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ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether proceedings and seizure under section 129(3) could be sustained against a transporter where the goods were in transit, accompanying documents were produced, and the authorities subsequently released the goods to the consignor after accepting that shortfall arose from human error.
2. Whether a transporter can be held liable for tax evasion or treated as owner/dealer where no finding was recorded that the transporter was engaged in purchase and sale of goods or had intent to evade tax.
3. Whether amounts deposited pursuant to impugned seizure/detention orders must be refunded where those orders are quashed and no adverse material was brought against the transporter.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of proceedings and seizure under section 129(3) against the transporter where goods were released to consignor after finding shortfall attributable to human error.
Legal framework: Section 129(3) permits detention and confiscation of goods/vehicle where tax evasion or contravention is established; authorities may seize goods in transit and pass appropriate orders following physical verification and show-cause proceedings.
Precedent Treatment: No specific prior judicial precedents are referenced or applied in the judgment; the Court considered facts and statutory scheme as presented in the record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record shows that the vehicle and goods were intercepted in transit, documents were produced, and physical verification revealed a shortfall between cartons/boxes declared and those found on inspection. Authorities initially seized goods and vehicle and issued a detention order leading to an order under section 129(3). Subsequent proceedings resulted in release of the seized goods to the consignor after the consignor explained the shortfall as human error of labourers and the goods were released on payment equivalent to market price. The authorities recorded a categorical finding in the release order that the goods belonged to the owner/consignor.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where authorities, after inspection and proceedings, accept the consignor's explanation and release the goods to the consignor with a finding of ownership, maintaining seizure proceedings against the transporter without any adverse finding against the transporter is unsustainable. Obiter - observations about the causes of shortfall (human error) are factual findings here and support the ratio but are not generalized dicta beyond the case facts.
Conclusions: In the absence of any recorded finding that the transporter participated in or intended to effect tax evasion, and where authorities themselves released the goods to the consignor recognizing ownership, continuing to sustain seizure/proceedings against the transporter under section 129(3) cannot be upheld. The impugned order initiating or upholding such proceedings is liable to be quashed.
Issue 2: Liability of transporter absent finding of involvement in purchase/sale or intent to evade tax.
Legal framework: Liability under GST enforcement provisions against carriers/transporters ordinarily requires material linking the transporter to the alleged offence - e.g., participation in sale/purchase, ownership, or intent to evade tax; mere carriage for remuneration with proper documents does not automatically convert a transporter into owner/dealer.
Precedent Treatment: The Court did not rely on specific precedents; it applied statutory principles and fact-based scrutiny of the record to determine the absence of adverse material against the transporter.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record contains no finding that the transporter was engaged in purchase and sale of goods or had intent to evade tax. All documents were produced; the petitioner was a registered GST transporter charging transportation charges. The shortfall was explained by the consignor as a loading error. Given that authorities accepted the consignor's claim and released goods to the consignor, no adverse inference can be drawn against the transporter in the absence of independent incriminating evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a transporter who merely carries goods for consideration and produces requisite documents cannot be made liable for evasion where there is no recorded finding or material indicating he is a dealer/owner or had intent to evade. Obiter - implications for broader enforcement practice where simultaneous adverse findings against carriers are made without supporting material; such observations are not necessary to decide narrower factual dispute here but are indicated by the Court.
Conclusions: Proceedings against the transporter are unsustainable where the authorities themselves recognise ownership of goods in favour of consignor and no material is brought on record linking the transporter to tax evasion or trade in the goods. The vehicle cannot be lawfully seized and proceedings cannot be maintained against the transporter in such circumstances.
Issue 3: Refund of amounts deposited pursuant to impugned seizure/detention orders.
Legal framework: When enforcement orders are quashed as unsustainable, amounts deposited pursuant to those orders are ordinarily refundable in accordance with law; refund remedies follow from quashing of invalid seizures/detention orders.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents cited; Court applied normal restitution principles tied to quashing of impugned orders.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court quashed the impugned order against the transporter on the ground that no adverse material was recorded against him and the goods were released to the consignor. Given the quashing, there is no subsisting basis to retain amounts paid under the impugned order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - amounts deposited pursuant to quashed seizure/detention orders are to be refunded in accordance with law. Obiter - none relevant beyond application of ordinary restitution principles.
Conclusions: Any amount deposited by the petitioner pursuant to the impugned orders shall be refunded in accordance with law.
Cross-references and Interrelation of Issues
The disposition of Issues 1 and 2 are interdependent: the acceptance by authorities of the consignor's explanation and release of goods to the consignor (Issue 1) eliminates the factual predicate for holding the transporter liable (Issue 2). Issue 3 flows directly from the conclusions on Issues 1 and 2 - quashing of the impugned order mandates refund of deposits.
Seizure of goods - mismatch in the details of actual goods carried with that mentioned in the E-way bill - intent to evade tax present or not - HELD THAT:- The authority found that the goods belong to the consignor and the same have been released in their favour. The records shows that the authorities below have not recorded any finding against the petitioner, who is a transporter. No finding has been recorded that the transporter, i.e., the petitioner, is engaged in the business of purchase and sale of any goods. Once the consignor come forward with the case that due to human error of the labourer, less goods were loaded at night, the evasion of tax cannot be attributed to the petitioner, who is a transporter. Moreover, once the goods have been released to the consignor and in absence of any adverse material being brought on record against the transporter, the vehicle in question cannot be seized and no proceeding can be initiated against the petitioner.
The impugned order cannot be sustained in the eyes of law. The same is hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether interest and penalty could be imposed in the adjudication order when the show cause notice did not propose such levies, and whether the consequential demand and attachment orders were sustainable.
Analysis: The show cause notice for the relevant financial year proposed only tax recovery and did not contain any proposal for interest or penalty. The adjudication order nevertheless imposed interest and penalty, which was found to be contrary to Section 75(7) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, because the confirmed demand cannot travel beyond the grounds stated in the notice.
Conclusion: The order imposing interest and penalty beyond the notice was held unsustainable and was quashed. The attachment order was also quashed, and the matter was remitted to the adjudicating authority for fresh orders.
Ratio Decidendi: An adjudication order under the GST regime cannot confirm interest or penalty beyond what was proposed in the show cause notice, and any such order is liable to be set aside.
Dismissal of petitioner's appeal on the ground of delay - in the SCN there was no proposal for imposition of any interest or penalty - HELD THAT:- This Court is satisfied that the impugned order dated 29.08.2024 cannot be sustained being arbitrary and against the specific provisions, accordingly, it is quashed and set aside. Since the impugned orders have been set aside, the attachment order dated 11.09.2025 also stands quashed. The matter shall stand remitted to the adjudicating authority who shall pass fresh orders.
Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the impugned penalty order could sustain when the goods were accompanied by a tax invoice disclosing the registered dealer, and whether the penalty was required to be computed under Section 129(1)(a) rather than Section 129(1)(b) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: The goods were found accompanied by a tax invoice containing the particulars of the owner of the goods, who was a registered dealer. On the admitted facts, the only alleged infraction was non-accompaniment of the e-way bill. In such a situation, the proper statutory consequence was assessment of penalty under Section 129(1)(a) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The impugned order, having computed the penalty under Section 129(1)(b), was therefore not sustainable.
Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the authorities were directed to determine the penalty in accordance with Section 129(1)(a) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. Release of the goods was made available on deposit of the penalty quantified under that provision.
Levy of penalty u/s 129(1)(a) of the U.P. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - e-way bill not accompanying the goods - HELD THAT:- Whatever infringement may have been alleged for reason of e-way bill not accompanying the goods, it may have resulted in penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the U.P. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, only. However, the Adjudicating Authority has erroneously computed the penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(b) of the Act. On that issue, reliance has been placed on Halder Enterprises Vs. State of U.P. [2023 (12) TMI 514 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] where it was held that 'the order passed by the authorities dated October 19, 2023 is quashed and set aside. The authorities are directed to carry out the exercise in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the CGST Act within a period of three weeks from today.'
For reason of similar facts and there have been no other dispute, no useful purpose would be served in keeping the present petition pending or calling for counter affidavit at this state, let the writ petition be decided with the consent of the parties at the fresh stage - the impugned order dated 25.10.2025 is set aside with the direction upon the authorities to determine the quantum of penalty in accordance with Section 129(1)(a) of the Act within a period of three weeks from today.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the writ petitions challenging the show cause notices were liable to be entertained at the threshold or whether the petitioner should be relegated to reply before the adjudicating officer.
Analysis: The notices were issued by the proper officer after search and seizure proceedings during investigation. The objections based on alleged non-compliance with the statutory scrutiny procedure, absence of adequate opportunity, and the validity of the proposed demand were matters that could be raised in reply before the adjudicating officer. In these circumstances, and in view of the earlier course adopted in connected proceedings, no ground was made out to interfere at the show cause notice stage.
Conclusion: The challenge to the show cause notices was not entertained and the petitioner was relegated to raise all available factual and legal grounds before the adjudicating officer.
Final Conclusion: The writ petitions failed at the threshold and the petitioner was left to pursue the statutory adjudication process in response to the impugned notices.
Ratio Decidendi: A writ petition will ordinarily not be entertained against a show cause notice issued in the course of statutory investigation where the objections can be effectively raised before the adjudicating authority.
Validity of SCN which was preceded by a search on the premises of the petitioner during which certain documents/data were seized - seizure was without any panchanama, except loosely recording the documents in a piece of paper which were not even signed - HELD THAT:- The impugned show cause notices have been issued by the proper officer pursuant to the search and seizure proceedings carried out during investigation. The grounds of non-compliance of Section 61 of the Act or lack of enough opportunity to submit the documents upon search and seizure can all be taken before the adjudicating officer by the petitioner. Therefore, on the previous occasion, this Court had permitted the petitioner to withdraw the writ petition and to pursue the assessment proceedings by taking all grounds of facts and law as are available to it. In the circumstances, no different view should be taken.
The writ petitions are dismissed. The petitioner is at liberty to take all such available grounds of law and facts before the adjudicating officer in reply to the impugned show cause notices.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the impugned assessment order for the assessment year 2019-2020 is sustainable where the petitioner did not reply to antecedent notices and the petition challenging the order was filed belatedly.
2. Whether notifications issued under Section 168A of the Goods and Services Tax enactments, which alter reckoning of limitation by excluding or including the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022, are legally valid.
3. Whether a decision of the Principal Bench quashing the said notifications and directing exclusion of the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 is binding on the Court and necessitates quashing/remittal of the impugned assessment order.
4. Whether interim relief in the form of lifting attachment of the petitioner's bank account is appropriate pending re-assessment or further orders.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of the impugned assessment order where the petitioner failed to respond to notices and filed belatedly
Legal framework: Principles of writ jurisdiction and adjudicatory discipline require timely challenge to tax assessments and observance of statutory and procedural timelines; assessee's failure to respond to notices is relevant to merit but does not in itself oust judicial review.
Precedent Treatment: The Court acknowledged its ordinary practice of putting litigants "to terms" when petitions are belated or antecedent statutory opportunities were not availed; however, that practice is subject to exceptions where larger legal questions or binding precedents affect validity of impugned action.
Interpretation and reasoning: While the petitioner's non-response and delay would ordinarily militate against interference, the existence of an authoritative decision by the Principal Bench invalidating the governing notification on which the assessment relied requires substantive consideration overriding procedural strictness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - procedural default does not preclude relief where the impugned order rests on a provision/notification subsequently found vitiated by binding decision. Obiter - general remark that ordinarily the Court may have put the petitioner to terms.
Conclusions: The Court declined to dismiss on procedural grounds because the impugned assessment was premised on a notification that the Principal Bench quashed; thus procedural default was subordinated to the question of validity of the enabling notification.
Issue 2 - Legality of notifications under Section 168A altering limitation by treatment of the pandemic period
Legal framework: Section 168A (and related limitation provisions under the CGST Act) governs extension/curtailment or exclusion of limitation periods for initiation/completion of tax proceedings; orders under Article 142 and allied judicial pronouncements concerning relief during pandemic period bear on the computation of limitation.
Precedent Treatment: The Principal Bench's decision concluded that authorities shall benefit from exclusion of 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 pursuant to the Supreme Court order under Article 142; further, certain notifications (Nos.9 and 56 of 2023 in the cited order) were held vitiated on multiple grounds.
Interpretation and reasoning: The notifications were invalidated because they (a) diminished/curtailed limitation contrary to the object of Section 168A and the Supreme Court order; (b) rested on erroneous assumptions about scope/effect of the Supreme Court order; (c) extinguished vested rights of action by diminishing limitation and were arbitrary; (d) were issued without adequate materials and proper statutory process, including issuance prior to recommendations of the GST Council and relying on an improper recommending body.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - notifications that effectively curtail limitation or proceed on erroneous assumptions about higher court orders, or that are issued without statutory mandate or proper recommendation, are vitiated for being arbitrary and for extinguishing vested rights. Obiter - specific factual observations about the recommending body's identity and timing relative to Council recommendations.
Conclusions: The notifications altering computation of limitation in the manner criticized were quashed as illegal, arbitrary, and ultra vires the statutory scheme; exclusion of the pandemic period (15.03.2020-28.02.2022) for reckoning limitation was recognized as applicable in light of the Supreme Court order interpreted by the Principal Bench.
Issue 3 - Binding effect of the Principal Bench's order and consequence for the impugned assessment
Legal framework: Decisions of coordinate/binding benches of the same High Court, especially Principal Bench rulings, guide subsequent adjudication within the Court; where such a decision quashes a foundational notification, actions taken under that notification are susceptible to challenge.
Precedent Treatment: This Court followed the Principal Bench order in subsequent matters and applied its operative directions to the present petition; the Principal Bench's conclusions were applied to quash the impugned assessment order and remit for fresh consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the assessment order was grounded in the vitiated notification and because the Principal Bench had adjudicated the legality of that notification, the Court concluded that quashing the assessment and remitting the matter for fresh decision on merits was the appropriate remedy rather than dismissing for delay or procedural lapses.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a Principal Bench ruling invalidating a notification that underpins an assessment warrants quashing of assessments made thereunder and remittal for re-adjudication. Obiter - reference to this Court's practice of following that Principal Bench order in other cases.
Conclusions: The impugned assessment order was quashed and the matter remitted to the authorities to pass a fresh order on merits, applying the law as declared by the Principal Bench; the Court expressly left open respondents' right to proceed further in light of any final Supreme Court order in related proceedings.
Issue 4 - Appropriateness of lifting bank attachment pendente lite
Legal framework: Interim relief to lift attachment may be granted where impugned action is set aside or where continued attachment would cause irreversible harm and the court finds sufficient cause to vacate provisional measures.
Precedent Treatment: Having quashed the assessment order and remitted for fresh consideration, the Court treated the attachment as ancillary to the vitiated assessment action and directed immediate lifting.
Interpretation and reasoning: Continued attachment of bank accounts, after quashing the underlying assessment, would be unjustified and disproportionate; accordingly, the Court ordered attachment to be lifted forthwith without delay.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an underlying assessment is quashed, ancillary coercive measures (such as bank attachments) effected pursuant thereto should be lifted immediately. Obiter - none.
Conclusions: The attachment of the petitioner's bank account was ordered to be lifted immediately; no costs were imposed.
Cross-references and Ancillary Observations
The Court's relief rests on following the Principal Bench determination concerning the pandemic exclusion period and the invalidity of the notifications; the decision explicitly preserves the respondents' ability to re-prosecute the matter in conformity with the law and any ultimate pronouncement of the Supreme Court in pending related proceedings. The Court balanced procedural discipline against a controlling substantive ruling nullifying the foundation of assessment proceedings, giving precedence to rectifying the legal error over penalizing procedural delay.
Challenge to assessment order and notification issued u/s 168A of the Goods and Services Tax Enactments, 2017 - petitioner has not replied to the notices that proceeded the impugned order - extension of time limitation for adjudication of SCN - HELD THAT:- It is noticed that a detailed order has recently been passed by the Principal Bench of this Court in a batch of cases in M/s.Tata Play Limited vs. Union of India and others [2025 (7) TMI 772 - MADRAS HIGH COURT], wherein impugned notification issued under Section 168A of the Act has been quashed with certain directions.
This writ petition is disposed of by quashing the impugned assessment order and the case is remitted back to the respondents to pass fresh order on merits.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether refund applications under Section 19 of the IGST Act read with Section 77 of the CGST Act and Rule 89(1A) of the CGST Rules are barred by the two-year limitation prescribed in Section 54 of the CGST Act where tax was paid to Central Authorities (IGST) but subsequently also paid to State Authorities (CGST+SGST) because the supply was intra-State.
2. Whether Section 54 of the CGST Act and Rule 89(1A) are mandatory (ousting other remedies) or directory (permitting relief in appropriate cases), particularly where the tax was collected or paid without authority of law and Article 265 is invoked.
3. Whether the Central Authority can retain IGST undisputedly paid when the claimant has paid an identical tax amount to the State Authorities (application of unjust enrichment/restitution principles and Article 265).
4. Whether procedural irregularities by tax authorities (failure to issue deficiency memos under Rule 90(3), acceptance of applications/acknowledgements, denial on technical grounds) justify quashing orders rejecting refund claims as time-barred.
5. The proper remedy and direction where limitation objection was the sole ground for rejection and the authority did not decide refund on merits.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Limitation under Section 54/Rule 89(1A): Legal framework
Section 54 prescribes a two-year period to file refund applications "before the expiry of two years from the relevant date"; Rule 89(1A) prescribes that refund under Section 77/Section 19 be filed within two years from the date of payment of tax under the correct head (with transitional provision from date of notification).
Precedent treatment
The Court considered recent High Court decisions holding Rule 89(1A)/Section 54 to be directory in appropriate circumstances (e.g., Madras and Andhra High Courts) and the Gujarat High Court decisions applying the Limitation Act where tax was collected without authority of law. The judgment reviewed and followed the reasoning in those decisions rather than treating them as distinguishable.
Interpretation and reasoning
Textual reading of Section 54 ("may make application before two years") supports a directory character: the provision enables an assessee to make application within two years but does not rigidly oust relief beyond two years in appropriate cases. Rule 89(1A) prescribes filing periods but the statutory scheme (and the Rule 90(2)/(3) mechanism for completeness/deficiency notices) reflects that procedural steps and acceptance of documents by the proper officer affect reckoning of time. The Court also relied on notifications excluding COVID-period from computation of limitation, and administrative circulars clarifying the relevant date and applicability.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where tax has been indisputably paid to the Central Authority and then the identical tax paid to the State Authority because the supply was in fact intra-State, the limitation under Section 54/Rule 89(1A) is not an absolute bar; refund applications filed beyond two years may be entertained in appropriate cases (Section 54/Rule 89(1A) are directory in such contexts).
Obiter: Broader observations on the scope of Rule 89(1A) illustrations, and discussion of prospective vs retrospective operation of Supreme Court judgments, are persuasive but not essential to the core holding.
Conclusions on Issue 1
The impugned orders rejecting refund claims as barred by limitation are unsustainable; the refund applications are not barred by Section 54/Rule 89(1A) in the factual matrix where IGST was paid though the supply was intra-State and identical tax was paid to State Authorities. The matter is remitted for fresh consideration.
Issue 2 - Applicability of Article 265, payment without authority of law, and Limitation Act
Legal framework
Article 265 prohibits levy or collection of tax without authority of law. Where a charge is declared invalid (or tax collected without authority), restitution principles and Limitation Act provisions (e.g., Section 17 concerning relief from consequences of a mistake) are engaged.
Precedent treatment
The Court relied on High Court precedents (including Gujarat) holding that amounts collected without authority of law are not "tax" for purposes of the special statute's limitation and that Limitation Act principles may govern refund claims made under mistake of law; these precedents were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning
If payment to Central Authorities was made though the taxpayer was not liable to pay IGST (supply was intra-State), that payment is in substance a payment under mistake of law and the Central Authority cannot retain the identical amount also received by State Authorities. Article 265 and restitution/unjust enrichment principles require refund unless some other statutory bar applies. Where Revenue admits excess payment but relies solely on limitation, the statutory limitation cannot be mechanically invoked to preclude restitution in such circumstances.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where tax is paid without authority of law (or under a mistake of law) and the identical tax has been paid to the correct authority, the collector (Central Authority) is not entitled to retain the amount; restitution principles require refund and limitation under the special law does not necessarily defeat the claim.
Obiter: Detailed examples and cross-references to other authorities about interplay with appellate processes and taxation notifications are explanatory.
Conclusions on Issue 2
Central Authorities were not entitled to retain the IGST amounts undisputedly paid where the petitioner subsequently discharged the correct tax to State Authorities; refund on the basis of restitution/unjust enrichment is warranted subject to merits to be considered afresh by the authority.
Issue 3 - Procedural obligations, Rule 90(2)/(3) and administrative duty to assist
Legal framework
Rule 90(2)/(3) mandates scrutiny within 15 days and issuance of deficiency memo (Form RFD-03) if application is incomplete; CBDT/Central Board circulars and departmental circulars require officers to assist taxpayers, avoid dilatoriness in granting refunds and to facilitate rectification of defects.
Precedent treatment
The Court adopted the approach in Madras/Andhra decisions that procedural irregularities (failure to issue deficiency memo, issuance of show-cause without prior deficiency notice, inconsistent acceptance of documents) weigh against treating an application as belated.
Interpretation and reasoning
Where the officer accepted applications (acknowledgement) and in at least one instance processed the application after receiving documents at personal hearing, it was inconsistent and unfair for the authority to later contend that supporting documents were belated and that limitation began only when all documents were filed. Rule 90(3) required the officer to call for rectification; departmental circulars impose a duty to assist claimants. Failure to follow these procedures undermines reliance on limitation as a ground for rejection.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Procedural non-compliance by the proper officer (failure to issue deficiency memo and inconsistent acceptance of documents) vitiates a limitation objection and requires remand for fresh adjudication in accordance with Rule 90 and administrative guidance.
Conclusions on Issue 3
The impugned orders were procedurally flawed: the authority ought to have issued deficiency memos or acknowledged completeness consistently; it could not, after acceptance in part, adopt a contrary position to reject claims as time-barred. The matter is to be reconsidered after compliance with the prescribed procedure.
Issue 4 - Remedy and directions
Interpretation and reasoning
Given that the Central Authority did not decide refund claims on merits and limited itself to finding claims time-barred, and in view of admitted undisputed payments and relevant precedents and circulars, the appropriate remedy is to set aside the impugned rejection orders and remit the refund applications to the Central Authority for fresh consideration in accordance with law, rules and administrative circulars within a defined time frame.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Quashing limitation-based rejections and remitting for merit adjudication is the appropriate relief where payments are undisputed, procedural defects exist, and the statutory limitation is directory in the circumstances.
Conclusions on Issue 4
The impugned orders rejecting refund claims as barred by limitation are set aside. The Central Authority must reconsider and decide the refund applications on merits in accordance with Section 19/Section 77, Rule 89(1A), Rule 90, the Board circulars and Article 265/ restitution principles within the time directed by the Court (remittal period specified for administrative compliance).
Cross-references
See Issue 1 and Issue 2 (interplay between limitation provisions and Article 265/restitution); see Issue 3 for procedural preconditions that affect limitation reckoning; remedy in Issue 4 follows from conclusions in Issues 1-3.
Refund of tax wrongly/erroneously paid to the Central Authorities under the bona fide belief that it was Inter-State supply - rejection of refund on the ground that the refund application having been filed on 30.03.2024 was barred by limitation in terms of the provisions contained in Section 54 of the CGST Act - provisions contained in Section 54 of the CGST Act and Rule 89(1A) of the CGST Rules, 2017 are mandatory or directory - HELD THAT:- A plain reading of Section 77(1) of the CGST Act will clearly indicate that the taxpayer who pays tax to the Central Authority by oversight, inadvertence and erroneously, would be entitled to refund of the amount of taxes so paid in such manner and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed - A similar provision exists in the IGST Act which relates to Inter-State supply and Section 19(1) of the IGST Act also contemplates that, if an Integrated Tax on a supply considered by the taxpayer to be an Inter-State supply is subsequently held to be an Inter-State supply, such taxpayer shall be granted refund of the amount of integrated tax so paid in such manner and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed - Rule 89(1A) of the CGST Rules, 2017 stipulate that the refund claim under Section 77 of the CGST Act and Section 19 of the IGST Act would have to be made within a period of 2 years from the date of payment by filing an application in the prescribed format.
As can be seen from the aforesaid Statement of Objections, payment made by the petitioner towards IGST to the Central Authorities have not been disputed by the respondents, who on the other hand only merely contend that the refund claim of the petitioner is barred by limitation. In fact, respondent Nos. 2 and 3 also admit that the petitioner had made payment to the State GST Authorities subsequent to the payment made to the Central GST Authorities. It is therefore clear that respondent Nos. 2 and 3 have admitted that the petitioner had made such payment in favour of the Central GST Authorities towards IGST prior to making similar payment to the State GST Authorities.
As held by the High Court of Madras in Lenovo (India) Pvt. Ltd v. Joint Commissioner of GST [2023 (11) TMI 774 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] and the High Court of Andhra Pradesh in the case of M/s. Nspira Management Services Private Limited v. Assistant/Deputy Commissioner of Central Tax [2025 (10) TMI 107 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], Section 54 of the CGST Act and Rule 89(1A) of the CGST Rules, 2017 have been held to be directory and not mandatory. It is also significant to note that having regard to Article 265 of the Constitution of India, the respondent – Central GST authorities were not entitled to collect IGST form the petitioner, who was not liable to pay the same and consequently, upon the petitioner paying the same amount to the State GST authorities subsequently, the respondent–Centre was not entitled to retain the IGST and consequently, by applying the principles of restitution and unjust enrichment, the respondent – Centre was obligated to refund IGST back to the petitioner.
The impugned orders passed by respondent No. 3 holding that the refund claim is barred by limitation is contrary to facts and law and the same deserves to be set aside by holding that the refund application/claim of the petitioner is within time and is not barred by limitation.
Grant of refund in favour of the petitioner as sought for in the refund application filed by the petitioner - HELD THAT:- In this regard, it is pertinent to note that respondent No. 3 has not considered the refund claim of the petitioner nor passed any orders on the merits of the refund claim of the petitioner.
Thus, after having held that the petitioner is entitled to refund of the amount undisputedly paid by him towards IGST and having paid exactly the same/identical amount to the State GST Authorities, since respondent No. 3 has not passed any orders on merits, it is deemed just and appropriate to set aside the impugned orders by holding that the refund claim is not barred by limitation and remitting the matter back to respondent No. 3 for passing appropriate orders on the refund application in accordance with law within a stipulated time frame, bearing in mind the observations made in the body of this order.
It is held that the refund application/claim of the petitioner is not barred by limitation - The matters are remitted back to respondent No. 3 for passing appropriate orders on the refund application filed by the petitioner, bearing in mind the observations made in the body of this order and in accordance with law - petition allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Section 480(6) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (B.N.S.S.) applies to trials under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (Act of 2017) where the Act does not itself prescribe an alternative trial procedure.
2. Whether an accused in custody is entitled to release on bail under Section 480(6) B.N.S.S. where the trial (triable by Magistrate) is not concluded within sixty days from the first date fixed for taking evidence.
3. Whether the gravity or magnitude of an alleged economic offence involving large sums (hundreds of crores) can justify denial of bail under Section 480(6) even when the trial has not been concluded within the statutory period.
4. What reasons, and by whom, must be recorded if the Court refuses to release an accused under Section 480(6), and what is the evidentiary standard for attributing delay to the accused.
5. Whether order-sheet entries and the pace of trial, including absence of recorded reasons for delay and lack of attributable fault to the accused, warrant invoking Section 480(6) to protect speedy trial rights under Article 21.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of Section 480(6) B.N.S.S. to trials under the Act of 2017
Legal framework: Section 480(6) B.N.S.S. provides that if a trial triable by a Magistrate is not concluded within sixty days from the first date fixed for taking evidence, a person in custody throughout that period shall be released on bail unless the Magistrate records reasons to the contrary.
Precedent treatment: No provision in the Act of 2017 was pointed out by the prosecution excluding general procedural provisions (Cr.P.C. or B.N.S.S.). Prior decisions of this Court and Supreme Court interpreting analogous provisions (e.g., Section 437(6) Cr.P.C.) have been relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined whether the Act of 2017 contains any express procedural exclusion. None was identified. Consequently, general procedural safeguards in B.N.S.S. apply to trials under the Act where no contrary provision exists. The legislative purpose of Section 480(6) to secure speedy trial and protect liberty under Article 21 supports this application.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 480(6) B.N.S.S. is applicable to trials under the Act of 2017 in absence of express exclusion.
Conclusion: Section 480(6) applies to the instant trial under the Act of 2017.
Issue 2 - Entitlement to bail where trial not concluded within sixty days
Legal framework: Section 480(6) mandates release on bail if trial triable by Magistrate is not concluded within 60 days of first date for taking evidence and the accused remained in custody throughout, unless reasons are recorded to direct otherwise.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on the Supreme Court's interpretation of the corresponding Section 437(6) Cr.P.C. (liberal approach; grounds to refuse must be different and more weighty than initial-stage bail refusals) and coordinate-bench decisions applying Section 480(6) B.N.S.S.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where the prosecution had produced only 3 of 10 listed witnesses and two of those depositions remained incomplete after the 60-day period, and where order-sheets did not record reasons for delay or attribute delay to the accused, the statutory safeguard is engaged. The provision confines the right to those in custody throughout the period; the petitioner satisfied that condition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Non-conclusion of trial within 60 days without recorded reasons attributable to the accused triggers the presumption in favour of bail under Section 480(6).
Conclusion: The accused, being in custody through the statutory period and absent attributable delay, is entitled to bail under Section 480(6).
Issue 3 - Impact of alleged economic gravity (large-scale economic offence) on Section 480(6) entitlement
Legal framework: Section 480(6) sets a procedural benchmark; it allows refusal of bail only if the Magistrate records reasons to direct otherwise.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered authority where economic offences were distinguished on merits but emphasised that reasons to refuse under the statutory provision must be recorded and attributable to the accused. Reference was made to Manish Sisodia and related authorities where delay and trial pace informed bail decisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The magnitude of alleged economic loss is a relevant factor in assessing normal bail parameters, but it cannot substitute for the statutorily required recording of reasons for denying bail under Section 480(6). Absent any recorded justification in the trial court's order-sheets attributing delay to the accused or demonstrating need for continued custody, mere gravity of offence does not automatically bar application of Section 480(6).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Gravity alone, without recorded and attributable reasons for delay, does not justify denial of bail under Section 480(6).
Conclusion: The prosecution's contention regarding the scale of the alleged economic offence does not, by itself, justify refusing bail under Section 480(6) when no reasons for delay are recorded.
Issue 4 - Requirement to record reasons and standard for attributing delay to the accused
Legal framework: Section 480(6) requires that the Magistrate record reasons in writing if directing that the accused not be released despite non-completion of trial within sixty days.
Precedent treatment: Supreme Court authority on Section 437(6) Cr.P.C. (Subhelal @ Sushil Sahu) was followed for principles: reasons for refusal must be weightier and different from those at initial bail stage; liberal approach towards such bail applications; refusal permissible if delay is attributable to the accused or if prejudice/tampering risks exist.
Interpretation and reasoning: Recording of reasons promotes transparency, fairness and accountability. The reasons must demonstrate that delay is attributable to the accused or that other strong considerations (tampering, abscondence, prejudice) exist. Routine or general references to the seriousness of the offence are insufficient unless linked to specific prejudicial risks and recorded contemporaneously.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Mandatory written reasons are essential and must attribute delay or identify cogent prejudice to justify refusal under Section 480(6).
Conclusion: Absent recorded reasons on the trial court's order-sheets attributing delay to the accused or identifying concrete risks, the statutory safeguard mandates release on bail.
Issue 5 - Effect of trial record (order-sheets) and pace of trial on bail under Section 480(6)
Legal framework: Section 480(6) assesses entitlement based on non-conclusion of trial within sixty days and custody throughout; trial record evidence (order-sheets) informs whether reasons for delay exist and whether delay is attributable to accused.
Precedent treatment: Coordinate-bench decision granting bail where there was no likelihood of trial completion and absence of recorded reasons; referenced Supreme Court guidance favouring liberal approach where trial proceeds slowly and accused remains in custody a substantial period relative to maximum sentence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The trial court's order-sheets in the instant matter showed limited progress (only 3/10 witnesses produced; incomplete depositions), no recorded reasons for delay, and no attribution of blame to the accused. Under these circumstances, continuing custody merely because the case involves an economic offence would undermine the right to speedy trial and liberty safeguarded by the statute and Article 21.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - When court records show lack of progress and no recorded reasons attributing delay to the accused, Section 480(6) must ordinarily be invoked to grant bail.
Conclusion: The pace and content of the trial record justified invocation of Section 480(6) and grant of bail subject to conditions to protect the trial process.
Final Disposition (Court's Conclusion and Conditions)
Because the statutory conditions of Section 480(6) were met (trial not concluded within sixty days from first date fixed for taking evidence; accused in custody throughout; absence of recorded reasons attributing delay to the accused), the Court invoked Section 480(6) and ordered release on bail subject to specified safeguards (bond, sureties, non-tampering, passport deposition, attendance at hearings, periodic police station attendance), with non-compliance rendering bail liable to automatic cancellation.
Seeking grant of bail - petitioner is accused of economic offence involving hundreds of crores - applicability of Section 480(6) of B.N.S.S. - HELD THAT:- Section 480(6) of the B.N.S.S. deals with the general procedure when bail may be taken in non-bailable offences. In the instant matter, the petitioner is facing trial under the provisions of Section 132(1) (b) (c) (f) & (l) of the Act of 2017, which is a nonbailable offences and in order to ensure speedy trial in the cases which are otherwise triable by Magistrate, the legislature in its wisdom has inserted specific provision of Section 480(6) of B.N.S.S., so as to ensure the fulfillment of true spirit of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Such provision specifies that the right to release on bail even on non-completion of trial within a period of 60 days is confined only to such person, who were in custody during the whole period of the trial. In the instant case, the petitioner is in custody since 03.06.2024 and cognizance has been taken thereafter on 01.02.2025, therefore this Court thinks it proper to consider the question of applicability of Section 480(6) of B.N.S.S. in the instant matter.
Under these circumstances, where the prosecution has produced only three witnesses out of total 10 witnesses before the learned trial Court and out of those three witnesses only examination of one witness (PW-2) has been completed and the examination of other two witnesses (PW-1 & PW-3) is yet to be completed, a serious question arises with regard to liberty of the petitioner, whose earlier bail applications have been rejected and he has been left to remain behind the bars awaiting completion of trial and the perusal of the order-sheets of the learned trial Court does not reflect any urgency at the part of the learned trial Court. The order-sheets also do not reflect that the delay has been caused by or for the reasons attributable to the accused.
In the case of Manish Sisodia [2024 (8) TMI 614 - SUPREME COURT], where similar directions were given by the Hon'ble Supreme Court for expeditious trial was given with further liberty to approach the Court for fresh bail, question with regard to continuing the custody despite, trial being conducted at a snail's pace came into consideration of the Hon'ble Supreme Court and ultimately bail was granted by the Hon'ble Supreme Court.
Co-ordinate Bench of this Court has dealt with the provisions of Section 480(6) of B.N.S.S., in the case of Banwari Lal Kushwah [2024 (11) TMI 1549 - RAJASTHAN HIGH COURT] and it was observed that 'In the present case, as is evident from the order of the trial Court, the charges for offences punishable under Sections 420, 406 & 120B of IPC were framed on 31.05.204 and same are triable by the Magistrate. The first date for recording evidence was fixed on 14.06.2024 and 60 days completed soon on 13.08.2024.'
This Court is mindful of the fact that Section 480(6) of B.N.S.S. does not confer an absolute or infeasible right to bail, however, it provides a procedural safeguard against undue delay in trial.
In the present case, perusal of the order-sheets of the learned trial Court does not reveal any such reason recorded by the learned Court below for attributing the delay to the accused petitioner - Recording of reasons is deemed essential to ensure that transparency, fairness and accountability in decision-making processes are duly maintained.
This Court deems it just and proper to invoke the provisions of Section 480(6) of B.N.S.S. and to enlarge the petitioner on bail - bail application allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the deletion by the Tribunal of an addition under Section 69 (unexplained investments) was perverse when it was founded on a notarized agreement seized during a Section 133A survey.
2. Whether the Tribunal erred in accepting the assessee's claim of signing the notarized agreement under coercion (supported by complaints to government/police authorities) notwithstanding that those complaints had not reached finality.
3. Whether the Assessing Officer / DDIT was obliged to make further inquiries (including summons to parties and bank-trace investigation) under Section 250(4) or otherwise before making an addition based on the agreement, and whether remand for such inquiries was required.
4. Whether the Tribunal could treat the notarized agreement as null and void for income-tax assessment purposes despite no civil adjudication declaring the contract void under the Indian Contract Act.
5. Whether the Tribunal ignored the applicability of the "human probability" or preponderance of probabilities test appropriate in income-tax proceedings when deleting the addition.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of deletion of addition under Section 69 where a notarized agreement was seized in survey
Legal framework: Section 69 permits taxation of unexplained investments where an assessee is unable to account for funds; proof requires establishment of investment and source/flow of funds. Evidence seized in a Section 133A survey can be material for reopening under Section 147 if it discloses escapement of income.
Precedent treatment: The judgment records no reliance on or overruling of precedents; the authorities below evaluated evidentiary sufficiency on facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal (agreeing with CIT(A)) found the addition rested solely on the notarized agreement recovered from the assessee's mobile; the assessee admitted only a portion (Rs. 28,00,000) and disputed the balance. The authorities below emphasized that an uncorroborated agreement-particularly where bank transfers and third-party confirmations are alleged-does not by itself prove that the disputed amount was actually invested by the assessee. The AO/ DDIT did not summon the other parties or trace bank transfers to corroborate the asserted flow of funds; absent such corroboration, the alleged investment was not proved.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where material facts alleged in an agreement (bank transfers, recipient accounts) are not independently established by bank records or third-party statements, an addition under Section 69 cannot be sustained merely on the basis of the agreement found in survey. Obiter - descriptive remarks about the agreement being a "dump document" in the specific factual matrix.
Conclusions: The deletion of the addition on the ground of inadequate corroboration of the alleged transactions was upheld as a conclusion of fact; the Tribunal and CIT(A) findings are concurrent and permissible.
Issue 2 - Acceptance of coercion plea absent finality of complaints
Legal framework: Allegations of coercion affecting the validity or probative weight of a document are matters of fact and may be supported by contemporaneous complaints or other evidence; criminal or administrative complaints need not reach final adjudication to be relevant to credibility, though corroboration strengthens the claim.
Precedent treatment: No precedents cited; appellate bodies assessed probative value of the complaints and surrounding circumstances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee had filed complaints with PMO, Home Ministry and police prior to the survey, alleging coercion in signing the agreement. The Tribunal considered these complaints and the absence of contrary material as corroborative of the assessee's contention that the agreement was not voluntarily acted upon. Given the absence of bank evidence or third-party confirmations, the complaints contributed to reasonable doubt about the veracity and operability of the agreement's disputed part.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - contemporaneous complaints and the lack of contrary documentary proof can be material to discredit the unilateral probative value of a seized agreement; acceptance of coercion as a factual inference is within the appellate authorities' domain. Obiter - commentary on the administrative channels pursued by the assessee.
Conclusions: The Tribunal did not err in treating the complaints as relevant to the credibility of the agreement; lack of finality of those complaints did not preclude reliance upon them as part of the factual matrix.
Issue 3 - Duty to investigate bank transactions / remit to AO under Section 250(4)
Legal framework: The AO/DDIT has powers to investigate and corroborate alleged transactions (e.g., bank records, summons to third parties); Section 250(4) permits the first appellate authority to direct further enquiries or remit matters to the AO for report where necessary.
Precedent treatment: The judgment records the parties' contentions on remand but does not cite authority altering the usual exercise of appellate/assessment powers.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the AO had already considered and reproduced the agreement in the assessment order; a second opportunity for the AO to re-examine the same material was unwarranted. The core investigative steps (summoning other parties, tracing bank transfers) were not undertaken prior to making the addition; however, the Tribunal concluded that remand was unnecessary because the AO had already scrutinized the agreement and failed to produce corroborative evidence. The Tribunal therefore preferred adjudication on the existing record rather than remitting for further inquiry.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the AO has already examined the instrument and made an addition on its basis, mere potential for further inquiries does not automatically require remand; appellate authority may uphold deletion where the record lacks necessary corroboration and AO has had opportunity to investigate. Obiter - remarks on what the AO "should have" done as investigative steps.
Conclusions: No remand was required in the circumstances; the Tribunal properly exercised its appellate function in declining to give the AO a "second inning" and in deciding the matter on the record that lacked corroborative bank and third-party evidence.
Issue 4 - Treating a notarized agreement as null and void absent civil adjudication
Legal framework: Voidness of contracts under the Indian Contract Act is ordinarily a question for civil adjudication; however, for income-tax purposes, the material efficacy of an agreement (whether it had practical operation or resulted in transfers) is a factual inquiry distinct from formal declaration of nullity by a civil court.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedents cited; appellate authorities distinguished legal nullity from practical non-materialization of transactions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal characterized the notarized agreement as having "become null and void" in the sense that the alleged transactions were not executed and the amounts did not reflect in the parties' balance sheets; the agreement remained on paper and was not materialized. The Tribunal's finding addresses substantive non-performance and lack of factual foundation for taxing the alleged investments rather than pronouncing a formal legal nullity under contract law.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - for taxation, an agreement that has not resulted in actual transfers or reflected in accounts may be treated as inoperative for the purposes of establishing unexplained investment; formal civil pronouncement of voidness is not a precondition for denying taxability where the facts show non-materialization. Obiter - language suggesting the Tribunal "declared" the agreement null and void must be read as factual finding about non-materialization, not as a legal adjudication under the Contract Act.
Conclusions: The Tribunal's treatment of the agreement as ineffectual for tax assessment purposes is a factual finding supported by absence of corroboration; it does not require a prior civil declaration of contractual nullity.
Issue 5 - Application of human probability / preponderance of probabilities test
Legal framework: Income-tax proceedings apply standards of probability and assessment of evidentiary weight; the preponderance test (human probabilities) is relevant in evaluating competing factual narratives where direct proof is lacking.
Precedent treatment: The judgment references the Revenue's contention regarding the human probability test but resolves the matter on concurrent factual findings without engaging in novel precedent analysis.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied probative evaluation of the totality of evidence: admitted portion of investment supported by books (Rs. 28,00,000) versus large disputed portion unsupported by banking evidence or third-party statements. Given the absence of corroboration and the presence of complaints alleging coercion, the preponderance of probabilities did not favour sustaining the large addition. The Tribunal found the Revenue's reliance on human probability insufficient to overcome the lack of documentary and testimonial corroboration.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - in income-tax assessment, where documentary corroboration of alleged transfers is absent and the competing narrative (non-materialization/coercion) is reasonably supported, the preponderance test does not mandate an addition. Obiter - observations on investigative diligence that could have been employed.
Conclusions: The Tribunal's factual determination, applying preponderance of probabilities to the available evidence, was permissible; the human probability test did not require sustaining the addition in the circumstances.
OVERALL CONCLUSION
The concurrent factual findings of the CIT(A) and the Tribunal that the disputed portion of the notarized agreement was not substantiated by bank evidence or third-party confirmations, and that the assessee's complaints and admissions cast doubt on the agreement's operation, are sustainable. No substantial question of law arises from the impugned orders; the appeal is devoid of merit and is rejected. (The Court's reasoning distinguishes factual non-materialization of an agreement for tax purposes from legal nullity requiring civil adjudication and upholds the Tribunal's refusal to remit the matter for further enquiry where the AO had already examined the instrument.)
Addition u/s 69 - addition was made on the basis of incriminating details/document i.e notarized agreement recovered during the survey proceedings - CIT(Appeals) deleted the addition made by the AO on the count that no investigation was made by the DDIT / Assessing Officer to corroborate the details mentioned in the notarized agreement.
HELD THAT:- AO / DDIT has only considered and analyzed the agreement and based upon the agreement has made the impugned addition without issuing any summon to the third party to ascertain whether the contents of the agreement were true or not. The Tribunal also considered the fact that the respondent – assessee had filed complaint against the third party to the agreement before the PMO and the Home Ministry before the date of survey alleging that the assessee was made to sign the agreement under coercion which proves that the assessee was really coerced into signing the agreement. The CIT (Appeal) and the Tribunal, therefore, has rightly deleted the addition made on the basis of such notarized agreement without any corroboration of the bank transactions showing flow of funds from the assessee to the other parties. No substantial question of law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the assessment order framed under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B is sustainable where a show cause notice was issued and the assessee sought an extension to file a reply which was not entertained before passing the order.
2. Whether non-consideration of an application for extension to file response and passing of the assessment before communicating refusal amounts to violation of principles of natural justice.
3. Whether the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is maintainable when statutory remedies (appeal/revision) are available, particularly where alleged breaches of procedure or natural justice are relied upon.
4. Whether the impugned order should have been framed under Section 144 (best judgment assessment) instead of Section 143(3), and the legal consequences of choosing one provision over the other.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of assessment under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B where an extension-request remained ungranted
Legal framework: Assessments under Sections 143(3) and 144B must comply with statutory limitation (Section 153) and afford reasonable opportunity to the assessee to respond to show cause notices and queries raised during proceedings initiated by a notice under Section 143(2) / Section 142(1).
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on established principles that where a statutory scheme provides remedies, those remedies must ordinarily be pursued; however, recognized exceptions permit writ jurisdiction where there is a total violation of statutory provisions or principles of natural justice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the timeline: initiation after return filing, initial response with annexures, further queries with a due date, a subsequent show cause notice with a short reply window, and an application by the assessee for an extension due to the accountant's illness. The authority passed the assessment before the expiry of statutory limitation but without formally refusing the extension or affording a further opportunity to reply. The Court found that, despite some delay by the assessee in responding to an earlier query, the cumulative conduct showed participation and a request for extension that should have been considered before an order was passed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An assessment passed without considering or communicating refusal of a specific, timely request for further opportunity to reply to a show cause notice constitutes a breach affecting the validity of the order. Obiter - Observations on the assessee's earlier marginal delay, and on the general adequacy of opportunity afforded during the entire proceeding.
Conclusion: The assessment framed under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B is unsustainable insofar as it was passed without deciding the extension request and without affording the alleged opportunity; viability of the assessment requires remand for fresh consideration.
Issue 2 - Violation of principles of natural justice by not communicating refusal of extension before passing the order
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice require that when a party seeks further time to present material in response to a statutory notice, the authority must either grant the time or communicate refusal so the party can take appropriate steps; an order passed without such communication may be vitiated.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated prior authorities as recognizing that a complete non-observance of fair procedure or a total violation of natural justice are exceptions justifying interference notwithstanding available statutory remedies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that if the department intended to reject the extension request, it should have informed the assessee that the request was not feasible and that the assessment would proceed within statutory limitation. Passing the order without such communication deprived the assessee of the opportunity to make submissions or to pursue other remedial steps in time, amounting to a breach of natural justice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Failure to inform the appellant of refusal of an extension and proceeding to pass the assessment during the requested extension period is a breach of natural justice rendering the order liable to be quashed. Obiter - Remarks on what adequate communication should contain and the interplay with limitation provisions.
Conclusion: There was a violation of principles of natural justice; the impugned order is quashed and remitted for fresh consideration after providing a proper opportunity or communicating refusal of the extension.
Issue 3 - Maintainability of writ jurisdiction given availability of statutory alternative remedies
Legal framework: Writ jurisdiction is discretionary where effective statutory remedies exist (appeal to appellate authorities). Exceptions permit writ relief when statutory machinery is illusory, when there is total non-compliance with statutory provisions, or when there is a gross violation of natural justice.
Precedent treatment: The Court acknowledged authorities holding that where an effective alternative remedy exists, a writ petition should ordinarily be rejected, but also recognized established exceptions permitting writ intervention in cases of procedural or fundamental illegality.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court weighed the Department's submission that statutory appellate remedy exists against the factual finding of procedural unfairness and breach of natural justice in the assessment process. Given the identified breach (see Issue 2), the Court found the exception applicable and entertained the writ petition to prevent perpetuation of the procedural defect.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Writ jurisdiction is maintainable in the presence of a clear breach of principles of natural justice even though statutory remedies are available. Obiter - General discussion on the adequacy/efficacy of statutory remedy when not strictly a mere formality.
Conclusion: Writ relief was appropriately entertained due to the demonstrated breach of natural justice; the existence of statutory remedies did not preclude interference in these circumstances.
Issue 4 - Choice of provision: whether the order should have been passed under Section 144 (best judgment) rather than Section 143(3)
Legal framework: Section 144 governs best judgment assessments where the assessee has not cooperated; Section 143(3) is for regular assessments. Correct classification matters for procedural fairness and legal sustainability of the order.
Precedent treatment: The Court noted that an order alleging non-cooperation should ordinarily be recorded under Section 144 if the statutory conditions for best judgment assessment are satisfied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Department characterized the assessee as non-cooperative but framed the assessment under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B. The Court observed this mismatch in classification and treated it as an additional factor rendering the impugned order unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An assessment order premised on non-cooperation should properly invoke the provisions governing best judgment assessment; mischaracterization can vitiate the order. Obiter - The Court's comments on the proper procedure to record non-cooperation and on departmental practice.
Conclusion: The impugned order was unsustainable on this ground as well; remand for fresh consideration under the correct provision (if appropriate) was ordered.
Relief and Direction (Final Disposition)
The impugned assessment order is quashed for violation of natural justice and procedural mischaracterization; the matter is remitted to the assessing authority to pass fresh orders after giving a proper opportunity to the assessee, preferably within six months. The Court directed that, had the department intended to reject the extension sought, such rejection should have been communicated so that the assessee could have taken steps in light of the statutory limitation.
Assessment u/s 144 or u/s 143 (3) read with 144 (b) - HELD THAT:- In this case there has been an violation of principles of natural justice as the proceedings itself commenced only on 28.06.2022. Although there was marginal delay on the part of the petitioner to respond to the notice issued u/s 143 (2), the fact remains that the petitioner had remained responded to the same on 17.11.2022 with annexures. Thereafter, certain other queries were raised on 21.11.2022 fixing the due date as 28.11.2022, which was not responded to by the petitioner and therefore, the show cause notice dated 07.12.2022 was issued.
It is the case of the Department that the petitioner has not cooperated with the respondents. Even otherwise, the impugned order should also have been passed u/s 144 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 whereas the impugned order has been passed u/s 143 (3) r/w 144 (b). Therefore, the impugned order is unsustainable. Therefore, it is liable to be quashed. Accordingly, it is quashed and the case is remitted back to the first respondent to pass fresh orders as expeditiously as possible preferably within a period of six months.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an intimation under section 143(1)/(1)(a) that makes an adjustment based on a tax-audit mismatch, without providing a prior opportunity to the assessee, is beyond jurisdiction or unsustainable where the adjustment concerns actuarial gain on gratuity routed through Other Comprehensive Income (OCI).
2. Whether actuarial gains/losses on gratuity liability recognized under Ind AS as Other Comprehensive Income (OCI) and reflected in the tax-audit report under clause 16(d) as "Amount not credited to Profit & Loss account - any other item of income" form part of taxable business income for computation under "Profits and gains of business or profession".
3. Whether prior inconsistent treatment (inclusion for MAT computation u/s 115JB in earlier years) is determinative to treat the actuarial gain as taxable in the current year when the assessee follows Ind AS and claims deduction on actual payment basis.
4. Whether interest under section 244A is payable up to the actual date of grant of refund (and requires recomputation) where the Central Processing Centre (CPC) computed refund only up to the date of intimation u/s 143(1).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Jurisdictional validity of section 143(1) intimation adjustment without opportunity
Legal framework: Section 143(1)/(1)(a) permits processing of returns and certain adjustments based on prescribed data and tax-audit particulars; principles of natural justice and jurisdictional limits constrain adjustments that change declared total income without an opportunity to explain.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the nature of the adjustment (actuarial gain on gratuity reflected in tax-audit report) and the statutory processing by CPC. It held that while CPC issued an intimation effecting an adjustment, the substantive question was whether the adjustment rightly formed part of taxable income. The Tribunal did not rest its decision on a procedural defect alone but considered substantive accounting and tax principles to determine whether the adjustment could be sustained.
Precedent treatment: No specific authority was overruled or distinguished on the jurisdictional point; the Tribunal resolved the issue on merits rather than invalidating the intimation solely for lack of opportunity.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an intimation under section 143(1) that adjusts income must be supportable on legal and accounting principles; if the underlying addition is unsustainable on merits, intimation-based addition cannot be upheld.
Conclusion: The challenge to the intimation succeeds on merits; the addition made by CPC under section 143(1) is not sustained because the actuarial gain routed through OCI does not impact taxable income computation.
Issue 2: Taxability of actuarial gain/loss on gratuity routed through OCI under Ind AS (AS-19/Ind AS-19 considerations)
Legal framework: Ind AS/Accounting Standards classify actuarial gains/losses on employee benefits and may route them to Other Comprehensive Income (OCI). Income-tax computation for business income commences from "net profit before tax" as per usual practice, followed by specified adjustments; deductible treatment of gratuity under section 43B is on actual payment basis.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that actuarial valuation changes arise from changes in actuarial assumptions (age, service period etc.) and are accounting entries reflecting notional adjustments; when routed to OCI (below net profit before tax) they do not form part of profit and loss for computing taxable business income. Further, as the assessee claims deduction for gratuity on actual payment basis, actuarial fluctuations not credited to P&L cannot impact taxable income. The Tribunal examined year-wise treatment showing earlier years' increases paid to fund and earlier decreases not separately offered to tax, establishing a consistent accounting policy under Ind AS-19.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the substance of AS/Ind AS guidance rather than invoking contrary judicial precedents; lower authorities' reliance on the CPC adjustment was not followed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - actuarial gains/losses recognized in OCI under Ind AS do not constitute taxable income for computation under "profits and gains of business or profession" where (i) they are not routed through P&L, and (ii) deduction for gratuity is governed by actual payment principles (section 43B), so notional actuarial changes are not taxable.
Conclusion: The actuarial gain of Rs. 37,21,235 (not credited to P&L but shown in OCI and disclosed under clause 16(d) of Form 3CD) cannot be added to taxable income; the Tribunal allowed the grounds challenging the addition.
Issue 3: Effect of earlier inclusion for MAT (section 115JB) on current-year taxability
Legal framework: MAT under section 115JB can require certain book adjustments for computing alternate minimum tax; however, MAT treatment does not necessarily determine taxable income under the normal provisions where the assessee has adopted Ind AS and follows payment-based deduction rules.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal acknowledged that the assessee had considered actuarial items for MAT computation in earlier years but observed that the assessee had consistently followed an Ind AS-based policy of routing actuarial gains/losses to OCI and not including them in normal income computation. The fact that the item was considered for MAT in years when MAT applied, and is not applicable under the opted tax regime (115BAA) in the year under consideration, does not automatically convert OCI items into taxable income under the normal provisions.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treated earlier MAT treatment as evidencing accounting consistency rather than as a binding estoppel converting OCI items into taxable income for normal assessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - prior inclusion for MAT does not by itself mandate inclusion of Ind AS-OCI actuarial gains in taxable income under normal provisions when the assessee follows payment-based deduction rules and the gains are not credited to P&L.
Conclusion: Earlier MAT treatment is not determinative to sustain the addition; the actuarial gain was correctly excluded from taxable income in the assessment and must remain excluded.
Issue 4: Computation of interest under section 244A on refund - extent and direction for recomputation
Legal framework: Section 244A entitles an assessee to interest on refunds from the first day of April of the assessment year to the date of actual payment of the refund, at the prescribed monthly rate; this is a statutory entitlement independent of CPC intimation dates.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that where CPC determined refund amount only up to the date of intimation under section 143(1), statutory interest must nonetheless be computed up to the actual date of payment of refund. The Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to recompute interest under section 244A accordingly.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal expressly directed recomputation based on the ratio of decisions of higher courts addressing entitlement to interest till actual refund payment; those authorities were relied upon to support broader interest computation (though specific citations are not reproduced here per instructions).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - interest under section 244A must be computed up to the date of actual refund payment; where initial processing/intimation dates are used by CPC, the Assessing Officer must recompute interest to reflect statutory entitlement.
Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the ground relating to interest and directed recomputation of interest under section 244A up to the date of payment of refund.
Adjustments proposed u/s. 143(1)(a) -addition on account of mismatch with tax audit report being gain on actuarial valuation of gratuity liability routed through 'Other Comprehensive Income', which is below the line item of Net Profit before tax and thus does not have any impact on the tax computation - HELD THAT:- On perusal of AS-19, it is noted that changes to actuarial valuation can be because of changes in the assumption for such valuation like average age of the employees, period of service etc. Therefore, this falls under the category of “Other Comprehensive Income” which does not impact the real income of the assessee. In any event, the assessee is claiming deduction on payment basis only and, therefore, any increase or decrease in the amount of gratuity as per actuarial valuation which is not routed through P&L A/c, cannot have any impact on the taxable income of the assessee. We, therefore, we do not find any basis for the addition to be sustained.
Short grant of interest u/s 244A till the actual date of grant of refund - We direct the AO to re-compute interest u/s 244A of the Act till the date of payment of refund as relying on NOKIA SOLUTIONS [2024 (9) TMI 1683 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and GROUP M MEDIA INDIA PRIVATE LIMITED [2023 (12) TMI 1045 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether amounts received by an individual from a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) of which he is Karta/ member are taxable as "income from other sources" under the provisions invoked by the Assessing Officer or are exempt as withdrawals of own contribution/ assets of the HUF.
2. Whether cash found during search and seizure proceedings in the assessee's residence constitutes unexplained cash taxable as income, and whether such cash should be taxed at the higher rate under the provision for specified income (referred to by the Tribunal as section 115BBE), or may be excluded/ deleted on the basis of explained sources and telescoping against declared income.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Taxability of amounts received from HUF
Legal framework - The Assessing Officer treated receipts from HUF as taxable under the provisions dealing with receipts from non-relatives (the AO relied on the scope of "relatives" under the provisions referred to in the record, specifically section 56(2)(x)(a) read with 56(2)(vii) as mentioned in the order). The Tribunal considered the exemption principle invoked in the impugned order material, namely that amounts withdrawn by a member from HUF resources are not taxable as income of the member.
Precedent treatment - The Tribunal followed earlier decisions of the Appellate Tribunal which were placed on record (decisions examined in detail and cited in the papers) holding that HUF is a group of relatives and that money/asset received from an HUF by a member is not taxable because it represents withdrawal of the member's own resources contributed to the HUF (the Tribunal expressly relied on those ITAT precedents).
Interpretation and reasoning - The Tribunal reasoned that a sum received from the HUF by a member is effectively a withdrawal of the member's own contribution to the HUF and thus falls outside the taxing provision relied upon by the AO. The order treats the principle as one where HUF distributions to members are not exigible as income in the hands of the member under the specific provisions invoked by the AO.
Ratio vs. Obiter - Ratio: The holding that amounts received from HUF by a member are not taxable as income in the hands of the member (being withdrawal of his own funds) and therefore additions made by the AO on that basis are incorrect. The reliance on the prior ITAT rulings is treated as directly decisive (ratio). No separate obiter on broader interpretive points is recorded.
Conclusion - The Tribunal set aside the addition made in respect of the amount received from the HUF and allowed the ground of appeal on this issue, concluding that the AO erred in treating the receipt as taxable.
Issue 2: Treatment of cash found during search - explained source, telescoping, and higher rate under section referred to as 115BBE
Legal framework - The AO treated cash found in the assessee's residence as unexplained and made additions, partly applying the proposition that specified incomes are subject to a higher rate (referred to in the record as section 115BBE). The assessee contended that the amounts were from explained sources and that declared income for the relevant years could cover the cash found.
Precedent treatment - The Tribunal did not reference authority overruling the AO on the higher-rate provision but applied factual and evidentiary reasoning (and the established concept of telescoping) to assess whether the cash was unexplained.
Interpretation and reasoning - The Tribunal noted the assessee's substantial declared incomes in the two relevant accounting periods (figures given in the record: ~Rs.75.84 lakhs and ~Rs.111.00 lakhs) and held that these figures indicate sufficient sources to account for the cash found. The Tribunal reasoned that where declared income of the assessee is large and no other incriminating additions or adjustments have been made by the AO from search material, benefit of telescoping can be afforded against declared income. Accordingly the Tribunal treated a part of the cash as explained by the assessee's available declared resources and allowed deletion of the impugned addition. The Tribunal also observed that the AO himself allowed benefit of Rs. 2,50,000 on account of cash found from the son, treating that portion as explained.
Ratio vs. Obiter - Ratio: Where substantial declared income exists and no specific incriminating material or other additions arise from search, the principle of telescoping may be applied to allow explained-source treatment for cash found in the assessee's possession, leading to deletion of additions. Obiter: The order does not engage in a detailed statutory construction of the higher-rate provision (section 115BBE as invoked) and does not lay down a general rule limiting application of that provision; it decides the matter on facts and telescoping.
Conclusion - The Tribunal deleted the addition of cash found in the relevant year on the basis that declared income provided adequate source and telescoping was appropriate; the addition and implied application of the higher rate provision were not sustained.
Cross-reference and overall disposition
The Tribunal treated the two issues together insofar as both concerned characterization of receipts found or received in search-affected assessments. It followed earlier Tribunal precedents on HUF withdrawals and applied telescoping against substantial declared income to treat the cash found as explained. In consequence, both impugned additions were deleted and both appeals were allowed.
Levy of rate of tax at higher rate u/s 115BBE - AO has held that gift received from the HUF is taxable because HUF does not fall within the ambit of definition of ‘Relatives’ provided in Section 56(2)(x)(a) read with 56(2)(vii) - cash found from the residence of the assessee
HELD THAT:- HUF is a group of relatives and any money/asset received from HUF is exempt u/s 10(2) of the Act. It is not taxable because it has been withdrawn by the member of the HUF from his own resources contributed in the HUF. We are of the view that ld. AO has erred in making the additions. Accordingly, we allow this ground of appeal and delete the additions. See SHRI GYANCHAND M. BARDIA BARDIA MANSION, KAPASI [2022 (3) TMI 1243 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] andSHRI PANKIL GARG [2019 (9) TMI 337 - ITAT CHANDIGARH].
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether sale proceeds of shares received through stock-exchange transactions, reflected in demat account and paid through banking channels, can be treated as unexplained cash credit under section 68 when the scrip is alleged to be a "rigged" penny stock identified in an investigation report, absent direct evidence linking the assessee to manipulation or entry operators.
2. Whether exemption under section 10(38) for long-term capital gains can be denied and entire sale consideration treated as taxable on the basis of departmental investigation reports and SEBI findings about the scrip, without specific evidence of the assessee's conscious involvement in price rigging.
3. Whether an ad hoc addition of commission (2% of sale proceeds) is sustainable where no evidence demonstrates that services justifying such commission were rendered to the assessee.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Treating sale proceeds as unexplained cash credit under section 68 where scrip is alleged to be a rigged penny stock
Legal framework: Section 68 provides that unexplained cash credits can be added to the income of the assessee where the assessee fails to satisfactorily explain the nature and source of such credits. The burden initially lies on the assessee to explain the credit; if discharged, the burden shifts to the revenue to rebut explanations with cogent evidence of falsehood or concealment.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on High Court and Tribunal precedents holding that mere dubbing of a scrip as a penny or rigged stock in investigative/SEBI reports, without direct evidence linking the taxpayer to price rigging, entry operators or brokers, does not justify additions under section 68. Authorities referenced include decisions which refuse to infer involvement on the basis of human probabilities alone where transactions occurred through exchange, STT was paid, payments were by banking channels and shareholding reflected in demat accounts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the basis of the addition and found the assessment rested on the Investigation Wing's general modus operandi for penny stocks rather than any direct nexus between the assessee and the alleged racket. The assessee's transactions were on-exchange, STT-paid, documented and evidenced in demat and banking records. No material was produced to show dealings with entry providers, brokers or that the assessee knowingly participated in manipulation. The revenue applied presumptions and "concept of human probabilities" without producing corroborative evidence against the assessee.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a taxpayer's share transactions are recorded on exchange, payments are through banking channels, STT is paid and the shares are reflected in demat account, the revenue cannot, on the basis of an external report identifying a scrip as a penny/rigged stock, treat the sale proceeds as unexplained cash credit under section 68 absent direct evidence implicating the taxpayer. Obiter - observations on the general functioning of penny-stock scams as described in the investigation report (used only to contextualize revenue's approach).
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 11,84,000 as unexplained cash credit under section 68 is arbitrary and unsustainable for lack of direct evidence linking the assessee to rigging/entry operators; the assessee is to be treated as an unsuspecting investor and the addition is deleted.
Issue 2: Denial of exemption under section 10(38) for long-term capital gains based on investigative/SEBI findings
Legal framework: Section 10(38) exempts long-term capital gains arising from transfer of equity shares where conditions (like STT payment) are satisfied. Denial requires establishment that gains are bogus or part of tax-evasion scheme attributable to taxpayer's conscious involvement.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on decisions where courts/tribunals upheld exemption or deleted additions where the department failed to show any material connecting the taxpayer to rigging or manipulative conduct, despite investigative findings against the scrip or other market participants.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the assessee had disclosed the transaction in return, paid STT, and had documentary trace (exchange trades, demat entries, banking payments), and because revenue produced no direct evidence of the assessee's willful participation in manipulation, denial of section 10(38) exemption was not justified. The assessment's reliance on an investigative report without individualized proof was insufficient to negate statutory exemption.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - investigative or SEBI findings against a scrip do not automatically render a taxpayer's LTCG ineligible for exemption under section 10(38); specific evidence is required to show the taxpayer's conscious involvement in creating bogus gains. Obiter - comparative citations supporting the principle that absence of evidence of nexus with entry operators or brokers is fatal to additions.
Conclusion: Denial of exemption under section 10(38) on the present facts is unsustainable; the LTCG claim stands, and the addition made on that account is deleted (cross-ref Issue 1).
Issue 3: Validity of ad hoc addition of commission (2% of sale proceeds) without demonstration of services
Legal framework: Additions for unexplained expenditure or fees require a factual foundation showing that payments were made for services or that such payments are sham/contrived; arbitrary percentages applied without evidence contravene principles of reasoned assessment.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied the same evidentiary standards used in preceding issues and relied on principles rejecting arbitrary additions where the revenue fails to substantiate alleged service provision or nexus for commission claims.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessing officer made an ad hoc 2% addition as commission without demonstrating that any service was rendered to or procured by the assessee justifying such payment. In absence of evidence of brokerage or service agreements or routing through suspicious parties, the addition was treated as arbitrary. Because the principal addition (sale proceeds) was deleted for lack of evidence of sham transaction, the ancillary commission addition similarly lacked foundation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - ad hoc commission additions unsupported by evidence of services or contractual/vendor relationships are arbitrary and unsustainable. Obiter - reference to proportionality and corroboration requirements in making expenditure additions.
Conclusion: The ad hoc addition of Rs. 23,680 as commission is arbitrary and deleted (see also Issues 1-2; answering of Additional Ground No.3 in favour of assessee makes remaining grounds academic).
Cross-references and General Conclusions
1. Cross-reference: The conclusions on Issue 1 and Issue 2 are interdependent - deletion of the section 68 addition logically supports retention of exemption under section 10(38) when statutory conditions (STT, exchange trading, demat entries, banking payments) are met and no culpable nexus is established.
2. The Tribunal emphasized that departmental reliance on investigation/SEBI reports requires corroborative evidence linking the specific taxpayer to manipulative conduct; generalized reports identifying a scrip as manipulated cannot substitute for direct evidence to impugn a particular assessees' transactions.
3. Where additions are founded on presumptions and human probabilities rather than material evidence, such assessments are arbitrary and liable to be set aside.
4. Result: Additions under section 68 and for alleged commission were deleted; because the dispositive Additional Ground No.3 was allowed in favour of the assessee, remaining grounds were rendered academic.
Denying exemption u/s. 10(38) of Long Term capital gain - addition u/s 68 - addition of commission paid to broker - assessee had traded in the scrips of “NCL Research & Finance Services Pvt. Ltd.” as been rigged and declared as penny stock company as per the report of the Investigation Wing, Kolkata as well as by SEBI - HELD THAT:- department has failed to bring out any direct involvement of the assessee for obtaining alleged bogus LTCG. Neither the A.O nor the Ld. CIT(Appeals)/NFAC has brought on record any evidence to suggest that the assessee was part of organized financial crime or that the assessee willfully transacted with the brokers, entry provider in order to obtain the so called bogus LTCG as had been alleged by the department. The Revenue has not even brought out whether it is an isolated transaction or that the assessee was regularly entered into purchase and sale of shares. Furthermore, the assessee had submitted at the time of assessment that the assessee was not aware about the fact that “NCL Research & Finance Services Pvt. Ltd.” is rigged one and it was penny stock shares. That further, the entire transaction was reflected in the Demat account and payments were always made through banking channels. These facts remains undisputed even before the Department. That in absence of any direct evidence against the assessee, it can only be concluded that the assessee can be termed as unsuspecting investor who had entered into the said investment in shares. The A.O has applied presumption and concept of human probabilities to make addition without there being any material against the assessee.
Addition made in the hands of the assessee is arbitrary, bad in law and hence, the same is deleted.
Addition made on account of commission income as per ad-hoc 2% for so called services used by the assessee, even without demonstrating such alleged services justifying alleged commission payments, this addition is also in the nature of being arbitrary, bad in law and hence, the same is deleted.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalty under section 271(1)(c) can be sustained where the assessee surrendered claimed long-term capital gains (exemption under section 10(38)) during assessment proceedings after detection by the Department.
2. Whether surrender of income made after detection is voluntary for the purposes of escaping penalty under section 271(1)(c).
3. Whether imposition of penalty can properly rest solely on additions made in the assessment order without specific findings as to concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars and without inquiry to disprove documents filed by the assessee.
4. Whether the Assessing Officer's show-cause and penalty proceedings met the requirement of specifying the exact charge (i.e., concealment vs. furnishing inaccurate particulars) as contemplated by section 274 read with section 271(1)(c).
5. Whether findings and material relied upon by the Assessing Officer (transactions in penny stocks alleged to be non-genuine/colorable device) amounted to conclusive proof of mens rea and collusion justifying penalty.
6. Whether binding Supreme Court authority cited by the Revenue (regarding voluntary disclosure not absolving penalty) was applicable and determinative in the facts of the present case, and whether any applicable CBDT circular exception affected the outcome.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Sustenance of penalty where assessee surrendered claim of exemption during assessment
Legal framework: Section 271(1)(c) penalises furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income or concealment thereof; penalty proceedings require satisfaction of the AO that such furnishing/concealment occurred.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal relied on earlier decisions (including Dilip N. Shroff and Shadilal Sugar principles as applied in prior ITAT orders) to hold that mere acceptance of an addition or withdrawal of a claim does not automatically sustain penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasised that the assessee withdrew the exemption claim and that the AO made no specific adverse/conclusive finding in the penalty order explaining how the particulars were inaccurate or how concealment occurred. The Tribunal noted absence of inquiry to disprove documents filed by the assessee and absence of material linking the assessee to the alleged sham transactions beyond circumstantial findings in assessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalty cannot be levied solely because an addition was made where the assessee has withdrawn the claim and AO has not demonstrated inaccurate particulars or concealment by specific findings. Obiter - observations on potential commercial reasons for withdrawal.
Conclusion: Penalty under section 271(1)(c) could not be sustained on the basis of the AO's assessment addition alone; cancellation of penalty upheld.
Issue 2 - Voluntariness of surrender made after departmental detection
Legal framework: Distinction between voluntary disclosure and disclosure after detection (relevance to mitigation of penalty is contested in authorities).
Precedent Treatment: Revenue relied on Supreme Court dictum that voluntary disclosure does not automatically absolve penalty; Tribunal distinguished that principle where AO has failed to make requisite findings supporting penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: Tribunal accepted that the surrender was made after detection but held that even where surrender is post-detection, mere surrender without further independent findings proving inaccurate particulars or concealment is insufficient to levy penalty. The Tribunal focused on AO's failure to establish mens rea or collusion rather than on the timing of surrender alone.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - timing of surrender (pre- or post-detection) is not decisive where the AO has not proved inaccurate particulars or concealment; the absence of specific adverse findings is fatal to penalty. Obiter - comments distinguishing cases where clear evidence of sham transactions and collusion exists.
Conclusion: Post-detection surrender did not sustain penalty in absence of AO's specific findings and evidence of furnishing inaccurate particulars.
Issue 3 - Reliance on assessment additions without specific adverse findings to impose penalty
Legal framework: Penalty proceedings are quasi-criminal in nature and require the AO to demonstrate, independently of assessment additions, how the particulars were inaccurate or concealed; reference to principle that mens rea must be shown.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal followed earlier ITAT findings (including a Raipur Bench decision and cases cited in the appellate order) that penalty cannot be levied automatically on assessment additions; Supreme Court authorities were invoked to underscore requirement of proof of deliberate concealment for penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the penalty order deficient because it essentially relied on the assessment addition and circumstantial material without explaining how the assessee furnished inaccurate particulars. The Tribunal noted that the AO did not record specific findings of collusion or demonstrate that the assessee acted with requisite mens rea; reliance on broad inferences and investigative notes about the scrips was inadequate.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - imposition of penalty requires independent and specific findings linking the assessee to inaccurate particulars or concealment; mere additions in assessment are insufficient. Obiter - remarks on the need for AO to disprove documents filed by assessee where transactions are disputed.
Conclusion: Penalty quashed because the AO failed to make out a case in the penalty order beyond repeating assessment additions.
Issue 4 - Requirement to specify exact charge in show-cause/penalty notice
Legal framework: Section 274 read with section 271(1)(c) requires that the show-cause notice and proceedings clearly indicate the nature of the charge so the assessee can adequately meet it.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal relied on prior ITAT decisions emphasising that the notice must clearly state whether penalty is for concealment or for furnishing inaccurate particulars.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellate order observed that the AO's show-cause did not specify precise charge; penalty was imposed on the basis of assessment findings without clear articulation in the notice of the particular ground being relied upon, undermining the fairness and sufficiency of the proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - defective or nonspecific show-cause/penalty notice that fails to indicate the exact charge is a valid basis to quash a penalty where prejudice to the assessee flows therefrom. Obiter - applicability where notice defects are curable by further clarification.
Conclusion: Defects in specificity of the penalty charge contributed to invalidating the penalty in the facts before the Tribunal.
Issue 5 - Whether AO's materials on penny-stock transactions constituted conclusive proof of mens rea and collusion
Legal framework: Circumstantial or investigative material may support a finding of non-genuine transactions, but mens rea and collusion must be established with reference to the assessee's individual conduct and evidence.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal distinguished the AO's general investigative findings about the scrip and other persons from evidence tying the assessee personally to a colourable device; relied on authority that admission or acceptance of addition is not equivalent to admission of deliberate concealment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted investigative allegations about the scrip being a penny stock and used by others to generate LTCG, but held there were no facts brought on record to establish the assessee's involvement in collusion or the manner in which inaccurate particulars were furnished. The Tribunal emphasised the availability of legitimate market mechanisms by which shares can be purchased/sold and that such transactions alone do not prove culpability.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - evidence of non-genuineness of a scrip or market manipulation, standing alone, does not establish an assessee's culpability for penalty unless the AO adduces specific evidence of the assessee's deliberate role. Obiter - observations on market mechanics and possible legitimate explanations.
Conclusion: AO's materials were insufficient to prove mens rea or collusion by the assessee; penalty could not be sustained on that basis.
Issue 6 - Applicability of Supreme Court authority on voluntary disclosure and CBDT circulars relied on by Revenue
Legal framework: Supreme Court authority cited by Revenue holds that voluntary disclosure does not automatically absolve penalty; CBDT circulars set monetary or administrative thresholds for litigation or treatment of cases.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal acknowledged the Revenue's citation but did not find the Supreme Court dictum determinative because the AO had not discharged the burden of proof required for penalty; Tribunal relied on case law requiring specific findings of concealment/mens rea. The Tribunal did not find it necessary to apply any CBDT circular exception relied upon by Revenue given its conclusion on deficiencies in the penalty order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the Supreme Court authority as not directly applicable where the fundamental requisites for imposing penalty (specific findings, proof of inaccurate particulars) were absent; administrative circular thresholds were not decisive in light of the substantive failure to justify penalty.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - higher court dicta on voluntary disclosure do not override the statutory requirement that the AO must make independent and specific findings to impose penalty. Obiter - administrative circulars may guide litigation policy but do not cure substantive defects in penalty orders.
Conclusion: Reliance on the cited Supreme Court authority and CBDT circular did not salvage the defective penalty in this case; grounds of appeal on these points failed.
Final Conclusion
The Tribunal held that the Assessing Officer failed to make specific, adverse findings demonstrating that the assessee furnished inaccurate particulars or concealed income; reliance solely on assessment additions and investigative material regarding the scrip was inadequate to establish mens rea or collusion. The penalty under section 271(1)(c) was therefore quashed. The Revenue's appeal was dismissed.
Penalty imposed u/s 271(1)(c) - assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of income by claiming bogus exemption under section 10(38) on account of long-term capital gains arising from transactions in penny stock - HELD THAT:- As basis of addition, on which penalty was levied was with regard to claim of exemption u/s. 10(38) of the Act. That facts brought on record as afore-stated clearly demonstrates that the assessee in his submission has stated that the assessee withdraws the claim of exemption u/s.10(38) of the Act.
CIT(Appeals)/NFAC observed that since the assessee has surrendered his claim of long term capital gain which was made in the return of income and that since no enquiry to disprove the same has been made by the department and just because, addition has been made and that too when the assessee has withdrawn such claim, the facts do not per se become sufficient for imposition of penalty.
AO has not made out any case for imposition of penalty as to how and in what manner the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of income. Appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether long-term capital gain (LTCG) arising from sale of equity shares can be treated as non-genuine and added to income under Section 68 when short-term capital gain (STCG) from sale of the same company's equity shares in the same year is accepted as genuine.
2. Whether the Assessing Officer's disparate treatment of gains from identical source transactions (LTCG vs STCG on the same scrip) amounts to a capricious or arbitrary exercise of assessment powers requiring interference.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legality of treating LTCG as bogus under Section 68 despite acceptance of STCG from same scrip
Legal framework: Section 68 permits the Assessing Officer to require an assessee to explain cash credits or unexplained investments; if not satisfactorily explained, such credits may be treated as income. Exemption under Section 10(38) applies to exempt LTCG on transfer of listed equity shares subject to conditions. Section 111A taxes STCG on transfer of equity shares where STT has been paid.
Precedent treatment: The judgment does not invoke or distinguish any specific judicial precedents; no authority was relied upon by the Tribunal in its reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the factual matrix - both LTCG and STCG arose from sales of equity shares of the same company (a penny stock) during the same assessment year. The assessee declared both gains in the return: LTCG claimed exempt under Section 10(38) and STCG taxed under Section 111A. The Assessing Officer accepted STCG as genuine while treating LTCG as bogus and making an addition under Section 68. The Tribunal found no basis in the assessment record to treat the two categories of gains differently where both derive from sales of the same scrip, in the same year, with similar transactional provenance. The disparate results were held to demonstrate a lack of logical or consistent application of the statutory scheme and assessment powers.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where gains from the same source and identical transactional circumstances are treated differently (one accepted as genuine and the other treated as bogus) without adequate, intelligible reasons, the Assessing Officer's action is arbitrary and unsustainable. Obiter - observation that the company was a penny stock and that both gains arose in the same year, informing the view of inconsistency.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that treating the LTCG as non-genuine while accepting the STCG from the same shares was capricious. In absence of specific, reasoned findings distinguishing the LTCG transactions from the STCG transactions, the addition under Section 68 could not be sustained and was to be deleted. The Tribunal set aside the appellate authority's order upholding the addition and directed the AO to delete the addition.
Issue 2 - Whether disparate treatment constitutes arbitrary exercise of assessment powers requiring judicial interference
Legal framework: Assessing authorities must make findings based on material to justify additions; assessments must not be arbitrary and must follow principles of reasoned decision-making. The appellate or judicial forum may interfere where the assessment demonstrates caprice or lack of coherent reasoning.
Precedent treatment: No precedents cited; the Tribunal applied normative standards of reasoned decision-making and consistency rather than specific case law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal characterized the AO's approach as capricious and whimsical because identical or materially similar transactions (sales of the same equity in the same year) received opposite treatment without explanation. The Tribunal emphasized inability to understand the rationale for accepting one category of capital gain and rejecting the other. That absence of intelligible reasons amounted to an unsustainable exercise of assessment powers.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an assessment finding that is internally inconsistent and lacks reasoned differentiation between transactions arising from a common source may be quashed; appellate intervention is warranted to correct arbitrary additions. Obiter - the Tribunal noted the factual commonality (same scrip, same year) as supporting the conclusion of inconsistency.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the Assessing Officer's disparate treatment warranted interference. The appellate order sustaining the addition was set aside and the addition under Section 68 deleted. The taxpayer's appeal was allowed accordingly.
Cross-References
See Issue 1 for the Tribunal's central finding that the acceptance of STCG and rejection of LTCG from the same share transactions, without adequate reasons, renders the addition under Section 68 arbitrary and liable to be deleted (applies equally to Issue 2 on arbitrariness and appellate intervention).
Long-term capital gain (LTCG) from transactions in equity shares treated as non-genuine, while simultaneously accepting the short-term capital gain (STCG) from same equity share as genuine - HELD THAT:- We note that both income from the sale of equity shares were shown by the assessee in the return of income i.e. LTCG was claimed as exempt under Section 10(38) of the Act, while STCG was shown as under Section 111A of the Act.
AO treated the long-term capital gain as bogus and non-genuine, whereas the short-term capital gain of ₹65,096,424 made from the sale of equity shares of the same company i.e. Midland Polymer Limited was treated as genuine and accepted in the return of income. Thus, we have failed to understand as to how long term capital gain from sale of equity shares is non-genuine and bogus while at the same time the short term capital gain is genuine.
AO has a adopted a very capricious and whimsical approach while making the assessment by accepting STCG as genuine and rejecting the LTCG as bogus and non-genuine particularly, when both these gains have reason from the sale of equity shares of the same company. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether lease rental receipts from letting out areas within a warehousing complex are taxable under the head "Income from House Property" (with standard deduction under section 24(1)) or under the head "Profits and Gains of Business or Profession", thereby disallowing the 30% standard deduction.
2. Whether the revenue may adopt a different characterisation of the same receipts in the current assessment year when identical facts and treatment were accepted by the revenue in preceding and succeeding assessment years.
3. Whether amounts realised on assignment/transfer of rights under agreements to purchase flats (advance receipts and receipts on sale of agreement rights) constitute speculative business income within the meaning of section 43(5) (taxable as income from speculative business) or constitute transfer of a capital asset/profit on sale of right (taxable as capital gain/profit on sale of right).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Characterisation of lease rental receipts: Legal framework
Sectional heads of income distinguish income from house property and income from business; income from house property attracts statutory deductions under section 24(1) (including repairs/standard deduction). The characterisation depends on substance - nature of rights granted, extent of possession/control, and the contractual and factual matrix governing the letting.
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment
The Tribunal relied on settled principles that where an assessee's rights are those of a landlord/lessor and the receipt is rent for use/occupation of immovable property, the proper head is income from house property; authorities and prior departmental acceptance across assessment years are relevant. The Tribunal expressly cited the decision aligning with the proposition that departmental consistency is material (reference made to a high court/Supreme Court precedent in reasoning).
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal examined the factual matrix and contemporaneous treatment in preceding and succeeding assessment years where the revenue accepted the receipts as income from house property. The appellate authority had upheld the assessing officer's re-characterisation on the ground that the company's memorandum objects included property development and therefore the receipts were business income. The Tribunal held that such corporate objects by themselves do not alter the nature of receipts; where there is letting of premises and no change in facts, the accepted characterisation in other years is persuasive and the revenue cannot take a different view without change in facts.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where lease/letting of immovable property is supported by facts evidencing grant of occupation/use and there is consistency of departmental acceptance across assessment years, such receipts are properly chargeable under Income from House Property and attract deductions under section 24(1). Obiter: The observation that incorporation objects alone are insufficient to convert rental receipts into business income reinforces established principles but is ancillary to the factual determination.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The Tribunal set aside the appellate authority's decision and directed the assessing officer to treat the lease rental charges as income from house property and to allow the deduction under section 24(1), thereby restoring the 30% standard deduction. Ground Nos.1-4 allowed.
Issue 2 - Departmental consistency: Legal framework
Administrative consistency and estoppel-like considerations apply where the revenue has accepted a particular treatment in other years and there is no change in material facts; sudden divergent treatment in a year without material change is impermissible.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal expressly relied on the principle that revenue cannot take a view in one assessment year inconsistent with positions accepted in preceding and succeeding years when facts remain the same. That consistency supported the assessee's claim of house property treatment.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Departmental acceptance in other years on identical facts is a material circumstance militating against re-characterisation of income in a single year absent changed facts. Conclusion: The Tribunal applied this principle to allow the house property characterisation.
Issue 3 - Treatment of receipts on assignment of rights in flats: Legal framework
Section 43(5) defines speculative transactions for taxability (commonly applied to trading in shares/commodities where no delivery is effected). Tax treatment of assignment of contractual rights in immovable property depends on whether the right assigned constitutes a capital asset (transfer attracting capital gains) or whether the transactions constitute speculative business activity.
Issue 3 - Precedent Treatment (followed/distinguished)
The Tribunal followed authority holding that assignment of rights under agreements to purchase immovable property is a transfer of a capital asset or a sale of right/acquired right and is not covered by section 43(5); profit arising on assignment is liable to tax as capital gain/profit on sale of right. The decision cited supports treating such assignments as capital transactions rather than speculative business transactions.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
The assessing officer classified the difference between amounts received and amounts paid on assignment of booking/rights as speculative income under section 43(5) on the ground that flats were not physically delivered. The Tribunal rejected that approach, reasoning that section 43(5) is directed to transactions in commodities, stocks and shares where no delivery is effected and is not applicable to assignment of rights in immovable property. An agreement to purchase immovable property or the right to obtain specific performance constitutes a capital asset; assignment of that right constitutes a transfer giving rise to capital gain (or profit on sale of right), not speculative business income.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Assignment/transfer of contractual rights to purchase immovable property is not within the ambit of section 43(5); profit on such assignment arises from transfer of a capital asset (or sale of right) and should be taxed accordingly. Obiter: Observations regarding particulars of the ledger/balance-sheet presentation and the table of receipts inform the factual background but do not alter the legal principle.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
The Tribunal set aside the additions under section 43(5) and directed deletion of the addition of Rs.86,24,540/-, directing the assessing officer to treat the receipts arising on assignment of rights as not speculative profits. Ground Nos.6-8 allowed.
Cross-references and final disposition
Cross-reference: The Tribunal's conclusions on (i) head of income for rentals and (ii) non-applicability of section 43(5) to assignment of rights were each founded on consistency of facts and on authoritative precedent treating assignment of rights as transfer of capital asset. The Tribunal allowed the appeal in full (except for an unpressed ground dismissed) and remitted directions to the assessing officer to give effect to the treatment ordered above.
Correct head of income - house property income or business income - assessee has received lease rental charges from various parties for occupying the area within the warehousing complex - disallowance of 30% of the standard deduction claimed by the assessee - HELD THAT:- We find that the assessee has shown the rental income under the head house property and claimed standard deduction at the rate of 30% towards repairs.
AO challenged the head of income and brought to tax the lease rental charges under the head income from business which has resulted into disallowance of 30% of standard deduction towards repairs. We note that the only reason cited by the appellate authority for dismissing this ground is that the assessee was incorporated with main object in the memorandum of association to acquire the properties and develop these properties and therefore, it is to be treated as business income. However, we observed from the record before us i.e. assessment orders available for preceding and succeeding assessment years that revenue has accepted the income shown by the assessee under the head income from house property.
Stand of the Revenue in the current assessment year cannot be at variance with the stand accepted in the preceding and succeeding assessments. Since, there is no change in the facts and circumstances of the case, the Department cannot be allowed to take a different view under the same facts. The case of the assessee find support from the decision of Radhasoami Satsang[1991 (11) TMI 2 - SUPREME COURT] - Therefore, we set aside the order of CIT (A) and direct the ld. AO to treat the lease rental charges as income from house property and accordingly, allow the deduction u/s 24(1).
Addition on account of speculation business - assessee assigned its right as agreement holder with the developer to third parties and received an advance during the previous year which is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the head ‘advance received against the sale of flats’. The assessee sold the rights of the flats during the year and money collected on account of transferring the authority for selling the flat - HELD THAT:- We find that the AO treated the difference between amount received and paid for assigning the rights in the flats as speculative income u/s 43(5) of the Act on the ground that there was no physical sale of the flats. In our considered opinion the provisions of section 43(5) are not applicable to assignment of rights in property but applicable to commodities including stocks and shares and not to rights in immovable properties.
The case of the assessee find support from the decision of CIT Vs Tata Services Ltd.[1979 (1) TMI 26 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] in case of assignment of right in property the surplus/profit would be liable to capital gain tax. Therefore agreement to purchase an immovable property or to obtain a specific performance is a capital asset and when the right is assigned it gives rise to transfer of capital asset and income or loss would be charged to tax under the head of capital gain. Therefore, we set aside the order of ld. CIT(A) on this issue and direct the AO to delete the addition. The grounds no 6 to 8 are allowed.
Issues: Whether severance compensation received on cessation of employment is taxable as profits in lieu of salary under section 17(3)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, or is a capital receipt not chargeable to tax.
Analysis: The amount received by the assessee arose on cessation of employment and fell within the express language of section 17(3)(iii), which includes any amount received from an employer or former employer after cessation of employment. The earlier line of authority treating severance compensation as a capital receipt was distinguished as relating to a pre-amendment period, whereas the statutory position after insertion of clause (iii) with effect from 01.04.2002 materially expanded the scope of profits in lieu of salary. In the absence of evidence showing that the payment was gratuitous or outside the employment nexus, and in view of the finding that the payment was linked to the termination of employment, the receipt was held to be taxable.
Conclusion: The severance compensation is taxable as profits in lieu of salary under section 17(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and is not a capital receipt exempt from tax.
Addition towards severance pay - Whether Income were capital receipts? - whether Severance pay were authentic ‘compensation’? -Salary”, “perquisite” and “profits in lieu of salary” defined a per section 17 - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) has recorded a categorical factual finding that the payment made by the employer to the assessee was not voluntary, and that the compensation was paid in lieu of services rendered by the assessee during the period preceding the cessation of employment. The assessee has not brought before us any documentary evidence to rebut the factual findings so recorded by the Ld. CIT(A).
No material has been placed to show that the payment was gratuitous, voluntary, or compensatory for loss of employment in a capital field. In the absence of any contrary evidence, and in view of the specific statutory inclusion u/s 17(3)(iii) of the Act, we are unable to accept the contention of the assessee that the severance compensation received by her of constitutes a capital receipt. Accordingly, we uphold the findings of the CIT(A) and hold that the severance compensation received by the assessee is taxable as profits in lieu of salary under section 17(3) of the Act. The grounds of appeal raised by the assessee are, therefore, dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the delay in filing the appeal beyond limitation should be condoned where the appeal was initially filed before an incorrect bench and subsequently withdrawn and re-filed before the appropriate Bench.
2. Whether the intimation/rectification under section 143(1) and section 154 of the Income Tax Act can rightly disallow exemption under section 11 by applying registration provisions of section 12AA where the statute governing registration was amended (section 12AB effective from 01-04-2021) for the assessment year in question.
3. Whether the assessing authority/CPC and the Commissioner (Appeals) were justified in treating the exemption as inapplicable on the ground that the trust had not obtained registration within the prescribed period, when the trust possessed a registration certificate at the time of filing the return and subsequently obtained registration under the amended law.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation of delay in filing appeal
Legal framework: Procedural law permits condonation of delay on sufficient cause being shown; appeal admittance is discretionary where delay explained by bona fide mistake.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial precedents were invoked or considered by the Court in the record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The tribunal accepted the explanation that the appeal was initially filed before an incorrect jurisdictional Bench and thereafter withdrawn and re-filed before the correct Bench. The mistake was held to be inadvertent and constituted sufficient cause for the delay of 144 days.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - delay can be condoned when the plea establishes sufficient cause such as bona fide filing before a wrong Bench and subsequent re-filing; Obiter - none additional.
Conclusions: Delay in filing the appeal was condoned and the appeal admitted for adjudication.
Issue 2 - Applicability of registration provisions (section 12AA v. section 12AB) and correctness of disallowance of exemption under section 11
Legal framework: Exemption under section 11 is contingent on registration under the statutory scheme for charitable trusts. The statute was amended introducing section 12AB with effect from 01-04-2021; registration/renewal requirements under the amended provisions govern cases on or after that date. Proceedings under section 143(1) and rectification under section 154 can correct mistakes apparent from the record but must be based on correct application of law and facts such as existence of registration.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal and lower authorities did not cite or rely upon precedent authorities in the record; no precedential reliance was articulated by the parties or the authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The CIT(A) upheld the CPC's rectification that disallowed section 11 exemption on the ground that the trust had not obtained registration within three months from 1 April 2021, referring to section 12AA. The Tribunal found this approach erroneous for two distinct reasons: (a) the lower authority applied section 12AA terminology though the amended scheme (section 12AB) was in force for the relevant assessment year; and (b) the assessee had, on the evidentiary record, a valid registration certificate at the time of filing the return for the assessment year and also filed application for registration under the amended law (dated 28-03-2022) and was granted registration by the competent authority (paper book evidence). The Tribunal treated the disallowance as founded on an incorrect assumption of non-registration and therefore as a mistake apparent from the record that could not sustain the demand raised by rectification. The Tribunal emphasized that when registration exists on the record and the amended registration regime applies to the year under consideration, the order disallowing exemption for want of registration is unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the amended registration provision (section 12AB effective 01-04-2021) governs the relevant assessment year, authorities must apply that regime; disallowance of exemption under section 11 on the premise of non-registration is impermissible where the assessee possessed a valid registration certificate and documentary proof of registration/application under the amended law exists on record. Obiter - procedural nuances of timing for filing Form 10B and dates for ITR filing were noted but not foundational to the decision.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the assessing/appeal authorities erred in applying the wrong provision and in proceeding on the incorrect factual assumption of non-registration. The rectification/demand raised by CPC under section 154 was set aside and the appeal was allowed; the demand was directed to be deleted.
Issue 3 - Scope and limits of rectification under section 154 and intimation under section 143(1)
Legal framework: Section 143(1) intimation accepts or adjusts declared income; section 154 permits rectification of mistakes apparent from the record. Such rectifications must be based on correct legal and factual foundation and cannot be sustained if they ignore documentary proof on record.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents were cited in the judgment on the limits of section 154; the Tribunal applied the statutory purpose and record evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the CPC's rectification as founded on an incorrect factual premise (absence of registration) despite documentary proof to the contrary. Since the rectification resulted in raising demand by disallowing exemption under section 11, and because the record showed registration was in place/applicable statutory regime was section 12AB, the rectification was unsustainable. The Tribunal thereby exercised its power to set aside the rectification and direct deletion of demand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - rectification under section 154 and intimation under section 143(1) cannot be sustained where they rest upon an erroneous application of law and ignore documentary proof of registration on record; such rectifications are liable to be set aside. Obiter - none substantial beyond the application to the facts.
Conclusions: The rectification under section 154 and the resultant demand were quashed because they were based on an incorrect application of the registration provisions and a wrong factual assumption of non-registration despite documentary evidence.
Cross-references
- Issue 2 and Issue 3 are interrelated: the incorrect application of the registration provision (Issue 2) was the legal error that rendered the rectification/intimation (Issue 3) unsustainable.
- The condonation of delay (Issue 1) is procedural and was dispositive only insofar as it permitted adjudication on the substantive issues (Issues 2-3).
Rectification of mistake - assessee submitted that provision of section 12AA of the Act was wrongly applied because the said provisions are not relevant to the year under consideration - HELD THAT:- The appeal of the assessee was dismissed on the ground that the application for registration under new provision has not been filed and registration number has not been mentioned by the assessee. The application for registration was also not filed by the assessee. The appeal of the assessee was dismissed on the wrong assumption, because the assessee trust having a valid registration at the time of the filing the return of income.
The assessee also filed the application for registration under the amended law on 28-03-2022 and registration was granted by the competent authority to the assessee. The return of income was filed for the A. Y. 2012-22 and the provision of the Act was inserted w.e.f. 01-04-2021.
CIT(A), wrongly applying the provisions dismissed the appeal of the assessee. The assessee had a registration certificate at the filing the return of income and he also got the registration under the amended Act, therefore the appeal of the assessee is liable to be allowed. The grounds raised by the assessee is allowed and the AO is directed to delete the demand raised by the CPC. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an intimation issued under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 stands merged with a subsequent assessment completed under section 143(3) when the return is selected for scrutiny, so as to preclude sustaining a demand raised by the 143(1) processing after completion of the 143(3) assessment.
2. Whether an apparent mistake in the return (mis-entry in Schedule BP - capital gains punched under "other sources") that was the subject of a rectification application under section 154 and which the Central Processing Centre (CPC) communicated as transferred to the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) must be addressed by the JAO in the course of the 143(3) assessment, and whether retention of the 143(1) computed income by the AO after completing 143(3) is permissible.
3. Whether the view in an earlier Bench decision relied upon by the lower appellate authority - that orders under section 143(1) and rectification orders under section 154 operate independently and are separately appealable (thus negating merger) - is applicable on the facts here, or is distinguishable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework: Section 143(1) processing is a summary/intimation stage (arithmetical checks, apparent errors, incorrect claims) while section 143(3) is scrutiny assessment whereby the Assessing Officer considers submissions, evidence and can make substantive adjustments. The principle of merger arises where a more substantive assessment supersedes or incorporates findings of an earlier summary intimation when the case is selected for scrutiny.
Precedent Treatment: The lower appellate authority relied on an ITAT Chennai decision holding that a taxpayer cannot appeal against a section 143(1) intimation where rectification under section 154 is available and that 143(1) and 154 operate on independent planes. That view was applied to dismiss the appeal as not relating to the 143(3) assessment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that where a return is selected for scrutiny and a full assessment under section 143(3) is completed, the earlier 143(1) intimation is merged with the 143(3) assessment in practical effect. Since 143(1) is a summary check and the JAO is vested with rectification/assessment powers upon selection for scrutiny, the JAO must address any apparent mistakes that had been brought to CPC's and JAO's notice. Merger applies particularly where the JAO, in completing 143(3), accepts the return and makes no substantive adjustment - it is not permissible to retain an inconsistent demand computed at the 143(1) stage after conclusion of the 143(3) proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - When a return processed under section 143(1) is subsequently subject to scrutiny and a section 143(3) assessment is completed accepting the return without adjustment, the 143(1) intimation is effectively merged and the Assessing Officer must not retain a demand arising solely from the 143(1) processing. Obiter - Broader doctrinal statements on merger in all permutations of 143(1)/143(3)/154 beyond the factual posture were not necessary to decide the dispute.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that merger applied on these facts and that the Assessing Officer should have rectified the apparent mistake and not retained the 143(1) based demand after completing the 143(3) assessment.
Issue 2 - Legal framework: Section 154 allows rectification of mistakes apparent from record. CPC processing may detect an apparent mistake and, where rectification rights are transferred to the JAO, the JAO is obliged to consider and, if appropriate, rectify the mistake in the assessment process. The duties of the Assessing Officer on completion of 143(3) include addressing rectification matters related to the return when the case is selected for scrutiny.
Precedent Treatment: The lower authority treated the rectification/143(1) issue as outside the scope of appeal from the 143(3) assessment and relied on precedent to the effect that 143(1) and 154 are separately appealable. The Tribunal distinguished that precedent on facts: here the rectification request was expressly transferred to the JAO and the case was selected for scrutiny; the JAO completed 143(3) without acting on the transferred rectification and yet retained the CPC-computed demand.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the mistake to be an apparent, clerical/technical error in punching the return - capital gains were declared in the return (Schedule CG) but were inadvertently entered in Schedule BP under "other sources." The CPC processed the return accordingly and communicated rectification rights as transferred to the JAO. On scrutiny, the Assessing Officer accepted the return substantively and did not propose adjustments, yet failed to correct the CPC-driven demand. That course was held to be erroneous and amounting to neglect of duty: once rectification rights are with the JAO and the assessment under section 143(3) accepts the return, the JAO ought to have rectified the apparent mistake and removed the demand arising from the 143(1) processing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where an apparent clerical mistake in the return is identified, a rectification application is transferred to the JAO and the case is selected for scrutiny, the JAO must consider and, if appropriate, rectify the mistake in the course of the 143(3) assessment; retention of a 143(1)-based demand after acceptance under 143(3) is improper. Obiter - The Tribunal's comments on administrative practices at CPC and ideal modalities for transfer of rectification rights are ancillary observations.
Conclusion: The Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to rectify the mistake apparent on record and delete the demand raised in the order passed under section 143(1).
Issue 3 - Applicability and distinction of precedent relied upon by the lower authority
Legal framework: Appellate jurisdiction and scope of appeal depend on which order is under challenge and whether issues arise from intimation or assessment. Precedents can be fact-sensitive; applicability requires factual congruence.
Precedent Treatment: The lower authority applied an ITAT decision to hold that the doctrine of merger would not apply and that orders under sections 143(1) and 154 operate independently. The Tribunal examined factual matrix to test applicability.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal distinguished the precedent because the facts here involved (a) CPC transferring rectification rights to the JAO, (b) selection of the case for scrutiny, and (c) completion of a 143(3) assessment which accepted the return and made no adjustment - yet the AO retained the CPC-computed 143(1) demand. Those facts placed the matter squarely within the ambit of JAO's duty to rectify under section 154 in the context of a 143(3) assessment, making the precedent inapplicable on its facts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Precedents treating independence of 143(1) and 154 cannot be mechanically applied where rectification rights have been transferred to the JAO and the case has been subjected to and concluded under 143(3); factual distinctions may require different outcome. Obiter - Generalized statements about appealability of 143(1) intimations remain context-dependent.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the precedent relied upon by the lower authority was distinguishable on facts and consequently rejected its applicability here, permitting relief to correct the apparent mistake and delete the 143(1)-based demand.
Overall Disposition
The Tribunal allowed the appeal, concluding that the apparent clerical error in the return - which the CPC had transferred to the JAO for rectification and which the JAO failed to address despite completing a 143(3) assessment that accepted the return - required correction; the Assessing Officer was directed to rectify the mistake apparent on record and delete the demand raised in the 143(1) intimation.
Adjustment proposed by the CPC u/s 143(1) after completion of regular assessment u/s 143(3) - rectification of mistake - HELD THAT:- It is an accepted fact that the order passed u/s 143(1) is only summary assessment wherein arithmetical error, incorrect claim, incorrect claim of losses/expenditure and deductions claimed by the assessee in the return of income are verified. Once the case is selected for scrutiny the order passed u/s 143(1) is merged with the regular assessment and if there is any mistake apparent on record in the return of income, it is open for the JAO to process the same and make the adjustment. In the given case, the apparent mistake was brought to the notice of CPC by filing a rectification application u/s 154 of the Act.
CPC has intimated to the assessee that rectification rights are transferred to the JAO. It clearly indicates that the process of rectification and regular assessment are in the hands of JAO, therefore, when the JAO completes the assessment and does not find any mistake in the return of income and complete the assessment without there being any adjustment.
The apparent mistake in the return of income filed by the assessee, which by mistake CPC has processed, however the same issue under consideration is open for the JAO to make the rectification/adjustment. In the given case, the Assessing Officer has not acted upon the apparent mistake of return of income and relevant rectification application brought to his notice, rejecting of adjustment proposed by the CPC u/s 143(1) after completion of regular assessment u/s 143(3) is uncalled for and negligence on the part of AO - Therefore, we are inclined to direct the Assessing Officer to rectify the mistake apparent on record and delete the demand raised in order passed u/s 143(1) of the Act. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether delay in filing the appeal should be condoned where the appellant died during pendency and no effective communication was received by legal heirs.
2. Whether additions made under section 153A of the Income Tax Act on the basis of documents seized from premises/locker of a third person (and not found in possession of the assessee during search) are legally sustainable, or whether such material could only be acted upon by invoking section 153C of the Act.
3. Ancillary/contentious grounds raised but not decided on merit by the Tribunal (left open): legality of proceedings under section 153A generally where no incriminating material is found on the assessee; compliance with section 153D; validity of the approval under section 153D; applicability of departmental circular on quoting DIN; and evidentiary sufficiency for additions under section 69B (independent enquiry under ss. 131/133(6) and reliance on presumptions/conjectures).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation of Delay
Legal framework: Procedural rules permit condonation of delay in filing appeals on showing sufficient cause.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal considered established practice of evaluating sufficiency of reasons, including events affecting the appellant's ability to pursue the appeal (e.g., death and failure of communication to legal heirs).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the factual account that the assessee died during the pendency of proceedings and that legal heirs did not receive effective communication; this was held to constitute sufficient cause for the delay of 56 days.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the factual circumstances justified condonation; this was a necessary procedural threshold to admit the appeal.
Conclusion: Delay of 56 days in filing the appeal was condoned and the appeal admitted for adjudication.
Issue 2 - Validity of Additions under Section 153A based on Documents Seized from Third Party; Necessity to Invoke Section 153C
Legal framework: Section 153A permits assessment/reassessment where search/seizure has been conducted and incriminating material belonging to the person searched is found; Section 153C governs use of material seized in search of a person other than the assessee and prescribes the procedure for transfer/use of such material in assessments of third persons.
Precedent treatment (followed): The Tribunal relied on higher court authorities that establish the principle that material found in the possession of a third person during search cannot be used to make additions in the hands of an unsearched person by proceeding under section 153A; instead the procedural mechanism of section 153C must be followed where incriminating material pertains to another person. The Tribunal expressly followed the line of authority endorsing this distinction and the mandatory procedure in section 153C before acting on such material against a third party.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal scrutinised the assessment record and found that no incriminating material or documents were found from the assessee's premises or lockers during the search. The Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs. 21,80,000 under section 69B relying on certain documents (sale agreement/sale deed) that were admittedly seized during the search at another person's premises. The Tribunal reasoned that where incriminating material is not found on the assessee but is recovered from a third party, the proper statutory route is invocation of section 153C (which mandates transfer of seized material to the jurisdictional assessing officer of the person to whom the material pertains) and not framing assessment under section 153A. The Tribunal also noted procedural safeguards implicated by using third-party seized material against an assessee (e.g., opportunity to cross-examine / procedural steps under 153C) and observed that these were not complied with.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - addition under section 153A based solely on documents seized from a third person (and not found on the assessee) is unsustainable; the proper statutory mechanism is to proceed under section 153C. The decision to allow the ground was tied directly to this legal principle and thus constitutes the operative ratio.
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 21,80,000 made under section 69B through proceedings framed under section 153A was held to be invalid because the basis for the addition (seized documents) was recovered from a third person; consequently, the assessment could not be sustained under section 153A and the matter must be dealt with in accordance with section 153C. The Tribunal allowed the legal ground raising this issue and set aside the addition on that basis.
Ancillary Points - Other Grounds and Remedial Scope
Legal framework / Interpretation: Several other grounds were raised (including alleged illegality of assessment for non-compliance with section 153D, invalid approval under section 153D, non-quotation of valid DIN as per departmental circular, failure to make independent enquiries under ss. 131/133(6), and insufficiency of evidence for additions under section 69B). The Tribunal did not adjudicate these grounds on merit and expressly left them open for future consideration.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal declined to resolve ancillary contested issues because the principal ground (misuse of section 153A instead of section 153C) disposed of the challenge to the impugned addition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter / procedural - the Tribunal's decision to leave other grounds open is not a decision on their merits; the controlling ratio is the requirement to follow section 153C where material belongs to a third party.
Conclusion: Other contested legal and factual grounds were left open for adjudication, as the Tribunal allowed the appeal on the basis that the AO/APPellate authority erred in invoking section 153A in respect of material seized from a third party.
Overall Disposition
Procedural sufficiency: Delay condoned; appeal admitted. Substantive outcome: Appeal allowed on the legal ground that additions under section 153A cannot be sustained when based on documents seized from a third party; such material must be acted upon through the procedure prescribed by section 153C. Other grounds remain undetermined and were left open.
Assessment u/s 153A or 153D - some incriminating material unearthed during the search or not? - HELD THAT:- addition has been made was not found from the possession of the assessee, but from the search third party (i.e Shri Rahul Mahana), therefore the assessment should be made under section 153C of the Act not the u/s 153A of the Act.
See Anand Kumar Jain [2021 (3) TMI 8 - DELHI HIGH COURT] as held coming to the aspect viz the invocation of section 153A on the basis of the statement recorded in search action against a third person. We may note that the AO has used this statement on oath recorded in the course of search conducted in case of a third party (i.e. search of Pradeep Kumar Jindal) for making the additions in the hands of the assessee.
As per the mandate of Section 153C, if this statement was to be construed as an incriminating material belonging to or pertaining to a person other than person searched (as referred to in section 153A), then the only legal recourse available to the department was to proceed in terms of Section 153C of the Act by handing over the same to the AO who has jurisdiction over such person. Here, the assessment has been framed under section 153A on the basis of alleged incriminating material (being the statement recorded under 132(4) of the Act). As noted above, the Assessee had no opportunity to cross-examine the said witness, but that apart, the mandatory procedure under section 153C has not been followed. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether receipts characterized as "business support services" amounting to INR 8,28,34,750 constitute Fees for Technical Services (FTS) under Article 12 of the India-Netherlands Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) and are taxable in India.
2. Whether the "make available" requirement for FTS is satisfied by the services rendered, i.e., whether technical knowledge, know-how or skill was made available to the recipient enabling independent use.
3. Whether the services are managerial in nature and therefore excluded from the definition of FTS under Article 12(5) of the DTAA.
4. Consequential: Whether the assessee is entitled to application of beneficial DTAA provisions (tax rate/characterisation) instead of domestic provisions (section 115A and levy at 40%), and whether interest under section 234B arises in respect of the addition.
5. Whether initiation of penalty proceedings under section 270A is justified in respect of the additions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Characterisation of receipts as FTS under Article 12 of the India-Netherlands DTAA
Legal framework: Article 12 of the India-Netherlands DTAA and Article 12(5) (definition/exclusions) govern taxation of FTS; domestic provisions (section 115A and relevant charging provisions) determine tax treatment if DTAA does not apply or is inapplicable.
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate Benches of the Tribunal for AYs 2014-15 to 2021-22 considered identical factual matrix and held similar receipts not taxable as FTS; those decisions are relied upon and followed by the Court in the present assessment year.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the nature of services rendered and concluded they are predominantly managerial. Article 12(5) excludes managerial services from FTS. Further, for any services to qualify as FTS under the DTAA, the "make available" condition must be satisfied - i.e., the provider must transfer technical knowledge, know-how or skill enabling the recipient to operate independently. The Assessing Officer and DRP did not establish that such a transfer occurred. Consequently, the services do not fall within the treaty's FTS scope.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where services are managerial and do not make available technical knowledge/know-how/skill, they are not FTS under Article 12; absence of evidence showing "make available" precludes treatment as FTS. Obiter - No expanded commentary on other categories of services beyond managerial/FTS dichotomy was necessary.
Conclusion: The receipts characterized as business support services are not FTS under Article 12 of the India-Netherlands DTAA and cannot be taxed as such in India; the addition of INR 8,28,34,750 as FTS is deleted (coordinate-bench decisions expressly followed).
Issue 2 - "Make available" requirement for FTS
Legal framework: The "make available" concept is an essential element for treaty-based FTS characterisation; mere provision of services is insufficient unless technical information/skill enabling independent use is transferred.
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate Bench decisions held "make available" not established on facts of earlier years; those findings applied to present year due to unchanged factual matrix.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal required positive establishment by the Revenue that rendering of services resulted in transfer of technical knowledge/know-how/skill to the recipient. Neither the Assessing Officer nor the DRP adduced such evidence or made findings to satisfy the "make available" test. Absent such proof, FTS characterization fails.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Failure to prove "make available" negates FTS characterization under the DTAA. Obiter - No further delineation of evidentiary standards beyond the need for proof was elaborated.
Conclusion: The "make available" condition is not satisfied on the record; therefore the receipts cannot be taxed as FTS.
Issue 3 - Managerial services exclusion from FTS
Legal framework: Article 12(5) of the India-Netherlands DTAA excludes managerial services from the definition of FTS; classification of services requires examination of their substantive nature (managerial v. technical).
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate Benches consistently treated the services as managerial in character and thus excluded from FTS under Article 12(5); the Tribunal applies those findings here.
Interpretation and reasoning: The nature of the services rendered - described and assessed by the Tribunal - indicates managerial work rather than technical assistance. As Article 12(5) expressly excludes managerial services, such receipts fall outside the FTS ambit even before applying the "make available" test.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Managerial services are excluded from FTS under Article 12(5); where services are managerial, they cannot be treated as FTS. Obiter - The decision does not traverse borderline cases where services have mixed managerial and technical elements.
Conclusion: The services are managerial and thus excluded from FTS under Article 12(5); treatment as FTS is incorrect.
Issue 4 - Application of DTAA benefits, tax rate and consequential interest (sections 115A and 234B)
Legal framework: If receipts are not FTS under the DTAA, domestic law provisions and rates apply; conversely, where DTAA governs characterisation/fiscal consequence, beneficial treaty provisions supplant domestic rates. Interest under section 234B arises on tax liability as determined by assessment additions.
Precedent Treatment: Given the Tribunal's deletion of the FTS addition, prior coordinate decisions removed the basis for applying higher taxation or treaty-linked withholding at the rates contended by the Revenue.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the main addition (FTS) is deleted, tax computed under section 115A or the contested 40% levy is consequentially inapplicable; similarly, interest under section 234B linked to the deleted addition cannot be sustained. The Court treats levy of tax and interest as consequential matters dependent on the primary substantive finding.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Consequential tax and interest charges tied solely to the deleted FTS addition fall away. Obiter - No general pronouncement on alternative domestic taxing rights where treaty is found inapplicable beyond this factual setting.
Conclusion: Tax at the contested higher rate and interest under section 234B, insofar as they derive from the deleted FTS addition, are not sustainable.
Issue 5 - Initiation of penalty proceedings under section 270A
Legal framework: Section 270A permits penalty for income concealment or under-reporting; initiation of penalty proceedings ordinarily follows completion of assessment and factual determination.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal considered the initiation of penalty proceedings premature in the context of the present assessment and pending determinations.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the substantive addition (FTS) has been deleted, and given that penalty proceedings relate to additions and require conclusive findings regarding wilful concealment or under-reporting, initiation of penalty proceedings at this stage is premature.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Penalty proceedings predicated on the deleted addition are not warranted at the present stage; initiation is premature. Obiter - No determination made on merits of penalty had the addition been upheld.
Conclusion: Penalty proceedings under section 270A are premature and not sustained in the present circumstances.
Cross-references
Findings on Issues 1-3 are interrelated: the managerial character of services (Issue 3) and failure to establish the "make available" condition (Issue 2) together determine the legal characterisation (Issue 1); Issues 4 and 5 are consequential upon the resolution of Issues 1-3.
Income deemed to accrue or arise in India - Taxability of business support services received by the assessee - fee for technical services (FTS) under Article 12 of India-Netherlands Tax Treaty - HELD THAT:- We find that the issue involved is squarely covered by the decisions of coordinate Benches time to time i.e. from AYs 2014-15 to 2021-22 [2023 (3) TMI 165 - ITAT DELHI] From the nature of services rendered, it is very much evident that they are mostly in the nature of managerial services. Reading of Article-12 (5) of India-Netherlands DTAA reveals that it does not include managerial services within FTS.
Therefore, the payment received by the assessee cannot be treated as FTS under India- Netherlands DTAA. Even, assuming for the sake of argument that payment received for certain kind of services is in the nature of FTS, however, the make available condition needs to be satisfied. Neither the Assessing Officer nor learned DRP have established on record that by rendering the services, the assessee has made available technical knowledge, know-how, skill etc. to the recipient of services, which would have enabled the recipient of such services to utilize it independently without the aid and assistance of the assessee. Thus, in our view, the make available condition is not satisfied.
Thus payment received cannot be treated as FTS under Article-12(5) of India Netherlands DTAA. Hence, we are inclined to delete the addition made by the AO.
Issues: Whether reassessment under section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was valid where the assessee, a non-resident receiving only interest income subject to tax deduction at source, was not required to file a return under section 115A(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The assessee was a foreign company resident in the UAE and the only income from India was interest received from an Indian payer. Tax was deducted at source on the remittance at the applicable treaty rate, and the conditions in section 115A(5) stood satisfied, so no return of income was required to be furnished for the assessment year. The reassessment was initiated only on the premise that no return had been filed, without any material showing that income escaping assessment actually existed. The assessed figure was also found to be double the actual interest reflected in the record, and no basis was brought on record to justify that figure. In these circumstances, the statutory foundation for invoking section 147 failed.
Conclusion: The assumption of jurisdiction to reopen the assessment under section 147 was bad in law, and the assessment was quashed in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a non-resident's only Indian income consists of interest on which tax has been duly deducted at source and section 115A(5) exempts the assessee from filing a return, non-filing of a return by itself cannot justify reassessment under section 147 in the absence of material showing escapement of income.
Reopening of assessment - assessee is a foreign company and is a tax resident of UAE - assessee has not filled return of income in pursuance of section 115A(5) - HELD THAT:- We find that for the year under consideration, assessee received interest income of USD 7,48,401.66 (i.e. Rs. 4,24,75,001/-) from IFFCO. As per provisions of Article 11 of India-UAE DTAA, interest income was taxable in India @ 12.5%. As such, TDS under section 195 of the Act was deducted by IFFCO on remittances made to assessee and total TDS deducted was Rs. 53,09,375/-. We observe that the AO however has subjected to tax interest income of Rs. 8,49,50,002/- i.e., exactly twice the amount of actual income derived and shown in Form 26AS. We further observe that no material has been brought on record by the AO to show that actual income earned is Rs. 8,49,50,002/- and not Rs 4,24,75,001/-. We observe that assessee is a foreign company and a tax resident of UAE and the only source of income derived by it from India was interest income received by it from IFFCO on which withholding tax @ 12.5% has been deducted.
We observe that since both the above conditions have been satisfied, the assessee was not required to file a return of income for AY 2012-13. We further observe that the only reason given by the AO for his assumption of jurisdiction u/s 147 is that the assessee has not filed return of income for the year under consideration. We observe that this argument has no merit considering provisions of section 115A.
We therefore find merit in the objections raised by the assessee and accordingly hold that assumption of jurisdiction to assess u/s 147 is be bad in law and hence assessment order is quashed. Accordingly we allow the grounds raised by the assessee.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether consideration received on cancellation/reduction of unlisted shares under an NCLT-sanctioned scheme constitutes "transfer" within section 2(47) and is taxable as capital gain under section 48.
2. Whether section 50CA (and Rules 11UAA/11UA) applies so as to substitute the actual consideration by a deemed fair market value, and, if so, what is the correct valuation date and methodology for determining FMV of unquoted shares.
3. Whether the cost of acquisition in the hands of the transferee/shareholder can be limited to the investee company's face value of shares appearing in its financial statements, or the actual price paid in a secondary acquisition is the correct cost.
4. Whether Rule 11UA (and the related section 50CA mechanism) or section 56(2)(viib) governs valuation in the context of a reduction of capital/cancellation of shares, and whether the AO's reliance on valuation methods under section 56 was legally permissible.
5. Whether dividends paid by the investee company and subjected to Dividend Distribution Tax should be excluded from FMV computation to avoid double taxation.
6. Whether the transaction amounts to a colourable device/tax avoidance and affects entitlement to treaty benefits or other tax consequences.
7. Ancillary: Whether penalty under section 270A is justified (raised but not finally adjudicated in reasoning).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Characterisation as transfer and taxation as capital gain
Legal framework: Section 2(47) defines "transfer" for capital gains; section 48 prescribes computation. The Tribunal notes a Supreme Court decision (subsequently confirming that a capital reduction can amount to transfer under section 2(47)).
Precedent treatment: The Court records that highest-court authority treats such capital reduction transactions as transfer for capital gains purposes; the Tribunal follows that characterization for assessment purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepts that the reduction of capital under NCLT (with certified sanction and filing) effected cancellation of shares and repatriation of funds - a transaction falling within the ambit of transfer as per statutory definition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - capital reduction sanctioned by NCLT resulting in consideration to shareholder is a transfer taxable under capital gains provisions.
Conclusions: The transaction is taxable as long-term capital gain/loss under sections 2(47) and 48 (subject to correct determination of full value and cost).
Issue 2: Applicability of section 50CA and date/method of FMV determination under Rules 11UAA/11UA
Legal framework: Section 50CA deems the FMV determined under Rule 11UAA read with Rule 11UA to be the full value of consideration where actual consideration is less than FMV. Rule 11UAA expressly links valuation date to the "date on which the capital asset... is transferred." Rule 11UA(1)(b)/(c) prescribes methods for unquoted shares.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relies on the statutory text of Rule 11UAA and Rule 11UA rather than extraneous valuation approaches adopted by the AO.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal holds that the valuation date mandated by Rule 11UAA is the date of transfer (20.11.2017 in the facts). AO's adoption of FMV as of 31.03.2017 is contrary to the rule. Where the assessee furnished valuation as of the date of transfer showing FMV not exceeding actual consideration, section 50CA is not attracted. The Tribunal also observes that Rule 11UA methods must be applied with valuation date fixed by Rule 11UAA; deviations by AO are erroneous.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - FMV for section 50CA must be determined as on the date of transfer per Rule 11UAA; adoption of an earlier audited balance sheet date (31.03.2017) by AO is impermissible.
Conclusions: Section 50CA does not apply because the assessee's valuation as on the date of transfer yields FMV equal to or lower than the actual consideration received (Rs. 10.09 versus FMV ˜ Rs.10.00), so actual consideration governs for section 48.
Issue 3: Cost of acquisition - face value in investee's financials versus actual purchase price in secondary acquisition
Legal framework: Section 48 requires actual cost of acquisition of capital asset in the hands of the transferor/transferee as the base for computing capital gains. Accounting entries/records and documentary evidence of purchase may be relevant.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treats the assessee's contemporaneous accounting disclosure and the Share Purchase Agreement evidencing a secondary acquisition at Rs.13.02 per share as material and persuasive.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal rejects the AO/DRP's approach of restricting cost to face value shown in investee's balance sheet. It reasons that face value of shares is not synonymous with purchase price in a secondary market acquisition; standard corporate accounting recognises securities premium and reflects acquisition cost in investor's books. The assessee consistently carried the investment at the acquisition cost in its balance sheets from FY 2013 onwards; the purchase was not recent or contrived. AO's rejection for lack of proof of remittance is insufficient when share purchase agreement and consistent accounting position are on record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - actual consideration paid in a bona fide secondary acquisition, evidenced by agreement and consistent accounting, constitutes cost of acquisition; face value in investee's books cannot be imposed as cost in the purchaser's hands.
Conclusions: Cost of acquisition is the price actually paid (Rs.13.02 per share) and not the Rs.10 face value recorded by the investee.
Issue 4: Use of section 56(2)(viib) methodology and AO's valuation approach
Legal framework: Section 56(2)(viib) deals with consideration for issue of shares exceeding face value (primary issuance). Rule 11UA contains sub-rules referenced by Rule 11UAA for FMV of unquoted shares; each provision has a distinct scope.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal distinguishes valuation methods applicable to fresh issue of shares (section 56(2)(viib)) from those applicable for transfer/redemption under section 50CA; AO's invocation of section 56 valuation rules for a capital reduction/transfer is rejected.
Interpretation and reasoning: The transaction is a cancellation/reduction of existing shares (transfer) and not an issuance of shares; therefore section 56(2)(viib) is inapplicable. AO's application of rule 11UA provisions as interpreted for section 56 context is misplaced. The proper route is application of Rule 11UAA read with Rule 11UA with valuation date equal to transfer date.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - valuation methods and rules tied to receipt of consideration for issue of shares (section 56(2)(viib)) cannot be transposed to reductions/cancellations assessed under section 50CA; the statutory scheme is to be followed as per the specific trigger provision.
Conclusions: AO's adoption of a valuation under section 56 methodology was incorrect; FMV must be determined under Rule 11UAA/11UA as applicable to transfers, on the date of transfer.
Issue 5: Exclusion of dividends (subject to DDT) from FMV to avoid double taxation
Legal framework: Rule 11UA methodology and valuation inputs may require exclusion of items that are otherwise separately taxed to avoid double counting; dividend distribution tax (section 115-O) renders dividend income exempt in shareholder's hands under section 10(34).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal considers the principle against double taxation and the statutory scheme which taxed dividend at company level (DDT) and exempts the shareholder, observing that inclusion of amounts already subjected to DDT in FMV could result in double tax consequences.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal notes AO did not adjust FMV for dividend distributed between audited balance sheet date and valuation date. It accepts the assessee's contention that dividends already subjected to DDT should not be included again in valuation which would effectively tax the same economic benefit twice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio/Significant finding - where valuation as of an earlier date includes a payout subsequently distributed and already taxed by DDT, appropriate exclusion/adjustment must be made to avoid double taxation; however primary reliance remains on valuation as of transfer date obviating the need for such adjustment here.
Conclusions: Even if earlier date valuation were valid (which Tribunal rejects), dividend declared and taxed by DDT ought to be excluded; in the present facts valuation on transfer date already showed no higher FMV than consideration.
Issue 6: Allegation of colourable device/tax avoidance and treaty entitlement
Legal framework: Tax avoidance/colourable device allegations require clear evidence of contrivance; treaty benefits may be denied where transactions are shams or where person is not entitled under domestic anti-avoidance rules and treaty provisions.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal requires concrete evidence of tax-avoidance arrangement and notes that mere repatriation by a company after NCLT-approved reduction, in the absence of manipulative or recent contrived acquisitions, is insufficient to impugn bona fides.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal finds the shares were acquired in 2013 by secondary purchase and consistently reflected in the assessee's books; RBS Prime had ceased business and distributed accumulated profits; NCLT approval was on commercial grounds. The AO's assertion of colourable device is not supported by specific findings of contrivance; consequently denial of treaty or other rights on that basis is unmerited in the present record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - allegation of colourable device cannot be sustained without evidentiary foundation; entitlement to treaty relief or domestic relief should not be denied on speculative grounds.
Conclusions: No adjudicated finding of tax-avoidance or colourable device in the record; transaction treated as genuine for tax purposes and treaty entitlement contentions preserved (not finally decided on merits beyond rejection of allegation).
Issue 7: Penalty under section 270A
Legal framework: Section 270A imposes penalty for under-reporting/misreporting subject to proof of inaccuracies and culpability.
Precedent treatment and reasoning: The Tribunal's order addresses substantive taxability and adjustments in favour of the assessee; no express detailed adjudication of penalty is recorded in the reasoning apart from being raised as a ground.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - penalty contention was pleaded but the Tribunal's conclusions on valuation, cost and genuineness undermine basis for penalty; no separate penalty order reasoning is set out.
Conclusions: As assessment adjustments in favour of the assessee are allowed, the basis for penalty is weakened; the appeal is allowed on substantive grounds concerning FMV and cost, implicitly affecting penalty exposure (final determination of penalty not separately reasoned).
Transfer of Shares / Capital Reduction transactions - Taxable u/s 56(2)(viib) or u/s 45 as Capital Gain - Transfer u/s 2(47) - Determination of Capital Gain - AO recomputed the sale consideration and cost of acquisition adopted by the assessee - Shares are purchased in secondary market - whether the provisions of section 50CA? - HELD THAT:- We observed that the assessee has purchased the shares of RBS Prime in a secondary purchase from its related concern by entering into a share purchase agreement dated 1st November 2013 at Rs. 13.02 per share. It is also fact that the assessee has recorded the above cost of shares its balance sheet from the financial year 2013 to 2017. It is also fact that this transaction did not take place during the current financial year. Just because the shares were held by the assessee of its subsidiary company in the India, the tax authorities taken view that it is an arrangement to evade tax.
On careful review of facts on record, we observed that the AO accepts the fact that the assessee had purchased the shares as secondary purchase. We observed that both the authorities rejected the contention of the assessee of cost of purchase on the basis that they have not submitted any proof of remittance or payment proof of such purchase.
Share purchase agreement was dated 1st November 2013 and since then the assessee has been regularly declaring in their Balance Sheet under the head investments. It is not something purchased recently, so that revenue authorities can doubt the transaction as arrangements. It was purchased in the year 2013.
Merger of two companies took place with the approval of NCLT and the taxability of transactions before or after is based on the Income tax Act. Same NCLT had approved the reduction of shares based on the financial requirement of the Indian Company.
Valuation of shares on the date of transfer or as per the recently adopted balance sheet - It depends upon the fair market value of shares, whether the sale consideration is less than the fair market value or not. If it is less than the fair market value, the provision of section 50CA will be attractive, otherwise, regular provision of section 48 will be applicable. In this case, the assessee has filed a valuation report on the date of transfer. We observed from the paper book that the valuation report submitted by the assessee is not only on the date of transfer, but it had also evaluated the valuation sometime in the month of June 2017. The relevant valuation report is part of the paper book. The value per share is exactly same as submitted for valuation of shares at the time of transfer as well as in the month of June 2017.
AO had adopted the method of valuation of unquoted equity shares as per section 56(2)(viib) of the Act, accordingly, adopted the rule 11UA(1)(c)(b). We noticed that the transaction under consideration is reduction of shares, nothing but transfer of shares. Basically, present transaction is not falling under the head income from other sources, further the section 56(2)(viib) applicable only when the company receives from any person any consideration for issue of shares that exceeding the face value of such shares. Therefore, it is clear that present transaction does not fall under section 56.
Whether the provision of section 50CA is applicable in this case - Determining the fair market value of unquoted shares, it shall be determined in the manner provided under rule 11UA(1)(b) or (c). For the above purpose, the valuation date shall mean the date of such capital asset is transferred. Therefore, it is clear that the date of valuation has to be on the date of transfer. In the given case, the AO cannot adopt the fair market value as on 31.03.2017. It has to be on the basis of date of transfer.
AO should have adopted the value of shares on the date of transfer whether the sale consideration is fair or not, whether the provisions of section 50CA applicable or not. In this case, we observed that the assessee had submitted the valuation on the date of transfer i.e., 20.11.2017, which is Rs. 10.09 per share. Based on the approval of NCLT, repatriation was carried out against the reduction of shares. From the above fair market value determined and submitted by the assessee is not less than the actual consideration received by the assessee, therefore the provisions of section 50CA are not applicable. The adoption of method of valuation by the AO is basically wrong and contrary to the provisions and rules.
Therefore, the shares are purchased in secondary market in the year 2013 and the same is declared in the Balance Sheet of the assessee from FY 2013 onwards, due to business exigencies, the group had decided to reduce the capital requirement in the Indian subsidiary, they have legally applied for reduction of shares in the Indian subsidiary and accordingly, at the approval of the NCLT, the funds were repatriated based on the fair market value on the date of reduction/cancellation. Hence, there is no arrangement in this case, Therefore, we are inclined to allow the grounds raised by the assessee in this appeal. With regard to dividend, the same is received by the assessee after payment of applicable rate of dividend distribution tax, the issue of dividend is not under dispute.
Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a High Court, in exercise of its writ jurisdiction under Article 226, was justified in refusing to entertain a petition for certiorari where an alternative statutory remedy by way of appeal/reference to the High Court under the Customs Act, 1962 existed and was not pursued within the prescribed period.
2. Whether the existence of an alternative remedy provided by the statute, when that alternative forum is the High Court itself (in a different jurisdiction), ordinarily precludes entertainment of a writ petition under Article 226 and when exceptions to that rule should apply.
3. Whether the petitioner's delay and failure to seek condonation of delay in invoking the statutory remedy (Section 130A/Section 130 framework) justified refusal to exercise writ jurisdiction.
4. Whether the writ court erred on merits in holding that objections to confiscation were not sufficiently pleaded as having been raised before the tribunal (CEGAT) and left unconsidered.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Whether refusal to entertain writ petition was justified when an alternative statutory remedy existed and was not exhausted
Legal framework: The writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary and may be exercised subject to self-imposed limitations where an alternative statutory remedy exists that provides an equally efficacious and not unduly onerous relief. The Customs Act, 1962 provides appellate/reference remedies (including a reference to the High Court under its statutory scheme) for challenging orders of confiscation and penalty.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on established principles in its jurisprudence reiterating that availability of an alternative statutory remedy does not oust writ jurisdiction but that ordinarily the writ court will decline to entertain petitions where an adequate alternative statutory remedy exists and is capable of speedy and efficacious redress. The Court also relied on earlier Constitution Bench pronouncements emphasizing that the High Court should not be used to bypass statutory machinery, and that a petitioner who has disabled himself from availing the statutory remedy by his own fault cannot ordinarily invoke Article 226.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the principle that where the statute itself designates a forum (including the High Court in another jurisdiction) for aggrieved parties to obtain redress, the discretionary exercise of writ jurisdiction should generally be refused so as not to bypass the statutory machinery. It held that the availability of a remedy before the High Court in a separate jurisdiction (by statutory reference/appeal) was an equally efficacious remedy, hence the writ petition was properly declined.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A writ court should ordinarily refuse to entertain a writ petition where an alternative statutory remedy exists which is equally efficacious, including where that statutory remedy entails approaching the High Court in another jurisdiction; a petitioner who fails to pursue such remedy may be refused writ relief. Obiter - General observations on the breadth of Article 226 and distinctions between entertainability and maintainability are explanatory but consistent with the ratio.
Conclusions: The High Court was justified in refusing to entertain the writ petition on the ground that the petitioner had an effective statutory remedy which was not pursued within the statutory regime; refusal to exercise discretion did not warrant interference.
Issue 2 - Effect of the alternative forum being the High Court itself (in another jurisdiction) on exercise of Article 226 jurisdiction
Legal framework: When the statute designates a forum that can provide speedy and efficacious relief, courts should avoid permitting Article 226 to be used to circumvent the statutory route. Special significance arises when the statutorily-designated forum is the High Court (albeit in another jurisdiction), because entertaining the petition in the same High Court would bypass the statutory procedure.
Precedent Treatment: The Court drew on Constitution Bench authority holding that the writ jurisdiction is discretionary and ought not normally to be exercised where alternative statutory remedies exist, particularly where the alternative is to approach the High Court in another jurisdiction under the statute.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that if the statutory alternative directs the litigant to the High Court in a separate jurisdiction, then refusal to entertain a writ petition invoking the same High Court's Article 226 jurisdiction should be the rule; entertaining it would frustrate the statutory scheme and allow bypass of the designated procedure.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where an alternative remedy under statute is to approach the High Court in a separate jurisdiction, the High Court should generally decline to exercise its writ jurisdiction so as not to bypass the statutory forum. Obiter - Emphasis on the need for the statutory forum to be capable of speedy and efficacious relief.
Conclusions: The presence of a statutory remedy which itself contemplates recourse to a High Court in a different jurisdiction is a strong ground for declining Article 226 relief in the High Court approached, and the High Court's refusal was proper in such circumstances.
Issue 3 - Relevance of petitioner's delay and failure to seek condonation in statutory forum
Legal framework: While there is no fixed period of limitation for invoking writ jurisdiction, invocation must be with expedition and within a reasonable period; the statutory period for the alternative remedy provides a useful indication of what is reasonable. The Limitation Act provisions relating to condonation of delay apply unless excluded explicitly or by necessary implication.
Precedent Treatment: The Court reiterated prior authority that a petitioner who, through his own fault, loses his statutory remedy may not be entitled to discretionary writ relief. The Court also treated the statutory limitation governing reference/appeal as indicative of reasonable time for invoking writs.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the order of the appellate tribunal was challenged by the petitioner well after the statutory period for seeking a statutory reference/appeal; the petitioner's explanation for delay was unpersuasive and, in any event, the petitioner could have sought condonation of delay under the Limitation Act while pursuing the statutory remedy. The Court found no exclusion of Limitation Act provisions from the Customs Act and thus concluded the High Court in its reference jurisdiction could have condoned delay.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Unexplained or unjustified delay in pursuing the statutory remedy, when the statutory regime provides means to seek condonation, is a valid basis for refusing writ relief. Obiter - General comments on what constitutes a "reasonable period" are illustrative.
Conclusions: The petitioner's belated approach and failure to seek condonation in the statutory forum reinforced the propriety of declining writ relief; the High Court's reliance on delay was justified.
Issue 4 - Whether the High Court erred on merits in finding that objections to confiscation were not sufficiently pleaded as raised before the tribunal and left unconsidered
Legal framework: Writ petitions must contain material averments of fact and proper pleadings; to invoke non-consideration by an inferior authority as a ground, the petitioner must plead and verify that the point was raised before the authority and was not considered.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied routine pleading principles and practice, noting that not all grounds listed in a petition are necessarily argued at hearing; courts require specific, verified allegations to examine a claim that a tribunal failed to consider a point.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the record showed the confiscation order was included in the tribunal appeal, the writ petition did not contain appropriate pleadings asserting that a specific point of invalidity was raised before the tribunal and remained unadjudicated. The Court emphasized the necessity for direct challenge and verified pleading to claim non-consideration; absence of such pleading justified dismissal on merits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A writ petition lacking specific, verified pleadings that an issue was raised before a tribunal and left undecided cannot sustain a complaint of non-consideration; dismissal on merits in such circumstances is proper. Obiter - Observations on common practice that not all grounds listed are argued are explanatory.
Conclusions: The High Court did not err in concluding the writ petition was devoid of sufficient pleadings on the alleged non-consideration of the confiscation issue and correctly dismissed it on merits.
Overall Conclusion
The Court upheld the High Court's refusal to entertain the writ petition and its dismissal on merits: (i) the petitioner had an equally efficacious statutory remedy before the High Court in another jurisdiction which was not pursued; (ii) the petitioner's delay and failure to seek condonation supported refusal of discretionary writ relief; and (iii) pleadings before the writ court were inadequate to substantiate a claim that the tribunal failed to consider specific grounds of challenge to confiscation. Accordingly, no interference with the impugned order was warranted.
Dismissal of petition on the ground of omission of the appellant to pursue the alternative remedy of appeal provided by the Customs Act, 1962 - justification in refusing to entertain the writ petition of the appellant seeking a writ of certiorari - HELD THAT:- While deciding whether to entertain a petition under Article 226 bearing in mind the precedents in the field, a writ court ought to additionally notice the forum designated by the statute for the litigant to approach. This is necessary because the alternative forum that is provided by the statute has to be one which can dispense speedy and efficacious relief. However, as in the present case, if the statutorily designated alternative forum happens to be the high court itself whose jurisdiction under Article 226 is invoked and not any ordinary statutory functionary/tribunal, refusal to entertain the petition should be the rule and entertaining it an exception.
Reference made to the Constitution Bench decision in Thansingh Nathmal v. A. Mazid, Superintendent of Taxes [1964 (2) TMI 79 - SUPREME COURT]. In Thansingh Nathmal, this Court had the occasion to lay down a principle of law which is salutary and not to be found in any other previous decision rendered by it. The principle, plainly, is that, if a remedy is available to a party before the high court in another jurisdiction, the writ jurisdiction should not normally be exercised on a petition under Article 226, for, that would allow the machinery set up by the concerned statute to be bye-passed.
Since the appellant had a remedy by way of a reference before the High Court against the order dated 23rd June, 2000 of the CEGAT, it is not considered refusal to exercise discretion in favour of the appellant to be so fundamentally incorrect that interference is warranted.
In the present case, the order of the CEGAT was subjected to challenge by the appellant well after the prescribed period of limitation for seeking a reference by making an application under Section 130A of the 1962 Act (as it then existed). Although, an explanation was sought to be given by the appellant why the writ jurisdiction could not be invoked earlier, we are not impressed. The belated invocation of the writ jurisdiction of the High Court could not have been justified by the appellant by taking the plea of pursuing remedy elsewhere. Even otherwise, such an explanation could well have been offered in an application seeking condonation of delay in presentation of the application under Section 130A of the 1962 Act before the High Court. We have not found any provision in the 1962 Act which either expressly or by necessary implication excluded the provisions of Sections 4 to 24 of the Limitation Act, 1963 - thus, in terms of Section 29(2) of the 1963 Act, the High Court in its reference jurisdiction could have well been approached with a request to condone the delay in presentation of the application under Section 130A of the 1962 Act.
The appellant having had a remedy before the High Court in a separate jurisdiction which was equally efficacious, he indulged in the (mis)adventure of invoking its writ jurisdiction which was rightly not entertained.
The writ petition lacked the basic pleadings and hence, the High Court did not fall in error in dismissing it even on merits - Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether goods alleged to be misclassified and detained pending adjudication can be permitted to be re-exported pending adjudication under the Customs Act, 1962.
2. Whether conditions such as execution of a bond and furnishing of a bank guarantee are appropriate and legally sufficient safeguards to permit re-export pending adjudication where confiscation or penalty under Section 111 and fine under Section 125 are possible outcomes.
3. Whether retention of goods in India is necessary to secure recovery of differential duty, penalty or confiscation, or whether alternative financial securities suffice.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Re-export of detained goods pending adjudication: Legal framework
The Customs Act provides for seizure (Section 110) and confiscation of improperly imported goods (Section 111), with an option for payment of a fine in lieu of confiscation (Section 125). Adjudication determines classification, valuation and any consequential duty/penalty.
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment
The Court relied on prior authoritative decisions recognising that, in cases of alleged misclassification/undervaluation, courts have permitted re-export subject to conditions (including retention fine or security), and that at best confiscation may lead to an option of payment of fine under Section 125. Earlier High Court orders and decisions have permitted re-export upon safeguards; these treatments are followed.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court reasoned that the logical outcome of adjudication is monetary liability (differential duty, penalty or fine) rather than a necessity to keep physical possession of the goods in India. Where the supplier agrees to take back the goods and the investigating agency has completed tests indicating misclassification, continued physical retention is not essential to secure recovery. To balance revenue protection and avoid undue detention, conditioned re-export is appropriate.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where adjudication may result in monetary liability under the Customs Act, detained imported goods may be permitted to be re-exported pending final adjudication if adequate financial security is furnished to protect revenue interests.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The Court permits re-export pending adjudication subject to the prescribed safeguards (bond and bank guarantee), holding that retention of goods in India is not strictly necessary to secure the revenue interest.
Issue 2 - Appropriateness and sufficiency of conditions: bond and bank guarantee
Issue 2 - Legal framework
Customs law permits imposition of monetary liabilities; courts have authority to impose conditions for release/re-export of seized goods to ensure subsequent recovery of differential duty and penalties.
Issue 2 - Precedent Treatment
Judicial practice cited includes orders directing re-export upon execution of a bond and/or furnishing a bank guarantee (including quantified percentages of re-determined value). The Court follows these precedents and the reasoning in higher court authority that retention fine/monetary security can substitute for physical retention pending adjudication.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court adopted a twofold security mechanism: (i) a bond for the total value of the differential duty payable (to secure full duty exposure), and (ii) a bank guarantee equivalent to 20% of the re-determined value (to secure potential penalties/ancillary liabilities). This combination is considered proportionate to balance the risk to revenue and the petitioner's interest in avoiding prolonged detention. The 20% figure is derived from analogous judicial practice and serves as a partial but meaningful security against undervaluation and penalty risk.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Courts may condition re-export upon execution of a bond for differential duty and a bank guarantee for a specified percentage of re-determined value; such conditions are legally permissible and adequate to protect revenue pending adjudication.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
The Court holds that execution of a bond for total differential duty and furnishing of a bank guarantee equal to 20% of the re-determined value are appropriate and sufficient conditions to permit re-export within a specified timeframe.
Issue 3 - Necessity of physical retention to secure revenue and procedural implications
Issue 3 - Legal framework
The Act contemplates confiscation and fines as outcomes of adjudication; statutory procedures for detention/seizure are distinct from measures for securing monetary recovery. Courts historically balance statutory enforcement with proportionality concerns.
Issue 3 - Precedent Treatment
Precedents recognize that where monetary recovery can be secured through bonds/guarantees, continued physical detention of goods may be unnecessary. The Court follows this line of decisions and the reasoning in higher court cases that monetary security can substitute for custody when adequate safeguards exist.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
Given that the supplier agreed to accept return and the expected adjudicatory remedy is monetary, the Court assessed that retaining goods in India is not essential. It emphasized timely compliance (re-export within 12 days of furnishing security) to prevent indefinite delay and to preserve evidence of good faith and practicality.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Physical retention is not an indispensable element to secure the revenue where adequate financial safeguards are provided; timely re-export subject to conditions is a permissible remedy to avoid prolonged detention.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
The Court concluded that permitting re-export upon fulfillment of the specified conditions protects revenue interests while preventing undue retention; compliance timelines and securities are integral to the order.
INTER-RELATIONS AND FINAL CONCLUSIONS
Cross-reference: Issues 1-3 are inter-linked - the permissibility of re-export (Issue 1) depends on sufficiency of securities (Issue 2) and on the proposition that physical retention is not necessary where monetary recovery is achievable (Issue 3).
Final conclusion: The Court ordered conditional permission to re-export provided (i) a bond for the total value of differential duty payable, and (ii) a bank guarantee equal to 20% of the re-determined value, with re-export to occur within twelve days of compliance; these conditions are adopted as proportionate safeguards to protect revenue pending adjudication.
Permission to re-export the imported viscose knitted fabrics from China - long delay in the release of the goods - HELD THAT:- The issue involved in the present writ petition has already been dealt with by this Court in M/S. AASHI CREATIONS [2025 (10) TMI 76 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] where it was held that 'The logical end to the adjudication proceedings will result in directing the petitioner to pay the fine/penalty and differential duty. For this purpose, it is not necessary to retain the goods in India. Therefore, to strike a balance, considering the fact that the goods are lying in India from January 2025, certain conditions can be imposed on the petitioner and on fulfilment of the conditions so imposed, the petitioner can be permitted to re-export the goods. This view has been taken by this Court and other High Courts while granting such a relief.'
The petitioner is permitted to re-export the goods subject to fulfilment of conditions imposed - petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the respondent was bound by the view of the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT) that Vital Wheat Gluten falls within the description of Wheat Flour for the purpose of import against Duty Free Import Authorisation (DFIA) and attendant exemption notification.
2. Whether the respondent, having regard to the binding nature of appellate orders, could ignore or reopen the question of classification and deny DFIA exemption, confiscate goods and demand duty, interest and penalty.
3. Whether the availability of an alternative remedy of appeal bars entertainment of writ petitions under Article 226 where the adjudicating authority is alleged to have acted contrary to binding appellate decisions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Binding effect of CESTAT findings on classification (Wheat Gluten as Wheat Flour)
Legal framework: The assessment and grant of DFIA exemption are governed by the Foreign Trade Policy and the exemption notification; classification for purposes of DFIA benefits depends on description of "materials" as defined under the policy and on tariff/commodity classification. Administrative and judicial discipline requires subordinate adjudicating authorities to follow appellate orders of higher revenue forums unless set aside or stayed.
Precedent Treatment: Multiple decisions of CESTAT and coordinating appellate authorities consistently held that Vital Wheat Gluten (or wheat gluten flour) is wheat flour with specific technical characteristics and thus covered by the description "Wheat Flour" for DFIA and exemption purposes. Board and DGFT circulars and technical communications were taken into account by those tribunals. The Apex Court's jurisprudence on the obligation of subordinate revenue officers to follow appellate orders was applied by The Court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the consistent line of tribunal decisions as authoritative on the classification issue and noted that technical data and communications from competent administrative offices supported the classification. The Court emphasized the doctrine of judicial/administrative discipline: an assessing/adjudicating officer must follow the order of the Tribunal and not reopen the same issue absent a higher court's reversal or suspension. The Court rejected the respondent's contention that non-filing of departmental appeal in some matters (on monetary grounds) permits inconsistent treatment in other matters, finding that the statutory scheme and settled jurisprudence require adherence to tribunal findings unless lawfully challenged and reversed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Tribunal's consistent determination that Wheat Gluten is covered by the description of Wheat Flour is binding on subordinate revenue authorities and is decisive for entitlement to DFIA exemptions until lawfully reversed. Obiter - Observations about the prudence of filing departmental appeals irrespective of monetary limits and policy considerations are ancillary.
Conclusions: The respondent was bound by the Tribunal's findings on classification. Because the impugned orders were predicated solely on the contrary conclusion that Wheat Gluten did not fall within DFIA description, those orders lacked jurisdiction and could not be sustained.
Issue 2 - Validity of impugned adjudication (confiscation, duty, interest, penalty) after Tribunal precedent
Legal framework: Subordinate authorities must implement and give effect to orders of appellate authorities; where an adjudication proceeds upon a contrary view on an issue already decided by the Tribunal, principles of judicial discipline and non-harassment of taxpayers apply. The statutory scheme permits departmental appeals, but absent a legal reversal, appellate authority findings bind assessing officers.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on higher court authority holding that assessing officers and appellate collectors are bound by appellate and tribunal orders within the appellate hierarchy, and that re-opening settled appellate decisions by subordinate officers produces undue harassment and disorder in tax administration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the impugned orders and found they were founded solely on disagreement with the Tribunal's classification. Because that classification remained unchallenged and unreversed by a competent forum, the respondent's exercise of power to deny exemption, demand duties and penalties, and to confiscate goods amounted to acting without jurisdiction. The Court also considered the respondent's reliance on statutory provisions permitting the Board to issue directions on monetary limits for appeals, but held that such procedural/monetary policies do not permit departure from the requirement to follow binding tribunal decisions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An adjudicating authority cannot pass orders inconsistent with binding decisions of the Tribunal on the same issue; doing so renders the order vitiated for want of jurisdiction. Obiter - Discussion of departmental policies regarding appeal thresholds and Section 131BA procedural mechanics are explanatory rather than determinative of the adjudication's validity.
Conclusions: The impugned orders imposing confiscation, duty, interest and penalty were quashed because they were based on a classification view inconsistent with binding Tribunal decisions; therefore the respondent's actions lacked jurisdiction.
Issue 3 - Maintainability of writ petitions despite alternative remedy of appeal
Legal framework: Writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary and not ousted by the existence of alternative remedies; however, availability of statutory appeal may be a relevant consideration. The Court must weigh whether interference is warranted where subordinate authorities are alleged to have disregarded binding appellate/tribunal decisions, or where questions of jurisdiction and public law arise.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied settled law that the existence of an alternative remedy is not an absolute bar to writ relief, particularly where the challenge questions the tribunal-binding nature of an official's action or alleges lack of jurisdiction. The Court noted established principles permitting judicial intervention to enforce administrative discipline and protect against harassment where subordinate officers ignore appellate determinations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the petitions challenged the very authority and jurisdiction of the respondent to reopen an issue conclusively decided by the Tribunal. Given that context, insistence on an appeal remedy would be a self-imposed restriction and inappropriate because it would perpetuate a breach of judicial/administrative discipline. The Court therefore exercised Article 226 jurisdiction to correct the jurisdictional error.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Availability of an appeal does not automatically bar writ relief where the adjudicatory action is contrary to binding appellate/tribunal decisions and challenges jurisdiction. Obiter - General observations about discretion in entertaining writs where alternative remedies exist.
Conclusions: The writ petitions were maintainable; the Court exercised its jurisdiction to quash the impugned orders because the respondent acted contrary to binding tribunal precedent, thereby committing jurisdictional error.
Overall Conclusion and Disposition
The Court quashed the impugned orders as lacking jurisdiction, holding that subordinate revenue authorities are bound by the Tribunal's consistent view that Wheat Gluten falls within the description of Wheat Flour for DFIA/exemption purposes; until that view is reversed by competent authority, assessing officers must follow it. The writ petitions were allowed and the impugned adjudications set aside. The Court left open the departmental right to challenge tribunal decisions by filing appropriate appeals in cases where the Department chooses to do so.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy - Jurisdiction to pass impugned orders - respondent is bound by the order passed by the CESTAT on the same issue - Classification of goods - imported wheat flour and Wheat Gluten fall under the same classification or not - no correlation established for the inputs used in the export product and the imported goods - whether the respondent who is bound by the decision taken by CESTAT can ignore the same and take an independent decision - HELD THAT:- It is informed to this Court that the larger Bench is yet to be constituted to go into that issue. In any case, the language that is used in Section 131BA(3) of the Act, uses the term "No person, being a party in appeal, application, revision or reference", makes it clear that it will confine itself only to those parties to the proceedings and will not apply across the Board to all persons.
The impugned orders have been passed only on the ground that Wheat Gluten is not covered under DFIA Licence and therefore, the petitioner is not eligible to claim exemption. If the CESTAT has already taken a view that Wheat flour and Wheat Gluten fall under the same classification, the entire proceedings of the respondent cannot be sustained, since all the other findings hinges upon only this issue.
This Court finds that the respondent who was bound by the decision taken by CESTAT, cannot be permitted to take a different view, in the light of judgment of the Apex Court referred supra. Thus, the impugned orders passed by the respondent, suffers from lack of jurisdiction. It goes without saying that if the Department, in an appropriate case, is aggrieved by the decision taken by CESTAT, and since it involves substantial questions of law on the classification, it will be left upon to the Department to file an appeal and agitate their case. Till that is done, the Assessing Officers will be bound by the findings rendered by CESTAT.
The impugned orders passed by the respondent in all the writ petitions stand quashed - Petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether goods covered by statutory prohibition/registration requirements are liable to absolute confiscation under section 111(d) of the Customs Act when imported without the required statutory permission.
2. Whether redemption of prohibited goods for the limited purpose of re-export under section 125 is permissible and, if effected, whether subsequent proceedings by Revenue can result in absolute confiscation.
3. Whether confiscation can be ordered when the impugned goods are no longer available in the jurisdiction (having been re-exported) and no bond/clearing under bond is shown.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Liability to absolute confiscation under section 111(d) for goods imported without required statutory permission
Legal framework: Section 111(d) of the Customs Act deals with confiscation of prohibited goods. Statutory regimes that require prior registration/permission (here, a registration requirement under the relevant statute) render importation without such permission suspect of illegality and attract confiscation provisions unless other statutory relief applies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted that the impugned goods fell within the statutory schedule requiring prior registration/permit, and that such requirement exposes unauthorized imports to confiscation liability. The Adjudicating Authority had initially held the goods liable for confiscation under the Customs Act, reflecting a correct legal premise that the absence of required statutory permission exposes the import to confiscation consequences.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied the settled statutory principle that prohibited/unregistered goods are amenable to confiscation; no attempt was made to overrule or distinguish existing precedent on this core proposition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The proposition that unpermitted import of goods covered by registration requirements can attract confiscation under section 111(d) is treated as ratio where applied to the facts; however, the ultimate relief was affected by subsequent events (re-export), limiting the practical operation of that ratio in the present case.
Conclusions: On the merits, unauthorized importation of goods covered by mandatory registration does render the goods prima facie liable to confiscation under section 111(d). This legal conclusion remains intact but is subject to factual constraints addressed below.
Issue 2 - Validity and effect of redemption for re-export under section 125 and interaction with later Revenue appeal for confiscation
Legal framework: Section 125 permits redemption of confiscable goods in specified circumstances, including for the limited purpose of re-exportation, subject to payment of redemption fine and compliance with conditions imposed by the authority. Redemption converts the immediate confiscatory process into a controlled release for a designated objective.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Adjudicating Authority exercised statutory power to grant redemption of the goods for re-export after ordering confiscation under section 111(m), imposing a redemption fine and a penalty under section 112(a). The Tribunal noted that the appellant accepted the redemption regime and re-exported the goods under a Let Export Order (LEO) dated prior to the filing of Revenue's appeal to the Commissioner. The Court reasoned that redemption for re-export, properly effected and acted upon by the importer, removed the goods from availability for confiscation.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied upon established legal principle that redemption under section 125, when complied with, yields tangible effect (e.g., re-export) and cannot be later undone by confiscation if the goods have already been lawfully removed from customs control, absent exceptional circumstances (such as clearance under bond). The judgment follows, rather than departs from, settled authority on the binding effect of redemption and the limits on subsequent confiscatory action.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that redemption for re-export, followed by actual re-export before Revenue's appeal, operates to preclude later confiscation is treated as ratio applied to the factual matrix of this case.
Conclusions: Redemption under section 125 for the purpose of re-export, when effectuated and complied with (including payment of prescribed sums), removes the goods from customs control and prevents subsequent absolute confiscation in ordinary circumstances. Therefore, where redemption is properly effected and the goods are re-exported, a later Revenue appeal seeking absolute confiscation is unsustainable.
Issue 3 - Power to order confiscation where goods are no longer available (re-exported) and exceptions
Legal framework: Confiscation is a remedial/equitable enforcement measure contingent upon availability of the goods. A foundational principle in customs jurisprudence is that confiscation cannot be ordered when goods are no longer available for seizure, except in limited situations (for example, where goods were cleared under bond or similar device that preserves jurisdiction over them).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized chronology: the goods were re-exported under a LEO dated 7.10.2019; Revenue's Review Order was dated 17.12.2019 and Revenue's appeal was filed on 16.1.2020. The importer notified the department of the re-export on 29.1.2020. Given that the goods had physically left the customs jurisdiction prior to Revenue's appeal and no evidence of clearance under bond or comparable arrangement was shown, the Tribunal concluded the goods were not available for confiscation when the Commissioner passed the impugned order. The Court held that basic principles of enforceability bar an absolute confiscation order in such circumstances.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the established rule that confiscation requires availability of the goods; it did not purport to expand exceptions beyond the well-recognized situation where goods were cleared under bond. No contrary precedent was followed or overruled.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that confiscation cannot be ordered where the goods are no longer available (absent bond clearance) is treated as a central ratio determining the outcome.
Conclusions: Confiscation ordered after the physical removal of goods from jurisdiction (by lawful re-export following redemption) is unsustainable. Because no evidence was produced that the goods had been cleared under bond or that an exception applied, the impugned absolute confiscation order was set aside.
Cross-reference and application to outcome
The Court reconciled the three issues by recognizing that while unauthorized importation of unregistered/prohibited goods can attract confiscation (Issue 1), the Adjudicating Authority's grant of redemption for re-export and the actual re-export prior to Revenue's prosecutorial step removed the goods from customs custody (Issue 2 and 3). Consequentially, the later order of absolute confiscation could not be sustained because the essential precondition of availability of goods for confiscation was absent.
Final disposition (ratio applied)
Because the goods were re-exported prior to Revenue's appellate action and no exceptional legal basis to confiscate thereafter was shown, the Tribunal set aside the order of absolute confiscation and restored the effect of the Adjudicating Authority's order permitting redemption and re-export. The Tribunal declined to interfere with the Adjudicating Authority's original order beyond setting aside the subsequent order of absolute confiscation.
Redemption of prohibited goods wjich is absolutely confiscated - Confiscation of goods which were already re-exported - Appellant failed to get the CIB permit within the permitted time and repeatedly sought extensions of warehousing period from time to time - HELD THAT:- The appellant has placed on record ‘Let Export Order’ (LEO) dated 7.10.2019 evidencing that the impugned goods were, in fact, reexported. Whereas the Review Order by the Commissioner of Customs was dated 17.12.2019 which resulted in filing of the appeal by revenue on 16.1.2020 before the Commissioner (Appeals). The appellant duly informed the department vide letter dated 29.1.2020 about the re-export of the goods under shipping bill dated 7.10.2019. Despite this, the learned Commissioner passed the impugned order without taking into account that the re-export of the goods in issue had already taken place prior to the filing of the appeal by Revenue. Once the goods have been re-exported certainly they were not available for confiscation.
As per settled position of law that where the goods are no longer available for confiscation, such confiscation cannot be ordered, except where they have been cleared under bond etc. which is not the case herein. This being so, the order for absolute confiscation of goods, is not sustainable in law and is accordingly set aside.
The impugned order passed by learned Commissioner for absolutely confiscating the goods is unwarranted and liable to be set aside - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the imported multifunctional audio-video equipment (AV Receivers / Stereo Receivers / CD Receivers / Home Theatre Systems) is classifiable under chapter heading 85.18 (audio-frequency electric amplifiers / electric sound amplifier sets) or under chapter heading 85.27 (reception apparatus for radio-broadcasting) of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
2. Whether the departmental re-classification to CTI 8527 9100 supports confirmation of differential duty (including CVD on MRP/retail price), confiscation and imposition of penalties.
3. Whether the Department was entitled to invoke the proviso to Section 28 (extended period of limitation) for demands in respect of the disputed imports covering pre- and post-self assessment periods.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 1. Proper classification: 85.18 v. 85.27
Legal framework: Classification governed by Customs Tariff Act, First Schedule and the General Rules for Interpretation (GRI 1-6), relevant Section/Chapter notes and General Explanatory Notes (HS scheme). Headings in issue: 8518 (loudspeakers; audio-frequency electric amplifiers; electric sound amplifier sets) and 8527 (reception apparatus for radio-broadcasting; subheadings including 8527 9100 "combined with sound recording or reproducing apparatus").
Precedent treatment: Reliance on tribunal and Supreme Court authority holding multifunction devices with amplification as classifiable under 8518 where amplification is principal function; reference to board circular clarifying classification of multifunction speaker systems per their principal function and application of Note 3 to Section XVI and GRI sequence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied GRI-1 first, reading the terms of headings and notes. Chapter heading 8518 expressly covers "audio-frequency electric amplifiers" and "electric sound amplifier sets" (single dash subheading 8518 40 encompassing all audio-frequency amplifiers). Chapter heading 8527 covers radio-broadcast reception apparatus. The Court examined product literature and features and concluded that the principal/essential function of the imported goods is amplification (receiving external inputs and amplifying sound for output), not radio reception or self-contained broadcast reception. CBEC circular on multifunction speaker systems was applied: where amplification is the principal function, classification under 8518 follows; where radio/USB playback is the principal function, 8527/8519 may apply. The Court found the imported AV/CD receivers/HTS primarily perform amplification and are known in trade parlance as AV Receivers / amplifiers; additional FM/AM tuner or USB features do not displace the principal function.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - classification must follow GRI-1 and the principal function test (Note 3 to Section XVI) applied to multi-function audio devices; where amplification is principal, 8518 governs. Obiter - observations comparing complexity/sophistication of functions and some comments on residual headings (8522/8543) as inappropriate here.
Conclusion: The imported goods are classifiable under CTI 8518 4000 as audio-frequency electric amplifiers / AV receivers. The departmental classification under CTI 8527 9100 is unsustainable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 2. Consequences for duty, confiscation and penalty
Legal framework: Customs duty liability depends on correct classification under the First Schedule; imposition of confiscation and penalties under relevant provisions requires a legally sustainable demand and, where invoked, proof of suppression, mis-declaration, fraud or collusion justifying extended actions.
Precedent treatment: Authorities and judgments cited treat classification errors as determinative of duty liability; tribunal and Supreme Court decisions upheld classification under 8518 when principal function is amplification and have refused departmental reclassification under 8527 in similar fact patterns.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because classification under 8518 4000 is the correct legal classification, the basis for departmental demand premised on classification under 8527 (and consequent CVD on MRP/retail price) fails. The Court further noted absence of suppression or wilful misrepresentation at import: product literature provided at assessment, assessments (pre- and post-self assessment) were accepted/cleared without revision by Customs, and facts were within departmental knowledge. Thus, the foundational factual and legal predicates justifying confiscation and penalty under the SCN were undermined.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where reclassification is legally unsustainable, consequential differential duty, confiscation and penalty founded on that reclassification cannot stand. Obiter - remarks on residual headings and inapplicability of other CTIs (8522/8543) in the factual matrix.
Conclusion: Demand for differential duty, confiscation and penalty based on classification under 8527 9100 is not legally sustainable; consequential relief follows from correct classification under 8518 4000.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 3. Limitation / Self-assessment and proviso to Section 28
Legal framework: Proviso to Section 28 of the Customs Act permits extended period of limitation where suppression of facts or fraud is established; self-assessment regime (from 08.04.2011) shifts primary assessment responsibility to importer but preserves verification/re-assessment powers of Customs.
Precedent treatment: Courts have held department cannot invoke extended limitation where relevant import facts were within departmental knowledge and no collusion, suppression, willful misrepresentation or fraud is shown.
Interpretation and reasoning: The period in dispute spans both pre- and post-self assessment regimes. The Court recorded that product literature was supplied at import, assessments were accepted and not revised by Customs during verification/self-assessment, and there was no evidence of concealment or fraud. Given these facts and authorities, the Department was held not entitled to invoke the proviso to Section 28 to extend limitation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - extended limitation under proviso to Section 28 cannot be invoked absent suppression/fraud where information was available to the Department. Obiter - commentary on self-assessment era implications for reassessment practice.
Conclusion: Department cannot rely on proviso to Section 28 to sustain extended period demands in this matter.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND FINAL DETERMINATIONS
1. The Court applied GRI sequence and Note 3 to Section XVI, and relied on CBEC clarification and controlling tribunal/Supreme Court authorities on multifunction audio devices to determine principal function governs classification.
2. Because classification under 8518 4000 is established as correct, all consequential departmental actions premised on classification under 8527 9100 (differential duty including CVD on MRP, confiscation, penalty) are set aside.
3. The Department was not entitled to rely on extended limitation under the proviso to Section 28 in the absence of suppression/fraud given the facts that product literature and relevant information were available and assessments were not revised by Customs.
Classification of imported multifunctional audio-video equipment - classifiable under CTI 8518 4000/8543 7099 for AV Receivers/Stereo Receivers/Receivers (AVR), and under CTI 8518 2900/8522 9000 for Home Theatre System/ Packages (HTS) as claimed by the appellants or, is it classifiable under CTI 8527 9100 as determined by the learned Commissioner of Customs, for deciding on the appropriate levy of customs duty? - Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is found that the two contending classification i.e., one under CTI 8518 4000 with specific description of “audio/video receivers/amplifiers” as claimed by the appellant and CTI 8527 9100 with general residuary description ‘Other’ adopted by the department, both in the impugned order as well as in the SCN, does provide sufficient ground for comparison of the scope of coverage of the goods, at the level of the ‘terms of headings’, to apply GIR-1 to come to the conclusion as to which of these two classification is more appropriate for classification of impugned goods, as we had carried out, the detailed analysis of the scope of coverage of goods under the specific tariff entries in paragraphs 7 and 8.1 to 8.3, in order to arrive at appropriate classification of imported goods. Therefore, there is no need to examine the specific customs tariff entries under the two contending headings, in terms of other Rules of GIR. From the careful reading of the GIRs, it could be seen that these are required to be followed sequentially; in other words when the classification of goods is not possible to be arrived under the first rule GIR-1 then one need to proceed further, one by one - Thus, it is not feasible to determine appropriate classification by application of any other GIR, other than GTR-1.
In the case of Logic India Trading Co. [2016 (3) TMI 5 - CESTAT BANGALORE], the Tribunal had held that multimedia speakers with FM/AM radio facility along with USB play back would be rightly classified under 8518 as these are known in the market as speakers and the radio is not the principal function of such goods. As is seen from the above, the Ministry itself, while expressing opinion on the classification of the mobile phones having a number of additional features, concluded that in as much as the essential purpose of the mobile phone is to communicate, the additional features of having so many other functions will not convert the phones into any other item. As the goods are being marketed and being purchased by the consumers as smart phone or other similar cellular or mobile phone, the additional facilities will not convert the phones into any other item.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It has been held in a number of cases by the Hon’ble Supreme Court that when all these facts relating to imports were within the knowledge of the Department, then the Department was not justified in invoking the extended period of limitation. Accordingly, we are of the view that in the present case, the Department would not be entitled to invoke the proviso to Section 28 of the Customs Act, 1962 in order to avail of extended period of limitation for invoking the demand of duty.
The impugned goods are classifiable under 8518 4000 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Accordingly, the impugned order dated 07.09.2017 classifying imported goods under heading 8527 9100 does not stand the scrutiny of law and therefore is not legally sustainable.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Assessing Officer lawfully rejected the declared transaction value without adhering to Section 14 and the Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007, where there was no evidence that the declared price was not the price actually paid or payable.
2. Whether enhancement of assessable value based on NIDB data is sustainable where the Department relied on aggregated/selected contemporaneous import data but did not produce the complete dataset or follow the procedural safeguards under the Valuation Rules.
3. Whether the Appellate authority was obligated to decide the appeal on merits instead of remanding to the original adjudicating authority where the issue was narrow, recurring, and susceptible of final disposal by the Tribunal.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Lawfulness of rejection of transaction value under Section 14 and Valuation Rules
Legal framework: Customs Act valuation regime requires adoption of transaction value as the primary basis; Section 14 and the Valuation Rules prescribe the procedure and grounds for rejecting transaction value (e.g., related parties, payment of additional amounts, non-arm's length transactions).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal has consistently held that mere administrative adoption of higher contemporaneous values without showing statutory grounds to disregard transaction value is impermissible. Prior Tribunal decisions emphasize requirement of speaking reasons and compliance with Rule provisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record contained no material indicating that the invoice price was not the price actually paid or payable, no evidence of payments over and above invoice value, and no indication of buyer-seller relatedness or lack of sole consideration. The Assessing Officer failed to articulate valid reasons or follow the prescribed procedure under Section 14 and the Valuation Rules before rejecting transaction value.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where no material exists to invoke exceptions in Section 14/Valuation Rules, rejection of transaction value is unsustainable. Obiter - Observations on general impropriety of "pick and choose" acceptance of higher values reinforce the ratio.
Conclusion: Rejection of the declared transaction value was without valid basis or due procedure and the enhancement of value on that ground is liable to be set aside.
Issue 2 - Use and sufficiency of NIDB/contemporaneous import data to enhance value
Legal framework: Enhancement of value by reference to contemporaneous imports or databases (e.g., NIDB) must comply with Valuation Rules and principles of comparison - data must be relevant, comparable, and disclosed; the process must not be selective or arbitrary.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed earlier authorities holding selective reliance on higher import prices, without supplying the complete contemporaneous data or demonstrating comparability, is impermissible. The Principal Bench and subsequent Tribunal rulings criticized "pick and choose" approaches and stressed that Rule 4 prohibits substituting transaction value without statutory justification.
Interpretation and reasoning: Department claimed reliance on 1,341 similar imports but furnished only 88 datasets to the importer; no explanation for non-production was given. Selective disclosure and lack of comparability analysis defeat the ability of the importer to rebut the impugned data. The appellate forum's finding that the Department adopted NIDB data without following Valuation Rules was accepted as a valid ground to set aside enhancement.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Enhancement based on undeclared, incomplete or selectively produced contemporaneous data is unsustainable. Obiter - Emphasis that quality/price variation must be accounted for in comparisons.
Conclusion: Enhancement of value using NIDB/contemporaneous import data was unsustainable where the Department failed to produce and rely upon complete, comparable data and follow valuation procedures; benefit of doubt goes to the importer.
Issue 3 - Competence of Appellate Authority to decide on merits versus remand
Legal framework: Appellate authorities possess quasi-judicial powers to decide appeals on merits where issues are cogent and capable of final adjudication; remand is discretionary and not mandated where records permit final decision.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal has entertained appeals and decided recurring, narrow valuation issues on merits, particularly where a settled line of precedents exists and material on record permits adjudication.
Interpretation and reasoning: The lower Appellate authority acknowledged that the Assessing Officer did not follow Section 14/Valuation Rules and recorded factual findings favoring the importer, yet remanded the matter. Given the narrow compass of the issue, the existence of consistent Tribunal precedent, and parties' consent, the Tribunal exercised jurisdiction to decide the appeal finally rather than remit for fresh adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the issue is narrow, recurring, and record/precedent enable conclusive adjudication, appellate remand is unnecessary and the appeal may be decided on merits. Obiter - Procedural discretion of remand should not be used to perpetuate avoidable litigation delays.
Conclusion: Remand by the lower Appellate authority was inappropriate in the circumstances; the matter was amenable to final disposal on merits by the Tribunal.
Overall Conclusion / Disposition
The enhancement of assessable value was set aside because (a) the Assessing Officer rejected transaction value without valid reasons or adherence to Section 14 and the Valuation Rules; (b) the Department's reliance on NIDB/contemporaneous import data was selective and unsupported by complete comparable data; and (c) the appeal could be finally disposed of on merits rather than remanded. Consequential reliefs were directed as per law.
Valuation of imported goods - rejection of transaction value without any valid basis/reasons and without following the due procedure as per Section 14 and Valuation Rules - enhancement of value based on NIDB data - HELD THAT:- There is nothing on record to suggest that the transaction value declared by the appellant was not the price actually paid for the goods when sold for export to India. Moreover, no evidence has been adduced by the Revenue to indicate that any amount, over and above the invoice value, was paid by the appellant to the supplier of the goods. There is also nothing on record to suggest that the buyer and seller of the goods were related or price was not for the sole consideration for sale. It is observed that the Ld. Commissioner (Appeals), though has appreciated the above facts, has remanded the matter to the original adjudicating authority without passing an order on merits.
It is found that identical issues pertaining to similar goods imported by various importers have already been decided by this Tribunal in a catena of decisions and thus, the issue is no more res integra, as rightly pointed out by the appellant. In the case of Commissioner of Customs (Port), Kolkata v. Bajaj Writing Aid [2023 (10) TMI 1522 - CESTAT KOLKATA], this Tribunal has observed that 'the Department has not made any attempt to follow the procedure given under the Valuation (Determination of Value of Importers Goods) Rules 2007 and has simply adopted the NIDB data and selectively enhanced value.'
Thus, the enhancement of value of the impugned goods in the present case is not sustainable in the eyes of law. Consequently, the impugned order to the extent it has remanded the matter to the original adjudicating authority also set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a subsequent purchaser/transferee of DEPB scrips can be held liable for customs duty where the scrips are not forged or fake.
2. Whether an original exporter who obtained DEPB scrips (where the scrips are not forged or fake) can be held liable for duty and penalty.
3. Legal consequence where DEPB scrips were obtained by misrepresentation or on the basis of fraudulent export documents but were validly issued by the licensing authority at the time of import and presentation.
4. Effect of cancellation of DEPB scrips by the licensing authority after imports have been effected.
5. Applicability of section 28AAA of the Customs Act to confirm duty against the original scrip holder for scrips obtained prior to the section's insertion.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Liability of Subsequent Purchaser Where Scrips Are Not Forged
Legal framework: Customs duty exemptions can be claimed on imports on the strength of DEPB scrips issued by the licensing authority; liability for duty arises where exemption is not lawfully available. Distinction drawn between scrips that are forged/fake and scrips validly issued but obtained by fraud or misrepresentation.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal's prior Division Bench decision established that where a licensing authority has issued a DEPB scrip which is valid on the date of import and presentation, the exemption cannot be denied to either the original holder or a transferee, unless the scrip is forged or fake. That prior decision is followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasons that a DEPB scrip validly issued by the licensing authority confers a lawful basis for exemption at the time of import and filing of the Bill of Entry; a transferee who acquires such a scrip for value and without notice of fraud is entitled to rely upon it. The critical inquiry is the factual state of the scrip at the time of import (validly issued versus forged). Where there is no allegation or finding that the scrip was forged or fake, the subsequent purchaser cannot be held liable for duty on imports effected on the strength of that scrip.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A transferee of a DEPB scrip that was validly issued and not forged or fake cannot be subjected to customs duty liability on imports effected on the strength of that scrip. Obiter - ancillary observations on the nature of notice and value consideration are explanatory.
Conclusion: Duty cannot be confirmed against the subsequent purchaser where the scrips are not forged or fake and were valid at the time of import and presentation.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Liability of Original Exporter Who Obtained the Scrips
Legal framework: Duty/penalty can be imposed on persons responsible for unlawful exemption; statutory amendments may alter liability prospects prospectively.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal's earlier decision held that a licence/scrip obtained by fraud is voidable (not void ab initio) and that where a scrip had been validly issued and presented at import, exemption could not be denied even if obtained by misrepresentation; that decision is applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the scrips in the present case were not forged or fake, and were valid at the time of import, liability could not be pinned on the exporter who originally obtained them. Further, a later-inserted statutory provision (section 28AAA) that might permit confirmation of duty against importers/exporters was enacted after the scrips were issued; it therefore cannot be invoked retrospectively to sustain demand against the original exporter for scrips obtained earlier.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Duty cannot be confirmed against the original exporter for scrips that were valid at the time of import where no forgery is alleged; retrospective application of section 28AAA is impermissible. Obiter - remarks regarding impleadment of the original exporter are procedural observations.
Conclusion: Duty confirmed against the original exporter was not sustainable; the assessment as against that exporter must be set aside (in part because the exporter was not impleaded and substantive law did not permit confirmation in the circumstances).)
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Scrips Obtained by Fraud but Validly Issued; Cancellation After Import
Legal framework: Distinction between void and voidable instruments; administrative cancellation versus legal validity at time of transaction; reliance and bona fide transferees.
Precedent Treatment: Prior Tribunal authorities conclude that licences/scrips obtained by fraud are voidable but not void ab initio; cancellation by the licensing authority after imports does not affect the validity of imports lawfully effected during the scrip's validity. Those principles are followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court explains that the maxim that "fraud vitiates everything" does not automatically apply to invalidate a scrip for the protection of bona fide third parties who acquired the scrip for value without notice. What matters is the existence of a validly issued scrip at the time of import and presentation; subsequent cancellation does not retroactively invalidate imports or justify confiscation where the scrip was valid when relied upon.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A DEPB scrip issued by the licensing authority, though obtained by misrepresentation, if valid at time of import, supports exemption and prevents confiscation of imported goods; cancellation after import does not retroactively affect import validity. Obiter - considerations on equitable doctrines and notice.
Conclusion: Import exemption stands where a scrip was valid at import despite underlying fraud in procurement; cancellation post-import does not negate exemption nor justify confirming duty/confiscation in respect of those imports.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Forged/Fake Scrips Exception
Legal framework: Forgery or absence of issuance by licensing authority removes any lawful basis for exemption; transferees cannot derive good title from a document that is not genuine.
Precedent Treatment: Prior Tribunal decisions differentiate forged/fake scrips from those validly issued; exemption unavailable where scrips are forged/fake. That distinction is reiterated and applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court underscores that where DEPB scrips are shown to be forged or not issued by the licensing authority, neither the original holder nor a transferee is entitled to exemption; the exemption rests on genuineness and lawful issuance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Forged or fake scrips afford no legal protection; customs duty exemption is denied where scrips are not genuine. Obiter - none beyond explanatory contrast.
Conclusion: The forged/fake scrips exception remains a controlling limitation to the general rule protecting transferees and original holders when scrips are validly issued.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND FINAL DETERMINATIONS
1. The Tribunal's prior Division Bench reasoning on the validity of licences/scrips obtained by fraud but validly issued at time of import is followed and is determinative of both liability of transferees and original holders in the present facts.
2. Because the scrips in the present matter were not forged or fake, duty could not be confirmed against the subsequent purchaser; similarly, duty could not be sustained against the original exporter for scrips obtained prior to insertion of section 28AAA.
3. The impugned assessment confirming duty against the original exporter is set aside to the extent indicated; the department's claim to confirm demand against the subsequent purchaser is declined in the absence of forgery/fake scrips.
Confirmation of duty with penalty against the exporter who had obtained the DEPB scrips - scrips are not a forged or fraudulent document - whether the demand should have been confirmed against the subsequent purchaser of the scrips and not against the exporter who had obtained the scrips? - HELD THAT:- This issue was considered by a Division Bench of the Tribunal in M/s Apar Industries Ltd. versus Commissioner of Customs (Export Promotion), Mumbai [2025 (5) TMI 2183 - CESTAT MUMBAI] and it was held 'wherever the licensing authority has issued the licence/DEPB scrip on the basis of which the exemption is sought from customs duty, either by the original licence holder or by the transferee, even if the licence/DEPB scrip have been obtained by producing fraudulent/fake export documents or bank documents, then during the validity of the licence/scrip the exemption cannot be denied and the goods cannot be confiscated. This would be so, even if the licence is cancelled by the licensing authority subsequently after the imports have been effected. What is relevant is a valid licence/DEPB issued by the licensing authority and presentation of the same at the time of import of the goods and at the time of filing the Bill of Entry.'
The relief claimed by the department that duty should be confirmed against the subsequent purchaser cannot be granted in view of the decision of the Tribunal in Apar Industries as it is not the case of the department that the scrips were forged or fraudulent documents - The decision of the Tribunal in Apar Industries also hold that duty cannot be confirmed against the exporter who had obtained the scrips, unless the scrips were found to be forged. It could also not have been confirmed against the exporter for the reason that section 28AAA of the Customs Act was inserted on 28.05.2012, much after the DEPB scrips were obtained by the exporter.
The impugned order dated 31.01.2006 passed by the Commissioner in so far as it confirms the duty against the exporter who had purchased the scrips would, therefore, have to be set aside and is set aside. The relief claimed for confirming the demand against the subsequent purchaser cannot be granted - Appeal of Revenue allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1.1 Whether a demand for customs duty (with penalty) arising from DEPB scrips obtained by the original exporter can be confirmed against subsequent purchasers/transferees of those scrips where the department alleges the scrips were procured by submission of false documents (but not forged).
1.2 Whether a demand for customs duty (with penalty) could properly be confirmed against the original exporter who obtained DEPB scrips that the licensing authority had issued and that were valid at the time of import, notwithstanding later cancellation of the scrips by the licensing authority.
1.3 Whether section 28AAA of the Customs Act (as inserted later) authorises confirmation of demand against the exporter in respect of scrips purchased earlier, i.e., whether that provision applies to scrips/transactions predating its insertion.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Confirmation of demand against subsequent purchasers/transferees of DEPB scrips (where scrips alleged obtained by false documents, not forged)
Legal framework: Customs duty exemption depends upon a valid licence/scrip issued by the licensing authority and presentation of that licence/scrip at import and at filing of the Bill of Entry; distinction drawn between licences/scrips that are forged and those obtained by fraud or mis-representation.
Precedent Treatment: Followed the Tribunal's earlier decision in Apar Industries, which categorises three situations (validly issued but obtained by mis-representation; forged scrips; issued but later cancelled) and holds that a licence/scrip obtained by fraud is voidable, not void ab initio; where the scrip was validly issued and valid at time of import, exemption cannot be denied to transferees without notice of fraud.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where the licensing authority actually issued the DEPB scrip and the scrip was valid on the date of import, the transferee who imports on its strength enjoys the exemption if the transferee had no notice of fraud by the original holder. The crucial facts are issuance by the authority and presentation of the scrip at import; mere contention that the original holder secured the scrip by false documents does not convert a validly issued scrip into a forged instrument for purposes of denying exemption to subsequent transferees.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A DEPB scrip validly issued by the licensing authority confers exemption during its validity on both the original holder and transferees absent forgery or notice of fraud; forged scrips fall outside this protection. Obiter - ancillary remarks on the consequences of later cancellation are explanatory to the ratio.
Conclusion: Demand could not be sustained against subsequent purchasers/transferees where the scrips were not forged; the department's relief seeking confirmation against transferees is impermissible in the absence of a finding of forgery and, procedurally, without impleading those transferees.
Issue 2 - Confirmation of demand against the original exporter who obtained DEPB scrips (scrips valid at time of import though obtained by false documents)
Legal framework: Same as above - validity of exemption turns on whether the DEPB scrip was issued by the licensing authority and valid when used at import; legal distinction between void and voidable instruments in fraud context governs whether customs can deny exemption or confiscate goods.
Precedent Treatment: Followed Apar Industries which held that licences/scrips obtained by fraud are not void ab initio and that, if valid at time of import and presented, the exemption cannot be denied or goods confiscated even if the licence is subsequently cancelled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that where the licensing authority issued the scrip, the exporter's possession and use of the scrip at the time of import establishes entitlement to the exemption, and later discovery that the scrip was procured by mis-representation does not retrospectively invalidate the exemption unless the scrip is shown to be forged. Consequently, a demand based on mis-representation cannot be confirmed against the exporter who used a validly issued scrip at import.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Demand cannot be confirmed against the original exporter in respect of a scrip that was validly issued and presented at import even if the scrip was obtained by mis-representation; Obiter - comments on policy considerations underlying protection of transferees and timing of cancellation.
Conclusion: The demand confirmed against the exporter was not justified where the scrip was not forged and was valid at the time of import; such confirmation must be set aside as contrary to the legal position established by precedent.
Issue 3 - Applicability of section 28AAA to sustain demand against an exporter for earlier purchases of scrips
Legal framework: Section 28AAA (as referenced) provides a statutory basis to confirm demands against certain persons but its effect depends on the date of insertion and whether it has retrospective operation to cover earlier transactions.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied temporal statutory analysis - a provision inserted after the events in question cannot be used to validate earlier actions unless expressly made retrospective.
Interpretation and reasoning: Section 28AAA was inserted on a date subsequent to the purchase and use of the scrips by the exporter; there is no basis in the record to apply that provision retrospectively to validate a demand that could not otherwise be sustained at the time of the transaction. Therefore, reliance on section 28AAA to confirm demand against the exporter is impermissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A statutory provision inserted after the events cannot be applied retrospectively to sustain a demand for periods before its insertion absent clear retrospective intent; Obiter - procedural observations on the appropriate impleading of transferees when relief is sought against them.
Conclusion: Section 28AAA did not authorise confirmation of the demand against the exporter for the transactions in question because it was inserted after the relevant events; accordingly the demand could not be upheld on that statutory basis.
Cross-references and Overall Conclusion
Where a DEPB scrip is issued by the licensing authority and valid at the time of import, that validity protects both the original holder and transferees who import on the strength of the scrip absent forgery or notice of fraud (cross-refs Issue 1 and Issue 2). The department's attempt to shift liability to transferees failed both substantively (no allegation or finding of forgery) and procedurally (transferees not impleaded). The Commissioner's confirmation of demand against the exporter was contrary to the legal position and to the temporal limits of section 28AAA; the order confirming demand against the exporter was therefore set aside.
Confirmation of demand of duty with penalty - appeal filed for the reason that the demand should have been confirmed against the subsequent purchasers of the scrips and not the respondent who had obtained the scrips from the department - scrips have been obtained by submitting false documents - HELD THAT:- The issue as to when a demand can be confirmed against a subsequent purchaser of scrips was examined by the Division Bench of the Tribunal in M/s Apar Industries Ltd. versus Commissioner of Customs (Export Promotion), Mumbai [2025 (5) TMI 2183 - CESTAT MUMBAI] and it was observed that 'wherever the licensing authority has issued the licence/DEPB scrip on the basis of which the exemption is sought from customs duty, either by the original licence holder or by the transferee, even if the licence/DEPB scrip have been obtained by producing fraudulent/fake export documents or bank documents, then during the validity of the licence/scrip the exemption cannot be denied and the goods cannot be confiscated. This would be so, even if the licence is cancelled by the licensing authority subsequently after the imports have been effected. What is relevant is a valid licence/DEPB issued by the licensing authority and presentation of the same at the time of import of the goods and at the time of filing the Bill of Entry.'
In view of the aforesaid decision of the Tribunal in Apar Industries, the relief claimed by the department that the demand should have been confirmed against the subsequent purchaser of the scrips cannot be granted because it is not the case of the department that the scrips were forged.
The department is, however, justified in asserting that the demand could not have been confirmed against the exporter who obtained the scrips. This issue was also examined by the Division Bench of the Tribunal in Apar Industries and it was held that the demand could not have been confirmed against the person who obtained the scrips, if the scrips were not forged document - section 28AAA of the Customs Act, under which the demand could have been confirmed against the exporter, was inserted only on 28.05.2012 much after the scrips were purchased by the exporter. Thus, the demand could also not have been confirmed against the exporter.
The impugned order dated 31.01.2006 passed by the Commissioner is, accordingly, set aside - Appeal allowed in part.
Issues: Whether aluminium-based copper clad laminates imported for manufacture of metal clad printed circuit boards were eligible for the concessional rate of customs duty under Serial No. 39 of Notification No. 24/2005-Cus dated 01.03.2005, and whether the demand of differential duty, interest and penalty could be sustained.
Analysis: The eligibility issue was covered by earlier Tribunal decisions holding that metal clad printed circuit boards are printed circuit boards for the purpose of the exemption. Those decisions were followed in later Tribunal rulings and the Supreme Court dismissed the Department's civil appeal against the earlier Tribunal view, including on merits. In view of that consistent line of authority, the imported laminates used in manufacture of metal clad printed circuit boards fell within the exemption entry and the contrary classification adopted by the Department could not stand.
Conclusion: The exemption benefit was admissible to the assessee, and the order denying the benefit and confirming differential customs duty, interest and penalty was not sustainable.
Ratio Decidendi: Where earlier co-ordinate decisions, later followed and left undisturbed on merits, hold that metal clad printed circuit boards are covered by the exemption entry for printed circuit boards, imported laminates used in their manufacture are entitled to the concessional customs duty benefit.
Eligibility to claim benefit of the concessional rate of customs duty under Serial No. 39 of N/N. 24/2005-Cus dated 01.03.2005 on import of Aluminium based Copper Clad Laminates used in manufacturing of Metal Clad Printed Circuit Board - Classification of goods under CTI 8534 00 00, as claimed by the appellant or under CTI 9405 99 00 as claimed by the Department - HELD THAT:- This issue was decided by the Tribunal in Crompton Greaves Consumer Electricals Ltd vs. Commissioner of Customs (NS-V) [2022 (9) TMI 1130 - CESTAT MUMBAI] and it was held that the assessee is entitled to avail the benefit of exemption notification. These decisions were, subsequently, followed by a Division Bench of the Tribunal in Crompton Greaves Consumer Electricals Ltd vs. Commissioner of Customs, Nhava Sheva-V [2023 (6) TMI 1408 - CESTAT MUMBAI].
In view of the aforesaid decisions of the Tribunal, it is not possible to sustain the order dated 26.09.2023 passed by the Commissioner of Customs (Preventive). It is, accordingly, set aside - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether reassessment of declared transaction value under the Customs Valuation Rules (CVR, 2007) can be effected without communicating in writing the grounds for doubtful truth or accuracy of the declared value as required by Rule 12(2) read with Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962.
2. Whether a written "acceptance" or "consent" letter by an importer to an assessing officer's enhancement of assessable value, given after coercion or in the context of provisional clearance requests, precludes the importer from challenging the reassessment thereafter and obviates the requirement of issuing a speaking order under Section 17(5) of the Customs Act, 1962.
3. Whether reliance solely on published NIDB/contemporaneous import data (or mere reference thereto in an acceptance letter) suffices to reject declared transaction value and determine reassessed value under CVR, 2007 without independent, cogent, and particularized reasons and supporting factual material.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Requirement to communicate grounds in writing before rejecting transaction value (Rule 12(2) CVR, 2007; Section 14 Customs Act)
Legal framework: Rule 12(2) CVR, 2007 mandates that, when required, the proper officer shall intimate to the importer in writing the grounds for doubting the truth or accuracy of the declared value; Section 14 governs valuation methods and sequence (Rules 4-9).
Precedent Treatment: The Supreme Court in Century Metal Recycling held that formation of opinion, recording of reasons and communication of grounds under Rule 12(2) cannot be ignored or waived; such mandate is mandatory and was applied prospectively.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied Century Metal's ratio to bills of entry dated after the decision's prospective cut-off, concluding that where the bills fall within the post-prospective period, the Proper Officer was duty bound to communicate reasons in writing. The Court examined the acceptance letters and found them deficient - lacking particulars or contemporaneous data disclosures - and noted repeated written requests by the importer for provisional/final clearance which were ignored. The absence of any recorded, particularized grounds or disclosure of data rendered the purported process inconsistent with Rule 12(2) and the sequential valuation framework of Rules 4-9.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - communication of reasons under Rule 12(2) is mandatory where required and cannot be bypassed; failure to so communicate invalidates reassessment that purports to reject declared transaction value without such disclosure. Obiter - observations on prospective application nuances and case-by-case treatment of past cases as recognized in Century Metal.
Conclusion: Reassessment effected without written communication of the grounds for doubting declared value, where required, is unlawful; Proper Officer must comply with Rule 12(2) and the valuation sequence under Section 14/CVR.
Issue 2: Effect of importer's written acceptance/consent on right to challenge reassessment and requirement of speaking order under Section 17(5)
Legal framework: Section 17(4)-(5) permits reassessment; Section 17(5) contemplates that where importer confirms acceptance of reassessment in writing, the proper officer is relieved of the obligation to pass a speaking order affirming provisional opinion; otherwise a speaking order is required.
Precedent Treatment: Judicial authorities diverge: some decisions treat a written acceptance as precluding later challenge; other High Court decisions (analyzed herein) hold that the statutory concession in Section 17(5) is confined to the speaking order obligation and does not extinguish the importer's statutory right to challenge formation of opinion or the merits of reassessment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court read Section 17(5) narrowly: the concession relates solely to the requirement to issue a speaking order in affirmation of reassessment. The statutory right to question correctness of the Proper Officer's decision - including formation of opinion and merits - remains protected and cannot be deemed waived by an importer's contemporaneous acceptance given under compulsion or without disclosure of reasons/data. The Court relied on documentary record showing repeated requests for speaking orders and provisional clearance and on jurisprudence holding that coerced or inadequately informed "acceptance" cannot be treated as voluntary waiver.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a written acceptance under Section 17(5) relieves the officer only from the speaking order obligation; it does not ipso facto extinguish right to legally challenge the reassessment, particularly where acceptance was induced by coercion or where reasons/data were not disclosed as required. Obiter - comments on factual indicia of coercion and the evidentiary sufficiency of acceptance letters.
Conclusion: Acceptance letters, especially if coerced or unaccompanied by adequate disclosure of reasons/data, do not bar judicial/tribunal review of reassessment; issuances of speaking orders are not the sole safeguard and cannot be bypassed to deny substantive contestation.
Issue 3: Reliance on NIDB/contemporaneous import data alone to reject declared value and determine reassessment
Legal framework: CVR, 2007 prescribes factors and sequential rules (Rules 4-9) for valuation and permits use of comparable transactions but requires particularized matching parameters (e.g., quantity, GSM, quality, time of order, etc.) to be considered when applying Rule 5 and other rules.
Precedent Treatment: Consistent line of authority (including recent High Court analysis) requires any valuation enhancement based solely on NIDB or external aggregated data to be supported by independent, cogent, and particularized evidence; blindly relying on NIDB without correlating parameters is inadequate.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the acceptance letters and reassessment orders which merely state reliance on contemporaneous import data (NIDB) without furnishing the granular particulars or demonstrating application of comparison parameters fail the test of fairness, transparency and statutory compliance. The Court endorsed the High Court's reasoning that deviation from declared value must be founded on tangible and justiciable material and not on generic or omnibus references to external data.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - reassessment based solely on NIDB/contemporaneous data without corroborative, particularized evidence does not satisfy CVR requirements and is unsustainable. Obiter - guidance on types of parameters to be examined (quantity, GSM, quality, time of order) when invoking Rule 5 comparisons.
Conclusion: Departmental reliance exclusively on NIDB data or generalized contemporaneous import references is inadequate; reassessment must be supported by independent, cogent, and specific factual material demonstrating proper comparability under CVR.
Cross-references and Final Determination
1. Issues 1-3 are interrelated: failure to disclose reasons (Issue 1) and reliance on non-particularized NIDB data (Issue 3) vitiate any purported voluntary acceptance (Issue 2) and preclude treating acceptance as barring challenge or obviating statutory safeguards.
2. Applying the legal framework and precedents, particularly the mandate in Century Metal and the High Court analysis on NIDB reliance and scope of concession under Section 17(5), The Court concluded that reassessments in the appeals were unsustainable: the acceptance letters were insufficient, the mandatory communication under Rule 12(2) was not complied with, and reliance on NIDB without cogent particulars was impermissible.
3. Ratio of decision: Reassessments made without required written communication of grounds under Rule 12(2), and/or founded solely on non-particularized NIDB data, are unlawful; written acceptance by an importer does not ipso facto preclude judicial challenge nor wholly waive statutory protections where acceptance is coerced or inadequately informed. Consequent orders of appeal were set aside and appeals allowed with consequential relief as per law.
Rejection of appeal on the ground that the Appellant has accepted the enhancement of value in writing and therefore there was no question of issuance of Speaking Order under Section 17(5) of the Customs Act, 1962 - HELD THAT:- The Order of the Commissioner (Appeals) merely proceeded on the ground that the Appellant had accepted the enhancement of value under Section 17(5) of the Customs Act, 1962 and therefore, there was no requirement of issuance of Speaking Order. The Commissioner (Appeals) referred to the judgment of Century Metal Recycling [2025 (3) TMI 16 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH] for rejecting the Appeal, more specifically relying on Para 26 to hold that there was no general or omnibus direction passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court to the effect that the transaction value declared in the bills of entry should invariably be accepted in all cases. However, it is seen that the Commissioner (Appeals) has failed to take into account the ratio of the judgment in entirety. The issue as to whether assessable value can be rejected without following the mandate of Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 read with Rule 12 of CVR, 2007 and the declared transactional value be re-determined following sequentially from Rule 4 to 5 of CVR, 2007, is no more res-integra as the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Century Metal Recycling Pvt. Ltd. vs. UOI [2019 (5) TMI 1152 - SUPREME COURT] has held that the mandate of Rule 12(2) of CVR, 2007 to intimate the importer in writing the ground of doubting the truth of accuracy of the declared value cannot be ignored or waived.
In the Century Metal Recycling Pvt. Ltd., facts were similar to the present case in as much as in that case too repeated requests for provisional assessment by the importer were ignored and the importer was forced to submit letter of acceptance - it is further found that although the letter of acceptance states that the ground for rejection of the declared value has been narrated to the Appellant and that details of contemporaneous import of similar and identical goods have been shown to them and on the basis of which, the Appellant accepted that their value were significantly lower than the value at which identical/similar goods imported at or about the same time in comparable commercial transactions were assessed at other ports of the country, however, no such details of alleged contemporaneous import data have been mentioned, therein. Given the language as noted in some of the letters as written by the appellant and placed above, there is a wide gap which has not been bridged by the Revenue, in the matter. The contents of this communication cannot therefore be taken on its face value.
It is further found that the issue as to whether the Department can enhance the value relying on NIDB and on the basis of the acceptance letter and once there is acceptance letters, the importer cannot contest the same, have also come up for consideration before the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi in the case of Niraj Silk Mills vs. Commissioner of Customs (ICD) Patparganj [2024 (11) TMI 1361 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and the Hon’ble High Court has held that the right to question the correctness of the decision of the proper officer, be it with respect to the formation of opinion or even on merits, is one which is protected by statute.
The issue involved in the present Appeals is squarely covered by the judgement of Hon’ble High Court of Delhi in the case of Niraj Silk Mills and therefore, the impugned Orders-in-Appeal are not sustainable in law - Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Indian currency seized from the appellants could be lawfully confiscated as sale proceeds of smuggled gold in absence of evidence linking the currency to a specific sale of smuggled gold.
2. Whether the gold (four pieces of yellow metal totalling 953.100 grams) seized from one appellant could be confiscated as smuggled gold where the owner produced documentary evidence (gift deeds, licences, company records) asserting lawful provenance.
3. Whether penalties under Section 112(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 are sustainable when the foundational allegations of smuggling/contraband and related illicit proceeds are not proved.
4. Ancillary/contention issues actually raised and considered: (a) challenge to the seizure as a town seizure and its implications for establishing smuggling, and (b) contention regarding procedural non-compliance (no cross-examination under Section 138B) and retracted statements - insofar as these affect admissibility/weight of evidence and the sufficiency of proof.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Confiscation of Indian currency as sale proceeds of smuggled gold
Legal framework: Confiscation of currency as sale proceeds of smuggled goods requires proof that (i) a sale occurred; (ii) the goods sold were smuggled; (iii) the seller had knowledge or reason to believe goods were smuggled; and (iv) the identities of buyer and seller and quantity are established - such that currency can be linked to proceeds of contraband.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal reproduced and followed the ratio of an earlier Tribunal decision (Ramachandra) holding that mere seizure of currency is not enough; the department must establish link between currency and sale proceeds of smuggled goods.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined investigation material and found no evidence connecting the seized currency (Rs.85,17,250/- total) to any specific smuggled gold or sale transaction. The department did not specify details of alleged smuggling, seller, buyer, sale transaction or demonstrate knowledge of smuggling. Employers of two appellants provided contemporaneous explanations (entrustment for bank deposit, bona fide company trade capital) and documentary support. For the director from whom the larger amount was seized, company records, gift deeds and bank advices were held sufficient to rebut the presumption that currency represented proceeds of smuggled gold.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where no material establishes the nexus between currency and proceeds of smuggled goods, confiscation cannot be sustained and currency must be released. Obiter - commentary on the town-seizure context is supportive but not relied upon as the primary basis.
Conclusions: Confiscation of the seized Indian currency set aside; currency ordered released to persons from whom it was seized.
Issue 2 - Confiscation of gold alleged to be smuggled
Legal framework: Confiscation of goods as smuggled under relevant Customs provisions (including s.123) requires the department to establish that the goods were smuggled into the country without payment of applicable customs duties.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied established principle that burden lies on the department to prove smuggled nature of goods; where legitimate provenance is established by records, confiscation is unsustainable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant in possession of the gold held a valid licence to trade in gold and produced notarized gift deeds, trade licence, GST and money-exchange registrations, PAN, balance sheet and cash ledger entries, and bank deposit advice asserting lawful origin (family gifted ornaments and company trade capital). The investigating agency produced no contrary material to establish importation without duty or smuggling. The Tribunal thus found absence of evidence of smuggling and accepted the documentary case for licit procurement.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where department fails to prove smuggled origin and owner produces credible documentary evidence of lawful procurement/possession, confiscation under smuggling provisions is unsustainable. Obiter - remarks on the absence of counter-evidence by the department and burden allocation.
Conclusions: Confiscation of the 953.100 grams of gold set aside; gold ordered released to the appellant in possession.
Issue 3 - Penalties under Section 112(b) where allegations not proved
Legal framework: Section 112(b) penalties arise from contraventions relating to smuggling/related offences; imposition requires proof of the substantive offence or contravention for which penalty provision is triggered.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the same evidentiary standards applied to confiscation: penalties cannot stand where foundational contraventions are not proved.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having held that neither the currency nor the gold had been shown to be proceeds of smuggled goods or smuggled goods respectively, the Tribunal concluded that the statutory ingredients for imposing penalties under Section 112(b) were not established. Absence of proof of violation negates legal basis for penalty.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties predicated on unproven allegations of smuggling/related contraventions must be set aside. Obiter - none material beyond application of principle.
Conclusions: Penalties imposed on all three appellants under Section 112(b) were set aside.
Issue 4 - Town seizure, procedural compliance (Section 138B) and retracted statements
Legal framework: Procedural safeguards and standards of proof (including rights to cross-examination where applicable) and the context of seizure (town seizure vs. border seizure) can affect the weight of evidence and the plausibility of smuggling allegations.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal considered but did not primarily rely on procedural objections; its decision rested on insufficiency of evidence to establish smuggling or proceeds link.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellants argued the search was a town seizure far from international borders and that no opportunity for cross-examination under Section 138B was afforded; they also noted retracted statements. The Tribunal observed these contentions in context but treated the critical defect as the department's failure to establish the smuggled nature of goods or a nexus between currency and illegal sale proceeds. Lack of evidence rendered procedural objections unnecessary to decide release and setting aside of penalties. Retracted statements were noted as having no evidentiary value where uncorroborated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - procedural non-compliance and town-seizure observations were noted but not essential to the decision; the dispositive ratio is evidentiary insufficiency.
Conclusions: Even assuming procedural deficiencies had been raised, the absence of proof on substantive elements was decisive; no reliance was placed on procedural infirmities as the primary ground for relief.
Cross-references
Findings on Issues 1 and 2 are interlinked: inability to demonstrate smuggled origin of goods undermines any contention that seized currency represents sale proceeds; both lead to the common consequence of setting aside confiscations and associated penalties (Issue 3). The Tribunal expressly relied on precedent requiring specific proof linking currency to contraband sale (cross-ref Issue 1).
Levy of penalties u/s 112(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 - town seizure - Indian currencies seized as sale proceeds of smuggled gold - proceedings have not adhered to Section 138B of the Customs Act, 1962 as no opportunity of cross examination was afforded - violation of principles of natural justice - Confiscation of Gold - HELD THAT:- In the present case it is observed that Indian Currency totally amounting to Rs. 85,17,250/- has been seized from all the three appellants on the ground that the said currency were sale proceeds of gold smuggled into the country without payment of customs duties. However, it is observed that the investigation has not brought in any evidence to establish that the said currency were sale proceeds of which gold smuggled into the country.
The department cannot assume that the Indian Currency were sale proceeds of some smuggled gold without specifying any details about the smuggled nature of the said gold. In this regard, it is observe that the appellant has relied upon the decision of the Tribunal Delhi in the case of Ramachandra Vs Commissioner of Customs, [1991 (9) TMI 206 - CEGAT, NEW DELHI], wherein it has been categorically held that before seizing the Indian Currency it must be established that the currency seized is related to sale proceeds of the smuggled gold.
The investigation could not establish that the Indian Currency totally amounting to Rs. 85,17,250/- were sale proceeds of gold smuggled into the country without payment of customs duties. Accordingly, we set aside the confiscation of the Indian currency and order for release of the same to the appellants from whom the said currencies were seized.
Regarding confiscation of gold, it is observed that the provisions of section 123 of Customs Act are not applicable in this case. The responsibility is on the department to establish that the gold seized from him was smuggled in nature. As the department has failed to establish that the gold was smuggled in nature, we hold that the confiscation of the said gold in the impugned order is not sustainable. Further, it is found that the appellant 2 has submitted enough evidence to establish that the 953.100 grams found in his possession was legally procured and they submitted documentary evidences for licit purchase of the same. Accordingly, the confiscation of gold, qua seized from appellant 2 set aside.
As the allegations against the appellant are not established, the appellants are not liable for penalty under section 112(b) of the customs Act, 1962 and accordingly, the same is set aside.
Appeal disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
Whether penalties under Sections 112(a)(i), 112(b)(i) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 can be sustained against an alleged customs broker where (a) there is no evidence that the person handled the specific consignments as broker or importer's representative, (b) allegations are based on introductions and alleged use of office facilities without corroborative material, and (c) reliance is placed on statements recorded under Section 108 without examination/corroboration.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue A - Applicability of Section 112(a)(i) (acts/omissions rendering goods liable to confiscation)
Legal framework: Section 112(a)(i) penalises any person who does or omits to do an act in relation to goods which act or omission would render such goods liable to confiscation under Section 111.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal precedent (same-facts decision by the Tribunal) held that penalty under Section 112(a)(i) is unsustainable where the person did not file bills of entry, did not participate in importation, documentation, examination or clearance of consignments and where findings are founded on assumptions without corroborative evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the record and found no evidence that the appellant handled the subject consignments as a customs broker or otherwise participated in acts/omissions that would render the goods liable to confiscation. The impugned adjudicating finding was regarded as speculative, resting on alleged introductions and an uncorroborated bank transaction linked to a proprietorship of a relative. The Tribunal emphasised that mere introduction of persons, without proof of connivance or active participation in importation/clearance, does not satisfy Section 112(a)(i) conditions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties under Section 112(a)(i) cannot be imposed absent evidence of acts/omissions directly linked to the importation/clearance process that render goods liable to confiscation. Obiter - critical observations on the weakness of treating familial firm transactions as automatically imputable where no direct transactional link is shown.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(a)(i) is not sustainable on the record and must be set aside.
Issue B - Applicability of Section 112(b) (being concerned in dealing with confiscation-liable goods)
Legal framework: Section 112(b) penalises any person who acquires possession of, or is in any way concerned in carrying, removing, depositing, harboring, keeping, concealing, selling or purchasing, or otherwise dealing with goods which he knows or has reason to believe are liable to confiscation under Section 111.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal affirmed in a same-facts decision that Section 112(b) cannot be invoked on the basis of assumptions and presumptions where no material evidence demonstrates possession, custody or any of the specified dealings with the goods.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority relied on allegations of introductions and ancillary assistance (facility use), but the record lacked material establishing possession or involvement in any of the acts enumerated in Section 112(b). The Tribunal emphasised that speculative linkage (e.g., introductions, uncorroborated statements, unrelated payments to a firm of a relative) does not constitute proof that the person was "concerned in" the listed dealings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - imposition under Section 112(b) requires positive material establishing involvement in the enumerated acts; absence of such material invalidates the penalty. Obiter - observations that mere social or business introductions do not equate to being "concerned in" unlawful dealing.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(b) is not sustainable and is set aside.
Issue C - Applicability of Section 114AA (making/using false declarations/documents knowingly or intentionally)
Legal framework: Section 114AA penalises any person who knowingly or intentionally makes, signs or uses, or causes to be made, signed or used, any declaration, statement or document which is false or incorrect in any material particular in the transaction of business for purposes of the Act.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on its prior ruling in identical circumstances that Section 114AA cannot be invoked where no evidence shows the person's role in importation, filing, documentation or use of false declarations and where findings rest on uncorroborated statements.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record did not demonstrate that the appellant participated in creation, signing or use of any false/incorrect document in relation to the subject consignments. The adjudicator's finding relied on statements under Section 108 and on a bank entry to a firm of a relative, neither of which provided independent corroboration of intentional use of false documents. The Tribunal noted that statements under Section 108 are admissible but carry weight only when corroborated or when the declarants are examined under Section 138B; absence of such procedural steps undermines reliance on those statements.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 114AA requires material proof of knowing/intended use of false declarations; speculative inferences and uncorroborated statements are insufficient. Obiter - procedural remarks on the limited value of unexamined Section 108 statements without cross-examination or corroboration.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 114AA is not sustainable and is set aside.
Issue D - Admissibility and evidentiary weight of statements under Section 108 relied upon without examination/corroboration
Legal framework: Statements recorded under Section 108 are part of investigation, but their weight depends on corroboration or admissibility criteria; examination under Section 138B and opportunity to cross-examine are material to their evidentiary value.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal cited and applied prior authoritative guidance (including higher court pronouncements reflected in Tribunal orders) that uncorroborated Section 108 statements, not subjected to Section 138B examination, cannot be relied upon decisively to impose penal consequences.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority materially relied on selective readings of Section 108 statements without corroborative independent material and without ensuring examination of declarants; the Tribunal treated such reliance as impermissible for imposing penalties involving criminality or serious fiscal consequences.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - uncorroborated Section 108 statements not tested under Section 138B cannot alone sustain penal findings. Obiter - procedural admonition that due process of confronting/evaluating such statements is necessary for reliable adjudication.
Conclusion: Statements relied on by the adjudicator lacked requisite corroboration or procedural testing, and thus cannot support the penalties.
Cross-reference and Collective Conclusion
Cross-references: Issues A-C are interlinked: the absence of evidence of active handling/possession/documentary involvement (Issue A and B) and absence of proof of knowingly using false documents (Issue C) are compounded by the infirmity of relying on uncorroborated Section 108 statements (Issue D). Tribunal's same-facts precedent was applied to reinforce that speculative inferences, familial/indirect financial entries and introductions do not satisfy statutory conditions for Sections 112(a), 112(b) or 114AA.
Final conclusion: The Tribunal held that penalties imposed under Sections 112(a)(i), 112(b)(i) and 114AA were unsustainable for lack of evidentiary foundation and procedural corroboration, and accordingly set aside the penalties.
Levy of penalties u/s 112(a)(i), 112(b)(i) and114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 - gross mis-declaration with respect to the nature of the goods, the quantity and valuation thereof - no single piece of evidence has been produced against him which establishes that the conditions laid down for invoking the provisions of Section 112 or Section 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 are attracted - corroboration of statements recorded u/s 108 of CA, 1962 - HELD THAT:- In this case, the allegation against the appellant is that he has introduced Nasiruddin to a number of such importers/brokers who intended to bring in the mis-declared goods in connivance with the Deputy Commissioner, namely, Shri Navneet Kumar. He is also alleged to have allowed his office machinery to be used by Nasiruddin to receive the mails from the importer, especially from Late Mayur Mehta and Ms. Swati Vora @ Monika Vora wherefrom it has been concluded that the appellant has facilitated the clearance of the goods which were grossly mis declared and undervalued.
It is observed that there is no evidence available on record to establish that the appellant has handled the goods involved in the two Bills of Entry and one Air Way Bill, as a Customs Broker. The investigation has not brought in any evidence against the appellant to establish that the conditions laid down for invoking the provisions of Section 112 of the Act have been satisfied in this case. There is no corroborative evidence available on record to prove that the appellant had contravened or violated any of the provisions of the Customs Act. Thus, the ld. adjudicating authority has arrived at a speculative finding that the appellant was providing necessary assistance in the clearance of mis-declared and contraband goods, without any evidence - Further, with regard to the allegation that the appellant has conspired with the importer to bring in mis-declared/contraband goods which are liable to confiscation under the Customs Act,1962, there is no evidence on record, to indicate that the conditions laid down for invoking the provisions of Section 114AA have been satisfied in this case. Thus, the penalties cannot be imposed on the appellant under Sections 112 (a), 112(b) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962.
The penalties imposed on the appellant in the present case under the Sections 112(a), 112(b) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 are not sustainable and hence the same are set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalties under Section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 can be imposed on a person who allegedly "facilitated" clearance of mis-declared/contraband goods when there is no evidence of filing Bills of Entry, importation, documentation, examination or any act in relation to the importation of the goods.
2. Whether penalties under Section 112(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 can be imposed on a person who allegedly "acquired possession of or was in any way concerned in carrying, removing, depositing, harbouring, keeping, concealing, selling or purchasing or in any manner dealing with" goods liable to confiscation, where no material evidence establishes handling, possession or concern with the goods.
3. Whether mere permissive use of office premises and computer by a third party, or introduction of a person to importers/brokers, constitutes connivance, abetment or sufficient evidence to invoke Sections 112(a) and 112(b).
4. Admissibility and evidentiary weight of statements recorded under Section 108 of the Customs Act when they are uncorroborated and the declarants have not been made available for cross-examination; and the effect of an earlier, identical Tribunal decision on the same issues and facts.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Section 112(a)(i): applicability of penalty for improper importation or abetment
Legal framework: Section 112(a)(i) penalises any person who does or omits to do any act which renders goods liable to confiscation under Section 111, or abets such act, including improper importation, filing of false documentation, and acts connected with importation causing liability to confiscation.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal in an earlier, factually identical matter set aside penalties under Section 112(a)(i) where no evidence showed filing of Bills of Entry, participation in importation, documentation or clearance work; the Tribunal treated uncorroborated statements under Section 108 as insufficient absent examination under Section 138B.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the record and found no evidence that the appellant filed Bills of Entry, imported the goods, performed documentation, examined goods, or carried out any act connected to importation and clearance. Allegations in the show cause notice were founded on inferences, presumptions and statements not corroborated by independent material. Mere permitting use of office facilities or introducing a person to others did not establish participation in the importation process or abetment of a contravention rendering goods liable to confiscation. The Tribunal's prior reasoning that such findings cannot rest on assumptions without supporting evidence was applied as directly pertinent.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties under Section 112(a)(i) require concrete evidence of acts related to importation or abetment (filing, documentation, handling, clearance); absent such evidence penalties are unsustainable. Obiter - remarks on the impropriety of relying on selective statements without cross-examination support the ratio but also address evidentiary practice.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(a)(i) cannot be sustained on the present record and is set aside.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Section 112(b)(i): applicability of penalty for possession or dealing with goods liable to confiscation
Legal framework: Section 112(b) imposes penalty on any person who acquires possession of or is in any way concerned with carrying, removing, depositing, harbouring, keeping, concealing, selling, purchasing or otherwise dealing with goods which he knows or has reason to believe are liable to confiscation under Section 111.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal earlier held that imposition under Section 112(b) requires material evidence of acts specified (possession, carrying, harbouring etc.) and cannot be imposed on assumptions; uncorroborated statements under Section 108 cannot alone sustain such a penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found no material evidence demonstrating possession, custody, handling, removal, harbouring, concealment, sale or purchase of the seized goods by the appellant. The record lacked any independent corroboration tying the appellant to the physical goods or to acts constituting "in any way concerned" under Section 112(b). Allegations based on introductions or permissive use of office equipment were held insufficient to establish the statutory predicate of knowledge and dealing with confiscable goods. Reliance on the Tribunal's prior decision under similar facts reinforced the conclusion that speculative findings cannot satisfy the statutory threshold.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penal liability under Section 112(b) demands evidentiary proof of possession or active concern with the goods; speculation or uncorroborated allegations are inadequate. Obiter - discussion that family or business links and unrelated financial transactions do not, without more, establish "concern" with the offending goods.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(b)(i) cannot be sustained and is set aside.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Permissive use of office/computer and introductions: whether these acts constitute connivance or abetment
Legal framework: Connivance or abetment under the Customs Act requires active or knowing participation, assistance, encouragement, or agreement to facilitate an offence, or acts that satisfy statutory predicates for penalty provisions invoked.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal's prior order rejected the inference that mere introductions or sharing of office apparatus equated to connivance where no further evidence linked the person to the offence or to the importation acts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that sharing office apparatus and allowing use of a computer can occur for benign, logistic reasons in contexts where some brokers lack office facilities. Such permissive acts, in the absence of additional evidence of knowing facilitation, do not constitute connivance, abetment or fulfil the requirements of Sections 112(a) or 112(b). The show cause allegations were deemed speculative rather than evidentiary. Introduction of a person to brokers/importers, without proof that the introducer knew of or intended the mis-declaration, does not legally amount to abetment or being "in any way concerned" with the offending goods.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - permissive provision of office facilities or making introductions, standing alone, do not establish connivance or abetment sufficient to attract penalties under Sections 112(a) and 112(b). Obiter - guidance that fact-specific inquiry must examine mens rea and objective acts beyond mere association.
Conclusion: The acts of allowing use of office/computer and making introductions are insufficient, by themselves, to sustain penalties under the invoked provisions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Evidentiary value of statements under Section 108 and effect of earlier Tribunal decision
Legal framework: Statements recorded under Section 108 are admissible but their probative value depends on corroboration and, where contested, examination procedures such as Section 138B; uncorroborated statements admitted without cross-examination or independent evidence cannot alone sustain adverse findings of guilt or liability.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on the principle that statements under Section 108 require corroboration and, where relied upon to convict or penalise a person, must be tested in adjudication; previous Tribunal orders applied this principle to set aside penalties founded on uncorroborated statements.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the adjudicating authority selectively relied upon statements recorded from certain individuals without independent corroboration and without allowing cross-examination, rendering such statements weak as sole proof. The Tribunal's earlier order in identical facts was found squarely applicable and persuasive; consistency in adjudication was followed. Consequently, evidentiary insufficiency of those statements undermined the basis for penalties.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - uncorroborated statements under Section 108, not subjected to procedural safeguards, cannot by themselves constitute sufficient evidence to impose penalties under the Customs Act. Obiter - recommendation that authorities ensure statements are tested and corroborated before relying upon them for penal consequences.
Conclusion: The uncorroborated statements did not furnish a reliable basis for penalty; reliance on the Tribunal's prior decision warranted setting aside penalties on identical evidentiary grounds.
FINAL CONCLUSION
In view of the absence of evidence showing filing of import documentation, possession or handling of the seized goods, lack of corroboration for statements relied upon, and applicability of an earlier Tribunal decision on identical facts, penalties imposed under Sections 112(a)(i) and 112(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 are unsustainable and are set aside.
Levy of penalties u/s 112(a)(i) and 112(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 - abetting in clearance of the mis-declared consignment - appellant denied to have any knowledge about their modus operandi - HELD THAT:- It is found that the allegation of the Department is that the appellant has facilitated clearance of the mis-declared goods, there are no evidence on record to substantiate this allegation. With regard to the allegation against the appellant that he has allowed Shri Nasiruddin to use their office and computer in this case, it is found that allowing usage of office premises and computer cannot be construed as connivance in the alleged offence - the appellant’s submission also noted that he has no objection with regard to the confiscation of the goods and the order for destruction of the cigarettes seized. It is also observed that there is no evidence available on record to establish that the appellant is the owner of the goods or that he has imported the goods in question or was, in any way, connected with the subject goods.
Regarding the penalties imposed on the appellant, it is observed that the investigation has not brought in any evidence against the appellant to establish that the conditions laid down for invoking the provisions of Section 112 of the Customs Act, 1962 have been satisfied in this case. Further, there is no evidence available on record to establish that the appellant had contravened or violated any of the provisions of the Customs Act. Thus, the ld. adjudicating authority has finding that the appellant was providing necessary assistance in the clearance of mis-declared and contraband goods, without any evidence. arrived at a speculative - there is no evidence available on record to establish that the appellant has handled the goods involved in this case. Thus, although it has been alleged that the appellant has conspired with the importer to bring in mis-declared/contraband goods, which are liable to confiscation under the Customs Act, 1962, there are no evidence to this effect for invoking the provisions of Section 112 of the Act against the appellant.
The penalties cannot be imposed on the appellant under Sections 112(a) and 112(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalties under Section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 can be sustained against a person alleged to have facilitated clearance of mis-declared/undervalued imported goods where there is no direct evidence of filing Bills of Entry, importation, documentation, examination or any act/omission rendering goods liable to confiscation.
2. Whether penalties under Section 112(b)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 can be sustained where there is no material evidence that the person acquired possession of, or was in any way concerned in carrying, removing, depositing, harbouring, keeping, concealing, selling, purchasing or otherwise dealing with goods known or believed to be liable to confiscation.
3. Whether penalty under Section 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 can be imposed where there is no material evidence that the person knowingly or intentionally made, signed, used or caused to be made, signed or used any false or incorrect declaration, statement or document in relation to the subject imports.
4. Whether uncorroborated statements recorded under Section 108 and not tested under Section 138B can be relied upon as independent evidence to impose penalties under Sections 112(a), 112(b) and 114AA.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of penalty under Section 112(a)(i)
Legal framework: Section 112(a)(i) imposes penalty on any person who, in relation to any goods, does or omits to do any act which act or omission would render such goods liable to confiscation under Section 111.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal has earlier held that imposition under Section 112(a)(i) requires evidence of actual participation in importation, filing of Bills of Entry, documentation, examination or other work related to the import and clearance; mere introductions or associations are insufficient.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority's finding was based on allegations of facilitation and introductions, and on office-use by a third person; record contains no evidence that the appellant filed Bills of Entry, carried out documentation, handled examination or performed any act/omission directly rendering goods liable to confiscation. Allowing use of office premises and computer by another cannot, without more, constitute the requisite act or omission under Section 112(a)(i). The Tribunal treats speculative or inferential conclusions unsupported by independent material as inadequate to satisfy statutory conditions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - imposition under Section 112(a)(i) cannot rest on assumption, presumption or uncorroborated association; requires positive material showing the relevant act/omission. Obiter - observations on the insufficiency of merely allowing use of office equipment as connivance.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(a)(i) is unsustainable on the facts; set aside.
Issue 2 - Validity of penalty under Section 112(b)(i)
Legal framework: Section 112(b) penalises any person who acquires possession of or is in any way concerned in carrying, removing, depositing, harbouring, keeping, concealing, selling, purchasing or otherwise dealing with goods which he knows or has reason to believe are liable to confiscation under Section 111.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal precedent requires material evidence linking the person to acts enumerated in Section 112(b); mere introductions, family connections or third-party transactions are insufficient.
Interpretation and reasoning: No record evidence establishes that the appellant acquired possession of or dealt with the impugned goods or engaged in any of the statutory acts. Allegations based on family-related firm transactions or deposits in related accounts were not shown to have nexus with the appellant's acts or benefit to him. The adjudicating authority relied on assumptions without independent corroboration.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 112(b) requires concrete evidentiary foundation that the person was concerned in specific acts regarding the goods; speculative linkage is inadequate. Obiter - commentary on how familial or business proximity does not automatically satisfy statutory connection.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(b)(i) is unsustainable and set aside.
Issue 3 - Validity of penalty under Section 114AA
Legal framework: Section 114AA penalises knowingly or intentionally making, signing or using, or causing to be made, signed or used, any false or incorrect declaration, statement or document in any transaction for the purposes of the Act.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal/authority requires evidence of direct involvement in preparation, use, signing or causing use of false documents; passive association is not enough.
Interpretation and reasoning: There is no material evidence that the appellant played any role in filing bills, preparing declarations, or using false documents for the subject consignments. The record does not demonstrate knowledge or intent to make false declarations. The adjudicating authority's conclusion was speculative and not supported by corroborative material linking the appellant to falsified documentation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 114AA requires proof of knowing/intentional use or causation of false declarations; absence of direct evidentiary nexus defeats imposition. Obiter - remarks on insufficiency of indirect inferences to prove subjective knowledge or intent.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 114AA is unsustainable and set aside.
Issue 4 - Reliance on uncorroborated statements under Section 108 not tested under Section 138B
Legal framework: Statements recorded under Section 108 may be admissible but require scrutiny and, where relied upon for penal consequences, examination under Section 138B or corroboration by independent material to satisfy procedural fairness and evidentiary reliability.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal and superior courts have required that untested Section 108 statements not be the sole basis for adverse findings unless corroborated; non-availability of cross-examination weakens their evidentiary value.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority relied on selective reading of statements of several persons without corroborative independent material and without having these witnesses subjected to examination under Section 138B despite requests; such reliance renders findings speculative. The Tribunal treats such statements as inadmissible for penal imposition in absence of corroboration or procedural testing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Uncorroborated Section 108 statements not tested under Section 138B cannot sustain penalties; reliance on them without independent evidence is impermissible. Obiter - emphasis on procedural requirement of allowing testing of statements when relied upon for penal consequences.
Conclusion: Statements relied upon by the adjudicating authority do not furnish independent evidence to sustain penalties; they cannot support the statutory elements of Sections 112(a), 112(b) or 114AA.
Cross-references and Composite Conclusion
All Issues: The Tribunal's analysis across Issues 1-4 is interlinked - absence of direct evidence of importation/filing/documentation/possession or dealings, absence of proof of knowing use of false documents, and reliance on uncorroborated statements together render the statutory conditions for penalties under Sections 112(a)(i), 112(b)(i) and 114AA unsatisfied. The Tribunal follows earlier identical findings in a coextensive matter and sets aside the penalties, granting consequential relief as per law.
Levy of penalties upon the appellant u/s 112(a)(i), 112(b)(i) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 - entities together operated as a syndicate and facilitated clearance of misdeclared/undervalued goods - HELD THAT:- It is found that in this case, the officers of DRI, Kolkata Zonal Unit intercepted one consignment imported by the appellant vide Bill of Entry No. 9959888, dated 05.06.2017. The bill of entry was filed by the importer M/s Lotus Impex (India), New Delhi. On examination, the goods were found to be grossly mis-declared in terms of description as well as quantity. Also, the goods were found to be undervalued. Accordingly, the impugned Show Cause Notice was issued wherein the following allegation was made against the appellant in paragraph No. 13.5.3. of the said Notice.
It is observed that although the allegation of the Department is that the appellant has facilitated clearance of the mis-declared goods, there is no evidence on record to substantiate this allegation. It is also the allegation against the appellant that he has allowed Nasiruddin to use their office and computer. I find that allowing usage of office premises and computer cannot be construed as connivance in the alleged offence - it is also noted that the appellant’s submission that he has no objection with regard to the confiscation of the goods and the order for destruction of the cigarettes seized. Thus, there is no evidence available on record to establish that the appellant is the owner of the goods or he imported the goods or was in any way connected with the subject goods.
Regarding the penalties imposed on the appellant, it is found that the investigation has not brought in any evidence against the appellant to establish that the conditions laid down for invoking the provisions of Section 112 of the Customs Act, 1962 have been satisfied in this case - there are also no corroborative evidence available on record to establish that the appellant had contravened or violated any of the provisions of the Customs Act. Thus, the ld. adjudicating authority has arrived at a speculative finding that the appellant was providing necessary assistance in the clearance of mis-declared and contraband goods, without any evidence. Although it has been alleged that the appellant has conspired with the importer to bring in mis-declared/contraband goods which are liable to confiscation under the Customs Act,1962, there are no evidence to establish that the conditions laid down for invoking the provisions of Section 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 have been satisfied in this case.
Reference made to the decision of this Tribunal in M/S. SAJAL DAS VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CUSTOMS, AIRPORT & AIR CARGO COMPLEX COMMISSIONERATE, KOLKATA [2025 (5) TMI 1229 - CESTAT KOLKATA], rendered in an identical set of facts where the adjudicating authority had imposed penalties under Section 112(a) and 112(b) and 114AA on the appellant, whereby this Tribunal has set aside the penalties imposed.
The penalties imposed on the appellant in the present case under the Sections 112(a), 112(b) and 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 are not sustainable and hence, the same are set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether denial of concessional basic customs duty under Notification No. 26/2000-Customs dated 01.03.2000 read with Notification No. 19/2000-Customs (N.T.) dated 01.03.2000 was sustainable merely because the Certificate of Origin did not contain separate particulars of third-country or third-party invoicing.
Analysis: The concessional notification granted benefit to specified goods, including the imported goods in List-5, subject to production of proof that the goods were of Sri Lankan origin in accordance with the prescribed Rules of Origin. The governing origin rules required a valid Certificate of Origin issued by the designated authority and did not prescribe any separate column for third-party invoicing details in the certificate. The Tribunal found that the dispute was not about classification, coverage, or the genuineness of the certificate-issuing authority, but only about the absence of a specific endorsement on invoicing. It held that such absence could not be treated as a legal ground to deny the ISFTA benefit, particularly when the materials showed that the goods satisfied the origin requirements and the imported goods were treated as originating from Sri Lanka. The Tribunal also relied on CBIC guidance and the principle that invoice origin does not by itself determine origin status where the rules are silent, and held that the departmental objection was hyper-technical and unsupported by the scheme of the notification and the origin rules.
Conclusion: The denial of concessional duty solely on the ground of third-party invoicing was not sustainable, and the exemption benefit was held admissible to the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the applicable preferential notification and rules of origin require proof of origin through a valid Certificate of Origin but do not prescribe a separate requirement to disclose third-party invoicing particulars, the customs benefit cannot be denied on that ground alone if origin is otherwise established.
Denial of concessional basic customs duty under N/N.26/2000Customs dated 01.03.2000 read with N/N.19/2000-Customs (N.T.) dated 01.03.2000 - requirement with regard to Country of Origin certificate fulfilled or not - Certificate of Origin (COO) issued by the designated authority does not contain a specific field indicating third-party/third-country invoicing - HELD THAT:- Rule 11 of Customs Tariff (Determination of Origin of Goods under the Free Trade Agreement between the Democratic Socialistic Republic of Sri Lanka and the Republic of India) Rules, 2000 provides that all products eligible under the ISFTA notification and for which for a Certificate of origin has been issued by an authority designated by the Government of the exporting country, in the form annexed, shall be granted preferential treatment by the importing country. It is therefore clear that there is no specific requirement for indicating the third party invoicing details in the COO, in terms of legal provisions governing the procedure for grant of ISFTA concessions. Further, it is not in dispute that the impugned goods are ‘wholly obtained’, as Rule 7(b) of the Rules of 2000 state that in respect of Non-originating materials, it shall be considered to be sufficiently worked or processed to extend the ISFTA benefit, when there is change in the classification of the final product obtained, at the four digit level, of the Harmonised Commodity Description and Coding System, which is different from those in which all the non-originating materials used in its manufacture are classified - the conclusion arrived at by the learned Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) for denying the ISFTA duty concession in the present case is not supported by any legal basis and therefore on this ground, the impugned order is liable to be set aside.
On the issue of ‘Third-country invoicing’, within the context of WTO rules of origin, it refers to a situation where the commercial invoice for goods originating from an exporting country is issued by a third country, rather than the exporting country itself. This practice is recognized and permitted under various Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), including the ASEAN-India FTA. The key factor is that the Certificate of Origin (COO) must confirm the originating status of the goods, regardless of where the invoice originates. Even if the Customs authorities at the importing country have to deny the ISFTA duty concession, they need to verify the origin of goods based on the rules on COO and the procedure for co-operation as provided in Rules of 2000, has to be followed even with the issue of thirdparty invoicing, and ensure that the goods meet the criteria under the relevant FTA. Therefore, invoicing done from the exporter from the exporting country or third country invoicing is not determinative of the COO benefit and no such rules have been provided under the Rules of 2000.
It is found that in an identical facts of case, denying the ISFTA benefit on account of the fact the Rules of 2000 are silent on the issuance of a COO retrospectively/retroactively in cases where the COO was not issued at the time of exportation or proximate thereto, but on a later date, the Hon’ble High Court of Madras in the case of Aabis International Vs. Commissioner of Customs, Chennai Customs-II Commissionerate [2021 (6) TMI 643 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] have held that the ISFTA benefit is extendable to the appellants, by quashing the order issued by the Customs in denying the FTA benefit.
There are no merits in the impugned order passed by the learned Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) to the extent it has rejected the duty exemption/ concession claimed in respect of the impugned goods covered under List-5 of the Notification No.26/2000-Customs dated 01.03.2000 read with Notification No.19/2000-Customs (N.T.) dated 01.03.2000.
The impugned order dated 24.06.2024 passed by the learned Commissioner of Customs (Appeals), Mumbai-II is set aside - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a shareholder previously identified as a "promoter" in an annual return can be validly reclassified as a "public shareholder/other than promoter" by board resolution of an unlisted public company prior to a rights issue.
2. Whether an unlisted public company making a rights issue is required, as a matter of law, to ensure dematerialisation of securities of a shareholder who is not a promoter on the record date, and the respective obligations of the company versus those of individual security-holders under Rule 9A of the Companies (Prospectus and Allotment of Securities) Rules, 2014.
3. Whether an adjudicatory authority dealing with an interim application (seeking stay) may cancel a rights issue and order refund of application money where such relief was not specifically prayed for, having regard to pleadings, opportunity to affected allottees, and principles governing grant of relief beyond pleadings.
4. Whether non-compliance with Section 62(2) (minimum notice before opening of a rights issue) by initially fixing an opening date short of three days, and later issuing an addendum postponing the opening, vitiates the rights issue where the company corrects the opening date before the issue opens.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Reclassification of Promoter Status
Legal framework: Section 2(69) (definition of "promoter") and general company law principles; absence of express statutory prohibition on reclassification for unlisted public companies; comparative procedural guidance exists in listing regulations for listed entities.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on established principles that procedural rules are permissive unless expressly prohibited (citing general jurisprudence on procedural latitude), and applied analogous reasoning to permit reclassification where not prohibited by statute.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analysed factual matrix (termination of cooperation/shareholder agreements, resignation of nominee director, subsequent annual return and PAS filings) and concluded that, as a matter of fact and law, the company's board validly reclassified the shareholder as non-promoter on 09.11.2022. The Tribunal observed there is no provision in the Companies Act forbidding such reclassification for unlisted public companies, and that SEBI reclassification machinery for listed companies is inapplicable to unlisted companies.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a promoter may be reclassified as a non-promoter in an unlisted public company by board action where facts justify loss of control or identification as promoter; absence of statutory bar permits such reclassification. Observational note - SEBI rules govern listed companies and are not transferrable to unlisted companies.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded the shareholder was not a promoter on the date of the rights issue and that reclassification was legally effective prior to the offer.
Issue 2 - Obligations under Rule 9A: Company versus Security-holder
Legal framework: Rule 9A(1)-(4) and (3)(b) of Companies (Prospectus and Allotment of Securities) Rules, 2014; Depositories Act and related regulations.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the express language of Rule 9A to distinguish duties of an unlisted public company (issue only in dematerialised form; facilitate dematerialisation) from duties of individual holders (to ensure their existing securities are dematerialised before subscribing to new securities under Rule 9A(3)(b)).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that Rule 9A(2) requires an unlisted public company to ensure dematerialisation of securities of its promoters, directors and KMP before making an offer; but where a shareholder is not a promoter on the relevant date, the company's mandatory obligation under Rule 9A(2) does not extend to that shareholder. For non-promoter shareholders the company must facilitate dematerialisation, while the onus to dematerialise before subscription rests on the subscribing holder per Rule 9A(3)(b). The Tribunal observed no evidence that the company blocked an application for dematerialisation or that the shareholder had applied; therefore, the company's rejection of subscription on the ground of non-dematerialisation was consistent with Rule 9A(1)(a) when the shares were required to be issued only in dematerialised form.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - delineation of statutory duties: mandatory dematerialisation obligation of the company is confined to promoters/KMP under Rule 9A(2); facilitation duty applies for other shareholders, and the subscribing shareholder bears responsibility to have existing securities dematerialised under Rule 9A(3)(b). Observational guidance - company may refuse subscription where subscriber's holdings are not in dematerialised form if issuance must be in dematerialised form.
Conclusions: Because the shareholder had been validly reclassified as non-promoter prior to the rights issue, the company was not statutorily obliged under Rule 9A(2) to ensure dematerialisation of that shareholder's securities; the statutory scheme places the primary onus of dematerialisation before subscription on the holder, with facilitation duties on the company for non-promoter holders.
Issue 3 - Relief Beyond Pleadings and Cancellation of Rights Issue by Adjudicatory Authority
Legal framework: Principles restricting grant of relief beyond pleadings and requirement to afford opportunity on new reliefs; power of adjudicatory authority to mould relief and inherent powers to do justice tempered by fairness and opportunity theory.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal examined jurisprudence holding courts should not grant relief beyond pleadings without opportunity to amend and contest, but also acknowledged precedents permitting moulding of relief where issues were fully argued and parties had opportunity to meet them.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the interim application before the adjudicator sought stay only, whereas the adjudicator cancelled the rights issue and ordered refund of application money after the issue had closed and allotments made. The Tribunal noted lack of notice to hundreds of allottees and absence of challenge to pricing. On facts the adjudicator exceeded appropriate remedial scope on an interim application and relied on grounds not established at interim stage. The Tribunal set aside the cancellation and refund direction, observing that the main oppression and mismanagement petition remained pending for final adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an adjudicatory authority dealing with an interim application should not cancel a rights issue and order refunds where such relief goes beyond pleadings and affects third parties without adequate notice and opportunity; relief beyond the prayer requires procedural fairness. Observations - where issues are extensively argued, relief moulding may be permissible, but procedural safeguards must be respected.
Conclusions: The cancellation of the rights issue and direction for refund by the adjudicator on an interim application was held to be unsustainable and was set aside; the proper forum to decide substantive allegations is the main petition where parties and affected third parties can be heard.
Issue 4 - Compliance with Section 62(2) (Three-day Notice) and Effect of Corrective Addendum
Legal framework: Section 62(2) Companies Act, 2013 (requirement to dispatch notice at least three days prior to opening of rights issue).
Precedent treatment: Tribunal accepted that initial dispatch schedule violated the three-day requirement but examined corrective steps taken prior to opening.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the company issued an addendum postponing the opening date from 04.03.2023 to 09.03.2023 and thereby met the three-day prior notice requirement before the issue opened. The Tribunal treated the corrective action as fulfilling the statutory notice requirement and declined to treat the initial error as vitiating the issue where corrected before opening.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a bona fide corrective amendment to notice that satisfies the statutory minimum prior to the actual opening cures an earlier defect in notice dispatch insofar as the requirement is complied with at the time of opening. Observation - material prejudice or bad faith would require different treatment.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held the requirement of Section 62(2) was met by issuance of the addendum before opening and the rights issue was not vitiated on this ground.
Overall Conclusions and Directions
The Tribunal concluded that (a) the shareholder was validly reclassified as non-promoter before the rights issue; (b) Rule 9A obliges the company to ensure dematerialisation of promoters/KMP but places facilitation and subscriber onus for other shareholders; (c) the adjudicator erred in cancelling the rights issue and ordering refunds on an interim application without adequate procedural safeguards to affected allottees; and (d) the defect in notice under Section 62(2) was cured by the addendum issued before opening. The impugned cancellation and contempt-related show cause directions were set aside and the main petition on oppression and mismanagement was directed to proceed on merits.
Relief granted beyong prayers made - re-classification of ‘promoter shareholder’ as ‘public shareholder’ in an unlisted public company - Telsonic Holding AG was a promoter on the date when the rights issue was launched by the appellant or not - responsibilities of the Appellant Company while making the rights issue - correctness in cancelling the rights issue and directing refund of share application money.
Whether Telsonic Holding AG was a promoter on the date when the rights issue was launched by the appellant? - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the Appellant Company was established in 1992 as a joint venture of Telsonic Holding AG and Roop Ultrasonix Pvt. Ltd. Initially, it was incorporated as a private company and the status was changed from private to public w.e.f. 25.10.1994. A number of agreements were signed between Telsonic Holding AG and Roop Ultrasonix Limited. However, apparently Telsonic Holding AG started withdrawing from the control of the Appellant Company. The co-operation agreement made on 29.10.1997, and further on 20.09.2005, to establish strategic partnership between the two groups was cancelled by Telsonic on 24.08.2019 - Telsonic was not having any control over the Appellant Company as it was neither the majority shareholder nor had a representative on the Board of Directors, and therefore cannot be termed as ‘promoter’ by virtue of sub-section (b) or sub- section (c) of Section 2(69).
Regarding applicability of sub-section(a) of Section 2(69), it can be seen that the Respondent (Telsonic) was identified as a promoter in the annual return as on 31.03.2022 and in the PAS-6 form for the period ending 30.09.2022. However, considering the termination of various agreements and withdrawal of their nominee from board of directors, the board of directors in their meeting dated 09.11.2022 resolved to reclassify Telsonic Holding AG from “promoter to public shareholder/other than promoter” - In the PAS-6 form and annual return of the subsequent period i.e. as on 31.03.2023, the Respondent (Telsonic) is not shown as a promoter of the Company. It is apparent that when the rights issue was undertaken by the Appellant Company in March, 2023, Respondent (Telsonic) was not a ‘promoter’ of the company.
It is apparent that the general principle is that every procedure is to be understood as permissible till it is shown to be prohibited in law - there is no prohibition in reclassification of promoter. However, the said circular of SEBI is for listed companies, and since the Appellant Company, is an unlisted public company, the said procedure is not applicable to it - Thus, it is clear that a ‘promoter’ can be reclassified as ‘non-promoter/public shareholder’ and the Respondent (Telsonic) was correctly re-classified as ‘’public shareholder/other than promoter” on 09.11.2022, much before the launch of rights issue of equity shares.
What were the responsibilities of the Appellant Company while making the rights issue and whether these were complied with? - HELD THAT:- As per Rule 9A(3)(b), it is responsibility of the holder of securities of an unlisted company to ensure that all its/his existing securities are in dematerialised form before any fresh subscription. Here, the role of the Appellant Company is only to facilitate dematerialisation of all existing securities as per Rule 9A(1)(a). Thus, for shareholders other than promoters, directors and key managerial personnel, the responsibility of the Appellant Company, as prescribed in Rule 9A(1)(b) is limited to “facilitation” of dematerialization. The steps required in ‘’facilitation’’ of the process are listed in sub rules (4) to (8A) of Rule 9A. It is not the case of the Respondent (Telsonic) that it had applied for dematerialisation which was blocked by the Appellant Company. Apparently, Telsonic had never applied for dematerialization of its shares - it is also noted that as per Rule 9A(1)(a) every unlisted public company is required to issue the securities “only” in dematerialised form. Since the shares of Telsonic were not in dematerialized form, the act of Appellant Company in rejecting the application of the Respondent is fully in consonance with Rule 9A(1)(a) of the Rules.
Whether the Ld. NCLT has erred in cancelling the rights issue and directing refund of share application money? - HELD THAT:- The impugned order of Ld. NCLT cannot be sustained and the Ld. NCLT has erred in cancelling the rights issue and directing refund of share application money. The impugned order is thus set aside - it is noted that the main company petition for ‘Oppression and Mismanagement’ is still pending before the Ld. NCLT. The Ld. NCLT is requested to dispose CP No. 57/MB/2023 as expeditiously as possible, though without being influenced by any observation made in this judgment.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the appointment of a valuer and consideration of the valuation report by consent of parties amounted to waiver or satisfaction of the statutory requirements under the proviso to Section 244(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 so as to permit the petition under Sections 241 and 242 to proceed on merits; (ii) Whether the rectification order correcting the earlier observation regarding agreement on valuation called for interference in appeal.
Issue (i): Whether the appointment of a valuer and consideration of the valuation report by consent of parties amounted to waiver or satisfaction of the statutory requirements under the proviso to Section 244(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 so as to permit the petition under Sections 241 and 242 to proceed on merits.
Analysis: The waiver contemplated by the proviso to Section 244(1) is an independent statutory adjudication and remains a condition precedent for maintaining proceedings under Sections 241 and 242 by a member holding below the prescribed threshold. The consensual appointment of a valuer, the receipt of the valuation report, and the opportunity to file objections were only steps taken in an attempted settlement exercise and did not amount to an adjudication on the waiver application. A procedural or consensual exercise for exploring an exit route cannot override the mandatory requirement of a specific order under Section 244.
Conclusion: The calling for or receipt of the valuation report did not amount to allowance of the waiver application, and the proceedings under Sections 241 and 242 could not be treated as having matured without a decision on Section 244.
Issue (ii): Whether the rectification order correcting the earlier observation regarding agreement on valuation called for interference in appeal.
Analysis: The rectification was confined to aligning the order with the earlier order sheets and the respondent's affidavit, and it corrected an inadvertent inconsistency in recording the parties' stance on valuation. No substantive right was decided by the rectification, and the modification was only clerical in nature.
Conclusion: The rectification order was justified and did not warrant interference.
Final Conclusion: The appeals failed because the waiver question under Section 244 remained undecided and the rectification order was found to be proper, leaving the appellant without a basis to proceed on the merits of the oppression and mismanagement petition.
Ratio Decidendi: A waiver under the proviso to Section 244(1) must be expressly granted by a judicial order before a member below the statutory threshold can maintain proceedings under Sections 241 and 242, and consensual or interim steps taken to explore settlement do not substitute for that mandatory determination.
Maintainability of the Company Petition - Valuation Report - Seeking a waiver from the requirements specified in Section 244(1)(a) for the purposes of initiating proceedings u/s 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, on the ground that, she is a minority shareholder holding 5.98% of shares -HELD THAT:- In the instant case, the process so far adopted till the order of 05.03.2025 emanating out of consensus between the parties and also from the act of exercise of discretion by the Tribunal, in order to find a mutually acceptable solution to the controversy, cannot be interpreted as allowing of the application for waiver, as it has been attempted to be read by the Appellant, so as to press for adjudication of proceedings under Section 241 & 242 on its own merits without even a prior order being passed on application under Section 244(1) of the Companies Act. We are of the considered view that when the Tribunal had exercised its discretion, it was on the joint and unanimous request of the parties calling for a report, which is not a specific process contemplated under law before deciding Section 244 application. Hence, it will not create any statutory obstacle for the Tribunal to proceed to decide an Application under Section 244 for the purposes of deciding the proceedings under Section 241 & 242 of the Companies Act, 2013.
The valuation report, which was called for by consent of parties and was later submitted, is only a document, which will facilitate the Tribunal to decide the controversy, if at all, it is legally mature to be considered and decided on merits. The valuation report thus submitted prior to passing of any order under Section 244 cannot be read as if no specific order on waiver was required to be passed under Section 244(1)(a). Had the valuation report been accepted by all, exit to the Appellant as sought for could have been provided leading to amicable settlement, without reference to application under Section 241 alleging oppression and mismanagement - the argument extended by the Learned Counsel for the Appellant that, the finality ought to have been given to the valuation report prior to recording the finding to decide the application of waiver under Section 244 of the Companies Act, is absolutely a misconception, for the reason being that at the stage when the valuation report was called it was with the consent of the parties and which was accepted on record by consent and that it was not an act or procedure that was contemplated under law, but rather, an exercise of a discretion or an equity by the Tribunal to find an amicable settlement.
The proceeding under Section 244 of the Companies Act, at the behest of the Appellant cannot be clouded to avoid a specific decision to be taken, on an application under Section 244 of the Companies Act, under peculiar circumstances, which have emerged consideration due to the prior calling of the valuation report by the Tribunal, which has been accepted by consent of both the parties and which obviously could have been subjected to consideration only when the actual proceeding under Section 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, takes its legal birth only after the consideration of the Application under Section 244 under the Act and not otherwise.
Owing to aforesaid, the Company Appeal lacks merit and the same accordingly deserves to be dismissed.
Issues: Whether the appellant, having acquired more than 25% shares in the target company, was required to make an open offer to the remaining shareholders and whether the promoters holding the larger shareholding could be excluded at this stage; and whether leave could be granted to amend the cause title and implead the promoters as respondents.
Outcome: No final adjudication was recorded on the open offer issue. The appellant was permitted to amend the cause title and to file the necessary application within one week, and the matter was directed to be taken up on the next date.
Obligation to make an open offer on acquisition crossing the 25% threshold - exclusion of promoter-shareholders from open offer on basis of prior correspondence - impleadment of promoter-shareholders as party respondents
Obligation to make an open offer on acquisition crossing the 25% threshold - exclusion of promoter-shareholders from open offer on basis of prior correspondence - Appellant's duty to make an open offer upon acquiring more than 25% of the target company's shares and whether certain promoter-shareholders could be excluded from the open offer on the basis of prior correspondence. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal accepted the respondent's submission that once the appellant crossed the statutory threshold of 25% shareholding in the target company, the obligation to make an open offer arose. Correspondence between the company, SEBI and the merchant banker that pre-dated the acquisition and related to the acquisition of pre-25% shares could not operate to exclude promoter-shareholders who hold about 65% from the open offer obligation. There was nothing on record to show those promoter-shareholders would not accept an open offer, and they were not parties to the proceedings; consequently the appellant could not rely on the prior correspondence to avoid the duty to make the open offer. [Paras 1, 2, 3]
The appellant is bound to make the open offer after crossing the 25% threshold and promoter-shareholders cannot be excluded from the open offer on the basis of the cited correspondence.
Impleadment of promoter-shareholders as party respondents - Application by the appellant to implead the promoter-shareholders holding about 65% as party respondents and to amend the cause title. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal granted the appellant permission to amend the cause title and implead the promoter-shareholders as respondents, with liberty to file the appropriate application within one week. The court accepted the oral prayer for amendment to save time and directed compliance with the stated timeline. [Paras 3]
Permission granted to amend the cause title and to file the necessary application to implead the promoter-shareholders within one week.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the appellant's acquisition beyond 25% triggered the obligation to make an open offer and that prior correspondence could not exclude promoter-shareholders from that obligation; the appellant was permitted to amend the cause title and file an application to implead the promoter-shareholders within one week, with the matter listed on November 03, 2025.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1.1 Whether the delay of 12 days in filing the appeal warranted condonation.
1.2 Whether exemption sought in the connected application should be granted.
1.3 For the purpose of interim relief, what is the appropriate benchmark date/period for computation of disgorgement in a case involving alleged stock price manipulation through misleading YouTube videos and related trading activity.
1.4 Whether, at the admission stage, recovery of the penalty and disgorgement amount should be stayed, and if so, on what conditions.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
2.1 Condonation of delay in filing the appeal (Issue 1.1)
Legal framework
2.1.1 The Tribunal proceeded on the basis of its statutory power to condone delay in filing an appeal upon being satisfied with the reasons furnished, applying the general principles governing "sufficient cause" for condonation of delay.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.1.2 The Tribunal recorded that it had considered the reasons stated in the application for condonation of delay and found them adequate to justify condonation of a 12-day delay in filing the appeal.
2.1.3 The short duration of the delay and the Tribunal's terse order indicate that the delay was treated as neither inordinate nor prejudicial and that the explanation met the threshold of "sufficient cause".
Ratio vs. Obiter
2.1.4 The finding that the reasons were sufficient to condone a 12-day delay constitutes the ratio for allowing the condonation application in this matter, though the order is fact-specific and does not lay down any broader proposition.
Conclusions
2.1.5 Delay of 12 days in filing the appeal was condoned and the application for condonation of delay was allowed; the related miscellaneous application was disposed of.
2.2 Grant of exemption in the connected application (Issue 1.2)
Legal framework
2.2.1 The Tribunal exercised its procedural jurisdiction to grant exemption as sought in a miscellaneous application (nature of exemption not elaborated in the order).
Interpretation and reasoning
2.2.2 Upon considering the application, the Tribunal allowed the exemption without recording detailed reasons, indicating that the relief was procedural and uncontroversial at this stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter
2.2.3 The decision is confined to the facts and does not expound any general rule; it forms a narrow ratio restricted to the permissibility of the specific exemption in this appeal.
Conclusions
2.2.4 The exemption application was allowed and the corresponding miscellaneous application was disposed of.
2.3 Benchmark date/period for computation of disgorgement: prima facie assessment at admission stage (Issue 1.3)
Legal framework
2.3.1 The controversy pertains to the proper basis for computation of disgorgement in a case of alleged market manipulation, particularly the selection of the relevant period and reference price of the scrip. The Tribunal considered this only at a prima facie level for the purpose of interim relief.
Submissions of the appellant
2.3.2 The appellant argued that:
(a) No reasons were recorded in the impugned order while computing disgorgement.
(b) Appellant No. 1 had not traded in "Patch-1".
(c) The charge in the show cause notice was that the modus operandi involved posting misleading videos/content on specified YouTube channels to induce investors to invest in shares of a particular company, which led to increased trading volume and price.
(d) On this basis, disgorgement should have been computed by reference to the date when the YouTube videos were uploaded (14 July 2022, as per SEBI), taking the share price on that date or a day or two prior, up to 30 November 2022.
(e) SEBI, however, computed disgorgement by considering the price as it existed before the investigation period commencing on 4 March 2022, when the price was as low as Rs. 2.76, which the appellant contended was impermissible and disconnected from the alleged manipulative activity linked to the YouTube videos.
(f) Reliance was placed on the graph described in paragraph 15 of the impugned order to support the contention that March 2022 prices should not have been taken as the base.
Submissions of the respondent (SEBI)
2.3.3 The respondent contended that:
(a) As per paragraphs 49 to 60 of the impugned order, the alleged illegal activities commenced from March 2022.
(b) Paragraph 50 recorded that Rs. 10 lakh was transferred from one individual to another to start the operation, indicating that preparatory and trading activities related to the alleged manipulation began in March 2022.
(c) Between March and July 2022, the promoter group traded with entities associated with one of the alleged operators and other promoter-related entities.
(d) Accordingly, SEBI's selection of March 2022 as the starting point for computing the relevant base price for disgorgement was supported by recorded findings in the impugned order.
Tribunal's prima facie assessment
2.3.4 The Tribunal examined paragraph 50 of the impugned order and acknowledged that it recorded the transfer of Rs. 10 lakh as the seed money to start the operation, thereby supporting SEBI's case that the alleged operation commenced in March 2022.
2.3.5 The Tribunal identified the central point for consideration as whether the value of shares for disgorgement purposes should be taken as it existed in March 2022 or July 2022, i.e., before the alleged preparatory/related-party trades or around the date of uploading of the YouTube videos.
2.3.6 It noted that SEBI had recorded reasons for computing the value of shares as it existed in March 2022 and that these findings were strongly contested, thereby revealing a substantial, arguable issue on the merits of the disgorgement computation methodology.
Ratio vs. Obiter
2.3.7 The Tribunal expressly stated that it was at the stage of admission and interim order, and confined itself to a prima facie appreciation. It did not render a final determination as to which benchmark date or method was legally correct.
2.3.8 Any observations regarding the commencement of the alleged operation in March 2022, or the competing contentions on March 2022 versus July 2022 pricing, are prima facie and in the nature of obiter for interim purposes, not a binding ratio on the merits.
Conclusions
2.3.9 The Tribunal held that there exists a contestable and substantial issue as to whether the March 2022 share price or a date closer to the YouTube uploads in July 2022 should be adopted for calculating disgorgement, which will require detailed examination at the final hearing.
2.3.10 This contested issue, read with SEBI's recorded reasons in the impugned order and the appellant's contrary arguments, justified granting conditional interim protection rather than any immediate interference with the methodology of disgorgement computation.
2.4 Interim stay of recovery of penalty and disgorgement - conditions imposed (Issue 1.4)
Legal framework
2.4.1 The Tribunal exercised its incidental and inherent powers to grant interim relief pending appeal, balancing the principles of:
(a) Existence of a prima facie case;
(b) Balance of convenience; and
(c) Irreparable harm or prejudice, along with considerations of parity and consistency with orders in connected matters.
Precedent / Consistency with connected matters
2.4.2 The Tribunal recorded that several other appeals arise from the same impugned order.
2.4.3 In all such connected cases, the Tribunal had already directed the appellants to deposit 50% of the penalty and disgorgement amount as a condition for stay of recovery.
2.4.4 The Tribunal noted that, having regard to these prior conditional stay orders, there was, prima facie, no justification to deviate in the present appeal, given the commonality of the impugned order and similarity of the relief sought.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.4.5 After hearing both sides and considering the contested nature of the disgorgement computation (see Issue 2.3), the Tribunal recognized the existence of an arguable case on merits.
2.4.6 However, in view of the ongoing regulatory proceedings and the need to maintain consistency and protect the regulatory interest, the Tribunal balanced the competing equities by:
(a) Granting a stay of recovery of the penalty and disgorgement; but
(b) Making such stay conditional upon the appellant depositing 50% of the penalty and disgorgement amount within a specified period.
2.4.7 To safeguard the appellant's interest during pendency of the appeal, the Tribunal directed SEBI to place the deposited amount in an interest-bearing account, thereby preserving the value of the deposit and providing a measure of restitution if the appellant ultimately succeeds.
Ratio vs. Obiter
2.4.8 The core ratio decidendi is that, in appeals arising from a common impugned order involving serious regulatory allegations, conditional stay of recovery upon partial deposit (50% of the amount) is an appropriate interim arrangement when a prima facie case exists but the issues are contested and require full hearing.
2.4.9 The reference to prior orders in connected appeals serves primarily as a consistency and parity rationale, functioning as supporting reasoning rather than an independent ratio.
Conclusions
2.4.10 The Tribunal admitted the appeal.
2.4.11 Recovery of the penalty and disgorgement amount was stayed, subject to the appellant depositing 50% of the total penalty and disgorgement within four weeks.
2.4.12 SEBI was directed to keep the deposited amount in an interest-bearing account.
2.4.13 The miscellaneous application for stay was disposed of accordingly, and the matter was posted for further hearing on a specified future date by consent.
Condonation of delay - No reasons recorded while computingdisgorgement - date of commencement for the alleged illegal activities/ operation - modus operandi - spurt in the trading volume and concomitant increase in the price of the scrip - Appellants submitted that SEBI ought to have considered the date on which the YouTube videos were uploaded and calculated from that date or day or two prior thereto, whereas the SEBI has considered the price as it existed prior to the investigation period commencing from March 4, 2022.
HELD THAT:- Delay of 12 days is condoned.
We are at the stage of admission of the appeal and passing an interim order. There are several appeals arising out of the order impugned in this appeal. In all other cases we have directed to deposit 50% of the penalty and disgorgement amount as a condition to stay of recovery.
Thus, we are prima facie of the view that there is no reason for us to deviate in this case. Accordingly, we direct that there shall be stay of recovery subject to deposit of 50% of the penalty and disgorgement amount within four weeks from today.
Stay is disposed of.
Issues: Whether the delayed reply and rejoinder could be taken on record and whether the appellants could be permitted to make payments to investors from the bank account for the limited purpose of disbursement to approved investors.
Analysis: The delay in filing the reply and the rejoinder was condoned and both pleadings were taken on record. In view of the need to facilitate payment to investors, the mode of payment was regulated by requiring the appellants to first furnish the list of investors with bank account details to SEBI. Payment was directed to be made only after approval by SEBI's recovery officers and through proper banking channels. SEBI was also directed to instruct the appellants' bank to permit operation of the account only for the limited purpose of making such approved payments.
Outcome: The interim request was accepted in regulated form, the miscellaneous applications were disposed of, and the matter was adjourned for further hearing.
Seeking permission to make payments directly to investors - Delay in filing the rejoinder - SEBI submits that appellants may deposit the amount with SEBI and SEBI’s recovery officers will deal with the investors - HELD THAT:- Delay in filing the rejoinder is condoned. - Appellants shall first submit the list of such investors to the SEBI with the bank account details. While granting the approval for payment, SEBI shall instruct appellant’s bank to permit him to operate the account for the limited purpose of making the payments to the approved investors.
Defreezing of bank account stands disposed of.
Issues: Whether the independent directors of the company may be permitted to negotiate with proposed investors and place the material on record for further consideration, in the context of the existing restraint on access to the securities market.
Outcome: Permission was granted to the independent directors to negotiate with the proposed investors and to place the material on record for further consideration; the matter was directed to be listed on the next date.
Debarred from accessing the securities market - Appellant seek that the independent Directors of the Company may be permitted to negotiate with them and also the ban imposed on accessing the securities market may be stayed - HELD THAT:- SEBI submits that if the independent Directors are to negotiate with bonafide investors this Tribunal may consider granting an order subject to appellant filing an affidavit disclosing the facts with liberty to raise further contentions by the SEBI.
Thus, the independent Directors may negotiate with the proposed investors and place the material on record for further consideration.
Issues: Whether SFIO was a necessary party to the appeal and could be impleaded in view of its separate investigation.
Analysis: The application sought impleadment of SFIO on the ground that its ongoing investigation would assist adjudication of the appeal. The Tribunal noted that SEBI's impugned order was based on its own investigation under the SEBI Act, whereas SFIO's investigation operated under a different statutory regime and could only culminate, if completed, in a report to the Central Government and thereafter a prosecution before the designated court. On that basis, the Tribunal treated the two investigations as distinct and held that SFIO's presence was not required for deciding the appeal.
Conclusion: SFIO was held not to be a necessary party, and the impleadment application was dismissed.
Impleadment of party - Necessary party - Separate investigations under different statutory jurisdictions
Impleadment of party - Necessary party - Separate investigations under different statutory jurisdictions - Application to implead Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) as a party respondent in the appeal - HELD THAT: - The appellants sought impleadment of SFIO on the basis that SFIO is conducting a parallel investigation arising from a complaint and its report would assist the Tribunal. The Tribunal observed that the appellants challenge SEBI's order dated July 2, 2021, which was based on SEBI's investigation under the SEBI Act. SFIO's investigation is under a different statutory scheme and may culminate in a report to the Central Government and subsequent filing of a chargesheet before the designated court. Given that the investigations arise under different Acts and jurisdictions, SFIO is not a necessary party to adjudication of the appeal against SEBI's order. The application for impleadment was therefore dismissed. [Paras 4]
Misc. Application No. 419 of 2025 to implead SFIO is dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The application to implead SFIO as a respondent was refused because SFIO's separate statutory investigation does not render it a necessary party to the appeal against SEBI's order; the Miscellaneous Application was dismissed and the matter is adjourned to July 2, 2025.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Regulation 33(3) of the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 mandates quarterly consolidated financial results where the listed entity has associates/joint ventures but does not have any subsidiary.
2. Whether a stock exchange circular (purporting to require consolidation of subsidiaries, associates and joint ventures for quarterly/year-to-date results) and an informal guidance of the regulator can impose obligations or penalties beyond the plain language of Regulation 33(3) and the Companies Act/Schedule III formats.
3. Whether levying fines and consequent enforcement actions (freezing of promoters' demat accounts and suspension of trading) under SEBI/SOP circulars was justified for non-submission of consolidated quarterly results for quarters where the listed entity had no subsidiary but had associates/JVs.
4. Whether the appellate tribunal may grant relief (set aside fines, lift suspension and de-freeze accounts) where there is an ambiguity in the regulatory prescription and the entity was given opportunities to present its case to the exchange's review committee.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Applicability of Regulation 33(3) to entities with associates/JVs but no subsidiaries
Legal framework: Regulation 33(3) requires submission of quarterly and year-to-date standalone results and, where the listed entity has subsidiaries, additionally consolidated quarterly/year-to-date financial results. Schedule III (format) under the Companies Act prescribes consolidation requirements and states that "all subsidiaries, associates and joint ventures" will be covered under consolidated financial statements. Section 129 of the Companies Act governs preparation of annual consolidated financial statements where a company has subsidiaries or associates.
Precedent Treatment: The exchange relied on an informal regulatory guidance and its circular interpreting Regulation 33(3) to require consolidation (including associates/JVs) for quarterly submissions from quarter ending September 30, 2019. The tribunal examined those sources and the statutory text; no binding judicial precedent overruling that interpretation was invoked.
Interpretation and reasoning: The plain text of Regulation 33(3)(b) conditions the mandatory submission of quarterly consolidated results on the listed entity having subsidiaries. Schedule III and Section 129 relate primarily to annual consolidated financial statements; their references to associates/JVs operate within the annual-reporting context. Thus, Regulation 33(3) expressly triggers the quarterly consolidation obligation where a listed entity "has subsidiaries." If a listed entity prepares quarterly consolidated accounts, that consolidation would necessarily include associates/JVs under Schedule III, but Regulation 33(3) does not by its text independently expand the quarterly consolidation requirement to entities that only have associates/JVs and no subsidiaries.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Regulation 33(3) requires quarterly consolidated filings only where the listed entity has subsidiaries; inclusion of associates/JVs in any consolidated quarterly statements flows from Schedule III where consolidated statements are prepared. Obiter - observations on the broader policy desirability of uniform quarterly consolidation and potential regulatory clarification.
Conclusion: A listed entity without subsidiaries but with associates/JVs is not, on the plain text of Regulation 33(3), mandatorily obliged to submit quarterly consolidated financial results; therefore non-filing of such quarterly consolidated results (when no subsidiary exists) does not, per that provision alone, constitute a breach.
Issue 2: Legal status of exchange circular and regulator's informal guidance versus statutory/regulatory text
Legal framework: Regulatory hierarchy demands that statutory/regulatory provisions prevail over non-binding instruments. SEBI informal guidance scheme expressly provides that such letters are not to be construed as conclusive determinations of law or fact. Exchange circulars derive force by virtue of listing agreements/undertakings but cannot override the clear statutory/regulatory mandate.
Precedent Treatment: The tribunal treated the exchange circular and the informal guidance as interpretative or clarificatory instruments but not as authoritative to alter the unambiguous statutory/regulatory text. No authority was found that an exchange circular can expand a mandatory obligation beyond Regulation 33(3) without a concomitant amendment or clear regulator direction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The September 26, 2019 exchange circular relied on an informal guidance to state that quarterly consolidated results (including associates/JVs) were mandatory from quarter ending September 30, 2019. However, the tribunal emphasized that informal guidance is not binding and that the plain language of Regulation 33(3) governs the mandatory scope of quarterly consolidation. The tribunal found ambiguity in the exchange's interpretation and noted that SEBI had not issued a binding clarification on the specific point.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Exchange circulars and informal guidance cannot be applied to impose obligations inconsistent with the clear wording of Regulation 33(3). Obiter - remarks urging the regulator to clarify the position moving forward.
Conclusion: The exchange circular and informal guidance do not alter the statutory/regulatory requirement; reliance on them to penalize an entity where Regulation 33(3) does not clearly apply is unsustainable.
Issue 3: Validity of fines and consequential enforcement (freezing demat accounts and suspension of trading) under SOP/LODR when non-compliance basis is ambiguous
Legal framework: SEBI/SOP circulars prescribe fines for violations of LODR provisions. Listing undertakings bind entities to exchange rules and circulars. Penal provisions must be construed strictly; imposition of penalties requires a clear breach of the applicable regulatory mandate.
Precedent Treatment: The tribunal took into account that the exchange levied fines under SOP for alleged non-compliance and later froze accounts and suspended trading when fines were unpaid and non-compliance continued for consecutive quarters. The tribunal noted the exchange's subsequent partial waivers and that waiver decisions related to the same compliance matrix.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the tribunal's conclusion that Regulation 33(3) did not unambiguously require quarterly consolidation in the absence of subsidiaries, the basis for levying fines for non-filing of consolidated quarterly results for the quarters in question was ambiguous. Where the regulatory prescription is ambiguous and the regulator/exchange has not provided clear binding clarification, the benefit of doubt goes to the entity. Enforcement steps that flow from the contested fines (freezing and suspension) therefore lacked proper foundation in respect of the quarters affected by the ambiguity.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Fines and enforcement actions premised on an ambiguous interpretation of regulatory obligations cannot be sustained; ambiguity in penal/regulatory obligations should be resolved in favour of the regulated entity. Obiter - commentary on procedural avenues for restoration and compliance processes.
Conclusion: Fines imposed and consequent freezing/suspension that rest on the ambiguous obligation to submit consolidated quarterly results (where no subsidiary exists) are without basis and must be set aside in relation to those specific quarters.
Issue 4: Remedies and interlocutory relief where regulator/exchange proceedings constituted a continuous process and entity was afforded opportunities before the review committee
Legal framework: Appellate powers permit setting aside orders and granting consequential relief where underlying determination is found to be without basis. Restoration of trading and de-freezing of accounts are appropriate where the grounds for suspension/freeze are vacated.
Precedent Treatment: The tribunal treated the sequence of events (waiver applications, review committee hearings, partial waivers) as part of a continuous process; the entity had opportunities to be heard before the exchange committee.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the fines and enforcement were causally linked to alleged non-compliance in respect of quarters where the legal obligation was ambiguous, and because the exchange had considered the matter (granting partial waivers), the tribunal concluded it was appropriate to set aside the impugned communication, lift suspension and de-freeze promoters' accounts. The tribunal also directed the regulator to examine and clarify the legal position prospectively regarding consolidation requirements for entities with only associates/JVs.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where regulatory enforcement is predicated on an ambiguous obligation, appellate relief including setting aside fines and restoring trading/de-freezing accounts is warranted. Obiter - recommendation that the regulator issue a clarification on the consolidation requirement for listed entities having only associates/JVs.
Conclusion: The tribunal allowed the appeal, set aside the impugned communication imposing the outstanding fine, ordered lifting of suspension and de-freezing of promoter accounts, and directed the regulator to examine and clarify whether quarterly consolidation is required for entities having only associates/JVs.
Listing and disclosure requirement - Delayed submission of quarterly consolidated financial statement - non-compliance with Regulation 33 of SEBI LODR Regulations - Imposition of a fine - Trading and investing in equity of domestic companies - applicability of the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) Circulars issued by SEBI - preliminary objections -seeking to restore the suspension from trading of its accounts and de-freezing of demat accounts of promoter - benefit of doubt - whether a Company without subsidiary but having Associates / JV is required to submit consolidated financial statements on a quarterly basis to the exchange ?
HELD THAT:- We note that the Committee of BSE has waived off the fines for the two quarters (March and June 2020) which were the very basis for suspension of trading and freezing of promoter’s accounts. Thus, there is no merit in the preliminary objection raised by the Respondent No. 1.
Section 129 of Companies Act read along with Schedule III is specific to preparation of annual financial statement. Regulation 33(3) of LODR Regulations lays down the requirement of preparation of quarterly consolidated financial statements and these are to be prepared by a listed entity, which has a subsidiary. In case the listed entity prepares quarterly consolidated financial statement, then the accounts of its associates/joint ventures (if any) will also have to be consolidated.
There is ambiguity in the interpretation made by BSE that the Appellant has violated Regulation 33(3) of LODR Regulations by not submitting quarterly consolidated financial results for quarters ended September and December, 2019.
We note with concern that though SEBI was impleaded as Respondent No. 2 in this appeal vide our order, SEBI did not file any reply or written submission and remained a mute spectator on an issue which has major ramifications. In our view, the Appellant should be given benefit of doubt with regard to this ambiguous position. Accordingly, we hold that there is no violation of Regulation 33(3) of LODR Regulations by the Appellant and the fines imposed have no basis.
Appeal is allowed - Suspension of trading in Appellant’s scrip may be lifted and the promoter’s accounts be de-freezed with immediate effect.
Issues: Whether the penalty imposed for non-compliance with summons warranted reduction in the facts of the case.
Analysis: The appellant confined the challenge to the quantum of penalty. The record reflected disputed service of the show cause notice and the final order, and the appellant was ultimately not pressing the appeal on merits. In these circumstances, the Tribunal found that the ends of justice would be met by reducing the monetary penalty.
Conclusion: The penalty was reduced from Rs. 5 lakhs to Rs. 2 lakhs, which is partly in favour of the appellant.
Non-compliance with summons by the SEBI to furnish information with regard to the scrip - violation Section 15A(a), 11C(2) and 11C(3) of the SEBI Act - imposed a penalty - final order was neither served by the RPAD nor by affixture - Challenged the said order with a delay of 14 years 91 days - HELD THAT:- Similar is the case with regard to final order, except that the same was published in the newspaper in the year 2019. Though initially several contentions were raised with regard to the service of the notice, appellant restricted his prayer only to the extent of quantum of penalty. The impugned order is of the year 2010. The charge against the appellant is that he did not respond to the summons.
In the facts of this case, in our view, ends of justice would be met by directing the appellant to deposit a penalty of Rs. 2 lakhs without any interest within two weeks from today. Ordered accordingly. Appeal is disposed of.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Adjudicating Authority had jurisdiction under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and the liquidation regulations to modify the commercial terms (specifically the proposed share capital/shareholding structure) of an auction purchaser who acquired a corporate debtor as a going concern after issuance of the sale certificate.
2. Whether the principle of "clean slate" and the supervisory limits of the Adjudicating Authority under Section 35 of the Code preclude post-sale imposition of commercial restructuring conditions on the successful auction purchaser absent legal infirmity or objection by the liquidator/SCC.
3. Whether the Adjudicating Authority was required to afford opportunity of being heard before altering the purchaser's proposed capital structure and whether failure to do so vitiates the modification.
4. The proper remedy where the Adjudicating Authority has purportedly exceeded its supervisory jurisdiction by altering commercial terms: validity of the modification, and whether remand for fresh adjudication is required.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Jurisdiction to modify commercial terms post-sale
Legal framework: The Code contemplates sale of a corporate debtor as a going concern (Section 35(1)(f)); the Adjudicating Authority's role during liquidation is supervisory and circumscribed to ensure compliance, sale confirmation and distribution under Section 53. Once the sale is confirmed and sale certificate issued, title vests in purchaser and the "clean slate" doctrine applies.
Precedent treatment: The tribunal relied on the limitation on judicial interference in commercial decisions articulated in higher authority (referenced ratio restricting interference with commercial aspects of resolution plans). That ratio was applied by analogy to auction purchasers.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the Adjudicating Authority's powers cannot be extended to engraft ex post facto commercial conditions on a purchaser's operational autonomy when those conditions do not conflict with law. Modification of the purchaser's proposed shareholding structure, in absence of any statutory prohibition or objection from the liquidator/SCC, prima facie exceeded the supervisory powers under the Code.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Adjudicating Authority lacks jurisdiction to alter the commercial capital structure of an auction purchaser post confirmation, unless the proposed structure contravenes law or was otherwise challenged within statutory processes. Obiter - observations on the general policy importance of going-concern sales and business continuity.
Conclusion: The impugned modification of the share capital/shareholding structure constituted an overreach of the Adjudicating Authority's supervisory jurisdiction.
Issue 2 - Application of the "clean slate" principle and limits on interference
Legal framework: The Code's objectives include expeditious resolution and maximisation of value; sale as a going concern aims to preserve business continuity. The purchaser, having acquired the corporate debtor free from liabilities (subject to assets included in the auction memorandum), is entitled to run the business and adopt its preferred capital structure so long as it does not violate law.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated the restriction on judicial substitution of commercial judgment (as applied to resolution plans) to be equally applicable to auction purchasers of going concerns.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasised that once consideration is paid and distributed under Section 53, liabilities are deemed settled and purchaser receives unencumbered title; consequently, imposing post hoc capital structuring stultifies the clean slate object and substitutes judicial/comparative commercial assessment for purchaser's business judgment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Clean slate protects purchaser's commercial autonomy post confirmed sale; Adjudicating Authority cannot impose new commercial burdens absent legal infirmity. Obiter - discussion of the practical consequences for business revival if purchasers' commercial decisions are second-guessed.
Conclusion: The clean slate principle restrains the Adjudicating Authority from rewriting shareholding/capital structure of an auction purchaser except where contravention of law or properly raised objections justify interference.
Issue 3 - Requirement of opportunity to be heard before modifying purchaser's proposal
Legal framework: Fundamental procedural fairness and statutory adjudicatory norms require that affected parties be heard before imposition of conditions; the Adjudicating Authority's administrative actions in liquidation are subject to natural justice where rights and obligations are altered.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated the absence of prior notice or invitation to address the tribunal on the specific modification as material, particularly when the modification materially affected the purchaser's proposed terms.
Interpretation and reasoning: The tribunal's unilateral modification without asking parties to address the modification or without any objection being raised by SCC/liquidator undermined procedural fairness and contributed to manifest illegality; this procedural lapse independently vitiated the modification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where an Adjudicating Authority proposes to alter commercial terms affecting rights of a purchaser, it must provide opportunity to be heard; failure to do so renders such alteration susceptible to being set aside. Obiter - none beyond procedural fairness observations.
Conclusion: The Adjudicating Authority's failure to afford opportunity of being heard compounded the lack of jurisdiction and rendered the modification procedurally infirm.
Issue 4 - Remedy: validity of modification and remand for fresh adjudication
Legal framework: Relief from orders passed without jurisdiction or contrary to principles of natural justice is obtained by setting aside the impugned portion and remanding for fresh consideration consistent with law.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed the remedial approach of quashing only the specific impugned modification while leaving intact other concessions that were lawfully granted and consistent with the clean slate theory.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given that (a) the purchaser had paid full consideration and obtained sale certificate, (b) SCC/liquidator had not objected to the proposed capital structure (and liquidator later indicated no objection), and (c) the modification was made without hearing, the appropriate course was to set aside only the portion of the impugned order altering shareholding and remand that discrete issue to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh adjudication after hearing the parties and in accordance with law.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Specific unlawful modifications of purchaser's commercial terms should be set aside and remitted for fresh decision with opportunity to be heard; other lawful concessions need not be disturbed. Obiter - broader policy remarks on balancing supervisory oversight with commercial autonomy.
Conclusion: The modification of the shareholding/capital structure was set aside as manifestly illegal; the matter was remanded for fresh adjudication limited to that prayer, with directions to afford parties an opportunity to be heard and to act strictly in accordance with law.
Cross-references and concluding operative points
1. Cross-reference: Issues 1 and 2 interlock - jurisdictional limits derive from the clean slate principle applied to going-concern sales; Issue 3 (procedural fairness) independently supports setting aside the modification.
2. Operative outcome: The Court allowed the appeal solely insofar as the Adjudicating Authority modified the purchaser's proposed shareholding (the specific column/entry was quashed); the matter was remitted for fresh adjudication on that discrete issue with a direction to hear parties. Other concessions in the impugned order were left undisturbed.
Rejection of request of appellant for restructuring of shareholding of the CD - non-grant of the relief and concession as sought by the Appellant and supplanting of the capital structure by the Adjudicating Authority as per its own wisdom without any prior notice or any issue having been raised in relation to the same either by the Appellant or by the respondent - HELD THAT:- The tribunal in the impugned order has recorded that the corporate debtor was sold as a going concern. Some assets were excluded from the liquidation estate and sold separately. It has been recorded in para no. 22 of the impugned order that the Corporate Debtor was sold “As is where is basis", "As is what is basis", "Whatever there is basis" and therefore the successful bidder or the corporate debtor cannot claim or be allowed all the reliefs and concessions. However, all the reliefs and concessions have been analysed by the Tribunal and only those reliefs which according to the tribunal were consistent with the “clean slate theory” were allowed which will enable the successful bidder to run the corporate debtor as a going concern in good faith. The reliefs and concessions allowed, as discussed by the tribunal were not meant to allow any unintended benefits not allowed under the IBC Code, 2016 or under any law. Thereafter the tribunal granted the relief with regard to many concessions and prayers of the appellant in a tabular form, modifying the relief with regard to restructuring of shareholding of the Company.
It is worthwhile to record here that the respondent liquidator has stated categorically in his reply that the impugned order was discussed in the 21st meeting of SCC held on 08.09.2025 and the Liquidator has communicated the SCC that no objection to the reliefs and concessions as claimed by the Appellant was raised by him before the Adjudicating Authority. Thus the SCC or the Liquidator was not having any objection to the restructuring of the shareholding/ share capital of the company as proposed by the appellant.
It is to be recalled that the IBC is a complete code designed for expeditious resolution and maximisation of value, with liquidation as a measure of last resort. Sale as a going concern of the CD under Section 35(1)(f) of the Code prioritises business continuity over piecemeal asset sales, fostering revival/resolution which is one of the object of Code. Once the e-auction concludes, consideration is deposited, and the sale is confirmed with a sale certificate issued in favour of the auction purchaser, the transaction attains irrevocable finality, vesting unencumbered title in the purchaser - after the auction sale and deposit of whole consideration unless there is nothing specific in the information memorandum the purchaser receives the CD as a concern free from any liability and the purchaser is free to run it as per its preferences and it is also free to keep the shareholding structure of its choice unless it is not contravening any law and in this regard the adjudicating authority could not control the wisdom of the purchaser.
The Adjudicating Authority has committed manifest illegality in modifying the proposal made by the appellant with regard to the share capital/ shareholding of the company as Going Concern and there was no jurisdiction vested in the adjudicating authority to impose his decision on the appellant, when no objection has been raised by the SCC on this structuring of share capital. Moreover, no opportunity appears to have been given to the parties to address the tribunal on the modifications incorporated by it. It is to be recalled that on the principle of clean slate the commercial wisdom of the appellant should have been respected, unless it is not in violation of any law.
The matter is remanded back to the adjudicating authority to adjudicate the prayer of the applicant/ appellant - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the adjudicating authority erred in refusing to direct release of a specific asset covered by an approved resolution plan on grounds of an interim order of the Supreme Court continuing a provisional attachment order, without first determining whether that specific asset was in fact included in the provisional attachment order.
2. Whether the adjudicating authority lawfully delegated or shifted the burden of establishing non-attachment to the financial creditor by permitting the applicant to approach the creditor with an undertaking/indemnity rather than adjudicating the factual and legal question itself.
3. Whether, in the absence of a complete copy of the provisional attachment order on record, the Appellate Tribunal should remand the matter for fresh consideration and what directions are appropriate for expeditious disposal.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Whether the adjudicating authority erred in refusing to direct release of the asset without first determining if it was provisionally attached
Legal framework: The adjudicating authority exercises jurisdiction over implementation of an approved resolution plan under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016; Section 32A (as referenced) affects the status of attachments upon approval/implementation of a resolution plan; separate statutory/regulatory attachment proceedings (provisional attachment by enforcement authority) may continue subject to orders of higher courts.
Precedent Treatment: The Supreme Court had passed an interim order continuing the provisional attachment order generally; the High Court had earlier held that ED attachment had ceased by operation of Section 32A, but that conclusion was the subject of the Supreme Court's leave and interim direction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the Supreme Court's interim direction maintained the operation of the provisional attachment order generally, but that the specific flat for which release was sought (flat no. 2402) did not appear in the schedule/list of properties attached by the provisional attachment order on the record before the Tribunal. Given that the Supreme Court's order only continued the existing attachment order, it could not, on its face, affect a property that was not part of that order. Consequently, before refusing relief on the basis of the Supreme Court's continuation of the attachment order, the adjudicating authority was obliged to ascertain whether the property was in fact covered by the attachment order. The adjudicating authority failed to make that factual/legal determination and instead treated the general interim direction as an automatic bar to release.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The adjudicating authority must determine, on available record, whether a specific asset falls within a continued provisional attachment before denying directions for release under an approved resolution plan. Obiter - Observations on the interplay of Section 32A and provisional attachment proceedings as a general proposition, to the extent not necessary for the remand.
Conclusions: The adjudicating authority committed legal error by refusing to decide whether the flat was attached and by denying release without that finding. If the property is not shown to be attached, the adjudicating authority had jurisdiction to direct release; if it is attached, it is protected by the Supreme Court interim order.
Issue 2: Whether it was lawful for the adjudicating authority to leave it to the creditor to insist on an indemnity/undertaking rather than adjudicating the question
Legal framework: The adjudicating authority has a duty to adjudicate applications made under the Code (including applications seeking directions connected with implementation of a resolution plan) and to resolve factual disputes necessary for disposal. Parties may furnish undertakings/indemnities as evidence or to facilitate directions, but an undertaking cannot substitute for required adjudication of prima facie jurisdictional/factual issues.
Precedent Treatment: No prior decision was invoked to justify shifting the adjudicatory duty; the Tribunal relied on general principles of judicial/tribunal function and the record before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that by placing the ball in the respondent's court and permitting release only upon a commercial arrangement (undertaking) between the applicant and the financial creditor, the adjudicating authority improperly avoided its duty to determine whether the asset was subject to provisional attachment. The adjudicating authority's suggestion that the applicant approach the respondent for an undertaking amounted to an abdication of judicial function in the face of a determinative factual question that was within its jurisdiction to resolve.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An adjudicating authority must resolve whether an asset is attached and whether release is permissible under the law; it should not decline adjudication and instead require the applicant to obtain an undertaking from an opposing party as a precondition to relief. Obiter - Practical viability of undertakings in commercial settlements (commentary only).
Conclusions: The adjudicating authority's refusal to adjudicate the attachment question and its direction to seek an undertaking from the creditor was legally impermissible. The matter must be reconsidered after proper factual determination.
Issue 3: Remand in view of incomplete record (missing/incomplete provisional attachment order) and directions for fresh consideration
Legal framework: Appellate bodies correct jurisdictional errors and may remit matters for fresh consideration where record is incomplete or material facts are not established below; parties are entitled to opportunity to place additional documents before the adjudicating authority on remand.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on its supervisory power to set aside an order that failed to address a determinative issue and to remand for fresh adjudication where the record before it was incomplete.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that an incomplete provisional attachment order had been placed on record by the appellant, preventing the Tribunal from finally deciding whether the property had been attached. Given the incomplete record and the adjudicating authority's failure to determine attachment status, remand was the appropriate remedy to enable adjudication on a complete record. The Tribunal declined to decide the attachment substantively because the appellant had not produced a complete copy of the provisional attachment order and because the adjudicating authority had not made the requisite factual determination.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the record is incomplete and a determinative factual issue was not adjudicated below, setting aside the impugned order and remanding for fresh consideration after permitting parties to produce additional documents is appropriate. Obiter - Timeframe suggested for disposal (one month) and encouragement for parties to file additional documents are procedural directions ancillary to the remand.
Conclusions: The impugned order is set aside and the application is remitted for fresh consideration strictly in accordance with law after giving parties an opportunity to be heard and to place additional documents. The adjudicating authority is directed to decide the matter expeditiously (the Tribunal requested disposal within one month of first appearance on remand).
Overall Court Conclusion
The adjudicating authority committed manifest illegality by failing to ascertain whether the specific flat was included in the provisional attachment order and by deferring determination to commercial arrangements between parties; the impugned order is set aside and the matter remanded for fresh adjudication on a complete record with liberty for parties to file additional material and an express direction for expeditious disposal.
Seizure and attachment of properties of the CD which also included 14 residential units situated at Mantri Pinnacle at Bannerghatta Road, Bengaluru - refusal to direct release of a specific asset covered by an approved resolution plan on grounds of an interim order of the Supreme Court continuing a provisional attachment order - HELD THAT:- The adjudicating authority was of the view that release of the said flat may not be in line with the interim order passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, however on the other hand liberty was given to the appellant (SRA) to approach the Respondent to furnish suitable undertaking for the purpose of release of the said flat, provided the same is not subject to any attachment by the ED.
The adjudicating authority has committed manifest illegality in not ascertaining as to whether the aforesaid flat no. 2402 situated at floor no. 24 admeasuring 3595 sq. feet (4 BHK) in Mantri Pinnacle, Bannerghatta Road, Bengaluru was in fact provisionally attached by the ED by passing the provisional attachment order date d 19.02.2024 and without ascertaining the same the liberty has been given to the appellant to approach the Respondent and the ball has been placed in the court of the Respondent while it was the utmost duty of the adjudicating authority to adjudicate on the issue as to whether the aforesaid property was actually provisionally attached by the ED vide and if the property is found to be under attachment vide order dated 14.02.2019 the attachment of it was obviously protected by the order of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in [2024 (8) TMI 1648 - SC ORDER].
The impugned order may not be allowed to stand and for the reasons given herein before the same is set aside - matter remanded back to adjudicating authority for disposal application, afresh in the light of the observations made herein before, strictly in accordance with law, after providing an opportunity of being heard to the parties.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether proceeding to decide an application under Section 43 of the I&B Code without representation of a party whose pleadings are on record violates the audi alteram partem principle.
2. Whether hearing before an auditor or at the stage of submission of a transaction audit report can substitute for an effective adjudicatory hearing on merits under Section 43.
3. Whether the Tribunal was obliged, upon non-appearance of the party's counsel on the final hearing date, to (a) record an order to proceed ex parte in conformity with Order VIII Rule 10 CPC (as made applicable under Section 424 Companies Act), or (b) otherwise advert to and deal with the pleadings on record.
4. Whether a litigant should suffer the consequences of default, negligence or inability of his engaged counsel to appear, and what relief is appropriate where such absence results in an unrepresented final hearing.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Violation of audi alteram partem where party was unrepresented at final hearing.
Legal framework: The fundamental rule of natural justice - audi alteram partem - requires that a party be given a fair opportunity to represent its cause before adjudication. Tribunals exercising quasi-judicial functions must observe principles of natural justice even if no specific procedure is prescribed. The Code of Civil Procedure (as made applicable through Section 424 Companies Act) prescribes safeguards for proceedings where a party fails to appear.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on established authorities emphasizing that an innocent litigant should not suffer due to his advocate's default; adjudicatory bodies must ensure parties are not condemned unheard. Decisions cited indicate courts should scrutinize pleadings and not admit inadmissible evidence in ex parte scenarios.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal's failure to hear or effectively consider the appellants' pleadings when they were unrepresented at the decisive hearing amounted to denial of a fair hearing. Mere presence of pleadings on record and any prior opportunity before auditors do not discharge the Tribunal's obligation to hear a party on merits when the matter is finally adjudicated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A final adjudication without effective representation where pleadings exist contravenes audi alteram partem and vitiates the proceeding. Obiter - General remarks on the mixed administrative/quasi-judicial character of tribunals and the desirability of fairness in all proceedings.
Conclusion: The proceeding was vitiated by denial of effective hearing; the impugned order cannot stand on this ground.
Issue 2: Sufficiency of hearing before auditor/at audit report stage as substitute for adjudicatory hearing on Section 43 issues.
Legal framework: Determination of preferential transactions under Section 43 is an adjudicatory exercise requiring parties to be heard on the merits of contentions and evidence; procedural fairness must attend the adjudication stage.
Precedent treatment: Authorities recognize that technical or preliminary hearings (for audit submission) do not equate to a substantive hearing on contested legal rights and liabilities before the adjudicating forum.
Interpretation and reasoning: Hearing at the audit stage or before auditors is not a substitute for representation and argument before the Tribunal when the Tribunal is making final findings under Section 43; the party must be represented and heard on the merits or on arguments raised by the applicant.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Audit-stage interaction is not sufficient to fulfill the Tribunal's duty to provide an effective hearing prior to final adjudication under Section 43.
Conclusion: The Tribunal erred in treating prior audit-stage interactions as adequate hearing for purposes of final adjudication.
Issue 3: Obligation to follow Order VIII Rule 10 CPC principles (ex parte proceedings) when counsel is absent; duty to advert to pleadings.
Legal framework: Order VIII Rule 10 CPC prescribes consequences where defendant (or a party) does not appear; Section 424 Companies Act makes CPC principles applicable to proceedings under the Code, thereby importing safeguards on non-appearance and ex parte proceedings.
Precedent treatment: Authority requires courts/tribunals, even when proceeding ex parte, to scrutinize available pleadings and documents, consider evidence, and apply rationale consideration to the respondent's written pleas; where counsel is absent, courts should either direct ex parte proceedings after following prescribed steps or give opportunity to engage alternative counsel.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the date of final hearing the counsel's non-appearance required the Tribunal to either (a) record and direct that the matter proceed ex parte in accordance with applicable CPC principles, or (b) adjourn/give a direction enabling engagement of alternate counsel. No order was recorded setting aside the party or proceeding ex parte; the Tribunal did not advert to the appellant's pleadings nor provide reasons accepting or rejecting them. Such omission violates procedural safeguards and vitiates the order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Tribunal must follow the procedural steps consonant with Order VIII Rule 10 CPC (as applicable) when counsel is absent and must, in any event, consider and address pleadings on record before rendering decisive findings.
Conclusion: Failure to direct ex parte proceedings or to otherwise deal with the pleadings in a reasoned manner rendered the Tribunal's adjudication procedurally flawed.
Issue 4: Liability of litigant for counsel's default and appropriate remedial relief.
Legal framework: Courts have held that parties should not be made to suffer due to lapses or voluntary acts of their advocates; where counsel's conduct causes denial of opportunity, relief by setting aside and restoration/remand may be appropriate; costs may be imposed on parties or counsel depending on circumstances.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed precedents holding that the innocent litigant ought not to suffer for an advocate's non-appearance and has power to restore and direct rehearing; courts have in some cases directed costs to be recovered from defaulting advocates.
Interpretation and reasoning: The absence of the engaged counsel on the final hearing date, without notice to the litigant, left the appellant unrepresented through no fault of the litigant. The Tribunal's failure to ensure adherence to procedural safeguards meant the litigant should not be penalized by the resultant order. Accordingly, the appropriate remedy is to quash the impugned order and remit the matter for fresh decision after giving the party an effective opportunity to be heard. A costs direction to be paid into a public fund was imposed as equitable consequence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where the counsel's non-appearance results in an unrepresented final hearing and the Tribunal fails to follow required procedural safeguards, the resulting adjudication should be set aside and the matter reheard; the litigant should not suffer for the advocate's default. Obiter - The specific quantum or recipient of costs is discretionary.
Conclusion: The impugned order was quashed and the matter remitted for fresh consideration after affording opportunity to be heard; costs were imposed to be paid into a public relief fund as directed by the Court.
Cross-References
Issues 1 and 3 are interlinked: the failure to follow ex parte procedural safeguards (Issue 3) directly resulted in denial of audi alteram partem (Issue 1). Issue 2 reinforces that prior audit-stage interactions do not cure procedural defects identified in Issues 1 and 3. Issue 4 addresses the remedial consequence flowing from the defects identified under Issues 1-3.
Principles of audi alterem partem (natural justice) - sufficient and effective hearing or not - hearing of the Appellant at the stage of submission of the transaction Audit Report or even at the stage when the Auditors were supposed to submit their Audit Report - HELD THAT:- It has been settled that the functions of the Tribunal or the Authority they are a mixture of both administrative and quasi judicial functions and only a fair opportunity to be heard is need to be given in order to ensure that none of the parties to the proceedings may have the grievance that they were not provided ample of opportunity by the Tribunal or the Court to prove or establish their case - The exercise of quasi judicial functions and doctrine of natural justice has had to be observed and complied with by the Tribunal(s) even if there is no procedure prescribed or as such laid down under the Statute. The duty to give an opportunity to the affected persons who represent his case necessarily involves a duty to give notice to the Applicant or to the Pleader who represents a litigant.
In the case at hand, the Appellants did file their objection when the matter was being taken up, in context of the proceedings under Section 43, but, what is more important is that in accordance with the finding recorded by the Ld. Tribunal at the time when the Petition was being heard finally, the Appellants were not represented by any counsel.
There is nothing on record to show that at any point of time the Tribunal took cognisance of the said aspect and had directed in the Company Petition, to set the proceedings ex parte as against the present Appellant, not directing the proceedings to be set ex parte against the Appellant itself will be in violation to the provisions contained under Order VIII of C.P.C., which prescribes for, that if the counsel is not appearing on a particular date, the Tribunal is not supposed to proceed to hear the matter on its merit rather it was bound to fix a date for ex parte hearing, after passing of an order to proceed ex parte, that was not the case at hand, which would vitiate the proceedings.
Exclusively on the ground that, on the date when the Company Petition was itself decided finally, as the Appellants were not represented by any counsel, the Company Appeal is allowed, the impugned order dated 30.11.2022, would stand quashed, subject to the payment of costs of Rs. 50,000/- to be deposited into The Prime Minister’s Relief Fund within a period of 10 days from today.
The Ld. NCLT Bengaluru Bench, is requested to decide the Company Petition, afresh after giving an opportunity to the party to the proceedings - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether proceedings under Section 95 of the I&B Code, 2016 against personal guarantors of a corporate debtor were maintainable on the material placed, including the demand notice dated 01.03.2021 and the record of default from the Information Utility.
2. Whether the asserted date of default (27.09.2018) and the demand notice were infirm or barred by limitation so as to vitiate initiation of proceedings under Section 95.
3. Whether contractual provisions for automatic conversion of OFCDs/OCPSs on "event of default" (Clauses 12.1/12.2 and substituted Clause 2.5) operated to extinguish debt such that personal guarantees could not be invoked and Section 95 proceedings could not be maintained.
4. Whether the alleged non-compliance with internal contractual pre-conditions to conversion (Board/shareholder approvals; Clause 16; invocation of Clause 21/Clause 27 arbitration) prevented the creditor from proceeding under Section 95 and whether such issues, not raised before the Adjudicating Authority, could be entertained on appeal.
5. Whether service of the demand notice (Form B) and the definition/role of "guarantor" under the Rules 2019 affected maintainability of Section 95 proceedings at the appellate stage.
6. Whether the status of OFCDs as hybrid instruments requires determination of the quantum of debt payable by personal guarantors and whether the Adjudicating Authority/RP must assess the true debt amount during further proceedings.
7. Whether the Resolution Professional's report under Section 99 and the prior Section 7/CIRP admission and subsequent liquidation order precluded re-litigation of default and service issues in the Section 95 proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Maintainability of Section 95 proceedings against personal guarantors
Legal framework: Section 95 et seq. I&B Code, 2016 and Rules (2019) permit initiation of insolvency resolution process against personal guarantors where guarantee invoked and unpaid; RP and Adjudicating Authority functions under Sections 97-99.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on statutory scheme that allows financial creditors to apply under Section 95 when conditions in sub-sections (1)-(4) are met; prior Section 7 adjudication establishing default is material.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Form B demand dated 01.03.2021, the Information Utility record of default, and the admitted agreements sufficiently met the statutory parameters for initiation. The Appellants did not contest foundational elements (status as guarantors, service) before the Adjudicating Authority; the Tribunal held these elements to be established on the record and corroborated by the Section 7 admission and subsequent liquidation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where statutory conditions of Section 95 are satisfied and prior Section 7 determination of default has attained finality, Section 95 proceedings are maintainable against personal guarantors.
Conclusion: Section 95 proceedings were rightly initiated and admitted to the extent impugned.
Issue 2 - Date of default and limitation
Legal framework: Limitation defenses and need to specify date of default in demand notice; interplay with prior Section 7 adjudication which requires proof of default.
Precedent treatment: The Adjudicating Authority's earlier Section 7 admission (CIRP initiation) and non-challenge of that order rendered the question of default settled between parties for present purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Form B notice recorded date of default as 27.09.2018 (Column IV); the Section 7 order admitting CIRP confirmed default and was not challenged. Appellants waived reliance on limitation before the Appellate Tribunal. Therefore challenge to the notice on the ground that it lacked a default date or was time-barred failed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a prior unchallenged Section 7 adjudication establishes default, the same default cannot be re-opened in Section 95 proceedings on limitation/service technicalities absent specific contest earlier.
Conclusion: Limitation and unspecified default date contentions unsuccessful; the date of default was acknowledged on record and the question was final vis-à-vis Section 7.
Issue 3 - Effect of contractual conversion clauses (OFCD/OCPS conversion) on existence of debt and invocation of guarantee
Legal framework: Contractual conversion on event of default may alter rights (debt vs. equity); characterization of instruments (OFCD) depends on terms; I&B Code treats debentures as financial debt but hybrid instruments require clause-specific analysis.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal noted prior jurisprudence distinguishing NCD (financial debt) and CCD (equity) and observed lack of clear authority treating OFCD uniformly; directed factual determination of hybrid character and quantum.
Interpretation and reasoning: Clauses 12.1/12.2 and substituted Clause 2.5 provide for automatic conversion into equity on event of default, subject to buyback/exit options. Appellants argued conversion extinguished debt and thereby barred invocation of guarantees. Tribunal held that contractual clauses could not be read piecemeal; even if conversion was envisaged, whether conversion operated in fact (including satisfaction of pre-conditions and approvals) was a factual question giving rise to dispute. Moreover, OFCD being hybrid requires specific determination of portion constituting debt; the Tribunal observed that the Adjudicating Authority should direct the RP to determine actual amount due to PGs during preparation of payment plan and to examine extent of debt vs. equity character of OFCDs.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - contractual conversion provisions do not ipso facto extinguish debt for purposes of Section 95 where factual questions (pre-conditions, actual conversion, quantum) remain; Adjudicating Authority/RP must evaluate the instrument's hybrid character and determine amounts payable. Obiter - commentary on expectation of equity-like returns and need to dissect OFCD components.
Conclusion: Conversion clauses raised a dispute of fact; they did not preclude initiation of Section 95 proceedings; factual determination of quantum and character of OFCDs to be undertaken by RP/NCLT during further proceedings.
Issue 4 - Effect of contractual pre-conditions (Board approvals, Clause 21 determination, arbitration Clause 27) and availability of contractual dispute-resolution remedies
Legal framework: Parties' agreement clauses governing conversion and dispute resolution may require exhaustion of contractual remedies/arbitral fora; but invocation of statutory insolvency remedies under I&B Code is governed by the Code's scheme and by party conduct.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal emphasised that issues constituting factual disputes and contractual contentions not raised before the Adjudicating Authority cannot be first raised on appeal to re-open the factual record.
Interpretation and reasoning: Appellants' reliance on the absence of a validly constituted Board under Clause 16, non-invocation of Clause 21, and entitlement to arbitrate under Clause 27 were matters which the Appellants did not pursue before the Adjudicating Authority. The Tribunal held these contentions either gave rise to disputes requiring factual determination or were remedies not invoked earlier; consequently, they could not be entertained in the appeal as an attempt to expand issues beyond those argued below.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - contractual pre-conditions and arbitration clauses, if not invoked before the Adjudicating Authority and where they entail factual enquiry, cannot be used on appeal to nullify statutory insolvency initiation. Obiter - where contract requires prior determination, parties ought to invoke such mechanisms timely.
Conclusion: Clauses 16/21/27 did not bar Section 95 initiation as a matter of law; factual and procedural non-compliance by Appellants precluded their reliance at appellate stage.
Issue 5 - Service of demand notice and definition of "guarantor" under Rules 2019
Legal framework: Rules 2019 define "guarantor" and prescribe modes of service; service is precondition to invocation but is subject to proof and party conduct.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal noted the Appellants did not contest service before the Adjudicating Authority and engaged in settlement talks thereafter.
Interpretation and reasoning: Form B dated 01.03.2021 was served; Appellants made no contemporaneous non-service plea and actively participated in settlement attempts and in CIRP processes. The Rules' definition confirmed Appellants' status as guarantors. The Tribunal found the non-service contention untenable at this mature stage and concluded there was a deeming presumption of service in light of subsequent actions by Appellants.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of an early contest on service and conduct (settlement attempts, participation) disentitles a party from raising service infirmity belatedly on appeal. Obiter - procedural service modes under Rule 3(g) remain relevant where contested timely.
Conclusion: Service and guarantor-status challenges failed; the Appellants' conduct sufficed to treat notice as validly served.
Issue 6 - Characterization of OFCDs as hybrid instruments and need to determine quantum payable by personal guarantors
Legal framework: Determination of whether a security is debt or equity depends on instrument terms; I&B Code recognizes financial debt but hybrid instruments require case-specific inquiry.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal referenced the distinction between NCD and CCD jurisprudence and noted absence of clear-cut judicial treatment for OFCDs; directed factual determination by RP/NCLT.
Interpretation and reasoning: The amount claimed (approx. Rs.98.64 crore) on an original investment of Rs.18.40 crore suggested compounded/IRR-like returns resonant of equity; therefore the Tribunal opined the RP/NCLT should assess how much of OFCDs is to be treated as debt and compute actual liability of PGs during payment-plan formulation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where instruments are hybrid (OFCD), the Adjudicating Authority/RP should determine the extent of debt versus equity to compute amounts payable by guarantors. Obiter - observations on expected equity rates and securitization of borrowings.
Conclusion: Admission of Section 95 application not incorrect, but RP/NCLT must determine actual indebtedness and the debt-equity composition of OFCDs in subsequent proceedings.
Issue 7 - Finality of Section 7/CIRP admission, Section 99 RP report and consequences for re-litigation
Legal framework: Section 7 admission requires proof of default; RP reports under Section 99 inform the Adjudicating Authority's decision on personal guarantor proceedings under Section 97/95.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal treated prior unchallenged orders (CIRP admission, liquidation) as final vis-à-vis foundational facts like default; relied on RP's Section 99 report confirming liability documents.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Appellants did not challenge Section 7 or liquidation orders, and the RP's report under Section 99 corroborated outstanding claims and documents establishing liability. Consequently, many issues of default/service/liability were effectively settled for purposes of Section 95 proceedings and could not be reopened on appeal absent challenge to the underlying orders.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - prior unchallenged adjudications under Section 7 and an RP report under Section 99 that establishes liability have preclusive effect on re-litigation of foundational matters in subsequent Section 95 proceedings. Obiter - RP's investigatory role and reports are central to admissibility assessment.
Conclusion: Section 7/CIRP finality and Section 99 report supported maintainability of Section 95 proceedings; Appellants' attempts to re-litigate were disallowed.
Disposition
Having considered statutory scheme, records, RP's report, the contractual disputes raised, and the scope of appellate review, the Tribunal dismissed the appeals and directed the RP/Adjudicating Authority to determine, during further proceedings, the true quantum payable by personal guarantors including appropriate treatment of OFCDs' debt-equity composition.
Maintainability of proceedings u/s 95 of IBC against personal guarantors of a corporate debtor - calculation of dues amount - Appellants contended that, the Respondents have claimed a total amount of Rs. 98,64,37,800/-, alleged to be due under Section 95(4)(a) of the I&B Code, 2016 and that there are no details in the application as to how the same was arrived at from the principal amount of ₹18.40 crore - HELD THAT:- Following the appointment of the Resolution Professional on 21.03.2022, the Resolution Professional was directed by the Ld. Adjudicating Authority to examine whether the Company Petition complied with Section 97(6) of the I&B Code, 2016, and only thereafter to recommend whether it should be accepted or rejected. These directions under Section 97(6) were issued by order dated 21.03.2022. The Resolution Professional is stated to have submitted his report on 31.03.2022, wherein, in accordance with the observations contained in the report filed under Section 99 of the I&B Code, 2016, the factum of the outstanding claim and the documents establishing liability stood proved and were considered in light of the details of the debts, as observed by the Ld. Adjudicating Authority in the Impugned Order. Based on the findings recorded in the report submitted under Section 99 of the I&B Code, 2016, the Resolution Professional recommended initiation of IRP proceedings against the Personal Guarantors/Respondents, who fall within the class of Corporate Debtors in view of the amendments to the I&B Code, 2016.
The learned Tribunal rightly observed that, in light of Section 128 of the Contract Act, since default stood established in view of the report submitted by the Resolution Professional under Section 99 of the I&B Code, 2016, and since issuance and service of notice were not disputed, the liability under Section 128 of the Contract Act, arising from the agreement, is co- extensive with that of the principal debtor. Hence, the initiation of proceedings under Section 95 of the I&B Code, 2016 was correctly held to be within the ambit of the provisions of the I&B Code and the Rules framed thereunder.
There are no merits in the appeal - appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an Adjudicating Authority's order condoning delayed filing of an Expression of Interest (EoI) can validate the belated participation of a prospective resolution applicant and the subsequent actions of the Resolution Professional (RP) and Committee of Creditors (CoC).
2. Whether reception of a belated EoI and subsequent steps that omit the provisional/final PRA listing procedure prescribed by the CIRP Regulations constitute a material irregularity vitiating the resolution process.
3. Whether alleged concealment of a belated entrant and asserted collusion between RP, CoC and the entrant are established facts sufficient to nullify the approved resolution plan.
4. Whether late deposit of Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) accompanying a resolution plan, and CoC's condonation thereof, renders the process infirm.
5. Whether failure of unsuccessful resolution applicants to challenge the Adjudicating Authority's condonation order at the earliest stage or their conduct (receipt of communications, improvement opportunities, refund of EMD) estops them from contesting the approval on grounds of material irregularity.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal character and effect of Adjudicating Authority's condonation order permitting belated EoI
Legal framework: Adjudicating Authority possesses inherent and statutory powers to condone delay under court rules; Regulations 36A and related provisions govern EoI timelines and procedure for provisional/final PRA lists.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities cited establish that the Adjudicating Authority has power to pass such orders and that RP/CoC are not bound to disregard an order of the Adjudicating Authority; prior ratios on whether a fresh Form-G is mandatory for a late entrant are discussed by parties.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reads the condonation order as having (i) allowed EoI filing within the existing timeline for submission of plans without relaxing the substantive conditions, and (ii) expressly directing that consideration be "strictly in accordance with law." The order therefore did not license blanket non-compliance with Regulations but did validly permit the entrant to participate subject to compliance and CoC evaluation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an Adjudicating Authority's condonation of delay, when unchallenged, provides a legitimate basis for RP/CoC to receive/consider a belated EoI subject to compliance with eligibility and substantive requirements; Obiter - commentary on limits of review powers of Adjudicating Authority in other contexts.
Conclusion: The condonation order, neither assailed nor held void at the time, legitimately enabled reception of the EoI and downstream action by RP/CoC; the order's riders preserved the requirement of lawful consideration.
Issue 2 - Whether statutory violations (Regulations 36A, 36B, 39 etc.) amounted to material irregularity
Legal framework: CIRP Regulations are procedural/delegated legislation designed to secure fairness, transparency and value maximization; concept of "material irregularity" requires an impact assessment of any breach on fairness/integrity of the resolution process.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relies on Tribunal and Supreme Court principles distinguishing directory versus mandatory compliance and on prior articulation of material irregularity as requiring substantial impact on outcome; cases showing procedural non-compliance are not automatically fatal absent material prejudice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court conducts an impact assessment rather than treating each regulatory breach as ipso facto voiding the process. It finds that (a) the condonation did not relax pre-qualification conditions; (b) the belated EoI was accepted pursuant to the Adjudicating Authority's order and the entrant submitted its plan on the last date; (c) there is no evidence the entrant lacked eligibility or had any unmerited advantage; (d) unsuccessful applicants were later afforded opportunities to improve their plans and did so; and (e) the late EMD was accepted/condoned by the CoC within its power under Regulation 36B(4A).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - breach of CIRP Regulations will invalidate a resolution only if it causes material irregularity, i.e., a substantial impact on fairness, integrity, or outcome; Obiter - extended commentary on purpose of Regulations as facilitatory and the need for contextual application.
Conclusion: The specific regulatory deviations identified did not produce material irregularity in the circumstances; therefore the CoC's consideration and approval of the plan were not vitiated on that ground.
Issue 3 - Allegation of collusion and concealment between RP, CoC and entrant
Legal framework: Fraud or collusion must be inferred from cogent facts and circumstances; mere irregular acts or ordinary human conduct do not establish collusion.
Precedent Treatment: Principles requiring clear, demonstrable evidence to infer collusion; mere suspicion or fortuitous sequence of events insufficient.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court finds an absence of probative material demonstrating dishonest motive or clandestine deal-making: RP acted pursuant to an NCLT order; unsolicited advice to approach the Adjudicating Authority is benign; conduct such as requesting improvements of competing plans and communications (signatures on sealed covers, emails) indicate no deliberate concealment designed to prejudice other PRAs.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - collusion is not established where acts are explicable by lawful orders, ordinary conduct, or legitimate commercial choices and no specific evidence of dishonest concert is shown; Obiter - observations on RP's human conduct and expectations of disclosure duties.
Conclusion: Allegation of collusion and concealment is not established on the record and does not impugn the approval.
Issue 4 - Effect of late deposit of EMD and CoC's power to condone
Legal framework: Regulation 36B(4)/(4A) contemplates EMD deposit; CoC has authority to determine EMD timelines and to condone delays within its discretion.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities recognize CoC's role in assessing commercial matters and condoning procedural lapses where not affecting integrity of process.
Interpretation and reasoning: The entrant's EMD was deposited after public holidays; CoC condoned the delay. There is no proof that the late deposit conferred unfair advantage or altered comparative evaluation; the power to condone lies with CoC and the judicial role is limited to impact assessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - late EMD deposit condoned by CoC does not per se invalidate approval absent material prejudice; Obiter - remarks on NEFT/technical possibilities not determinative of substantive impact.
Conclusion: Late EMD deposit, condoned by CoC, did not amount to material irregularity in the circumstances.
Issue 5 - Locus, delay and estoppel of unsuccessful applicants
Legal framework: Parties challenging procedural acts must show substantive prejudice; estoppel/acquiescence may be considered but do not bar challenge to material illegality; timing and conduct bear on bona fides and prejudice.
Precedent Treatment: Courts may entertain delayed challenges where material irregularity is alleged; conversely, failure to act when informed and conduct such as accepting EMD refund may weaken challenge.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes unsuccessful applicants did not immediately challenge the condonation order or approval; evidence suggests they were aware (or should have been aware) of entrant's participation (signatures, emails, post-opening communications), and they were given opportunities to improve bids. While delay does not necessarily estop a valid challenge to material irregularity, here the absence of material prejudice and indicia of acquiescence undermine their claims.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of prompt challenge and conduct consistent with participation/acquiescence weigh against overturning a plan absent material irregularity; Obiter - commentary that delay alone does not cure a material illegality.
Conclusion: The unsuccessful applicants' delay and conduct do not bar the Tribunal from deciding the merits but support refusal to set aside the approved plan where no material irregularity is made out.
FINAL CONCLUSION
The Tribunal holds that (a) the Adjudicating Authority's condonation order legitimately permitted the belated EoI subject to lawful consideration; (b) the identified breaches of CIRP Regulations did not cause material irregularity in the facts, impact or outcome of the process; (c) allegations of collusion are unproven; (d) the late EMD deposit condoned by the CoC did not vitiate the approval; and (e) therefore the Adjudicating Authority's order setting aside the CoC approval is set aside and the approval is to be revived for further adjudication under the relevant section for sanction of the resolution plan.
Condonation of delay in submitting Expression of Interest (EoI) - collusion between CoC, RP and entrant resulting in material irregularity - partcipation of entrant concealed from the other PRAs - violation of specific CIRP Regulations constituting material irregularity - HELD THAT:- The deviation in the manner of achieving the legislative intent, as a rule, is neither prescribed nor recommended, but when it occurs, it does not always invalidate what is done in violation of a regulation either. It depends on multiple factors, and hence the focus must be to engage objectively in an impact assessment of the consequence an alleged violation of the Regulation has produced: has it (deviation from regulation) produced a result which are plainly illegal, or has been so unfair that it offends the integrity of the resolution process. If despite the violation of any Regulation, the consequences it produced falls short of what is stated herein above, why should there be a hurry to invalidate an act so done?
It could now be derived, that while breach of a procedure as prescribed is not recommended, yet if the violation is not material, the act done contrary to a Regulation can still be saved. It could now be further derived that any irregularity, founded on any breach of a Regulation, but not amounting to material irregularity, is not a negation of rule of law, but part of it.
Being a procedural law, the CIRP Regulations are but facilitatory provisions through which accomplishing, inter alia the statutory objective of value maximization of the CD is conceived. They principally aim to provide clarity, consistency and transparency for ensuring optimum fairness in the resolution process and also insulating it from any temptations eroding the ethical fidelity (defined by non-arbitrariness or subjectivity or personal preferences) associated with their respective duties. In other words what ought to be the norm of self- discipline for the RP or the CoC is given a statutory status through the Regulations.
he working of the Regulation may not lead to a situation where the Regulation triumphs and the Code prostrates. A case of missing the wood for the tree. It would therefore, be a plain disservice to the Code and what it aims to achieve, if the alleged violation of few Regulations were to be termed as constituting material irregularity. Hence, this tribunal holds that a case of material irregularity has not been made out.
Turning to the appellant case, they accused that Krishna, having obtained back its EMD after being informed of the approval of Dorni’s plan, does not have locus standi to challenge the approval, and this argument is not without merit, but inasmuch as they have been heard and the issue on the principal plea of material irregularity having been decided, it does not deserve greater probe. Another argument advanced was that both Yanna and Krishna did not challenge the CoC’s approval immediately but only after couple of months, and hence their intent to object lacks bonafide. If indeed in a given case the procedure adopted by RP and CoC is tainted in material irregularity, mere delay in bringing it to the notice of the Tribunal should not matter.
The order of the Adjudicating Authority is set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant established a valid and verifiable financial disbursement so as to qualify as a financial creditor; (ii) Whether the adjudicating authority erred in dismissing the claim application; (iii) Whether the claim could be entertained after approval and finality of the resolution plan.
Issue (i): Whether the appellant established a valid and verifiable financial disbursement so as to qualify as a financial creditor.
Analysis: The claim rested on alleged payments by cheque and cash, but no clear bank records, proof of cheque clearance, receipts, or other verifiable documentary evidence were produced. The asserted possession documents also conflicted with the registered agreement for sale, and the alleged cash component was found doubtful in the surrounding circumstances. The burden to establish disbursement lay on the claimant, and the record did not satisfy that burden.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the appellant. He was not proved to be a financial creditor on the basis of any verified disbursement.
Issue (ii): Whether the adjudicating authority erred in dismissing the claim application.
Analysis: The record disclosed material inconsistencies in the appellant's case, including contradictory assertions regarding payment, possession, and the status of the claim. The resolution professional's role was only to collate claims, and the materials did not show a clear admitted claim capable of overriding those inconsistencies. The finding that the appellant had not come with clean hands also supported refusal of relief.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the appellant. The dismissal of the claim application was upheld.
Issue (iii): Whether the claim could be entertained after approval and finality of the resolution plan.
Analysis: The resolution plan had already been approved, and the time for statutory challenge had expired before the later application was filed. A claim not crystallized or admitted within the CIRP framework cannot be reopened after approval of the plan, as doing so would undermine the finality of the resolution process and the commercial wisdom underlying the plan.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the appellant. The belated claim could not be entertained after the resolution plan had attained finality.
Final Conclusion: The appeal failed on merits, the impugned order was found to be free from error, and the dismissal of the application was maintained.
Ratio Decidendi: A claimant seeking recognition as a financial creditor must prove actual and verifiable disbursement, and a belated claim cannot be revived after approval of the resolution plan once the CIRP has attained finality.
Seeking recognition of his claim as a Financial Creditor - Appellant has established any valid and verifiable financial disbursement so as to qualify as a Financial Creditor under Section 5(8)(f) of the IBC or not - Appellant’s claim can be entertained post- approval of the Resolution Plan or not - HELD THAT:- The Appellant’s claim hinges on alleged payments of ₹ 14,50,000/- by cheque and ₹ 7,69,983/- in cash. However, no documentary proof of cheque clearance, bank statement, or receipt has been filed. It is noted that the burden of proof lies upon the claimant to establish financial disbursement. The Resolution Professional’s duty is only to collate claims, not to adjudicate them beyond the documentary record.
With respect to allegations of collusion and not coming with clean hands we note that the Respondent’s assertion regarding collusion with the absconding management finds support in the factual matrix. The Appellant’s unexplained possession of a flat in an abandoned project, coupled with absence of consideration paid, lends credence to the finding of unauthorized occupation.
On the issue of the finality of the resolution plan we note that the Resolution Plan was approved by the NCLT on 05.04.2024, and the statutory time period for challenge under Section 61(2) of the IBC expired long before the present application was filed on 04.09.2024. It is also noted that from the materials placed on record that the Appellant’s name being shown in the list of claimants with “0% claim admitted” does not amount to admission, but rather indicates that the Resolution Professional had rejected the claim after due verification. In Essar Steel [2019 (11) TMI 731 - SUPREME COURT] and RPS Infrastructure [2023 (9) TMI 516 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that claims not admitted prior to approval of the Resolution Plan cannot be reopened subsequently, as it would disturb the finality of the resolution process and the commercial wisdom of the CoC.
The judgements of this Tribunal in Dipco [2020 (1) TMI 1743 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, NEW DELHI] and Umesh Kumar [2024 (2) TMI 735 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI - LB] do not support the cause of the appellant as the facts in the present case are distinguishable and clearly allow us to come to a conclusion that there is no claim and even if it is so, it is filed belatedly without documentary proof and without evidence. Therefore, the Appellant’s attempt to revive his claim post-approval of the plan is legally untenable and contrary to settled jurisprudence.
There are no error or illegality in the Impugned Order dated 11.11.2024 passed by the Adjudicating Authority - appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether a fresh application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was maintainable when CIRP against the corporate debtor was already in progress; (ii) Whether the resolution professional could be directed to proceed with project-wise CIRP for the unfinished project NCR Green and issue fresh Information Memorandum and Form G.
Issue (i): Whether a fresh application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was maintainable when CIRP against the corporate debtor was already in progress.
Analysis: CIRP had already commenced against the corporate debtor and continued to remain in process. The impugned order refused admission of another Section 7 application filed by a financial creditor claiming in respect of one project of the same corporate debtor. The existing insolvency process was already seized of the corporate debtor, and the Tribunal found no error in the Adjudicating Authority declining a second CIRP application in those circumstances.
Conclusion: The refusal to admit the fresh Section 7 application was upheld, against the applicant.
Issue (ii): Whether the resolution professional could be directed to proceed with project-wise CIRP for the unfinished project NCR Green and issue fresh Information Memorandum and Form G.
Analysis: The dispute involved a real estate corporate debtor with distinct projects. The Tribunal reiterated that project-wise resolution was permissible in such a case and noted that the earlier proceedings had already confined CIRP to Project Estella. Since Project NCR Green remained unfinished, the resolution professional was held free to proceed with the CIRP of that project in accordance with the insolvency framework and the CIRP Regulations, including issuance of the Information Memorandum and Form G.
Conclusion: The applicant was entitled to the directions sought for Project NCR Green.
Final Conclusion: The appeal challenging non-admission of the fresh insolvency application failed, while limited directions were issued permitting project-wise continuation of insolvency steps for the unfinished project.
Ratio Decidendi: Where CIRP against a corporate debtor is already underway, a fresh Section 7 application by a creditor of one project need not be admitted, and in a real estate insolvency the resolution process may proceed project-wise for an unfinished project in accordance with the insolvency framework.
Refusal to admit a fresh Section 7 petition by a Financial Creditor - CIRP against the Corporate Debtor has already commenced, against which order the appeals have been decided by this Tribunal - no Occupancy Certificate issued in NCR Green project - HELD THAT:- CIRP having already commenced against the Corporate Debtor, which CIRP is still in process, the Adjudicating Authority did not commit any error in not admitting another CIRP application filed by the Punjab and Sind Bank claiming to the Financial Creditor of one of the project of the Corporate Debtor - there are no error in the order warranting any interference in the order of the Adjudicating on appeal filed by the Punjab and Sind Bank. However, the Applicant is entitled to seek directions as prayed in I.A. No.3206 of 2025.
The project-wise CIRP with respect to a real estate company has already been noticed by this Tribunal in Para 38 of the judgment dated 16.02.2024, as noted above. The CIRP Regulations, 2016 as amended also envisages project-wise resolution in a real estate company. As per earlier order, the resolution of one project Estella is directed. Project NRC Green in which Punjab and Sind Bank claims to be Financial Creditor is still unfinished - the Resolution Professional is free to proceed with the CIRP of Project NCR Green and issue Information Memorandum and Form G and proceed further in accordance with I&B Code and CIRP Regulations, 2016.
Application disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an application under Section 7 of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code can be dismissed for non-prosecution solely because the date of default was not mentioned in Part-IV when an earlier appellate order has recorded that the corporate debtor had admitted debt and default.
2. Whether the Tribunal erred in not taking into account this Appellate Tribunal's earlier judgment (which was not challenged before the Supreme Court) when treating the omission of the date of default as a ground for dismissal.
3. Whether the filing of an affidavit after adjournments (stating a specific date of default) could cure the omission, and whether dismissal for such omission was consequential in the facts of the case.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Dismissal for non-prosecution due to omission of date of default vis-à-vis prior appellate finding of debt and default
Legal framework: Section 7 of the IBC requires an application by a financial creditor to include particulars of the debt and date of default (Part-IV). The Tribunal has power to dismiss matters for non-prosecution where parties fail to comply with directions or repeatedly seek adjournments.
Precedent treatment: The Appellate Tribunal's own earlier order (allowing the appellant's prior appeal) recorded that the corporate debtor had accepted it was unable to repay the debt and admitted default; that order was not further impugned before the Supreme Court under Section 62 and thus stood unchallenged.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that where the existence of debt and default are established by an unchallenged appellate order, the procedural omission of specifying the date of default in Form/Part-IV becomes inconsequential for the purpose of dismissal. The Tribunal's reliance solely on a two-step adjournment history and the absence of an affidavit to dismiss the petition ignored the binding effect of the earlier appellate finding on the substantive issues of debt and default.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A Tribunal should not dismiss a Section 7 petition for non-prosecution solely on the ground of omission to state the date of default where an earlier unchallenged appellate finding conclusively establishes debt and default. Obiter - Procedural compliance remains important and may be fatal where substantive issues are not otherwise settled.
Conclusions: Dismissal for non-prosecution on that narrow ground was unsustainable in the facts; the omission was consequential only if substantive issues remained undecided, which they did not here.
Issue 2 - Duty of the Tribunal to consider prior appellate findings and finality of unchallenged orders
Legal framework: Judicial decisions that are final and not further appealed (within the statutory appeal window/opportunity) are binding between the parties and must be considered by tribunals hearing remanded or subsequent proceedings on the same subject matter.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed its own prior order which conclusively determined that the transactions constituted a loan and that the corporate debtor had admitted financial distress and default; that determination had not been set aside on further appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal failed to apply the principle of finality by ignoring the earlier appellate determination and treating the failure to file an affidavit about date of default as an independent ground for dismissal. The appellate finding removed disputes regarding existence of debt and default; consequently the Tribunal's procedural dismissal was rendered consequential and legally improper.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Tribunals must give effect to prior binding appellate determinations on the same issues and cannot decline to do so by relying on peripheral procedural omissions. Obiter - Finality does not dispense with the need for minimal procedural formalities where essential for statutory records, but those formalities cannot be used to frustrate substantive rights upheld earlier.
Conclusions: The Tribunal committed legal error by not taking into consideration the binding appellate order and by treating a curable procedural omission as warranting dismissal.
Issue 3 - Curability of omission (filing of post-adjournment affidavit stating date of default) and appropriateness of remand
Legal framework: Procedural omissions in pleadings and forms are ordinarily curable by amendment or supplementary affidavits, subject to the Tribunal's discretion and ensuring no prejudice to parties. The object of Section 7 proceedings is to ascertain debt and default for initiation of CIRP; technicalities should not defeat substantive rights.
Precedent treatment: The appellant tendered an affidavit dated 06.06.2024 specifying the date of default (29.07.2017) and explained non-filing before the Tribunal by reason of counsel's medical emergency; the appellate record had already established the existence of debt and default.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the affidavit offered to remedy the omission and the earlier appellate finding that debt and default were admitted, the omission was curable and not a justifiable basis for dismissal. The Court found that the Tribunal had ample opportunity already but should have treated the omission as remediable rather than cause for outright dismissal, particularly when substantive entitlement was established.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where substantive entitlement to relief under Section 7 is established and an affidavit or document is available to cure a procedural omission, dismissal for non-prosecution is not warranted; remand for adjudication on merits is appropriate. Obiter - Repeated adjournments and inordinate delay can justify dismissal in different circumstances where no reasonable cure is tendered.
Conclusions: The filed affidavit would have cured the omission; the appropriate remedy was to set aside the dismissal and remit the matter to the Tribunal for decision on merits in accordance with law.
Relief and consequential determinations
Legal framework & reasoning: Exercising appellate jurisdiction under Section 61, the Court set aside the order of dismissal, remanded the matter for fresh consideration in light of the earlier appellate findings and the tendered affidavit, and directed appearance before the Tribunal. The Court noted no costs.
Ratio: The appellate court's remedial direction - set aside dismissal for non-prosecution and remit for reconsideration on merits where prior appellate finding establishes debt and default and the omission is curable - is binding in the present controversy.
Application filed u/s 7 of IBC dismissed for non-prosecution - date of default has not been mentioned in the Part-IV - petitioner has not given any clarification on the date of default and submits that the arguing Counsel is not available today due to medical emergency - HELD THAT:- The Tribunal while dismissing the application has only referred to two orders dated 07.05.2024 and 19.06.2024 and has not taken into consideration the order passed by this Court in appeal on 27.09.2023 in which this Court has held that the CD had admitted its debt which could not be paid because of financial distress and also admitted that it has defaulted in repayment of debt due to its financial condition.
Thus, in view of the fact that the debt and default has already been established as the order dated 27.09.2023 was not further challenged by the CD by way of an appeal before the Hon'ble Supreme Court which is appealable to it under Section 62 of the Code, therefore, dismissal of the application under Section 7 by the Tribunal only on the ground that the date of default 29.07.2017 is not mentioned is in consequential.
The present appeal is found meritorious and the same is allowed and the impugned order is set aside. The matter is remanded back to the Tribunal to decide the application filed under Section 7 of the Code in accordance with law - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether incentives, discounts and reimbursements received by an authorised motor-vehicle dealer from the manufacturer (under a principal-to-principal dealership agreement) constitute "service" and are liable to service tax under the Finance Act, 1994.
2. Whether target-based incentives paid by a manufacturer to its dealer amount to consideration for Business Auxiliary Service or any other taxable service under the negative/positive scheme of the Act.
3. Whether the transfer of vehicles by a dealer to end customers and the related incentives fall within the exclusion from "service" for transfer of property in goods or "trading of goods" under the negative list (Section 66D).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legality of levying service tax on incentives/discounts given to an authorised dealer
Legal framework: The definition of "service" under Section 65B(44) of the Finance Act, 1994 and the negative list under Section 66D read with the scheme of the Act govern whether consideration constitutes taxable service. Section 73(1), Section 75 and Section 78 provide for demand, recovery and penalty but are consequential to taxability.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed binding Tribunal precedents which held that incentives/discounts paid by manufacturers to dealers under principal-to-principal dealership agreements are not consideration for a service and are therefore not exigible to service tax. Key authorities analysed the nature of dealer-manufacturer relationship and treated incentives as trade discounts or part of sale consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the dealership agreement and found the relationship to be buyer-seller on a principal-to-principal basis, not agency. The incentives were contractual trade discounts linked to sales targets and formed part of the sale price of vehicles. The activities performed by the dealer (sale and onward transfer of vehicles) concern promotion of the dealer's own business and the sale of dealer-owned goods; any incidental promotion of the manufacturer's business is not tantamount to rendering a service to the manufacturer. Consequently, incentives lack the requisite nexus to a "service" rendered to attract service tax.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - incentives/discounts under a principal-to-principal dealership agreement, when constituting trade discounts forming part of the sale price, are not consideration for a service and thus not taxable. Observations about the incidental benefit to the manufacturer are obiter insofar as they explain commercial context but do not alter the core ratio.
Conclusion: Service tax is not leviable on incentives/discounts/reimbursements received by an authorised dealer from the manufacturer where the arrangement is on principal-to-principal terms and the incentives form part of sale consideration.
Issue 2 - Whether target-based incentives amount to Business Auxiliary Service or another taxable category
Legal framework: The taxable categories include Business Auxiliary Services where one party promotes or markets the business of another for a consideration. The scope of "incentives" must be examined to see whether they are consideration for promotion/marketing services.
Precedent treatment: A Larger Bench authority considered target-based incentives paid to agents and held that selling tickets/promoting sales primarily promotes the agent's own business and only incidentally promotes the principal's business; such incentives were not taxable as Business Auxiliary Services. The Tribunal applied that principle to dealer-manufacturer relationships in subsequent decisions, treating those authorities as binding.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal differentiated between an arrangement where an agent actively promotes the principal's service and situations where the dealer sells goods owned by it and thereby furthers its own commercial interests. The contractual designates sales promotion activities as mutual commercial benefits but do not convert dealer activities into services rendered to the manufacturer. Target-based incentives were characterized as encouragements for dealer performance and trade discounts, not payments for marketing services to the manufacturer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - target-based incentives that reward dealer performance in selling dealer-owned goods are not taxable as Business Auxiliary Service when the dealer acts on a principal-to-principal basis. Ancillary discussion distinguishing agent-type arrangements is explanatory (obiter) unless the factual matrix establishes agency.
Conclusion: Target-based incentives paid to an authorised dealer do not qualify as Business Auxiliary Service consideration where the dealer sells on principal-to-principal terms; accordingly, such incentives are not exigible to service tax under that category.
Issue 3 - Applicability of the negative list exclusion for transfer of property in goods/trading of goods
Legal framework: Section 66D contains a negative list including "trading of goods" which excludes certain transactions from the definition of taxable "service." The nature of the dealer's activity - transfer of property in goods - is pivotal.
Precedent treatment: Prior Tribunal decisions treat onward sale of goods by dealers as transfer of property in goods and therefore excluded from service tax where the activity is essentially trading rather than provision of a service.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the dealer's core activity is purchase from the manufacturer and resale to end customers, involving transfer of property in goods. Incentives that effectively reduce sale price or are connected to sale performance were held to be integrally linked to trading activity. Therefore, such amounts fall within the negative list exclusion for trading of goods and are not consideration for a taxable service.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - incentives and discounts that are part of sale transactions and arise from trading activity are excluded from service tax under the negative list provision for trading of goods. Remarks on borderline cases where additional services may be performed are obiter and fact-sensitive.
Conclusion: Incentives and discounts that form part of trading transactions and relate to transfer of property in goods are excluded from service tax under the negative list; thus no service tax is leviable on those amounts in the factual matrix before the Tribunal.
Cross-reference and overall disposition
The Court applied the above legal principles and binding precedents to the contractual terms and commercial reality presented, concluding that incentives/discounts/reimbursements were trade discounts part of sale consideration and not taxable services. On that basis, the demand, interest and penalties for service tax were set aside. Because the matter was decided on merit, the Tribunal did not decide limitation issues. The holdings are confined to facts where the dealer operates on principal-to-principal terms and do not address arrangements reflecting agency or distinct service provision to the manufacturer.
Levy of service tax - incentives/discount, reimbursement extended by MSIL to the appellant - HELD THAT:- The Larger Bench of this Tribunal in the case of Kafila Hospitality and Travels Pvt. Ltd. [2021 (3) TMI 773 - CESTAT NEW DELHI (LB)] dealt with the issue whether service tax can be levied under the category of “Business Auxiliary Service” on target based incentives paid to the travel agents by the Airlines as they were promoting and marketing the business of the Airlines. The Tribunal took the view that it is not a case where the air travel agent is promoting the service of the Airlines rather by sale of airlines ticket he was ensuring the promotion of its own business even though this may lead to incidental promotion of the business of the Airlines. On the issue, whether “incentive” paid for achieving target are taxable, the Tribunal analysed the scope of the term “incentives” that they are generally given to encourage performance of the party.
It is found that the activity undertaken by the appellant is for the sale and purchase of the vehicle and the incentives are in the nature of trade discounts. The incentives, therefore form part of the sale price of the vehicles and have no correlation with the services to be rendered by the appellant. That in terms of the dealership agreement, the appellant purchases the vehicles from MSIL and sells the same to its end customers. The activity of promoting the sale is with respect to the vehicles owned by the appellant which incidentally is in interest of both the parties. Reliance is placed in the case of Kafila Hospitality and Travels Pvt. Ltd. - it is also found that the appellant is engaged in the onward sale of vehicles which involves merely transfer of property in goods which is excluded from the definition of “service”. Section 66D of the Finance Act, 1994 contains the negative list of services under various clauses and clause (e) provides for “trading of goods”. On this ground also it is found that incentives which are part of sale activity are not exigible to service tax.
The amount of incentives and discounts cannot be treated as consideration for any service and therefore no Service Tax is leviable thereon. Having decided the issue on merits in favour of the assessee, it is no longer required to go into the question of limitation raised by the appellant.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether construction activities relating to dams, including powerhouses and appurtenant hydro-mechanical works executed as part of multipurpose dam projects, are excluded from the taxable ambit of "Commercial or Industrial Construction Services" / "Works Contract Service".
2. Whether amounts paid pursuant to an audit instruction and later claimed as refund constitute a mere deposit during investigation (entitling summary refund) or constitute tax requiring refund proceedings under the statutory refund mechanism.
3. Whether limitation and the statutory refund regime (Section 11B of the Central Excise Act as applied to service tax) govern the appellant's refund claim, thereby barring/conditioning relief outside that mechanism.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 1. Scope of exclusion for dams and related works
Legal framework: The definition of "Commercial or Industrial Construction Services" / "Works Contract Service" contains an express exclusion for services provided in respect of roads, airports, railways, transport terminals, bridges, tunnels and dams. The question is whether that exclusion covers civil and hydro-mechanical works forming part of an integrated hydroelectric or multipurpose dam project (including powerhouses and appurtenant structures).
Precedent treatment: Multiple Tribunal decisions and a Larger Bench have interpreted the exclusion broadly to include works that are part of dams/tunnels even when executed as components of larger hydroelectric projects; earlier narrower interpretations treating ancillary structures (e.g., powerhouses) as outside the exclusion have been disapproved by subsequent larger benches/tribunal precedents. Administrative circulars attempting a restrictive reading have been considered but not held decisive against textual and purposive interpretation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasons that a dam or tunnel, by common sense and engineering reality, does not exist in isolation and often requires allied civil and hydro-mechanical works (spillways, intake works, coatings, grouting, appurtenant channels, powerhouses integral to the dam's functioning). The exclusionary clause must be given a true and fair construction: if the civil/hydro-mechanical works pertain to or are incorporated into the dam/tunnel system, they partake the character of the dam/tunnel and fall within the statutory exclusion. A restrictive construction that excludes only standalone dams would produce absurd results (tax on integrated HEP contracts but not on identical works executed under separate dam contracts) and is therefore rejected.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The exclusion for "dams" in the definition covers civil and hydro-mechanical works that are part and parcel of dam/tunnel construction, even when those works are executed as components of a larger hydroelectric or multipurpose project. Obiter - Observations on hypothetical distinctions between different types of ancillary structures not present on the facts are non-decisive.
Conclusion: Works of construction of dam-related structures, including powerhouses and appurtenant hydro-mechanical works that are integral to the dam/tunnel system, are excluded from the taxable service entries and thus not exigible to service tax under those heads for the period in question.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 2. Characterisation of amounts paid pursuant to audit instruction
Legal framework: Refund and recovery of service tax are governed by the statutory provisions made applicable by the Finance Act; amounts collected/paid as tax are subject to the statutory refund mechanism. Distinct authorities have recognized situations where amounts paid under protest or pursuant to illegal/ultra vires demands may be treated as deposit and refundable outside tax statute in exceptional circumstances.
Precedent treatment: Several appellate and High Court decisions have held that sums collected without lawful authority must be refundable; however, the Supreme Court's exposition in a leading authority requires that refund claims for tax paid must generally proceed under the specific statutory refund provisions (e.g., Section 11B), and that claims based on "mistake of law" or by reference to decisions in other parties' cases cannot bypass the statutory remedy and limitation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court distinguishes payments that are held to have been made without authority of law from payments voluntarily made under the tax code while accepting the tax heads/assessments. In the present facts the amounts were paid as service tax under the relevant heads following audit direction; they were not shown to have been collected pursuant to an order declared void or outside statutory authority. Therefore, the amounts constitute tax paid, not mere deposits, and must be treated within the statutory refund regime.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Amounts paid pursuant to audit direction, accepted as payment of service tax under the relevant provisions and not shown to be collected without authority of law, are to be characterised as tax (not mere deposit) and are refundable only under the statutory refund provisions. Obiter - References to exceptional jurisprudence allowing restitution where collections were without lawful authority, as not applicable on these facts.
Conclusion: The amounts paid on audit instruction are tax payments and not mere deposits for investigation; the refund claim must be processed under the statutory refund procedure.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 3. Applicability of limitation and Section 11B refund mechanism
Legal framework: Section 11B of the Central Excise Act (as applied to service tax) and allied procedural rules prescribe the exclusive mechanism, conditions and time-limits for refund of duties/service tax. Supreme Court jurisprudence establishes that refunds of tax collected under the Act must be claimed and adjudicated under that statutory framework; claims based on discovery of a mistake of law via decisions in other persons' cases are generally not maintainable outside Section 11B.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows precedent that affirms the primacy and exclusivity of the statutory refund mechanism and limits the application of alternate remedies (suit/writ) where the statute provides an exhaustive remedy, particularly in cases not involving a declaration of unconstitutionality or collection without authority of law.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given that the tax was paid under the applicable service tax provisions and not shown to be ultra vires or collected without statutory authority, the tribunal is bound to require refund applications to be filed and adjudicated under Section 11B within the prescribed time limits. Reliance on decisions permitting restitution in other factual matrices is not determinative here. The tribunal directs the adjudicating authority to process the refund claim in accordance with Section 11B(5) of the Central Excise Act.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Refund claims for tax paid under the service tax/central excise scheme must be pursued under Section 11B; limitation prescribed by that regime applies and bars alternative non-statutory claims in the absence of an established lack of statutory authority for collection. Obiter - Remarks on policy and finality of assessments consistent with Supreme Court reasoning.
Conclusion: The refund claim is not maintainable outside the statutory refund regime; the adjudicating authority is directed to process the refund under Section 11B within the statutory framework and applicable time limits.
FINAL CONCLUSIONS
The appeal is allowed on merits: (a) dam-related construction works including integral powerhouses/appurtenant hydro-mechanical works fall within the statutory exclusion and are not exigible to service tax under the challenged heads; and (b) payments made pursuant to audit are to be treated as tax payments subject to refund only under Section 11B, and the adjudicating authority is directed to process the refund claim in accordance with that provision and applicable limitation rules.
Exemption from service tax - construction activity related to Dam - Refund of the amount already deposited - amount paid as service tax as per the instruction of the Audit party can be considered as a deposit or not - applcability of limitation under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 - HELD THAT:- There is no dispute that the appellant had entered into an agreement with Karnataka Power Corporation Ltd. for the work of construction of Almatti Dam Power House and Appurtenant Structures. However, the Commissioner denied the benefit of the exclusion clause on the ground that the power house is not part of the dam - It is found that, the Tribunal in the case of CONTINENTAL CONSTRUCTIONS LTD. Versus COMMR. OF S.T. (ADJ.), NEW DELHI [2018 (2) TMI 1256 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] held that 'From the description of work executed by the assessee in the Maneri Bhali Hydro-Electric Project, we note that it is in connection with construction of barage, intake sedimentation chamber, etc. There is no doubt that such work has been carried out as part of the hydroelectric project and construction of dam therefor. So, we find no infirmity in the view taken by the adjudicating authority that these activities are in connection with the construction of the dam and hence excluded from the purview of Commercial or Industrial Construction.' - thus, there are no reason to sustain the impugned order on merit, hence set aside.
Time limitation - HELD THAT:- Reliance placed by the appellant in the case of M/s KVR Construction Vs. Commr. of C.E. (Appeals), Bangalore[2012 (7) TMI 22 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] is not relevant to the present set of facts in view of the observations by the Supreme Court in the case of Mafatlal Industries Ltd. Vs, Union of India [1996 (12) TMI 50 - SUPREME COURT]. Moreover, in the present case the service tax has been paid under the respective heads accepting the observations of the audit. Having paid the tax the only remedy for refund would be Section 11B of Central Excise Act, as applicable to service tax.
Thus, the Tribunal being bound by the statute cannot allow the refund claim by any other means other than those specified in the Finance Act, 1994, hence any refund of tax has to be necessarily filed under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, as made applicable to the service tax provisions. Accordingly, we hold that any refund application has to be filed within the time limit provided under the Finance Act, 1994.
Appeal is allowed on merit and the original authority is directed to process the refund claim as per Section 11B(5)(ec) of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether amounts recorded as "advance" in books but supported by loan agreements, bank entries, interest payments and TDS are "advances received towards provision of service" liable to service tax.
2. Whether service tax asserted under Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) on import of services is a revenue-neutral exercise when corresponding CENVAT credit is immediately available, and if so whether demands based on extended period of limitation are invokable.
3. Whether invocation of the extended period of limitation is sustainable where prior show-cause notices/orders on the same activity were issued and the facts were within departmental knowledge.
4. Consequential questions: sustainability of interest and penalties under Sections 77 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 where the primary demands are set aside; and validity of late fee under Section 7(C) where returns were filed belatedly.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Characterisation of amounts recorded as "advance" but evidenced as loans
Legal framework: Service tax liability can attach to advances received for provision of taxable services. Distinguishing between true advances for future taxable supplies and refundable loans requires examination of commercial reality and documentary evidence (books of account, loan agreements, interest payments, TDS, bank statements).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal examined the factual matrix and documentary record to determine whether entries labeled "advance" in accounting are in substance loans rather than advances for taxable services.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant produced CA certificate, year-wise loan statements, loan agreements, bank receipts/payments, evidence of interest payments and TDS deduction; the amounts were short-term, interest bearing (for third-party loans), and recorded as current liabilities. The Court treated these cumulative documentary indicators as determinative of commercial reality and found that the sums were refundable loans, not advances for provision of taxable service.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where comprehensive documentary proof establishes that amounts recorded as "advance" are actually refundable loans (loan agreements, interest paid, TDS, bank flows), such amounts are not taxable as advances for service tax purposes. This conclusion was applied to set aside the demand confirmed on that basis.
Conclusion: Demand of service tax confirmed on amounts characterized as "advances" was set aside because records established they were refundable loans and not advances for provision of taxable services.
Issue 2 - RCM on import of services, revenue neutrality and limitation
Legal framework: Under RCM the recipient is liable to pay service tax on specified imported services, but entitlement to CENVAT credit for the same tax may make the transaction revenue neutral in effect. Limitation law prohibits invocation of extended period in cases where extended period cannot be validly invoked; Supreme Court precedent has held extended period is not invokable in revenue-neutral situations (as applied by the Tribunal).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on its own earlier decision in the appellant's group case and applied the principle from higher authority (identified as applied in that earlier decision) that extended limitation cannot be invoked in revenue-neutral situations (reference to Jet Airways principle reproduced in the impugned reasoning).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted that payment of tax under RCM would be immediately offset by availment of CENVAT credit, producing a revenue-neutral outcome. It followed the approach that where the Department seeks to invoke extended limitation for a revenue-neutral assessment, the extended period is not invokable; hence the demand under RCM was barred by limitation and unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where RCM liability is matched by immediate CENVAT credit such that net revenue effect is neutral, invocation of extended period of limitation is impermissible and demands based on such invocation are barred.
Conclusion: The RCM demand was set aside as unsustainable because it involved a revenue-neutral liability and the extended period of limitation could not validly be invoked.
Issue 3 - Invoking extended limitation when prior SCNs/orders existed on same activity
Legal framework: Extended period of limitation (larger period) may be invoked where suppression of facts is established; however, where earlier show-cause notices/orders were issued on the same issue and facts were within departmental knowledge, invocation of extended limitation is inappropriate (as per Supreme Court jurisprudence cited).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the Supreme Court principle that the allegation of suppression and reliance on extended limitation cannot stand where prior SCNs/orders show the matter was within departmental knowledge (Nizam Sugar principle applied).
Interpretation and reasoning: The record showed two prior SCNs and resulting orders addressing the appellant's activity; therefore the activity was within departmental knowledge and the subsequent SCN culminating in the impugned order could not rely on the larger period. The Tribunal treated this as a bar to extended limitation for the entire demand, including the RCM component (also addressed under Issue 2).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the Department has earlier issued show-cause notices/orders on the same activity and all material facts were within its knowledge, the extended period of limitation cannot be invoked subsequently; demands raised relying on such extended period are time-barred.
Conclusion: The entire demand (including amounts other than those already held to be loans) was held to be barred by limitation due to prior departmental action and knowledge; accordingly demands were set aside on limitation grounds.
Issue 4 - Consequences for interest, penalties and late fee
Legal framework: Interest and penalties under the Finance Act flow from sustained tax demands; late fee under statutory provision is distinct and may be sustained where returns were filed belatedly.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal examined whether ancillary consequences survive once primary demands are disallowed.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the substantive service tax demands do not survive (set aside on characterisation and/or limitation), interest and penalties under Sections 77 and 78 were set aside as unsustainable. However, the appellant had filed S.T.-3 returns belatedly; late fee under Section 7(C) was therefore properly imposed and partly paid - the balance remained payable. The Tribunal declined to interfere with the late fee imposition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - annulment of primary tax demand leads to annulment of interest and penalties premised on that demand; late fee for belated filing of returns is independently collectible and not vitiated by reversal of tax demands.
Conclusion: Interest and penalties under Sections 77 and 78 were set aside; late fee under Section 7(C) was upheld (less amount already paid) and remains payable.
Cross-references
1. Issue 2 and Issue 3 are interrelated: the Tribunal relied both on the revenue-neutral character of RCM liability (Issue 2) and on prior departmental knowledge/prior SCNs (Issue 3) to hold the RCM demand time-barred.
2. Issue 1 stands on documentary proof of commercial substance and was decided on factual foundation; consequential questions in Issue 4 flowed from the reversal of primary tax liabilities determined in Issues 1-3.
Levy of service tax - advance received for provision of the service - reverse charge mechanism (RCM) on import of service - extended period of limitation - imposition of late fee and penalty.
Service tax demand of Rs.2,22,51,053/- confirmed against the advance received - appellant submission is that the same were not ‘advances’ received for provision of any taxable service, but refundable loan amounts received from various parties including its director and relatives of the director - HELD THAT:- It is evident from the documents submitted by the appellant that the said amount has been recorded in the ‘Advance Ledger’ as refundable loan and not advances received against provision of any taxable service. Accordingly, the Ld. Adjudicating Authority has erred in holding such refundable advance as ‘advance towards provision of the service’ for confirming the said demand. Consequently, the demand of Service Tax confirmed set aside on this issue.
Demand of Service Tax of Rs.16,44,878/- under Revers Charge Mechanism on import of service - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the whole exercise is revenue neutral. It is agreed with the submission made by the appellant that even if the appellant pays service tax on RCM amounting to Rs.16,44,878/- the same amount is available as CENVAT Credit on the very same day. Accordingly, there are merit in the argument of the appellant that it is a revenue neutral situation - It is further observed that the issue is settled in favour of the appellant by this Tribunal in the appellant’s own case [2024 (4) TMI 1334 - CESTAT KOLKATA] where it was held that 'we find that it is a revenue neutral situation. The Show Cause Notice in the present case has been issued to the appellant by invoking the extended period of limitation. However, we note that the extended period of limitation is not invokable in a case of revenue neutrality' - thus, demand of Service Tax of Rs.16,44,878/- confirmed under Reverse Charge Mechanism on import of service, in the impugned order, is not sustainable.
Time Limitation - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the activity of the appellant was well within the knowledge of the Department and accordingly, the third SCN on the same issue cannot be issued by invoking the larger period of limitation, in terms of the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Nizam Sugar Factory Versus Collector of Central Excise, AP [2006 (4) TMI 127 - SUPREME COURT] wherein it has been held that the allegation of suppression and invocation of larger period cannot be sustained when the first and second show cause notices were issued on the same issue and all relevant fact were well within the knowledge of the authorities. Considering the above, it is held that the whole demand is barred by limitation and hence not sustainable. Accordingly, the demands confirmed in the impugned order set aside on the ground of limitation also.
Penalty - HELD THAT:- As the demands of Service Tax against the appellant do not survive, there are no reason to sustain the demands of interest and imposition of penalties under Sections 77 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994. Accordingly, the same are set aside.
Imposition of late fee - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, it is observed that although the appellant has filed S.T.-3 Returns, they have filed the same belatedly. Accordingly, there are no reason to interfere with the imposition of Late Fee of Rs.21,700/- under Section 7(C) of the Act in the impugned order - the appellant has already paid an amount of Rs.7,900/- towards the Late Fee imposed, which has also been appropriated by the Ld. Adjudicating Authority in the impugned order. Thus, the appellant is liable to pay the remaining amount of Late Fee, as confirmed against them in the impugned order.
Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the activity of heat treatment performed by the appellant on parts supplied by the principal amounts to "manufacture" within the meaning of the Central Excise law or is a taxable service under the category "Business Auxiliary Service".
2. Whether the consideration for such heat-treatment/job work is chargeable to service tax when the resultant goods are cleared on payment of excise duty by the principal (revenue-neutrality/duplication of levy).
3. Whether the demand confirmed invoking the extended period of limitation is sustainable where the issue is interpretational and/or revenue-neutral.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Characterisation - Heat treatment as "manufacture" v. "Business Auxiliary Service"
Legal framework: Definition of "manufacture" under section 2(f) of the Central Excise Act and Note 6 to Section XVII of the First Schedule to the Central Excise Tariff Act (conversion of incomplete/unfinished product into complete/finished product amounts to manufacture); definition/scope of "Business Auxiliary Service" under the Finance Act.
Precedent treatment: This Tribunal and other benches have consistently held that processes such as heat treatment, cutting, punching, drilling, etc., that convert unfinished components into usable parts for manufacture amount to "manufacture" (decisions relied upon include prior Tribunal decisions in identical or analogous fact-situations where heat treatment on crankshafts/steel parts was held to be manufacture). Specific prior Tribunal decisions on the appellant's earlier period have held heat treatment to be manufacture.
Interpretation and reasoning: The heat treatment carried out changed the physical properties and rendered supplied parts suitable and essential for incorporation in excisable goods (axles/gearboxes). The process thus converts an incomplete/unfinished input into a finished/usable component, falling squarely within Note 6 and the statutory definition of manufacture. Where activity amounts to manufacture, it by definition is excluded from the scope of Business Auxiliary Service as envisaged under the service tax charging provisions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - heat treatment performed on parts supplied by the principal that makes them suitable for incorporation into excisable goods amounts to manufacture and is not a Business Auxiliary Service. Obiter - citations of other similar processing activities supporting the view.
Conclusion: Heat treatment in the facts of the case is manufacturing activity; consequently it does not fall under Business Auxiliary Service and is not exigible to service tax as such.
Issue 2: Revenue neutrality and duplication of levy - service tax v. excise
Legal framework: Chargeability of service tax on "production or processing of goods for or on behalf of the client" and Notification exempting such services when conditions are met; inclusion of job work charges in assessable value for excise duty when goods are subsequently cleared by the principal.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal decisions have set aside demands where (a) the principal cleared the worked goods on payment of excise duty after including job-work charges in the assessable value, and (b) any service tax, if charged, would result in duplication because credit would be available to the principal (revenue-neutrality doctrine). Apex Court authority establishes that extended period cannot be invoked in revenue-neutral cases. Earlier Tribunal orders in materially similar fact-situations (including the appellant's own earlier appeals) support relief on revenue-neutrality grounds.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant performed processing on inputs supplied by the principal and returned the processed articles to the principal, who cleared the final excisable goods on payment of duty and included job-work charges in the assessable value. Under the Notification granting exemption for production/processing for the client, the activity meets the conditions for exemption. Further, application of service tax on the job work charges when those same charges have been subjected to excise duty in the hands of the principal would create duplication of tax incidence; moreover any service tax, if levied, would be available as credit to the principal rendering the demand effectively revenue-neutral for the revenue.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where job-work/processing charges are included in assessable value and the principal clears the excisable goods on payment of duty, a demand of service tax on the job-work charges is not sustainable (duplication/revenue-neutrality); such processing may also be covered by the exemption notification. Obiter - discussion on the operation of input tax credit and its practical effect.
Conclusion: The consideration for heat-treatment/job work cannot be subjected to service tax in the present facts because (i) the activity is manufacture, (ii) the conditions of the exemption notification are satisfied, and (iii) levying service tax would cause duplication where the principal has paid excise duty after including job-work charges (revenue-neutrality). Accordingly, the demand is unsustainable.
Issue 3: Extended period of limitation - applicability where issue is interpretational/revenue-neutral
Legal framework: Provisions permitting extended period where suppression of facts or fraud is found; jurisprudence holding extended period inapplicable where issue is bona fide interpretational or where demand is revenue-neutral.
Precedent treatment: Supreme Court authority and Tribunal decisions indicate extended limitation cannot be invoked in revenue-neutral situations and is inappropriate for purely interpretational questions of law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The demand arises from a contested question of characterisation of the activity (manufacture v. taxable service) and the consequence of levy given the principal's clearance on payment of excise duty and inclusion of job-work charges in assessable value. The issue is essentially interpretational and also involves revenue-neutral considerations; therefore invoking extended limitation is legally impermissible in this context.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - extended period of limitation cannot be invoked where the demand is based on an interpretational issue and/or where revenue-neutrality is established. Obiter - references to specific factual permutations where extended period may remain available are ancillary.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation relied upon for confirming the demand is not invokable in the present interpretational and revenue-neutral circumstances; accordingly demands confirmed on that ground are to be set aside.
Overall Conclusion
Combining the above: (a) heat treatment constitutes manufacture and is not a Business Auxiliary Service in the facts before the Tribunal; (b) the processing charges were included in assessable value and the principal cleared the excisable goods on payment of duty, satisfying the exemption notification and creating a revenue-neutral position; (c) extended limitation cannot be invoked in these circumstances. Therefore the confirmed demand of service tax, interest and penalty is unsustainable and is set aside. (Operative relief follows.)
Nature of activity - Process amounting to manufacture or business auxiliary service? - activity of heat treatment performed by the appellant on parts supplied by the principal - revenue neutralitty - extended period of limitation - eligibility for benefit of N/N. 8/2005-ST dated 01.03.2005, as amended by N/N. 19/2005-ST dated 07.06.2005 - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the issue with respect to process of heat treatment amounting to manufacture or not, is no longer res integra as the said issue stands decided by this Tribunal as well as various other forums in favour of the assessees - It is also found that this Tribunal in the Appellant’s own case in M/s TML Drivelines Limited v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Jamshedpur [2024 (8) TMI 1649 - CESTAT KOLKATA] pertaining to the period 10.09.2004 to 28.02.2005 and concerning the same issue held that the activity of heat treatment amounts to manufacture.
It is found that the same view has been taken by the Tribunal, Chennai in the case of M/s Excel Industries v. Commissioner of GST and Central Excise, Tiruchirapalli, [2024 (5) TMI 1341 - CESTAT CHENNAI], wherein the Tribunal has held that the said activity of heat treatment amounts to manufacture.
It is also observed that when the activity undertaken by the appellant amounts to manufacture, the same cannot be said to be an activity falling under Business Auxiliary Service. In the case of CCE, Pune-II v. Hi-Tech Induction Pvt. Ltd. [2014 (1) TMI 563 - CESTAT MUMBAI] the Tribunal held that the activity undertaken by the respondents amounted to manufacture and did not fall under the category of ‘Business Auxiliary Service’ where after the work of heat treatment on crank shafts, the same were returned back to the principal manufacturer who cleared the same upon payment of excise duty.
Thus, no service tax can be levied on the job work charges paid by HVAL to the Appellant as the same has been included in the assessable value of the goods of HVAL, on which excise duty has already been paid.
Benefit of N/N. 8/2005-ST dated 01.03.2005, as amended by N/N. 19/2005-ST dated 07.06.2005 - HELD THAT:- The said notification exempts the taxable service of production or processing of goods for or on behalf of the client referred in sub-clause (v) of clause (19) of section 65 of the Finance Act, from the whole of service tax leviable thereon under section 66 of the Finance Act. Thus, we observe that the appellant has been undertaking the process of heat treatment on raw materials provided by HVAL and thereafter the Appellant is sending it back to HVAL which is being used by them for the manufacture of axles and parts thereof and the resultant products are cleared to TML upon payment of excise duty. Thus, the appellant has fulfilled all the requirements of the Notification and hence they are eligible for the benefit of exemption of the said notification.
Revenue Neutrality - HELD THAT:- Reliance placed on the decision of M/s H. V. Transmission Ltd. v. CCE, Jamshedpur, [2023 (12) TMI 118 - CESTAT KOLKATA] wherein this Tribunal has set aside the demand of excise duty on the grounds of revenue neutrality. Reliance is also placed on the judgment of Commr. Of C. Ex., Ahmedabad-II Versus Reclamation Welding Ltd. [2014 (8) TMI 186 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD], wherein the demand of excise duty was inter alia set aside on the ground of revenue neutrality on goods supplied after job work to the subsidiary company which was available as credit in the hands of the subsidiary company.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is observed that it is a settled principle of law that extended period cannot be invoked in case of revenue neutral situation. Reliance in this regard is placed on the Hon’ble Apex Court judgment pronounced in the case of Nirlon Ltd. Versus Commissioner of Central Excise, Mumbai [2015 (5) TMI 101 - SUPREME COURT]. In the instant case, it is found that the issue involved is purely interpretational in nature. In view of the above, the demand confirmed invoking extended period of limitation is liable to be set aside on the ground that the issue is one of interpretation.
The demand of service tax confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable and hence, the same is set aside. As the demand itself is not sustainable, the question of demanding interest or imposing penalty does not arise and hence the same is set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the assessee/job-worker is eligible to retain Cenvat credit availed on the basis of invoices issued by suppliers subsequently declared fake/non-existent in departmental alert circulars.
2. Whether the extended period of limitation under the proviso to Section 11A(1) of the Central Excise Act can be invoked to recover Cenvat credit and levy penalty where inputs received were traceable to suppliers later found to be fictitious, absent proof that the recipient was a party to the upstream fraud.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework
Rule 7(2)/Rule 7(b) of the erstwhile Cenvat Credit Rules requires the recipient to take all reasonable steps to ensure that Cenvat credit is taken only on inputs on which appropriate excise duty has been paid; general principles of title and bona fide receipt are relevant (principles such as nemo dat quod non habet and holder-in-due-course for valuable consideration).
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment
The Court treats as controlling the decisions of the High Court in Prayagraj Dyeing & Printing Mills and the subsequent affirmance by the Supreme Court in Kirtida Silk Mills, which distinguish between documents that are forged or non-existent and documents issued in the context of fraud (void v. voidable), and which hold that mere failure of due diligence under Rule 7 is a ground to deny credit on merits but does not automatically render the recipient liable under extended limitation unless active participation in fraud is shown.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal finds the facts here identical to those in Prayagraj: goods received for job-work on endorsed invoices, entries made in input registers, processed goods accounted and cleared, and no evidence that the recipient purchased or owned the goods. The departmental investigation declared upstream suppliers non-existent via alert circulars, but no party came forward to deny that finding. The Tribunal accepts that the documents came from persons practising fraud but emphasizes the distinction that such documents are voidable rather than void ab initio where they were genuine invoices used in the ordinary course. Given that the appellants were job-workers and holders in due course for valuable consideration without notice, their transactions retained commercial validity absent proof of collusion or active involvement in creating or using forged documents.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where a recipient (including a job-worker) receives inputs on endorsed invoices and there is no evidence that the recipient was a party to the supplier's fraud, the transaction may confer the status of holder in due course and the Cenvat credit cannot be disallowed on the basis that the supplier was later declared non-existent, except on merits under Rule 7(2) if due diligence was not observed.
Obiter: Observations regarding the commercial integrity of transactions and practical impossibility for purchasers/job-workers to verify excise payment in all cases are explanatory of the ratio and rely on prior higher court reasoning; they are not novel holdings beyond application of precedent.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The Tribunal concludes that, although failure to comply with Rule 7(2) may render credit technically deniable on merits, the appellants as job-workers who received goods on endorsed invoices and were not parties to the upstream fraud are to be treated as holders in due course; hence the Cenvat credit cannot be recovered by invoking extended limitation on the sole ground that suppliers were later declared fictitious. The adjudicating authority erred to the extent it invoked extended period merely because suppliers proved fictitious.
Issue 2 - Legal framework
The proviso to Section 11A(1) provides an extended period for recovery where positive evasion of duty is established; the extended period is a punitive exception to normal limitation and requires proof of positive evasion or wilful mis-declaration by the recipient.
Issue 2 - Precedent Treatment
The Tribunal follows the High Court ruling in Prayagraj and the Supreme Court confirmation in Kirtida Silk Mills that the extended period cannot be invoked against a recipient unless the Revenue establishes that the recipient was actively involved in the fraud or there was positive evasion of duty by the recipient; mere failure in due diligence without active participation does not attract the proviso.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal reasons that the extended period is distinct from merits: even if on merits the credit might be technically unsustainable for lack of due diligence, the extraordinary step of invoking extended limitation requires evidence that the recipient knowingly participated in evasion. Investigative findings that suppliers are non-existent do not by themselves establish the recipient's positive evasion or wilful participation. The maxim nemo dat quod non habet, which operates to deny good title from a seller who had none, is directed at buyers/owners and does not automatically apply to a job-worker processing goods on behalf of others based on endorsed invoices.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Extended limitation under the proviso to Section 11A(1) cannot be invoked against a recipient/job-worker unless the Revenue proves positive evasion of duty or active involvement of the recipient in the upstream fraud; absence of such proof mandates denial of extended limitation even where suppliers are subsequently found fictitious.
Obiter: Application of the nemo dat maxim to endorsees/job-workers in circumstances where they have no ownership claim is discussed as explanatory and fact-specific; the statement that alert circulars alone do not suffice to invoke the extended period is an application of precedent rather than a broad new rule.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
The Tribunal holds that the adjudicating authority and the Commissioner (Appeals) erred in confirming demand and imposing penalties by invoking the extended period of limitation without evidence of positive evasion or active participation by the appellants in the fraud. Consequently, the extended period and the penalties based thereon are set aside.
Cross-reference and overall disposition
Because the Tribunal finds factual parity with the controlling precedent and no evidence of recipient participation in fraud, the orders confirming demand and penalties under extended limitation are quashed; the Tribunal distinguishes reliance on earlier orders (e.g., Chintan Processors, Palav Synthetics) as inapplicable on the facts where the appellants were job-workers receiving goods on endorsed invoices and not purchasers from the fictitious manufacturers.
Eligibility to avail CENVAT Credit - Cenvat credit passed on by the firms/units declared as fake/non-existent/bogus vide alert Circulars - invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The learned Commissioner (Appeals) has rightly come to the conclusion that the appellant had failed to take reasonable steps to ensure that credit was taken on duty paid inputs on which appropriate duty of excise had been paid as envisaged on them in terms of Rule 7(b) of the erstwhile Cenvat Credit Rules, 2002. Learned Commissioner has mentioned in the impugned order that during investigation by the department, the suppliers of inputs were found nonexistent. Accordingly, alert Circulars were issued by the department and the said units were declared as fictitious/ non-existent. Nobody came forward to claim that the said suppliers were not fake units. During investigations, it was proved that fraud was perpetrated by certain persons involving fake/ fictitious identities and the appellant claimed to have purchased the duty paid inputs from those entities which were later found to be non-existent.
In M/s. Prayagraj Dyeing & Printing Mills Pvt. Limited vs. Union of India [2013 (5) TMI 705 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] the Hon'ble Gujarat High Court held that there is a marked distinction between a forged document and a document issued by practising fraud. If it appears that a document is a forged one or a manufactured one, it is concocted or a created one then in the eye of law it is a non-existent document. On the other hand, a document issued in the context of a fraud or misrepresentation is by itself a genuine document and according to settled law, such document is at the most, voidable and is valid till it is set aside. A transaction that takes place on the basis of such document is good one and can even give a good title to the “holder in due course for valuable consideration” - The Hon'ble Gujarat High Court has further observed in the above mentioned judgment that in the absence of any allegation that the appellants were parties to the fraud, the larger period of limitation cannot be applied and thus, even if the original document was assumed to be issued by practising fraud, the appellants “being holders in due course for valuable consideration” without notice, the larger period of limitation cannot be invoked.
In view of the law laid down in M/s. Prayagraj Dyeing & Printing Mills Pvt. Limited vs. Union of India [2013 (5) TMI 705 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] by Hon'ble Gujarat High Court, it is concluded that the appellants can be considered as “holder in due course for valuable consideration without notice”. Even though the appellant failed to adopt due diligence as mentioned in Rule 7(2) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, the proviso to Section 11A(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 cannot be invoked against the appellant because there is no evidence on the record that the appellants were actively involved in the fraud committed by the suppliers/ traders.
Thus, learned Commissioner (Appeals) and the Adjudicating Authority have erred in invoking extended period of limitation in confirming demand of Cenvat credit of Rs. 23,10,005/- and imposing penalty of Rs. 23,10,005/- on Appellant No.1, M/s. Krishna Art Silk Cloth Pvt Limited and imposing penalty of Rs. 23,10,005/- on Appellant No. 2 Shri Krishan Kumar Ahuja, Director of the Appellant No.1 M/s. Krishna Art Silk Cloth Pvt Limited and therefore, the impugned order passed by learned Commissioner (Appeals) is liable to be set-aside and the appeals are liable to be allowed.
Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1.1 Entitlement of the impugned ambulances to concessional rate / refund under Notification No. 6/2006-CE.
1.2 Eligibility and locus standi of the appellant to seek refund under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 read with Notification No. 6/2006-CE.
1.3 Compliance with the mandatory conditions and procedure prescribed in condition No. 8 of Notification No. 6/2006-CE by the manufacturer/fabricator and the appellant.
1.4 Applicability of the doctrine of unjust enrichment and burden of proof as to incidence of duty.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
2.1 Entitlement of the impugned ambulances to concessional rate / refund under Notification No. 6/2006-CE
Interpretation and reasoning
2.1.1 The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that the fabrication of vehicles by the fabricator amounted to "manufacture" and that Central Excise duty was correctly leviable and paid on the ambulances cleared to the State Government.
2.1.2 The appellant's claim was not examined as a dispute on classification or rate of duty but as a claim to refund of duty already paid, governed by the conditions and mechanism of Notification No. 6/2006-CE read with Section 11B.
2.1.3 The Tribunal held that even assuming concessional benefit was otherwise available, refund could be granted only if the person claiming it fell within the category recognized by the statute/notification and complied with all substantive and procedural conditions.
Conclusions
2.1.4 The ambulances, if eligible for concessional rate, could attract refund only through the statutory mechanism prescribed in Notification No. 6/2006-CE, which is available to the "manufacturer" subject to strict compliance. The appellant's claim could not be sustained independently of this framework.
2.2 Eligibility and locus standi of the appellant to seek refund under Section 11B and Notification No. 6/2006-CE
Legal framework
2.2.1 Section 11B(2)(e) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 provides for refund to the "buyer" if the amount is relatable to the duty of excise borne by such buyer and the incidence has not been passed on to any other person.
2.2.2 Condition No. 8 of Notification No. 6/2006-CE mandates that the "manufacturer" (a) pays duty at the time of clearance; (b) takes credit of the excess duty in his Account Current; and (c) files a claim for refund within six months, along with specified documents, for the refund mechanism to operate.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.2.3 The Tribunal found, as a matter of fact, that the appellant was not the manufacturer or fabricator of the ambulances. The manufacturer/fabricator was a separate entity which had paid the duty.
2.2.4 The vehicles were registered in the names of District Health and Family Welfare Officers and the ownership of capital assets vested in the State Government under the MOU. The appellant neither owned the vehicles nor was shown as buyer under any invoice or statutory document.
2.2.5 The MOU recognized the appellant only as a nodal agency to manage and operate the ambulance service; it did not treat the appellant as owner or purchaser of the vehicles, nor did it provide for reimbursement/refund of taxes to the appellant in a manner recognized by excise law.
2.2.6 Correspondence and "no objection" letters from the State Government and the manufacturer, authorizing the appellant to pay duty or to claim refund, were treated as internal arrangements inter se the parties and not as a legal basis for entitlement under the Central Excise Act and the notification.
2.2.7 The Tribunal emphasized that Central Excise law recognizes only the manufacturer for payment of duty and the manufacturer/buyer for the purpose of refund. The appellant did not establish itself as either manufacturer, buyer, or even consumer of the ambulances who had borne the incidence of duty.
2.2.8 The Tribunal relied on the principle, reiterated in decisions such as UOI v. Mahendra Singh and State of Jharkhand v. Ambey Cements, that where a statute prescribes that an act is to be done in a particular manner, it must be done in that manner and in no other, particularly in the context of exemption/refund provisions which must be strictly construed.
Conclusions
2.2.9 The appellant had no locus standi under Section 11B or Notification No. 6/2006-CE to claim refund of the duty paid on the ambulances, as it failed to establish that it was the manufacturer, buyer, owner, or legally recognized bearer of the duty incidence.
2.2.10 Any entitlement to refund, if otherwise available, would lie with the manufacturer/fabricator, subject to fulfilment of the notification conditions, and not with the appellant.
2.3 Compliance with mandatory conditions and procedure under condition No. 8 of Notification No. 6/2006-CE
Legal framework
2.3.1 Condition No. 8 of Notification No. 6/2006-CE specifies that:
(a) The manufacturer must pay duty at the applicable rate at the time of clearance;
(b) The manufacturer must take credit of the excess duty in his Account Current maintained in terms of the Excise Manual;
(c) The manufacturer must file a refund claim within six months from the date of payment, accompanied by documents such as (i) intimation of credit taken; (ii) certificate from the State Transport Authority regarding registration for sole use as ambulance; (iii) document evidencing payment of duty; and (iv)/(v) evidence or declaration regarding collection/non-collection of excess duty from the buyer.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.3.2 The Tribunal recorded that neither the appellant nor the manufacturer/fabricator had followed the mechanism prescribed in condition No. 8. There was no evidence that the manufacturer had taken credit of the excess duty in the Account Current, filed a refund claim within time, or submitted the required documents to the jurisdictional authority.
2.3.3 The statutory scheme and the notification contemplate the manufacturer as the only eligible claimant for the particular refund mechanism; the Tribunal noted that the appellant's attempt to claim the manufacturer's refund on the strength of internal authorisations was not supported by the statutory text.
2.3.4 Citing binding precedents on strict construction of exemption and refund provisions, the Tribunal held that both substantive eligibility criteria and procedural steps under the notification were mandatory. Non-compliance rendered the refund claim unprocessable.
2.3.5 The Tribunal rejected any notion of relaxing or reworking the statutory procedure, referring also to the Supreme Court's observations in Union of India v. VKC Footsteps India Pvt Ltd that courts cannot redraw statutory boundaries or expand refund provisions based on abstract doctrines or policy considerations.
Conclusions
2.3.6 The mandatory and substantive conditions in condition No. 8 of Notification No. 6/2006-CE were not fulfilled by the manufacturer/fabricator or the appellant.
2.3.7 In the absence of compliance with the prescribed mechanism, the Revenue could not lawfully process or grant the refund, and the claim was liable to be rejected on this ground alone.
2.4 Applicability of doctrine of unjust enrichment and burden of proof regarding incidence of duty
Legal framework
2.4.1 Section 11B embodies the doctrine of unjust enrichment by requiring proof that the incidence of duty has not been passed on to any other person for refund to be sanctioned.
2.4.2 The Tribunal relied on Supreme Court authority that the burden to prove that the incidence of duty was not passed on lies on the claimant and that, though a consumer may apply for refund, verification must establish who actually bore the duty.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.4.3 The Tribunal noted that there was no invoice or bill evidencing that the appellant had purchased the vehicles or borne the excise duty as buyer; registration and MOU documents showed the State Government/District Health authorities as owners.
2.4.4 In the absence of such primary transactional documents, it was not possible to ascertain whether the duty incidence had been passed on to the State Government or any other entity. Mere letters, authorisations and a Chartered Accountant's certificate were not treated as adequate to discharge the statutory burden.
2.4.5 The Tribunal additionally recorded that the appellant was "not even a consumer" of the vehicles within the meaning accepted in prior Supreme Court rulings, further weakening its position as a potential beneficiary under Section 11B(2)(e).
Conclusions
2.4.6 The appellant failed to discharge the burden of proving that it had borne the incidence of duty and had not passed it on to any other person.
2.4.7 Independently of the locus and notification issues, the doctrine of unjust enrichment also operated against the appellant's refund claim.
2.5 Overall disposition
2.5.1 The Tribunal held that the appellant was neither a manufacturer, buyer, owner, nor consumer of the ambulances; had not satisfied the substantive eligibility criteria for refund; and had not complied with the mandatory conditions and procedure under Notification No. 6/2006-CE and Section 11B.
2.5.2 Finding no legal basis to interfere with the order rejecting the refund, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal.
Eligibility for refund of excise duty - Recognition of manufacturer and buyer for refund - Mandatory conditions in exemption notification - Burden to prove that incidence of duty was not passed on - Doctrine of strict compliance with statutory procedure
Eligibility for refund of excise duty - Recognition of manufacturer and buyer for refund - Appellants are not entitled to the refund claimed as they are neither the manufacturer nor the buyer/owner of the vehicles and have not established themselves as consumers who bore the incidence of duty. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the MOU, registration records and documents produced by the appellants and found that the vehicles were not registered in the appellants' names, ownership vested with the Government of Karnataka and no invoice or document demonstrably establishing the appellants as buyers or owners was produced. The Central Excise scheme recognises only the manufacturer or the purchaser (buyer/owner/consumer who has borne the incidence of duty) as eligible for refund under the statutory framework. On the material before it the appellants failed to demonstrate that they were either the manufacturer or the buyer/owner or that they had borne and not passed on the incidence of duty. Consequently the appellants lacked locus to claim the refund and the impugned rejection was upheld. [Paras 12, 13, 18, 19]
Refund claim rejected - appellants not eligible as they are neither manufacturer nor buyer/owner who bore the duty.
Mandatory conditions in exemption notification - Doctrine of strict compliance with statutory procedure - Refund could not be granted because the procedural and substantive conditions of Notification No.6/2006-CE were not satisfied by the manufacturer or the appellants and the prescribed procedure was not followed. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal reproduced condition No.8 of Notification No.6/2006-CE and observed that the notification prescribes specific mandatory steps - payment of duty by the manufacturer at clearance, taking credit in Account Current, filing a claim within six months with prescribed documents and verification by the authority. Neither M/s BHPL (the fabricator/manufacturer) nor the appellants complied with these mandatory conditions or followed the prescribed refund procedure; in such circumstances the revenue could not process or allow the refund. The Court relied on the established principle that where a statute prescribes a mode of doing a thing, it must be done in that manner and that exemption provisions in taxing statutes are to be strictly construed. [Paras 14, 15, 16, 17, 18]
Refund unattainable - mandatory conditions and procedural requirements of the notification not satisfied; strict compliance required.
Burden to prove that incidence of duty was not passed on - Appellants failed to discharge the burden of proving that the incidence of excise duty was borne by them and not passed on to any other person. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted the settled legal position that the burden of proving non-passing on of the incidence of duty rests on the claimant. No documents or evidence were produced to show that the appellants bore the incidence of duty or had not passed it on; correspondence between parties and a no-objection letter from the fabricator were insufficient to discharge this burden. In absence of such proof, the appellants could not be treated as eligible buyers/consumers for the purpose of refund under Section 11B(2)(e) and the notification. [Paras 10, 11, 13, 14]
Claim fails - appellants did not prove that the incidence of duty was borne by them and not passed on.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is dismissed; the refund claim is rejected because the appellants are neither manufacturer nor buyer/owner who bore the duty, the mandatory conditions and procedure under Notification No.6/2006-CE were not complied with, and the appellants failed to discharge the burden of proving non-passing on of the duty.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the notional inter-unit "transfer price" recorded in internal accounting (linked to London Metal Exchange prices) can be adopted as cost of raw materials for computing cost of production under CAS-4 and thereby as assessable value under Rule 8 of the Valuation Rules for captively consumed goods.
2. Whether CAS-4 cost of production must be computed on actual landed cost, fabrication and manufacturing expenses (excluding notional inter-unit profits), and whether the Department can substitute a notional transfer price in place of CAS-4 certified costs.
3. Whether demands based on differential valuation using notional transfer prices are sustainable where CAS-4 certificates (or subsequent CAS-4 adjustments) show actual costs that either match or exceed provisional assessments, and the consequential viability of interest and penalty where demand is revenue-neutral between units.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Admissibility of Notional Transfer Price as Cost for CAS-4/Rule 8 Valuation
Legal framework: Valuation for captively consumed goods is governed by Rule 8 of the Valuation Rules read with the requirement of cost computation in CAS-4 certificates issued by Cost Accountants; Central Excise Rules require proper self-assessment and disclosure.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed earlier decisions holding that notional inter-unit debit/credit (transfer prices) used for internal accounting and management information cannot be treated as actual cost for CAS-4 purposes (citing precedents where debit notes reflecting notional profit were excluded from CAS-4 computation).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted that transfer prices were purely internal/notional, linked to LME and used for managerial profitability analysis and accounting consolidation. Transfer prices are eliminated on consolidation and do not represent actual landed input costs or fabrication expenses. CAS-4 value, by contrast, is based on actual incurred costs certified by Cost and Statutory Auditors. Therefore, adopting transfer price would import a notional element not captured in financial statements or actual cash flows.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Transfer price not admissible as component of CAS-4 cost under Rule 8; CAS-4 must reflect actual costs. Obiter - Observations on accounting consolidation and auditors' certifications as corroboration of the notional nature of transfer price.
Conclusion: Notional inter-unit transfer prices cannot be adopted as cost of raw materials for CAS-4 or Rule 8 valuation; CAS-4 certified actual costs govern assessable value for captively consumed goods.
Issue 2 - Department's Power to Substitute Valuation Method Contrary to CAS-4
Legal framework: Circular guidance and established practice require CAS-4 certificate as the method for calculating cost of production for captively consumed products; valuation rules mandate adherence to CAS-4 for such cases.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on its prior rulings and an administrative circular that CAS-4 is the sole method for cost of production of captively consumed goods, and on tribunal authorities that disallow departmental deviation from CAS-4 without corroborative proof that CAS-4 is wrong.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Department's attempt to adopt a differential valuation method based on notional prices was contrary to the binding Circular and tribunal precedent. Where CAS-4 is certificate-based and unrefuted by corroborative evidence demonstrating its inaccuracy, the Department cannot supplant CAS-4 figures with notional internal prices. The Tribunal emphasized that without evidence that the CAS-4 certificate is incorrect, departmental revaluation is impermissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Department cannot disregard CAS-4 certificate and impose valuation based on notional transfer prices absent proof that CAS-4 is erroneous. Obiter - Discussion on the binding nature of departmental Circulars and weight to be given to Cost Accountant certification.
Conclusion: Departmental revaluation using internal transfer prices is impermissible when CAS-4 certification provides actual cost-based valuation and there is no evidence to invalidate CAS-4.
Issue 3 - Revenue Neutrality, Interest and Penalty where Differential Duty Affects Inter-Unit Transfers
Legal framework: Principles of assessable value, availability of credit under excise law, and conditions for levy of interest and penalty under relevant Central Excise provisions.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed prior findings that where differential duty confirmed would be available as credit to other units of the assessee, the demand is revenue-neutral and therefore unsustainable; consequential interest and penalty are not maintainable where the principal demand fails.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since inter-unit transfers result in offset on consolidation, any differential duty claimed by Department from one unit would effectively be recoverable as credit by another unit of the same corporate group, rendering the demand revenue-neutral. Where the foundational demand is not sustainable (because CAS-4 based valuation stands), interest and penalty based on such demand cannot be validly imposed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - When a confirmed differential duty is revenue-neutral across related units, the demand (and thus interest/penalty) is not sustainable. Obiter - Remarks on appropriate treatment of consolidated accounts and elimination of inter-unit entries for assessing net revenue impact.
Conclusion: Demands based on notional revaluation that are revenue-neutral across units are unsustainable; interest and penalty based on such demands do not arise.
Cross-references and Final Determination
Cross-reference: The Tribunal explicitly relied on an earlier, identical decision of the same Tribunal examining the same factual matrix and legal questions, adopting the same reasoning that CAS-4 governs valuation and that notional transfer prices are not includible.
Conclusive holding: The Tribunal upheld the lower appellate authority's decision to reject departmental demands predicated on notional transfer prices, affirmed that CAS-4 certified actual costs determine assessable value for captively consumed goods, and held that differential demands (and attendant interest/penalty) based on notional internal prices are unsustainable.
Method of Valuation - Short payment of Central Excise duty - undervaluation of assessable value of the goods supplied to their sister units by wrongful application of CAS-4 method to arrive at the value of the finished product - Manufacture and clearance of Rolled products of Aluminium viz. corrugated and plain sheet of various thickness, both alloy and non-alloy - wilful suppression of facts.
Whether the cost of production as per CAS-4 adopted by the respondent (value the goods cleared to other units of the respondent under Rule 8) has to be arrived at on the basis of actual costs of inputs, fabrication, etc., or on the basis of ‘notional transfer price’ adopted by the respondent for its internal profitability assessment of units?
HELD THAT:- The ‘transfer price’ adopted in the internal accounting cannot be a basis for computing the cost of production since such transfer price adopted in the financial records has no relation to the cost of production and is only a notional price linked to prices prevailing at the London Metal Exchange. It is to be noted in this context that the transfer price adopted is solely for the purpose of management information to arrive at the profitability of the units and to comply with the Accounting Standards. This has also been clarified by the Cost Auditor as well as the Statutory Auditor of the respondent by way of certificates - the finding of the ld. lower appellate authority that the transfer price recorded in the books of accounts of the units should not be adopted as cost of raw material for the purpose of CAS-4 certificate to be correct inasmuch as such price is only a notional value for internal accounting purposes and such notional value is neither recorded nor its impact is captured in the financial statements of the respondent.
Further, as has been rightly pointed out by the counsel representing the respondents, the instant issue is no longer res integra. This Tribunal, in the respondent’s own case in Hindalco Industries Ltd. v. Commissioner of C.Ex. & Cus., Kolkata [2023 (8) TMI 1676 - CESTAT KOLKATA] has already examined an identical issue, observing that 'we hold that the differential valuation method adopted by the Department is against this Circular which mandates that the valuation in such cases must be on the basis of the CAS-4 certificate issued by the Cost Accountant only. It is a well settled position of law that Circulars issued by Revenue are binding on the Department. Hence, we observe that in compliance with the Circular No. 692/8/2003-Cx, the Appellant has correctly valued the cost of production in accordance with the CAS-4 certificate issued by the Cost Accountant.'
There are no infirmity in the impugned order dated 05.06.2018 passed by the ld. lower appellate authority. Accordingly, the Revenue’s appeal deserves no merits - appeal of Revenue dismissed.
Issues: Whether Rule 6(3) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 applies to waste or residue generated during the manufacture of dutiable final products, so as to require reversal of credit for clearance of such waste.
Analysis: The disputed clearance arose from chipper dust or wood waste generated in the course of manufacturing paper and paper boards, which are the dutiable final products. The settled legal position is that Rule 6(3) is attracted when exempted final products are manufactured, and not to waste or residue emerging incidentally during the manufacture of dutiable goods. The legal position was treated as settled by the Supreme Court decisions relied upon, and the later Board circular was noted as having been withdrawn in line with that position. The waste generated in the manufacturing process was therefore not to be treated as exempted final product for the purpose of Rule 6(3).
Conclusion: Rule 6(3) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 is not applicable to the waste generated during manufacture of the dutiable final product, and the demand based on non-maintenance of separate records is unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The impugned demands and penalties could not be sustained because clearance of manufacturing waste does not attract reversal under Rule 6(3) where the final products are dutiable.
Ratio Decidendi: Waste or residue arising incidentally during manufacture of dutiable final products is not to be treated as exempted final products for the purpose of credit reversal under Rule 6(3) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
CENVAT Credit - availing and utilizing cenvat credit on taxable as well as exempt goods - non-maintenance of separate account in respect of credit availed on the input services used in the manufacture of exempted goods and dutiable goods - clearing saw dust / wood waste falling under Chapter sub-heading 44013000 being exempted goods - whether the chipper dust / waste which arose during the course of chipping of woods for manufacture of final products viz. paper and paper boards fall under Chapter 48 of the CETA, 1985 be considered as exempted final product and Rule 6(3) of CCR, 2004 is applicable for non-maintenance of separate records for dutiable and exempted goods?
HELD THAT:- The issue is no more res integra and settled by the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in a series of cases viz. UOI Vs. DSCL Sugar Ltd. [2015 (10) TMI 566 - SUPREME COURT] and recently in the case of UOI Vs. Indian Sucrose Limited [2022 (7) TMI 353 - SC ORDER] wherein it is held that Rule 6(3) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 is not applicable to waste generated during the manufacture of dutiable final product.
This Tribunal also, in the case of Shri Hiranyakeshi SSK Niyamit Vs. CCT, Belgaum [2024 (3) TMI 1499 - CESTAT BANGALORE] held that Rule 6(3) is not applicable to waste by-products emerging during the manufacture of dutiable final product.
The impugned orders are set aside and appeals are allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether input tax credit may be denied solely on the ground of non-compliance with Rule 29(2) & (3) where the dealer has maintained books of account and produced statutory forms (Form 38 and Form C) evidencing inter-State purchases and concessional purchases.
2. Whether the statutory requirement in Section 21(10)(v) (maintenance of separate accounts "as far as possible" where goods are disposed of in different modes including consignments outside the State otherwise than by sale) was satisfied by the dealer's records and, if so, whether a technical non-compliance can justify reversal of input tax credit.
3. Whether the Tribunal erred in dismissing the appeals without recording adverse findings on the veracity or sufficiency of the books of account and supporting documents relied upon to claim input tax credit.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Denial of input tax credit based solely on Rule 29(2) & (3) non-compliance
Legal framework: Input tax credit is claimable subject to compliance with statutory record-keeping rules; Rule 29(2) & (3) set particular requirements for claiming credit. Section 21 mandates maintenance of accounts and documents by dealers.
Precedent Treatment: No prior decisions were cited or relied upon by the Court in the judgment; therefore no precedent was followed, distinguished or overruled in relation to this specific fact pattern.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the dealer produced Forms 38 and C and had its purchases and inter-State imports reflected in the books of account. The assessment accepted disclosed turnover and the assessing authority recorded findings of fact. In the absence of adverse material or defects identified in the books, the Court held that denial of input tax credit purely on a technical non-compliance under Rule 29(2) & (3) was not justified.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where statutory forms and books of account substantiate inter-State purchases and manufacturing turnover, reversal of input tax credit cannot rest solely on technical non-compliance with Rule 29(2) & (3) absent adverse material.
Conclusions: The Tribunal's reliance solely on Rule 29(2) & (3) to reverse input tax credit was inadequate; matter requires reconsideration in light of the books and statutory forms.
Issue 2 - Sufficiency of records under Section 21(10)(v) and the meaning of "as far as possible"
Legal framework: Section 21 prescribes accounts and documents to be maintained; sub-clause (10)(v) requires, insofar as possible, separate accounts where a dealer disposes of taxable goods in multiple ways including consignments outside the State otherwise than as a result of sale.
Precedent Treatment: No case law was invoked to define "as far as possible" or to interpret the extent of strictness required; the Court interpreted the statutory language on its text.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized the qualifying words "as far as possible" in Section 21(10)(v), indicating a degree of practical flexibility in record keeping. Given production of purchase records, Form 38, Form C, stock and manufacture registers and absence of adverse findings in assessment, the statutory requirement was satisfied to the extent mandated by the statute.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the statutory obligation to keep separate accounts "as far as possible" must be read with practical sufficiency; compliance reflected in books and statutory forms meets the requirement unless defects are specifically established.
Conclusions: The dealer's records, including stock and manufacturing registers together with Forms 38 and C, fulfilled the requirements of Section 21(10)(v) as interpreted; technical non-compliance cannot be a sole basis for rejecting input credit where substantive compliance exists.
Issue 3 - Need for explicit adverse findings before rejecting claims supported by accounts
Legal framework: Administrative and appellate bodies should record clear findings when disallowing claims supported by books and documents; appellate re-examination requires addressing grounds raised by the taxpayer.
Precedent Treatment: None cited; Court applied principles of reasoned decision-making and requirement for addressing material factual claims.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noticed the grounds raised regarding maintenance of books and supporting documents but did not record adverse observations or deal substantively with those grounds in its impugned order. The Court found that in absence of explicit adverse findings on the veracity or sufficiency of the accounts, the matter could not be finally resolved against the claimant without reconsideration.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an appellate/tribunal order rejecting a claim supported by books and statutory forms must either record specific adverse findings or reconsider the claim on merits; lack of such findings necessitates remand.
Conclusions: The impugned Tribunal order was deficient for failing to record adverse material or to deal substantively with the records relied upon; remand for fresh consideration was warranted.
Remedial Direction and Consequential Findings
Interpretation and reasoning: In view of the deficiencies, the Court remanded the matter to the Tribunal for fresh disposal within a specified timeframe and directed that any amounts deposited shall remain subject to the fresh order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an appellate order fails to deal with patently material documentary evidence or to record adverse findings, remand for fresh consideration is appropriate; directions as to deposits are incidental to the remand.
Conclusions: The Tribunal is directed to reconsider the grounds raised, examine the books of account and statutory forms (Form 38 and Form C), and pass a fresh reasoned order. The prior deposit status remains subject to the Tribunal's fresh decision.
Denial of ITC - petitioner has failed to maintain its books of account for claiming the benefit - Case of petitioner is that there is no violation of Rule 21 (1) sub clause (v) but without considering the same, by the impugned order, appeal has been rejected only placing reliance upon Rule 29 (2) & (3) - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the revsionist has purchased the goods within the State as well as from outside the State of UP. For purchase of goods from outside the State of UP, Form 38 and Form C have been produced by the dealer, which shows that while importing the goods, the same was duly recorded in the books of account. The said fact is also verifiable from the assessment order.
For the purposes of purchase within the State or out side the State of UP by importing the goods, Form 38 was used for availaible concession Form C was issued, which are duly verifiable from the books of account maintained by the revisionist. Once no defect has been found in the books of account as evident from the assessment order itself, then merely on technical ground, the input tax credit claimed by the revisionist could not be reversed - The revisionist has made certain grounds with regard to the aforesaid facts. Though the Tribunal has noticed the same but has neither denied nor recorded any adverse observation while passing the impugned order, therefore, matter requires re-consideration by the Tribunal.
The matter is remanded to the Tribunal, who after considering the grounds raised by the revisionist, pass a fresh order, without being influenced with any observation made herein above, within a period of three months from the date of producing a certified copy of this order - Revision disposed off.
Issues: Whether penalty under section 48(5) of the U.P. VAT Act, 2008 could be sustained merely on the basis of seizure and suspicion regarding reuse of an O.C. stamp and manual numbering of invoices, without a specific finding that the transaction was not recorded in the books of account.
Analysis: The penalty was founded on an inference that the tax invoice had been reused and that the entries were not properly recorded. The record did not show any inspection or survey of the business premises after seizure to verify the books of account, nor any material showing that the transaction was in fact omitted from the accounts. For penalty under section 48(5), a definite finding based on cogent material is required that the goods or transaction were not accounted for and that there was an intention to evade tax. Mere presumption or doubt may justify seizure, but not penalty. The Tribunal's finding that the transaction was not recorded in the books was held to be unsupported by material and therefore perverse.
Conclusion: Penalty under section 48(5) could not be sustained on mere suspicion, and the orders of the authorities below were set aside.
Ratio Decidendi: Penalty for alleged non-accounting of goods cannot be imposed under section 48(5) of the U.P. VAT Act, 2008 unless the authority records a clear, evidence-based finding that the transaction was not entered in the books of account and that there was an intention to evade tax.
Penalty order passed u/s 48(5) of the U.P. VAT Act, 2008, by making a wrong observation that the transaction was not found properly accounted for in the account books - re-use of OC stamp - OC Stamp issued by the Department was affixed on the tax invoice, but details written in the OC stamp were not there - HELD THAT:- It is a matter of common knowledge that the books of account of the assessee are always verified at the time of assessment or the provisional assessment. In the case in hand, neither any provisional assessment proceedings were initiated, nor any survey or search was conducted at the business premises of the revisionist. Therefore, the inference drawn only on the basis of seizure of the goods that due entries were not made in the books of account cannot be justified.
This Court in the case of M/s Shree Balaji Concast [2015 (11) TMI 1806 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] has specifically held that for levying penalty, mere suspicion or doubt cannot be justified. For initiation of proceedings, the authority has to come to a definite conclusion that there was an intention to evade payment of tax and therefore, the transaction in question has not been duly recorded in the books of account. In absence thereof, the proceedings initiated against the revisionist cannot be justified.
The Tribunal has recorded a perverse finding of fact without there being any material that the revisionist has not recorded the transaction in its books of account at the relevant time of its movement. Such finding can only be justified if the Department made a survey or search or even a provisional assessment order was passed immediately.
The impugned orders passed in these revisions cannot be sustained in the eyes of law. The same are hereby set aside - revision allowed.
Issues: Whether the dues under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 have priority over the secured creditor's claim under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, and whether the workmen's unpaid wages could override the secured creditor's right to realise the mortgaged assets.
Analysis: The secured creditor had registered the security interest and invoked the priority conferred by Section 26E of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, which gives a secured creditor priority over other debts after registration. The workmen's claims, however, had not been quantified and were in any event rejected by the Industrial Court on delay. The controlling distinction drawn was between a mere statutory priority and a first charge. Section 11(2) of the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 creates a first charge on the assets of the establishment for amounts due from the employer, including contribution and the attendant liability for interest and damages. A first charge prevails over a later enacted priority clause under the security enforcement statute, so the non obstante language in Section 26E cannot displace the statutory first charge created by the provident fund law.
Conclusion: The secured creditor was permitted to proceed with the sale, but the sale proceeds were to be applied first towards satisfaction of provident fund dues under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 and only thereafter towards the bank's secured debt. The workmen were left at liberty to pursue determination of their claims before the appropriate forum.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a welfare statute creates a statutory first charge, that charge prevails over a later non obstante priority clause in a secured creditors' enforcement statute.
Recovery of dues related to Employees e.g. EPF - Overriding claim over the assets of the factory - Sections 26D and 26E of the SARFAESI Act introduced w.e.f. 24.01.2020, has an overriding effect insofar as the recovery of dues of the secured creditor or not - provident fund dues, declared a "first charge" under Section 11(2) of the Employees' Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act (EPF&MP Act), prevail over the priority conferred by Section 26-E of the SARFAESI Act or not - HELD THAT:- When there are two enactments conferring priority in satisfaction of a debt coming under the respective enactments, by virtue of a non-obstante clause overriding the provisions of any law in force at that time, the time in which the statute was enacted or the provision was incorporated, assumes significance and the provision latter in time would prevail. However, if there is a first charge statutorily created, validly, dehors the non obstante clause conferring priority over other debts, the statutory charge would prevail. With these principles in mind, on looking at the provisions under the SARFAESI Act and the EPF&MP Act, the former with the incorporation of Section 26-E, it is opined that there has to be found a first charge to the EPF&MP Act dues, under Section 11(2) of that Act.
Undisputedly, SARFAESI Act is the latter act and if the question was solely of the non-obstante clause giving it overriding effect from any law for the time being in force, the SARFAESI Act would prevail. However, in the EPF&MP Act, Section 11(2) creates a statutory first charge on the assets of the establishment for any amount due from an employer, be it the employers’ or employees’ contribution, which would include any interest or damages also as has been held in Maharashtra State Co-operative Bank Limited3. In that circumstance, the effect of the non obstante clause giving precedence over any other law for the time being in force pales into insignificance, as held in Central Bank of India - There being a clear first charge created under the EPF&MP Act, it overrides the priority under Section 35 and Section 13 as also that conferred under Section 26-E since a priority cannot be equated with a first charge and cannot be given prevalence over the first charge statutorily created.
The appellant-bank would be entitled to proceed with the auction, if not already proceeded with and from the proceeds received in auction, first the dues under the EPF&MP Act will have to be satisfied and then the debts due to the appellant Bank - liberty given to the workmen to approach the appropriate authority under the MRTU & PULP Act by an application to determine the dues, which shall be considered de hors the order rejecting the same on the ground of delay and de hors the delay caused as such. Such determination would be necessitated if there is any amount remaining after satisfaction of the provident fund dues and that of the secured creditor.
The impugned judgement set aside - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1.1 Whether a reference of the matters arising from the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 to a larger Bench was warranted under Article 145(3) of the Constitution.
1.2 Whether Parliament can disregard or legislatively override binding judicial pronouncements on tribunals without curing the constitutional defects identified by the Court.
1.3 Whether the constitutionality of tribunal-related legislation can be tested on the basis of structural constitutional principles such as separation of powers and judicial independence, and whether these are enforceable constitutional limits.
1.4 Whether the core provisions of the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 governing qualifications, appointments, tenure and service conditions of tribunal members (including minimum age bar of 50 years, four-year tenure, panel of two names, and parity of allowances with civil servants) are constitutionally valid.
1.5 What protections and transitional arrangements apply to serving and selected tribunal members, and what interim constitutional regime governs tribunals pending fresh legislation, including the obligation to establish a National Tribunals Commission.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Reference to a larger Bench
Legal framework (as discussed)
2.1 Article 145(3) requires a Bench of at least five Judges where a "substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution" is involved.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.2 The Court noted that the constitutional questions relating to the creation, composition, independence and functioning of tribunals have already been comprehensively settled by Constitution Benches and larger Benches in Sampath Kumar, L. Chandra Kumar, the Madras Bar Association series and Rojer Mathew.
2.3 No new or unresolved substantial constitutional question was shown that would require reconsideration of those precedents or departure from them. The Attorney General was unable to demonstrate any fresh constitutional issue justifying a reference.
2.4 The plea for reference was made at an advanced stage of hearing, after substantial arguments had been heard, and entertaining it then would undermine procedural fairness and delay adjudication.
2.5 Further delay would perpetuate vacancies and uncertainty in tribunals, adversely impacting access to justice.
Conclusions
2.6 No case was made out for reference under Article 145(3); the application for reference to a larger Bench was rejected.
Issue 2 - Parliament's power vis-à-vis binding judicial decisions (constitutional supremacy and legislative overruling)
Legal framework (as discussed)
2.7 The Court reiterated the doctrine of constitutional supremacy as articulated in Special Reference No. 1 of 1964, Kesavananda Bharati, State of Rajasthan v. Union of India and Kalpana Mehta: the Constitution is "Suprema lex" and no organ enjoys absolute power.
2.8 Judicial review and the "law declared" by the Supreme Court under Article 141 are essential facets of the basic structure and of constitutional supremacy.
2.9 The Court relied upon NHPC Ltd. v. State of Himachal Pradesh and Dr. Jaya Thakur to summarise permissible "abrogation" by legislation: the legislature may retrospectively amend the law to remove the basis of a judgment by curing the defect, but cannot merely set aside or negate a judicial decision without removing the defect, nor nullify a mandamus by simple reenactment.
Interpretation and reasoning
2.10 Parliament has wide legislative power, including to change the law prospectively or retrospectively, but must act within constitutional limits and cannot claim the English doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty.
2.11 Once the Court has identified constitutional defects and issued directions (in the nature of mandamus) concerning age, tenure, selection process, HRA, judicial dominance in appointments, etc., those directions constitute "law declared" under Article 141, not mere suggestions.
2.12 Parliament may validly respond only by curing the defects pointed out; a bare reenactment of provisions already struck down, especially with a non obstante reference to "any judgment", constitutes an impermissible legislative override and colourable legislation.
2.13 A writ of mandamus, or binding final decision (including interim directions implemented and acted upon), cannot be nullified by subsequent legislation unless the foundational basis of the judgment is removed in a constitutionally compliant manner.
Conclusions
2.14 Parliament cannot ignore or contradict binding decisions of the Court by reenacting the same provisions in a new form without curing the identified defects; any such attempt violates constitutional supremacy, separation of powers and Article 14 and is liable to be struck down.
2.15 The Attorney General's contention that Parliament enjoys unfettered discretion to deviate from earlier judicial directions in the tribunal context was rejected.
Issue 3 - Use of separation of powers and judicial independence as enforceable constitutional limits
Legal framework (as discussed)
3.1 The Court traced the tribunals jurisprudence from Sampath Kumar, R.K. Jain, L. Chandra Kumar, R. Gandhi (MBA I), MBA II, MBA III, Rojer Mathew, MBA IV and MBA V, which collectively define the constitutional standards for tribunals: judicial independence, separation of powers, equality under Article 14, and the basic feature of judicial review.
3.2 Justice Bhat's concurrence in MBA V was relied upon to affirm that independence of the judiciary and separation of powers are concrete, justiciable constitutional principles, not vague notions.
Interpretation and reasoning
3.3 The Court rejected the Union's argument that legislation cannot be tested against "abstract principles" like separation of powers or judicial independence. These principles are grounded in the text and scheme of the Constitution (Articles 32, 136, 141, 226, 227, provisions on judicial tenure and removal, etc.) and have been repeatedly enforced.
3.4 Tribunals exercise judicial power traditionally exercised by courts; therefore, structural guarantees of judicial independence and equal quality of justice apply equally to them. This includes standards on appointments, tenure, composition, and insulation from executive control.
3.5 Through the tribunal cases, the Court has distilled specific constitutional benchmarks for tribunals: judicial primacy in selection, minimum tenure (5 years with reappointment), no arbitrary age bars excluding meritorious younger advocates, adequate housing/HRA, protection from executive-dominated rule-making, and prohibition of tribunals as post-retirement sinecures or executive-controlled bodies.
3.6 The Court analogised this to other constitutional doctrines: the preconditions in M. Nagaraj for reservation in promotion, and the privacy framework in K.S. Puttaswamy-none expressly textual, yet binding constitutional standards against which legislation is tested.
Conclusions
3.7 Separation of powers and judicial independence are operative constitutional limits; legislation concerning tribunals can and must be scrutinised against these structural principles and Article 14.
3.8 The settled tribunal jurisprudence creates binding constitutional benchmarks, and any tribunal legislation must conform to those standards.
Issue 4 - Constitutional validity of the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 (core provisions on appointments, tenure and service conditions)
Legal framework (as discussed)
4.1 The Court compared the Tribunal Reforms Ordinance, 2021 (amending Section 184 of the Finance Act, 2017) with the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021.
4.2 The earlier Ordinance provisions on (i) minimum age of 50 years, (ii) four-year tenure with age caps of 70/67, (iii) requirement of a panel of two names, (iv) parity of allowances/benefits with equivalent civil servants, had already been adjudicated and struck down in MBA V as unconstitutional.
Interpretation and reasoning
4.3 On a clause-by-clause comparison, the Court found that Sections 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 are, in substance and often verbatim, a reenactment of the impugned Ordinance provisions earlier challenged and invalidated in MBA V, including:
* Section 3(1): minimum age requirement of 50 years for all appointments to tribunals.
* Section 3(2)-(8): composition and procedure of Search-cum-Selection Committees, including requirement that they recommend a panel of two names per vacancy and the Government "preferably" decide within three months.
* Section 4: grounds and procedure for removal, mirroring the earlier framework.
* Section 5: fixed four-year tenure for Chairperson and Members with upper age caps (70/67), with a limited saving proviso subject to a maximum of five years.
* Section 6: eligibility for reappointment "in accordance with the provisions of this Act", without curing the defects identified in MBA IV/V.
* Section 7: salaries, allowances and benefits pegged to those of equivalent level Central Government officers, with only limited scope for enhanced rent reimbursement-repeating the very scheme earlier found inconsistent with directions on HRA and housing.
4.4 The Court noted that the same policy of truncating tenure, imposing an exclusionary age bar, mandating panels of two names, and equating service conditions with civil servants had been expressly held in MBA IV and MBA V to undermine judicial independence, discourage meritorious younger advocates, and amount to an impermissible legislative override.
4.5 Merely re-locating these provisions from the Finance Act into a stand-alone Tribunal Reforms Act and appending non obstante clauses referring to "any judgment" does not cure the constitutional defects; it reinforces the intention to defy binding judicial directions.
4.6 The Court observed that the Union's submissions in defence of the Act simply repeated contentions already examined and rejected in MBA V, including characterising prior directions as non-binding "suggestions" and invoking "policy" deference.
4.7 As to the numerous amendments by which tribunal provisions in sectoral statutes were superseded by the new Act, the Court held that, to the extent they route appointments and conditions of service through the unconstitutional scheme of Chapter II of the Tribunal Reforms Act, they suffer from the same infirmity.
Conclusions
4.8 The Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021, insofar as it:
* prescribes a minimum age of 50 years for appointment as Chairperson or Member of tribunals;
* fixes a tenure of four years with age caps of 70/67;
* requires the Search-cum-Selection Committee to recommend a panel of two names per post, leaving effective discretion with the executive;
* equates allowances and benefits with those of equivalent civil servants, contrary to prior directions on HRA and housing; and
* reenacts, in substance, provisions earlier struck down in MBA IV and MBA V without curing the defects;
is unconstitutional as violative of separation of powers, judicial independence, Article 14 and the doctrine of constitutional supremacy.
4.9 These impugned provisions are struck down; the Act is held to be an impermissible legislative override and a repetition of already invalidated measures, "old wine in a new bottle".
Issue 5 - Protection of existing appointees, interim regime, and National Tribunals Commission
Legal framework (as discussed)
5.1 The Court referred to prior interim and final directions in Kudrat Sandhu and MBA IV and MBA V protecting tenure and conditions of service of existing tribunal members, and recognising legitimate expectations arising from appointments made under earlier frameworks.
5.2 It also recalled the repeated direction to establish an independent National Tribunals Commission to oversee appointments, administration and disciplinary matters of tribunals.
Interpretation and reasoning
5.3 The Court held that stability of tenure and protection of vested rights of existing members are integral to judicial independence; promises and assurances given previously by the Attorney General and orders protecting tenure cannot be undermined by subsequent inconsistent executive action.
5.4 The Court found that appointments to the ITAT, whose recommendations were made by the SCSC in September 2019 and approved in October 2019, ought to have been made under the old regime pursuant to Rojer Mathew and the Attorney General's statement of 9 February 2018; issuing appointment orders in September and October 2021 subjecting them to the new truncated regime was inconsistent with those binding assurances.
5.5 The Court noted that similar anomalies may exist in other tribunals, and that such appointments must not be penalised by unilateral curtailment of tenure.
5.6 Given the repeated legislative-executive failure to enact a constitutionally compliant, stable tribunal framework, the Court considered it necessary to continue the application of MBA IV and MBA V as the controlling constitutional regime until Parliament enacts valid legislation.
5.7 The Court reaffirmed the necessity of a National Tribunals Commission as an institutional solution, beyond piecemeal directions, to safeguard tribunal independence and efficiency, and fixed a concrete time-frame for its establishment.
Conclusions
5.8 The principles and directions laid down in MBA IV and MBA V shall continue to govern all aspects of tribunal appointments, qualifications, tenure, service conditions and allied matters until Parliament enacts fresh, constitutionally compliant legislation addressing the concerns repeatedly highlighted by the Court.
5.9 The Union of India is directed to establish a National Tribunals Commission within four months, conforming to the principles articulated in earlier judgments, ensuring independence from executive control, professional expertise, transparent processes and effective oversight.
5.10 The service conditions of all ITAT Members appointed by orders dated 11 September 2021 and 1 October 2021 shall be governed by the "old Act and old Rules", i.e., by the parent statute and pre-Finance Act framework as preserved by Kudrat Sandhu and subsequent directions.
5.11 All appointments of tribunal Members and Chairpersons whose selection or recommendation by the Search-cum-Selection Committee was completed before the commencement of the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021, but whose formal appointment notifications were issued thereafter, are protected; their tenure and service conditions will be governed by the parent statutes and the regime laid down in MBA IV and MBA V, and not by the truncated provisions of the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021.
5.12 The writ petitions were disposed of in these terms; pending applications stood disposed of. A concurring opinion reiterated that the Act is merely a replica of the already struck down Ordinance.
Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021 - Several provisions of the Act, particularly Sections 3(1), 3(7), 5, and 7(1), violate the constitutional principles of separation of powers and judicial independence - violation of constitutional guarantees of judicial independence, the doctrine of separation of powers and Article 14 - impermissible legislative overruling of judicial directions, particularly by enabling the executive, through delegated rule-making powers, to undo safeguards prescribed by the Court - violation of legitimate expectations and vested rights of sitting members regarding tenure, reappointment, allowances, and house rent allowances - vires of Act imposing arbitrary age and tenure restrictions that discourage meritorious candidates below fifty years from joining tribunals.
Doctrine of parliamentary supremacy - Whether Parliament possesses the authority to disregard a judicial pronouncement and to enact a statute in any manner it deems appropriate? - HELD THAT:- Under the model of constitutional supremacy, every organ of the State derives its authority from the Constitution and remains bound by the limitations it prescribes. Parliament, though entrusted with wide legislative powers, must enact laws within the contours of its legislative competence and in conformity with constitutional rights, values, and structural principles. The power to assess whether a law comports with these limitations is expressly vested in the courts. When the Court interprets the Constitution and pronounces upon the validity of a statute, that pronouncement becomes the authoritative and binding declaration of the law. As has long been recognised, the Constitution is what the Court says it is, not in the sense of aggrandising judicial authority, but as a necessary corollary of the Court’s role as the final arbiter of constitutional meaning.
Consequently, once the Court has struck down a provision or issued binding directions after identifying a constitutional defect, Parliament cannot simply override or contradict that judicial decision by reenacting the very same measure in a different form. What Parliament may legitimately do is to cure the defect identified by the Court, whether by altering the underlying conditions, removing the constitutional infirmity, or restructuring the statutory framework in a manner consistent with the Court’s reasoning. A valid legislative response must therefore engage with and remedy the constitutional violation pointed out by the judiciary. It cannot merely restate or repackage the invalidated provision.
In a judgment of this Court in the case of Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India and Others [2023 (7) TMI 471 - SUPREME COURT] (to which one of us Gavai, J. as he then was a party) this Court held that a writ of mandamus could not be nullified by a subsequent legislation made by the legislator. That a binding judicial pronouncement between the parties cannot be made ineffective with the aid of any legislative power by enacting a provision which in substance simply overrules a judgment unless the foundation of the judgment is removed - there are no merit in the argument of the learned Attorney General that Parliament has discretion to ignore the decisions of this Court.
Whether the Court can compel Parliament to legislate in a particular manner? - HELD THAT:- The principle is undoubtedly correct. This Court has repeatedly acknowledged the institutional limits of judicial power and has cautioned against intruding into the prerogative of the legislature by dictating the precise contents of a statute. The constitutional scheme does not permit the judiciary to prescribe the text of a law or to mandate that Parliament adopt a specific policy choice.
A clear distinction must be maintained between directing legislation and reviewing legislation. The former is forbidden, because the Court cannot function as a law-maker. The latter is indispensable to preserving the supremacy of the Constitution. Where the Court identifies constitutional infirmities and issues mandatory directions to ensure compliance with constitutional principles, such as those concerning the independence, composition, or tenure of adjudicatory bodies, those directions are binding. Parliament may respond by removing the basis of the judgment through curative legislation, but it cannot simply enact a statute that reproduces or perpetuates the very defects the Court has critiqued. Thus, while the judiciary cannot dictate policy, it can and must ensure that legislative choices conform to the Constitution. Judicial restraint in law-making does not imply judicial abdication in constitutional adjudication.
When the Court examines the validity of a statutory provision governing tribunals, it does not issue legislative directions in the strict sense. Instead, it tests the law against these constitutionally entrenched standards. In doing so, the Court reinforces the idea that the tribunal system derives its constitutional legitimacy from adherence to the same principles that safeguard judicial independence and the rule of law - The validity of legislation may, and must, be tested against structural principles such as separation of powers and judicial independence when the legislation in question directly implicates the constitutional design of the justice system. Judicial enforcement of these principles is an essential feature of constitutional adjudication, not an overreach.
Whether the Impugned Act merely repackages what was struck down in MBA (V), without curing its defects? - HELD THAT:- What the 2021 Ordinance did through amendments to Section 184 of the Finance Act, 2017, the Impugned Act now does through Sections 3, 5, and 7. The minimum age bar of fifty years for all appointments, the truncated four-year tenure with upper age caps of 70/67, the requirement that the Search-cum-Selection Committee forward a panel of two names for each vacancy, and the fixing of allowances and benefits to those of equivalent civil servants are all provisions, which have already been judicially tested and struck down. The Court has expressly held that these measures are arbitrary, destructive of judicial independence, and amount to an impermissible legislative override of binding directions - Merely shifting the same content from the amended Section 184 of the Finance Act into Sections 3, 5 and 7 of a stand-alone statute, while using the non obstante formula “notwithstanding anything contained in any judgment or order”, does not cure the constitutional defects. It simply re- enacts them in another avatar. The Impugned Act, therefore, does not “cure” the law declared earlier, but consciously defies it.
The provisions of the Impugned Act cannot be sustained. They violate the constitutional principles of separation of powers and judicial independence, which are firmly embedded in the text, structure, and spirit of the Constitution. The Impugned Act directly contradicts binding judicial pronouncements that have repeatedly clarified the standards governing the appointment, tenure, and functioning of tribunal members. Instead of curing the defects identified by this Court, the Impugned Act merely reproduces, in slightly altered form, the very provisions earlier struck down. This amounts to a legislative override in the strictest sense: an attempt to nullify binding judicial directions without addressing the underlying constitutional infirmities. Such an approach is impermissible under our constitutional scheme. Because the Impugned Act fails to remove the defects identified in prior judgments and instead reenacts them under a new label, it falls afoul of the doctrine of constitutional supremacy. Accordingly, the impugned provisions are struck down as unconstitutional.
Protection extended - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that in respect of some of the Members of the ITAT, the recommendations were made by the SCSC on 21st September 2019. The same was put up before the Appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on 16th October 2019. In the meantime, the judgment in the case of Rojer Mathew [2019 (11) TMI 716 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] was delivered by this Court on 13th November 2019. As such, appointments of all persons whose recommendations were made on 21st September 2019 and whose names were approved by the ACC ought to have been made immediately after the judgment in the case of Rojer Mathew was delivered. This would have been consistent with the statement made by the then learned Attorney General on 9th February 2018. However, for the reasons best known to the Union of India, the appointment orders were issued only on 11th September 2021 and 1st October 2021. According to the appointment order, the said appointments, including their tenure, are in terms of the new provisions. We are, therefore, of the considered view that the said appointments by the Central Government are totally inconsistent with the statement made by the learned Attorney General on 9th February 2018.
The impugned Act (to the extent it reenacts provisions earlier struck down without curing defects) is unconstitutional for violating separation of powers, judicial independence and Article 14; such provisions are struck down.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether interest at 24% per annum stipulated in the loan agreements and awarded in arbitration was contrary to public policy or fundamental policy of Indian law; (ii) Whether the challenge based on the Usurious Loans Act, 1918 could succeed against the arbitral award.
Issue (i): Whether interest at 24% per annum stipulated in the loan agreements and awarded in arbitration was contrary to public policy or fundamental policy of Indian law.
Analysis: The dispute arose from a commercial lending transaction in which the borrowers had defaulted on loans taken to clear an earlier bank liability. The Court held that a challenge to the interest rate could not succeed merely because the rate was high. Under Section 31(7)(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the tribunal has discretion to award pre-award interest at a reasonable rate, while Section 31(7)(b) contemplates post-award interest and provides a statutory default rate unless the award directs otherwise. The Court reiterated that interference under Section 34 is limited and that re-appreciation of evidence is barred. It further held that an exorbitant rate in a commercial context does not, by itself, amount to a violation of public policy or fundamental policy of Indian law unless it is so unreasonable as to shock the conscience of the Court.
Conclusion: The challenge to the 24% interest rate on public policy grounds failed and was against the appellants.
Issue (ii): Whether the challenge based on the Usurious Loans Act, 1918 could succeed against the arbitral award.
Analysis: The Court rejected the plea that the transaction fell foul of the Usurious Loans Act, 1918. It held that the older usury-based framework could not override the later arbitral regime governing award of interest, and that the transaction was a commercial lending arrangement involving a high-risk borrower. The Court found no basis to treat the award of interest as legally excessive in a manner warranting interference.
Conclusion: The plea under the Usurious Loans Act, 1918 failed and was against the appellants.
Final Conclusion: The arbitral award and its affirmation by the High Court were left undisturbed, and no ground for judicial interference was made out.
Ratio Decidendi: In a commercial arbitration, a high contractual or awarded rate of interest does not violate public policy merely because it is steep; interference is warranted only where the award transgresses the limited grounds under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, or is so unreasonable as to shock the conscience of the Court, and re-appreciation of evidence is impermissible.
Entitlement for post-award interest - Correctness in dismissal of Section 37 appeal filed by the appellants, affirming the order passed by the High Court in Section 34 proceedings - HELD THAT:- The law with regard to the power of an Arbitrator to award interest for pre-reference period, pendent lite period and post-award period is well settled. Section 31(7)(a) provides that the arbitrator has the power to award interest at such rate as it deems reasonable, on the whole or on any part of the money, for the whole or any part of the period between the date on which the cause of action arose and the date on which the award is made. The grant of such interest during the pre-award period is subject to the agreement as regard the rate of interest or unpaid sum between the parties.
Clause (b) of Section 31(7) of the Act, 1996 confers discretion upon the Arbitral Tribunal to award interest for the post-award period but that discretion is not subject to any contract. If such discretion is not exercised by the Arbitral Tribunal, then the statute steps in and mandates the payment of interest at the rate specified for the post-award period. While clause (a) gives parties an option to contract out of interest, no such option is available in regard to the post-award period.
In R.P. Garg v. The General Manager, Telecom Department & Ors. [2024 (9) TMI 1742 - SUPREME COURT], this Court had the occasion to deal with the question as to whether the appellant was entitled to post-award interest on the sum awarded by the Arbitrator. In that case, the Arbitrator had denied payment of interest under a misplaced impression that the contract between the parties prohibited it. The executing court affirmed the finding of the arbitrator and rejected the prayer. However, allowing the appeal, the District Judge held that the appellant will be entitled to post-award interest. The High Court allowed the revision against the said order and set aside the District Court’s order while holding that the contract between the parties did not permit the grant of post-award interest.
The interpretation of clause (b) of Section 31(7) of the Act, 1996 is no more res integra. The grant of post-award interest under Section 31(7)(b) is mandatory. The only discretion which the arbitral tribunal has is to decide the rate of interest to be awarded. Where the arbitrator does not fix any rate of interest, then the statutory rate, as provided in Section 31(7)(b), shall apply. In the present case the two agreements itself provided the rate of interest to be 24% p.a.
It is now well established that unless there is an express bar contained in the agreement, the arbitrator possesses the discretion and has jurisdiction to award interest including the post-award interest.
Whether interest at the rate of 24% as provided in the agreements between the parties could be said to be against public policy? - HELD THAT:- On a plain and grammatical construction of clauses (ii) and (iii) of Explanation 1 to Section 34(2)(b) of the Act, 1996 it cannot be said that the imposition of an exorbitant interest in the background of contemporary commercial practices, would be against the fundamental policy of Indian Law, or against the basic notions of morality or justice. It is well-settled that fundamental policy of Indian law does not refer to violation of any Statue but fundamental principles on which Indian law is founded. Any difference or controversy as to rate of interest clearly falls outside the scope of challenge on the ground of conflict with the public policy of India unless it is evident that the rate of interest awarded is so perverse and so unreasonable so as to shock the conscience of the Court sans which no interference is warranted in the award, whereby interest is awarded by the Arbitrator.
Usurious Loans Act, 1918 - HELD THAT:- There are no hesitation in saying that there is no merit worth the name in the plea advanced by the learned counsel appearing for the appellants that the transaction in question falls foul of the Usurious Loans Act, 1918. The Usurious Loans Act, 1918 was followed by the Punjab Relief of Indebtedness, 1934. The said 1934 Act is applicable to the Union Territory of Delhi. Section 2(3) of the 1934 Act defines “loan” to mean “loan whether of money or kind” - The Usurious Loans Act, 1918 as followed by the 1934 Act were promulgated in a different era and the power of the Court to adjudicate if the interest on a loan amount is excessive has to give way in view of the plenary powers of the Courts provided under the later enactment, i.e., the Act, 1996.
It is not required to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court - appeal dismissed.
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