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Issues: Whether the petitioner has established exceptional circumstances to justify bypassing the statutory alternative remedy of appeal under Section 107(11) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and invoke the High Court's extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India against cancellation of GST registration.
Analysis: The Court examined Section 107(11) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 which empowers the Appellate Authority to make further inquiry and to confirm, modify or annul the order appealed against and expressly bars remand to the adjudicating authority. Given the wider inquiry and disposal powers conferred on the Appellate Authority, the statutory appeal constitutes an efficacious alternative remedy. The Court analysed the petitioner's contention of violation of principles of natural justice and the claim that department withheld documents, noting the established requirement that a claimant must demonstrate prejudice caused by any alleged breach of natural justice. The petitioner failed to produce documents showing active business or to identify specific prejudice; moreover, where a party possesses best evidence and withholds it, an adverse inference is permissible. The disputed questions of fact regarding alleged issuance of fake invoices are matters for inquiry and determination by the Appellate Authority under Section 107(11).
Conclusion: The petitioner has not made out any exceptional circumstance to bypass the alternative statutory remedy of appeal under Section 107(11) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017; the writ petition is accordingly dismissed and the petitioner must pursue the remedy of appeal.
Extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 - alternative remedy of appeal - principles of natural justice / audi alteram partem - jurisdiction of Appellate Authority to make further inquiry - adverse inference for withholding best evidence - HELD THAT:- It is well established principle of law that High Court in exercise of its extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India should not bypass the alternative remedy except in exceptional circumstances.
Jurisdiction of Appellate Authority to make further inquiry - HELD THAT:- From plain reading of this section, it is clear that the appellate Authority has a jurisdiction to make further inquiry as may be necessary before passing such order as it thinks just and proper for confirming, modifying or annulling the decision or order appealed against. Therefore, the jurisdiction of the appellate Authority is much wider than the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 226/227 of Constitution of India. This Court cannot embark upon an inquiry to adjudicate the disputed question of fact. Even if petitioner is of the view that an inquiry was required on the part of the assessing Authority before passing an order of cancellation of registration, still the same can be done by the appellate Authority and the appellate Authority is not required to remand the matter for the said purpose. Only in view of the wider powers given to the appellate Authority, it has been mentioned in subsection 11 of section 107 of the Act that the appellate Authority would not remand the matter.
Principles of natural justice / audi alteram partem - adverse inference for withholding best evidence - HELD THAT:-The law relating to violation of principle of natural justice has undergone a change and unless and until a person claiming violation of principles of natural justice points out the prejudice caused to him, he cannot succeed merely by saying that his valuable right of natural justice/ audi alteram partem was violated by the Authority concerned.
As already pointed out, petitioner has not filed any document before this Court to show that he was actually running his business. Thus, in the considered opinion of this Court, petitioner has failed to point out any prejudice which has been caused to him even if petitioner is of the view that his valuable right of natural justice was violated. Therefore, the contention of counsel for petitioner that this Court should bypass the statutory remedy of appeal on the ground of violation of principles of natural justice cannot be accepted.
Admittedly, petitioner did not file any document before the assessing Authority to show that he was or is in active business and he is not issuing any fake/false invoice/bill. It is a well established principle of law that if a person is in possession of best evidence and if he decides to withhold the same, then an adverse inference can be drawn against him. Therefore, the contention of petitioner that department should have supplied documents to him is nothing but an attempt to wriggle out of the allegations made by the department against the petitioner. In fact, burden is on the petitioner to supply all the documents to show that he was or is in active business and he has never issued any fake/false invoice/bill.
Accordingly, this Court is of considered opinion that no prejudice was caused to the petitioner even in case if any document which was demanded by him was not supplied by the department. It is made clear that non-supply of any document would not make the impugned order vulnerable, but the petitioner has to prove that the documents which were necessary to put forward his defence were not supplied. As already pointed out, all the best evidence is in possession of the petitioner and it is the petitioner who is withholding the same. Therefore, it cannot be said that any violation of principles of natural justice was done by the department
Thus, this Court is of considered opinion that since highly disputed question of facts are involved, specifically when the petitioner has not filed any document before this Court to rebut the allegations made in the show cause notice and in view of the wider powers of the appellate Authority, the petitioner has failed to make out any exceptional circumstance for bypassing the alternative remedy of appeal. Accordingly, this Court is of considered opinion that the petitioner must avail the alternative remedy available to him under section 107(11) of the Act.
With aforesaid liberty, this petition is dismissed.
Issues: Whether a person whose GST registration has been cancelled under Section 29(2)(c) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 for non-filing of returns for six continuous months can seek restoration of registration by furnishing all pending returns and making full payment of tax dues with interest and late fee as provided in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, and whether the appropriate authority is obliged to consider such an application filed within a limited time.
Analysis: The statutory framework permits cancellation of registration where returns have not been furnished for a continuous period of six months (Section 29(2)(c) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017) and prescribes the procedural notice and reply mechanism under Rule 22 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017. The proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22(4) provides that if, instead of replying to the show cause notice, the person furnishes all pending returns and makes full payment of tax dues along with applicable interest and late fee, the proceedings shall be dropped and an order in the prescribed form passed. The impugned cancellation therefore engages the proviso; restoration under that proviso requires submission of pending returns and payment of dues. The order also addresses computation of limitation for recovery proceedings, indicating that the period under Section 73(10) is to be computed from the date of the court order, with the financial year 2025-26 addressed as per Section 44 of the Act.
Conclusion: The petitioner is entitled to seek restoration of GST registration by approaching the proper officer within the stipulated period, furnishing all pending returns and making full payment of tax dues with applicable interest and late fee, whereupon the authority has jurisdiction to consider and, if the conditions of the proviso to Rule 22(4) are met, drop the cancellation proceedings and pass the prescribed order. The authority shall consider such application expeditiously within the time directed by the Court.
Cancellation of registration for non-filing of returns - power to drop proceedings on compliance with proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 - restoration of GST registration - computation of limitation u/s 73(10) vis-a -vis Financial year 2025-26 - HELD THAT:- Having regard to the fact that the GST registration of the petitioner has been cancelled under Section 29(2)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017 for the reason that the petitioner did not submit returns for a period of 6 (six) months or more and the provisions contained in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 and cancellation of registration entails serious civil consequences, this Court is of the considered view that in the event the petitioner approaches the officer, duly empowered, by furnishing all the pending returns and make full payment of the tax dues, along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer duly empowered, has the authority and jurisdiction to drop the proceedings and pass an order in the prescribed Form.
This writ petition is disposed of by providing that the petitioner shall approach the concerned authority within a period of 2 (two) months from today seeking restoration of her GST registration. If the petitioner submits such an application and complies with all the requirements as provided in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017, the concerned authority shall consider the application of the petitioner for restoration of the GST registration and passed necessary orders in accordance with law. The aforesaid process be completed expeditiously and preferably within an outer limit of 60 days from the date of receipt of the certified copy of this order.
The writ petition accordingly stands disposed of.
Issues: Whether cancellation of GST registration for non-filing of returns could be interfered with and whether the registration could be restored upon furnishing pending returns and payment of tax dues, interest and late fee under the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017.
Analysis: The cancellation was based on non-filing of returns for more than six months under Section 29(2)(c) of the GST law. The proviso to Rule 22(4) permits the proper officer to drop cancellation proceedings where the person, instead of replying to the notice, furnishes all pending returns and makes full payment of tax dues together with applicable interest and late fee. The Court treated cancellation of registration as carrying serious civil consequences and held that, if the petitioner approaches the authority and complies with the stated requirements, the authority may consider restoration in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The petitioner was granted liberty to seek restoration of GST registration by approaching the competent authority and complying with the proviso to Rule 22(4); the authority was directed to consider restoration expeditiously.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was disposed of with directions enabling the petitioner to pursue restoration of registration on compliance with the required statutory conditions.
Ratio Decidendi: Where GST registration has been cancelled for non-filing of returns, the proper officer may drop the proceedings and restore registration if the taxpayer furnishes all pending returns and clears the tax dues, interest and late fee as contemplated by the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017.
Cancellation of GST registration u/s 29(2)(c) - proviso to sub rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 - dropping proceedings and passing Form GST REG 20 upon furnishing pending returns and payment - restoration of GST registration upon compliance - computation of limitation u/s 73(10) and as per Section 44 for financial year 2024-25 -
Cancellation of GST registration under Section 29(2)(c) - proviso to sub rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 - dropping proceedings and passing Form GST REG 20 upon furnishing pending returns and payment - HELD THAT:- It is discernible from a reading of the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the Rules of 2017 that if a person, who has been served with a show cause notice under Section 29(2)(c) of the Act, is ready and willing to furnish all the pending returns and to make full payment of the tax itself along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer, duly empowered, can drop the proceedings and pass an order in the prescribed Form i.e. Form GST REG-20.
Having regard to the fact that the GST registration of the petitioner has been cancelled under Section 29(2)(c) of the Act, for the reason that the petitioner did not submit returns for a period of 6 (six) months and more and the provisions contained in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 and cancellation of registration entails serious civil consequences, this Court is of the considered view that in the event the petitioner approaches the officer, duly empowered, by furnishing all the pending returns and make full payment of the tax dues, along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer duly empowered, may consider to drop the proceedings and pass an appropriate order in the prescribed Form.
Restoration of GST registration upon compliance - HELD THAT:- This writ petition is disposed of by providing that the petitioner shall approach the concerned authority within a period of 2 (two) months from today seeking restoration of her GST registration. If the petitioner submits such an application and complies with all the requirements as provided in the proviso to Rule 22 (4) of the Rules, the concerned authority shall consider the application of the petitioner for restoration of her GST registration in accordance with law and shall take necessary steps for restoration of GST registration of the petitioner as expeditiously as possible.
Computation of limitation under Section 73(10) - HELD THAT:- The period as stipulated under Section 73 (10) of the Central GST Act/State GST Act shall be computed from the date of the instant order, except for the financial year 2024-25, which shall be as per Section 44 of the Central GST Act/State GST Act. The petitioner herein would also be liable to make payment of arrears i.e. tax, penalty, interest and late fees.
The writ petition accordingly stands disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether Section 130(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 permits provisional release of goods pending adjudication by accepting fine in lieu of confiscation; (ii) Whether authorities can retain possession of goods/conveyance proposed for confiscation pending final confiscation in the absence of an order of detention under the statutory procedure.
Issue (i): Whether Section 130(2) permits provisional release of goods by payment of fine in lieu of confiscation pending adjudication.
Analysis: The Court examined the statutory text of Section 130 read with Section 130(7), the amendments effected by the Finance Act, 2021, and the specific provision for provisional release under Section 67(6). It noted deletion of earlier provisos and the removal of subsection cross-references that previously enabled provisional release practices, observed that Section 130(2) speaks of release in the context of an authorisation to confiscate (i.e., upon final confiscation order), and that the statutory scheme provides provisional release expressly under other provisions but not under Section 130. The Court applied principles of statutory interpretation, including expressio unius est exclusio alterius, and considered precedents and prior orders dealing with provisional release but distinguished them in light of legislative amendments.
Conclusion: Section 130(2) does not permit provisional release of goods pending adjudication; the provision contemplates release consequent to or after authorization/confiscation. (Conclusion against the assessee's claim that Section 130(2) permits provisional release.)
Issue (ii): Whether authorities may retain possession of goods/conveyance proposed for confiscation absent a valid order of detention passed following the procedure and timelines in Section 129 and the Board's Circular.
Analysis: The Court analysed Sections 67, 68, 129 and the Board's Circular issued under Section 168(1), observing that inspection powers under Section 68 and forms MOV-1/MOV-2/MOV-4 are for inspection and have prescribed timelines. Detention in transit requires an order of detention under Section 129 with the statutory timelines; mere directions in MOV-02 or initiation of Section 130 proceedings do not constitute lawful detention. The Court held that retention without the statutory order and within the prescribed timelines violated the owner's proprietary right under Article 300A and that possession can be lawfully continued only if the detention procedure in Section 129 is validly invoked or after a confiscation order under Section 130 followed by taking possession.
Conclusion: The respondents were not entitled to continue detention of the goods in the absence of a valid detention order under Section 129; retention was illegal and the petitioner is entitled to release of the goods. (Conclusion in favour of the assessee on unlawful retention.)
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is allowed to the extent of directing release of the detained goods forthwith upon the petitioner furnishing a simple bond; the statutory confiscation proceedings under Section 130 shall be adjudicated by the competent authority after giving the petitioner an opportunity to be heard.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the statute expressly provides for provisional release under a specific provision, that power cannot be read into a different provision; Section 130(2) provides for release in consequence of final confiscation authorization and does not authorize provisional release pending adjudication, and detention of goods in transit is lawful only if effected by an order under the statutory procedure in Section 129 within the prescribed timelines.
Provisional release u/s 67(6) - release on payment of fine in lieu of confiscation u/s 130(2) - detention and seizure in transit u/s 129 - inspection of goods in movement u/s 68 - binding procedure under the Board's Ext.P6 Circular (Forms GST MOV-1 to MOV-10) - expressio unius est exclusio alterius - proprietary protection under Article 300A of the Constitution -
Release on payment of fine in lieu of confiscation u/s 130(2) - provisional release u/s 67(6) - HELD THAT:-Evidently, mere notice to initiate confiscation proceedings will not amount to authorisation fore when the final order of confiscation is passed after following the procedure contemplated in this regard. It is also to be noted in this regard that, as per sub-section 5 of section 130 of the CGST Act, where any goods or conveyance are confiscated under the Act, the title of lso to be noted in this regard that, as per sub-section 5 of section 130 of the CGST Act, where any goods or conveyance are confiscated under the Act, the title of such goods or conveyance immediately vests with the Government.
Thus, the authorization comes into effect only upon final order of confiscation is passed and until such an order is passed, the proceedings that are undergoing can only be a proposal to confiscate the goods, which is falling short of an authorization to confiscate. The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Gunwantlal Godwat v. Union of India and Another [2017 (11) TMI 1317 - SUPREME COURT] considered the meaning of the words 'confiscation authorized by the Act' as contained in section 73 of the Gold (Control) Act, 1968 which is a provision providing option to pay fine in lieu of confiscation and held that 'confiscation authorized by this Act' limits the operation of section 73 only to the confiscations adjudged under the Gold Act. Thus, the view taken by this court is fortified by the aforesaid observations of the Honourable Supreme Court.
As mentioned, section 67 of the CGST Act, that deals with the seizure of goods, contains specific provision namely, sub-section (6), providing for provisional release. Thus, as per the scheme of the statute, wherever, the provisional release is permitted, it is expressly provided. Therefore, as section 130 does not contain an express provision that deals with provisional release, is a factor which is very conspicuous, when it comes to the question of interpretation of the said provision. Moreover, a careful scrutiny of sub-sections (2) and (7) of section 130 would make it clear that, sub-section (7) is depending upon sub-section (2).
It is to be noted that, even though, sub-section (7) of section 130 deals with the release of the confiscated goods and conveyance, on payment of fine in lieu of confiscation, the manner in which such fine is to be calculated, is not provided therein, but on the other hand, the same is contemplated in sub-section (2). Thus, it is amply clear that, stipulations in sub-section (2) is for the purpose of sub-section (7) and thus, the release on payment of fine in lieu of confiscation, provided therein, is only after the order of confiscation and not as a provisional measure.
Whether the official respondents have the power to retain the goods proposed to be confiscated, until an order of confiscation is passed. - Admittedly, the goods which are sought to be confiscated, are the properties of the petitioner and the title vests upon the petitioner, so long as an order of confiscation is not passed, by following the procedure contemplated under the Act. Sub-section (5) of Section 130 provides that, the title of the goods passes on to the Government only upon issuing an order of confiscation. Therefore, since the petitioner is the owner of the goods, it can be deprived off its right to hold the said goods, by the actions of any statutory authority, only in exercise of statutory powers, which are specifically incorporated in the relevant statute or if it can be implied from the scheme of the Act.
Detention and seizure in transit under Section 129 of the CGST Act - inspection of goods in movement under Section 68 of the CGST Act - HELD THAT:- Admittedly no order under section 129 for detaining the goods are passed. Even though Form MOV-2 is relied on by the learned Special Government Pleader, a perusal of clause 2(d) of Ext.P6 in which, such form is prescribed, it can be seen that, the purpose of issuing of MOV-2 is only to ensure the inspection of goods and conveyances, which has to be completed within a period of three working days as provided in clause 2(e).
In this case, Form GST MOV-4 is issued within the time prescribed as per Ext.P6 Circular. However, the consequence of submission of MOV-4 is that, once the said physical verification report is prepared and uploaded, the scope and purpose of inspection as contemplated as per section 68 is over and therefore the respondent cannot keep the articles in their possession, unless an order of detention as contemplated under proviso to sub-section (1) of section 129 is passed.
Thus, in the light of Article 300 A, an interference in the right of the property of a person can be made only by the authority of law. The word “law” in the context of Article 300-A must mean an Act of Parliament or of a State legislature, a rule, or a statutory order, having the force of law, that is positive or State made law. The rights in property can be curtailed, abridged or modified by the State only by exercising its legislative power. Deprivation of property can only be done according to law. Without law, there can be no deprivation of property.
Hence, it becomes the bounden duty of the official respondents to demonstrate the source of power they are exercising, while taking any decision or passing an order interfering with such Constitutional rights.
Once a confiscation order is passed and the title is vested upon the Government, the proper officer shall be entitled to take possession of the goods and conveyances if the possession is not already with the said authority. Therefore, mere initiation of proceedings under section 130 of the Act, by itself is not an authority for the officer concerned, to retain the goods in his possession and such retention of possession can be made, only following the procedure for detention contemplated under section 129 of the Act.
It is to be noted that, there is no prohibition in invoking section 130 proceedings after initiating the proceedings under section 129 of the Act. To be precise, in a case where, the proceedings were initiated under section 129 and during the course of such proceedings, the officer concerned arrives at a reasonable belief that the transactions which are the subject matter of the proceedings were carried out by the party concerned with an intention to evade the tax, it shall be open to the officer concerned, to switch over to the proceedings under section 130 of the Act. If that switching over of the proceedings takes place after an order of detention as contemplated under section 129(1), that would enable the officer concerned to hold the possession of the goods which are under confiscation proceedings.
Mere initiation of the confiscation proceedings would not validate such possession. This is because, when the detention is authorised by the statute by following certain procedure and issuance of certain orders, the same can be affected only by following such course of action. Any other method would defeat the purpose of the provisions. Thus, any action of the officer concerned to retain the possession without passing an order of detention as contemplated under the Act would be illegal which would enable the party concerned to seek release of the goods and conveyances.
Thus, it is clear that, the officers can exercise only those powers which are conferred upon them by the statute, because the powers of statutory bodies are derived, controlled and restricted by the statutes which create them and that any action of such bodies in excess of their power or in violation of the restrictions placed on their powers is ultra vires in view of the law laid down in Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram [1975 (2) TMI 111 - SUPREME COURT]
It can be seen that based on Ext.P7 notice issued to the petitioner in Form MOV-10, wherein, it was proposed to impose an amount of Rs.8,92,053/, as fine in lieu of confiscation of goods, the petitioner had already deposited the said amount. Even though the petitioner sought provisional release of the said goods on payment of confiscation of goods, since I found that the provisional release is not contemplated under section 130, the said prayer cannot be granted. However, I have already found that the continued detention of the goods is not legally sustainable, merely because of the reason that proceedings under section 130 of the Act is in progress. In the absence of any valid order of detention, the respondents cannot hold the possession of the goods.
Writ Petition is disposed of directing the respondents 1 to 3 to release the goods of the petitioner forthwith, upon the petitioner furnishing a simple bond, as it was found that the detention of the aforesaid goods and conveyance by the respondents are not supported by any statutory provisions. The competent officer shall comply with the proceedings for confiscation initiated as per Ext.P7 and shall finalise the same after giving the petitioner an opportunity to be heard, as expeditiously as possible.
Issues: (i) Whether the show-cause notice dated 10.09.2025 was vitiated by vagueness and non-disclosure of material particulars; (ii) Whether the order dated 25.08.2025 cancelling GST registration was passed under dictation and without independent exercise of quasi-judicial power; (iii) Whether the order dated 31.10.2025 rejecting the application for revocation was a non-speaking order reflecting pre-determination.
Issue (i): Whether the show-cause notice dated 10.09.2025 was vitiated by vagueness and non-disclosure of material particulars.
Analysis: The notice merely recited statutory language alleging availing of input tax credit in violation of Section 16 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 without specifying tax period, invoices, suppliers or quantification. Section 16 and Rule 21(e) require that a notice enabling meaningful response must disclose the material facts forming the basis of proposed action. The absence of particulars prevented effective response and undermined the requirements of due notice and principles of natural justice.
Conclusion: Issue (i) decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the order dated 25.08.2025 cancelling GST registration was passed under dictation and without independent exercise of quasi-judicial power.
Analysis: The sequence shows an investigative request dated 08.08.2025 preceding the cancellation order, with no record of independent evaluation or reasoned satisfaction by the authority under Section 29 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Rule 21(e) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017. Quasi-judicial power must be exercised on the basis of independent application of mind and objective satisfaction of jurisdictional facts; subordination to an investigative dictum indicates mechanical exercise of power and imperils constitutional and statutory safeguards.
Conclusion: Issue (ii) decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the order dated 31.10.2025 rejecting the application for revocation was a non-speaking order reflecting pre-determination.
Analysis: The purported show-cause on revocation and the final rejection reproduced the interim investigative findings verbatim, declaring liability to reject while inviting explanation. There was no independent reasoning addressing whether the alleged discrepancy met the statutory threshold under Section 16(2) or warranted cancellation under Rule 21(e). Such repetition of investigative conclusions without reasoning amounts to a non-speaking order and indicates pre-determination.
Conclusion: Issue (iii) decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned show-cause notice, cancellation order and order rejecting revocation are set aside; registration is to be restored and fresh proceedings, if any, must comply with statutory requirements by issuing a detailed notice and affording a reasonable opportunity to respond.
Ratio Decidendi: A quasi-judicial authority exercising power to cancel GST registration must independently apply its mind and issue a detailed notice disclosing material particulars (tax period, invoices, suppliers, quantification) so as to afford meaningful opportunity of hearing; mechanical reliance on an investigative directive or issuance of non-speaking orders reflecting pre-determination vitiates the exercise of such power.
Vagueness and failure to disclose particulars in show cause notice - principles of natural justice in tax proceedings - cancellation of GST registration under Rule 21(e) for availing ineligible input tax credit - independent exercise of quasi judicial power and prohibition on acting under dictation - non speaking order and pre determination in revocation proceedings -
Vagueness and failure to disclose particulars in show cause notice - principles of natural justice in tax proceedings - HELD THAT:- A bald reproduction of the statutory provision does not satisfy the requirement of “due notice”.
The petitioner, in its reply dated 19.08.2025, specifically objected to the vagueness of the allegation and asserted that, in the absence of particulars: tax period, invoices, suppliers, and quantum, it was impossible to furnish an effective response.
An opportunity of hearing is not an empty formality; it must be meaningful. The failure to disclose the basic material on which the authority proposes to act renders the notice arbitrary and unsustainable.
There is nothing on record to indicate that the proper officer independently evaluated the material or formed a satisfaction based on reasons of his own.
Independent exercise of quasi judicial power and prohibition on acting under dictation - cancellation of GST registration under Rule 21(e) for availing ineligible input tax credit - HELD THAT:- There is nothing on record to indicate that the proper officer independently evaluated the material or formed a satisfaction based on reasons of his own.
The law, in this regard, is well settled. In Orient Paper Mills [1967 (3) TMI 47 - SUPREME COURT] the Hon’ble Apex Court held that when a statute vests quasi-judicial power in an authority, that authority must exercise the power independently, and cannot act under the dictation of a superior administrative authority.
Such a principle is not an administrative courtesy; it is a constitutional imperative flowing from the rule of law. The discretion conferred by the statute cannot be surrendered to another.
Non speaking order and pre determination in revocation proceedings - principles of natural justice in tax proceedings - HELD THAT:- The final order dated 31.10.2025, rejecting the revocation application, reproduces verbatim so called reasons contained in the earlier communication. There is no independent reasoning. There is no analysis of whether the alleged discrepancy in GSTR-2B, assuming it exists, satisfies the statutory conditions under Section 16(2) or attracts the rigour of Rule 21(e).
The act provides adequate machinery for assessment, adjudication and recovery. To cancel registration solely on the basis of an interim investigation report, without furnishing particulars and without independent satisfaction, amounts to obstructing the statutory process.
In view thereof, the impugned show-cause notice dated 10.09.2025, order of cancellation dated 25.08.2025 and order dated 31.10.2025 are set aside.
The petitioner’s registration shall stand restored forthwith.
It is, however, opined to the authority under the GST Act, 2017 to initiate fresh proceeding in accordance with law, if so advised, by issuing a detailed show-cause notice specifying the precise allegations; the tax period involved; the invoices and the suppliers relied upon and the quantification of the alleged ineligible credit and by affording the petitioner a reasonable opportunity of hearing.
The writ petition is allowed as indicated hereinabove.
Issues: (i) Whether impugned orders passed ex parte as a consequence of notices/SCNs being uploaded only under the 'Additional Notices' tab on the GST portal, which did not effectively bring the SCNs to the notice of the petitioner, required setting aside and remand for fresh adjudication; (ii) Whether the petitioner should be afforded an opportunity to file replies and for personal hearings with effective communication safeguards.
Issue (i): Whether lack of effective notice caused by uploading SCNs under the 'Additional Notices' tab warrants setting aside the impugned orders and remand for fresh adjudication.
Analysis: The petitions concern SCNs dated 23 September 2023 and 28 May 2024 which, as pleaded, were uploaded under the 'Additional Notices' tab and were not effectively brought to the petitioner s attention, resulting in non-filing of replies and ex parte orders. Prior decisions of this Court on similar facts have treated portal-only uploads under that tab as not constituting effective communication where access was not demonstrably available, and have set aside orders to permit adjudication on merits. The factual distinction between notices dated before and after the portal changes was considered but the overarching concern is that adjudication proceeded on the basis of non-filing owing to alleged deficient communication.
Conclusion: The impugned orders are set aside and remanded for fresh adjudication on the ground of lack of effective notice arising from the mode of portal upload.
Issue (ii): Whether the petitioner should be permitted to file replies and be heard by personal hearing with specified safeguards for communication.
Analysis: The petitions by the same petitioner raise a common grievance regarding portal-based intimation. To ensure adjudication on merits and to meet requirements of fair opportunity and natural justice, specific procedural safeguards were directed: a time period for filing replies, issuance of personal hearing notices, and communication of those notices via registered mobile number and e-mail, together with access to the GST portal to enable uploading of replies and access to notices and documents.
Conclusion: The petitioner is granted four weeks to file replies; the Adjudicating Authority shall issue and communicate personal hearing notices by registered mobile and e-mail, allow portal access, consider the replies and hearing submissions, and pass fresh orders.
Final Conclusion: The relief sought to set aside the impugned ex parte orders and to secure an opportunity to be heard has been granted by setting aside the orders and remanding the matters for fresh adjudication with specified communication safeguards.
Ratio Decidendi: Where statutory notices are uploaded on a portal in a manner that does not effectively bring them to the notice of the addressee, resulting in non-filing of replies and ex parte adjudication, the appropriate remedy is to set aside the impugned orders and remand for fresh adjudication after affording an effective opportunity to file replies and be heard.
Effective service of show cause notices by electronic portal - right to be heard / audi alteram partem - remand for fresh adjudication to secure opportunity of personal hearing - portal-based intimation and communication safeguards - access to portal for filing replies - HELD THAT:- It is the petitioner’s case that, in both matters, the mode of uploading did not result in the SCNs being effectively brought to its notice, and consequently, no replies were filed. It is further submitted that the impugned orders came to be passed ex-parte, without the petitioner being afforded an effective opportunity to challenge the proceedings on merits.
In fact, this Court in Neelgiri Machinery through its Proprietor Mr. Anil Kumar Vs. Commissioner Delhi Goods And Service Tax And Others [2025 (3) TMI 1308 - DELHI HIGH COURT], under similar circumstances where the SCN was uploaded on the ‘Additional Notices Tab’ had remanded the matter.
Accordingly, the impugned orders are set aside. The petitioner is granted 4 weeks’ time to file the replies to the SCNs. Upon filing of the replies, the Adjudicating Authority shall issue notices for personal hearing to the petitioner. The personal hearing notices shall be communicated to the petitioner on the registered mobile number and e-mail address.
The replies filed by the petitioner to the SCNs along with the submissions made in the personal hearing proceedings shall be duly considered by the Adjudicating Authority and fresh orders with respect to both the SCNs shall be passed accordingly.
The present writ petitions are disposed of in terms.
Issues: Whether ad-interim relief should be granted to the petitioner on the condition of furnishing a bank guarantee and whether the authorities should be restrained from encashing the same for a limited period.
Analysis: The Court directed issuance of notice and recorded waivers of service for specified respondents. The Court ordered the petitioner to furnish a bank guarantee of Rs. 40,00,000 from a nationalised bank within six weeks. The authorities were restrained from encashing the bank guarantee for a period of two months following the final decision in the writ petition. The ad-interim relief was limited to the next date only and is conditional upon the furnishing of the bank guarantee.
Conclusion: Ad-interim relief granted in favour of the petitioner on the condition that the petitioner furnishes a bank guarantee of Rs. 40,00,000 within six weeks; the authorities are restrained from encashing the bank guarantee for two months post the decision of the writ petition.
Ad-interim relief - bank guarantee - stay on encashment of security - HELD THAT:- Issue notice to respondents returnable on 19th November 2025. Mr. Ladda, learned counsel waives service for respondent No. 6. Learned A.G.P. waives service for State.
The petitioner shall furnish Bank guarantee in the sum of Rs. 40,00,000/- (Rupees Forty Lakhs) of a Nationalised Bank within a period of six weeks from today. The authorities concerned shall not encash the same for a period of two months post the decision of this Writ Petition.
On this condition, ad-interim relief in terms of prayer clause (K), till next date only.
Issues: (i) Whether the respondent (supplier of construction services) profiteered by failing to pass on the additional benefit of input tax credit arising on introduction of GST for the period 01.07.2017 to 29.01.2020, and if so, the quantum of profiteering and relief to be granted.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined DGAP's re-investigation report which computed pre GST and post GST ratios of available input tax credit to purchase value, finding an increase from 5.08% to 12.28% (an additional 7.20%). Applying that increase to post GST purchase value and attributing savings per square foot to units sold in the pre GST period, DGAP calculated a total profiteered amount of Rs. 4,65,07,296 plus GST @12% (total Rs. 5,20,88,172). DGAP further verified that the respondent had already passed ITC benefits aggregating Rs. 6,63,41,543 to 253 pre GST buyers, resulting in an excess benefit for 240 buyers and a shortfall of Rs. 5,80,280 in respect of 13 buyers. The Tribunal also considered the respondent's written acceptance of the DGAP report and its undertaking to pay the outstanding amount with applicable interest. The Tribunal applied Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (anti profiteering) and Rule 133(3)(b) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 regarding payment of interest, and noted applicability of penalty under Section 171(3A) for the relevant period.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the respondent profiteered by failing to pass on the full additional ITC benefit; the balance profiteered amount of Rs. 5,80,280 is liable to be refunded to 13 eligible buyers along with applicable interest. The DGAP investigation report is accepted and the respondent is directed to pay the balance amount with interest within 30 days and submit compliance to the jurisdictional CGST/SGST Commissioner with intimation to DGAP within two months.
Profiteering - benefit of input tax credit arising on introduction of GST - commensurate reduction in price - Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - Rule 128 of the CGST Rules, 2017 - Rule 133(3)(b) of the CGST Rules, 2017 - penalty u/s 171(3A) of the CGST Act, 2017 - HELD THAT:- DGAP concluded that the Respondent has already passed more than the required benefit to 240 eligible home buyers. However, the Respondent has not commensurately passed on the benefit of input tax credit to 13 eligible buyers as they have passed on an amount of Rs. 21,84,437/- whereas they have made a profiteering amount of Rs. 27,64,716/-. Thus, ITC benefit of Rs. 5,80,280/- is still required to be passed on to these 13 home buyers.
The Tribunal is of the view that the Respondent has profiteered by an amount of Rs. 4,65,07,296/- plus GST @ 12% i.e. Rs. 55,80,876/-, totalling to Rs. 5,20,88,172/- and ITC benefit of Rs. 6,63,41,543/- has already been passed on by the Respondent to the 240 eligible recipients in the project “F Residences”. Hence, the ITC benefit passed on to such 240 buyers is greater than the profiteering amount calculated in respect of these buyers. Moreover, it is also observed that as mentioned in Table ‘C’ of the Report, out of profiteering amount of Rs. 27,64,716/- (inclusive of GST), the Respondent has passed on an amount of Rs. 21,84,437/- to 13 eligible buyers (S. No. 3 of Table – ‘C’). Hence, ITC benefit of Rs. 5,80,280/- is still required to be passed on to these 13 buyers. The Respondent has accepted DGAP investigation report and has promised to refund the balance profiteered amount along with interest to eligible 13 home buyers. Thus, in view of the promise of the Respondent to refund the balance profiteered amount along with interest, the Respondent has agreed to comply with the provisions of Section 171 of the CGST Act.
Accordingly, we hold that the balance profiteering amount of Rs. 5,80,280/- is liable to be passed to the 13 eligible buyers. Further as per Rule 133(3)(b) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, the Respondent is liable to pay interest as applicable to the 13 buyers. The Respondent shall pay the remaining profiteered amount of Rs. 5,80,280/- to the 13 eligible buyers along with applicable interest within 30 days and submit compliance report to the jurisdictional CGST/SGST Commissioner with intimation to the DGAP within 2 months.
Penalty under Section 171(3A) - HELD THAT:- The said provision came into force w.e.f. 01.01.2020, and as the period of contravention in the present case is from 01.07.2017 to 29.01.2020. therefore, penalty is leviable as per Section 171(3A) of the CGST Act.
The DGAP’s investigation report is accepted and the case is disposed of, accordingly.
Outcome: Delay condoned. The Special Leave Petition was dismissed and the accompanying interlocutory application(s) stood disposed of.
Maintainability of settlement application - Cut-off date for proceedings pending- last date for preferring the application before the Interim Board for Settlement, so as to obtain the benefit of the directions - time granted by the Supreme Court taking note of the Covid pandemic situation - as by HC [2025 (6) TMI 2101 - KERALA HIGH COURT] clarified the issue as regards the cut-off date on which the proceedings have to be pending for supporting an application for settlement before the Interim Board for Settlement u/s 245C, the stand of the Interim Board for Settlement that the proceedings had to be pending as on 31.01.2021 cannot now be legally sustained. As the appellant herein had filed the application for settlement on 17.03.2022, which is well within the time granted by the Supreme Court taking note of the Covid pandemic situation that had arisen in the country, the appellant herein can be permitted to pursue his application that was filed before the Interim Board for Settlement on 17.03.2022.
HELD THAT:- We are not inclined to interfere with the impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court.
Special Leave Petition is dismissed and the accompanying interlocutory application(s), if any, stands disposed of.
Issues: Whether the assessing officer was justified in issuing the certificate under Section 197 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 directing withholding tax at 7% by treating the petitioner's receipts as royalty/fees for technical services (taxable under Section 44DA) instead of as income taxable under Section 44BB.
Analysis: The Court examined the interplay between Section 44BB and Section 44DA (post the Finance Act, 2010 amendments) and the necessity that receipts qualify in substance as royalty or fees for technical services for Section 44DA to apply. The Court noted that the AO issued a provisional certificate at 7% without articulating reasons for departing from the prior year's treatment (3.5%) and without addressing binding/authoritative precedent on identical facts. The Court considered the petitioner's earlier decision of this Court (PGS Exploration (Norway) AS) and the Supreme Court's decision in ONGC which held that seismic survey services connected with oil exploration fall within the exclusion in Explanation 2 to Section 9(1)(vii) and are taxable under Section 44BB. The impugned order merely recorded that the services are FTS/Royalty without specifying whether receipts were royalty or FTS or providing reasoning linking contract facts to the definitions in Explanation 2 to Sections 9(1)(vi) or 9(1)(vii). Given the absence of reasons, failure to engage with the petitioner's prior binding decision and the legal tests established in ONGC, the AO's conclusion that receipts were taxable under Section 44DA could not be sustained. The Court therefore set aside the certificate and remanded the matter to the AO to consider the applicable law (including ONGC and PGS Exploration (Norway) AS) and the question of any element of royalty, and to pass a fresh order within three weeks.
Conclusion: The impugned certificate and order under Section 197 directing withholding at 7% is set aside and the matter is remanded to the Assessing Officer for fresh consideration in accordance with law; decision is in favour of the assessee.
Section 197 certificate - receipts of the petitioner amounts to Royalty/FTS liable to be taxed under Section 44DA - For computing the rate of TDS, the Revenue assumed profit at rate of 20% and directed that TDS be deducted at the rate of 7% - case of the petitioner is primarily that the receipts shall be taxable as per provisions of Section 44BB of the Act; whereas the AO came to the conclusion that the services/receipts provided by the petitioner are in the nature of the FTS/Royalty and hence income from these activities is covered under Section 44DA - interplay between the provisions of Sections 44BB and 44DA and their applicability to non-residents carrying on the business of exploration etc. of mineral oils
HELD THAT:- After the amendment introduced by the Finance Act, 2010, FTS/ Royalty arising out of activities in connection with the exploration etc. of mineral oils shall be taxable as per Section 44DA of the Act by virtue of the second proviso to Section 44DA(1). However, for the said provision to apply, the income/receipts at the hand of the assessee necessarily need to be in the nature of FTS/Royalty. As such, to decide the controversy in the present case, it is necessary to examine whether the consideration received by the petitioner amount to FTS/Royalty.
The issue regarding FTS in respect of this very petitioner has been settled by this Court in PGS Exploration (Norway) AS .[2016 (4) TMI 317 - DELHI HIGH COURT] wherein the Court considering the activities of 2D/3D seismic survey carried out by the petitioner in connection with exploration of oil held that the income received pursuant to the contract with ONGC would not amount to FTS.
We find that though the AO had not considered the above judgment for the FY 2024-25, he issued the certificate withholding tax @ 3.5% under the same contract. However, in the impugned order / certificate, there is a clear departure from the earlier FY as the AO has stated that the income from the activities of the petitioner is FTS/Royalty, covered under Section 44DA of the Act.
In the impugned order, the AO has merely stated that the services are in the nature of FTS/Royalty; hence the activities are covered under Section 44DA of the Act. There is no reason provided as to why there is a deviation from the earlier FY, wherein the receipts of the petitioner were held to be covered under Section 44BB of the Act. Further, the order does not specify as to whether the receipts (or parts thereof), are in the nature of FTS or in the nature of Royalty, to be covered under Section 44DA of the Act.
Be that as it may, the finding of the AO with respect to FTS cannot be sustained in view of the decision in PGS Exploration (Norway) AS (supra) wherein this Court had held to the contrary in the case of the petitioner itself, albeit before the amendment was introduced. As such, the stand of the Revenue that the income of the petitioner would amount to FTS and would be taxable as per Section 44DA prima facie cannot be accepted.
Thus, the impugned order and certificate under Section 197 of the Act be set aside and the matter be remanded back to the AO for him to consider the law laid down in the case of ONGC [2015 (7) TMI 91 - SUPREME COURT] as also this Court in PGS Exploration (Norway) AS (supra) as well as the issue with regard to the element of Royalty and then pass a fresh order under Section 197 of the Act.
Issues: (i) Whether the revisional jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Income tax Act, 1961 was validly exercised in the facts of the case; (ii) Whether conversion of stock in trade into a capital asset immediately prior to sale was properly invoked; (iii) Whether surplus from sale of unlisted preference shares is business income or long term capital gain; (iv) Whether Paragraph 3(b) of CBDT Circular No. 6/2016 dated 29.02.2016 applies.
Issue (i): Validity of exercise of revisional jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Income tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The Court examined whether both limbs of Section 263 (order being erroneous and prejudicial to revenue) were satisfied. It noted the Assessing Officer had issued inquiries under Section 142(1), considered documentary evidence, and adopted a view consistent with the CBDT Instruction dated 02.05.2016. Brevity of reasoning alone was not treated as absence of inquiry. The revisional order did not demonstrate the requisite failure of inquiry or illegality necessary to invoke Section 263.
Conclusion: The exercise of jurisdiction under Section 263 was not justified; conclusion in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether a conversion of stock in trade into a capital asset immediately before sale could be sustained.
Analysis: The Court considered whether prior authorities recorded any finding of conversion and whether the revenue could raise a new factual plea at the appellate stage. The record showed no finding of conversion by the AO or in the revisional order; introducing conversion as a fresh factual premise at the appellate stage was impermissible. On merits, the isolated nature of the transaction, lengthy holding period and absence of trading pattern did not support conversion.
Conclusion: The conversion plea was untenable; conclusion in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Characterisation of surplus on sale of unlisted preference shares as business income or long term capital gain.
Analysis: The Court applied established factors-intention at acquisition, period of holding, frequency and manner of transactions and accounting treatment. The shares were acquired by board resolution as investment, held for nearly six years, sold in a solitary transaction and consistently valued at cost. CBDT Instruction dated 02.05.2016 treating transfers of unlisted shares as capital gains (absent specified exceptions) was held applicable. No evidence of sham transaction or pattern of trading was found.
Conclusion: The surplus qualifies as long term capital gain; conclusion in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Applicability of Paragraph 3(b) of CBDT Circular No. 6/2016 dated 29.02.2016.
Analysis: Paragraph 3(b) of Circular No. 6/2016 pertains to listed shares and an assessee's election for capital gains treatment and consistency for listed securities. The present case concerned unlisted preference shares governed by CBDT Instruction dated 02.05.2016. The revisional order did not rely on Paragraph 3(b), and the Tribunal was not required to decide issues not raised in the revisional reasoning.
Conclusion: Paragraph 3(b) is inapplicable; conclusion in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: All substantial questions of law admitted at the time of admission are answered in favour of the assessee; the Tribunal correctly set aside the revisional order under Section 263 and restored the assessment order.
Ratio Decidendi: Section 263 of the Income tax Act, 1961 requires both error and prejudice to revenue to be shown; where the Assessing Officer has made relevant inquiries and adopted a plausible view supported by material and applicable administrative instructions (including CBDT Instruction dated 02.05.2016), revisional jurisdiction cannot be exercised merely because a superior authority disagrees.
Revision u/s 263 - CIT(A) held the assessment erroneous and prejudicial to revenue interests due to the shares' classification as stock-in-trade, excess set-off and disallowable capital loss - HELD THAT:- Record herein demonstrates that the AO diligently inquired into the assessee's claim concerning the purchase and sale of 34 unlisted preference shares in ICICI Bank Ltd. A notice u/s 142(1) was issued, prompting the assessee to submit comprehensive evidence such as the Board resolution dated May 21, 2012 authorizing the acquisition as an investment, purchase and sale documents, balance sheet extracts, capital gains computation and reliance on the CBDT Instruction dated May 02, 2016. AO considered this material and accepted the Long-Term Capital Gains claim, reflecting a prima facie inquiry rather than a mechanical acceptance.
Principal Commissioner's invocation of Section 263 falters on the ground that the assessment order lacks “elaborate discussion.” It is a settled jurisprudence, as held in CIT v. Max India Ltd. [2007 (11) TMI 12 - SUPREME COURT] that clarifies brevity in reasoning does not equate to non-inquiry or error. Where the AO has made relevant enquiries and adopted a plausible view supported by material, revisional jurisdiction cannot be exercised merely because the revisional authority disagrees. This principle safeguards against substituting superior wisdom for the AO's reasonable judgment, preserving administrative efficiency.
As the AO's stance aligned with the binding CBDT Instruction dated May 02, 2016, which categorises income from unlisted shares transfers as “Capital Gains,” in absence of specified exceptions. No such exceptions were indicated or proven herein, rendering the view not only plausible but authoritative. Thus, the order was neither erroneous nor prejudicial to revenue, as no revenue loss accrued from a legally tenable position.
Thus, the Tribunal correctly set aside the revisionary order, holding that Section 263 requires more than mere retrospective disapproval. We answer substantial question (a) in the affirmative, i.e., against the revenue and in favour of the assessee.
Assessee converted stock-in-trade into a capital asset shortly before the sale lacks foundational support in the prior proceedings, rendering it untenable - The Tribunal's observation in this regard aligns squarely with the settled principles of tax jurisprudence. Appellate forums, including the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), operate within the confines of the record as it stood before lower authorities.
As held in CIT v. Shree Manjunatheswara Packing Products & Camphor Works [1997 (12) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] a new plea altering the character of the transaction cannot be sprung at the appellate level without prior ventilation. Here, the absence of any conversion finding in the AO's assessment or PC's revision order bars the revenue from pivoting to this argument, preventing a backdoor re-characterization of the gains.
Even on merits, the revenue's plea falters. The shares were acquired in June 2012 and transferred in March 2018, reflecting a holding period of nearly six years, far exceeding the typical tenure for stock-in-trade in trading activities. The transaction was isolated and singular, devoid of the volume, frequency or intent of repetitive trading. Absent evidence of business-like activity or proximate conversion, the gains qualify as capital gains under section 45 of the Act not business income under section 28 of the Act.
Tribunal did not erred in rejecting the plea. We answer substantial question (b) in the affirmative, i.e., against the revenue and in favour of the assessee affirming the capital asset characterization.
Characterization of gain - correct head of income - whether the surplus arising from the sale of unlisted preference shares by the assessee constitutes business income or capital gains? - In the present case, the shares were acquired pursuant to a specific Board resolution designating them as investments, evidencing a clear investment intent from inception. They were held for nearly six years, a duration indicative of a long-term investment rather than trading stock. Critically, there was no regularity or frequency of transactions making it a solitary sale, with no pattern of repetitive dealing. The shares were consistently valued at cost in the assessee's books, eschewing the “lower of cost or market value” method typical of trading activities. The assessee's conduct thus aligns squarely with that of an investor, not a trader. It is a trite law that mere accounting nomenclature cannot dictate the true nature of the asset or income. As held in Electronic Corporation of Tamil Nadu Ltd. [2018 (12) TMI 47 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] the substance prevails over form, reinforcing that labels alone are inconclusive.
While CBDT Circular No. 6/2016 dated February 29, 2016 primarily addresses listed shares, it underscores the fact-dependent nature of the inquiry and the policy thrust towards consistency, applicable by analogy. The revenue's failure to invoke or prove exceptions, such as lifting the corporate veil, leaves the assessee's claim unimpugned. The Assessing Officer's contrary view, classifying the surplus as business income, lacked sustainability in light of these binding circulars, which carry the force of law under section 119 of the Act. The Tribunal's decision to treat the surplus as long-term capital gains was thus justified. We answer substantial question (c) in the affirmative, i.e., against the revenue and in favour of the assessee.
Revenue's assertion that Paragraph 3(b) of Circular No. 6/2016 dated February 29, 2016 was overlooked merits careful scrutiny - The instant case revolves around unlisted preference shares, rendering Paragraph 3(b) inapposite. The governing directive is the CBDT Instruction dated May 02, 2016, which expressly applies to unlisted shares and mandates their treatment as capital gains, thereby obviating any grounds for dispute by the Assessing Officer.
Revisional proceedings u/s 263 of the Act were not predicated on Paragraph 3(b) of the aforementioned Circular. The Principal Commissioner invoked entirely distinct reasoning in initiating revision, unconnected to the Circular's stipulations for listed shares. Consequently, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was only responsible for checking if the revision order was legally valid. It can't be blamed for not deciding on an issue that wasn't part of the revision order's reasoning. Expecting it to do so would wrongly force the Tribunal to go beyond what the order actually covered. We answer substantial question (d) in the affirmative, i.e., against the revenue and in favour of the assessee.
Issues: Whether the Tribunal erred in granting registration under Section 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to the respondent-society by relying on oral submissions not supported by pleadings or evidence, and whether the matter should be remitted for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The CIT(E) had rejected the respondent-society's application for registration under Section 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after examining the receipts and expenditures for the relevant years and finding that the society's predominant activity was organising conferences funded largely by pharmaceutical companies, with no evidence of charitable activities such as treatment of needy patients or community services. The Tribunal reversed that decision primarily on oral submissions that the society had implemented the ECHO project and undertaken prison screening and training, but no supporting documentary evidence or pleadings were placed before the Tribunal and no opportunity was given to the revenue to meet those pleas. Relying on unsubstantiated oral pleas which were not part of the record or contested violates the admissibility rules and principles of natural justice. Subsequent grant of registration for later years by revenue authorities does not retroactively validate activities in the earlier years which must be assessed on their own record. Given these defects, the appropriate course is to set aside the Tribunal's order and remit the matter to the CIT(E) to decide afresh after considering the existing record and any additional legally admissible evidence the parties may present within a specified time.
Conclusion: The appeal is allowed in favour of the revenue by setting aside the Tribunal's order; the matter is remitted to the CIT(E) for fresh decision on entitlement to registration under Section 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the relevant years.
Rejection of application for registration u/s 12A -main object of the respondent-society appeared to be to act as a bridge between pharmaceutical companies and doctors through holding of conferences as not charitable - ITAT accepted application as not only was the respondent-society holding conferences which led to enhancement of knowledge of medical professionals which in turn benefitted the society at large but the respondent-society was also implementing the ECHO project in collaboration with the University of New Mexico Health Science Centre and under the guidance of the PGIMER, Chandigarh through which respondent-society was helping the prisoners in Punjab who were suffering from liver diseases and that the respondent-society was also distributing, free of cost, test kits to diagnose if any of the prisoners in Punjab was suffering from liver diseases.
HELD THAT:- No evidence in support of implementation of the ECHO project by the respondent-society in the prisons of the State of Punjab was placed before the Tribunal by the respondent-society. No application for additional evidence was also filed. Therefore, it is clear that through the impugned order, the Tribunal set aside the order of the CIT(E) only on the basis of oral submissions made before it which were not backed by any pleadings or evidence which is legally impermissible. The appellant-revenue had also not been put to any formal notice of such pleas raised on the respondent-society’s behalf which also clearly violates the principles of natural justice.
The fact that the respondent-society has been granted registration u/s 12A of the Act for the financial years which are subsequent to the financial years in question cannot be made the reason to grant it registration under the same section for the financial years in question because for registration u/s 12A of the Act its activities for the relevant financial years would be relevant.
As in normal circumstances, we would have simply set aside the impugned order of the Tribunal with consequences to follow but in the peculiar facts of this case where submissions were raised on behalf of the respondent-society before the Tribunal with regard to it indulging in charitable activities but no evidence in support of such submission was produced and because for subsequent financial years the revenue authorities have granted to the respondent-society registration under Section 12A of the Act, we deem it just and appropriate to not only set aside the impugned order passed by the Tribunal but also the order of the CIT(E) and remit the matter to the CIT(E) for a fresh decision as to whether the respondent-society is entitled to be granted registration under Section 12A of the Act for the financial years in question.
Issues: Whether the petitioner is entitled to a refund in terms of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal order as modified, and whether the matter should be remitted to the Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax for determination in view of missing/aged records.
Analysis: The petitioner seeks refund founded on a Tribunal order which was the subject of a reference to this Court but which was ultimately not proceeded with. The record indicates that both parties lack certain historical documents due to the passage of decades. Given the evidentiary lacuna and the practical difficulty in final adjudication on the existing record, a direct adjudication by the writ court is impracticable. A fact-sensitive enquiry by a competent tax authority of the rank of Commissioner or above, empowered to call for available records, receive the petitioner's submissions, and decide in accordance with law, is an appropriate mechanism to determine entitlement to refund.
Conclusion: The matter is remitted to the Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax, West Bengal & Sikkim, to nominate a Commissioner-level officer who shall enquire, hear the petitioner, and pass a reasoned order determining the refund claim in accordance with law within the directed timeframe.
Refund claim - order as modified by an order passed by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal in an appeal preferred by the appellant against an order passed by the Commissioner under Section 263 - petitioner contends that upon the reference being dismissed the order of the Tribunal attained finality and as such the petitioner became entitled to refund - HELD THAT:- If the petitioner is entitled to refund, the petitioner should not be denied refund. At the same time, the petitioner who claims refund must be vigilant enough to maintain documents which would be required for the petitioner to justify its claim. Alongside, since the reference that was carried to this Court was dismissed only on July 31, 2019, therefore the Department should also not shirk its responsibility by saying that no document whatsoever is available with the Department.
A meaningful solution to the stated problem is therefore required. Calling for affidavits in the present case would not serve any purpose. This Court therefore deems it fit to remit the matter back to the Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax West Bengal & Sikkim (hereafter “PCCIT”) who would authorize a competent officer to look into the matter and come up with a proper solution to the problem posed.
Accordingly, it is directed that the PCCIT shall appoint/nominate a competent officer of the rank of Commissioner of Income Tax or above for the aforesaid purpose. Such officer shall devise an appropriate mechanism and conduct relevant enquiry for reaching a solution to the problem at hand. The competent officer aforesaid, shall within a week of its appointment issue notice to the petitioner calling upon the petitioner to present its case before the said officer. The petitioner shall then be entitled to state its case before the said competent officer. Such competent officer shall thereafter decide the matter pertaining to the refund claim of the petitioner, in accordance with law.
The competent officer shall take an informed decision and ensure that if the petitioner is indeed entitled to any refund, the same is not denied.
Issues: (i) Whether indexed cost of acquisition/construction is allowable for the entire property when an owner transfers an immovable property to a developer for redevelopment in consideration of constructed area and undivided share; (ii) Whether the assessee is eligible for deduction under Section 54 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 when, after redevelopment, the assessee receives multiple floors constituting a single residential house.
Issue (i): Whether indexed cost of acquisition/construction is allowable for the entire property transferred under a redevelopment arrangement.
Analysis: The assessee and her husband handed over the existing residential property for redevelopment and, in lieu thereof, received constructed area (multiple floors) plus undivided share in land and monetary consideration. The terms of the redevelopment agreement show that the old residential property was transferred and consideration was received in the form of built-up area and undivided land share. The transfer therefore falls within the meaning of transfer under Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the capital asset transferred was the existing immovable property; accordingly the cost of acquisition with indexation under Section 48 applies to that capital asset.
Conclusion: Indexed cost of acquisition/construction is allowable for the entire property and cannot be restricted to 22.5% of the undivided share; this disallowance by the Assessing Officer is deleted. (Decision in favour of the assessee.)
Issue (ii): Whether the assessee is eligible for deduction under Section 54 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 when, post redevelopment, the assessee receives multiple floors that together constitute one residential house.
Analysis: Except for the one floor handed over to the developer, the remaining floors were retained by the assessee and her husband as part of the single newly constructed residential building; the developer did not receive authority to develop and sell to outsiders. The factual matrix therefore shows that the assessee retained a single residential house in the form of multiple floors and is entitled to the benefit of Section 54 subject to factual verification of the computation by the Assessing Officer.
Conclusion: The assessee is eligible to claim deduction under Section 54 of the Income-tax Act, 1961; Assessing Officer directed to verify and allow the computation. (Decision in favour of the assessee.)
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed on both decided issues, directing deletion of the disallowance of indexed cost and directing the Assessing Officer to verify and allow deduction under Section 54.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an owner transfers an existing residential property for redevelopment in exchange for constructed area and undivided land share, such transfer is a transfer of the capital asset under Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the assessee is entitled to indexation under Section 48 for the entire property and, if the retained constructed floors constitute one residential house, to deduction under Section 54 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Capital gain computation - transfer of capital asset in terms of Section 2(47) - transfers an immovable property to a developer for redevelopment - Claim of indexed cost of acquisition/construction - Deduction u/s 54 -
Assessee and her husband were owners of an immovable property, being a residential house constructed over a land admeasuring 500 sq. yad entered into a agreement with a developer as the old residential house was to be demolished and in its place, a new residential house having ground plus three floors was to be constructed entirely with the investment of the developer - HELD THAT:- Terms of the agreement clearly demonstrate that in lieu of the existing immovable property handed over to developer for redevelopment, the assessee and her husband received ground plus two floors and the undivided share in the land to the extent of constructed area falling into their shares. Of course, additionally, the monetary amount. Thus, in our view, there was a transfer of capital asset in terms of Section 2(47). The capital asset transferred was the existing immovable property in lieu of which assessee and her husband received the constructed area along with undivided share over the land.
Therefore, cost of acquisition with indexation benefit in terms of Section 48 of the Act would be available to the assessee over the entire property and cannot be limited to the 22.5% of the undivided share in land, corresponding to the constructed area falling to the share of the developer. Therefore, disallowance of assessee’s claim of indexed cost of acquisition/construction by the AO is unsustainable, hence, deserves to be deleted. Accordingly, we do so.
Deduction u/s. 54 - Undisputedly, in place of the old building used by the assessee and her husband for residential purpose, the builder has developed a new building consisting of ground plus three floors. Because the developer invested own fund for the development of new building one floor was given to him in lieu of cost of construction. However, fact remains that except one floor given to the builder, rest of the building remained in the possession of assessee and her husband. It is not a case where the builder was given the authority and freedom to develop the property for sale to outsiders. Therefore, two floors given to the assessee are part of one residential house and cannot be considered as more than one in number.
Thus, in on overall consideration of facts and materials on record, we hold that the assessee is eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54. AO is directed to factually verify the computation of deduction u/s. 54 of the Act and allow.
Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the notice issued under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after expiry of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year is valid when the sanction/approval under section 151(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was granted by an officer (Joint Commissioner of Income Tax) who is not the competent authority specified in section 151(1).
Analysis: The assessment year under dispute is within the ambit of section 151(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 which prescribes that after the expiry of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year no notice under section 148 can be issued unless the Principal Chief Commissioner/Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner/Commissioner is satisfied with the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer. The notice dated 30.03.2021 shows that approval was granted by the Joint Commissioner of Income Tax, who is not among the officers empowered by section 151(1) to grant such sanction. Lack of proper sanction therefore undermines the competency to issue the notice and the consequent assumption of jurisdiction under section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. This defect is a fundamental jurisdictional error and not a curable or merely procedural irregularity. The submission that any extension under relief legislation would validate the sanction was not accepted on the facts.
Conclusion: The notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 issued without the proper sanction required by section 151(1) is invalid; the assessment order passed pursuant to that notice is quashed and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Validity of reopening of assessment - Notice after expiry of four years - prior approval of the Range Head, i.e., JCIT accorded -sanction u/s 151(1) from competent authority - HELD THAT:- After expiry of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year, the competent authority who can grant approval u/s.151(1) of the Act is PCCIT/CCIT/PCIT/CIT, whereas, in the facts of the present appeal, the sanction has been obtained from the JCIT. This, in our view, is in violation of section 151(1) of the Act.
Thus, it is required to be examined what would be the effect of such violation. In our view, since lack of proper sanction strikes at the very root of assumption of jurisdiction u/s. 147 of the Act, it is a fundamental jurisdictional error, hence, not a curable defect. The decision relied upon assessee supports this view.
The contention of DR that the extension granted under The Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA) would apply to section 151 of the Act, in our view, is unacceptable.
We hold that notice u/s. 148 of the Act having been issued without proper sanction in terms with section 151(1) of the Act, is invalid. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the addition of Rs. 38,92,692/- treated as unexplained cash credit and added under Section 68, and related application of special tax rate, was justified; (ii) Whether the reassessment proceedings initiated under Section 147/148 and the order under Section 148A(d) are valid where the prior sanction/approval was granted by an authority other than that required under Section 151(ii).
Issue (i): Whether the addition of Rs. 38,92,692/- as unexplained cash credit (invoking Section 68) and consequential tax computation involving special tax rate was sustainable.
Analysis: The assessee produced date-wise stock and sales registers, purchase and sales details, VAT returns and other contemporaneous documentation to explain cash deposits as arising from genuine cash sales during the relevant year. The assessing officer treated part of the cash deposits as unexplained solely on account of non-availability of PAN for some purchasers and rejected books without pointing to specific defects or affording an opportunity to be heard. The appellate authority re-examined the materials but remitted the issue to the assessing officer instead of deciding on merits. Given the verifiable supporting evidence on record, the addition could not be sustained on the limited ground of absent PAN details. The issue as to the applicability of the special tax rate was rendered academic upon deletion of the addition.
Conclusion: In favour of Assessee - the addition of Rs. 38,92,692/- is deleted.
Issue (ii): Whether the reassessment notice and proceedings are invalid for want of sanction from the authority specified under Section 151(ii) where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the assessment year.
Analysis: The order under Section 148A(d) and notice under Section 148 were issued after the three-year period had expired. Under the substituted regime post Finance Act, 2021 and as clarified by subsequent decisions, issuance of a notice after the three-year period requires prior approval from the higher authorities enumerated in Section 151(ii). The approval in the present case was obtained from an authority not specified under Section 151(ii). Reliefs under TOLA and judicial precedents concerning timelines and competent authority were considered; the amended proviso introduced w.e.f. 01.04.2023 does not operate retrospectively to validate earlier actions. Non-compliance with the statutory requirement of obtaining sanction from the specified higher authority vitiates jurisdiction to issue the reassessment notice and all consequential proceedings.
Conclusion: In favour of Assessee - the order under Section 148A(d), the notice under Section 148 and the assessment order passed pursuant thereto are quashed and set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeal by the assessee is allowed insofar as the addition of Rs. 38,92,692/- is deleted; the Revenue's appeal challenging the quashing of reassessment proceedings is dismissed because the reassessment notice and consequent proceedings were invalid for lack of statutory sanction.
Ratio Decidendi: Where reassessment proceedings are initiated after the three-year period from the end of the relevant assessment year, prior approval must be obtained from the authority specified under Section 151(ii); failure to obtain sanction from that specified authority vitiates the jurisdiction to issue a notice under Section 148 and renders subsequent proceedings invalid.
Unexplained cash credit - cash deposited in the bank account during the demonetization period - assessee could not provide PAN of all persons to whom sales were made - HELD THAT:- In the assessment order, except alleging that PAN of the persons to whom sales are made are not available, the A.O. has not made any adverse observations regarding the authenticity of books of account and other supporting evidences. In fact, the very same evidences were again verified by ld. First appellate authority and nothing suspicious was found. Even, ld. First appellate authority has recorded a categorical finding of fact that before rejecting the books of account, the A.O. has neither given any opportunity to the assessee nor pointed out the specific defect/deficiency.
Thus, when all verifiable evidences were available before the departmental authorities, merely because PAN of some persons to whom sales are made are not available, a part of the cash deposits made out of cash sales could not have been treated as income of the assessee. Decided in favour of assessee.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - approval of the competent authority in terms with section 151(ii) - HELD THAT:- We are of the considered opinion that the order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 of the Act having not been issued with the approval of the competent authority in terms with section 151(ii) of the Act, the proceedings are vitiated, hence, invalid. Since, the assumption of jurisdiction u/s. 147 of the Act by the A.O. in absence of a valid sanction is vitiated, we deem it appropriate to quash the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act. Resultantly, the assessment order passed in pursuance thereof deserves to be quashed. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether deduction under section 80-JJAA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of additional employee cost can be allowed where the deduction was not claimed in the original return and the required Form 10DA was filed belatedly for the assessment year 2018-19.
Analysis: The appeal concerns a single substantive claim for deduction under section 80-JJAA, first raised before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) though not made in the original return. The assessee furnished a Chartered Accountant's report in Form 10DA dated 30.10.2019 after filing the return. The assessment proceedings were completed by order dated 29.01.2021 and there was no contemporaneous claim or filing of Form 10DA before the assessing officer during the assessment. Section 80A(5) bars allowance of deductions under the Chapter-VIA heading "C.-Deductions in respect of certain incomes" where the assessee fails to make the claim in the return of income. The facts show the claim under section 80-JJAA (a Chapter-VIA deduction) was not made in the return and was raised for the first time on appeal, and the procedural/formal requirement in relation to Form 10DA was not complied with within the prescribed time before the assessing officer.
Conclusion: The claim for deduction under section 80-JJAA is not allowable; conclusion against the assessee.
Disallowance of deduction claimed u/s 80JJAA - assessee did not claim the deduction in its original return of income filed nor was the claim raised during the course of assessment proceedings - Procedural omission v/s statutory deduction - CIT(A) further noted that Form 10DA, being a mandatory requirement for claiming deduction u/s 80-JJAA was not filed within the prescribed due date under the Act and applicable Rules
HELD THAT:- As per section 80A(5) of the Act, no deduction shall be allowed to the assessee if a claim of deduction, inter alia, under any provisions of Chapter-VIA under the heading "C.—Deductions in respect of certain incomes" of the Act, is not made by the assessee in his return of income. In the present case, the assessee is seeking a deduction in respect of additional employee costs under section 80-JJAA of the Act, which forms part of Chapter-VIA under the heading "C.—Deductions in respect of certain incomes" of the Act.
Undisputedly, the assessee did not make any claim of deduction under section 80-JJAA in its return of income filed for the year under consideration, and the said claim was made for the first time before the learned CIT(A). Therefore, it is evident that section 80A(5) disentitles the assessee from claiming the deduction u/s 80-JJAA of the Act. Decided against assessee.
Issues: Whether deduction under Section 80JJAA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 can be allowed where the mandatory audit report in Form 10DA was not filed with the original return but was filed with the revised return within the extended due date and prior to processing under Section 143(1).
Analysis: The Tribunal examined whether non-filing of the mandatory Form 10DA with the original return is a procedural omission that can be cured by filing the form with the revised return within the extended statutory time and before processing under Section 143(1). The analysis applies Section 80JJAA read with the due date requirement in Section 139(1) and considers authorities establishing that mandatory forms filed before finality of assessment or before processing may constitute sufficient compliance. The Tribunal noted that the return and the revised return (with Form 10DA) were filed within CBDT-extended timelines and that the Form 10DA was available to the CPC at the time of processing, and therefore the procedural lapse did not defeat the substantive entitlement to deduction.
Conclusion: The procedural omission of not filing Form 10DA with the original return does not bar allowance of deduction under Section 80JJAA where the report is filed with the revised return within the extended due dates and is available before processing; matter remitted to Assessing Officer for limited verification and quantification of allowable deduction.
Disallowance of deduction claimed u/s 80JJAA - mandatory audit report in Form 10DA was not filed along with the original return - Procedural omission v/s statutory deduction - HELD THAT:- We are of the considered view that since the return was filed within the extended due date and the same was also revised within the extended due date in which the claim u/s 80JJAA was made and Form 10DA had also been filed, the CPC should have considered the same while processing the return and allowed the claim of deduction. Accordingly, we hold that the procedural omission of not filing of report before the due date of furnishing of original return would not result in denial of deduction u/s 80JJAA of the Act.
Thus, remit the issue to the file of JAO for limited verification and quantification of allowable deduction u/s 80JJAA - Appeal of the assessee allowed for statistical purposes.
Issues: (i) Whether sale consideration received by the general power of attorney holder / vendee is taxable as capital gains in the hands of the assessee or the beneficial owner (short-term capital gains); (ii) Whether addition of Rs. 1,45,16,786/- under section 69C on account of fuel expenses is justified; (iii) Whether addition of Rs. 13,26,930/- under section 69C on account of bonus paid is justified; (iv) Whether disallowance of interest of Rs. 55,08,596/- under section 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS is sustainable, including the portion paid to banking institutions and NBFCs.
Issue (i): Whether the sale proceeds realized pursuant to the transfer deed executed by the GPA-holder are taxable as the assessee's capital gains.
Analysis: The deed chain and GPA terms show the GPA-holder had authority to construct, sell and receive consideration; the agreement to sell recorded full consideration paid to the assessee and subsequent transfer deed records receipt of sale proceeds by N.N. Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. and its director. Comparable tribunal authority supports that where the vendee/GPA-holder has received consideration, taken possession and acted as beneficial owner, subsequent transfer by the GPA-holder is not a transfer by the original vendor.
Conclusion: In favour of Assessee. The receipt of consideration by the GPA-holder / N.N. Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. is not taxable as capital gains in the hands of the assessee; the addition is deleted.
Issue (ii): Whether the addition of Rs. 1,45,16,786/- under section 69C as unexplained fuel expenses is sustainable.
Analysis: Comparative turnover and fuel expense data for preceding and succeeding years were considered; the petrol/diesel/fuel expenses for AY 2008-09 are proportionate to revenue and consistent with the business of transport services. The department did not provide cogent evidence to rebut the books or demonstrate disproportionate or fabricated expenses.
Conclusion: In favour of Assessee. The addition on account of fuel expenses is deleted.
Issue (iii): Whether the addition of Rs. 13,26,930/- under section 69C for bonus paid in cash is sustainable.
Analysis: The bonus payments are recorded in the books; the percentage of bonus relative to total salary falls within statutory limits under the Payments of Bonus Act, 1965; books were not discarded nor receipts called into question and no material adverse audit finding was shown.
Conclusion: In favour of Assessee. The addition on account of bonus is deleted.
Issue (iv): Whether disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS on interest of Rs. 55,08,596/- is sustainable, and whether amounts paid to banks and NBFCs should be disallowed.
Analysis: Ledger and repayment/amortization schedules show interest payments; interest paid to banking institutions is exempt from TDS under section 194A and thus cannot attract disallowance; for interest to NBFCs, the tribunal directed verification whether the recipients included the amounts in their taxable income and paid tax; reliance was placed on judicial reasoning treating the second proviso to section 40(a)(ia) as curative/retrospective, permitting deletion where corresponding income is brought to tax.
Conclusion: Partly in favour of Assessee. Disallowance relating to interest paid to banking institutions (Rs. 39,73,191/-) is deleted; disallowance relating to interest paid to NBFCs (Rs. 15,35,405/-) is deleted if the recipients have included the amounts in their taxable income and tax records prove the same; otherwise verification to follow.
Final Conclusion: The tribunal allowed the appeal largely in favour of the assessee by deleting the additions on short-term capital gains, fuel expenses and bonus, and directing deletion of specified interest disallowances subject to verification; consequential adjustments to follow.
Ratio Decidendi: Where documentary and ledger evidence shows that a transferee or GPA-holder received sale consideration and acted as beneficial owner, consequent gains arising from transfer by that transferee are not taxable in the hands of the original vendor; comparative business records and absence of contradictory departmental evidence may negate additions under section 69C; disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) is avoidable where corresponding income has been brought to tax or where payments to banking institutions are exempt from TDS under section 194A.
Addition on account of alleged short-term capital gains - plot in question is a residential hold vacant plot purchased through their GPA Holder - Determination of real owner - capital gains taxation on transfer effected through general power of attorney and agreement to sell - treatment of sale proceeds received by agent/GPA-holder - AR has contended that appellant is not the beneficial owner of the sale proceeds of the land pursuant to the transfer deed of lease hold rights - HELD THAT:- GPA coupled with the agreement to sell against which the entire consideration was received by the Appellant resulted in Shri Narpat Singh (Director N.N. Buildwell Pvt. Ltd.) becoming the beneficial owner of the land. It is evident from the aforesaid terms of the GPA that for all practical purposes, including receiving consideration from the sale of the plot in question, Shri Narpat Singh was the beneficial owner of the said property, and not the Appellant herein. The consideration thus received was not on behalf of the assessee. See SAMA OM REDDY, HYDERABAD [2020 (5) TMI 55 - ITAT HYDERABAD] as held except being described as the Vendor, the assessee is neither a signatory to the subsequent Sale Deed nor is he the recipient of any of the sale consideration. In view of the same, it is held that the assessee is not liable for tax on any capital gain arising out of transfer of property.
Addition u/s 69C - fuel expenses - There is no disproportionate or abrupt jump in the expenses that would suggest they were inflated. If the fuel expense incurred during 2008-09 is disregarded the % of revenue spent on fuel expense comes down to below 20% which is significantly/abnormally lower than the fuel expense compared to AY 2009-10, 2010-11 as well as 2007-08. Hence, the petrol/diesel/fuel expenses amounting to a sum of Rs. 3,56,30,412/- is proportionate to the revenue/receipts from transport services during AY 2008-09.
We find substance in the contention that from the tabular chart above it is evident that during AY 2008-09 it was not possible for the appellant to achieve a turnover/ revenue of Rs. 9,75,09,573/- from transport services provided by its proprietorship firm, Sun National Transport Co., by merely spending Rs. 2,11,13,626/-on petrol/diesel/fuel etc.
Therefore it appears that justification given for two heads of expenditures needed to be examined rationally. The receipts/turnover from transport services has not been called into question, the books of account maintained by the appellant has not been questioned, nor has any cogent evidence been brought on record by the department, vis-à-vis, the fuel expense. Therefore, the addition of Rs. 1,45,16,786/- deserves to be deleted.
Addition on account of Bonus paid to the employees u/s 69C - Source is duly recorded in the books of account. Source of expense incurred on bonus payment stands established as having been incurred out of funds shown in books of account. Neither the books have been discarded/ rejected by the CIT, nor has the sales/revenue/receipts been called into question. The gross profit has been accepted. No discrepancies has been pointed out by the auditor in the books of account for AY 2008-09. Thus the ground is sustained.
TDS u/s 194A - TDS on the interest paid to banking institutions - HELD THAT:- Admittedly the payment of interest made to banking institutions is exempt from the application of TDS under Section 194A of the Act. Hence, the disallowance of interest paid by the Appellant to banking institutions during AY 2008-09 is exempt from the application of tax deduction at source. In this context we find that copies of repayment schedule/ amortization schedule of the loans taken from banking institutions and NBCs against which interest was paid in AY 2008-09 is also placed as Additional Evidence and same being material needs to be admitted. In light of the same the disallowance paid as interest to banking institutions on account of non-deduction of TDS during AY 2008-09 is liable to be deleted.
Disallowance of interest paid to NBFCs - Assessee relied on decision of Ansal Landmark Township (P) Ltd.[2015 (9) TMI 79 - DELHI HIGH COURT] to contend that it is by Hon’ble High Court that the disallowance for non-deduction of TDS on payments on interest made to NBFCs was not sustainable in view of the insertion of second proviso to Section 40(a)(ia) - AO is directed to verify whether the said amount is included by these NBFC in their income and paid taxes therein. If this has been proved with necessary form prescribed, the disallowance paid as interest to NBCs is liable to be deleted. The grounds are thus sustained for statistical purposes.
Issues: (i) Whether addition of provisions for gratuity and compensated absences made by the Assessing Officer can be sustained where no expenditure in respect of those provisions was claimed in the Profit & Loss Account; (ii) Whether disallowance of amounts claimed as bad debts written off can be sustained where assessee must satisfy conditions of deduction under section 36(1)(vii)/36(2); (iii) Whether adhoc disallowance of 30% of travelling and conveyance expenses can be sustained without adequate documentary substantiation that such expenses were wholly and exclusively for business.
Issue (i): Addition of provisions for gratuity and compensated absences.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the Balance Sheet, Profit & Loss Account and related schedules and observed that the amounts in question were recorded as provisions on the liability side and no expenditure claim was made in the Profit & Loss Account or in the corresponding employees' benefits schedule. The Assessing Officer had taken figures from the Balance Sheet and made additions despite absence of any claimed deduction in the computation of income.
Conclusion: The addition is deleted and the ground of appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Disallowance of bad debts written off amounting to INR 4,51,20,129/-.
Analysis: The Tribunal considered the material placed before it and the lower authorities, including that assessee produced party-wise lists and some ledger copies but failed to demonstrate whether the amounts written off had been offered to tax in earlier assessment years as required by the statutory conditions. The Tribunal found incomplete documentary support on record and accepted that further verification is necessary to determine compliance with the conditions under section 36(1)(vii)/36(2).
Conclusion: The issue is remanded to the Assessing Officer for verification and directed production of all necessary documents; the ground is allowed for statistical purposes in favour of the assessee pending verification.
Issue (iii): Adhoc disallowance of 30% of travelling and conveyance expenses.
Analysis: The Tribunal noted that the Assessing Officer and Commissioner (Appeals) recorded deficiencies in substantiation of travelling expenses and that only partial details had been filed. Having considered the entirety of facts and the additional opportunities already given, the Tribunal nonetheless granted one further opportunity for the Assessing Officer to verify the claims and for the assessee to file complete evidence to establish that the expenses were wholly and exclusively for business.
Conclusion: The issue is remanded to the Assessing Officer for fresh verification and directed production of necessary evidence; the ground is allowed for statistical purposes in favour of the assessee pending verification.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed with deletions in respect of provisions for gratuity and compensated absences and remand of the issues relating to bad debts and travelling expenses to the Assessing Officer for further verification and production of evidence.
Ratio Decidendi: An addition cannot be sustained where no corresponding expenditure was claimed in the Profit & Loss Account; claims for deduction of bad debts under section 36(1)(vii)/36(2) require documentary proof, including demonstration of prior tax treatment, and factual issues may be remanded for verification by the Assessing Officer.
Addition made towards the gratuity provision made and compensated absences - HELD THAT:- Figures are taken by the AO from the Balance Sheet where the same were shown as provision in the liability side. From the perusal of Profit & Loss Account available at page 28 of Paper Book and corresponding Schedule-22 of employee’s benefits and other expenses, it is observed that assessee has not claimed any expenditure in respect of gratuity and compensated absences. Since no expenses was claimed on account of these provisions, therefore, no additions could be made. Accordingly, we delete the said addition. Ground of appeal No.1 raised by the assessee is thus, allowed.
Disallowance claimed as bad debt - AO has made disallowance by observing that the assessee has failed to furnish any documents - Before us, assessee had filed a table containing name, PAN and amount written off, and further filed copies of ledger accounts of few parties however, from the perusal of same, we could not be able to point out whether the amounts written off was offered for tax or not in any of the preceding Assessment Years. Therefore, in the interest of justice, we remand this issue back to the file of AO and direct to examine whether the assessee has fulfilled all the conditions laid down u/s 36(1)(vii)/36(2) of the Act, claiming the bad debts. The assessee has also directed to file all the necessary documents/evidences in support of bad debts claimed during the year. Accordingly, Ground of appeal raised by the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
Adhoc disallowance made @ 30% out of the travelling and convenience expenses - AO observed that assessee has failed to establish that these expenses were wholly and exclusively incurred for the purpose of business and part details were filed with respect to the foreign travelling conducted by the Director and their relatives. Despite of repeated requests and opportunities given by the lower authorities, assessee has not been able to substantiate the travelling expenses as incurred wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business. However, looking to the entirety of facts, one more opportunity is granted to the assessee and the issue is remanded back to the file of AO for making fresh verification. Assessee is also directed to file all the necessary evidences to establish that travelling expenses were claimed for the purpose of business.
Appeal of the assessee is partly allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the arm's length adjustment of Rs. 57,86,557/- as notional interest on outstanding receivables from associated enterprises (computed at six-month LIBOR + 400 bps) is sustainable; (ii) Whether the arm's length adjustment of Rs. 2,84,45,221/- in relation to interest on loans extended to associated enterprises in foreign currency is sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether the adjustment for notional interest on delayed receivables is maintainable despite the assessee not charging interest and having higher operating margins.
Analysis: The issue was examined in light of the amended treatment of receivables as a separate international transaction and relevant precedents where, if interest is effectively reflected in operating income and the tested party's margins are acceptable under TNMM, a separate adjustment for notional interest may not be warranted. The assessee did not charge differential interest between associated and non-associated parties and demonstrated entity-level operating margins and OP/OC ratios higher than the comparable ranges relied upon in transfer pricing. Coordinate Tribunal decisions and other authorities addressing inclusion of interest within operating results and use of internal CUP were considered.
Conclusion: The adjustment of Rs. 57,86,557/- for notional interest on outstanding receivables is deleted. Decision in favour of the assessee on this issue.
Issue (ii): Whether the upward adjustment to arm's length price for interest on loans to associated enterprises is justified when the assessee's internal CUP and charged rates exceed the rates used by the authorities.
Analysis: The assessee benchmarked interest on loans using internal comparable uncontrolled prices and showed effective rates charged to associated enterprises that exceed the assessee's own external borrowing cost (internal CUP). Relevant judicial and tribunal precedents were applied which support acceptance of average LIBOR-based internal rates rather than an arbitrary uplift. The assessee's charged rates to subsidiaries were found to be higher than rates used by the authorities for adjustment.
Conclusion: The adjustment of Rs. 2,84,45,221/- in respect of interest on loans to associated enterprises is deleted. Decision in favour of the assessee on this issue.
Final Conclusion: The appeals are allowed and the impugned transfer pricing adjustments concerning notional interest on receivables and interest on loans to associated enterprises are deleted, resulting in a complete allowance of the assessee's grounds as decided.
Ratio Decidendi: Where interest on receivables or loans is effectively reflected in the tested party's operating income and the tested party's margins are acceptable under the chosen comparability framework, or where internal comparable uncontrolled prices demonstrate that charged rates are at or above the assessed benchmark, separate arm's length adjustments for notional interest are not warranted.
TP adjustment - Arm’s Length Price of notional interest on outstanding receivable from various associated enterprises for delayed period computed on the basis of six month LIBOR rate +400 basis points - HELD THAT:- It is the specific case of the Assessee that the transaction of outstanding receivables is inextricably connected to main international transaction of sale of goods, management and technical knowhow service income and Interest is already factored in sale price /service income being charged by the appellant. In so far as sale of goods, it is claimed that the Assessee is having Operating profit margin of 11.36% & OP/OC of 12 82% at entity level which is higher than the OPM & OP/OC of comparable companies of (5.13% to 10.74%) & (5.40% to 12.04%) respectively of 35th and 65th percentile of comparable companies. In respect of transactions of management and technical & know how services provided, the Assessee OP/OC is above 100% which is more than the OP/OC range earned by the comparable companies which is between 3.84% to 11.99%.
As decided in the case of Micro Ink Limited [2015 (12) TMI 143 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] held that, when such an interest is includible in operating income and the operating income itself has been accepted as reasonable under the TNMM, there cannot be an occasion to make adjustment for notional interest on delayed realization of debtors.
It is not in dispute that the Assessee does not charge interest from both Associated Enterprises and Non-Associated enterprises on outstanding receivables. Thus the Assessee has not made any distinction between AE and non AE in charging the interest made on outstanding received, therefore, the adjustment made on account of Arm's length adjustment is not sustainable - Decided in favour of assessee.
Adjustment made in in Arm’s Length Price in relation to international transaction of Interest charged on loan given to Associated Enterprises in Foreign Currency - In the present case, the Assessee has charged more than the internal CUP on all the three AE’s i.e. on Varun Beverages Morocco SA average interest rate 4.1%, Varun Beverages Mozamibique Limited average rate 4.18% and in Varun Beverages (Zambia) Limited is average 4.49%. The said average interest imposed on all the three entities are much more higher than determined in the case of CIT v. Vaibhav Gems Ltd. [2017 (12) TMI 583 - RAJASTHAN HIGH COURT] - Thus, in our opinion, the transactions involved in the present Appeal are at Arm’s Length as per the ratio laid down thereon and the effective rate of interest charged by the Assessee from its subsidiary Companies is even higher than internal CUP of interest rate on foreign currency loan taken by the Assessee. Accordingly, we delete the additions made by the A.O. which has been confirmed by the Ld. CIT(A). Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the order passed by the revisionary authority under Section 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 holding the reassessment order dated 30.03.2022 to be erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue on grounds of alleged lack of inquiry into share capital received from a foreign investor was sustainable.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined whether the Assessing Officer failed to make requisite inquiries or whether the assessment involved merely an arguable or different view. The record shows that notices under Section 142(1) were issued and the assessee furnished detailed replies, including trading licence and registration of the investor, audited financial statements of the investor, foreign inward remittance certificates, FC-GPR filings, SEBI-registered merchant banker valuation (DCF) and related bank statements. Jurisprudence distinguishes between a total lack of inquiry (which may render an order erroneous) and an inadequate or different inquiry (which does not). Acceptance of a valuation by a qualified merchant banker under applicable rules is ordinarily not susceptible to interference under revisional powers. The revisionary authority's observations were largely founded on suspicion and on suggestions of additional or alternative lines of inquiry (source of source), without pointing to any factual deficiency in the material placed before the Assessing Officer or any incorrect application of law by the Assessing Officer that would make the order per se erroneous and prejudicial to revenue.
Conclusion: The impugned order of the revisionary authority under Section 263 is quashed and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Revision u/s 263 - distinction between “lack of inquiry” and “inadequate inquiry” - share capital received from a foreign investor - suspicion of ld. Revisionary authority about source of investor company - order prejudicial to the interests of revenue - CIT alleging that AO in the reassessment proceedings has concluded the assessment without making inquiries that should have been made and the addition of share capital received from RCI WTL, UAE was not made - AOs acceptance of DCF method
HELD THAT:- What is relevant is that AO was alive to the entire issue and the balance sheet of RCI World Trade Link was before AO on the basis of which genuineness and creditworthiness of RCI World Trade Link stood accepted. Then any action or proceedings arising out of such proceedings in 2011 from search or surrender in settlement are not relevant to the present assessment year.
Merely because assessee relates to NV Group that alone cannot be basis to impute an error in the judgment of AO by holding that any inquiry was lacking.
Mere suspicion of ld. Revisionary authority about source of investor company cannot be conclusive to hold that ld. AO should have entered into this enquiry to, as assessee was not supposed to establish the source of source.
Factually speaking as part of financials of RCI World Trade Link DMCC there is description of unsecured loan account which shows that during the financial year ending on 31/12/2015 there was no unsecured loan from RCI Ind. & Tech. Ltd. and loans from five different companies to extent of AED14,390,688/ were received.
To allege that enquiry in source of source would have resulted in a different consequence to make the credibility and creditworthiness of investor company, RCI World Trade Link DMCC, to be suspicious and resultantly to hold the lack of enquiry has resulted in passing an order which is erroneous so far as prejudicial to the interest of revenue.
Then it was with regard to the valuation of shares the ld. Revisional Authority seems to have questioned the AO’s action of accepting the same but legally speaking the Assessing Officer had not much scope to interfere in the valuation provided by merchant banker. The valuation, if conducted by a qualified merchant banker using the DCF method as per Rule11UA(2), is generally accepted. In Apna Punjab Resorts Ltd.[2023 (3) TMI 553 - ITAT CHANDIGARH] it has been held that while exercising powers u/s 263 of the Act, AOs acceptance of DCF method, cannot be interfered to hold the order to be erroneous so far as prejudicial to revenue. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: (i) Whether the addition of Rs. 12,95,07,554/- made by the Assessing Officer treating jewellery taken abroad for exhibition as unexplained/unaccounted stock (after rejection of books of account) was justified; (ii) Whether the books of account could be rejected and net profit properly estimated at 3% of turnover instead of 2.24%; (iii) Whether penalty under Section 271A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sustainable where the quantum additions are deleted.
Issue (i): Whether the addition of Rs. 12,95,07,554/- on account of unaccounted stock taken abroad for exhibition was justified.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined documentary evidence including certified export invoices, packing lists, airway bills, customs appraisal and re-import documentation, item-wise quantitative reconciliation and audited financials showing opening and closing stock. It noted that the invoiced values were FOB/sale values (including carriage, insurance, freight and margin) whereas the assessee's stock was recorded at cost, and that currency rate differences explained value variation. The AO/JCIT treated the goods as unexplained on account of absence of a formal stock register and rejected books under section 144, but the appellate record contained independent customs appraisal and reconciliations corroborating quantity and valuation methods.
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 12,95,07,554/- is deleted and the order of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) deleting that addition is confirmed; decision is in favour of the assessee on this issue.
Issue (ii): Whether rejection of books of account and estimation of net profit at 3% was justified.
Analysis: The Tribunal considered precedent and legal standards governing rejection of books, including that rejection is permissible only where no regular method of accounting is employed or accounts are such that correct profits cannot be deduced. The assessee demonstrated regular internal stock reconciliation and produced audited accounts, supporting documents and daily controls. The CIT(A) had upheld AO's estimate of net profit at 3% citing a slight fall in gross profit rate; the Tribunal found no cogent reason to sustain the estimate and relied on legal authorities holding that mere absence of a formal stock register alone does not justify rejection.
Conclusion: The addition by estimating net profit at 3% is deleted; this issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether penalty under Section 271A is sustainable given the deletions on merits.
Analysis: Penalty under Section 271A is contingent on the establishment of concealment or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The Tribunal observed that the primary quantum additions underpinning the penalty were deleted on appeal and that the assessee had produced corroborative documentation and reconciliations.
Conclusion: The penalty imposed under Section 271A is cancelled; this issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the assessee's cross-objection and appeal against penalty, and dismissed the Revenue's appeal deleting the quantum additions and cancelling the penalty, resulting overall in a decision favorable to the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Rejection of books of account and corresponding additions require demonstrable material showing that accounts are unreliable or no regular accounting method exists; documentary corroboration by independent customs appraisal and detailed item-wise reconciliation showing differences attributable to valuation method (fob versus cost) and currency variation is sufficient to defeat an unexplained stock addition and vitiates penalties based on that addition.
Unaccounted stock of jewellery - absence of proper stock register and rejection of books of account - assessee is having jewellery business for the five decades and for the first time participated in a trade fair at Sharjah and these jewellery taken to Sharjah only part of which was sold and the rest was brought back to India - HELD THAT:- For taking these jewellery out of India and for bringing it back to India the assessee had to go through different rules and regulations of the Customs Department; the clearance was to obtain for both taking the jewellery out of this country as well as for bringing the same back to India. The above reconciliation and the details of values were filed before the AO clarifying that different represents only the difference in the rate of currency in Dollar terms and there is no difference in the quantity as re-imported which was the same and it was only unsold goods which were re-imported back.
A complete affidavit was also filed in regard to the item-wise quantity reconciliation of the goods which were lying as opening stock with the assessee as on 01.04.2014, goods taken out, goods purchased during the year, goods sold during the year and the goods which were re-imported to India as well as the closing stock as on 31.03.2015 as per the audited financials of the assessee and the stock mentioned.
CIT(A) taking into consideration the entire aspect of the matter, concluded that the AO failed to bring any reason in treating this stock taken for exhibition as unaccounted or any further reason to disbelieve the appellant that the valuation of the opening stock and the stock taken for exhibition was done by following different methods of valuation i.e., one at cost and the other was at FOB value as per the Customs rules and regulations which admittedly cannot be compared and, therefore, deleted the addition made by the AO which, in our considered opinion found to be just and proper and does not warrant any interference. The order passed by the CIT(A) to this extent is confirmed.
NP Estimation - rejection of books of accounts - addition pertaining to net profit of the assessee and estimated the same at 3% as against 2.24% calculated by the assessee - CIT(A) has upheld the addition made by the AO without citing any cogent reason whatsoever. Having regard to the nature of business done by the assessee as already observed by us hereinabove we do not find any reason to uphold the order confirming addition on estimation of profit at 3% made by the Ld. AO and particularly keeping in view the ratio laid down by the different judicial forums as narrated hereinabove, the addition is found to be not sustainable, arbitrary, bad in law and, thus, deleted.
Penalty u/s 271A - Since the appeal of the assessee on quantum addition, which is the very basis of imposing the penalty, stands allowed by upholding the decision of the CIT(A) and further deletion of addition on estimated profit, the penalty does not survive.
Issues: (i) whether conviction for the offence under section 135(1)(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained on the basis of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 along with corroborative material; (ii) whether the sentence of imprisonment deserved reduction to the period already undergone.
Issue (i): whether conviction for the offence under section 135(1)(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained on the basis of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 along with corroborative material.
Analysis: Statements recorded by duly authorised Customs officers under section 108 are admissible if voluntary. The challenge that the conviction rested only on such statements was rejected because the statements had led to discovery of incriminating articles and money, supported by panchnamas and testimony of Customs officers. Such recoveries constituted independent corroborative evidence, and the concurrent findings of guilt were found to be free from perversity or legal infirmity. The Court found no basis to interfere under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.
Conclusion: The conviction was upheld and the challenge to guilt failed.
Issue (ii): whether the sentence of imprisonment deserved reduction to the period already undergone.
Analysis: The recovery related to 1985, the goods were found in abandoned condition, several co-accused had been acquitted, some appellants had died, and the surviving appellants were of advanced age. They had already undergone incarceration exceeding the statutory minimum contemplated by the proviso to section 135(1)(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962. In these circumstances, further imprisonment was considered unduly harsh and contrary to the ends of justice.
Conclusion: The sentence was reduced to the period already undergone.
Final Conclusion: The conviction remained intact, but the custodial sentence was brought down to the term already undergone, resulting in partial relief to the appellants.
Ratio Decidendi: Voluntary statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 are substantive evidence when corroborated by independent discovery or recovery, and sentence may be reduced to the period already undergone where the overall circumstances make further incarceration unduly harsh.
Admissibility and evidentiary value of statements recorded u/s 108 - Voluntariness requirement for statements u/s 108 - Corroboration by subsequent discovery and recoveries as independent evidence under the Evidence Act - Concurrent findings of fact and limited interference under Article 136 of the Constitution - Judicial discretion to reduce sentence in view of prolonged pendency, delay, advanced age and period already undergone - HELD THAT:- Having considered the matter in its entirety, we find ourselves in agreement with the observations made by the High Court. The findings of guilt recorded by the trial Court, which stand concurrently affirmed by the appellate Court as well as the High Court do not suffer from any perversity, illegality, or manifest error warranting interference by this Court in exercise of its jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.
It is significant to note that Shri Thakare, learned A.S.G. appearing for respondents was not in a position to dispute the fact that the recovery relates to the year 1985, and that the offending consignment of watches was recovered lying in an abandoned condition. The conviction of the appellants seems to be primarily based on confessional statements recorded under Section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962. Conscious possession of the smuggled goods is not attributed to the appellants.
It is further not in dispute that several co-accused persons were acquitted by the trial Court. Some of the appellants before us are reported to have passed away during the pendency of the present appeals. The surviving appellants are now of advanced age and have undergone a substantial period of incarceration, reportedly around one year, which is more than the statutory minimum sentence of six months contemplated under the proviso to Section 135 (1)(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 as it then existed.
In this backdrop, including the fact that the incident is nearly four decades old, the period of incarceration already undergone by the appellants, the prolonged pendency of proceedings, and the advanced age of the surviving appellants, we are of the considered view that directing the appellants to undergo any further incarceration at this point of time would be unduly harsh and would not subserve the ends of justice. In the peculiar facts and circumstances of the present case, ends of justice would be served by reducing the sentence to the term already undergone by the appellants.
Accordingly, while affirming the judgment of conviction dated 26th March, 2003 passed by the trial Court, we deem it appropriate to reduce the sentence awarded to the appellants to the period already undergone by them.
Since, the appellants are on bail, they need not surrender. Their bail bonds stand discharged.
The civil appeal is dismissed as infructuous because the High Court disposed of the writ petition on 09.12.2025; pending interlocutory applications, if any, are disposed of.
Classification of imported goods - front cover, middle cover and back cover and few other parts of the mobile phones - HELD THAT:- Since appeals arising out of the same impugned judgment and order [2024 (2) TMI 1508 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] have been dismissed, the present appeal also stands dismissed.
Pending application(s), if any, stands disposed of.
Outcome: The civil appeals were disposed of after recording that the cause no longer survived for consideration on merits.
Disposal of appeal as infructuous - justiciability affected by party affidavit - undertaking to accept tariff classification - HELD THAT:- Learned counsel, appearing for the appellant states, on instructions, that in the light of the affidavit dated 29.01.2026 filed by respondent No. 1, and more particularly paragraph-3 thereof, wherein he stated that he does not intend to import the subject goods and in the event he decides to do so in future, he will get the same assessed under tariff item 85235100, as determined by the appellant, the cause in these civil appeals no longer survives for consideration on merits.
Recording the aforestated statement, the appeals are disposed of.
Issues: Whether stamp duty on a composite scheme of amalgamation sanctioned by the NCLT can be assessed by treating the underlying amalgamation steps as distinct transactions under Section 5 of the Maharashtra Stamp Act, 1958, and whether the Maharashtra authorities could assess duty on a reference to an NCLT order from Chennai.
Analysis: The scheme was sanctioned by the NCLT as an instrument chargeable under the stamp law, and the statutory framework recognises the court order sanctioning amalgamation as the relevant instrument for duty. The charging provisions and the relevant schedule entry make the sanction order, not the commercial arrangement underlying it, the subject of levy. Section 5, which applies where one instrument relates to several distinct matters, cannot be invoked to dissect a composite amalgamation order into separate taxable transactions, because that would require the authorities to assess the underlying transaction rather than the instrument itself. The earlier Full Bench view that duty attaches to the instrument and not to the transaction controlled the case, and the attempt to treat the Chennai order as having been brought into Maharashtra merely because it was referred to in the Mumbai order was rejected. The Maharashtra authorities therefore lacked jurisdiction to levy duty on the Chennai order in these proceedings.
Conclusion: The challenge succeeded. The impugned stamp duty assessment was unsustainable, and the levy was confined to the Mumbai NCLT order as the instrument, with the excess duty liable to be refunded to the assessee.
Final Conclusion: A composite amalgamation sanction order is taxable as an instrument, and the scheme cannot be split into separate transactions for enhanced stamp duty; the impugned demand was quashed with consequential refund relief.
Ratio Decidendi: Stamp duty is chargeable on the sanction order as the operative instrument, and Section 5 cannot be used to segregate a composite amalgamation into distinct taxable transactions or to assess an out-of-State order merely because it is referred to in the local sanction order.
Applicability of Section 5 of the Stamp Act, 1958 to the order of NCLT sanctioning the scheme of amalgamation under the statutory provisions of Section 230 to 232 of the Companies Act, 2013 - Instrument chargeable with duty - order of sanction as instrument - bringing an instrument executed outside the State - Section 19 rebate for instrument executed outside State - Article 25(da) cap on stamp duty for NCLT orders - HELD THAT:- The provisions of Section 5 of the Stamp Act, 1958 applies, where one instrument relates to several distinct matters of transactions which cannot be blended into one or cannot be conceived as merely parts of one aggregate. It applies where the instrument comprises of several distinct matters, though may be of same category and where Section 5 applies, each of the instruments dealing with each of the matter would be chargeable under the Stamp Act, 1958 by the aggregate amount of stamp duty in respect of all such instruments. The application of Section 5 requires going into the underlying transaction which cannot be done in respect of order of sanction of scheme.
The composite scheme was considered by NCLT, Mumbai Bench for ascertaining whether the same was fair and reasonable. In that context, the consideration in respect of the share holders of the second transferrer company i.e LuK India was noted. A similar exercise was carried out by NCLT, Chennai which also noted the consideration of issuance of shares to share holders of LuK India by the Petitioner Company. The observations of NCLT, Mumbai as regards the consideration in respect of amalgamation of LuK India does not constitute a distinct transaction within the meaning of Section 5 of the Stamp Act, 1958 or amounts to bringing the order of NCLT, Chennai in this State.
Even accepting that the order of sanction of scheme of NCLT Chennai bench has not been lodged for adjudication in Chennai and there is no payment of stamp duty, the stamp authorities in Mumbai would not have the jurisdiction to assess the stamp duty on the NCLT, Chennai order as it is not an order which is originating in Maharashtra. The provisions of Section 19 envisages an instrument executed outside State in respect of the property in the State and subsequently received in the State of Maharashtra. As the order of the NCLT, Chennai bench has not been received in Maharashtra, the mere reference to the same in the NCLT Mumbai order would not amount to that instrument of NCLT Chennai being brought in the State of Maharashtra. Whether the duty has been paid on the NCLT Chennai order is an issue to be considered by the concerned authorities in Chennai and the same is immaterial for the purpose of assessing the stamp duty on the order of NCLT, Mumbai bench.
The impugned order assessing the stamp duty on the transactions of merger with INA Bearings and LuK India by considering the two transactions as separate and distinct transactions is clearly erroneous in view of the settled legal position. The impugned order seeks to levy the stamp duty on the transaction by segregating the transactions into two different transactions : one of amalgamation of INA Bearings with Petitioner and other of LuK India with the Petitioner. As held by the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in Ambuja Cements Limited vs Chief Controlling Revenue Authority [2023 (2) TMI 1447 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT (LB)], such reconstruction cannot be inter se segregated.
The writ petition is allowed: the orders of Respondent Nos.1 and 2 are quashed and set aside
The Petition is allowed in the above terms.
Issues: (i) Whether a foreign decree passed by a superior court of a reciprocating territory was executable in India under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. (ii) Whether the decree was unenforceable on the ground that the monetary awards for early redemption amount, interest and damages violated FEMA and RBI directions, attracting the exceptions in Section 13(c) and Section 13(f) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Issue (i): Whether a foreign decree passed by a superior court of a reciprocating territory was executable in India under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Analysis: The United Kingdom was treated as a reciprocating territory and the English court as a superior court for the purpose of Section 44A. The decree was final under English law and fell within the statutory mechanism for execution of decrees of reciprocating foreign courts. The objections did not displace the statutory basis for execution.
Conclusion: The foreign decree was held executable under Section 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Issue (ii): Whether the decree was unenforceable on the ground that the monetary awards for early redemption amount, interest and damages violated FEMA and RBI directions, attracting the exceptions in Section 13(c) and Section 13(f) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Analysis: The Court held that the alleged FEMA breach did not make the foreign decree unenforceable. The RBI's stand clarified that payment of the early redemption amount and related sums could be remitted subject to the extant framework, and that damages for breach of contract were not controlled by the ECB ceiling in the manner contended by the judgment debtor. The award of interest at 7.95% was also found to remain within the contractual and regulatory cap. The objections based on absence of a registered account were rejected after RBI clarified that remittance to the disclosed Euro account was not barred.
Conclusion: The decree was not hit by the exceptions in Section 13(c) or Section 13(f) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and the FEMA objections were rejected.
Final Conclusion: The execution petition succeeded, the foreign decree was ordered to be enforced, the objections were dismissed with costs, and the decretal amounts were directed to be remitted to the specified account.
Ratio Decidendi: A foreign decree of a reciprocating superior court remains executable in India unless it squarely falls within Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and alleged FEMA or RBI guideline violations do not by themselves defeat execution where the awarded sums are legally remittable and the decree is otherwise valid.
Execution of foreign judgment u/s 44A of the Code of Civil Procedure - exceptions to enforcement under Section 13(c) and 13(f) of the Code of Civil Procedure - applicability of FEMA and Reserve Bank of India directions to enforcement of foreign decrees - Master Direction on External Commercial Borrowings - all-in-cost ceiling and other costs cap - damages for breach of contract awarded by a foreign court are not subject to FEMA/RBI ceilings - remittance in satisfaction of a foreign decree to a non-resident's bank account - reciprocating territory and recognition of foreign superior court decrees - preclusion of new substantive objections not raised before the foreign court - post-facto RBI permission and regulatory compliance - ratio: foreign court's award of damages and interest does not become unenforceable in India merely because of alleged FEMA/RBI non-compliance - HELD THAT:- It is an undisputed fact that the United Kingdom is a ‘reciprocating territory’ as per Section 44A of the CPC. It is also not in dispute that in the present case, the judgment/decree has been passed by the High Court of Justice Business & Property Courts of England & Wales Commercial Court, Queen’s Bench Division, which would be a ‘Superior Court’ of a ‘reciprocating territory’.
It may be noted that the issue of violation of FEMA was never raised by Prakash Industries before the English Court. Therefore, there was no occasion for the English Court to give a finding on the said issue. A foreign court cannot be expected to take cognizance of an Indian statute, unless it has been pointed out by a contesting party. This is not a case of an ex-parte decree as Prakash Industries was duly contesting the case before the English Court.
Since it is an undisputed fact that the RBI has approved the Subscription Agreement, along with the coupon rate of 5.95% mentioned therein, it has to be presumed that the interest rate was in terms of the limits provided in paragraph 2.1(vi) of the Master Direction-ECB.
The damages were awarded by the English Court on account of breach committed by Prakash Industries of its contractual obligations i.e. failure to convert the FCCBs into equity in a timely manner as was agreed in the Subscription Agreement. The English Court has also awarded interest on the aforesaid amount of damages, which was squarely within its jurisdiction.
In my considered view, the amounts awarded by a competent Court, whether Indian or foreign, towards damages for breach of contract, cannot be subject to ceilings prescribed under FEMA and/or RBI directions/circulars.
In Alcon Electronics [2016 (12) TMI 1826 - SUPREME COURT], the Supreme Court had rejected the objection raised by the judgment debtor that since costs imposed by the Foreign Court were not in terms of Section 35A of the CPC, the decree passed by the foreign Court is unenforceable. The Supreme Court held that Indian courts can execute a foreign decree for interest on costs, which are permissible under the UK law.
Taking note of the contradiction in the stand taken by the RBI, this Court vide order dated 8th September, 2025 had directed RBI to file an affidavit. Even in the subsequent affidavit filed by RBI on 18th November, 2025, same stand was maintained.
It is manifest from reading of the judgment in NTT Docomo (supra) that damages for breach of contract, such as those awarded by the English Court in the present case, cannot be subjected to FEMA Regulations or RBI guidelines. The RBI in NTT Docomo [2017 (5) TMI 492 - DELHI HIGH COURT] had raised an objection that permission from the RBI is required for transmission of amount awarded as damages by the Arbitral Tribunal. However, the Court held that in respect of damages awarded by an Arbitral Tribunal, no general or special permission from the RBI would be required. The Court while declining RBI’s request for intervention in the enforcement proceedings, held that FEMA and RBI directions/circulars could not be invoked to obstruct or dilute the enforcement of a foreign award.
Even though NTT Docomo (supra) pertains to a foreign arbitral award, the aforesaid findings would equally be applicable in cases where a decree awarding damages has been passed by a foreign court.
The ERA has been granted by the English Court in terms of Clause 10.1 and Clause 11.1 of the Subscription Agreement which provided for acceleration of the bonds in the event of default, which occurred in the present case due to non-payment of coupon interest by Prakash Industries. Clearly, there is no bar under any of the FEMA regulations or the Master Direction-ECB in respect of such early redemption.
Interest - The Subscription Agreement provided for interest at the rate of 5.95% on the FCCBs and an additional default interest of 2% per annum.
The interest awarded by the English Court on the ERA at the rate of 7.95%, clearly falls within the cap of 2% provided under paragraph 2.1 (vii) of the Master Direction-ECB. Therefore, there is no merit in the objection taken on behalf of Prakash Industries that the interest has been awarded by the English Court over and above what is stipulated in the Master Direction-ECB.
Thus, it is held that the decree passed by the English Court is executable under Section 44A of the CPC. The said Decree does not fall under the exceptions provided under Section 13(c) and 13(f) of the CPC.
The objections raised on behalf of the Prakash Industries are completely devoid of merits and have been filed solely to cause obstruction and to cause delay in the execution of the Foreign Decree. Consequently, the same are rejected with costs of Rs. 1,00,000 payable to the decree holder/Peter Beck.
Thus, Prakash Industries is liable to remit the decretal amount in favour of Peter Beck along with costs.
All pending applications stand disposed of.
Issues: (i) whether the foreign arbitral award, once held enforceable, could be executed by the executing court despite objections based on FEMA, RBI approval, valuation, and alleged distinction between enforceability and executability; (ii) whether the executing court could grant consequential reliefs including transfer of shares, appointment of nominee directors, injunctions, partial execution against remaining respondents, and set-off of costs.
Issue (i): Whether the foreign arbitral award, once held enforceable, could be executed by the executing court despite objections based on FEMA, RBI approval, valuation, and alleged distinction between enforceability and executability?
Analysis: A foreign award that has been found enforceable under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is to be treated as a decree and may be executed in the same proceeding. The distinction sought to be drawn between enforceability and executability was rejected. The executing court cannot reopen objections that were already rejected in enforcement proceedings, especially where the Supreme Court has held that FEMA violations, if any, do not render the award void and that post-facto RBI permission may be available. The objections on valuation and pricing guidelines were also held to be matters already concluded and incapable of being re-agitated in execution.
Conclusion: The objections to executability were rejected, and the award was held executable.
Issue (ii): Whether the executing court could grant consequential reliefs including transfer of shares, appointment of nominee directors, injunctions, partial execution against remaining respondents, and set-off of costs?
Analysis: The residual power under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 permits the court to adopt execution machinery necessary to give effect to the relief granted by the award. The reliefs directing transfer of shares and steps necessary for implementation were treated as severable and capable of partial execution against the remaining respondents after deletion of some parties. The court also held that the directions for appointment of nominee directors and interim injunctions were consequential to the award and within execution powers. The request to rely on RBI correspondence to postpone execution was rejected, and the set-off of arbitral costs against the transfer price was allowed.
Conclusion: The consequential reliefs were granted, including transfer of shares, appointment of nominee directors, injunctions, partial execution, and set-off.
Final Conclusion: The execution application succeeded in substance, with the award enforced and the connected interim and ancillary reliefs granted to facilitate implementation of the award.
Ratio Decidendi: Once a foreign arbitral award is held enforceable and deemed a decree, the executing court must give effect to it in execution and cannot reopen merits-based objections already rejected in enforcement proceedings, unless the decree is a nullity on the face of the record; consequential and severable reliefs necessary to implement the award may also be granted in execution.
Enforceability and executability of foreign arbitral awards - Deeming of foreign award as decree u/s 49 - Limited scope of challenge u/s 48 - Executing court cannot go behind a decree except where the decree is a nullity - Compliance with FEMA and NDI Rules and pricing guidelines as rectifiable, not rendering award void; RBI's power to condone or direct - Residuary execution powers u/s 51(e) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for giving effect to decrees - Partial execution and severability of reliefs in a decree for specific performance - Preclusion of re-agitation of issues previously decided by the Supreme Court in enforcement proceedings - HELD THAT:- Taking this Court to Part II of the Arbitration Act, which deals with enforcement of certain foreign awards, and to the definition of a foreign award in Section 44 of the Arbitration Act and to Section 46 of the Arbitration Act which provides as to when a foreign award is binding, Dr Saraf has submitted that any foreign award which would be enforceable under this chapter shall be treated as binding for all purposes on the persons as between whom it was made and may accordingly be relied on by any of those persons by way of defence, set off or otherwise in any legal proceedings in India.
The Respondents’ have sought to resist the execution of the Awards primarily on the ground that the executability of an award differs from the enforceability of the award and that they are two different and distinct stages and that the executing Court cannot execute a decree, the implementation of which is either illegal or impossible. That there exists a dichotomy between the executability of an award on one hand and enforceability of the award on the other, and that there is material difference in the scope of enquiry and the powers of the Court in a proceeding for enforcement of a foreign award under Section 48 of the Arbitration Act and the execution of an award as a decree of the Court after the Court is satisfied. Also the ground that the transfer of shares would be contrary to the FEMA and the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instrument) Rules, 2016 (NDI Rules) including on the valuation for the transfer of shares has been raised.
Enforcement v/s executability of the Award - HELD THAT:- As can be seen the words enforcement and execution, bear the same meaning and are often used interchangeably. In the context of arbitral awards, once an award is held to be enforceable, it necessarily becomes executable, as enforceability under law implies that the award can be acted upon in the manner as a decree of a civil court. Thus while all execution proceedings fall under the umbrella of enforcement, a determination that an award is enforceable legally entitles the award-holder to initiate execution. If the Court is satisfied that the application under Section 48 is without merit, and the foreign award is found to be enforceable, then under limited purpose of the legal fiction is for the purpose of the enforcement of the foreign award. The High Court concerned would then enforce the award by taking recourse to the provisions of Order XXI of the CPC.
Therefore, what the law requires is the satisfaction of the Court that the foreign award is enforceable and once that is done there is no necessity for the Executing Court to delve into the very same question once again. To give a restricted and therefore contrived meaning to the word ‘enforcement’ would lead to an absurd situation where a foreign award creditor would have to face an additional hurdle in the form of objections as to executability of a foreign award alien to the grounds enumerated in Section 48 of the Arbitration Act even after the award has been held to be enforceable.
It is trite law that the executing court cannot go behind a decree or an award which is held to be executable and it is only where the award/decree sought to be enforced is on the face of the record, wholly without jurisdiction and thus a nullity, that an executing court will interfere with the execution of an award/decree. And that admittedly is not the case here.
As can be seen that the Hon’ble Supreme Court has categorically held that unlike Section 47 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (“FERA”) transactions that violate FEMA cannot be held to be void. That even if RBI were to take action under FEMA, the non-enforcement of a foreign award on the ground of violation of a FEMA Regulation or Rule would not arise as the award does not become void on that count. That a rectifiable breach under FEMA can never be held to be a violation of the fundamental policy of Indian Law. That if a particular act violates any provision of FEMA or the Rules framed thereunder, permission of RBI may be obtained post facto if such violation can be condoned.
As can be seen, Section 3 of the FEMA inter-alia provides that no person can deal in or transfer foreign exchange/foreign security to a person not being an authorised person or make payment to or for the credit of any person resident outside India, “Save as otherwise provided in this Act, rules or regulations made thereunder, or with the general or special permission of the Reserve Bank, no person shall..”
Section 3 of the FEMA, by itself does not impose any requirement of prior approval or prior permission. The term “general or special permission” includes within its ambit, both prior permission as well as subsequent permission.
In the facts of this case, in fact the transaction being a current account transaction, is already contemplated in the general permission that have been granted by the Reserve Bank of India only subject to the pricing / valuation being certified by a Chartered Accountant, which in the facts of this case is done by the Deloitte Report and which has already been looked into and approved by the Hon'ble Supreme Court and therefore the same issue cannot be re-agitated before this Court. The question therefore of prior approval from Reserve Bank of India does not arise.
The Respondents have sought to rely upon the decision of Cruz City Mauritius Holdings [2017 (4) TMI 729 - DELHI HIGH COURT] to contend that the prior approval of the RBI is necessary, the Respondents’ reliance is misplaced in as much as in the facts in the said decision pertain to the remittance of foreign exchange in favour of a foreign party seeking enforcement of a foreign exchange in favour of the Indian Party.
Thus, the contention of the Respondents that the Awards are in contravention of FEMA having been previously raised and decided before the Hon’ble Supreme Court cannot be raised again in execution.
Apart from the fact that the issue has already been concluded by the decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court and cannot be re-agitated before this Court, it is settled law that valuation relating to the date of the passing of the awards in the year 2014 would be relevant and not the current or recent valuation or the date when the Hon'ble Supreme Court passed the order negativing the challenges to the enforcement of the award or the date of the judgment holding the awards to be executable in view of the decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court holding the award to be enforceable. The decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Forasol [1983 (10) TMI 234 - SUPREME COURT] as sought to be relied upon by Mr. Nankani, therefore, would not be applicable to the facts of this case.
The Respondents’ attempt to raise the above and other objections in the current execution mirrors those previously addressed during the enforcement phase of the arbitral award. Such repetitive objections are impermissible, as they contravene the pro-enforcement bias of the New York Convention adopted by Section 48 of the Arbitration Act. Allowing the respondents to reintroduce these objections at this juncture would effectively grant them a ‘second bite at the cherry’ undermining the finality of the arbitral award and the efficiency of the execution process and therefore these objections stand rejected.
Section 98 of the Companies Act, 1956, contemplates the NCLT directing convening of a meeting of a company whereas the prayers sought for in Interim Application No. 1401 of 2021 are qua the Respondents in enforcement of the contractual rights confirmed by the award not falling within the purview of Section 98 and that the reliefs sought do not fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the NCLT. That, this Court being an executing Court can exercise powers under Section 51(e) of the CPC, as has been upheld by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of State of Haryana [2004 (6) TMI 619 - SUPREME COURT] which allows this Court to pass orders for enforcement of decrees in a manner to give effect to it. Further, the decision in the case of Cheran Properties Ltd. vs. Kasturi & Sons [2018 (4) TMI 1412 - SUPREME COURT] is distinguishable and therefore not applicable and would not apply to the facts of this case as the said decision was on an application for rectification whereas the present case pertains to execution of a foreign award which declares the Applicant’s rights to have the shares held by the Respondents in the Company transferred to it.
It is in furtherance of these rights that the Respondents have been directed to convene and hold a meeting of the board of directors of the company for the limited purpose of registering the transfer of shares in favour of the Applicants, whereas the award in the case of Cheran Properties Ltd. vs. Kasturi & Sons contains no such direction / order. There is no rectification of the register of members sought in the facts of this case.
The residuary power under Section 51(e) of the CPC permits execution as far as machinery under CPC can actually operate, it does not create new substantive jurisdiction, it only covers cases where the machinery under CPC is adaptable. The injunctive reliefs in furtherance of the Awards and transfer of shares and direction to the Respondents to take all necessary steps and to execute all necessary documents for the appointment of the Applicant’s nominee directors on the Board of Directors of Ravin Cables Ltd are within the powers of the executing Court.
As can be seen, the RBI letter does not bear out any new circumstance necessitating a renewed deliberation on issues already argued and dealt with. The RBI letter in fact records that the RBI has no objection to the enforcement of the arbitration award upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court. The said letter does not convey that prior permission of the RBI is required for the execution of the award. Infact, as noted above, paragraph 88 of the decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Vijay Karia and Others [2020 (2) TMI 628 - SUPREME COURT] has considered and negatived this objection which cannot be gone into again, and that, no objection as to the FEMA 1999, Rules, Regulations nor the pricing guidelines can be raised again. The objection sought to be raised by way of a fresh letter dated 19th August 2025 post the filing of the Execution Application, in my view, would therefore not be of any relevance but only to delay the execution proceedings, inviting an order for payment of costs.
As noted, on 9th September 2025 and on 11th November 2025, this Court has permitted deletion of the Respondents no.70, 71, 72, 74, 75 and 78 at the request of the Applicant. It is pertinent to note that no objection was raised then nor the order permitting the deletion has been challenged. But only subsequently an objection has been raised on behalf of the Respondents that the award cannot be executed partially as the award contemplates transfer of all shares.
Apart from the fact that no objection was raised when the deletion was allowed, I am of the view that although the award contemplates transfer of all shares held by multiple shareholders, and the same refers to entitlement inter se the contracting parties the same is not necessarily a joint, inseparable obligation requiring simultaneous performance. The said relief is several and the award does not expressly stipulate that the transaction is indivisible or conditional upon collective performance.
It is trite law that partial execution of a decree that grants separate reliefs is permissible. In the case of Panaji Girdharlal v. Ratanchand Hajarimal Marwadi [1933 (2) TMI 19 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] this Court held that where the decree sought to be executed gives two different reliefs, the decree may be executed separately and the Applicant will have waived his right to execution for the reliefs he chooses not to press.
Accordingly, the relief of transfer of shares is severable and distinct and the Applicant is entitled to pursue the execution against those Respondents whose share transfer obligations are sought to be enforced.
All the objections against the Final Arbitral Award raised by the Respondents are hereby rejected and the Final Arbitral Award is held to be executable and the Execution Application is held to be maintainable. The execution to proceed as per law.
It is clear that the stand taken by the Respondents is contrary to the opinion of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in enforcement proceedings viz. in the case of Prysmian Cavi E Sistemi SRL vs. Vijay Karia and Another and despite that, the Respondents have raised the very same issues only to delay the fruits of the award in favour of the Execution Applicant, by not only re-agitating the grounds already decided and negatived by the Hon'ble Supreme Court but also endeavoured to raise a fresh issue in the garb of a fresh letter from the Reserve Bank of India which cannot be permitted but has to be deprecated by imposition of costs to be paid to the Applicant, particularly when there is no challenge to the award under the English law.
The Final Award, already held enforceable by the Supreme Court, is executable.
Issues: Whether the impugned order of the Tribunal was required to be set aside and the matter remanded for fresh consideration on merits in view of the objection regarding pre-show-cause notice consultation.
Analysis: The demand arose from a show cause notice issued under the Finance Act, 1994 and was adjudicated before the issuance of the subsequent clarification in the departmental circular governing pre-show-cause notice consultation. The record did not disclose that the notice was founded on fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts, or contravention with intent to evade duty, which are the situations in which consultation was treated as not mandatory. The dispute on the merits, including the evidentiary value of Form 26AS data and the underlying invoices and work orders, was not finally decided and was considered more appropriate for reconsideration by the Tribunal.
Conclusion: The impugned Tribunal order was set aside and the matter was remanded to the Tribunal for a fresh decision on the merits.
Final Conclusion: The proceeding ended with a remand for merits determination, and the substantive tax liability was left open for fresh adjudication.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a demand case is not shown to fall within the stated exceptions of fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression, or similar evasion-linked grounds, the requirement of pre-show-cause notice consultation cannot be ignored, and a merits decision may be set aside for fresh consideration.
Pre-show cause consultation - Master Circular No. 1053/2/2017-CX para 5.0 - Circular No. 1079/03/2021-CX - use of Form 26AS as sole basis for Service Tax demand - remand for fresh adjudication on merits - HELD THAT:- The show cause notice was issued to the respondent on 21.10.2019 and the issue of payment of Service Tax had been finalized by the Principal Commissioner, CGST, Dibrugarh, vide order dated 22.10.2021, i.e., prior to the subsequent Circular dated 11.11.2021 and the clarification made thereunder. Further there is nothing in the show cause notice dated 21.10.2019, to show that the Service Tax sought to be levied upon the respondent, was due to fraud or collusion or willful mis-statement or suppression of facts or contravention of any of the provision of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or Chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994 or the Rules made there under.
Thus, the show cause notice dated 21.10.2019 and the subsequent order dated 22.10.2021 passed by the Principal Commissioner, CGST, Dibrugarh was not proper and sustainable in law, due to non issuance of the pre show cause notice consultation.
We are accordingly of the view that the entire issue, as on date, not having been decided on merits, but solely on the issue of technicality, the matter should be remanded back to the learned CESTAT, Kolkata, for a determination on the merits of the case, without going into the issue of whether pre show cause notice consultation or whether the “26AS data” only could be a ground for levying/demanding service tax. This is due to the fact that all the work orders, invoices and all other documents of the respondent have already been submitted to the learned CESTAT. The learned CESTAT shall accordingly take a fresh decision on the merits of the case, after giving an opportunity of hearing to both the parties, without relegating the said issue to be decided on merits to the authorities. This decision directing the learned CESTAT to take a fresh decision on the matter on merits is being made with the consent of the parties, though we are of the view that the show cause notice dated 21.01.2019 and the order dated 22.10.2021 passed by the Principal Commissioner, CGST, Dibrugarh should also be set aside. However, as stated above, the parties want the entire matter to be decided on merits by the learned Tribunal without relegating the said case to the Principal Commissioner, as a number of years have gone by.
The impugned Final Order of the CESTAT, Kolkata is set aside
Issues: Whether credit on items such as welding electrodes, jointing sheets and other items used for maintenance, repair, upkeep or fabrication of plant and machinery is admissible as being "used in or in relation to manufacture".
Analysis: The Court examined the scope of the expression "used in or in relation to manufacture" and applied settled legal principles holding that the phrase has wide import and includes items used in the process of manufacture whether directly or indirectly and whether contained in the final product or not. The Court considered prior authority which held that items used for maintenance, repair, upkeep or fabrication of plant and machinery are encompassed within items "used in" manufacture and therefore qualify for credit.
Conclusion: Credit on welding electrodes and similar items used for maintenance, repair, upkeep or fabrication of plant and machinery is admissible; the appeals are allowed in terms of the cited judgment.
Ratio Decidendi: The expression "used in or in relation to manufacture" is to be interpreted broadly to include all items used in the process of manufacture (directly or indirectly), including items used for maintenance, repair, upkeep or fabrication of plant and machinery, and such items qualify for input credit.
Admissibility of CENVAT/credit on items used for maintenance, repair, upkeep or fabrication of plant and machinery - interpretation of the expression "used in or in relation to manufacture" as of wide import - application of precedent to dispose of appeals - disposal of proceedings on account of "low tax effect" while leaving open substantial questions of law - HELD THAT:- The appeals in which credit for items used in maintenance, repair or upkeep of plant and machinery was claimed are allowed in terms of the cited precedent that construes "used in or in relation to manufacture" broadly; other Special Leave Petitions were disposed of or dismissed by applying earlier orders or, where fiscal impact was small, disposed of on 'low tax effect' while leaving open any substantial question of law.
Issues: Whether the accused/petitioner rebutted the statutory presumptions relating to negotiable instruments and whether the lower appellate court was justified in setting aside the trial court's acquittal and convicting the accused under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Analysis: The Court examined the trial evidence including defence witnesses and documentary exhibits relied upon by the petitioner to demonstrate lack of consideration, absence of contemporaneous documentation by the complainant, and the complainant's admission of circumstances (police complaint regarding seizure of the vehicle, alleged pledge of jewels not substantiated by documents or witnesses). The Court applied the principle that an accused may adduce evidence to rebut the presumptions arising under the Negotiable Instruments Act and that once such rebuttal is accepted on the preponderance of probabilities, the evidential burden shifts back to the complainant. The Court noted that the trial Court evaluated the totality of evidence and accepted the defence's version, whereas the lower appellate court primarily relied on statutory presumptions without fully considering the defence evidence and the materials as a whole.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that the petitioner successfully rebutted the statutory presumptions and probablized his defence; the lower appellate court's interference with the trial court's acquittal was not justified. The criminal revision is allowed, the conviction and sentence imposed by the lower appellate court are set aside, and the trial court's acquittal is restored and confirmed; the petitioner is acquitted of all charges.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an accused adduces credible rebuttal evidence that, on preponderance of probabilities, negates the complainant's case, the evidential burden shifts back to the complainant and the statutory presumptions under the Negotiable Instruments Act cease to operate in the complainant's favour.
Negotiable Instruments Act - Dishonour Of cheque -Rebuttal of statutory presumption under Sections 118 and 139 - proof of consideration and wherewithal to lend - appellate interference with concurrent appreciation of evidence in criminal acquittal - judicial restoration of trial court's acquittal where two views are possible - HELD THAT:- The specific case of the petitioner is that the respondent is a total stranger and he took loan only from Dhanakshmi Finance and the cheque (Ex.P1) which was given to Dhanalakshmi Finance, misused by the respondent and at no point of time, the petitioner obtained any hand loan from the respondent. The trial Court took a judicial notice with regard to another loan taken on the same day and pendency of the case against the petitioner on similar grounds in C.C.No.142 of 2011.
This Court finds that the petitioner by examining defence witnesses, marking exhibits and cross examining the respondent, rebutted the presumption and probablized his defence. Once such rebuttal evidence is adduced and considered by the Court, the evidential burden shifts back to the complainant and thereafter, the presumptions under Sections 118 & 139 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 will not again come to the complainant’s rescue.
The Hon’ble Apex Court as well as this Court time and again held that when two views possible unless there is perversity and gross miscarriage of justice, the judgment of acquittal not to be disturbed. On proper appreciation of evidence and materials, the trial Court rightly acquitted the petitioner and dismissed the complaint, which needs no interference of this Court. The lower appellant Court had merely gone on the statutory presumption, but not considered the evidence and materials in totality.
This Criminal Revision Case stands allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the judgment of the Lower Appellate Court reversing the Trial Court's acquittal in a prosecution under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 was sustainable where the Trial Court had accepted the accused's defence and the appellate court failed to record perversity in the trial court's findings.
Analysis: The issue required examination of whether the appellate court, in an appeal against acquittal, properly reappreciated the evidence and identified any perversity or gross miscarriage of justice in the Trial Court's finding that the accused probabilized his defence. Relevant aspects considered include: the effect of admissions (issuance of the cheque and signature), the statutory presumptions under the Negotiable Instruments Act, the scope of Section 20 regarding filling up blanks, the evidence put forth by the defence (documents and account statements) to show an alternative commercial relationship (share broking) and the absence of independent witnesses for the complainant's asserted sources of funds. The appellate court's reversal was evaluated against the principle that where two reasonable conclusions are possible, an acquittal should not be disturbed unless the Trial Court's conclusion is perverse or causes a gross miscarriage of justice.
Conclusion: The appellate court's judgment reversing the acquittal was set aside and the Trial Court's acquittal was restored; the revision is allowed in favour of the appellant.
Negotiable Instruments Act - Dishonour of the cheque -Presumption under Sections 118 and 139 - power of appellate court in appeal against an order of acquittal - probabilization of defence to rebut statutory presumption - requirement of perversity or gross miscarriage to disturb acquittal - filling up of a cheque by the payee and authority u/s 20 - HELD THAT:- In this case, neither the said Ramasamy nor Subulakshmi, wife of respondent or the said Moorthy examined as witnesses. The respondent specifically denied in his evidence that he is not involved in share market business and he does not know what share trading is about. He admits that neither in the statutory notice nor in the complaint or in his evidence he referred to any share business. Though he states that he gave Rs. 8,00,000/- to the petitioner by way of cheque, not produced any material to confirm Rs. 8,00,000/- was paid to the account of the petitioner through cheque. When a specific question was put to the respondent involved in share trading business from the year 2007 to 2015, he stoutly denied the same and also feigned ignorance about the petitioner as a share broker. When a specific question was put with regard to the transfer of money from the respondent's account to Networth Stock Broking Limited, then to he denied. The respondent admits that the loan given to the petitioner does not reflect in his income tax returns/Ex.P5 to Ex.P8. Further, Ex.D1 to Ex.D5, marked through the respondent, are the cheques issued for the share broking business. The respondent's wherewithal has been questioned. Added to it, in this case, the petitioner examined himself as DW1 and marked statements of accounts/Ex.D6 to Ex.D8,from which, the transaction of the Network Stock Broking Limited confirms payment received by the respondent and his wife Subulakshmi.
Thus, the petitioner probabilized his defence that it was only a share broking business, the petitioner was a share broker and the respondent who invested in the share market had a misfortune on a wrong prediction and calculation and lost some money in share trading business, later the blank cheque of the petitioner misused, clearly probabilized by way of cross-examination and by examining the defence witness and marking defence documents. These facts rightly considered by the Trial Court and thereafter, the trial court dismissed the complaint discharging the petitioner. The Lower Appellate Court had merely gone on the fact that the signature in Ex.P1/cheque is not disputed and statutory presumption under Sections 118 and 139 of NI Act, 1881 is against the petitioner without any discussion on the evidence and materials and failed to show any perversity committed by the Trial Court. In the absence of any such finding of perversity, reversing the judgment of acquittal, is not proper. In view of the above, the finding of the lower appellate Court is not sustainable and the same is liable to be set aside.
Criminal Revision allowed.
Issues: Whether the second bail application deserved to be allowed in the absence of any substantial change in circumstances, and whether the material collected during investigation prima facie justified continued custody.
Analysis: The applicant sought regular bail in a corruption case alleging that he impersonated a senior GST and acted in conspiracy with co-accused persons in the demand of illegal gratification. The Court noted that the earlier bail application had already been rejected on merits and that a successive bail application could be entertained only on a showing of substantial change in circumstances. It further noted that the investigation had been completed, the charge sheet and supplementary charge sheet were filed, and the material on record, including CCTV footage, identification by witnesses, and voice-related material, prima facie indicated the applicant's presence and active role in the alleged conspiracy. The Court also relied on the applicant's alleged non-cooperation during investigation, including evasion of notices and reluctance to give voice sample.
Conclusion: No substantial change in circumstances was shown, and the material on record prima facie supported the prosecution case; the second bail application was therefore not fit to be granted.
Final Conclusion: The applicant was not entitled to bail on the facts and material placed before the Court, and the custody order was maintained.
Ratio Decidendi: A successive bail application can be entertained only on proof of a substantial change in circumstances, and where the record discloses a prima facie active role in a serious offence together with non-cooperation in investigation, bail may be refused.
Entitlement to grant of regular bail - successive bail - requirement of substantial change in circumstances - impersonation and conspiracy in corruption offences - role of electronic evidence (CCTV, voice recordings, IPDR) in prima facie satisfaction - non-cooperation and evasion as factor against grant of bail - completion of investigation and filing of charge sheet - balance between personal liberty and interest of justice - HELD THAT:- This Court finds no justifiable ground to take a different view, particularly when it is well settled that a successive bail application can be entertained only upon demonstration of a substantial change in circumstances, and no such substantial change has been shown in the present matter. The investigation stands concluded and both the charge sheet as well as the supplementary charge sheet have been filed before the learned Trial Court, and the material collected during investigation prima facie discloses the involvement of the applicant in the alleged commission of the offence, specifically the allegation that he impersonated himself as Commissioner of CGST and, in conspiracy with the co-accused persons, sought to extract illegal gratification from the complainant.
The presence of the applicant at the Starbucks Coffee Shop, where the alleged negotiations regarding the bribe took place, is supported by CCTV footage, and he has been identified by the complainant and other witnesses, as reflected in the return filed by the respondent/Central Bureau of Investigation his voice sample has also been obtained and relied upon in support of the recorded telephonic conversations forming part of the prosecution case.
Though this Court is not required to undertake a meticulous appreciation of the evidence at the stage of bail, but the material available on record prima facie indicates that the applicant played a central and active role in the alleged conspiracy by projecting himself as a senior official and directing the actions of the co-accused persons. Furthermore, the conduct of the applicant during investigation does not inspire confidence, inasmuch as repeated notices under Section 35(3) of the BNSS were issued at multiple addresses and he allegedly evaded execution of the non-bailable warrant issued by the learned Trial Court before eventually appearing, and even during police custody he was reluctant to provide his voice sample for scientific comparison; such conduct prima facie reflects non-cooperation with the investigation.
In view of the seriousness of the allegations, the nature of the evidence collected, the attributed role of the applicant as the principal conspirator, and in the absence of any new or substantial change in circumstances since rejection of the earlier bail application, this Court is of the considered opinion that no case for grant of bail is made out; accordingly, the second bail application stands rejected.
The High Court rejected the applicant's second bail application.
Issues: (i) Whether the prosecution proved the demand, acceptance and recovery necessary to establish offences under Sections 7, 13(1)(d) and 13(2) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. (ii) Whether the acquittal recorded by the trial court suffered from perversity or legal infirmity warranting interference in appeal.
Issue (i): Whether the prosecution proved the demand, acceptance and recovery necessary to establish offences under Sections 7, 13(1)(d) and 13(2) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
Analysis: The complainant did not fully support the prosecution version and materially departed from the complaint allegations. The evidence showed inconsistencies regarding the alleged demand, the pending official work, the alleged recording of conversation, and the role of the shadow witness. The alleged demand of illegal gratification was not reliably proved, and the presumption under Section 20 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 could not operate effectively in the absence of foundational proof of demand and acceptance.
Conclusion: The issue was answered against the prosecution and in favour of the respondent.
Issue (ii): Whether the acquittal recorded by the trial court suffered from perversity or legal infirmity warranting interference in appeal.
Analysis: An appellate court interferes with an acquittal only when the finding is unreasonable or perverse. On reappreciation of the evidence, two views were possible and the view favourable to the accused was supported by the record. The trial court's appreciation of the contradictions and deficiencies in proof did not disclose any compelling ground for reversal.
Conclusion: The acquittal did not call for interference and was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The prosecution failed to prove the corruption charges to the required standard, and the acquittal remained undisturbed.
Ratio Decidendi: In a prosecution for corruption, proof of demand and acceptance is essential, and an appellate court will not disturb an acquittal where the evidence reasonably supports the view favourable to the accused.
Demand and acceptance of illegal gratification - presumption under Section 20 of the Prevention of Corruption Act - proof beyond reasonable doubt - benefit of doubt and two views rule in criminal jurisprudence - appellate interference with acquittal - HELD THAT:- The demand and acceptance is not properly established by the material evidence placed on record, inasmuch as, complainant having turned partially hostile to the case of the prosecution. The shadow witness specifically admits that the recording in the voice recorder is not properly audible.
When no application was given for the purpose of issue of clearance certificate and, when accused and Balaswamy were not competent for issue of clearance certificate, the complaint averments and oral testimony of the complainant that accused demanded illegal identification for issue of clearance certificate cannot be countenanced in law.
Moreover, it has been admitted by PW-1 that the first visit took place in the month of November 2012 and the demand was in the month of February 2013.
Complainant has also categorically admitted that his industry is covered by Value Added Tax. How accused and his assistant namely Balaswamy were involved in issuance of the clearance certificate is not properly established by the prosecution.
Merely on the ground that there was a demand made by the accused and accused taking out the tainted currency from the almirah kept in the office and colour test turning positive would not be sufficient enough to hold that prosecution has successfully proved all the ingredients to attract the aforesaid offences.
It is settled principles of law and requires no emphasis that whenever a duly constituted Court records an Order of acquittal, it reinforces the innocence of the accused as the accused is presumed to be innocent.
It is equally settled principles of law that prosecution has to travel a long distance between ‘may be proved’ and ‘actual proof’.
Applying the above principles to the facts of the case, on re-appreciation of the material on record, this Court does not find any compelling reasons to upset the finding of acquittal recorded by the learned Special Judge.
TaxTMI