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Issues: (i) Whether the Appellate Tribunal under Section 112 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 can examine questions of fact in a second appeal under the GST regime; (ii) whether the demand originally proceeded under Section 74 could be sustained in the absence of established fraud, wilful misstatement or suppression of facts, and whether the matter required remand for re-determination under Section 73.
Issue (i): Whether the Appellate Tribunal under Section 112 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 can examine questions of fact in a second appeal under the GST regime.
Analysis: The Tribunal contrasted the restricted second appeal jurisdiction under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 with the scheme of Section 112 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and Rule 112 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017. It noted that the GST appellate framework does not impose the same limitation to substantial questions of law and that the Tribunal is competent to scrutinise factual issues arising from the record.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that it can examine questions of fact in an appeal under Section 112.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand originally proceeded under Section 74 could be sustained in the absence of established fraud, wilful misstatement or suppression of facts, and whether the matter required remand for re-determination under Section 73.
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted the finding that the ingredients for Section 74 were not established, but also noted that the dispute regarding mismatch between GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B, credit notes, debit notes, annual return reconciliation and ITC reversal required fresh factual examination. It further relied on Section 75(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 to hold that where a notice under Section 74 is not sustainable for want of fraud or suppression, the proper officer must determine the tax as if the notice were under Section 73. Since such re-determination has to be undertaken by the proper officer, the matter could not be finally concluded at the appellate stage.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the treatment of the matter as one under Section 73 at the appellate stage and remanded the case to the proper officer for fresh consideration under Section 73 after affording opportunity to the appellant.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded to the extent that the impugned orders were interfered with on the reclassification issue and the matter was sent back for fresh adjudication by the proper officer under the correct statutory framework.
Jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal under the CGST / SGST Act - power to re-appreciate evidence in second appeals - discrepancy between return of outward supply declared in GSTR-1 and tax paid in GSTR-3B -Rule 112 of the CGST Rules - admission of additional evidence in appellate proceedings - conversion of proceedings from Section 74 to Section 73 - remand to the proper officer u/s 75(2) for re-determination - absence of fraud or wilful suppression u/s 74 -
Jurisdiction under Section 112 of the CGST Act - power to re-appreciate evidence in second appeals - HELD THAT:- The Supreme Court in the case of Hamida Vs. Md. Khalil [2001 (5) TMI 939 - SUPREME COURT] stated that it is well settled that while exercising jurisdiction under Section 100 of the Code, the High Court cannot reverse the findings of the lower appellate court on facts merely on the ground that on the facts found by the lower appellate court another view is possible.
We find Jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal under the CGST / SGST Act is different from the Jurisdiction of the High Court Under Section 100 of the Code. There is a need to compare the language used by two different Provisions. Section 100 of the Code provides the Second Appeal Jurisdiction in a Civil Matter and Section 112 of the CGST Act along with Rule 112 of the CGST Rules, 2017 provide for second appeals in GST matters.
No doubt in the mind of this tribunal that the limitations enshrined in the Section 100 of the Code are singularly absent in the appeal provisions in matters relating to GST under CGST Act as far jurisdiction of the Tribunal is concerned regarding second appeals. We may also note here that Section 117 and 118 of the CGST Acts provides for appeals to High Court and Supreme Court.
Thus, it is clear, the High Court as provided in Section 117 and Supreme Court as provide in Section 118 would be an Appellate Court to deal with the substantial question of law. Similar provision is found in Section 100 of the Code. Moreover, Sub-Section (2) of 111 of the CGST Act, 2017 further provides that the Appellate Tribunal, while discharging its functions, possesses the same powers as a civil court under the Code. Section 111(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 provides “that the Appellate Tribunal shall not, while disposing or proceeding before it or an appeal before it the bound by the procedure laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908”.
Thus, the argument advance by the Revenue that the Tribunal cannot go into the question of fact is not sustainable and it is held that in exercise of Jurisdiction under Section 112 read with Rule 112 has power to examine question of facts also and it is the last adjudicating forum on questions of facts.
Absence of fraud or wilful suppression under Section 74 - The first Appellate Authority while setting aside the penalty imposed by the Proper Officer under Section 74 of CGST Act came to the conclusion (as underlined above) that in the absence of establishment of any intention of the taxpayer to evade tax by way of fraud or suppressing the facts, as the appellant has disclosed the same in debit/credit notes, supported with invoices duly accounted for in books of accounts but did not disclose it in periodical returns matching with total liability in annual return correctly and could not prove the ITC passed by the appellant to the recipients are not utilised. Thus, First Appellate Court has accepted that the Appellant has disclosed the transaction in Debit / Credit notes and are supported with invoices duly accounted in books of Account. But his fault was that he did not disclose the transactions in the periodical returns matching with total liability in annual returns correctly. It also held that the LPO has not proved that the ITC passed by the Appellant to the Recipient were not utilized.
The only mistake which has been found with the Appellant is that he has not reflected the debit / credit notes which has been duly accounted in books of account in its periodical returns. And that he did not prove the ITC passed to the Recipients by the Appellant are utilized.
In this case we are of the opinion that this aspect has to be relooked into by the Learned Proper Officer and Appellant should be given chance to amend his returns by condoning his delay occasioned in the meantime. This view was discussed in course of virtual hearing and Learned Joint Commissioner was not in agreement with same, however, Learned Additional Standing Counsel would submit that such a case will become a precedent and may cause numerous cases to be remanded. We are of the view that every litigation has its own merits and demerit. It has to be decided on its own facts and merits. A cannot be decided on the basis consequences that follow with respect to other litigations.
Thus, it is clear that original Proper Officer who has issued Notice Under Section 74(1) of the CGST Act shall re-determine the tax payable by the Assessee and it cannot be done by the First Appellate Authority or the Tribunal. The natural corollary to such an observation would be that in case First Appellate Authority or the Tribunal comes to the conclusion that the proceeding initiated under Section 74 (1) of the CGST Act is not maintainable because of lack of requirements to attract the provision and comes to the conclusion that this is a matter to be considered under Section 73 of the CGST Act, then the matter has to be remitted back to the learned Proper Officer for re-determining the tax to be paid along with penalty, interest, etc.
There were chances of human error. In order to obviate any such human error, the matter should be re-considered by the learned Proper Officer. If we remand the matter, the best or the worst, depending upon the point of view, either from Revenue or from the side of the assessee, that can happen is that the case would be re-heard and decided at the very threshold and effective judgment would be passed. It is also not disputed at this stage that Appellant was not heard in-person at the time of passing of the order-in-original.
In the Result, that order passed by the learned Proper Officer and the order passed by the First Appellate Authority, so far as it relates to treating the case as Section 73 of the CGST/SGST Act are concerned, cannot be sustained and accordingly is set aside. However, we are not setting aside the orders passed by the learned Appellate Authority as far as its finding that case does not come under Section 74 of SGST / CGST Act.
The Appellant through its authorized Representative shall appear before the Proper Officer and file suitable application within a month. The case shall be re-considered as one under Section 73 of the CGST Act and after affording a reasonable opportunity of hearing, producing documents and seeking amendment (amendment must be filled withing 30 days from the publication of this judgment) shall be considered on merits by the learned proper officer. The learned Proper Officer while disposing the proceeding Under Section 73 of the CGST Act shall examine the genuineness of the Credit / Debit notes and other documents produced by the Appellant and render the final order.
There shall be no orders as to costs.
Issues: Whether the appellate authority's dismissal of the appeal for failure to make the prescribed 10% pre-deposit should be quashed and the appeal restored with an opportunity to make the pre-deposit.
Analysis: The petition seeks setting aside of the appellate order of dismissal for non-payment of the pre-deposit on the ground that the appeal was instituted offline and the petitioner was not intimated of the default nor heard before dismissal. The relief proposed is restoration of the appeal on the file of the Appellate Authority subject to the petitioner making the required pre-deposit within a specified short period, failing which the appeal would stand dismissed without further reference.
Conclusion: The appellate authority's order dated 28.11.2025 is quashed and the appeal is restored to the file of the Appellate Authority on condition that the petitioner makes the required pre-deposit within three weeks from the date of uploading of this order; failure to comply will result in dismissal of the appeal and the impugned order remaining undisturbed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an appeal is dismissed for non-payment of a statutory pre-deposit without intimation or hearing and the default can be cured, a court may quash the dismissal and restore the appeal on terms permitting a short opportunity to make the pre-deposit, subject to a clear timeline and consequence for non-compliance.
Pre-deposit - failure to make the prescribed 10% pre-deposit - restoration of appeal - opportunity to cure default - conditional restoration - HELD THAT:- The petitioner, consistent with the undertaking given by his counsel on instructions today before the Court, must comply with the requirement of pre-deposit within three weeks from the date of uploading of this order. If this requirement is complied with, the Appellate Authority shall proceed to dispose of the petitioner’s appeal in accordance with law on its own merits.
However, if the petitioner fails to comply with the requirement of pre-deposit within the timeline as indicated above, this writ petition shall be deemed to have been dismissed without further reference to the Court.
As a consequence, the Appellate Authority’s order dated 28.11.2025 shall remain undisturbed and its consequences shall follow.
This writ petition is disposed of in above terms without any order of costs.
Issues: Whether the 2nd respondent is obliged to consider and dispose of the petitioner's rectification application dated 11th December, 2025 filed for grant of input tax credit in view of the retrospective insertion of Section 16(5) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and related circulars.
Analysis: The petition challenges an order-in-original rejecting input tax credit for 2017-18 issued under Section 73(9) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Section 20 of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. After the impugned order, Section 16(5) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 was inserted with retrospective effect (Finance Act, 2024) permitting input tax credit claims for specified financial years if returns were filed up to 30 November 2021; additionally, Circular No. 237/31/2024-GST dated 15.10.2024 contains a para (clause 3.5) prescribing a six-month period for seeking rectification to avail the retrospective amendment. The Court examined competing contentions: the petitioner's submission that the retrospective amendment potentially overturns the impugned rejection and the respondents' reliance on the circular and prescribed six-month rectification window. The Court did not decide the merits of the rectification claim or the applicability of the circular; instead, it confined itself to the procedural question whether the rectification application should be considered and directed the 2nd respondent to decide the application on merits and in accordance with law after affording hearing within a specified timeframe. The Court expressly left open substantive contentions including the applicability of the circular and limitation period for determination by the 2nd respondent.
Conclusion: The Court directed issuance of a limited mandamus requiring the 2nd respondent to afford the petitioner an opportunity of hearing and to decide the rectification application dated 11th December, 2025 on its merits and in accordance with law within two months from uploading of the order; the petition is disposed of in these terms.
Retrospective amendment permitting belated Input Tax Credit - Input Tax Credit entitlement for Financial Year 2017-2018 - Rectification application for availing retrospective benefit - Applicability of administrative circular prescribing limitation for rectification - Judicial mandamus to adjudicate rectification applications - HELD THAT:- The petitioner’s contention about Circular dated 15th October, 2024 or the period of limitation prescribed therein not being applicable to the petitioner’s case or generally not binding upon a taxpayer, given the statutory provisions, are specifically kept open, and the same may also be addressed by the 2nd respondent when disposing of the petitioner’s rectification application dated 11th December, 2025.
The 2nd respondent should afford the petitioner an opportunity of hearing and pass a reasoned order disposing of the aforesaid rectification application within a timeline now directed by us. All contentions of the parties, however, remain open for the decision of the 2nd respondent in the first instance.
If the petitioner is aggrieved by the 2nd respondent’s decision, the petitioner will be at liberty to challenge such a decision along with the impugned order-in-original, in accordance with law and the prescribed procedures.
This petition is disposed of in the above terms without any order for costs.
Issues: Whether affiliation charges collected by a university from affiliating institutions/colleges are amenable to levy of Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Analysis: The Court examined the text and scope of Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 which exempts services "by an educational institution to its students, faculty and staff" and certain services "to an educational institution" such as services relating to admission to, or conduct of examination by, such institution. The Court considered competing High Court decisions and subsequent administrative clarifications, including Circular No.234/28/2024-GST dated 11.10.2024 and the GST Council recommendation leading to Notification No.08/2024-Central Tax (Rate) dated 08.10.2024. The Court analysed whether the activity of granting affiliation is part of "services relating to admission to, or conduct of examination by" an educational institution or is a separate pre-admission/inspection activity. The Court also reviewed the statutory definitions of "services" and the scope of Government's power to grant exemptions under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, and considered precedent from other High Courts including Bombay, Telangana and Karnataka decisions distinguishing the nature of affiliation services from admission/examination services.
Conclusion: The affiliation fee collected by a university from colleges does not fall within the exemption for services relating to admission to, or conduct of examination by, an educational institution under Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate). Affiliation and inspection services are separate pre-admission/eligibility activities and are therefore amenable to levy of GST; the view favouring taxability is adopted.
Service of affiliation - exemption for services by educational institutions - services relating to admission to, or conduct of examination by, such institution - interpretation of exemption notification No.12/2017 - clarificatory circular and GST Council recommendation - HELD THAT:- It is undoubtedly clear that the fees collected for affiliation and for inspection of colleges applied for affiliation, fall beyond the scope of service connected with admission of students and conduct of examination. The illustration given by the learned Single Judge in Madurai Kamaraj University's case [2024 (6) TMI 1550 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] that admission of students by affiliating college is controlled by universities while granting affiliation and if the affiliation is granted for admitting 100 students, the College cannot admit even one student more and therefore, the extended meaning should be given to the expression 'service in connection with admission of student', is fallacious. The number of students to be admitted in the affiliated college is determined by the statute namely, the University Act based on availability of necessary infrastructure, such as building, teaching faculty etc.. Admission of students commences only after the affiliation is granted on satisfaction of required infrastructure. Any service provided for granting affiliation is independent of admitting student and conduct of examination. Therefore, extended meaning to the expression 'admission of student or conduct of examination' is impermissible.
As a result, we hold that the view expressed in the subsequent judgment namely, Pondichery University's case [2023 (10) TMI 1169 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] declares the correct legal position, since the affiliation fee collected by the Universities does not fall within exemption. Accordingly, the fee collected by the University from the Colleges as affiliation fees is amenable for levy of GST. Thus the order of reference is answered accordingly. The matter is sent back to the learned Single Judge to decide the case on other grounds, if any.
Issues: (i) Whether the writ petition challenging the refund rejection order in FORM-GST-RFD-06 dated 13.05.2025 and the vires of Circular No.125/44/2019-GST can be entertained, or the petitioner must be relegated to the appellate remedy under Section 107(1) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: The refund rejection order dated 13.05.2025 was issued after a show cause notice dated 24.04.2025 issued in terms of Section 169(1)(d) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The petitioner did not respond to the show cause notice and raised multiple contentions challenging the grounds of rejection as well as the vires of Circular No.125/44/2019-GST. An alternative remedy of appeal under Section 107(1) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 was available to the petitioner and was not availed; the writ petition was pending for an extended period. The petitioner was therefore relegated to prefer an appeal, with liberty to seek delay condonation and with the appellate authority being directed to consider the grounds pursued before the writ forum within the bounds of law and in a reasonable time.
Conclusion: The writ petition is dismissed and the petitioner is directed to prefer an appeal under Section 107(1) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 within two weeks with a delay condonation application; the appellate authority shall consider the grounds of fact and law, including any challenge to Circular No.125/44/2019-GST, in accordance with law and within a reasonable time.
Refund rejection - show cause notice - principles of natural justice - alternative remedy of appeal - condonation of delay - ultra vires challenge to administrative circular - Validity of the impugned refund rejection order in FORM-GST-RFD-06 dated 13.05.2025 - HELD THAT:- Petitioner has, instead of availing the remedy of appeal, now sought to question the refund rejection order by raising a ground of ultra vires of the circular dated 18.11.2019 itself which is applicable to processing of the refund claims.
However, the petitioner has bypassed the alternative remedy of appeal available under Section 107(1) of the CGST Act. The writ petition has been pending since its institution on 09.07.2025. Since we are inclined to relegate the petitioner to the appellate remedy, in case such an appeal is preferred within a period of two weeks with a delay condonation application, the appellate authority would take into account that the petitioner was pursuing its remedy for all this period before this Court in writ jurisdiction. Petitioner is at liberty to take all such grounds of fact and law before the appellate authority which may be considered, in accordance with law, within a reasonable time.
The instant Writ Petition is, accordingly, disposed of. It is made clear that we have not made any comments on the merits of the case of the parties.
Issues: Whether the Show Cause Notice seeking levy/ recovery of GST on seigniorage/royalty should be adjudicated but its implementation and recovery kept in abeyance pending the decision of the Nine Judge Constitution Bench / Hon'ble Supreme Court, and whether the petitioner should be permitted to file objections/representations to the Show Cause Notice.
Analysis: The Court applied the directions issued by the Division Bench in A. Venkatachalam v. Assistant Commissioner (ST), Palladam in W.P. No. 30974 of 2022, which permit submission of objections/representations within four weeks, require adjudication on merits after affording opportunity of being heard, and direct that orders of adjudication be kept in abeyance with no recovery of GST on royalty until the Nine Judge Constitution Bench decides the question. The present petition involves substantially similar factual and legal questions concerning GST on royalty/seigniorage and is pending consideration at the Supreme Court, making the Division Bench directions applicable.
Conclusion: The petitioner is permitted to submit objections/representations to the Show Cause Notice within four weeks and the authority shall adjudicate the proceedings on merits after hearing, but any implementation or recovery pursuant to the assessment shall be kept in abeyance pending the decision of the Nine Judge Constitution Bench / Hon'ble Supreme Court.
GST on seigniorage / royalty fee - adjudication of show cause notice on merits - implementation of adjudication orders to be kept in abeyance pending higher forum decision - submission of objections/representations within a fixed time - no recovery of tax pending constitution bench / Supreme Court decision - deposit direction in assessment proceedings - HELD THAT:- This Court has heard several cases, wherein either the Show Cause Notices or Assessment orders were under challenge. In cases, where the assessments orders were under challenge, the petitioners were directed to deposit 10% of the disputed tax. However, in the present case, the petitioner resisted the same in the light of the above decision of the Hon’ble Division Bench of this Court, which is now the subject matter of challenge before the Hon’ble Supreme Court in UDAIPUR CHAMBERS OF COMMERCE AND INDUSTRY & ORS. VERSUS UNION OF INDIA & ORS. [2024 (8) TMI 254 - SC ORDER] batch, etc.
In view of the above decision of the Hon’ble Division Bench, the respondent is directed to adjudicate the Show Cause proceedings and keep the implementation of the impugned assessment order to be passed in abeyance, awaiting the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
This writ petition is disposed of with the above observations.
Issues: (i) Whether denial of a personal hearing after filing a reply amounted to violation of principles of natural justice; (ii) Whether a consolidated show cause notice and composite adjudication order for multiple financial years was permissible under Section 74 of the CGST Act; (iii) Whether non-issuance of intimation in Form GST DRC-01A under Rule 142(1A) for periods prior to amendment vitiated the proceedings.
Issue (i): Whether denial of a personal hearing after filing a reply amounted to violation of principles of natural justice.
Analysis: Multiple hearing dates were offered to the taxpayer after service of the show cause notice and before passing the order. The reply was filed belatedly well after the thirty-day period. Principles governing grant of personal hearing and adjournment permit further opportunity where sufficient cause is shown; the operative inquiry is whether denial caused prejudice to the taxpayer. The factual record shows repeated opportunities of personal hearing were provided and the taxpayer did not appear to avail them.
Conclusion: The contention of violation of natural justice is rejected; conclusion is in favour of Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether a consolidated show cause notice and composite adjudication order for multiple financial years was permissible under Section 74 of the CGST Act.
Analysis: Statutory language in Sections 73 and 74 uses terms such as "for any period" and "for such periods" and contrasts with other provisions that expressly use "financial year", indicating legislative allowance for notices/orders covering periods spanning multiple years. In cases of alleged fraudulent availment or utilization of input tax credit, establishing a pattern may necessitate linking transactions across financial years. The adjudication was completed within the limitation period prescribed under Section 74(10) as extended by the administrative circular.
Conclusion: A consolidated notice and composite order for multiple years is permissible in the circumstances; conclusion is in favour of Revenue.
Issue (iii): Whether non-issuance of intimation in Form GST DRC-01A under Rule 142(1A) for periods prior to amendment vitiated the proceedings.
Analysis: Rule 142(1A) does not specify a 'period' and was amended to substitute 'shall' with 'may' with effect from 15.10.2020. Divergent precedents exist, but the controlling enquiry is whether non-issuance caused prejudice to the taxpayer. The taxpayer contested the show cause notice on merits and did not demonstrate any specific prejudice resulting from non-issuance of the intimation; authorities and precedents permit refusal to remand where no real prejudice is shown.
Conclusion: Non-issuance of intimation in Form GST DRC-01A did not vitiate the proceedings in the absence of prejudice; conclusion is in favour of Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The petition challenging the show cause notice and order-in-original is dismissed; the statutory appeal remains the efficacious remedy for the taxpayer to pursue the available grounds.
Ratio Decidendi: Where multiple years are implicated in alleged fraudulent availment of input tax credit, consolidated notices and composite orders are permissible and, absent demonstrable prejudice from non-compliance with procedural intimation requirements, procedural irregularity will not invalidate adjudication completed within the prescribed limitation period.
Violation of principles of natural justice - personal hearing - composite show cause notice for multiple tax periods - consolidated adjudication u/s 74 - Rule 142(1A) CGST - issuance of Form GST DRC-01A - prejudice test for non-compliance with procedural requirements - limitation u/s 74(10) of the CGST Act -HELD THAT:- Upon consideration of the stand of the parties, the following position emerges on the requirement of issuance of intimation under Rule 142(1A). Rule 142(1A) either before or after amendment did not use the expression ‘period’. The legislature consciously amended the expression ‘shall’ used in unamended Rule 142(1) as ‘may’. The Rule does not refer to the ‘period’ for which the intimation relates.
In the case of M/s. New Morning Star Travels [2023 (10) TMI 1246 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], it has been held that in a case where the interpretation of a statute leads to ambiguity, the benefit ought to go to the tax payer. The decision, however, does not address as to whether non-issuance of such intimation led to any prejudice, in the facts and circumstance of the case. A Constitution Bench of the apex court in ECIL vs. B. Karunakar [1993 (10) TMI 310 - SUPREME COURT], at para 30(v), has held that the theory of reasonable opportunity and the principles of natural justice have been evolved to uphold the rule of law and to assist the individual to vindicate his just rights. They are not incantations to be invoked nor rites to be performed on all and sundry occasions. Whether in fact, prejudice has been caused to the employee or not on account of the denial to him of the report, has to be considered on the facts and circumstances of each case.
A decision is passed sub silentio when the particular point of law in a decision is not perceived by the court or not present to its mind or is not consciously determined by the court and it does not form part of the ratio decidendi, it is not binding. (Also see paras 13, 13.1 to 13.8 of Odisha State Financial Corporation vs. Vigyan Chemical Industries [2025 (8) TMI 708 - SUPREME COURT]. In such a situation, the decision in the case of M/s. New Morning Star Travels (Supra), can be said to be rendered sub silentio as the test of prejudice was neither raised nor considered by the learned court. This court is therefore of the opinion that non-issuance of intimation in Form GST DRC-01A under amended Rule 142(1A) for the period prior to 15.10.2020 upon the petitioner did not result in causing any prejudice for the purposes of striking down the impugned order.
The petitioner has an efficacious alternative remedy of appeal to raise all available grounds of law and fact under Section 107(1) of the Act.
If, in the ultimate analysis, the petitioner could not show any prejudice for non-issuance of the intimation in Form GST DRC-01A, this Court could refrain from exercising its discretionary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India as it could only be a formality.
This court is of the considered opinion that the petitioner has not been able to make out a case for interference in the impugned show cause notice and the Order-in-Original on any of the grounds raised by it in writ jurisdiction. The petitioner may avail the remedy of statutory appeal taking all such grounds of law as available on facts. Needless to say, in such a case, the appellate authority would consider the explanation of the petitioner for delay, if any, in preferring the appeal taking into account that the petitioner was prosecuting his remedy before this court in the writ jurisdiction.
The writ petition stands dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the respondent has profiteered by not passing on benefit of input tax credit and reduced pre-GST tax incidence to the service recipient and, if so, the amount of profiteering; (ii) Whether the respondent is liable to pass the proportionate profiteered amount for completed work to the applicant and to pay interest under the CGST Rules.
Issue (i): Whether the respondent has profiteered by not passing on the benefit of input tax credit and reduced pre-GST tax incidence and the quantification of such profiteering.
Analysis: The DGAP investigation recalculated pre-GST tax incidence and additional benefit from input tax credit for specified materials, revised pre-GST tax liability, and computed a differential benefit post-GST. The respondent accepted the DGAP computation and the applicant concurred; the DGAP's calculations identify a total profiteering amount attributable to the respondent for the period under investigation.
Conclusion: The respondent has profiteered in the amount of Rs. 12,20,694. Held in favour of Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether the respondent must pass the proportionate profiteered amount relating to completed work to the applicant and pay interest under the Rules.
Analysis: The DGAP determined the proportion of work completed in the post-GST period and computed the proportionate profiteering for completed work. The respondent and applicant accepted these computations. Rule 133(3)(b) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 prescribes payment of interest as applicable to the recipient for delayed passing of benefit.
Conclusion: The respondent is liable to pay Rs. 9,36,700 (proportionate profiteering for completed work) to the applicant along with applicable interest. Held in favour of Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The appellate authority upholds the DGAP findings that the respondent failed to pass on GST-related benefits, directs payment of the quantified proportionate profiteered amount for completed work with applicable interest, and disposes of the matter accordingly.
Ratio Decidendi: Under Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, benefits arising from reduced tax incidence and additional input tax credit must be passed on to the recipient; failure to do so permits computation and recovery of the differential (proportionate) amount along with interest under the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017.
Profiteering u/s 171 - Passing on benefit of input tax credit - Computation of profiteering and proportional adjustment for work completed - Acceptance of DGAP report and its evidentiary/conclusive effect - Liability to pay interest under Rule 133(3)(b) of the CGST Rules - HELD THAT:- We hold that the Respondent has profiteered by an amount of Rs. 12,20,694/- which needs to be passed on to M/s NTPC Ltd. And as the work of Rs. 97,66,48,456/- has been completed which is about 76.735% of the total work done as per Letter of Award dated 15.09.2016 for the said project in post GST period, accordingly, proportionate profiteering amount for the completed work calculated as Rs. 9,36,700/- is liable to be passed to the Applicant. Further as per Rule 133(3)(b) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, the Respondent is liable to pay interest as applicable to Applicant. The Respondent shall pay the profiteered amount of Rs. 9,36,700/- to the Applicant along with applicable interest within 30 days and submit compliance report to the jurisdictional CGST/SGST Commissioner with intimation to the DGAP within 2 months.
The case is disposed of, accordingly.
Issues: (i) Whether supply of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to in patients as part of hospital treatment is exempt under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 as a composite supply of healthcare services; (ii) Whether supply of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to out patients as part of treatment is exempt under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 as a composite supply of healthcare services.
Issue (i): Whether supplies of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to in patients as part of treatment are exempt as a composite supply under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.
Analysis: Inpatient services are classified under SAC 999311 and the explanatory notes include medical, pharmaceutical and paramedical services provided to inpatients from admission till discharge. The statutory definition of composite supply (Section 2(30) of the CGST Act, 2017) covers supplies naturally bundled with a principal supply. Circular No. 32/06/2018 GST clarifies that amounts charged by hospitals from patients, including retention and fees, are towards healthcare services and are exempt; supplies to inpatients such as food (when advised by doctor) are part of the composite supply. The hospital's facts show integrated pharmacy, dispensing under prescriptions issued during inpatient treatment, consolidated billing and that medicines and consumables are issued as an inseparable part of care until discharge.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee. Supply of medicines, consumables, implants and other medical items supplied to in patients as part of treatment is exempt under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 as a composite supply of healthcare services.
Issue (ii): Whether supplies of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to out patients as part of treatment are exempt as a composite supply under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.
Analysis: The exemption under Entry No. 74 covers healthcare services by a clinical establishment and inpatient services are expressly covered under SAC 999311. For outpatients, although consultation services qualify as healthcare services and are exempt, medicines and consumables prescribed to outpatients are not necessarily supplied exclusively by the hospital, and outpatients are free to procure medicines from other pharmacies. The facts show that outpatient pharmacy dispensing is not necessarily integral and exclusive to the outpatient consultation in the same manner as inpatient dispensing. Circular No. 32/06/2018 GST distinguishes supplies to admitted patients (composite) from supplies to non admitted patients (taxable) by analogy to food supplies.
Conclusion: Partly against the assessee. Consultation services provided to out patients are exempt under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017. However, supply of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to out patients is taxable and does not form part of the exempt composite healthcare supply.
Final Conclusion: The Advance Ruling holds that supplies to in patients of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items are exempt as part of composite inpatient healthcare services, whereas for out patients only the consultation healthcare service is exempt and supplies of medicines and related items to out patients are taxable under GST.
Ratio Decidendi: Supplies of goods that are naturally bundled with and supplied in conjunction with inpatient healthcare services, where the healthcare service is the principal supply and the goods are dispensed exclusively as part of treatment until discharge, constitute a composite supply covered by Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 and are exempt; similar goods supplied to out patients, which can be procured independently, do not form such a composite supply and are taxable.
Composite supply - supply of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to in patients as part of hospital treatment -exemption under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 - applicability of a notification and determination of liability to pay tax on any goods or services -outpatient supplies not integral to composite healthcare - binding nature of advance ruling - advance ruling void ab initio if obtained by fraud or suppression - HELD THAT:- ‘Inpatient services’ means services provided by hospitals to inpatients under the direction of medical doctors aimed at curing, restoring and/or maintaining the health of a patient and the service comprises of medical, pharmaceutical and paramedical services, rehabilitation services, nursing services and laboratory and technical services till the patient gets discharged. A complete gamut of activities required for the well-being of a patient from admission till discharge, provided by a hospital under the direction of medical doctors is a composite supply of service and is covered under ‘Inpatient services’ classifiable under SAC 999311.
From a conjoint reading of the ‘Explanation of service’ pertaining to ‘Inpatient services’ and the clarification above, it is evident that the exemption is applicable to a “Clinical Establishment”, when services by way of diagnosis or treatment or care for illness, etc., are undertaken by such establishment under the directions of a medical doctor. The applicant hospital as in the instant case, is a ‘Clinical Establishment’ and it is clear that they are exempt under SI. No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017-C.T.(Rate) dated 28.06.2017, in respect of the ‘Healthcare services’ provided by them in general.
We further note that Section 2(30) of CGST Act 2017, defines “Composite Supply” as a supply consisting of two or more taxable supplies of goods or services or both, or any combination thereof, which are naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business, one of which is a principal supply. In the instant case, taxable supplies such as medicines, consumables, implants, etc., provided to in-patients qualifies as a ‘composite supply’, since they are naturally bundled and are supplied in conjunction with the ‘Healthcare services’, which happen to be the principal supply. Therefore, supply of medicines and consumables including food to in-patients in the course of the treatment till the patient is discharged is a composite supply of health care services.
We take note of the fact that the applicant has discussed the issue relating to out-patients also in the same vein as that of the in-patients. In this regard, it is to be noted that while providing health care related services to out-patients, medicines and consumables which is of advisory nature, are prescribed by the Doctor who attends to the patient.
It is also to be noted here that the pharmacy attached to the hospital/clinical establishment is an outlet to dispense medicines and consumables based on prescriptions, but in the case of out-patients, the said patients are not mandated to procure them only from the pharmacy attached to the hospital, and they are at liberty to procure the same from the hospital or other pharmacies of their choice. Whereas, in the case of in-patients, medicines and consumables are necessarily issued by the hospital’s pharmacy to ensure proper and timely treatment, thereby becoming an integral part of the healthcare service provided together to the in-patients. Further, as already discussed, the clarification provided as in para 5(3) of the Circular No. 32/06/2018-GST, dated 12.02.2018, addresses the issue by clarifying that the food supplied to the in-patients as advised by the doctor/nutritionist is part of the composite supply of healthcare and not separately taxable, whereas the other supplies of food to patients who are not admitted are taxable. It therefore becomes evident that the same analogy applies to the instant case as far as it relates to dispensing of medicines, implants and consumables, etc., to out-patients also.
Accordingly, we are of the opinion that the supply of Medicines and consumables used in the course of providing health care services to out-patients visiting the hospital for diagnosis or medical treatment or follow up procedures cannot be considered to be an integral part of a composite supply involving supply of health care service, as they become different supplies independent of each other. Therefore except for the exempted healthcare service, all other supplies including medicines, implants, consumables, etc., in the case of supplies to out-patients are taxable to GST.
Conclusion -
Supply of medicines, consumables, implants and other medical items to In-patients as part of the treatment provided by the hospital is exempt under Entry No. 74 of the Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017, as a composite supply of healthcare services.
The Consultation service provided to out-patients is exempted under Entry No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017. However, the supply of medicines, consumables, implants and medical items to out-patients attract payment of GST.
Issues: (i) Whether the sale of a previously purchased new car, capitalised in the business and not subject to input tax credit or depreciation, qualifies for valuation under the margin scheme (i.e., GST on supplier's margin) or must be valued on the full transaction value for GST purposes.
Analysis: The issue engages the definition of outward supply and value of supply under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the valuation provisions including Section 15 and Rule 32 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, read with Notification No. 08/2018-Central Tax (Rate) dated 25.01.2018. Rule 32(5) and the Notification permit, at the supplier's option, valuation on the difference between selling price and purchase price (margin) where the supplier deals in buying and selling of second hand goods and no input tax credit has been availed; the Notification also contains special treatment where depreciation under Section 32 of the Income-Tax Act, 1961 has been claimed. The margin valuation is therefore a limited, elective method applicable to persons who deal in the business of buying and selling second hand goods. The facts show the applicant purchased a new car for personal use, capitalised it in business accounts, did not claim input tax credit and had not availed depreciation for the relevant year. However, the applicant is not a person dealing in buying and selling of second hand goods in the normal course of business, nor was the vehicle originally acquired as a second hand good. Accordingly, the margin scheme under Rule 32 and Notification No. 08/2018-Central Tax (Rate) is not available to the applicant. In the absence of applicability of the margin option, valuation must follow the default rule under Section 15(1) as the transaction value, i.e., the price actually paid or payable.
Conclusion: The margin-based valuation under Rule 32 and Notification No. 08/2018-Central Tax (Rate) is not available to the applicant; GST is payable on the full sale/transaction value of the car.
Final Conclusion: Where the supplier is not a person dealing in buying and selling of second hand goods, a sale of a previously purchased new car (capitalised in business but not falling within the dealer-in-second-hand-goods category) must be valued on the transaction value under Section 15 and not on the supplier's margin under Rule 32/Notification No. 08/2018-Central Tax (Rate).
Ratio Decidendi: The margin scheme for valuation of second hand goods applies only to suppliers who deal in buying and selling of second hand goods; absent that status, valuation is governed by transaction value under Section 15 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Supply as outward supply in the course or furtherance of business - Value of taxable supply - transaction value - Valuation of second hand goods - margin scheme under Rule 32 - Notification No. 8/2018 - margin-based taxation of old and used vehicles - Input tax credit blockage on motor vehicles under the GST scheme - Binding nature of an Advance Ruling - HELD THAT:- The sale of used car is an outward supply of goods as the car is a movable property which is being sold for a consideration in the course of the applicant’s business. It is pertinent to note here that admittedly, the applicant had capitalised the car in their business account. Therefore, we are of the opinion that though the transaction effected by the applicant happens to be a single transaction, nevertheless it is a business transaction and therefore becomes taxable under GST, as the same gets covered under the concept of ‘Supply’ as per the provisions of GST. Hence, the applicant is liable to levy and collect tax on supply of such goods under Section 9 of the CGST Act, 2017, if the goods are sold in the course of intrastate supplies, and under Section 5 of the IGST Act, 2017, if the goods are sold in the course of interstate supplies.
We note that in the instant case, the applicant claims that they have neither taken input tax credit on the purchase of the new vehicle, nor availed any depreciation on the capitalisation of the said vehicle, and that therefore the main conditions stand satisfied. In this regard, we find that in any case, input tax credit of the taxes under GST paid on the inward supply of motor vehicles is blocked under Section 17(5)(a) of the CGST Act, 2017, except when they are used for making.
We find that the entire scheme of valuation based on margin applies to cases “Where a taxable supply is provided by a person dealing in buying and selling of second hand goods”. Whereas, in the instant case, we find that the applicant is neither dealing in ‘second hand goods’, or ‘Old and Used’ goods, nor, they deal in buying and selling of such goods in the normal course of business. Further, we find that though the applicant attempts to sell a ‘Used’ car, the same was reportedly purchased as a ‘New’ car originally, and therefore, the applicant is not dealing in ‘second hand goods’. Accordingly, the method/manner of valuation of supply representing the margin of the supplier, as laid down under Rule 32 of the CGST Rules, 2017, read with Notification No. 8/2018-Central Tax (Rate) dated 25.01.2018, is effectively ruled out in the instant case, and that the said option is not available to the applicant.
Once the said method of valuation stands ruled out, the applicant by default becomes liable to assessment based on the transaction value, i.e., the price actually paid or payable for the said supply of goods or services or both where the supplier and recipient of the supply are not related and the price is the sole consideration for the supply, as stipulated under Section 15(1) of the CGST Act, 2017. We, are therefore of the considered opinion that the provisions of Notification No. 8/2018-Central Tax (Rate) dated 25.01.2018, is not applicable in the instant case of the applicant and that they are liable to pay taxes under GST on the full value, i.e., consideration received by the applicant towards the sale of car.
The applicant’s proposed transaction of sale of used car is liable for tax under GST, as applicable and the tax is liable to be paid on the entire sale value of the used car by the applicant in the instant case, and not on the profit/margin.
Issues: (i) Whether the activity of agreeing not to compete amounted to a supply of service and, in respect of the recipient in the United States, whether the place of supply was outside India and the service qualified as export of service. (ii) Whether the portion of the non-compete fee attributable to activities linked to entities operating in India was liable to GST and, if so, in what manner.
Issue (i): Whether the activity of agreeing not to compete amounted to a supply of service and, in respect of the recipient in the United States, whether the place of supply was outside India and the service qualified as export of service.
Analysis: Agreeing to refrain from an act falls within paragraph 5(e) of Schedule II and is treated as a supply of services. For the non-compete obligation relating to the purchaser located outside India, the recipient was outside India, the place of supply was outside India under section 13(2) of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, payment was received in convertible foreign exchange, and the parties were not merely establishments of the same person. All statutory conditions for export of services were satisfied.
Conclusion: Yes. The service, to the extent rendered in favour of the purchaser located outside India, constituted export of services and was a zero-rated supply attracting nil GST.
Issue (ii): Whether the portion of the non-compete fee attributable to activities linked to entities operating in India was liable to GST and, if so, in what manner.
Analysis: The non-compete obligation also extended to entities carrying on business in India. That part of the service had its place of supply in India and therefore did not satisfy the requirements of export of services. Depending on the location of supplier and place of supply, the supply would be treated as inter-State or intra-State supply under the IGST Act, 2017 and GST would apply accordingly.
Conclusion: Yes. The portion attributable to the Indian operations was taxable under GST as applicable, with the exact levy depending on whether the supply was inter-State or intra-State.
Final Conclusion: The ruling bifurcates the consideration: the foreign-linked non-compete service is outside the GST net as export of services, while the India-linked portion remains taxable under the applicable GST regime.
Ratio Decidendi: A non-compete covenant is a supply of service, but it is export of service only when the recipient is outside India, the place of supply is outside India, consideration is received in foreign exchange, and the parties are not merely distinct establishments of the same person; the domestic component remains taxable under GST.
Supply of services - Agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act - Place of supply of services - Export of services - Zero-rated supply - Determination of liability to pay tax -
Place of supply of services - Determination of liability to pay tax - HELD THAT:- We find that the applicant is one of the shareholders of M/s. Smartpoint Technologies Pvt Ltd., engaged in the development of software to track the flow of goods. M/s. Smartpoint Technologies has been sold to M/s. RFXCEL Corporation, USA and M/s. Antares Vision India Pvt Ltd., the purchasers. The applicant has received non-compete fee of USD 2,67,321.60 from M/s. RFXCEL for refraining from competing with the business of M/s. Smartpoint Technologies Pvt Ltd., and business of the purchasers. We get to understand that both the purchasers are subsidiary of Antares Vision Group. One of the purchaser, M/s. RFXCEL Corporation has its business activity outside India.
As per Clause 5(e) of Schedule II of CGST Act, 2017, the activity of agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act shall be treated as ‘Supply of Services’. In the instant application, the applicant has agreed to not do business or compete in the places where the purchasers and M/s. SmartPoint Technologies do business i.e., the applicant has agreed to ‘refrain from doing an act’. As such, the activity of the applicant agreeing not to do business amounts to a ‘Supply of Service’. As the activity of the applicant to refrain from performing an act falls under Supply of Service, same is taxable under GST as per Section 9(1) of CGST Act, 2017.
Supply of services - Agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act - Export of services - Zero-rated supply - HELD THAT:- We find that the activity of the applicant involved in the instant case, i.e., not to compete with the business of the purchasers is a ‘supply of service; M/s. RFXCEL has its business operations outside India; the applicant is the supplier of service and is located in India; the recipient of service, viz., M/s. RFXCEL is located outside India ; as a result, the ‘place of supply’ of service is outside India; the non-compete fee of USD 2,67,321.60 is received (payment for such service) in foreign exchange; the applicant being the supplier of service and M/s. RFXCEL’s client being the recipient of service are not merely establishments of a distinct person in accordance with Explanation 1 in Section 8. Accordingly, the service rendered by the applicant of not competing with the business of Purchasers, namely, M/s. RFXCEL Corp satisfies all the 5 conditions as per Section 2(6) of IGST Act, 2017 and hence gets covered as “export of services”. As a result, the activity would be zero-rated supply, attracting ‘Nil’ rate of GST.
Accordingly, the applicant would become liable to pay taxes under GST, either as IGST under Section 5 of the IGST Act, 2017, or as CGST plus TNGST under Section 9 of the CGST/TNGST Acts, 2017, as the case may be.
Supply of services - Inter-State supply - Intra-State supply - HELD THAT:- As per the additional submissions given by the applicant and segregation of non-compete fee based on Domestic and Export supply, 98.57% of the non-compete fee received by the applicant would fall under export of services and attract zero-rated GST. The balance 1.43% of the non-compete fee received by the applicant would attract applicable GST as inter-state and/or intra-state supply.
Issues: (i) Whether the queries in the applicant's Advance Ruling application (relating to hostel accommodation being a "residential dwelling", applicability of exemption entries and related composite supply and precedent applicability) are admissible for determination under the advance ruling scheme and (ii) Whether the application is liable for rejection under Section 98(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Issue (i): Whether the queries in the Advance Ruling application are admissible under the definition and scope of "advance ruling" provided in Section 95(a) read with Section 97(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: The Authority considered the statutory definition of advance ruling which limits rulings to matters in relation to supply of goods or services being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant. The Authority evaluated the applicant's queries and found they primarily seek rulings on activities carried out by the applicant's tenant and on applicability of judgments to the tenant's facts. The Authority also reviewed Section 97(2) which enumerates the types of questions admissible for advance ruling and noted that applicability of case law to facts of another person does not fall within those clauses. The Authority therefore treated the queries as outside the applicant centric scope required by the statutory scheme.
Conclusion: The queries raised are not admissible under the advance ruling provisions because they do not relate to supplies undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant and fall outside the categories in Section 97(2).
Issue (ii): Whether, in view of the inadmissibility of the queries, the application is liable for rejection under Section 98(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: Having found the queries inadmissible, the Authority applied Section 98(2) which authorises the Authority to admit or reject an application after examination and hearing. The Authority noted that an opportunity of hearing was given, the applicant's representatives had an opportunity to submit further material but did not furnish supporting documents that would alter admissibility, and that Section 103(1) limits the binding effect of any ruling to the applicant itself. On these bases the Authority concluded that the application did not qualify for admission and therefore must be rejected under the statutory provision.
Conclusion: The application is rejected under Section 98(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Ratio Decidendi: An advance ruling is admissible only where the question relates to supply of goods or services being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant within the categories set out in Section 97(2); questions concerning activities of a third party or applicability of precedents to another person's facts are outside the statutory scope and warrant rejection of the application under Section 98(2).
Advance ruling under Section 95(a) - scope of questions under Section 97(2) - advance ruling binding only on the applicant and concerned officer - admissibility of application - rejection under Section 98(2) - composite exempt supply - Entry 12 exemption for renting of residential dwelling - Entry 12A inserted by Notification No. 4/2024
Advance ruling under Section 95(a) - scope of questions under Section 97(2) - admissibility of application - The queries in the applicant's advance ruling application are not admissible as they relate to activities undertaken by the applicant's tenant and not to supplies undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant. - HELD THAT: - The Authority examined the statutory definition of 'advance ruling' under Section 95(a) and the catalogue of permissible questions under Section 97(2). An advance ruling is available only in respect of supplies of goods or services being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant. The principal queries sought a determination whether hostel accommodation provided by the applicant's tenant qualifies as a 'residential dwelling' for exemption purposes for the period 01.07.2017 to 11.07.2024 and whether Entry 12A (inserted by Notification No. 4/2024 with effect from 12.07.2024) would apply. Those queries therefore concern the tenant's activity and do not relate to any supply by the applicant. The question whether incidental supply of in house food constitutes a composite exempt supply is wholly dependent on the primary queries and thus also not admissible. Queries asking whether particular judicial decisions apply to the applicant's facts likewise fall outside the matters enumerated in Section 97(2) and are not admissible. The Authority further noted that an advance ruling is binding only on the applicant and the concerned officer, so precedent rulings in other proceedings cannot render these tenant centric queries admissible. [Paras 6]
All queries are prima facie not covered by the definition of 'advance ruling' and are not admissible for consideration.
Rejection under Section 98(2) - advance ruling binding only on the applicant and concerned officer - The advance ruling application is rejected under Section 98(2) because the questions presented are not admissible under the advance ruling scheme. - HELD THAT: - Having given the applicant an opportunity of personal hearing and considered the submissions, the Authority concluded that the application did not raise questions maintainable as advance ruling matters. The Authority referred to the statutory provisions governing admission and rejection of applications and observed that because the queries concern the tenant's supplies and fall outside Section 97(2), the application must be rejected. The AR was given an opportunity to supply additional materials but did not furnish any documents that could alter the admissibility conclusion; moreover, even potential precedential material would not enlarge the advance ruling's applicability beyond the applicant. Consequently, the Authority declined to enter into merits and proceeded to reject the application. [Paras 6, 7]
Application for Advance Ruling is rejected under Section 98(2) of the CGST Act, 2017.
Final Conclusion: The Authority held that the application was not admissible because the questions related to supplies made by the applicant's tenant (and not by the applicant) and therefore rejected the Advance Ruling application under Section 98(2); no merits determination on exemption or composite supply was made.
Issues: (i) Whether common head-office expenses and common income must be allocated to eligible industrial undertakings for computing deduction under sections 10B and 80-IB; (ii) Whether unutilised CENVAT credit must be adjusted in valuation of closing stock under section 145A; (iii) Whether unrealised export proceeds should be excluded from export turnover for deduction under section 80HHC; (iv) Whether miscellaneous income of EOUs (sale of scrap) and internal transfers qualify for exemption under section 10B; (v) Whether compensation received on termination of Savlon trademark agreement is capital or revenue; (vi) Whether discount on prepayment of deferred sales tax is taxable or capital receipt (section 41); (vii) Whether 90% reduction under Explanation (baa) to section 80HHC as applied by AO requires re-examination; (viii) Whether capital subsidy must be reduced from WDV for depreciation; (ix) Whether Dividend Distribution Tax under section 115-O should be levied at DTAA rate on dividends paid to non-resident shareholders.
Issue (i): Whether common head office expenses and common income must be allocated to eligible units for computing deduction under sections 10B and 80-IB.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined prior coordinate-bench decisions in the assessee's own cases for adjacent years and found no change in facts or law for the year under consideration. The earlier Tribunal rulings directed allocation of common expenses and accepted allocation of certain common income to eligible units. The present matter was decided following those precedents and in line with NTPC principle admitting legal additional grounds.
Conclusion: The Assessing Officer is directed to allocate common head office expenses and common income to eligible units while computing deduction under sections 10B and 80-IB. (In favour of Revenue)
Issue (ii): Whether unutilised CENVAT credit must be adjusted in valuation of closing stock under section 145A.
Analysis: The Tribunal followed the coordinate-bench precedent in the assessee's own case and observed this issue concerns method of accounting and requires de novo examination by the AO; the matter was restored for fresh examination consistent with earlier directions.
Conclusion: The issue is restored to the file of the Assessing Officer for examination; ground allowed for statistical purposes. (In favour of Assessee)
Issue (iii): Whether unrealised export proceeds should be excluded from export turnover for deduction under section 80HHC.
Analysis: Following earlier Tribunal decisions in the assessee's own case, the Tribunal remitted the matter to the AO for de novo consideration and for the assessee to furnish details regarding realisation of export proceeds.
Conclusion: The issue is restored to the file of the Assessing Officer for fresh adjudication; ground allowed for statistical purposes. (In favour of Assessee)
Issue (iv): Whether miscellaneous income (sale of scrap) of EOUs and internal transfers qualify for exemption under section 10B.
Analysis: The Tribunal applied the "derived from" nexus test and relied on binding and coordinate-bench precedents (including GE BE and Granite Mart decisions and the assessee's own prior years), holding that incidental receipts like scrap and inter-unit transfers that arise from manufacturing operations satisfy the requisite nexus and that internal transfers between EOUs should be treated in computing exempt profits; prior orders remitted similar issues for AO reconsideration.
Conclusion: Miscellaneous income issues remitted to AO for fresh consideration as per Tribunal direction; internal transfers are to be included in sales of respective EOUs and addition deleted. Grounds allowed (miscellaneous income allowed for statistical purposes; internal transfer claim allowed). (In favour of Assessee)
Issue (v): Whether compensation of Rs. 12.50 crore received on premature termination of Savlon trademark agreement is capital or revenue.
Analysis: Applying established tests and authorities (including Gillanders, Best & Co., P.H. Divecha, Kettlewell Bullen), the Tribunal examined the Assignment and Termination Agreements' terms. It found the payment to be consideration for relinquishment of license rights and release of obligations, not a sale of an enduring capital asset or an effective non-compete that impaired the assessee's profit-making structure; hence the receipt characterised as trading receipt.
Conclusion: The Rs. 12.50 crore receipt is a revenue receipt and assessable to tax; assessee's grounds on this issue are dismissed. (In favour of Revenue)
Issue (vi): Whether discount on prepayment of deferred sales tax is taxable income or a capital receipt.
Analysis: Following the Supreme Court decision in Balakrishna Industries and consistent coordinate-bench treatment, the Tribunal found that the scheme amounts to premature discharge of a quantified liability (NPV) and does not satisfy conditions of section 41(1) for deeming the waiver/discount a taxable remission; accordingly the discount is a capital receipt.
Conclusion: Discount on prepayment of sales tax is capital in nature and not exigible to tax; grounds allowed. (In favour of Assessee)
Issue (vii): Whether 90% reduction under Explanation (baa) to section 80HHC as applied by AO is correct in relation to compensation, discount and miscellaneous receipts.
Analysis: The Tribunal noted Explanation (baa) requires determination whether receipts form part of "Profits and Gains of Business or Profession" before applying 90% reduction. It held discount on prepayment is capital (not to be reduced), compensation and miscellaneous receipts require AO to first determine their head (business income or otherwise) and remitted the matter for fresh examination.
Conclusion: Issue restored to the AO for determination whether receipts fall under "Profits and Gains of Business or Profession"; ground allowed for statistical purposes. (In favour of Assessee)
Issue (viii): Whether capital subsidy must be reduced from WDV for computation of depreciation.
Analysis: The Tribunal found the assessee had not produced scheme details; in interest of justice it restored the matter to AO for de novo adjudication with direction to permit the assessee to produce evidence and be heard.
Conclusion: Issue remitted to Assessing Officer for fresh adjudication; ground allowed for statistical purposes. (In favour of Assessee)
Issue (ix): Whether DDT levied under section 115-O on dividends paid to non-resident shareholders must be at the rate prescribed by the applicable DTAA.
Analysis: The Tribunal considered recent High Court authority (Colorcon Asia) holding DTAA rates apply to DDT (via section 90(2) and legislative history, and Tata Tea precedents) and directed remittance of the issue to AO for de novo adjudication in light of that decision.
Conclusion: Additional ground restored to the AO for de novo adjudication in light of DTAA applicability; ground allowed for statistical purposes. (In favour of Assessee)
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal applied binding and coordinate-bench precedents, allowed or remitted multiple issues to the Assessing Officer for fresh consideration and disposed of discrete substantive questions-granting relief to the assessee on several points (including characterisation of sales-tax discount, internal transfers, and multiple remittals) while rejecting the assessee's claim on trademark compensation; overall the appeal is partly allowed for statistical purposes.
Ratio Decidendi: Where issues raise questions of statutory interpretation or accounting treatment previously decided in the assessee's own case by coordinate benches, those rulings govern the same factual matrix; receipts are taxed according to their true nature (capital v. revenue) by applying established nexus and source tests, and remittal to the Assessing Officer is appropriate where factual or method-of-accounting inquiries remain to be made.
Allocation of head office expenses unconnected with the undertakings for calculation of deduction under section 80IB and section 10B - HELD THAT:- As in the assessee’s own case [2024 (11) TMI 818 - ITAT MUMBAI] AO is directed to allocate common expenses and common income to the eligible units, while computing the deduction u/s 10B and section 80-IB of the Act as per the direction issued by the Tribunal in earlier years.
Adjustment to the value of closing stock of raw materials and packaging materials on account of the unutilised balance of CENVAT credit - Since, it is a case of method of accounting and since it is stated that there will be no impact on the profit under both Exclusive method and Inclusive method of accounting, following the decision rendered by the Co-ordinate Bench in AY 2006-07 [2012 (12) TMI 458 - ITAT MUMBAI] we restore this issue to the file of the AO for examining the claim of the assessee.
Reducing the export turnover by the amount of unrealised sales proceeds while computing deduction u/s 80-HHC - We have considered the submissions of both sides and perused the material available on record. We find that while deciding a similar issue in assessee’s own case in Hindustan Unilever Ltd [2023 (8) TMI 1700 - ITAT MUMBAI] following the decision rendered in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2000-01 restored similar issue to the file of the AO.
Denial of deduction u/s 10B of the Act in respect of internal transfer - In the assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2001-02 while deciding the issue in favour of the assessee, following the decision of Granite Mart Ltd [2020 (5) TMI 238 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] to hold that the amount of internal transfer between two EOUs of the assessee is to be considered for the purpose of arriving at the profit eligible for exemption under section 10B of the Act. It is also to be noted here that since the impugned amount is an internal transfer which is shown as sales in one EOU and as expenditure in the other EOU, there is merit in the contention that at entity level it is tax neutral. We delete the addition made by the AO denying the amount of internal transfer as claimed under 10B - We delete the impugned addition made by the AO and the amount of internal transfer is directed to be included in the sales of respective units for determining the export profits for computing the deduction under section 10B.
Nature of receipt - Taxability of the compensation received by the assessee on termination of the agreement for the use of the “Savlon” trademark - Revenue or capital receipt - definition of the term “income” under section 2(24) - HELD THAT:- Applying the test laid down in Kettlewel Bullen and Co. Ltd. [1964 (5) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] we are of the considered view that the compensation paid to the assessee pursuant to the Termination Agreement dated 09/10/2003 was in the ordinary course of business and there was no loss to the profit-making apparatus of the assessee and rather it was a compensation for loss of profit itself. Further, the Assignment Agreement was entered into by the assessee in the ordinary course of its business.
Thus, the amount received was in the course of business as the contract with NR Jet was part of the assessee’s business of manufacturing and selling soaps, and any receipt on account of such contract being terminated can only be a trading receipt. It is further pertinent to note that the termination of the assignment of the trademark did not affect the trading structure of the assessee’s business, as the assessee is in the business of manufacturing several brands of soap, and the termination of the contract was a normal incident of the assessee’s business.
Receipt of compensation by the assessee for relinquishment of its licensed user rights of the trademark “Savlon” and for releasing NR Jet obligations under the Assignment Agreement is a revenue receipt and is assessable to tax.
Taxability of a discount on the repayment of a loan - revenue or capital receipt - Discount earned by the assessee on prepayment of Sales Tax liability under the Sales Tax Deferment Scheme floated by the State of Maharashtra is a capital receipt, and thus, is not exigible to tax.
Reducing the profits and gains of the business by 90% of compensation received, discount on prepayment of Sales Tax and other miscellaneous income for the purpose of computation of deduction under section 80-HHC - Profits of the business of an assessee will have to be first computed under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession” in accordance with the provisions of sections 28 to 44D of the Act. In the computation of such profits of business, receipts of income which are chargeable as profits and gains of business u/s 28 of the Act will have to be included. Similarly, different expenses which are allowable under sections 30 to 44D have to be allowed as expenses.
After including such receipts of income and after deducting such expenses, the total of net receipts are profits of the business of the assessee computed under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession” from which deductions are to be made under Clauses (1) and (2) of Explanation (baa) to section 80-HHC of the Act.
Discount on prepayment of Sales Tax, we have arrived at the conclusion in the foregoing paragraphs that the same is capital in receipt. Therefore, we do not find any merit in the findings of the lower authority in reducing 90% of the discount on prepayment of Sales Tax while computing the deduction u/s 80-HHC of the Act.
Compensation received by the assessee upon termination of the trademark license agreement and other miscellaneous income, we are of the considered view that even though these receipts are revenue in nature, but it has to be firstly determined whether they fall under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession”. Only thereafter, the question of deduction as provided under Clause (1) and (2) of Explanation (baa) to section 80-HHC of the Act arises. Since this exercise has not been conducted by the AO as to whether the compensation received and other miscellaneous income fall under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession”, we restore this issue to the file of the AO for necessary examination of this aspect.
Computation of depreciation after reducing the capital subsidy received by the assessee from the Written Down Value (“WDV”) -CIT(A) dismissed the ground raised by the assessee on this issue as the assessee failed to produce the details of the scheme under which capital subsidy was received against its plant and machinery. Therefore, in the interest of justice and fair play, we deem it appropriate to grant one more opportunity to the assessee to place on record necessary evidence in support of its claim that the subsidy was granted for the purpose of inducing the industry to set up units in certain selected backward areas and not for the purpose of meeting a portion of the cost of assets. Accordingly, this issue is restored to the file of the AO for de novo adjudication.
Applicability of the rate of tax on dividend specified in the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (“DTAA”) between India and the country of residence of the non-resident shareholders, while levying Dividend Distribution Tax (“DDT”) u/s 115-O of the Act on payment of dividend by the assessee to the non-resident shareholder - We restore this issue to the file of the AO for de novo adjudication, in light of the decision of Colorcon Asia (P.). Ltd. [2025 (12) TMI 677 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] after necessary examination of various aspects, such as applicability of the DTAA, rate of DDT levied under section 115-O of the Act vis-à-vis the rate of tax on dividend provided in the respective DTAA, etc.
Computation of deduction u/s 80-HHC after reducing royalty income - Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 1995- 96 and the decision of its predecessor in assessee’s own case for the assessment years 2002-03 and 2003-04 held that the royalty income is not to be reduced from the profit and gain of business and profession for calculating deduction under section 80-HHC of the Act. Since the issue is recurring in nature and has been decided in favour of the assessee.
Allowability of the deduction claimed under section 10B of the Act in respect of the Kidderpore Unit acquired by the assessee from Lipton India Exports Ltd - We find that while deciding similar issue in assessee’s own case for the assessment year 2001-02 the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal in assessee’s own case in ACIT vs. Hindustan Unilever Ltd. [2023 (8) TMI 1700 - ITAT MUMBAI] following the decision of GE Thermometrics India Pvt. Ltd. [2015 (1) TMI 10 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] held that the assessee is entitled for claiming deduction with respect to, inter alia, Kidderpore Unit acquired from Lipton India Exports Ltd. for the unexpired period since subsections 9 and 9A of section 10B of the Act were omitted without saving clause, and therefore, the same are not applicable to the case of the assessee.
TP Adjustment - adopting the Transactional Net Margin Method (“TNMM”) as the most appropriate method, benchmarked the international transactions entered into by it with associated enterprises at an entity level - HELD THAT:- Tribunal in assessee’s own case for the assessment years 2005-06 [2024 (11) TMI 818 - ITAT MUMBAI] and 2006-07 [2012 (12) TMI 458 - ITAT MUMBAI] has rejected the cherry-picked segregation of transactions and upheld the entity level TNMM benchmarking of the very same international transactions entered into by the assessee in the year under consideration. Addition to be deleted.
Issues: (i) Whether the addition based on bank stock statements made in non-compliance with this Court's order dated 06.08.2004 is legally sustainable? (ii) Whether the impugned orders are liable to be set aside because the relevant bank record had been weeded out and the question of whether the stock statement was signed by any partner remained unanswered?
Issue (i): Whether the addition made on the basis of bank stock statements is legally sustainable despite this Court's earlier directions.
Analysis: The remand directed opportunity to the assessee to prove that the stock statements were not signed by the firm and to cross-examine bank officials was complied with by examining the bank's officer who stated the bank's procedure and that stock statements formed the basis for drawing-power and were prepared by the bank's godown keeper and confirmed by the firm by signature. The assessee did not dispute having availed overdraft facilities consistent with the stock statements nor produce contrary evidence after being granted opportunity to disprove the statements. The authorities recorded concurrent findings on these facts.
Conclusion: The addition based on the bank stock statements is sustained; the addition is legally sustainable against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the orders must be set aside because the bank record was weeded out and it remained unanswered whether any partner signed the stock statement.
Analysis: The bank witness explained that older records had been weeded out but described the bank's procedure showing that stock statements were maintained, prepared by the godown keeper, and used for determining drawing-power; the assessee was afforded opportunity to disprove ownership or signature of the statements but failed to produce contrary evidence. Given the direct link between the stock statements and overdraft facilities and the concurrent factual findings, the absence of original records did not preclude upholding the addition.
Conclusion: The impugned orders are not required to be set aside on the ground of weeded-out records or alleged non-signature; the challenge on this ground fails.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is dismissed and the questions framed are answered against the assessee, leaving intact the assessments founded on the bank stock statements after remand and opportunity to the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an assessee avails overdraft facilities based on bank stock statements and, after being granted opportunity on remand to disprove ownership or signature and to cross-examine bank officials, fails to produce contrary evidence, concurrent factual findings upholding the reliability of the bank records and additions based thereon are sustainable.
Addition on the basis of stock statements not signed by any one of the partners of the assessee - ITAT held stock as declared in statement filed before Bank should be considered.
HELD THAT:- The appellant neither before authorities nor before this Court has pleaded that they did not avail over draft facility as per stock statement relied upon by Income Tax Department. It means the appellant availed over draft facility as per stock statement.
The said statement may or may not be signed because of reuse on the part of appellant or mistake of the Bank, however, it is clear from the statement of Bank Manager that stock was kept in lock and key of Bank’s Godown Keeper. The statement was prepared by Godown Keeper and it was signed by one of the partners of the firm.
In the absence of signatures of partner, it was not entered in the record. Drawing-power of the client was dependent upon stock statement. The appellant was given due opportunity by authorities to disprove stock statement relied upon by Income Tax Department. In the absence of contrary evidence and the fact that appellant was given all possible opportunities to prove that stock statement relied upon by Income Tax Department was not belonging to them, it is highly improbable that anyone other than assessee furnished stock statement especially when it was directly linked with drawing-power and stock statement was prepared by Bank’s Godown Keeper. Decided against assessee.
Issues: Whether the outstanding demand for interest for late payment of TDS (arising from OLTAS recording cheque-realisation date instead of cheque-tender date) is incorrect and whether the petitioner is entitled to deletion of that demand and refund of amounts paid under protest with applicable interest.
Analysis: The factual position is admitted that cheques for TDS were tendered to the authorised bank within the statutory due dates and were subsequently honoured. Board Circular No. 261 dated 08.08.1979 treats the date of tendering a cheque as the date of payment where the cheque is honoured. The demand arose solely because the Department's OLTAS/portal recorded cheque-realisation dates as payment dates, producing an artificial delay and consequent interest liability. The Department's inability, due to system limitations, to alter challan dates or to reflect the correct tender date does not override the settled legal position that the cheque-tender date is the date of payment. Where the system cannot give effect to the legally correct position, administrative or manual measures must be adopted to rectify records and grant relief.
Conclusion: The outstanding demand based on wrongly recorded delayed payment is incorrect; the respondent authority must treat the cheque tender dates as the dates of payment, delete the erroneous demand, and refund the amount paid under protest with interest under Section 244A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 from the date of payment until refund.
Refund claim on incorrect outstanding demand in relation to tax deducted at source - Online Tax Accounting System recorded the date of payment as the date of cheque realisation, which was subsequent to the due date and this mismatch resulted in an incorrect levy of interest for late payment of TDS - HELD THAT:- Petitioner had tendered the cheques for TDS payment within the statutory due date, a fact that is certified by the authorised bank itself. The demand has arisen solely because the Respondents' system has taken the date of realisation of the cheque as the date of payment, contrary to the settled legal position.
The Board itself has issued a clarification way back in Circular No. 261 dated 08.08.1979, to the effect that the date of tendering of a cheque is to be considered the date of payment, provided the cheque is subsequently honored. In this case, it is an admitted position that all cheques were duly honored. Thus, when the date of tendering the cheque is considered as the date of payment of TDS, then there is no delay in payment of TDS, and consequently, no liability on account of interest for delayed payment can arise.
Thus, the Petitioner's grievances are entirely justified. This, in fact, is not even disputed by the Respondents. Naturally, the demand is patently incorrect and consequently, the Petitioner's entitlement to the refund which was paid under protest against this incorrect demand, is also justified.
Issues: Whether the Competent Authority under Section 197 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was justified in refusing to grant a certificate at nil rate despite a prior decision of the High Court in favour of the petitioner, and whether the impugned order and consequent certificate issued @15% should be set aside and a nil-rate certificate directed to be issued.
Analysis: The Court examined the impugned order dated 19.08.2025 and found that the Competent Authority did not dispute the nature of the transaction nor record any finding on its taxability vis-a -vis the petitioner's Associate Enterprise. The Competent Authority rejected the petitioner's application primarily on the ground that the Department had decided to file an SLP against an earlier High Court order that had granted a nil-rate certificate; no SLP had in fact been filed and no new facts or distinguishing particulars for the relevant assessment period were shown. The Court analysed the purpose and timelines of Section 197 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, noting the statutory requirement for timely decision-making and the objective of avoiding undue blockage of an assessee's cash flow where treaty or statutory provisions justify nil or reduced withholding. The Court held that, in inter se disputes already adjudicated by the High Court, the Competent Authority must follow the settled position unless it can point to factual differences or new information affecting taxability; the principle that each assessment year is separate does not permit arbitrary refusal to follow a binding High Court decision. The Court also noted the procedural delay in deciding the petitioner's application (filed 12.03.2025 and required to be decided by 12.04.2025) and the practical prejudice caused by withholding at 15% for transactions since 01.04.2025.
Conclusion: Writ petition allowed; the impugned order dated 19.08.2025 and the consequential certificate issued @15% are set aside and the Competent Authority is directed to issue a certificate at nil rate within 15 days from the date of this order.
Rejection of application u/s 197 - denial of the certificate at nil rate of tax - Competent Authority has arbitrarily passed the impugned order and proceeded to issue a certificate at the rate of 13.76% (plus applicable surcharge and cess), which works out at a total rate of 15%
HELD THAT:- We are not supposed to observe that all the Authorities are bound by the judgment passed by the High Court and when it comes to the dispute between the parties whose case has been adjudicated by the High Court, unless Competent Authority is able to point out factual difference or some new information which affects the nature of the transaction and its taxability comes to his notice, he cannot take a view other than what has been taken by the High Court. Even the charade of the principle that each assessment year is separate and is to be treated separately cannot shield the illegal refusal to apply the law already settled.
Such type of approach and denial of the certificate at nil rate of tax results in irreversible adverse consequence to the petitioner inasmuch as the petitioner had submitted the application u/s 197 of the Act of 1961 on 12.03.2025 for issuing tax withholding certificate at nil rate, which as per the provisions of Section 197 ought to have been decided latest by 12.04.2025.
On the one hand, the Competent Authority failed to do the same within such period and on the other hand it rejected the application per-viam impugned order, which came to be passed as late as on 19.08.2025.
The approach of the Competent Authority has practically rendered the mandate and provisions of Section 197 of the Act of 1961, a waste piece of paper. Provisions of Section 197 of the Act of 1961 were enacted with an objective to ensure that in case particular transaction(s) is/are not exigible to tax, in light of the treaties between two countries and the provisions of the Act of 1961, (whichever is more beneficial to the assessee) then no tax or tax with lower rate is deducted, so as to ensure that cash flow of an entity is not unnecessarily retarded or blocked. And that the Department or the Revenue is not burdened with the interest (@ 6% per annum) which the revenue is bound to pay on the applicable refund.
We allow the writ petition and set aside the impugned order dated 19.08.2025 and consequential certificate of even date issued @ 15%, we simultaneously direct the Competent Authority to issue a certificate at ‘nil’ rate within a period of 15 days from today.
Issues: Whether long term capital gain claimed under Section 10(38) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 arising from sale of equity shares of M/s. Kappac Pharma Ltd. is genuine and whether additions made under Section 68 and Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of the sale consideration and alleged expenditure are deletable.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined evidence that the shares were held in demat form for more than one year, sold through a registered broker on the online trading platform of a recognised stock exchange, and securities transaction tax was paid. Decisions of coordinate benches and the High Courts treating transactions in M/s. Kappac Pharma Ltd. shares as genuine and allowing exemption under Section 10(38) were followed. On these facts and precedents, the conditions for exemption under Section 10(38) were found satisfied and the premise for additions under Section 68 and Section 69C, namely that the sale consideration and expenses were unexplained or bogus, was not sustained.
Conclusion: The long term capital gain under Section 10(38) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is allowed as genuine; the additions made under Section 68 and Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are deleted and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Addition u/s 68 - LTCG claimed u/s. 10(38) denied - Gain arising on sale of equity shares
HELD THAT:- Assessee has kept the equity shares in Demat account and after holding them for more than a year, has sold equity shares through registered sale broker on online platform of the recognized stock exchange and that the shares have been sold on the live share price appearing on the recognized stock exchange controlled by the SEBI. The assessee also duly paid STT and therefore has fulfilled all the conditions prescribed u/s. 10(38) of the Act for claiming benefit of exemption of LTCG from sale of equity shares.
Respectfully following the decisions referred in the case of Shri Jayesh Kumar Javia (HUF) [2021 (6) TMI 966 - ITAT INDORE] and Affluence Commodities (P.) Ltd.[2024 (4) TMI 199 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] which has been subsequently affirmed by the Hon'ble Apex Court [2025 (8) TMI 697 - SC ORDER], the alleged claim of assessee u/s. 10(38) of the Act stands allowed.
Addition made u/s. 68 of the Act stands deleted - addition for unexplained expenditure u/s. 69C also stands deleted. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the double disallowance/addition of Rs. 8,54,970/- (disallowed by the assessee in the return and again by the CPC in intimation u/s 143(1)) giving rise to a fresh demand in a rectification order u/s 154 can be treated as a matter where the doctrine of merger applies and whether the matter should be remitted to the Assessing Officer for verification of tax credits and refund adjustments.
Analysis: The assessee had itself disallowed the relevant expenditure in the return and later the CPC/Assessing Officer made a similar disallowance in intimation issued under Section 143(1). A rectification application under Section 154 was filed and a rectification order creating fresh demand was passed. The question of whether the 143(1) intimation and the subsequent 154 order operate independently or merge for purposes of challenge was examined in light of the facts that the rectification order repeats the same addition and that tax payments and refund adjustments were made by the assessee. The Tribunal found that the issue raised in the appeal is directly connected with the alleged mistake apparent on the record and that remittance to the Assessing Officer for verification of tax credits and refund adjustment is necessary for complete justice.
Conclusion: The appeal is allowed for statistical purposes and the issue is remitted to the file of the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to consider the assessee's submissions and verify the tax payments, refund adjustments and the correctness of the disallowance under law; decision is in favour of the assessee to the extent of remand and consideration by the Assessing Officer.
Rectification u/s 154 - assessee disallowed certain expenditure which was further disallowed by the AO while passing the intimation u/s 143(1) - Doctrine of merger - HELD THAT:- After considering the findings of the CIT(A) we are not inclined to agree with the findings of the CIT(A) that doctrine of merger is not applicable in the present case.
We noticed that the payment of tax and fresh demand raise by the AO in rectification order u/s 154 of the Act was remanded back to the AO to verify.
Since the issue raised by the assessee in the given appeal also having direct relevance to the mistake apparent on record that assessee itself disallowed certain expenditure which was further disallowed by the AO while passing the intimation u/s 143(1) of the Act.
Remit this issue also to the file of Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to consider the submissions of the assessee as per law. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
Issues: (i) Whether disallowance under section 14A (read with Rule 8D) can be made where no exempt income was earned in the assessment year; (ii) Whether deduction under section 80G is permissible for amounts spent pursuant to mandatory CSR obligations when the recipient fund/trust is otherwise eligible for deduction.
Issue (i): Whether disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is sustainable for the assessment year where the assessee did not earn any exempt income.
Analysis: The statutory amendment introducing an Explanation permitting disallowance even in absence of exempt income took effect from 01.04.2022 and is therefore prospective to assessment years beginning on or after that date. Prior authority establishes that where no exempt income was earned in the relevant year, disallowance under the provision could not be invoked. The facts record absence of exempt income for the assessment year under consideration, and the amendment is not applicable to that year.
Conclusion: Disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is not sustainable for the assessment year because no exempt income was earned; decision upholding deletion of the addition is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether deduction under section 80G is allowable for CSR contributions made to a trust/fund eligible under section 80G notwithstanding the restriction in Explanation 2 to section 37(1) denying business expenditure deduction for CSR.
Analysis: Section 80G provides for deduction of donations to specified funds/trusts; Explanation 2 to section 37(1) operates in the context of computing business income and disallows CSR as a business deduction but does not, by its text, nullify separate statutory deductions available under other provisions. The donations in question were not to the specific funds expressly excluded under section 80G(2)(a)(iiihk)/(iiihl). Consistent tribunal determinations recognize distinct treatment of CSR expenditure under the charitable-donation provision where the recipient is eligible.
Conclusion: Deduction under section 80G is allowable for the CSR contribution made to an eligible trust; decision allowing the deduction is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: Both substantive issues decided in favour of the assessee result in dismissal of the Revenue's appeal and restoration of the appellate authority's order insofar as the two contested additions/deductions are concerned.
Ratio Decidendi: For assessment years prior to the effective date of the 2022 amendment, section 14A (read with Rule 8D) cannot be applied to make a disallowance where no exempt income was earned; separately, Explanation 2 to section 37(1) does not preclude a claim for deduction under section 80G when the donation is made to a fund/trust that qualifies for deduction under section 80G and is not one of the funds expressly excluded by section 80G(2)(a).
Disallowance u/s 14A r.w.r. 8D - addition being 1% of annual average of investment towards administrative expense - scope ofamendment/Explanation to Section 14A (Finance Act, 2022) - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- The provision of Section 14A of the Act was amended and an Explanation was inserted w.e.f. 01.04.2022, as per which the disallowance under Section 14A of the Act can be made, even if no exempt income is earned during the year.
As in the case of Williamson Financial Services Limited [2024 (9) TMI 1571 - GAUHATI HIGH COURT] has held that the Explanation inserted to Section 14A of the Act vide Finance Act, 2022 w.e.f 01.04.2022 is prospective in nature and cannot be presumed to have retrospective effect and applied to assessment years prior to 01.04.2022.
CIT(A) had rightly deleted the addition made u/s 14A of the Act, as the assessee did not earn any exempt income during the year. Accordingly, the order of the Ld. CIT(A) on this issue is upheld.
Disallowance u/s. 80G - amount expended under CSR activity - assessee had incurred expenditure towards CSR activity which was disallowed under the provision of section 37 - HELD THAT:- The Co-ordinate Bench of Kolkata Tribunal in the case of JMS Mining Pvt. Ltd. [2021 (7) TMI 907 - ITAT KOLKATA] has held that Explanation-2 to section 37(1) of the Act which denies deduction for CSR expenses by way of business expenditure is applicable only to the extent of computing 'Business Income' under Chapter IV-D of the Act. The said Explanation cannot be extended or imported to CSR contributions which is otherwise eligible for deduction under any other provision or Chapter, to say donations made to charitable trusts registered u/s 80G of the Act.
The Co-ordinate Bench of this Tribunal has held in the case of Torrent Power Grid Ltd.[2026 (1) TMI 1036 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] that the CSR expenditure is allowable as deduction u/s 80G of the Act.
In the case of Gabriel India Limited, [2025 (5) TMI 863 - ITAT MUMBAI] that the assessee’s claim for deduction under Section 80G of the Act in respect of CSR expenses was eligible for deduction. CIT(A) had rightly allowed the relief to the assessee and accordingly the order of the Ld. CIT(A) is upheld. The ground taken by the Revenue is dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the disallowance of business expenses under section 37 should be sustained where complete supporting details were not produced; (ii) Whether additions under section 68 in respect of unsecured loans should be sustained where identity, creditworthiness and genuineness of lenders were supported by documents and confirmations u/s 133(6).
Issue (i): Disallowance of business expenses under section 37 in respect of purchase of construction material and travelling expenses.
Analysis: The assessee submitted partial voucher evidence for construction materials and did not produce complete primary details for travelling expenses. The Assessing Officer disallowed the full amounts but did not reject books of account or make specific adverse findings that entirely negated the claimed expenditures. Considering that both sides had some justification and in the interest of equity, a proportionate adjustment was considered appropriate.
Conclusion: The disallowance is reduced by allowing 80% of the unsubstantiated balance for building materials and 80% of the travelling expense; 20% of each such unsubstantiated amount is disallowed. The grounds on this issue are partly allowed in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Additions made under section 68 in respect of unsecured loans from five lenders.
Analysis: The assessee furnished copies of income-tax returns, computations, balance sheets, confirmations and bank statements for the lenders; loans were made by banking channels and lenders replied to notices u/s 133(6). Repayments were made in subsequent years and no material discrepancies were pointed out by the Assessing Officer. The requirement to explain the source of source was not applicable to the assessment year in question.
Conclusion: The additions under section 68 are deleted and the grounds on this issue are allowed in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed: the additions under section 68 are deleted while limited disallowances under section 37 are sustained at an adhoc rate of 20% on the unsubstantiated portions.
Ratio Decidendi: Where identity, creditworthiness and genuineness of creditors are supported by documentary evidence and banking transactions and no discrepancies are pointed out, additions under section 68 are not sustainable; absence of complete vouchers for business expenditure may justify a proportionate disallowance under section 37 rather than a total disallowance.
Disallowance on account of expenses u/s 37 - purchase of construction material and travelling expenses - Allowability ofbusiness expenses - HELD THAT:- Assessee did not submit the complete details of purchase of construction materials or travelling expense. On the other hand, the AO did not completely believe the explanation of the assessee and disallowed the entire expenses. We find that neither the assessee’s nor the AO explanation can be completely invalidated and there is some element of justification on each side. In the interest of justice therefore, we are of the considered view that 20% of the balance unsubstantiated expense claimed on account of building materials and 20% of the travelling expense be disallowed.
Addition on account of unsecured loans - AO has added the same u/s 68 mainly on the ground that source of source is not proved - HELD THAT:- We find that the AO has examined the bank statements of each lender and found that the loans are extended through banking channels and no cash is involved. Lenders have also confirmed the loan transaction by filing reply to notice u/s 133(6) and the AO has not pointed out any discrepancy in the same. Though repayment of loans is not conclusive evidence of genuineness of loans, all the said lenders have repaid the loans in subsequent years. In one case of loan from T Praveen, the said loan was offered for taxation in subsequent year due to death of T Praveen. We are also in agreement with the assessee that the law of explaining the source of source was not available during the impugned AY 2014-15. Additions made u/s 68 is uncalled for and the same is therefore directed to be deleted.
Issues: (i) Whether the delay of 542/543 days in filing the appeal should be condoned; (ii) Whether the assessee is entitled to full exemption under Section 10(10AA) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of CBDT Notification No.31/2023 dated 24.05.2023 which enhanced the monetary limit.
Issue (i): Whether the delay in filing the appeal should be condoned.
Analysis: The application for condonation set out medical treatment of the appellant and his mother, death of the mother, marriage-related family commitments, breakdown of prior counsel-client communication, and reliance on fresh counsel. Documentary evidence in support of medical treatment and related events was placed on record.
Conclusion: Delay condoned and the appeal admitted for adjudication.
Issue (ii): Whether the assessee is entitled to the claimed exemption under Section 10(10AA) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 up to the enhanced limit specified by CBDT Notification No.31/2023 dated 24.05.2023.
Analysis: The assessing officer applied an earlier monetary ceiling of Rs.3,00,000/-, whereas the CBDT Notification No.31/2023 dated 24.05.2023 raised the ceiling to Rs.25,00,000/-. The claimed leave encashment amount was less than the enhanced limit. Coordinate bench decisions on identical issues were referenced in support.
Conclusion: The assessing officer's restriction to Rs.3,00,000/- is set aside; relief under Section 10(10AA) is to be granted to the full extent claimed by the assessee, subject to the enhanced limit in the cited notification.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed on merits after condonation of delay, resulting in full grant of the claimed exemption under Section 10(10AA) within the enhanced monetary limit prescribed by CBDT Notification No.31/2023 dated 24.05.2023.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a statutory or administrative instrument (here, CBDT Notification No.31/2023 dated 24.05.2023) increases the monetary ceiling applicable to an exemption, the enhanced limit applies to claims falling within that amount and the assessing officer must allow the exemption up to the enhanced limit under Section 10(10AA) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Leave encashment benefit in terms of Section 10(10AA) - AO’s CPC restricted the benefit on the ground that the employer was other than a Central or a State Government - assessee retired from the Bank of Baroda, a PSU Bank - vide CBDT’s Notification No.31/2023/F.No.200/3/2023 dated 24.05.2023,the said limit of restriction was enhanced to Rs. 25,00,000/-.
HELD THAT:- AO CPC has mistakenly restricted the benefit of claim to Rs. 3,00,000/- even when the amount was enhanced to Rs. 25,00,000/-. Accordingly, we find merit in the submission of the Ld. AR and direct the Ld. AO CPC to grant relief u/s 10(10AA) of the Act to the full extent claimed by the assessee since it is considerably less than the amount of Rs. 25,00,000/- as per the CBDT Circular (supra) - Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellate authority erred in admitting or considering additional material/evidence without remanding the matter to the assessing officer under Rule 46A of the Income-tax Rules; (ii) Whether the deletion of the addition of Rs. 12.30 crores by the first appellate authority was unsustainable for lack of verification of the nature of funds received and the creditworthiness of the payer.
Issue (i): Whether additional material was admitted or considered in breach of Rule 46A of the Income-tax Rules.
Analysis: The file shows that the first appellate authority requested and received bank statements, mutual fund statements, tax returns and financial statements which were produced during appellate proceedings and reproduced in the appellate order. The material was not placed before the appellate authority by invoking procedural provision for belated evidence alone; rather, the authority exercised its discretion to call for and examine substantiating material furnished during appeal.
Conclusion: The admission and consideration of the additional material did not violate Rule 46A and was within the appellate authority's discretion.
Issue (ii): Whether deletion of the unexplained investment addition of Rs. 12.30 crores was incorrect for want of verification of the source and payer's creditworthiness.
Analysis: The appellate record contains the assessee's bank statements reflecting receipts from and repayment to the payer, mutual fund investment and redemption entries, and the payer's financial statements showing sufficient surplus. Those materials were relied upon to establish that the receipts were received and returned within the year and that the payer had capacity to advance the funds. The payer's project not proceeding to fruition does not, by itself, render the transaction sham or unexplained where source documentation supports the transaction.
Conclusion: The deletion of the addition of Rs. 12.30 crores is sustained and the finding that the investment was not unexplained is affirmed in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The revenue's appeal is without merit and is dismissed; the appellate authority's exercise of discretion to call for and rely upon substantiating material is upheld and the assessment addition is correctly deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Where substantiating bank records, mutual fund statements and the payer's financials are produced and relied upon on appeal, the appellate authority may, in exercise of its discretion, admit and consider such material and delete an unexplained investment addition if those materials establish the source and genuineness of the transaction.
Unexplained investment in mutual funds - CIT(A) deleted addition on admission of additional evidence under Rule 46A of the Income tax Rules- as argued NFAC admitting the additional evidences without calling for remand report from the assessing officer, as per rule 46A of the Income-tax Rules - DR has primarily contended that additional evidence were admitted in violation of Rule 46A of the Income Tax Rules and on merits it was submitted that assessee company had claimed to have received funds for software development when it actually did not have capabilities to undertake such a project
HELD THAT:- CIT(A) observed during the course of appellate proceeding assessee was asked to submit copies of notices issued by the AO, replies filed by the assessee, copies of tax returns of Prem Power Construction, copies of bank account of Prem Power and that of the assessee and audited profit and loss account and balance sheet of the companies which were submitted on 18.01.2023 and have been reproduced in the impugned order.
Thus, it is not the case of the assessee taking recourse of provision of Rule 46A by filing additional evidence but FAA has exercised its discretion to call for material substantiating the grounds.
Then, the bank statement of the assessee has been relied by ld. CIT(A), which shows transactions pertaining to investments and redemption in different mutual funds. This statement as relied by ld. CIT(A) shows receipts from Prem Power Construction Pvt. Ltd. and the return of funds back to said company.
The bank statement has been relied by ld. First Appellate Authority whish shows expenses carried out by the assessee. The balance sheet of Prem Power Construction Pvt. Ltd. having surplus of Rs. 9 crores established its creditworthiness to make the payments for development of software and being a different matter that the project did not pick up. That alone cannot make the transaction not genuine and source be called ‘unexplained’ in the hands of assessee. Decided against revenue.
Issues: Whether the ICDS adjustment of Rs. 1284.66 crores, made while processing the return under section 143(1)(a), was required to be deleted from the computation of total income in the scrutiny assessment under section 143(3) after the intimation under section 143(1)(a) had been quashed by the High Court.
Analysis: The adjustment had been carried forward into the assessment order under section 143(3), but the earlier intimation under section 143(1)(a) making the disputed ICDS addition had already been quashed by the jurisdictional High Court. Once the foundational intimation was set aside, the same adjustment could not survive in the later computation of income. The appellate authority's jurisdictional objection did not prevent grant of consequential relief in the assessment proceedings.
Conclusion: The ICDS adjustment was directed to be deleted from the assessment computation, and the issue was answered in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded to the extent that the disputed ICDS addition was removed from the scrutiny assessment, and the remaining matters were only consequential.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an adjustment made under section 143(1)(a) has been quashed, the same adjustment cannot be retained in the assessment under section 143(3) and consequential deletion must follow.
Adjustments under Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (‘ICDS’) - intimation u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act incorporating the ICDS adjustment -effect of quashing of intimation on assessment computation - HELD THAT:- While disposing of the Writ Petition registered as Writ Petition [2026 (1) TMI 1485 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] HC had quashed the intimation issued u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act by CPC making the ICDS adjustment.
Thus, once the intimation u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act incorporating the ICDS adjustment has been quashed by the Hon'ble Jurisdictional High Court, consequential effect relating to such adjustment is bound to be given in the computation of total income in the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act.
We direct the A.O. to make necessary modification to the total income computed in the assessment order dated 26.03.2024 passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 144B of the Act by deleting the ICDS adjustment of Rs. 1284.66 crores made by the CPC.
Issues: Whether the notice issued under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on 20-07-2022 was barred by limitation and, if so, whether the reassessment proceedings were void ab initio.
Analysis: The assessment year involved was 2013-14. The reassessment notice had earlier been issued under the old regime on 07-06-2021, and the subsequent proceedings were undertaken pursuant to the Supreme Court directions in Ashish Agarwal. Applying the limitation principles explained in Rajeev Bansal, the period between the deemed notice and the supply of information, as well as the statutory reply period, had to be excluded while computing the surviving time for issuance of notice under the new regime. On that computation, the extended date for issuance of notice expired on 25-06-2022. The notice actually issued on 20-07-2022 was therefore beyond the permissible period.
Conclusion: The notice under section 148 was time barred and the reassessment proceedings were liable to be quashed as void ab initio; the legal ground was allowed in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a reassessment notice under the new regime is issued after the surviving limitation period computed by excluding the legally mandated intervals, the notice is invalid and the consequential reassessment cannot stand.
Validity of reopening of assessment - date of issuance of section 148 notices under the old regime - period of limitation u/s 149 - scope of period prescribed under TOLA - extended due date for issuance of notice u/s 148
HELD THAT:- In view of the observation in the case of Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] the extended due date for issuance of notice u/s 148 of the Act expired on 25-06-2022 and since, the notice is u/s 148 of the Act is issued on 20-07-2022 the said notice is to be treated as time barred by limitation and consequentially reassessment proceedings would be liable to be quashed as void ab initio. Respectfully following the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, we hold that the notice issued u/s 148 of the Act on 20-07-2022 is time barred by limitation. Accordingly the legal issue raised by the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the assessment framed under section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was without jurisdiction for want of incriminating material; (ii) whether additions based on seized loose sheets and rough papers were sustainable; (iii) whether the addition relating to loan from Muthoot Finance Ltd. was justified; and (iv) whether the ad hoc addition as deemed house property income could be sustained.
Issue (i): Whether the assessment framed under section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was without jurisdiction for want of incriminating material.
Analysis: The search yielded seized material that the Tribunal found to constitute incriminating documents for assumption of jurisdiction under section 153A. On that basis, the challenge that the assessment lacked jurisdiction merely because no incriminating material existed was rejected.
Conclusion: The challenge to the assessment under section 153A failed and was decided against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether additions based on seized loose sheets and rough papers were sustainable.
Analysis: The seized papers were found to contain mere jottings and rough estimates, often without dates, signatures, names, or any reliable link to the relevant assessment year. Such loose sheets, uncorroborated by books of account or independent evidence, were treated as unreliable and incapable of supporting the additions.
Conclusion: The additions founded on the loose sheets were deleted and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the addition relating to loan from Muthoot Finance Ltd. was justified.
Analysis: The amount was claimed to be a loan against jewellery security. The record showed that the revenue authorities did not effectively examine whether the loan was reflected in the assessee's books or whether the explanation was incorrect. In the absence of such verification, the addition could not stand.
Conclusion: The addition relating to the loan was deleted and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the ad hoc addition as deemed house property income could be sustained.
Analysis: The addition was made merely on an ad hoc basis without proper verification of the assessee's explanation that the relevant flat formed part of trading inventory and had been rented out. Since the factual position was not examined, the addition was found unsustainable.
Conclusion: The ad hoc addition as deemed house property income was deleted and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only in part, with the jurisdictional challenge rejected but the disputed additions deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Seized loose sheets or rough papers, when not supported by dates, authorship, books of account, or independent corroboration, cannot by themselves justify income additions; ad hoc additions also cannot be sustained without factual verification.
Assessment u/s 153A - Admissibility of loose papers as evidence - HELD THAT:- Loose sheet of papers found in the search, in the case of the assessee, are wholly irrelevant as evidence being not admissible u/s 34 of the Evidence Act so as to constitute evidence with respect to the transactions mentioned therein, being uncorroborated with any books of account. They are merely rough sheets, without any dates and wherever dates are mentioned, they do not pertain to the impugned year.
No merit in the additions made by the Assessing Officer, based on the above seized rough sheets. Therefore, we direct the Assessing Officer to delete the impugned additions. Ground of assessee is allowed.
Loan taken by the assessee from Muthoot Finance Ltd. - CIT(A) upheld the same stating that no details of security for such loan was give by the assessee - We find that the said cash was taken as loan from Muthoot Finance Ltd against security of jewellery. Neither the AO examined that the same is not reflected in assessee’s books of account as claimed by the assessee nor the CIT(A) examined the same. We are therefore of the view that the said addition is not sustainable in law. Accordingly, we direct the AO to delete the said addition.
Addition on account of deemed income from House property - addition of an ad-hoc amount as deemed house property income on the ground that the assessee had shown no such income as against house property income declared in the previous AY - As assessee stated before the CIT(A) that the assessee being in Real Estate business, had rented out its inventory flat which was sold during AY 2014-15 and hence no house property income was shown in the impugned year. AO/CIT(A) has neither examined the explanation of the assessee nor verified the factual position. We therefore are of the considered view that such ad-hoc addition as deemed income from House property is not justified without verification of facts and direct the AO to delete the said addition.
Assessment being made u/s 153A/143(3) without incriminating materials, are dismissed as the AO has validly assumed the jurisdiction u/s 153A on the basis of incriminating materials as discussed above. The ground 1 to 4 are dismissed.
Issues: Whether the addition of Rs. 2,97,66,224/- made by the Assessing Officer under Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 treating purchases as unexplained expenditure is sustainable.
Analysis: Section 69C applies where an assessee has incurred an expenditure and offers no explanation about the source of such expenditure; the statutory focus is on the source of expenditure and not on the authenticity of the expenditure recorded in books. In the present case the purchases were recorded in the assessee's audited books of account and supporting material (invoices, bank statements, shipping bills) was produced and independently authenticated by Customs authorities for SEZ exports. Coordinate and High Court precedents establish that where expenditure is recorded in regular books and the source is explained, Section 69C is not attracted. Non-response of creditors to notices issued under Section 133(6) does not, by itself, permit adverse inference to treat recorded purchases as unexplained expenditure when books are not rejected and no material demonstrates falsehood of books. The Assessing Officer did not point to rejection of books or specific discrepancies undermining the source of purchases; appellate findings relying on documentary and Customs verification were not misplaced.
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 2,97,66,224/- under Section 69C is unsustainable and is deleted; the Revenue appeal is dismissed and the assessee's cross-objection is allowed (decision in favour of the assessee).
Unexplained expenditure u/s. 69C - Addition on account of adhoc 12.5% - creditor not responding to the notice u/s.133(6)
HELD THAT:- Section 69C can be invoked only in a case where the assessee has incurred any expenditure and the assessee offers no explanation about the source of such expenditure. However, in the instant case of the assessee, there can be no dispute about the source of the purchases as all the purchases are duly recorded in the books of accounts of the assessee.
In the present case it is noted that the books of accounts of the assessee are audited and have not been rejected by the AO and even the AO has not pointed out any discrepancy in the books of accounts. It is further noted that AO had issued notices u/s. 133(6) and no replies were received and this non compliance to the notices issued u/s. 133(6) by the AO cannot be a ground for drawing adverse inference against the assessee, in view of the various decision including Wel Intertrade Pvt. Ltd [2023 (4) TMI 748 - DELHI HIGH COURT] wherein, it has been held that creditor not responding to the notice u/s. 133(6) cannot be a ground / reason by the AO to make an addition and also Prabhat Gupta [2017 (12) TMI 1667 - ITAT MUMBAI] held that disallowance of purchase could not be made on the ground that notice u/s. 133(6) issued to parties were not served or no replies were received.
Addition made by the AO is not sustainable and deserve to be deleted. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the payment of Rs. 20,00,000 made pursuant to contractual shortage of goods in transit is allowable as business expenditure under Section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, or is disallowed as a penalty under the Explanation to Section 37(1).
Analysis: The payment was supported by the transportation contract clause allocating responsibility for shortage in transit, email correspondence evidencing the claim, ledger entries and bank statements showing payment through banking channels. There is no material or finding that the payment arose from violation of any statutory provision or law. The payment was made to indemnify the principal for loss of entrusted goods and thus arose from contractual obligations intrinsic to the business of transporting goods. The Explanation to Section 37(1) disallows expenditures that are penalties for infraction of law; payments that are compensatory under contract and not imposed for statutory contraventions are not caught by that Explanation. Judicial authorities recognizing that compensatory contractual damages incurred in the course of business are deductible under Section 37(1) were applied to the facts.
Conclusion: The payment of Rs. 20,00,000 is compensatory in nature, incurred wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business and does not fall within the Explanation to Section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961; therefore the disallowance is unsustainable and the appeal is allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: A payment made pursuant to contractual liability to compensate for shortage of goods in transit, supported by contemporaneous documentary and banking evidence and not arising from breach of statutory law, is compensatory and deductible as a business expenditure under Section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Disallowance u/s 37(1) - amount was paid to Chettinad Cements for loss of certain quantity of goods in the process of transportation of their goods - allowable as business expenditure or nature of penalty for violation of law
HELD THAT:- The non-response of M/s.Chettinad Cements Ltd. to the notice issued u/s. 133(6) of the Act, by itself, cannot be a ground to disallow the claim when the assessee has furnished contemporaneous documentary evidence substantiating the transaction and the payment has been made through banking channels. The genuineness of the payment has not been doubted by the authorities below.
We hold that the payment made by the assessee to M/s.Chettinad Cements Ltd. is compensatory in nature, incurred wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business, and does not fall within the mischief of the Explanation to section 37(1) of the Act. Disallowance made by the Assessing Officer and confirmed by the ld. CIT(A) is unsustainable. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether any error exists in the impugned order passed by the Customs, Excise & Service Tax Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi warranting interference by this Court.
Analysis: The Court heard learned counsel for the parties and perused the materials on record and found no error in the impugned order of the Customs, Excise & Service Tax Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi.
Conclusion: No error found in the impugned order; the appeal is dismissed.
Error in the impugned order passed -Valuation of imported goods - Silicone Weather Proofing Sealant - Fast Track Acqua – tech very high bond foamed acrylic tape - rejection of declared value - revaluation of goods - HELD THAT:- Upon hearing the parties and perusal of materials available on record, we do not find any error in the impugned order [2020 (8) TMI 401 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], passed by the Customs, Excise & Service Tax Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi. Accordingly, the appeal is dismissed.
Issues: Whether the writ petition could be entertained to bypass the statutory pre-deposit requirement for the appeal before the Tribunal, and whether payment of duty by a co-noticee company could be adjusted against the petitioner's separate pre-deposit obligation.
Analysis: The petitioner had already been relegated to the statutory appellate remedy and had failed to comply with the mandatory pre-deposit condition before the Tribunal. That failure did not create any fresh right to invoke writ jurisdiction for relaxation of the same statutory condition. No subsequent change in circumstances was shown to justify reopening the issue. The liabilities arising from the order in original were treated as separate, and there was no statutory basis to appropriate or adjust duty paid by the company against the petitioner's own pre-deposit requirement. The petition was also an impermissible attempt to do indirectly what could not be done directly by challenging the order in original under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
Conclusion: The writ petition was not maintainable and the petitioner was not entitled to any relaxation or adjustment of the statutory pre-deposit condition.
Statutory pre-deposit as condition precedent to maintain appeal - appeal is a creature of statute - no appropriation or adjustment of payments made by one party against another party's pre-deposit - separate liabilities of co-accused / co-obligors - condonation of delay and restoration of appeal upon compliance with statutory pre-deposit - HELD THAT:- It is the petitioner’s case that the order in original dated July 14, 2014 had been challenged by the company i.e. M/s. Beriwala Impex Private Limited before CESTAT and that during pendency of the appeal, CESTAT has allowed the said appeal by an order dated February 23, 2022 thereby holding that the entire proceeding initiated against the company was without jurisdiction.
It is evident that earlier, when the matter had been taken up by the Hon’ble Division Bench, it had been submitted before the Hon’ble Division Bench on behalf of the petitioner that as it would not be possible for the petitioner to put in the statutory pre deposit and avail the statutory remedy therefore the petitioner should be permitted to challenge the order in original before this Court. Such contention of the petitioner was repelled and negated by the Hon’ble Division Bench by observing that “an appeal is a creature of statute and any condition imposed in the exercise of the right of appeal need necessarily be complied with to avail of such remedy”.
Accepting such order of the Hon’ble Division Bench, the petitioner approached CESTAT and filed the appeal. However, the petitioner could not comply with the condition of pre deposit and such failure led to the dismissal of the petitioner’s appeal. That, in the considered view of the Court, cannot clothe the petitioner with any fresh right to approach the Writ Court and seek relaxation of condition of pre deposit in whatever manner.
Furthermore, it is not the petitioner’s case that the company paid the duty subsequent to the order passed by the Hon’ble Division Bench and that being so, there is no change in circumstances also. The party continues to be at the same place and in the same position where the party was at the time when the Hon’ble Division Bench decided the petitioner’s appeal.
Above all, there is no provision in the statute that permits any appropriation or adjustment of payments made by a party in terms of an order in original with statutory pre deposit required to be made by another person for the purpose of filing or maintaining such other person’s appeal.
Writ petition dismissed.
Issues: Whether the petitioner could invoke writ jurisdiction to bypass the statutory pre-deposit requirement for filing and maintaining the appeal before CESTAT, or seek adjustment of another party's duty payment against the petitioner's own pre-deposit obligation.
Analysis: The petitioner's earlier attempt to avoid the statutory appellate route had already been rejected on the footing that an appeal is a creature of statute and the conditions attached to that remedy must be complied with. After the petitioner chose the appellate remedy, failure to satisfy the pre-deposit condition resulted in dismissal of the appeal, which did not create any fresh right to return to the writ court for relaxation of that statutory requirement. The Court also held that there was no change in circumstances justifying a different approach, and no statutory basis permitting one person's duty payment to be appropriated or adjusted against another person's separate pre-deposit obligation. The writ jurisdiction could not be used indirectly to do what had earlier been refused directly.
Conclusion: The request to entertain the writ petition and to relax or adjust the pre-deposit requirement was rejected, and the petition was not maintainable.
Ratio Decidendi: A statutory pre-deposit condition for an appellate remedy cannot be bypassed through writ jurisdiction, and payments made by one liable person cannot be adjusted against another person's independent pre-deposit obligation in the absence of statutory authority.
Statutory pre-deposit as condition precedent to preferring an appeal - maintainability of writ petition where an efficacious statutory remedy exists - no set-off or appropriation of payments made by a co-party against another party's pre-deposit obligation - separate liabilities of distinct parties under adjudication - condonation of delay and restoration of appeal by the Tribunal upon compliance with pre-deposit - HELD THAT:- It is the petitioner’s case that the order in original dated July 14, 2014 had been challenged by the company i.e. M/s. Beriwala Impex Private Limited before CESTAT and that during pendency of the appeal, CESTAT has allowed the said appeal by an order dated February 23, 2022 thereby holding that the entire proceeding initiated against the company was without jurisdiction.
It is evident that earlier, when the matter had been taken up by the Hon’ble Division Bench, it had been submitted before the Hon’ble Division Bench on behalf of the petitioner that as it would not be possible for the petitioner to put in the statutory pre deposit and avail the statutory remedy therefore the petitioner should be permitted to challenge the order in original before this Court. Such contention of the petitioner was repelled and negated by the Hon’ble Division Bench by observing that “an appeal is a creature of statute and any condition imposed in the exercise of the right of appeal need necessarily be complied with to avail of such remedy”.
Accepting such order of the Hon’ble Division Bench, the petitioner approached CESTAT and filed the appeal. However, the petitioner could not comply with the condition of pre deposit and such failure led to the dismissal of the petitioner’s appeal. That, in the considered view of the Court, cannot clothe the petitioner with any fresh right to approach the Writ Court and seek relaxation of condition of pre deposit in whatever manner.
Furthermore, it is not the petitioner’s case that the company paid the duty subsequent to the order passed by the Hon’ble Division Bench and that being so, there is no change in circumstances also. The party continues to be at the same place and in the same position where the party was at the time when the Hon’ble Division Bench decided the petitioner’s appeal. Above all, there is no provision in the statute that permits any appropriation or adjustment of payments made by a party in terms of an order in original with statutory pre deposit required to be made by another person for the purpose of filing or maintaining such other person’s appeal.
This Court is therefore unable to accede to the petitioner’s request.
Writ petition dismissed for want of maintainability insofar as it challenges CESTAT's dismissal for non-fulfilment of statutory pre-deposit.
Issues: Whether the imported parts of poultry keeping machinery were chargeable to IGST at 12% under the relevant entry in Notification No. 1/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), and whether the later clarificatory circulars regularised the past period in favour of the assessee.
Analysis: The dispute turned on the proper rate applicable to parts of machinery falling under heading 8436. The later GST Council recommendation and the CBIC circular dated 15.07.2024 clarified that tariff item 84369100 was covered by Serial No. 199 of Schedule II attracting 12% IGST. The subsequent circular dated 11.10.2024 further stated that past cases were to be regularised on an as is where is basis. The clarification was held to be binding on departmental officers and, being beneficial in nature, capable of retrospective application. On that basis, the demand raised by applying 18% IGST was not sustainable.
Conclusion: The imported goods were liable to IGST at 12%, and the demand, interest, redemption fine, and penalties could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The adjudication order was set aside and the appeal succeeded with consequential relief.
Ratio Decidendi: A beneficial and clarificatory circular governing a disputed tax rate is binding on departmental authorities and may be applied retrospectively to regularise past periods where the clarification resolves prevailing doubt in favour of the assessee.
Classification of imported goods - entitlement to benefit of the post-adjudication clarificatory CBIC circulars and related GST Council recommendations - regularisation on "as is where is basis" - retrospective application of beneficial clarificatory circulars - binding effect of departmental circulars on adjudicating officers - audi alteram partem / right to be heard - HELD THAT:- The order passed by the Commissioner does not reveal on which date the appeal was listed for hearing and was heard at least from side of the Department but going by the written submissions of the appellant available on record, it is noticeable that contrary to what is recorded in the Commissioner’s order at para 19.2, there were two notices issued to them (not three) out of which hearing on 23.08.2023 could not take place as Commissioner was unavailable on that day and appellant could not attend the hearing on 20.08.2024 but emailed on the next day seeking another date for such hearing and thereafter, order was passed. This being so, it cannot be pleaded by the Department that circular came after issue of show-cause and adjudication since by the time adjudication happened, it was already on place.
Further, in the context as to if retrospectively can be attached to the said circular and if it has got biding effect on the officers, it would be worthwhile to refer to the relied upon judgment in the case of Ranadey Micronutrients Vs. Collector of Central Excise [1996 (9) TMI 124 - SUPREME COURT], that dictates that such circulars should have been treated as issued u/s. 37B of the Central Excise Act 1944 (similar to provision contained in Section 151A of the Customs Act.) even though the said provision is not recited in the circular and such circulars are not advisory in nature but binding on the Central Excise officers who can not plead that such circular was not valid.
Apart from this, it has also been clearly directed in the other judgments cited by appellant in the case of Suchitra Components Ltd. [2007 (1) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT], beneficial circular is to be applied retrospectively but when circular is against the assessee, they have a right to claim prospective application but in the instant case, this circular has in clear and unequivocal language has clarified in para 4.3 as to how past cases are to be regularised onward.
Therefore, we are of the considered view that appellant had duly discharged CGST on the parts of Poultry keeping machinery @12% imported during the period between September 2017 and December 2021, for which the order passed by the Commissioner is unsustainable both in law and facts. Hence the order.
Appeal is allowed.
Issues: Whether penalty under Section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be validly imposed on the customs house agent where the show cause notice substantively alleged breach of Regulation 19 of the Customs House Agents Licensing Regulations, 2004 but did not properly set out or support an imputation under Section 112(a)(i).
Analysis: The challenge focuses on whether allegations confined to breach of the licensing regulation can serve as an adequate foundation for penal action under Section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act without specific imputation and supporting particulars in the show cause notice. Applicable legal framework includes the statutory penalty provision (Section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962) and the licensing regime obligations (Regulation 19 and consequences under Regulation 20 of the Customs House Agents Licensing Regulations, 2004). A penalty under Section 112 requires a clear imputation of liability under the Customs Act and tangible material connecting the employer/CHA to the employee/agent's illegal import; mere regulatory breach or supervisory lapse under Regulation 19, absent attribution of knowledge or participation, does not automatically satisfy the requisites for Section 112 penal liability. Authority holding that regulatory contravention alone cannot justify imposition of penal consequences under Section 112 unless the employer's knowledge or participation is attributable is applicable.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could not be sustained where the show cause notice only substantively alleged breach of Regulation 19 of the Customs House Agents Licensing Regulations, 2004 and did not properly impute or establish liability under Section 112(a)(i); the impugned penalty is set aside and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Imposition of penalty u/s 112(a)(i) - Violation of Regulation 19 of Customs House Agents Licensing Regulations, 2004 - Requirement of pleading and proof of knowledge for imposition of penal liability - HELD THAT:- The show cause notice, as noticed, merely alleges violation of regulation 19 of the 2004 Regulations. It does not make any mention as to why penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act should be imposed upon the appellant. Only in paragraph 87(VI) of the show cause notice it has merely been stated that penalty can be imposed upon the appellant under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act. The impugned order notices that there is no allegation against the appellant for imposition of penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, but still it proceeds to impose penalty upon the appellant for the reason that there was enough evidence on record to show that the acts of omission and commission on the part of the appellant would render the appellant for penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act. Therefore, penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act could not have been imposed upon the appellant.
This is what was held by the Delhi High Court in Buhariwal Logistics [2015 (12) TMI 1149 - DELHI HIGH COURT] The Delhi High Court observed that mere violation of the provisions of 2004 Regulations cannot be made a ground to impose penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act.
Thus, the impugned order dated 31.03.2013 passed by the Commissioner insofar as it imposes penalty upon the appellant under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act cannot be sustained and is set aside. The appeal is, accordingly, allowed.
Issues: Whether penalties imposed solely on the basis of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained without following the procedure under section 138B of that Act.
Analysis: Statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962, like statements recorded under section 14 of the Central Excise Act, 1944, do not become relevant for proving the truth of their contents merely because they are on record. Where the exceptions in clause (a) are not attracted, section 138B(1)(b) requires the person making the statement to be examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and the authority to form an opinion, having regard to the circumstances, that the statement should be admitted in evidence in the interests of justice. That procedure is mandatory. Without compliance, the statement cannot be treated as relevant evidence and no adverse finding or penalty can be founded on it.
Conclusion: The penalties imposed under sections 112(a)(i) and 112(a)(ii) of the Customs Act, 1962, having been founded only on statements recorded under section 108 without compliance with section 138B, were not sustainable and were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: A statement recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 is not admissible for proving its contents in adjudication unless the mandatory requirements of section 138B are satisfied, including examination of the maker as a witness and admission of the statement in evidence by the adjudicating authority.
Relevancy of statements recorded u/s 108 - Procedure u/s 138B(1)(b) for admitting statements in adjudication - Mandatory character of statutory procedure for admission of recorded statements - Admissibility of statements recorded during investigation versus evidence after examination and opinion of adjudicating authority - Penalty liability u/s 112(a)(i) and 112(a)(ii) - Right to cross-examination - Whether the Commissioner committed an error in solely placing reliance upon the statements made by the appellant and Lokesh Garg u/s 108 for the purpose of imposing penalties upon the appellant. - HELD THAT:-A Division Bench of this Tribunal in Surya Wires [2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] held that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Customs Act shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence.
Both section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act contemplate that when the provisions of clause (a) of these two sections are not applicable, then the statements made under section 14 of the Central Excise Act or under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Acts shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence. It is thereafter that an opportunity has to be provided for cross-examination of such persons. The provisions of section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D of the Central Excise Act have been held to be mandatory and failure to comply with the procedure would mean that no reliance can be placed on the statements recorded either under section 108 of the Customs Act or under section 14D of the Central Excise Act. The Courts have also explained the rationale behind the precautions contained in the two sections. It has been observed that the statements recorded during inquiry/investigation by officers has every chance of being recorded under coercion or compulsion and it is in order to neutralize this possibility that statements of the witnesses have to be recorded before the adjudicating authority, after which such statements can be admitted in evidence.
As seen from the show cause notice and the order impugned, penalty upon the appellant has been imposed only on the basis of the statement made by the appellant under section 108 of the Customs Act. A statement made under section 108 of the Customs Act cannot be considered as relevant as the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act was not followed.
In view of the aforesaid decisions and the fact that penalties have been imposed upon the appellant solely on the basis of statements made by the appellant and Lokesh Garg under section 108 of the Customs Act, the imposition of penalties upon the appellant under sections 112(a)(i) and 112(a)(ii) of the Customs Act cannot be sustained and are set aside. The appeal, insofar as it imposes penalties upon the appellant, is accordingly, allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained on the facts found; (ii) Whether statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 could be relied upon without complying with the statutory procedure governing admissibility and cross-examination.
Issue (i): Whether penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained on the facts found.
Analysis: Penalty under section 112(a)(i) requires abetment with knowledge or intentional aiding. Mere facilitation is not enough. On the record, there was no finding that the appellant had knowledge that the documents were false or that he intentionally aided the smuggling activity. The basis of the penalty was the alleged admission and surrounding statements, but the substantive ingredients of abetment were not established.
Conclusion: The penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could not be sustained and the finding was in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 could be relied upon without complying with the statutory procedure governing admissibility and cross-examination.
Analysis: Statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 and the corresponding provisions in section 14 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 become relevant only when the statutory procedure in section 138B of the Customs Act, 1962 and section 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944 is followed. That procedure requires examination of the maker of the statement before the adjudicating authority and a reasoned decision on admissibility before the statement can be used, with cross-examination thereafter if sought. Straightaway reliance on such statements without following the mandatory procedure is impermissible.
Conclusion: The impugned penalty could not rest on the statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 because the mandatory statutory procedure was not followed, and this issue was in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The penalty imposed on the appellant was set aside and the appeal succeeded.
Ratio Decidendi: Penalty for abetment under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 cannot be sustained without proof of knowledge or intentional complicity, and statements recorded during customs inquiry are not relevant in adjudication unless the mandatory statutory procedure for admissibility is first complied with.
Abetment- Mens rea/knowledge requirement for abetment - Penalty u/s 112(a)(i) - admissibility of departmental statements- Relevancy procedure u/s 138B(1)(b) - Mandatory compliance of procedural safeguards before admitting recorded statements - HELD THAT:- In Additional Director General (Adjudication) vs. Its My Name Pvt. Ltd. [2020 (6) TMI 72 - DELHI HIGH COURT] decided on 01.06.2020, the Delhi High Court examined the provisions of sections 108 and 138B of the Customs Act. The department placed reliance upon the statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act. The Delhi High Court held that the procedure contemplated under section 138B(1)(b) has to be followed before the statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act can be considered as relevant.
A Division Bench of this Tribunal in Surya Wires [2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] held that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Customs Act shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence.
Both section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act contemplate that when the provisions of clause (a) of these two sections are not applicable, then the statements made under section 14 of the Central Excise Act or under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Acts shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence. It is thereafter that an opportunity has to be provided for cross-examination of such persons. The provisions of section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D of the Central Excise Act have been held to be mandatory and failure to comply with the procedure would mean that no reliance can be placed on the statements recorded either under section 108 of the Customs Act or under section 14D of the Central Excise Act. The Courts have also explained the rationale behind the precautions contained in the two sections. It has been observed that the statements recorded during inquiry/investigation by officers has every chance of being recorded under coercion or compulsion and it is in order to neutralize this possibility that statements of the witnesses have to be recorded before the adjudicating authority, after which such statements can be admitted in evidence.
As seen from the show cause notice and the order impugned, penalty upon the appellant has been imposed only on the basis of the statement made by the appellant under section 108 of the Customs Act. A statement made under section 108 of the Customs Act cannot be considered as relevant as the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act was not followed.
Thus, the impugned order dated 31.03.2013 passed by the Commissioner insofar as it imposes penalty upon the appellant under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act cannot be sustained and is set aside and appeal is allowed.
Issues: Whether the penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained on the basis of a statement recorded under section 108 of that Act without following the procedure prescribed for admitting such statement in evidence.
Analysis: The statement recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 is not, by itself, sufficient to found an adverse finding unless the statutory safeguard in section 138B is complied with. When the maker of the statement is available, the adjudicating authority must first examine the person as a witness and then form an opinion, for reasons to be recorded, that the statement should be admitted in evidence in the interests of justice. Only thereafter can the statement be used and the affected person be afforded cross-examination. The same approach is reflected in section 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944, which the judgment treats as a parallel and mandatory evidentiary safeguard. On the facts, the impugned order relied on the statement without following this procedure and also drew an unsupported inference from the bank account and summons compliance, rendering the finding unsustainable.
Conclusion: The statement recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 could not be relied upon in the absence of compliance with section 138B, and the penalty imposed under section 112(a)(i) was unsustainable.
Ratio Decidendi: A statement recorded during customs inquiry is relevant in adjudication only after the statutory procedure for admitting it in evidence is followed, and any penalty based solely on an unfiltered statement cannot be sustained.
Relevancy of statements recorded u/s 108 - Mandatory procedure u/s 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and Section 9D(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act - Admissibility of investigation statements only after examination before the adjudicating authority and formation of opinion in the interests of justice - Prohibition on reliance upon statements recorded during inquiry without compliance with statutory safeguards - Whether the Commissioner could sustain a penalty u/s 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act based solely on a statement recorded u/s 108 without following the procedure prescribed by Section 138B(1)(b). - HELD THAT:- A Division Bench of this Tribunal in Surya Wires [2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] held that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Customs Act shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence.
Both section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act contemplate that when the provisions of clause (a) of these two sections are not applicable, then the statements made under section 14 of the Central Excise Act or under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Acts shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence.
It is thereafter that an opportunity has to be provided for cross-examination of such persons. The provisions of section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D of the Central Excise Act have been held to be mandatory and failure to comply with the procedure would mean that no reliance can be placed on the statements recorded either under section 108 of the Customs Act or under section 14D of the Central Excise Act. The Courts have also explained the rationale behind the precautions contained in the two sections. It has been observed that the statements recorded during inquiry/investigation by officers has every chance of being recorded under coercion or compulsion and it is in order to neutralize this possibility that statements of the witnesses have to be recorded before the adjudicating authority, after which such statements can be admitted in evidence.
As seen from the show cause notice and the order impugned, penalty upon the appellant has been imposed only on the basis of the statement made by the appellant under section 108 of the Customs Act. A statement made under section 108 of the Customs Act cannot be considered as relevant as the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act was not followed.
Thus, for all the reasons stated above, the impugned order dated 31.03.2013 passed by the Commissioner insofar as it imposes penalty upon the appellant under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act cannot be sustained and is set aside. The appeal is, accordingly, allowed.
Issues: Whether the Fe content of the exported iron ore fines for the shipping bill is below 58% for the purpose of export duty assessment, having regard to multiple laboratory test reports and re-tests.
Analysis: The Tribunal noted six laboratory analysis reports (load port, discharge port and CRCL reports) with varying Fe and moisture values. The adjudicating authority and the first appellate authority examined the factual matrix, including the grant of a second re test under Board's Circular No. 30/2017 Cus dated 18.07.2017, the CRCL Mumbai re test result showing Fe 55.6%, and the destination port and invoice basis reports. Both authorities recorded reasons for accepting the CRCL Mumbai re test and for finalizing the shipping bill on the basis that Fe content was below 58%, and the Tribunal found no reason to interfere with their factual findings and application of the circular's guiding principle that the competent authority may rely on either test while recording reasons.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that the Fe content for the shipment is to be treated as below 58% for assessment purposes and the Revenue's appeal is dismissed; decision is in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where multiple valid laboratory tests and re tests exist, the competent authority under Board's Circular No. 30/2017 Cus dated 18.07.2017 may rely on any one test result for finalization of the shipping bill provided reasons for that selection are recorded; such reasoned factual findings will not be interfered with in the absence of perversity.
Determination of export duty based on Fe content - validity of re-test and competence of testing authority - reliance on multiple laboratory test reports in final assessment - provisional assessment - acceptance of invoice as transaction value - application of Board's Circular No. 30/2017-Cus on re-test results -HELD THAT:- The Learned AR submits that the two Test Reports of CRCL Kolkata and Delhi clearly showed that the Fe content was more than 58%. Therefore, he submits that the Adjudicating authority is in error in ignoring these test reports to come to a conclusion that the Fe content is less than 58%. He prays that the appeal may be allowed by setting aside the impugned order.
After going through the factual details, we find that indeed the 2nd re-test was allowed to be taken up by the Revenue. The 2nd Test result shows Fe content of 55.6%, when tested by CRCL Mumbai. It is also an admitted fact that the discharge port Fe content was @ 57.2% and the transaction value towards export realization is based on such Fe content only. Therefore, we find that both the lower authorities have gone into considerable details to verify the factual position to arrive at their decision. We do not find any necessity to interfere with their considered findings. Therefore, we dismiss the Revenue’s appeal.
Issues: Whether custom-designed parts manufactured exclusively for aircraft and helicopters are classifiable under CTH 8807, and more specifically under tariff item 88073000 as other parts of aeroplanes, helicopters or unmanned aircraft, or whether they are excluded as parts of general use under Section XVII.
Analysis: The goods were found to be designed from customer drawings and specifications, manufactured for specific aircraft models, and supported by a Chartered Engineer certificate confirming exclusive use in aircraft applications. The relevant tariff framework under Chapter 88 and the notes to Section XVII was applied. Under the scheme of CTH 8807, parts must be identifiable as suitable for use solely or principally with aircraft and must not be excluded by Note 2 to Section XVII. The goods were held not to be parts of general use, not otherwise more specifically covered elsewhere, and not falling within the exclusions in Note 2. Since they were neither propellers and rotors nor under-carriages and parts thereof, they were found to fall under the residual entry for other parts of aeroplanes, helicopters or unmanned aircraft. The interpretative principle of the most specific description also supported classification in Chapter 88.
Conclusion: The goods are classifiable under CTH 8807 and specifically under tariff item 88073000.
Final Conclusion: The advance ruling accepts the applicant's classification claim and confirms that the subject goods, as aircraft and helicopter parts, fall within the residual parts heading for aeroplanes, helicopters or unmanned aircraft.
Ratio Decidendi: Goods designed and manufactured exclusively for aircraft use, which are not parts of general use and are not excluded by Section XVII notes, are classifiable as aircraft parts under the relevant residual heading in Chapter 88.
Classification of parts of aircraft and helicopters - Parts of aeroplanes, helicopters or unmanned aircraft (CTH 8807 / 88073000) - Suitability for use solely or principally with the goods of Chapter 88 - Exclusion by Notes to Section XVII (Note 2 and Note 3) - HSN explanatory notes to Section XVII regarding parts and accessories - General Rules of Interpretation - preference for the most specific heading - Advance ruling u/s 28H(2) - HELD THAT:- On plain reading of the Note 2 the section XVII and its relevant explanatory Note, the subject goods i.e. "parts of aircraft and helicopters" do not appear to be excluded by the said Note 2. Further, part b of Note 2 i.e. Note 2.b covers parts of general use. I observe that as per applicant's submission the subject goods "parts of aircraft and helicopters" are manufactured are manufactured as per the respective customer's designs/drawings/specifications do not have any multiple use and can't be used for the purpose other than parts of aircraft and helicopters.
In view of the forgoing discussion it emanates that the subject goods "parts of aircraft and helicopters" are not of general use and are not excluded from section XVII in terms of Note 2 or Note 3 of the said section and are classifiable under this section as parts of aircraft and helicopters i.e. parts of goods of heading 8802. Also, as the subject gods are neither 'Propellers and rotors and parts thereof nor 'Under-carriages and parts thereof'. Therefore, the subject goods are not classifiable under CTI 88071000 or 88072000.
Now, the subject goods are not classifiable under CTI 88071000 and 88072000 of CTH 8807. The same liable to fall and classifiable under tariff item 88073000 as 'Other parts of aeroplanes, helicopters or unmanned aircraft'.
The ratio of the latest judgement in the matter of M/s. Dynamatic Technologies Ltd Vs The Commissioner of Customs Airport & Air Cargo Complex, Bengaluru [2025 (9) TMI 880 - CESTAT BANGALORE], wherein the hon'ble CESTAT held that Aluminium Bushes Flanges, Aluminium Fitting, Bolts, Grommet used as a part of aircraft/helicopters are classifiable under CTH 88039000 as "parts of the Aircraft/helicopter" is squarely applicable in the instant matter.
On the basis of foregoing discussions and observation, the subject goods/components (176 numbers in parts) as detailed in the Annexure-I to this ruling are classifiable under CTH 8807 as parts of aeroplanes and helicopters, and more specifically under CTI 8807300 as Other parts of aeroplanes, helicopters or unmanned aircraft, of the first schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, as amended.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant was entitled to exemption under Notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 for services stated to have been rendered in rural areas. (ii) Whether the demand could be sustained for the extended period on the basis of Form 26AS and Income Tax data.
Issue (i): Whether the appellant was entitled to exemption under Notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 for services stated to have been rendered in rural areas.
Analysis: The exemption claim required proof that the services were actually rendered to rural branches of banks and insurance companies within the scope of the notification. The record did not contain evidence establishing that the appellant satisfied the factual conditions for the claimed exemption. The demand was therefore examined on merits and not displaced merely by the assertion of exemption.
Conclusion: The exemption claim was rejected and the demand was held sustainable on merits.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand could be sustained for the extended period on the basis of Form 26AS and Income Tax data.
Analysis: The demand originated from third-party tax data and was not supported by independent corroborative material showing taxable service, service recipient, and consideration in the manner required for service tax liability. The Tribunal applied the settled principle that Form 26AS and similar income-tax records, by themselves, do not establish service tax liability or suppression with intent to evade tax. On that basis, the extended limitation was not invokable, and the quantification for the normal period was to be worked out after due verification, including the benefit of the negative figure noted in the relevant period.
Conclusion: The extended period demand was set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only to the extent that the extended-period demand was disallowed, while the demand on merits was otherwise upheld, resulting in partial relief to the appellant.
Ratio Decidendi: Service tax demand cannot be sustained for the extended period merely on the basis of Form 26AS or income-tax data without independent corroborative evidence establishing taxable service and the ingredients for invoking extended limitation.
Sustainability of service tax demand - taxable services under the category of “Maintenance and Repair Services”, “Business Auxiliary Services” etc -exemption for services in rural areas under Notification No.25/2012-ST (Sl.No.29(g)) - reliance on Form 26AS / Income tax returns for raising service tax demands - extended period of limitation - requirement of independent corroborative evidence to establish rendition of taxable services - adjustment of negative liability after verification - HELD THAT:-On going through the details of the present case, it is seen that the demand has been made based on the 26AS Returns in respect of the IT Returns filed by the Appellant. It is clear that the investigation was taken up only after receiving the information from Income Tax Department. It is also on record that while the Show Cause Notice was proposing to demand Rs.1.45 Crores. After proper clarification by the Appellant and verification by the lower authorities, the same was brought down to the tune of Rs.41.01 Lakhs. Admittedly, the Revenue is not agitated by the dropping of demand of over Rs.1.03 Crores. In respect of the services rendered to the Rural Areas, the appellant has not charged the Service Tax. All these point out that proper case of suppression with intent to evade payment of Service Tax has not been made out clearly against the Appellant.
In respect of demands made based on the Form 26AS and IT Returns, this Bench in the case of Tabassum Enterprises vs. C, CGST & CX [2025 (9) TMI 1275 - CESTAT KOLKATA], Applying the ratio of this case law, hold that the demand for the extended period is legally not sustainable. From the Table V of the Order-in-Appeal reproduced above, it is seen that in case of period 2015-16, the liability for Service Tax shows as (–) Rs.19,66,876. While I set aside the demand for the extended period. The Appellant should be given the benefit of this minus figure of Rs.19,66,876/- after due verification, when the actual quantification for the normal period is arrive at.
Thus, the Appeal stands partly allowed. The Appellant would be eligible for consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: Whether a service tax demand raised and confirmed solely on the basis of Income-tax returns/Form 26AS data, without independent verification or corroborative evidence of provision of taxable services, and by invoking the extended period of limitation, is sustainable.
Analysis: The demand under challenge was issued on the basis of figures from Income-tax records (Form 26AS) relating to earlier financial years without any contemporaneous verification of the nature of receipts, identification of service recipients, or proof of taxable services rendered. Multiple precedents were applied which hold that entries in income-tax returns or Form 26AS, maintained for income-tax/TDS purposes, do not by themselves establish liability under the service tax provisions; independent or corroborative evidence linking service provider, service rendered, recipient and consideration is required. Where such verification or corroboration is absent, reliance on third-party income-tax data to invoke extended limitation provisions and confirm a service tax demand is impermissible.
Conclusion: The demand confirmed solely on the basis of Income-tax/Form 26AS data without independent corroborative evidence or verification is not sustainable; the impugned demand and confirmation are set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed and the impugned order confirming the service tax demand on the stated basis is set aside; consequential relief, if any, shall follow as per law.
Ratio Decidendi: Service tax demands cannot be sustained solely on the basis of entries in Income-tax returns or Form 26AS; independent corroborative evidence connecting service provider, service rendered, recipient and consideration is essential, and in absence of such verification the extended period of limitation cannot be invoked.
Reliance on Form 26AS/Income Tax returns as sole basis for service tax demand - requirement of independent corroborative evidence to establish rendition of taxable service - invocation of extended period of limitation without independent verification - exigibility of service tax in Negative List regime requires connection of provider, recipient, service and consideration - HELD THAT:- The Show Cause Notice has been issued purely based on the Income Tax Returns for which the Appellant has filed the Returns in 2014-15. There is nothing on record to suggest from the Show Cause Notice that any investigation or verification was taken up to know the details of services rendered by the Appellant. If proper investigation was taken up, the appellant could have given the details of the Works Contract undertaken by them to defend their stand that the same is covered by exemption notification. The appellant being a proprietorship firm, part of the Service Tax liability, if any, is required to be discharged by the recipient of the service. Without undertaking such detailed verification, the SCN has been issued by invoking the extended period provisions. This issue is no more res integra. This fact in the case of Tabassum Enterprises vs. C, CGST & CX [2025 (9) TMI 1275 - CESTAT KOLKATA].
Thus, set aside the impugned order and allow the Appeal. The Appellant would be eligible for consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: (i) Whether Cenvat credit can be availed by the head office in respect of input services ordered and paid for by it but used at different locations/units; (ii) Whether Cenvat credit is admissible on cargo and courier services used to effect sale of scrap that is integral to the maintenance and repair service; (iii) Whether service tax is payable on providing equipment on hire as supply of tangible goods where VAT has been discharged treating the transaction as a deemed sale.
Issue (i): Whether Cenvat credit can be availed by the head office in respect of input services ordered and paid for by it but used at different locations/units.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined prior decision in the appellant's own case and found that invoices were raised on and payments (including service tax) were made by the head office; the services were used for providing taxable repair and maintenance services across locations; receipt and use of the services was undisputed. The Tribunal applied the relevant rule under the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 to determine eligibility where input services are received and paid for by the registered head office and used in relation to taxable output services.
Conclusion: Cenvat credit is admissible to the head office for input services ordered and paid for by it even if used at different locations; the demand denying such credit is not sustainable (decision in favour of the assessee).
Issue (ii): Whether Cenvat credit is admissible on cargo and courier services used to effect sale of scrap that is integral to the maintenance and repair service.
Analysis: The Tribunal found that sale of scrap formed part of the maintenance and repair contracts and that cargo/courier services were used to affect those sales in the course of providing the taxable output service. Treating sale of scrap as integral to the taxable service, the Tribunal concluded that the input service (cargo/courier) was used for providing the taxable output service and therefore falls within the scope of admissible Cenvat credit.
Conclusion: Cenvat credit on cargo and courier services used for sale of scrap integral to the maintenance and repair service is admissible; the denial of credit is not sustainable (decision in favour of the assessee).
Issue (iii): Whether service tax is payable on providing equipment on hire as supply of tangible goods where VAT has been discharged treating the transaction as a deemed sale.
Analysis: The Tribunal relied on its earlier decisions holding that where VAT has been paid by treating the transaction as a deemed sale (transfer/right to use treated as sale under state VAT law), service tax is not additionally leviable on the same transaction. The appellant established that VAT was discharged on hire transactions by treating them as deemed sales.
Conclusion: No service tax is payable on the hiring of equipment where VAT has been discharged treating the transaction as a deemed sale; the demand for service tax is set aside (decision in favour of the assessee).
Final Conclusion: The impugned orders denying Cenvat credit and confirming service tax demands are set aside and the appeals are allowed with consequential reliefs; the appellant succeeds on all decided issues.
Ratio Decidendi: Cenvat credit is available where input services are received and paid for by the registered person and are used for providing taxable output services (Rule 2(I) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004); input services integral to a taxable service (including services used to effect sale of scrap that is part of the service) qualify as inputs; where a transaction is treated as a deemed sale and VAT is discharged, service tax is not leviable on the same transaction (deemed sale doctrine under Article 366(29A) of the Constitution of India as applied with state VAT law).
Cenvat Credit eligibility for input services paid by head office for use across units - Input services used for providing taxable output service - Integral nature of sale of scrap to maintenance and repair contracts - Service Tax not leviable where VAT discharged on deemed sale / transfer of right to use - Input Service Distribution (ISD) requirement where head office invoices and pays -
HELD THAT:- Cenvat Credit availed by the appellant (head office) in respect of the input service ordered and used by it at different locations where invoices have been issued on and payment on Service Tax have been made by the appellant (head office). - We find that the said issue has been decided by this Tribunal in appllant’s own case [2023 (9) TMI 1092 - CESTAT KOLKATA] - As issue is squarely covered by in appellant’s own case for the earlier period we hold that the impugned demand is not sustainable against the appellant for demand of Cenvat Credit on account of input service used by different location of the appellant and for which appellant has made the payment. Therefore, demand raised on account of Cenvat Credit is not sustainable.
Denial of Cenvat Credit - HELD THAT:- Cenvat Credit cannot be denied to the appellant as appellant has is required to clear the scrap for maintenance and repair services. - We further take note of the fact that as the sale of the scrap is the integral part of the maintenance and repair service therefore, same do qualify as input service and which has been used for providing output taxable service. Therefore, Cenvat Credit cannot be denied to the appellant. Therefore, demand on account of denial of Cenvat Credit is not sustainable.
VAT on providing equipments on hire and paying VAT - HELD THAT:- Admittedly in this case also the appellant has paid VAT on the transaction of providing equipments on higher. In that circumstances no Service Tax is payable by the appellant as they have discharged VAT thereon. Therefore, the demand of Service Tax confirmed against the appellant is set aside.
Thus, it is concluded that Cenvat Credit cannot be denied to the appellant as per impugned orders and demand of Service Tax is also not sustainable against the appellant as per impugned orders.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant's activities of transportation of coal and civil construction work are taxable as "mining service" under Section 65(105)(zzzy) of the Finance Act, 1994 or are classifiable as goods transport agency/construction services; (ii) Whether the demand in respect of the period 2008-09 to 2012-13 (SCN dated 18.02.2015) is barred by the normal period of limitation under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 or whether extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Issue (i): Classification of services as "mining service" versus goods transport agency/construction services.
Analysis: The appellant carried out pure transportation and civil construction activities. Prior authority, including the Supreme Court in Commissioner of C.Ex. & S.T., Raipur v. Singh Transporters, and Tribunal decisions, treat transportation of coal as taxable under goods transport agency services and not as mining services. The activities in issue are post-mining/logistics in nature and constituted separate services (transportation/construction) rather than services "in relation to" mining as defined in Section 65(105)(zzzy).
Conclusion: The activities of transportation of coal and civil construction work are not taxable as "mining service" and are properly classifiable as goods transport agency/construction services; the demand under the category of "mining service" is unsustainable in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Invocability of extended period of limitation for SCN dated 18.02.2015 covering 2008-09 to 2012-13.
Analysis: The proceedings were initiated based on findings from the assessee's audited books (EA-2000 audit) and not on new facts demonstrating suppression with intent to evade tax. No established suppression of facts was shown to justify invocation of the extended period of limitation under Section 73; the Show Cause Notice was issued beyond the one-year normal limitation period under Section 73(1).
Conclusion: The demand in respect of the period 2008-09 to 2012-13 is barred by the normal period of limitation; extended period of limitation cannot be invoked, favourable to the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The demands of service tax, interest and penalties confirmed in the impugned orders under the category of "mining service" are set aside and the appeals are allowed with consequential reliefs as per law.
Ratio Decidendi: Transportation of coal and related logistics or civil construction activities are post-mining services appropriately classifiable as goods transport agency or construction services and do not fall within "mining service" under Section 65(105)(zzzy) of the Finance Act, 1994; demands raised beyond the normal limitation under Section 73(1) are barred where suppression with intent to evade tax is not established.
Mining service - Goods Transport Agency Services - appellant's activities of transportation of coal and civil construction work - taxable as "mining service" u/s 65(105)(zzzy) of the Finance Act, 1994 - suppression of facts - reverse charge mechanism - extended period of limitation - normal period of limitation u/s 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 - HELD THAT:- The activities undertaken by the appellant are in the nature of pure transportation and civil construction work. In the impugned orders, these activities were classified under the category of “mining services” treating the same as activities undertaken “in relation to” mining. In this regard, we are of the view that the said activity of transportation of coal and construction services cannot be classified under the category of “mining services” as defined under Section 65(105)(zzzy) of the Finance Act, 1994. In fact, it is observed that the said services are appropriately classifiable under the category of “Goods Transport Agency Services Service”. In support of our view, we rely on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of C.Ex. & S.T., Raipur v. Singh Transporters [2017 (7) TMI 494 - SUPREME COURT], wherein it has been held that transportation of coal within mines is taxable under GTA Services and not mining services. However, the impugned demand has been raised under the category of “mining service”. As the said services cannot be classified as mining services, we are of the considered view that the demand raised against the appellant under the said category cannot be sustained.
We also find that the demand in respect of the first Show Cause Notice (SCN-1) is barred by limitation. The dispute in respect of the said Notice pertains to the period from 2008-09 to 2012-13 (SCN-1) whereas the Show Cause Notice was issued on 18.02.2015 i.e. beyond normal period of limitation of one year under Section 73(1) of the Act.
Further, we note that the proceedings in the instant case were initiated on the basis of finding in EA 2000 Audit of the appellant’s balance sheet, profit & loss account, books of accounts, etc., and not based on any new facts. Therefore, we find that suppression of facts with intention to evade tax on the part of the appellant has not been established in this case and hence, we hold that extended period of limitation cannot be invoked in this case.
Thus, by relying on the decisions cited supra, we hold that the demands of Service Tax, confirmed in the impugned orders under the category of “mining service”, are not sustainable and hence we set aside the same.
As the demands of Service Tax are found to be unsustainable, the question of demanding interest and imposing penalty thereon does not arise. Accordingly, we set aside the demand of interest as well as the penalties imposed, as confirmed in the impugned orders.
In the result, we set aside the impugned orders and allow the appeals filed by the appellant, with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: Whether the appellant (life insurance provider) is subject to the restriction under Rule 6(3)(c) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 (limiting utilisation of credit to 20% of service tax payable on taxable output service) or is entitled to full cenvat credit because the services rendered are taxable and not exempted under Rule 2(e) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
Analysis: The Court examined Rule 6(3)(c) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 and the definition of exempted service under Rule 2(e). The Commissioner had held that portions of premium attributable to investment/savings were exempted services and thereby attracted the restriction in Rule 6(3)(c). The Tribunal reviewed precedents, including its own recent decision in the appellant's similar matter and authoritative CESTAT decisions (noting CCE & ST, LTU vs. Max New York Life and HDFC Standard Life and Birla Sun Life decisions), which hold that where service tax is discharged (including at 1% on gross premium) for life insurance and related management of investment services, the investment/savings component does not constitute a separate exempted service under Rule 2(e). Applying these principles, the Tribunal found no basis to treat the investment component as an exempted service that would attract the 20% utilisation restriction of Rule 6(3)(c).
Conclusion: The appeals are allowed; the appellant is not subject to the restriction under Rule 6(3)(c) and is entitled to cenvat credit as held by the Tribunal in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a life insurer discharges service tax on premiums (including management of investment/administrative components) such services are taxable and not exempted under Rule 2(e) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004; consequently Rule 6(3)(c) limiting credit to 20% does not apply.
Restriction on Cenvat credit under Rule 6(3)(c) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 - Definition of exempted service under Rule 2(e) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 - Taxability of life insurance/ULIP premium and treatment of investment/savings component - Utilisation of Cenvat credit by providers of taxable and exempted services -Whether the appellant is manufacturing dutiable and exempted goods to attract Rule 6(3)(c) of Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 - HELD THAT:- The Commissioner in the impugned orders has dropped the proceedings on the ground that the appellant had availed credit only to the extent of 20% of the amount of service tax payable on the taxable output services. The grievance of the appellant is that they are eligible for 100% credit since they do not fall under the provisions of Rule 6 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 to attract restriction of cenvat credit as per Rule 6(3)(c) of Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
The Commissioner has also relied on the CBEC Circular F. No.354/9/2011 TRU dated 12th July 2011 to deny the benefit of 100% credit. This issue is no longer res integra inasmuch as various Tribunals have categorically held that since the appellant is paying service tax at the rate of 1% on the gross amount of premium charged, the services rendered by the appellant cannot be considered as exempted services as defined under Rule 2(e) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
We find that this issue is no longer res integra inasmuch as this Tribunal vide Final Order [2023 (12) TMI 181 - CESTAT BANGALORE] in appellant’s own case in a similar set of facts.
Thus, we do not find any reason to sustain the impugned orders. Appeals are allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the portion of Rule 8(3A) of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 requiring payment of duty "without utilizing the Cenvat credit" is valid; (ii) Whether penalty under Rule 25 read with Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 is imposable or penalty under Rule 27 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 is the appropriate provision where duty payment was delayed but goods were cleared on invoices.
Issue (i): Whether the provision in sub rule (3A) of Rule 8 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 requiring an assessee in default to pay duty "without utilizing the Cenvat credit" is constitutionally valid.
Analysis: The Tribunal relied on the Gujarat High Court's decision in Indsur Global Ltd which held that the requirement to pay duty without utilizing Cenvat credit is an unreasonable and arbitrary restriction violating Articles 14 and 19(1)(g) of the Constitution, and noted that the Supreme Court dismissed Revenue's appeal on monetary grounds, rendering that decision final. The Tribunal observed that liability to pay interest under Rule 8(3) continues and that sub rule (3A) served as a recovery mechanism rather than creating new liability.
Conclusion: The portion "without utilizing the Cenvat credit" of Rule 8(3A) of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 is unconstitutional and the duty demand made under that provision is not sustainable; however interest under Rule 8(3) remains payable for delay.
Issue (ii): Whether penalty under Rule 25 read with Section 11AC is sustainable, or whether penalty should be imposed under Rule 27 where there was delay in payment but goods were removed on invoices and there was no intention to evade duty.
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted the appellant's contention that there was no intention to evade duty as goods were removed on invoices and duty was ultimately paid. It found that invoking Rule 25/Section 11AC was inappropriate in the facts. Relying on authorities that incorrect citation of provisions does not vitiate proceedings where the authority has power, the Tribunal held that penalty under Rule 27 is the correct provision for contravention of the Rules in such cases.
Conclusion: Penalty imposed under Rule 25 read with Section 11AC is set aside and a penalty of Rs. 5,000 is imposed under Rule 27 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed in part: the duty demand founded on the unconstitutional portion of Rule 8(3A) is set aside, interest for delay (if any) remains payable under Rule 8(3), and a reduced penalty under Rule 27 is imposed in place of the penalty under Rule 25/Section 11AC.
Ratio Decidendi: A statutory provision that mandates payment of excise duty "without utilizing the Cenvat credit" is an arbitrary and disproportionate restriction and is unconstitutional; delayed payment attracts interest under Rule 8(3) and contraventions of procedural rules without intent to evade are punishable under Rule 27 rather than Rule 25/Section 11AC.
Vires of Rule 8(3A) of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 - payment of duty by utilizing CENVAT credit during default period - liability to pay interest for delayed payment under Rule 8(3) - penalty under Rule 25 read with Section 11AC vs penalty under Rule 27 of Central Excise Rules - HELD THAT:- We find that Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in its decision in the case of Indsur Global Ltd. [2014 (12) TMI 585 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] has declared that part of sub-Rule (3A) of Rule 8 which prescribes "payment of duty without utilizing the Cenvat Credit till an assessee pays the outstanding amount including interest” as unconstitutional. This decision has attained finality after dismissal of Revenue’s appeal against this order, by Hon’ble Apex Court on monetary grounds.
Therefore, payment of duty by the appellant by using Cenvat credit during the default period is no more in dispute after the order dated 24.07.2024 of the Hon’ble Apex Court. This being the position, demand of duty having been made under the authority of unconstitutional provision declared as such by Hon’ble Gujarat High Court, cannot be sustained. As far as, liability to pay interest for the default period is concerned, Hon'ble Gujarat High Court has held that this liability continues as per sub-rule (3) of Rule 8 of the said Rules. Hon’ble Court also validated Revenue’s stand that an assessee in default has to clear all consignments on payment of duty during the default period. The appeal is therefore allowed to the extent of duty demand confirmed by the lower authorities. We however add that the appellant would be liable to pay interest in case there is any delay in payment of excise duty.
Contravention of the provisions of Central Excise Rules - HELD THAT:- As discussed, provisions of Rule 8 have been contravened, for which we hold the appellant liable to pay penalty under Rule 27 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002. The appellant has pleaded that Rule 27 has not been invoked in this case for imposing penalty. However, there are a number of decisions where it has been held that mentioning wrong provision or not mentioning provision does not vitiate the proceedings.
Thus, in view of above judicial pronouncements, mentioning of a wrong provision i.e. Rule 25 and not mentioning of correct rule 27 does not vitiate the proceedings as the adjudicating authority has power to pass an order which is unquestionably present with the adjudicating authority. Accordingly, we set aside penalty of Rs. 26,74,513/- imposed under Rule 25 read with Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and instead impose a penalty of Rs. 5000/- under Rule 27 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002.
Issues: Whether filter khaini pouches/sachets manufactured and then manually inserted into pre-zipped plastic pouches which are thereafter sealed using continuous band sealer machines (electric aided) fall within the compounded levy scheme under Section 3A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and relevant Notifications (i.e., whether such pouches are "notified goods" packed "with the aid of packing machine").
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the statutory scheme under Section 3A of the Central Excise Act, 1944, the Notifications No.10/2010-C.E.(N.T.) dated 27.02.2010, No.16/2010-C.E. dated 27.02.2010 and the explanatory insertion by Notification No.19/2010-C.E. dated 13.04.2010 (Explanation 5), along with the Board's clarification F.No.341/24/2010-TRU dated 05.03.2010 and the Capacity Determination Rules, 2010. The Tribunal analysed the wording of Explanation 5 which defines "filter khaini" and the placement of the phrase "with the aid of packing machine" in the explanation, concluding that the legislative intent was to bring within the compounded levy scheme only those pouches that are packed into final pouches by packing machines. The reasoning of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the earlier Tribunal decision dated 17.06.2013 were applied: the intermediate manufacture of sachets (filter pillows) by power-operated machines does not alone make those sachets "notified goods" where the final packing into marketable pouches is done manually; the final pouch packed by machine is the activity relevant for Section 3A. The Board's letter clarifies that manually packed pouches sealed with heat/band sealers are not intended to be covered by the compounded levy scheme. The Tribunal found that in the facts of the case the sachets were placed manually into pre-zipped pre-sealed pouches and the sealing done by band sealer does not convert the manual packing into packing "with the aid of packing machine" as contemplated by the Notifications and Explanation 5.
Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld the Commissioner's order dropping the proceedings and dismissed the Revenue appeals; the Tribunal concluded that the pouches in question are not covered by the compounded levy scheme under Section 3A and related Notifications and therefore the decision is in favour of the assessee.
Validity of show cause notices - packing of mini filter pouches and for installation of machines for the manufacture of filter tobacco pillow pouches -manufacture of branded Chewing Tobacco falling under tariff item No.24039910 - HELD THAT:- Respondent reiterated the findings of the impugned order passed by the Commissioner. He further submits that this issue is no more res integra and the Commissioner (Appeals) in their own case for the earlier period vide its order dated 21.04.2011 has allowed the appeal of the respondent and set aside the demand. The said order was challenged by the Revenue before the CESTAT and CESTAT vide its order dated 17.06.2013 dismissed the appeal of the Revenue and the same is reported in the appellant’s own case of Commissioner of C.Ex. Chandigarh Vs. Tej Ram Dharam Paul [2013 (8) TMI 607 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] He further submits that the appeal of the Revenue should be dismissed by following the ratio of the CESTAT decision (cited supra) which has been subsequently accepted by the Revenue and has not appealed against.
We have considered the submissions of both the parties and perused the material on record and the judgment of this Tribunal dated 17.06.2013 vide which the Tribunal has dismissed the appeal of the Revenue on identical issue.; held that " we agree with the lower authorities that the packing machine used for packing of filter khaini pouches/pillows/sachets cannot be considered to be notified item arid the goods manufactured with the aid of packing machine would not be covered under the compounded love rules They are required to discharge duty not in terms under the said Rule, but in terms of us l provisions of law. For the similar reason in the pillow packing machine for the manufacture of the sets would not be taken into consideration for determining the annual capacity of production and collection of duty
By following the ratio of the decisions (cited supra), we are of considered opinion that there is no infirmity in the order passed by the Commissioner and we uphold the same by dismissing both the appeal of the Revenue.
Issues: Whether deductions on account of post-manufacturing expenses (octroi, additional sales tax, cost of transportation) claimed on a weighted average basis are admissible for the subsequent assessment period and whether the impugned order confirming duty, interest and penalty is sustainable in view of earlier Tribunal decisions in the assessee's own case and other decisions.
Analysis: The question involves application of the Central Excise statutory and regulatory framework under Section 11A, Section 11AB and Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and Rule 25 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002, read with Board guidance including Circular No. 20/90-CX.1 dated 30.08.1990 and Circular No. 354/81/2000-TRU dated 30.06.2000 on valuation adjustments. The issue had been the subject-matter of earlier adjudication and allowance for an earlier period by a Final Order of the Tribunal dated 30.04.2009 in the assessee's own case which was not challenged by the Revenue. Multiple subsequent Tribunal decisions from different Benches have consistently allowed similar deductions on weighted average basis. The present proceedings relate to subsequent SCNs for a later period raising the same legal question. The impugned order confirming demand, interest and penalty was examined against this settled position and the cited precedents.
Conclusion: The impugned order is set aside and the appeal is allowed; deductions on account of post-manufacturing expenses on weighted average basis are admissible for the relevant period and the demand, interest and penalty confirmed by the impugned order are not sustainable. Consequential relief, if any, to be given as per law.
Demand of excise duty along with interest u/s 11AB - equal penalty under Rule 25 - manufacture of various products and are registered with the Central Excise department - deductions on account of post manufacturing expenses (“PME”) such as additional sales tax, octroi and cost of transportation on weighted average basis. - HELD THAT:- After considering the submissions made by both the parties and perusal of the material on record, we find that the issue involved in the present case is no more res integra and has been settled by the Tribunal in favour of the Appellant in their own case for the earlier period [2009 (4) TMI 739 - CESTAT, NEW DELHI], whereby the Tribunal held that deductions on account of PME like octroi, additional sales etc are admissible to the Appellant on weighted average basis. Further, we find that the present proceedings arise on account of subsequent SCNs for subsequent period. We also find that the department has not challenged the Final Order dated 30.04.2009 passed by the Tribunal which means that the department has accepted that order.
Besides this, the issue has also been decided by various benches of the Tribunal in the cases cited supra, wherein it has been held that the assessee is entitled to deductions on account of octroi, sale tax, additional sales tax on weighted average.
Thus, we are of the considered opinion that the impugned order is not sustainable in law, therefore, we set aside the same and allow the appeal of the Appellant with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: (i) Whether the demand of duty based on undervaluation could be sustained on the footing that the appellant and the buyers were related persons or inter-connected undertakings so as to exclude transaction value and attract Rules 9 and 10 of the Central Excise (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000; (ii) whether the goods manufactured by the appellant were correctly classifiable under Chapter heading 8471 or under Chapter heading 90318220 of the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985; (iii) whether the alleged short payment for March 2017 was established; and (iv) whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Issue (i): Whether the demand of duty based on undervaluation could be sustained on the footing that the appellant and the buyers were related persons or inter-connected undertakings so as to exclude transaction value and attract Rules 9 and 10 of the Central Excise (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000.
Analysis: The finding of related person status was not supported by a proper legal foundation. The appellant was a proprietary concern, while the buyers were a partnership firm and a body corporate, and the material did not establish the kind of mutuality of interest or flow back of additional consideration necessary to reject the declared transaction value. The buyers further showed that the goods were not merely resold as such, but were combined with other materials and services such as installation, integration, testing, commissioning, warranty support, and after-sales service, making the resale price non-comparable with the appellant's sale price. The profit figures also did not support the allegation of suppression through related-party pricing.
Conclusion: The undervaluation demand based on related-person treatment and application of Rules 9 and 10 was not sustainable and is answered in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the goods manufactured by the appellant were correctly classifiable under Chapter heading 8471 or under Chapter heading 90318220 of the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985.
Analysis: The products were found to function as microprocessor-based data processing systems rather than mere testing or measuring equipment. Their features, including data acquisition, processing, display, and output through connected devices, satisfied the conditions associated with automatic data processing units. The Tribunal also followed the earlier classification approach applied to comparable microprocessor-based systems.
Conclusion: The goods were classifiable under Chapter heading 8471 and the contrary reclassification was unsustainable, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the alleged short payment for March 2017 was established.
Analysis: The reconciliation of the March 2017 ER-1 return with the invoices showed that the value attributed to March included an invoice already subjected to duty in February 2017. On that basis, the differential demand for March 2017 did not survive.
Conclusion: The alleged short payment for March 2017 was not proved and the finding was in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Analysis: The record showed repeated audits, prior departmental scrutiny, and recorded statements over several years, demonstrating that the relevant transactions were within the knowledge of the department. In the absence of suppression of facts or comparable culpable conduct, the extended limitation period could not be applied.
Conclusion: Invocation of the extended period of limitation was unjustified and the issue is decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned demand, reclassification, and penalty could not be sustained on the facts and law applied to the record, and the assessee obtained complete relief.
Ratio Decidendi: For rejecting transaction value under the related-person/ inter-connected undertaking framework, the revenue must establish legally relevant relationship and mutuality of interest or flow back of consideration; where the product functions as an automatic data processing unit, classification must follow its essential data-processing character; and extended limitation cannot rest on a case where the department already had material knowledge of the facts.
Rejection of transaction value - connected/related persons -Undervaluation - admissibility of the statements - Classification of goods - products comprise micro-computer units with microprocessors, storage, interfaces and ability to accept/deliver data to automatic data processing systems, and use proprietary firmware/software - short payment of excise duty - concept of “Inter-connected Undertakings” - extended period of limitation for demands - HELD THAT:- We find that the crux of the issue in the present appeal is based on the finding of the Adjudication Authority that the appellant and buyers of the product M/s. Taurus Powertronics Pvt. Ltd. (TPPL) and M/s. Taurus Powertronics System (TPS), are related to appellant. In this regard, we find that there is no specific clause referred under Section 4(3)(b) read with Section 2(g) of the MRTP Act, 1969 applicable in the present case and the adjudication authority as per the impugned order merely made certain observations that M/s. MKS System has sold the goods to M/s. Taurus Powertronics Pvt. Ltd. (TPPL) and M/s. Taurus Powertronics System (TPS). Though there is no allegation regarding involvement of financial transactions, it is held that they have mutuality of interest.
However, Adjudication Authority has failed to appreciate the factual and legal position that the “proprietary concern” cannot be “inter-connected undertakings” with “partnership Firm” and “Body Corporate”. The concept of “Inter-connected Undertakings” is applicable to Body Corporates. The principle behind the valuation mechanism has to be considered based on the mutuality of interest. There is no allegation regarding flow back of additional consideration from the related party buyer to the manufacturer seller.
As regards reliance of the statement recorded from the Managing Director of M/s. Taurus Powertronics Pvt Ltd., Shri M.N. Ravinarayan, we find that in his statement recorded on 25.09.2017 he has given detailed statement regarding procurement of the goods from other sources than the appellant like hook rods, Pelican cases, Packing materials, Wires, etc., from other suppliers, integrated with microprocessor and supplied to their customers.
Therefore, the price at which the appellant has sold the goods to the buyer and the composite price at which the buyer has further sold the goods and provided various services as narrated above are not comparable. Further, as per the ratio of the profit, the manufacturer should have been gaining less profit than the buyer. However, we find that the profit percentage of the appellant was 22.24%, whereas the buyers alleged as related party was only 5.01%. Therefore, the finding that the appellant and M/s. Taurus Powertronics Pvt. Ltd. (TPPL) and M/s. Taurus Powertronics System (TPS) are interconnected undertaking and relative to invoke Rule 9 and Rule 10 of the Central Excise (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000 and Section 11 A (4) / 11A (10) of the CEA, 1944 is unsustainable.
Classification - We find that as per the details furnished by the appellant and following the decision of this Tribunal in the matter of Cascade Systems [2006 (3) TMI 396 - CESTAT, BANGALORE] the equipment manufactured by the appellant are classifiable under CETH 8471. Thus, the finding given the Adjudication Authority regarding classification of goods under CETH 90318220 of the CETA, 1985 is also unsustainable.
Short payment of excise duty - On verification of the value declared in ER-1 Return for March 2017, it is evident that the value considered for the month of March 2017 includes an invoice raised in February 2017 on which duty had been paid in February, itself. Thus, there was no short payment of duty for March 2017 as held by Adjudication Authority.
Invoking the extended period of limitation - Demand is made for the goods cleared from Jan 2013 to June 2017 and the show cause notice (SCN) was issued on 07.04.2018. We find that as per the evidence produced by the appellant, entire documents were audited for the period from Nov 2003 to October 2006 and CERA had audited the records of the appellant on April 2014 and as per Audit Enquiry No. 3 dated 10.04.2014 in the said audit, short payment of duty paid @10.3% instead of 12.36% was informed and appellant paid the said amount.
Moreover, the statement of the proprietor was recorded over a period for years from 20.03.2014 to 08.03.2018. Fact being so, the respondent was aware about the entire transactions and following the ratio of the judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of Pragathi Concrete Products (P) Ltd [2015 (8) TMI 1053 - SC ORDER], there cannot be any allegation regarding suppression of fact to confirm the demand by invoking the extended period of limitation.
Thus, we find that the impugned order is unsustainable and liable to be set aside.
Issues: Whether the refund claim was hit by unjust enrichment and whether the incidence of duty had been passed on to the buyers.
Analysis: The refund dispute turned on whether mere disclosure of duty in invoices was conclusive proof of passing on the duty burden. The invoices had to disclose duty particulars under the excise law, and that circumstance by itself was not decisive. The comparative price data, the retention of substantially the same sale price, the explanation that margins were absorbed to maintain market competitiveness, and the Chartered Accountant certificate supported the finding that the duty was borne by the assessee. The burden to dislodge that material was on Revenue, and no contrary evidence was produced.
Conclusion: The refund claim was not barred by unjust enrichment and the incidence of duty was not passed on to the buyers.
Final Conclusion: The order granting cash refund to the assessee was upheld and Revenue's challenge failed.
Ratio Decidendi: Mere mention of duty in excise invoices does not by itself establish passing on of the duty burden; unjust enrichment must be determined from the totality of evidence, and a duly supported professional certificate and price pattern may establish that the incidence was absorbed by the assessee.
Entitlement to refund of Central Excise duty - Incidence of duty - Unjust enrichment - pre- and post-payment of duty - documentary evidence to corroborate - Chartered Accountant certificate - HELD THAT:- We find that Tribunal in the case of M/s Dhariwal Industries [2005 (7) TMI 160 - CESTAT, MUMBAI] held categorically that duty is required to be indicated in the invoices in terms of Rule 9 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 and that mere mentioning of duty in the invoices is not in itself a conclusive evidence that the incidence of duty has been passed on; if the prices are kept constant by keeping the profit margin low, it can be said that the incidence of duty has been borne by the appellant and has not been passed on to the customers.
We further find that the Commissioner (Appeals) relied upon the certificate issued by the Chartered Accountant. We find that Revenue in their appeal did not adduce any evidence to arraign the said certificate. Under these circumstances, we find that the certificate issued by a professional, after examining the records of the respondent cannot be brushed aside.
We find that there is merit in the argument of the respondent that nothing in the grounds of appeal points at incorrectness of the certificate issued by the Chartered Accountant. In fact, appellant-revenue has not controverted the certificate. It is trite law that the Chartered Accountant Certificate is one of the sufficient conditions to substantiate that the incidence of duty has not been passed on to the customers; the onus to disprove the Chartered Accountant Certificate is on the Department and the same has not been discharged. The certificate was issued after going through the accounts of the appellants and after satisfying himself about the truthfulness of the same. A certificate given by a professional cannot be dis-regarded unless it is proved to be blatantly wrong and contrary to the facts and evidence available on the hand. Thus, the certificate given by the Chartered Accountant has an evidentiary value and cannot be rejected in an arbitrary manner.
Thus, we find no merit in the appeal filed by the Revenue. Accordingly, the same stands dismissed. The Stay application filed by the Revenue is, accordingly, rejected.
Issues: Whether complaints under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could be quashed under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 on the basis that cheques drawn on a bank merged with another bank had become invalid and were presented after expiry of their validity period, despite their return being reflected as "Funds Insufficient".
Analysis: The condition in clause (a) of the proviso to Section 138 requires presentation of the cheque within the period of validity. The expression "within the period of its validity" is not confined only to the period printed on the cheque and may also be affected by circumstances that render the cheque invalid, including merger or acquisition of the drawee bank. However, where the bank return memo records dishonour as "Funds Insufficient" and not as invalidity of the cheque, the statutory presumption under Section 146 operates and the issue whether the cheque had in fact become invalid and whether the dishonour was really on account of insufficiency of funds becomes a matter for trial. In such a situation, the Court would not undertake factual adjudication in exercise of inherent jurisdiction under Section 482.
Conclusion: The plea for quashing was not accepted and the complaints were allowed to proceed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a cheque returned with the endorsement "Funds Insufficient" is challenged on the ground of later invalidity due to merger or acquisition of the drawee bank, the question whether the cheque was presented within its legal validity and whether the dishonour attracts Section 138 is ordinarily a disputed factual issue to be decided at trial, not in a petition under Section 482.
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 - Dishonour of cheque -Presentation within the period of its validity under the proviso to Section 138 - Rebuttable presumption -effect of merger/acquisition of drawee bank on cheque validity - presumption u/s 139 and 146 - quashing of criminal proceedings u/s 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 - HELD THAT:- It is pertinent to note that, in the case of Archana Singh Gautam [2024 (6) TMI 1549 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT], as well as Gantha Kavitha Devi [2024 (10) TMI 1770 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], the cheques were returned by the drawee bank by making an endorsement which reflected upon the validity of the cheque. In the case of Archana Singh Gautam (supra), the cheque was returned with the remarks, "wrongly delivered not drawn on us" by the Indian Bank, into which the Allahabad Bank had merged. Whereas, in the case of Ganta Kavitha Devi (supra), the cheque was returned with the remarks, "invalid cheque (SBH)". Yet, the process for an offence punishable under Section 138 of the N. I. Act, 1881 was issued in those cases.
The position in law is that, it is the dishonour of the cheque that assumes importance and the reason for dishonour, especially "stop payment", "refer to drawer", "account closed", "exceeds agreement" and the like, are not of decisive significance. This factor also deserves to be kept in view.
In a case of the present nature, however, the reason for the return of the cheque assumes significance. If the cheque is not returned with a specific endorsement that, the cheque is invalid, but on account of insufficiency of funds, then as rightly submitted by Mr. Karia, the presumption contained in Section 146 of the N. I. Act, 1881, comes into play and the onus would shift on the drawer to rebut the presumption that, the dishonour of the cheque was not on account of insufficiency of funds. The presumption contained in Section 146 of the N. I. Act, is also a presumption of law and the Court is enjoined to presume the said fact, as it is a mandatory and not a permissive presumption.
It is true, the Acquisition order issued by the Central Government and the order/circular issued by the RBI, cannot be brushed aside lightly. However, when the cheque is returned with the remarks, "Insufficient Funds", the presumption contained in Section 146 of the N. I. Act, 1881, would be required to be rebutted by demonstrating that, the drawee bank could not have honoured the cheque in question as its period of validity had expired.
The legal position has crystallized to the effect that, even if a blank signed cheque leaf is delivered to the payee, towards debt or liability, and the payee fills in the particulars, the cheque is not rendered invalid and the presumption contained in Section 139 of the N. I. Act, 1881 is attracted.
Therefore, in a situation of the present nature, where the cheques have been returned with the remarks, "funds insufficient", and not on account of alleged invalidity of the cheques, the question as to whether, the cheques were dishonoured for insufficiency of funds becomes a tribal issue and must be adjudicated at the trial. Different High Courts have also adopted similar approach in a variety of fact- situations.
In the case ofM/s. K. K. Tractors & Ors [2023 (2) TMI 1445 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] again in the context of the presentation of the cheque, beyond the stipulated period after the merger of the SBI's Associate Bank with State Bank of India, a learned Single Judge declined to quash the complaint opining that, the notifications and documents annexed to the applications under Section 482 of the Code, cannot be considered as evidence so as to quash the complaint in exercise of inherent power.
Though the expression 'within the period of its validity' used in the later part of the clause (a) of the proviso to Section 138 of the N. I. Act, 1881, is elastic enough to cover in its fold a case where the validity of the cheque, is affected by the factors like acquisition by or merger with another bank, despite the validity period specifically mentioned on the cheque not having come to an end, yet, the attendant circumstances bear upon the question whether the cheque has been presented within its validity period. In cases where despite the original drawee bank having ceased to be 'the bank' within the meaning of clause (a) of the said proviso the cheque is returned unencashed with the remarks "insufficiency of funds" and the like, the investigation into facts becomes necessary, and the question whether the drawee bank could have honoured the cheque as it was rendered invalid, would warrant adjudication at the trial. Whereas, in cases where the cheque has been returned with the remarks, 'invalid' or 'presented on the successor bank after the period of the validity of the cheque' and the like, compliance of clause (a) of the proviso to Section 138 of the N. I. Act, 1881, in the matter of presentation of the cheque within the validity period, could be examined by the Court, in the light of the attendant facts and circumstances of the case. No straight- jacket formula that, since the cheque appeared to have been presented after expiry of the period of validity of the cheque drawn on the earstwhile drawee bank, no offence punishable under Section 138of the N. I. Act, is made out, can be adopted.
The facts of the case at hand appear to fall in the category of cases where on account of the return of the cheque with the remarks, "Funds Insufficient", the question as to whether the cheque was presented beyond its validity period warrants adjudication at the trial. Resultantly, the prayer of the applicants to quash the complaints for the offence punishable under Section 138 r/w 141 of the N. I. Act, 1881, cannot be countenanced.
Hence, the applications stand dismissed.
Issues: (i) whether summoning and criminal proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could be quashed against Non-Executive and Independent Directors in the absence of material showing that they were in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business; (ii) whether the summoning order could be interfered with in respect of the Chief Financial Officer of the company at the stage of proceedings under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Issue (i): whether summoning and criminal proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could be quashed against Non-Executive and Independent Directors in the absence of material showing that they were in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business.
Analysis: The protective scheme for Independent Directors under the Companies Act, 2013 recognizes that such directors are not, by status alone, responsible for the company's day-to-day affairs. Liability for an offence by the company does not automatically extend to every director. For vicarious criminal liability, there must be specific material showing active involvement or a direct nexus with the transaction and the company's business. The record showed that the petitioners in this category were Independent and Non-Executive Directors, and there was no sufficient basis to treat them as persons in charge of the company's affairs for the purpose of Section 141.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the petitioners. The summoning order and the proceedings were quashed against the Non-Executive and Independent Directors.
Issue (ii): whether the summoning order could be interfered with in respect of the Chief Financial Officer of the company at the stage of proceedings under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Analysis: A Chief Financial Officer is part of the company's key managerial personnel and, by office, is connected with financial administration and monetary affairs. Whether such a person had knowledge of the transaction and exercised control over it is ordinarily a matter for trial, especially where the role is linked to financial management. On the materials before the Court, no ground was made out to conclude at the quashing stage that the summoning order was unsustainable against the Chief Financial Officer.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the petitioner. The summoning order was upheld in respect of the Chief Financial Officer.
Final Conclusion: The petition succeeded only in part: the proceedings were terminated against the Independent and Non-Executive Directors, while the prosecution was permitted to continue against the Chief Financial Officer.
Ratio Decidendi: In prosecutions for dishonour of cheques, a director can be made vicariously liable only on specific material showing responsibility for the conduct of the company's business, whereas mere status as a director is insufficient; a key managerial officer whose role is intrinsically connected with company finances may require trial to determine involvement.
Dishonour of Cheque - Vicarious liability of directors under the Negotiable Instruments Act - liability of independent/non-executive directors - liability of key managerial personnel and Chief Financial Officer (CFO) - protective limitation of liability for independent directors under the Companies Act, 2013 - quashing of summons in proceedings u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act - HELD THAT:- Section 149(6) Companies Act, 2013 thus, defines that an independent Director is a director who is not a Managing Director, Whole-Time Director, or Nominee Director, and who meets specific criteria related to integrity, expertise, who has / had no pecuniary relationship, other than remuneration as such Director, and independence from the Company’s promoters and Management. An independent director does not hold any security or interest in the Company or its subsidiary or associate company.
Apex Court in the case of K.S. Mehta vs. M/s Morgan Securities and Credits Pvt. Ltd. [2025 (3) TMI 255 - SUPREME COURT], wherein the Complaint lacked specific averments that would have established a direct nexus between the Appellants and the financial transactions in question or demonstrate their involvement in the Company’s financial affairs and the documents on record confirmed the non-executive status of the Appellants/Directors, underscoring their limited role in governance without any Executive decision-making authority. It was held that merely because the Appellants/Directors attended Board Meetings, does not automatically translate into control over financial operations. Hence, unless direct involvement of the Directors is established, they cannot be held vicariously liable under the Act, 1881.
In the present case, the Complaints themselves admit that payments were made to the Accused No. 1 Company, and not to any of the individual Petitioners. In view of aforesaid law and also considering that Petitioner Nos. 1, 3 and 4, namely, Mr. Ashwini Kumar Singh, Ms. Sunita Palta and Mr. Bhagwan Singh Duggal are Non-Executive Directors of the Company, they cannot be held in-charge / responsible for the day of day affairs of the Company. Therefore, Summoning Order dated 03.04.2018 passed Ld. MM in CC No. 9804/2017 is set aside and CC No. 9804/2017 under Section 138 NI Act is quashed against Petitioner Nos. 1, 3 and 4, namely, Mr. Ashwini Kumar Singh, Ms. Sunita Palta and Mr. Bhagwan Singh Duggal.
In so far as Petitioner No. 2, Mr. Darshan Singh Negi is concerned, the position is materially different. It is not disputed that he was the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of the Accused Company, at the relevant time. The role of a CFO, by its very nature, is intrinsically connected with the financial administration, accounting, and management of monetary transactions of the Company. Unlike Independent or Non-Executive Directors, a CFO forms part of the Key Managerial Personnel and is actively involved in the day-to-day financial affairs of the Company.
Petition is allowed partially and Summoning Order dated 03.04.2018 passed Ld. MM in CC No. 9804/2017 is set aside, and the proceedings under Section 138 NI Act against Petitioner Nos. 1, 3 and 4, namely, Mr. Ashwini Kumar Singh, Ms. Sunita Palta and Mr. Bhagwan Singh Duggal, is quashed.
However, there is no ground to quash the summoning Order against Petitioner No. 2, Mr. Darshan Singh Negi, which is upheld and the Petition viz-a-viz him, is hereby, dismissed.
TaxTMI