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Issues: Whether the appellate order affirming cancellation of GST registration was liable to be set aside, and whether the petitioner should be afforded an opportunity to submit pending GST returns and seek revocation of registration on payment of costs.
Analysis: The petitioner's challenge arose from cancellation of GST registration and dismissal of the statutory appeal. The Court adopted the view taken in an earlier coordinate bench decision on similar facts, where denial of the opportunity to file returns within the prescribed period had been treated as warranting interference. In that backdrop, and to afford a further opportunity to regularise compliance, the impugned appellate order was interfered with and the petitioner was directed to file all pending GST returns, particularly for the period during which registration stood cancelled. The Court also directed payment of costs to the department and left it to the authority to consider revocation if the pending returns were filed.
Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside, the petitioner was given an opportunity to file pending GST returns and seek revocation of registration, and the petition was allowed.
Cancellation of petitioner's GST registration - petitioner argued that the proper authority did not allow him to submit the returns as they were submitted after the period prescribed under the statute by way of manual - HELD THAT:- In view of the judgment passed by the Coordinate Bench and in order to give the opportunity of hearing to the petitioner, the same view which has been taken by coordinate Bench at Gwalior in the case of M/s. K.N. Developers and Buildcon Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of M.P. & Ors.[2025 (10) TMI 245 - MADHYA PRADESH HIGH COURT] is taken, and the impugned order dated 04.10.2024 passed in 668- CGST/IND/APPL/2023-24 by the Joint Commissioner (Appeals) CGST, Customs & Central Excise are set aside.
The petitioner is directed to submit all the pending GST returns specially for the period when the registration was cancelled and if such pending returns are submitted before the authority, the authority shall consider the case for revocation of registration.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, in view of the non-functional status of the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (absence of appointed President/Members), the petitioner should be granted liberty to pursue the statutory second appeal when the President/State President enters office, and how limitation is to be reckoned for such appeal.
(ii) Whether the petitioner is entitled to protection in the nature of continuance of the statutory stay under Section 112(9) of the Chhattisgarh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 pending disposal of the second appeal, subject to compliance with statutory pre-deposit requirements.
(iii) What consequences should follow if the petitioner fails to file the appeal within the prescribed limitation or fails to make the required deposit within the time stipulated by the Court.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Liberty to file second appeal upon Tribunal becoming functional; reckoning of limitation
Legal framework: The Court noted that the statutory scheme provides a second appeal before the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal, and referred to Section 112 of the Act, 2017 in connection with filing the appeal and limitation. The Court also considered administrative instruments placed before it (order dated 03.12.2019, notification dated 17.09.2025, and circular dated 11.07.2024) to address the practical difficulty where the Tribunal is notified but not operational due to non-appointment of the President/Members.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that, despite notification of the Tribunal, the absence of appointed President/Members effectively prevents the statutory remedy from being availed. Having regard to the materials relied upon by the parties and prior orders of the Court on the same subject, the Court found it appropriate to preserve the statutory appellate remedy by permitting the petitioner to invoke the appellate provision as soon as the President/State President enters office. The Court thereby avoided adjudicating the merits of the underlying dispute in writ jurisdiction and channelled the dispute to the statutory forum once functional.
Conclusion: The petitioner was permitted to file the second appeal after the President/State President enters office of the Appellate Tribunal, subject to statutory deposit, and the appellate authority was directed to decide the appeal strictly in accordance with law.
Issue (ii): Continuance of statutory stay under Section 112(9) pending appeal, conditional on compliance
Legal framework: The Court expressly applied Section 112(9) of the Act, 2017 concerning statutory stay during pendency of the appeal, and referred to the requirement of statutory deposit under Section 112(8).
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Court was directing the petitioner to pursue the statutory appeal when the Tribunal becomes functional, it simultaneously ensured interim protection by directing that the statutory stay contemplated under Section 112(9) would remain operative until the appeal is decided, thereby balancing the petitioner's right to an effective appellate remedy with the revenue's interest, subject to compliance with deposit requirements.
Conclusion: The Court directed that the statutory stay under Section 112(9) shall continue till the decision of the second appeal, contingent upon compliance with the statutory deposit regime.
Issue (iii): Consequences of non-filing within limitation and non-deposit within stipulated time
Legal framework: The Court addressed limitation for filing the appeal and the statutory/administrative framework regarding deposit timelines, including the circular dated 11.07.2024, and reiterated the State's recovery powers in accordance with law if conditions are not met.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court clarified that its protective directions were conditional: (a) if the appeal is not filed within the prescribed limitation, the State would be free to proceed for recovery of remaining tax, interest, and penalty in accordance with law; and (b) if the amount required for filing the appeal is not deposited within 30 days from the date of the order, the Court's order would lose efficacy (while noting the submission that the statutory deposit had already been made).
Conclusion: The Court preserved the State's liberty to recover dues upon default in timely appeal-filing, and made the relief conditional upon deposit compliance within the stipulated period, failing which the order would cease to operate.
Maintainability of petition - petitioner wants to avail alternative remedy of appeal due to non-functional status of GST Tribunal - HELD THAT:- Considering the order issued by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, notification dated 17.09.2025 issued by the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue (Central), circular dated 11.07.2024 issued by the Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue (Central), this Court finds it appropriate to direct that as soon as the President or State President enters the office of Goods and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal constituted under the Act, 2017, the petitioner may invoke the aforesaid provision for filing an appeal after statutory deposit.
On such appeal being filed, the concerned Authority shall decide the same strictly in accordance with law. The statutory stay as provided under Section 112(9) of the Act, 2017 would remain in operation till the decision of said appeal.
It is made clear that if the appeal is not filed within the prescribed period of limitation, the State would be at liberty to proceed against the petitioner for recovery of remaining tax, interest and penalty, if any, in accordance with law.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether seizure and penalty under Section 129(3) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 were justified where the e-way bill expired because the distance was wrongly auto-populated and the consignment was otherwise supported by invoice, temporary registration, trade certificate and a subsequent fresh e-way bill.
Analysis: The goods were motor vehicle chassis and were accompanied by the relevant transport and registration documents. The place of delivery, the nature of the goods and the movement under the GST portal were all known to the authorities. The expiry of the e-way bill arose from a wrongly reflected distance in the auto-generated particulars, which could not be amended by the assessee, and the case was treated as one of technical glitch rather than deliberate non-compliance. In the absence of any other discrepancy or material suggesting an intent to evade tax, seizure proceedings were held to be unwarranted.
Conclusion: The seizure, penalty and appellate order were not sustainable.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition succeeded and the impugned order was quashed, with the goods being held not liable to penal consequences on the facts found.
Ratio Decidendi: Expiry of an e-way bill, by itself, does not justify action under Section 129(3) when the lapse is attributable to a technical or clerical error and the record does not disclose an intention to evade tax.
Levy of penalty and seizure of goods - auto-generated Part-B wrongly mentioned the distance of 170 kilometres - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the goods in question are motor vehicle chassis which were duly accompanied with tax invoice, e-way bill, sale certificate and temporary registration as per Rule 43 of the Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989. It is a matter of common knowledge that motor vehicles cannot be sold except after getting due registration with the Motor Vehicle Department. The goods in question are not edibles or electronic commodities which can be purchased and sold without being separately registered - Further, the e-way bill was generated on 10.08.2018, where the distance has been shown as 170 kilometres, therefore the validity was available up to 12.08.2018. Further, the place of delivery has specifically been shown as Ghazipur, Uttar Pradesh, for which tax invoice and trade certificate for the chassis were issued and the chassis was temporarily registered.
Once these facts were within the knowledge of the seizing authority, the seizure proceedings ought not to have been initiated. Further, the argument raised by the petitioner’s counsel that after filling Part-A, the above columns are auto-uploaded and duly filled accordingly has not been disputed by the learned Additional Chief Standing Counsel. The learned Additional Chief Standing Counsel also admits that the above columns cannot be amended by the assessee.
This Court on various occasions has taken the view that expiry of e-way bill cannot be attributed to evasion of tax.
The impugned order cannot be sustained and is, hereby, quashed - Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether, on the facts of interception of goods accompanied by a tax invoice showing the registered dealer's particulars, the penalty was liable to be determined under Section 129(1)(a) of the U.P. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 instead of Section 129(1)(b) of that Act.
Analysis: The goods were found carrying a tax invoice disclosing the owner's particulars, and the only alleged infraction was the absence of the e-way bill accompanying the goods. On that footing, the applicable consequence was penalty for movement of goods without proper documents under Section 129(1)(a), not the higher measure under Section 129(1)(b). The impugned order therefore required interference and the authorities were directed to recompute the penalty under the correct clause.
Conclusion: The penalty had to be determined under Section 129(1)(a) and not under Section 129(1)(b), and the assessee succeeded on this issue.
Final Conclusion: The detention penalty order was set aside and the matter was confined to fresh quantification of penalty under the correct statutory provision, with consequential relief regarding release of goods upon deposit in accordance with law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where goods are accompanied by a tax invoice and the only default is non-accompaniment of the e-way bill, the penalty must be computed under the provision applicable to that infraction and not under the provision prescribing a higher consequence for a different violation.
Seeking quashing the impugned Order - levy of penalty - e-way bill not accompanying the goods - HELD THAT:- Whatever infringement may have been alleged for reason of e-way bill not accompanying the goods, it may have resulted in penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the U.P. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 only. However, the Adjudicating Authority has erroneously computed the penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(b) of the Act.
On the issue, reliance has been placed on Halder Enterprises Vs. State of U.P. [2023 (12) TMI 514 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT]. That petition was allowed holding that 'In the present case, goods were found with proper tax invoice and E-way bill belonging to the petitioner. Hence, Circular dated December 31, 2018 would apply and the petitioner would be deemed to be the owner of the goods. Ergo, the goods would have to be released in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the CGST Act.'
For reason of similar facts and there have been no other dispute, no useful purpose would be served in keeping the present petition pending or calling for counter affidavit at this state, let the writ petition be decided with the consent of the parties at the fresh stage - the impugned order dated 26.11.2025 is set aside with the direction upon the authorities to determine the quantum of penalty in accordance with Section 129(1)(a) of the Act within a period of three weeks from today.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the recovery order under Section 73 of the GST Act, 2017 was liable to be set aside on the ground that it was passed without granting the petitioner an effective opportunity of hearing and/or without application of mind, thereby failing to satisfy the test of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
2) Whether, despite dismissal of the statutory appeal as barred by limitation (with no power of condonation), the Court should quash both the recovery order and the appellate order and direct a fresh adjudication, and if so, on what conditions.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of the recovery order under Section 73 on grounds of opportunity of hearing / application of mind and Article 14
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the impugned recovery order under Section 73 of the GST Act, 2017 and assessed it on the constitutional touchstone of Article 14, expressly stating that an order "without any application of mind" does not satisfy the test of Article 14.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court considered the petitioner's grievance that no opportunity of hearing was granted and the State's response that an opportunity was granted but not availed. Upon perusal of the material on record, the Court treated the matter as covered by the approach taken in a similar situation by a coordinate Bench, focusing on whether the order reflects application of mind and satisfies constitutional standards. The Court recorded its conclusion that the impugned order suffered from lack of application of mind and therefore could not be sustained under Article 14.
Conclusion: The Court held that the recovery order dated 25.04.2024, being without application of mind and failing the Article 14 test, was liable to be set aside.
Issue 2: Effect of limitation-barred appeal and scope of relief; quashing of both orders with conditional remand
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis that the appellate authority dismissed the appeal as beyond limitation and that the appellate authority had no power to condone delay. The Court nonetheless evaluated whether the foundational adjudication could stand, and fashioned relief by directing fresh consideration by the original authority after compliance with specified conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that, irrespective of the limitation position before the appellate authority, the primary order could not be sustained once found to be vitiated (for want of application of mind/constitutional infirmity). Consequently, the appellate order, which merely dismissed the appeal as time-barred and left the defective foundational order intact, also could not stand once the foundational order was set aside. To balance equities and ensure participation in the adjudication, the Court imposed a condition requiring deposit of a specified sum along with submission of reply to the show cause notice within a fixed timeframe, and directed the authority to pass a fresh order after affording opportunity of hearing.
Conclusion: The Court quashed both the recovery order dated 25.04.2024 and the appellate order dated 18.02.2025, and directed fresh adjudication by the competent authority after affording opportunity to the parties, subject to the petitioner depositing Rs. 2,00,000/- and filing reply within three weeks; failing such deposit, the petitioner would not be entitled to the benefit of the Court's order.
Challenge to order whereby recovery was made against the petitioner under Section 73 of GST Act, 2017 - appeal dismissed as filed beyond time limitation - prior to passing of the order, no opportunity of hearing was granted to the petitioner - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- This Court finds that the issue involved in the instant petition, similarly has been considered by a coordinate Bench of this Court in M/s Chandra Sain Vs Union of India and Ors. [2022 (9) TMI 1047 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] wherein coordinate Bench after noticing the order of cancellation of registration has held that 'In view of the order being without any application of mind, the same does not satisfy the test of Article 14 of the Constitution of India, as such, the impugned order dated 13.02.2020 (Annexure – 2) is set aside.'
In view of the order being without any application of mind, the same does not satisfy the test of Article 14 of the Constitution of India, as such, the impugned order dated 25.04.2024 is set aside - the order dated 25.04.2024 as well as the order dated 18.02.2025 are quashed and are set aside.
Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the ex parte adjudication order confirming tax demand was vitiated for non-consideration of the taxpayer's reply filed to an earlier intimation, and for proceeding on an incorrect assumption that no reply was filed, thereby warranting quashing and remand.
(ii) Whether the consequential recovery notice should be kept in abeyance once the underlying adjudication order is quashed and the matter is remitted for fresh decision.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of ex parte adjudication for non-consideration of reply; scope of remand and pre-deposit
Legal framework: The Court expressly noted that a notice under Section 61(3) of the respective GST enactments could be issued only after considering the taxpayer's reply to the prior intimation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated it as material that the taxpayer had submitted a reply in the prescribed form on 09.06.2022, but subsequent steps (including issuance of later notices and the eventual adjudication) proceeded on the premise that no reply had been filed, and the reply was not considered. The Court also accepted the submission that the impugned adjudication was ex parte and, applying the consistent approach adopted in similar situations, held that the proper course was to remit the matter for a fresh decision from the stage of the show cause notice after considering the reply already filed (and any further documents to be filed).
Conclusions: The adjudication order dated 27.08.2024 was quashed. The matter was remitted to the adjudicating authority to pass a fresh order from the stage of the show cause notice, after considering the reply dated 09.06.2022. No direction for pre-deposit of disputed tax was imposed. The fresh order was directed to be passed within three months of receipt of the Court's order. The taxpayer was permitted to file a further reply with necessary documents within 30 days, reiterating the earlier stand. If no reply/documents are filed within time, the authority was permitted to proceed to recover tax in accordance with law, as if the writ had been dismissed in limine.
Issue (ii): Effect on recovery proceedings
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the recovery notice sought to recover amounts confirmed by the quashed adjudication order, the Court held that recovery could not continue pending reconsideration on remand.
Conclusions: The recovery notice dated 11.09.2025 was directed to be kept in abeyance pending further orders after remand.
Parallel proceedings - ex-parte order - Petitioner had not replied to the Notice in GST ASMT-10 - HELD THAT:- Following the consistent view taken by this Court under similar circumstances and considering the peculiar facts of the case, this Court is inclined to remit the case back to the 1st Respondent to pass a fresh order without any direction to pre-deposit any amount of the disputed tax as the Petitioner’s Reply in GST ASMT-11 dated 09.06.2022 has not been considered while issuing the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 dated 30.05.2024 - Only after the aforesaid Reply dated 09.06.2022 is considered, a Notice could have been issued under Section 61(3) of the respective GST enactments. Therefore, the impugned Order dated 27.08.2024 is quashed and the case is remitted back to the 1st Respondent to pass a fresh order from the stage of Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 after considering the Reply of the Petitioner, within a period of 3 months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
Since the impugned Order is quashed, the impugned Recovery Notice dated 11.09.2025 shall be kept in abeyance pending further orders.
Petition disposed off by way of remand.
Issues: Whether anticipatory bail should be granted in a GST-related investigation where summons had been issued and arrest was apprehended.
Analysis: The application was considered in the context of summons issued under the GST enactment, the stage of investigation, the documentary and electronic nature of the material, and the maximum punishment stated to be up to five years. The order also noted that recovery and adjudication mechanisms exist under the GST framework, along with statutory appellate remedies, and that the applicant undertook to cooperate, remain present, and produce documents. The Court placed emphasis on the settled principles governing anticipatory bail, including the protection of personal liberty, the need to avoid unnecessary arrest, and the absence of a compelling basis for custodial detention on the facts presented.
Conclusion: Anticipatory bail was granted to the applicant on terms and conditions.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the apprehended offence under the GST regime is investigation-based, documentary in nature, and punishable up to five years, anticipatory bail may be granted to protect personal liberty if the applicant undertakes to cooperate and no compelling need for arrest is shown.
Grant of anticipatory bail - evasion of tax - issuance of summons issued u/s 70 of Central / Gujarat Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 - HELD THAT:- The age of Accused seems to be just of 38 Years. He is resident of this State as stated by the Ld. Advocate for the Applicant and if bail is not granted, it seems that he may have to see the days of hardship. The Applicant is a chartered account of several firms, which are alleged to have involved in manufacturing / business / trading of goods or services and those firms are alleged to have evaded G.S.T. The Applicant is a chartered account and not involved in any manufacturing / business / trading of goods or services and therefore he shall not be liable to pay any G.S.T. and therefore the question will not arise for him to evade Goods & Service Tax. It could be at the most, those firms who might have evaded any Goods & Service Tax, if any and concerned person of those firms could be liable for paying such Goods & Service Tax and penal liability, if any, but their chartered account can’t be made liable to pay any Goods & Service Tax, for any evasion of Goods & Service Tax by firms, if any, of whose account the Applicant used to maintain or to audit. Where any amount payable by a person (here-in the concerned person of the firms, who are clients of the Applicant) to Government under any of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder, is not paid, the proper officer shall proceed to recover the amount by one or more of the modes, described in Section 78 & 79 of Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and / or Gujarat Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. All the allegation of evasion of Tax is qua firms, who are client of Applicant and evasion of tax is not by Applicant and the concerned person of those firms could be liable, if any.
The Supreme Court held in SHRI GURBAKSH SINGH SIBBIA Vs. STATE OF PUNJAB [1980 (4) TMI 295 - SUPREME COURT] that the Punjab and Haryana High Court erred in putting strict limitations and conditions on granting anticipatory bail under Section 438 of Cr.P.C. that are not present in the statutory language itself. The Section 438 of Cr.P.C. uses wide language and confers a wide discretion on High Courts and Courts of Session to grant anticipatory bail. This discretion should not be curtailed by reading stringent conditions into the provision. It held that no inflexible rules can be laid down to limit judicial discretion under Section 438 of Cr.P.C. The Courts must exercise this discretion judiciously based on facts and circumstances of each case. Anticipatory bail is a vital instrument to secure personal freedom and the statutory provision conferring this must receive liberal interpretation in favor of personal freedom.
The Anticipatory Bail Application under Section 438 of Cr.P.C. of Applicant – Mr. Alkesh Harilal Pedhadiya, is allowed and he shall be released immediately on bail, in case of his arrest, on furnishing surety of Rs.50,000/- (Rupees Fifty Thousands only) and on executing personal bond of like amount by Accused, in connection with offence anticipated to be registered under Section 132 of Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and / or Section 132 of Gujarat Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, based on and in pursuance to undated Summons at Mark-3/7 issued under Section 70 of the Central / Gujarat Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017, by the Assistant Commissioner of State Tax, Enforcement, Division- 10, Rajkot and Summons dated 03/10/2025 at Mark-3/8 issued under Section 70 of the Central / Gujarat Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017, by the Assistant Commissioner of State Tax (1), Enforcement, Division-9, Bhavnagar and Summons dated 04/10/2025, 05/10/2025, 06/10/2025, 07/10/2025 etc. issued under Section 70 of the Central / Gujarat Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017, subject to the conditions imposed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Court should exercise writ jurisdiction to interfere with an appealable adjudication order imposing penalty for alleged issuance of goods-less invoices/availing ineligible credit, particularly where the petitioner did not file a reply on merits or participate effectively in adjudication.
(ii) Whether the alleged non-supply of Relied Upon Documents (RUDs) warranted writ interference despite service of the show cause notice, the petitioner's failure to file a substantive reply or retract his statement, and the availability of a statutory appellate remedy.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Exercise of writ jurisdiction against an appealable order in alleged fraudulent credit/goods-less invoice matters
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis that Article 226 jurisdiction is extraordinary and is ordinarily not exercised where an efficacious statutory appellate remedy exists, especially in matters requiring factual analysis. The Court treated the existence of a statutory appeal as a material consideration, and also applied its consistent approach in cases alleging fraudulent availment/misuse of input tax credit and similar credit regimes, where adjudication involves a "maze of transactions" and voluminous evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the petitioner was served with the show cause notice and yet filed no reply on merits and made no meaningful attempt to rebut or explain the allegations before the adjudicating authority. The Court noted that the impugned order itself recorded that multiple noticees filed replies, but the petitioner chose not to. The Court further held that such disputes-concerning role, culpability, and proportionality/justification of penalty-require factual determination not suitable for writ adjudication. The Court considered that allegations of goods-less invoices and ineligible credit implicate the integrity of the tax regime and the exchequer, reinforcing the need to pursue statutory remedies rather than invoke writ jurisdiction as a first forum.
Conclusion: The Court declined to entertain the writ petition on merits and held that the petitioner should pursue the statutory appeal, as the case involved serious allegations and fact-intensive issues not appropriate for determination under Article 226.
Issue (ii): Effect of alleged non-supply of RUDs and petitioner's non-participation/retraction on maintainability of writ
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court assessed the plea of non-supply of RUDs in the context of the petitioner's conduct in adjudication and the availability of an appeal. It also relied on the fact that a statement attributed to the petitioner, containing admissions, was relied upon and remained unretracted.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that after receiving the show cause notice, the petitioner only sought copies of RUDs through emails but did not file any reply on merits and did not retract his statement at any stage up to the impugned order. The Court treated the unretracted statement as constituting a "clear admission" of the petitioner's role, remaining unrefuted until adjudication concluded. The Court also noted that the petitioner did not effectively participate in the adjudication process; while he sought another personal hearing date, the record showed no substantive engagement or written submissions on merits. In these circumstances, the Court found no basis to invoke writ jurisdiction merely on the RUD-supply grievance, particularly when the proper forum to raise such grounds (and seek factual and procedural examination) is the appellate authority.
Conclusion: The Court rejected writ interference based on the RUD non-supply contention in light of the petitioner's failure to reply on merits, non-retraction of the statement relied upon, and the availability of a statutory appeal; the petition was dismissed, with liberty to file an appeal within the time granted and a direction that such appeal not be rejected on limitation if filed within that extended period, and that the appellate authority decide it on merits uninfluenced by the Court's observations.
Availment of ineligible CENVAT Credit by raising of fraudulent invoices - RUDs have not been supplied - petitioner did not file a reply on merits or participate effectively in adjudication - HELD THAT;- The Petitioner was fully aware of the SCN which was issued to him. Not even an iota of attempt was made by the Petitioner to rebut or explain the allegations against the Petitioner. The reliance on paragraph 3.3 of the impugned order where the submission of M/s Devansh Chemical P. Ltd. is recorded would not assist the Petitioner as it appears that the said firm may have appeared before the Adjudicating Authority. In any event, the impugned order clearly records that after issuance of notice to various noticees, many of them filed replies, however, the Petitioner chose not to do so.
The Petitioner ought to have appeared and participated in the adjudication proceedings which the Petitioner has miserably failed to do and considering the view of this Court in the case of similar credit such as Input Tax Credit (ITC) where there are a maze of transactions and goods-less invoices are raised by parties, the opinion of this Court has been that writ jurisdiction ought not to be exercised ordinarily.
This Court has consistently taken the view that in cases involving fraudulent availment of ITC, ordinarily, the Court would not be inclined to exercise its writ jurisdiction. It is routinely seen in such cases that there are complex transactions involved which require factual analysis and consideration of voluminous evidence, as also the detailed orders passed after investigation by the Department. In such cases, it would be necessary to consider the burden on the exchequer as also the nature of impact on the GST regime, and balance the same against the interest of the Petitioners, which is secured by availing the right to statutory appeal. In the opinion of this Court, the same shall be applicable to cases of CENVAT Credit.
The petition is lacking any merit and is dismissed. Moreover, there is not even a submission as to why despite the impugned order having been passed on 28th November, 2024, the present writ petition was first listed only in April, 2025 when the limitation had already expired.
Petition dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a show cause notice issued after 30 June 2019 can qualify for relief under the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019, on the basis that it is a continuation of an earlier show cause notice/refund proceedings.
2. Whether rejection of the declaration under the Scheme was legally sustainable where the later show cause notice quantified the demand only after the Scheme's cut-off date.
3. Whether, despite denial of Scheme benefit, the Court should protect the petitioner's statutory remedy by permitting an appeal against the adjudication order without dismissal on limitation due to pendency of the writ petition.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 & 2: Eligibility of a post-cut-off show cause notice for SVLDR Scheme benefit and validity of rejection
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the Scheme definition of "tax dues", which hinges on (i) appeals pending as on 30 June 2019, (ii) show cause notices received on or before 30 June 2019, and (iii) enquiry/investigation/audit matters where duty has been quantified on or before 30 June 2019. The Court also considered the Scheme-related FAQs referred to in the judgment, stating that eligibility covers persons having an SCN where final hearing has not taken place as on 30 June 2019, and investigation/audit cases where duty was quantified and communicated/admitted on or before 30 June 2019.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the later show cause notice was dated after the Scheme cut-off date. The Court rejected the argument that the later notice was merely a continuation of the earlier notice/refund proceedings. It held that a mere reference to the earlier show cause notice in the later notice, or treating the earlier notice as a relied-upon document, does not convert the later notice into one eligible under the Scheme. The Court further reasoned that in the factual matrix, the demand amount was quantified in the later show cause notice and culminated in an adjudication order; therefore, the later show cause notice "stood on its own legs" and could not be brought within the Scheme by characterising it as a continuation.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively held that show cause notices issued beyond the Scheme deadline cannot be considered for benefits under the Scheme. Since the later show cause notice was issued post cut-off date and constituted an independent quantified demand leading to adjudication, rejection of the Scheme declaration for that notice was not faulted, and the Scheme benefit was denied for that notice.
Issue 3: Protection of appellate remedy notwithstanding dismissal of Scheme claim
Interpretation and reasoning: While upholding denial of Scheme relief, the Court considered that the writ petition had remained pending since September 2023 and held that the petitioner should not be deprived of remedies available in accordance with law due to the pendency.
Conclusions: The Court permitted filing of an appeal against the adjudication order by a specified future date and directed that, if filed within that time, the appeal shall not be dismissed on limitation and must be decided on merits.
Refund of accumulated/ unutilised CENVAT credit - Petitioner’s services can be treated as export of services or not as the Petitioner was held to be an intermediary - SCN issued beyond deadline - HELD THAT:- The mere fact that the SCN-II makes a reference to SCN-I would not mean that the Petitioner would get a chance to apply under the SVLDR Scheme with respect to SCN-II as well, when admittedly SCN-II was issued subsequent to the SVLDR Scheme being launched and subsequent to the deadline which is mentioned in the Scheme. Further, the fact that SCN- I is one of the relied upon documents in SCN- II would also not help the Petitioner’s case either.
In the opinion of this Court, SCN-II is not to be considered as a continuation of SCN-I or the refund proceedings. SCN-II stood on its own legs, as the demand was quantified in SCN-II resulting in the adjudication order dated 30th June, 2023. The rejection of the application pertaining to SCN-II under the SVLDR Scheme cannot, therefore, be faulted as the SCN- II itself was issued post the due date.
The SCNs issued beyond the deadline prescribed in the Scheme itself cannot be considered for benefits under the Scheme. In the overall facts and circumstances, the benefit of this SVLDR Scheme cannot be extended to the Petitioner with respect to SCN–II.
Considering the fact that the writ petition has remained pending before the Court since September, 2023, the Petitioner cannot be deprived of its remedies in accordance with law. Accordingly, the Petitioner is permitted to file an appeal against the impugned order dated 30th June, 2023, by 31st January, 2026 - Petition disposed off.
Addition in the hands of syndicate v/s assessee - appellant's share of profit derived by various syndicates maintaining that share of profit is taxable in the hands of syndicate or in the hands of the assessee
HELD THAT:- The Income of the Association of the Persons (Syndicates) cannot be clubbed with the assessees.
We are of the opinion that the High Court [2024 (10) TMI 1288 - MADHYA PRADESH HIGH COURT] has not erred in passing the impugned order.
Outcome: The special leave petition filed by the Revenue was disposed of in terms of the earlier judgment, and the assessee was directed to be governed by that decision.
Validity of reopening of assessment - order passed under Section 148A(d) -New Law as amended by Finance Act, 2021 - scope of TOLA - New regime v/s old regime - HELD THAT:- This Special Leave Petition(s) is covered by the Judgment of this Court rendered in “Union of India & Ors. vs. Rajeev Bansal” [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
Petition(s) filed by the Revenue is/are disposed of. The assessee will be governed by reasons discussed in the said Judgment. AO will dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by this Court. Assessee who is aggrieved will be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, save and except for the issues which have been concluded in the Judgment.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a reassessment initiated and continued by issuance of notice under Section 148 and culminating in an assessment order under Section 147 read with Sections 144 and 144B, all in the name of a person who had already died, is legally sustainable once the revenue authorities are informed of the death.
(ii) Whether, and to what extent, the revenue authorities may reinitiate reassessment proceedings after such setting aside, and what obligation lies on the petitioner to furnish particulars of other legal representatives for proceedings to be taken in accordance with law.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of reassessment/assessment in the name of a deceased person after the department is informed of death
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court considered reassessment initiated by notice under Section 148, and the assessment framed under Section 147 read with Sections 144 and 144B of the Income Tax Act, 1961. The Court also considered the concept of proceeding against legal representatives in terms of Section 159, to the limited extent of assessing whether the department should have taken corrective measures upon being informed of the assessee's death.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it undisputed that the person in whose name the Section 148 notice was issued had already died, and therefore the proceeding was initiated against a dead person. The Court further accepted that, when the Section 148 notice was issued, the revenue authorities had no information about the death and thus could not be faulted merely for the initial issuance. However, once the revenue authorities were put on notice of the death by a subsequent communication (which was also reflected in the departmental order-sheet noting the death), the Court held that the authorities could not lawfully continue the reassessment proceeding without taking corrective measures. Continuation and culmination of the proceeding in the deceased person's name, despite knowledge of death, was held not in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the assessment order dated March 27, 2025 on the ground that the reassessment was continued and concluded in the name of a deceased person after the death was brought to the department's notice. Since the reopening notice under Section 148 (dated April 12, 2023) was also issued against a dead person, that notice was likewise set aside.
Issue (ii): Liberty to reinitiate reassessment and obligations concerning disclosure of legal representatives
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court addressed the permissibility of fresh reassessment initiation through a fresh notice under Section 148, subject to compliance with statutory formalities, and contemplated reassessment against legal representatives in terms of Section 159.
Interpretation and reasoning: While granting relief by setting aside the impugned notice and assessment, the Court clarified that the revenue authorities are not barred from reinitiating reassessment proceedings in accordance with law by issuing a fresh Section 148 notice to the legal representatives of the deceased assessee, after observing statutory formalities. The Court also balanced this liberty with a direction regarding cooperation from the petitioner: upon the department writing and seeking information, the petitioner would remain obliged to furnish the names of other legal representatives, if any. To prevent future objection based on non-impleadment, the Court further held that if the petitioner does not respond to such request, the department may proceed against the petitioner alone by treating the petitioner as the sole legal representative, and in that event the proceeding would not be open to challenge on the ground that all legal representatives were not impleaded.
Conclusion: The Court expressly preserved the department's right to restart reassessment lawfully against the legal representatives and imposed a conditional obligation on the petitioner to disclose other legal representatives when asked, failing which proceedings against the petitioner alone would not be assailable for non-impleadment of other legal representatives.
Reassessment proceedings against deceased assessee - Liability of legal representatives of the deceased assessee - HELD THAT:- While the Income Tax Authorities cannot be faulted for having issued the said notice u/s 148 in the name of assessee since deceased, yet, at the same time, the said authorities cannot also be said to have acted in accordance with law when they continued with the same reassessment proceeding without taking corrective measures even upon it being brought to their notice that the original assessee Govind Sahai Gupta had already expired.
On such ground alone, the order impugned is set aside. Since the preceding reopening notice u/s 148 had also been issued against a dead person, the said notice is also set aside.
As clarified that this order shall not prevent the respondent Income Tax authorities from reinitiating the reassessment proceedings in accordance with law by issuing fresh notice u/s 148 upon observing the statutory formalities prior to issuance thereof to the legal representatives of the deceased assessee.
The petitioner shall remain obliged to furnish to the respondent Income Tax authorities the names of the other legal representatives of the deceased assessee, if any, upon the department writing to the petitioner and seeking information about the same.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the trust's activity of running coaching classes and vocational/skill-development training programmes for fees constitutes "education" within "charitable purpose" under Section 2(15), entitling it to exemption under Section 11.
(ii) Whether charging "hefty fees" and generating a substantial surplus justified treating the activity as non-educational and denying Section 11 exemption on the footing that it was profit-oriented.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Classification of activities as "education" under Section 2(15) for Section 11 exemption
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 2(15) (definition of "charitable purpose") and its component "education," noting that the Act does not define "education." The Court applied the judicially stated test that "education" in this context connotes a formal, systematic process of instruction/training rather than every form of knowledge acquisition.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the material for the relevant assessment years, the Court found it undisputed that the trust provided vocational training and skill-development programmes intended to make students employable, involving a structured teaching-learning process. The Court also referred to the trust's stated objectives, which were oriented towards establishing/maintaining educational and training institutions and conducting training programmes in various branches of knowledge. The Court reasoned that "education" is not confined to conventional school/college education, and vocational training that follows systematic instruction satisfies the applicable test. On that basis, the Court rejected the conclusion that the activity fell only under "advancement of any other object of general public utility."
Conclusion: The Court held that the trust's activities constituted "education" under Section 2(15). Consequently, the trust was entitled to exemption under Section 11 for the relevant years.
Issue (ii): Effect of charging substantial fees and generating surplus on entitlement to exemption
Legal framework: The Court applied the principle that mere generation of surplus from an educational activity does not by itself negate charitable character, and the decisive inquiry is whether the dominant object is education rather than profit-making. The Court further treated relevant administrative guidance as consistent with this approach, focusing on whether surplus is applied for educational purposes and not diverted for non-educational use.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the revenue authorities had denied exemption primarily on the basis that the trust charged hefty fees and generated surplus. The Court held that surplus generation alone is not a valid ground to deny exemption, provided the surplus is used for educational purposes. On examining the audit reports for the relevant years, the Court found that the surplus was deposited back into the trust's accounts and was not shown to have been utilised for non-educational purposes. Therefore, the inference that charging fees and earning surplus converted the activity into a non-charitable, profit-oriented venture was not sustained on the material considered.
Conclusion: The Court held that charging fees and generating surplus did not justify denial of Section 11 exemption in the absence of material showing a dominant profit motive or diversion of surplus for non-educational purposes. The finding that the trust was "collecting hefty fee, making huge profits and carrying business," as a basis to deny exemption, was not accepted.
Disposition linked to issues: Having held that the activity is "education" and that surplus generation did not defeat charitable character, the Court allowed the appeal and set aside the Tribunal's denial of exemption under Section 11. The question whether the activity was hit by the proviso relating to "advancement of any other object of general public utility" and trade/commerce was treated as academic and left unanswered because the Court concluded the activity fell within "education."
Denial of exemption claimed u/s 11 - activity of the appellant is in the nature of ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’ and the proviso to Section 2(15) of the Act gets attracted - generation of surplus - whether activities engaged in by the appellant can be construed as ‘education’ as employed in the definition of ‘charitable purposes’ u/s 2(15)? - HELD THAT:- The term ‘education’ has not been defined in the Act. However, the Hon’ble Apex Court in Lok Shikshana Trust [1975 (8) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT] has explained the term ‘education’ as employed in Section 2(15) has clarified that ‘education’ connotes the process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by formal schooling. Thus, whether a formal and systematic process of imparting education has been followed. It is clear that ‘education’ as u/s 2(15) of the Act needs to be given a wide definition and not merely restricted to that of ‘school’ or ‘collegiate’ education, however, the same needs to be in consonance with the test laid down supra. It is in line with the aforesaid principles, that the appellant’s case needs to be decided.
It is not in dispute that the appellant is engaged in the activity of providing vocational training to rural youth to develop their skills in the area of science, technology, arts, etc. by providing various programmes in order to make them employable in exchange of fees. The Trust Deed dated 04.09.2010 was placed on record before this Court which sets out the objectives of the trust.
As seen from the objectives, the appellant trust was formed for the purpose of undertaking charitable activities through education for the empowerment of the underprivileged, poor and women viz vocational training and skill development.
As decided in Unique Educational Society [2024 (10) TMI 757 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] held that vocational education is a form of education and that it has been recognized to be, as important as any other field of education.
In the case on hand as well, the appellant’s activity includes vocational training for the development of soft skills of underprivileged, poor and women to develop their skills in the area of science, arts, business and commerce by providing various programmes in order to make them employable. The activity that the appellant is indulged in includes systematic instructions or training which involves the process of teaching and learning various subjects. Moreover, in the subsequent AYs, the appellant has affiliated with Karnataka University, Dharwad and is offering Master of Social Entrepreneurship Course in exchange of fees. Hence, it cannot be stated that the activities offered by the appellant are not ‘education’ under Section 2(15) of the Act.
The reasoning given by the AO, CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal in denying the claim for exemption is that hefty fees has been charged by the appellant for providing their services and that there is a major surplus that has been generated. A perusal at the Books of Accounts would indicate that in both the AYs, there has been a surplus that has been generated. However, mere generation of surplus is not a ground to deny exemption to the appellant.
A perusal of the Audit Reports of the appellant trust for the relevant AYs would indicate that surplus that has been generated has been deposited back into the account of the trust and has not been utilized for non-educational purposes. Hence, it cannot be stated that the surplus generated by the appellant trust has been utilised for non-educational purposes.
Thus, we are of the considered view that the activity of the appellant is ‘education’ u/s 2(15) of the Act. Decided in favour of assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether Foreign Tax Credit (FTC) claimed under section(s) 90/90A could be denied solely because Form-67 was filed after the time indicated in Rule 128(9), even though the foreign income was offered to tax in India and FTC was claimed in the return.
(ii) What relief and direction should follow where FTC was denied at processing stage under section 143(1) only on the ground of delayed filing of Form-67.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Denial of FTC solely due to delayed filing of Form-67
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court noted the requirement under Rule 128(9) that Form-67 is to be furnished on or before the end of the relevant assessment year (subject to the return being furnished within the time specified under section 139(1) or 139(4)). The Court also dealt with FTC claims made under section(s) 90/90A in respect of foreign income offered to tax in India.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that, as per Rule 128(9), Form-67 was required to be filed within the stipulated time and that the assessee filed it beyond that time. However, the Court held that filing of Form-67 is merely a procedural requirement and therefore FTC cannot be "summarily declined" for delayed filing, provided the substantive requirements for FTC are otherwise satisfied. The Court expressly relied on the view that Form-67 filing is directory in nature, and that delayed filing cannot, by itself, extinguish the FTC entitlement.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively decided that FTC could not be denied merely because Form-67 was filed late. The disallowance of FTC on this sole ground was held to be unjustified, and the revenue was directed to allow FTC, subject to satisfaction of substantive requirements.
Issue (ii): Relief where FTC was denied at section 143(1) processing stage for late Form-67
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the denial of FTC in processing under section 143(1) was made only because Form-67 was not filed within time, and that this approach was incorrect because the delay was procedural and could not, on that basis alone, defeat the FTC claim. Given that the same issue governed both years, the Court applied the same conclusion to the later year on a mutatis mutandis basis.
Conclusions: The Court directed the Assessing Officer to allow FTC for both years: (a) FTC of Rs. 58,79,711/- for the earlier year; and (b) FTC of Rs. 51,28,213/- for the later year. Both appeals were allowed to that extent.
Denial of Foreign Tax Credit (FTC) - delayed the filing of Form-67 - HELD THAT:- As decided in Duraiswamy Kumaraswamy [2023 (11) TMI 1000 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] in its order had observed that the filing of Form-67 for claiming Foreign Tax Credit (FTC) in terms of Rule 128 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, is only a directory in nature, which had been made available to facilitate implementation of the provisions of the Act.
We find that the Hon’ble High Court had drawn an analogy from the judgment of G.M. Knitting Industries (P) Ltd [2015 (11) TMI 397 - SC ORDER] wherein it was observed that as Form 3AA, which is required to be filed along with the return of income to avail the benefit was not filed along with the return of income, but was filed during the assessment proceedings, the same would amount to sufficient compliance of the statutory requirement.
Merely because the assessee had delayed the filing of Form-67, his claim for Foreign Tax Credit (FTC) could not have been denied by the revenue. Accordingly, we herein direct the AO to allow the Foreign Tax Credit (FTC) to the assessee - Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the penalty imposed under section 271A for alleged failure to keep and maintain books of account was sustainable when the assessee had maintained books of account and the accounts were audited.
Analysis: The assessee had maintained books of account, though the survey team found them not fully up to date. The accounts were audited under section 44AB and the audited financial statements were available before the authorities. On these facts, mere shortcomings or unreliability in the books could not be equated with a complete failure to keep and maintain books of account so as to attract penalty under section 271A. The decision also recognized the application of reasonable cause and bona fide belief principles in the setting of the statutory scheme governing maintenance of accounts.
Conclusion: The penalty under section 271A was not sustainable and was directed to be deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Penalty under section 271A cannot be imposed where the assessee has maintained books of account and any defect is only in their correctness or completeness, particularly where reasonable cause is shown under section 273B.
Penalty order u/s 271A - assessee has not furnished the records and therefore, AO was not satisfied with the correctness and completeness of the accounts - HELD THAT:- We find that the assessee has maintained the books of account which according to the survey team was not up-to-date on the date of survey. We further note that the books of accounts were also audited u/s 44AB of the Act by the tax auditors and audit report along with audited balance sheet and profit and loss account were available before the authorities below.
Under these circumstances, order passed by the CIT (A) sustaining the penalty cannot be sustained as the assessee has maintained books which were duly audited u/s 44AB nonetheless, there may be being shortcomings in the books of account. The case of the assessee find support from the decision of Third Member decision in case of ACIT Vs. Aggarwal Construction Co. [2007 (1) TMI 203 - ITAT CHANDIGARH-B] as held reading entire scheme of the Act one has to hold that profit computed as per section 44AD of the Act by application of flat rate is one recognized method of computation of total income, or part of total income. The fact that the above provisions is applicable only to cases where gross contract receipts are below Rs. 40 lakhs, does not make any difference to the nature of business carried by the assessee or method of computation.
Having applied such high rate of 12 per cent AO cannot contend that he was unable to make assessment. Therefore, CIT(Appeals) was right in holding that there was no failure on the part of the assessee u/s 44AA of the Income-tax Act and penalty imposed under section 271A was not justified. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether the penalty notice issued under section 274 read with section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was invalid for not specifying the exact limb of penalty, and whether the penalty sustained on that basis could stand.
Analysis: The notice did not strike off either of the two limbs, namely concealment of particulars of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. In penalty proceedings, the charge must be clear and unambiguous so that the assessee receives proper notice of the specific allegation to be met. A notice which clubs both limbs without identification of the precise default is defective and cannot validly support penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Conclusion: The penalty notice was invalid and the penalty levied under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was quashed in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: A penalty notice under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 must clearly specify the exact limb invoked; a vague notice that leaves both limbs open is unsustainable and vitiates the penalty.
Penalty issued u/s 274 r.w.s. 271(1)(c) - mandation of specification of clear charge - as submitted AO has not specified whether the penalty has been levied for “concealment of income” or “furnishing inaccurate particulars of income” - HELD THAT:- We find that the AO did not strike off any of the twin charges, i.e., concealment of particulars of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. We find the case of the assessee is squarely covered by the decision of Smt. Baisetty Regvathi [2017 (7) TMI 776 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT] as held when the proceedings are penal in nature, resulting in imposition of penalty ranging from 100 per cent. to 300 percent. of the tax liability, the charge must be unequivocal and unambiguous. When the charge is either concealment of particulars of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars thereof, the Revenue must specify as to which one of the two is sought to be pressed into service and cannot be permitted to club both by interjecting one or between the two, as in the present case.
Thus, Revenue must specify as to which one of the two limbs is sought to be pressed into service and both the limbs cannot be permitted to be clubbed for levying the penalty u/s 271(1)(c) of the Act, penalty levied under section 271(1)(c) of the Act is quashed. Decided in favour of assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the final assessment order was barred by limitation under section 144C(13) because it was not passed within one month from the end of the month in which the DRP directions were issued/communicated, where the DRP directions were uploaded on the ITBA portal on a specific date.
(ii) Whether the Assessing Officer could compute limitation with reference to a later date of receipt of DRP intimation through email within the tax administration, instead of the date of uploading of the DRP directions on the ITBA portal.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Limitation for passing final order under section 144C(13) and relevance of ITBA upload date
Legal framework (as discussed and applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal applied the statutory requirement in section 144C(13) that the final assessment order must be passed within the prescribed period of limitation, i.e., within one month from the end of the month in which the DRP's directions are issued/received, and examined how that date is to be determined in the faceless/ITBA-based regime.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the uploading of the DRP directions on the ITBA portal as the operative event for communication/service in the faceless assessment framework. It noted that the DRP directions bore a DIN with a date corresponding to ITBA upload, and recorded that the DRP directions were uploaded on the ITBA portal on 28.06.2022. The Tribunal held that, once uploaded on ITBA (a core feature of the faceless regime), such uploading constitutes sufficient and valid communication to all concerned, including the assessee and the tax authorities. Consequently, any internal administrative receipt/forwarding through email at a later date could not extend or shift the statutory limitation period. The Tribunal therefore rejected the justification that limitation should run from the later email-receipt date in the office of the faceless assessment centre, holding that this contention was redundant once the ITBA upload date was established.
Conclusions: Since the DRP directions were uploaded on ITBA on 28.06.2022, the final assessment order was required to be passed by 31.07.2022 (one month from the end of June 2022). The final assessment order dated 30.08.2022 was thus time-barred under section 144C(13), declared bad in law, and quashed.
Assessment order passed u/s 143(3) r.w.s.144(13) as barred by limitation - HELD THAT:- It is an admitted position that once the order is uploaded on the ITBA portal, which is a part of faceless assessment regime, cannot be questioned at all, which could rather be deemed to be sufficient communication to the concerned assessee and the authorities as well. The plea, therefore, taken by the AO in order to justify the delay in passing the final order on 30.08.2022 stating that the communication was received through email on 07.07.2022 in the office of NEAC, Delhi, directing the TPO to recalculate the adjustment is of no consequence, rather becomes redundant.
Having regard to the provisions of law, particularly Section 144C(13) of the Act as the order impugned dated 30.08.2022 is beyond the prescribed limitation i.e. within one month from the end of the month in which such direction is received having regard to the DRP order found to have been uploaded on 28.06.2022, the impugned order is found to be barred by limitation and respectfully relying upon the ratio of decisions of different forums, particularly case of Louis Dreyfus Company India (P) Ltd. [2025 (8) TMI 293 - ITAT DELHI] the impugned order is found to be barred by limitation and thus, bad in law. Assessee appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, while processing a return under section 143(1), the processing authority could validly make a prima facie adjustment by restricting depreciation on goods carriage vehicles from the higher rate claimed by the assessee to the general rate, thereby disallowing part of the depreciation claimed.
(ii) Whether the assessee's claim to a higher rate of depreciation on goods carriage vehicles used in its transportation activity was a claim requiring factual verification (and therefore "debatable"), and consequently outside the limited adjustment power under section 143(1).
(iii) Whether, on the facts recorded in the order, goods carriage vehicles used in the assessee's transportation business qualify for the higher rate of depreciation applicable to vehicles "running on hire", and whether the disallowance made at processing stage was liable to be deleted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Permissibility and limits of section 143(1) adjustment in respect of depreciation rate
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Court examined the scope of adjustments permissible while processing a return under section 143(1), noting that only limited categories of adjustments can be made, such as arithmetical errors and "incorrect claim" that is apparent from information in the return. The Court further explained the statutory meaning of "incorrect claim apparent from any information in the return" as confined to inconsistencies within the return, absence of required substantiating information that must be furnished with the return, or claims exceeding apparent statutory limits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the processing power under section 143(1) is mechanical and confined to errors that are self-evident "on the face of" the return and accompanying schedules, without requiring enquiry, detailed verification, or interpretive debate. It reasoned that where a claim requires deeper examination of records-such as verification of the factual user of assets, the nature of the assessee's transportation activity, and the applicable depreciation rate-the matter is "debatable" or at least requires verification, and therefore cannot be adjusted at the processing stage. The Court treated the question whether the goods carriage vehicles were used in a qualifying manner for higher depreciation as one that necessarily demands factual verification and cannot be conclusively rejected merely from the return-processing record.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that the restriction of depreciation and the resultant disallowance made while processing the return under section 143(1) was not justified because the depreciation-rate question was not an "incorrect claim apparent from" the return, but required verification and could not be resolved through a prima facie adjustment.
Issue (iii): Eligibility to higher depreciation rate for goods carriage vehicles used in transportation on hire; consequence for the addition
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Court applied the principle that a higher depreciation rate is allowable for motor trucks used in a business of running them on hire, with the test being the user of the vehicle in the assessee's transportation business on hire. The Court also relied upon the Board's clarification (as referred to in the order) that higher depreciation is admissible on motor lorries used in the assessee's business of transportation of goods on hire, and not where vehicles are used in other non-hiring business activities.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the facts noted (including that the assessee had substantial transportation receipts alongside trading turnover, and had claimed higher depreciation specifically on goods carriage vehicles), the Court accepted that the higher depreciation principle applies to vehicles running on hire, including use in the assessee's own transportation business of moving goods on hire. The Court reasoned that the rationale is accelerated wear and tear for vehicles deployed for hire-based transportation.
Conclusion: The Court held that the processing-stage disallowance of depreciation was unjustifiable and directed deletion of the addition/disallowance made under section 143(1) (the amount disallowed being Rs. 25,04,890/- as recorded in the order). The appeal was allowed on this basis.
Addition as made u/s.143(1) - Depreciation on goods carriage vehicles used in transportation business - deprecation @ 15% as against assessee’s claim of depreciation @ 30% - Debatable issue - HELD THAT:- It is a well settled law that the adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act are confined to the issues that are apparent from the return and fall within the specific clauses of that provision (arithmetical errors, incorrect claims apparent from the return, specified disallowance etc.) Thus, only clear and prima facie adjustments apparent from the return are permissible while passing an intimation u/s. 143(1) - Where the matters requires examination of law or facts on which two views are reasonably possible, it goes beyond the limited, mechanical scope of processing return u/s. 143(1) of the Act and must be taken up, if at all, in scrutiny or re-assessment proceedings.
The “prima facie” in our opinion u/s. 143(1) is an obvious, self-evident error that can be detected and corrected merely from the return and accompanying schedules, without investigation or debate on facts or law. Thus, the “prima facie” can be explained as “on the face of it” meaning that the error must be clear by simply reading the return, accounts and annexures, such as totaling error or a claim plainly contrary to a statutory cap visible from the same return. The power is therefore confined to the arithmetical errors and claims that are prima facie inadmissible or incorrect on the basis of the information already on record and not to the matters requiring enquiry, verification or interpretation.
In the present case, the assessee had claimed higher depreciation of 30% on goods carriage vehicles used for his transportation business. In our opinion, the assessee is eligible for the higher rate of depreciation i.e 30% on the vehicles that are running on hire which includes use in assessee’s own business of transportation of goods on hire. The inference is that the vehicle that runs on hire would deprecate faster. Such view has become final is no longer res-integra after the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Gupta Global Exim Pvt. Ltd. [2008 (5) TMI 7 - SUPREME COURT].
Disallowance of depreciation as made by the CPC while processing the return of income u/s. 143(1) of the Act is unjustifiable and accordingly, we direct the AO to delete the addition as made u/s. 143(1) - Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalty under section 271B could be sustained on the footing that the assessee's "gross turnover" exceeded the threshold for compulsory tax audit under section 44AB, when the assessee claimed to be acting only as a sub-broker/agent earning brokerage, and contended that only brokerage/commission constituted "turnover" for section 44AB purposes.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Applicability of section 44AB (and consequent section 271B penalty) where receipts arise from brokerage/sub-brokerage activity
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined section 44AB (tax audit requirement linked to turnover) and section 271B (penalty for failure to get accounts audited). The Court also applied the CBDT Circular No. 452 dated 17-3-1986 on the computation of "turnover" for agents/brokers, noting it to be binding on revenue authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the revenue proceeded on the basis that gross turnover of Rs. 4,09,34,234 exceeded the audit threshold, thereby attracting section 44AB and justifying penalty for non-furnishing of audit report. The assessee's consistent stand, however, was that he acted as a share broker/sub-broker on behalf of clients and earned only brokerage income; therefore, for "turnover" purposes only brokerage/commission should be considered, not the gross value of client transactions. The Court found that the appellate authority's observation that the assessee did trading "in his own name as well as on behalf of various clients" lacked evidentiary basis, because no meaningful verification was undertaken to ascertain whether the assessee transacted as principal or merely as agent. The Court emphasized that basic cross-verification with the stated main brokers would have resolved the factual controversy, but the revenue made no such enquiry and also failed to produce primary records sought by the Bench to understand the revenue's treatment of the turnover issue. In these circumstances, the assessee's contention could not be rejected summarily. Applying the CBDT Circular's principle that where an agent's position is akin to a "kachha arahtia" the relevant turnover for section 44AB is only commission/brokerage (and not gross sales effected for principals), the Court treated the assessee as akin to such an agent and took the brokerage as the relevant measure.
Conclusions: The Court held that, on the facts found and by applying the binding CBDT Circular, the assessee was akin to a "kachha arahtia" broker; since the brokerage income did not exceed the audit threshold, the assessee was not liable to tax audit under section 44AB. Consequently, the penalty of Rs. 1,50,000 levied under section 271B was unsustainable and was deleted.
Levy of penalty u/s 271B - Assessee had failed to obtain the tax audit report - HELD THAT:- As Circular of CBDT No. 452 dated 17-3-1986 issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), which is binding on the revenue authorities, we hold that the Assessee herein is akin to Kachha Arahtia broker and had not earned brokerage income more than Rs 40 lakhs and hence is not liable for tax audit u/s 44AB of the Act. Accordingly, the penalty levied in the sum of Rs 1,50,000 under section 271B of the Act is hereby deleted. Assessee appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the final assessment order passed under section 143(3) read with section 144C(13) was barred by limitation under section 153 (including the extension contemplated where reference is made to the Transfer Pricing Officer), and therefore liable to be quashed.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Limitation-interplay between section 153 and section 144C(13) for completing assessment of an "eligible assessee" involving transfer pricing reference
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court addressed the time-limit for completion of assessment under section 153(1), and the extension under section 153(4) where a reference to the Transfer Pricing Officer is made. It also examined the time stipulation in section 144C(13) requiring the final order to be passed within the period computed from receipt of directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel, and the argument based on the non-obstante clause in section 144C.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the position that the outer limitation for completing assessment is governed by section 153 (including the applicable extension for transfer pricing reference), and that section 144C(13) does not operate to enlarge or override that outer limitation. The Court treated section 144C(13) as imposing an additional requirement that, after Dispute Resolution Panel directions are received, the Assessing Officer must pass the final order within the period prescribed therein, but still within the overall time limit under section 153. The Court rejected the contention that section 144C constitutes a self-contained code excluding section 153 for limitation purposes. It relied on the reasoning already adopted in an earlier decision of the Tribunal on an identical issue and followed that approach to maintain consistency.
Conclusions: The Court held that the limitation under section 153 (as applicable to the assessment year in question and extended due to transfer pricing reference) expired on 31.12.2023, whereas the impugned final assessment order was passed on 23.10.2024. Consequently, the assessment order was held to be time-barred and was quashed. Since the limitation controversy was stated to be pending before the Supreme Court for resolution by a larger bench, the Court granted liberty to revive the appeal for adjudication of remaining merits issues if the Supreme Court's decision later necessitates modification of this order; the other grounds were therefore kept open without decision.
Validity of the assessment order passed u/sec.143(3) r.w.s.144C(13) being barred by limitation as provided u/sec.153 - HELD THAT:- Limitation as per sec.153 including the extension of time period in sub-sec.(4) of sec.153 for passing the assessment order expires on 31.12.2023. AO has passed the assessment order on 23.10.2024 which is barred by limitation. Accordingly, following the Judgment of Roca Bathroom Products (P.) Ltd [2022 (6) TMI 848 - MADRAS HIGH COURT], Shelf Drilling Ron Tappmeyer Ltd [2023 (8) TMI 460 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] as well as Aveva Solutions India LLP, Hyderabad [2025 (12) TMI 1208 - ITAT HYDERABAD] and to maintain the rule of consistency, we hold that the assessment order passed by the AO for the assessment year 2021-2022 is barred by limitation and consequently, the same is liable to be quashed. Appeal of the Assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the additional ground raising a pure question of law, though not set out in the memorandum of appeal, was admissible. (ii) Whether the final assessment order was barred by limitation under the Income-tax Act, 1961, and whether section 144C displaced the limitation under section 153.
Issue (i): Whether the additional ground raising a pure question of law, though not set out in the memorandum of appeal, was admissible.
Analysis: The Tribunal held that its power to entertain an additional ground is wide enough to cover a question of law arising from facts already on record and bearing on tax liability. Rule 11 of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, 1963 permits such a ground with leave of the Tribunal, provided the opposite party has a sufficient opportunity of being heard. Since the revenue was heard, the objection to admission was rejected.
Conclusion: The additional ground was admitted.
Issue (ii): Whether the final assessment order was barred by limitation under the Income-tax Act, 1961, and whether section 144C displaced the limitation under section 153.
Analysis: The Tribunal held that the limitation for completing the assessment had to be computed under sections 153(1) and 153(4), and not by treating section 144C(13) as an independent enlargement of time. It adopted the view that sections 144C and 153 are not mutually exclusive but operate together, and that the non-obstante clause in section 144C(13) has only a limited effect. It also held that the extension granted by the Supreme Court for limitation in the pandemic period did not apply to the passing of the assessment order by the tax authority. Applying these principles, the final assessment order passed on 25.07.2024 was beyond the statutory deadline.
Conclusion: The final assessment order was barred by limitation and was liable to be quashed.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on the legal issue of limitation, with the assessment order set aside and the appeal allowed, while liberty was left for further proceedings if the pending Supreme Court decision so required.
Ratio Decidendi: In a transfer-pricing eligible assessee case, the time limit for passing the final assessment order remains governed by section 153 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and section 144C does not override or enlarge that statutory limitation.
Validity of the assessment order passed by the AO on the ground of barred by limitation - limitation as provided u/sec. 153(1) read with sub-section(4) - whether the limitation period for passing the final assessment order is to be calculated as per the provisions of section 153(1) r/w section 153(4) of the Act or as per the provisions of section 144C(13)?
HELD THAT:- Tribunal in the case of Aveva Solutions India LLP, Hyderabad [2025 (12) TMI 1208 - ITAT HYDERABAD] relying on the decisions of the Hon'ble Madras High Court and the Hon'ble Bombay High Court that the statutory limitation is to be calculated in accordance with the provisions of section 153(1) read with section 153(4) of the Act. Therefore, as a matter of consistency, following the order of this Tribunal, we hold that the limitation period for passing the final assessment order by the Ld. AO is to be calculated in accordance with the provisions of section 153(1) read with section 153(4) of the Act. Accordingly, the limitation period for passing the final assessment order by the Ld. AO in the present case is 30.09.2023. However, the final assessment order has been passed by the Ld. AO on 25.07.2024, which is well beyond the statutory time limit. Therefore, we hold that the final assessment order dated 25.07.2024 passed by the Ld. AO is barred by limitation, and consequently, the same is liable to be quashed.
Since this issue is pending adjudication before the Hon'ble Supreme Court in case of Shelf Drilling Ron Tappmeyer Ltd [2023 (8) TMI 460 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] therefore, we allow the parties to get this appeal revived for adjudication of the other issues on merits, if the decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court on this issue necessitates modification of this order.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, in the absence of any contractual stipulation, statutory deeming provision, or demonstrable borrowing, the tax authorities could assess notional interest on interest-free loans and advances as income said to have accrued to the assessee.
(ii) Whether alleged lack of "commercial expediency" for giving interest-free advances, and non-response of recipient entities to notices, could legally justify treating hypothetical interest as taxable income and estimating it by applying an external lending benchmark.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Taxability of notional interest on interest-free advances
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court held that the Act taxes income that is real-either actually received, legally accrued, or deemed to accrue by a specific statutory fiction. It does not tax "abstract economic potential" or income that could have been earned but was not earned.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the addition was founded on an incorrect assumption that advances must have been made out of borrowed funds. The financial statements showed no secured or unsecured loans, no interest expenditure, and availability of substantial interest-free funds, including share capital and other interest-free amounts, along with a very large sum received as advance for purchase of shares on which no interest was payable. The Court applied the settled presumption that where interest-free funds are sufficient to cover advances/investments, the advances are presumed to be from interest-free funds; here, the position was stronger because there were effectively no borrowings at all. Further, the Court emphasised that, absent any contractual right to receive interest and absent any statutory provision deeming accrual, there was no legal accrual of interest income, and the authorities could not tax a fictional income merely because interest could hypothetically have been charged.
Conclusion: No interest income accrued or arose in law; the notional interest addition was outside the charging scheme and therefore unsustainable. The Court directed deletion of the entire addition.
Issue (ii): Relevance of commercial expediency, third-party non-compliance, and estimation using RBI MCLR
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court clarified the limited role of "commercial expediency": it is relevant when examining allowability/disallowance of interest expenditure on borrowed funds, not for creating positive income where none has accrued.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that even if the advances lacked commercial justification, that deficiency could not itself create a legal right to receive interest or generate deemed accrual. It also rejected reliance on non-response by recipient entities to departmental notices, holding that third-party non-compliance cannot convert an interest-free arrangement into an interest-bearing one, and that the burden to show accrual of income lies on the Revenue and cannot be met merely by pointing to silence of third parties. On quantification, the Court found that adopting RBI's MCLR to compute notional interest was untenable because such benchmarking may be used only when income is otherwise found to have accrued but is difficult to quantify; it cannot be used to create income where no accrual exists. The Court also noted that MCLR is a banking regulatory mechanism and has no statutory force to determine accrual of income for a non-banking assessee.
Conclusion: Lack of commercial expediency, third-party non-response, and use of an external lending benchmark could not justify bringing notional interest to tax; estimation cannot substitute for the foundational requirement that income must first be shown to have accrued or be deemed to accrue under the Act.
Addition of notional interest @ 8% on aggregate loans and advances given by the assessee-company to certain entities during the relevant previous year - doctrine of real income - fictional income - Commercial expediency in giving an advance - According to the assessee, the impugned addition seeks to tax a purely hypothetical income which has neither arisen nor been received nor is deemed to accrue under the Act, and therefore is contrary to the scheme of the statute and the doctrine of real income as settled by the higher judiciary.
HELD THAT:- It is by now well settled that where an assessee has mixed funds, but the interest-free funds available are sufficient to cover the investments or advances in question, a presumption arises that the investments or advances have been made out of interest-free funds. This principle has repeatedly been affirmed in the context of disallowance of interest expenditure u/s 36(1)(iii) and allied provisions. In the present case, the position is even clearer, inasmuch as there are virtually only interest-free funds and no borrowings at all. Thus, the entire edifice built on the supposed diversion of borrowed funds collapses.
Doctrine of commercial expediency, on which considerable emphasis has been placed by the CIT(A), has a very specific and limited application. It comes into play when the question is whether interest expenditure on borrowed funds is allowable, i.e., whether the borrowing and the deployment of borrowed capital can be said to be for the purposes of business. If commercial expediency is not established, interest expenditure may be disallowed. That doctrine does not operate in reverse to manufacture positive income where none has accrued. The question before us is not whether any interest expenditure should be disallowed but whether any interest income has accrued. The absence of commercial expediency in giving an advance cannot, by itself, create a legal right to receive interest or a statutory deeming of accrual.
Reliance placed on non-compliance by recipient entities with notices under section 133(6) is also misconceived. The assessee has rightly pointed out that these entities are independent companies and that their compliance behaviour is not within the assessee’s control. Non-response by such entities may justifiably invite closer scrutiny in their own assessments, but it cannot, by a process of alchemy, convert an interest-free advance into an interest-bearing one or conjure an accruing income which the assessee never had a right to receive.
Viewing the matter in the round, the following salient features emerge: (i) the assessee has no interest-bearing borrowings; (ii) no interest expenditure has been claimed; (iii) the assessee has substantial interest-free funds which, along with advances for purchase of shares, comfortably cover the loans and advances in question; (iv) there is no contractual stipulation or legal right in favour of the assessee to receive interest from the recipient entities; and (v) there is no provision in the Act which deems such notional interest to accrue. In such a factual and legal matrix, the addition made by the AO and confirmed by the learned CIT(A) represents nothing but an attempt to tax a purely fictional income, which is outside the purview of the charging provisions of the Act
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1.1 Whether disallowance of depreciation on Passive Infrastructure assets transferred under a court-approved demerger, treated as "gift", was justified.
1.2 Whether network site rentals paid to an associated infrastructure company were excessive/not incurred wholly and exclusively for business, warranting disallowance.
1.3 Whether disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D was permissible where no exempt income was earned, and consequences for section 80IA and section 115JB.
1.4 Whether national and international roaming charges paid to other telecom operators attracted tax deduction at source under section 194J, justifying disallowance under sections 40(a)(ia) and 40(a)(i).
1.5 Whether trade discounts on prepaid products to distributors constituted "commission" attracting section 194H and consequent disallowance under section 40(a)(ia).
1.6 Whether Service From India Scheme (SFIS) income and other incidental incomes from telecom operations qualified for deduction under section 80IA(2A), including the relevance of the "derived from" test.
1.7 Determination of the initial assessment year and applicability of amended provisions of section 80IA, and rate of deduction for a telecom undertaking.
1.8 Whether foreign exchange gain, cell site sharing and IRU revenue, bad debts written back, and other ancillary revenues were eligible for deduction under section 80IA(2A).
1.9 Proper year of taxability of receipts from prepaid services and permissibility of the assessee's revenue recognition method for unutilised talk time.
1.10 Character of licence fee paid to the Department of Telecommunications post-migration to revenue sharing regime and its treatment under sections 35ABB and 37(1).
1.11 Character of spectrum/WPC royalty charges and their eligibility as revenue expenditure under section 37(1) vis-à-vis section 35ABB.
1.12 Allowability under section 36(1)(iii) of interest on external commercial borrowings used for acquisition of capital assets.
1.13 Validity of transfer pricing adjustment on brand royalty payments for use of "Vodafone" and "Essar" brands.
1.14 Validity of adding section 14A disallowance while computing book profits under section 115JB.
1.15 Maintainability of ground against mere initiation of penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(c).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
2.1 Depreciation on Passive Infrastructure assets transferred as "gift"
Legal framework discussed: Sections 2(47), 45, 47(iii), 50D, 95; concept of "gift" by company; prior Tribunal decision in group case.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that in a sister concern's case, on identical facts involving transfer of PI assets to the same infrastructure company under a court-approved demerger, it was held that the transfer constituted a genuine "gift" recognised under section 47(iii), not a sham or colourable device. Corporate power to gift and High Court approval of the scheme, after considering Revenue's objections, were treated as determinative. Revenue could not show any change in facts or law.
Conclusions: The transfer of PI assets was a genuine "gift" covered by section 47(iii), not a taxable transfer; the AO could not impute deemed consideration or disallow depreciation by reducing WDV. Disallowance of depreciation was deleted; assessee's Ground No.1 allowed.
2.2 Network site rentals paid to infrastructure company
Legal framework discussed: Sections 37(1), 40A(2)(b).
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO originally invoked section 40A(2)(b); DRP held that provision inapplicable but treated a substantial portion of rentals as not "wholly and exclusively" for business under section 37(1) due to perceived lack of value addition and abnormal increase over earlier IRU receipts. Assessee contended that post-transfer, the infrastructure company incurred running/maintenance, power, security, repairs, etc., and that earlier own costs had reduced accordingly. These factual contentions and whether such costs were earlier recovered from the infrastructure company had not been examined by lower authorities.
Conclusions: Matter required detailed factual verification of cost structures and value addition. Issue remanded to AO for de novo adjudication after examining assessee's submissions and records; Ground No.2 allowed for statistical purposes.
2.3 Disallowance under section 14A and effect on 80IA and 115JB
Legal framework discussed: Section 14A; Rule 8D; section 10(34); section 80IA; section 115JB and Explanation 1(f).
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee had investments but earned no exempt income and claimed no exemption under section 10(34). Following its own earlier year's Tribunal order (which applied jurisdictional High Court precedent holding that section 14A disallowance cannot be made absent exempt income), the Tribunal held that no disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D could be sustained. For MAT, the Special Bench in Vireet Investments was followed, holding that computation under Explanation 1(f) to section 115JB has to be made independently, without importing section 14A/Rule 8D methodology.
Conclusions: Section 14A disallowance of Rs. 92.75 lakh deleted; Ground No.3 allowed. Consequent claim of 80IA on such disallowance rendered academic and left open. Addition of this amount in book profit under section 115JB directed to be deleted; Ground No.7 allowed.
2.4 Roaming charges and TDS under section 194J (sections 40(a)(ia)/(i))
Legal framework discussed: Sections 194J, 9(1)(vii), 40(a)(ia), 40(a)(i); characterization of roaming services and "fees for technical services".
Interpretation and reasoning: AO held roaming involved continuous human technical intervention and thus "fees for technical services", requiring TDS under section 194J; disallowance was made for both domestic and international roaming charges. Tribunal noted that in assessee's own earlier year, and in sister concerns' cases, it had been held that roaming services are automated network facilities not amounting to "technical services" to the payer; therefore section 194J did not apply and disallowance under sections 40(a)(ia)/(i) was unwarranted. Revenue showed no distinguishing facts or adverse higher-court ruling.
Conclusions: Roaming charges did not attract TDS under section 194J; disallowances under sections 40(a)(ia) and 40(a)(i) deleted. Assessee's Ground No.4 allowed.
2.5 Trade discount to prepaid distributors - section 194H and section 40(a)(ia)
Legal framework discussed: Sections 194H, 40(a)(ia); nature of trade discount vs commission.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO treated the margin between MRP and distributor price for SIMs/recharge coupons as "commission", on footing that only services are rendered and distributors act as agents. Tribunal relied on the Supreme Court's decision holding that cellular operators are not obliged to deduct TDS under section 194H on the income/profit component received by distributors from third-party customers on sale of prepaid products and that such margins are trade discounts, not commission.
Conclusions: Section 194H was not attracted to trade discount to prepaid distributors; consequential disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) deleted. Assessee's Ground No.5 allowed.
2.6 SFIS income and other telecom-related incomes - deduction under section 80IA(2A)
Legal framework discussed: Sections 80IA(1), 80IA(2), 80IA(2A), 80IA(4)(ii); nature of SFIS incentives.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee, a telecom undertaking covered by section 80IA(4)(ii), claimed 80IA deduction on SFIS income (duty credit scrips on export of services). AO applied "derived from" test of section 80IA(1) and treated SFIS as export incentive not having first-degree nexus. Tribunal analysed section 80IA(2A), which, by a non obstante clause, grants deduction of "hundred per cent of the profits and gains of the eligible business" to telecom undertakings, without using "derived from" language. Following High Court authority, it held that telecom undertakings under section 80IA(2A) form a distinct category not subject to the stricter "derived from" test in section 80IA(1). Similar reasoning was followed (in assessee's and group cases) to extend 80IA(2A) benefit to foreign exchange gains, cell site sharing/IRU revenues, bad debts written back, advertisement income, scrap sale, and sharing of switches/ports, as long as they arose from the telecom business.
Conclusions: (a) SFIS income is part of profits and gains of the eligible telecom business and qualifies for deduction under section 80IA(2A); AO's disallowance deleted; assessee's Ground No.6 (SFIS component) allowed. (b) Revenue's Grounds Nos.3, 4, 5, and 6, challenging 80IA deduction on foreign exchange gain, cell site sharing/IRU revenue, bad debts written back, and other ancillary incomes, dismissed; DRP's grant of 80IA deduction on these items upheld.
2.7 Initial assessment year and applicability of amended section 80IA
Legal framework discussed: Section 80IA (pre- and post-amendment from AY 2000-01); section 80IA(4)(ii); concept of "initial assessment year".
Interpretation and reasoning: Earlier Tribunal orders in assessee's own case had conclusively held, based on contemporaneous records, that the assessee started providing telecom services only in the period relevant to AY 1997-98, and that the Department had accepted this position. The Tribunal also earlier held that the amended section 80IA (from AY 2000-01), allowing 100% deduction for specified period and providing option regarding block of years, was applicable to undertakings that had started telecom services on or after 1.4.1995; restrictive interpretation by Revenue was rejected.
Conclusions: (a) AY 1997-98 is the initial assessment year for section 80IA; Revenue's Ground No.1 dismissed. (b) Amended provisions of section 80IA (applicable from AY 2000-01) apply and assessee is entitled to 100% deduction of current year profit as directed by DRP; Revenue's Ground No.2 dismissed.
2.8 Prepaid receipts and timing of revenue recognition
Legal framework discussed: Section 145; accrual concept; recognition of income from prepaid telecom services.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO treated entire amount received from prepaid customers as income of the year, on basis that payments are non-refundable and represent outright purchase of recharge, irrespective of usage. Assessee recognised revenue based on actual usage/expiry of validity and carried unutilised portion as liability. DRP accepted that selling prepaid vouchers imposed a corresponding obligation to render services during validity period; non-refundability of amount did not negate this obligation, and therefore income accrued only on usage/expiry. Tribunal followed earlier decision in another telecom case (affirmed by High Court and Supreme Court) which accepted similar revenue recognition, but required AO to verify that unutilised talk time was recognised as income in the year in which it lapsed.
Conclusions: Mode of recognising revenue on basis of actual usage/expiry upheld in principle; AO directed to verify that unutilised talk time is recognised as income in the year of expiry, and, if no discrepancy is found, no adjustment is to be made. Issue remanded for this limited verification; Revenue's Ground No.9 allowed for statistical purposes.
2.9 Licence fee to Department of Telecommunications - capital vs revenue (sections 35ABB and 37(1))
Legal framework discussed: Sections 35ABB, 37(1); nature of licence under NTP-94 and migration under NTP-99; Supreme Court ruling on telecom licence fee.
Interpretation and reasoning: Initially, assessee capitalised fixed licence fee (pre-1.8.1999) and claimed amortisation under section 35ABB; post-migration (NTP-99) variable annual revenue-share licence fee was claimed as revenue expenditure under section 37(1). AO held all licence fees, including revenue-share, as capital; applied section 35ABB and disallowed balance. DRP, following earlier Tribunal order in assessee's own case, treated revenue-share as revenue expenditure. Subsequently, Supreme Court held that even annual variable licence fee payable under the revenue-sharing regime is capital in nature and amortisable under section 35ABB; resulting impact is timing difference, not permanent disallowance. Tribunal, following this later binding authority and the group case where similar computation had been remitted, accepted that annual licence fees must be amortised under section 35ABB over remaining licence term. Assessee furnished working of net disallowance required for the year.
Conclusions: Annual licence fee under revenue-sharing regime is capital expenditure within section 35ABB; deduction to be allowed only on amortisation basis. AO directed to verify assessee's working and recompute disallowance strictly in line with the Supreme Court decision, including consequential amortisation over remaining licence period. DRP's order modified; Revenue's Ground No.10 partly allowed and matter remanded for computation.
2.10 Spectrum/WPC royalty charges - revenue vs capital
Legal framework discussed: Sections 35ABB, 37(1); nature of spectrum/WPC charges.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO treated WPC payments (calculated as a percentage of adjusted revenue and paid periodically for spectrum use and possession of wireless equipment) as capital expenditure for obtaining licence rights, eligible only for amortisation under section 35ABB. DRP followed a High Court decision in assessee's own case holding that WPC charges are periodic payments for continued use of spectrum and wireless equipment, incurred for carrying on operations, and allowable as revenue expenditure. No change in facts or contrary higher-court ruling was shown.
Conclusions: WPC/spectrum charges are revenue in nature and deductible under section 37(1); disallowance deleted. Revenue's Ground No.11 dismissed.
2.11 Interest on ECB loans for capital assets - section 36(1)(iii)
Legal framework discussed: Sections 36(1)(iii), 43(1) Explanation 8; Supreme Court decision on interest deductibility.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO capitalised interest on ECBs used to acquire capital assets (treated as capital WIP) relying on section 43(1) Explanation 8. DRP, and earlier Tribunal order in assessee's own case, applied Supreme Court authority holding that Explanation 8 to section 43(1) does not govern allowability under section 36(1)(iii); interest on capital borrowed for purposes of business is deductible regardless of whether borrowing is for capital or revenue purposes and even for period up to asset being put to use, unless covered by specific proviso. Revenue did not show application of the later proviso or any extension of business.
Conclusions: Interest on ECB loans used for acquisition of capital assets for existing business is deductible under section 36(1)(iii); disallowance deleted. Revenue's Ground No.12 dismissed.
2.12 Transfer pricing adjustment on brand royalty ("Vodafone" and "Essar")
Legal framework discussed: Sections 92, 92C, 92CA; Rule 10B; CUP vs TNMM; scope of TPO's examination of commercial expediency.
Interpretation and reasoning: Assessee paid royalty at stated percentages of net service revenue to associated enterprises for use of "Vodafone" and "Essar" brands; benchmarked primarily under CUP with third-party royalty rates and alternatively under TNMM at entity level. TPO (a) determined ALP of Essar brand royalty as Nil, citing lack of evidence of benefit and absence of Essar telecom brand in Gujarat, and (b) benchmarked Vodafone brand royalty using a single Virgin brand agreement at 0.25% of gross sales. DRP held: (i) brand value cannot be denied merely because the brand is not associated locally with telecom; Essar is a well-known diversified group with presence including in telecom; (ii) TP law does not require formal cost-benefit analysis; TPO cannot question commercial expediency, consistent with binding judicial precedents; (iii) earlier DRP order on identical facts had accepted royalty rates as arm's length. In the earlier year on substantially identical facts, Tribunal had rejected the TPO's approach of using related-party agreements as comparables under CUP and accepted the DRP's deletion of TP adjustment.
Conclusions: TPO's determination of ALP for Essar brand at Nil and his CUP analysis based on related-party/unsuitable comparables were unsustainable; arm's length nature of royalty payments as accepted by DRP was upheld. TP adjustment deleted in full. Revenue's Grounds Nos.13 and 13(a)-13(j) dismissed.
2.13 Addition of section 14A disallowance to book profit under section 115JB
Legal framework discussed: Section 115JB(2), Explanation 1(f); Special Bench ruling.
Interpretation and reasoning: Following the Special Bench decision, the Tribunal held that the adjustment under clause (f) to Explanation 1 to section 115JB must be computed on its own terms and cannot be mechanically equated with or imported from disallowance worked out under section 14A read with Rule 8D.
Conclusions: AO directed to recompute book profits without importing the section 14A/Rule 8D disallowance; assessee's Ground No.7 allowed.
2.14 Deduction under section 80IA on items disallowed under section 40(a)(ia)
Interpretation and reasoning: Revenue challenged DRP's directions to allow 80IA deduction on amounts disallowed under section 40(a)(ia) relating to roaming charges and discounts to prepaid distributors. As in the assessee's appeal, underlying disallowances under section 40(a)(ia)/(i) were themselves deleted (no TDS obligation under sections 194J/194H). Once primary additions were deleted, the question of 80IA on such disallowances became academic.
Conclusions: Revenue's Grounds Nos.7 and 8 dismissed as academic in view of deletion of the base disallowances.
2.15 Initiation of penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(c)
Interpretation and reasoning: Challenge was only to initiation of penalty proceedings in the assessment order, not to any penalty order. Such ground was treated as premature at this stage.
Conclusions: Ground against initiation of penalty proceedings dismissed as premature; assessee's Ground No.8 rejected.
Disallowance of depreciation on Passive Infrastructure (“PI”) assets - assessee entered into a Scheme of Demerger, whereby PI assets, being 2932 towers, were transferred to M/s. Vodafone Infrastructure Ltd., without any consideration. The said Scheme of Demerger was approved by the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court - HELD THAT:- From the perusal of the decision in Vodafone Digilink Ltd. [2025 (10) TMI 1335 - ITAT MUMBAI] for the assessment year 2010- 11, we find that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal, while deciding a similar issue wherein concur with the view taken by the DRP that the transaction of transfer of PI Assets by the Assessee to Vodafone Infrastructure Ltd as gift cannot be regarded as sham transaction having been accepted and approved by the Hon'ble Delhi High Court as part of the Scheme of Demerger after due consideration of the objections raised by the Revenue. DRP has correctly concluded that transaction of transfer of PI Assets by the Assessee to Vodafone Infrastructure Ltd qualified as 'gift' and the same could not be regarded as transfer for the purpose of Section 2(47) of the Act in terms of Section 47(iii) of the Act. It was not disputed by the Revenue that the Assessee had not claimed deduction for loss arising from the transfer of PI Assets to Vodafone Infrastructure Ltd. We are not persuaded to interfere with the Final Assessment Order and the directions issued by the DRP on this issue and therefore, Ground raised by the Revenue is dismissed.
Disallowance of network site rentals paid - AO held that the expenses for the use of assets previously owned by the assessee is only to reduce the tax liability and the same is excessive and unreasonable within the meaning of provisions of section 40A(2)(b) - HELD THAT:- We find that these submissions were not examined by any of the lower authorities, and the payment made by the assessee as network site rentals to M/s. Indus Towers Ltd. was treated as excessive in the absence of any value addition by M/s. Indus Towers Ltd. Assessee, on one hand, claims that high costs were incurred by it in the earlier years for running and maintenance of towers, which, after being transferred, have now been incurred by M/s. Indus Towers Ltd, and therefore, the assessee is being charged the high rental. There is no examination of the aspect that the assessee charged the costs incurred by it from M/s. Indus Towers Ltd., when running and maintaining such towers was under its control. Therefore, we are of the considered view that the various arguments now raised before us require detailed examination, which has not been done by any of the lower authorities. Therefore, in the interest of justice, we deem it appropriate to restore this issue to the file of the jurisdictional AO for de novo adjudication.
Disallowance u/s 14A - expenditure incurred for earning exempt income - HELD THAT:- As during the year the assessee received no dividend income from its investments and thus claimed no exemption under section 10(34) of the Act while filing its return of income. While deciding the similar issue, the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case in DCIT Vs M/s Vodafone West Ltd. [2016 (11) TMI 1544 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] for the assessment year 2009- 10, in similar circumstances following the decision of Cortech Energy Pvt. Ltd. [2014 (3) TMI 856 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] upheld the deletion of disallowance made under section 14A read with Rule 8D of the Rules, as no exempt income was earned by the assessee.
Disallowance of roaming charges u/s 40(a)(ia) and section 40(a)(i) - non-deduction of tax on the national and international roaming charges paid by the assessee to other telecom operators - HELD THAT:- We find that this issue is no longer res integra and has been decided in favour of the assessee by the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case in DCIT vs. M/s. Vodafone West Ltd.[2016 (11) TMI 1544 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] for the assessment year 2009-10, wherein a similar issue was decided in favour of the assessee, following another decision of Vodafone East Ltd. [2015 (9) TMI 1358 - ITAT KOLKATA]. We further find that recently, in the case of another sister concern of the assessee, Tribunal in Vodafone Digilink Ltd. [2025 (10) TMI 1335 - ITAT MUMBAI] deleted the similar disallowance of roaming charges for non-deduction of tax under the provisions of section 194J of the Act. The Revenue could not bring any material to deviate from the decision so rendered by the Tribunal on this issue.
TDS u/s 194H - Addition u/s 40(a)(i) - non-deduction of taxes on the trade discount given to prepaid distributors - HELD THAT:- Hon’ble Supreme Court while deciding a similar issue in case of Bharti Cellular Ltd. [2024 (3) TMI 41 - SUPREME COURT] held that the cellular mobile service provider is not under a legal obligation to deduct tax at source on the income/profit component in the payment received by the distributors/franchisees from the 3rd party customers, or while selling or transferring the prepaid coupons or starter kits to the distributors and thus section 194H is not applicable on trade discounts given to prepaid distributors - disallowance on account of the trade discount given to the prepaid distributors under section 40(a)(ia) is deleted.
Non-allowance of deduction u/s 80IA - Service From India Scheme (“SFIS”) income received by the assessee - HELD THAT:- As per section 80IA(4)(ii) of the Act, an undertaking which provides telecommunication services, whether basic or cellular, is one such undertaking to which the provisions of section 80IA of the Act are applicable. In the present case, it is undisputed that the assessee is a cellular mobile telephony service provider in the State of Gujarat.
As under the provisions of section 80IA(2A) of the Act, the restriction as provided under sub-section (1) of section 80IA of the Act that the profits and gains should be derived from the eligible business is not included. Thus, the language of section 80IA(2A) is broader as compared to section 80IA(1) of the Act. Accordingly, we are of the considered view that the test of first-degree nexus as applied by the AO for denying the deduction under section 80IA of the Act in respect of income from SFIS cannot be extended while computing the deduction in case of a telecommunication service provider under section 80IA(2A).
As relying on Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. [2016 (8) TMI 270 - DELHI HIGH COURT] we do not find any merits in the submissions of the Revenue and the disallowance made under section 80IA of the Act in respect of SIFS income received by the assessee is deleted.
Disallowance made u/s 14A read with Rule 8D of the Rules while computing the book profit u/s 115-JB - We find that in ACIT vs. Vireet Investments Pvt. Ltd. [2017 (6) TMI 1124 - ITAT DELHI] held that the computation under clause (f) of Explanation - 1 to section 115-JB(2) of the Act is to be made without resorting to the computation as contemplated under section 14A read with Rule 8D of the Rules. Thus, we direct the AO to compute the book profit u/s 115-JB of the Act, without resorting, the disallowance made u/s 14A of the Act read with Rule 8D of the Rules.
Determination of the initial assessment year for the purpose of section 80IA of the Act - Consider assessment year 1997-98 as the initial assessment year for the purpose of section 80IA of the Act.
Applicability of the amended provisions of section 80IA - Apply the amended provisions of section 80IA of the Act, applicable from the assessment year 2000-01, and accordingly, allowed deduction @ 100% of the profits of the current year to the assessee.
Allowance of deduction u/s 80IA of the Act on foreign exchange gain accrued to the assessee - As following the decision of Deversons Industries Ltd. [2015 (1) TMI 394 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] held that foreign exchange gain is eligible for deduction u/s 80IA of the Act.
Deduction u/s 80IA on cell site sharing revenue and IRU revenue received by the assessee allowed.
Allowance of deduction u/s 80IA on bad debts written back - There is hardly any quarrel that the assessee claimed these sums as bad debts (revenue receipts) in earlier assessment years. The same stood allowed. It thereafter received back these sums in the impugned assessment year in the nature of business income u/s.41(1) of the Act. Such an instance does not amount to double deduction claim. The Revenue fails to indicate any exception in facts of the instant case.
Allowance of deduction u/s 80IA of the Act on other income received by the assessee - We find that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in case of assessee’s sisters concern in Vodafone Digilink Ltd. [2025 (10) TMI 1335 - ITAT MUMBAI] for the assessment year 2010-11, after noting the difference in language of the provisions of section 80IA(2A) and section 80IA(1) directed the AO to grant the benefit under section 80IA of the Act in respect of other income. The Revenue could not bring any material to deviate from the decision so rendered by the Tribunal on this issue. Accordingly, respectfully we do not find any infirmity in the impugned order on this issue.
Addition on account of receipts from prepaid services - mode of revenue recognition - HELD THAT:- We find that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2009-10 following the decision of Shyam Telelinks Ltd. [2012 (7) TMI 955 - ITAT DELHI] directed the AO to verify as to whether the assessee has declared the revenue in respect of the expired prepaid cards in the succeeding years. In the absence of any allegation of a change in facts or law in the year under consideration, we do not find any infirmity in the directions of the learned DRP in accepting the mode of revenue recognition by the assessee. However, in order to avoid the likelihood of revenue leakage, we restore this issue to the file of the AO for limited verification whether the unutilized talk time has been accounted for and included in the receipt of the year in which the validity of the recharge has expired.
Disallowance made on account of license fees paid by the assessee to the Department of Telecommunication (“DoT”) - DRP directed the AO to delete the proposed addition of license fees paid on a revenue-sharing basis - HELD THAT:-We find that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in case of the assessee’s sister concern in Vodafone Digilink Limited (supra) vide order dated 14.10.2025, after considering the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in CIT vs. Bharati Hexacom Ltd. [2023 (10) TMI 786 - SUPREME COURT] held for the amount of variable license fees paid to the Department of Telecommunication annually and debited to Profit & Loss Account would get disallowed and consequential deduction would be allowed to the Assessee over the balance period of license on amortization basis which shall also include consequential deduction towards past year disallowance. During the course of appellate proceedings, Assessee filed working showing that in view of the aforesaid a disallowance to the extent of INR 1.41 Crores would get sustained as per the aforesaid judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme Court. Accordingly, we direct the Assessing Officer to verifying the working furnished by the Assessee and compute the quantum of disallowance.
Disallowance of royalty paid to Wireless Planning Commissioner (“WPC”) - Assessee claimed the expenditure u/s 37(1) - AO disagreed with the submissions of the assessee and made the appropriate deduction under section 35ABB of the Act and proposed to add the balance sum - HELD THAT:- As the learned DRP, following the decision of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court, rendered in the assessee’s own case directed the AO to delete the impugned addition, we do not find any infirmity in the findings of the learned DRP on this issue in the absence of any allegation of change in facts or law. Accordingly, the impugned order on this issue is upheld, and Ground raised in Revenue’s appeal is dismissed.
Disallowance u/s 36(1)(iii) - capitalisation on interest expenses relating to WIP - HELD THAT:- We find that the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2009-10 held that there is no distinction u/s.36(1)(iii) between interest incurred on capital borrowed for revenue or capital purposes provided the same is used for business purposes irrespective of the result of use of such capital. We afforded ample rebuttal opportunity to Revenue. Ld. Departmental Representative fails to take us to any material in the case file so as to prove that assessee's interest in question is covered u/s.36(1)(iii) proviso as amended by the Finance Act, 2015 w.e.f. 01.04.2016 since it is a case wherein the impugned interest is in respect of capital borrowed for the purpose of business already attracting the main limb of statutory provision instead of the above proviso. This Revenue's ground is accordingly declined.
TP adjustment on account of the payment of brand royalty - related party agreements - HELD THAT:- As respectfully following the decision rendered by the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in the assessee’s own case for the preceding year in a similar factual matrix, the deletion of transfer pricing adjustment on account of payment of brand royalty is upheld.
Issues: (i) Whether royalty received from non-resident OEMs for manufacture of subscriber units and infrastructure equipment outside India was chargeable to tax in India under section 9(1)(vi)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and Article 12(7)(b) of the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement; (ii) Whether royalty received under the BREW operator agreement and BREW carrier agreement was taxable as royalty in India.
Issue (i): Whether royalty received from non-resident OEMs for manufacture of subscriber units and infrastructure equipment outside India was chargeable to tax in India under section 9(1)(vi)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and Article 12(7)(b) of the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
Analysis: The royalty arose from licences permitting OEMs to manufacture products outside India and sell them abroad, including sales into India. The settled test applied was whether the OEMs carried on business in India or used the licensed patents for earning income from a source in India. The Tribunal reiterated that section 9(1)(vi)(c) is a deeming provision to be strictly construed and that the burden lay on the Revenue to establish Indian business activity or an Indian source. On the facts, the OEMs manufactured outside India, the title in the goods passed outside India, and the arrangements reflected business with India rather than business in India. The Tribunal followed its earlier coordinate-bench decisions and the jurisdictional High Court principles distinguishing sale of goods from taxable business activity in India.
Conclusion: The royalty was held not taxable in India. The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether royalty received under the BREW operator agreement and BREW carrier agreement was taxable as royalty in India.
Analysis: The BREW receipts were examined as consideration for software made available under licence. The Tribunal held that what was transferred was a copyrighted article and not any copyright or right in the copyright. The software was only incidental to the use of the product, with no transfer of copyright rights and no separate royalty character. The Tribunal applied the settled distinction between a copyrighted article and copyright rights and followed binding jurisdictional precedent on software payments.
Conclusion: The BREW receipts were held not taxable as royalty in India. The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The additions on royalty were deleted and the connected grounds relating to interest and penalty did not survive independently in view of the relief granted on the core taxability issues.
Ratio Decidendi: Royalty paid for use of intellectual property by foreign OEMs is not taxable under section 9(1)(vi)(c) unless the Revenue proves that the payer carried on business in India or used the right for earning income from a source in India, and a payment for a copyrighted article without transfer of copyright rights is not royalty.
Taxability of royalty income received on subscriber unit from Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) located outside India and royalty income on infrastructure equipment - assessee had offered an amount as royalty income taxable @10% u/s 115A on gross basis as per India-USA Double Taxation Agreement (DTAA)
HELD THAT:- As decided in own case by Tribunal for AY 2021-22 [2024 (11) TMI 1561 - ITAT DELHI] amount received by the Assessee under the licence agreement for allowing the use of the software is not royalty under the DTAA. What is transferred is neither the copyright in the software nor the use of the copyright in the software, but what is transferred is the right to use the copyrighted material or article which is clearly distinct from the rights in a copyright. The right that is transferred is not a right to use the copyright but is only limited to the right to use the copyrighted material and the same does not give rise to any royalty income and would be business income.
We are not in agreement with the decision Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd. [2011 (10) TMI 195 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] that right to make a copy of the software and storing the same in the hard disk of the designated computer and taking backup copy would amount to copyright work under section 14(1) of the Copyright Act and the payment made for the grant of the licence for the said purpose would constitute royalty. The license granted to the licensee permitting him to download the computer programme and storing it in the computer for his own use was only incidental to the facility extended to the licensee to make use of the copyrighted product for his internal business purpose. The said process was necessary to make the programme functional and to have access to it and is qualitatively different from the right contemplated by the said provision because it is only integral to the use of copyrighted product. The right to make a backup copy purely as a temporary protection against loss, destruction or damage has been held by the Delhi High Court in DIT v. M/s Nokia Networks OY [2012 (9) TMI 409 - DELHI HIGH COURT] as not amounting to acquiring a copyright in the software.
Thus, what has been transferred is not copyright or the right to use copyright but a limited right to use the copyrighted material and does not give rise to any royalty income
Royalty from BREW operator agreement and 15% thereof is not chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee u/s 9(1)(vi) of the Act as well as Article 12 of the Indo-USA Tax Treaty.
TDS refund - AR submitted that the rectification application has been duly filed by the assessee before the ld AO which has not been disposed of up to the date of hearing of this case before this Tribunal. Hence, we direct the ld AO to dispose of the said rectification application and give credit for TDS as per law.
Chargeability of interest u/s 234B is consequential in nature.
Interest u/s 234C of the Act, the law is very well settled that the same shall be charged only on the returned income and not on the assessed income.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the provisional attachment and allied steps under Section 24 were invalid because the order was passed by an officer promoted as Joint Commissioner, although the Act contemplates action by an "Initiating Officer" up to the level of Deputy Commissioner/Assistant Commissioner.
(ii) Whether Section 2(9)(A) (as amended) could be applied where the alleged benami acquisition/transfer occurred prior to the 2016 amendment, but the property continued to be "held" thereafter.
(iii) Whether, on the admitted facts regarding payment of consideration and acquisition in another's name due to local restrictions, the transaction fell within an exception (including fiduciary capacity) so as to negate benami character; and whether subsequent transfer to a company controlled by the beneficial owner insulated the property from attachment.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Competence of the officer issuing notice/ordering provisional attachment under Section 24
Legal framework: The Tribunal examined Section 24(1) and Section 24(3) (notice and provisional attachment) and the statutory definition of "Initiating Officer" (Assistant Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner). It also considered the argument founded on Section 59 (Central Government directions) and the meaning of "Board" under the Act.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that although the concerned officer had been promoted to Joint Commissioner, he was directed by the Board to discharge the duties of the post of Deputy Commissioner and passed the attachment order while exercising the powers of that lower post. The Tribunal held that Section 59 (Central Government directions) did not govern this administrative assignment; the direction was treated as an administrative matter within the Board's competence. The Tribunal further held that such Board instructions did not "override" the 1988 Act, because the statutory power remained that of the "Initiating Officer" and the officer acted while discharging that role.
Conclusion: The provisional attachment was not invalid on the ground of lack of jurisdiction/competence; the officer was treated as acting as an "Initiating Officer" while discharging Deputy Commissioner functions pursuant to competent administrative directions.
Issue (ii): Applicability of amended Section 2(9)(A) to pre-amendment transfer when property is "held" post-amendment
Legal framework: The Tribunal addressed the definition of "benami transaction" under Section 2(9)(A) and specifically the significance of the words "transfer" and "held" as used in the provision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that Section 2(9)(A) must be read giving effect to both "transfer" and "held". It rejected the contention that a pre-amendment transfer automatically excluded application of the amended definition even where the property continued to be held by the benamidar after the amendment. The Tribunal accepted the interpretive approach that if a property, though transferred earlier, is "held" by the person in whose name it stands even on/after the amendment while consideration was provided by another, the transaction falls within the amended definition. The Tribunal reasoned that ignoring the word "held" would amount to rewriting the statutory definition and defeating the object of the amendment.
Conclusion: The amended definition could apply notwithstanding that the transfer occurred prior to the 2016 amendment, provided the property continued to be "held" thereafter in the manner contemplated by Section 2(9)(A).
Issue (iii): Benami character, claimed exception (fiduciary), and effect of subsequent transfer to the company
Legal framework: The Tribunal evaluated the facts against Section 2(9)(A) (benami transaction) and applied Section 6 (consequences for further transfer of property involved in a benami transaction), as expressly relied upon in its reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: On facts, the Tribunal treated it as admitted that consideration for the purchase was paid by another person while the property was acquired in the name of a different person because it could not be registered in the payer's name due to local restrictions, with an intention to later benefit the payer. The Tribunal found that the later transfer was to a company controlled by the beneficial owner, making the company an "interested party" and the later payment/transactions as being in furtherance of the benami arrangement. The Tribunal did not accept the attempt to bring the case within an exception such as fiduciary capacity, given the stated reason for purchase in another's name and the intended benefit to the beneficial owner and the controlled company. It further held that once property is involved in a benami transaction, subsequent transfers are governed by Section 6; the Tribunal applied the principle stated in its reasoning that such transfers are null and void so that the statutory scheme is not defeated by immediate re-transfer after entering a benami arrangement.
Conclusion: The transaction was treated as benami on the admitted consideration-and-name mismatch and intended benefit; the subsequent transfer to the controlled company did not cleanse the taint, and Section 6 was applied to hold that further transfers could not defeat the attachment. The order confirming provisional attachment required no interference.
Provisional attachment - Benami transaction - Scope and ambit of provision of Section 2(9)(A) - Interpretation to the word “transfer” - retrospective and prospective application of the Amending Act of 2016 - Whether the provisions of the Act of 1988 can be controlled by the Income Tax Act of 1961 or on the instruction of CBDT. - HELD THAT:- We do not find that instructions of CBDT are offending the Act of 1988 rather the exercise of the power is in the administrative side. The Initiating Officer is defined under the Act of 1988 has been clothed with the power to cause provisional attachment of the property. The act of CBDT cannot be construed to be overriding the provisions of 1988 Act, thus, argument aforesaid cannot be accepted.
We find that initially Apex Court dealt with the issue of retrospective and prospective application of the Amending Act of 2016 in the case of Union of India v/s M/s Ganpati Dealcom [2024 (10) TMI 1120 - SC ORDER (LB)] holding that Amending Act would not apply retrospectively. The judgement aforesaid has been recalled by the Apex Court vide its order [supra]. The issue was otherwise dealt with by this Tribunal by giving interpretation to the word “transfer” and also the word “held”.
Therefore we are unable to accept the arguments of the appellant that if the property was transferred prior to the Amending Act of 2016, then amended provisions should not apply even if it is “held” by the benamidar subsequent to the amendment. Such an interpretation would amount to rewriting the provisions of the Amending Act of 2016 which is not permissible.
We find that the initial transaction was between Mr. Babu Singh and Mr. Bidya Dhar Mallick. The reason aforesaid is coming out from the pleadings and arguments of the appellant. The purchase of the property in the name of Bidya Dhar Mallick was for the reason that it could not have been conveyed other than to a member of SC as per the prevalent local laws. After purchase of the property in the name of benamidar, the further transaction was made to the benefit of the company controlled by beneficial owner and therefore the appellant was rightly taken to be an interested party. The fact aforesaid has been analysed at length by the Adjudicating Authority.
In fact, the purchase of the property by way of benami transaction is to benefit the interested party i.e. the appellant company which was controlled by the beneficial owner. The money transaction to purchase the property by the appellant company was in furtherance to the benami transaction and if the property is found to be involved in benami transaction, its further transfer is governed by Section 6 of the Act of 1988. In fact, after involvement in a benami transaction, further transfers are held to be null and void; otherwise, immediately after entering into benami transaction, the efforts of the beneficial owner and even benamidar would be to retransfer the property, which has been saved by Section 6 of the Act of 1988.
Thus, we do not find any ground to cause interference in the Impugned Order. The appeal fails and is accordingly dismissed.
Conduct of CHA - Seeking an adjournment as to place on record certain other orders relating to other Custom House Agents (CHAs) who were similarly placed to the Appellant. Ld. Counsel on instructions from the Appellant - misdeclaration of goods - it was held by High Court that 'This Court is of the opinion that the impugned order does not warrant any interference as there is no substantial question of law arising in the present appeal and, in any event considering the nature of misdeclaration, the Court is not inclined to entertain the present appeal.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court - SLP dismissed.
Classification of imported goods - PVC Resin SP 660 Suspension Grade - to be classified under CTH 3904 2110 or under CTH 3904 1090? - denial of benefit of N/N. 46/2011-Cus dated 1.6.2011 - it was held by CESTAT that the imported goods are correctly classifiable under sub-heading 3904.21 (Tariff Item 3902 21 10) by application Rule 3(a) of General Rules for the Interpretation of Import Tariff Schedule.
HELD THAT:- Since the relied upon judgment on which the impugned order is based, has been confirmed by this Court, there are no merit in the present appeal and the same is, accordingly, dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the timelines prescribed under Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) of the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018 are mandatory and require strict adherence.
(ii) Whether non-compliance with the timelines under Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) vitiates the disciplinary action and warrants quashing of the order revoking licence, forfeiting security deposit, and imposing penalty.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Mandatory nature of timelines under Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) of CBLR, 2018
Legal framework: The Court examined Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) of the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018, each prescribing a 90-day timeline for successive steps in the disciplinary process (issuance of show cause notice, submission of enquiry report, and passing of final order).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that it has consistently taken the view that the timelines under the CBLR, 2018 are mandatory. It rejected the respondent's contention that the timelines are only directory on the ground that settled law of this Court requires strict compliance. The Court further reasoned that decisions of other High Courts treating timelines as directory have only persuasive value and do not displace this Court's consistent interpretation.
Conclusion: Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) prescribe mandatory timelines that must be strictly followed.
Issue (ii): Effect of breach of mandatory timelines-validity of the impugned revocation/forfeiture/penalty order
Legal framework: Applying the mandatory timelines under Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) of the CBLR, 2018, the Court assessed whether the disciplinary steps were completed within the prescribed 90-day limits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the show cause notice was issued beyond 90 days from the date of the offence report, constituting a breach of Regulation 17(1). It also found that the enquiry report was submitted beyond 90 days from the date of show cause notice, rendering it bad in law under Regulation 17(5). Further, the final order was held contrary to Regulation 17(7), as it was not passed within the stipulated 90-day period contemplated by that provision. Since these breaches related to mandatory timelines, the Court concluded that the foundational procedural requirements for the disciplinary action were not met, and the resulting order could not stand.
Conclusion: Non-adherence to the mandatory timelines under Regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) vitiated the proceedings; accordingly, the order revoking the licence, forfeiting the security deposit, and imposing penalty was quashed.
Revocation of Customs Broker License - forfeiture of the security deposit amount made by the petitioner - levy of penalty - failure to follow the timelines fixed - violation of regulations 17(1), 17(5), 17(7) of Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations (CBLR), 2018 - Non-adherence to the Circular No.9 of 2010.
Non-adherence of timelines - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, in the case on hand, though the offence report was issued on 04.10.2023 itself, the show cause notice was issued by the respondent to the petitioner only on 31.01.2024, which is beyond the period of 90 days prescribed under regulation 17(1) of CBLR, 2018. Similarly, the enquiry report is dated 19.02.2025, and the show cause notice is dated 31.01.2024 and since the enquiry report was submitted beyond the period of 90 days from the date of show cause notice, the enquiry report is bad in law as per regulation 17(5) of CBLR, 2018. Similarly, the enquiry report is dated 19.02.2025, however the impugned order is dated 08.07.2025, which is also contrary to regulation 17(7) of the CBLR, 2018 as the said regulation stipulates that the order has to be passed within a period of 90 days from the date of offence report. Since the timelines fixed under the regulations, namely regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) of CBLR, 2018 have not been followed by the respondent, necessarily, the impugned order has to be quashed.
Non-adherence to the Circular No.9 of 2010 - HELD THAT:- There is no necessity for this Court to consider the same - It is also to be noted that the learned Junior Standing Counsel appearing for the respondent has also made a statement before this Court that Circular No.9 of 2010 has no applicability to the facts of the instance case, since the said circular was issued as early as in the year 2010 itself, and the same is not binding on the respondent as on date, since the regulations relied upon by the petitioner pertains to the year 2018. This Court is not expressing any opinion on the merits of the respective contentions pertaining to Circular No.9 of 2010 is concerned and it is left open for the same to be decided in any other case, which comes before this Court. Since it has been conclusively established that the timelines fixed under CBLR, 2018 as per regulations 17(1), 17(5) and 17(7) have not been adhered to by the respondent, necessarily, the impugned order dated 08.07.2025 has to be quashed.
The impugned order, dated 08.07.2025 passed by the respondent, revoking the license of the petitioner, forfeiting security deposit of the petitioner and imposing penalty of Rs. 50,000/- on the petitioner is hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the imported goods, declared as knitted scarves and shawls, were correctly classifiable under Heading 6102 as capes and ponchos rather than under Heading 6117. (ii) Whether the redemption fine and penalty required interference.
Issue (i): Whether the imported goods, declared as knitted scarves and shawls, were correctly classifiable under Heading 6102 as capes and ponchos rather than under Heading 6117.
Analysis: The goods were examined by the Textile Committee, whose report identified them as ponchos and capes. The report was not rebutted by any substantive evidence. The Chapter notes and HSN Explanatory Notes were applied to hold that capes fall within Heading 6102, and ponchos are treated as a type of cape. The synthetic acrylic composition of the goods also supported classification under the relevant tariff item.
Conclusion: The classification under Heading 6102 was upheld and the assessee's challenge on classification failed.
Issue (ii): Whether the redemption fine and penalty required interference.
Analysis: Although confiscation and penalty followed from misdeclaration, the Tribunal considered the hardship caused by delay and the overall circumstances. It found that the originally imposed redemption fine and penalty could be reduced in the interests of justice.
Conclusion: The redemption fine and penalty were reduced in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only to the limited extent of reduction in redemption fine and penalty, while the classification and confiscation-related findings were sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Where expert examination and tariff notes conclusively establish the identity of imported goods, the declared description cannot prevail in classification, and incidental monetary penalties may be moderated on equitable considerations without disturbing the substantive classification finding.
Classification of imported women knitted scarves, shawl assorted and other - to be classified under CTH 61171040 or not? - mis-declaration of goods - HELD THAT:- It is found that when the expert has given a report on the impugned goods, the same cannot be brushed aside without any substantial evidence to counter the same - the appellant has not produced any substantiated evidence to consider that the said report of the Textile Committee is incorrect. Moreover, there is nothing on record to indicate whether the appellant has challenged the said report. Under the circumstances, it is not inclined to accept the contention of the appellant on the classification of the goods.
The learned Commissioner has correctly arrived at the classification of the impugned goods. We find that there is no reason whatsoever, so as to interfere in the classification decided by the Commissioner. It is further found that the arguments of the appellant that similar goods are being cleared as declared by them in other customs stations is not substantiated - In the instant case, the impugned goods have been examined by the experts and reported. It is not the case of the appellants that similar goods have been cleared under CTH 61171040n even if there was report by the Textile Committee contrary to the declaration. The appellants have not submitted any copies of the bills of entry and the reports if any. Under the circumstances, it is to be held that the claim of the appellants is bereft of merit.
It is also found that the submissions on re-determination of the value of the goods is of no much help as the impugned goods are leviable to the duty on per piece/ per square mtr. basis and as such the value has no bearing on the duty - the learned Commissioner has imposed redemption fine of Rs. 2 lakhs which is minimal keeping in mind the value of the goods. However, looking into the delay and hardship already faced by the appellants, it is found that the interest of justice will be served if the same is reduced to Rs. 20,000 and penalty to Rs. 5000.
The appeal is partly allowed by upholding the classification as arrived by the impugned order and reducing the redemption fine to Rs. 20,000/- and penalty to Rs. 5000/-.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the declared transaction value could be rejected and the value of imported goods enhanced on allegations of under-valuation, in the absence of evidence of contemporaneous higher-priced imports or extra consideration paid to the foreign supplier.
2) Whether the goods could be treated as "branded" for valuation and allied consequences when the record showed the markings/brand names were fake/counterfeit and brand-owner verification was largely absent.
3) Whether the valuation exercise and adoption of Rule-based methodology (including reliance on market enquiry/wholesale price and application of Rule 12 and subsequent rules) complied with the required legal approach, and whether confiscation and penalties could survive when valuation rejection itself was unsustainable.
4) Whether the adjudication was vitiated for breach of principles of natural justice due to non-issuance of a show cause notice and failure to confront the importer with the material relied upon for enhancement, notwithstanding a purported waiver.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Rejection of declared transaction value and allegation of under-valuation
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined Section 14 of the Customs Act on transaction value being the price actually paid or payable, and noted that the valuation rules framed under Section 14 govern when and how declared value may be rejected and re-determined. The Court also noted the principle that the onus to prove that the declared price does not reflect the true transaction value lies on the department, and that transaction value is to be accepted in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the department failed to discharge its burden to show that the invoice value was not the real consideration. There was no evidence that the importer paid anything beyond the invoice value to the overseas supplier. The reasoning adopted for rejection-such as comparing declared value with "average price of raw materials" using Indian prices for goods imported from abroad-was found incorrect. The Court also noted that even the record of statements reflected that the importer claimed payment was as per the supplier's invoice and that no extra amount was charged for embossing brand names.
Conclusion: Rejection of transaction value and enhancement of value on the basis adopted in the impugned orders was held unsustainable for want of evidence and for applying incorrect bases for doubting the declared price.
Issue 2: Treating the goods as "branded" despite counterfeit/fake markings
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court treated the "branded" versus "counterfeit/fake marking" distinction as central to the valuation premise adopted against the importer, because the allegation of under-valuation was built on the assertion that reputed brands were imported but not declared.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that verification with brand-owners was largely absent; none came forward except one brand-owner, which reported that the inspected item was spurious/fake. The Court recorded that the adjudication itself accepted that goods were counterfeit, which meant they could not be treated as genuine branded goods for valuation as original branded items. The importer's statement that goods were not actually branded and bore spurious markings on outer packaging was also noted. For several other alleged brands, the investigators made no enquiries with brand-owners. Market enquiry findings also indicated the goods bore fake brand names. On this record, the Court held there was no basis/evidence to conclude the goods were "branded" in the sense assumed for valuation.
Conclusion: The finding that the goods were "branded" was held wrong and unsupported by evidence; consequently, valuation on the footing of genuine branded goods could not be sustained.
Issue 3: Compliance with valuation methodology after rejection; impact on confiscation and penalties
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined Rule 12 (rejection of declared value) and the requirement that once transaction value is rejected, valuation must proceed sequentially under the applicable rules rather than by an unsupported leap. The Court emphasised that Rule 12 itself is not a valuation method; it only sets circumstances for rejection, and determination must then follow the prescribed sequence. The Court also treated comparability (quality standards/grade/brand and like goods) as essential before relying on other price indicators.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the impugned order did not adequately discuss why the declared value was unacceptable under the relevant rule conditions, and did not identify contemporaneous imports of like/similar goods in comparable quantity or the importers of such goods. The Court further found internal inconsistency: the adjudication admitted no under-valuation for unbranded goods, yet values of unbranded items were also enhanced without clarity as to how final values were computed. The Court held that absence of actual import data and failure to compare quality/standards meant the core tenets of Section 14 were "flouted." Given that the valuation rejection and enhancement were not sustained, the Court held confiscation and penalties imposed on that basis could not survive.
Conclusion: The valuation exercise was held legally unsustainable due to lack of reasons/evidence for rejection, lack of comparable import data, and lack of a clear and lawful sequential determination; therefore, confiscation and penalties founded on the under-valuation/misdeclaration premise were also held unsustainable.
Issue 4: Natural justice-non-issuance of show cause notice and failure to confront material, despite waiver
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied principles of natural justice requiring that the importer be confronted with the material relied on for enhancing value and that adjudication not be indefinitely delayed. The Court treated non-issuance of a show cause notice and failure to adhere to mandatory timelines as going to the root of adjudication.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the Court acknowledged that the importer initially waived the right to a written show cause notice, it held that the importer still had to be confronted with the material used for enhancement. The Court found denial of natural justice because the adjudicating authority enhanced valuation without such confrontation. The Court further found the adjudication failed to maintain mandatory timelines: the goods were seized and later provisionally released, yet the adjudication proceeded without timely issuance of show cause notice and within the required period. The Court treated non-issuance of show cause notice as a definite violation that vitiated the adjudication.
Conclusion: The adjudication was held vitiated for breach of natural justice due to non-issuance of show cause notice and failure to provide proper opportunity to meet the valuation enhancement material, notwithstanding waiver; this defect was held to invalidate the impugned orders.
FINAL DISPOSITION (as decided by the Court): The impugned appellate order was set aside and the appeals were allowed, primarily because (i) the department failed to prove under-valuation or justify rejection of transaction value under the required standards; (ii) goods were wrongly treated as branded despite counterfeit indications and lack of verification; (iii) valuation methodology and evidentiary basis were deficient, including enhancement of unbranded goods without clarity; and (iv) the adjudication suffered from violation of principles of natural justice due to non-issuance of show cause notice and lack of confrontation with relied-upon material within mandatory timelines.
Mis-declaration in respect of brand description and value of the imported goods - under valuation of the imported goods - sufficient corroboration to the admitted manipulation - Violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 provides that the transaction value of goods shall be the price actually paid or payable for the goods when sold for export to India where the buyer and the seller of the goods are not related and the price is the sole consideration for the sale, subject to such other conditions as may be specified in the rules made in this behalf. The valuation Rules have been framed in exercise of the power conferred by Section 14 of the Customs Act.
InEicher Tractors Ltd., Haryana Vs. Commissioner of Customs, Mumbai [2000 (11) TMI 139 - SUPREME COURT], held 'The word ordinarily necessarily implies the exclusion of extraordinary or special circumstances. This is clarified by the last phrase in Section 14 which describes an ordinary sale as one where the seller or the buyer have no interest in the business of each other and the price is the sole consideration for the sale.. Subject to these three conditions laid down in Section 14(1) of time, place and absence of special circumstances, the price of imported goods is to be determined under S. 14(1A) in accordance with the rules framed in this behalf.'
“Onus to prove that declared price did not reflect true transaction value is always on department – department is bound to accept transaction value entered between two parties in absence of any evidence that identical or similar goods are imported by other importers at higher price”. This was held by Hon’ble Apex Court in the case titled as Commissioner of Customs, New Delhi Vs. Prodelin India (P) Ltd. [2006 (8) TMI 186 - SUPREME COURT] - In the present case, it is observed that the undervaluation is alleged based on the allegation that the goods imported by the appellants were of renowned brand but no brand was declared by appellant in Bill of Entry No. 3494446 dated 05.10.2017.
In the instant case, no such comparison of quality standards has been made before loading of value since no comparable import data has been incorporated in the impugned Order-in-Original. The adjudicating authority completely failed to cite or rely upon any actual import date to substantiate the charge of under valuation. Therefore, the essential tenets of Section 14 had been flouted. Further, there is no evidence to establish that the appellant/importer had made any payment to the overseas suppliers beyond the declared invoice value.
In the present case, the impugned order does not discuss as to why the declared transaction value is not acceptable in view of the provisions of sub-rule (2) of Rule 4 of the Valuation Rules and whether they are, for any valid reasons, doubting the declared value. The basis for rejecting the value in the impugned order that the declared value is less than the average price of the raw materials plastic, glass, metals, etc., is totally incorrect, as the prices of these raw materials in India have been adopted, while the goods have been imported from China - There is no mention in the impugned order as to whether the contemporaneous import of like goods or similar goods in comparable quantity at the prices proposed in the show cause notice has been noticed. In view of this, the impugned order upholding the rejection of the transaction value and raising the same to Rs.7,18,890/- is not sustainable. For the same reason, the confiscation of the goods under Section 111 (m) and imposition of penalty under Section 112 on this count is not sustainable. As already mentioned above that identical goods were not verified, rejection of transaction value is not sustainable.
Violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Undoubtedly, the appellant had waived the right of issue of show cause notice. But the appellant was not confronted by the adjudicating authority as for enhancing the valuation of the goods. The principles of natural justice require that the Revenue authorities should have confronted the appellant with the material available for enhancing the value. There is, thus, denial of natural justice - In the instant case, the stage of issuing the show cause notice has not been crossed. Even if it were to be taken that the Petitioner validly waived the right to be served with the show cause notice, an adjudication order had to be passed within a reasonable time after the seizure. Here, not only has the initial period of six months after the date of seizure lapsed, but the next six months also lapsed without any order having being passed in respect of extension of the period of six months for the reason indicated in Section 110(2) of the Act. Merely because there was a waiver by the petitioner of the right to be served with the show cause notice, it does not mean that the respondents could indefinitely postpone the adjudication order without which the respondents could not have, in terms of Section 124(A) proceeded to confiscate the seized goods.
The goods in the present case were seized on 17.10.2017 and were provisionally released on 23.05.2018. Appellant requested for a written show cause notice on 12.11.2018. The Order-in-Original dated 05.04.2019 has failed to maintain the mandatory timeline. Non-issuance of show cause notice is definite violation of principles of natural justice. This violation goes to the root of the impugned adjudication order - In totality of the discussion arrived, the Commissioner (Appeals) has failed to observe the mandate of Section 14 and 12 of the Customs Act, 1962. In the absence of any evidence produced by the department the goods have wrongly been alleged of all imported goods have been enhanced including those which were admittedly unbranded. No proper opportunity was given to the importer to defend himself vis14 à-vis the allegations especially when appellant/importer initially waived off the right of being served with the show cause notice.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the declared value of the live Bill of Entry for imported LED TVs could be rejected on the allegation that the goods were branded and undervalued; (ii) whether the declared values of the past Bills of Entry for Drywall Screws could be rejected and re-determined on the basis of third-party proforma invoices and retrieved electronic material.
Issue (i): Whether the declared value of the live Bill of Entry for imported LED TVs could be rejected on the allegation that the goods were branded and undervalued.
Analysis: The goods covered by the live Bill of Entry were physically examined on 100% basis and found to conform to the Bill of Entry, commercial invoice and packing list. The brand stickers were found only on the LED panels and not on the entire television set, so the presence of a brand mark on one component did not justify treating the whole imported goods as branded. The objection based on the certificate of origin was also not sustained, as the alleged mismatch was explained as a typographical error and no contrary evidence was produced. Further, the departmental reliance on retrieved printouts and proforma invoices was not admissible in the absence of compliance with the statutory requirements governing electronic records.
Conclusion: The rejection of the declared value for the live Bill of Entry was unsustainable and the issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the declared values of the past Bills of Entry for Drywall Screws could be rejected and re-determined on the basis of third-party proforma invoices and retrieved electronic material.
Analysis: The reassessment was based on invoices and documents relating to different importers and different periods, without contemporaneous evidence showing undervaluation of the appellant's own imports. The declared transaction value remains the statutory basis for valuation unless validly rejected, and rejection under the valuation rules requires a legally sustainable reason to doubt its truth or accuracy, followed by proper procedural compliance. Since the department relied on third-party material, did not establish a reliable comparable basis, and did not satisfy the requirements for proving retrieved electronic records, the redetermination of value could not be upheld.
Conclusion: The rejection and re-determination of value for the past Bills of Entry were unsustainable and the issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order could not survive scrutiny on either the live import or the past consignments, and the valuation demands, confiscation and penalty related consequences were set aside.
Ratio Decidendi: Declared transaction value cannot be rejected unless the department establishes a legally sustainable doubt with reliable evidence, and electronic or third-party material must satisfy the statutory rules of admissibility before it can be used to displace the importer's declared value.
Undervaluation in the import of goods - LED TV and Drywall Screws - evasion of Customs duty - rejection of declared value and re-determination of the same - failure to follow the mandatory requirement provided under Section 138C of the Customs Act - HELD THAT:- The department proceeded against appellant on the fact that the imported TVs were the branded TVs and have been misdeclared as unbranded. However, in the present case, as also apparent from the Panchnama dated 28.03.2018, it is observed that the sticker was found affixed with Samsung brand logo on LED curved panels of 17” TV and of HannStar brand logo on LED curved panel of 19” TV. It is a simultaneous apparent fact in the Panchnama itself that all the LED panels were not having any brand sticker - The contention of the importer appellant about importing unbranded TV is acceptable. Merely because one part of the TV (curved panel) was branded, the entire imported TV cannot be held to be branded TV.
The appellants has relied upon the Final Order of this Tribunal in the case of M/s Mittal Impex [2024 (12) TMI 296 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] mentioning that in the said matter it has already been held that the branded product was merely LED curved panels and not other parts of the TV. The imported goods in the said case have been held to be rightly declared as unbranded. It has been held that due to sticker of a brand on one part of TV (LED panel) all parts and the TV cannot be called as branded. The certificate of origin was admittedly the original documents issued by Government of Thailand. Involvement of appellant as held by the adjudicating authority below, therefore has no basis. No evidence has been discussed nor even produced for proving the alleged involvement of appellant in getting the said certificate of origin. The mention of Shri Harsh Mittal in the said certificate has already been clarified as a typographical error vide letter dated 22.06.2021 as was received from foreign export. No evidence is produced by the department to counter the said letter.
It is further found that department has also merely relied upon the documents which were the print outs of the retrieved data. It is observed that department has not followed the mandatory requirement provided under Section 138C of the Customs Act which deals with the admissibility of micro films Facsimile copies of the documents and computer print outs as document in evidence. The decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Anvar P.V. Vs. P.K. Basheer [2014 (9) TMI 1007 - SUPREME COURT] as relied upon by the appellant is perused. It is observed that while dealing with Section 65B of the Evidence Act, 1872 (Pari materia to Section 138C of the Customs Act, 1962), Hon’ble court has held that 'Having regard to the admissible evidence available on record, though for different reasons, we find it extremely difficult to hold that the appellant has founded and proved corrupt practice under Section 100(1)(b) read with Section 123(4) of the RP Act against the first respondent.'
In the present case, there are no reason to reject the submission specifically for the reason that there was no checking as far as the consignment of Drywall Screw is concerned. The checking was conducted in the year 2021 whereas the Bills of Entry for importing Drywall Screw pertains to the year 2016-18. The entire allegations are held to be the result of mere presumptions and assumptions. The rejection of the declared value and re-determination by the adjudicating authorities is, therefore, held liable to be set aside. It is also coming as an apparent fact that the commercial invoice which the department has relied upon for comparing the value is of the year 2015-16 whereas the appellant has imported the goods in the year 2016-17 and 2017-18 - Fluctuation in the rates with respect to the technology related industries is a reason due to which the invoices of different financial year cannot be relied upon for the purposes of comparing the values. For this reason also coupled with the absence of any other evidence by the department, the comparison is held to be the result of assumption - the proforma invoice relied upon was of a different supplier and even different buyer/importer. It is held that revaluation of goods done by the department is absolutely unwarranted. The order re-determining the value after rejecting the declared value is, therefore, not sustainable.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether handheld barcode scanner devices with ancillary mobile-phone features were classifiable as scanners under Heading 8471 or as smartphones under Heading 8517.
Analysis: Classification under the Customs Tariff had to be determined in accordance with the General Rules for Interpretation, Chapter Notes, and the headings themselves. The devices were examined in the light of the definition of smartphone under Chapter 85, the requirements for an automatic data processing machine under Chapter 84, and the principle that a composite machine is classified according to its principal function. The devices were found to be designed primarily for barcode scanning and data capture, while communication features such as SIM slots, calling capability, Bluetooth, camera, and similar functions were only supplementary. The trade parlance material, product description, and sample demonstrated that the goods were known in commerce as handheld scanners and not as mobile phones. The classification guidance in the Board circular also supported treatment of the devices according to their principal scanning function.
Conclusion: The goods were not smartphones and were correctly classifiable as scanners under Heading 8471.
Final Conclusion: The reassessment under Heading 8517 was unsustainable and the assessees were entitled to the consequential relief flowing from classification under Heading 8471.
Ratio Decidendi: For composite goods, customs classification follows the principal function and the manner in which the goods are identified in trade, and ancillary communication features do not shift the classification to smartphones where scanning remains the dominant use.
Classification of goods - Handheld Mobile Barcode Scanner, NLS-MT-9052-GL-2WE - Handheld Mobile Barcode Scanner, NLS-MT9055-GL-2WE - to be classified under CTH 84716050 or under CTH 85171300? - HELD THAT:- In circular No. 20/2013-Cus. dated 14.05.2013, clarification has been given by the Board regarding the classification of "tablet computers" under heading 8471 stating that; "The mobile phone calling function could be provided by the products only as a supplementary function because it could not be activated without running an operating system of the devices. These devices are not intended to be a substitute for a mobile phone to make voice calls, but, according to its main technical features is designed as a substitute for laptops”.
Further, the trade parlance test is the another relevant criteria for determining the product and the relevant customs tariff entry. Hon’ble High Court Bombay in the case of PMP Auto Industries Ltd. Vs. Union of India [1987 (8) TMI 86 - HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY] has held that the goods are to be classified the way they are known by those who deal with them. It is the contention of the appellant that the product in question is used for logistic purposes by the warehouses and all those who required to maintain the inventory as the product is a competent barcode scanner. The features of mobile phone are merely the ancillary features. Department has not produced any evidence to counter the said contention and to prove that the primary function of the imported good was that of mobile phone/smart phone.
At the time of arguments, the appellant produced a sample of the imported goods. It was comparatively bigger than the mobile phone it had a handle for the product to be held in hand which is actually not the feature of the product which are sold in the market as mobile phone. Chapter note 8 of chapter 84 also stipulates that a machine which is used for more than one purpose is, for the purposes of classification, to be treated as if, it is principal purpose were its sole purpose. In the documents on record in the form of brochures, invoices, packing list etc., the imported goods are described as a Handheld Scanners. They are known as such to trade - there are no reason to hold the product is smart phone merely because the product has an ancillary function of being used a smart phone.
The finding in the impugned orders-in- appeal in these appeals that the goods in question were mobile phones is set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether Wheat Seed Oil - Ceramosides is classifiable under Tariff Item 13021919 as a vegetable extract under Heading 1302; (ii) whether, if not classifiable under Heading 1302, the product is classifiable under Tariff Item 21069099 under Heading 2106 as a food or nutraceutical preparation.
Issue (i): Whether Wheat Seed Oil - Ceramosides is classifiable under Tariff Item 13021919 as a vegetable extract under Heading 1302.
Analysis: Heading 1302 covers vegetable saps and extracts obtained from plant material by simple solvent extraction, provided they are not subjected to additional extraction cycles, purification, standardisation, or compounding that alters their character. On the material placed on record, the product is derived from wheat seed by solvent-driven extraction and subsequent filtration, evaporation, concentration, and standardisation to obtain defined lipid fractions. It is marketed and used as a functional ingredient for nutraceutical formulations with specific dosage indications and general skin and hair health claims. These features take it beyond a crude or simple vegetable extract contemplated by Heading 1302.
Conclusion: The product is not classifiable under Tariff Item 13021919.
Issue (ii): Whether, if not classifiable under Heading 1302, the product is classifiable under Tariff Item 21069099 under Heading 2106 as a food or nutraceutical preparation.
Analysis: Heading 2106 covers food preparations not elsewhere specified or included, including preparations commonly regarded as food supplements or dietary supplements based on extracts or isolates of substances found in foods and put up as supplements to the normal diet. The product is a standardised, functional ingredient intended for oral use in finished dietary supplements such as tablets, capsules, gummies, and powders. Its commercial presentation, dosage guidance, and nutraceutical purpose align with the scope of Heading 2106 rather than with a crude plant extract or a medicinal preparation.
Conclusion: The product is classifiable under Tariff Item 21069099.
Final Conclusion: The product is excluded from Heading 1302 and is correctly classified as a food or nutraceutical preparation under Heading 2106.
Ratio Decidendi: A standardised plant-derived ingredient that undergoes further processing and is marketed for oral nutraceutical use as a dietary supplement falls outside the scope of Heading 1302 and is classifiable under Heading 2106 when it answers the description of a food preparation not elsewhere specified.
Classification of vegetable extracts versus food preparations (Chapter 13 v. Chapter 21) - HSN Explanatory Notes - exclusion for extracts subjected to purification/standardisation - General Rules for the Interpretation of the Tariff (GRI 1 and GRI 3(b)) - Essential character test - Food supplements / dietary supplements as preparations under Heading 2106
Classification of vegetable extracts versus food preparations (Chapter 13 v. Chapter 21) - HSN Explanatory Notes - exclusion for extracts subjected to purification/standardisation - General Rules for the Interpretation of the Tariff (GRI 1) - Whether the product 'Wheat seed oil - Ceramosides' is classifiable under Tariff Item 13021919 (Heading 1302). - HELD THAT: - The Authority examined the product composition, manufacturing process and commercial presentation and applied the HSN Explanatory Notes to Heading 1302 together with GRI 1. Although the product originates from wheat seed and is obtained by solvent extraction, the material on record (technical data sheet, brochure and manufacturing steps) shows standardisation, concentration and purification steps (filtration, evaporation and concentration to attain defined lipid fractions). The Explanatory Notes to Heading 1302 exclude extracts subjected to additional extraction cycles or purification processes that materially alter constituent concentrations and exclude extracts which have the character of preparations. These characteristics take the product beyond the ordinary meaning of a crude or simple vegetable extract contemplated by Heading 1302. The Authority therefore held that Heading 1302 is not applicable to CeramosidesTM and answered the question in the negative. [Paras 34, 37]
No, the product is not classifiable under Tariff Item 13021919.
Food supplements / dietary supplements as preparations under Heading 2106 - Essential character test (GRI 3(b)) - General Rules for the Interpretation of the Tariff (GRI 1 and 3(b)) - Whether the product 'Wheat seed oil - Ceramosides' is classifiable under Tariff Item 21069099 (Heading 2106). - HELD THAT: - The Authority applied the HSN Explanatory Notes to Heading 2106 which include preparations referred to as food or dietary supplements based on extracts and standardised concentrates put up as supplements to the normal diet. The product is presented and marketed as a standardised nutraceutical ingredient with specified dosages and clinical claims for skin and hair wellbeing, licensed under FSSAI as a functional ingredient and capable of oral consumption (direct oil dosage indicated and use as intermediate in finished dietary formulations). Under GRI 1 and, on the basis of essential character (GRI 3(b)), these commercial identity, form of presentation, standardisation and intended use impart to the product the essential character of a food preparation/dietary supplement. Consequently, the Authority concluded that the product fits within Heading 2106 and specifically under Tariff Item 2106 90 99. [Paras 35, 36, 37]
Yes, the product is classifiable under Tariff Item 2106 90 99.
Final Conclusion: The Advance Ruling holds that 'Wheat seed oil - Ceramosides' is not a crude vegetable extract under Heading 1302 but is a standardised nutraceutical/food preparation and is classifiable under Tariff Item 2106 90 99; the Authority therefore denies classification under 13021919 and rules in favour of classification under 21069099.
Issues: (i) Whether the goods proposed to be imported (Copper cables; Capacitor; Ceramic gap pad; Connector; Fuse; Relay; Inductor; MOSFET/Transistor; Transformer) are to be classified under their respective tariff headings as listed in Table-II of the ruling or as parts of the Combo 3-in-1 (OBC+DC/DC+PDU) (classifiable under heading 8504).
Analysis: The Authority applied the General Rules of Interpretation (GRI), relevant Chapter and Section Notes of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and the HSN Explanatory Notes. Note 2 to Section XVI and its sub-parts (notably Note 2(a)) provide that parts which constitute goods included in any heading of Chapter 84 or 85 must be classified in their respective headings. The HSN Explanatory Notes to Section XVI and to the relevant headings confirm that articles which independently constitute entries in Chapter 85 (or 84/85) are to be classified in those specific headings even if designed to be used as part of a particular machine. The Authority also considered Note 2 to Section XVII and the three HSN conditions for vehicle parts, concluding those conditions are not satisfied because the items are specifically and more precisely included elsewhere and are not exclusively for motor vehicles. Applying these principles item-wise, the Authority examined the nature and technical characteristics of each product and identified the specific tariff sub-headings (e.g., insulated copper conductors under 8544; electrical capacitors under 8532; insulating ceramic fittings under 8547; plugs/sockets/connectors/fuses/relays under 8535/8536 as per voltage ratings; inductors and transformers under 8504; semiconductor devices under 8541), relying on the specific tariff entries and HSN explanatory guidance to determine the appropriate sub-items where applicable.
Conclusion: The Authority concluded that each of the listed products is classifiable on its own merit under the specific tariff headings shown in Table-II (Copper Cables 8544; Capacitor 8532; Ceramic gap pad 8547; Connector 8535/8536 depending on voltage; Fuse 8536; Relay 8536; Inductor 8504; MOSFET/Transistor 8541; Transformer 8504 with sub-items by kVA). The items are not to be classified as parts of the Combo 3-in-1 (OBC+DC/DC+PDU).
Ratio Decidendi: Where an imported article independently corresponds to a specific heading of Chapter 84 or 85, it must be classified in that specific heading (Note 2(a), Section XVI and attendant HSN Explanatory Notes), and not as a part of another machine even if intended for use in that machine.
Classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - Note 2(a) to Section XVI - parts of machines rule (Chapters 84 and 85) - HSN Explanatory Notes on parts and independent headings - Note 2 to Section XVII - conditions for parts of motor vehicles - classification in own heading despite use in manufacture of other machines - advance ruling under Section 28H(2) of the Customs Act, 1962
Classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - Note 2(a) to Section XVI - parts of machines rule (Chapters 84 and 85) - HSN Explanatory Notes on parts and independent headings - Classification of Copper Cables imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - The Authority applied GRI1 and Note 2(a) to Section XVI and observed that Heading 8544 expressly covers insulated electric conductors (including those fitted with connectors). The HSN Explanatory Notes confirm that insulated wires and cables (cut to length or fitted with connectors) remain classifiable in Heading 8544. As the cables are plastic (silicone rubber) insulated and used for conduction of electricity, they are not to be treated as parts of another machine but classified on their own description under Tariff Item 85444220. [Paras 6]
Copper Cables classifiable under Heading 8544 (Tariff Item 85444220).
Classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - HSN Explanatory Notes on capacitors - Classification of Capacitors imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8532 covers electrical capacitors of various types irrespective of intended use. The HSN Explanatory Notes include fixed and other capacitors. The Authority found the imported items comprise aluminium electrolytic capacitors and fixed dielectric (plastic) capacitors and determined their specific tariff entries accordingly: aluminium electrolytic under 85322200 and fixed plastic dielectric under 85322500. [Paras 6]
Capacitors classifiable under Heading 8532 (Tariff Items 85322200 and 85322500 as applicable).
Note 2(a) to Section XVI - parts of machines rule (Chapters 84 and 85) - HSN Explanatory Notes on insulating fittings - Classification of Ceramic Gap Pads imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8547 covers insulating fittings wholly of insulating material (including ceramics) designed for insulating purposes though they may have protective functions. The ceramic gap pads are wholly of ceramic, designed for insulation and heat dissipation on PCBs and match the descriptive scope of Heading 8547. Thus they must be classified under that heading rather than as parts of another machine. [Paras 6]
Ceramic Gap Pads classifiable under Heading 8547 (Tariff Item 85471090).
Classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - HSN Explanatory Notes on plugs and sockets - Note 2(a) to Section XVI - parts of machines rule (Chapters 84 and 85) - Classification of Connectors (two voltage categories) imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - The Authority distinguished connectors by voltage rating. For connectors with voltage capacity not exceeding 1000 V, Heading 8536 (plugs, sockets and other connectors for voltage not exceeding 1,000 V) applies and such items fall under Tariff Item 85366990. For connectors with voltage capacity exceeding 1000 V, Heading 8535 applies and such connectors fall under Tariff Item 85359090. The decision relies on GRI/HSN explanatory notes and specific entries. [Paras 6]
Connectors classifiable under Heading 8536 (Tariff Item 85366990) if 1000 V and under Heading 8535 (Tariff Item 85359090) if >1000 V.
HSN Explanatory Notes on fuses - classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - Classification of Fuses imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8536 covers fuses for circuits where voltage does not exceed 1000 V and the Explanatory Notes describe complete fuses and sockets presented separately. As the applicant's fuses have working voltage below 1000 V, they fall within Heading 8536 and specifically under Tariff Item 85361090 (other fuses). [Paras 6]
Fuses classifiable under Heading 8536 (Tariff Item 85361090).
HSN Explanatory Notes on relays - classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - Classification of Relays imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8536 specifically covers relays with subheadings distinguishing relays for voltage not exceeding 60 V and others. The applicant's relays for fast charging and battery are 450 V (exceeding 60 V) and are classifiable under Tariff Item 85364900; precharge relays not exceeding 60 V are classifiable under Tariff Item 85364100. The Authority applied the heading descriptions and Explanatory Notes to reach these specific entries. [Paras 6]
Relays classifiable under Heading 8536 - 85364900 for >60 V relays and 85364100 for 60 V relays.
Classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - HSN Explanatory Notes on inductors - Classification of Inductors (including choke coils) imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8504 covers inductors and Tariff Item 85045010 specifically covers choke coils (chokes) whereas 85045090 is the residuary entry. The Authority examined the products and photographs: choke coils (copper wires bound over a core) fall under 85045010; other inductors without copper bound over a core fall under 85045090. [Paras 6]
Inductors classifiable under Heading 8504 - 85045010 for choke coils and 85045090 for other inductors.
HSN Explanatory Notes on semiconductor devices - classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - Classification of MOSFET/Transistor imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8541 covers semiconductor devices including transistors. Subheadings distinguish transistors with dissipation rate <1 W (85412100) and others (85412900). The MOSFETs in question have power dissipation greatly exceeding 1 W (stated >250 W) and thus fall under the residuary Tariff Item 85412900. [Paras 6]
MOSFET/Transistor classifiable under Heading 8541 (Tariff Item 85412900).
Classification under General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) Rule 1 - HSN Explanatory Notes on transformers - Classification of Transformers (0.288 kVA and 2.7 kVA) imported separately for manufacture of Combo 3in1 - HELD THAT: - Heading 8504 covers transformers with tariff subheadings based on powerhandling capacity. The Authority accepted the applicant's capacity figures and applied the specific tariff entries: transformers with power handling capacity not exceeding 1 kVA are classifiable under 85043100 (0.288 kVA), and those exceeding 1 kVA but not exceeding 16 kVA are classifiable under 85043200 (2.7 kVA). [Paras 6]
Transformers classifiable under Heading 8504 - 85043100 for 0.288 kVA and 85043200 for 2.7 kVA.
Note 2 to Section XVII - conditions for parts of motor vehicles - classification in own heading despite use in manufacture of other machines - Whether any of the listed components are to be classified as parts of motor vehicles (Heading 8708) or as parts of the Combo 3in1 instead of their own headings - HELD THAT: - The Authority applied Note 2 to Section XVII and the HSN Explanatory Notes which set three cumulative conditions for classification as parts of motor vehicles: not excluded by Note 2 to Section XVII, suitable solely or principally for vehicles, and not more specifically included elsewhere. All products at issue are specifically included elsewhere in Chapter 85 or 85/84 entries and are not exclusively suitable for automobiles. Therefore they do not satisfy the conditions to be classed as vehicle parts under Heading 8708 and must be classified in their own specific headings. [Paras 6]
None of the listed components are classifiable as parts of motor vehicles or as parts of the Combo 3in1; each is classifiable under its own specific tariff heading as set out above.
Final Conclusion: Advance ruling: the imported items (Copper Cables, Capacitor, Ceramic gap pad, Connector, Fuse, Relay, Inductor, MOSFET/Transistor and Transformer) are classifiable in their respective headings as listed in TableII of the ruling (summarised in the issue decisions above). The ruling is issued under the advanceruling jurisdiction and is kept confidential at the applicant's request.
Issues: Whether the Adjudicating Authority was justified in permitting amendment of the Section 95 personal guarantor application to substitute the date of default with the date of the recall notice, and whether such amendment introduced a time-barred claim.
Analysis: The amendment did not conclude the merits of limitation or the validity of invocation of guarantee. The request was made before final adjudication and was directed only to place the alleged correct invocation date and default date on record for effective determination of the insolvency application. The appellant was given liberty to respond to the amended petition and to raise all objections, including limitation and absence of invocation of guarantee. The governing approach to amendment is that pleadings may be amended if necessary for proper adjudication and if no irreparable prejudice or withdrawal of an accrued defence is caused. The question whether the amended date ultimately renders the Section 95 proceeding time-barred was left open for decision in the main proceedings.
Conclusion: The amendment was rightly allowed and the challenge to it failed.
Time limitation - Change of date of default and consequential modification by way of amendment in the Company Petition No.413 of 2022 filed under Section 95 of IBC - HELD THAT:- Present is a case where since the Bank could not bring on record any proof of service of notice under Section 13(2) on the Appellant, recall notice dated 05.04.2016 is sought to be added. Whether the notice by which entire loan is claimed to be recalled is the notice which is barred by time is the question which need to be considered while hearing the application by the Adjudicating Authority. The Appellant shall be free to file a reply to the amendments allowed and raise all contentions with respect to the amended pleadings. By allowing the amendment, the Adjudicating Authority could not be said to be expressing any opinion on merits of the pleadings and those are issues which need to be gone into at the time of hearing of the application on merits.
Law is well settled that without invocation of deed of guarantee of the Personal Guarantor no proceeding under Section 95 can be initiated. It is also well settled that invocation of guarantee has to be precede service of notice by the Financial Creditor in Form B.
Thus, by permitting amendment of date of default as 05.04.2016 the Adjudicating Authority has not committed any error and we do not find any error in the order allowing the amendments. The Adjudicating Authority having granted time to the Appellant to file reply to the amended petition, it is open for the Appellant to raise all its objections including the question for invocation of guarantee as claimed by the State Bank of India on 05.04.2016 as barred by time.
There are no ground to interfere with the impugned order - appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether the recall application should be allowed on the ground that the earlier appeal was filed beyond the statutory period without a separate written application for condonation of delay.
Analysis: The appeal was found to be delayed only marginally and, after excluding the time taken for obtaining the certified copy, the delay was treated as falling within the grace period prescribed for condonation. The absence of any objection to limitation at the relevant stage was treated as significant, and the record was viewed as supporting a bona fide misunderstanding arising from the Registry note. The Tribunal further held that a written application for condonation is not indispensable where relief can otherwise be granted under the law of limitation.
Conclusion: The recall prayer was rejected and the delay-based challenge to the earlier order was not accepted.
Final Conclusion: The order dated 23.05.2025 was left undisturbed, and the application seeking recall was dismissed for want of merit.
Ratio Decidendi: A short delay within the condonable period may be treated as condoned where no timely objection to limitation was raised and prejudice is not shown, and a written application for condonation is not mandatory under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
Application filed u/r 11 of the NCLAT Rules 2016 seeking recall of the order and judgment passed by this Tribunal - appeal was filed beyond the statutory period of 30 days, as prescribed under Section 61(2) of IBC - HELD THAT:- There was a genuine mistaken belief due to inadvertent wrong reporting of the Registry that there was no delay and hence it seems plausible such application for condonation, if filed, could have been removed by the Respondent; coupled with the fact that never any objection qua limitation was ever raised, hence it is found that the delay of 3 days in filing of the appeal, being within the grace period could very well be condoned if such application was on record and no objection was raised. Hence, non-raising of such objection by Respondent clearly shows no prejudice was caused to it over a short delay of 3 days.
It is not inclined to recall the order, as the delay was within the grace period, deemed to have been condoned, coupled with the fact the applicant also failed to raise such objection at relevant time. The application for recall of order dated 23.05.2025 is thus nothing but an attempt to initiate this appeal de novo.
The application lacks merit and is dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether initiation/admission of a creditor's application under Section 95 against personal guarantors is barred by the moratorium under Section 14 operating in the corporate debtor's CIRP.
(ii) Whether Section 10A (suspension of initiation of insolvency proceedings for specified COVID-period defaults) bars proceedings under Section 95 against personal guarantors.
(iii) Whether the application under Section 95 was liable to be rejected at the admission stage due to dispute/alleged misdeclaration regarding the quantum of debt (including differences between amounts demanded from guarantors and amounts admitted in the corporate debtor's CIRP, and alleged recoveries from co-guarantors), when default above the statutory threshold was undisputed.
(iv) Whether the objections of the personal guarantors and the Resolution Professional's report under Section 99 were not considered in substance so as to vitiate the admission of the Section 95 application.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Section 14 moratorium in corporate debtor's CIRP as a bar to Section 95 proceedings against personal guarantors
Legal framework: The Court examined the effect of moratorium under Section 14 in relation to proceedings against a personal guarantor, and the permissibility of creditor action against the guarantor notwithstanding CIRP of the principal borrower.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that although initiation of CIRP results in a moratorium restricting recovery from the corporate debtor, the creditor's action in the present case was against the personal guarantors. The Court emphasised that the personal guarantees were invoked by a notice dated 14.03.2022, and that such invocation and the consequential Section 95 action were not precluded merely because CIRP of the corporate debtor had commenced earlier. The Court treated the moratorium as not operating to bar proceedings against the personal guarantor in this context.
Conclusion: Section 14 moratorium in the corporate debtor's CIRP did not bar initiation/admission of Section 95 proceedings against the personal guarantors; the challenge on this ground was rejected.
Issue (ii): Applicability of Section 10A to Section 95 proceedings against personal guarantors
Legal framework: The Court considered Section 10A and its statutory scope, and whether it extends to proceedings under Part III (including Section 95) against personal guarantors.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that Section 10A suspends filing of applications under Sections 7, 9 and 10, and does not bar proceedings under Section 95. The Court accepted the respondent's submission that Section 10A does not apply to personal guarantor proceedings under Part III, and relied on the Tribunal's earlier reasoning (as adopted in the judgment) that the legislative scheme did not insert a corresponding bar in Part III. The Court further noted that, in the present case, the guarantee invocation occurred on 14.03.2022, reinforcing that the Section 95 process was not inhibited by Section 10A.
Conclusion: Section 10A did not bar Section 95 proceedings against the personal guarantors; the objection based on Section 10A was rejected.
Issue (iii): Effect of dispute on quantum of debt/recoveries from co-guarantors on admission of Section 95 application
Legal framework: The Court focused on whether, at the admission stage under Section 95, the proceeding could be refused due to disputes on the precise debt computation when default above the statutory threshold was admitted. The Court also considered the Adjudicating Authority's approach that exact computation could be addressed in the repayment plan stage.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court acknowledged the appellant's argument that the creditor demanded higher sums from the guarantors than the amount admitted in the corporate debtor's CIRP, and that payments had allegedly been made by co-guarantors. The Court noted that the creditor's larger claim in the corporate debtor's CIRP had been partly rejected by the RP and was under challenge in a pending application, so the admitted amount in CIRP could not be treated as conclusively capping the creditor's asserted debt for all purposes. Crucially, the Court found that, even assuming (for argument) that the lower admitted amount was the relevant debt, the appellants did not establish full repayment; even on their own assertions, more than the threshold amount remained unpaid. The Court accepted the Adjudicating Authority's approach that differences in calculation could be addressed in the repayment plan process, while admission required that default above the threshold be present, which was undisputed.
Conclusion: Dispute on exact quantum, including alleged co-guarantor recoveries, did not warrant rejection of the Section 95 application at admission where default exceeding the threshold (Rs. 1 crore) was admitted and full discharge was not proved; admission was upheld.
Issue (iv): Alleged non-consideration of personal guarantors' objections and inadequacy of Section 99 report
Legal framework: The Court assessed whether the decision-making process was vitiated on the ground that objections were not considered and that the Section 99 report was not prepared with due examination.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the Adjudicating Authority had in fact noted the personal guarantors' objections in the impugned order and considered the Resolution Professional's report recommending admission. The Adjudicating Authority recorded a finding that it was not the personal guarantors' case that the debt had been repaid, and treated the dispute on computation as an issue capable of being addressed through the repayment plan. The Court found no procedural or substantive infirmity in the treatment of objections or reliance on the report that would justify appellate interference with admission.
Conclusion: The Court found that objections were considered and the Section 99 recommendation was accepted on adequate grounds; no vitiating non-consideration was established, and admission was affirmed.
Admission of Section 95 application filed by a financial creditor against the appellants - CIRP process having already commenced against the corporate debtor on 28.02.2020, loan recall notice dated 23.03.2020 was hit by Section 14 of the IBC or not - relevant date of default under Section 10A.
Whether CIRP process having already commenced against the corporate debtor on 28.02.2020, loan recall notice dated 23.03.2020 was hit by Section 14 of the IBC? - HELD THAT:- There cannot be any dispute that after initiation of CIRP, any recovery of amount from corporate debtor is prohibited. But the present is the case, where notice of default was issued to the corporate debtor in the year 2019 and initiation of CIRP against the corporate debtor and the moratorium under Section 14 of the IBC does not preclude the financial creditor to initiate action under Section 95 against the personal guarantor. The personal guarantee issued by personal guarantor was invoked by notice dated 14.03.2022, thus invocation against the personal guarantor have taken place on 14.03.2022, the same was well within jurisdiction of the financial creditor and cannot be said to hit by moratorium under Section 14 - there are no substance in the submission of the appellant that proceeding under Section 95 are in any manner hit by Section 14 of the IBC.
Relevant date of default under Section 10A - HELD THAT:- The present is a case, where invocation of guarantee took place on 14.03.2022. In any view of the matter, Section 10A prohibits filing of application under Sections 7, 9 & 10 of the IBC and provisions of Section 10A does not in any manner bar proceedings against the personal guarantor under Part III of the IBC - this Tribunal has rejected the submission raised on behalf of the personal guarantor that application against the personal guarantor cannot be initiated if default is committed during 10A period - there are no substance in the submission of the appellant that proceeding under Section 95 were inhibited by virtue of Section 10A.
In any view of the matter, even as per the case of the appellant, there is no liquidation of the entire admitted amount of the corporate debtor as on date and dues of more than Rs. 1 crore is still pending, hence without entering into the issue regarding the quantum of the amount the quantum being more than Rs. 1 crore, there are no error in the admission of Section 95 application.
Thus, no grounds are made out to interfere with the order admitting Section 95 application against the appellants - there are no error in the order admitting Section 95 application - appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the impugned order dismissing the interlocutory application on merits should be set aside where the applicant's counsel had subsequently sought withdrawal of that application before the order was pronounced, but the adjudicating authority proceeded to decide it on merits.
2) What relief, if any, should be granted to balance (i) the Court's view that the reliefs originally sought were "too wide and general" and not grantable, with (ii) the applicant's right to seek appropriate relief by filing a fresh, properly framed application.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Effect of a subsequent request to withdraw the application before pronouncement, and propriety of a merits dismissal
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the sequence after the application was reserved for orders. It considered the affidavit of the advocate who stated that, upon receiving instructions, he mentioned the matter on 26.04.2024, sought permission to withdraw, and that the request was allowed and directed to be marked as withdrawn, supported by an image of the cause list noting. Although a report from the tribunal registry stated that no praecipe was received and no receipt issued, the Court found the advocate's affidavit credible and saw no reason to disbelieve it. On that factual basis, the Court held that the subsequent withdrawal request was made, yet the adjudicating authority nonetheless dismissed the application on merits.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that, given the withdrawal request supported by the advocate's affidavit, the interests of justice required interference with the impugned order that had proceeded to decide the application on merits.
Issue 2: Appropriate corrective relief-setting aside with liberty to file afresh, without adjudicating merits
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court independently reviewed the nature of the original prayers and recorded that the reliefs sought were "too wide and general" and "could not have been granted." However, it treated this as a reason to permit a better-framed application rather than to sustain the merits dismissal in the particular factual context. The Court focused on ensuring "ends of justice" by restoring the applicant's opportunity to seek relief and concessions through a fresh application capable of being examined and decided in accordance with law, while avoiding any binding view on the substance of such future request.
Conclusions: The impugned order dated 22.04.2024 was set aside, and liberty was granted to file a fresh interlocutory application seeking relief and concessions. The Court expressly refrained from expressing any opinion on the merits of any such application, leaving its consideration to the adjudicating authority in accordance with law.
Setting aside of impugned order dismissing the interlocutory application, where the applicant's counsel had subsequently sought withdrawal of that application before the order was pronounced, but the adjudicating authority proceeded to decide it on merits - HELD THAT:- The reliefs sought are too wide and general and could not have been granted. The events which took thereafter as stated in the affidavit of the counsel clearly supports the case that the appellant subsequently filed a praecipe for withdrawal of the application - there are no reason to disbelieve the affidavit filed by the advocate, who has submitted that prayer was made to withdraw the application. The Adjudicating Authority however, proceeded to dismiss the application on merits.
In the facts of the present case ends of justice be served in setting aside the order dated 22.04.2024 with liberty to appellant to file afresh I.A. praying for relief and concession which may be considered and decided by Adjudicating Authority in accordance with law.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: validity of Sections 50 and 63 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002; petitioner's factual contentions; extension of interim protection.
Outcome: liberty granted to move an intervention application in the connected pending matters to raise constitutional contentions on the challenged provisions; factual contentions left open to be pursued before the High Court; interim protection extended for one week to enable the High Court to consider interim relief; special leave petition disposed of along with pending applications.
Money Laundering - validity of Sections 50 and 63 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 - seeking amendment of writ petition - it was held by High Court that 'this Court is not bound by the provisions of the Code and considering the amendment sought as relief (IV) could not be considered by this Court and hence, this amendment could not be allowed' - HELD THAT:- Liberty granted to the petitioner to move an intervention application in the batch of matters connected to Writ Petition (Criminal) No.132 of 2025, which are currently pending consideration before this Court. Through such an application, the petitioner shall be at liberty to raise all the contentions on the constitutionality of the said provisions.
With regard to the petitioner’s contention on facts, he shall be at liberty to pursue the same in the proceedings pending before the High Court - SLP disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether receipts reflected in audited accounts as "receipts from beauty salon" could be reduced by treating part of the receipts as consideration for alleged retail sale of goods, thereby excluding such value from the taxable value of services.
(ii) Whether the receipts taken from audited profit and loss accounts were to be treated as cum-tax (inclusive) value for computing service tax liability.
(iii) Whether adjustment of the confirmed demand by allowing CENVAT credit on input services was permissible on the basis of documents produced during appeal/adjudication, despite non-availment within the prescribed period and absence of contemporaneous compliance.
(iv) Whether extended period of limitation was correctly invoked on facts found, and whether penalty under the fraud/suppression provision consequently followed.
(v) Whether penalty under the fraud/suppression provision was correctly quantified at 50% for the entire demand, or had to be 100% for the period after the statutory cut-off date, with 50% restricted only to the period covered by the proviso.
(vi) Whether interest and penalty for failure to file returns were sustainable once tax liability was upheld.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Exclusion of alleged retail sale of goods from taxable value
Legal framework: The decision proceeded on the factual requirement of credible evidence to segregate service receipts from goods sale receipts, and on the principle that the claimant bears the burden to establish entitlement to any deduction from taxable value.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court/Tribunal found that the receipts were taken from audited balance sheet/profit and loss accounts where there was no disclosed break-up showing separate proceeds from sale of goods. The claim of goods sale was not supported by reliable sale documents consistent with the governing franchise arrangement; the appellant did not produce transaction-wise evidence of retail sale in the prescribed manner. The Tribunal also noted absence of proof of discharge of state tax typically associated with sale of goods and found the "manual bills" relied upon to be unreliable. Further, the franchise agreement required maintenance and reporting of transaction details, yet such records were not produced despite opportunities during search, investigation, adjudication, and appeal.
Conclusions: The claim to deduct alleged sale-of-goods value from the taxable value was rejected; the entire receipts reflected as "receipts from beauty salon" were treated as consideration for taxable services.
Issue (ii): Cum-tax benefit (treating receipts as inclusive of service tax)
Legal framework: The adjudicating authority's approach (affirmed in substance) was based on valuation principles requiring that where tax is not shown as separately recovered, the gross amount received is treated as inclusive for computation (cum-tax).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the finding that documentary evidence of service tax being separately collected from customers was not brought on record; the allegation was not corroborated by customer invoices/bills. The audited profit and loss accounts reflected only the gross receipts and did not show service tax as a separate ledger entry. On these facts, the gross receipts were held to be the cum-tax value, warranting recomputation by backing out tax from the gross amount rather than treating the figures as tax-exclusive.
Conclusions: Cum-tax benefit was sustained; the demand as re-quantified on cum-tax basis (resulting in the confirmed figure) was upheld.
Issue (iii): Allowability/adjustment of CENVAT credit against demand
Legal framework: The Tribunal applied the time-limit restriction for taking credit introduced into the credit rules (six-month limitation from the date of specified documents), and treated compliance with prescribed conditions/documentation as mandatory for availing credit.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the appellant, though registered, neither paid tax nor filed returns during the disputed period, and did not claim CENVAT credit contemporaneously. Credit was sought only during adjudication/appeal. The Tribunal held that credit cannot be allowed contrary to the statutory time limit and rule conditions, and declined to treat later-produced documents as sufficient to override the restriction. It also distinguished decisions relied upon by the appellant as either relating to periods without such restriction or involving materially different fact situations (e.g., credit claimed within prescribed period in reverse charge situations). The Tribunal further noted that the appellant had not maintained records for availing credit in the manner required.
Conclusions: No adjustment/reduction of the confirmed demand was permitted on account of CENVAT credit; the claim was rejected.
Issue (iv): Invocation of extended limitation and consequence for penalty on suppression/fraud grounds
Legal framework: Extended limitation applies where non-payment/short payment is by reason of suppression or similar conduct with intent to evade; once such conditions are met, penalty under the corresponding fraud/suppression provision follows.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal relied on the appellant's registration, the franchise agreement terms placing responsibility for tax discharge on the franchisee, prolonged non-filing of returns and non-payment of tax, and conduct during investigation (including admission of liability and payment through cheques) to conclude knowledge of liability and deliberate non-compliance. The Tribunal treated the non-disclosure and non-payment as suppression with intent to evade, warranting the extended period.
Conclusions: Extended period was held correctly invoked; the foundational finding of suppression/intent was affirmed, making penalty under the suppression provision sustainable in principle.
Issue (v): Correct quantification of penalty-50% versus 100% based on statutory cut-off
Legal framework: The Tribunal applied the amended penalty provision which restricts 50% penalty to transactions recorded in specified records only for the statutorily defined period ending on the date of presidential assent to the relevant finance bill, and provides 100% penalty thereafter.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the proviso allowing 50% penalty operated only up to the statutory cut-off date; for periods beyond that date, the statute mandated 100% penalty and left no discretion to impose a reduced rate. Since part of the confirmed demand related to periods after the cut-off, the penalty had to be enhanced to 100% for that later period while retaining 50% for the earlier period covered by the proviso.
Conclusions: The penalty was modified: 50% applied only to the portion falling within the proviso period, and 100% applied for the period after the cut-off date; the quantified revised penalty was affirmed accordingly.
Issue (vi): Interest and penalty for failure to file returns
Legal framework: Interest is compensatory and follows automatically upon confirmation of tax not paid by the due date. Separate penalty is attracted for contravention consisting of failure to file prescribed returns.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the tax demand (as re-quantified on cum-tax basis) was upheld, interest liability on delayed/non-payment was upheld. The Tribunal also found that returns were not filed for the period, justifying the separate statutory penalty for such contravention.
Conclusions: Interest on the confirmed tax was upheld, and the penalty for failure to file returns was upheld.
Non-payment of service tax - Beauty Parlour /Beauty Treatment Services - during the course of operation of “beauty parlour” appellant was selling certain products of the franchisor - requirement to exclude retail sale of goods from the taxable value of services or not - Extended period of limitation - interest - penalties - HELD THAT:- The appellant was required to maintain the details each transaction whether in respect of the sale of the goods or provision of the services and report the same periodically to the franchisor also. Appellant has been asked to produce the documents in respect of the sale of goods by the authorities at the time of search, investigation and adjudication. However they have failed to produce the same before either of authorities. Certain manual bills which were produced by the appellant before the Commissioner have been rightly rejected by him. In terms of the above agreement appellant could not have issued any invoices/ bills in respect of sale transactions under this agreement. Appellant has not produced any invoice, which has been issued in the manner outlined by this agreement even before us either along with the paper book or subsequently at the time of hearing. In case there were transaction of sale of goods in retail by the appellant why are they shying away and not producing the same. In absence of any direct evidence in form of invoices issued in prescribed manner, we are not in position to accept the claim put forth.
Looking from another angle if appellant was selling the goods from their beauty salon, then definitely they would have been registered with VAT authorities and would be paying VAT in respect of the goods sold. No document in respect of discharging the VAT in respect of the sales affected has been produced.
For calculation of the franchisee fees, the total sale value of services as per franchise agreement for the ten day period is taken (in the invoice it is Rs 5,34,556.39/-). Then the franchisee fees is computed @ 18% of the sale value as per Schedule C to the franchise agreement reproduced above. (0.18 * 534556.39 = Rs 96,220.15/-). On this value of franchisee fees VAT, Service Tax, Swacch Bharat Cess and Krishi Kalyan Cess is paid.) Thus the value of services provided under this agreement can be computed just by dividing the Franchisee Fees paid by the appellant to its franchisor by 0.18. (Rate of Franchisee Fees as per the Schedule C).
The issue in respect of the admissibility of CENVAT Credit if not claimed within prescribed period from the date of invoice is no longer res-integra - Larger Bench of Tribunal has in case of Kusum Ingots [2000 (7) TMI 108 - CEGAT, NEW DELHI] held that 'A manufacturer who is working under the Modvat Scheme can certainly utilise the credit of the duty paid on the inputs used in or in relation to the manufacture of final product for payment of duty on such final product; but he has to take credit on such inputs within six months from the date of issue of the duty paying documents. After the amendment credit cannot be taken on duty paying documents which are more than 6 months old.'
It is evident from the records of the case that though appellants were registered for payment of service tax with the department, they were during the period neither paying any service tax nor filing any return. They have never claimed the CENVAT Credit in respect of the input services at any time before the commencement of adjudication proceedings. The proceedings against the appellant were initiated on the basis of intelligence gathered and are not on the basis of comparison of figures from the Income Tax data and ST-3 return. In fact appellant ahs never filed any ST-3 return. The observation made by the Chandigarh Bench in case of Antares Services (P) Ltd. [2024 (1) TMI 1120 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH] & Mumbai Bench in case Kaybee Developers Private Ltd. [2025 (10) TMI 493 - CESTAT MUMBAI], which go contrary to the above provisions of the Rules and decision of Larger Bench of Tribunal and Hon’ble Supreme Court cannot be relied as binding precedent.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- From the perusal of the franchisee agreement and the fact that appellant was registered with the service tax department for providing the beauty parlour services the appellant was fully aware of its liability to pay the service tax in respect of the services provided. The agreement specifically provided that the franchisee i.e. appellant was responsible for discharging the service tax liability in respect of the services provided - there are no hesitation in holding that the appellant has with sole intent of evading payment of due service tax, suppressed the facts in relation to the services provided by her. Extended period of limitation has been rightly invoked in the present case to demand the tax.
Penalties - HELD THAT:- As the appellant was not filing the ST-3 returns and paying the service tax by the due date, penalties imposed under Section 77 (2) are also upheld - Penalty under Section 78 modified.
Interest - HELD THAT:- As the demand of service tax upheld, demand of interest in terms section 75 of Finance Act, 1994 is upheld.
Appeal filed by the Appellant is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether refund of accumulated and unutilized CENVAT credit under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 could be denied on the ground that specified input services lacked "direct nexus/essentiality" with exported output services, despite being otherwise admissible as "input service".
2) Whether the disputed service categories (including, inter alia, management/business consultancy, commercial training/coaching, telecommunication/internet, erection/installation, courier, chartered accountancy, business auxiliary/support, IT software, manpower recruitment/supply, legal consultancy, insurance, outdoor catering, air travel agency, cargo handling/CHA, cleaning, architect/designer, consulting engineer, health & fitness, technical testing/analysis) qualified as "input services" having nexus (direct or indirect) with the exported output services, subject to the post-01.04.2011 exclusions.
3) Whether services falling within the post-01.04.2011 exclusion clause could nevertheless be treated as eligible input services/refund where they were not shown to be used "primarily for personal use or consumption" of employees.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Denial of Rule 5 refund on "direct nexus/essentiality" ground
Legal framework: The Court considered Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 (refund of accumulated credit to exporters subject to conditions) read with the "input service" definition under Rule 2(l) (both pre-01.04.2011 and from 01.04.2011). It also applied the Board Circular No. 120/01/2010-ST, which the Court treated as clarifying that there cannot be different yardsticks for nexus for availing credit and for refund, and that services impacting quality/efficiency of exported service should be treated as eligible.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the approach of denying refund merely because certain services were said not to be "essential" or lacking "direct nexus". It held that where services are eligible as input services and have nexus to the output service "either directly or indirectly", refund of unutilized credit must follow, in accordance with prescribed conditions/procedure. The Court expressly relied on the Board clarification to harmoniously interpret the nexus requirement for refund with the breadth of the input service definition.
Conclusion: Refund cannot be denied on a stricter "direct nexus/essentiality" standard once the services qualify as input services under Rule 2(l) and are used in relation to providing exported output services, except where specifically excluded with effect from 01.04.2011.
Issue 2: Eligibility/nexus of the disputed input service categories for refund
Legal framework: The Court applied Rule 2(l) definition of "input service" (including the inclusive limb covering "activities relating to business" prior to 01.04.2011 and the amended definition from 01.04.2011) along with the Board Circular's nexus/efficiency test for BPO/call centre type exporters.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the appellant's exported output service was call centre service and that the impugned services were used in relation to provision of such output service. It specifically recorded that for several categories-management/business consultant, commercial training/coaching, telecommunication/internet telecommunication, erection/commissioning/installation, chartered accountant, business auxiliary, business support, IT software, manpower recruitment/supply, and management/maintenance/repair-there was "no dispute to avail CENVAT credit." It further held legal consultancy services were "already included" in the definition of input services. It accepted insurance services and outdoor catering as eligible based on the Board Circular. It also held courier and scientific/technical consultancy eligible, and accepted that other contested categories (including architect/designer, consulting engineer, health & fitness, technical testing/analysis) are input services within Rule 2(l) reasoning adopted by the Court. Air travel agency services were treated as business-related travel for employees and thus linked to provision of output service. Cargo handling/CHA services were treated as essential for export documentation and export-related requirements and hence eligible.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that the disputed services, as used by the exporter for providing the exported output service, had requisite nexus (direct or indirect) and therefore qualified for refund of accumulated credit under Rule 5, subject to the exclusions introduced from 01.04.2011.
Issue 3: Effect of post-01.04.2011 exclusions-services relating to employee consumption and other exclusions
Legal framework: The Court considered the amended Rule 2(l) effective 01.04.2011, particularly the exclusion for specified services (including outdoor catering, health services, membership of a club, health and fitness centre, life/health insurance, and certain travel benefits) when "used primarily for personal use or consumption of any employee."
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that input services are eligible "except where specifically excluded" from 01.04.2011. It nevertheless accepted eligibility of certain services (including insurance and outdoor catering) in light of the Board Circular and its nexus test, and accepted life insurance credit/refund entitlement for the period prior to the amendment. It also accepted club or association/health & fitness/outdoor catering as eligible where the Revenue had not established personal consumption and where the services were billed for business purposes, aligning eligibility with the statutory exclusion threshold of "primarily for personal use or consumption."
Conclusion: The Court held that exclusions from 01.04.2011 operate only where the service falls within the excluded class and is used primarily for personal use/consumption; otherwise, and particularly for the pre-amendment period, credit/refund is allowable where nexus with exported service is established.
FINAL DISPOSITION
The Court allowed the appeals and held that refund of unutilized CENVAT credit must be granted for the disputed input services found to have nexus (direct or indirect) with the exported output service, subject to the statutory exclusions effective from 01.04.2011 and compliance with prescribed conditions and procedure, with consequential relief as per law.
100% EOU - refund of unutilized CENVAT credit - denial on the ground that specified input services lacked "direct nexus/essentiality" with exported output services, despite being otherwise admissible as "input service".
Courier Services - Scientific or Technical Consultancy Services - HELD THAT:- These services are eligible input service, as held by CESTAT Bench in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Hyderabad – IV Vs Deloitte Tax Services India Pvt Ltd. [2012 (12) TMI 73 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT]. It is also important that in respect of services like Architect / Designer Services, Consulting Engineer’s Services, Health & Fitness Services, Legal Consultancy Services, Technical Testing & Analysis Services, Cenvat Credit has been allowed in the case of M/s Coco Cola India Pvt Ltd., Pune Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune [2009 (8) TMI 50 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. Wherein, Hon’ble High Court held that these services are input services in terms of Rule 2 (l) of Cenvat Credit Rules.
Air Travel Agency Services - HELD THAT:- This services has been availed to book the tickets for business travel of its employees and travelling services are availed by employees for business purposes, therefore, it is in the nature of activity which is liked to provision of output service. In the case of Ferromatik Milacron India Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise [2009 (3) TMI 34 - CESTAT, AHMEDABAD] wherein, it was held that booking of air tickets for company officials are activities related to business and hence CENVAT credit in respect of such service would be available.
Cargo Handling / Custom House Agent Services - HELD THAT:- It is required to complete various export documentation of the Company which are essential to deliver the output services such as service charges for bonding, debonding, renewals of licenses and approval of import material from STPI and import procurement certificate from STPI are eligible. In the case of MTR Foods Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Bangalore [2011 (1) TMI 143 - CESTAT, BANGALORE], M/s Resil Chemicals Pvt Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise,, Bangalore [2010 (8) TMI 994 - CESTAT, BANGALORE], Leela Scottish Lace Pvt Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Customs, Bangalore [2010 (1) TMI 1188 - CESTAT BANGALORE], Commissioner of Central Excise, Hyderabad-Iv Vs Deloitte Tax Services India Pvt Ltd., [2012 (12) TMI 73 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], and Tribunal in the case of Narmada Gelatines Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Bhopal [2008 (9) TMI 180 - CESTAT, NEW DELHI], similar view has been taken that the Cenvat Credit on these services are admissible.
Cleaning Activity Service - HELD THAT:- The service is used for cleaning and maintenance services is covered, it is used for disinfecting, exterminating, cleaning, maintaining and sterilizing the business premises to provide a dust free environment so that the work can be conducted efficiently Tribunal Mumbai, in the case of L’oreal India Pvt Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise Pune-I [2010 (11) TMI 143 - CESTAT, MUMBAI] and in the case of Tangence Solutions (India) Pvt Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Noida [2010 (12) TMI 251 - CESTAT, DELHI] and in the case of Heartland Bangalore Transcription Services Pvt Ltd., Vs CST Bangalore [2010 (10) TMI 428 - CESTAT, BANGALORE] has held that the refund of Cenvat Credit availed on such services is admissible.
Life Insurance Services - HELD THAT:- This is the service for which appellant claimed for refund prior to amendment in the definition of input services for the period of January 2011 to March 2011, CESTAT Mumbai, in the case of Fonolex Cables Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune-I [2008 (12) TMI 117 - CESTAT MUMBAI] and CESSTAT Delhi, in the case of Rohit Surfactants Pvt Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Bhopal [2008 (12) TMI 202 - CESTAT, NEW DELHI] have held that Service Tax paid on group mediclaim policy and workmen’s policy is available on credit. Therefore, appellants are entitled to get refund for period of January 2011 to March 2011 prior to amendment in input services.
Club or Association Service - HELD THAT:- The CESTAT Bench Mumbai in the case of M/s Reliance Industries Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax, LTU, Mumbai [2018 (8) TMI 370 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD], the charges on club or association service, Health and Fitness Services and Outdoor Catering Services paid by company in these services were availed by the appellant company, and considered eligible for Cenvat Credit.
All these input services have nexus to the output services, either directly or indirectly and are used to provide output service except where specifically excluded from the purview of “input service” under Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, w.e.f 01.04.2011. Therefore, once eligible, the refund of unutilized credit in respect of same has to be given in accordance with the conditions and procedure prescribed.
Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the refund rejection orders were vitiated because the original adjudication was passed without granting a personal hearing, and whether a hearing at the appellate stage could cure that defect.
(ii) Whether the refund claims of an SEZ unit could be rejected by applying procedural/notification-based conditions and Cenvat Credit Rules concepts, despite the SEZ framework governing exemption/refund for services used for authorized operations.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Effect of denial of pre-decisional personal hearing; adequacy of appellate-stage hearing
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied the principles of natural justice and the proposition that a post-decisional hearing does not cure the illegality arising from absence of a pre-decisional hearing.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the absence of personal hearing at the original stage as a "gross violation" of natural justice. It noted that the appellate authority itself acknowledged that no personal hearing was granted by the adjudicating authority. The Court held that the appellate authority ought to have set aside the original orders and remanded the matter, instead of deciding the merits on the basis that an opportunity of hearing at the appellate stage was sufficient. The Court expressly rejected the view that such post-decisional hearing could cure the foundational defect.
Conclusion: The impugned appellate orders were held unsustainable because they emanated from orders passed in violation of natural justice, and the defect was not cured by hearing at the appellate stage.
Issue (ii): Sustainability of refund rejection based on procedural conditions and Cenvat Credit Rules concepts in the SEZ refund context
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the interplay between the SEZ regime and refund/exemption conditions applied through notifications under the Finance Act, 1994, and it relied on the reasoning that the SEZ Act framework governs entitlement to exemption for authorized operations, while other enactments' rules/notifications may operate in specified areas such as refund machinery.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the refunds were "basically" rejected on procedural aspects, including by applying conditions of notifications under the Finance Act, 1994 and by applying the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004. The Court accepted the controlling proposition (as applied in its reasoning) that SEZ entitlements for authorized operations are not to be defeated by importing conditions in a manner inconsistent with the SEZ framework, and it noted that this approach had been followed in prior Tribunal decisions when addressing whether the SEZ Act has an overriding effect. On this basis, the Court treated the procedural/CCR-based approach adopted for rejection as legally infirm in the SEZ refund context.
Conclusion: The reasoning underlying the refund rejections-centred on procedural conditions and CCR concepts-was held unsustainable in light of the SEZ overriding framework as applied by the Court.
Disposition / Final holding (material to outcome): The Court set aside the impugned appellate orders in full and granted consequential relief(s), if any, in accordance with law.
Refund of service tax - rejection on the ground that opportunity of personal hearing was not granted - violation of principles of natural justice - availability of exemptions under section 26 of the SEZ Act - HELD THAT:- The Commissioner (Appeals), in para 6 of the impugned order, has himself acknowledged that the adjudicating authority failed to grant personal hearing, thereby accepting a clear breach of natural justice. In such circumstances, the Commissioner (Appeals) ought to have set aside the orders and remanded the matter to the original authority. Instead, he proceeded to decide the case on the basis of the findings of the lower authority, merely on the ground that an opportunity of hearing was provided at the appellate stage which is a post decisional hearing that will not cure the defect of absence of pre- decisional hearing in terms of decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Institute of Chartered Accountants v. L.K. Ratna [1986 (10) TMI 37 - SUPREME COURT].
On merits, it is found that the refund has been rejected basically on procedural aspects, applying the conditions of the notification issued under the Finance Act, 1994 and applying the rules of Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004. In this context, the decision of the Hon'ble High Court in the case of GMR Aerospace Engineering Ltd. & Another Vs. UOI & Ors [2019 (8) TMI 748 - TELANGANA AND ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], wherein while discussing at para 18 of the decision as to "whether the availability of exemptions under section 26 of the SEZ Act would depend not only upon the terms and conditions prescribed under section 26(2), but also upon the terms and conditions prescribed in the notifications issued under various enactments such as Customs Act, 1962, Customs Tariff Act, 1975, Central Excise Act, 1944, Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985, Finance Act, 1994 and Central Sales Tax Act, 1956, etc., enlisted in clauses (a) to (g) of sub-section (1) of section 26 of the Act.", the Hon'ble High Court has held that 'If sub-rule (5) of rule 47 had also included the procedure for grant of exemption within its purview, then the stand taken by the Department would be perfectly valid. The very fact that sub-rule (5) of rule 47 made the Rules and notifications issued under certain Acts applicable only to issues of refund, demand, etc., would show that rules 22 and 31 have independent legs to stand.'
The impugned Orders-in-Appeal set aside - appeal disposed off.
Issues: Whether toll tax and permit tax collected from customers and remitted to the State authorities were includible in the taxable value of the service for levy of service tax.
Analysis: The period in dispute preceded the amendment that expressly brought reimbursable expenditure or cost within the valuation scheme. For the relevant period, reimbursable expenses were not part of the taxable value of services, and the amounts collected towards toll tax and permit tax could not be added to the gross amount charged for service tax purposes.
Conclusion: The disputed reimbursements were not includible in the taxable value, and the demand could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on merits and the demand was set aside with consequential relief as permissible under law.
Ratio Decidendi: For the period prior to the valuation amendment, reimbursable expenses paid or payable to third parties are excluded from the taxable value of service tax.
Calculation of service tax - appellant received the reimbursement of toll tax and U.P. permit Tax - to be included in transaction value as per Rule 5(1) of the Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006 or not - HELD THAT:- It is found that during the relevant period, it has been held by the Hon’ble Apex Court in Union of India Versus M/s Intercontinental Consultants & Technocrats Pvt. Ltd. [2018 (3) TMI 357 - SUPREME COURT] that reimbursement expenses cannot be included in the value of taxable services. Further, we find that subsequently with effect from May 14, 2015, whereby Clause (a) was amended and thereafter, it was provided that such reimbursable expenditure or cost is includable in taxable service for charging service tax. As the period involved in the present case is before 13.09.2009.
The impugned order is not sustainable in law - Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the sale of food and beverages at counters inside cinema multiplexes (packaged or reheated/ready-to-eat items sold over the counter) constitutes a taxable service under the Finance Act, 1994 (section 66E) or is a transaction of sale of goods not chargeable to service tax.
Analysis: The question engages the definitions of "service" and "declared services" under section 65B(44) and section 66E of the Finance Act, 1994, and requires identifying the predominant/characteristic element of the transaction. Where food items are sold in packaged or ready-to-eat form over counters, with limited choice, no waiter service, no table service, and customers taking the items to their seats, the transaction aligns qualitatively with take-away or packaged food sale. The dominant purpose test and the incidental service principle apply: provision of food counters inside a cinema complex to facilitate convenience during a film is incidental to the cinematic service and does not convert the sale of goods into a service. Precedent of the Tribunal applying these principles and subsequent dismissal by the Supreme Court of Revenue appeals upholds that such counter sales are sales of goods and not taxable services. Distinct service-oriented offerings (for example, seat-side waiter service in premium classes) remain taxable as services, but that is factually distinguishable.
Conclusion: The sale of packaged or reheated ready-to-eat food and beverages at cinema counters is a transaction of sale of goods and not a service under the Finance Act, 1994; accordingly, service tax is not leviable on such transactions. The appeal is allowed and the impugned demand, interest and penalties confirmed under sections 73, 75 and 78 are set aside with consequential relief to the appellant.
Nature of activity - sale or service - sale of food items in counters at cinemas - recovery alongwith interest and liability - HELD THAT:- It is not found that the issue involved in this appeal is squarely covered by the order of this bench in PVR Ltd[2023 (12) TMI 81 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] where it was held that 'the service tax is not leviable on the sale of food items in packed form or by process of reheating in the cinema halls as there is no element of service involved therein.'
There is no reason to take a different view in this case which is on the same question of law - the impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a demand under section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994 can be sustained when the show cause notice proceeds only on the basis of a discrepancy between income reported under the Income-tax law and the taxable value declared in service tax returns, without identifying any specific taxable activity or establishing that the receipts constitute "consideration" for a "service" under section 65B(44) chargeable under section 66B.
(ii) Whether the absence in the show cause notice of any allegation that the impugned receipts (or any part thereof) were not attributable to the assessee's claimed non-taxable/excluded/exempt heads renders the initiation of proceedings under section 73 legally untenable at the threshold.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of section 73 demand founded only on income-tax/service-tax mismatch without identifying taxable service
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court noted that service tax under section 66B applies to "taxable service" valued under section 67, subject to (a) exception for not being "service" within section 65B(44), (b) exclusion by enumeration (negative list) under section 66D, and (c) exemptions under notifications. The Court held that invocation of section 73 is "legal and proper only upon income being established as consideration" for "any activity carried out by a person for another" so as to constitute "service" within section 65B(44).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that every receipt is not deemed to be "consideration for service" and that "income for the purpose of levy under another statute is not consideration either." It held that the authority invoking section 73 must, by investigation (including considering the assessee's response), reach "reasonable certainty of liability on grounds set out in the notice" before determining recoverable tax. A mere reiteration that higher income is reported under the Income-tax law does not discharge this obligation, particularly where there is not even a "least cursory attempt" to investigate the assessee's activity and the nature of receipts. The Court found that the impugned proceedings proceeded on a presumption that differential income necessarily represented taxable service consideration, which is impermissible in the absence of identification of the taxable activity and establishment of chargeability.
Conclusions: A show cause notice and demand under section 73 cannot be sustained where it is founded solely on mismatch of figures between income-tax disclosures and service tax returns, without establishing-through allegations and investigation-that the receipts are consideration for an identified taxable service within section 65B(44) read with section 66B.
Issue (ii): Effect of absence of specific allegations in the show cause notice regarding non-attribution to claimed activities
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court emphasised that the threshold requirement for section 73 action is establishment that the impugned receipts are consideration for a service. While the Court acknowledged that exclusions/exemptions may require evidence from the assessee, it held that this does not displace the primary obligation of the tax authority to frame the charge on an identified taxable activity and grounds set out in the notice. The Court also treated the Board's instruction (as extracted in the judgment) as reinforcing that indiscriminate notices based only on ITR/TDS differences should not issue without proper verification and reconciliation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded that the assessee had provided a reconciliation attributing the differential receipts to consultation fees, conventions, reimbursements towards conference participation outside India, and author royalty. The Court held that despite such response, the proceedings suffered from a foundational defect: the show cause notice lacked any allegation that any, or even part, of the impugned income was not attributable to the claimed activities. This omission placed the very invocation of section 73 "in jeopardy at the threshold itself." The Court found that the adjudicating authority was influenced "almost entirely" by additional income reported in income-tax returns, rather than by an examination of taxable activity and consideration. On this basis, the Court concluded that the proceedings could not stand.
Conclusions: Where the show cause notice does not contain specific allegations identifying the taxable activity or asserting that the impugned receipts (in whole or part) are not attributable to the assessee's claimed non-taxable/exempt heads, the initiation and confirmation of demand under section 73 is unsustainable; the impugned order is liable to be set aside and the appeal allowed.
Taxability - discrepancy between returns filed under the Finance Act, 1994 and under Income Tax Act, 1961 respectively - no evidence of any taxable service having been undertaken - HELD THAT:- The levy of tax, on ‘taxable service’ at the rate prescribed in section 66B of Finance Act, 1994 applied to the value determined in accordance with section 67 of Finance Act, 1994, is subject to exception for not being service in section 65B(44) of Finance Act, 1994, exclusion by enumeration in section 66D of Finance Act, 1994 and exemption in notifications under section 83 of Finance Act, 1994. While it could be posited that exclusion and exception could be allowed only upon evidence of eligibility furnished by assessee, it is not in doubt that invoking of section 73 of Finance Act, 1994 is legal and proper only upon income being established as consideration to constitute ‘service’ as set out in section 65B (44) of Finance Act, 1994. Impliedly, every receipt is not deemed to be ‘consideration for service’ to be remitted by assessee as excluded or exempted from tax and income for the purpose of levy under another statute is not consideration either. The authority invoking section 73 of Finance Act, 1994 must, by investigation including response from assessee, must arrive at reasonable certainty of liability on grounds set out in the notice before determination of recoverable tax even if by failure on the part of the noticee to furnish evidence in support of claim proposed to be disallowed.
It would appear that the initiation of recovery proceedings under section 73 of Finance Act, 1994 solely on the basis of information received from third parties was so rampant and undesirable that the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC), vide circular dated 26th October 2021, instructed that 'It is once again reiterated that instructions of the Board to issue show cause notices based on the difference in ITR-TDS data and service tax returns only after proper verification of facts, may be followed diligently. Pr. Chief Commissioner /Chief Commissioner (s) may devise a suitable mechanism to monitor and prevent issue of indiscriminate show cause notices. Needless to mention that in all such cases where the notices have already been issued, adjudicating authorities are expected to pass a judicious order after proper appreciation of facts and submission of the noticee.'
Thus, the lack of allegation in the show cause notice, that any, or even part, of the impugned income was not attributable to any of the claimed activities, places the invoking of section 73 of Finance Act, 1994 in jeopardy at the threshold itself. It would appear that the adjudicating authority was influenced almost entirely by the additional income reported in returns prescribed in another jurisdiction.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Condonation of delay in filing appeal - it was held by High Court that 'the questions of law raised by the appellant are not substantial questions of law and, accordingly, the present appeal is not maintainable and is dismissed.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court.
SLP dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the writ petitions should be permitted to be withdrawn to enable the petitioners to pursue the statutory alternative remedy of appeal under the Finance Act, 1994, with liberty and time-bound directions for filing such appeals.
2. Whether, upon withdrawal of the writ petition challenging an order-in-original appealable to the Tribunal, the Court should grant time to comply with the statutory pre-deposit requirement and condition the Tribunal's hearing of the appeal upon compliance within the specified time.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Withdrawal of writ petitions with liberty to pursue statutory appeals and time for filing
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the petitioners' express desire to avail the alternative statutory appellate remedies and withdraw the pending writ proceedings. Accepting the prayer, the Court structured the withdrawal orders to preserve the petitioners' ability to pursue appeals, by granting liberty and fixing a limited period within which the appeals must be filed.
Conclusions: The Court dismissed both writ petitions as withdrawn and granted liberty to file statutory appeals. For the writ petition relating to an appeal to the Tribunal, the Court allowed filing of the appeal within two weeks. For the writ petition relating to appeals under Section 85 against three specified orders-in-original, the Court similarly granted liberty to file appeals within two weeks.
Issue 2: Time to satisfy statutory pre-deposit and conditionality for hearing of the Tribunal appeal
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court proceeded on the basis that the proposed appeal to the Tribunal would be subject to the statutory pre-deposit requirement of 7.5% of the impugned demand for service tax, and addressed the petitioners' request for time to meet that condition.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although an initial prayer sought a direction that the Tribunal hear the appeal without insisting on the 7.5% pre-deposit, the petitioners expressly did not press that relief and instead sought time to comply. Considering that the writ petition had been pending since 2020, the Court deemed it proper to allow an opportunity to make the statutory pre-deposit within a defined period, while ensuring that the Tribunal's hearing would remain contingent upon timely compliance.
Conclusions: The Court granted three months' time to make the statutory pre-deposit, clarified that the Tribunal shall proceed to hear the appeal only if the pre-deposit is made within that three-month period, and expressly left all merits open for determination by the Tribunal in accordance with law.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy of appeal before the Appellate Tribunal - HELD THAT:- As requested by the parties, it is clarified that this Court has not gone into the merits of the matter and all points are left open to be urged before CESTAT and be decided by the CESTAT in accordance with law.
Petition stands “dismissed as withdrawn” with liberty to the petitioners to file appeal within two weeks and meet with the statutory pre-deposit condition within three months.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, in refund proceedings under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, the Department can deny CENVAT credit by re-determining the classification/eligibility of input services without challenging the assessment/self-assessment and without invoking Rule 14 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.
(ii) Whether the services in question (described as "Knowledge Centre Services" and related support services) were correctly treated as Management or Business Consultant Service rather than "Legal Consultancy Service" for the purpose of CENVAT credit/refund, and whether denial on the "Legal Consultancy" premise was sustainable.
(iii) Whether refund could be denied on the ground that payment for certain input services was made after the impugned period, despite payment having been made before filing the refund claim and being reflected in returns.
(iv) Whether the Department's appeal should be rejected as being below the monetary threshold prescribed under the National Litigation Policy/CBIC circular referred to by the Tribunal.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Denial of CENVAT credit/refund by re-examining classification/eligibility during refund proceedings
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal treated refund proceedings as executionary in nature and emphasized that eligibility/classification disputes impacting credit must be addressed through appropriate statutory mechanisms, including challenging assessment/self-assessment and/or invoking Rule 14 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 for recovery of inadmissible credit.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the Department attempted to deny credit while deciding a refund application, without challenging the assessment/self-assessment and without taking recourse to Rule 14. The Tribunal accepted the position that it is not open to the Department, at the stage of refund sanction, to decide classification of input service or to decide eligibility of such input service as a substitute for proper proceedings. It applied the principle that refund proceedings are not independent of assessment proceedings and cannot be used to unsettle an unmodified assessment position.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that CENVAT credit/refund could not be denied in refund proceedings by re-determining classification/eligibility in the absence of proper challenge to assessment/self-assessment and without invoking Rule 14; therefore, denial on this basis was unsustainable.
Issue (ii): Classification of the relevant services-Management or Business Consultant Service vs Legal Consultancy Service
Legal framework (as reflected in the reasoning): The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that correct classification of the service rendered was material to the Department's objection, but also held that such classification re-determination could not be done at refund stage in the manner attempted. Nonetheless, it recorded a clear finding on the nature of the services.
Interpretation and reasoning: On merits, the Tribunal found that the nature of services rendered by the appellant was Management or Business Consultant Services rather than Legal Consultancy Services. It accepted that the Revenue had wrongly treated the services as Legal Consultancy Services for the purpose of denying credit/refund. This finding was also used to reject the Department's challenge in its own appeal.
Conclusion: The Tribunal conclusively held that the services were classifiable as Management or Business Consultant Services and not as Legal Consultancy Services; denial of refund/credit on the footing of "Legal Consultancy Service" was rejected.
Issue (iii): Denial of refund for credit where payment for input services was made after the refund period
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal relied on the settled position (as stated in the order) that where payment was made before filing the refund claim and reflected in returns, refund should not be denied merely because payment occurred after the particular quarter/period for which refund was claimed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found "no merit" in the Department's argument that refund pertaining to the disputed amount should be denied solely because payment was made later, noting that the issue stood settled and accepting that payment had been made before filing the refund claim.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that refund could not be denied on the ground of later payment where payment had been made before filing the refund claim; the denial on this basis was set aside.
Issue (iv): Maintainability/merits of the Department's appeal in light of National Litigation Policy monetary threshold
Legal framework (as noted by the Tribunal): The Tribunal applied the monetary threshold prescribed under the National Litigation Policy as referred to in a CBIC circular mentioned in the order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal recorded that the amount involved in the Department's appeal was well below the prescribed threshold monetary limit and, additionally, found no merit on classification/eligibility grounds. Both considerations supported rejection of the Department's appeal.
Conclusion: The Tribunal rejected the Department's appeal, expressly holding that it lacked merit and was also below the monetary threshold prescribed under the applicable policy/circular.
Final outcome (material to decision): The assessee's appeal was allowed and the Department's appeal was rejected; the cross-objection was disposed of accordingly.
Refund claim under Rule 5 of CCR, 2004 read with Notification No.5/2006-CE (NT) dated 05.03.2006, for the period October 2008 to December 2008 - denial of CENVAT credit while deciding an application for refund and without challenging the assessment/ self-assessment order - Classification of service - service rendered by the appellants is Legal Consultancy Service and not Management or Business Consultant Service.
Refund claim under Rule 5 of CCR, 2004 read with Notification No.5/2006-CE (NT) dated 05.03.2006, for the period October 2008 to December 2008 - denial of CENVAT credit while deciding an application for refund and without challenging the assessment/ self-assessment order - HELD THAT:- It is found that the nature of the service rendered by the appellants is Management or Business Consultant Services rather than Legal Consultancy Services. It is also found that there is no merit in the argument of the Revenue that the refund of Rs.9,30,378/- is not admissible to the appellants as the payment was at a later date - this issue stands settled in the case of AD-2 Pro Global Creative Solutions Pvt. Ltd [2023 (5) TMI 1131 - CESTAT CHENNAI].
Hon’ble Supreme Court held in the case of ITC Ltd. 2019 (9) TMI 802 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], which was followed by Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of B.T. India Pvt. Ltd. [2023 (11) TMI 478 - DELHI HIGH COURT], that refund proceedings are executionary in nature and therefore, are not independent of assessment proceedings that is to say that unless the assessment is challenged and modified by competent authority, refund cannot be rejected by Revenue.
It is found that the situation is revenue neutral as even if the refund is rejected to that extent, the amount requires to be credited to the CENVAT account of the appellants. Moreover, in view of the submission of the learned Counsel that as no show cause notice has been issued under Rule 14 of CCR, 2004, the issue of inadmissible credit cannot be decided at the time of sanctioning of refund.
Classification of service - service rendered by the appellants is Legal Consultancy Service and not Management or Business Consultant Service - HELD THAT:- The issue is settled in favour of the appellants - Moreover, it is found that the amount is well below the threshold monetary limit prescribed under National Litigation Policy as per CBIC Circular dated 06.08.2024. Therefore, there are no merit in the Revenue’s appeal.
Appeal disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether amounts paid during investigation and later appropriated in adjudication (and thereafter the underlying demand being set aside by the Tribunal) must be refunded in full, and whether limiting refund only to the statutory appeal pre-deposit component is legally sustainable.
(ii) Whether the appellants are entitled to interest on such refunds, and the appropriate rate and directions for issuance of refund orders.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Refundability of amounts paid during investigation (beyond Section 35F pre-deposit) after the demand is set aside
Legal framework (as discussed/applied by the Court): The Tribunal examined the scope of Section 35F (deposit for filing appeal) and the principle that the Department cannot collect/retain any amount without authority of law, including the constitutional principle under Article 265 as applied in the Tribunal's reasoning. The Tribunal also considered the relevance of the Board circular referred to by the lower authority, and the statutory scheme that a tax liability must be determined through adjudication/assessment before retention can be justified.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the lower authorities rejected the major portion of the refund by treating the claim as confined to the appeal "pre-deposit" under Section 35F and by following a Range Officer's report recommending refund only of a percentage treated as pre-deposit. The Tribunal held this approach misconceived because the dispute concerned refund not only of an amount fitting within Section 35F but also amounts paid "voluntarily during the course of investigation" prior to issuance of the show cause notice, which were recorded in the notice, verified in departmental records, and later appropriated in adjudication. Once the Tribunal's earlier final order allowed the appeals and set aside the demand, the foundation for appropriation and retention ceased to exist.
The Tribunal reasoned that where the demand and its collection are held to be without authority of law, the Department cannot retain amounts paid in any form (deposit/pre-deposit/amount paid during investigation). It emphasized that tax authorities can determine liability only through adjudication/assessment and thereafter adjust payments; but when the adjudicated demand itself is reversed, continued retention is unjustifiable. The Tribunal also noted the absence of any recorded departmental appeal/stay against the earlier final order, reinforcing that there was no basis to withhold the balance amounts. It considered the lower authority's non-examination of the claim in terms of the circular it cited as reflecting lack of application of mind.
Conclusions: The Tribunal conclusively held that rejection of the major portion of the refund was illogical, unsustainable in law, and contrary to the governing principle that amounts cannot be retained without authority of law once the demand is set aside. It set aside the impugned orders to the extent they limited refund to only the Section 35F-type pre-deposit component, and allowed refund of the entire amounts paid during investigation as claimed in each appeal.
Issue (ii): Entitlement to interest; rate and timeline for refund
Legal framework (as discussed/applied by the Court): The Tribunal applied the statutory provision governing interest on refund of pre-deposit (Section 35FF) and aligned the rate with the statutory scheme, while also taking guidance from the Delhi High Court decision it treated as squarely applicable on the principle of refundability and interest.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the appellants sought interest at 12%, the Tribunal found it appropriate to restrict interest to 6%, stating this was in terms of the statute and consistent with the approach reflected in the applied precedent. Recognizing "considerable delay" in sanctioning refunds, the Tribunal issued a time-bound direction to ensure implementation.
Conclusions: The Tribunal awarded interest at 6% (not 12%) on the refundable amounts and directed that refund sanction orders be issued within 60 days from communication of the Tribunal's order. The appeals were allowed with consequential benefits accordingly.
Refund of amount paid as pre-deposit during the course of investigation and amount voluntarily paid by the Appellant - entitlement of interest - HELD THAT:- Here the issue is the refund of not only the deposit made in terms of Section 35F, but also about the amount voluntarily paid by the Appellant perhaps at the insistence of the investigation team much prior to the very issuance of SCN and it is a well settled position of law that the Department cannot collect any amount without the authority of law and it goes without saying that when the collection itself if found without the authority of law, then there is no question of retaining the said amount. The tax authorities could pass an assessment order and only thereafter determine the tax liability and any deposit or pre-deposit in whatever form made by an Assessee could be adjusted against the demand confirmed in the assessment / adjudication order. Here, in the case on hand, an adjudication order is passed, the amount paid is appropriated as the SCN itself proposes the appropriation of amount paid, which finally stood reversed by the Final Order of this Bench (supra) and therefore, the very demand and the collection of it has been held to be without the authority of law. Hence, the authorities cannot have the control over any amount paid either as a deposit or pre-deposit or whatever mode during investigation.
In a decision in the case of Team HR Services Private Ltd. Vs Union of India & Anr. [2020 (6) TMI 342 - DELHI HIGH COURT], the Hon’ble Delhi High Court was seized of an almost identical matter. The Hon’ble High Court after an elaborate discussion has held 'We are unable to find any justification for the respondents to retain the said amount of Rs. 2,38,00,000/-. We have thus enquired from the Counsel for the respondents, what should be the rate of interest for which the respondents should be held liable.'
The ratio in the above decision squarely applies to the facts of the present Appeals as well and therefore, the Revenue cannot pretend ignorance in not refunding the entire amount of Rs.1,25,12,819/- Rs.1,42,26,800/- & Rs.95,00,000/- as tabulated above which, as held by the Hon’ble Delhi High Court, is in violation of Article 265 of the Constitution of India and the reasoning spelt out in the Orders-in-Original which unfortunately came to be upheld by the Commissioner (Appeals), is clearly illogical, unsustainable in law and contrary to not only the expected conduct and therefore, is unjustifiable.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether CENVAT credit could be denied merely because invoices were issued in the name of the appellant's division or office and not in the name of the registered factory, when receipt and use of the inputs/input services were not in dispute.
Analysis: The claim for credit was founded on duly received duty-paid inputs and input services used in the manufacture of dutiable final products. The discrepancy in the description of the consignee on the invoices was treated as a procedural irregularity. In such circumstances, credit cannot be refused on a merely technical objection when substantive compliance is established and the departmental allegation does not dispute receipt, utilization, or duty-paid character. The Board's circular against issuing notices for purely technical infirmities and the settled line of decisions applying the doctrine of substantial compliance supported this view.
Conclusion: Denial of CENVAT credit on the ground of incorrect invoice address was not sustainable, and the demand, interest, and penalty were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Recovery of CENVAT Credit with interest and penalty - contravention of Rule 4 and Rule 9 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 - credit was taken without satisfying the procedural requirements contemplated under the Cenvat Credit Rules - HELD THAT:- A series of pronouncement of Courts/Tribunal have held that CENVAT Credit cannot be denied on technical grounds, as in the present matter. CENVAT Credit denial, when substantive compliance is not doubted cannot be legally justified.
The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Hari Chand Shri Gopal [2010 (11) TMI 13 - SUPREME COURT] has expounded on the doctrine of substantial compliance, meant to avoid hardship and equitable in nature. When the duty paid character of the goods and their use in the manufacture is not disputed, minor infirmities in seeking/availing/eligibility to credit availment on technical grounds can be no basis to disentitle the appellant of the rightful CENVAT Credit. Ratio of the following case laws clearly support the said premise and permit the availment of Cenvat Credit even though the duty paying document, invoices did not carry the appropriate address of the manufacturing unit or were a mere photocopy or such other technical reasons.
Cenvat scheme as constantly held by judicial bodies is a beneficial piece of legislation and thus is required to be given the widest amplitude possible as long it does not burden and negates the scheme itself. Viewed in the context the credit availed by the appellant cannot be held to be inadmissible as the receipt and utilization of the said duty paid inputs is not open for a contest and not disputed.
The Courts/Tribunal have consistently held that issuance of invoice in the name of Head Office/ Branch Office is not more than a mere procedural lapse as long as inputs/input services concerned are actually received and duly utilized in the manufacture of finished goods. Procedural lapses without any malafides would be required to be condoned. In the case of Chrome Chemical Industries Vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Kolkata-IV [2000 (6) TMI 503 - CEGAT, KOLKATA] the Tribunal permitted cenvat credit availment despite the invoice being in the name of the head office of the factory and was also not endorsed by the Head Office.
Availment of CENVAT credit in the present case is clearly admissible as it is no more than a procedural lapse. As long as the goods/services were received in the factory of production and utilized the said goods/services in the manufacture of finished products the appellant is entitled to avail the said credit.
There is no ground to sustain the order of the lower authority which is set aside - Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether Cenvat credit was admissible on specified goods (including scrappers and welding-related items) as "inputs" under Rule 2(k) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 on the basis of their use in the manufacturing process within the factory.
(ii) Whether Cenvat credit was admissible on specified items (such as oil seal, belt drive, rubber of cleaning idlers, castable refractory, conveyor belt, rubber lagging, liner of chute hopper, brush for coupling RB, etc.) as "capital goods" (including components/spares/accessories) under Rule 2(a) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, or otherwise as eligible goods used for manufacture.
(iii) Whether, on the facts found by the Tribunal regarding use of the disputed items in manufacture, the denial of credit (and consequential interest and penalty) could be sustained.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Eligibility of Cenvat credit on scrappers and welding-related items as "inputs"
Legal framework: The Tribunal addressed eligibility under Rule 2(k) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 (definition of "input"), as applied to goods used in the factory in relation to manufacture.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that, in the appellant's own case, credit on welding electrodes had already been allowed, rendering that point no longer open for reconsideration. Beyond welding electrodes, the Tribunal relied on the explanation of the uses of the disputed items in the manufacturing process and recorded a factual finding that the items in question were used for manufacturing the final product within the factory.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the appellant was entitled to Cenvat credit on the disputed inputs (including scrappers and welding-related items) as eligible "inputs" within the meaning of Rule 2(k) because they were used for manufacture of the final product.
Issue (ii): Eligibility of Cenvat credit on specified items as "capital goods" (or otherwise eligible goods used in manufacture)
Legal framework: The Tribunal examined entitlement under Rule 2(a) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 (definition of "capital goods"), in conjunction with the fact-based inquiry into use of the goods in manufacture.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered the appellant's explanation of how the listed items (oil seal, belt drive, rubber of cleaning idlers, castable refractory, conveyor belt, rubber lagging, liner of chute hopper, brush for coupling RB, etc.) were used in the manufacturing activity. It accepted that the appellant had demonstrated use of "all the items" for manufacture of the final product and therefore treated them as credit-eligible either as capital goods or as inputs, depending on their character and use.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that credit was admissible on the listed items either as "capital goods" under Rule 2(a) or as "inputs" under Rule 2(k), since they were used for manufacturing the final product.
Issue (iii): Sustainability of denial of credit (and consequential interest and penalty)
Interpretation and reasoning: Having concluded that Cenvat credit was available on all items in dispute under Rule 2(a) and/or Rule 2(k), the Tribunal found that the basis for denying credit did not survive. As the credit itself was held admissible, the impugned order denying credit could not stand.
Conclusions: The Tribunal set aside the impugned order in full and allowed the appeal with consequential relief, which necessarily displaced the denial of credit and the associated liabilities that flowed from that denial.
Denial of CENVAT Credit - inputs (scrappers, welding electrodes, electrodexuper and electrodesettelite) - capital goods (oil, seal, belt drive, rubber of cleaning idlers, castable refractory, conveyor belt, rubber lagging, liner of chute hopper, brush for coupling RB etc.) - HELD THAT:- It is found that in the appellant’s own case M/S. VEDANTA LIMITED VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE, CUSTOMS AND SERVICE TAX, ROURKELA (VICE-VERSA) [2025 (11) TMI 596 - CESTAT KOLKATA], this Tribunal has allowed the cenvat credit on welding electrodes.
Therefore, the said issue is no more res integra. Moreover, the appellant has explained the uses of the items for process of manufacturing. In that circumstances, the appellant has been able to show that all the items are used by them for manufacturing of their final product. Therefore, the appellants are entitled to take the cenvat credit on all these items either on capital goods or on inputs in terms of Rule 2(a) and 2 (k) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
The appellant is entitled to take the cenvat credit on the items in question - the impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the interim order dated 03.06.2024 staying the impugned order and recovery notices should be made absolute till the final decision of the pending writ petition.
Analysis: The appeal was disposed of on the basis that the writ petition remained pending before the High Court and the interim order had already operated for more than one year. The prayer to continue the interim protection until final adjudication of the writ petition was found reasonable and acceptable.
Conclusion: The interim order was made absolute and was directed to operate till the final decision in the writ petition.
Application seeking stay of the order of recovery passed in pursuance of the impugned orders dated 30.08.2019 and 16.10.2018 has been filed by the petitioner - it was held by High Court that the issue is required to be examined at length and no case for stay is made out - HELD THAT:- This appeal is, accordingly, disposed of by making the interim order dated 03.06.2024 absolute subject to the final decision in the writ petition pending before the High Court. It is made clear that interim order shall operate till final decision of the writ petition.
Outcome: The petitions were not pressed and were dismissed, with liberty to the petitioners to avail the remedy before the competent authority under the West Bengal Sales Tax (Settlement of Dispute) regime as amended in 2025.
Seeking withdrawal of SLP - clients want to avail the remedy under the West Bengal Sales Tax (Settlement of Dispute) Act, 1999 as amended by the West Bengal Sales Tax (Settlement of Dispute) (Amendment) Act, 2025 - HELD THAT:- The petitioners is permitted to go before the competent authority under the Amendment Act of 2025 and avail the appropriate relief.
The petitions stand dismissed as not pressed.
Issues: Whether, after an assessee had been admitted to the Karasamadhana Scheme and interest and penalty had been waived under the scheme, the revisional authority could invoke Section 64(1) of the Karnataka Value Added Tax Act, 2003 to unsettle that settlement and revise the assessment.
Analysis: The assessee had paid the tax arrears and obtained waiver of interest and penalty under the scheme. The subsequent suo motu revisional notice and order under Section 64(1) sought to reopen what had already been settled under the scheme. The prior settlement was treated as final for the purposes of the scheme, and invoking revisional power thereafter was held to defeat the object of the scheme and to unsettle settled matters. The revisional action was therefore characterised as arbitrary and unreasonable.
Conclusion: The invocation of revisional power under Section 64(1) after grant of benefit under the Karasamadhana Scheme was not justified and was unsustainable in law.
Ratio Decidendi: Once a tax dispute is settled under a statutory waiver scheme by granting the prescribed benefits, a later suo motu revision cannot be used to reopen that settlement in a manner that defeats the scheme and renders the exercise arbitrary and unreasonable.
Invocation of powers of revision under Section 64 of the KVAT Act to set aside order of the First Appellate Authority, in the absence of satisfying the twin conditions adumbrated by the Legislature - fulfilment of conditions prescribed as per Rule 3(2)(i-1) of Karnataka Value Added Taxes Rules, 2005 or not - all the information sought under VAT-120 is provided and any other information sought is unjust condition which would violate Art.14 read with Art.19(1)(g) read with Article 301 of the Constitution - satisfaction of conditions imposed under Rule 3(2)(i-1) - HELD THAT:- It is opinedthat once the assessee having been admitted to the scheme by waiving interest as well as penalty on an order panel by the authority under the Scheme and settling the matter, resorting to issue notice under Section 64 of KVAT Act, suo-motu undermines the settlement under the scheme as well as the object of the scheme and having the effect of unsettling the settled and amount unreasonable besides arbitrary.
Once the matter has been settled under Karasamadhana Scheme applicable to the assessee in this case, the order passed by the respondent No. 1 vide Annexure-A as well as the consequential re-determined assessment order and demand in Form VAT-180 amounts to arbitrary exercise of power and unreasonable, accordingly, unsustainable in law.
The respondent was not justified in invoking powers of revision under Section 64 of the KVAT Act to set aside order of the First Appellate Authority, in the absence of satisfying the twin conditions adumbrated by the Legislature - the issue is answered in favour of the assessee and against the respondent/revenue.
Since, the assessee has succeeded on the first substantial question of law, there remains nothing to consider further substantial questions of law raised in the appeal - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether, where a conviction is recorded under Section 138 read with Section 141 against a director/authorised signatory while the company cannot be proceeded against due to a "legal snag" (such as winding up/liquidation), the appellate court can require deposit of a minimum 20% under Section 148, or whether Section 148 deposit is confined only to the juristic "drawer/company".
2) Whether prior decisions holding that directors/authorised signatories are not "drawers" for Sections 143A/148 should be treated as laying down a blanket exemption from Section 148 deposit in all cases where only vicariously liable individuals are prosecuted/convicted due to the company's legal impediment.
3) Whether Section 148 is generally mandatory, and if so, the extent of the appellate court's discretion to exempt deposit in "exceptional circumstances".
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1-2: Applicability of Section 148 deposit to a convicted director/authorised signatory when the company cannot be proceeded against due to a legal impediment; whether deposit is confined to the company alone
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the interaction of Sections 138 and 141 (vicarious liability when the offender is a company) with Section 148 (appellate deposit in an appeal by the "drawer"), and the established position that proceedings may continue against persons covered by Section 141 where the company cannot be prosecuted due to a "legal snag". The Court also considered the legislative objective underlying the 2018 amendment introducing Sections 143A and 148, namely curbing delay tactics and ensuring meaningful interim monetary relief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court analysed earlier decisions that construed "drawer" strictly to mean only the entity whose account the cheque is drawn upon, and on that basis excluded directors/authorised signatories from deposit obligations under Sections 143A/148. The Court, however, found that such an approach rests on an "overly literal" construction that insufficiently engages with the quasi-criminal, compensatory and remedial character of cheque dishonour proceedings and the amendment's purpose of preventing appellate delay from frustrating monetary relief. The Court reasoned that, if deposit obligations were treated as never applicable to individuals prosecuted/convicted only because the company is beyond reach due to liquidation/winding up, the remedial scheme of Section 148 could become ineffective precisely in cases where the complainant's recovery is most jeopardised. It therefore expressed the view that a director cannot receive a blanket exemption from Section 148 merely because the company cannot be proceeded against, and that exemption must depend on the facts of each case rather than an automatic rule.
Conclusion (as finally determined): Although the Court stated it was unable to concur with the interpretation that yields a blanket exemption from Section 148 deposit for Section 141 "category of persons" where the company is not prosecutable, it held that as a co-equal bench it could not take a different binding view on its own. The Court therefore did not finally settle whether Section 148 deposit can be directed against such convicted individuals, and instead directed that the question be authoritatively decided by a Larger Bench.
Issue 3: Whether Section 148 is mandatory and the scope of discretion to exempt deposit
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered prior authority treating the Section 148 deposit requirement as generally mandatory (by reading "may" as "shall"), while also recognising later clarification that the appellate court retains a limited discretion to exempt deposit in "exceptional circumstances", with reasons to be recorded.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court agreed with the position that Section 148 is generally mandatory in operation, but that a narrow, reasoned discretion exists to grant exemption in exceptional cases. This articulation formed part of the Court's basis for rejecting the proposition that an entire class of cases (involving Section 141 convictions when the company cannot be prosecuted) must automatically be treated as exceptional and exempted from deposit.
Conclusion (as finally determined): The Court conclusively reaffirmed that the appellate court has only a limited discretion to exempt Section 148 deposit in exceptional circumstances and that exemption is not automatic; however, the precise application of Section 148 to convicted directors/authorised signatories in the "legal snag" scenario was left for determination by the Larger Bench.
Dishonour of cheque - vicarious liability of Director - director of an accused company is convicted under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act without the company itself being convicted due to some existing ‘legal snag’-such as winding up, liquidation, or any similar scenario - imposition of condition by appellate court, of depositing 20% of the amount as prescribed under Section 148 of the Act, while hearing the appeal filed by the director - whether such deposit is confined to the juristic “drawer” alone in all situations?
HELD THAT:- In K.K. Ahuja v. V.K. Vora & Anr [2009 (7) TMI 758 - SUPREME COURT], the issue that arose for consideration was whether a director or officer could be held vicariously liable under Section 141 merely on account of his designation. This Court answered the question in the negative, holding that vicarious liability under Section 141 attaches only to those persons who, at the time of commission of the offence, were in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company. The Court further held that while a Managing Director or Joint Managing Director may, by virtue of their position, be presumed to be in charge of the business, any other director or officer would require specific and necessary averments demonstrating their role, responsibilities, and involvement in the conduct of the company’s affairs. Mere designation as a director or officer is not sufficient - where a company commits an offence under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, the persons who were in charge of and responsible for the conduct of its affairs at the relevant time may also be held vicariously liable along with the company.
Prosecution against a Director of Cheque signatory alone without making the company an accused except in the case of lehal impediment - HELD THAT:- This Court, in Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels & Tours Pvt. Ltd [2012 (5) TMI 83 - SUPREME COURT], laid down the law that criminal prosecution against ‘every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was in charge of and responsible to the company for the conduct of its business,’ as contemplated under Section 141 of the Act, cannot be maintained unless the company itself is arraigned as an accused in a complaint filed under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Act - When a prosecution proceeded just against the managerial persons or the category of persons and not against the company because of some legal snag, as is in the present case, such managerial persons can be convicted of the offences under Section 138 r/w Section 141. A person who has been convicted can maintain an appeal against his conviction.
Section 148 of NI Act, is mandatory or not - HELD THAT:- In Surinder Singh Deswal & Ors. v. Virender Gandhi [2019 (5) TMI 1626 - SUPREME COURT], this Court, while examining whether Section 148 of the NI Act is mandatory or directory, held that the expression ‘may’ occurring therein is to be construed as ‘shall’, thereby rendering the provision mandatory in nature. The same question again fell for consideration in Jamboo Bhandari v. Madhya Pradesh State Industrial Development Corporation Ltd. & Ors [2023 (9) TMI 560 - SUPREME COURT], wherein this Court, while taking note of the ratio in Surinder Singh, clarified that although Surinder Singh treated the requirement under Section 148 as mandatory, the appellate court retains a limited discretion, in exceptional circumstances, to exempt an appellant from making the statutory deposit contemplated under the provision.
This Court examined the statutory scheme of Sections 143A and 148, noting their common structure, legislative purpose, and the proviso to Section 148(1), which explicitly links amounts deposited under Section 148 to interim compensation under Section 143A and applying the ratio of Shri Gurudatta Sugars, this Court held that both provisions operate only against the “drawer” of the cheque, and that an authorised signatory does not become the drawer merely by virtue of signing the cheque on behalf of the company. The Court reaffirmed that criminal liability for dishonour under Section 138 primarily rests on the company, and vicarious liability of officers arises only under Section 141 in clearly circumscribed situations. The Court further relied on Jamboo Bhandari, emphasising that the appellate court cannot impose a deposit condition under Section 148 mechanically, without examining whether exceptional circumstances exist and one such circumstance being that the appellant is not the drawer. This Court held that High Court, failed to consider these decisive aspects.
Consequently, this Court set aside the High Court’s order and quashed the Sessions Court’s direction requiring the appellant to deposit 20% of the fine/compensation as a condition for suspension of sentence. The order suspending sentence was restored, subject only to execution of bond. The Court clarified that an authorised signatory of a company cannot be compelled to deposit amounts under Section 148 unless shown to be the drawer, and directed the First Appellate Court to dispose of the pending appeals expeditiously.
This Court, in Gurudatta [2024 (7) TMI 1308 - SUPREME COURT] adopted a strict interpretation of the statute while construing the expression ‘drawer’. While such an interpretation may be warranted where the provision in question is purely criminal in nature, this Court in P. Mohanraj v. Shah Brothers Ispat Pvt. Ltd. [2021 (3) TMI 94 - SUPREME COURT] has categorically held that proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, read with Section 141, are quasi-criminal in character. In matters where the proceedings partake the character of a quasi-criminal in nature, this Court has consistently observed including in Abhilash Vinodkumar Jain v. Cox & Kings (India) Ltd. [1995 (3) TMI 344 - SUPREME COURT], that a purposive interpretation, aligned with and in furtherance of the legislative intent, is to be preferred. The interpretative approach must therefore be guided not by a rigid literalism, but by the object sought to be achieved by the statute.
If Sections 143A and 148 are to be interpreted in the manner adopted in Gurudatta and Bijay Agarwal, then, in every scenario such as the present one where the company cannot be prosecuted owing to a legal impediment, a person like the appellant, who controlled the entire business of the company and effectively acted as the drawer on its behalf, would escape the requirement of making the appellate deposit on the technical ground of not being the ‘drawer’, even though he remains prosecutable and liable to conviction. Such an interpretation would result in a situation where, despite the company being beyond the reach of prosecution, the individual responsible for its affairs cannot be compelled to comply with the remedial mechanism under Section 148.
A director of a company cannot be granted a blanket exemption from the deposit contemplated under Section 148 of the Act, as suggested in Bijay Agarwal. Whether such exemption is warranted must necessarily depend upon the factual matrix of each individual case.
It is unable to concur with the decisions in Gurudatta and Bijay Agarwal - it is considered necessary to clarify that observations are confined solely to the outcome of those decisions insofar as they adopt a strict interpretation of the provisions, which has the effect of granting a blanket exemption from the deposit contemplated under Section 148 to the category of persons referred to in Section 141 of the Act in situations where the company cannot be prosecuted.
The issue identified herein requires an authoritative pronouncement by a Larger Bench of this Court on the following question: 'Whether, upon a conviction under Section 138 read with Section 141, the appellate deposit contemplated by Section 148 may be directed against a convicted director/authorized signatory, or whether such deposit is confined to the juristic “drawer/company” alone in all scenarios?'
It is directed that the papers be placed before Hon’ble the Chief Justice for constitution of a Larger Bench to resolve the interpretative conflict.
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