRP - rejection of application on the grounds that cheque for the financial debt was in the name of the Corporate Debtor - HELD THAT:- In this case there is serious dispute regarding the nature of receipt of Rs. 3.3 crores by the Corporate Debtor. The Appellant herein claims its a loan given by him to the Corporate Debtor, whereas the version of the Corporate Debtor is that the said amount is repayment of interest due on loans given earlier by the Corporate Debtor to the companies controlled by the Appellant herein. The said receipt has been recognised as income by the Corporate Debtor in its books of accounts. However, since the Ld. NCLT has dismissed the application under Section 7 of the IBC on the ground that the date of default claimed by the Appellant is in the exclusion period prescribed under Section 10A of the IBC, 2016 the examination is restricted at this stage only to the issue as to whether the date of default falls under the prohibited period prescribed under Section 10A of the IBC and whether on that ground the application under Section 7 of the IBC was rightly dismissed by the Ld. NCLT.
The appellant had specified the date of default as 22.10.2020, and this appeal has to proceed on that basis, as held by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ramesh Kymal v. Siemens Gamesa Renewable Power Private Limited [2021 (2) TMI 394 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon’ble Supreme Court has observed that the date of default given in the notice of demand should be followed.
It was further held in the case of Ramesh Kymal v. Siemens Gamesa Renewable Power Private Limited [2021 (2) TMI 394 - SUPREME COURT] that “Section 10A does not contain any requirement that the Adjudicating Authority must launch into an enquiry into whether, and if so to what extent, the financial health of the corporate Debtor was affected by the onset of the Covid-19 pandemic”. The Hon’ble Supreme Court held in the said case that “the embargo contained in Section 10A must receive a purposive construction which will advance the object which was sought to be achieved by enacting the provision.”
Since the date of default has been identified as 22.10.2020 by the appellant in the demand notice dated 30.09.2021, the date of default falls within the exclusion period specified in Section 10A of the IBC, 2016. As per provision of Section 10A of the IBC, 2016 CIRP cannot be initiated where the date of default falls in the exclusion period.
There are no reasons to interfere with the order of the Ld. NCLT - appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) whether the retracted confessional statements of the appellant could be relied upon despite allegations of duress and denial of cross-examination; (ii) whether Indian currency recovered from the appellant's premises could lawfully be confiscated under the foreign exchange law; and (iii) whether the appellant's conduct amounted to an "attempt" to contravene the foreign exchange law.
Issue (i): whether the retracted confessional statements of the appellant could be relied upon despite allegations of duress and denial of cross-examination.
Analysis: A retracted statement is not automatically rejected merely because it has been withdrawn. The relevant test is whether the statement was voluntary and whether it finds corroboration in surrounding facts and materials. The material on record included recoveries of foreign exchange, gold and documents from the appellant's premises, along with statements of other persons and the explanation offered by the adjudicating authority for declining further cross-examination after repeated adjournments. The challenge to voluntariness depended on appreciation of evidence and the appellant failed to show perversity in the concurrent findings.
Conclusion: The retracted statements were not vitiated for want of voluntariness or corroboration, and reliance on them was upheld against the appellant.
Issue (ii): whether Indian currency recovered from the appellant's premises could lawfully be confiscated under the foreign exchange law.
Analysis: The confiscation power under the governing provision extends to any currency or money in respect of which contravention has taken place. The provision is wide in language and is capable of including Indian currency where it is connected with the contravention. On the facts, the authorities found that the appellant could not explain the source of the cash and that the seizure formed part of the illegal foreign exchange transaction. That finding was factual, not a pure question of statutory interpretation, and no perversity was shown.
Conclusion: Confiscation of the Indian currency was legally permissible and the appellant's challenge failed.
Issue (iii): whether the appellant's conduct amounted to an "attempt" to contravene the foreign exchange law.
Analysis: An attempt begins after preparation is complete and the person embarks on conduct that is a direct movement towards commission of the prohibited act. The Court applied this distinction to the surrounding circumstances, including the recoveries, the appellant's statements, the documents seized and the absence of a lawful explanation for the cash. The question was treated as at least a mixed question of law and fact, and the factual inference drawn by the authorities was not shown to be irrational or perverse.
Conclusion: The appellant's conduct constituted an attempt within the meaning of the provision, and the finding against the appellant was sustained.
Final Conclusion: The concurrent findings of the adjudicating authority and the tribunal were upheld, and no question of law warranting interference was made out.
Ratio Decidendi: In an appeal confined to questions of law, concurrent findings based on corroborated retracted statements, statutory confiscation powers, and factual inference on attempt will not be interfered with unless they are shown to be perverse or unsupported by evidence.
Right to appeal to high court - reference to this Court - Illegal foreign exchange business was being conducted by the Appellant - confiscation of Indian currency - Appellant’s primary contention before the Tribunal was that no reason had been given by the Adjudicating Officer for confiscation of the Indian currency, and there was nothing on record to indicate that the Appellant was making an attempt to illegally purchase foreign exchange and gold from the seized Indian currency - HELD THAT:- A perusal of Section 54 of FEMA makes it evident that the Act provided for a right of appeal to the High Court, albeit circumscribed to questions of law. The finding of facts is exclusively within the domain of Adjudicatory Authority and Appellate Tribunal, and this Court cannot go behind or interfere with the findings on fact arrived at by them. The FERA Appellate Tribunal is the final Court of facts. This circumscribed right to appeal has been retained under FEMA, the successor legislation to FERA. Section 35 of FEMA, under which the present appeal has been filed, restricts the jurisdiction of a High Court to only questions of law.
A perusal of the above Sections and the Judgement of the Apex Court in Raj Kumar Shivhare [2010 (4) TMI 432 - SUPREME COURT] makes it apparent that a reference to this Court is maintainable only on a question of law under sub-section (3) and (4) of Section 54 of FERA and Section 35 of FEMA.
The term “question of law” has not been defined under the Act, however the meaning of the term can be gathered and understood from a review of case law on the subject found under analogous statutes. The Apex Court has repeatedly re-affirmed that there is no hard and fast rule that can be used as a uniform metric to draw a line between a question of law and a question of fact. However, over time, there are some general principles have been evolved by the Apex Court, which have been used by the Courts below as a yardstick to assess whether a particular issues is a question of law or question of fact.
In the opinion of this Court once basic facts have been established and recorded, the Adjudicating Authority is entitled to draw an inference based on those facts. The Appellant has been unable to demonstrate that the inference drawn by the Adjudicating Authority or the Appellate Tribunal is perverse or unsubstantiated, in absence thereof, it cannot be said that the conclusion arrived at by the Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate Tribunal warrants any interference.
Even if a statement is retracted it can be relied upon as long as it is voluntary and corroborated. Additionally, if a statement has been redacted by the maker on the grounds that the statement was obtained by illegal means it is only for the maker of the statement who alleges inducement, threat, promise etc. to establish that such improper means were adopted.
If we were to apply the dictum of the aforementioned pronouncements of the Apex Court to the facts of this case, it is apparent that there is sufficient corroboration. There has been seizure of unaccounted Indian currency, gold and foreign exchange from the office premises of the Appellant. Even if the statement of the Appellant is not considered, the statement of the two Nepalese Nationals and documentary evidence recovered from the premises of the Appellant clearly establishes the case of the prosecution. Therefore, in the present case the confession of the Appellant is not being uses in isolation, but as a link in the chain of evidence.
A perusal of the order passed by the Adjudicating Authority demonstrates that several adjournments had been sought by the Appellant. A perusal of the impugned order also demonstrates that irrespective of seeking repeated adjournments, no witnesses were examined for nearly two and half years. Similarly, with respect to the contention advanced by Appellant that Appellant’s statement had been obtained under coercion and duress is concerned, the Adjudicating Authority has made categorical observations that the medical examination report of the Appellant has not been furnished.
Whether Respondent Agency lacked the legal authority to confiscate Indian currency? - A perusal of Section 63 of FERA makes it manifestly clear that the Court or Adjudicating Authority is empowered to confiscate “any currency, security or other money or property in respect of which the contravention has taken place.” Contravention of Section 56 of FEMA operates as the trigger that activates and justifies the exercise of power under Section 63 and the only qualifying, in-built threshold for exercise of the power of confiscation by the Court or the Adjudicating Officer is the application of mind, which is indicative from the use of the words "if it or he thinks fit". The language of this Section is wide enough to include Indian currency and unambiguous, clear, and precise in its object. Nowhere does the Section disqualify or prohibit either the Court or Adjudicating Authority from confiscating Indian Currency. In fact, a perusal of clause (b) of the Explanation to Section 63 makes it abundantly clear that property with respect to which contravention has taken place includes Indian currency, where the said property is converted into that currency.
Appellant has been unable to provide any proper explanation as to how the Indian currency and contraband which has been seized from his premises were unconnected and the Indian currency had been obtained lawfully. It cannot be said in any manner whatsoever that the Adjudicating Authority incorrectly exercised its jurisdiction in ordering confiscation of Indian currency. Thus, as far as the second contention of the Appellant is concerned this Court cannot evade the legislative intent or give an absurd construction of the enactment to the Section, especially where no interpretation is required. Accordingly, the contention of the learned Counsel for the Appellant that the Respondent Agency did not have any legal basis to confiscate Indian currency, cannot be accepted.
Allegations against the Appellant do not constitute "attempt" under Section 64(2) - The moment the Appellant commences to do an act with the necessary intention, he commences his attempt to commit the offence. The Appellant’s conduct, as well as the surrounding facts and circumstances of this case establish that the Appellant had taken steps for the commission of the offence and had crossed the threshold for “attempt”. Therefore, his claim that seizure does not amount to attempt is a facile argument that is in negation of the factual matrix of this case. The recovery, coupled with absence of any lawful explanation and the conduct of the Appellant is a clear attempt for an act that would have amounted to contravention of the provisions of FEMA.
It would also be apposite to address another aspect of this contention. It is trite law that once certain foundational facts are established by the prosecution the burden of disproving the same shifts to the accused. The expression “burden of proof” in context of criminal cases is the burden of establishing the bundle of facts constituting the guilt of an accused.
In the present case it is not disputed that after receipt of specific information by the Respondent Agency, the premises of the Appellant were raided and Rs. 12,31,000/-, along with USD 6,371/-, 4 gold biscuits, two pieces of gold and certain documents were recovered from the Appellant. Similarly, it is not disputed that similar recoveries were made from the two Nepalese Nationals and Pramod Kumar, who had entered the Appellant’s business premises.
The seizure of illegal foreign exchange is not disputed by the Appellant in any manner whatsoever. In this context Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act comes into play. Once the Respondent Agency has established the factum of recovery of illegal foreign exchange from the Appellant’s premises the onus shifts to the Appellant to demonstrate that the Indian currency recovered from his premises was not intended for illegal purchase of purchase of foreign exchange. After perusing the material on record, orders of the Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate Tribunal as well as having considered the arguments advanced by the parties, this Court is of the view that the Appellant has not been able to offer any satisfactory explanation to explain the source of Indian currency.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in law by exercising its discretion to impose the impugned penalties at the levels imposed rather than enhancing them up to the statutory maximum under Section 13(1) of FEMA.
2. Whether the Adjudicating Authority acted arbitrarily in "clubbing" two alleged contraventions arising from the same transaction (delay in reporting FDI and issuance of shares without fair valuation) for the purpose of imposing a single penalty on the company and a separate penalty on its director.
3. Whether the contraventions complained of were "technical" or "sensitive/material" - specifically (a) delay in reporting FDI (one and a half year delay) and (b) issuance of 10,000 shares at par instead of at fair value - and whether that classification required a harsher penalty.
4. Whether the Appeal was maintainable and whether the Adjudicating Authority followed the required procedure and provided adequate reasons in the Impugned Order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Discretion under Section 13(1) FEMA: quantum of penalty and scope of appellate interference
Legal framework: Section 13(1) of FEMA authorises imposition, upon adjudication, of penalty up to thrice the sum involved where the amount is quantifiable (or up to Rs. 2 lakh where not quantifiable), and further daily penalties for continuing contraventions.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on authoritative precedent holding that a statutory ceiling for penalty is not a mandatory quantum to be imposed; the maximum is a limit and does not oust adjudicatory discretion to fix a lower amount.
Interpretation and reasoning: The statutory language confers discretion to the Adjudicating Authority to assess and impose an appropriate penalty up to the maximum. The Tribunal examined the Impugned Order and found it to be reasoned and speaking, showing evaluation of facts and evidence. No statute prescribes a minimum or fixed penalty; therefore, mere assertion that the Adjudicating Authority did not impose the maximum does not, by itself, establish error.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a statute prescribes a maximum penalty but not a minimum, the adjudicatory authority retains judicial discretion to impose a proportionate penalty based on facts; appellate interference requires demonstration of arbitrary or indiscriminate exercise.
Conclusions: The Adjudicating Authority did not err in law in fixing the penalties at the amounts imposed; absent clear demonstration of irrationality, the Tribunal will not enhance the penalty merely because the State sought a higher figure within the statutory ceiling.
Issue 2 - Clubbing of contraventions arising from same transaction and alleged arbitrariness
Legal framework: Adjudicatory discretion in determining penalties for contraventions occurring in or arising out of the same transaction; principles of proportionality and reasoned decision-making govern assessment of whether contraventions may be treated together.
Precedent Treatment: The Adjudicating Authority and the Tribunal applied standard administrative-law principles requiring reasoned appreciation of facts; no precedent was overruled or distinguished beyond reliance on general principles of discretion and proportionality.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that both contraventions - delayed reporting of FDI and issuance of shares at incorrect valuation - arose in the course of the same transaction and that the Adjudicating Authority addressed material distinctions (quantum, timing, and materiality) in the Impugned Order. The Tribunal noted that the large majority of shares were issued at fair value and that only a small tranche (10,000 shares) had valuation variance resulting in a quantifiable shortfall of Rs. 1,50,000. Given the relative magnitudes (Rs. 1.5 lakh versus over Rs. 5.12 crore involved in late-reported remittances), the Adjudicating Authority's treatment was not shown to be arbitrary.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Clustering of related contraventions for assessment of penalty is permissible where the authority records reasons and evaluates material distinctions; arbitrariness cannot be inferred merely because separate heads of contravention exist.
Conclusions: Clubbing of the contraventions and fixation of the impugned penalties was not arbitrary; the adjudicatory exercise displayed objectivity and reasoned appreciation of relative culpability and quantums involved.
Issue 3 - Classification of contraventions as technical versus sensitive/material; assessment of materiality of delay and valuation breach
Legal framework: Distinctions between technical and material/sensitive contraventions inform proportional penalty assessment; factors include delay length, magnitude of sum involved, and substantive prejudice to regulatory objectives (e.g., honesty of reporting, fair valuation in FDI).
Precedent Treatment: The Adjudicating Authority addressed the technical-versus-sensitive distinction in its reasoned order; the Tribunal accepted that framework and evaluated the facts against it. The Tribunal cited the established principle that discretion must be exercised judiciously in light of the nature and consequences of contraventions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the Adjudicating Authority's factual findings: (a) foreign remittances were received in three tranches (Apr-Jun 2008) and reported in Form FC-GPR only on 30.09.2009 with CA certificate in Jan 2010 - a delay of about one and a half years; (b) 4,47,700 shares were issued at fair valuation on 30.06.2008 whereas 10,000 shares issued on 08.05.2008 were issued at Rs. 10 instead of the fair value of Rs. 25, producing an incorrect issuance amounting to Rs. 1,50,000. The Tribunal treated the delay as not sufficiently prejudicial to warrant an enhanced penalty beyond the reasoned quantum fixed, and treated the valuation breach as minor in proportion to the total funds involved.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Materiality assessment is fact-specific; a short-term or limited-amount valuation error forming a small percentage of the total contravention may be treated as less severe, and does not automatically convert the overall transaction into a highly sensitive breach mandating maximum penalty.
Conclusions: The contraventions were properly classified for penalty purposes; the delay and the small valuation shortfall did not, on the facts, justify enhancement of penalty to the statutory maximum.
Issue 4 - Maintainability and procedural adequacy of the Impugned Order
Legal framework: Adjudicatory process under FEMA requires issuance of show-cause notice, consideration of replies, and reasoned adjudication; appeals require maintainability under statutory scheme and cannot be dismissed absent proper consideration.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal noted the Respondents' maintainability objection but proceeded to consider merits; it required adequate reasons and procedure to be followed by the Adjudicating Authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the record and found the Impugned Order to be issuing after due procedure, addressing the show-cause material, and providing elaborate reasons for findings of contravention and for the quantum of penalty. Payment of penalties was recorded by way of DDs. No specific statutory bar to maintainability was identified by the Appellant that invalidated appellate review.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An appeal may be entertained where procedural requirements have been observed and where the Impugned Order contains reasoned findings; mere assertion of non-maintainability without statutory basis is insufficient.
Conclusions: The Appeal was maintainable for adjudication on merits; procedural requirements were satisfied and the Impugned Order contained adequate reasoning, thus barring interference on maintainability grounds.
Cross-references and final synthesis
All issues converge on the central administrative-law principle that where a statute prescribes a maximum penalty but not a mandatory quantum, the adjudicating authority must exercise discretion judiciously, with reasons and proportionality. The Tribunal found that the Adjudicating Authority did so: it evaluated material distinctions between the contraventions, quantified the relative shortfall, and imposed proportionate penalties. Absent demonstration of arbitrariness or illegality in reasoning, appellate enhancement of penalty is unwarranted.
Enhancement of penalty - penalty imposed by the Adjudicating Authority is low and is not proportionate to the quantified amounts of contravention - scope of provisions of Section 13(1) of FEMA which provides for imposition of penalty up to thrice the sum involved in the contraventions.
HELD THAT:- The question as to when a penalty is to be regarded as either low or high is at best answered subjectively. In the facts and circumstances of the present case, it is seen that the Adjudicating Authority has not only taken notice of the facts of the case, but also has evaluated the evidence on record. In any case, there is no such requirement under the statute as to impose maximum penalty. The reading of the Adjudication Order, therefore, reflects objectivity and judiciousness on the part of the Adjudicating Authority.
As decided in State of MP and Ors. Vs. Bharat Heavy Electricals [1997 (8) TMI 252 - SUPREME COURT] in its order held that in a statute prescribing the provision for penalty equal to ten times the amount of entry tax, the statute prescribed only a maximum limit and did not prescribe an irreducible amount depriving the assessing authority of any discretion in this regard. The stand of the State in the case supra conceded that the assessing authorities are not bound to levy fixed penalty equal to ten times the amount of entry tax. In fact, in the present case the statute (FEMA) itself provides for a penalty up to thrice the sum involved in such contravention and thereby gives explicit scope to the Adjudicating Authority to exercise its discretion, albeit judiciously, for imposition of penalty.
In view of the Appeal having failed to bring out the reasons that why the penalty imposed is low and as to how the Adjudicating Authority has not exercised its discretion judiciously, we observe that the order of the Adjudicating Authority cannot be interfered with. In view of the aforementioned discussions and observations, the Appeal fails and is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Indian banks acting as advising/issuing banks in export/import transactions are "recipients of service" of foreign banks for purposes of service tax when foreign banks deduct charges from remittances or levy charges for issuance/amendment of letters of credit and related banking operations.
2. Whether Indian banks are liable to discharge service tax under the reverse charge mechanism (RCM) in respect of foreign bank charges deducted/charged by foreign or intermediary banks in export/import transactions.
3. Whether demands (including interest and penalties) raised on Indian banks for the tax periods in issue are legally sustainable in light of applicable valuation and limitation principles governing service tax liability.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Whether Indian banks are "recipients of service" of foreign banks in export/import transactions
Legal framework: The liability to pay service tax under RCM depends on whether a taxable service is provided and whether the person in India is the recipient; valuation principles require a "consideration" flowing from recipient to provider for the taxable service. Relevant statutory concepts include definition of "banking and other financial services" and Section 67's concept of "value" and "consideration".
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on earlier coordinate bench decisions that examined identical factual matrices and concluded that Indian banks are not the recipients of foreign-bank services in such transactions. The Tribunal also considered a High Court decision that reached the opposite result in a different factual context and analyzed its reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analysed the operational mechanics of letters of credit, URC/UCP protocols and the role of issuing/advising/intermediary banks. It found that the Indian bank acts as agent/facilitator for the exporter/importer and does not receive services from the foreign/intermediary bank in a manner that makes it a "recipient" for tax purposes. Critical to this conclusion was the absence of any contractual agreement or direct knowledge between the Indian bank and the foreign bank concerning the provision of those specific services, and the absence of a flow of consideration from the Indian bank to the foreign bank. The Tribunal emphasized the distinction between payment obligations borne by the exporter/importer and any incidental facilitation by the Indian bank.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the Indian bank merely facilitates export/import transactions and does not contract with or pay consideration to the foreign/intermediary bank, it is not the recipient of the foreign bank's taxable services. The discussion distinguishing departmental trade notices and interim orders relied on by the Revenue is integral to the holding and therefore part of the ratio. Observations on international banking protocols and factual permutations in other cases are explanatory but supportive.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded Indian banks in the described export/import transactions are not recipients of foreign-bank services for service tax purposes and therefore cannot be made liable on that basis.
Issue 2 - Liability to pay service tax under reverse charge mechanism for foreign bank charges
Legal framework: RCM triggers tax liability on the recipient where a taxable service is provided and consideration is payable by the recipient; valuation under Section 67 requires that the gross amount charged be "for such service provided" and that consideration must flow to the service provider.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed coordinate bench authority which held against departmental attempts to impose RCM on Indian banks under similar circumstances. The Tribunal distinguished administrative trade circulars and certain interim tribunal orders relied upon by the Revenue as prima facie or not binding.
Interpretation and reasoning: Applying the "consideration" concept, the Tribunal reasoned that the foreign/intermediary bank charges are borne by the exporter/importer and deducted at source; there is no quid pro quo flowing from the Indian bank to the foreign bank. The Tribunal invoked authority reinforcing that only amounts paid "for such service provided" are includible in taxable value and that mere contractual conditions or steps in a transaction do not convert borne expenses into consideration for taxable services at the hands of a different party. The Tribunal also addressed and rejected reliance on a departmental Trade Notice, explaining that such circulars cannot override statutory scheme and authoritative judicial pronouncements; the Madras High Court decision in a distinct factual setting was considered but did not displace the coordinate bench precedent relied upon here.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absent payment/consideration by the Indian bank to the foreign/intermediary bank and absent a contractual service relationship, RCM cannot be invoked to fasten tax liability on the Indian bank for foreign bank charges. Observations on trade notices and international banking rules serve as supporting ratio where they clarify why administrative positions are insufficient.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held there is no legal basis to fasten RCM liability on Indian banks for foreign bank charges deducted/levied in the described export/import transactions.
Issue 3 - Sustainability of demands, interest and penalties imposed on Indian banks for the periods in dispute
Legal framework: Adjudication of tax demands requires a valid foundation of liability; interest and penalties flow from confirmed tax demand. Limitation rules apply for period of demand. Valuation principles and the requirement of consideration determine underlying taxability.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the conclusions from coordinate bench decisions and relevant High Court authority dealing with valuation and recipient status to evaluate the legal sustainability of departmental demands and penalties.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the finding that Indian banks were not recipients of the foreign banks' services and that no consideration flowed from them to foreign banks, the Tribunal found the foundational tax liability to be absent. Consequently, interest and penalties predicated on that liability could not stand. The Tribunal also considered submissions on limitation but disposed the appeals on substantive grounds of non-liability, rendering limitation analysis unnecessary to alter outcome for the challenged periods.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - demands, interest and penalties premised on RCM liability in the factual circumstances are not sustainable. Observations on limitation and alternative evidence were incidental.
Conclusion: The adjudged demands, interest and penalties against the Indian banks for the periods in issue were set aside as legally unsustainable.
Cross-reference and final operative conclusion
All three appeals were heard together; the Tribunal, following coordinate bench authority and applying statutory valuation and consideration principles, concluded that (i) Indian banks acting as advising/issuing banks do not become recipients of foreign/intermediary bank services in the described export/import arrangements, (ii) RCM cannot be invoked to tax foreign bank charges at the hands of those Indian banks, and (iii) consequent demands, interest and penalties are liable to be set aside.
Recipients of service - appellants banks in India - export/import transaction involving transfer/ exchange of documents and transfer of money on behalf of their client exporters/importers - liability of appellant to pay service tax on ‘bank charges’ deducted/charged byforeign banks or foreign banks through correspondent/intermediary banks, under Reverse Charge Mechanism.
HELD THAT:- Both during pre-negative list period and post 0.07.2012 have been examined in detail by the Co-ordinate Bench of this Tribunal in the case of State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur [2020 (8) TMI 80 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], wherein it was held that the banks in India are not the recipient of any service rendered by foreign banks in the export/import transaction for settling the foreign remittances, and there is no liability of payment of service tax thereon on Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) basis.
The facts of the present case and various documents placed on record indicate that it involves contract of purchase of crude oil between M/s Reliance Industries Ltd. and Egyptian Gen Petroleum Corporation of providing for establishing a is an irrevocable letter of credit for every shipment covering its value. Such contracts specifically provide for all banking charges and commissions are for the account of the Indian importer/buyer - In the case of BGR Energy Systems Limited Vs. Addl. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, Chennai [2019 (11) TMI 1130 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] involving a dispute where the issue of payment of service tax, whether to be paid by the exporter or the exporter’s bank in India was decided by the Hon’ble High Court of Madras in holding that the exporter alone is liable to pay the service tax and there is no involvement of service and consequential payment of service tax by the exporter’s bank.
The confirmation of service tax liability on appellants banks in India, in an export/import transaction involving transfer/exchange of documents and transfer of money on behalf of their client exporters/importers, on RCM basis, does not stand the legal scrutiny. Therefore, the adjudged demands along with interest and imposition of penalty on the appellants, in impugned orders dated 30.11.2016, 31.03.2017 and 06.02.2019 are not legally sustainable and thus these are liable to be set aside.
The impugned orders are set aside - apeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the profit earned by the appellant from purchase, development and sale of land could be taxed as "Real Estate Agent Service" under the Finance Act, 1994. (ii) Whether penalty was leviable in respect of the demand under "Construction of Residential Complex Service" that had already been paid before issuance of the show cause notice.
Issue (i): Whether the profit earned by the appellant from purchase, development and sale of land could be taxed as "Real Estate Agent Service" under the Finance Act, 1994.
Analysis: The transaction was found to be one of purchase and sale of land on a principal-to-principal basis. The sale agreement and the power of attorney were treated as part of the same arrangement, under which the appellant paid the landowners a fixed consideration and retained the sale surplus as its own profit. No agency commission was agreed or paid by the landowners, and the buyers paid the appellant for the land sold. In the absence of consideration for any agency service, the activity did not answer the description of a taxable real estate agent service. The principle that profit arising from trading in land is not itself consideration for agency service was applied.
Conclusion: The demand of service tax, interest and penalties under "Real Estate Agent Service" was not sustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether penalty was leviable in respect of the demand under "Construction of Residential Complex Service" that had already been paid before issuance of the show cause notice.
Analysis: The demand under this category had been paid along with interest before the notice, and the assessee did not contest the tax liability on this count. On that basis, the levy of penalty for this demand was held unwarranted.
Conclusion: The penalty relating to the "Construction of Residential Complex Service" demand was set aside, while the tax and interest on that count were upheld.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded on the principal dispute relating to real estate agent service tax, but the separate service tax demand under construction of residential complex remained upheld with only the penalty being deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an assessee purchases land, develops it on its own account and sells it on a principal-to-principal basis without any agreed agency commission, the surplus retained as profit is not consideration for a taxable agency service.
Levy of service tax on profit earned on purchase and sale of land - Real Estate Agent Service - profit earned in purchase and sale of land is wholly retained by the Appellant, and no part of the profit earned by the appellant is shared with the land owner - Service tax under the category of “Construction of Residential Complex Service”.
Levy of service tax on profit earned on purchase and sale of land - Real Estate Agent Service - profit earned in purchase and sale of land is wholly retained by the Appellant, and no part of the profit earned by the appellant is shared with the land owner - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the Sale Agreement is for purchase and sale of land. A Power of Attorney has been executed, which is part of the Sale Agreement. As per the Sale Agreement, the land owners are to execute the Power of Attorney in favour of the Appellant to complete the transaction of sale of the land.
The Sale Agreement and the Power of Attorney cannot be read in isolation/separately. In the transaction of sale, it is found that the appellant pays to the Landowner and the Land Owner does not pay anything to the Appellant. It is also a fact that there is no agreement between the Land Owner and the appellant to pay any ‘agency commission’ for undertaking the transaction. The appellant purchases the land, develops it into plots/lands and undertakes advertisements for effecting the sale, which are wholly financed by them. Thus, it is clear that the appellant takes the risk of their investment in the land, in which they may either incur loss or earn profit.
There is no consideration for provision of “Real Estate Agent Services” as alleged in the impugned order. In this transaction, it is found that the buyers makes payment for the sale of land to the appellant. The land owners are not concerned with the sale consideration received by the appellant on sale of land to buyers. Under the “Sale Agreement” the purchase consideration payable to land owners is fixed. The land owners are not entitled to any part of the sale consideration received by the appellant from the buyer for onward sale of land to buyers.
From the conditions of the Sale Agreement and Power of Attorney, it is evident that the appellant acquires development rights and undertakes developing, plotting, advertisement and selling of the property on the strength of Power of Attorney executed by the land owner in their favour - there is no consideration for provision of “Real Estate Agent Services’ exits in this case. Accordingly, the demand of Service Tax under the category of “Real Estate Agent Services’, as confirmed in the impugned order, is not sustainable.
The above view also stands supported by the decision in the case of Ess Gee Real Estate Developers P. Ltd., Vs. Commissioner of C.Ex., Jaipur [2019 (6) TMI 633 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], which has been upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Commissioner versus Ess Gee Real Estate Developers P. Ltd. [2019 (12) TMI 1363 - SC ORDER], wherein it is has been held that when the selling of lands/plots after development is not rendered as an agent, but the appellant is selling plots/lands to prospective buyers on principal to principal basis after acquiring development rights from owners and after extensive development etc., using his own finance to make the land/plot fit to be sold. Such activities are clearly beyond the scope of activities under by an agent. Merely keeping ownership rights by Land Owners till end for purpose of easy transfer of title to ultimate buyer would not make Appellant a Real Estate Agent or even Real Estate Consultant.
Reference made to the decision in the case of Elegant Developers Versus Commissioner of Service Tax, Delhi [2019 (6) TMI 1146 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], wherein the assessee procured land from Land Owner and entered into an Agreement for transfer of land to Sahara India; no specific remuneration was fixed for providing any Agency Services. Both the parties worked on principal-to-principal basis. No specific remuneration had been agreed between the Land Owner and the assessee for provision of any Agency Services. In absence of consideration or remuneration for any agency service, the transaction was held to be on a principal-to-principal basis. It is trading in land and accordingly, it has been held that no service tax is payable on the profit earned in the purchase and sale of land.
In the case of Commissioner of C.Ex., Nashik Versus Viraj Estates Pvt. Ltd. [2017 (5) TMI 1143 - CESTAT MUMBAI], it has been held in respect of purchase of land, transferable development rights and sale for premium/profit, that such activities would not fall under the category of “Real Estate Agent Services” or “Real Estate Consultant Services”.
Thus, the demand of Service Tax confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable and hence, the same is set aside. As the demand of service tax is not sustainable, the question of demanding interest or imposing penalties does not arise. Hence, the demand of interest and imposition of penalties confirmed in the impugned order also set aside.
Service tax under the category of “Construction of Residential Complex Service” - HELD THAT:- The appellant have already paid the service tax under the said category, along with interest, before issuance of Show Cause Notice - The appellant’s submission is noted that they are not contesting the demand of service tax on this count and have already paid the demand, along with interest. As the demand has already been paid before issue of the Show Cause Notice, no penalty is imposable on the appellant in respect of this demand confirmed. Accordingly, the imposition of penalty in respect of this demand set aside.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether service tax demand on renting of immovable property and the corresponding interest were sustainable, including adjustment of excess payment; (ii) Whether reimbursements towards management, maintenance and repair charges and electricity charges were includible in the taxable value; (iii) Whether maintenance deposits were liable to service tax; (iv) Whether administrative income and advances received, including pre-July 2010 advances and related receipts such as cancellation amounts and sale of investment property, were taxable; and (v) Whether the demand of interest on builder's special service was sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether service tax demand on renting of immovable property and the corresponding interest were sustainable, including adjustment of excess payment.
Analysis: The excess service tax and excess interest paid under the renting head were acknowledged in the adjudication order. The demand of service tax under this head was upheld, while the excess payment was directed to be adjusted against liabilities arising under the order. The interest demand was also upheld, with adjustment permitted only to the extent of excess interest already paid.
Conclusion: The demand under renting of immovable property service and the corresponding interest were sustained, subject to adjustment of excess payments in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether reimbursements towards management, maintenance and repair charges and electricity charges were includible in the taxable value.
Analysis: The amounts recovered towards repairs, maintenance and electricity were found to be actual reimbursements and not consideration for an independent taxable service. The valuation principle applied was that only the consideration for the taxable service can be brought to charge, and reimbursable expenses on actual basis are outside the taxable value. Electricity recoveries were also treated as amounts collected and remitted as a pure agent.
Conclusion: The demands on management, maintenance and repair charges and electricity charges were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether maintenance deposits were liable to service tax.
Analysis: The maintenance deposits were treated as advances towards sinking fund or development fund, to be transferred to the society or refunded, and not as amounts received for any taxable service. There was no material showing that the appellant had used the deposits as consideration for service.
Conclusion: The demand on maintenance deposits was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether administrative income and advances received, including pre-July 2010 advances and related receipts such as cancellation amounts and sale of investment property, were taxable.
Analysis: No actual receipt of the administrative income was established, and the mere journal entry was found insufficient to fasten tax liability. Advances received before July 2010 were held not taxable under the then applicable exemption regime. For the remaining advances for financial year 2011-12, the matter was remanded to determine the net taxable amount on the basis of the difference between closing and opening balances. Amounts linked to construction service provided prior to July 2010, cancellation of cheque or flat, and sale of investment property were held not to bear tax liability as they did not represent taxable consideration for a service.
Conclusion: The demands on administrative income, pre-July 2010 advances, construction receipts prior to July 2010, cancellation amounts and sale of investment property were set aside in favour of the assessee, while the advance-related demand for financial year 2011-12 was remanded for re-computation.
Issue (v): Whether the demand of interest on builder's special service was sustainable.
Analysis: The substantive tax demand under builder's special service was not challenged, and the plea for waiver of interest was rejected. However, the interest liability was directed to be adjusted against excess interest payment already identified in the order.
Conclusion: The interest on builder's special service was sustained, subject to adjustment of excess interest payment.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded in substantial part, with multiple demands annulled, one demand upheld with adjustment rights, and one advance-related issue sent back for recomputation of the taxable value.
Ratio Decidendi: Only consideration actually received for a taxable service forms part of the taxable value; reimbursable expenses, deposits held for transfer or refund, and amounts unsupported by actual receipt do not attract service tax.
Denial of CENVAT Credit - Renting of immovable property service - interest on delayed payment confirmed in respect of ‘renting of immovable property service - Management, maintenance and repair service - Maintenance Deposits on the advances received from service recipients during the period 2008-09 to 2009-10 & 2011-12 - Demand confirmed on account of non-payment of Service Tax on recovery of Charges for distribution of Electricity - Non-payment of Service Tax on Construction of Residential Complex Service (Administrative Cost) - Service tax liability on the advances received - Construction service provided prior to July 2010 - Amounts towards cancellation of cheque and flat cancellation.
Renting of immovable property service - period FY 2007-08 to June, 2011 - HELD THAT:- The appellant has made an excess payment of service tax amounting to Rs.89,303/- during this period, under the said category. It is found that the excess payment made by the appellant has been acknowledged by the ld. Adjudicating authority in paragraph 4.4.1. of the impugned order. The appellant has requested for allowing adjustment of the above excess payment made in respect of their liability under the above category against other confirmed demands, if any - the appellant has rightly paid Service Tax under the category of ‘renting of immovable property service’ and the excess payment made by the appellant under this head can be adjusted against the Service Tax liability payable, if any, confirmed by way of this order.
Interest on delayed payment confirmed in respect of renting of immovable property service - HELD THAT:- The interest has been rightly paid by the appellant in this regard. However, considering the prayer made by the appellant, the excess payment made by the appellant against such interest liability is allowed to be adjusted against other interest liabilities, if any, arising out of this order.
Management, maintenance and repair service - HELD THAT:- It is seen that the amount received under this category is nothing but reimbursement of expenses from the tenants towards the repairs and maintenance charges on actual basis, for the works carried out on the rented property. Thus, no service tax is leviable on this amount since, the reimbursements have been made on actual basis - the demand of Service Tax confirmed under the above category, on reimbursements of expenses, is not sustainable. Accordingly, the same is set aside. Regarding the aspect of leviability of interest on this score, as the demand itself does not survive, the question of demanding interest does not arise at all.
Maintenance Deposits on the advances received from service recipients during the period 2008-09 to 2009-10 & 2011-12 - HELD THAT:- It is observed that such maintenance deposit taken from the intending purchaser/buyer is nothing but advance deposit towards Sinking Fund/Development Fund, which is ultimately handed over to the association/society, once the building is handed over to the association/society. The said fund is utilized for any unforeseen expenses, which might be borne by the society at a later point of time, owing to aging of the building. Accordingly, the said deposit does not attract service tax. Such amounts are mere deposits as is visible from the agreements entered into by the Appellant - the appellant’s submission in this regard also noted that the said amount has either been refunded to the flat owners or has been transferred to the residential welfare society. There is no evidence brought on record that such amounts have been utilized by the appellant. Accordingly, such deposits cannot be treated as consideration received for any taxable service.
Demand confirmed on account of non-payment of Service Tax on recovery of Charges for distribution of Electricity - HELD THAT:- It is a fact that the electricity charges have been realized from the tenants is on actual basis. It is also a fact on record that there is a main meter installed in the name of appellant and from where sub-meters are installed to the individual premises of the tenants and on the basis of actual unit consumption so recorded including fixed charges due proportionately, the amount is realised and deposited with the electricity licensee within the State. It is observed that the Department has not alleged that the appellant has charged the electricity charges over and above what has actual been recorded in the energy meter. Thus, the electricity charges have been collected and deposited by the appellant as a ‘pure agent’ and hence, under such circumstances, the demand confirmed on account of this receipt is not sustainable - the demand confirmed on account of receipt of electricity charges is not sustainable and hence set aside.
Non-payment of Service Tax on Construction of Residential Complex Service (Administrative Cost) - HELD THAT:- There is no evidence brought on record that the appellant has actually received this amount of ₹15,00,000/- towards administrative cost. The appellant has submitted before us that till date there is no receipt of this amount since the appellant and the said other party, with whom they entered into an agreement, went into a dispute and the project was never completed. Since there was a dispute and the project has not been completed, the incidence of tax never arose. Thus, there is no liability of service tax arising on this count.
Service tax liability on the advances received - HELD THAT:- The advance received prior to July, 2010 are completely excluded from levy of Service Tax vide Notification No. 36/2010-S.T. dated 28.06.2010. It has been pointed out by the appellant that the demand has been confirmed on the advance of Rs.8,61,17,691/- received by them prior to July, 2010, due to a mere mismatch/typographical error. In support of their claim, the appellant submitted a Certificate from the Chartered Accountant and summary of the ledger account. Thus, in view of the above factual scenario and by relying on the Certificate issued by the Chartered Accountant, it is held that the demand confirmed on this count cannot be sustained.
Construction service provided prior to July 2010 - HELD THAT:- The appellant has cited the Board Circular No. 151/2/2012-ST dated 10.02.2012 which has clarified that for the period prior to 01.07.2010 construction service provided by the builder/developer will not be taxable, in terms of Board's Circular No. 108/02/2009-ST 29.01.2009 - On going through the relevant point of the Chartered Accountant’s certificate dated 18.06.2025 furnished by the appellant in this regard. From the above, it is found that the said construction service provided prior to 01.07.2010 cannot be leviable to Service Tax. Accordingly, the Service Tax demand confirmed to this extent stands set aside.
Amounts towards cancellation of cheque and flat cancellation - HELD THAT:- The appellant has substantiated their said plea by way of a Chartered Accountant’s certificate dated 18.06.2025 wherein at point (3), it is mentioned that “A sum of ₹3,593,727/- is reflected in the books relates to cancellation of cheques and credit note issued on account of cancellation of flat which should not form part of Advances against flat.”. As there is no service rendered in connection with the said amount received, on account of cancellation of cheque/flat, we hold that the said amount is not includable for the purpose of computation of their Service Tax liability in this regard. Hence, the demand of Service Tax confirmed on this count is set aside.
Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether third-party reimbursable expenditures (out-of-pocket disbursements) incurred by a steamer agent on behalf of principals form part of the taxable value under Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994 for periods prior to 14.05.2015.
2. Whether specific heads of expenditure (stevedoring charges, railway freight, supply of fenders, supply of spare parts, survey charges, launch hire charges and miscellaneous expenses) which were reimbursed on actuals can be treated as amounts received as a "pure agent" and therefore excluded from assessable value under Section 67 (pre-14.05.2015).
3. Evidentiary standard/adequacy: whether submission of a Chartered Accountant's certificate and disbursement account extracts suffice to establish that the amounts were reimbursed strictly on actual basis and that the appellant acted as a pure agent.
4. Consequence of disallowing the tax demand: whether interest under Section 75 and penalties under Sections 77 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 survive if the primary demand for service tax is set aside.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Inclusion of reimbursable third-party expenditures in taxable value under Section 67 (pre-14.05.2015)
Legal framework: Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994 prescribes valuation of taxable services as the "gross amount charged by the service provider for such service." Rule 5 of the Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006 previously sought broader inclusion.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on the ratio of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Union of India v. Intercontinental Consultants & Technocrats Pvt. Ltd., holding that valuation under Section 67 must be confined to the gross amount charged "for such service" and that reimbursable third-party disbursements are outside that mandate. The Tribunal also noted subsequent corroborative pronouncements by this Tribunal and the Madras High Court applying the same principle.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal adopts the plain-meaning interpretation that only amounts calculated as quid pro quo "for such taxable service" are includable in valuation. Amounts calculated to meet third-party costs and reimbursed on actuals are not consideration for the service itself and therefore fall beyond Section 67's pre-amendment scope. The legislative response (Finance Act, 2015 amendment to Section 67) was held to confirm that previously such reimbursables were not taxable; but that amendment is substantive and prospective (effective 14.05.2015) and cannot operate retrospectively.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that reimbursable third-party expenses do not form part of taxable value under Section 67 for periods prior to 14.05.2015 is treated as ratio, directly applying and following the Apex Court's binding principle. Observations about Rule 5 being ultra vires Section 67 are consistent with and follow from the cited precedents (ratio in those precedents).
Conclusions: For periods prior to 14.05.2015, reimbursable third-party expenditures are not includable in the assessable value under Section 67; the impugned addition of such amounts to tax base is unsustainable and must be set aside.
Issue 2 - Characterisation as "pure agent" for specified heads of expenditure
Legal framework: The "pure agent" concept functions as the factual/legal basis to treat reimbursed disbursements as outside the consideration for service. Under the valuation principle in Section 67 (pre-14.05.2015), amounts received strictly as reimbursement by a pure agent are not part of the gross amount charged for the taxable service.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied the Intercontinental ratio and its own earlier decisions (cited) which held that where an assessee acts as pure agent and recovers amounts on actual basis, such recoveries are not includable in taxable value for the pre-14.05.2015 period.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined documentary material (CA certificate, disbursement account extracts) and found that the specified heads (stevedoring, railway freight, fender supply, spare parts, survey, launch hire, misc.) were reimbursed strictly on actuals. The reasoning is that where the agent merely pays third parties and recovers identical amounts from principals without mark-up or profit and in discharge of principals' liabilities, those amounts are not consideration for the agent's service.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that the listed heads were received as reimbursements and thereby excluded from assessable value is a dispositive, ratio-level factual and legal conclusion insofar as it applies to the present record; the general rule that pure-agent reimbursements are excluded (per Intercontinental) is ratio.
Conclusions: The specified reimbursable heads, being received on actuals and borne as pure agent disbursements, are not includable in taxable value under Section 67 for the relevant pre-14.05.2015 period; the tax additions relating to these heads are disallowed.
Issue 3 - Evidentiary adequacy of CA certificate and disbursement records to establish pure-agent status
Legal framework: Factual determination of whether an assessee acted as pure agent depends on documentary proof showing identity of principal, payment to third parties, pass-through of amounts without mark-up, and reconciliation procedures. There is no rigid single form of evidence mandated; courts/tribunals evaluate totality of records.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal and courts have accepted accountant's certificates and contemporaneous disbursement accounts as material evidence when they consistently demonstrate reimbursement on actuals and are corroborated by records.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the CA's certification and disbursement account extracts established that the appellant received the amounts strictly as reimbursements and reconciled them voyage-wise. The Tribunal concluded that these records were sufficient to show pure-agent conduct in respect of the challenged heads and to rebut the revenue's assertion that the amounts were consideration for taxable services.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's acceptance of the submitted records as adequate proof in this case is a case-specific ratio; general principles about types of acceptable evidence are explanatory but consistent with precedent.
Conclusions: The CA certificate together with disbursement account extracts were adequate to establish that the appellant acted as a pure agent in respect of the challenged reimbursements; accordingly the additions based on those amounts are not sustainable.
Issue 4 - Survival of interest and penalties where primary tax demand is set aside
Legal framework: Interest under Section 75 and penalties under Sections 77 and 78 arise from a confirmed service tax liability; their applicability depends on existence and correctness of the underlying tax demand.
Precedent Treatment: It is settled that interest and penalties cannot be sustained where the foundational tax demand itself does not survive.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Tribunal set aside the tax demand by holding that reimbursable amounts are not includable in taxable value for the relevant period, there is no subsisting tax liability on which interest or penalties can be lawfully imposed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The proposition that interest and penalties fall away when the primary demand is quashed is a direct, dispositive application of statutory logic and is treated as ratio in this context.
Conclusions: Interest under Section 75 and penalties under Sections 77 and 78 cannot be sustained once the service-tax demand is set aside; those consequential demands are therefore also set aside.
Disposition (consequential legal result)
Applying the foregoing legal framework and precedents, the Tribunal set aside the confirmed demand of service tax (including cess) of Rs.2,05,90,153/- by excluding the reimbursable disbursements from assessable value for the pre-14.05.2015 period, and consequently quashed the interest and penalties imposed in relation thereto.
Valuation - inclusion of certain third-party expenses incurred by the appellant on behalf of their principals in the assessable value for the purpose of arriving at the Service Tax liability - demand with interest and penalties - HELD THAT:- The Chartered Accountant has certified that the appellant has received such reimbursements only on actual basis.
The appellant has received all these amounts on actual basis, as a 'pure agent'. Thus, there are merit in the submission made by the appellant that they have received the ‘other charges’ such as stevedoring charges, railway freight, supply of fender, supply of spare parts, survey charges, launch hire charges, etc., also as reimbursements from their clients on actual basis and thus have acted as a 'pure agent'. Accordingly, such reimbursable expenses collected in the capacity of a pure agent are not includable in the assessable value as provided under Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994, prior to 14th May, 2015.
In the judgement of the Hon'ble Apex Court in UNION OF INDIA AND ANR. VERSUS M/S. INTERCONTINENTAL CONSULTANTS AND TECHNOCRATS PVT. LTD. [2018 (3) TMI 357 - SUPREME COURT], it is observed that while interpreting the scope and application of Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994, both in its unamended form prior to 01.05.2006 and after its amendment w.e.f. 01.05.2006, the Hon’ble Apex Court has categorically held that the valuation of taxable services shall be confined to the “gross amount charged by the service provider for such service” and that any inclusion of reimbursable expenses, out-of-pocket expenses or third party disbursements which are not part of the core consideration for the service rendered, travels beyond the mandate of Section 67 ibid.
Thus, the Service Tax demand of Rs.2,05,90,153/- confirmed in the impugned order by including all the above said reimbursements in the assessable value, is not sustainable and hence, the same is set aside - As the impugned demand of Service Tax itself does not survive, the question of demanding interest thereon or imposing penalties does not arise.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether CENVAT credit of Countervailing Duty (CVD) paid at concessional rates under the Customs Tariff Notification on imported coal is admissible under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.
2. Whether the proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) (and related restrictions) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, which denies credit where benefit of certain Central Excise notifications is availed, applies to CVD paid under Customs Tariff Notifications on imported coal.
3. Whether the extended period of limitation (invocation of extended time for issuance of show-cause notice) is permissible where the issue is one of statutory interpretation and the assessee claimed credit bona fide.
4. Whether penalty under Rule 15(2) read with Section 11AC is sustainable where CENVAT credit availed on imported coal is held to be allowable and there is no irregularity or mala fide intent.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Admissibility of CENVAT credit of CVD paid on imported coal
Legal framework: Rule 3 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 (notably sub-rules (1)(i) and (1)(vii)) governs admissibility of credit of excise duty and additional duty leviable under section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act (CVD) as being "equivalent" to excise duty where applicable. Central Excise Notifications and Customs Tariff Notifications separately prescribe reduced/ concessional rates for coal.
Precedent treatment: Multiple tribunal and High Court decisions (reproduced and relied upon in the judgment) have held that CVD paid under the Customs Notification on imported coal is not barred by the proviso applicable to certain Central Excise Notifications addressing domestically manufactured coal. Decisions of Tribunals and a High Court were cited to support admissibility.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court distinguished the scope of Customs Tariff Notifications (applicable to imports) from Central Excise Notifications (applicable to domestic manufacture). The proviso restricting credit for goods covered by specified Serial Nos. of the Excise Notification was held to apply only to domestically manufactured goods; it does not automatically operate to bar credit where CVD is paid on imported coal under a Customs Notification. The Court observed that Rule 3(1)(vii) expressly entitles credit of additional duty under Section 3 (i.e., CVD) and that conditions in proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) cannot be implied into or imported into Rule 3(1)(vii) where the statutory and notification texts differ. The Court further relied on consistent tribunal precedents and advisory committee minutes that reached the same conclusion.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - CENVAT credit of CVD paid on imported coal under the Customs Tariff Notification is admissible under Rule 3(1)(vii) and is not barred by the proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) which concerns benefits under specific Central Excise Notifications applicable to domestically manufactured coal. Obiter - textual discussion of the dictionary meaning of "equivalent" and ancillary policy observations (though relied upon in reasoning) are not necessary to the holding.
Conclusion: CENVAT credit of CVD paid at the concessional rate under the Customs Tariff Notification on imported coal is allowable; disallowance on this ground is unsustainable.
Issue 2 - Applicability of proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) to CVD paid under Customs Notification
Legal framework: Proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) denies credit where benefit of specific Central Excise Notifications is availed; Rule 3(1)(vii) separately permits credit of additional duty under the Customs Tariff Act "equivalent" to excise duty.
Precedent treatment: Tribunals and courts (including decisions reproduced in the judgment) have consistently held that the proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) cannot be read down to capture CVD paid under a Customs Notification, since the proviso refers to excise notifications applicable to indigenous manufacture and the Customs notification regulates imports.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasised textual and contextual interpretation: Customs and Excise notifications operate in distinct domains; a condition in an Excise Notification denying credit for domestically manufactured goods cannot, by implication, be read into a Customs Notification that prescribes concessional CVD on imports. The Court found it impermissible to import conditions from Rule 3(1)(i) into Rule 3(1)(vii) where the statutory language and notifications do not support such an implication. The Court also observed administrative guidance (Regional Advisory Committee minutes) and consistent Tribunal jurisprudence to corroborate the interpretation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) does not apply to CVD paid under Customs Tariff Notifications on imported goods; the restriction is confined to excise notifications dealing with domestic manufacture. Obiter - extended commentary on policy consequences and semantic equivalence of duties, beyond the textual distinction, is ancillary.
Conclusion: The proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) is inapplicable to concessional CVD under Customs Notification for imported coal; therefore its restriction cannot be used to deny credit of such CVD.
Issue 3 - Invokability of extended period of limitation
Legal framework: The extended period for issuance of demand/SCN is available where conditions in statute are satisfied (e.g., suppression/contrivance/intent). Section 11A and related limitation provisions govern time bar considerations.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal authorities have refused to allow extended limitation where the dispute hinges on bona fide interpretation of statute and credit was claimed in good faith; misapplication of law by the department itself was treated as a reason to deny invocation of extended period.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the dispute to be one of pure statutory interpretation and that the appellant had bona fide claimed credit believing entitlement, bolstered by precedent. Because there was no evidence of intention to avail irregular credit or of suppression/ misstatement, the extended period could not be invoked against the appellant. The Court also noted that the Revenue's application of incorrect provisions contributed to the misuse of extended limitation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Extended period of limitation is not invokable where the contested claim arises from bona fide statutory interpretation and there is no intent to evade duty; such cases are barred by normal limitation. Obiter - broader observations about administrative practice and policy are incidental.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation cannot be invoked; the demand based on extended limitation is not sustainable.
Issue 4 - Sustainability of penalty under Rule 15(2) read with Section 11AC
Legal framework: Penalty for contraventions is provided under Rule 15(2) and Section 11AC where there is irregular availment, culpability or intention to evade duty.
Precedent treatment: Tribunals have set aside penalties where credit availed was found permissible or where there was no deliberate or fraudulent conduct in claiming credit; bona fide belief and adherence to contemporaneous precedent can negate penalty liability.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having held that the CENVAT credit was lawfully claimable and that the appellant acted bona fide in claiming CVD credit on imported coal, the Court concluded there was no irregularity or malafide conduct to attract penal consequences. The Court therefore found the imposition of penalty equal to the credit amount unsupportable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Penalty cannot be imposed where availed credit is legitimate and there is absence of intent to avail irregular credit; penalty set aside in such circumstances. Obiter - remarks on quantum or discretionary considerations are incidental.
Conclusion: Penalty imposed under Rule 15(2)/Section 11AC is not sustainable and is set aside.
Overall Disposition
The Tribunal allowed the appeal: CENVAT credit of concessional CVD paid on imported coal is admissible; disallowance, demand of interest and imposition of penalty are set aside; extended period of limitation is not invokable in the circumstances described.
Disallowance of CENVAT Credit - import of Steam Coal from outside the territory of India on payment of concessional CVD under Section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 - denial of credit on the ground that Rule 3 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, imposes restrictions on availment of CENVAT Credit is in respect of concessional rate of Central Excise Duty paid under Central Excise Tariff Notification No.1/2011-C.E. dated 01-03-2011 and under Sl.No.67 of Central Excise Notification No.12/2012- C.E dated 17-03-2012, as amended - extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the said restriction imposed by Rule 3 is applicable only when coal is procured from domestic manufacturer/producers and not in respect of imported coal by availing the concessional rate of CVD in terms of Customs Tariff Notification No.12/2012-Cus dated 17-03-2012, as amended, as has been claimed by the appellant in this case. In these facts and circumstances, the appellant have not erred in law while claiming CENVAT Credit of CVD paid on imported Coal. Thus, the conditions of not claiming CENVAT Credit under proviso to Rule 3(1)(i) read with Rule 2(d) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 has no application to the instant case.
The issue is no longer res integra, as, under similar facts and circumstances, CENVAT credit has been allowed by Tribunals and Courts on the issue. It is apt to refer to the decision of the Hon’ble High Court at Calcutta in the case of Commissioner of CGST Versus M/s. Shyam Steel Industries Limited [2021 (12) TMI 956 - CESTAT KOLKATA], wherein it has been held that 'taking into consideration Notification No. 12/2012-Cus. there is no bar for availment of Cenvat credit in terms of the Rule 3(7) where duty paid under Notification No. 12/2012-Cus. and Cenvat credit cannot be denied.'
The appellant is eligible to avail the CENVAT Credit of the CVD paid by them on imported coal. Accordingly, the disallowance of CENVAT Credit to the appellant under section 14 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, along with the demand of interest, in the impugned order is not sustainable and hence the same is set aside. As there is no irregularity in availing the credit, no penalty is imposable on the appellant; hence the penalty, equal to the amount of credit disallowed, as imposed on the appellant under Rule 15(2) of the said Rules, read with Section 11AC of the Central excise Act, 1944 also set aside.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The dispute in the instant case relates to pure interpretation of statute and the appellant has claimed CVD under the bona fide belief that they are entitled to avail the credit of CVD paid on the imported coal. Thus, it is evident that there was no intention to avail irregular credit on the part of the appellant. Therefore, the extended period cannot be invoked in this case to disallow the credit.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
TaxTMI