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ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether limitation under section 54 of the CGST Act applies to refund claims based on a notification subsequently declared unconstitutional.
2. Whether refund of IGST paid on ocean freight can be rejected as time-barred where the claim follows a judicial declaration invalidating the statutory basis for levy.
3. Whether refund can be denied on the ground that Input Tax Credit (ITC) under IGST head was "utilised" when credits available under CGST/SGST heads were subsequently reversed to IGST.
4. Whether rectification of returns or electronic reversal (Form DRC-03) to revive IGST balance is permissible to enable a refund claim, and the effect of such reversal on the refund entitlement.
5. Whether the authority's orders rejecting refund applications should be quashed and remitted for fresh decision in light of higher judicial precedent and factual reversal of credits.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of section 54 limitation where levy/notification declared unconstitutional
Legal framework: Section 54 prescribes time limit and conditions for claiming refund of tax under the CGST Act. Constitutional invalidation of a levy or notification removes the legal basis for collection of tax.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on the principle established by the Supreme Court that when a statute or notification is held unconstitutional, claims for restitution/ refund arise notwithstanding ordinary limitation periods applicable to statutory refund schemes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that the refund claim is founded on the invalidity of the notification (i.e., the tax was collected without lawful authority). In such circumstances limitation under section 54 cannot operate to deny a remedy for recovery of amounts paid pursuant to an unconstitutional provision, because the payment was without lawful cause.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Limitation under section 54 does not bar refund claims where payment is shown to flow from a provision subsequently declared unconstitutional.
Conclusions: The Court held that the statutory time bar in section 54 is not a complete bar to refund in cases where the tax/notification has been declared unconstitutional; the refund claim therefore is not time-barred on that ground alone.
Issue 2 - Rejection of refund as time-barred for claims relating to earlier years after a later judicial pronouncement
Legal framework: Claims for refund must comply with the procedural and temporal requirements of the statute unless an exception applies; restitution for payments made under void enactments is a distinct remedial principle.
Precedent Treatment: The Court followed earlier decisions of the High Court applying the Supreme Court's approach to refunds arising from invalid levies and held that temporal limits cannot defeat such restitutionary claims.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the petitioner's applications followed the higher court's decision and were supported by documentary evidence including CA certificates; thus the timing of applications after the judicial declaration did not alone justify rejection where the underlying collection was invalid.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Temporal delay post pronouncement does not ipso facto preclude refund of amounts collected under an invalid provision; authorities must consider substantive entitlement.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the authorities erred in rejecting refund applications solely on the ground that they pertained to earlier periods; the applications could not be summarily dismissed as time-barred in view of the invalidity of the impugned provision.
Issue 3 - Effect of "utilisation" of IGST credit and availability of CGST/SGST credits on refund entitlement
Legal framework: Section 49(5) and Rule 88A govern the order of utilisation of input tax credit across IGST, CGST and SGST ledgers; section 54(3) sets out conditions for refund where unutilized ITC is involved.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on earlier High Court decisions addressing the doctrine that automatic ledger utilisation does not mean substantive constructive utilisation such that refund becomes unavailable; authorities have recognized that reversal or rectification can restore balances if appropriately shown.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the respondents' contention that IGST was "availed and utilized" and observed that the petitioner had asserted correct order of utilisation in accordance with section 49(5) and Rule 88A. The Court further observed that mere ledger entries reflecting utilisation do not extinguish the substantive right to restitution where credits are legitimately reversed to IGST and documentary proof exists.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where an applicant demonstrates (and subsequently effectuates) reversal of credits to revive IGST balance, the fact of prior automatic utilisation does not conclusively defeat a refund claim; authorities must consider the actual ledger position and documentary evidence.
Conclusions: The Court found that the denial of refund on the ground of utilisation was not justified in the circumstances, particularly in view of the petitioner's reversal by filing Form DRC-03 and verification by respondent authorities that such reversal was correct.
Issue 4 - Permissibility and effect of rectification/DRC-03 reversal to enable refund
Legal framework: The GST procedural scheme permits rectification of returns and adjustments in electronic credit ledger by prescribed forms (e.g., DRC-03) subject to verification; such steps can alter ledger balances relevant to refund eligibility.
Precedent Treatment: The Court treated prior High Court orders as supporting the view that post-claim rectification and reversal can be effective to revive an IGST balance and thereby render an applicant eligible for refund, provided the reversal is bona fide and verified.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded that the petitioner filed DRC-03 to reverse SGST credits to IGST and that the respondents verified and accepted the reversal. Given verification, the Court held that the authorities must proceed to decide refund on the fresh facts including the revived IGST balance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Valid reversal effected through prescribed mechanisms (Form DRC-03) and accepted on verification by authorities will be treated as restoring the requisite IGST balance for refund purposes; authorities must consider such reversal when adjudicating refund claims.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the reversal by Form DRC-03, having been verified as correct, renders the petitioner eligible to press the refund claim and that the prior rejection on account of utilisation is unsustainable.
Issue 5 - Necessity to quash impugned orders and remit for fresh decision in light of law and verified facts
Legal framework: Judicial review under Article 226 permits quashing of administrative orders that fail to consider binding legal principles or relevant verified factual changes, and remittal for de-novo consideration.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied established practice of setting aside orders where authorities applied incorrect legal tests (e.g., rigid application of limitation or treating automatic ledger utilisation as conclusive) and remitting for reconsideration in light of controlling judicial precedent and updated ledger positions.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the legal position that refunds following invalidation of a levy are maintainable and the factual position that credits were reversed and verified, the Court found the impugned rejection orders unsustainable. The Court directed fresh adjudication de-novo within a fixed timeframe to ensure effective relief consistent with precedent and the verified ledger position.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Administrative orders rejecting refund claims must be quashed where they ignore binding judicial decisions or verified factual reversals; the proper course is remittal for fresh decision within a reasonable time.
Conclusions: The Court quashed the impugned orders and directed the authority to pass a fresh de-novo order on the refund claims within twelve weeks from receipt of the order, taking into account the judicially declared invalidity of the impugned provision and the verified DRC-03 reversal.
Refund of the amount of IGST paid by the Petitioner pursuant to Entry No. 10 of N/N. 10/2017-IGST (Rate) dated 28.6.2017 along with appropriate interest - the refund was based on the notification having been declared unconstitutional by the Hon’ble Supreme Court [2022 (5) TMI 968 - SUPREME COURT] -it was submitted that the respondents have verified the reversal of credit utilised under SGST towards IGST by filing Form GST DRC-03 and such reversal was found to be correct - HELD THAT:- The impugned order of rejecting the refund claim of the petitioner is hereby quashed and set aside and the respondent authorities are directed to pass a fresh de-novo order to grant refund to the petitioner in view of decision of Hon’ble Apex Court in case of Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (5) TMI 968 - SUPREME COURT] and other decisions of this Court cited by learned advocate for the petitioner. Such exercise shall be completed within a period of 12 weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
Petition disposed off
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an order of cancellation of GST registration and dismissal of the appeal for delay can be set aside or suspended to permit a registrant to file outstanding returns and pay outstanding tax, interest and late fee when substantial amounts have already been deposited.
2. Whether, and on what conditions, a court may grant a time-bound opportunity to regularise GST compliance (filing returns and payment of dues) where the registrant asserts bona fides, medical incapacity and makes partial payments.
3. Whether the appellate authority's dismissal of an appeal for delay precludes consideration of condonation or substantive compliance if the registrant subsequently offers to file returns and pay dues.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Authority to suspend cancellation and permit filing of returns where substantial payments have been made
Legal framework: The Court considered the statutory regime under the GST Act and Rules, specifically provisions requiring furnishing of returns (section 39), grounds for cancellation for non-filing (section 29(2)(c)) and Rule 22 procedures (show cause notices and forms for cancellation and revocation). Remedies under Article 226 were invoked to quash administrative orders.
Precedent Treatment: No prior judicial authorities were cited or relied upon in the reasoning; the Court proceeded on principles of statutory compliance, administrative discretion and equitable relief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasised that where a registrant has deposited substantial amounts of tax, interest and late fees (adduced by challans) and offers to file pending returns within a short, specified period, administrative action of cancellation may be suspended to enable regularisation. The Court balanced the statutory objective of compliance with practical equity-recognising that deposit of dues and undertakings to comply justify a limited opportunity to cure defaults rather than immediate, final cancellation. The Court also noted the absence of opposing legal contentions and the respondent authority's willingness to process returns and determine liability in accordance with law.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A court may, in appropriate circumstances where substantial payments have been made and an undertaking is given, direct suspension of a cancellation order and permit filing of pending GST returns within a fixed time for the purpose of regularisation and possible revocation of cancellation upon payment of outstanding dues assessed in law. Obiter - The general policy preference for strict compliance and that future infractions may lead to automatic cancellation.
Conclusions: The Court suspended the order of cancellation and permitted filing of pending returns within eight weeks subject to an undertaking to abide by the GST Act and Rules; directed authorities to consider the returns and, if valid, call for payment of any outstanding dues and revoke cancellation upon such payment.
Issue 2 - Granting time-bound opportunity to regularise where delay is explained by medical incapacity and partial compliance
Legal framework: Principles of condonation of delay and revocation of cancellation under GST Rules, and the power of courts to grant equitable relief under Article 226, were applied to a factual matrix involving asserted medical incapacity of a partner and intermittent compliance.
Precedent Treatment: No specific authorities were cited; the Court applied established equitable principles in administrative law regarding granting opportunities to cure defaults.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that medical incapacity can explain delay in responding to show-cause proceedings and filing appeals, but did not undertake an exhaustive adjudication of that factual claim. Rather, the Court focused on the registrant's subsequent conduct - payment of large portions of liability and an express undertaking to comply - as sufficient grounds to afford a last opportunity. The Court imposed a strict, time-bound condition (eight weeks) for filing pending returns and required an undertaking to ensure future regularity, coupling relief with safeguards to protect the revenue (suspension, departmental reassessment and requirement to pay any remaining dues).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A court may grant a final, time-bound opportunity to regularise where delay is credibly explained and substantial payments toward liability have been made; relief can be conditioned on undertakings and departmental reassessment. Obiter - Specific factual findings on medical incapacity were not decisive; the court relied primarily on subsequent compliance steps taken by the registrant.
Conclusions: The Court authorised filing of pending returns within eight weeks and required an undertaking; if returns comply with law and outstanding dues are paid as directed, cancellation is to be revoked. Failure to comply will result in cancellation automatically.
Issue 3 - Effect of appellate dismissal for delay and scope for remedial relief
Legal framework: Statutory appellate procedure under the GST regime and the power of tribunals and courts to entertain applications for condonation of delay or to grant equitable relief under Article 226.
Precedent Treatment: No appellate precedents were invoked to delimit the scope of judicial intervention where an appellate authority dismisses appeals on the ground of delay.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the appellate dismissal for delay not as an absolute bar to remedial relief where the registrant subsequently pays dues and seeks to regularise returns. Instead, the Court exercised supervisory jurisdiction to create a procedural pathway: stay/suspension of cancellation; filing of returns; departmental reassessment and payment; and revocation if conditions met. The approach recognises the administrative interest in finality but allows corrective action where the revenue is not prejudiced and corrective steps are instituted promptly.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Judicial intervention is permissible to provide a structured remedial opportunity after an appellate dismissal for delay when equitable conditions (payment, undertaking, time-bound compliance) are satisfied. Obiter - The decision does not set a general rule for all delay-dismissing orders; it is fact-sensitive and contingent on deposits and undertakings.
Conclusions: The appellate dismissal does not preclude the court from directing suspension of cancellation and conditional consideration of returns; authorities must reassess and determine dues in accordance with law and revoke cancellation upon compliance.
Additional Observations and Administrative Directions (Operative Conclusions)
1. The registrant is permitted to file pending returns within eight weeks and must furnish an undertaking to abide by GST law and timely future filing; failure to comply will result in automatic cancellation.
2. Respondent authorities are directed to suspend the cancellation order while the pending returns are filed and to consider the returns; if returns are in order, they shall call for payment of outstanding dues determined in law and revoke cancellation upon payment.
3. The relief is conditional, fact-specific and grounded in equitable discretion balanced against the respondent authority's duty to determine and collect statutory dues; no general precedent was established beyond the factual matrix and conditions prescribed.
Cancellation of registration certificate of the petitioner and the SCN - petitioner had not furnished returns of income for continuous six months - delay caused in filing the application for revocation of cancellation of the registration - HELD THAT:- In view of the fact that the petitioner has deposited substantial amount of outstanding tax with interest and late fees, as if returns would have been filed, in the interest of justice, the petitioner is permitted to file the pending returns within a period of eight weeks from today. The petitioner shall also file an undertaking before this Court that the petitioner shall abide by the provisions of the GST Act and the GST Rules and shall be regular in filing the returns in future, failing which, the registration of the petitioner shall be cancelled automatically.
The respondents are therefore, directed to consider the pending returns filed by the petitioner by suspending the order of cancellation of registration and if the same are found in accordance with law, call upon the petitioner to pay the outstanding dues, if any, forthwith. If the petitioner pays such outstanding dues as may be directed by the respondents, the order of cancellation shall stand revoked.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment order (summary in DRC-07) lacking the signature of the assessing authority is vitiated and liable to be set aside.
2. Whether an assessment order passed without issuance of a Tax Intimation Notice under Rule 142(1A) of the GST Rules (as applicable to the relevant period) is invalid.
3. Whether procedural irregularities of the above kind, not raised before the adjudicating authority or appellate authority, can be entertained in writ proceedings as questions of law affecting the validity of the impugned orders.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity of assessment summary (DRC-07) without assessing authority's signature
Legal framework: Assessment orders under the GST regime must comply with prescribed formalities. Statutory provisions and rules mandate authenticated orders by competent officers; Sections 160 and 169 of the CGST Act concern service and rectification but do not supply an inspecting officer's signature where it is otherwise required for validity.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on earlier Division Bench decisions of this High Court which held that an unsigned assessment order is defective and that Sections 160 and 169 do not cure the absence of signature. Those precedents were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the absence of an assessing authority's signature on the DRC-07 summary as a substantive formal defect that goes to the validity of the order. The reasoning is that authentication by the officer is an essential formality evidencing the order's official provenance and accountability; statutory provisions for service or rectification cannot be read as validating an order that was not properly authenticated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that an unsigned assessment order is invalid and liable to be set aside is ratio decidendi, being essential to the Court's disposition and directly applied to quash the impugned order.
Conclusions: The unsigned DRC-07 assessment summary is vitiated; the impugned assessment must be set aside and remitted for fresh consideration with a duly signed order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Mandatory nature of Rule 142(1A) notice prior to assessment
Legal framework: Rule 142(1A) of the GST Rules prescribes issuance of a Tax Intimation Notice to the taxable person prior to passing certain assessment orders. The Rule's requirement is time-sensitive and, pertinent to this matter, the procedure before and after the October 2020 amendment differs; pre-amendment issuance of the notice was mandatory.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on its prior decision holding that, prior to the October 2020 amendment, non-issuance of the Rule 142(1A) notice renders an assessment order invalid. That precedent was followed and applied to the mixed tax periods at issue.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the time span of the assessed periods (covering pre-amendment and post-amendment intervals) and concluded that the authorities were bound to follow the procedural mandate of Rule 142(1A) for the pre-amendment portions. Because no such notice was issued (an omission not disputed by the revenue), the assessment process suffered a procedural illegality which affected the validity of the resultant order. The Court emphasized that statutory procedure governing assessments must be complied with; failure to adhere cannot be salvaged by subsequent inaction or steps.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that non-issuance of Rule 142(1A) notice (in the pre-amendment context) invalidates the assessment is ratio decidendi and central to the Court's remedial direction.
Conclusions: The assessment order is invalid to the extent it was passed without Rule 142(1A) notice for the periods where the notice was mandatory; fresh adjudication must be preceded by issuance of the prescribed notice in accordance with the CGST Act and Rules.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Permissibility of raising procedural objections belatedly in writ proceedings
Legal framework: Writ jurisdiction permits challenge to administrative action on questions of law and jurisdictional error, including significant procedural defects; whether an objection was raised before lower authorities is relevant but not always determinative where the error affects the validity of the impugned order.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied its prior authorities treating procedural defects affecting jurisdiction or validity as matters that can be entertained notwithstanding their non-raising before the adjudicating or appellate authorities, particularly where the statutory procedure has not been followed by authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that the challenged defects (absence of signature and non-issuance of mandatory Rule 142(1A) notice) are matters of procedural law going to the validity of the assessment; such matters may be raised at any stage, including in writ proceedings, because the authorities are obliged to follow statutory procedure and their failure cannot be remedied by lapse or by the absence of objection in earlier fora. The Court declined to penalize the petitioner for not raising these specific legal/procedural points earlier when they affect the fundamental validity of the orders.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The proposition that certain procedural defects affecting validity can be raised in writ proceedings despite prior non-raising is treated as ratio insofar as it underpins the Court's decision to entertain the present petition and set aside the orders.
Conclusions: The writ petition was maintainable on the grounds of procedural illegality; the Court exercised jurisdiction to examine and decide these defects even though they were not pressed before the adjudicating or appellate authorities.
REMEDY AND CONSEQUENTIAL DIRECTIONS
The Court set aside the impugned assessment and appellate orders and remitted the matter to the assessing authority for fresh adjudication. The assessing authority is directed to issue the Tax Intimation Notice under Rule 142(1A) (as required for the relevant periods) and to pass a fresh, duly signed assessment order in accordance with the CGST Act and Rules. The period from the date of the original assessment order until receipt of the present order by the assessing authority is excluded for limitation purposes.
FINAL CONCLUSION
The impugned assessment and appellate orders are unsustainable due to (a) absence of the assessing authority's signature on the assessment summary (DRC-07) and (b) failure to issue the mandatory Rule 142(1A) notice for the periods where it was required; these defects are substantive procedural illegality and justify quashing and remand for fresh proceedings in accordance with law. No costs were ordered.
Levy of penalty u/s 122(1)(ii) of the GST Act, 2017 - summary of assessment order in DRC-07 was not signed by the assessing authority - order of assessment was passed without being preceded by a notice under Rule 142(1A) of GST Rules - HELD THAT:- The effect of absence of the signature in summery order in DRC-07 was earlier considered by this Court in the case of A.V. Bhanoji Row Vs. The Assistant Commissioner (ST) [2023 (2) TMI 1224 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT]. A Division Bench of this Court, had held that the signature on the assessment order, cannot be dispensed with and that the provisions of Sections 160 & 169 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017, would not rectify such a defect. Further, following this judgment another Division Bench of this Court in the case of M/s. SRK Enterprises Vs. Assistant Commissioner [2023 (12) TMI 156 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT] had set aside the impugned assessment order.
Though, the grounds raised in the present writ petition were not raised before the respondents either at time of passing assessment order or before the appellate authority, in view of the fact that the respondent authorities are bound to follow the procedure contemplated under the GST Act, 2017 and the Rules made thereunder. Since the respondents did not adhere to the said procedure, the impugned orders passed by the respondents are not sustainable.
The assessment order dated 29.03.2023 and the order in appeal dated 10.12.2024 are hereby set aside and the matter is remanded back to the 1st respondent for passing fresh order, after giving notice under Rule 142(1A) to the petitioner in accordance with the provisions of CGST Act and the rules made thereunder - Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the petitioner's GST portal should be activated to enable payment of pre-deposit for maintaining the statutory appeal, and whether interim protection should be granted against the order under section 74 pending activation of the portal.
Analysis: The portal status was shown as inactive, while the registration had not been cancelled. The petitioner was unable to make the pre-deposit required for validation of the appeal. In these circumstances, the Court found that keeping the writ petition pending would serve no fruitful purpose and directed activation of the portal within a fixed time. The Court also granted limited interim protection so that the appeal could be regularised after the pre-deposit was made.
Outcome: The portal was directed to be activated, the impugned order was kept in abeyance for a limited period, and the writ petition was disposed of.
Prayer to access the GST portal - status of the petitioner’s portal is showing ‘inactive’, the petitioner is unable to put in the pre deposit in connection with an appeal filed by the petitioner - HELD THAT:- When the matter came up for consideration on 15th September, 2025, this Court noted that Goods and Service Tax Network in short (GSTIN) was a necessary party. As such, on the prayer of the petitioner, this Court added GSTIN as a party respondent. Ms. Aishwarya Rajyashree, learned advocate for the added respondent was directed to take appropriate instruction in the matter. Today she would submit that she is yet to receive further instructions.
Thus, no fruitful purpose shall be served by keeping the writ petition pending. As such, the added respondent is directed to activate the petitioner’s portal within a period of 4 weeks from date. The order dated 17th January, 2025 shall remain stayed for a period of 6 weeks, or for a period of 2 weeks till after activation of the portal, whichever is later, though such order of injunction shall not continue beyond the end of November, 2025.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether refund applications filed under Section 54 of the CGST Act can be rejected as "not fit for processing" by way of deficiency/defect memos on the ground of limitation without initiating adjudication proceedings in the manner prescribed under the CGST Rules (Forms RFD-06/RFD-08/RFD-09 and Rule 92(3)).
2. Whether a claim for refund of tax paid on renting of residential dwellings (allegedly exempt under the relevant exemption notification) is governed exclusively by the two-year limitation in Section 54 of the CGST Act, or whether where tax was collected/paid without authority of law the Limitation Act (and Section 17 thereof) applies instead.
3. Whether the revenue may, at the deficiency memo stage, raise the question of limitation if earlier communications did not raise limitation, and whether reliance on administrative circulars or notifications (including pandemic period exclusion notifications) can justify treating refund applications as time-barred without adjudication.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Procedural mode for adjudicating refund eligibility and effect of defect/deficiency memos
Legal framework: Section 54 of the CGST Act prescribes refund procedure and time limits; Rule 92(3) of the CGST Rules prescribes the procedure and forms (RFD-06, RFD-08, RFD-09) for adjudication of refund claims; administrative Circular No.125/44/2019-GST and deficiency memos are used by revenue to communicate defects.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on earlier decisions (including those instructing that authorities should not raise technical objections when the underlying notification has been held to render the tax payment involuntary) and administrative practice directing adjudication rather than outright rejection at defect stage.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that eligibility for refund cannot be finally adjudicated by issuing defect/deficiency memos that treat the application as "not fit for processing" solely on limitation grounds. The proper statutory procedure - issuance of show cause notice in Form RFD-08, opportunity to reply in Form RFD-09 and passing of a speaking order in Form RFD-06 under Rule 92(3) - is required for adjudication of refund claims. Administrative memos which preclude further processing without following the prescribed adjudicatory steps are inappropriate to foreclose a substantive refund claim.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - It is a core legal requirement that refund eligibility must be adjudicated in accordance with the procedure in Rule 92(3) and the prescribed forms; defect memos cannot foreclose adjudication without following that procedure. Obiter - observations on administrative convenience or internal circulars have no overriding force over the prescribed rule-based adjudicatory process.
Conclusion: Defect/deficiency memos that decline to process refund applications on limitation grounds without initiating the procedure under Rule 92(3) are set aside; revenue must follow the statutory adjudication process before rejecting refund claims.
Issue 2 - Applicability of Section 54 limitation vis-à-vis refunds of tax collected without authority of law
Legal framework: Section 54 prescribes a two-year limitation from the relevant date for refund claims under the CGST Act; Article 265 of the Constitution prohibits tax collection without authority of law; the Limitation Act, particularly Section 17, governs suits/applications for relief from consequences of mistake where payment was made without legal authority.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed earlier High Court authority and principles from decisions holding that where duty/tax is collected without authority of law, such collection is not "tax paid under the Act" for the purposes of the special statutory limitation, and the Limitation Act applies to claims for restitution. Decisions cited (and followed) include authorities holding that collection without legal authority is contrary to Article 265 and that limitation under the special law does not bind claimants seeking refund of amounts collected illegally.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where an exemption notification renders a service not liable to tax (renting of residential dwellings under the mentioned exemption entry), amounts collected and paid as tax pursuant to invoices are effectively collected without authority of law. In such circumstances Section 54's two-year bar (applicable to tax paid under the Act) is not the exclusive or necessarily applicable limitation; the Limitation Act provisions for relief from consequences of mistake (or other appropriate limitation provisions) govern restitution claims. Given that the petitioner paid tax despite exemption and claims refund on that basis, the limitation question cannot be conclusively resolved by revenue at the defect stage and deserves adjudication in accordance with law and precedents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where tax is collected/paid without legal authority (i.e., contrary to the exemption), Section 54 limitation does not automatically apply to bar refund claims; recourse to the Limitation Act may be appropriate. Obiter - Detailed application of particular Limitation Act provisions to facts may require further adjudication on evidence and was not determined here.
Conclusion: The question whether Section 54 time-bar applies is not a foreclosable technical objection at the deficiency stage where the claim concerns tax paid contrary to an exemption; such claims call for substantive adjudication and cannot be dismissed on limitation without following statutory procedure and considering equivalently the Limitation Act principles.
Issue 3 - Effect of administrative circulars/notifications and pandemic-period exclusion on limitation, and timing of raising limitation
Legal framework: Notification excluding the pandemic period from limitation computation and Circular No.125/44/2019-GST are administrative instruments referred to by revenue; Section 54 prescribes form and time but interplay with exclusion notifications affects computation.
Precedent treatment: The Court referred to earlier orders directing authorities to avoid raising purely technical issues in the face of substantive entitlement to refund and to process claims keeping in view judicial pronouncements that struck down or interpreted exemption notifications as conferring non-liability.
Interpretation and reasoning: Revenue's reliance on Circular No.125 to foreclose processing after issuing a deficiency memo was held insufficient where the underlying entitlement (exemption) and the character of payment (paid despite exemption) raise the question of whether Section 54 applies at all. Similarly, computation of limitation with pandemic exclusion may impact cut-off dates, but where the claim relates to amounts arguably paid without authority the court declined to permit limitation to be determinative at defect stage. The Court also observed that raising limitation at a later stage (in a subsequent memo) does not cure the absence of adjudicatory process required by Rule 92(3).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Administrative circulars and defect memos cannot substitute for the statutorily mandated adjudication; pandemic-period exclusions and notifications affect computation but do not allow bypassing Rule 92(3). Obiter - Specific calendar computations were not resolved and were left for the adjudicating authority to consider on merits.
Conclusion: Administrative circulars and exclusion notifications do not authorise denial of processing without adjudication; limitation queries and pandemic-period computations must be considered during proper adjudication rather than being determinative via deficiency memos.
Disposition and remedial direction (consequential to the above issues)
Having followed the precedents and applied the reasoning that refund eligibility and limitation issues require adjudication rather than foreclosing defect memos, the Court set aside the deficiency memos and directed the revenue to consider the refund applications on merits without going into the question of limitation at the defect stage, and to pass appropriate orders within a specified period (four weeks) in accordance with law and the Rule 92(3) procedure.
Refund u/s 54 of the CGST Act - no obligation to pay tax on renting of residential dwelling services as per Entry No. 12 of Exemption N/N. 12 by 2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28.06.2017 - stipulated time of two years time period for submission of the said applications is already completed - HELD THAT:- As per Entry No. 12 of Exemption N/N. 12 by 2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28.06.2017, services by way of renting of residential dwellings for use as residents is exempted, nevertheless the petitioner paid taxes inasmuch as invoices raised by the landlords included the GST component. It is needless to point that any collection of tax shall be in accordance with Article 265 of the Constitution of India which postulates that no tax can be collected without authority of law. As already stated in the case on hand though the petitioner is not liable to pay tax, the same was paid as per the invoices raised by the landlords and therefore it had filed application seeking to refund of the same. Further by impugned deficiency memos, the authorities have informed the petitioner that the applications are not fit for processing as the same were filed beyond the two years as per Section 54 of CGST Act, 2017.
Further, the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in the case of Comsol Energy Private Limited Vs. State of Gujarat [2021 (6) TMI 827 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] had considered the applicability of period of limitation set out under Section 54 of CGST Act and held that 'It is held that the assessee is not bound by the limitation prescribed under the special law for claiming the refund of the excess duty or duty collected illegality. The period of limitation prescribed under the Limitation Act would apply.'
The deficiency memos under challenge are set aside and the respondents are directed to consider the application of the petitioner for refund of tax without going into the question of limitation. Further, the respondents are directed to pass appropriate orders on the petitioner’s application within a period of four weeks from the date of receipt of copy of the order.
Petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether issuance of intimations for personal hearing in relation to a Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice, where an application for rectification under Section 161 of the GST Act has been filed, is impermissible or contrary to the rights of the applicant unless the rectification application is first considered for maintainability.
2. Whether the adjudicating authority is obliged to determine the maintainability of an application under Section 161 and, if maintainable, to consider its merits before proceeding further with the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice.
3. Whether the Court should direct the adjudicating authority to decide the rectification application within a specified time and whether further proceedings on the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice may be taken after such consideration.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Lawfulness of issuing hearing intimations while a Section 161 rectification application is pending
Legal framework: Section 161 of the GST Act permits rectification of mistakes apparent from record in any order or decision. Administrative authorities exercise procedural and adjudicatory functions subject to the statutory scheme and principles of fair procedure.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not rely upon or cite any precedent; no prior decisions were followed, distinguished, or overruled in the Court's reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the intimations for personal hearing do not indicate that the authority intended to consider the pending rectification application. Where an application for rectification under Section 161 is on record, issuing hearing notices without clarity on whether rectification will be considered can potentially render the process incomplete or premature because the relief sought by rectification may alter the scope or quantum of the demand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative action (issuing of hearing intimations) which proceeds without regard to an extant rectification application under Section 161 may be procedurally inappropriate if it sidelines the rectification application's prospective effect on demand.
Conclusions: The Court held that issuance of hearing intimations in such circumstances calls for consideration of the rectification application's maintainability before further steps are taken; it was not condemned as per se unlawful, but deemed imprudent absent clear indication that the rectification application will be considered.
Issue 2 - Obligation to determine maintainability and consider merits of a Section 161 application before proceeding
Legal framework: Section 161 addresses rectification of mistakes apparent from the record; administrative authorities are required to apply the statutory language to determine whether an application falls within the scope of Section 161 and, if so, to adjudicate it on merits.
Precedent Treatment: No precedential analysis applied in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court directed that the adjudicating authority must first consider whether the filed application is maintainable under the language of Section 161. If maintainable, the authority is to consider the grievances raised on their own merits. The Court emphasized that such consideration may materially affect the demand (including possible reduction or extinction of the claimed liability) and therefore is a necessary step in the administrative process before prosecuting further action on the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a rectification application under Section 161 is presented, the authority is required to examine maintainability and, if entertained, consider its merits before proceeding further in respect of the demand subject to that application.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the authority must determine maintainability under Section 161 and, if found maintainable, consider the application's merits; this is an essential part of fair and orderly adjudication of the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice.
Issue 3 - Procedural relief and temporal sequencing of further proceedings
Legal framework: Judicial supervisory powers permit courts to issue directions to ensure statutory rights are protected and to secure orderly exercise of administrative functions; equitable directions may include timelines for disposal of applications to avoid prejudice.
Precedent Treatment: No precedential guidance cited or applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court considered the practical consequence that if the rectification application were entertained and upheld in whole or part, the demand might be materially reduced or eliminated. To prevent prejudice and to ensure the rectification petition receives due consideration, the Court directed the authority to decide the maintainability and merits within a specified short period (two weeks from receipt of certified/down-loaded copy of the order). The Court made clear that, after such consideration, the authority may proceed further in connection with the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice if occasion arises.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a rectification application under Section 161 is on file, the Court may direct the authority to decide it within a defined timeframe prior to or as part of continuing the adjudicatory process, and subsequent proceedings may follow depending on the outcome.
Conclusions: The Court granted relief in the form of a direction that the rectification application be considered for maintainability and on merits within two weeks; further proceedings on the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice are permissible after such consideration. The Court expressly refrained from expressing any opinion on the substantive merits of the demand.
Ancillary and procedural observations
The record did not disclose that the petitioner had responded to the initial notice; the adjudicating authority's issuance of hearing intimations lacked explicit reference to considering the rectification application. The Court disposed of the writ petition by directing administrative action without adjudicating the substantive tax liability, and pending interlocutory applications were disposed of accordingly.
Maintainability of application for rectification of Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice u/s 161 of the GST Act - GST on royalty relating to permissible limit and extraction of mineral beyond the permissible quantity pertaining to tax periods from 2018-19 to 2022-23 - HELD THAT:- It is apparent from record vide Annexure-3 that Office of the Assistant Commissioner, CGST and Central Excise, Jajpur Division, Jajpur Road received the application for rectification of Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice dated 26.06.2025 and the intimations for personal hearing do not reveal that the authority concerned would consider the said application along with Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice.
In such view of the matter, it is considered prudent to direct the Assistant Commissioner, GST & Central Excise, Jajpur Division to consider whether application for rectification of Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice, as stated to have been filed by the petitioner, is maintainable in terms of Section 161 of the GST Act and in the event, such a petition is found to be entertained in terms of language employed in Section 161, the grievance of the petitioner as mentioned in the said application would be considered on its own merits.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the writ petition is maintainable notwithstanding the existence of an alternative, efficacious statutory appellate remedy.
2. Whether an unchallenged executive circular can be relied upon by the petitioner at the writ stage to bypass the appellate remedy.
3. Whether the adjudicating authority acted without jurisdiction by treating a transaction as subject to tax despite contention that it concerns immovable property and surrender of tenancy rights.
4. Whether the High Court should grant interim protection in relation to limitation for filing an appeal and on what conditions such protection may be extended.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Maintainability of the writ petition in view of an alternative efficacious remedy
Legal framework: Constitutional and administrative law principles require exhaustion of alternative statutory remedies before approaching the writ court unless exceptional circumstances justify departure from that rule. The petitioner bears the onus to plead facts demonstrating that an alternative remedy is either unavailable, ineffective or would cause irreparable prejudice.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows established jurisprudence that declines writ intervention where a plain, adequate and efficacious remedy by way of appeal exists; prior decisions of the Court and higher authorities on the subject are applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes the impugned assessment order is appealable and the petitioner did not adequately plead particulars to displace the presumption in favour of requiring exhaustion. A bare averment that no other equally efficacious remedy exists, without particulars, is misleading and cannot be sustained. The petitioner participated in adjudication and can agitate contested points on appeal; hence no exceptional circumstance is shown to warrant writ relief.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A writ petition is liable to be dismissed where an adequate and efficacious alternative statutory remedy exists and the petitioner fails to plead specific grounds or exceptional circumstances to justify bypassing that remedy. Obiter - General observations on prosecutorial candour and the need to "come clean" when pleading exceptions.
Conclusion: Petition dismissed on maintainability grounds for failure to exhaust alternative statutory remedies; merits left open for appellate consideration.
Issue 2: Reliance on an executive circular to justify writ relief
Legal framework: Executive circulars and instructions cannot override or supplant relief available under statute; petitioners relying on statutory provisions may challenge executive instructions but must do so appropriately and with specificity.
Precedent treatment: The Court treats reliance on administrative circulars as insufficient, absent a direct challenge to the circular or demonstration that the circular renders the statutory remedy ineffective.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner asserted that a particular circular would impede success on appeal but did not challenge the circular in the petition. The Court observed that any contention that statutory provisions entitle the petitioner to relief may be urged before the appellate authority; invoking an executive circular to avoid the appellate forum is unacceptable, particularly when the circular is not directly challenged and the petitioner has not shown that it renders the appellate remedy ineffective.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Reliance on an executive circular, without challenging it and without particulars showing that it wholly defeats the statutory remedy, does not justify writ intervention. Obiter - Remarks cautioning against tactical invocation of circulars to avoid alternate remedies.
Conclusion: The circular does not provide a basis to entertain the writ; the petitioner may raise statutory arguments before the appellate authority and may, if appropriate, challenge the circular there or in proper proceedings.
Issue 3: Jurisdictional challenge based on nature of transaction (immovable property and surrender of tenancy rights)
Legal framework: Questions of jurisdiction involving characterization of transactions (whether a transaction is of immovable property or falls within tax net) are generally matters to be decided in the statutory adjudication and appellate process; writ jurisdiction is not ordinarily invoked to re-open adjudicatory findings where an appeal lies.
Precedent treatment: The Court adheres to the principle that errors or disputed questions of fact or law resolvable on evidence and record are to be ventilated in appeal; this prevents circumvention of the appellate process.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the petitioner contended that the transaction concerned immovable property and surrender of tenancy rights and therefore the adjudicating authority lacked jurisdiction, the petitioner had raised these contentions before the adjudicating authority and participated in the proceedings. The Court held that such jurisdictional/contention-of-characterization issues are appropriately raised on appeal and do not warrant writ interference in the absence of exceptional features.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Characterization and jurisdictional disputes that arise from adjudicatory proceedings should ordinarily be resolved on appeal where an appeal exists; they do not, by themselves, justify bypassing the appellate remedy. Obiter - Observations that participation in adjudication weakens the case for writ relief.
Conclusion: The jurisdictional challenge must be agitated in the appellate forum; it is not a ground for writ relief in the circumstances.
Issue 4: Protection of limitation for filing an appeal and conditional directions
Legal framework: High Court may, in appropriate circumstances, grant limited directions to preserve the right of appeal (including protection from bar of limitation) subject to conditions that are just and equitable; courts may impose conditions (such as payments or undertakings) to balance interests and prevent prejudice to respondents or public interest.
Precedent treatment: The Court relies on established practice permitting conditional protection of limitation where petitioners undertake to file appeals within stipulated time and meet reasonable conditions; such orders do not decide merits and leave substantive issues to the appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the petition was dismissed on grounds of alternative remedy, the Court afforded conditional relief to protect limitation: the appellate authority was directed to consider an appeal on merits without raising limitation, provided the petitioner (a) pays a specified sum to a public institution within two weeks and (b) institutes the appeal within a fixed period (four weeks from upload). The Court emphasized that this direction pertains only to limitation and that all merits remain open for adjudication by the appellate authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Court may grant conditional protection from limitation where the petitioner undertakes to institute the appeal within a short timeline and complies with reasonable conditions; such protection does not adjudicate merits. Obiter - Specific choice of the institution to receive payment and the quantum are facts of the case and ancillary to the legal principle.
Conclusion: Limited, conditional protection of the limitation period was granted subject to payment and prompt filing of appeal; the appellate authority must consider the appeal on merits without objection to limitation.
Cross-references and General Conclusions
All substantive contentions were left open for adjudication by the appellate authority; dismissal is on procedural grounds (failure to exhaust the alternative remedy). The Court reiterates the requirement for candid and particularized pleadings when invoking exceptions to the rule of exhaustion. The conditional protection against limitation does not affect the appellate authority's power to decide the merits.
Maintainability of petition - exceptions to the practice of exhausting alternative remedies - reliability of unchallenged executive circular - HELD THAT:- In the case of Oberoi Constructions Ltd. vs. Union of India & Ors [2024 (11) TMI 588 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] the law relating to the exhaustion of alternative remedies discussed. Therein, several precedents of the Hon’ble Supreme Court on the said subject are referred. Therefore, by adopting the reasoning in the said decision, as also in the decisions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court referred to therein, it is declined to entertain this Petition on the ground of an alternate and efficacious remedy.
Petition dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Order-in-Original confirming demand of Input Tax Credit, interest and imposing penalties under Sections 74(1), 50 and 122(1) of the CGST/SGST Act, read with Section 20 of the IGST Act, is liable to be set aside on writ jurisdiction under Article 226, notwithstanding the alternate remedy of appeal under Section 107.
2. Whether the Circular dated 6th July, 2022 (CBIC clarification on fake invoices) precludes imposition of tax/demand and restricts the revenue to levying only penalty in proceedings involving alleged fake invoices and ineligible ITC.
3. Whether facts found in investigation - searches, statements (including retractions), alleged use of brokers, cancellation of supplier registrations and arrest of the proprietor - furnish sufficient material to sustain a demand and penalties for fraudulent availment and passing-on of ITC.
4. Whether a writ petition filed within the statutory limitation for appeal under Section 107 can operate to permit filing of the appeal after the expiry of the limitation period, and what conditions (including pre-deposit) should be imposed for such extension.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Maintainability of writ challenge to an appealable Order-in-Original (Sections 74, 50 and 122 demand/penalty)
Legal framework: Article 226 confers writ jurisdiction; Section 107 provides the statutory appellate remedy against orders under the Act. Pre-deposit conditions for filing appeal are prescribed by statute.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognised that the impugned OIO is an appealable order under Section 107 and therefore the statutory appellate remedy is ordinarily the appropriate forum. The Court declined to exercise extraordinary writ jurisdiction to supplant the appellate route, directing the petitioner to file the statutory appeal with requisite pre-deposit.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedent was invoked in the judgment; the approach follows settled administrative law principles that writ jurisdiction will not normally be used where an efficacious statutory appeal exists.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Writ jurisdiction is not exercised to bypass the appeal forum where the order is appealable under Section 107; petitioner must pursue appeal with pre-deposit. Obiter - none beyond reasoning upholding normal forum discipline.
Conclusion: The petition challenging the appealable OIO under Article 226 was disposed by directing filing of appeal under Section 107 with pre-deposit; the writ was not retained to decide merits of demand/penalty.
Issue 2 - Effect of CBIC Circular dated 6th July 2022 on liability to tax versus penalty in fake-invoice cases
Legal framework: Administrative clarification (CBIC circular) addressing applicability of demand and penalty provisions in transactions involving fake invoices; statutory provisions imposing tax/demand (Sections 74, 50) and penalties (Sections 122, 132 etc.).
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner relied on the circular to contend that no tax demand could be imposed and only penalty could be levied. The Court noted the submission but did not accept it as a ground to quash the OIO at the writ stage. Given availability of appeal and the factual controversies, the Court directed adjudication of such contentions in appeal rather than on writ.
Precedent treatment: No precedent was applied or overruled; the Court's disposition indicates that administrative circulars will be considered in the appellate adjudication but do not by themselves preclude the requirement to follow statutory appellate process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - The circular cannot be used at the writ-admission stage to avoid statutory appellate remedy; question of circular's legal effect to negate tax demands remains to be adjudicated on merits in appeal.
Conclusion: The claim that the circular precludes tax demand was not accepted as a basis to retain or allow the writ; the correctness of the circular's application to these facts is to be examined in the appeal.
Issue 3 - Sufficiency of investigative material to sustain findings of fraudulent availment and passing-on of ITC
Legal framework: Requirement of material evidence to establish fraudulent availment of ineligible ITC via fake/non-existent suppliers; relevance of searches, recorded statements, retractions, cancellation of supplier registrations, and arrest under Section 69/Sections 132(1)(b),(c).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reviewed the salient facts: the petitioner's GST registration shortly before the transactions, the concentration of suspicious transactions in two financial years, searches at residential and office premises, statements of the proprietor (including admissions and subsequent retractions), statements of third parties, cancellation of supplier registrations, and the proprietor's arrest for alleged offences. The Court observed these facts lent some basis to the Department's view that the petitioner may have been incorporated to pass fraudulent ITC and that the reply to the SCN did not inspire confidence at this stage.
Precedent treatment: No precedents cited; the Court's approach was fact-driven, noting sufficiency for continuation of departmental action and appellate adjudication rather than immediate quashing on writ grounds.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - The Court's observations on the investigative material are provisional and were made in support of the decision to direct appeal filing; they do not constitute final adjudication on culpability.
Conclusion: The investigative record was sufficiently prima facie to justify confirmation of demand/penalty on merits to be examined in appeal; not a ground for immediate writ relief.
Issue 4 - Effect of filing writ within limitation on the time-bar for appeal and conditions for extension
Legal framework: Statutory limitation for filing an appeal under Section 107; principles permitting equitable extension where writ is filed within limitation and merits of delay are considered.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petition was filed within the period of limitation prescribed for appeal, but the appeal period had subsequently expired. The Court exercised its discretion to permit filing of the appeal by a specified date (15th December 2025) despite expiry of appeal period, on condition that the requisite pre-deposit accompany the appeal. The Court further directed that if appeal is filed within stipulated time with pre-deposit, it shall be adjudicated on merits and not treated as barred by limitation.
Precedent treatment: No specific authorities cited. The direction aligns with jurisprudence permitting extension/condonation where litigant had sought judicial remedy within limitation and statutory appeal period lapsed while writ was pending.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where writ is filed within the appeal period, the Court may permit filing of the statutory appeal after expiry of the appeal period subject to conditions (here, time limit and pre-deposit), and such appeal shall be decided on merits.
Conclusion: The petitioner was permitted to file the appeal by the specified date with requisite pre-deposit; the appeal, if so filed, will be heard on merits and not dismissed as time-barred.
Ancillary procedural holdings and directions
1. The application for interim relief (CM) was allowed subject to exceptions and disposed.
2. The writ petition was disposed by the direction to file the statutory appeal with pre-deposit; pending applications were disposed as well.
Cross-reference: Issues 1 and 4 are interlinked - the Court's refusal to entertain writ relief on merits (Issue 1) is tied to its decision to permit a time-limited appeal filing (Issue 4) with pre-deposit.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy - Fraudulent availment of ineligible ITC on the strength of fake and bogus invoices from non-existing suppliers - Petitioner is not in a position to make the pre-deposit - HELD THAT:- It is pertinent to note that Petitioner got its GST registration only on 6th July 2019, and that the entirety of the suspicious transactions took place during the financial years 2019-20 and 2020-21. It is further noted that immediately thereafter, upon the arrest of the Petitioner, the business operations of the Petitioner were also discontinued. Thus, there is some basis for the GST Department to argue that the Petitioner itself was incorporated to pass on fraudulent ITC, in an illegal and unlawful manner as the Petitioner’s GST registration was alive for less than two Financial years.
The Court has also perused the reply filed by the Petitioner to the impugned SCN. However, the same does not inspire any confidence at this stage - In any case, since the impugned OIO is an appealable order under Section 107 of the Act, the Court is of the opinion that an appeal ought to be filed by the Petitioner, along with the requisite pre-deposit.
The present writ petition was filed within the period of limitation prescribed under Section 107 of the Act. Now, even the period of limitation for filing the appeal has expired. Since the petition was filed within the period of limitation, the Petitioner is permitted to file the appeal by 15th December 2025, along with the requisite pre-deposit - petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether interest under section 56 of the Central/State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 is payable where IGST refund due on export was delayed due to a technical glitch in the automated ICES-GSTN integration system.
2. Whether the respondent-authority can deny interest under section 56 by alleging fault on the exporter in filing Shipping Bills/GST returns without producing material evidence of such fault.
3. Whether manual processing of IGST refund after departmental inaction satisfies the requirement for payment of interest for the period of delay.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of section 56 GST Act where refund delayed by technical glitch
Legal framework: Section 56 prescribes payment of interest on delayed refunds where tax ordered to be refunded under section 54(5) is not refunded within sixty days from date of receipt of the refund application; rate specified by notification; interest is compensatory in nature. Explanation and proviso for refunds following appellate/court orders set out extended rate provision.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on the principle in Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. (interpreting section 11BB of Central Excise Act, which is pari materia) that interest becomes payable on expiry of statutory period from receipt of application if refund is not made, and the explanation does not postpone commencement of interest. The Court also referred to a High Court decision following the same principle directing interest on delayed refunds.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated section 56 as mandatory and compensatory. The date of receipt of application was identified as the date of filing of Shipping Bills in the facts. A technical glitch in the automated ICES-GSTN integration (response code SB000 and transmission showing eligible scroll amount as zero) caused non-processing of the automated refund. Since the delay was attributable to system failure and not to any proven fault of the taxpayer, the statutorily mandated interest is triggered by non-refund beyond sixty days.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - section 56 mandates interest for delayed refund where delay is not attributable to proven fault of the applicant; technical/system failure causing delay does not absolve department from liability to pay interest. Obiter - observations about the compensatory nature of interest and description of automated refund mechanism provide contextual support but are ancillary to the holding.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that interest under section 56 is payable for the delayed IGST refund caused by the technical glitch and ordered payment of interest in accordance with law.
Issue 2 - Sufficiency of departmental allegation of taxpayer fault without material evidence
Legal framework: Burden on department to justify denial of statutory interest by demonstrating applicant's inaccuracy in filings or other valid statutory exceptions; statutory scheme conditions refund on matching Shipping Bill and GST return data but denial of interest requires demonstrable cause.
Precedent Treatment: Followed the principle that the department must show material to establish taxpayer's fault when relying on it to deny statutory relief; the Court applied established interpretations of refund provisions (including analogy to Ranbaxy and High Court precedent) to insist on material proof before denying interest.
Interpretation and reasoning: The department alleged errors in Shipping Bills and GSTR filings but produced no material on record to show what mistakes were committed. The affidavit of respondents conceded that other shipments of the petitioner were refunded normally and that the immediate cause was a technical glitch in data transmission from GSTN to ICES. The Court held that mere allegation without evidence is insufficient to evade statutory obligation to pay interest where delay is otherwise unexplained or shown to be systemic.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - denial of interest cannot rest on unsubstantiated allegations of taxpayer fault; the department must demonstrate specific errors causing the delay. Obiter - procedural remarks on the responsibilities of exporters to file accurately and the automated nature of the system while relevant are not determinative absent proof.
Conclusion: The Court found no material basis for the departmental allegation of taxpayer fault and held that such unsupported contention does not justify withholding interest under section 56.
Issue 3 - Effect of manual processing after judicial intervention on entitlement to interest
Legal framework: Interest under section 56 accrues from the expiry of sixty days from receipt of refund application until date of actual refund; subsequent administrative action (including manual processing) does not negate entitlement to interest for the period of delay.
Precedent Treatment: Reliance on Ranbaxy (interest accrues upon expiry of statutory period regardless of subsequent processes) and state High Court precedent applying the same principle to GST refund interest.
Interpretation and reasoning: Manual processing approval by the Principal Commissioner, effected after court intervention, remedied the non-refund but did not cure past delay. The Court noted the Commissioner approved manual processing because online processing attempts had failed; this administrative step validated that the delay was not attributable to the exporter and affirmed the necessity to compensate for the delay via interest.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative remediation (manual refund) after delay does not extinguish statutory obligation to pay interest for the period prior to refund. Obiter - commendation of counsel and departmental efforts are ancillary comments.
Conclusion: The Court directed payment of interest for the period of delay, notwithstanding manual processing of refund post-petition, and specified a timeframe for compliance.
Relief and Directions
Interpretation and reasoning: In light of mandatory statutory scheme and absence of departmental proof of taxpayer fault, the Court granted relief directing respondent authorities to pay interest on the delayed refund in accordance with section 56 within a specified period.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - directive to pay interest in accordance with section 56 where refund was delayed due to system glitch and no proven taxpayer fault; timeline directive for compliance is incidental to effective relief.
Conclusion: The petition was allowed and the respondents were directed to grant interest on the delayed IGST refund within the prescribed period in accordance with law.
Entitlement to interest on the delayed payment of refund to the petitioner - denial on the ground of finding fault of the petitioner in filing the 05 Shipping Bills and errors were also found while filing GSTR - Technical glitch in the system - The GSTN Integration status report of ICES System was showing the response code as SB000 which was normally a success code in IGST integration and no window was provided to rectify the error code SB000 at Hazira Port.
HELD THAT:- In view of the averments made on oath on behalf of respondent Nos. 2 and 3, it is clear that there was no fault on the part of the petitioner for submitting the Shipping Bills but there was a technical glitch in the system which has resulted into delayed payment of refund as the Commissioner was required to direct for manual processing to issue the refund after filing of this petition.
The provision of section 56 of the GST Act clearly provides that when the tax payer is not granted the refund as per the provision of section 54(5) of the GST Act within 60 days from the date of receipt of the refund application, which in the facts of the case is the date of filing of the Shipping Bills, interest is required to be paid to the tax payer-assessee. Provision of section 56 of the GST Act is a mandatory provision and the interest which is required to be paid under section 56 is compensatory in nature for delayed payment of refund which otherwise is not in dispute. Therefore, the respondents are required to pay the interest as per the provision of section 56 of the GST Act on the delayed payment of refund. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd vs. Union of India [2011 (10) TMI 16 - SUPREME COURT] in context of section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 which is peri materia to section 56 of the GST Act has observed that 'the only interpretation of Section 11BB that can be arrived at is that interest under the said Section becomes payable on the expiry of a period of three months from the date of receipt of the application under sub-section (1) of Section 11B of the Act and that the said Explanation does not have any bearing or connection with the date from which interest under Section 11BB of the Act becomes payable.'
This Court also in case of Panji Engineering Pvt. Ltd vs. Union of India [2023 (7) TMI 533 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] following the aforesaid decision has directed the respondent-authority to grant interest on the delayed refund as per the provisions of law.
The respondent Nos. 2 and 3 to grant the interest on the delayed refund to the petitioners during pendency of this petition in accordance with law within a period of 12 weeks from the date of receipt of copy of this order - petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the detention/forfeiture order in FORM GST MOV-11 (under section 130 read with section 129/20 IGST Act) and the summary order in FORM GST DRC-07 are vitiated for non-service of the show-cause notice in FORM GST MOV-10 and/or non-provision of the electronic summary in FORM GST DRC-01 as mandated by Rule 142 of the GST Rules.
2. Whether the petitioner, as an alleged bona fide purchaser of goods in transit accompanied by a tax invoice and an E-way Bill, is entitled to release of goods/vehicle on payment of penalty and fine notwithstanding allegations of bogus invoices and fraudulent Input Tax Credit (ITC).
3. Whether a writ under Article 227 is maintainable to assail the MOV-11 order and seek immediate release of goods where an alternative statutory remedy by appeal under section 107 of the GST Act is available and effective.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of confiscation order (FORM GST MOV-11) and summary order (FORM GST DRC-07) vis-à-vis service requirements under Rule 142 and section 130
Legal framework: Section 129 authorises detention/seizure of goods; section 130 provides for confiscation and levy of penalty after opportunity of being heard by issuance of show-cause notice in FORM GST MOV-10; Rule 142 requires notice by the proper officer and electronic issuance of a summary in FORM GST DRC-01; Rule 138 requires carriage of prescribed documents (tax invoice, E-way Bill) during transit.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied the established principle that procedural compliance with notice requirements is material but the availability of service upon the person-in-charge or owner/supplier can satisfy the requirements; the Court followed higher-court guidance that where alternate statutory remedies exist, writ relief is generally withheld absent established exceptions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the respondent-authority's averments that the show-cause notice (MOV-10) was physically served on the driver (person-in-charge) and emailed to the supplier (owner of goods) the next day, followed by a reminder; the authority contends the supplier was the appropriate addressee because supplier was owner of goods in transit. The authority also asserts that the summary order DRC-07 was uploaded once the petitioner obtained temporary registration and that until such summary order was uploaded no recovery would be exigible. The Court did not make a factual finding on whether service was legally sufficient, but treated these factual disputes as matters for the appellate authority rather than for adjudication by writ jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court did not resolve the precise legal question of defect in service under Rule 142 as a ratio; instead, it treated the presence or absence of service as a factual contest to be examined on appeal-this is obiter to the extent it declines to rule on the merits but ratio insofar as it establishes that such factual disputes are more appropriately addressed via the statutory appellate mechanism.
Conclusion: The Court declined to quash MOV-11 or DRC-07 on the basis of alleged non-service without deciding the merits, directing the petitioner to pursue the statutory appeal. The question of compliance with Rule 142 and section 130 remains to be adjudicated by the appellate authority.
Issue 2: Entitlement to release of goods on payment by alleged bona fide purchaser accompanied by invoice and E-way Bill
Legal framework: Section 129 permits release of detained goods on payment of appropriate tax, interest and penalty where seizure/detention occurs; Rule 138 prescribes the documents (tax invoice, E-way Bill) to be carried during transit; principles of bona fide purchaser protection are relevant but subject to statutory scheme addressing contraventions and confiscation under sections 129-130.
Precedent Treatment: The Court recognised authorities which protect bona fide purchasers in appropriate circumstances but emphasised that determination of bona fides and entitlement to release involves consideration of factual matrix (e.g., existence of forged invoices, route discrepancies, supplier's registration status) and is primarily within the jurisdiction of the adjudicating/appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The respondents produced material (driver's statement, GSTR filings, cancellation of supplier's registration, DGGI investigation outcomes) alleging that the transaction was a bogus one with fake invoices and fraudulent ITC. The petitioner maintained that tax invoice and E-way Bill accompanied the goods and offered to pay penalties. The Court refrained from resolving these contested factual and documentary matters, treating release-on-payment entitlement as a subject for the appellate and fact-finding process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: It is obiteral that mere production of invoice and E-way Bill does not conclusively establish entitlement to release where there are serious allegations and material suggesting fraud; the ratio is that such factual determinations are to be made through the statutory appellate forum rather than by writ intervention.
Conclusion: No interim direction for release on payment was granted; the petitioner must raise the entitlement to release before the appellate authority where the factual questions (bona fides, genuineness of invoices, route/status discrepancies) will be examined.
Issue 3: Maintainability of writ under Article 227 versus availability of alternative remedy under section 107
Legal framework: Section 107 provides for appeal/revision against orders under the GST Act to the appellate or revisional authorities; constitutional writ jurisdiction is discretionary and ordinarily withheld where an efficacious alternate statutory remedy exists; established precedent requires writ relief only where alternate remedy is inadequate or exceptions apply (e.g., breach of natural justice, urgency, multiplicity of proceedings, or illegality not remediable on appeal).
Precedent Treatment (followed): The Court relied on binding higher-court reasoning that, absent exceptional circumstances (which must be shown), High Court writ jurisdiction should not supplant the statutory appellate process and that factual assessment is generally left to the appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court identified an effective alternate remedy in section 107 and found no demonstrated exceptional circumstance warranting writ interference at this stage. The Court noted its inability, on the record before it, to make conclusive findings on disputed facts (service, genuineness of transaction) and accordingly relegated the petitioner to the appeal route. The Court afforded concession on limitation by directing that time spent shall be considered bona fide for condonation if appeal filed within two weeks.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that the writ petition should be dismissed for lack of exceptional circumstances and due availability of the statutory appeal is ratio. Observations about the sufficiency of service and factual allegations were left as obiter/without deciding merits.
Conclusion: Writ relief under Article 227 was refused; the petitioner is directed to avail the appeal under section 107. The Court allowed condonation of delay for a limited period; no order on costs.
Cross-References and Practical Directions
1. The issues of procedural compliance with Rule 142 (service of MOV-10 and electronic DRC-01) and entitlement to release on payment are interlinked factual and legal questions; the Court refrained from resolving them and directed resolution through the statutory appellate remedy (section 107).
2. Where allegations of bogus invoices, supplier registration cancellation and DGGI findings are placed on record, the adjudicatory and appellate mechanisms are the appropriate fora for determination of guilt, confiscation and release claims; writ relief will not ordinarily be entertained unless the petitioner establishes lack of an efficacious statutory remedy or exceptional circumstances.
3. Time spent in pursuing pre-litigation remedies will be treated as bona fide for condonation of delay in filing the statutory appeal if instituted within the limited period directed by the Court.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy - Bogus transaction with issuance of bogus tax invoices and the E-way bill - cancellation of GST registration of petitioner - petitioner was non-existent at the registered address and appeared to have been indulged in issue/receipt of fake invoices for passing/receipt of fraudulent ITC - It is the case of the petitioner that without serving the notice upon the petitioner, the impugned order in GST MOV-11 dated 01.10.2024 was passed confirming the demand of penalty and fine as proposed in the show-cause notice
HELD THAT:- It is not inclined to entertain this petition in view of the alternative efficacious remedy available to the petitioner so as to challenge the impugned order passed in GST MOV-11 by the Adjudicating Authority. Therefore, in view of the decision of the Hon’ble Apex Court in case of The Assistant Commissioner of State Tax and others vs. M/s. Commercial Steel Limited [2021 (9) TMI 480 - SUPREME COURT] where it was held that 'There was, in fact, no violation of the principles of natural justice since a notice was served on the person in charge of the conveyance. In this backdrop, it was not appropriate for the High Court to entertain a writ petition. The assessment of facts would have to be carried out by the appellate authority. As a matter of fact, the High Court has while doing this exercise proceeded on the basis of surmises. However, since we are inclined to relegate the respondent to the pursuit of the alternate statutory remedy under Section 107, this Court makes no observation on the merits of the case of the respondent.'
Thus, without entering into the merits of the matter, this petition is disposed of by relegating the petitioner to avail alternative efficacious remedy under section 107 of the GST Act. We also made it clear that the time spent by the petitioner shall be considered as bona fide for issue of delay in preferring appeal if the petitioner files an appeal before the appellate authority within a period of two weeks from today.
Petition dismissed.
Outcome: The application(s) seeking condonation of delay were dismissed and the special leave petitions were dismissed on merits.
Accrual of income in India - interconnect service charges paid would amount to royalty or not? - Delayed filling SLP - HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 240 and 249 days respectively in filing these Special Leave Petitions. The reasons assigned for seeking condonation of delay are neither satisfactory nor sufficient in law so as to condone the same. Hence, the application(s) seeking condonation of delay is/are dismissed.
Further, following the order passed by this Court in M/s M.I. Limited [2025 (9) TMI 117 - SC ORDER] these special leave petitions are dismissed on merits also as held this petition is covered by the judgment of this Court in Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Private Limited [2021 (3) TMI 138 - SUPREME COURT] which has been followed in other cases also as held here is no obligation on the persons mentioned in section 195 of the Income Tax Act to deduct tax at source, as the distribution agreements/EULAs in the facts of these cases do not create any interest or right in such distributors/end-users, which would amount to the use of or right to use any copyright. The provisions contained in the Income Tax Act (section 9(1)(vi), along with explanations 2 and 4 thereof), which deal with royalty, not being more beneficial to the assessees, have no application in the facts of these cases.
SLP dismissed.
Outcome: The appeal along with the connected appeal was disposed of with liberty to the revenue to pursue appropriate legal remedy before the appropriate forum in accordance with law.
Grant of deduction u/s 10A - argument of the revenue before the High Court was that if the assessee having failed to comply with the requirement under the proviso to Section 10A (1) (A) the deduction could not have been allowed
HELD THAT:- Today when the matter was taken up for hearing Mr. Raghavendra P Shankar, the learned A.S.G. brought to our notice that the respondent-assessee has gone under liquidation.
In such circumstances, nothing further can be done in the matter now. We dispose of this appeal with the liberty in favour of the revenue to avail appropriate legal remedy before the appropriate forum in accordance with law.
Outcome: Revenue's appeal was disposed of without examination on merits, in view of the statement that the assessee intended to pursue an appeal against the final assessment order in accordance with law.
Validity of reopening of assessment u/s 147 - taxability of "live feed" and its asserted tax ability as royalty- bifurcation of licence fee between live feed and recorded content - High Court [2024 (10) TMI 427 - DELHI HIGH COURT] set aside the re-assessment order passed u/s 148A(d) and the notice referable to Section 148 -
HELD THAT:- Learned counsel for the assessee (respondent) has instructions to make a statement before this Court that his client now intends to prefer an appeal against the final order of assessment in accordance with law. He would further submit that the challenge to the assessment order would be on its own merits and not on the grounds as urged before the High Court while questioning the order passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act, in so far as the issue of reopening is concerned.
If that be so, then there is no good reason for us to look into this appeal filed by the Revenue.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an application made under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 can be held invalid under Section 187(3) of the Finance Act, 2016 on the ground of an alleged shortfall in payment where credit for advance tax paid prior to the declaration was not granted against the amount payable under the IDS.
2. Whether credit for advance tax (and by necessary implication self-assessment tax where applicable) paid before filing a declaration under the IDS must be allowed against the tax, surcharge and penalty quantified under the IDS.
3. Whether consequential actions taken by the Revenue - issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, assessment under Sections 147 read with 144B, demand under Section 156 and penalty show-cause under Section 270A - are maintainable where the IDS declaration is held invalid on account of failure to grant advance tax credit.
4. The appropriate remedial directions where advance tax credit is found to have been wrongly denied in quantifying liability under the IDS.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of rejection of IDS declaration under Section 187(3) FA Act for alleged shortfall where advance tax credit was denied
Legal framework: Section 187(3) of the Finance Act, 2016 permits the authority under the IDS to reject an application where the applicant fails to pay the amount determined as payable under the scheme. The amount payable is computed after giving allowable credits such as TDS and, as contested, advance tax.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on a recent Division Bench decision of this Court which held that credit for advance tax (and self-assessment tax where relevant) must be allowed in similar facts. Earlier judgments of this Court addressing comparable questions were also relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the admitted facts: the authority quantified the IDS liability without granting credit for advance tax of Rs.55,00,000, allowed TDS credit, and thereby recorded a shortfall. Payment in installments equaled the declared payable amount as computed by the petitioner after claiming advance tax credit. The Revenue accepted the correctness of the precedent during proceedings and conceded that, on that basis, credit should be given, which would eliminate any shortfall. The Court therefore reasoned that rejection under Section 187(3) was premised on an incorrect computation and was unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that denial of advance tax credit, when such credit is otherwise admissible, cannot form the basis for a valid rejection under Section 187(3) is ratio decidendi insofar as it disposes of the question whether the IDS application could be deemed never to have been filed.
Conclusion: The order rejecting the IDS application under Section 187(3) was quashed and set aside because the shortfall relied upon was attributable to the non-grant of an available advance tax credit.
Issue 2 - Entitlement to credit for advance tax (and self-assessment tax) against IDS liability
Legal framework: The IDS requires determination of the amount payable on declared undisclosed income; customary credits such as TDS are given. The question is whether advance tax paid prior to declaration is a permissible credit against the IDS liability.
Precedent Treatment: The Court followed a Division Bench decision of this Court and other appellate decisions of this Court which, in similar factual matrices, allowed credit for advance tax and self-assessment tax against IDS liability.
Interpretation and reasoning: Applying the precedents, the Court found that advance tax paid prior to filing the IDS declaration is to be accounted for in computing the net amount payable under the IDS. The Revenue accepted that position in its affidavit. The Court therefore interpreted the scheme and authoritative decisions to require grant of the advance tax credit.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The direction that advance tax credit is to be allowed in determining IDS liability is ratio and forms the operative legal principle applied to the facts.
Conclusion: The petitioner was entitled to credit for advance tax paid, which eradicated the alleged shortfall; advance tax credit must be given when computing IDS dues.
Issue 3 - Maintainability of subsequent assessments, notices and penalties issued consequent to rejection of IDS application
Legal framework: The Revenue issued notice under Section 148 (reopening), assessed under Section 147 read with Section 144B, issued demand under Section 156 and show-cause under Section 270A, all predicated on the premise that the IDS declaration was invalid and the declared income remained undisclosed.
Precedent Treatment: Where an IDS declaration is validly made and accepted (or wrongly rejected for reasons that are rectifiable), subsequent reopening and assessments predicated solely on the alleged invalidity may be unwarranted. The Court relied on precedents indicating that corrective relief must follow where the underlying rejection is set aside.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the foundational rejection under Section 187(3) was quashed on the ground that advance tax credit was wrongly denied, the consequential reopening and assessment actions based on that rejection lacked a sustainable foundation. The Court concluded that the notices and orders which flowed from the flawed rejection must therefore be set aside.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that downstream notices and assessment orders are invalid where they rely on an erroneous declaration-rejection is ratio with direct application to the facts.
Conclusion: The notice under Section 148, the assessment under Sections 147/144B, the demand under Section 156 and the show-cause under Section 270A were quashed and set aside as consequentially unsustainable.
Issue 4 - Appropriate remedial directions and procedural consequence
Legal framework: Where an IDS declaration is held validly filed but the quantification omitted allowable credits, equitable and statutory relief can include directions to recompute liability and to issue appropriate forms under the scheme.
Precedent Treatment: Prior decisions provide for granting credit and remitting matters to the Revenue to give effect to that credit, including issuance of the requisite statutory forms consistent with the scheme.
Interpretation and reasoning: In the exercise of its writ jurisdiction and in light of the Revenue's concession and controlling precedents, the Court directed issuance of Form No.4 under the IDS within a specified period after giving credit for the advance tax paid. This remedy restores the petitioner to the position he would have occupied had the credit been allowed initially and eliminates resultant enforcement actions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The directive to issue Form No.4 after granting advance tax credit is ratio as it is the operative relief granted to correct the identified error.
Conclusion: The Court directed the concerned authorities to issue Form No.4 within four weeks after giving credit for the advance tax; the writ was made absolute and the related orders set aside, with no order as to costs.
Rejection of Petitioner’s declaration made under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016 (‘IDS’) - short fall in the payment of tax, by order passed u/s 187(3) of the FA Act - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the total tax demand raised by the Income Tax Department under the IDS was Rs. 2,33,22,640/-. After giving credit for TDS of Rs. 8,64,944/-, the balance amount payable by the Petitioner was Rs. 2,24,57,696/-. Out of this amount, the Petitioner has paid a sum of Rs. 1,69,57,700/- in three installments, as more particularly set out by us earlier. This is how there is a shortfall of Rs. 54,99,996/-. This shortfall has arisen because the department has not given credit for the advance tax paid by the Petitioner for A.Y. 2015-16 and A.Y.2016-17.
This court in the case of Rajendra Lilachand Sanghavi [2024 (3) TMI 1489 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] after relying upon two other decisions of this court in the case of Kamla Chandra Singh Kabali [2022 (2) TMI 344 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and CEAT Limited [2024 (2) TMI 930 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] in similar facts, allowed the Petitioner not only credit for advance tax paid but also for self assessment tax.
In light of the decision rendered in Rajendra Sanghavi (supra), and considering the fair stand taken by the Revenue in their affidavit-in-reply, the Order passed under Section 187(3) of the Finance Act, 2016; the Notice issued under Section 148, the Assessment Order; the Demand Notice issued under Section 156; and the Show Cause Notice issued under Section 270A of the IT Act are all hereby quashed and set aside.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment order can be sustained when it is framed against a non-existent/ceased entity (including merged/amalgamated entities) in circumstances where departmental records and available communications indicated cessation or merger.
2. Whether Assessing Officers may rely conclusively on outputs of departmental software systems (ITBA/Insight/CPC/e-filing) without independent application of mind, verification of data, or event-marking where statutory mechanisms (including event marking under relevant provisions) exist to record corporate events.
3. Whether the departmental software ecosystem has a presently enforceable duty or functionality to synchronize data across portals (e-filing, ITBA, PAN, Insight, CPC) and to proactively identify and alert officers about duplicate/inactive PANs; and what legal consequences follow from deficiencies in such synchronization.
4. Whether exemplary costs are appropriate against the Departmental respondents for issuance of a high-value assessment and demand pursuant to the foregoing defects, and if so, the quantum and conditions for imposition or reduction of such costs.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity of Assessment Against Non-Existent/Merged Entity
Legal framework: Statutory provisions enabling event marking and giving effect to mergers/amalgamations and striking off (referenced in the judgment are the provisions dealing with recording of corporate events and their effect under the Income-tax Act). The fundamental requirement is that an assessment must be grounded on accurate identification of the assessee and material facts.
Precedent Treatment: No prior judicial authorities were cited or applied in the judgment to modify or overrule existing precedent; the Court decided the matter on factual and statutory record before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the impugned assessment was passed against a PAN mapped to a non-existing entity which, on the material before the Tribunal, had been subject to merger/ cancellation requests earlier. The assessing machinery proceeded without adequate verification of the corporate status despite communications (including a communication dated 02.02.2022 about merger) being available to the Department. The Court characterized the assessment as high-pitched and resulting from total non-application of mind and negligence of the Assessing Officer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An assessment framed against a non-existent/ceased entity, where evidence of cessation/merger exists and was not verified by the Assessing Officer, is not sustainable; such an order can be quashed as vitiated by non-application of mind. Obiter - Observations on systemic causes and software roles illustrating recurring patterns of similar litigation.
Conclusions: The Court quashed and set aside the impugned assessment order as unsustainable on the facts; it endorsed that minimal verification by the Assessing Officer would have averted the litigation.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Reliance on Departmental Software Outputs Without Application of Mind
Legal framework: Administrative law principles requiring public authorities to exercise discretion, make independent enquiries where necessary, and to apply mind to the material before reaching adjudicatory action; statutory processes for event marking within the Department's IT frameworks.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on principle rather than specific precedent and expressed repeated judicial concern over departmental officers acting mechanically on software-generated flags.
Interpretation and reasoning: On review of the DGIT(Systems) affidavit, the Court noted that Assessing Officers are able to view certain events on specific portals but that many event-markings are not synchronized across systems. The Court recorded that, in practice, officers were treating software outputs as conclusive and initiating or reopening proceedings without independent inquiry into veracity. The Court held that software is a tool, not a substitute for discretionary application of mind, and that blind reliance risks initiation of incorrect or multiplicative litigation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Assessing Officers must exercise independent judgment and verify software-provided data before initiating proceedings; mechanical reliance on IT outputs without verification is improper and can invalidate departmental action. Obiter - Broader systemic criticisms and policy suggestions about software governance and training.
Conclusions: The Court mandated that departmental action must not be directed solely by software outputs; officers must verify information and apply discretion before initiating assessments or reopening proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Synchronisation of Portals and Identification of Duplicate/Inactive PANs
Legal framework: Statutory prohibition against multiple PANs under section 139A and statutory/event marking mechanisms; administrative responsibility to maintain accurate taxpayer records for lawful assessment.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial authority was applied to change the legal obligations as to data management; the Court examined the DGIT(Systems) affidavit and the current technical architecture and plans.
Interpretation and reasoning: DGIT(Systems) explained that (a) certain events (e.g., legal-heir registration) are visible on some portals but not auto-synchronized into the PAN module of ITBA or Insight; (b) there is presently no system function to proactively alert JAOs of duplicate PANs due to risk of false positives; and (c) planned projects (ITBA 2.0, PAN 2.0, Insight 2.0) aim to introduce synchronization and enhanced de-duplication. The Court accepted that technological development is underway but emphasized that present deficiencies led to the impugned wrongful action. The Court noted procedural pathways available presently for de-duplication (taxpayer-initiated surrender, JAO-initiated deletion upon reliable information) but criticised lack of proactive reconciliation and systemic alerts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - In the current state, absence of synchronization and proactive system alerts does not absolve Assessing Officers from verifying the identity/status of an assessee before action; systemic improvements are necessary but interim officer diligence is required. Obiter - Technical explanations by DGIT(Systems) and future IT projects are informative but not determinative of present legal standards.
Conclusions: The Court acknowledged planned systemic remedies but held that in the interim Assessing Officers must verify facts; it urged development and deployment of synchronizing functionalities and proactive de-duplication measures (as described by DGIT(Systems)) to prevent recurrence.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 4: Imposition and Quantum of Costs for Negligent Departmental Action
Legal framework: Judicial power to impose costs as a corrective and deterrent measure where litigation arises from departmental negligence, non-application of mind or manifestly unreasonable action.
Precedent Treatment: The Court exercised its discretion in light of facts, apology tendered by respondents, and DGIT(Systems) affidavit; no precedents were cited to fix a tarif for exemplary costs.
Interpretation and reasoning: Initially the Court had considered imposing an exemplary cost of Rs. 1 Crore given the scale of the high-pitched assessment and demand; however, after receiving the departmental affidavit explaining technical shortcomings and an unconditional apology, and mindful that administrative action against officers is separately available, the Court moderated its view. The Court observed that while software defects contributed, the decisive fault lay in failure of the Assessing Officer to verify and apply mind. Balancing deterrence, corrective purpose, and departmental remedial steps, the Court reduced the cost to a token amount to be paid to a legal services authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Costs can be imposed for gross negligence and non-application of mind; the quantum is discretionary and may be moderated by remediation efforts and apology. Obiter - Comments about administrative proceedings against officers and the larger need for systemic reform are advisory.
Conclusions: The Court imposed a token cost of Rs. 10,000 to be paid by the Department to the State Legal Services Authority (instead of the earlier considered Rs. 1 Crore), while recording concerns about negligence and directing that systemic improvements be pursued as per the DGIT(Systems) responses.
REMEDIAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE DIRECTIONS (Ratio/Operational Mandates)
1. The impugned assessment order is quashed for failure of verification and non-application of mind where the assessee was non-existent/merged.
2. Assessing Officers must not act mechanically on software-generated flags; they are obligated to verify the correctness of data and apply discretion before initiating or reopening assessments.
3. The Court noted the DGIT(Systems) assurance that ITBA 2.0, PAN 2.0 and Insight 2.0 projects will aim to synchronize event markings, integrate third-party orders/databases, and explore proactive de-duplication; until such functionalities are in place, existing manual/verification procedures remain obligatory.
4. A token cost is imposed to reflect negligence and to serve as a reminder of duty to verify departmental records; administrative action against officers remains open and the Court refrains from commenting further to avoid prejudice to such processes.
Levy of exemplary cost of Rs. 1 Crore on Income Tax Officers (AO) vide earlier order [2025 (4) TMI 1133 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] for being assessment order resulting into high-pitch assessment - non-application of mind and negligence - Initiation or proceedings on dead person/amalgamated companies or business and inactive or multiple PANs in the software system of the department - HELD THAT:- Respondent income tax department is taking corrective proactive steps for resolution of the issues which are raised in this petition pertaining to initiation or proceedings on dead person/amalgamated companies or business and inactive or multiple PANs in the software system of the department.
On perusal of the affidavit in reply filed on behalf of respondent nos.2 and 3, it transpires that instead of action being taken on the basis of information available and exercise of discretion, the respondent department is taking action as per the information made available by the software system.
Thus we are of the opinion that instead of department taking help of the software system, is being directed by the software system as if the software system is the master of the respondent department and the respondent department is blindly following the information made available by the software system and taking action without verifying the veracity of the same. It may therefore, happen that if someone enters false or wrong information in the software system, Jurisdictional Assessing Officer would take action on the basis of such information without verifying the correctness of the same resulting into multiple and protracted litigation.
Time and again, we have come across major litigations on account of action being taken by the respondent department due to either mis-information, non-information or false information made available by the Insight Portal without having any nexus to the documents or material available on record.
The Jurisdictional Assessing Officers are acting as a tool of the software system to initiate the proceedings rather than taking information as only the basis, without conducting any inquiry or application of mind. Thus the software system has become the master, rather than a helpful tool for the department for implementing the provisions of the Income Tax Act.
The present petition is a classic example where little verification or application of mind by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer would not have resulted into this litigation and it could have been avoided by not taking any action more particularly, when there was a merger of one National Bank with the petitioner bank.
We are also apprised by the learned advocate Mr. Patel that action is taken by the department against the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer on administrative side. Therefore, we do not want to further prejudice such departmental action by observing in any manner.
The petition is therefore, disposed off with a cost of Rs. 10,000/- (Rupees Ten Thousand only) to be paid by the respondent nos.1 and 2 with the Gujarat State Legal Service Authority as a token cost instead of Rs. 1 crore for such negligence which was deemed fit at the time of passing the judgment on 17.03.2025.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether entries in a seized customized inventory software ('J-Pack') can be treated as unaccounted income of the assessee where consolidated, non-entity specific stock movement entries exist and source daily reports are partly unavailable.
2. Whether 'Ghat' ledger entries in J-Pack represent unaccounted metal (wastage gold) retained as profit or merely alloy adjustments recorded for inventory control; whether additions based on statements recorded during search are sustainable without corroborative documents.
3. Whether entries in 'MC Khata' ledger represent unaccounted making-charges receipts/payments and whether those entries, if reflected in regular books and offered to tax, can be added again.
4. Whether amounts in 'Byaj' (interest) and 'Vatav' (commission/rate differences) ledgers are taxable in the assessee's hands when substantial portions of those amounts were disclosed and assessed in the hands of the key controlling individual; extent to which telescoping applies.
5. Whether aggregate 'Cash' ledger entries in J-Pack can be treated as unaccounted cash sales; proper method for (a) quantifying unaccounted sales from consolidated entries, and (b) estimating gross profit rate to compute taxable profit.
6. Whether unexplained physical stock, receivables, cash and silver found/seized can be taxed in the assessee's hands when (a) the same or related unaccounted income has been offered to tax by the group's controlling individual or other group entities, and (b) valuation/apportionment across years is required.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Nature of J-Pack data (Legal framework)
Legal framework: Assessments under Section 153A deal with undisclosed income detected on search; statements under search (e.g., Section 132(4)) require corroboration and cannot, alone, form the sole basis for additions. Burden lies on Revenue to establish that seized records correspond to unaccounted transactions of the assessee.
Precedent treatment: Principles requiring documentary corroboration of statements and caution in relying solely on post-search statements are applied (see discussion of High Court authority in text).
Interpretation/reasoning: J-Pack was found to be a consolidated inventory/control software used across group entities to record stock movements (not an accounting software). Entries were consolidated, non-entity specific, and source daily reports were destroyed/partly unavailable; thus AO could not segregate entries to a particular juridical entity without source slips.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - consolidated inventory records cannot be mechanically equated to unaccounted income of a single entity where source documents and entity-wise ledgers are absent; statements alone are insufficient.
Conclusion: Entries in J-Pack require corroboration and ledger-wise segregation before being treated as unaccounted income of the assessee; inability of AO to segregate defeats assumption that all entries are unaccounted for assessee alone.
Issue 2 - 'Ghat' ledger (alloy vs metal)
Legal framework: AO may make additions based on seized material, but factual findings must be supported by corroborative documentary evidence; admissions under Section 132(4) are not conclusive if inconsistent or contradicted by seized contemporaneous documents.
Precedent treatment: Authorities restated that statements recorded during search need corroboration; where seized rough-estimation slips/daily reports reconcile ledger entries, those documents control the meaning of ledger items.
Interpretation/reasoning: AO initially treated 'Ghat' receipts as wastage gold retained as income relying on statements. On remand the AO's own sample verification and appellate verification of seized daily reports, yellow/white slips and corresponding Tally entries showed 'Ghat' entries represented alloy added in converting 24-carat bullion to 22-carat ornaments; corresponding purchases/sales and making charges were recorded in regular books and received by bank transfer. Contradictory statements of witnesses were found unreliable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where contemporaneous source documents seized at search reconcile J-Pack 'Ghat' entries to alloy adjustments and regular books reflect corresponding purchases/sales and making charges, additions treating 'Ghat' as unaccounted metal/income are unsustainable. Obiter - credibility issues of witnesses affect weight of their statements.
Conclusion: Addition on account of 'Ghat' entries deleted; AO erred in relying solely on unreconciled statements and failing to verify seized documents.
Issue 3 - 'MC Khata' (making charges)
Legal framework: Income for making charges is taxable if received; AO must distinguish receipts from payments and corroborate with books. Double taxation is impermissible where amounts are already credited and offered to tax.
Precedent treatment: Remand verification and cross-checking of J-Pack 'MC Khata' with Tally party ledgers and P&L is valid and decisive.
Interpretation/reasoning: Although initial statements suggested cash back/payments, AO's remand verification found MC Khata entries reflected receipts in party ledgers and Tally and amounts were credited to P&L and offered to tax. Notebook entries seized at another group's premises did not show corresponding cash payments from assessee in J-Pack; emails/ledgers showed bank receipts. Small isolated notebook entries cannot justify treating entire large ledger as unaccounted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where entries in J-Pack MC Khata reconcile with books (Tally) and bank receipts, they cannot be treated as unaccounted income; addition not sustainable and would be double taxation. Obiter - stray notes elsewhere are insufficient to overturn book records.
Conclusion: Additions deleted; MC Khata receipts already offered and assessed and cannot be added again.
Issue 4 - 'Byaj' and 'Vatav' ledgers; telescoping with director's disclosures
Legal framework: Additions based on seized ledgers must be quantified reasonably; principle of telescoping (Apex and High Court precedents) permits set-off of previously assessed undisclosed income against later additions attributable to same source/asset to avoid double taxation. Statements under Section 132(4) require corroboration.
Precedent treatment: Telescoping doctrine (Anantharam Veerasinghaiah and High Court decisions) applied where undisclosed/ intangible additions already assessed can be treated as source for application (investments/assets) found later; statements unsupported by documents cannot alone sustain additions.
Interpretation/reasoning: AO quantified entire Byaj & Vatav ledgers and added to assessee. Ld. CIT(A) corrected quantification (excluded squaring entries, used year-wise market rates). Key individual (control person) had declared and offered to tax substantial portions of Byaj/Vatav (with breakup) in his 153A filings; AO accepted those returns and assessed him. J-Pack entries related to group as whole; no exclusive link to assessee. To the extent director had admitted/offered these amounts, those portions could not be taxed again in assessee's hands. Remaining unadmitted portions attributable to assessee were sustainble additions after quantification by Ld. CIT(A).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - (a) where a controlling individual voluntarily offers and is assessed on amounts traceable to seized ledgers, same amounts cannot be added again in company hands; (b) where ledgers contain balancing/squaring entries, those should be excluded from gross totals; valuation of metal receipts must use year-specific market rates. Obiter - allocation between group entities depends on available evidence; absence of entity-specific markers favors attribution to the person exercising control unless proved otherwise.
Conclusion: Portions of Byaj/Vatav already offered and assessed in director's hands are to be deleted in assessee's assessments; remaining quantified amounts confirmed and sustained.
Issue 5 - 'Cash' ledger: quantification of unaccounted sales and profit estimation
Legal framework: AO may estimate unaccounted turnover from seized records, but estimation must be reasonable, supported by rationale; gross profit rate used for computing taxable profit should reflect business realities and book results where books are not rejected.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal/HC authorities allow adopting assessee's book GP% or realistic GP where books are not discredited; AO must not apply arbitrary percentages without justification.
Interpretation/reasoning: Cash ledger contained consolidated entries including bank receipts, proforma (approval) entries, notional movements and genuine cash sales. AO excluded several sub-ledgers but applied an 8% GP uniformly without rationale. Ld. CIT(A) re-quantified unaccounted sales after exclusions and examined J-Pack GP patterns and assessee's audited GP rates (0.74%-1.85% YRs). Considering unaccounted transactions often yield higher margins and J-Pack indicated 2-3% GP on many transactions, Ld. CIT(A) adopted 2.5% GP - a reasoned figure between book GP and J-Pack observed GP - and AO's unsubstantiated 8% was rejected. Further, director had already offered substantial unaccounted profit on unaccounted sales in his 153A filings; that amount is to be excluded (telescoped) from profit computed in assessee's hands to avoid double taxation. Where director's offer < total Ld. CIT(A) quantified profit, balance confirmed as addition in assessee's hands.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - GP on unaccounted sales should be estimated on reasoned basis (comparable book GP, seized ledger patterns); arbitrary adoption of high flat percentage without rationale is unsustainable. Telescoping applies to exclude previously taxed profit portions. Obiter - when daily/source reports are destroyed, AO's inability does not shift onus to assessee to fully reconstruct consolidated entries beyond feasible limits.
Conclusion: Ld. CIT(A)'s quantification of unaccounted sales and adoption of 2.5% GP upheld; profit already taxed in director's hands excluded; net additions confirmed for AYs 2017-18 to 2020-21 and AY 2021-22 addition deleted as covered by director's disclosures.
Issue 6 - Unexplained stock, receivables, cash & silver; valuation and telescoping
Legal framework: Additions for unexplained assets found on search can be made, but where undisclosed income has been previously assessed (intangible/additional offers by group entities/individuals), telescoping permits set-off of such assessed income against later additions representing application of that income. Valuation of seized stock should reflect year-wise acquisition where stock is cumulative over years; valuation at search date can overstate gains.
Precedent treatment: Courts/tribunals approve telescoping and apportionment across years where undisclosed income has been accepted for earlier years and the unexplained asset arises from group activity; allocation must be reasonable and connected to seized source documents.
Interpretation/reasoning: AO added unexplained stock/receivables/cash/silver based on J-Pack party balance sheet and market rate at search date. Ld. CIT(A) partially reduced stock but denied telescoping of director's assessed income. Tribunal finds J-Pack entries group-wide, director had disclosed substantial additional income referencing same J-Pack entries and AO accepted in director's assessments; therefore director's additional income is available for telescoping. Excess stock represents cumulative accumulation and must be apportioned across years in proportion to unaccounted income taxed in assessee and director combined; year-specific metal rates applied for valuation. After apportionment and using year rates, aggregate unexplained assets reduced and fully absorbed by telescoped unaccounted income of assessee+director; resulting additions deleted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - (a) where seized records relate to group and unaccounted income has been assessed in the hands of group entities/individuals based on same records, that previously assessed income is available to be telescoped against unexplained assets; (b) valuation of cumulative stock should be apportioned across years and valued at prevailing year rates to avoid taxing notional appreciation. Obiter - AO's inability to verify every entry due to destroyed source material cannot be used to penalize assessee where reasonable reconciliations exist.
Conclusion: Telescoping allowed - aggregate unaccounted income of group entities (assessee + director) set off against unexplained assets after apportionment and year-wise valuation; separate additions for excess stock, receivables, cash and silver deleted.
Assessment u/s 153A - Goldsmiths - Additions made on a/c of ‘Ghat’ - entire Ghat receipts represented income of the assessee and that there were no Ghat payments - seized electronic a data maintained in ‘J-Pack’ Software - entries therein comprised of both accounted and unaccounted transactions - Due to non-availability of data / source documentation, the AO was not able to segregate or identify the unaccounted transactions included in the consolidated entries, as there was no ledger-wise or entity-wise data in the J-pack software, which would have enabled such bifurcation. The AO is therefore found to have proceeded on the presumption that, all the transactions recorded in the Jpack software was unaccounted for - Further, The AO was of the view that, the wastage gold generated in this conversion process was recorded by way of receipt entries in this ‘Ghat’ Ledger which entirely represented the assessee’s profit, and that such wastage gold was used outside the books to make new ornaments which was sold through unaccounted means.
HELD THAT:- the Ld. CIT(A) had undertaken an elaborate factual exercise and has given his well-reasoned findings for arriving at his conclusion that the entries in ‘Ghat’ ledger was relating to ‘alloy’ addition and not ‘metal’ addition. We thus concur with the Ld. CIT(A) that the entire case made out by the AO was factually erroneous and based on wrong assumption of facts and therefore the impugned addition was unsustainable.
Apart from the unsubstantiated statements of Shri Kothari and Shri Khatri, no independent corroborative material has been brought on record by the AO which would show that the receipt entries in ‘Ghat’ ledger comprised of ‘metal’ received by the assessee. Rather, the contemporaneous facts as discussed above, proves the contrary viz., the entries related to ‘alloy’ additions to the gold ornaments. Hence, having examined of the gamut of facts placed on record, we find that the ‘Ghat Jama’ entries only related to the quantities of alloy added for conversion of 24 carat bullion into 22 carat gold ornaments and does not involve any gold entries.
No reason to interfere with the order of CIT(A) deleting the impugned addition across all the AYs 2017-18 to 2021-22.
Additions made on a/c of making charges (MC Khata) - assessee being a wholesale manufacturer of gold ornaments, inter alia takes up orders from his customers to manufacture gold ornaments on job work basis, for which the customers pay making charges - HELD THAT:- We find merit in the assessee’s submission that the hypothetical extrapolation sought to be made by the Revenue on the basis of this entry found at the premises of M/s Sarvana Stores (0.1% of the total value of making charges) was perse arbitrary and un-reasonable. Further, it is an admitted fact that the assessee is in the business of rendering job work services for its customers and therefore the making charges earned by it cannot arbitrarily be disbelieved as non-genuine, particularly when no such contrary material or evidence was found or seized in the course of search. Rather, the verification exercise done by the AO & Ld. CIT(A) is found to support the assessee’s case.
Assuming for a moment that there is some credence in the statement of Shri Julian, then by that logic, the receipt of making charges from M/s Super Saravana Stores (Jewel) Super LLP as credited in the P&L A/c is to be treated as not genuine, then such income ought to have been excluded from the computation of the assessable income, which has not been done by the Revenue. Hence, the action of the Revenue itself is found to be contrary to the statement of Shri Julian, which they seek to rely upon. According to us therefore, the statement of Shri Julian is of no assistance to the Revenue.
We therefore uphold the order of Ld. CIT(A) deleting the addition(s) made on account of making charges, as it was already accounted in the regular books of accounts and assessed to tax as well.
Additions made on a/c of ‘Byaj’ & ‘Vatav’ - HELD THAT:- AR was unable to show any infirmity in the calculation of the ‘byaj’ & ‘vatav’ receipts by the Ld. CIT(A) and therefore we are of the view that, this quantification is indeed correct. The entries in the J-Pack software pertained to the entire group and there was no specific identification or demarcation to attribute specific unaccounted entries to any specific entity or individual. We therefore are of the considered view that, when Shri Mohanlal Khatri had admitted to the ‘byaj’ & ‘vatav’ receipts to the extent respectively in his individual hands, then to that extent, the same amount cannot be brought to tax again in the hands of the assessee and the same is directed to be deleted.
So far as the remaining ‘byaj’ & ‘vatav’ as it is not clearly discernible from the entries as to whom it pertains to and even Shri Mohanlal Khatri had not admitted and offered these remaining entries to tax as his personal income.
Hence, for the above reasons, and to meet the ends of justice and, in all fairness to the Revenue and with a view to protect their interests as well, we accordingly confirm the addition on account of ‘byaj’ & ‘vatav’ to the extent of Rs. 12,13,66,358/- and Rs. 1,45,54,166/- in the hands of the assessee across AYs 2017-18 to 2021-22.
Estimation of unaccounted sales - HELD THAT:- Onus is on the assessee to rebut the Revenue’s case by bringing on record some material to show that, the remaining unidentifiable entries in the Cash ledger, which have been quantified as unaccounted sales by the Ld. CIT(A) inter alia included consolidated entries or entries relating to goods which were sent on approval. The assessee cannot get away by citing their inability to undertake this voluminous exercise or due to non-availability of daily reports, which have since been destroyed. For the aforesaid reasons, we thus reject the assessee’s plea seeking further reduction in the quantification of unaccounted sales.
Estimation of profit on the unaccounted sales - We hold that, the profit on unaccounted sales found in the ‘Cash’ ledger to the extent already taxed in the hands of Shri Mohanlal Khatri, is to be excluded from the profit on unaccounted sales estimated by Ld. CIT(A), to arrive at the correct value of addition which is to be added and taxed in the hands of the assessee. We concur with the Ld. AR that, if the additional income on account of profit from unaccounted business [‘Cash’ ledger of J-Pack Software] which has already been taxed in hands of Shri Mohanlal Khatri is not excluded, then it would result in impermissible double taxation of the same amount.
Addition made on account of unexplained stock, unaccounted receivables, unexplained cash & silver etc. - As decided in K. S. M Guruswamy Nadar and Sons [1983 (6) TMI 17 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] as held that when there are two separate additions viz., one on account of suppression of profit and another on account of cash credit, then it is open to the assessee to explain that, the suppressed profits had been brought in as cash credits and has to be telescoped into the other.
Gainful reference may also be made to the decision of J.J. Gandhi [1983 (10) TMI 17 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] as approved the theory of telescoping and held that it could be applied in cases where additions in relation of unexplained money/investment are sought to be made in the hands of the assessee. The Hon'ble Court explained that if an addition towards undisclosed income was made and the AO also seeks to make certain addition in relation to unexplained investment then, it can be treated by the assessee that the unexplained investment is sourced out of the undisclosed income already taxed.
The principle which emerges from the above is that, the same income should not be taxed twice i.e. once at the time of generation and thereafter at the time of application for making investment or any undisclosed asset. Having regard to this settled legal position, we now come back to the facts of the case. From the discussions set out above, we find that, the additions on account of ‘byaj’, ‘vatav’ & ‘profit on unaccounted sales’ as confirmed in the hands of the assessee.
CIT(A) had upheld the judicially approved principle of telescoping and had directed that the benefit of telescoping the unaccounted income being assessed in the hands of the assessee across AYs 2017-18 to 2021-22 be allowed against the value of these unaccounted assets. This finding of the CIT(A) has not been disputed by the Revenue before us. We are therefore of the considered view that, the assessee is undoubtedly entitled to the benefit of telescoping qua the unaccounted income assessed in their hands i.e. Rs. 86,15,72,422/- against the value of the impugned unexplained asset(s).
Whether the unaccounted income so assessed in the hands of Director of the assessee could also be telescoped against the impugned unexplained assets found in the course of search? - As assessee has been generating income from unaccounted sale transactions, ‘byaj’ & ‘vatav’ receipts etc. over the years and therefore it is safe to presume that, the excess stock found in the course of search would have been gradually acquired over the years and it cannot be solely out of the unaccounted income derived in the year of search i.e. FY 202021. Applying the theory of human conduct and circumstantial evidences, we find merit in the Ld. AR’s contention that, the excess stock found in JPack software should be appropriately apportioned across years and ought to be valued with reference to the market rates prevailing in those years. We thus do not countenance the action of the lower authorities in assuming that the impugned excess stock was purchased entirely during FY 2020-21 so as to be valued at the rate prevailing on the date of search i.e. 10.11.2020.
In light of the above, we find it fit and reasonable to apportion the excess stock found in J-Pack software in the ratio of the unaccounted income taxed in the hands of the assessee and Shri Mohanlal Khatri with reference to the entries found in the same J-Pack Software and, accordingly revise the value the excess stock at the market rates prevailing in those years.
Aggregate unaccounted income as quantified above, which has been taxed in the hands of the assessee and Shri Mohanlal Khatri is sufficient to be telescoped / set-off against the above aggregate value of unexplained assets of Rs. 157,90,76,296/-. Hence, applying the principle of telescoping therefore, the separate addition(s) made by the AO on account of excess stock, unaccounted cash receivables, unexplained cash & silver is hereby directed to be deleted.
All other objections raised by the assessee on the merits of the addition made on account of impugned unexplained asset(s) and also the quantification & valuation of other assets (apart from excess stock) have become academic and infructuous and is therefore not being separately adjudicated upon and is being left open. Overall therefore, these grounds of the assessee stands allowed.
Issues: Validity of assumption of jurisdiction under section 153C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the basis of the recorded satisfaction note, particularly whether the note was sufficiently document-wise and year-wise correlated to the assessee and the relevant assessment years.
Analysis: The search proceedings led to recording of satisfaction for initiating proceedings under section 153C read with section 153A. The recorded satisfaction was examined and found to be in a consolidated form, without identifying which seized documents specifically belonged to or pertained to the assessee, without correlating those materials year-wise to the assessment years under consideration, and without showing the quantum or relevance of the seized material for each year. In the absence of such specific linkage, the satisfaction note did not meet the statutory requirement for valid assumption of jurisdiction under section 153C. The reasoning followed the settled principle that the jurisdictional satisfaction must be based on identifiable incriminating material with proper document-wise and year-wise correlation.
Conclusion: The assumption of jurisdiction under section 153C was not valid, and the assessee succeeded on this issue.
Final Conclusion: The jurisdictional challenge was accepted, the connected assessment years were treated on the same footing, and the appeals were disposed of partly in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: For valid invocation of section 153C, the satisfaction note must specifically identify the seized material and correlate it document-wise and year-wise to the assessee and the relevant assessment year; a vague consolidated satisfaction note is insufficient to confer jurisdiction.
Assessment u/s 153C - mandation of recording satisfaction note - Assessee contended that satisfaction note does not show as to how these documents belong to the assessee. The same does not show as to how these documents are incriminating material and the same does not have any seized material for the year under consideration. - Unabated Assessment - HELD THAT:- AO has recorded satisfaction without indicating what are the incriminating documents found during search which belonged to the assessee and there is no reference to the assessment year under consideration and the quantum involved to initiate the proceedings for the year under consideration. He merely recorded the satisfaction in consolidated manner and there is no specific reference to the fact that satisfaction note is recorded with reference to specific incriminating material found for the year under consideration. There is no correlation of any seized document found year-wise relevant to the assessee nor it is quantified.
We observe that exactly similar issue was considered in the case of Olympus Realtors (P) Ltd. [2025 (9) TMI 279 - ITAT DELHI] Thus satisfaction note recorded by the AO is vague and not as per the provisions of section 153C of the Act in order to assume the jurisdiction. Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether transfer pricing disputes relating to reimbursement of advertisement, marketing and sales promotion (AMP) expenses survive where the assessee has entered into a unilateral Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) rolled back to the relevant assessment year.
2. Whether payments to non-resident associated enterprises described as cost recharges for IT services and product design charges were required to be subjected to tax withholding under section 195 read with section 40(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act on the ground that they amount to Fees for Technical Services (FTS), Fees for Included Services (FIS) or royalty under applicable DTAAs.
3. Whether payments characterised as reimbursements without mark-up can be treated as non-taxable in India (and hence not subject to TDS) or whether their character requires scrutiny for embedded income element and taxability.
4. Whether the factual record before the assessing authority was adequate to conclude absence of cost-to-cost character and to classify the payments as taxable FTS/FIS/royalty without further verification.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Effect of unilateral APA on transfer pricing disputes
Legal framework: Section 92CC and the scope of APAs, including roll-back provisions, allowing settlement of TP issues for covered assessment years.
Precedent Treatment: Administrative practice and jurisprudence treat a valid APA covering the year under review (including roll-backs) as operative to resolve contested TP issues covered by the agreement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the assessee executed a unilateral APA dated 29.11.2019 covering the AMP reimbursement issue and rolled back to the assessment year in dispute. The record (including the APA and Tribunal order sheet) established that the APA specifically addressed the AMP reimbursement subject-matter of the pending TP grounds. The Revenue did not contest the applicability of the APA in the hearing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an APA validly covers a subject-matter and the assessment year, TP grounds relating exclusively to that subject fall away and must be dismissed.
Conclusion: Grounds and appeals relating solely to TP adjustment for AMP reimbursements are dismissed as non-surviving in view of the APA; departmental TP grounds accordingly do not survive.
Issue 2 - Obligation to deduct tax at source under section 195 and applicability of section 40(a)(i)
Legal framework: Section 195(1) mandates withholding on sums "chargeable under the provisions of this Act"; section 195 must be read with charging provisions (sections 4, 5 and 9) and relevant DTAA articles; section 40(a)(i) disallows expenditures where tax deductible at source was not withheld.
Precedent Treatment: Supreme Court and appellate Tribunal decisions emphasise that withholding obligation arises only to the extent payment is chargeable to tax in India; DTAA provisions (including 'make available' tests) and judicial dicta (including GE India Technology Centre and subsequent authorities) guide classification of payments as FTS/FIS/royalty or reimbursement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO classified the payments as FTS/FIS/royalty on findings that non-residents "made available" technical knowledge and provided access/use of software, thus making the sums chargeable under the Act and DTAA. The appellate authority endorsed the TPO/TPO's conclusion. However, the Tribunal found that critical facts were not placed on record: (a) documentation quantifying whether payments were pure cost allocations or included mark-ups; (b) clear evidence whether technical know-how or rights enabling independent exploitation were transferred or "made available"; and (c) whether non-residents had PE or presence in India. The Tribunal observed the assessee's own submissions indicated a 5% mark-up on IT services and that other parties received mark-ups, undermining categorical assertions of cost-to-cost reimbursement. Given the incomplete factual matrix, the Tribunal held that the AO and CIT(A) could not sustain a definitive classification without further verification and remanded the issue for fresh adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - withholding under section 195/ disallowance under section 40(a)(i) can be imposed only where the payer's obligation is shown on the basis of sums being chargeable to tax (per sections 4/5/9 and applicable DTAA); factual determination of 'make available', existence of mark-up or income element, and PE presence is requisite before concluding TDS obligation. Obiter - discussion of specific jurisprudence cited by parties as persuasive guidance.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside prior findings on TDS/section 40(a)(i) and restored the matter to the assessing officer for re-examination of facts, documentary verification of cost allocations and mark-ups, and re-application of legal tests (including DTAA 'make available' and royalty definitions) before determining withholding liability.
Issue 3 - Characterisation of payments as reimbursements versus taxable consideration (embedded income element)
Legal framework: Distinction between reimbursements (cost-to-cost allocations without profit) and payments containing an income element; section 195 focuses on sums "chargeable under the provisions of the Act"; DTAAs may exclude certain independent personal services or limit application of FTS/royalty definitions.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities recognise that nomenclature is not decisive; substance over form applied. Reimbursements without income are generally not taxable, whereas composite payments require identifying the appropriate proportion that is income-chargeable (section 195(2) allows AO determination). Jurisprudence cited illustrates that reimbursements may escape tax if genuinely cost-only and devoid of mark-up.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee asserted cost-to-cost allocations and lack of IPR transfer or right to commercially exploit software. The Tribunal observed inconsistencies and incomplete proof: (a) presence of stated mark-ups (5% IT services) in submissions; (b) absence of conclusive documentary evidence proving absence of income element for software/database costs or product design charges; (c) lack of clarity on rights conferred in respect of software access. Accordingly, factual determinations were necessary to separate reimbursements from taxable consideration.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - payments claimed as reimbursements must be supported by clear documentary evidence demonstrating absence of any income element; absent such proof the payer cannot conclusively avoid withholding obligations and the AO must determine the proportion chargeable.
Conclusion: The Tribunal reinforced the need for fact-based verification of reimbursement character, remanding for the AO to examine agreements, invoices, mark-ups, rights to use IPR, and whether payments embed income; only after such verification can withholding/disallowance be validly determined.
Issue 4 - Adequacy of factual record and requirement for remand to AO
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice and standard of proof in tax proceedings; role of assessing officer to make primary factual findings; appellate forum to interfere only where record establishes error or absence of material.
Precedent Treatment: Appellate authorities will remit matters to the AO for facts requiring fresh enquiry or where documentary lacunae impede adjudication; appellate interference is constrained where AO has made permissible findings supported by record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that neither the AO nor the CIT(A) had before them a complete factual matrix to justify summary treatment of the payments as taxable FTS/FIS/royalty. The assessee's own inconsistent averments (about mark-ups and nature of rights) and the lack of conclusive documentary proof meant that the matter was unsuitable for final appellate determination. The Tribunal therefore exercised its remedial power to set aside and remand for fresh adjudication while identifying the precise factual points requiring verification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where essential facts are not on record or are inconsistent, the correct course is remand to the AO for fact-finding rather than sustaining adverse tax consequences at appellate stage.
Conclusion: The Tribunal remanded the TDS/section 40(a)(i) issues to the assessing officer for detailed verification and fresh decision applying legal tests and DTAA provisions; the assessee's appeal was partly allowed to that extent.
Adjustment u/s 92CA - Reimbursement of AMP expenses - Applicability of unilateral Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) for the AY in question - HELD THAT:- The assessee has entered into unilateral APA which covers AYs 2016-17 to 2020-21 and is also rolled back for AYs 2012-13 to 2015-16, and therefore, the present assessment year being AY 2013-14 is also covered by the aforesaid AP agreement, on the issue of ‘Reimbursement of AMP expenses’. Therefore, by virtue of the above agreement grounds of the assessee’s appeal along with grounds of the department’s appeal being related to the issue of ‘Reimbursement of AMP expenses’ are dismissed.
TDS u/s 195 - Disallowance of u/s 40(a)(i) - payments to non-residents without deduction of TDS - AO noted that the assessee has claimed that non-residents have not 'made available' these services to the assessee in India, and, therefore, the payments for these services are not taxable as 'fees for included services' as per India-USA DTAA or as 'fee for technical services' as per the provisions of India-Netherlands DTAA - HELD THAT:- We find that the full facts regarding the exact nature for which payments has been made by the assessee to the non-residents has not been brought on record either in the case of IT services or the product design, whereas the submission made before us and the case laws relied upon by the assessee will be applicable only when there reimbursement is purely on cost basis with no markup on IT services and the product design charges do not satisfy ‘make available’ clause and was reimbursed on cost basis whereas such facts are not clearly on record as discussed above.
The submission of the assessee that the cost allocation in the arrangement for software / licensing etc. does not contain any income element and is made purely on the cost-to-cost basis is also not backed up by the details of markup payment made by the assessee as stated above, in the ‘Remuneration’ column of its written submission filed before us. Therefore, the entire claims made the assessee as discussed above, require re-verification by the AO, in view of the above observations. We therefore, set aside the order of the Assessing Officer and the Ld. CIT(A) and restore the matter back to the file of the Assessing Officer for fresh adjudication, keeping in view our above observations and as per law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment framed under section 153C read with section 144 for an assessment year that falls beyond ten assessment years from the date on which the Assessing Officer recorded satisfaction under section 153C is valid.
2. Whether the date of satisfaction recorded under the first proviso to section 153C must be treated as the relevant date (equivalent to the date of search) for computing the ten-year limitation period for assessing earlier assessment years.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity of assessment framed under section 153C for an assessment year beyond the ten-year limit
Legal framework: Section 153C permits assessment of a person other than the searched person on materials seized during search of another person, subject to the proviso specifying the date of satisfaction and the assessment procedures. The statutory time-limits for issuing assessments are governed by the extended limitation concept that links the date of search/satisfaction to the range of assessment years that may be reopened or assessed.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on coordinate and higher judicial decisions treating the date of satisfaction under section 153C (first proviso) as the operative date for computing corresponding assessment years; authorities cited include judicial pronouncements holding similar propositions (e.g., decisions treating the satisfaction date as analogous to the date of search for limitation purposes).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the chronological facts: search on a third person occurred on 02/11/2017; the Assessing Officer of the searched person recorded satisfaction on 16/07/2021 and transferred seized materials; satisfaction in the target assessee's case was recorded on 01/02/2022; the impugned assessment was framed on 29/12/2022 for assessment year 2011-12. The Tribunal found the relevant assessment year (2011-12) lies outside the ten-assessment-year window measured from the satisfaction date (2022-23 being the latest year within the ten-year span), rendering the assessment year 2011-12 time-barred for proceedings under section 153C.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that an assessment under section 153C is invalid if the assessment year falls beyond ten assessment years from the date of satisfaction recorded under section 153C is ratio; it is the decisive legal principle applied to the facts. Observations referring to earlier decisions are explanatory and supportive rather than obiter.
Conclusions: The impugned assessment for the out-of-range assessment year is not sustainable in law and must be set aside as beyond jurisdictional time limits under section 153C.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Treatment of the section 153C satisfaction date for computing the ten-year limitation
Legal framework: The first proviso to section 153C identifies the date on which the officer records satisfaction as the trigger for vesting the Assessing Officer with jurisdiction to assess other persons on seized materials. Time-limit computation for which assessment years may be reopened or assessed is tied to the date of search or its statutory equivalent.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal followed recent judicial authority that construed the date of satisfaction under the first proviso to section 153C as the operative date for limitation calculations, equating it with the date of search for determining the range of assessment years (i.e., which assessment years fall within ten years from that date).
Interpretation and reasoning: Applying that construction, the Tribunal treated 01/02/2022-the satisfaction date recorded in the assessee's case-as the relevant date for computing the maximum ten-assessment-year window. Because assessment year 2011-12 lies outside that window, proceedings under section 153C for that year could not be validly initiated or concluded.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that the satisfaction date under the first proviso is to be used for computing the ten-year limitation is applied as a ratio in the judgment; reliance on higher authority reinforces that this is the controlling principle rather than a mere observation.
Conclusions: The satisfaction date under section 153C must be used to compute the ten-assessment-year limitation; when an assessment year predates that permissible window, the resultant assessment is void for want of jurisdiction.
Court's disposition and ancillary conclusions
1. The Tribunal upheld the conclusion that the impugned assessment is unsustainable because the assessment year is beyond the ten-assessment-year period computed from the section 153C satisfaction date; accordingly, the appeal filed by the revenue seeking to sustain the assessment was dismissed.
2. The cross-objection filed by the assessee became infructuous upon dismissal of the revenue's appeal and was therefore dismissed as well.
Cross-references and interplay with prior rulings
1. The Tribunal expressly aligned its reasoning with coordinate and higher judicial decisions which have settled that the satisfaction date under section 153C should be construed as the date relevant for limitation computation; those decisions were followed, not distinguished or overruled.
2. Because the decision follows controlling precedent on the point of limitation, its holding operates as an application of established ratio to the facts rather than a departure from prior law.
Assessment u/s 153C - assessment beyond maximum time period of 10 Assessment Years from the date of the satisfaction recorded u/s 153C - HELD THAT:- In an identical case of Assessee’s wife in [2025 (8) TMI 1707 - ITAT DELHI] wherein assessment year involved herein is 2011-12 i.e. beyond the maximum time period of 10 assessment years from the date of section 153C satisfaction i.e. 01.02.2022 relevant to assessment year 2022-23. Various recent judicial precedents like RRJ Securities Ltd. [2015 (11) TMI 19 - DELHI HIGH COURT], Ojjus Medicare (P) Ltd, [2024 (4) TMI 268 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Jasjit Singh [2023 (10) TMI 572 - SUPREME COURT] have already settled the issue against the department that the date of satisfaction u/s 153C(1) first proviso which has to be construed as the date of search for the purpose of computing the corresponding assessment years in question as the case herein
Thus, considering the fact that the Assessment Year under consideration is beyond the maximum time period of 10 Assessment Years from the date of the satisfaction recorded u/s 153C of the Act, we find no reason to sustain the order of the Ld. CIT(A) in setting aside the assessment order. Appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a notice issued under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act after substitution of Section 148 (w.e.f. 01.04.2021) but purporting to follow an earlier notice issued under the pre-amendment provision is barred by the time-limit prescribed by Section 149.
2. Whether time periods excluded or suspended by (a) the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA/notification) and (b) judicial decisions (notably the Supreme Court rulings on the validity of notices issued under the old provisions) operate to extend the limitation for issuance of a notice under Section 148 so as to validate a notice issued after 31.03.2021.
3. Whether the interlocutory steps mandated by Section 148A (issuance of notice under Section 148A(b), the period for response, and order under Section 148A(d)) must be completed within the remaining period of limitation available for issuance of the Section 148 notice, and the consequence of failure to do so.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Time-bar of Section 148 notice issued post-substitution of Section 148
Legal framework: Section 149 prescribes the period of limitation for issuance of a notice under Section 148; the legislative substitution of Section 148 effective 01.04.2021 changed the procedure for initiation of reassessment. TOLA (statutory notification) extended certain timelines falling within 20.03.2020-31.12.2020 till 30.06.2021.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on two Supreme Court decisions addressing the validity/timing of notices issued under the pre- and post-amendment framework: the decision holding that pre-amendment notices could not be issued after 31.03.2021, and the later decision elucidating how exclusionary periods affect computation of limitation for issuance of Section 148 notices. Coordinate Tribunal and High Court decisions applying those ratios were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where a notice under the old provision had been issued before 01.04.2021 but remained uncompleted, the substitution of Section 148 and the Supreme Court pronouncements require careful computation of the remaining period of limitation under Section 149. The Court treated the earlier (pre-amendment) notice as having consumed the limitation available up to the date extended by TOLA; consequently, any subsequent notice issued after the remaining truncated period expired is time-barred. The Court read the exclusionary principles (from the Supreme Court decisions) to allow suspension of the running of limitation for specified intervals (period between Supreme Court decision and issuance of Section 148A(b); and the time allowed to the assessee to reply), but held that such excluded periods do not replenish or enlarge the originally remaining days of limitation beyond what Section 149 permits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A Section 148 notice issued after the expiry of the period available under Section 149 (after accounting for TOLA extensions and judicially-excluded intervals) is time-barred even if preceded by prior pre-amendment action; exclusionary intervals do not create a new, open-ended window permitting issuance beyond the truncated remaining days. Obiter - Observations on procedural propriety of particular dates in the factual chart are ancillary to the legal ratio.
Conclusion: The impugned notice dated 08.07.2022 is barred by limitation under Section 149 when computed in light of TOLA and controlling Supreme Court authority; reassessment proceedings based on that notice are quashed.
Issue 2 - Effect of TOLA and judicial exclusions on limitation computation
Legal framework: TOLA extended statutory timelines falling within the pandemic-affected period to 30.06.2021. Section 149 contains provisos allowing exclusion of certain periods. Judicial decisions subsequently clarified that periods between a Supreme Court decision and steps taken by the AO (e.g., issuance of Section 148A(b)) and the time granted to the assessee to respond are to be excluded in computing limitation.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed the Supreme Court's approach (as applied in subsequent authoritative rulings and adopted by coordinate benches and the Jurisdictional High Court) that: (i) TOLA extension is relevant; (ii) the period between the Supreme Court decision in favour of the assessee and the AO's action under Section 148A(b) is excluded; and (iii) the period allowed to the assessee to reply to Section 148A(b) is excluded, but these exclusions operate only to suspend running of the truncated remainder of the original limitation period - they do not grant a fresh full limitation period under Section 149.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that TOLA left a fixed, reduced number of days of limitation available to the AO on the date reassessment proceedings had effectively commenced. The AO was obligated to complete the Section 148A(d) order and issue the Section 148 notice within those remaining days (subject to judicially-recognized exclusions). If the AO failed to pass the Section 148A(d) order and issue the Section 148 notice within that truncated timeframe (accounting for excluded days), the subsequent issuance is beyond the statutory period permitted by Section 149.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Exclusionary provisions and judicially recognized suspensions affect the computation but do not enlarge the truncated remaining period; the AO must exercise the remaining limited time to complete Section 148A(d) and issue the Section 148 notice. Obiter - Detailed numeric examples in other judgments reproduced by the Court are illustrative but not determinative beyond the stated principle.
Conclusion: Applying TOLA and judicial exclusions reduces but does not reset the limitation period; in the present facts those computations render the 08.07.2022 notice time-barred.
Issue 3 - Requirement to complete Section 148A stages within available limitation and consequences of non-completion
Legal framework: Section 148A prescribes preliminary steps (notice under Section 148A(b), opportunity to be heard, and a decision under Section 148A(d)) prior to issuance of a notice under Section 148. Section 149 prescribes limitation for issuance of a Section 148 notice; its provisos permit exclusion of certain periods.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed the reasoning of higher courts and coordinate tribunals that the time required for completion of Section 148A steps must be drawn from the time remaining under Section 149; the AO cannot treat the separate timelines in Section 148A as creating an independent window which extends Section 149 limitation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that although Section 148A(d) contemplates a period (e.g., end of the month following reply) for passing the decision, that procedural allowance cannot conflict with the overarching limitation framework of Section 149. Where only a truncated number of days remained (after TOLA and other exclusions), the AO was required to pass the Section 148A(d) order and issue the Section 148 notice within those truncated days. Failure to do so means the later notice is issued after expiry of limitation and is therefore void.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 148A procedural timelines must be accommodated within the limitation period of Section 149; the AO cannot rely on the Section 148A time allowances to extend limitation beyond what Section 149 permits. Obiter - Comments on whether the fourth proviso to Section 149 applies in particular numeric scenarios are contextual and not universally binding.
Conclusion: The AO's order under Section 148A(d) and subsequent Section 148 notice issued beyond the truncated limitation were invalid; reassessment is quashed as void ab initio.
Cross-references and final holding
All issues were considered together: the Court applied TOLA, the exclusionary principles recognized by Supreme Court decisions, and the requirement to complete Section 148A steps within the remaining Section 149 period. Following authoritative precedent and coordinate decisions, the Court concluded that the impugned Section 148 notice dated 08.07.2022 was barred by limitation and that the reassessment proceedings arising therefrom are liable to be quashed.
Reopening of assessment - period of limitation in issuing the for notice u/s 148 - Extended Period of Limitation as per IT Act read with TOLA - HELD THAT:- After the Judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] AO issued letter u/s 148A(b) of the Act on 25.05.2022 fixing date for compliance on 09.06.2022, which fact is evident from notice u/s 148A(b) of IT Act. The assessee has not made compliance of the said notice as same was never served as per the Assessee.
AO passed an order u/s 148A(d) of the Act on 08.07.2022 and proceeded to issue notice u/s 148 of the Act on 08.07.2022. Now the question that arises for consideration as to whether the subsequent notice issued u/s 148 of the Act on 08.07.2022 is to be treated as time barred or not in the light of decision of Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
We are of the opinion that notice issued u/s 148 of the Act dated 08/07/2022 is barred by the period specified u/s 149 of the Act, consequently, the re-assessment proceedings initiated. Appeal of the Assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the delay of approximately 2,455 days in filing appeals before the first appellate authority constitutes "reasonable cause" warranting condonation.
2. Whether fees under section 234E of the Income-tax Act can be levied for periods of delay in filing TDS returns that fall prior to the effective date of an amendment (01.06.2015) which empowered processing authorities under section 200A to impose such fees.
3. If section 234E fees were levied by the Centralized Processing Cell (CPC)/Assessing Officer when processing under section 200A occurred after 01.06.2015, what is the correct temporal extent of liability for such fees (i.e., whether fees may be sustained only from 01.06.2015 to actual filing date and must be deleted for delay before 01.06.2015).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation of Delay in Filing Appeals
Legal framework: The statutory regime permits condonation of delay in filing appeals where "reasonable cause" is shown; courts apply established principles to assess sufficiency of reasons.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on controlling principles from higher courts recognizing that institutional constraints and absence of mala fide or deliberate delay can constitute reasonable cause (referred judgments: Collector, Land Acquisition, Anantnag & Anr. v. Mst. Katiji; and Inder Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the factual matrix - the appellant is a military unit lacking dedicated tax compliance staff, operating within a hierarchical structure dependent on centralized salary administration, and therefore faced systemic limitations causing delayed appeals. The delay was found non-intentional and not to have conferred any gain on the appellant. Given those factual constraints and absence of mala fide, the Tribunal concluded that reasonable cause existed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - institutional limitations and lack of dedicated tax personnel can constitute reasonable cause for condonation where delay is not deliberate and no prejudice or gain is shown. Obiter - none significant beyond application to facts.
Conclusions: The Tribunal condoned the delay and restored the appeals to permit adjudication on merits.
Issue 2 - Power to Levy Section 234E Fees: Effect of Amendment Effective 01.06.2015
Legal framework: Section 234E prescribes late fee for delay in filing TDS returns; amendment to section 200A by Finance Act, 2015 (effective 01.06.2015) expanded processing/levy powers of authorities. Temporal operation of statutory amendments (prospective vs retrospective) governs whether fees can be levied for pre-amendment periods.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal noted consistent judicial authority holding that the assumption of jurisdiction to levy section 234E fees arising from the amended section 200A is prospective; courts have held that fees cannot be levied for periods of delay wholly prior to the amendment's effective date. Coordinate Bench decisions (including Indore and Jaipur Benches) have been applied to similar fact patterns.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the TDS returns and CPC processing occurred after 01.06.2015, the Tribunal distinguished between (a) delay period antecedent to 01.06.2015 and (b) delay continuing after that date. It reasoned that the Jurisdiction to levy under the amended provision exists from 01.06.2015 onwards; consequently fees attributable to delay prior to 01.06.2015 cannot be sustained even if processing occurs after that date. Where delay continues beyond 01.06.2015, the authorities may levy fees for the post-amendment portion of the delay up to actual filing date.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - levy of section 234E fees pursuant to the amendment to section 200A is sustainable only for the period commencing from the amendment's effective date (01.06.2015) to the date of actual filing; fees attributable to delay solely prior to 01.06.2015 must be deleted. Obiter - affirmation that processing after 01.06.2015 does not retrospectively validate levying fees for pre-amendment delay.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that fees under section 234E could not be levied for the period before 01.06.2015 and are sustainable only for the period from 01.06.2015 to the date when the TDS return was actually filed.
Issue 3 - Practical Relief and Directions on Remand for Verification
Legal framework: Where a legal principle limits imposition of tax or penalty to a specified period, adjudicatory authorities must verify accountings and recalculate liabilities consistent with law.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed Coordinate Bench decisions which directed reassessment of fees levied to erase pre-amendment portions and to confirm fees for post-amendment delay where applicable.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the factual chart (filing date 15.05.2016; CPC intimation 31.05.2016) and that processing occurred after the amendment effective date, the Tribunal determined that departmental records must be examined to identify amounts of section 234E charged for periods prior to 01.06.2015. The Tribunal observed that some intimations showed sizable fees and that mechanical confirmation by CPC may have included fees apportioned to pre-amendment delay.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where fees were levied by CPC without temporal segregation, the matter should be remitted to the Assessing Officer (TDS) for verification and deletion of any portion of section 234E charged for delay prior to 01.06.2015; fees for delay from 01.06.2015 to actual filing date should be sustained. Obiter - none beyond procedural direction.
Conclusions: The Tribunal partly allowed the appeals and remitted the matters to the jurisdictional Assessing Officer (TDS) to verify each case, delete any fee levied for delay prior to 01.06.2015, and sustain fees only for the post-01.06.2015 delay up to actual filing.
Inter-issue Cross-reference
The condonation of delay (Issue 1) was a preliminary prerequisite enabling consideration of the substantive question of temporal extent of section 234E liability (Issues 2-3); once delay was condoned, the Tribunal proceeded to apply the prospective-amendment principle and directed remand for quantification consistent with that principle.
Levy of fees u/s. 234E - delay in filing of the TDS quarterly returns - CIT(A) dismissed the appeal in lime holding that the appellant has failed to give the sufficient reason with material evidence for the delay in filing of appeal. - delay of about 2455 days - HELD THAT:- After hearing both the sides and perusing the reasons so stated, we are satisfied that ‘reasonable cause’ prevented the assessee to file the appeals within the stipulated time. We note that the delay was not intentional and assessee would not have gained from filing the appeals with a delay.
We therefore in light of judgments of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Collector, Land Acquisition, Anantnag & Anr. Vs. Mst. Katiji & Ors. [1987 (2) TMI 61 - SUPREME COURT]and in the case of Inder Singh Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh judgment [2025 (3) TMI 1479 - SUPREME COURT]condone the delay in filing the appeals before ld.CIT(A) for the respective quarters under consideration.
From the discussion made herein above in light of decision of M/s. Office of The District Prosecution [2020 (3) TMI 1493 - ITAT INDORE] determining the period for which fees can be levied, only saving could be that for the period of delay falling prior to 1.06.2015 and the jurisdiction to levy fees u/s. 234E for the period starting 1.06.2015 to the date of actual filing of the TDS return which is 15.05.2016 in the instant case.
In view thereof, we restore the issue raised in the instant appeals to the file of ld. Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (TDS) for the limited purpose of making verification in each of the case and in case if any fee u/s. 234E is levied for the delay in filing return for the period prior to 01.06.2015, the same is directed to be deleted and the remaining fee levied for the default committed from 01.06.2015 onwards needs to be sustained.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether notice issued under section 148/147 was validly issued by the Assessing Officer in the facts of the case and whether proceedings under section 148 could be initiated instead of proceedings under section 153C where survey/search of related persons had taken place.
2. Whether, after validly reopening under section 147/148, the Assessing Officer could make additions or disallowances beyond the matters recorded in the reasons for reopening - including the effect and scope of Explanation 3 to section 147.
3. Whether denial of exemption under sections 11 and 12 (and consequential taxation under section 164(2)) was justified on the grounds of misuse/diversion of trust funds (section 13(1)(c)/13(2)), non-filing of return and audit report, or other compliance failures.
4. Whether the appellate authority could reject books of account under section 145(3) and enhance income under section 251(2) by treating receipts/advances from members and construction outlays as trust/business receipts - and whether such exercise by the appellate authority was within lawful limits.
5. Whether specific additions/disallowances made by the AO and sustained by the CIT(A) were justified on facts and law: (a) disallowance of sundry/unverifiable creditors as bogus; (b) 15% disallowance of construction and other undocumented payments; (c) disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS.
6. Whether procedural safeguards and principles of natural justice (opportunity to be heard, scope of show-cause) were observed before making contested additions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of notice under section 148 v. applicability of section 153C
Legal framework: Section 147/148 empower reopening where AO has "reason to believe" income has escaped; sections 153A-153C prescribe special procedure where search/requisition yields incriminating material belonging to/pertaining to persons other than the searched person, with non-obstante clauses.
Precedent treatment: Courts have held Section 153C mandatory where its strict pre-requisites are satisfied; but where seized material does not pertain to the assessee or no incriminating material is used, section 148 may validly be invoked. Clarificatory/amendatory jurisprudence recognises both routes depending on facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the AO recorded reasons to believe based on survey/AIR/26AS and non-filing of return; no incriminating material was shown to belong to the trust such that section 153C procedure was mandated. Centralisation of cases under proper transfer order supported AO's jurisdiction. Reopening was therefore held validly initiated under section 148.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - reopening under section 148 is permissible where reasons recorded are independent of seized incriminating material and conditions for section 153C are not met. Obiter - procedural distinctions between survey and search as to section 153C application.
Conclusion: Notice under section 148 was valid in the case facts; requirement to proceed under section 153C did not arise.
Issue 2 - Scope of reassessment and Explanation 3 to section 147
Legal framework: Substantive part of section 147 directs assessment of "such income" believed to have escaped; Explanation 3 clarifies AO may examine, assess or reassess any issue relevant to income which comes to his notice in course of proceedings notwithstanding that reason for that issue was not recorded initially.
Precedent treatment: Courts differ but several High Courts and the CBDT have held Explanation 3 clarificatory - AO may assess other incomes discovered in reassessment, subject to initial notice validity; some decisions qualify that if original reason is found baseless, AO cannot thereafter independently assess unrelated income without fresh notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal applied settled principle that once notice under section 148 is validly issued on reasonable belief, AO may assess other escaped income coming to light during reassessment. However Tribunal did not permit unbounded exercise: where appellate authority (CIT(A)) used section 251(2) to enhance via rejection of books and to treat member advances as trust income, Tribunal scrutinised limits of appellate enhancement (see Issue 4).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Explanation 3 permits AO to assess additional escaped income discovered during reassessment if reopening is valid. Obiter - limits where initial reason is shown to be unfounded and AO relies solely on unrelated additions may require fresh notice.
Conclusion: AO may make additions beyond recorded reasons if reopening is valid; such power is subject to safeguards and linkage to material discovered during proceedings.
Issue 3 - Denial of exemption under sections 11/12 due to misuse, non-filing and audit defaults (section 13(1)(c), section 12A/12AA)
Legal framework: Sections 11-13 condition tax exemption on application of income to charitable purposes and disqualify exemption where trust income/property is applied for benefit of specified persons (section 13); section 12A(1)(b) prescribes audit/report compliance prerequisites (with later amendments clarifying time-limits from specified dates).
Precedent treatment: Authorities and tribunals hold that procedural non-compliance (late filing of audit report/return) can often be curable if report/return produced before completion of assessment; denial under section 13(1)(c) requires demonstration that income/property was applied for benefit of specified persons - mere allegations or misappropriation by office-bearers require supporting evidence, and removal of registration retrospectively is narrowly construed.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal noted factual findings of misused funds and auditor's observations but also recorded that co-ordinate ITAT earlier quashed cancellation of registration and several precedents treat filing of Form 10/Form 10B during reassessment as capable of curing defaults. Tribunal found that denial of exemption and taxation at MMR was not sustainable across the years challenged where prior ITAT findings, lack of conclusive proof and remedial filings applied.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - denial of exemption requires clear proof of application/ diversion to specified persons; procedural defaults may be cured if documentary compliance is made within assessment proceedings. Obiter - retrospective cancellation of registration is disfavoured absent statutory mandate.
Conclusion: Denial of exemption on grounds of non-filing/audit and alleged diversion was not sustained for the years under appeal where compliance was subsequently filed and prior appellate findings were adverse to cancellation; taxation at MMR was set aside on those bases.
Issue 4 - Rejection of books under section 145(3) and enhancement under section 251(2) by appellate authority
Legal framework: Section 145(3) permits rejection of accounts that are not maintained as per law; section 251(2) grants appellate authority power to enhance, reduce or annul assessment in appeals within limits of issues arising out of assessment.
Precedent treatment: Appellate authority has wide powers but may not travel outside record/order under appeal to invent new sources of income - enhancement must be based on matters on record and not on issues outside AO's consideration; several tribunals emphasise limits on appellate authority creating fresh grounds.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal held that the CIT(A) erred in invoking section 145(3) and enhancing income under section 251(2) by treating member advances and construction outlays as trust turnover where AO had not rejected books or framed assessment on that basis; appellate authority cannot, in guise of enhancement, introduce new substantive adjustments beyond assessment record without proper basis. The Tribunal set aside the enhancement and rejection exercised by CIT(A) in that manner.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - appellate authority cannot, by invoking section 251(2), exceed the scope of assessment record to create new taxable sources or substitute AO's exercise unless based on matters arising from the assessment; rejection and enhancement must respect statutory confines. Obiter - application of accounting methods (% completion) when recasting accounts.
Conclusion: Rejection of books and consequential enhancement by the appellate authority in the circumstances was held to be beyond permissible appellate enhancement and was set aside; assessment authority should address such matters by proper procedure if warranted.
Issue 5 - Additions: bogus creditors, 15% disallowance of undocumented payments, and section 40(a)(ia) TDS disallowance
Legal framework: Additions under sections like 68/69/41(1), disallowances of unverifiable expenditure are fact-sensitive; taxing authorities may disallow undocumented expenditures and treat unverifiable creditors as bogus; section 40(a)(ia) disallows certain expenses where TDS obligations are not complied with (application to trusts clarified by later amendments/Explanation 3).
Precedent treatment: Courts permit adjustments where auditor and records point to unsupported entries and assessee fails to produce invoices/confirmations; percentage disallowances (like 15%) have been applied as reasonable estimate where vouchers absent; applicability of section 40(a)(ia) to trusts historically depended on whether activity was business-like and whether explanatory amendments apply to year under consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal found that AO made several additions without adequate prior show-cause on some heads; where AO relied on auditor's observations and assessee failed to produce supporting vouchers or confirmations, additions for unverifiable creditors and partial disallowance of undocumented payments were sustainable in principle but had to be assessed consistently with limits on AO/CIT(A) powers. Concerning section 40(a)(ia), Tribunal recognised that applicability turns on whether activity is business-like and on the year-specific statutory position; where appellate findings treated the activity as charitable for other years or where Explanation 3 did not retrospectively apply, disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) was not sustained for the years in question.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - unverifiable creditors and undocumented payments may be added or partially disallowed where assessee fails to substantiate and auditor flags deficiencies; section 40(a)(ia) disallowance requires (year-wise) careful application and cannot be mechanically applied where charitable exemption continues or where amendment timing matters. Obiter - quantum of percentage disallowance as reasonable estimate.
Conclusion: Additions for unverifiable creditors and partial disallowance of undocumented payments were not uniformly upheld given procedural defects and appellate overreach; disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) was not sustained where the trust's status and timing of statutory amendments did not support its application.
Issue 6 - Procedural fairness and requirement of show-cause
Legal framework: Natural justice requires opportunity to be heard; SCNs or notices must fairly inform the assessee of proposed additions/grounds so denial of rights is avoided.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal emphasised that several additions complained of were not the subject of specific show-cause in the assessment stage and that opportunity to meet precise allegations was not afforded; where procedural lapses occurred, Tribunal scrutinised whether additions could be sustained and set aside those effected without adequate notice or reliance on new grounds introduced at appellate stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - additions or disallowances should be founded on matters put to the assessee with reasonable notice; failure to confront assessee with specific allegations weakens validity of additions. Obiter - remedying procedural defects by accepting additional evidence in appeals is a judicial discretion subject to rule compliance.
Conclusion: Procedural defects in making certain additions (lack of specific show-cause on those items) rendered them vulnerable; Tribunal set aside additions/enhancements premised on such defects while upholding adjustments where record and notice were adequate or the assessee failed to substantiate.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - addition beyond the reason recorded - jurisdiction to issue notice - eligibility for claiming exemption u/s 11 to 13 - AO has stated that assessee trust is not eligible for exemption u/s 11 & 12, the income of the trust will be charged at MMR u/s 164(2) as the trust doing business activity
As argued 148 notice could have been issued by the ld. ITO, Ward Exemption, Kota where the jurisdiction lies but the same has been issued u/s. 148 was issued by ACIT, Central Circle, Kota who has no jurisdiction.
Notice u/s. 153C ought to have been issued instead of notice u/s. 148 - AO has not made additions on the basis of reasons recorded viz-a-viz additions made by him (except minor addition of IT refund interest which was already on record) - HELD THAT:- As per the record since the assessee has not filed the ITR u/s. 139 of the Act reasons were recorded on 31.01.2018 and after taking the appropriate sanction on 21.02.2018, a notice u/s.148 of the Act was issued to the assessee on 28.02.2018.
Record reveals that the assessee has not undertaken regular Audit & has not filed the ITR for the year under consideration nor assessment proceedings u/s. 143(3)/144 were carried out earlier. Therefore, ld. AO has after recording appropriate reasons based on the information available has after taking appropriate approval reopened the case of the assessee.
It is also evident that the said proceeding were initiated only after the survey action was carried out wherein the ld. AO has valid reason to issue the notice as per provision of section 148 of the Act.
AO has valid reason that in absence of ITR & Audit Report, it cannot be assumed that though the trust is registered u/s. 12AA the benefit of section 11 & 12 can be available to the assessee automatically. Record also reveals that the receipts of the assessee without giving benefit of section 11 & 12 exceeds the maximum amount not chargeable to tax and considering the facts of the case the issue of notice u/s. 148 is appropriate action.
Whether notice u/s. 153C of the Act is required to be issued in this regard, that contention is not correct because the facts of the case suggest that since revenue did not relied upon any incriminating material issue of notice u/s. 153C of the Act cannot be given. Even in the search or survey proceeding does not reveal any records of having any incriminating in nature and therefore, there is no cause of initiation of proceeding u/s. 153C of the Act. The action initiated by the department is on the basis of survey carried out at the premises of assessee and on the basis of information available on record with the ld. AO. For survey actions, proceedings u/s. 153C cannot be initiated. Further the argument that no addition was made on the reasons recorded could have been considered if the assessee had filed a regular Return & Audit Report, in absence of the same, the assessee cannot plead that no addition were made on the reasons recorded.
We are of the considered view that proceedings u/s. 148 were validly initiated by the ld. AO against the assessee. Thus, we do not see any merits in the Ground No. 1 raised by the assessee and thereby the same is dismissed.
Cancellation of the registration granted u/s. 12AA w.r.e.f. 01.04.2013 - HELD THAT:- As is evident from the order of the ld. CIT(A) & the ld. AO, wherein they have primarily justified their action in treating the income of the assessee as business income on the ground that audit report & return of income was not filed u/s. 139, hence, benefit u/s. 12AA cannot be granted. It has also been alleged that there was misappropriation of funds as alleged to have taken place. - The issue has also been dealt by the co-ordinate bench of ITAT, Delhi in the case of United Educational Society v. JCIT [2019 (7) TMI 738 - ITAT DELHI] as regards to amendment made by Finance Act, 2017 and that amendment is whether prospective or retrospective.
Power of CIT(A) to reject the Books of Accounts and Make additions on presumptive basis - Originally the additions have been made by the ld. Assessing Officer without rejecting the books of accounts - HELD THAT: As is evident from the record that ld. CIT(A) has neither applied % completion method nor project completion method before arriving at profit and simpliciter considered the excess amount collected from the members viz. spent at the year-end has been put to tax. The same is without any basis to tax that income. Powers u/s. 251(2) read with rejection of books u/s. 145(3) has wrongly been exercised by the ld. CIT(A), which primary aimed to cover up the lapses on the part of the in the assessment proceeding.
Further, addition has been made in the hands of the assessee, without considering the detailed order and reasoning given by the order dated 06.01.2021 passed in assessee’s own case. Self contradictory stand has been adopted by ld. CIT(A) in A.Y. 2017-2018. Consequently, the addition made by the ld. CIT(A), exercising its powers u/s. 251(2) of the Act is bad in law and the same is set aside and the same is deleted. Thus, the Ground No. 2 and Ground No. 3 is decided in favour of the assessee.
Whether the construction expenses is part of the business activity carried out by the trust? - A close perusal of additions made by the AO reflects the same is beyond the show cause notice and further no reference to statutory provision under which the addition/disallowance is to be made is silent. Explanatory notes to Finance Act, 2018 also explicitly holds that these amendments take effect from 1st April, 2019 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2019-20 and subsequent years. The reasons assigned while deciding Ground No. 2, 3 & 4 hereinabove will also apply in these grounds, which for the sake of repetition are not being repeated. Considering the overall discussion so recorded herein above we see no reason to sustained those addition made by the ld. AO and sustained by the ld. CIT(A) for the reasons and discussion made herein above and thereby the same are directed to be deleted. Hence, disallowance made by the AO & sustained by the ld. CIT(A) is deleted and is set aside.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether deduction claimed under section 35(1)(iii) of the Income-tax Act for a donation made to an institution is liable to be disallowed where, after the donation, the approving authority withdrew approval (including with retrospective effect) of that institution.
2. Whether the appellate delay in filing the appeal by the assessee should be condoned where an affidavit explaining the cause of delay is furnished.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Deduction under section 35(1)(iii) and subsequent withdrawal/retrospective cancellation of approval
Legal framework: Section 35(1)(iii) permits deduction for sums paid to certain institutions subject to statutory approval; the Explanation to section 35 (specifically to clause (ii)/(iii) as applicable) provides that deduction "shall not be denied merely on the ground that, subsequent to the payment of such sum by the assessee, the approval granted to the association or institution has been withdrawn".
Precedent treatment: The Court expressly follows coordinate-bench decisions and higher-court precedents that hold retrospective or subsequent cancellation of approval does not vitiate a donor's entitlement to deduction where the donation was made when approval was valid. Decisions referenced include Supreme Court authority on section-wise analogues and jurisdictional High Court and coordinate-bench rulings dealing with section 35(1)(ii)/(iii) and section 35CCA - these authorities were followed, not distinguished or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasons that the statutory Explanation embodies a clear legislative intent to protect a donor who acted upon a valid approval at the time of donation. Where the institution had valid approval on the date of payment (evidence here: money receipt dated 21/03/2014), subsequent withdrawal of approval (even with retrospective effect) cannot be a ground to deny deduction. The Court notes that the AO's reliance on information that the recipient institution was a "bogus Trust" providing accommodation entries does not override the statutory protection afforded by the Explanation when approval was operative at the time of donation. The Court therefore places determinative weight on the temporal fact of valid approval at the time of payment and the statutory non-denial provision.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The pronouncement that deduction cannot be denied when approval was valid at time of donation and later cancelled (even retrospectively) is treated as ratio decidendi in resolving the present controversy and is explicitly applied to direct deletion of the disallowance. Observations about the AO's information regarding suspected accommodation entries are incidental and do not form the basis of the Court's holding.
Conclusions: Following the statutory Explanation and binding/co-ordinate precedents, The Court holds that the disallowance of the donation under section 35(1)(iii) is not sustainable where the donation was made while the recipient institution held valid approval; consequently, the disallowance of Rs. 1.75 Crores is to be deleted and the deduction allowed.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Condonation of delay in filing appeal
Legal framework: Procedural discretion exists to condone delay where sufficient cause is shown; the appellate forum examines the affidavit and grounds offered for delay.
Precedent treatment: The Court applies established principles governing condonation of delay (sufficiency of cause, material explanation) - no adverse precedent was distinguished or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee filed an affidavit explaining the cause of delay. On consideration of that affidavit and the reasons given, The Court was "convinced that the assessee was prevented by sufficient cause" from filing timely appeal. The Court therefore exercised discretion to condone delay prior to deciding the substantive issue.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The condonation ruling is a procedural determination confined to the facts and affidavit before The Court; it is ratio in respect of the ability of the assessee to have the substantive appeal heard, but not a general pronouncement on condonation jurisprudence beyond application of existing standards.
Conclusions: Delay in filing the appeal is condoned and the appeal is admitted for hearing on merits.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND APPLICATION
All conclusions on the substantive deduction invoke and rely upon the Explanation to section 35 and the line of authority holding that retrospective withdrawal/cancellation of approval does not invalidate claims where the donor relied on valid approval at the time of payment; the procedural condonation enabled these substantive conclusions to be reached. The Court directs the assessing officer to delete the impugned disallowance consistent with these findings.
Disallowance on account of donation given to the school of human genetics and population held scheme u/s 35AC - HELD THAT:- Explanation to Section 35AC of the Act states that the deduction shall not be denied merely on the ground that subsequent to the payment of such sum by the assessee, the approval granted to such association or institution has been withdrawn.
A similar view has been taken in [2019 (5) TMI 1323 - ITAT MUMBAI] held a reading of Explanation to section 35(1)(ii) of the Act as well as the ratio laid down in the aforesaid decisions would make it clear that if the assessee acting upon a valid registration/approval granted to an Institution has donated the amount for which deduction is claimed, such deduction cannot be disallowed if at a later point of time such registration is cancelled with retrospective effect. Thus, keeping in view the relevant statutory provisions and the ratio laid down in the decisions discussed above, we have no hesitation in holding that assessee is entitled to claim deduction u/s 35(1)(ii) of the Act.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issue 1: Whether the Principal Commissioner's assumption of jurisdiction under section 263 is valid - i.e., whether the assessment order is "erroneous" and "prejudicial to the interests of the revenue" within the meaning of section 263 and its Explanation 2.
Issue 2: Whether the assessment order should be set aside/confirmed in respect of specified substantive items where the Commissioner found lack of adequate inquiry by the Assessing Officer: (a) provisions for gratuity (claim v. actual payment); (b) unpaid bonus and applicability of section 43B; (c) disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS on (i) interest paid to a financial institution and (ii) compensation paid to customers; (d) addition on account of debit/credit balances written off (recognition of electricity sales/invoicing); (e) alleged unexplained advances for purchase of property invoking section 69B r.w.s.115BBE; and (f) concessional/interest-free advances to sister concerns (arm's-length/availability of interest-free funds).
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS Issue 1 - Jurisdiction under section 263: legal framework, precedents, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Section 263 empowers the Commissioner to call for and examine records and, if an order is "erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the revenue", to revise, enhance, modify or set aside the assessment; Explanation 2 (effective 01.06.2015) specifies that an order is erroneous and prejudicial if passed without making inquiries/verification which should have been made or allowing relief without inquiry.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered Supreme Court authority stating s.263 cannot be used to correct every error but applies where an order is erroneous (Malabar Industrial) and authorities holding an AO's acceptance without adequate enquiry renders the order erroneous (Rampyari Devi Saraogi; Gee Vee Enterprises; Swarup Vegetable; Hill Queen Investment).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analyzed the statutory four-stage exercise under s.263 (call for records; form prima facie opinion of error/prejudice; issue show-cause and conduct inquiry; pass reasoned order). The Commissioner's jurisdiction was evaluated against Explanation 2: if the AO failed to make inquiries/verification that ought to have been made, the order is erroneous. The Tribunal found that the assessor had in many respects conducted detailed queries under notice u/s.142(1) and had considered submissions; however, for some high-value items (notably advances for property), the AO's inquiry was limited to receipt of replies and lacked deeper verification of source/genuineness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - s.263 jurisdiction is valid where Explanation 2 conditions are satisfied (failure to make required inquiries). Obiter - general observations on the sequential compartments of s.263 and administrative control.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the Commissioner's assumption of jurisdiction was valid in part. Ground challenging assumption of jurisdiction was dismissed (particularly because the assessee did not press one ground [s.14A]); but the scope of valid exercise under s.263 depends on item-wise assessment of whether AO applied mind and conducted relevant inquiries.
Issue 2(a) - Provision for gratuity: legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Claim for provision for gratuity on accrual v. actual payment; tax treatment examined under relevant sections (deductibility subject to factual verification); AO's duty to verify payments where part provision claimed and part payment admitted.
Precedent treatment: No contrary precedent required; question determined on facts and whether AO examined records.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO recorded the claimed provision and added part to income; AO examined details under s.142(1) and carried out enquiry. The Commissioner's contention that AO failed to verify payments was found incorrect on record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where AO has examined the claim and incorporated appropriate additions, s.263 cannot be invoked to set aside the issue.
Conclusions: Finding of Commissioner on gratuity set aside; no need to remit to AO. Commissioner's order reversed on this issue.
Issue 2(b) - Unpaid bonus and section 43B: legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Proviso to section 43B requires actual payment on or before due date for return under s.139(1) to claim deduction; liability paid by related entity requires tracing of accounting treatment in assessee's books.
Precedent treatment: Applied statutory test of payment before due date; no special precedent necessary.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although payment originated from a sister concern, evidence showed bonus was paid by that sister concern before extended due date for filing return; AO examined the issue and concluded accordingly.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where payment is established to have been made within the time prescribed, no disallowance under s.43B is warranted and s.263 is not attracted.
Conclusions: Commissioner's direction to re-examine this issue was reversed; no remand required.
Issue 2(c)(i) - Non-deduction of TDS on interest paid to PNB Housing Finance Ltd. (section 40(a)(ia)): legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Section 40(a)(ia) disallows expenditure where tax is deductible at source but not deducted; exception where payee is exempted under specific provisions (e.g., section 194A(4)(iii) for certain institutions) or where payee has offered income and AO verifies that payee has taxed the income.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal precedent (Satish Arora) restored similar issue to AO for calling details under s.133(6) to verify whether payee offered income.
Interpretation and reasoning: Payee (PNB Housing Finance Ltd.) falls within exception under s.194A(4)(iii). Alternative route: if payee has offered income in its return, disallowance under s.40(a)(ia) is not attracted. AO had not verified whether the payee had offered the income; Commissioner correctly held the matter should be remitted to AO for de novo adjudication and verification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of AO's verification as to payee's tax treatment justifies remand under s.263; verification is necessary before applying s.40(a)(ia).
Conclusions: Commissioner's set-aside in respect of interest to PNB Housing Finance Ltd. is affirmed; remand to AO directed for verification.
Issue 2(c)(ii) - Compensation for cancellation of booking (TDS applicability): legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: TDS applicability depends on nature of payment; payments akin to judgment debt or compensation for breach may not attract TDS provisions if not in natura a taxable receipt requiring deduction.
Precedent treatment: Cited Bombay High Court authority holding certain compensation payments are not subject to TDS.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal examined submissions and concluded the compensation resembles a judgment debt/compensatory payment that cannot be treated as income liable to TDS under relevant provisions; AO/Commissioner had not required further verification but Commissioner's direction to reinvestigate was unnecessary.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where payment is compensatory/akin to judgment debt, it may not be liable to TDS and no disallowance under s.40(a)(ia) arises; AO need not re-open absent contrary facts.
Conclusions: Commissioner's direction to remit this issue was reversed; no remand required.
Issue 2(d) - Debit/credit balances written off (recognition of electricity sales): legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Revenue recognition on accrual basis v. invoicing; AO's duty to examine accounting treatment and avoid double taxation.
Precedent treatment: Not dependent on external precedent; resolved on facts and accounting practice submitted.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO raised specific queries; assessee explained treatment (accrual on generation; later reversal when invoice raised by MSEDCL); AO accepted the explanation after detailed enquiry. Commissioner's view that AO failed to verify was not supported by record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where AO has addressed and accepted detailed factual submissions on revenue recognition, s.263 is not attracted.
Conclusions: Commissioner's set-aside on this issue reversed; no remand required.
Issue 2(e) - Alleged unexplained advances for purchase of property (section 69B r.w.s.115BBE): legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Section 69B & 115BBE provide for deeming/additions where investments or advances are unexplained or do not reflect income; explanation 2 to s.263 emphasizes AO must make necessary inquiries before allowing relief.
Precedent treatment: Authorities recognizing that high-value transactions require deeper verification of source/genuineness before acceptance.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the assessee furnished MOUs/agreements and auditor confirmation and furnished interest receipts, the AO's examination was limited to receiving these replies and did not undertake further verification of source of funds or genuineness. Given the magnitude (Rs. 82.64 crores), mere receipt of s.142 replies was not treated as adequate. Commissioner correctly concluded further verification was necessary and set aside the assessment insofar as this issue.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where sizable, potentially revenue-impacting advances are accepted without substantive verification of source/genuineness, the assessment is erroneous and remand under s.263 is justified.
Conclusions: Commissioner's decision to remit this issue to AO for de novo verification under detailed directions is sustained.
Issue 2(f) - Concessional advances to sister concerns (interest @4% v. market 12%): legal framework, precedent treatment, reasoning, ratio/obiter, conclusionLegal framework: Transfer pricing/arm's-length and evidentiary tests; availability of interest-free funds and absence of diversion of interest-bearing funds may support commercial rate adopted; AO must examine availability of funds and commercial rationale.
Precedent treatment: Reliance on prior favourable decisions in assessee's case for identical issues in earlier years (CIT(A), ITAT, High Court) was noted but AO must still record satisfaction on current facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO examined the availability of interest-free funds and accepted that shareholders' funds exceeded exposure; AO's conclusion represented a permissible view based on evidence. Commissioner erred in setting aside the AO's finding where a legally permissible view had been taken after enquiry.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where AO has made a fact-based inquiry and adopted a permissible view on attendant facts (availability of interest-free funds, no diversion), s.263 cannot be used to substitute the Commissioner's opinion.
Conclusions: Commissioner's direction to re-examine was reversed; AO's view stands.
Cross-references and dispositionCross-reference: Issue 1 (jurisdiction) was applied item-wise: where AO had conducted specific enquiry and adopted a permissible legal view (gratuity, unpaid bonus, debit/credit write-offs, concessional advances), s.263 set-aside was unjustified and reversed; where AO failed to carry out necessary verification on high-value or legally sensitive items (interest to PNB Housing Finance - verification of payee's tax treatment; advances for property - source and genuineness), remand under s.263 was appropriate and sustained.
Final disposition: The Commissioner's order under section 263 was partly confirmed and partly set aside in respect of the specified issues as analysed above - certain issues remitted to AO for fresh enquiry and adjudication; certain issues reinstated in favour of the assessee as AO had made adequate inquiry or adopted a permissible view.
Revision u/s 263 - Disallowance on account of provisions of Gratuity Fund - HELD THAT:- Provision as made is already been added to the income in the computation of income and the assessee has only claimed the actual payment of Gratuity - AO has examined the issue in details and therefore issue need not be set-aside to the file of ld. Assessing Officer. Finding of ld.PCIT on this issue stands reversed.
Disallowance u/s. 43B r.w.s.36(1)(ii) being unpaid bonus - We note that the unpaid bonus was paid by the sister concern of the assessee Sharada Construction and Investment Company prior to the extended due fate of filing of the return of income u/s. 139(1) of the Act. Thus, no addition u/s. 43B is called for. Therefore, the issue need not be set aside to the file of ld. Assessing Officer. Finding of ld.PCIT on this issue stands reversed.
Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) - TDS u/s 194A - non deduction of tax on interest paid to PNB Housing Finance Limited - We find that PNB Housing Finance Limited falls within the exception u/s. 194A(4)(iii). Though the assessee has not deducted the tax on the interest paid to PNB Housing Finance Limited but in case the PNB Housing Finance Limited has offered the income in its income-tax return, then no disallowance can be made in terms of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. However, since the ld. AO has not examined this aspect, the matter needs to be set aside to his file for denovo adjudication.
Even in the case of Satish Arora [2019 (10) TMI 1620 - ITAT DELHI] referred and relied on by assessee, the Tribunal has restored the issue of non deduction of tax on the interest paid to PNB Housing Finance Limited to the file of Assessing Officer directing him to call for the details by issuing notice u/s. 133(6) - PCIT has rightly held that this issue deserves to be set aside to the file of ld. AO for fresh examination. Finding of ld. PCIT is affirmed.
Non deduction of tax on the compensation for cancellation of booking made to customers - The compensation is in the nature of a judgment debt or akin to a judgment debt, the payment of which cannot establish a debtor-creditor relationship between the parties. As such, the said sum or any part thereof cannot be liable to tax deducted at source under the relevant provisions of the IT Act in light of judgment of Sainath Rajkumar Sarode and Others Vs. State of Maharashtra and Others [2021 (8) TMI 1009 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] We thus find that this issue also need not be restored to the file of ld. AO in the set aside assessment proceedings. Finding of ld.PCIT on this issue stands reversed.
Addition on account of debit/credit balances written off - Estimated income is credited in the books and recognized as income. Customer account is debited with corresponding credit to income and net sale of electricity is booked when the credit note is received and invoice is raised. It was also submitted that since the income has already been recognized on the basis of accrual, it will tantamount to double taxation if the income is again recognized on the basis of generation of invoice.
AO has accepted this contention and therefore since detailed enquiry has been conducted, ld. PCIT erred in restoring this issue to the file of ld. AO in the set aside proceedings. Finding of ld.PCIT on this issue stands reversed.
Disallowance of interest - We note that the assessee has given advance of Rs. 1.45 crore to Prashasti Properties Pvt. Ltd. for purchase of property. However, interest @4% has been charged as against the prevailing market rate of 12%. We note that this issue has been examined by the ld. AO and he has found that the transaction of giving advance to Prashasti Properties Pvt. Ltd, is in due course of business and further the assessee had sufficient interest free funds which are higher than the interest free/low interest bearing advances. AO accepted the contention of the assessee which is one of the legally permissible view and therefore we do not find any justification to set aside this issue to the file of ld. AO. Finding of ld.PCIT on this issue also stands reversed.
Advance for purchase of property which in view of ld. PCIT has not been examined by the ld. AO and therefore provisions of section 69B r.w.s.115BBE of the Act deserves to be invoked - Merely receiving the reply to the issues raised in the notice u/s. 142(1) cannot be taken as complete exercise for carrying out proper assessment proceedings in such type of issue and needs deeper examination as it involves huge revenue. Though assessee has submitted that the advances were given for purchase of property and even the interest has also been earned thereon, we are still of the considered view that proper enquiry as required in such type of issue has not been conducted by the ld. AO. Finding of ld.PCIT on this issue deserves to be sustained and the matter has been rightly restored by ld. PCIT to the file of ld. AO for carrying out the assessment afresh as per the directions given in the impugned order.
In view of the above, the findings of ld. PCIT in the impugned order u/s. 263 of the Act are partly confirmed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the delay in filing the appeal was excusable and exercise of jurisdiction to condone delay was justified.
2. Whether the amended rate of tax introduced by the substitution to section 115BBE - raising the special rate to 60% w.e.f. 01.04.2017 - was applicable to the assessment year under consideration (A.Y.2017-18) or whether the pre-amendment rate (30%) governed taxation of income assessed under sections 68/69/69A etc.
3. Whether the appellate order passed under section 250(6) and the manner of disposal by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) violated principles of natural justice or failed to decide issues on merits (grounds raised but not pressed).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation of delay in filing the appeal
Legal framework: Procedural law permits condonation of delay in filing appeals where "sufficient cause" is shown; affidavits and explanation of events are admissible for exercise of discretion.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied ordinary principles governing condonation of delay (no conflicting authority discussed in the text for this point).
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee, an agriculturist, entrusted tax proceedings to an Income Tax Practitioner who failed to comply with notices and to inform the assessee of ex parte disposal. The assessee gave prompt explanation, produced practitioner's affidavit, and demonstrated lack of wilful or deliberate delay due to the practitioner's personal and professional failures. The Tribunal found these facts sufficient to constitute "sufficient cause" preventing timely filing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - delay condoned based on demonstrable reliance on practitioner and non-receipt of notices, amounting to sufficient cause.
Conclusions: Delay of 367 days in filing appeal was condoned; appeal admitted for merits (or for the legal issue raised) accordingly.
Issue 2 - Applicability of amended section 115BBE (60% v. 30%) to A.Y.2017-18
Legal framework: Section 115BBE prescribes a special tax computation and rate for income characterized under sections 68, 69, 69A, 69B, 69C or 69D. The Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016 substituted subsection (1) of s.115BBE with an increased rate (60%) w.e.f. 01.04.2017 as reflected in the statute.
Precedent Treatment (followed/distinguished): Conflicting decisions of non-jurisdictional High Courts exist - one view holds the amended higher rate applies from A.Y.2017-18 (i.e., transactions on/after 01.04.2017), another view holds the higher rate applies only to assessments for A.Y.2018-19 onward and that pre-amendment rate (30%) governs prior transactions. Where non-jurisdictional High Courts conflict, the Tribunal followed the line of authority favorable to the taxpayer, adopting the view that for the period in question the 30% rate applies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the legislative substitution and acknowledged divergent High Court views. Guided by principle that in case of conflict among non-jurisdictional High Courts the view favorable to the assessee should be adopted, the Tribunal respectfully followed the view holding that the enhanced rate could not be applied to the assessment year under consideration. Applying that approach, the Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to compute tax on the addition under section 69A at 30% (the pre-amendment rate) rather than at 60%.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where non-jurisdictional High Courts take conflicting positions on temporal applicability of a fiscal amendment, the Tribunal may adopt the view most favorable to the assessee; applying that principle here, the post-amendment 60% rate was held not applicable to the assessment year in question and the pre-amendment 30% rate governs.
Conclusions: The levy of tax at 60% under substituted section 115BBE was set aside in part; tax on the addition under section 69A for the year under consideration is to be determined at 30% as per the pre-amended provision. The additional ground raising this legal issue was allowed.
Issue 3 - Validity of ex parte assessment under section 144, treatment under section 69A, and appellate non-appearance/natural justice contentions
Legal framework: Where a taxpayer fails to file a return and fails to respond to statutory notices, an assessing officer may proceed to complete assessment ex parte under section 144; unexplained cash deposits may be treated as income under section 69A if not satisfactorily explained.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal accepted the factual appreciation made by the Assessing Officer that a portion of deposits could be explained from agricultural receipts, while the balance remained unexplained and taxable under section 69A; the taxpayer's broader complaints about non-hearing at the CIT(A) were not pursued before the Tribunal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Assessing Officer found that certain receipts (e.g., government credit of paddy sale proceeds) were directly credited to bank accounts and thus could not explain contemporaneous cash deposits; the AO quantified a portion as explained (bananas) and treated the balance as unexplained deposits assessed under section 69A. The CIT(A) had dismissed the appeal for non-appearance; the taxpayer did not press the merits grounds before the Tribunal and instead pressed only the legal issue on section 115BBE.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter/ancillary - the Tribunal did not adjudicate afresh the factual correctness of the addition under section 69A or the ex parte assessment, because those merits were not pressed before it; the Tribunal's order reducing the tax rate is consequential upon accepting the admitted additional ground.
Conclusions: Grounds on merits (including alleged violation of section 250(6) and natural justice) were not pressed and therefore dismissed as not pressed/academic; the factual addition under section 69A stands subject only to recalculation of tax liability at the pre-amendment rate (30%).
Cross-reference
For the determination of tax liability on the addition under section 69A, see conclusions under Issue 2; Issues 1 and 3 are consequential - delay was condoned permitting consideration of the admitted legal ground, while the merits grounds were dismissed as not pressed and rendered academic by the Tribunal's limited decision on the tax rate.
Levy of tax @60% u/s 115BBE of the Act, as amended w.e.f. 01.04.2017 - Applicable tax rates on additions made against deposits made during the demonetization period as unexplained u/s 69A - HELD THAT:- We find that a similar issue came up for consideration before the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Sathi Mangayamma [2025 (6) TMI 2065 - ITAT VISAKHAPATNAM] the Co-ordinate Bench, after considering the decisions wherein as respectfully follow the view taken in the case of S.M.I.L.E Microfinance Limited [2024 (11) TMI 1444 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] and direct the AO to determine the tax liability on the addition of Rs. 20 lac (supra) made in the hands of the assessee u/s 69A of the Act by applying the tax rate of 30% as was contemplated in the pre-amended Section 115BBE.
We direct the Ld. AO to determine the tax liability on the addition made under section 69A of the Act by applying the tax rate @30% as per the pre-amended provisions of section 115BBE of the Act. Accordingly, the additional ground raised by the assessee is allowed.
Maintainability of appeal - monetary limit involved in the appeal - Valuation - Transaction value, rejection on suspicion that same underdeclared - it was held by CESTAT that 'In view of the decision of Apex Court in CC, Calcutta v. South India Television (P) Ltd. [2007 (7) TMI 9 - SUPREME COURT], the revision of price, demand of differential duty and interest, confiscation of the impugned machine on the ground that the importer had mis-declared its value and consequent penalties are not sustainable.'
HELD THAT:- These appeals are disposed of on the ground of Low Tax Effect - The question of law, if any, is kept open to be decided in an appropriate case.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether goods detained/seized under Section 110 of the Customs Act, 1962 pending investigation and possible confiscation under Section 111 can be permitted to be re-exported before adjudication.
2. If re-export is permissible, what conditions (bond, bank guarantee, time-limit or other security) are appropriate to protect revenue interests pending adjudication and possible levy of differential duty, fine or confiscation under Sections 111 and 125 of the Act.
3. Whether precedents permitting provisional release/re-export on security and/or payment of retention fine are applicable where CRCL test report alleges misclassification and undervaluation.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Permissibility of re-export of seized/detained imports pending investigation/adjudication
Legal framework: Section 110 authorises seizure of goods; Section 111 deals with confiscation of improperly imported goods; Section 125 permits imposition of a fine in lieu of confiscation. Adjudication determines classification, valuation, duty liability and whether confiscation or penalty applies.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered prior decisions (including appellate and High Court orders) that have allowed re-export or provisional release subject to conditions (such as payment of retention fine, execution of bond, or furnishing bank guarantees). Those authorities were treated as supporting the proposition that goods need not necessarily remain in the country for the sole purpose of securing revenue recovery.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasises that the ultimate adjudicatory outcome will likely require payment of differential duty and possibly a fine; the physical retention of goods in India is not essential to ensure recovery. Where the revenue can be adequately protected by alternative securities, re-export may be permitted. The Court noted the completion of investigation and existence of a CRCL test report alleging misclassification and undervaluation, but held that these do not, by themselves, mandate continued detention if adequate safeguards are imposed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where seizure is under Section 110 and adjudication may lead to differential duty/penalty under Sections 111/125, re-export can be permitted prior to final adjudication provided sufficient security is furnished to protect revenue; retention of goods is not an indispensable precondition for recovery of dues. Obiter - Observations on the desirability of early adjudication and commercial loss due to deterioration of goods.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that re-export is permissible subject to appropriate securities and conditions designed to protect the revenue.
Issue 2: Appropriate security and procedural conditions when permitting re-export pending adjudication
Legal framework: The Court relied on the statutory architecture permitting confiscation and imposition of fines (Sections 111 and 125) and the customs regime's objective of securing duty and penalties pending determination. It recognised judicially-evolved remedies (retention fines, bonds, bank guarantees) as instruments to balance commercial prejudice and revenue protection.
Precedent treatment: Decisions allowing re-export on execution of bonds, payment of retention fines, or furnishing of bank guarantees were followed as persuasive authority for imposing conditional security rather than absolute withholding of goods. The Court referred to both single-judge and divisional-bench authorities that approved bonds/bank guarantees and quantified security as a percentage of estimated duty/value.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that a combination of a bond for the total value of differential duty and a bank guarantee for a percentage of the redetermined value provides a two-fold protection: (a) the bond creates an enforceable obligation for payment of duty/penalty/differential; and (b) the bank guarantee offers immediate liquid security to meet at least part of the revenue demand if required. The selection of 20% as the bank guarantee percentage and a specified time window for re-export (12 days after compliance) reflects the Court's effort to strike a balance between preventing flight of liability and mitigating commercial loss from prolonged detention.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where re-export is allowed pending adjudication, the Court may impose conditions including (i) execution of a bond for the full amount of differential duty and (ii) furnishing of a bank guarantee for a quantified percentage of the redetermined value; re-export can be permitted upon compliance within a limited timeframe. Obiter - Specific numeric percentages and time periods are fact-specific and may be varied in other cases; the Court's adoption of 20% and 12 days is a direction tailored to the facts before it rather than a universally prescriptive formula.
Conclusion: The Court imposed the following conditions to permit re-export: execution of a bond for the total value of differential duty; furnishing of a bank guarantee equal to 20% of the redetermined value; and permitted re-export within 12 days upon compliance. These conditions were held sufficient to protect revenue pending adjudication.
Issue 3: Effect of alleged misclassification and undervaluation based on CRCL report on the decision to allow re-export
Legal framework: Classification and valuation determine customs duty and potential confiscation; CRCL reports form part of the evidentiary basis for allegation of misclassification/undervaluation, which can lead to action under Sections 110/111 and imposition of fines under Section 125.
Precedent treatment: Earlier authorities recognising that a test report or allegation of misclassification does not ipso facto mandate continued custody of goods if revenue can be secured by other means were followed. Such precedents were used to distinguish between cases where goods must be retained (risk of dissipation of value or flight) and cases where security suffices.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court acknowledged the seriousness of CRCL findings but held that the existence of such findings is a reason to require robust security rather than an absolute bar to re-export. The decision balanced the revenue's interest (potential differential duty and fine) against commercial prejudice (deterioration and loss), concluding that security instruments can adequately address revenue risk even where CRCL alleges misclassification and undervaluation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - CRCL allegations do not automatically preclude re-export; instead they necessitate appropriate securities to ensure recovery of duties/penalties. Obiter - The Court's assessment of commercial deterioration and supplier willingness to accept return are fact-specific considerations supporting relief.
Conclusion: Despite the CRCL report alleging misclassification/undervaluation, the Court permitted conditional re-export subject to the bond and bank guarantee, finding that such measures sufficiently protect revenue pending adjudication.
Cross-references and Practical Outcome
The Court applied statutory provisions (Sections 110, 111, 125) together with judicial precedent permitting provisional release/re-export on security; it followed the principle that retention of goods is not essential where the revenue can be protected by enforceable securities. The operative relief directed immediate procedural steps (bond and bank guarantee) and a 12-day re-export window upon compliance, thereby resolving the core dispute between commercial prejudice and revenue protection.
Permission to re-export the goods to the supplier at China since the supplier had also agreed to take back the goods - Undervaluation - Mis-classification of goods under CTH 59039090 instead of classifying the goods under CTH 54075290, 58013690, 55162200, 60063200 and 60063400 - HELD THAT:- The logical end to the adjudication proceedings will result in directing the petitioner to pay the fine/penalty and differential duty. For this purpose, it is not necessary to retain the goods in India. Therefore, to strike a balance, considering the fact that the goods are lying in India from January 2025, certain conditions can be imposed on the petitioner and on fulfilment of the conditions so imposed, the petitioner can be permitted to re-export the goods. This view has been taken by this Court and other High Courts while granting such a relief.
The petitioner shall execute a bond for the total value of the differential duty payable by them - The petitioner shall furnish a bank guarantee equivalent to 20% of the redetermined value - Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the petitioner was entitled to a direction permitting transfer of the imported industrial oil from flexi-bags to compliant containers under supervision of the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation, and consequential release of the goods by customs after compliance.
Analysis: The relief was moulded in view of the petitioner's request to shift the goods into containers conforming to the safety requirements under the Petroleum Act, 1934 and the Petroleum Rules, 2002. The Court directed that the transfer be carried out under the supervision and guidance of the concerned PESO , with the petitioner furnishing an undertaking to abide by the directions issued by that authority. Upon completion of the transfer in accordance with the applicable safety regime, the customs authorities were directed to release the goods after following due process in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The direction to permit supervised transfer and consequential release of the consignment was issued in favour of the petitioner, subject to compliance with the petroleum safety requirements and the undertaking to be furnished.
Final Conclusion: The petitions were disposed of with operative directions enabling the petitioner to regularise the mode of storage and obtain release of the imported goods through compliance with the statutory safety framework, while the transfer expenses were to be borne and reimbursed by the respondents.
Prayer for release of the consignment of Industrial Oil contained in 12 containers which are retained under the Bill of Lading - release of the containers not permitted on the ground that the goods in question imported by the petitioner were in Flexi-bags which is not permitted as per the public notice dated 27.09.2024 - HELD THAT:- The respondent-authorities permitted the petitioner to transfer the goods in question from Flexi-bags to the container under the supervision and guidance of the officers of the PESO in the tanker in accordance with the Petroleum Act and the Rules made therein, as requested by the petitioner in the representation dated 12.06.2025. The petitioner shall file an undertaking before this Court to abide by all the rules and directions to be issued by the concerned officer of the PESO and once the goods are transferred in a container according to the directions of PESO officer in consonance with the provisions of the Petroleum Act,1934 and allied Rules framed therein, respondent No. 2-Custom Officer is directed to release the goods after following the due process in accordance with law. Such exercise shall be completed within a period of two weeks from today.
As these directions are to be issued at the request of respondent Nos. 2 and 3, the cost of transfer of the material by the petitioner, from Flexi-bags to the containers as specified in the Petroleum Act, 1934 and allied Rules, shall be borne by respondent Nos. 2 and 3.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a freight forwarder who issues airway bills in the name of a non-existent exporter and uses forged export documentation can be subjected to penalty under Section 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962.
2. Whether, having regard to the factual role of the freight forwarder (final forwarder arranging space, not obtaining KYC of main exporter, issuance of airway bills in name of a fictitious firm), imposition of the enhanced penalty under Section 114AA (equivalent to five times the value of goods) is warranted or whether a lesser penalty is appropriate.
3. Whether the legal question(s) concerning the scope and application of Section 114AA raised by the appeal can be decided in the present proceedings or should be left open for determination in an appropriate proceeding.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Liability under Section 114AA for use of forged export documents by a freight forwarder
Legal framework: Section 114AA of the Customs Act provides for imposition of penalty where persons "use or cause to be used" forged documents or knowingly facilitate export of prohibited goods; liability attaches to those who abet, facilitate or are party to use of false documents in exports.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered an earlier, related appeal against the same tribunal judgment and noted the tribunal's findings as to the role of various intermediaries; the prior appellate outcome (rejection of a similar appeal) was relied upon for consistency but no express overruling or extension of precedent was undertaken.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the factual findings recorded by the adjudicating authority and the tribunal that the forwarder under challenge (i) was the third and final forwarder who issued airway bills in the name of a non-existent firm, (ii) arranged space in airlines without obtaining KYC of the main exporter, and (iii) caused forged documents to be used for export of a CITES-protected commodity. Those facts, in law, ordinarily engage liability under Section 114AA because they demonstrate use or causing to be used of forged documentation and facilitation of prohibited export.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's acceptance that the described conduct falls within the ambit of Section 114AA is ratio insofar as it underpins the assessment of culpability; however, the Court did not impose the enhanced statutory penalty in respect of that provision on the facts, rendering the application of Section 114AA to the particular respondent a mixed finding of law applied to fact.
Conclusions: The Court recognised that the freight forwarder's actions were of the kind contemplated by Section 114AA (use/causing to be used forged documents and arranging export without proper KYC), but refrained from imposing the enhanced statutory penalty under that Section on the present facts (see Issues 2 and 3 for reasons).
Issue 2 - Appropriateness and proportionality of penalty under Section 114AA given the limited role of the freight forwarder
Legal framework: Section 114AA prescribes a penalty (expressed in the judgment as potentially five times the value of the goods) that is multiplicative of the value of the prohibited goods; adjudicatory authorities retain discretion to determine quantum in light of role and culpability.
Precedent treatment: The tribunal and the adjudicating authority pursued differential treatment of various intermediaries based on the degree of their involvement; the Court followed that approach of calibrating penalty to the role played rather than automatically imposing the maximum statutory multiplicative penalty in every case.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the factual matrix and the degree of involvement of the respondent as "limited" and principally that of a final forwarder who arranged space and issued airway bills as part of a chain driven by others (brokers, freight forwarders, alleged forgers). On that basis the Court concluded that the imposition of the already imposed fixed penalty of Rs. 10 lakh (imposed under Section 114 in the adjudication and upheld) is adequate to meet culpability and deterrence objectives. The Court reasoned that imposing the Section 114AA multiplicative penalty would be disproportionate to the respondent's limited role and the factual circumstances, and therefore the tribunal's rejection of Revenue's prayer for imposition of further Section 114AA penalty was correctly upheld.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that proportionality and the limited role can justify denial of the Section 114AA multiplicative penalty (and upholding the lesser penalty) is ratio with respect to penalty quantum for the respondent in this case. Observations about general principles of proportionality and calibration of penalty are authoritative as applied to these facts; broader doctrinal statements not essential to the outcome are obiter.
Conclusions: A fixed monetary penalty already imposed and sustained by the Court suffices where the respondent's role is limited; imposition of the higher Section 114AA penalty (multiplicative of goods' value) was rightly refused on these facts as disproportionate.
Issue 3 - Scope for determination of broader legal questions on Section 114AA and leave to consider same later
Legal framework: Appellate courts may decide points of law if necessary for disposal; alternatively they may decline to determine novel or broad questions of law where the appeal can be disposed on narrower factual or discretionary grounds, leaving wider legal questions to appropriate proceedings.
Precedent treatment: The Court noted a prior appeal arising out of the same tribunal judgment had been dismissed, indicating consistency in outcomes; nevertheless, the Court refrained from pronouncing on broader unresolved legal questions in the present appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having disposed of the appeal on the basis that the existing Rs. 10 lakh penalty adequately addresses culpability given the respondent's limited role, the Court declined to decide the wider question(s) of law concerning the scope and application of Section 114AA beyond the needs of this record. The Court expressly left those question(s) open for consideration in an appropriate proceeding.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The decision to leave the broader legal question(s) open is ratio to the disposition of this appeal (i.e., not necessary for outcome) and therefore constitutes a deliberate judicial choice to withhold a general legal pronouncement; any ancillary comments about Section 114AA's reach are obiter.
Conclusions: The appeal is dismissed in respect of the Revenue's prayer for imposition of further Section 114AA penalty on the respondent; the Court upholds the lesser penalty imposed for the respondent's limited role and leaves unresolved broader legal questions about Section 114AA to be adjudicated in an appropriate forum.
Levy of penalty u/s 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 on freight forwarder - illegal export of ‘Red Sanders’ which is stated to have been received by the Customs Department - Airway bill was booked in the name of forged name - baggage declaration - HELD THAT:- It is found that the freight forwarder is the third and final forwarder who issued airway bill in the name of non-existing firm for non available goods. He was final forwarder who was involved in arranging for arranging space in airlines for export without obtaining KYC of main exporter. He issued an airway bill in the name of non-existed M/s Sikki Auto Pvt. Ltd. He used and caused to be used forged documents related to export of prohibited goods.
Considering the role played by freight forwarder, this Court is of the opinion that a penalty of Rs. 10 lakh, which has already been imposed and has been upheld by the Court, would be sufficient penalty. Further penalty under Section 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 would entail five times the value of goods being imposed upon the Respondent.
This Court is of the opinion that the penalty under Section 114AA of the Act has been rightly not beein imposed on the Respondent - Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Tribunal correctly applied the principle that departmental demand for differential duty cannot be raised without first challenging the importer's self-assessment of Bills of Entry under the applicable assessment and modification provisions.
2. Whether the Tribunal's conclusion that difference in MRP on identical goods imported through different ports is a valid explanation defeating an allegation of undervaluation is perverse or legally unsustainable.
3. Whether the impugned Tribunal order is rendered illegal or contrary to law by reason of the Explanation to the proviso to sub-section (2) of Section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (as contended).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Requirement to challenge self-assessment before demanding differential duty
Legal framework: The statutory scheme requires that an assessment (including self-assessment) stands unless modified by following the appropriate statutory proceedings (e.g., proceedings under Section 128 or other relevant provisions). A departmental demand for differential duty ordinarily presupposes that the original assessment has been lawfully questioned and modified in accordance with the Act; the department cannot, by issuance of a show cause/demand notice alone, bypass the statutory mechanism for challenging or modifying an assessment.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the Supreme Court's ruling establishing that the department cannot demand differential duty without first challenging the self-assessment and obtaining modification under the statutory remedies. The Court below followed that precedent rather than distinguishing or overruling it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found, on facts, that the department did not at any stage challenge or seek modification of the original self-assessed Bills of Entry; consequently, issuance of demand notices seeking differential duty was procedurally impermissible. The appellate Court accepted that the precedent's ratio squarely applies where no attempt was made to modify the self-assessment by invoking the statutory provisions for reassessment or rectification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that differential duty cannot be demanded without challenging self-assessment is treated as ratio - a binding rule of procedure under the statutory assessment scheme. Application of that rule to the present facts is ratio for the dispute decided.
Conclusion: The Tribunal correctly applied the legal principle that departmental demands for differential duty are unsustainable where the department has not challenged or modified the original self-assessment through the statutory remedies; the demand was therefore invalid on this ground.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Validity of Tribunal's factual conclusion on MRP differences and undervaluation
Legal framework: Allegation of undervaluation requires the department to establish that declared value was suppressed relative to the true transactional value; comparisons with contemporaneous imports may be relevant but must account for lawful reasons for price differences (e.g., place/port of importation, landing costs, local factors affecting MRP). Fact-finding by the Tribunal on valuation and commercial reasons for pricing differences is entitled to deference unless perverse.
Precedent treatment: No precedent was overruled or distinguished on the factual proposition; the Tribunal's reliance on commercial realities (different ports leading to legitimately different MRPs) is consistent with established principles permitting legitimate non-fraudulent explanations for price variance.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that identical goods imported from the same manufacturer but through different land ports were subject to different MRPs, and that factors such as place of importation, landing costs and local market considerations legitimately affect MRP. There was no evidence that goods bearing different MRPs were being sold at the same downstream price or that the importer had suppressed value. The appellate Court found the Tribunal's reasoning plausible and grounded in knowledge of how imports via different ports are treated, and therefore not perverse.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The factual conclusion that price differences between consignments imported through distinct ports can be legitimate and not evidence of undervaluation constitutes the operative ratio for the valuation issue in this appeal; observations about commercial factors are determinative rather than obiter.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's factual finding rejecting undervaluation on the ground of legitimate price variation between ports is sustainable, not perverse, and supports dismissal of the demand on valuation grounds.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Applicability of the Explanation to the proviso to sub-section (2) of Section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975
Legal framework: The Explanation to the proviso to sub-section (2) of Section 3 (as invoked) concerns interpretative nuances of valuation under the Customs Tariff Act. Any contention that the Explanation mandates a different outcome must show that statutory language compels a departure from the Tribunal's procedural or valuation conclusions.
Precedent treatment: The appeal's argument that the Tribunal's decision is illegal in view of the Explanation was considered but not accepted; the Court observed that the controlling precedent on self-assessment modification and the Tribunal's factual findings on MRP differences were dispositive, and that no legal error flowed from ignoring or misapplying the Explanation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found no demonstration that the Explanation to the proviso altered the requirement that self-assessment be challenged by the department before seeking differential duty, nor that it mandated an inference of undervaluation despite the absence of evidence of suppression. The Tribunal's dual grounds-procedural infirmity of the demand and plausible factual exculpation on MRP differences-rendered the Explanation inapplicable to alter the outcome.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's treatment of the Explanation is ratio in so far as it concludes that the Explanation does not negate the need for departmental challenge of self-assessment nor override credible factual findings on price differentials; any peripheral comments were obiter.
Conclusion: The Explanation to the proviso to sub-section (2) of Section 3 does not render the Tribunal's order illegal; the alleged statutory provision does not supply a basis to sustain the demand where the self-assessment was not challenged and where legitimate commercial reasons for price differences exist.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND OVERALL CONCLUSION
1. Issues 1 and 2 are inter-related: procedural infirmity (failure to challenge self-assessment) independently invalidates the demand, and the factual conclusion on MRP differences independently defeats the substantive allegation of undervaluation. Either ground is sufficient to sustain the Tribunal's order.
2. The Tribunal followed controlling precedent on the necessity to challenge self-assessment and reached a plausible factual conclusion on valuation; neither ground was shown to be perverse or contrary to law. Consequently, the Tribunal's dismissal of the demand is legally sustainable.
Evasion of additional duties of customs - undervaluation - cement from the same manufacturer in Bangladesh imported through Agartala, Land Customs Station (LCS) was having a higher MRP - Importer(respondent) claimed that impugned Bills of Entry duly which were self-assessed, were not challenged by the department - HELD THAT:- The judgment of the Supreme Court in ITC [2019 (9) TMI 802 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] specifically lays down that the self-assessment of the Bills of Entry by the importer has to be challenged by the department and it should be got modified under Section 128 or under other relevant provisions of the Act., if not the same has to be accepted by the department.
The learned Tribunal had correctly applied the said principle to the facts of the case as it is not the case of the appellant that it had challenged at any point of time the self-assessment of the Bills of Entry by the respondent - Moreover, the reasoning given in paragraph no. 09 of the impugned order is worthy of acceptance and is certainly plausible and based on the knowledge of the members of the Tribunal as to how imports coming through different ports are normally treated by the department itself. The reasoning given by the Tribunal cannot be said to be perverse. So there are no merit in this Appeal.
Also since value of this Appeal is very small i.e. of Rs. 73,000/-, it ought not to have been filed by the appellant.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the respondents are obligated to release imported tyres declared as off-the-road (OTR)/mining tyres that lack BIS marking and have been seized on suspicion of misdeclaration.
2. Whether the instruction F. No. 528/109/2011-STO(TU) dated 30th January, 2012 (issued under the Pneumatic Tyre and Tubes for Automotive Vehicle (Quality Control Order), 2009) is binding on the respondents and/or must be taken into account in deciding release of the goods.
3. Whether a demurrage waiver certificate ought to be issued under Regulation 6(1)(l) of the Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulation, 2009 in respect of the detained consignments.
4. Whether the "predominant user" test (for distinguishing OTR/mining tyres from road tyres) governs the classification and release decision and whether potential misuse on road affects entitlement to release or attracts penal consequences.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Release of seized imported tyres declared as OTR/mining tyres despite absence of BIS marking and allegation of misdeclaration
Legal framework: The Control Order (Pneumatic Tyre and Tubes for Automotive Vehicle (Quality Control Order), 2009) notified under the BIS Act requires certain tyres to conform to BIS standard 15636:2022 and bear the BIS mark. The respondents rely on powers under customs and enforcement to seize goods on suspicion of misdeclaration.
Precedent Treatment: The petitioner relied on the Goodyear precedent invoking the "predominant user" principle; the Court referenced that authority as submitted by counsel but did not engage in an extensive factual re-adjudication in the writ petition.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the factual contention that the imported tyres bore side-wall markings indicative of OTR use and were described by the importer as mining tyres with high ply rating suitable for off-road service. The respondents, however, point to absence of BIS marking and tests indicating suitability for on-road use up to speed category F. The Court declined to finally resolve the factual dispute on classification or misdeclaration in the writ jurisdiction. Instead, it directed administrative reconsideration of the petitioner's application in the light of the relevant instruction (see Issue 2), recognising the Department's duty to consider that instruction even if not strictly binding on the Court.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The directive to the administrative respondents to reconsider release is ratio - the Court's operative remedy. Detailed factual conclusions on whether misdeclaration occurred were not determined and remain obiter/left undecided for administrative proceedings.
Conclusions: The Court ordered the respondents to consider the petitioner's application for release of goods and to take a decision within four weeks, without prejudging the merits of seizure or classification; no final judicial determination on misdeclaration was made.
Issue 2 - Legal status and effect of instruction F. No. 528/109/2011-STO(TU) dated 30-01-2012 issued under the Control Order
Legal framework: The instruction was issued by the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), Central Board of Excise and Customs, and interprets application of tyre tread code markings for treating certain types of tyres as off-the-road.
Precedent Treatment: The Court observed that such executive instructions are not strictly binding on the Court as sources of law but are relevant administrative guidance for departmental decision-making.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that, while the instruction may not bind the Court as law, the Department cannot ignore the instruction when making administrative decisions on release; administrative authorities are obliged to take such circulars/instructions into account in considering consignment classification and release applications.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The proposition that the instruction is not binding on the Court but must be considered by the Department is ratio to the remedy ordered (remittal for administrative consideration). Any characterization of the instruction's legal weight beyond that (e.g., mandatory binding force on the Department) is obiter.
Conclusions: The respondents were directed to consider the petitioner's application afresh taking note of instruction F. No. 528/109/2011-STO(TU) and to communicate a decision within four weeks from communication of the order.
Issue 3 - Claim for issuance of demurrage waiver certificate under Regulation 6(1)(l) of the Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulation, 2009
Legal framework: Regulation 6(1)(l) provides for grant of demurrage waiver certificates by the appropriate authority in specified circumstances in customs/port custody.
Precedent Treatment: No specific binding precedent was applied; parties addressed entitlement and claimed substantial demurrage accrued.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court declined to decide entitlement to demurrage waiver in the writ, holding that determination of such waiver is for the appropriate administrative authority to decide. The Court's approach was to leave the claim to the competent authority rather than to grant or refuse relief in the exercise of judicial review in this petition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The instruction that the demurrage waiver claim is for the appropriate authority to decide is ratio to the Court's disposal of the petition. Any commentary on the merits of demurrage liability is obiter.
Conclusions: The appropriate authority was directed to consider and decide the petitioner's claim for issuance of demurrage waiver certificate; no judicial waiver was granted.
Issue 4 - Applicability of "predominant user" test and consequences of potential road use of tyres
Legal framework: The "predominant user" concept (as advanced from precedent) addresses classification of goods according to their principal intended use; secondary misuse may attract separate legal consequences under other statutes (e.g., Motor Vehicles Act) but does not necessarily alter classification for import/regulatory purposes.
Precedent Treatment: The petitioner relied on the Goodyear authority to underline that predominant user governs classification; the Court noted the submission but did not resolve classification on predominant user grounds in this writ.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the fact that a tyre might be capable of on-road use does not ipso facto change its predominant user if it is imported and marked for OTR/mining use; however, the Court did not adjudicate this contested factual and technical question and left it to the administrative process and/or testing and classification procedures to resolve.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Observations about the predominant user principle and potential separate penal consequences for misuse are obiter in so far as no final determination was made on these issues in the judgment. The operative direction to remand classification to the Department is ratio.
Conclusions: The Court recorded that potential misuse on road may attract consequences under other laws but held that such potential does not justify withholding administrative consideration; classification and any consequences were remitted for administrative decision in accordance with applicable instructions and regulations.
Overall Disposition and Directions
The Court directed administrative reconsideration of the petitioner's application for release of the consignments, requiring the respondents to take a decision within four weeks whilst taking note of instruction F. No. 528/109/2011-STO(TU). The claim for demurrage waiver was left to the appropriate authority to decide. No costs were awarded. The Court did not finally adjudicate the factual question of misdeclaration or the technical classification of the tyres.
Prayer for direction for release of goods - seeking direction upon the respondents to forthwith issue demurrage waiver certificate under 6(1)(l) of Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulation, 2009 - requirement of road tyre, to be in conformity with BIS standard 15636:2022 and should bear the BIS mark which is necessary under the Control Order - entitlement for benefit of the instruction being F. No.528/109/2011-STO(TU) dated 30th January, 2012 - HELD THAT:- tHE instruction appears to have been issued by the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), Central Board of Excise and Customs, New Delhi. Although, such instruction may not be binding on the Court, however, the Department cannot ignore such instruction. As such without going into the issue as to whether the petitioner is entitled to the benefit of the instruction for release of the goods, having regard to the petitioner’s application filed on 3rd August, 2025, the same can be considered by the respondents. As such, the respondents should consider such application by taking note of the instruction being no. F. No. 528/109/2011-STO(TU) dated 30th January, 2012.
Decision in this regard must be taken by the respondents within a period of four weeks from the date of communication of this order. So far as the claim for issuance of demurrage waiver certificate is concerned, I am of the view that such issue is also to be decided by the appropriate authority and the appropriate authority shall also take a decision on the same.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) may be permitted to proceed with sale/monetization of current assets (unsold inventory/units/flats) of the real estate project during the reverse Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (reverse CIRP) to generate funds for keeping the corporate debtor as a going concern and completing construction, notwithstanding pending non-revalidation of building plans/maps and other regulatory approvals.
2. Whether sale/monetization of unsold inventory can be permitted subject to claims of statutory/local authority dues and charges of secured financiers who assert first/second charges and exclusive hypothecation/escrow over receivables.
3. Whether the IRP may cancel/allot units or act on promoter communications effecting cancellation of allotments to homebuyers where homebuyers have lodged criminal/other complaints (EoW) and where IRP has given assurances about non-cancellation.
4. Whether, in light of factual developments (including non-revalidation of maps by statutory authority and pending proceedings before higher fora), the Tribunal should consider reverting the reverse CIRP and direct initiation/resumption of CIRP under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Permissibility of sale/monetization of unsold inventory during reverse CIRP absent revalidation of building plans/maps
Legal framework: The IBC mandates that the IRP/Resolution Professional preserve the corporate debtor as a going concern and may take steps for revival, consistent with directions issued by the Tribunal in the course of reverse CIRP orders. Regulatory permissions (e.g., map/building plan revalidation, RERA/NOIDA approvals, environmental clearance) are preconditions to lawful commencement/continuation of construction and thereby materially relevant to realization of sale proceeds and use of funds for completion.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on its prior directions (orders permitting construction subject to MoU and regulatory steps) and on general practice in insolvency matters (citing prior Tribunal order in another CIRP matter as persuasive practice for monitoring and permitting construction/monetisation under supervision). No precedent was overruled; existing directions were treated as operative but subject to compliance with statutory/regulatory conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined whether monetisation would achieve the stated purpose (completion of project). It found absence of revalidation of building plans/maps, lack of visibility on regulatory approvals and an ongoing judicial process (challenged High Court order pending before Supreme Court) rendered the objective of monetisation - i.e., utilization of receipts for construction - speculative and potentially futile. The Tribunal reasoned that monetisation leading to construction presupposes lawful ability to commence/continue construction; absent revalidation, construction may not legally proceed, making monetisation premature.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Sale/monetization of unsold inventory during reverse CIRP cannot be permitted where essential statutory/regulatory approvals (such as revalidation of maps/building plans) are not in place and there is no visibility of such approvals, because the purpose of monetisation (completion of the project/going concern) would be frustrated. Obiter - Observations on the IRP's proposed mechanism for allocation of proceeds among construction, statutory dues and secured financiers, and the IRP's representations about escrow arrangements, were noted but not accepted as sufficient in the absence of regulatory clearances.
Conclusion: The application seeking permission for sale/monetization of unsold units is dismissed at this stage for want of revalidation/visibility of regulatory approvals; monetisation cannot be authorized while the foundational legal impediment remains.
Issue 2 - Effect of statutory/local authority dues and secured financiers' charges on monetisation of receivables
Legal framework: Sale/monetization of assets during insolvency are subject to claims of secured creditors and statutory dues; first charge holders and local authorities assert priority per governing documents and law. Regulatory/local authority dues may be required to be paid as condition precedent to transfer/monetisation.
Precedent Treatment: Prior Tribunal directions contemplated mechanisms for utilization of funds (e.g., escrow, prescribed percentages for repayment) and allowed stakeholders to participate in monitoring; the present order treats such arrangements as conditional and subordinate to statutory/regulatory prerequisites.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that NOIDA expressed no objection to sale subject to payment of its dues at the time of sale. A second-charge financier asserted exclusive hypothecation/escrow of receivables and objection to monetisation without its consent. The Tribunal noted these competing claims but declined to permit monetisation because the primary impediment (non-revalidated maps and consequent inability to lawfully proceed with construction) made adjudication of allocation of proceeds academic at this stage. The Tribunal also noted prior statements given in other proceedings (e.g., assurances recorded before higher court) bearing on charge-holder conduct but held that such assurances did not suffice to override procedural/regulatory obstacles.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Monetisation cannot be authorized where statutory approvals are absent, even if local authority has conditionally no objection to sale subject to payment of dues, because payment and application of proceeds presuppose effective realization linked to lawful construction/transfer. Obiter - Directions about potential escrow mechanics and staged payments to secured financiers were discussed but not adopted as binding directions.
Conclusion: The presence of statutory/local authority dues and claims of secured financiers reinforces the impermissibility of monetisation at this stage, and such competing claims must be addressed only after regulatory impediments are cleared or in a properly constituted CIRP process if reverse CIRP is discontinued.
Issue 3 - Permissibility of unit cancellation/allotment changes by IRP/promoter where homebuyers have lodged complaints (EoW) and IRP's assurance
Legal framework: During insolvency proceedings, the moratorium and supervisory role of the IRP limit unilateral acts affecting allotments; the IRP's conduct must align with directions of the Tribunal and protection of financial creditors (homebuyers) as a class.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal referred to its earlier directions permitting construction under the MoU and preservation of moratorium; the IRP's engagements with homebuyers and statements were treated as significant procedural facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal recorded the IRP's statement that it will not cancel any units during pendency of the proceedings. Given that assurance, the Tribunal disposed of the homebuyers' application by recording that stance, thereby preventing unilateral cancellation on the basis of promoter communications. The Tribunal thus relied on the IRP's undertaking as an operative restraint.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where IRP gives a clear statement in Court not to cancel units during ongoing proceedings, the Tribunal will record such undertaking and dispose of related applications accordingly. Obiter - The email by the suspended promoter and its communication to the IRP were noted as background but did not alter the Tribunal's reliance on the IRP's undertaking.
Conclusion: The Tribunal disposed of the homebuyers' application by recording the IRP's representation that no unit cancellations would be undertaken during pendency; that representation governs conduct until further order.
Issue 4 - Whether reverse CIRP should be reversed and normal CIRP directed to proceed
Legal framework: Reverse CIRP initiated by Tribunal orders may be terminated and the standard CIRP process resumed where conditions justifying reverse CIRP fail (e.g., breach of MoU, failure to secure regulatory approvals, inability to keep corporate debtor as going concern). The Tribunal retains supervisory jurisdiction to revisit prior orders where circumstances change materially.
Precedent Treatment: Prior directions had expressly provided that in case of breach of the MoU the IRP/homebuyers could apply to terminate reverse CIRP and continue with CIRP. The Tribunal therefore treated the present factual matrix as a trigger for reconsideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found material change/continuing non-visibility concerning regulatory approvals and practical inability to advance the project under reverse CIRP. It concluded that these developments warranted reconsideration of whether reverse CIRP should continue. Hence, the Tribunal directed listing of the appeal for further hearing on the specific question of reversing the reverse CIRP and directing CIRP to proceed in accordance with law, inviting parties to address submissions on that point.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the foundational conditions for a reverse CIRP (including performance under MoU, regulatory approvals and reasonable prospect of project completion) are not met, the Tribunal may order reconsideration and potentially direct resumption of CIRP. Obiter - The scheduling direction to list the appeal for reconsideration is procedural and anticipatory of further adjudication.
Conclusion: The Tribunal ordered the matter to be listed for consideration of whether the reverse CIRP should be reversed and CIRP proceeded with, thereby leaving open the substantive decision pending further submissions and hearing.
Permission to proceed with sale/ monetization of current assets (unsold inventory like units/flats) in the sole real estate project of the Corporate Debtor namely “The Belvedere” - it is submitted that the amount which is to be received from sale of unsold units shall be utilised only for construction, 70% of the construction and 30% for meeting dues of NOIDA and Aditya Birla and other expenses - HELD THAT:- The fact of the matter is that as on date, the building plan of the project has not been revalidated, when the plan has not yet been revalidated, we fail to see any reason for permitting monetisation by sale of units. The purpose of sale of unsold units as pleaded by the IRP is completion of the project. It is further noticed that NOIDA in its reply to the I.A.4215/2025 has only stated that it has no objection in sale of the unsold units provided its dues are paid. NOIDA has not said anything about revalidation of the map. It is obvious that revalidation of the map was made subject matter of the Writ Petition by appellant by filing of Writ Petition 21238/2024 in the High Court of Allahabad, which were subsequent to the orders passed by this Tribunal in this appeal, where Tribunal had permitted the IRP to obtain the necessary permission and approval from the Competent Authority.
It is thus clear that there is no visibility regarding revalidation of the map of the project in question. When there is no visibility of the revalidation of the map permitting the IRP to sale the unsold units and utilized the amount for construction of the project is an exercise which may not even commence due to absence of revalidation of the map - thus as on date the prayers made in I.A. 4215/2025 cannot be granted.
Coming to the prayers made in I.A.7682/2024, the counsel for the IRP having already made a statement that IRP is not proceeding to cancel any units, the said application need to be disposed of recording the said statement.
Application disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant's contravention of Section 9(1)(b) and Section 9(1)(d) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 was established on the basis of the seized documents, statements recorded during investigation, and corroborative evidence despite retraction of the confession. (ii) Whether the penalty imposed for the proven contravention required interference and reduction.
Issue (i): Whether the appellant's contravention of Section 9(1)(b) and Section 9(1)(d) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 was established on the basis of the seized documents, statements recorded during investigation, and corroborative evidence despite retraction of the confession.
Analysis: The record showed search and seizure of cash and incriminating documents, recording of statements under the statutory power, and explanations given by the appellant regarding the coded entries and transactions. The seized documents, the appellant's statement, and the statements of co-noticees were treated as mutually corroborative and were relied upon to conclude that the transactions were hawala dealings undertaken on instructions of persons outside India. The retraction was not found to be supported by any satisfactory proof of coercion or undue influence, and the confession was treated as voluntary and truthful. On that basis, the evidentiary foundation for the contravention was held sufficient.
Conclusion: The contravention under Section 9(1)(b) and Section 9(1)(d) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 was upheld against the appellant.
Issue (ii): Whether the penalty imposed for the proven contravention required interference and reduction.
Analysis: While sustaining the finding of violation, the Tribunal took into account the age of the appellant, the long pendency of the proceedings, and the amount already deposited towards pre-deposit. It considered the circumstances relevant to proportionality of penalty and found that the originally imposed amount warranted modification.
Conclusion: The penalty was reduced from Rs. 20 lakhs to Rs. 5 lakhs, while the confiscation of Rs. 21.80 lakhs was maintained.
Final Conclusion: The finding of violation was sustained, but the monetary penalty was substantially reduced, resulting in only partial relief to the appellant.
Ratio Decidendi: A voluntary and truthful confession, if corroborated by surrounding materials and not shown to be the product of coercion, may be relied upon notwithstanding later retraction, and the penalty may be moderated on proportionality considerations even where the contravention is upheld.
Validity of Confessional statement recorded in the custody of the Enforcement Directorate - basis for conviction -Hawala transaction - violation of Section 9(1)(b) and 9(1)(d) - imposition of penalty -prove its case beyond doubt -engaged in receiving payments locally in India and making payments to various persons under the instructions and order of three Bangladeshi Nationals - HELD THAT:- In the instant case the reference of the retraction of the statement has been given without showing the reason and even to prove as to when the appellant retracted from his statement. The statements were not recorded during the custody of the appellant with the respondents, rather it was recorded after issuance of summons thus was made with freewill and without duress and coercion. The fact further remains that during the course of recording the statement, the appellant read the documents collected from him with the information of three Bangladeshi nationals and other four persons for commission of crime. The documents were containing the name of four persons along with telephone numbers and accordingly notices were issued to them. The statements of co-noticees have been relied to establish the case for commission of contravention of Section 9(1)(b) and 9(1)(d) of the Act of 1973.
In view of the law propounded by the Apex Court Central Bureau of Investigation and Ors. Vs. Mohd. Parvez Abdul Kayuum & Ors. [2019 (7) TMI 2070 - SUPREME COURT] we are unable to frame our order in reference to the judgement of the Calcutta High Court upholding the acquittal of the appellant for the reason that confessional statement was retracted and it was not corroborated by the other evidence while according to the law laid down by the Apex Court, confessional statement recorded with freewill needs no corroboration and can be taken basis for conviction. At this stage we may clarify that in the criminal case, the prosecution is required to prove its case beyond doubt while in the civil litigation, the standard of proof is different and is not required to be proved beyond doubt. We are dealing civil litigation against the appellant.
The appellant has not referred to his business activities of construction while it was referred in the trial. In absence of any material to show his involvement in business activities of construction, we are unable to accept the argument beyond the pleadings and proof in this case.
Thus, we do not find any error in the impugned order holding involvement of the appellant for contravention of Section 9(1)(b) and 9(1)(d) of the Act of 1973. The order passed by the authority below is upheld to that extent.
Quantum of penalty - The authority below has imposed penalty of Rs. 20 lakhs for contravention of Section 9(1)(b) and 9(1)(d) of the Act of 1973. The appellant is now at the age of 80 years as informed and otherwise deposited a sum of Rs. 5 lakhs to satisfy the condition of pre-deposit.
Accordingly, we cause interference in the impugned order in regard to the imposition of the penalty and is substituted by Rs. 5 Lakhs. So far as confiscation of the amount of Rs. 21.80 lakhs is concerned, we do not find any ground to cause interference in the impugned order and accordingly with substitution of the penalty, this appeal is disposed of.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the applicants are entitled to regular bail under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), having regard to the twin conditions in Section 45(1) of the PMLA.
2. Whether non-arrest/ selective non-arrest of a co-accused who allegedly played a graver role (the purported mastermind) disentitles the applicants from parity relief or, conversely, entitles them to bail.
3. Whether prolonged pre-trial incarceration and the absence of any prospect of a timely trial can justify grant of bail despite the stringent threshold under Section 45(1) of the PMLA.
4. Relevance of the applicants' cooperation (or lack thereof) with investigation and alleged obstruction/concealment to the bail enquiry.
5. Appropriate conditions necessary if bail is to be granted to safeguard investigation, prevent tampering, and ensure attendance.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of Section 45(1) PMLA and threshold for bail
Legal framework: Section 45(1) PMLA makes offences cognizable and non-bailable; release requires opportunity to Public Prosecutor and satisfaction that there are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty and will not commit offence while on bail.
Precedent Treatment: The Court recognized higher judicial guidance that the twin conditions restrict but do not abolish the right to bail and that the court need not probe guilt beyond a prima facie view based on available material. The special nature and gravity of money-laundering offences justifies stringent measures.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the statutory threshold as an indexing factor but reiterated that bail remains available where prima facie material does not sustain continued detention, and that the court's role is to form a reasonable view based on investigation material rather than weigh evidence as in trial.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 45(1) imposes a higher threshold; court must form a prima facie view based on the material available. Obiter - general observations on gravity of PMLA offences as supporting stringent provisions.
Conclusion: The PMLA threshold governs the bail enquiry but does not preclude bail when other compelling factors (parity, delay) are established on the record.
Issue 2 - Parity and selective non-arrest of a purported mastermind
Legal framework: Principle of parity permits similarly placed accused to seek equal treatment; selective/arbitrary prosecution can be relevant to bail.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on authorities recognizing that non-arrest of a co-accused who appears to occupy a graver role can be a significant factor in bail determination; prior decisions were held not to render non-arrest always irrelevant but to contextualize its weight.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the material, the applicants occupy penultimate rungs of the alleged laundering chain; a co-accused allegedly received a larger share of proceeds and was not arrested or, in some instances, not arraigned notwithstanding disclosures. The prosecution's explanation that non-arrest was due to cooperation was examined against the timeline of disclosures and arrests; the Court found the prosecution's selective arrest-pattern prima facie arbitrary.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where similarly placed co-accused who allegedly played equal or graver roles remain unarrested or unarraigned, parity can weigh in favour of bail. Obiter - caution that non-arrest is not per se determinative and depends on factual matrix and gravity of roles.
Conclusion: Parity and manifest arbitrariness in arrests/arraignment weigh in favour of granting bail to the applicants on a prima facie basis.
Issue 3 - Prolonged incarceration / impossibility of timely trial as ground for bail
Legal framework: Constitutional protections under Article 21 and jurisprudence holding that undue delay and absence of prospect for timely trial can override statutory bail bars; courts may grant bail where trial is unlikely to conclude within reasonable time and incarceration becomes disproportionate.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on higher court rulings that stringent statutory thresholds must yield where there is no reasonable prospect of trial concluding soon and where prolonged detention would offend fundamental rights; decisions in comparable special statutes were treated as analogues.
Interpretation and reasoning: Investigations are ongoing, cognizance has not occurred, there are a large number of witnesses and documents (over 1000), and significant time has already been spent in custody by applicants. Given the likely protracted timeline and the ordinary sentencing range under PMLA, continued detention would be excessive.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Undue delay and realistic impossibility of timely trial can justify bail notwithstanding Section 45(1) PMLA. Obiter - specifics on how to balance sentence range and incarceration duration.
Conclusion: The absence of a viable prospect of early trial conclusion and substantial pre-trial custody entitle the applicants to bail on constitutional grounds despite statutory stringency.
Issue 4 - Applicants' cooperation, alleged obstruction and its impact on bail
Legal framework: Cooperation with investigation and any deliberate obstruction (evading queries, concealing records, destroying evidence) are relevant to the court's satisfaction under Section 45(1)(ii) about likelihood to commit offence or impede inquiry.
Precedent Treatment: The Court acknowledged the prosecution's submissions that some accused cooperated while others did not; authorities were noted that such conduct is germane to bail assessments.
Interpretation and reasoning: The prosecution's assertion that the co-accused's cooperation justified non-arrest was examined in light of chronology; applicants contend relevant disclosures were made only after their arrest. The Court found that allegations of non-cooperation were contested and largely subjective; similarly, some individuals alleged to have facilitated mule accounts remain unarraigned/unarrested, undermining an absolute inference of non-cooperation justifying continued custody.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Evidence of deliberate obstruction can rebut bail; however, contested or equivocal claims of non-cooperation carry limited weight where balanced against parity and delay. Obiter - factual contest on timing and content of disclosures affects weight of the prosecution's claim.
Conclusion: The prosecution's assertions of non-cooperation do not, on the present record, preclude bail given competing factors; conditions can address risk of interference.
Issue 5 - Conditions to be imposed if bail granted
Legal framework: Courts may impose conditions reasonably necessary to ensure attendance, non-tampering, and cooperation with investigation when releasing accused on bail under stringent statutes.
Precedent Treatment: The Court followed established practice of imposing personal bond, sureties and restraints (no inducement/threat/tampering, no departure without permission, cooperation, disclosure of residence, communication with IO, attendance on court dates).
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the gravity of alleged offences but also the countervailing factors (parity, delay), the Court concluded bail should be allowed with tailored conditions to allay concerns of absconding or tampering and to secure investigative and trial interests.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Bail may be granted subject to stringent conditions designed to secure trial and investigation; obiter - illustrative list of specific conditions appropriate in the case.
Conclusion: Bail to applicants is appropriate subject to personal bond, sureties and conditions restraining tampering, prohibiting exit without court permission, mandating cooperation and attendance, and disclosure of contact details and residences.
Money Laundering - seeking grant of regular bail - proceeds of crime - applicants were actively involved in the layering of fraudulent funds - twin conditions in Section 45(1) of the PMLA satisfied or not - alleged accounts used as mule accounts - HELD THAT:- It is settled law that the Court, while considering the application for grant of bail, has to keep certain factors in mind, such as, whether there is a prima facie case or reasonable ground to believe that the accused has committed the offence; circumstances which are peculiar to the accused; likelihood of the offence being repeated; the nature and gravity of the accusation; severity of the punishment in the event of conviction; the danger of the accused absconding or fleeing if released on bail; reasonable apprehension of the witnesses being threatened; etc. However, at the same time, period of incarceration is also a relevant factor that cannot be overlooked.
It is settled law that even in offences under PMLA, bail is rule and jail is the exception and Section 45 of PMLA does not rewrite the norm and merely stipulates that bail is to be granted subject to satisfaction of the twin conditions. In the case of Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], the Hon’ble Apex Court had found that although the aforesaid twin conditions restrict the right of the accused to be granted bail, however, the same is reasonable as the bar has direct nexus with the objective of PMLA to combat the menace of money laundering. The Hon’ble Apex Court had also appreciated the gravity of such an offence necessitating stringent provisions under the PMLA.
Prima facie, from the allegations and the material on record, it appears that the applicants Ajay and Vipin are at the penultimate rung of the transaction while the accused Rohit is also alleged to be privy to the collection of proceeds of crime by the organised crime syndicate. Their role cannot be said to be graver than that of the said accused. Insofar as the applicant Rakesh is concerned, it is pertinent to note that as per the case of the respondent department that is borne out from the complaints, the funds received by the applicant Rakesh were transferred to various individuals/ entities, including the accused Rohit, and the crypto currency received from the said individuals used to be further transferred by the applicant Rakesh into private wallets. At best, the role of the applicant Rakesh can be stated to be similar to that of the accused Rohit. Despite the same, while the applicants have been arrested, the prosecution complaint (wherein the co-accused Rohit was arraigned as an accused) was filed on 25.01.2025 without arresting the said accused.
The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb [2021 (2) TMI 1212 - SUPREME COURT], while dealing with an application for bail under Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, has held that once it is obvious that a timely trial would not be possible, and the accused has suffered incarceration for a significant period of time, the courts would ordinarily be obligated to enlarge them on bail.
It is evident that despite the stringent requirements imposed on the accused under Section 45 of PMLA for the grant of bail, it has been established that these requirements do not preclude the grant of bail on the grounds of undue delay in the completion of the trial. Various courts have recognized that prolonged incarceration undermines the right to life and liberty, as has been guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, and therefore, conditional liberty must take precedence over the statutory restrictions under Section 45 of PMLA and override the bar therein - It is not just the period spent in incarceration but also the possibility of delayed trial that is to be seen by the Court. As the trial is yet to commence in the predicate/ scheduled offence and the matters are at a preliminary stage with the investigation still being in process, speedy trial in the present case does not seem to be a possibility. The applicants are stated to have no previous criminal involvements, and they are unlikely to commit any offence whilst on bail.
Thus, in the opinion of this Court, the applicants have made out a prima facie case for grant of bail on account of the ground of parity as well as due to there being no possibility of the trial concluding in the near future - appropriate conditions ought to be imposed to allay any apprehension of the applicants evading trial or influencing the witnesses.
The applicants are therefore directed to be released upon his furnishing a personal bond with two sureties of the like amount each to the satisfaction of learned trial court/Duty Magistrate, subject to satisfaction of terms and conditions imposed - bail application allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the petitioner is entitled to bail under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) when accused of an offence under Section 3 read with Section 4, given the alleged predicate/scheduled offences and claimed proceeds of crime.
2. Whether the alleged revenue loss and amounts calculated in ECIRs/addenda constitute "proceeds of crime" within the meaning of Section 2(1)(u) of the PMLA Act.
3. Whether weak or non-existent predicate offences, or the stage and likely duration of trial, justify relaxation of the rigours of Section 45 of the PMLA (the twin-conditions test) for grant of bail in harmony with Article 21 rights.
4. Whether statements recorded during custody or co-accused statements constitute substantive evidence against the petitioner for the purposes of bail consideration.
5. Whether parity with co-accused granted bail and other facts (completion of investigation/prosecution complaint filed, conduct of accused, custody duration) require grant of regular bail subject to conditions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Entitlement to bail under PMLA having regard to offences under Section 3/4
Legal framework: PMLA creates an independent offence under Section 3 (punishable under Section 4) which is conceptually linked to a scheduled offence and the existence of proceeds of crime. Section 45 prescribes twin conditions for bail - the Court must be satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not guilty and that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered jurisprudence recognising that offences under PMLA are independent in nature and that Section 45's conditions are mandatory but may be harmonized with constitutional protections, including Article 21, when appropriate.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that while the prosecution need not prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt at bail stage, the Court must form a prima facie view based on reasonable materials collected during investigation. The Court also noted that a person charged under PMLA need not necessarily be accused in the predicate offence; however, existence of a subsisting predicate offence is foundational to characterising proceeds of crime.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Court affirms that a prima facie assessment under Section 45 requires reasonable materials; the independent nature of PMLA offence does not dispense with the need for credible linkage to proceeds of crime. Obiter - observations on interplay with constitutional guarantees and balancing of Section 45 rigours.
Conclusion: On the facts (volume of evidence, stage of trial, custody period, and material deficiencies in predicate linkage discussed below), the Court found sufficient probability to relax the rigours of Section 45 and grant bail subject to conditions.
Issue 2 - Whether the ECIR/addenda amounts constitute "proceeds of crime" under Section 2(1)(u)
Legal framework: "Proceeds of crime" must be proceeds derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence; admissible and legally relevant material is required to quantify such proceeds.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on established principle that proceeds of crime must be founded on a subsisting predicate offence and admissible evidence; weak or purely speculative calculations cannot sustain characterization as proceeds of crime.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court scrutinised the basis of the contested figures (including an alleged revenue loss of Rs. 77.63 crore and a later figure of approx. Rs. 83.52 crore) and noted reliance on loose sheets recovered by the Income Tax Department and addenda to the ECIR. The Court pointed to temporal disconnects (resignation from directorship prior to alleged generation period), the nature and timing of FIR registrations, legal disputes including arbitration and pending civil/collection proceedings, and discrepancies between alleged sales and GST deposits. The Court accepted submissions that several FIRs included offences not scheduled under PMLA and that some predicate FIRs were quashed, stayed, or not yet proceeded to chargesheet, undermining the foundation for treating the impugned amounts as proceeds of crime.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - proceeds of crime must have a legally sustainable nexus with scheduled offences and be supported by admissible evidence; speculative or contradictory computations are insufficient. Obiter - detailed critique of specific investigative steps (mass inspections in short span, reliance on loose sheets) as indicia of weak prosecution material.
Conclusion: The Court found the linkage between the alleged amounts and proceeds of crime to be prima facie weak and not supported by reliable admissible materials, diminishing the prosecutorial case on the PMLA charge for bail-stage purposes.
Issue 3 - Effect of weak predicate offences, stage of trial and prolonged incarceration on Section 45 rigours
Legal framework: Section 45 sets a high threshold but courts must balance statutory rigour with constitutional rights, considering factors such as the stage of trial, number of witnesses, volume of material, and custody duration.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered authoritative rulings recognizing that prolonged pre-trial incarceration, the stage of proceedings, and the probability that trial will not conclude soon can warrant relaxation of statutory rigour and grant of bail subject to safeguards.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasised that trial preparation in the present matter involves 149 witnesses, 221 exhibits and voluminous records exceeding 13,283 pages, with trial yet to start - creating a realistic projection that conclusion is not near. The Court also weighed that several predicate FIRs lack live proceedings (chargesheets not filed, FIRs quashed or stayed) and noted the petitioner's custody period (about a year) relative to maximum sentence exposure (7 years). The petitioner's conduct (compliance with prior bail conditions, surrender in obedience to earlier orders) and absence of tampering or flight risk were factored into the balancing exercise.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the prosecution's case is prima facie weak on the predicate link and trial is likely protracted, the Court may relax the twin conditions of Section 45 and grant bail consistent with Article 21. Obiter - references to particular judicial dicta and nuanced balancing considerations.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that the rigours of Section 45 can be relaxed on these facts and that continued custody was not justified, meriting grant of bail with conditions.
Issue 4 - Use of custodial statements and co-accused statements at bail stage
Legal framework: Statements recorded during custody and statements of co-accused have limited probative value unless corroborated; their use must comply with evidentiary rules governing admissibility.
Precedent treatment: The Court acknowledged precedents limiting reliance on custodial confessions and co-accused assertions as substantive proof without independent corroboration, especially in bail determinations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the submission that such statements do not constitute conclusive evidence against the petitioner for the purposes of assessing bail and that they require cautious appraisal in the prima facie exercise under Section 45.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - custodial and co-accused statements cannot, by themselves, displace the need for reasonable materials showing guilt; they are of limited weight at bail stage. Obiter - procedural references as to specific paragraphs relied upon by parties.
Conclusion: The Court accorded limited weight to custodial/co-accused statements in the bail assessment and did not treat them as determinative.
Issue 5 - Parity, completion of investigation, and appropriate bail conditions
Legal framework: Grant of bail can be influenced by parity with co-accused, completion of investigation, conduct of accused, and imposition of conditional safeguards under relevant procedural provisions.
Precedent treatment: Courts have granted bail on parity and where prosecution delays or voluminous material make speedy trial improbable, subject to appropriate bail conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that a co-accused had been released on bail by a co-ordinate bench, investigation vis-à-vis the petitioner was complete and a prosecution complaint had been filed, and the petitioner satisfied the "tripod" considerations (not a flight risk, not likely to tamper with evidence, not likely to influence witnesses). Taking parity, conduct, and the realistic timeline for trial into account, the Court found bail appropriate with modest surety and conditions consistent with statutory provisions (including conditions under the relevant local procedural provision referenced in the record).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - parity and completion of investigation, coupled with custody duration and conduct, can legitimize grant of regular bail under PMLA with conditions. Obiter - specifics of local procedural provision cited for conditional release.
Conclusion: The Court directed release on bail on furnishing bond and sureties, subject to conditions, thereby relaxing Section 45 rigours consistent with constitutional guarantees and the facts of the case.
Money Laundering - illegal mining and selling sand without issuance of e-transit challans and causing revenue loss to the government - scheduled offences - proceeds of crime - reasonable grounds for believing as per section 45 of PMLA - HELD THAT:- This Court is only required to place its view based on probability on the basis of reasonable materials collected during the investigation. The words used in Section 45 of the PMLA are “reasonable grounds for believing” which means that the Court has to see only if there is a genuine case against the accused and the prosecution is not required to prove the charges beyond reasonable doubt, but simultaneously as discussed aforesaid certainly the right qua speedy trial is available to the petitioner having an overriding effect to rigors of statutory provisions as available under Section 45 of PMLA Act.
As in present case altogether 149 witnesses, 221 exhibits running into 13,283 pages to be examined during the trial, which is yet to start giving a clear cut projection that trial is not likely to conclude in near future, coupled with the fact as petitioner remains in custody since 19.09.2024 i.e., about one year against maximum sentence of 7 years, accordingly, above named petitioner, is directed to be released on bail in connection with Special Trial (PMLA) Case No. 06 of 2024 arising out of ECIR No. PTZO/14/2023 on furnishing bail bond of Rs. 10,000/- with two sureties of the like amount each to the satisfaction of learned Sessions Judge cum Special Judge (PMLA), Patna/concerned court, subject to the conditions as mentioned under Section 480(3) of the B.N.S.S.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Adjudicating Authority's confirmation of provisional attachment/seizure of property without issuing a notice of not less than thirty days to the person in whose name the property is shown violates section 8(1) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and principles of natural justice.
2. Whether the proviso to section 8(2) (opportunity to a person claiming the property where notice has been issued to another) can cure the failure to issue the statutory notice under section 8(1) when the seized property is shown in the name of the person who did not receive the notice.
3. Whether representation by certain partners/shareholders or counsel for related persons before the Adjudicating Authority can substitute for issuance of the statutory notice to the person in whose name the property is shown, without formal proof of authority.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Failure to issue statutory notice under section 8(1)
Legal framework: Section 8(1) mandates that on specified receipt of complaint/applications, if the Adjudicating Authority has reason to believe a person has committed an offence under section 3 or is in possession of proceeds of crime, it "may serve a notice of not less than thirty days" on such person calling upon him to indicate sources of income/assets and to show cause why properties should not be declared involved in money-laundering and confiscated. The provision includes provisos addressing notice where property is held on behalf of another or jointly.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial precedents were invoked in the text; the Tribunal assessed statutory text and procedural compliance directly.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal finds that the statement of seized properties explicitly identified the seized gold in the name of the affected person. Given that explicit identification, the Adjudicating Authority's failure to serve the statutory notice of not less than thirty days as mandated by section 8(1) is a clear procedural non-compliance. The statutory notice is intended to secure an opportunity to explain sources of acquisition and to adduce evidence before a finding is recorded under section 8(2). The omission therefore infringes both the statutory requirement and the principle of audi alteram partem.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The mandatory nature of issuing the section 8(1) notice where property is shown in the person's name; failure to do so vitiates the impugned confirmation of seizure and warrants interference and remand for fresh adjudication.
Conclusion: The Tribunal sets aside the part of the impugned order confirming retention of the seized property insofar as it was passed without serving the section 8(1) notice, and remands the matter for issuance of the notice and fresh adjudication.
Issue 2 - Applicability of proviso to section 8(2) as a cure for non-service of section 8(1) notice
Legal framework: Section 8(2) prescribes that after considering any reply and hearing the aggrieved person and the Director (or authorized officer), the Adjudicating Authority shall record a finding whether properties are involved in money-laundering. Its proviso requires that if property is claimed by a person other than the addressee of the notice, that person shall be given an opportunity of being heard.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents cited; Tribunal applied text and purposive construction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal distinguishes the proviso to section 8(2) as applicable where notice has been given to one person but the property is claimed by another; it does not operate to validate the omission of issuing the primary notice under section 8(1) to the person shown as the owner. The proviso presupposes service of the initial notice to some person; it cannot be retrofitted to justify non-service when the property is shown in the name of the person who received no notice. Hence the respondent's reliance on section 8(2) proviso cannot cure the statutory breach.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The proviso to section 8(2) cannot be invoked to excuse non-compliance with the mandatory notice requirement of section 8(1) where the property is identified in the name of the person who was not served.
Conclusion: The proviso to section 8(2) does not validate the adjudicatory process when section 8(1) notice was not served to the person in whose name the property was recorded; remand is required for proper notice and opportunity.
Issue 3 - Whether representation by partners/shareholders or counsel can substitute for statutory notice without formal authority
Legal framework: Procedural fairness and statutory notice obligations require notice to the person identified under section 8(1). Representation by others may be relevant but cannot replace service of statutory notice unless authority and procedural prerequisites are satisfied.
Precedent Treatment: No authority relied upon; analysis based on statutory text and fundamentals of agency/authority and natural justice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Adjudicating Authority's record indicates offers to permit partners/shareholders to apply under section 8(2) and instances where representatives appeared or were invited to file replies. The Tribunal observes that a private company's property shown in the company's name cannot be conclusively treated as having been effectively noticed by notice to individual partners/shareholders or by their oral participation unless formal proof of authority or board resolution is placed on record authorizing such representation. Allowing representation without demonstrating authority does not meet the specific requirement of serving the 30-day notice on the person named in the record. Reliance on partners'/shareholders' presence therefore does not rectify the statutory defect.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Representation by related persons or counsel without demonstrated authority does not substitute for compliance with section 8(1)'s notice requirement where the property is shown in the name of the entity/person who was not served.
Conclusion: The Adjudicating Authority could not lawfully proceed to confirm seizure based on informal or unverified representation; the matter requires remand for notice to the named person and fresh adjudication.
Remedial and consequential points
Legal framework and reasoning: In light of the statutory breach, the Tribunal orders remand to the Adjudicating Authority to issue the section 8(1) notice and conduct proceedings afresh, observing that any period of 180 days prescribed shall be counted from the date of service of the section 8(1) notice after receipt of the Tribunal's order. The Adjudicating Authority is directed to pass an independent order without being influenced by its earlier order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Remand with directions for fresh notice and independent adjudication; computing statutory timelines from fresh notice.
Conclusion: The impugned confirmation is interfered with and set aside insofar as it relates to the person in whose name the property was shown without serving the statutory notice; the case is remanded for compliance with section 8(1) and further proceedings strictly in accordance with law and fair hearing principles.
Notice under section 8(1) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 - Adjudication and opportunity of hearing under section 8(2) proviso - Principle of natural justice - Representation of a company by partners/directors without authority - Remand for fresh adjudication - Computation of 180-day period from service of notice
Notice under section 8(1) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 - Principle of natural justice - Remand for fresh adjudication - Impugned order confirming retention of seized gold set aside for failure to serve notice as required by section 8(1) PMLA; matter remanded to Adjudicating Authority for fresh notice and adjudication. - HELD THAT: - Section 8(1) mandates service of a notice of not less than thirty days on a person in respect of properties attached or seized, calling upon him to disclose source of income and to show cause why properties should not be declared involved in money-laundering. The Adjudicating Authority's order recorded the seized property in the name of the appellant (57.5 Kg of gold) but did not cause the statutorily required notice to the appellant. That omission amounted to non-compliance with the statutory mandate and a breach of the principle of natural justice. Consequently, interference with the impugned order was warranted and the matter was remanded to the Adjudicating Authority to issue notice under section 8(1) and proceed afresh in accordance with law. [Paras 8, 11, 14, 16]
Impugned order set aside insofar as it relates to the appellant; matter remanded for service of notice under section 8(1) and fresh adjudication.
Adjudication and opportunity of hearing under section 8(2) proviso - Principle of natural justice - Proviso to section 8(2) applies where property is claimed by a person other than the person to whom the notice was issued; it did not excuse the failure to issue notice to the appellant whose name appeared against the seized property. - HELD THAT: - The respondent relied on the proviso to section 8(2) to contend that an opportunity could be extended to persons claiming the property even if notice had been given to others. The Court held the proviso contemplates situations where notice is issued to one person but another claims the property; it does not permit omission of the primary statutory notice where the property is recorded in the name of the claimant. Since the seized property was shown in the appellant's name, the proviso was not a substitute for the mandatory notice under section 8(1). [Paras 9, 10, 11]
Proviso to section 8(2) inapplicable to excuse non-service of notice under section 8(1) to the appellant.
Representation of a company by partners/directors without authority - Principle of natural justice - Representation of the company by partners or a director without production of authority or board resolution did not cure the statutory requirement of issuing notice under section 8(1) to the company itself. - HELD THAT: - The record shows the Adjudicating Authority invited partners/shareholders to file an application under section 8(2) and was informed that partners declined to do so. The Court observed that asking individual partners or a director to represent a private company does not substitute for serving the statutory notice on the company unless their authority to represent the company is shown. Reliance on such representation cannot remedy the Adjudicating Authority's failure to comply with the statutory notice requirement. [Paras 12, 13, 14, 15]
The Adjudicating Authority could not rely on informal representation by partners/directors in lieu of serving the notice required under section 8(1).
Final Conclusion: Appeal allowed in part. The impugned order confirming retention of the seized articles insofar as it relates to the appellant is set aside and the matter is remanded to the Adjudicating Authority to serve notice under section 8(1) PMLA and to proceed with fresh adjudication; the period of 180 days shall be counted from service of that notice after receipt of this order.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether pre-show-cause consultation (pre-consultation) is mandatory before issuance of a show cause notice in cases where the demand of duty/service tax exceeds Rs. 50 lakhs, having regard to Section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994 and CBEC/CBIC Circulars dated 10 March 2017 and 19 November 2020.
2. Whether failure to comply with the pre-consultation requirement renders a subsequently issued show cause notice void or liable to be quashed.
3. Consequences of quashing show cause notices for non-compliance with the pre-consultation requirement, specifically the effect on limitation (time-bar) and whether the department may revive or re-issue notices without prejudice.
4. Whether circulars issued by the Board bind departmental officers and the extent to which decisions of various High Courts and the Supreme Court affect the binding nature or precedential value of the Master Circular requirement.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Mandatory character of pre-show-cause consultation
Legal framework: Section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994 (service tax) prescribes issuance of show cause notices but does not mention pre-consultation. CBEC/CBIC Master Circular dated 10 March 2017 and Circular dated 19 November 2020 require pre-show-cause consultation by the adjudicating authority prior to issuance of SCNs in cases involving demands exceeding Rs. 50 lakhs (except preventive/offence-related matters).
Precedent Treatment: Multiple High Court decisions (including those of Delhi, Gujarat, Madras and Bombay High Courts) have held the pre-consultation requirement to be mandatory in the statutory-administrative context; some other decisions at High Court level have taken contrary views or distinguished the applicability on facts. Supreme Court authorities (K.P. Varghese; Indian Oil; Arviva) establish that Board circulars bind the department.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reads the Master Circular and the clarificatory Circular as imposing a mandatory pre-consultative process for demands above the stated monetary threshold, subject to enumerated exceptions (fraud, collusion, etc.). The Court relies on the binding character of Board instructions on departmental officers as established by higher authority and values the pre-consultation as an instrument of trade facilitation, voluntary compliance and alternate dispute resolution. Conflicting single-judge decisions are examined and distinguished on grounds of failure to consider binding precedents or co-equal decisions; factually limited Supreme Court orders do not negate the mandatory tenor of the Circulars.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - pre-show-cause consultation is mandatory for demands above Rs. 50 lakhs (save stated exceptions) because Board Circulars bind the department and the Circulars expressly mandate consultation. Observations distinguishing certain authorities and factual analyses of other cases are largely obiter but supportive of the ratio.
Conclusion: The Court holds that the pre-consultation requirement contained in the Master Circular and the 2020 clarification is mandatory in the stipulated circumstances and non-compliance vitiates subsequent show cause notices, unless an exception applies (none pleaded).
Issue 2 - Effect of non-compliance: validity of show cause notices
Legal framework: Administrative instructions and master circulars which bind departmental officers; principles of natural justice and adjudicatory fairness; power of the writ court to quash orders made in breach of mandatory procedural requirements.
Precedent Treatment: High Courts (Delhi, Madras, Gujarat, Bombay) have quashed show cause notices issued without observing pre-consultation as mandated; some judgments refused relief where adequate or substantial compliance of procedural fairness was found on the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court finds admitted non-compliance (no pre-consultation issued) in the present matters and no argument by Revenue invoking exceptions. Given the mandatory instruction in the Circulars and the departmental binding nature, the show cause notices issued in breach are vitiated. The Court emphasizes that pre-consultation is not a mere formality but a meaningful opportunity that may avert or narrow disputes.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - show cause notices issued without required pre-consultation are liable to be quashed. Observations on the policy rationale and desirability of pre-consultation are explanatory (obiter) but underscore the mandatory finding.
Conclusion: The impugned show cause notices are quashed for failure to follow the pre-consultation requirement.
Issue 3 - Consequences of quashing: limitation, revival and moulding of relief
Legal framework: Powers of the High Court under Article 226 to mould relief so as to prevent unfair advantage; principles from precedents allowing courts to remit matters to appropriate authorities after quashing for procedural defects without causing prejudice on limitation; specific supervisory guidance on exclusion of periods.
Precedent Treatment: Courts (including Gujarat High Court in Dharamshil Agencies) have directed re-initiation of pre-consultation and excluded certain periods from limitation, while requiring parties not to take unfair advantage of the court's intervention.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognizes competing equities: protecting assessee from reopened stale demands and protecting Revenue from prejudice caused by court-ordered stays or mandated pre-consultation. The Court therefore quashes the SCNs but grants the department a structured opportunity to issue pre-consultation notices and, depending on outcome, fresh SCNs. The Court excludes the period from the date interim relief was granted until fresh SCNs are issued from computation of limitation, and allows other statutory exclusions to apply. The Court rejects the argument that a pending SLP on limited issues robs lower-court precedents of force; it finds the SLP concerned limitation implications, not the mandatory character of pre-consultation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - when SCNs are quashed for lack of mandatory pre-consultation, the Court may direct a fresh pre-consultation and exclude relevant periods from limitation so as to avoid unfair advantage or prejudice. Observations on specific timelines to be followed are operative for the matters at hand (ratio for remedial order) and illustrative for similar situations.
Conclusion: Relief is moulded: SCNs set aside; Revenue permitted to issue pre-consultation notices within four weeks; assessees to reply within two weeks; pre-consultation to be completed within six weeks thereafter; fresh SCNs may follow; period from 30 January 2023 until fresh SCNs are issued (within timelines) is excluded from limitation, without prejudice to other statutory exclusions.
Issue 4 - Binding nature of Board circulars and precedential interplay
Legal framework: Doctrine that Board circulars/instructions bind departmental officers (as laid down by higher courts); distinction between binding effect on the Executive and non-binding nature on Courts; scope of judicial review where Executive deviates from Board instructions.
Precedent Treatment: Supreme Court authorities confirm that Board instructions bind the department. Some High Court decisions have held otherwise on specific facts or limited reasoning, but these do not overrule higher precedent.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reiterates that Circulars of the CBEC/CBIC bind the department and that prior High Court decisions holding the pre-consultation mandatory are consistent with that principle. Single-judge or fact-specific decisions that decline to follow the Master Circular are distinguished on grounds of failure to reconcile with binding Supreme Court authority or on peculiar facts that show substantial compliance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Board circulars are binding on the department; where the circular mandates pre-consultation, departmental officers must comply absent a recognized exception. Distinctions drawn between conflicting High Court decisions are explanatory (obiter) but serve to uphold coherence with higher authority.
Conclusion: The Master Circular and the clarificatory Circular bind the department; conflicting or contrary High Court decisions do not displace the mandatory requirement where consistent with Supreme Court precedents and absent factual exceptions.
Violation of principles of natural justice - SCN raising demand of service tax issued to the Petitioners are not preceded by pre consultation which is mandatory as per circular issued by the Central Board of Excise and Customs - pre-consultation notice would be mandatory or not - HELD THAT:- Section 73 of the Finance Act, 1994, does not refer to the issue of any pre-consultation notice. However, the Central Board of Excise and Customs, New Delhi (CBEC) issued Circular No. 1053/02/2017-Cx-dated 10 March 2017 [Master Circular] consolidating the Circulars issued from time to time regarding show cause notices, adjudication and recovery proceedings.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of K. P. Varghese Vs Income Tax Officer, Ernakulam And Anr. [1981 (9) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT], Commissioner of Customs, Calcutta And Ors. Vs Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd. And Anr. [2004 (2) TMI 66 - SUPREME COURT], Union of India And Ors. Vs Arviva Industries India Limited And Ors. [2007 (1) TMI 6 - SUPREME COURT] has held that Circulars issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (“CBDT”) or the CBEC are binding upon the department.
Another Division Bench of the Delhi High Court in the case of Back Office IT Solutions Pvt. Ltd. Vs Union of India [2021 (4) TMI 520 - DELHI HIGH COURT] held that pre-consultation before issuance of a show cause notice was mandatory and could not be deviated from, unless the case fell within the two exceptions provided in the Circulars.
The requirement of a pre-consultative process cannot be dismissed as some empty formality. The master circular and the Circular of 19 November 2020 style this requirement as mandatory in cases where the tax demand exceeds Rs 50 lakhs, unless, of course, the case falls in any of the exceptions. Such circulars bind the Department. Apart from its binding character, we cannot ignore that such a requirement has been introduced as an important step towards trade facilitation and to promote necessary compliance, thereby reducing the need for issuing show-cause notices in every case - Accordingly, a case is made out to quash the impugned show cause notices because, admittedly, such show cause notices were issued without adopting the pre-consultation process mandated by the Master Circulars dated March 10, 2017, and November 19, 2020. No arguments were made on behalf of the Revenue to attract any of the exceptions provided in the Circulars.
The impugned show cause notices are hereby quashed and set aside - The Revenue is given the opportunity to carry out the pre-consultative process by issuing a pre-consultation notice within four weeks from the date this order is uploaded.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether input service tax/CENVAT credit distributed by registered Input Service Distributors (ISDs) is eligible at the manufacturing unit where there is no specific finding or dispute against the ISDs regarding the propriety of credit availed and distributed.
2. Whether services listed in the impugned order (including repairs & maintenance, advertising, telecommunication, manpower supply, erection/commissioning, business auxiliary services, technical consultancy, training, professional services, banking & financial services, cable, accommodation, insurance, civil works, printing/designing, finance lease charges, GTA/cargo handling, sponsorship, reverse auction, travel, generator hiring, cleaning, forex, etc.) qualify as "input services" used "directly or indirectly, in or in relation to manufacture and clearance of final products" under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.
3. Whether denial of credit at the manufacturing unit is sustainable where the show cause notice contains only vague/general allegations without service-specific findings or proof of non-compliance with distribution rules (Rule 7 CCR, 2004).
4. Whether interest and penalties can be levied where the disputed distributed credit has not been shown to have been utilized and where there is no finding against the ISD distributors.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 1. Eligibility of ISD-distributed credit absent challenge to ISDs
Legal framework: CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 - definition of "input service" (Rule 2(1) / relevant definitions) and Rule 3 (eligibility) read with Rule 7 (distribution by ISD); statutory scheme contemplates registration of ISDs, filing of returns and audit/verification by jurisdictional authorities.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal's prior orders in the appellant's own matters and other decisions have recognized that services integrally connected or indirectly used in relation to manufacture are eligible; larger bench precedent (referenced) supports broad interpretation where services are integrally connected to output.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where ISDs are registered, declare credits in periodical returns and have not been subjected to any adjudication, audit-finding or specific allegation of impropriety by authorities, the departmental machinery cannot ignore those facts and deny credit at the manufacturing unit on vague allegations. The statutory mechanism places primary responsibility and exposure on the ISD's compliance and on the department to challenge the ISD; mere denial at the recipient end without service-specific findings is unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - denial of ISD-distributed credit at recipient unit is impermissible in absence of any adverse finding against the ISD or non-compliance with Rule 7; Obiter - observations on administrative practice of ISD returns and audits that inform but do not expand statutory text.
Conclusions: Credit distributed by ISDs must be upheld at recipient manufacturing unit unless the department specifically disputes the ISD's entitlement or distribution under Rule 7 or produces service-specific evidence of ineligibility.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 2. Eligibility of the listed categories of services as "input services"
Legal framework: Definition of "input service" under CENVAT Credit Rules includes services used "directly or indirectly, in or in relation to manufacture of final products and clearance of final products upto the place of removal." Exclusions (e.g., works contract portion relating to civil structure) read narrowly and contextually.
Precedent treatment: The Court/Tribunal has in prior decisions (including the appellant's earlier favorable orders) held a wide range of services - including telecommunication, software/IT services, advertising (for non-product publicity such as tenders/recruitment), banking & financial charges, insurance, printing, manpower supply, erection/installation of plant/equipment (servers, generators, UPS), GTA/transportation to place of removal, cargo handling/CHA, storage/warehousing (as incident to clearance), professional/consultancy services, training for operational staff, and certain civil repair/renovation - to be eligible where they are used directly or indirectly in relation to manufacture/clearance.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applies the inclusive phraseology of the statutory definition, recognizing that services which support manufacturing operations, facilitate manufacture/clearance, or are essential for business operations that bear on production/output qualify as input services. Exclusions are applied only where services plainly fall beyond the scope (e.g., works contract portion for erection of civil structures used to set up a factory), and where the record establishes such exclusion. Vague or generalized denials that do not identify service-specific nexus or misuse are inadequate.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - services that are used directly or indirectly in or in relation to manufacture and clearance (including administrative/support services that facilitate production/clearance) qualify as input services; Tribunal decisions applying this interpretation to the listed service categories are treated as binding on the facts. Obiter - commentary distinguishing specific sub-categories when facts would indicate primary non-nexus (not present here).
Conclusions: The impugned list of disallowed services, on the record before the adjudicating authority, are correctly characterized as eligible input services where the appellant demonstrated their use in relation to manufacture/clearance and prior appellate findings in the appellant's own cases supported eligibility; therefore denial is unsustainable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 3. Sufficiency of show cause notice and requirement of service-specific findings
Legal framework: Principles of reasoned adjudication require that show cause notices and orders specify allegations with sufficient particularity so that the recipient may meet them; denial of credit must be supported by findings of fact and application of law to particulars.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal has set aside orders based on vague, general allegations where specific proof or findings as to particular services or non-compliance were absent; earlier appellate orders in the same factual matrix were relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The impugned order's generalized assertion that services were not used "directly or indirectly, in or in relation to manufacture" without specific findings on individual services or evidence that ISDs were non-compliant fails to meet minimum standards of adjudicatory specificity. Where the departmental case lacks granularity and the ISDs' distributions were not challenged, the denial cannot stand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - adjudicatory orders denying credit must record service-wise findings or documentary basis; general conclusions are inadequate. Obiter - statements on administrative expectation of record-keeping and proof standards.
Conclusions: The impugned order is vitiated for lack of specific, service-wise findings and therefore cannot be sustained.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 4. Liability for interest and penalties where disputed credit remains undistributed/not utilized and no adverse finding against ISD
Legal framework: Levy of interest and penalty under central excise/service tax/CENVAT regime hinges on adjudicated determination of wrong availment/utilization; statutory provisions condition interest and penalty on misuse/short payment and utilization.
Precedent treatment: Where credit is not shown to have been utilized or where denial is based on vague allegations, tribunals have declined to sustain interest and penalty demands; prior appellate decisions in the matter treated consequential relief accordingly.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the primary disallowance itself is unsustainable for the reasons above, and in the absence of any finding that the credit was utilized in breach of law or that ISDs improperly availed/distributed credit, imposition of interest and penalties cannot be sustained. The burden to show utilization or culpable conduct rests on the revenue, which was not discharged.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - interest and penalty cannot be sustained where the foundational demand for credit recovery is set aside due to lack of specific findings; Obiter - observations on interplay of utilization records and penalty assessment.
Conclusions: Interest and penalties linked to the disallowed credits are not sustainable where the disallowance itself is quashed for lack of specific findings and absence of challenge to ISDs; appellant entitled to consequential relief.
FINAL CONCLUSION (COLLECTIVE RATIO)
Where registered ISDs have availed and distributed credit by following the statutory distribution mechanism and there is no specific adjudicated dispute or adverse finding against the ISDs, and where the show cause and orders contain only vague/general allegations without service-specific findings or proof of non-nexus or misuse, the denial of CENVAT/input service credit at the recipient manufacturing unit is unsustainable. The broad inclusive statutory definition of "input service" encompasses the listed categories where they are shown to be used directly or indirectly in or in relation to manufacture and clearance; consequential demands for interest and penalties tied to such unsupported disallowances cannot stand.
CENVAT Credit availed by the appellant - credit availed on the basis of invoices issued by their various other offices, which are registered as Input Service Distributors (ISD) denied - HELD THAT:- The impugned order pertains to the period August 2014 to May 2015. Similar input credits taken during the earlier period Sep 2013 to July 2014 have already ben decided in the appellants favour in the appellants case [2024 (7) TMI 683 - CESTAT CHENNAI] where it was held that 'We find that all the services are eligible input services. The credit cannot be denied on such vague allegations at the end of the manufacturing unit without disputing the credit availed by the input service distributor. For these reasons we find that the impugned order cannot sustain.'
For the subsequent period viz., April 2016 to June 2017 also similar input credits have been allowed by the First Appellate Authority vide Order in Appeal NO. 12/2022 dated 30.03.2022. It has not been informed by either of the parties that the said orders have been varied or set aside or are pending in appeal. This being so the impugned order merits to be set aside.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Circular No. 1022/10/2016-CX dated 06.04.2016 could be applied retrospectively to sustain demands of central excise duty for periods prior to its issuance.
2. Whether the impugned products (ACE, BLOOM F, Totoroot, Biostar Plus, Totozyme) were correctly classified under Chapter/Headings 38.08/3824 (Plant Growth Regulators / micronutrient mixtures) or should properly be classified under Chapter 31 (various fertilizer headings), applying relevant tariff notes and the "essential character" test.
3. Whether demands, interest and penalties (including personal penalty under Rule 26(1) read with Section 174) were sustainable in absence of mens rea/wilful suppression.
4. Whether proceedings were vitiated by denial of natural justice for non-supply of relied-upon test reports and non-speaking adjudication.
5. Whether amounts paid under protest during investigation are refundable and subject to unjust enrichment test.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Retrospective application of Circular No. 1022/10/2016-CX (2016 Circular)
Legal framework: Administrative/circular guidance may clarify classification but cannot ordinarily be applied retrospectively to create or enlarge tax liability where disputes existed; retrospective application requires clear enabling principle and fairness considerations.
Precedent treatment: Followed - decisions cited include Karnataka Agro Chemicals (Supreme Court), Aries Agrovet (Tribunal), Suchitra Components (SC), Nakamichi Techo (Tri-Del.), which held clarificatory circulars cannot be applied retrospectively to impose past liabilities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The 2016 Circular acknowledged classification of micronutrients and PGRs was a long-standing disputed area and expressly rescinded prior circulars while providing new guidelines. Because it resolves an ongoing controversy rather than supplying purely declaratory clarification of an unambiguous rule, applying it to past clearances amounts to retroactive imposition of liability. The adjudicating authority applied the 2016 Circular to periods 2012-13 to 2016-17; the Tribunal found such retrospective application legally impermissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - clarificatory circulars that change administrative stance on disputed classification cannot be relied upon to retrospectively impose duties for earlier periods absent clear statutory mandate; reliance on the cited Supreme Court and Tribunal precedents forms binding ratio for this context.
Conclusion: The demands confirmed by applying the 2016 Circular retrospectively are not sustainable and are set aside; consequential interest and penalties founded on those demands also fall.
Issue 2 - Classification of products (ACE, BLOOM F, Totoroot, Biostar Plus, Totozyme)
Legal framework: Classification governed by Central Excise Tariff headings (notably CETH 31.05, 31.01, 31.03, 38.08), General Rules of Interpretation (essential character test), Fertiliser Control Order (FCO) schedules and HSN/explanatory notes distinguishing fertilisers (nutrients) from plant growth regulators (organic compounds other than nutrients that affect physiological processes).
Precedent treatment: Followed and applied - Karnataka Agro Chemicals, Northern Minerals Ltd. (Tri-Del.), Jayashree Rasayan (Tribunal), Leeds Kem (Tri.), Aries Agrovet, KPR Fertilizers (Tri. Hyd.) - holdings emphasizing essential character, market perception, presence of N/P/K as criteria, and that mere presence of auxins or hormonal traces does not convert a nutrient into a PGR.
Interpretation and reasoning - ACE, BLOOM F, Totoroot:
- The products are formulated primarily as micronutrient preparations or bio-fertiliser-based promoters containing nutrients (e.g., Zn, B, Fe, humic substances) whose essential character is nutritional support rather than hormonal regulation.
- Under the essential character test (GRI), incidental or negligible auxin-like or organic extracts do not convert a nutrient preparation into a PGR; market evidence (dealer certificates, invoices) supports classification as fertilisers; test reports relied upon by adjudicating authority were inconclusive on effective regulatory concentrations.
Interpretation and reasoning - Biostar Plus:
- Test reports were incomplete and laboratory not equipped to test bio-fertilisers; the report recommended further agricultural institute testing which was not done. Product composition (humic acid, humus, potassium humate, dolomite/bentonite carrier) yields essential character of a bio-fertiliser (Heading 3101), not a micronutrient mixture under 3824. FCO Schedule 1 Part-A Sl.1(f) micronutrient list does not include the constituents as relied upon by revenue.
Interpretation and reasoning - Totozyme:
- Dominant ingredient (super potassium humate) is a recognised bio-fertiliser; incomplete/inconclusive testing and lack of market verification render the adjudicating classification under Heading 3103 unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a product's predominant ingredient confers nutritional function and market usage shows it as a fertiliser, classification under Chapter 31 is appropriate; mere incidental presence of hormone-like substances or organic extracts does not reclassify the product as a plant growth regulator under Chapter 38.08. The Tribunal's application of essential character and reliance on FCO and precedent is ratio.
Conclusion: ACE, BLOOM F, Totoroot, Biostar Plus and Totozyme are properly classifiable under Chapter 31 (respective headings 3105/3101/3103 as applicable) and not under Chapter 38.08/3824; therefore classifications in the impugned orders are unsustainable on merits (subject to non-retrospectivity caveat in Issue 1).
Issue 3 - Penalty, interest and personal penalty (mens rea / wilful suppression)
Legal framework: Imposition of penalty under Section 11AC and personal penalty under Rule 26(1) requires establishment of culpable mens rea or deliberate suppression; extended period/penalty requires proof of willful suppression (per Supreme Court authorities like Uniflex Cables and other cited decisions).
Precedent treatment: Followed - Uniflex Cables, Padmini Products, Cosmic Dye Chemical, Uniworth Textile decisions requiring mens rea for penalty and restricting extended limitation absent willful suppression.
Interpretation and reasoning: Classification dispute was genuine and long-standing; appellants acted under bona fide belief and industry practice; no cogent evidence of deliberate evasion or suppression was adduced. Because substantive demands themselves were set aside for being based on retrospective application of the 2016 Circular (Issue 1) and classification on the merits favored appellants (Issue 2), imposition of penalty and interest is not sustainable. Personal penalty on the Managing Director lacked proof of mens rea and is set aside.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties cannot be imposed where the case is an interpretational dispute without evidence of deliberate suppression; personal penalty requires positive evidence of mens rea.
Conclusion: Interest and penalties (including personal penalty) are set aside for lack of mens rea and because underlying demands are unsustainable.
Issue 4 - Natural justice / non-supply of relied-upon documents and non-speaking order
Legal framework: Adjudicatory process must be quasi-judicial, speaking and based on disclosed evidence; denial of documents relied upon vitiates adjudication; adjudicating authority must apply independent mind and not merely echo the show cause notice.
Precedent treatment: Reliance on Mohan Lal Capoor and Ballarpur Industries principles that non-speaking mechanical orders and introduction of new grounds without notice are unsustainable.
Interpretation and reasoning: Several test reports were not furnished in full; key test report recommended further testing which was not undertaken and was nevertheless relied upon. The impugned orders reproduced SCN allegations verbatim and failed to address appellant's substantive rebuttals and documentary market evidence; such non-speaking treatment contributes to invalidity of adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - failure to disclose relied-upon documents and issuance of non-speaking orders constitutes procedural infirmity invalidating adjudication; here this supports setting aside orders on merits and procedural grounds.
Conclusion: Procedural defects (non-disclosure and non-speaking adjudication) further weigh against sustaining the impugned orders.
Issue 5 - Refund of amounts paid under protest and unjust enrichment
Legal framework: Amounts deposited under protest during investigation can be refundable when demands are set aside; refunds subject to verification of unjust enrichment principles as per law.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the demands themselves are found unsustainable, sums paid during investigation are treated as deposits and liable for refund; however, the entitlement to refund is subject to verification on the issue of unjust enrichment before sanction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - deposits made under protest are refundable where demands are quashed, but refund is conditional upon unjust enrichment enquiry.
Conclusion: Amounts paid under protest are to be refunded, subject to the department's unjust enrichment verification in accordance with law.
Misclassification of products as fertilizers instead of under Chapters 28/29/38 as Micronutrients, Multi-micronutrients, Plant Growth Regulators or Fungicides - Suppression of facts by not obtaining registration - Misdeclaration of specific products - Non-maintenance of excise records for the earlier period - Intent to evade payment of duty - time limitation - penalty and interest - denial of natural justice - refund of amount paid under protest.
Misclassification of products such as ACE, BLOOM F, Totoroot, Biostar Plus and Totozyme manufactured by the appellants - HELD THAT:- The classification of micronutrients and Plant Growth Regulators is a dispute going on many years. To resolve the long-standing disputes, Board has issued the Circular dated 06.04.2016. We observe that the 2016 Circular expressly rescinded earlier Circulars and introduced new guidelines. It admitted classification of micronutrients remained a disputed area until 2016. Thus, we are of the view that the said Circular can be applied prospectively. In the impugned orders, it is found that the Ld. adjudicating authority has applied this Circular retrospectively for the past period and confirmed the demand of central excise duty for the period from 2012-13 to 2016-17, which is legally not permissible.
The 2016 Circular cannot be applied to demand duty retrospectively. Accordingly, the demands of central excise duty confirmed in the impugned orders by applying the 2016 Circular retrospectively, are not sustainable. Thus, the demands confirmed in the impugned orders are liable to be set aside on this ground itself - Bio fertilisers and micronutrients used as fertilizers are classifiable under the CETH 3105, whereas, Plant Growth Regulators are classifiable under the CETH 3808.
Classification of the product ‘ACE’ - HELD THAT:- ‘ACE’ is essentially a micronutrient preparation containing trace elements such as Zinc, Boron, and Iron, intended to supplement soil fertility and correct deficiencies. These are nutrients, not regulators. As per the Fertiliser Control Order (FCO), micronutrients fall within the ambit of fertilisers, not PGRs - the classification of the product ACE under Chapter 31 is proper. Applying the ‘essential character’ test under the General Interpretative Rules, ACE derives its essential character from the nutrient content, not from incidental traces of plant growth substances. The test report relied upon was inconclusive and did not establish the presence of effective concentrations of hormones or regulators - ACE is appropriately classifiable under the Heading 3105.
Classification of the product ‘BLOOM F’ - HELD THAT:- The said BLOOM F is formulated with nutrients and organic substances that enhance flowering. It is a growth promoter that aids natural physiological processes and not a regulator that alters them. The essential function of BLOOM F is nutritional support. The presence of natural plant extracts or auxin-like substances in negligible amounts does not change its character into a regulator. Market evidence shows BLOOM F is perceived as a fertiliser supplement to enhance flowering, not a PGR. Dealer certificates confirm its use in agriculture as a promoter. It is pertinent to refer to the decision in the case of Northern Minerals Ltd. v. CCE, [2001 (5) TMI 74 - CEGAT, COURT NO. III, NEW DELHI], wherein it was held that mere presence of auxins does not make a product a PGR. Similarly, in Jayashree Rasayan Udyog Ltd. v. CCE [2015 (10) TMI 1777 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], the Tribunal distinguished between growth promoters and growth regulators. Therefore, we find that BLOOM F is appropriately classifiable under the Heading 3105.
Classification of the product ‘Totoroot’ - HELD THAT:- Totoroot is a bio-fertiliser-based product promoting root initiation and growth. It aids the natural processes of root development, without altering, inhibiting, or regulating plant physiology. It is observed that the Ld. adjudicating authority has equated promotion with regulation, which is legally incorrect. A Plant Growth Promoter (PGP) like Totoroot supports plant processes; a PGR alters or regulates them - reference made to the decision in Northern Minerals Ltd. v. CCE [2001 (5) TMI 74 - CEGAT, COURT NO. III, NEW DELHI] which has held that mere presence of auxins does not classify a product as a PGR. In the case of Leeds Kem v. CCE [2001 (1) TMI 314 - CEGAT, MUMBAI], it has been held that the essential character of a product governs classification, not incidental presence of chemicals. In the case of Jayashree Rasayan Udyog Ltd. v. CCE, [2015 (10) TMI 1777 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], the Tribunal has distinguished growth promoters from regulators - there are no merit in the classification adopted by the ld. adjudicating authority in this regard.
Classification of the product ‘Biostar Plus’ - HELD THAT:- The Test report described Biostar Plus as: 'an organic material based on Carboxylic Acid functional group coated/treated on inorganic substance (Carbonate, Calcium, Magnesium, Iron) The organic base is Humic Acid and Humus, derived from biodegraded organic matter. Carrier is Dolomite/Bentonite granules, used widely in the bio-fertilizer industry. Insignificant traces of Ca, Mg, Fe are inherent in the carrier material, not deliberately added - the certificates from distributors/dealers submitted during adjudication show Biostar Plus is marketed and used as a bio-fertilizer. This commercial understanding supports Heading 3101. The adjudicating authority ignored these documents, rendering the order non-speaking and violative of natural justice - On going through the Certificates obtained from the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Govt. of India, New-Delhi and Deputy Director of Agriculture (Manures and Fertilizers), Govt. of West Bengal which indicate that the combination clearly fell in the category of bio-stimulant. Moreover, no further tests were conducted at agricultural research institutes as recommended and thus, reliance on such a report is not proper. Thus, there are merit in the classification of Biostar Plus under Heading 3101.
Classification of the product ‘Totozyme’ - HELD THAT:- There are force in the appellant’s submission that Super Potassium Humate is the main and dominant ingredient of the product, which is a well-known Bio fertilizer, and accordingly, the product ought to have been classified as bio-fertiliser under heading no 3101. It is also relevant to mention that reliance on an incomplete and inconclusive test report to arrive at the present conclusion is bad in law. Further test suggested was not conducted nor any market verification as proposed was made. Thus, the classification adopted by the ld. adjudicating authority in the impugned order on this count is unsustainable.
The appellants have cited the decision in case of Commissioner Of C.Ex. & S.T., Hyderabad-IV v. Aries Agrovet [2017 (7) TMI 289 - CESTAT HYDERABAD], the Tribunal at Hyderabad has dealt with a similar issue holding that 'it clearly emerges that the impugned products definitely do contain more than one of the essential nutrients listed in the circular, they have also contain recognisable percentage of nitrogen. This being so, the disputed items are certainly micronutrients. In view of presence of nitrogen, and also considering that they are mixtures and not separate chemically defined compounds, the said goods would therefore come under the ambit of micronutrient fertilisers and will then required to be classified as in “other fertilisers” in CETH 31.05.'
Interest and penalties - HELD THAT:- As the demands of central excise duty confirmed in the impugned orders by applying the 2016 Circular retrospectively are not sustainable, there are no justification in the demand of interest or imposition of penalties on the appellant-company vide the impugned orders and accordingly, the same are set aside.
Imposition of penalty on Shri Mihir Dey, Managing Director under Rule 26(1) of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 - HELD THAT:- For imposition of personal penalty on any person under Rule 26(1) of the Central Excise Rules, 2002, the element of mens rea had to be necessarily established so far as that person is concerned. However, no positive and/or cogent evidence was adduced by the revenue to show that the said appellant had resorted to or indulged in deliberate evasion of excise duty. Accordingly, the penalty imposed on Shri Mihir Dey is also set aside.
Refund of amount paid under protest - HELD THAT:- The amount of Rs.20 lakh paid by them in respect of the Kolkata Commissionerate and the amount of Rs.40 lakh paid by them in respect of the Howrah Commissionerate, under protest during investigation, are to be refunded to them. The demands against the appellants itself have been found to be unsustainable. As the said amounts have been paid by the appellants during the course of investigation, we consider the said amounts to be a deposit and the same are liable to be refunded to the appellants. However, the issue of unjust enrichment is to be tested before sanction of refund to the appellants.
Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the goods described as "sand lime bricks" manufactured by the assessee are distinct from "fly ash bricks" for purposes of Central Excise classification and eligibility for Exemption Notification No. 1/2011-CE dated 01.03.2011.
2. Whether a confirmed differential central excise duty demand (with interest) predicated on classification as "fly ash bricks" and alleged mis-declaration is sustainable where sand lime bricks fall within the tariff description covered by the exemption notification.
3. Whether penalties imposed on the principal assessee under Section 11AC and on its directors under Rule 26(1) read with Section 38A are exigible when the underlying duty demand is unsustainable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Classification: Whether sand lime bricks are a type of fly ash bricks and classifiable so as to attract Exemption Notification No. 1/2011-CE
Legal framework: Classification under the Central Excise Tariff (Chapters 68 & 69) and the textual scope of Exemption Notification No. 1/2011-CE dated 01.03.2011 which grants exemption in respect of "sand-lime bricks" classifiable under Chapter 68 or 69.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on its prior decision in an identical controversy (Final Order Nos. 77257-77258/2025 dated 13.08.2025) where the Bench held that sand lime bricks are a type of fly ash bricks and are classifiable under heading 68159910. A decision of CESTAT, New Delhi (Sand Plast (India) Ltd.) was noted in the reproduced extract but the Tribunal treated the issue as previously considered and decided in favour of exemption.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the tariff structure and observed that both sand lime bricks and fly ash bricks fall within Chapter 68 (and that the notification itself contemplates classification under Chapter 68 or 69). There is no separate tariff sub-heading that distinguishes sand lime bricks from fly ash bricks in a manner that would exclude sand lime bricks from the descriptive ambit of the exemption. The Tribunal therefore concluded that sand lime bricks are a variety of fly ash bricks and are classifiable under heading 68159910.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the legal determination that sand lime bricks are encompassed within the description of goods covered by Exemption Notification No. 1/2011-CE and are classifiable under tariff heading 68159910. Obiter - the reference to other Tribunal decisions (e.g., New Delhi decision) was noted but not treated as determinative where the Bench's earlier binding/precedential decision controlled.
Conclusion: Sand lime bricks manufactured by the assessee are classifiable under tariff heading 68159910 and are eligible for exemption under Notification No. 1/2011-CE.
Issue 2 - Sustainment of differential duty demand and interest premised on alleged mis-declaration/classification
Legal framework: Principles governing liability for differential central excise duty, nexus between classification and entitlement to exemption, and entitlement to interest where duty is lawfully leviable.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied its prior ruling that interpreted the notification and tariff to permit exemption for sand lime bricks, thereby undermining the factual/legal basis for the duty demand confirmed by the adjudicating authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Tribunal concluded that the goods are correctly described and fall within the exemption, the asserted mis-declaration and resultant liability for differential duty had no sustenance. The Tribunal reasoned that if the exemption legitimately applies, there is no actionable demand on which interest could properly be imposed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - when classification/entitlement to exemption is established in favour of the assessee, a demand for differential duty (and attendant interest) founded on contrary classification cannot be sustained. Obiter - none material beyond the direct consequence of the classification finding.
Conclusion: The differential central excise duty demand of Rs. 2,67,83,024/- confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable; consequential interest is also not exigible.
Issue 3 - Liability to penalty under Section 11AC (for the assessee) and Rule 26(1) read with Section 38A (for directors) where the substantive duty demand is held unsustainable
Legal framework: Statutory provisions imposing penalties under Section 11AC and Rule 26(1) read with Section 38A depend on the existence of a sustainable offence/contravention (mis-declaration, evasion etc.) that gives rise to duty liability or contravention warranting penalty.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the logical principle that penalties contingent on an unsustained foundational finding must fall with that finding; the earlier Tribunal decision supporting exemption was applied to negate the penal liability.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that because the allegation of misclassification/mis-declaration (which was the basis for duty and penalties) was not borne out - the goods are rightly exempt - the statutory preconditions for imposing the confirmed penalties do not exist. Consequently, imposition of penalties on the company and on its directors could not be sustained.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties grounded upon an unsustainable duty demand or unproven contravention are not exigible; where the offence alleged is not sustained, penalties under the cited provisions must be set aside. Obiter - none material beyond the direct application of that principle.
Conclusion: Penalties imposed on the assessee and on each director under Rule 26(1) read with Section 38A (and the penalty under Section 11AC on the assessee) are set aside because the underlying allegation of ineligible exemption/mis-declaration is not sustained.
Cross-references
1. Issue 1 (classification/exemption) is dispositive of Issues 2 and 3; the negation of the duty liability in Issue 2 directly negates entitlement to interest and the statutory basis for penalties in Issue 3.
2. The Tribunal expressly relied on its prior decision on the same question (Final Order Nos. 77257-77258/2025 dated 13.08.2025) as binding precedent for classification and exemption conclusions.
Exemption on sand lime bricks manufactured by the appellant, under N/N. 1/2011-CE dated March 1, 2011 - whether the goods are actually Fly Ash Bricks and not applicable for exemption - interest and penalty - Penalties imposed on the Directors of the appellant company - HELD THAT:- The appellant-company manufactures sand lime bricks, which is a type of fly ash bricks. It is seen that both sand lime bricks and fly ash bricks are classifiable under the Chapter 68 only. It is found that there is no other tariff sub-heading available in the Central Excise Tariff which provides classification of sand lime bricks. It is because of this reason that the said Notification No. 1/2011-CE dated March 1, 2011, while exempting sand lime bricks, refers to such sand lime bricks being classifiable either under Chapter 68 or 69 of the Central Excise Tariff. Thus, the exemption under the said notification is available to sand lime bricks whether the same is classified under Chapter 68 or 69.
The issue is no longer res integra, as this Tribunal has already decided the very same issue in favour of the appellants. While dismissing the appeal filed by the revenue, this Bench, in the case of Commissioner of C.G.S.T. & C.EX, Howrah v. M/s. Aum Bricks & Pavers Pvt. Ltd. & anr [2025 (8) TMI 1704 - CESTAT KOLKATA], has held that the sand lime bricks is a type of fly ash bricks and both are classifiable under the Central Excise tariff heading 68159910 and the same are eligible for availing the benefit of Exemption Notification No. 1/2011-CE dated March 1, 2011.
Thus, the sand lime bricks manufactured by the appellant are classifiable under the Central Excise tariff heading 68159910 and the same are eligible for the benefit of Exemption Notification No. 1/2011-CE dated March 1, 2011. Accordingly, the demand of central excise duty of Rs. 2,67,83,024/- confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable.
Demand of interest and penalty - HELD THAT:- As the demand of duty is not sustained, the question of demanding interest or imposing penalty does not arise and hence, the same is set aside.
Penalties imposed on the Directors of the appellant company - HELD THAT:- As the offence alleged against them is not sustained, no penalty is imposable on them. Accordingly, the penalties imposed on the Directors of the appellant company, i.e., the appellant nos. 2 and 3 herein set aside.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessee may suo motu re-credit or avail CENVAT credit of duty/service tax allegedly paid in excess by debiting its CENVAT account without obtaining refund/permission under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or sanction of the proper officer.
2. Whether ER-1 returns filed by the assessee for relevant months qualify as "duty/tax paying documents" or prescribed documents under Rule 9 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 for the purpose of taking CENVAT credit of amounts debited from the CENVAT account.
3. Whether failure to follow the procedure prescribed by Rule 9 and related provisions (Rules 3, 4, 9 and Rule 14/15 of CCR, 2004 read with Sections 11A, 11AA and 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944) renders the credit inadmissible and liable to recovery with interest and penalty, and if so, to what extent penalty is sustainable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Legality of suo motu re-credit/availment of CENVAT credit of excess duty paid without refund/permission
Legal framework: Section 11B (refund procedure) and related provisions of the Central Excise Act, 1944; Rule 9 (documents for CENVAT credit) and Rules 3 & 4 (admissibility) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004; Rule 14 (recovery), Rule 15 (penalty) of CCR, 2004 read with Sections 11A, 11AA and 11AC of the Act.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal's Larger Bench decision in BDH Industries (2008) held that there is no provision for suo motu taking of credit or refund without sanction by the proper officer and that refunds must be filed under Section 11B; several other tribunal precedents (Candico, Titawi Sugar, Comfit) follow similar principle. The appellant relied on decisions permitting correction of clerical ER-1 errors or treating excess payment as not requiring Section 11B refund; the Tribunal examined but did not need to decide applicability of all such decisions in light of its findings on documents.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court affirms that the statutory scheme does not permit an assessee to unilaterally re-credit or treat an excess debit as available CENVAT credit without following the statutory refund/permission route. The statutory refund mechanism and requirement of sanction by proper officer ensure compliance with doctrine of unjust enrichment and verification that incidence of duty has not been passed on. Even where excess payment occurred, the proper remedy generally is a refund application under Section 11B or prior permission, not suo motu crediting.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - suo motu re-credit/availment of CENVAT credit without sanction/Section 11B is impermissible in principle and the proper remedy is refund/permission; the BDH Industries principle is followed as a binding ratio for like situations. Obiter - observations on the precise distinction between double payment and excess debit situations as fact-specific.
Conclusions: Suo motu availment of credit is not generally permissible; refund/permission procedure under Section 11B must be followed unless the statutory scheme or prescribed documents clearly validate claim and payment of duty can be established by prescribed documents (see cross-reference to Issue 2).
Issue 2: Whether ER-1 returns qualify as prescribed duty/tax paying documents under Rule 9 for availing CENVAT credit
Legal framework: Rule 9(1) and proviso to Rule 9(2) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 which prescribe documents on basis of which CENVAT credit may be taken and allow limited relaxation where specified particulars are present and the Deputy/Assistant Commissioner is satisfied that goods/services have been received and accounted for.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal examined recent decisions (including HDFC Bank and Karur Vyasa Bank) applying Rule 9 principles and clarifying that where a document contains the particulars required by Rule 9(2) proviso and establishes the fact of payment, it may be accepted; but absence of prescribed document shifts burden on claimant to establish payment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analysed whether the ER-1 returns filed for June and July 2016 contained particulars as per the proviso to Rule 9(2) and whether they evidences of duty payment/debit from the CENVAT account. The Court found ER-1 returns did contain the relevant details and reflected the excess debit from the CENVAT account; revenue did not dispute that. Rule 9 prescribes documents but also recognizes that some documents (meeting proviso particulars) may suffice. Where the ER-1 return itself shows the debit from the CENVAT account and contains required particulars, it qualifies as a duty paying document for the purpose of taking credit, thereby shifting the question away from the need for Section 11B in that specific factual matrix.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an ER-1 return that contains particulars required by the proviso to Rule 9(2) and evidences debit from the CENVAT account may qualify as a duty/tax paying document permitting availment of credit; absence of dispute on contents strengthens admissibility. Obiter - references to the facts in HDFC Bank relating to non-issuance of invoices by NPCI and ST-3 reconciliation; general applicability depends on document content and proof of payment.
Conclusions: ER-1 returns, where they contain the particulars specified in the proviso to Rule 9(2) and show the debit from the CENVAT account, can be treated as prescribed documents for taking CENVAT credit; therefore, in such circumstances, suo motu re-credit contention becomes unnecessary and credit may be admissible notwithstanding initial non-filing of a refund application, subject to verification.
Issue 3: Consequences of non-compliance with Rules 3, 4 & 9 and imposition/quantification of demand, interest and penalty
Legal framework: Rules 3, 4, 9 of CCR, 2004 (admissibility and prescribed documents), Rule 14 (recovery of inadmissible credit) read with Sections 11A and 11AA (demand and interest), and Rule 15 read with Section 11AC (penalty).
Precedent treatment: Earlier authorities sustained recovery and interest where credit was availed without prescribed documents or sanction and have imposed penalties, subject to reduction where demand reduced or factual nuance existed (Titawi Sugar, Comfit, etc.). The appellant relied on cases where clerical ER-1 corrections were treated as non-suo-motu availment and penalties held to be unsustainable if demand itself fails.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having found that the ER-1 returns prima facie qualified as prescribed documents and demonstrated excess debit, the Court limited the recovery to the precise amount which was unsupported by ER-1 (i.e., the small difference discovered on comparison with CA certificate). The Tribunal concluded that the original demand of Rs.86,33,733/- was excessive, and reduced the recoverable amount to Rs.2,35,184/-, being the amount of excess credit not substantiated by ER-1 returns. Consequentially, penalty under Rule 15 was proportionately reduced to 10% of the modified recoverable amount (Rs.23,518/-). Interest as applicable under Rule 14/Section 11AA was confirmed on the recoverable amount.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where part of the credit is substantiated by prescribed documents, recovery and penalty should be limited to the unsubstantiated portion; penalty is not automatically unsustainable but must be proportionate to validated demand. Obiter - broader comments on suspicion arising from delay in detecting the excess debit and on certificates by CA versus requirements for engineer's certificate regarding CENVAT account integrity.
Conclusions: Non-compliance with procedural rules can render credit recoverable with interest and attract penalty, but where prescribed documents (here ER-1) substantiate a substantial part of the claimed credit, the demand and penalty must be limited to the unsubstantiated excess; interest remains chargeable on the recoverable portion.
Cross-references and final disposition
1. Issues 1 and 2 are interlinked: permissibility of suo motu re-credit is constrained by Section 11B, but if the claimed credit is supported by prescribed documents under Rule 9(2) proviso (Issue 2), the need for a Section 11B refund/permission is obviated for that portion.
2. On the facts, ER-1 returns were held to qualify as duty-paying/prescribed documents for the bulk of the amount; accordingly the Tribunal modified the original demand from Rs.86,33,733/- to Rs.2,35,184/-, confirmed interest on the recoverable sum and reduced penalty to 10% thereof (Rs.23,518/-), and partly allowed the appeal.
Wrongful availment of CENVAT Credit - prescribed documents for availing credit - ER-1 of the appellant for the months of June and July 2016 could be considered as prescribed document for the purpose of availing this credit or not - Rule 9 (2) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 - HELD THAT:- This rule was considered by the Mumbai Bench in the case of HDFC Bank Ltd.[2021 (12) TMI 1533 - CESTAT MUMBAI] where it was held that 'If the document falls within the category of the documents prescribed the same are accepted as direct evidence of payment, but still in case of doubt the same needs to be established. If the document do not file within the category of the prescribed documents as per Rule 9 (1) then the burden to establish the payment of the tax shifts on to the person claiming the credit. Rule 9 (2) do not prescribe any document but provides for relaxation in respect of the documents as specified in the Rule 9 (1) and subject to those relaxation the credit can be allowed in respect of the document fulfilling the requirement of Rule 9 (2).'
There are no hesitation in holding that the ER-1 filed by the appellant is a duty paying document and contains all the details as prescribed by the proviso to Rule 9 (2). It is not even the case of the revenue that this excess amount debited from the CENVAT Account is not reflected in the ER-1 returns filed by the appellant. Having held so, there are no merits in the allegations made against the appellant in respect of the availing the credit on the basis of in-admissible documents.
Appellant have relied upon a series of decisions in the support of their contention with regards the admissibility of this CENVAT Credit, without following the procedure of Section 11B for the refund of the excess duty paid. In any case for the reasons recorded in the preceding paragraphs it is not found necessary to decide with regards to the applicability of the said decision.
The decision of the larger bench of tribunal in the case of BDH Industries [2008 (7) TMI 78 - CESTAT MUMBAI-LB], relied upon by the revenue is clearly distinguishable for the reason that the same was in case of the double payment of duty, para 4 of the said decision records “in their case the goods were supplied under claim for rebate of duty and duty was paid once at the time of clearance of consignment and secondly at the end of the month when the duty is required to be paid in respect of all consignments cleared during the month. Since the duty was debited twice, they suo motto took the credit of the same and informed the department of it.”
In the present case, it is not concerned with the case of double payment of duty, but the issue that needs to be decided is whether the ER-1 filed by the appellant showing debit of CENVAT Credit in excess of the duty assessed can be considered as document for availing the CENVAT Credit. The other decisions relied in the impugned order follow the ratio laid down by the BDH Industries and are distinguishable.
The appellant has taken credit of Rs 2,35,184/- in excess of what was the excess payment as per the ER-1 returns and due to them accordingly we modify the demand to that extent. As the demand has been restricted to Rs.2,35,184/- penalty imposed under Rule 15 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 read with Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 is restricted to Rs.23,518/- (10% of the amount of credit recoverable).
Appeal allowed in part.
Outcome: The civil appeals were dismissed following the principle of consistency and judicial discipline, with pending applications disposed of accordingly.
Validity of Rules 12A(5), 12B(4), 12C(3) and 25B(3) of the U.P. Trade Tax Rules as amended by the U.P. Trade Tax (Amendment) Rules, 2001 challenged and further seeking a direction in the nature of mandamus reading down the aforesaid Rules insofar as it provides that the forms issued in particular financial year shall be valid for the transactions of purchase and sale made during two financial years immediately preceding to that year, as not applicable to the transactions of sale or purchase which are not disputed by the Department - HELD THAT:- Similar issue decided in M/S. K.B. HIDES & ORS. VERSUS STATE OF U.P. AND ORS [2004 (2) TMI 751 - SC ORDER] where it was held that there are no reason to interfere.
HELD THAT:- Following the principle of consistency and judicial discipline, these civil appeals also dismissed.
Issues: Whether the defects pointed out in the C-Form were substantial so as to justify denial of concessional CST and reopening of the assessment.
Analysis: The C-Form was accepted initially and concessional CST was granted on its strength. The only defects noticed were a mention of the Rules as the Central Sales Tax (Registration & Turnover) Rules, 1975 instead of 1957, and that the writing was not perfectly legible. These were treated as mere typographical and non-substantial defects. No material infirmity affecting the validity of the form was shown, and the purchaser had supplied the form on which the concession was originally availed.
Conclusion: The defects in the C-Form did not justify denial of concessional tax or restoration of the reassessment demand, and the challenge to the order setting aside the demand failed.
Re-opening of assessment of the respondent-Firm and two C-Forms - defective C-Forms - liability to pay full tax and non-entitlement to get concession - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that C-Form was supplied to the respondent-Firm by the purchasing dealer and, on the strength of said C-Form, the appellant-Authorities has availed the concessional rate of tax in respect of CST @ 2% instead of 10% vide order 22.01.2008 firstly. However, later on, on the basis of audit objection, as revealed, the assessment of the respondent-Firm was reopened vide order dt. 25.03.2013 and, on account of defective C-Forms, the CST was ascertained to be payable by the respondent-Firm at full rate of 10%.
Thus, no substantial defect with regard to validity of the form was found.
There are no merit in these writ appeals and same are hereby dismissed.
Issues: Whether the complainant proved valid service of the statutory demand notice so as to satisfy the requirements of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Analysis: Service of notice under clause (b) of the proviso to Section 138 is an essential precondition to the cause of action under the provision. The presumption under Section 27 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 arises only when the notice is properly addressed, prepaid and posted by registered post. Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 permits a general presumption of delivery in the ordinary course, but that presumption remains rebuttable and depends on the facts proved. On the facts found, one acknowledgment was signed by a girl of 15 years without proof that she was a family member of the accused, and the other acknowledgment did not bear a sufficiently complete address to sustain the presumption of due service. Mere dispatch of the notice was therefore insufficient to establish receipt.
Conclusion: The statutory notice was not proved to have been duly served, and the requirement under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 was not satisfied.
Final Conclusion: The acquittal was sustained because the foundational requirement of receipt of statutory notice was not established, and the dishonour complaints could not survive for want of compliance with the mandatory precondition to prosecution.
Ratio Decidendi: In a prosecution under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the presumption of service by post applies only when the notice is properly addressed and delivered in the ordinary course, and it can be displaced when the facts do not establish due receipt by the drawer or a person legally capable of accepting service on the drawer's behalf.
Violation of principles of natural justice - valid service of notice or not - Dishonour of Cheque - funds insufficient - Complainant had failed to prove that the cheques issued by the Accused were towards legally enforceable debt - legal notice of dishonour of cheque was received by the Accused or not - HELD THAT:- In order to attract an offence under Section 138, it is necessary, that when the cheque is dishonored, a notice is addressed by the Complainant to the Accused asking him to make the payment under the cheque, and if the Drawer of the cheque fails to make the payment of the money within a period of 15 days from “receipt of the notice”, an offence under Section 138 is attracted - It therefore becomes essential to determine whether the Drawer has failed to make the payment pursuant to the notice being received by him, as the complaint can be filed under Section 138, only upon such a contingency.
The service by post within the meaning of Section 27 shall be deemed to be effective by properly addressing, pre-paying and posting by Registered post, a letter containing the document, and such a letter shall be presumed to be duly delivered in the ordinary course of post - What is most important, is the letter being properly addressed to the Noticee.
A perusal of Order V, Rule 15 of CPC make it clear that if the summons are served on any adult member of the family, whether male or female, residing with the Noticee, when he is absent from his residence, that would be considered to be a service upon the Defendant. The explanation appended to the said Rule state that a servant is not a member of the family within the meaning of the Rule.
The presumption under Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that under the common course of business, and particularly, as to illustration (f) i.e. whether a letter was received, it is shown to have been posted, but the usual course of the post was interrupted by disturbance, which enables the Court to presume the existence of any fact, which it thinks likely to have happened in the course of natural events, human conduct and public and private business, in their relation to the facts of a particular case - However, when it is not proved by the Complainant that the girl who accepted the notice is a member of the family of the Accused, in the normal course of business, the notice could have been received by any girl in the locality, playing or wandering around at the time when the Postman reached the spot. Unless and until it is proved that she belongs to the family and notice is accepted by her, in the normal course of business, it cannot be said that the service is complete.
It is found that the Accused is not served with the notice issued by the Complainant and the reliance placed on Section 27 of the General Clauses Act by the Trial Judge, cannot be justified, in absence of notice being received, the contingencies stipulated under Section 138(c) of the Drawer having failed to make the payment within 15 days from the date of notice, has not arisen.
The Appellate Court has therefore, rightly appreciated the evidence rendered and being satisfied that the offence under Section 138 of the N.I. Act is not made out, has rightly acquitted the Accused Mr. Jose Remedios in both the cases - appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether the impugned arbitral awards were liable to be quashed and set aside on the ground that contemporaneous proceedings on substantially the same facts had produced diametrically opposite findings by a common arbitrator, rendering the awards implausible and perverse.
Analysis: The disputes arose from the same trading relationship and relied on the same class of evidence, including trade confirmations, e-mails, SMS alerts, contract notes, ledger entries, and a recorded conversation. The reasoning in the awards showed that the same evidentiary material was assessed in sharply inconsistent ways across the NSE, BSE, and MCX proceedings. In particular, a member of the appellate tribunal had taken one view in one set of proceedings and the opposite view in another set of contemporaneous proceedings on the same factual matrix. The Court held that, although review under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is narrow and the arbitral tribunal is ordinarily the master of evidence, an award cannot survive where the adjudicatory process is infected by such internal contradiction and implausibility that no reasonable tribunal could reach such conflicting conclusions on the same material within a short span of time.
Conclusion: The awards were quashed and set aside, and the disputes were directed to proceed before a sole arbitrator appointed by consent of the parties.
Arbitration award at NSE, BSE and MCX - Same arbitrator who was a member of both appellate tribunals - one at the NSE and the other at the MCX, with opposite findings - Authorisation of trades that led to the accounts ledger in the books of the broker - receipt of sms alerts and electronic contract notes by email for every trade executed on his behalf or not - opportunity to controvert any trade as and when they were executed throughout the period of the trading - voice recording of a conversation is evidence of understanding the transactions executed or not
HELD THAT:- What had a ring of confidence for the learned arbitrator when interpreting the same evidence in the appellate arbitral proceedings at the NSE sounded hollow to the very same arbitrator when he sat in a different combination at the appellate arbitral proceedings at MCX. The resounding endorsement at the MCX of the case against Arjav is in fact the stance taken by the dissenting arbitrator at the NSE. The diametrically opposing views taken by the learned arbitrator who was common to both is fatal to the two awards. If his stance at the MCX appellate arbitral proceedings were to be applied at the NSE, the dissenting award would have hypothetically become the majority award. Yet, one cannot accept one version of his adjudication and reject the other, simply because the Section 34 Court is not an appellate court but a court that looks only to the limited grounds statutorily stipulated, including perversity and patent illegality.
The ledger for the trades on the NSE and the BSE is one and the same, considering that the trades attributed to Arjav were executed by Sharekhan (as opposed to Sharekhan Commodities on the MCX). It is unable to accept the feeble attempt by Learned Senior Counsel for Arjav to indicate that one of the two views could be upheld by this Court with that view being applied across the board.
The proceedings at the BSE present another complexity. The chartered accountant who filed Arjav’s tax returns (the husband of the authorised person of Sharekhan and Sharekhan Commodities) had been made a respondent in all the three arbitral proceedings. At the BSE, he is seen to have initially refuted the allegation that he executed the sale of the corporate bonds without instructions from Arjav, but in the next round, he appears to have helpfully led evidence that he had indeed carried out trades without the knowledge of Arjav. This change of stance is not dealt with at all in the BSE appellate award.
The arbitral award of the first instance at the BSE records that the chartered accountant had strongly refuted the allegations against him – that he had carried out trades on Arjav’s behalf without authorisation. However, the very same person who refuted the allegation of trading without authorisation confirmed in appeal that the trades were indeed executed by him and without authorisation - All in all, the three awards are riddled with contradictions – primarily by a learned arbitrator who was a member of the appellate arbitral tribunals at the NSE and the MCX giving contradictory findings in assessing the very same evidence, all within a span of less than two weeks. This infects the proceedings at the BSE, where again, the appellate tribunal has taken a stand diametrically opposite to the arbitral tribunal of the first instance, in an implausible manner without explaining why the complete change of stance by the chartered accountant should be accepted.
There are no hesitation in holding that all the three awards have been rendered implausible. It is not possible to segregate them from one another to save one award from the infirmities of the other awards. All the three arbitral awards deserve to be quashed and set aside.
An arbitral tribunal is constituted by consent of the parties - Justice Akil Kureshi, Former Chief Justice of Rajasthan and Tripura High Court and former judge of this Court, is hereby appointed as the Sole Arbitrator to adjudicate upon the disputes and differences between the parties covered by this Application.
Petition disposed off.
TaxTMI