Just a moment...
By creating an account you can:
No Folders have been created
Are you sure you want to delete "My most important" ?
NOTE:
Note
Bookmark
Share
Don't have an account? Register Here
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether cancellation of GST registration for failure to file returns and remit dues can be set aside where the registrant subsequently pays outstanding tax, interest and late fees.
2. Whether the doctrine of proportionality applies to the permanent cancellation of GST registration in circumstances where restoration would serve the interests of revenue and the registrant.
3. Whether the Court may condition restoration of cancelled GST registration on payment of outstanding amounts, any additional penalties communicated by the revenue within a specified period, and ancillary payments offered by the registrant (including voluntary payments to public institutions).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Setting aside cancellation of GST registration after subsequent payment of tax, interest and late fees
Legal framework: Statutory scheme permits cancellation of GST registration for failure to file returns or pay tax. Administrative authorities exercise power to cancel; judicial review is available to assess legality, reasonableness and proportionality of cancellation.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on prior High Court decisions where registrations were restored after dues (tax, interest, late fees, penalties) were cleared; those precedents involved either concessions by revenue counsel or judicial acceptance that restitution of registration benefits both parties.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the factual premise that cancellation for non-filing/non-payment was legally justifiable. However, where the registrant has paid the principal tax along with interest and late fees, the continued permanent cancellation was found prima facie disproportionate. The Court emphasized that the revenue was not prejudiced by restoration where dues are satisfied and that restoration enables lawful commerce and future tax compliance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where outstanding tax, interest and late fees have been paid and there is no material dispute about such payments, the Court may quash a cancellation order and restore registration; this is subject to the revenue's right to claim any additional penalties or dues within a specified timeframe. Obiter - Observations on the administrative prudence of revenue concessions in other cases.
Conclusion: The cancellation was quashed conditionally because the registrant had paid tax, interest and late fees and the respondents did not dispute those payments; restoration was directed subject to compliance with the Court's further conditions (see Issue 3).
Issue 2: Application of the doctrine of proportionality to permanent cancellation of registration
Legal framework: Principle of proportionality governs administrative action - measures must be appropriate, necessary and proportionate to legitimate aims; excessive measures contrary to proportionality can be set aside on judicial review.
Precedent Treatment: The Court referred to coordinate bench decisions that treated permanent cancellation for non-filing/non-payment as potentially disproportionate when substantial compliance or repayment had occurred subsequently.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied proportionality to balance the revenue's interest in enforcement against the registrant's ability to carry on business and the public interest in future tax collection. It found that permanent cancellation, despite payment of dues post-cancellation, would disable lawful business activity and possibly reduce future revenue, thereby being disproportionate in the present facts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Proportionality can justify restoration of registration where the registrant has remedied default and restoration advances both revenue collection and legitimate business activity. Obiter - Comparative observations on policy considerations favoring restoration in similar fact patterns.
Conclusion: Proportionality weighed in favor of conditional restoration; therefore permanent cancellation was not an appropriate outcome given the payments made and absence of disputed factual impediments.
Issue 3: Conditions for restoration - further amounts, timelines, and ancillary voluntary payments
Legal framework: Judicial power to grant equitable relief subject to conditions; administrative authorities retain power to assess and claim lawful dues, penalties and to object where appropriate. Courts may impose deadlines and direct payment of specified sums as a condition of relief.
Precedent Treatment: Prior decisions restored registration subject to clearing all dues, interest and penalties; in some cases counsel for revenue expressly consented to such conditions. The Court also noted decisions from other jurisdictions where delay was condoned upon payment of dues.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court framed a procedural mechanism: respondents to inform registrant of any additional amounts (penalty, etc.) within 15 days; registrant to pay those additional amounts within 15 days of intimation. If no intimation is made within 15 days, or if the registrant complies with payment on intimation, the cancellation shall be quashed and set aside. Failure to pay within the stipulated period would result in dismissal with a specified cost payable to a public hospital. The Court accepted a voluntary payment (corporate social responsibility donation) offered by the registrant and made its timely payment a condition of relief, while clarifying interaction with the costs order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Restoration may be granted subject to (a) disclosure by revenue of any additional lawful dues within a fixed period and (b) payment of such dues by the registrant within a fixed period; further, the Court may require an ancillary voluntary payment as a condition of relief. Obiter - Remarks about absence of revenue counsel's written instruction in the present matter and comparison with cases where revenue counsel expressly consented.
Conclusion: Restoration ordered on specific conditions: respondents to notify any further amounts due within 15 days; registrant to pay demanded amounts within 15 days of such intimation; if complied with (or if no intimation), cancellation stands quashed; failure to pay leads to dismissal and a costs order. Registrant's voluntary payment to a public hospital was accepted and directed to be paid within 15 days, with payment offsetting the costs requirement if made.
Cross-references and Practical Implications
1. Issues 1 and 2 are interlinked: payment of dues (Issue 1) directly informs the proportionality analysis (Issue 2); restoration was ordered because both factors supported relief.
2. Issue 3 operationalizes the relief: it preserves the revenue's remedial rights by permitting additional claims within a short window while ensuring the registrant's ability to resume business if compliant.
3. The Court treated prior decisions as persuasive precedent where facts were substantially similar, even if the revenue in those cases had expressly consented; lack of revenue concession in the present matter did not preclude similar relief when material facts were analogous and undisputed.
Seeking the restoration of the Petitioner’s cancelled GST registration - delay in filling returns for bona fide reasons - HELD THAT:- In the decisions relied upon by the Petitioner, the common thread was that the restoration of the registration would benefit the Petitioner as well as the Revenue. The Petitioner would be able to undertake its business and pay GST in terms of the law. A permanent cancellation and that too for failure to file returns or pay dues, may not be in the interest of either the Petitioner or the Respondents. In this case, as noted earlier, the Petitioner has prima facie made amends by paying the entire dues, interest and late fees.
Besides, in the decisions relied upon by the Petitioner, the facts were quite like those that are present in this case. True, in those matters, the Counsel appearing on behalf of the Revenue made a statement that the Revenue would have no objection to the restoration of cancellation, provided all dues are cleared. Merely because such a statement is not being made in the present matter, we do not think that we should deny the Petitioner any relief on the lines granted to the Petitioner in the decisions referred to by the Petitioner. There is no serious dispute that the material facts in the present case are not significantly different from the facts in the decision relied upon by the learned Counsel for the Petitioner.
Within 15 days from the date of the uploading of this order, the Respondents must inform in writing the Petitioner if the Petitioner is liable to pay any further amounts towards penalty, dues, etc. Within 15 days of the receipt of such intimation, the Petitioner must pay the demanded amount - Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment/order under Section 73 of the GST Act passed ex parte can be sustained where the taxpayer avers non-service of statutory notices/intimations on the GST portal and no personal hearing was afforded.
2. Whether administrative instructions and subsequent departmental communications (after the order) can cure defects in the original assessment order where those facts/communications do not appear on the face of the order.
3. What remedial relief is appropriate where the record indicates "no records found" for notices/intimations on the GST portal but departmental instructions assert issuance and consideration of responses?
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of ex parte assessment under Section 73 of the GST Act where statutory notices/intimations were not served on the taxpayer
Legal framework: Section 73 of the GST Act deals with determination of tax not paid or short paid or erroneously refunded or input tax credit wrongly availed or utilized. Principles of natural justice and statutory requirement of service of show-cause notices, and opportunity of personal hearing, are integral to adjudicatory proceedings under the GST scheme and relevant rules/instructions governing electronic service on the GST portal.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on settled administrative-law principles that ex parte orders are unsustainable where procedural fairness (service and opportunity to be heard) is not afforded; no specific case law was cited in the judgment, the Tribunal/Court applied trite principles of natural justice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record (Annexure-4 screenshot) showed "no records found" in the intimations/notices tab on the GST portal. The assessment order on its face refers to an earlier ASMT-10 dated 20/07/2021 and notes non-reply, but does not record the later ASMT-10 (30/03/2022) and ASMT-11 (01/06/2022) relied on in departmental instructions. The Court emphasized that absence of portal upload/communication and absence of personal hearing on the record point to denial of opportunity. The Court further held that additional departmental instructions placed before it, which post-date or explain the impugned order, cannot supplement or validate an order defective on its face.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An assessment passed ex parte under Section 73 where the statutory notices/intimations were not shown to have been served (portal shows "no records found") and no opportunity to be heard is recorded, is liable to be set aside; administrative or internal instructions cannot cure the defect in the original order. Obiter - Observations on the taxpayer's obligation to cooperate and not seek unnecessary adjournments are incidental to the remedial direction.
Conclusion: The ex parte assessment order was set aside for failure to demonstrate service of notices and denial of opportunity to be heard; the matter was remitted for fresh adjudication after proper service and an opportunity to reply/hear the taxpayer.
Issue 2: Whether subsequent departmental instructions/affidavits can cure omissions in the assessment order
Legal framework: Administrative law principle that an order must speak for itself and cannot be cured by post-hoc explanations or internal notes; requirements of reasoned orders and public record for service and hearing in quasi-judicial proceedings.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied the established rule that additional reasons or after-the-fact instructions cannot validate an otherwise defective order; no contrary precedent was accepted or followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The instruction placed on record by the Department asserted issuance of ASMT-10 (30/03/2022) and consideration of the taxpayer's reply (ASMT-11 dated 01/06/2022) as unsatisfactory, leading to DRC-01 and DRC-07 orders. The assessment order itself, however, did not record these particulars and instead spoke only of an earlier ASMT-10 dated 20/07/2021. The Court held that such post-hoc narrative in instructions does not cure the absence of those facts from the impugned assessment order; "no additional reason can sanctify the original order, which is defective."
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Post-order departmental instructions or internal communications cannot be read into or used to validate an assessment order that is defective on its face for lack of service and opportunity. Obiter - The Court's acceptance that inadvertent clerical errors may have occurred in reference numbers is incidental and does not affect the core finding.
Conclusion: The departmental instructions did not rectify the defect in the impugned order; the order was set aside and remitted for fresh adjudication after proper service and hearing.
Issue 3: Appropriate remedial directions where notices appear not to have been uploaded/served on portal
Legal framework: Equitable and procedural remedies in writ jurisdiction permit quashing of orders and remittance for fresh adjudication where fundamental procedural lapses (non-service/denial of hearing) are established; directions must be specific and time-bound to ensure expeditious disposal consistent with mandate of natural justice.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed the standard remedial approach of quashing and remitting for fresh consideration with directions to serve documents and provide opportunity; no novel remedy or departure from practice was adopted.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the petitioner's affidavit and the portal screenshot showing "no records found," and the absence of aspects of later notices in the assessment order, the Court considered it appropriate to set aside the order and direct the authority to supply the documents claimed not to have been served within seven days. Thereafter the taxpayer is to file reply within two weeks and the authority is to complete adjudication within three months, taking the reply into account. The Court imposed an obligation on the taxpayer to cooperate and avoid unnecessary adjournments.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where non-service on the portal and failure to afford personal hearing are established, quashal and remittance with specific timelines for service, reply, and adjudication is the appropriate remedy. Obiter - The admonition to cooperate and not seek unnecessary adjournments is supplemental guidance rather than part of the core legal holding.
Conclusion: The assessment was quashed and remitted with explicit directions: (a) serve the documents within seven days; (b) allow taxpayer two weeks to reply; (c) conclude adjudication within three months considering the reply; and (d) taxpayer to cooperate.
Cross-references and Observations
1. The Court treated Issues 1 and 2 as interlinked: absence of service on the portal (Issue 1) made the assessment order defective on its face and impervious to attempted cure by departmental instructions (Issue 2).
2. The Court applied general principles of natural justice and the rule that an order must disclose reasons and material facts relied upon; administrative notes/instructions cannot be used to add reasons after the fact.
3. Relief granted was prospective and procedural - setting aside the impugned order and mandating re-adjudication with time-bound steps - rather than a determination on the merits of the tax liability.
Principles of natural justice - non-service of notice in Form GST DRC-01 - notices/intimation(s) were not uploaded on the GST Portal much less communicated by electronic mail to the petitioner - opportunity of personal hearing not provided to petitioner - HELD THAT:- On perusal of Annexure-4, it seems intimations/notices have not been delivered at the end of petitioner as the screenshot apparently shows “no records found”.
On bare reading of assessment order dated 21st February, 2025 it is revealed that “the instant taxpayer has been intimated regarding the excess claim of input tax credit in GST ASMT-10 u/s. 61 of OGST Act vide Reference No.ZA210721000954U dated 20/07/2021, wherein the tax payer was directed to reply in GST ASMT-11 by 02/08/2021 - Though there is no reference in the said assessment order with regard to GST ASMT-10, dated 30th March, 2022 and GST ASMT-11, dated 1st June, 2022, such fact is reflected in the instructions dated 12th September, 2025 submitted by the learned Standing Counsel today during the course of hearing.
This Court is not satisfied that proper opportunity was not afforded to the petitioner, but an ex parte order was passed under Section 73 of the GST Act, which cannot be held to be sustained in the eye of law - Since it is the case of the petitioner that it has not received in Form GST ASMT-10, which prevented him to file proper reply, the assessment order dated 21st February, 2025 passed under Section 73 of the GST Act by opposite party no.2 is set aside and this Court does so.
The writ petition is disposed off with direction to the authority concerned to serve proper documents, which are claimed to have not been served on the petitioner for filing its reply/explanation appropriately within a period of seven days from today.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the petitioner is entitled to re-credit of accumulated Input Tax Credit (ITC) amounting to Rs. 23,32,278/- that was adjusted against an earlier sanctioned refund.
2. Whether a technical limitation or lack of functionality on the GST electronic portal (preventing issuance of PMT-03 for re-credit) can justify withholding the petitioner's entitlement to re-credit of ITC.
3. Whether the revenue department may be directed to effect re-credit to the Electronic Credit Ledger by manual intervention where portal functionality is deficient.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Entitlement to re-credit of ITC (legal framework)
Legal framework: Entitlement to re-credit of ITC arises where an amount sanctioned as refund is subsequently adjusted against an erroneous refund/demand but the underlying right to ITC remains and may require re-credit to the Electronic Credit Ledger (mechanism ordinarily by issuance of PMT-03 on the GST portal).
Precedent Treatment: No prior decisions or authorities were cited or applied in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal (The Court) accepted the undisputed factual position that the department does not dispute petitioner's substantive entitlement to re-credit of Rs. 23,32,278/-. The department's stand is that the amount was adjusted by way of RFD-06 against erroneous refunds, but that does not negate the petitioner's entitlement to re-credit; it only reflects the manner in which the amount was adjusted earlier. Thus, entitlement is recognized on the admitted facts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Court's recognition that, on the admitted facts, the petitioner is entitled to re-credit is a core holding necessary to the disposition.
Conclusion: The petitioner is entitled to re-credit of ITC in the amount claimed (Rs. 23,32,278/-), subject to the operational mechanism for effecting such re-credit (see Issue 2 and 3).
Issue 2 - Effect of technical limitation of GST portal on substantive entitlement
Legal framework: Administrative and remedial mechanisms for tax credits are implemented through the electronic GST portal; however, substantive rights to credit are not to be defeated by mere non-availability of electronic functionality.
Precedent Treatment: No authorities were cited; the Court addressed the matter as a question of administrative law and practical relief rather than as a doctrinal dispute grounded in precedent.
Interpretation and reasoning: The department candidly stated that re-crediting is pending "only due to limitation of the GST Portal" and that no functionality exists to permit PMT-03 issuance in the relevant circumstance. The Court reasoned that a technical inability on the portal is not a lawful ground to withhold a taxpayer's admitted entitlement. The unavailability of a portal option is a procedural/technical difficulty and does not extinguish the right to re-credit. Therefore, operational limitations cannot be permitted to defeat substantive statutory or administrative entitlements.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The proposition that technical limitations of the portal cannot justify denial or prolonged withholding of an admitted entitlements is essential to the Court's directive.
Conclusion: Technical non-feasibility on the GST portal does not bar the department from re-crediting the ITC; the petitioner's claim cannot be held back solely on that ground.
Issue 3 - Power to direct manual intervention and appropriate remedy
Legal framework: Administrative authorities are obliged to give effect to tax liabilities/credits; where electronic mechanisms fail, authorities may resort to manual or alternative modes of compliance to vindicate rights. Courts can issue directions to ensure effective relief consistent with admitted entitlement.
Precedent Treatment: No precedent was discussed; the Court exercised inherent remedial powers to secure the admitted entitlement.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given (a) the department's admission of substantive entitlement, (b) repeated unsuccessful attempts to obtain PMT-03 on the portal, and (c) the administrative impossibility of re-credit via the portal, the Court concluded that the appropriate remedy is to direct re-credit to the Electronic Credit Ledger within a specified time-frame. Recognizing practical administrative difficulties, the Court expressly permitted manual intervention by the department to effect the re-credit if portal functionality cannot be made available in a timely manner. The Court balanced the need to uphold the petitioner's right against practical constraints by imposing a four-week period for compliance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Directing manual intervention (or equivalent administrative action) to effect re-credit where the portal is non-functional is a decisive remedial holding. Obiter - The Court's observations about repeated correspondence and the department's earlier steps are factual context supporting the remedy rather than independent legal propositions.
Conclusion: The department is directed to credit Rs. 23,32,278/- to the petitioner's Electronic Credit Ledger within four weeks; manual intervention to effect the credit is permissible and ordered if required. The direction is mandatory and constitutes the operative relief disposing of the petition.
Inter-issue cross-reference
The entitlement (Issue 1) and the inadmissibility of portal-technical impediments as a defense (Issue 2) together justify the remedial direction for manual or administrative action (Issue 3). The Court's disposition ties these points into a single remedial outcome: admitted substantive right cannot be defeated by procedural/technical incapacity, and effective administrative steps must be taken within a stated timeline.
Seeking directions to the Respondent Department for issuance of PMT-03 and re-crediting of Input Tax Credit (ITC) - ITC refund pending only due to the technical limitation on the GST portal - HELD THAT:- The Department does not dispute that the Petitioner is entitled for re-crediting of the refund claim amounting to Rs. 23,32,278/-. Repeated attempts have been made to reflect the same on the portal by issuance of PMT-03 which is made impossible due to a technical issue. In view thereof, the refund of the amount cannot be held back qua the Petitioner.
Under these circumstances, in the unusual facts of this case, let the amount of Rs. 23,32,278/- be credited to the Electronic Credit Ledger of the Petitioner within a period of 4 weeks, if required through manual intervention.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Section 16(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, insofar as it imposes a time limit for availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC), is ultra vires or violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(g) and 300A of the Constitution.
2. Whether the amendment to Rule 61(5) of the Central Goods and Services Rules, 2017 (by Notification No. 49/2019) declaring GSTR-3B as a valid return with retrospective effect, is ultra vires or violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(g) and 300A by interfering with vested rights to avail ITC.
3. Whether the impugned Order-in-Original and consequential Summary of Order disallowing ITC for specified periods and imposing demand, interest and penalty should be quashed in view of the statutory scheme.
4. Whether the insertion of subsection (5) in Section 16 of the CGST Act (by Section 118 of the Finance Act, 2024) made effective from 1 July 2017, affects the adjudication of the impugned orders and requires fresh adjudication.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of Section 16(4) limiting availment of ITC
Legal framework: Section 16 of the CGST Act prescribes entitlement to ITC; subsection (4) (as referred) imposes conditions/time limits for availing ITC.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not record any precedential rulings being applied, followed, distinguished or overruled on this point.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court acknowledged that challenge to the vires of Section 16(4) was raised but expressly refrained from entering into the merits. The Court instead noted that subsection (5) was subsequently inserted effective from 1 July 2017, which materially affects the legal position regarding availment of ITC for certain financial years.
Ratio vs. Obiter: No ratio on constitutional validity of Section 16(4) was laid down; any consideration of vires remains obiter in the sense that the Court did not adjudicate the constitutional challenge.
Conclusion: The Court did not decide the constitutional challenge to Section 16(4); the matter requires fresh adjudication in light of the later statutory insertion (subsection (5)).
Issue 2 - Validity of amendment to Rule 61(5) declaring GSTR-3B as a valid return retrospectively
Legal framework: Rule 61(5) as amended by Notification No. 49/2019 declared GSTR-3B to be a valid return under Section 39 with retrospective effect from 01.07.2017; challenge alleged that the amendment interferes with vested rights to ITC and violates Articles 14, 19(1)(g) and 300A.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial precedent is cited or applied in the judgment to resolve this specific contention.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the statutory landscape was altered by insertion of subsection (5) in Section 16 via Section 118 of the Finance Act, 2024, which addresses entitlement to take ITC for invoices/debit notes pertaining to FY 2017-18 through 2020-21 provided returns under Section 39 were filed up to 30 November 2021. Given this subsequent legislative provision, the Court found that earlier adjudication which did not consider subsection (5) cannot stand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court did not rule on the vires of the Rule 61(5) amendment; any views are procedural and preliminary, not constituting a substantive constitutional ratio.
Conclusion: No determination on the constitutional challenge to the Rule 61(5) amendment; the issue must be reconsidered by the adjudicating authority in light of subsection (5) of Section 16.
Issue 3 - Validity of impugned Order-in-Original and Summary of Order disallowing ITC and imposing demand/penalty
Legal framework: The orders under challenge disallowed ITC for the period July 2018-March 2019 and imposed demand with interest under Section 50 and penalty under Section 122(2)(a) of the CGST Act.
Precedent Treatment: The Court did not apply or distinguish prior decisions regarding factual/merits issues of ITC disallowance, demand, interest or penalty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the impugned orders were rendered without consideration of the subsequently inserted subsection (5) of Section 16 (made effective from 1 July 2017). Given that subsection (5) prescribes entitlement to claim ITC for invoices/debit notes pertaining to specified financial years if returns under Section 39 were filed up to 30 November 2021, the earlier adjudication is materially affected and cannot stand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The quashing of the impugned orders is a dispositive remedial direction based on procedural fairness and material statutory change, and thus forms the operative ratio of the Court's order (limited to remand and fresh adjudication); the Court expressly did not decide the substantive merits.
Conclusion: The impugned Order-in-Original and Summary of Order are quashed and set aside; the matter is remitted for fresh adjudication taking into account subsection (5) of Section 16 of the CGST Act.
Issue 4 - Effect of insertion of subsection (5) in Section 16 (Finance Act, 2024) and requirement of fresh adjudication
Legal framework: Section 118 of the Finance Act, 2024 inserts subsection (5) into Section 16 with retrospective effect from 1 July 2017, entitling registered persons to take ITC for invoices/debit notes pertaining to FY 2017-18 through 2020-21 in any return under Section 39 filed up to 30 November 2021.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents considered; parties agreed that the statutory insertion necessitates adjudication afresh.
Interpretation and reasoning: Both parties (as recorded) conceded, or the Union on instructions accepted, that the newly inserted subsection (5) alters the legal position materially and therefore adjudication must be revisited. The Court concurred, holding that the impugned adjudication proceeded without consideration of the present subsection (5) and that fairness and law require the authority to re-determine the claim in light of the statutory amendment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's direction to remit the matter for fresh adjudication in light of subsection (5) is part of the operative ratio: subsequent retrospective legislation which alters entitlement requires reconsideration of previous administrative/adjudicative decisions made without regard to that enactment.
Conclusion: The matter is remitted to the adjudicating authority to decide afresh, taking into consideration subsection (5) of Section 16; decision to be taken within two months from receipt/production of the order. The Court did not adjudicate merits beyond this procedural direction.
Ancillary matters and clarifications
The Court explicitly refrained from entering into merits on constitutional or substantive entitlement questions; the relief granted is limited to quashing the impugned orders and remitting the matter for reconsideration in light of the retrospective insertion of subsection (5) into Section 16. The Court's order is directed to be complied with within a specified two-month period for fresh adjudication.
Constitutional validity of Section 16(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - imposition of time limit for the availment of Input Tax Credit - vires of amendment carried under Rule 61(5) of the Central Goods and Services Rules, 2017 inserted vide Clause 4(a) of Notification No. 49/2019 dated 9th October, 2019 - HELD THAT:- It is evident that the insertion of sub-section (5) u/s 16 of the CGST Act w.e.f. 1st day of July, 2017, has been made effective from the 1st day of July, 2017, whereby and whereunder, it has been provided that “Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (4), in respect of an invoice or debit note for supply of goods or services or both pertaining to the Financial Years 2017- 18, 2018-19, 2019-20 and 2020-21, the registered person shall be entitled to take input tax credit in any return under section 39 which is filed upto the thirtieth day of November, 2021”.
It is, thus, evident that the decision which has been taken as impugned in the present writ petition was in absence of the consideration by following the stipulation made in sub-section (5) of Section 16 which has been made effective w.e.f. 1st day of July, 2017.
Considering the implication of insertion of sub-section (5) under Section 16 of the CGST Act, this Court is of the view that the matter needs to be considered afresh - the matter is remitted before the authority to pass afresh order taking into consideration the implication of sub-section (5) of Section 16 of the CGST Act.
Petition disposed off by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether writ jurisdiction under Articles 226/227 is maintainable to challenge multiple overlapping GST recovery orders where alternative statutory appellate remedies exist.
2. Whether overlapping demands raised by different GST formations (DGST, CGST East, CGST North) against the same assessee for identical or common ITC entries justify consolidation, interim relief, or circumscription of pre-deposit requirements.
3. Whether pre-deposit obligations under the GST appellate regime should be tailored where demands arising from different orders overlap, and if so, on what basis reductions or exclusions from pre-deposit can be directed.
4. Whether a show-cause notice which duplicates subject-matter of an order already under appeal ought to be proceeded with or stayed against the assessee.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Maintainability of writs in presence of alternative statutory appellate remedy
Legal framework: The GST code provides a statutory appellate mechanism to challenge assessment and demand orders, including the requirement of pre-deposit for preferring appeals. Constitutional writ jurisdiction is available but is ordinarily exercised sparingly where efficacious alternative remedies exist.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not rely upon or overrule specific precedents; the Court applies established principles that where a statutory remedy exists and is efficacious, writ relief will generally be declined.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the impugned orders arise from a large, multi-entity investigation involving fictitious suppliers and widespread ITC claims affecting thousands of entities and amounting to several hundred crores. Given the complexity and the availability of appellate remedy, the Court held that the Petitioner ought to pursue the statutory appeals rather than obtain extraordinary writ relief. The presence of overlapping investigations did not displace the primacy of the appellate forum.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where statutory appellate remedies are available and the subject-matter is part of a broad multi-party investigation, writ relief will be declined and the petitioner relegated to the appellate authority. Obiter - Observations on the scale and multi-entity nature of the fraud contextualize the decision but do not constitute novel legal principle beyond application of established practice.
Conclusion: Writ petition as a vehicle to bypass appeals is not entertained; the petitioner is directed to file statutory appeals against the impugned orders (specifically Nos. 2 and 3) before the Appellate Authority.
Issue 2 - Treatment of overlapping demands by different GST formations
Legal framework: The GST machinery may generate multiple assessments/demands when different formations investigate overlapping chains of transactions; principles of res judicata or bar against multiplicity are not automatic, but the appellate authority must be informed of overlaps to avoid double recovery.
Precedent Treatment: No specific precedent was invoked; the Court addressed the overlap by directing the appellate authority to take cognizance of existing demands.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognized factual overlaps - identical ITC entries traced to the same suppliers appearing in more than one order. Rather than consolidate proceedings itself, the Court directed that appeals be filed and that the Appellate Authority, when hearing the appeal against one order, be made aware of the fact that an overlapping demand has been raised in respect of the same subject-matter in another order. The multiplicity and scale of implicated entities weighed in favour of directing the statutory appellate process rather than judicial consolidation in writ jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Overlap between distinct tax orders does not automatically entitle the taxpayer to quash; the remedy is to exhaust appellate process with disclosure of overlaps to the Appellate Authority. Obiter - The Court's directions on how the Appellate Authority should treat overlaps are procedural guidance rather than binding legal doctrine.
Conclusion: Overlaps acknowledged; petitioner relegated to appeals and directed to notify the Appellate Authority of overlapping demands so appropriate consideration (including avoidance of double recovery) can be undertaken at the appellate stage.
Issue 3 - Pre-deposit tailoring where demands overlap
Legal framework: The GST appellate mechanism requires pre-deposit of tax/interest/penalty components to entertain appeals; courts can exercise supervisory power to adjust pre-deposit requirements in fit cases to prevent injustice from overlapping demands.
Precedent Treatment: No express precedents referenced. The Court applied equitable tailoring of pre-deposit consistent with supervisory jurisdiction coupled with the statutory appellate framework.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court analyzed the numeric composition of demands in the impugned orders and identified overlapping portions already pre-deposited in respect of one supplier. It directed that pre-deposit be made in respect of the demand raised by impugned order No. 2 (amount specified) but allowed deduction of the sum already pre-deposited for the overlapping component (Ganpati Enterprises). For impugned order No. 3, the Court found the demand overlapped with order No. 2 and therefore no additional pre-deposit was to be made for order No. 3.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Courts may direct specific, calibrated pre-deposits where overlapping demands exist, including deduction of already paid pre-deposits and waiver of additional pre-deposit for wholly overlapping orders. Obiter - The methodology of calculating overlap is fact-specific; the present direction is limited to the numeric facts before the Court.
Conclusion: Pre-deposit directed only for the demand under the principal overlapping order (specified amount) with deduction for amounts already pre-deposited; no fresh pre-deposit required for the overlapping order that duplicates the same demand.
Issue 4 - Stay of proceedings on a show-cause notice duplicative of a matter under appeal
Legal framework: Administrative action in continuation of proceedings that duplicate matters already sub judice on appeal can be restrained where proceeding would be oppressive or result in double jeopardy in recovery; courts have power to restrain further administrative steps pending appellate adjudication.
Precedent Treatment: No authorities cited; the Court applied principles of prevention of multiplicity of proceedings and protection against duplication of recovery.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the show-cause notice proposing demand for a specified sum in respect of transactions with a particular supplier overlapped with an order already under appeal. To avoid multiplicity and inconsistent action, the Court directed that the show-cause notice not be proceeded with against the petitioner insofar as it duplicates the subject-matter already under appeal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a show-cause notice duplicates subject-matter already the subject of an appeal, courts may restrain further administrative steps in respect of the same assessee to prevent duplication of proceedings. Obiter - The direction is confined to the facts of overlapping subject-matter and does not purport to be a general bar on independent investigatory steps.
Conclusion: The show-cause notice duplicative of the appealable order shall not be proceeded with against the petitioner.
Ancillary procedural directions and conclusions
1. The petitioner was given a timeline to file appeals before the Appellate Authority by a specified date with the requisite pre-deposit as directed.
2. The Appellate Authority receiving the appeal against the overlapping order was instructed to take into account the prior demand already raised in respect of the same supplier when adjudicating the appeal.
3. The Court's disposal rests on the application of supervisory principles to ensure appellate remedy is effective, to prevent double recovery where overlapping demands exist, and to calibrate pre-deposit obligations accordingly; these determinations are grounded in the specific factual matrix of multi-entity, high-value ITC investigations and are directed to the procedural management of appeals rather than to any substantive exoneration on merits.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy - Overlap between orders - parallel demands are being raised by DGST, CGST (East) and CGST (North) - passing on of fake and fraudulent ITC - HELD THAT:- In all these impugned orders, there are various third-party firms which are involved which are stated to be fictitious and non-existent who have passed on ITC without actual supply of goods and services. There could be some overlap insofar as the Petitioner is concerned, however, the challenge to the impugned orders would be required to be considered in the respective appeals as the ITC availed is not related only to the Petitioner but to thousands of entities, running into several hundred crores.
Under these circumstances, this Court is of the opinion that while there may be overlap, the Petitioner still ought to be relegated to avail of the appellate remedy. Accordingly, it is directed that insofar as the impugned order No. 2 and impugned order No. 3 are concerned, i.e., the impugned orders dated 24th January, 2025 and 1st February, 2025 are concerned, the Petitioner is permitted to challenge these two impugned orders by filing appeals before the Appellate Authority - The pre-deposit shall be made only in respect of demand raised to the tune of Rs. 13,023,604.00/- i.e., demand raised vide impugned order No. 2 Insofar as the appeal challenging impugned order No. 3 is concerned, no pre-deposit shall be liable to be made as the amount is over-lapping with impugned order No. 2.
Let the appeals be filed by the Petitioner by 15th November, 2025 with requisite pre-deposit as directed - Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an adjudicating order passed without giving valid notice of the date on which the order was ultimately passed (and where the date of personal hearing previously fixed was either 'N.A.' or earlier than the deadline for filing a reply) violates the statutory requirement of personal hearing and principles of natural justice under the GST statute.
2. Whether an appeal dismissed on grounds of limitation (laches) precludes relief against the underlying adjudication by application of the doctrine of merger, where the appellate forum declined to consider merits due to delay.
3. The appropriate remedial consequence where an order is found to have been passed without due notice of hearing or without providing a reasonable opportunity of personal hearing: quashing and remand with directions to afford hearing and pass a reasoned order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of adjudication in absence of notice of the date of order or defective scheduling of personal hearing
Legal framework: The statute mandates that a personal hearing be provided (section 75(4) of the GST Act as invoked). Administrative action must observe rules of natural justice - specifically, the right to be heard by providing clear notice of hearing dates and any subsequent adjourned dates before passing any adverse order.
Precedent treatment: Coordinate Bench decisions were relied upon and followed. Prior authority held that where an order is not passed on the date fixed for hearing and no communication is given of any subsequent date, the resulting ex parte order is vitiated because the authority itself produced the circumstances that forced an ex parte outcome.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the record showing (a) a notice where the personal hearing date was indicated as 'N.A.'; (b) a reminder fixing the reply deadline as 04.08.2024 but giving a personal hearing on 03.08.2024 (a date preceding the reply deadline); and (c) the impugned order being passed on 17.08.2024 with no notice or communication of hearing on that date. These facts demonstrate absence of application of mind and absence of any provision under the Act permitting an order to be passed on a later date without notice. The Court concluded that such conduct breaches the right to be heard and rules of natural justice; by failing to pass the order on the fixed hearing date and failing to communicate any subsequent date, the authority effectively imposed an ex parte order contrary to established precedent.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An adjudicating authority must either pass order on the fixed hearing date or communicate any new date; failure to do so vitiates the impugned order. Obiter - Observations emphasizing that a personal hearing date cannot be before the deadline to submit a reply as indicative of lack of application of mind.
Conclusion: The impugned adjudication is invalid for lack of notice and denial of effective personal hearing; it is liable to be set aside.
Issue 2 - Effect of appellate dismissal on limitation and the doctrine of merger
Legal framework: The doctrine of merger generally operates where an appeal is entertained and decided on merits, leading to merger of the subordinate order into the appellate order. Limitation rules govern the maintainability of appeals; where an appeal is dismissed as barred by limitation, the appellate forum has not adjudicated the merits.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on earlier decisions holding that where an appeal is dismissed on the ground of limitation and the appellate authority has not considered merits, the doctrine of merger does not apply to foreclose independent remedy against the original order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner's appeal was dismissed as beyond the prescribed period; on dismissal the appellate authority did not examine merits. Since the appellate forum did not merge or affirm the adjudicatory findings on merits, the invalidity of the original order (for want of hearing/notice) remains open for judicial scrutiny. Consequently, dismissal for delay cannot be used as a shield to sustain a substantively defective order which is vitiated by breach of natural justice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Dismissal of appeal on limitation grounds does not render the impugned adjudication immune via merger when merits were not considered. Obiter - None additional beyond the above principle.
Conclusion: The appellate dismissal for delay does not preclude setting aside the adjudication that is invalid for lack of hearing; merger does not apply in such circumstances.
Issue 3 - Remedial relief and directions where proceedings are vitiated by defective notice/hearing
Legal framework: When administrative action is quashed for breach of natural justice, the usual remedy is to set aside the impugned order and remand the matter to the adjudicating authority with directions to afford a fresh opportunity of hearing and to pass a reasoned and speaking order within a specified time frame.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied consistent precedent directing authorities to grant personal hearing where orders were quashed for procedural defects and to pass reasoned orders thereafter within a stipulated period.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the absence of notice for the date on which the order was passed and the evident procedural defects, the Court found that quashing the impugned orders and remanding the matter for fresh adjudication after providing a reasonable opportunity of personal hearing was the appropriate remedy. The Court specified timelines to ensure expeditious disposal: the authority to pass a reasoned order within four weeks after providing hearing, and if a reply is filed, an endeavour to decide within two months thereafter.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Quash and remit with mandatory directions to afford personal hearing and to pass a speaking order within prescribed time limits is the correct remedy when an adjudication is set aside for breach of natural justice. Obiter - Emphasis on making all endeavours to decide within two months if reply submitted.
Conclusion: The appropriate remedy is to quash the impugned orders and remand the matter to the adjudicating authority with categorical directions to grant a reasonable opportunity of personal hearing and to pass a reasoned order within the specified time periods.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND APPLICATION
1. The conclusions on Issue 1 are applied directly to invalidate the impugned orders and lead to the remedial directions in Issue 3.
2. The analysis under Issue 2 confirms that appellate dismissal on limitation grounds does not cure the procedural infirmity identified under Issue 1 and therefore does not negate the availability of relief by quashing and remand.
Violation of principles of natural justice - initiation of proceedings u/s 73 of the GST Act - date of personal hearing, given the date prior to the date of requirement to submit a reply - non-application of mind - HELD THAT:- The record shows that second reminder notice was given to the petitioner fixing the date for submission of the reply on 04.08.2024 but the date of personal hearing was given prior to it, i.e., 3.08.2024 which itself shows no application of mind. The record further shows that even on the dates of personal hearing, i.e., 03.08.2024, the order was not passed rather the impugned order was passed on 17.08.2024. The record also shows that neither any notice was issued to the petitioner fixing the date 17.08.2024 nor any communication has been brought on record. Under the Act, there is no provision prescribed for passing any order on an another date without due notice to the petitioner.
This Court in the case of M/s Aditya Singh [2024 (12) TMI 1632 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] has held that 'Upon a perusal of the documents, it appears that the order was passed ex parte and was not passed on the date fixed for hearing and for subsequent date no notice was given to the petitioner.'
In view of above, the controversy involved in the present case is squarely covered with the decision of this Court in M/s Aditya Singh.
The writ petition is allowed and the impugned orders are set aside - the matter is remanded to the adjudicating authority who shall pass a reasoned and speaking order within four weeks from today, after giving reasonable opportunity of personal hearing to the petitioner - petition allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the applicant is entitled to bail under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (CGST Act) for alleged fraudulent availment of input tax credit where investigation is complete and complaint/charge-sheet has been filed.
2. Whether the nature of the alleged offence under Section 132(1)(c)/(i) CGST Act (economic offence involving alleged evasion exceeding Rs. 40 crores), being cognizable and non-bailable but punishable with a maximum of five years and triable by a Magistrate, militates against grant of bail.
3. Whether the documentary/electronic character of the prosecution case, the stage of trial (pre-charge evidence), duration of custody, past interim release and absence of criminal antecedents justify bail and conditions to prevent tampering.
ISSUE 1 - Entitlement to bail where investigation is complete and charge-sheet filed
Legal framework: Grant of bail is governed by principles applicable to non-bailable offences where consideration includes whether further custody is necessary for investigation, nature of evidence, severity of punishment, and progress of trial.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on and followed the approach in prior Supreme Court decisions that where investigation is complete and charge-sheet filed, continued detention is not necessary solely for investigative purposes (citing decisions treated in the judgment).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted investigation has concluded and complaint/charge-sheet filed; thus, further detention for investigation is unnecessary. The Court gave weight to the prosecutorial stage (pre-charge evidence) and the absence of any immediate need for custodial interrogation or recovery that would require continued custody.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where investigation is complete and charge-sheet is filed, detention solely for investigation is not a sufficient ground to deny bail absent other compelling reasons. Obiter - observations on administrative aspects of commissioner's order for arrest were discussed but did not form the operative reason for bail.
Conclusion: The completion of investigation and filing of complaint supports grant of bail in absence of other exceptional factors necessitating custody.
ISSUE 2 - Impact of seriousness of alleged economic offence under Section 132(1) CGST Act
Legal framework: Section 132(1) offences are cognizable and non-bailable; sentencing exposure and triability (Magistrate) are relevant considerations in bail adjudication.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied authorities recognizing economic offences as serious but also holding that where punishment is limited and procedural posture (charge-sheet filed) and evidence is documentary, bail may be appropriate (cases cited in the judgment were followed).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court balanced the gravity of alleged tax fraud (large monetary figure) against statutory maximum punishment (up to five years) and the fact that the case is triable by a Magistrate. The Court emphasized that seriousness alone does not automatically deny bail; proportionality and factual matrix matter.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - severity of alleged economic offence is a relevant factor but not determinative; limited statutory sentence and triability by Magistrate weigh in favour of bail where other conditions are met. Obiter - rhetorical remarks on economic offences being a class apart were acknowledged but not dispositive.
Conclusion: Seriousness of the alleged offence does not preclude bail given the limited maximum sentence, magistrate triability, and other favorable factors in the case.
ISSUE 3 - Role of documentary/electronic evidence, risk of tampering, stage of trial, custody duration and antecedents in bail decision
Legal framework: Bail courts assess the risk of tampering, likelihood of absconding, stage of trial, nature of evidence (documentary/electronic versus oral), duration of pre-trial custody, and accused's antecedents.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed authorities holding that when prosecution is primarily documentary/electronic and ocular evidence is through official witnesses, the risk of tampering is reduced and bail is more readily granted; precedents cited in the judgment were followed and applied to the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the prosecution case to be documentary/electronic, witnesses to be public servants, trial at pre-charge evidence stage and likely to take long, and the accused to have already spent substantial custody time (aggregate >4.5 months) including an earlier interim release period without misuse. These factors collectively reduced the risk of tampering and justified conditional release. The Court also considered that earlier interim bail and surrender demonstrated cooperation and no misuse of liberty.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - documentary/electronic character of prosecution evidence, completion of investigation, prolonged trial duration, limited custodial necessity, and clean antecedents collectively favor bail with appropriate safeguards. Obiter - suggestions about normal course practice at trial courts were advisory rather than binding on other cases.
Conclusion: Documentary/electronic evidence, progress of proceedings, duration of custody and absence of adverse antecedents supported grant of bail subject to stringent conditions to prevent tampering or reoffending.
ISSUE 4 - Appropriateness and scope of bail conditions and remedy for breach
Legal framework: Bail may be granted on furnishing bonds/sureties and on conditions reasonably designed to secure attendance and prevent interference with the trial or witnesses; breach permits cancellation of bail.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied established practice of imposing conditions (appearance, non-tampering, abstention from criminality) and allowing prosecution liberty to seek cancellation on breach.
Interpretation and reasoning: To mitigate perceived risks, the Court imposed a personal bond and two sureties and conditions: regular appearance, prohibition on influencing witnesses or tampering with evidence, and refraining from criminal/anti-social activity. The Court made clear that breach permits prosecution to seek cancellation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - bail may be granted with specific, enforceable conditions tailored to the risks identified; remedy for breach is cancellation application. Obiter - the Court's directions about the limited scope of its factual observations were clarificatory.
Conclusion: Conditional bail with specified bonds and prohibitions was appropriate to balance liberty interests and integrity of the trial; prosecution may move for cancellation if conditions are violated.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND OVERALL CONCLUSION
All issues were considered conjunctively: completed investigation/charge-sheet filing, documentary nature of evidence, stage and pace of trial, limited statutory sentence and magistrate triability, duration of custody and prior interim release/cooperation and absence of antecedents collectively informed the Court's exercise of discretion to grant bail. The Court followed relevant precedents emphasizing these cumulative considerations and imposed conditions to safeguard the trial process; these findings and the bail grant are confined to the bail context and do not adjudicate merits of the prosecution case.
Grant of bail - fraudulent availment of input tax credit on the basis of fake G.S.T. invoices - committing fraud of more than Rs. 40 crores - investigation of the case has already been completed and complaint has been filed against him - HELD THAT:- Record suggests that trial of the case is at pre-charge evidence stage and case of prosecution is based on documentary evidence, therefore, this Court finds merit in the argument advanced by learned counsel for the applicant that trial of the case will take considerable period of time and there is no hope of its early disposal.
The Apex Court in case of Ratnambar Kaushik vs. Union of India [2022 (12) TMI 263 - SUPREME COURT] enlarged the accused on bail considering the facts that prosecution case is based on documentary and electronic evidence and investigation has been completed and accused is in jail for four months and Apex Court held that 'The petitioner has already undergone incarceration for more than four months and completion of trial, in any event, would take some time. Needless to mention that the petitioner if released on bail, is required to adhere to the conditions to be imposed and diligently participate in the trial. Further, in a case of the present nature, the evidence to be tendered by the respondent would essentially be documentary and electronic. The ocular evidence will be through official witnesses, due to which there can be no apprehension of tampering, intimidating or influencing. Therefore, keeping all these aspects in perspective, in the facts and circumstances of the present case, we find it proper to grant the prayer made by the petitioner.'
Further, in the present matter, applicant was arrested on 18.2.2021 and thereafter he was enlarged on short term bail on 28.5.2021 and he remained on interim bail upto 29.7.2025 and there is no allegation that he misused the liberty granted to him rather it reflects, he was cooperating with the trial pending before the court concerned - Further, applicant is not having any criminal history and however, after surrender, he is in jail only for last one and half months but before release on short term bail, he was in custody for more than three months, therefore, his total custody in the present matter is more than four and half months.
Therefore, considering the facts and circumstances of the case the applicant is entitled to be released on bail - Accordingly, without expressing any opinion on the merits of the case, the instant bail application is allowed.
Issues: Whether the seizure and consequential proceedings under the GST law could be sustained where an old excavator owned by the petitioner was returning after being used on rent, the e-way bill accompanied the goods, the delivery challan was produced before the seizure order, and no finding of tax evasion was recorded.
Analysis: The goods were found to be the petitioner's own excavator returning from the user's site after being hired out on rent. The tax component arising from the rental transaction had already been paid and reflected in the books of account. On these facts, the movement of the machinery was treated as a return of goods and not as a sale transaction. The absence of the delivery challan at the time of interception was cured before the seizure order, and the appellate authority accepted that the challan was issued in accordance with GST law. Since the authorities did not record any finding of tax evasion, the foundation for invoking coercive proceedings was absent.
Conclusion: The seizure and the impugned GST proceedings were unsustainable and were quashed, with relief granted to the petitioner.
Seizure of old excavator with conveyance - machine was seized on the ground that at the time of interception, no delivery challan was available, though the E-way bill was accompanying the conveyances & machinery - HELD THAT:- In the case in hand, though the E-way bill was accompanied with the goods in question, the delivery challan was not accompanied with it, but before passing of the seizure order, the delivery challan was produced and the first appellate authority has also accepted the fact that the delivery challan was issued in accordance with the provisions of GST Act & Rules - The authorities below has not recorded any finding with regard to evasion of tax by the petitioner and once no finding of evasion of tax has been recorded, the entire proceedings initiated against the petitioner are vitiated and are liable to be set aside.
Admittedly, the goods in question belonged to the petitioner that was returning back to its business place from the work place of M/s Kaluwala Constructions, which had used the same after paying out the due rent to which the tax had already been paid and deposited by the petitioner. Once, the goods in question belong to the petitioner, which has not been disputed at any stage by the respondents, the relevant delivery challan and E-way bill has rightly been issued by the petitioner. Therefore, the submission made by the learned A.C.S.C. that the case in hand is covered by the judgment of this Court passed in M/s Famus India [2025 (3) TMI 555 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT], is of no aid to the State.
The impugned order cannot be sustained in the eyes of law and the same is hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the arrest of the applicant complied with statutory and constitutional safeguards-specifically Article 22(2) of the Constitution and Sections 58 and 69 of the BNSS/CGST framework-including timely production before a magistrate and provision of cogent "reasons to believe."
2. Whether the applicability of Cr.P.C. principles and judicial review to arrests under the CGST/related special enactments restricts/arrests the departmental power to arrest absent prior quantification of tax liability.
3. Whether the material relied upon by the investigating agency (including dual-software records-"WinMoney" and "Prime"-employee statements and corroborative third-party confirmations) suffices to justify arrest and to rebut the contention that entries are non-taxable movements or estimates.
4. Whether, on the facts and stage of investigation, the applicant is entitled to regular bail under Section 483 BNSS having regard to the nature and magnitude of alleged GST evasion, risk of tampering with evidence, likelihood of influencing witnesses, the accused's personal circumstances (age/health), and other bail precepts.
5. Whether the remand/magistrate's prior findings on legality of arrest preclude interference by this Court in the bail application under Section 483 BNSS.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Lawfulness of Arrest; compliance with Article 22(2) and BNSS (Sections 58, 69)
Legal framework: Arrests under CGST are governed by Section 69 (arrest authorisation on "reasons to believe") read with Section 132 offences; BNSS/Cr.P.C. safeguards (production before magistrate, informing arrested person of grounds) and Article 22(2) apply.
Precedent treatment: The three-judge authority in Radhika Agarwal held that Cr.P.C. and BNSS protections equally apply to arrests under GST legislation and that an arrest requires recorded "reasons to believe" referring to material; arrest cannot rest on suspicion alone. It also held that assessment prior to arrest is not always mandatory; departmental officers may act on recorded reasons to believe.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the reasons to believe, arrest memo, grounds of arrest and timelines. The record demonstrated: search on 05.08, voluntary presence of the applicant during search, summons under Section 70 on 06-07.08, arrest on 07.08 and production before magistrate within approximately two hours of arrest. The reasons to believe and related documents were on record and found to satisfy statutory formalities. The claim of detention beyond permissible period and non-provision of reasons was examined against documentary compliance and the magistrate's earlier finding.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio-arrest under Section 69 is lawful when properly recorded reasons to believe supported by material exist and statutory safeguards (production before magistrate within prescribed time and disclosure of grounds) are complied with. Obiter-allusions to what would constitute manifest arbitrariness were noted by reference to authority but not applied to reverse arrest.
Conclusion: The Court held the arrest to be lawful; statutory and constitutional safeguards were observed and there was no manifest illegality warranting bail on that ground.
Issue 2 - Applicability of Cr.P.C. principles and requirement (or not) of prior tax assessment before arrest
Legal framework: Interaction between special tax statutes (CGST) and general criminal procedure (Cr.P.C./BNSS); the threshold for non-bailable offences in Section 132(5) depends on quantification of tax amount but the power to arrest may be exercised where reasons to believe are recorded.
Precedent treatment: Radhika Agarwal rejected an absolute requirement that assessment under Section 73 precede arrest; it requires recorded reasons and reference to material supporting belief that offence amount meets statutory threshold. Judicial review is available to guard against arbitrariness.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied Radhika Agarwal to conclude that arrest may validly follow on reasons to believe supported by material even before formal assessment. The departmental material (software reconciliation, employee statements, calculations in remand application) furnished the basis for the reasons to believe; hence absence of completed assessment did not render arrest per se unlawful.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio-assessment is not an absolute precondition to arrest where reasoned material demonstrates prima facie that statutory thresholds are crossed; judicial review will police manifest arbitrariness. Obiter-remarks cautioning against judicial overreach in scrutinising administrative exercise of arrest powers.
Conclusion: Cr.P.C. principles apply; however, arrest without prior assessment is permissible if reasons to believe are recorded and supported by material-this condition was satisfied on the record.
Issue 3 - Sufficiency and character of evidence: WinMoney v. Prime, employee statements, third-party confirmations
Legal framework: Evidence to justify arrest under Section 69 must supply a rational basis (reasons to believe) that offences under Section 132 categories are made out; investigative materials (documents, electronic records, witness statements) may furnish such basis.
Precedent treatment: Authorities emphasise that arrests cannot be founded on conjecture; material must be cogent. Radhika Agarwal requires the authorising officer to refer to material forming the basis of belief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The investigating agency produced a package of materials: comparative reconciliation between WinMoney and Prime showing supply entries present in WinMoney but absent in Prime, statements under Section 70 by multiple employees admitting parallel accounting/clandestine supplies, corroborations from courier agencies and customers, and a remand note quantifying alleged evasion (~Rs. 445.96 Crores). The applicant countered that WinMoney is a non-accounting goods-tracking software and that various WinMoney codes reflect non-taxable movements (job work, returns, estimates) and that the computations are speculative. The Court found absence of documentation establishing WinMoney as a mere non-accounting/authorized software, and accepted that employee statements and corroborations give prima facie weight to the department's inference of unaccounted supplies. The compilation filed by applicant was not found to dispel the departmental material at the bail stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio-where documentary/electronic records and witness statements coherently indicate parallel accounting and unreported supplies, such material suffices as a basis for arrest and for denying bail at investigative stage. Obiter-technical distinctions about software functionality that may be determined at trial were noted as matters for fuller adjudication, not for bail determination.
Conclusion: Material before the Court constituted cogent reasons to believe; the applicant's technical explanations about software and computations did not undermine the prima facie case at bail stage.
Issue 4 - Bail factors under Section 483 BNSS: magnitude of alleged evasion, risk of tampering, accused's personal circumstances
Legal framework: Principles for grant of bail include nature of accusation, severity of punishment, materials relied upon, risk of tampering, likelihood of absconding, character and health of accused, and public interest; authorities (e.g., P. Chidambaram line) guide exercise of discretion.
Precedent treatment: Courts balance liberty against investigation integrity; large-scale tax evasion and risk to evidence/witnesses justify custodial detention where reasonable apprehension of interference exists.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted magnitude of alleged evasion (approx. Rs. 445.95 Crores), statements indicating destruction of vouchers/approval notes, failure of related persons to comply with summons, and the investigative stage being crucial. The respondent asserted real risk of tampering and influencing witnesses; the applicant relied on seniority, health issues, social roots, absence of antecedents and undertaking to cooperate. The Court found the prosecution's contentions persuasive given the scale and corroborative material, and considered the magistrate's earlier disposal and findings. The applicant's personal circumstances were insufficient to outweigh identified risks at the present stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio-where substantial quantitative allegations are supported by cogent material and there exists a plausible risk of tampering or influencing witnesses, bail may be refused pending further investigation; personal/health considerations may be outweighed by the public interest and investigation integrity. Obiter-observations that health and age remain relevant and could be reassessed on new material.
Conclusion: Bail was refused on grounds of the magnitude of alleged evasion, prima facie material, and real possibility of interference with investigation.
Issue 5 - Scope for interference with Magistrate's prior order on illegality of arrest
Legal framework: Revision/judicial review of magistrate's orders is circumscribed; higher courts exercise caution not to substitute their view where magistrate has considered statutory compliance and reached reasoned conclusion absent manifest illegality.
Precedent treatment: Authorities stress restraint against reversing magistrate's findings on routine compliance unless there is demonstrable arbitrariness or breach of fundamental safeguards.
Interpretation and reasoning: The magistrate had earlier rejected the contention that arrest was illegal after examining compliance. This Court observed that no challenge to those specific magistrate orders was before it and that the bail jurisdiction under Section 483 BNSS did not permit upsetting the magistrate's findings absent clear illegality. The Court therefore declined to re-open the magistrate's determination on arrest lawfulness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio-this Court will not ordinarily interfere with a magistrate's determination of arrest legality in a bail petition absent manifest illegality. Obiter-recognition that exceptional circumstances could permit interference.
Conclusion: No interference with magistrate's finding; arrest legality stands for purposes of the bail application and does not favour release.
Seeking grant of Regular bail - applicant was kept under illegal detention for over 49 hours prior to being formally arrested - violation of provisions of Article 22(2) of the Constitution of India and Section 58 of the BNSS - reasons to believe - HELD THAT:- It is just and proper to mention the observations of three-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in the case of Radhika Agarwal V/s. Union of India [2025 (2) TMI 1162 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], unanimously held that the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 (Cr.P.C.) and BNSS “are equally applicable” to arrests made under the CGST Act, 2017 and the Customs Act, 1962. The Hon’ble Court also upheld the constitutional validity of Sections 69 and 70 of the GST Acts, which grant powers to arrest and summon. The bench emphasised that while the GSTs provide for search, seizure and arrest, it is not a complete code, and thus, provisions of the CrPC would “equally apply” unless expressly or impliedly excluded by the GST Act. Analysing into Section 69, the Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that a Commissioner may authorise an arrest if there is “reason to believe” a person has committed an offence specified in Section 132 of the GST Act. The Commissioner may authorise any central or state tax officer to arrest the person. The judgement makes a critical distinction—certain serious offences, such as issuing fake invoices or collecting tax without depositing it, become non-bailable and cognisable only if the tax amount involved exceeds Rs. 500 lakh (as per Section 132(5)).
In Radhika Agarwal’s case, it is further observed that on the point of tax assessment before arrest, the petitioners had relied on the Delhi High Court’s judgement in Make My Trip India Pvt. Ltd. V/s. Union of India [2016 (9) TMI 52 - DELHI HIGH COURT], which interpreted the power of arrest under the Finance Act, 1994. It was argued that officers cannot exercise powers under Section 132(5) unless the procedure under Section 73 (determination of tax liability) is completed and an assessment order has been passed quantifying the tax evasion. The Hon’ble Court rejected this argument, calling it a “broad proposition”. In some cases, even “without a formal order of assessment”, if the department is certain that the amount of tax evaded constitutes an offence, the Commissioner may authorise arrest after recording his “reasons to believe” based on material and evidence. This shift aims to enhance the government’s ability to act quickly against tax fraud and ensure compliance.
The applicant /accused is coming with the case that in fact he was arrested on 05.08.2025 and was produced before the Magistrate on 07.08.2025. Undisputedly the search operation was conducted at the office premises of the applicant /accused from 4.00 p.m. hours on 05.08.2025 and the applicant /accused voluntarily joined that search procedure at 9.10 p.m. Apparently, the applicant was voluntarily present during the search to monitor the operations carried out by the respondent’s officials and this can be gathered from the fact that the search process started at 4.00 p.m. and the applicant came to his office almost after 3 hours. Further record reflects that summonses were issued under Section 70 of the CGST Act dated 06.08.2025 and 07.08.2025 to the applicant - Prima facie the documents produced by the respondent in respect of the reasons to believe, grounds of arrest, reasons of arrest, compliance and obligation to inform the relatives of the applicant was necessarily meaningful so as to serve the intended purpose as contemplated in law. Certainly, the person who is behind bar and alleged to have committed wrong will never find the thinks meaningful.
The investigation in this matter is in progress and is at crucial stage. The statements of the employees of M/s Payal Gold Pvt. Ltd. recorded under Section 70 of the CGST Act demonstrates the omissions / commissions by maintaining two parallel accounting software on the part of the applicant /accused being the director of the company. Certainly, the statements recorded under Section 70 of the CGST Act are used primarily as tools for investigations - The accusations and the amount of tax evasion is extremely high in quantity. In these facts and circumstances there is every possibility of tampering of the evidence or influencing / intimidating the witnesses, if the applicant /accused is released on bail. Taking into consideration the overall circumstances and the apprehensions raised by the respondent no case is made out by the applicant /accused for grant of bail.
Bail application rejected.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the trust (temple) carries out activities that qualify as charitable and for the general public within the meaning of clauses (i) to (v) of section 80G of the Act, thereby making it eligible for approval under section 80G(5).
2. Whether an approving authority's summary rejection of an application for 80G approval, without specifying which clause(s) of section 80G are not met or giving reasons for non-conformity, is permissible when the applicant has filed the documents and particulars called for.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Eligibility under clauses (i)-(v) of section 80G and grant of approval under section 80G(5)
Legal framework: Sections 80G and 80G(5) require that activities of an entity seeking approval be charitable and for the general public as contemplated by clauses (i)-(v) of section 80G. Registration under section 12AB is relevant to recognition of charitable status but is distinct from 80G approval.
Precedent Treatment: No specific precedents were cited or applied by the authorities in the record before the Tribunal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the financial statements and particulars on record showing significant recurring expenditures on annasantharpane (feeding) and on educational and cultural purposes. Quantified expenditure towards annasantharpane and evidence that the facility provides food on an average daily basis to a very large number of persons, together with open access without restriction by caste, creed or religion, were treated as indicia of activities directed to the benefit of the public at large. While certain receipts (seva receipts, rents, interest) are linked to temple operations, the Tribunal considered the nature and quantum of expenditures and the open-access character of services in assessing whether activities are charitable and for public benefit within clauses (i)-(v).
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that the trust's provision of large-scale free food and engagement in educational/cultural activities satisfy the charitable/general public utility test of clauses (i)-(v) is a ratio directly applied to direct the grant of approval under section 80G(5). Observations about the character of particular income streams (seva receipts, rentals, interest) as components of temple income are factual findings supporting the ratio.
Conclusions: On the material before it, the Tribunal concluded that the activities-in particular large-scale annasantharpane and educational/cultural expenditure, coupled with open access-meet the requirements of clauses (i)-(v) of section 80G, and directed the approving authority to grant approval under section 80G(5).
Issue 2 - Validity of summary rejection without specific reasons
Legal framework: Administrative action rejecting applications under tax statutes must be supported by reasons; the applicant is entitled to be informed of specific grounds on which statutory criteria are considered unmet so that the application can be meaningfully contested. The process is governed by the statutory criteria for 80G approval and by basic principles of reasoned decision-making.
Precedent Treatment: No authority was cited by the parties or the Tribunal; the Tribunal relied on principles of reasoned administrative action as applied to the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the approving authority made a general observation that clauses (i)-(v) were not met but did not identify which activities or which clause(s) were deficient nor articulate the factual or legal basis for that conclusion. The Tribunal also noted that the assessee had filed the documents and particulars called for during the statutory process. Given the absence of specific findings explaining how the statutory criteria were not satisfied, the Tribunal found the rejection to be summary and unsupported by reasons.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's statement that a rejection must specify the clauses of section 80G not met, and furnish reasons when all documents have been filed, is a binding procedural ratio applied to set aside the impugned rejection and to direct grant of approval. Remarks describing the approving authority's conduct as "summary" are part of the reasoning supporting the operative direction.
Conclusions: The Tribunal rejected the approving authority's summary rejection for want of specific reasons and factual/legal explanation. Because the record demonstrated charitable/public-directed activities and because the rejection lacked articulation of which clause(s) of section 80G were unmet, the Tribunal allowed the appeal and directed the grant of approval under section 80G(5).
Cross-references and final operative determination
1. The procedural impropriety (Issue 2) and the substantive satisfaction of clauses (i)-(v) (Issue 1) were interconnected: the absence of reasoned findings by the approving authority undermined the rejection of an application whose record, on closer scrutiny, demonstrated activities of public utility.
2. The Tribunal's allowance of the appeal rests on both the substantive conclusion that the trust's activities meet clauses (i)-(v) of section 80G and the procedural requirement that adverse statutory decisions be reasoned; accordingly, the Tribunal directed the approving authority to grant approval under section 80G(5).
Grant of approval under clause (i) to (v) of section 80G - activities of the temple are not in the nature of general public utility and noted that the activities are not in line with the provisions of clause (i) to (v ) of section 80G - HELD THAT:- We noted that assessee has incurred expenses towards Annasantharpane for the year ending 31.03.2024 and has also incurred expenses towards educational and cultural purposes.
As submitted by the assessee, more than 10,000 people are getting food every day on average basis and temple is open for general public without any restriction for having darshan on the basis of cast, creed and religion.
Accordingly, we reject the observation of CIT(E) and we hold that assessee is eligible for grant of approval under clause (i) to (v) of section 80G - Appeal of the assessee is allowed and CIT(E) is directed to grant approval u/s 80G(5) of the Act. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment finalized under Section 143(3) is valid when satisfaction for initiation of proceedings under Section 153C r.w.s. 153A is recorded on a later date, and if not, whether such assessment must be quashed.
2. Whether the date of recording of satisfaction for purposes of Section 153C is to be treated as the deemed date of search and, consequently, how the period of limitation and the relevant assessment years are to be reckoned.
3. Whether decisions of Coordinate Benches addressing identical facts (search/cloned data) are to be followed in determining the appropriate jurisdictional provision (Section 153C v. Section 143(3)) and the validity of assessments framed under Section 143(3).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of assessment under Section 143(3) where satisfaction for Section 153C proceedings was recorded on a later date
Legal framework: Section 153C r.w.s. 153A governs assessment proceedings in respect of any person in whose case any books of account, etc., seized or requisitioned belong or pertain to; the statutory scheme treats the date of recording of satisfaction for initiation of proceedings under Section 153C as the deemed date of search for the non-searched person.
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate Benches of the Tribunal dealing with identical search data and cloned material have held that where satisfaction under Section 153C is recorded, assessment proceedings must be initiated under Section 153C and not under Section 143(3). Those decisions were followed by The Tribunal in the instant matter.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that the satisfaction note dated 30.12.2022, recorded for initiating proceedings under Section 153C, operates as the deemed date of search for the non-searched person; consequently, the AO's proceeding directly under Section 143(3) (finalising assessment on 31.12.2022) was constitutionally and legally misplaced because the statutory scheme required initiation of proceedings under Section 153C. The presence of seized data (forensic extraction of WhatsApp images and cash-related material) linking unexplained cash to construction expenses of the relevant property placed the matter squarely within the ambit of Section 153C.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where satisfaction for initiating Section 153C proceedings is recorded, the appropriate mode of assessment for the non-searched person is under Section 153C and not under Section 143(3); an assessment completed under Section 143(3) in such circumstances is invalid and liable to be quashed. Obiter - factual observations regarding the nature of the seized material as corroborative evidence for cash expenditures.
Conclusions: The assessment order passed under Section 143(3) was quashed because proceedings ought to have been initiated under Section 153C upon recording of satisfaction. The Tribunal allowed the appeal on this ground.
Issue 2: Deemed date of search, limitation and relevant assessment years
Legal framework: Statutory scheme provides that for a non-searched person, the date of recording of satisfaction to initiate Section 153C proceedings is treated as the date of search; limitation for assessment under Section 153C is to be reckoned from that deemed date of search.
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate Bench decisions (involving the same set of seized/cloned data) were treated as authoritative for determining the correct computation of limitation and the relevant assessment years following the recorded satisfaction date.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied the principle that the satisfaction note recorded on 30.12.2022 is the deemed date of search for the non-searched person. From that date, the Tribunal computed the six-year period and determined the assessment years which could be legitimately reopened or proceeded against under Section 153C: the years 2017-18 through 2022-23 fall within the six-year window, and the assessment year 2023-24 corresponds to the previous year in which the deemed search took place. The Tribunal treated the recordation date as determinative for all limitation calculations and for delineating the scope of Section 153C proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the computation of limitation and identification of relevant assessment years must use the date of recording of satisfaction under Section 153C as the deemed date of search; thus, the permitted assessment years are those within the statutory period reckoned from that date. Obiter - numeric illustration of the specific assessment years in the case at hand.
Conclusions: The deemed date of search is 30.12.2022 for limitation purposes; six-year reckoning from that date yields A.Y. 2017-18 to A.Y. 2022-23 as relevant years for proceeding under Section 153C, and A.Y. 2023-24 corresponds to the previous year in which the search was deemed to have been conducted.
Issue 3: Applicability of Coordinate Bench precedent and dispositive effect on assessments framed under Section 143(3)
Legal framework: Legal consistency and application of Tribunals' precedents on identical factual matrices are material to deciding whether an assessment conforms to the statutory requirements (i.e., initiation under Section 153C when seized data pertains to a non-searched person).
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal expressly followed several Coordinate Bench decisions concerning the same search operation and cloned data; those decisions held that assessments for the non-searched persons had to be under Section 153C and not Section 143(3).
Interpretation and reasoning: Given identical facts - forensic extraction of data linking cash components to construction of a property and satisfaction notes recording undeclared cash - the Tribunal applied the established ratio of the Coordinate Benches. The Tribunal held that where the Assessing Officer finalised assessment under Section 143(3) notwithstanding a recorded satisfaction to invoke Section 153C, such assessments are vitiated for jurisdictional error. The Tribunal applied the precedent mutatis mutandis to each appeal before it.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Coordinate Bench decisions on identical facts are binding for the Tribunal's determination that assessments framed under Section 143(3) were improper where Section 153C proceedings should have been initiated; the Tribunal's conclusion to quash the impugned orders follows directly from that precedent. Obiter - reference to specific factual extracts from the seized material relied upon by the Coordinate Benches.
Conclusions: The Tribunal followed Coordinate Bench precedents and applied their reasoning to quash the assessments framed under Section 143(3), holding that such orders ought to have been passed under Section 153C; appeals were allowed accordingly.
Scrutiny Assessment u/s 143(3) v/s 153C - Unexplained income u/s 69C r.w.s 115BBE - assessment year relevant for previous year in which search was conducted - HELD THAT:- Assessment year relevant for previous year in which search was conducted in the present year will be A.Y. 2023-24 and the relevant for the previous year in which search was conducted for initiating proceedings u/s 153C of the Act will be A.Y. 2017- 18, 2018-19, 2019-20, 2020-21, 2021-22 & 2022-23.
The above case made out by the assessee is found to be acceptable in view of various decisions of Coordinate Benches of the Hon’ble ITAT Delhi rendered against the various assessment orders passed by the Central Circle, New Delhi under Section 143(3) for AY. 2021-22 in the same search of Hans Group and cloned data of Parveen Kumar Jain copies whereof are also been considered by us.
Thus, it is held that the impugned order of assessment passed under Section 143(3) dated 31.12.2022 ought to have been under Section 153C of the Act. Thus, the order of assessment is quashed.
Issues: Whether the additions made under section 68 and on account of unexplained investment arising from accommodation entries were liable to be deleted.
Analysis: The assessment was framed under sections 143(3) and 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and the assessee failed to furnish material before the assessing authority or the appellate authority to establish the identity of the creditors, genuineness of the transactions and creditworthiness of the parties. In the absence of any contrary material, the findings of the lower authorities confirming the additions remained unshaken.
Conclusion: The additions were upheld and the appeal failed.
Addition u/s 68 - unexplained investment in the form of expenditure @ 1.8% of the accommodation entry - onus to prove
HELD THAT:- CIT(A) has thoroughly dealt with the issues on merits and decided the Grounds of Appeal of the Assessee and dismissed the Appeal on the Ground that the Assessee has not discharged its onus by providing required documents either before the A.O. or before the appellate proceedings in order to prove the identity of the creditor, genuineness of the transaction and capacity of creditors by means available and to prove the transaction.
As the onus cast upon the Assessee has not been discharged, CIT(A) confirmed the additions made by the A.O. In the absence of any contrary materials to contradict the findings of the Lower Authorities brought on record by the Assessee, we find no reason to interfere with the order of the Ld. CIT(A). Finding no merits in the Grounds of Appeal of the Assessee, the appeal of the Assessee is hereby dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether interest/compensation awarded by a Court pursuant to discretionary relief constitutes taxable income or is exempt from tax.
2. Whether relief under section 89(1) was correctly denied by the Assessing Officer and whether the Assessing Officer's subsequent rectification under section 154 removed any addition relating to that relief.
3. Whether the appellate authority correctly treated the Assessing Officer's disallowance as an addition of interest income despite the Assessing Officer having passed a rectification order.
4. Whether initiation of penalty proceedings under section 270A (or similar penal provisions) on account of the alleged under-claim/under-reporting arising from the disputed amount was sustainable where the Assessing Officer had rectified the disallowance.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Taxability of Court-awarded interest/compensation
Legal framework: Income under the Income-tax Act is taxable unless specifically exempt. Relief under section 89(1) deals with tax relief in respect of salary arrears; sections dealing with gifts/compensation/exempt income and general charging provisions govern taxability of amounts characterised as compensation or interest.
Precedent treatment: The assessee relied on a High Court decision treating certain retirement/compensation receipts in a particular way. The Assessing Officer referred to the High Court order in the record to determine the benefit to the assessee. The Tribunal did not adopt the High Court decision as a binding ground to exempt the amount; the decision was noted but not followed as dispositive.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the Assessing Officer and the Commissioner (Appeals) considered the question of taxability and that the Commissioner (Appeals) expressly held the Court-awarded interest to be taxable. However, on facts it was evident that the Assessing Officer had not ultimately sustained an addition on account of interest: the only addition originally reflected related to denial of section 89 relief, which was later rectified. Because there was no subsisting addition specifically on account of interest income in the assessment (having been rectified), the appellate court's taxation finding on interest became academic in the present proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's statement that the Commissioner (Appeals) was incorrect to treat the assessed addition as interest is ratio insofar as it disposes of the appeal on the operative factual finding that no addition for interest survived the AO's rectification. Any wider pronouncement on the substantive taxability of Court-awarded interest is obiter, as the decision turns on the rectification and absence of a live addition.
Conclusion: The issue of taxability of the Court-awarded interest was rendered infructuous by the Assessing Officer's section 154 rectification; therefore no addition on interest stood to be sustained in appeal, and no separate holding on substantive taxability was required.
Issue 2 - Correctness and effect of Assessing Officer's denial of relief under section 89(1) and subsequent rectification under section 154
Legal framework: Section 89(1) provides relief for salary arrears to relieve hardship where tax is charged at higher rates for lump sums; section 154 permits rectification of mistakes apparent from the record to give effect to the true tax position.
Precedent treatment: The parties relied on the assessment record and prior judicial pronouncements regarding computation of section 89 relief. The Tribunal accepted the factual matrix in the assessment and rectification orders without invoking or overturning any precedent authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Assessing Officer initially recalculated and disallowed section 89 relief, producing an apparent addition. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer passed an order under section 154 rectifying the computation and allowing the relief (reflected in the computation sheet and refund calculation). The Tribunal examined the assessment file and rectification order and concluded the Assessing Officer removed the earlier disallowance, leaving no residual tax liability on account of the section 89 claim.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that the rectification under section 154 extinguished the earlier disallowance is ratio and dispositive: the Tribunal's allowance of the appeal rests on the factual and legal effect of section 154 rectification. The Tribunal did not address alternative interpretations of section 89 mechanics beyond what was necessary to resolve the rectification issue (those would be obiter).
Conclusion: The Assessing Officer's rectification under section 154 corrected the denial of section 89 relief, resulting in no outstanding addition against the assessee on that ground; consequently, the Assessing Officer's initial disallowance could not sustain an appeal or penalty arising therefrom.
Issue 3 - Whether the appellate authority properly treated the Assessing Officer's disallowance as an addition of interest despite rectification
Legal framework: Appellate orders must adjudicate on live additions or liabilities. A finding that is inconsistent with the operative assessment record (e.g., ignoring a rectification order) is not sustainable.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the assessment record and rectification order to assess the correctness of the Commissioner (Appeals)'s reasoning. No new precedent was invoked to override the appellate authority; rather, the Tribunal corrected the appellate authority's factual/legal error.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed an addition and described it as taxable interest. The Tribunal compared the appellate finding with the assessment record and the section 154 rectification and found that the Assessing Officer had not made any addition on account of interest income after rectification. The Tribunal concluded that the Commissioner (Appeals)'s observation was infructuous and that the appeal should be allowed on that basis.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that the Commissioner (Appeals) erred in treating a rectified disallowance as an addition of interest is ratio, since it directly determines the outcome of the appeal. Any broader comments on appellate review standards would be obiter.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the Commissioner (Appeals)'s confirmation of the disallowance to the extent it was treated as interest; the assessment record showed no surviving addition on interest after rectification, so the appellate observation was without effect.
Issue 4 - Sustainability of penalty proceedings where disallowance was rectified
Legal framework: Penal provisions (e.g., section 270A) require a valid underlying addition or misreporting to justify penalty; where the assessment position is rectified and no tax liability remains, initiation of penalty requires scrutiny of whether any culpable act or misreporting remains.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal did not make an independent penalty adjudication; it examined whether penalty initiation, as confirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals), had any foundation given the rectification. No precedent was overruled or followed beyond reliance on the assessment record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assesseee contended penalty was erroneously initiated based on the corrected position. The Tribunal observed that since the Assessing Officer's disallowance had been rectified resulting in no remaining addition on the disputed amount, the basis for penalty initiation was not sustainable under the facts before it. The Tribunal noted that the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed initiation of penalty in relation to the amount, but given the rectification, the confirmation could not stand in the present appeal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that penalty initiation was not sustainable on the rectified computation is ratio to the extent it disposes of the appeal. The Tribunal did not adjudicate the full merits of a penalty claim (i.e., intent, negligence), so any broader observations would be obiter.
Conclusion: In view of the Assessing Officer's rectification under section 154 eliminating the earlier disallowance, the initiation/confirmation of penalty proceedings in relation to that disallowance was not sustainable on the record; accordingly, the appeal was allowed.
Operative Conclusion
The Tribunal held that the Assessing Officer's rectification under section 154 removed the challenged disallowance under section 89(1), there was no surviving addition on account of interest, the Commissioner (Appeals)'s contrary observation was infructuous, and therefore the appeal was allowed. Any substantive question as to the taxability of the Court-awarded interest was rendered academic in the present proceedings.
Rejecting the claim of the assessee u/s 89(1) - Relief for receipt of arrear of salary and interest on such arrear - rectification order u/s 154 of the Act and with regard to taxability of interest, the same was rejected for the reason that the amount represent taxable income - HELD THAT:- As there is no liability on the part of the assessee. Meanwhile, assessee preferred an appeal before the ld. CIT(A) and CIT (A) has considered the rectification order passed u/s 154, however confirmed the addition made by the AO with the observation that interest granted by Hon’ble High Court is taxable in nature.
On verification of the facts available on record, we observe that addition made by the AO was deleted by him by passing rectification order u/s 154 of the Act relating to the deduction claimed u/s 89(1).
AO has not made any addition on earning of interest income, therefore, the observation of the CIT (A) is infructuous and accordingly, the appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalty under Section 271(1)(c) can be sustained where additions are made by invoking the deeming provision of Section 2(22)(e) but the assessee had disclosed receipt of loans and furnished loan confirmations and particulars.
2. Whether penalty under Section 271(1)(c) may be imposed on both limbs - concealment of income and furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income - where the assessing officer did not specify which limb was the basis for initiating penalty proceedings.
3. Whether discussion of mens rea and reasonable cause under Section 273B is relevant to sustain a penalty imposed under Section 271(1)(c).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of penalty under Section 271(1)(c) when deeming provision Section 2(22)(e) is invoked despite disclosure and supporting documents
Legal framework: Penalty under Section 271(1)(c) attaches where there is concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. Section 2(22)(e) is a deeming provision that may treat certain transactions as deemed dividends, leading to additions in the assessment.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal treats the facts on record and statutory scheme; no external case law is cited or overruled in the text. The decision applies the settled principle that mere invocation of a deeming provision and consequent addition does not automatically establish concealment or inaccurate particulars if relevant particulars and supporting material were furnished.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal notes that the assessee had disclosed unsecured loans from the company, filed loan confirmations, and explained the purpose and reason for the outstanding debit balance. The assessing officer's addition was based on ledger peak-debit calculations and company surplus figures to invoke Section 2(22)(e). The Tribunal reasons that where the assessee has furnished all particulars and supporting documents, the invocation of a deeming provision alone does not demonstrate that the assessee furnished inaccurate particulars or concealed income. The Tribunal emphasizes the factual distinction between disclosure of loans and the tax treatment adopted by the AO; disclosure negates the premise of concealment and furnishing of inaccurate particulars.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Penalty under Section 271(1)(c) cannot be sustained solely because a deeming provision is applied in assessment where the assessee had disclosed the transaction and furnished supporting particulars. Obiter - The detailed critique of the AO's peak-debit computation is ancillary to the main ratio that disclosure defeats concealment or inaccuracy charges.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concludes that penalty under Section 271(1)(c) is not sustainable on the facts where the assessee disclosed the loan, submitted confirmations and explanations; therefore, the penalty is deleted insofar as it rests on the invocation of Section 2(22)(e) against disclosed transactions.
Issue 2 - Requirement to specify the charge (concealment vs inaccurate particulars) when initiating penalty under Section 271(1)(c)
Legal framework: Section 271(1)(c) contemplates penalty for either concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars; procedural fairness requires the assessing officer to specify the particular charge on which penalty proceedings are initiated so the assessee may specifically meet the allegation.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal refers to the established legal position (described as "well settled") that the assessing officer must specify the limb under Section 271(1)(c) for which penalty is proposed. There is no citation of authority in the text but the Tribunal applies that principle to the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal finds that the show-cause notice and the penalty order did not specify whether the proceedings were initiated for concealment or for furnishing inaccurate particulars; instead the AO purported to levy penalty on both charges without distinct specification or tailored reasoning. The Tribunal reasons that absent specification of the charge, the assessee cannot be expected to formulate an effective explanation and the procedure mandated by law for penalty imposition is not complied with. The Tribunal also notes the AO's failure to pinpoint the precise allegation in the penalty order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Failure to specify the particular limb under Section 271(1)(c) in the show-cause notice and penalty order renders the penalty unsustainable. Obiter - Observations on how the AO should have framed the charge and addressed the assessee's response are ancillary guidance.
Conclusions: The Tribunal holds that since the assessing officer did not specify the charge (concealment or inaccurate particulars) in the initiation of penalty proceedings, the penalty cannot be sustained and must be deleted.
Issue 3 - Relevance of mens rea and Section 273B (reasonable cause) discussion to penalty under Section 271(1)(c)
Legal framework: Section 273B provides for waiver of penalty if reasonable cause is shown; mens rea (state of mind) and reasonable cause are considerations in some penalty contexts. Section 271(1)(c) penalizes concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars and is subject to procedural and substantive rules.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal criticizes the Commissioner (Appeals) for expansive discussion on mens rea and Section 273B, stating that such discussion is not relevant to the case at hand where the central defects are factual disclosure and procedural non-specification of charge. No change to precedent is made.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observes that the CIT(A)'s reliance on mens rea and reasonable cause under Section 273B is off tangent and irrelevant because the primary issue is whether the acts constituting concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars were established and whether the AO complied with the requirement to specify the charge. Where disclosure has been made and the charge was unspecified, consideration of mens rea or Section 273B reasoning does not address the procedural and substantive defects identified.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Discussion of mens rea and Section 273B is not determinative where the penalty is procedurally defective and where the factual record shows disclosure of particulars. Obiter - Any further observations on the application of Section 273B in differently framed cases are not necessary to the decision.
Conclusions: The Tribunal finds the CIT(A)'s reliance on mens rea and Section 273B irrelevant to sustaining the penalty and therefore does not uphold the penalty on those grounds.
Cross-references and Overarching Conclusion
Cross-reference: Issues 1 and 2 are interlinked - the factual disclosure of the loan (Issue 1) undermines any allegation of concealment or inaccurate particulars, and the procedural failure to specify the particular limb of Section 271(1)(c) (Issue 2) independently vitiates the penalty. Issue 3 reinforces that collateral discussion of mens rea or Section 273B cannot cure these defects.
Overarching conclusion: The Tribunal allows the appeal and deletes the penalty under Section 271(1)(c) because (a) the assessee had disclosed the loan and furnished supporting particulars, negating concealment or inaccurate particulars merely by subsequent invocation of Section 2(22)(e), and (b) the assessing officer failed to specify the charge under Section 271(1)(c) when initiating penalty proceedings, rendering the penalty unsustainable.
Penalty u/s.271(1)(c) - Section 2(22)(e) deemed dividend - Requirement to specify charge in penalty proceedings - Concealment of income - Furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income - Mens rea and Section 273B reasonable cause
Requirement to specify charge in penalty proceedings - Penalty u/s.271(1)(c) - Validity of penalty where the Assessing Officer did not specify whether proceedings were initiated for concealment of income or for furnishing inaccurate particulars of income - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the Assessing Officer initiated penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(c) without specifying the particular limb-whether concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars-either in the show-cause notice or in the penalty order. The law requires that the charge under which penalty proceedings are initiated be made clear so that the assessee can respond to that specific allegation; once a particular charge is not specified, penalty cannot be validly levied or sustained. The Tribunal therefore held that levy of penalty in such circumstances is impermissible and must be deleted. [Paras 5]
Penalty deleted as AO failed to specify the charge in the penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(c).
Section 2(22)(e) deemed dividend - Concealment of income - Furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income - Mens rea and Section 273B reasonable cause - Whether the facts warranted penalty for concealment or for furnishing inaccurate particulars when the assessee had disclosed the loan transaction and supplied loan confirmation and purpose - HELD THAT: - On the facts, the assessee had disclosed unsecured loans and furnished loan confirmations and the purpose of the loan. The addition was made by invoking the deeming fiction of section 2(22)(e) on the basis of ledger peak balances and company surplus; however, disclosure of the transactions and particulars was not disputed. The Tribunal observed that the CIT(A)'s discussion of mens rea and section 273B was misplaced because those concepts are not germane to penalty under section 271(1)(c) when the charge itself was not specified. Given that particulars were furnished and there was no concealment of the loan transaction, the circumstance did not amount to concealment of income nor to furnishing of inaccurate particulars merely because a deeming provision was applied by the AO. [Paras 4, 5]
No penalty could be sustained on merits since the assessee had disclosed the loan and particulars; invocation of the deeming provision alone did not make out concealment or inaccurate particulars.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed and the penalty imposed under section 271(1)(c) for A.Y.2013-14 is deleted.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment order passed in the name of a transferor company that has ceased to exist due to an earlier merger/amalgamation is valid where the Assessing Officer and other tax authorities had notice of the merger and transferee company details during proceedings.
2. Whether filings, notices, objections or verifications made in the name of the erstwhile (transferor) company can validate or cure an assessment order ultimately drawn up and finalised in the name of the non-existing transferor company.
3. Whether prior communications to the tax authorities (including notice u/s 142(1), submissions to TPO, and departmental no-objection before the Tribunal for the merger) impose a legal obligation on the Assessing Officer/National e-Assessment Centre to frame the final assessment in the name of the transferee company and whether failure to do so renders the assessment non-est.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of assessment framed in name of non-existing transferor company despite notice of merger
Legal framework: Under the Act, assessments, appeals and tax liabilities are capable of transfer pursuant to a scheme of amalgamation/merger such that the transferee company succeeds to liabilities and proceedings of the transferor. The procedure for assessment requires the Assessing Officer to identify the correct juridical person against whom liabilities and assessments must be recorded.
Precedent treatment: Earlier judicial pronouncements have held that an assessment passed in the name of a company that has ceased to exist by amalgamation/merger is not sustainable where the authorities had actual notice of the merger and transferee details but failed to frame the assessment against the transferee. The Court treated binding precedents to that effect as applicable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found on the record that the assessing authorities had been informed of the merger at multiple stages: notice u/s 142(1) recorded both transferor and transferee names and PANs; a written submission dated 19.11.2019 informing the AO of merger date and transferee PAN was uploaded on the ITBA portal; a departmental no-objection in respect of the merger expressly acknowledged that tax liabilities and pending assessments/appeals would be enforced against the transferee; and the Transfer Pricing Officer's records contained specific reference to the merger. Despite these facts, the final assessment order was framed and issued in the name of the transferor (non-existing) entity. The Tribunal reasoned that where the revenue and assessing officers were aware of the merger but continued to pass operative orders in the name of the dissolved transferor, the orders cannot be permitted to stand, because they do not correctly or lawfully adjudicate liabilities in the name of the legal successor entitled to those liabilities. The Tribunal rejected the Department's contention that filings/objections made in the name of the transferor could validate the final order against a non-existing entity.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where there is clear recordal and notice of an amalgamation/merger and the transferee is identified, an assessment framed in the name of the transferor that has ceased to exist is non-est and liable to be set aside. The Tribunal applied this as the operative rule deciding the appeal. Observations distinguishing particular factual positions (e.g., timing of filings, format of certain documents) are obiter to the extent they do not alter this principle.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held the final assessment order in the name of the non-existing transferor company to be unsustainable and quashed the assessment; the matter requires re-assessment or correction in the name of the transferee to reflect legal succession of liabilities.
Issue 2 - Effect of procedural filings and verifications in the transferor's name on validity of assessment
Legal framework: Procedural filings (e.g., appeals, objections, verifications) are instruments for prosecution of rights and liabilities; where legal succession by merger takes place, the transferee ordinarily inherits liabilities and procedural posture. The proper identification of the party in documents is material but not determinative where legal succession is on record and acknowledged by authorities.
Precedent treatment: Courts have held that mere appearances of filings in the name of transferor or signatures/verification by officials of the transferor do not confer validity on substantive orders issued in the name of a non-existing entity when the authorities have been put on notice of the merger and transferee's entitlement. The Tribunal relied on such authoritative precedents in reaching its conclusion.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered and rejected the Revenue's reliance on Form No.35A and verification by the managing director of the transferor as curative of the defect. The reasoning was that procedural actions taken in the transferor's name do not validate a final assessment framed against a company that legally no longer exists, particularly where the revenue was aware of the merger and accepted no-objection before the Company Law forum, acknowledging that liabilities should be enforced against the transferee. The Tribunal emphasized substance over form: knowledge and acceptance by authorities that the transferee is the entity liable means the final order must reflect that legal reality.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Filings or verifications in the name of the transferor do not validate an assessment finalised in the name of the dissolved transferor where the authorities had notice of legal succession and the transferee was identified; such final assessments are liable to be set aside. Ancillary remarks on procedural best practice are obiter.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that procedural filings in the name of the transferor cannot cure a final assessment framed in the name of a non-existing entity when the merger and transferee details were on record and acknowledged; hence those filings did not save the impugned assessment.
Issue 3 - Obligation of tax authorities to record liabilities and pass orders in the transferee's name once merger is notified
Legal framework: Where a scheme of amalgamation provides that the transferee succeeds to all tax liabilities and proceedings of the transferor, tax authorities are required to consider and record the transferee as the party in interest for assessments, appeals and enforcement. Administrative actions inconsistent with that legal succession may be corrective or void.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on established decisions holding that the revenue's knowledge of a merger imposes a duty to act in conformity with the merger-i.e., to enforce liabilities against the transferee-and failure to do so invalidates orders made in the name of the dissolved entity.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the Department's own no-objection before the Company Law forum explicitly stating that tax liabilities and pending assessments/appeals would be enforced against the transferee and that the transferee would bear any tax liabilities, the Tribunal treated this as reinforcing the obligation of the Assessing Officer to frame orders against the transferee. The Tribunal observed that despite repeated opportunities and clear documentary evidence, the final orders did not reflect the transferee's name; this defect was material and prejudicial to correctness of the assessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Tax authorities must ensure that assessments and final orders reflect legal succession where merger/amalgamation has been notified and acknowledged; failure to do so is a material irregularity rendering orders non-est. Comments on administrative diligence and record-keeping are obiter guidance.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the revenue's own acknowledgements and documentary records created a duty to frame the assessment in the transferee's name; non-compliance rendered the assessment unsustainable and warranted quashing.
Disposition and consequential direction (consequential to the above ratios)
Because the assessment was finalised in the name of a non-existing transferor though the authorities had notice and acknowledgement of merger and transferee's liability, the Tribunal quashed the impugned assessment order. The result implies reassessment or corrective proceedings must be conducted in accordance with legal succession and established practice (i.e., reflect the transferee as the party against whom liabilities are to be enforced).
Assessment order passed in the name of erstwhile and non-existing entity as merged/dissolved - HELD THAT:-Final assessment order passed by NeAC in the name of non-existing entity is certainly not sustainable. The
Department and AO were quite aware of the merger. Still at every stage the fact of merger though in the knowledge of the ld. officers was not reflected in the final orders to ensure that liability is created in the hands of Mentor Graphics (India) Pvt. Ltd., only.
We find no substance in the contention of the ld. DR that the assessee had preferred objections before the DRP in the name of erstwhile company or the Managing Director of the erstwhile company had filed objections that in any way can validate the passing of final assessment order in the name of non-existing entity.
The law in this regard is now quite settled that if in spite of the AO being informed of any merger or amalgamation does not take note of the same and the orders are passed in the name of nonexisting entity, the same are nonest and liable to be set aside.
Reliance in this regard can be placed on the judgement of Sterlite Technologies Limited [2024 (5) TMI 397 - SC ORDER] and catena of other judgements which have been belied by judgements in the case of Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. [2019 (7) TMI 1449 - SUPREME COURT] - Assessee Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Income Tax Department can, under Section 226(4) read with Section 132B of the Income Tax Act, appropriate amounts converted into FDRs from seized bank balances to satisfy assessed tax demands prior to conclusion of criminal proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and related criminal trials.
2. When two special statutes contain non-obstante clauses (Section 71 PMLA and provisions of the Income Tax Act), which statute prevails: whether PMLA (being subsequent) has overriding effect, or the Income Tax Act's recovery mechanism can be exercised notwithstanding PMLA proceedings.
3. Whether the seized sums prima facie constitute "income" of the accused (liable to tax and recovery) or are "proceeds of crime" within the meaning of PMLA such that they cannot be treated as taxable income until adjudication/trial determines ownership and character.
4. The role and effect of earlier judicial orders (conversion of seized cash into FDRs, CMM's directions, attachment/possession orders) on rival claims by Revenue, victims/creditors, and enforcement agencies under PMLA.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Competence of Income Tax Department to appropriate FDRs under Section 226(4)/132B before conclusion of PMLA/criminal proceedings
Legal framework: Section 132/132B and Section 226(4) of the Income Tax Act provide for seizure, deemed seizure, and application of seized assets towards tax demands; PMLA provides for provisional attachment (Section 5), adjudication and confiscation, and contains Section 71 (non-obstante clause) and other provisions protecting custody/possession during proceedings.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered authorities relied upon by parties (including decisions permitting revenue adjustment post-assessment and cases where seizure did not bar release), but distinguished or limited them where facts showed prima facie criminal provenance of funds or where later-special legislation applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that appropriation under the Income Tax Act presumes proprietary or exercisable rights of the assessee over the seized amounts. Where the seized sums are prima facie proceeds of crime and are subject matter of PMLA/prosecution, proprietary title is disputed. Permitting Revenue to appropriate FDRs before criminal adjudication would preempt PMLA processes, prejudice victims/claimants and undermine PMLA's object of forfeiture/restoration. The Court noted prior CMM orders permitting IT Department to apply sums only did not finally determine ownership; subsequent PMLA proceedings were filed and provisional attachment orders issued. The Court held that, as a matter of law and practical effect, adequacy of appropriation depends on whether amount is legitimately income - which cannot be assumed before conclusion of criminal/forfeiture proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where seized monies are prima facie proceeds of crime and subject to PMLA proceedings, the Income Tax Department cannot prematurely appropriate such sums under Section 226(4)/132B prior to adjudication/trial determining character/ownership. Observations about use of interlocutory orders and factual chronology are explanatory (obiter) to support the ratio.
Conclusion: Application by Revenue for release/appropriation of FDRs was rightly rejected until conclusion of PMLA/criminal proceedings; the Income Tax Department cannot appropriate prima facie proceeds of crime before their character is judicially determined.
Issue 2 - Conflict between PMLA (Section 71) and Income Tax Act: choice of statute when both have non-obstante clauses
Legal framework: PMLA contains an express overriding provision (Section 71) and statutory scheme for provisional attachment, adjudication and confiscation; Income Tax Act provides recovery and deemed-seizure machinery. Principle: where two statutes have non-obstante clauses, courts examine subject-matter, dominant purpose and objects/reasons to resolve conflict.
Precedent treatment: The Court considered Solidare, Ketan Parekh, Sarvan Singh, Kamayu Motor Association and later High Court authorities dealing with PMLA conflicts (e.g., PNB Housing Finance, Dyani Antony Paul). It applied the tests from these precedents: examine dominant purpose, temporal sequence, and legislative intent. Earlier authorities cited by Revenue were distinguished on facts or held inapplicable where PMLA's object directly addressed confiscation of proceeds.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found PMLA's dominant purpose - deprivation/forfeiture of proceeds of crime and restoration to legitimate claimants - directly covers the controversy. Even where both statutes are "special" and contain non-obstante clauses, the Court emphasized determining which statute's dominant purpose is engaged by the factual matrix. Since the core question is whether funds are proceeds of crime, PMLA's scheme (provisional attachment, adjudication, restoration/confiscation) is the directly relevant special purpose, and thus PMLA ought to prevail in the present circumstances.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where PMLA's dominant purpose (forfeiture/management of proceeds of crime) is engaged, its provisions (including Section 71) prevail over Income Tax Act's recovery machinery in respect of the same seized property until PMLA adjudication is complete. Observations distinguishing cases where Income Tax would prevail in different factual matrices are obiter.
Conclusion: PMLA, being the later-special enactment and directly addressing proceeds of crime, prevails over the Income Tax Act for the seized sums in dispute until PMLA adjudication/trial is concluded.
Issue 3 - Character of seized sums: income taxable vs. proceeds of crime
Legal framework: Income under Section 2(24) Income Tax Act entails profits/gains from definite sources and requires proprietary right or exercisable claim; PMLA defines proceeds of crime and provides for confiscation/restoration of property derived from scheduled offences.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on authorities holding that embezzled/defrauded money is not to be treated as assessable income of the offender until legal ownership/character is established (Sayed Khaja; R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala principle that there is no "trade" in crime; distinctions drawn from Piara Singh and later Prakash Chand Lunia which limit application where facts differ).
Interpretation and reasoning: On facts, the seized funds arose from an alleged Ponzi/money-circulation scheme promising guaranteed returns to investors; prima facie the funds were entrusted monies obtained by deception and not legitimate profits of trade or business. Given the ongoing PMLA complaint and allegations that the funds are proceeds of scheduled offences, the Court held that it would be erroneous to treat those funds as taxable income and to allow Revenue to appropriate them prior to criminal/adjudicatory determination of their character. The Court distinguished cases allowing recovery where the seized amounts were legitimately income or the Revenue's claim had been judicially determined.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where seized funds are prima facie proceeds of crime, they do not constitute taxable income of the accused for purposes of immediate appropriation by Revenue; characterization must await criminal/PMLA adjudication. Observations on definitions of trade and comparative case law are supportive explanations (obiter where not strictly necessary to the ultimate holding).
Conclusion: The seized amounts are prima facie proceeds of crime and cannot be treated as income susceptible to Revenue recovery until PMLA/criminal proceedings determine their character and ownership.
Issue 4 - Effect of interim/ancillary orders (conversion to FDRs, earlier CMM directions, attachments) on competing claims
Legal framework: Court possessory orders and conversion of seized cash to FDRs are interim measures; final rights depend on substantive adjudication under relevant statutes (PMLA adjudication/confiscation or Income Tax assessments subject to challenge).
Precedent treatment: The Court analyzed interlocutory orders that converted seized cash into FDRs and earlier CMM directions allowing Revenue to raise objections; it treated such orders as not determinative of substantive proprietary rights when PMLA provisional attachment and complaint later ensued.
Interpretation and reasoning: Interim conversion/possession does not determine dominance of statutory schemes. The Court held that despite prior directions, subsequent initiation and continuation of PMLA processes and provisional attachment orders require that claimed proprietary/ownership questions be left to PMLA adjudication. Permitting Revenue to use interim possession to appropriate funds would frustrate PMLA scheme and prejudice victims/claimants.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - interlocutory conversion to FDR and past CMM directions cannot override later-initiated PMLA attachment/adjudication rights; interim custody does not authorize premature appropriation. Ancillary observations on case management are explanatory (obiter).
Conclusion: Earlier procedural/interim orders did not entitle Revenue to appropriate FDRs; the Special Judge correctly rejected the Revenue's recovery application in light of subsequent PMLA proceedings and provisional attachment orders.
Final Disposition
The Court concluded that the Income Tax Department's application to release/appropriate the FDR amounts for tax recovery was rightly rejected; the petition seeking to set aside that order is without merit and is dismissed. The seized amounts, prima facie proceeds of crime and subject to PMLA proceedings, cannot be appropriated by the Revenue until the conclusion of the criminal/adjudicatory processes under PMLA or until the character/ownership of the funds is judicially determined.
Seeking direction to release all the FDRs, for recovery of Tax Demand against the Respondent Nos. 3 to 6 and a Partnership Firm of the Respondents -seized amounts in the present case subject to investigation under PMLA - search and seizure operation u/s 132 as carried out by the Investigation Wing of Income Tax Department at the residential and office premises of the Respondent Nos. 3 to 6 and the Firm in which number of incriminating documents, details of all Bank Account/s deposit/s with all kind properties, articles, etc. in their names including the cash were seized
Application was filed by the Income Tax Department contended that the amounts seized from Respondent Nos. 3 to 6 and its firm, now lying in FDRs, ought to be appropriated first towards satisfaction of outstanding tax liabilities as mandated by the provisions of the IT Act, which remained pending - whether the tax liability of the Respondent would take precedence over the trial under PMLA to ascertain whether the amounts traced in the various accounts, is proceed of crime?
HELD THAT:- Section 132 of IT Act provides that the assets/money mentioned in Sub-Section 1 (c) can be seized if the said property is income or property which has not been or would not be disclosed for the purpose of Income Tax Act. Section 2(24) of IT Act defines Income as the profits, gains or monetary return coming from a definite source.
In the present case, as has been discussed above, it is not the money which is relatable to the Income of the Accused. Prima facie, it is evident that this is the money which had been fraudulently obtained by the accused persons by floating fraudulent schemes under the name of various Companies. Section 2(24) would apply to an Income of an individual.
The proceeds of crime as in the present case, can in no way be termed as the income of the Accused at this stage, as trial in PMLA case is yet to be concluded. As has been contended by EOW, the money never belonged to the Accused persons as it was only the entrusted money which was sought to be returned with higher returns. As contended by Respondent No. 2, the accused persons had got possession of money of the investors by deception and malice, which can never be termed as their income.
The embezzled money by the Director of a Company cannot constitute a benefit of pre-requisite obtained from the Company and cannot be called his income. In the present case, the money is the defrauded/embezzled amounts of innocent investors acquired by the Accused through illegal means. These funds would not come within the income of the Accused.
Section 2(13) of IT Act provides business as any trade, commerce or manufacture or any adventure or concerned in the nature of trade, commerce or manufacture.
As in B. Ramlal vs. State of U.P. [1954 (7) TMI 31 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] it was observed that it is in public interest that the property acquired by the offender through commission of offence, should be taken away from him. Nobody can claim a right to a property in the possession over which has been acquired through commission of offence.
In the present circumstances, it cannot be said at this stage that the Accused persons had entered into trade or business and the income generated therefrom, can be termed as an income on which tax liability arises because of concealment. It is evident from the definition of the ‘trade’ that the modus operandi of the functioning of the Accused Company cannot be termed as an activity of trade and business. As has been discussed above, it is a money which is accumulated by fraud and deception and infact, prima facie comes within the definition of proceeds of crime.
The seized amounts in the present case subject to investigation under PMLA are prima facie proceeds of crime, and not lawful income from trade or business. Therefore, till such time the trial is concluded under PMLA/the FIR No.84/2011 dated 07.04.2011 (regarding cheating the investors) and it is established that the income/money recovered from the various Bank accounts which has been put in FDRs was indeed the income of the accused persons, the Income Tax Department cannot appropriate for tax liability by holding it as the income of the Company/Directors. Therefore, to treat such amounts as taxable income recoverable by the Income Tax Department, prior to the conclusion of the PMLA trial or adjudication, would be erroneous. The case of Piara Singh [1980 (5) TMI 2 - SUPREME COURT] cannot be relied herein to support the premature appropriation of the seized funds for tax recovery purposes.
The ‘dominant purpose’ test noted in Dyani Antony Paul [2020 (12) TMI 1296 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] were to be applied in determining which special enactment should prevail when both contain non-obstante clauses, PMLA would still take precedence in the present circumstances. The dominant purpose of PMLA is to forfeit proceeds of crime and restore such property to legitimate claimants, which directly addresses the core issue in this case - whether the seized funds constitute proceeds of crime obtained through fraudulent schemes or legitimate income subject to taxation. The IT Act’s purpose of revenue collection becomes secondary when the very foundation of taxable income is disputed and under criminal investigation.
Considering the objective and purpose of PMLA and Income Tax Act as detailed above and also considering that PMLA is a subsequent Act, it is hereby held that the Application of the Income Tax Department for release of the FDR amounts to be appropriated towards the alleged tax liability of the accused persons, has been rightly rejected and cannot be entertained until the conclusion of the trial in the criminal case, as any premature release would prejudice the ongoing PMLA proceedings. Petition dismissed.
Issues: Whether compensation received for compulsory acquisition of land under the National Highways Act, 1956 is exempt from income-tax under section 96 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013.
Analysis: The compensation was paid for acquisition of land by the National Highways Authority of India under the National Highways Act, 1956, which is listed in the Fourth Schedule to the RFCTLARR Act. The judgment read sections 96, 103, 105 and 113 together with the 28.08.2015 removal of difficulties order issued under section 113(1), and treated that order as extending the beneficial provisions of the RFCTLARR Act relating to determination of compensation to acquisitions under enactments in the Fourth Schedule. Relying on the constitutional concern against discriminatory treatment of similarly placed landowners and the Supreme Court decisions recognising parity in compensation under the National Highways regime, the Court held that once compensation is determined under the RFCTLARR framework, the exemption from income-tax in section 96 also follows. The exclusion in section 105 was held not to defeat the exemption where the compensation itself is regulated by the RFCTLARR Act through the 2015 order.
Conclusion: Section 96 of the RFCTLARR Act applies to compensation received for acquisition under the National Highways Act, 1956, and the compensation is not exigible to income-tax.
Ratio Decidendi: Where compensation for acquisition under a Fourth Schedule enactment is made payable by applying the RFCTLARR Act's compensation framework through the removal of difficulties order, the statutory exemption from income-tax attached to awards or agreements under that Act extends to such compensation as well.
Addition as compensation against the acquisition of land by National Highway Authority of India under the National Highways Act, 1956 - Whether exigible to tax which is contrary to Section 96 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013? - HELD THAT:- A careful perusal of the order issued by the Ministry of Rural Development on 28-8-2015 would show that the Central Government has intended to ensure that the land owners who lost the lands not only under the RFCTLARR Act, but also under the enactments specified in the Fourth Schedule should have a uniform determination of compensation and the beneficial compensation under the RFCTLARR Act and thus made them applicable to all the enactments.
It is, therefore, clear that the basic objective behind the issuance of the 2015 order was to ensure that even in cases of land acquisition specified under the Fourth Schedule, which had made the provisions of the RFCTLARR act inapplicable, were nevertheless, brought within the purview of the RFCTLARR Act insofar as it related to determination of compensation, rehabilitation and resettlement.
Thus, the provisions of the RFCTLARR Act with regard to the determination of compensation in accordance with the First Schedule, rehabilitation and resettlement in accordance with the Second Schedule and infrastructure amenities in accordance with the Third Schedule are made applicable to the enactments specified in the Fourth Schedule and for the purposes of determining compensation, the RFCTLARR Act is applicable.
Once compensation is determined under the provisions of the RFCTLARR Act, as a necessary corollary, the benefits flowing from the provisions of the said Act, including exemptions from income tax, stamp duty and fees contemplated u/s 96 of the RFCTLARR Act, would also have to be made applicable. If the benefit flowing from Section 96 is not given to the land-losers whose lands have been acquired under the Act of 1956, it would mean that the land-losers under the enactments specified in the Fourth Schedule are subjected to discrimination and this would be against the intent of the Union of India in issuing the 2015 Order and it would be contrary to the principles of law laid down by the Supreme Court in Tarsem Singh’s (1) case [2019 (9) TMI 1480 - SUPREME COURT] Tarsem Singh’s (2) case [2025 (2) TMI 1245 - SUPREME COURT] and P. Nagaraju alias Cheluvaiah’s case [2022 (7) TMI 1413 - SUPREME COURT] More particularly, Section 103 of the RFCTLARR Act makes it clear that the provisions of the RFCTLARR Act are in addition to and not in derogation of any other law.
Section 96 of the RFCTLARR Act providing for exemption from income tax, stamp duty and fees would also be applicable to the land acquired under the Act of 1956 and to the compensation paid by the NHAI and consequently, the assessee would not be liable to pay income tax on the amount of compensation paid to him against the acquisition of his land under the Act of 1956.
Consequently, the substantial question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue and it is held that the compensation received against acquisition of land from the NHAI is not exigible to tax under Section 96 of the RFCTLARR Act.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether indexation for computation of long-term capital gains on sale of an apartment accrues from the date of provisional allotment/booking and payment of installments, or from the date of execution of the Builder-Buyer (Buyer's) Agreement which effects transfer of "booking rights".
2. Whether communications of provisional allotment, tentative allotment letters or confirmation letters that reserve detailed terms to a later executed Buyer's Agreement can, as a matter of law, confer a vested right in the capital asset sufficient to attract indexation from the earlier payment/booking date.
3. Whether the Tribunal/Revenue was justified in denying indexation from the year of initial payment where the final allotment and Buyer's Agreement were executed later, and whether the earlier appellate decisions relied upon are binding or distinguishable.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Accrual date for indexation: provisional booking/payments v. execution of Buyer's Agreement
Legal framework: Indexation for long-term capital gains requires identification of the date of acquisition of the capital asset; acquisition date determines the base year/indexation to compute indexed cost. The relevant legal principle is that a right or interest in immovable property accrues only by virtue of an agreement evidencing consensus ad idem to transfer that right.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal followed the existing authoritative principle articulated by this Court in Gulshan Malik, holding that booking/confirmation letters which explicitly state that no right accrues until execution of the Buyer's Agreement cannot be treated as vesting title or booking rights earlier; therefore the date of the Buyer's Agreement is the date of acquisition for capital gains purposes. The judgment of Gulshan Malik was applied, not distinguished or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined documentary sequence: initial booking/payment (04/2007), provisional allotment letter (21/09/2007) and further communications (including a 13/11/2009 letter confirming provisional allotment/adjustment), followed by a Cancellation and Adjustment document and a Builder-Buyer Agreement executed on 19/07/2010. The Court emphasised that the communications expressly indicated only provisional allotment and did not intend to convey final rights until the Buyer's Agreement was executed. Substantial payments made earlier did not convert provisional allotment into a vested right when the contractual scheme reserved accrual of rights to a later formal agreement. Consequently, indexation was properly allowed from the financial year starting on the date of the executed Buyer's Agreement (2010-11), not from the earlier payments.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The date of execution of the Buyer's Agreement (i.e., the agreement intending to convey the right to purchase and obtain title) is the date of acquisition for capital gains/indexation purposes where preceding documents or allotment letters explicitly preserve accrual of rights until such agreement is signed. Obiter - Observations on the genuineness/quantum of payments or on practical expectations of buyers insofar as they do not alter the contractual allocation of rights are ancillary and not binding.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that indexation benefit was rightly denied from AY 2007-08; the appropriate acquisition date is 19/07/2010 when the Buyer's Agreement was executed. The addition of Rs. 4,12,812 made by the Assessing Officer, as sustained by the CIT(A) and Tribunal, was therefore upheld.
Issue 2 - Legal effect of provisional allotment/confirmation letters and continuity of allotment across projects
Legal framework: Proprietary or booking rights in immovable property arise from an agreement manifesting consensus to transfer such rights; unilateral or preliminary communications that expressly qualify the allotment as provisional and reserve final rights to a future agreement do not, as a matter of law, create an accrued right to obtain title.
Precedent Treatment: The Court adhered to the principle in Gulshan Malik that confirmation/allotment letters which state that no right accrues until buyer's agreement precludes treating earlier dates as acquisition dates. No contrary authority was accepted as applicable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant's claim that change of project/adjustment documents merely continued the original 2007 booking was rejected because the record showed all interim communications were provisional in nature and expressly contemplated a later definitive Buyer's Agreement. The Court noted the final allotment materialised only upon execution of the Buyer's Agreement; mere provisional allotment or modification letters did not alter the contractual intent to reserve accrual of rights to the formal agreement.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Provisional allotment letters and interim communications do not confer acquisition rights where they expressly or impliedly reserve accrual of rights to execution of a later Buyer's Agreement. Obiter - Factual observations regarding the sequence of letters and payments that demonstrate provisional status are descriptive and supportive but not independently determinative beyond the contractual allocation of rights rule.
Conclusions: The Court treated the change of project and associated documents as consistent with provisional allotment practice and held they did not establish an earlier date of acquisition; indexation from the provisional booking/payments was therefore not permissible.
Issue 3 - Application of precedent and existence of substantial question of law
Legal framework: Appellate review under Section 260A requires a substantial question of law arising from the Tribunal's order. When binding precedent on point directly applies, and there is no distinguishing factual or legal basis, no substantial question of law may be found.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied and followed the prior decision (Gulshan Malik) on accrual of booking rights and date of acquisition. The Tribunal's reliance on that precedent was upheld as appropriate.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant argued distinguishability based on payments and provisional allotment. The Court rejected this contention because the documentary record demonstrated that allotment remained provisional and substantive rights were contingent on execution of the Buyer's Agreement - facts squarely within the scope of the precedent. Because the precedent disposed of the central legal question and was applicable on the facts, no substantial question of law arose.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where controlling precedent directly addresses the legal question and the facts do not distinguish the precedent, there is no substantial question of law for further adjudication. Obiter - Comments on tactical or commercial expectations of purchasers are incidental.
Conclusions: The appeal raised no substantial question of law; reliance on the precedent was proper and the appeal was dismissed as meritless.
LTCG - Denial of indexation benefit from AY 2007-2008 -booking rights to the apartment accrued to the assessee on the date of application for allotment/confirmation of allotment or on the date of execution of the agreement to sell i.e. the buyer’s agreement - as argued allotment of flat gives a right in favour of the appellant in respect of that property and hence the addition in the manner done is unjustified and also change of project from Greater Noida to Faridabad is in continuance of the allotment letter initially issued on 21.09.2007
HELD THAT:- As decided in Gulshan Malik [2014 (3) TMI 474 - DELHI HIGH COURT] as held a right or interest in an immovable property can accrue only by way of an agreement embodying consensus ad idem. The nature of the right sought to be transferred here is the right to purchase the apartment and obtain title, termed “booking rights”.
Only that agreement which intends to convey these rights according to both parties can be considered as the source of accrual of rights to the assessee. The confirmation letter dated 6.8.2004 specifically states first, that no right to provisional/final allotment accrues until the Buyer’s Agreement is signed and returned to the builders and second, that no right to claim title/ownership results from the confirmation letter itself. Thus, it is clear that the Builders do not intend to convey any right of provisional/final allotment or any right to claim title/ownership under the confirmation letter.
There being no intention to convey rights in this document, it would be impermissible for this Court to find that the right to obtain title/“booking rights” emanated from the confirmation letter. These rights may only be located in the Buyer’s agreement, and thus, the date of acquisition of the capital asset must be considered the date of signing of said agreement i.e. 4.11.2004. No substantial question of law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Tribunal was justified in deleting addition of alleged bogus long-term capital gain (claim of exemption under section 10(38) of the Act) arising out of sale of penny-stock shares where price movement was said to be unsupported by financial fundamentals.
2. Whether reliance by the Tribunal on precedent and documentary/banking evidence to hold the investment genuine improperly ignored circumstantial evidence, preponderance of probabilities, and admissions by an alleged entry-operator.
3. Whether the Tribunal was justified in deleting disallowance of commission paid to brokers (2% notional commission) claimed to be unexplained and part of stage-managed accommodation entries.
4. Whether an addition made by way of rectification under section 154 (or similar) without a show-cause notice was valid where the assessing officer had issued a show-cause notice before making the rectification.
5. Whether the Tribunal's order is perverse for ignoring facts said to establish manipulation of share prices and for substituting its view for concurrent findings of Assessing Officer and first appellate authority.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Deletion of addition of alleged bogus LTCG under section 10(38)
Legal framework: Section 10(38) exempts long-term capital gains on sale of listed securities where STT has been paid. Assessing Officer may make additions under relevant provisions if transactions are found to be bogus, accommodation entries or not genuine; burden on revenue to establish sham/benami or accommodation entries by evidence beyond suspicion.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal's approach followed decisions of the jurisdictional High Court and coordinate benches that require positive evidence (banking trails, demat/clearing records, contract notes, STT payment) and that suspicion alone cannot sustain an addition. The Court relied on a recent decision of this Court (referred to repeatedly) and on a recognized principle from higher authority that surmise/suspicion cannot substitute evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal evaluated documentary evidence - RTGS/NEFT credits into the assessee's bank account, contract notes, demat and BSE trading/settlement records, STT payment - and found no evidence of cash exchange or nexus linking the assessee to any entry operator. The Tribunal criticized the Assessing Officer's heavy reliance on the investigation wing's report without independent inquiry or corroboration and noted that SEBI did not include the particular scrip in the list of rigged scrips. Long holding period (over 2 years) and public nature of trading and clearing were treated as indicia of genuineness. The Court accepted those findings and applied the earlier analogous decision to the facts, holding that no substantial question of law arises.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where sale proceeds are routed through banking channels, STT is paid, demat/clearing records and contract notes exist, and there is no independent evidence connecting the assessee to entry providers, addition for bogus LTCG cannot be sustained on mere suspicion. Obiter - observations on policy or wider implications of market manipulation beyond the facts.
Conclusion: The Tribunal was justified in deleting the addition and holding exemption under section 10(38) was rightly availed; no substantial question of law exists on this point.
Issue 2 - Reliance on precedent and treatment of circumstantial evidence/admissions
Legal framework: Fact-finding authorities may rely on documentary proof and precedents; circumstantial evidence can be relevant but must be corroborated by material establishing nexus or involvement of the taxpayer. Admission by an alleged entry-operator is a piece of evidence but requires opportunity for cross-examination and corroboration.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal distinguished out-of-jurisdiction High Court authority and followed binding jurisdictional High Court and coordinate ITAT decisions which emphasize corroborative evidence and independent inquiry by AO. The Court applied its prior decision where long holding and documentary proof led to dismissal of Revenue's claim.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted absence of nexus between the assessee and alleged entry-providers; the investigation's statements were recorded without the assessee's ability to cross-examine; brokers of the assessee were not interrogated by AO; and no direct evidence showed cash payments to brokers or entry-providers. The Tribunal therefore preferred documentary banking and exchange records over uncorroborated circumstantial findings. The Court accepted that approach, observing that presumption and probabilities cannot replace evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - admissions or circumstantial inferences, standing alone and unsupported by corroborative evidence demonstrating link to the taxpayer, cannot sustain additions. Obiter - comments on territorial applicability of certain High Court judgments and on the limits of investigation reports.
Conclusion: The Tribunal properly relied on binding precedent and documentary evidence; it did not err in discounting uncorroborated circumstantial inferences or isolated admissions absent nexus and opportunity for testing evidence.
Issue 3 - Deletion of disallowance of commission claimed unexplained (2% notional commission)
Legal framework: If primary addition (i.e., that sale proceeds are unexplained/part of bogus transaction) is deleted, consequential disallowances that flow from that addition fall away. Disallowance under sections dealing with unexplained expenditure requires independent satisfaction of unexplained nature.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treated the notional commission disallowance as consequential to the deleted main addition and relied on precedent that consequential grounds fail if the primary addition is deleted.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having held sale proceeds genuine and the LTCG exempt, the Tribunal found the notional commission disallowance had no independent substrate and thus deleted it as consequential. The Court endorsed that consequence, noting the logical and legal connection between the primary finding and the consequential disallowance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a primary addition is vacated for lack of evidence, consequential additions/disallowances that depend on the primary finding must also be deleted. Obiter - none material.
Conclusion: The Tribunal correctly deleted the commission disallowance as consequential; that deletion stands.
Issue 4 - Validity of addition by rectification/section 154 where show-cause notice was issued
Legal framework: Principles governing rectification orders require adherence to statutory procedure; where a show-cause notice was issued prior to any addition by rectification, procedural compliance is relevant to validity of the order. However, effect depends on whether the notice was complied with and whether the record shows procedural infirmity causing prejudice.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal examined record and found that the AO's purported reliance on lack of show-cause notice was incorrect on facts because a show-cause notice had been issued; nonetheless, the Tribunal's deletion of the main addition rendered the procedural dispute moot as the substantive finding failed for lack of evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the factual record showing issuance of a show-cause notice and observed that even if procedural irregularity were argued, the absence of substantive evidence of sham transactions is determinative. The Tribunal's conclusion that additions were unsustainable was therefore upheld irrespective of the technical contention about show-cause notice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - substance (absence of evidence of sham transaction) can render procedural disputes immaterial to outcome; procedural infirmity alone does not create addition where substantive proof is lacking. Obiter - procedural correctness remains relevant in other factual contexts where substance is otherwise established.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's outcome is unaffected by the procedural contention; deletion of addition stands notwithstanding the procedural point.
Issue 5 - Allegation of perversity in Tribunal's order for ignoring manipulation facts and substituting view
Legal framework: Appellate and quasi-judicial findings of fact are to be respected unless perverse (no evidence reasonably supports them). The revenue must establish legal infirmity or perverse conclusion on the face of record to sustain a question of law.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied settled standards that suspicion does not equal evidence and that concurrent findings based on documentary proof and absence of nexus are not perverse. The Court relied on its earlier decision endorsing such approach and dismissed the appeal for lack of any substantial question of law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal conducted fact-based analysis, weighed evidence (banking, demat, SEBI status, holding period) and found revenue's case rested on presumption. The Court held that these are findings of fact which cannot be interfered with as perverse when the material supports the Tribunal's conclusion. The Court also observed territorial applicability when choosing precedents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - appellate interference is impermissible where Tribunal's factual conclusions are based on evidence and not vitiated by perversity; mere disagreement by revenue does not convert a factual conclusion into a question of law. Obiter - commentary on investigatory practices and territorial precedent application.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's order is not perverse; no substantial question of law arises and the appeal is dismissed.
Bogus LTCG - addition u/s 10(38) - sale of shares as a penny stock - HELD THAT:- As decided in Divyaben Prafulchandra Parmar [2024 (1) TMI 800 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] Tribunal has arrived at a finding of fact that shares of Sunrise Asian Ltd. sold by the assessee cannot be doubted as bogus and exemption under Section 10(38) of the Act was rightly availed by the assessee. The Tribunal has also concluded that the presumption drawn by the AO was not corroborated by any evidence to establish the alleged non-genuine transaction by the assessee.
Therefore, rightly held by the Tribunal that the claim of the assessee for exemption of Long Term Capital Gains under Section 10(38) of the Act cannot be held to be bogus on the basis of presumption in absence of any evidence brought on record by the assessee with regard to shares of Sunrise Asian Ltd, which is not even found to be rigged by the SEBI also.
Tribunal has also considered that the assessee held the shares for two and half years and after holding the shares for a long period, the same were sold by the assessee and therefore, reliance was placed on the decision of this Court in the case of Jagat Pravinbhai Sarabhai [2023 (1) TMI 44 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] genuineness of investment in the shares by the assessee was substantiated by him by producing copy of transaction statement for the period from 1.6.2001 to 1.10.2010. The investment was made in the year 2000-01. The shares were retained for more than ten years and were sold after such long time. These circumstances suggested that the investment was not bogus or investment made in penny stock. The shares were purchased in order to invest and not for the purpose of earning exempted income by frequent trading in short span. Decided in favour of assessee.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Transfer Pricing Officer's (TPO) order under section 92CA(3) (read with 92CA(3A)) is barred by limitation where it was passed one day after the last permissible date computed as "sixty days prior to" the expiry of limitation under section 153(1).
2. Whether additional grounds of appeal raising a legal/jurisdictional issue (limitation of TPO order and consequent invalidity of assessment) can be admitted at the appellate stage though raised after filing the appeal.
3. Consequential legal effect of an order of the TPO held time-barred on (a) validity of the TPO order itself; (b) eligibility of the assessee under section 144C(15); and (c) validity of subsequent draft/final assessment passed in conformity with the TPO order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Limitation for TPO order under section 92CA(3A) vis-à-vis section 153(1): Legal framework
Section 92CA(3A) requires that where a reference is made to the TPO, an order under section 92CA(3) "may be made at any time before sixty days prior to the date on which the period of limitation referred to in section 153 ... for making the order of assessment ... expires." Section 153(1) prescribes the outer date for completion of assessment (extended to three years where a reference to TPO is made).
Issue 1 - Precedent treatment
The Court relied on prior judicial determinations that parsed the phrase "before sixty days prior to" to exclude the terminal date (the section-153 expiry date) when computing the 60-day period, and held that the statutory time-limit is mandatory. It also relied on authorities establishing that the word "may" in such context may be construed as mandatory depending on the scheme and object of the provision.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
Performing a textual and purposive construction, the Court held that the words "prior to" require exclusion of the last date under section 153 when counting backwards 60 days. Thus the 60-day period ends before the date of expiry of the section-153 limitation and the TPO must pass the order on or before the day that is 60 days prior to the section-153 expiry date. The scheme of sections 92CA(3A), 92CA(4), 144C and 153 was examined to show interdependency: the TPO's timely determination is integral to the assessing officer issuing a draft assessment and for invoking DRP procedures. The proviso to section 92CA(3A) (extending period to 60 days where shorter) and the consequential extension of assessment time under section 153 reinforce a mandatory time frame. The Court therefore construed "may" as "shall" for the purpose of enforcing the deadline in the statutory scheme; the policy of expedited and time-bound TP determinations supports mandatory reading.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: The deadline for a TPO under section 92CA(3A) is mandatory; the 60-day period is to be calculated excluding the section-153 expiry date ("prior to" excludes the last date); an order passed after that cutoff is time-barred. Observations on statutory scheme and consequences are essential to the holding.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The TPO's order passed one day after the last permissible day (i.e., on the 61st day rather than on or before the 60th day prior to the section-153 expiry) is barred by limitation and therefore invalid.
Issue 2 - Admission of additional grounds raising limitation challenge: Legal framework
Appellate adjudicatory principles permit admission of legal/jurisdictional grounds at the appellate stage where the questions are legal in nature, arise on the record, do not require fresh evidence, and go to the root of validity of the assessment.
Issue 2 - Precedent treatment
The Court applied established authority recognizing the Tribunal's jurisdiction to examine questions of law based on facts on record and to admit legal grounds affecting tax liability even if raised later in appeal.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
The additional grounds challenged the validity of the TPO order and the assessment on limitation grounds - purely legal questions dependent on the existing record. No new documentary evidence was necessary. Given the fundamental nature of the jurisdictional objection, the Court admitted the additional grounds for adjudication.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Additional legal/jurisdictional grounds that go to the validity of assessment and do not require new evidence can be admitted at the appellate stage even if raised after filing the appeal.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
The additional grounds challenging limitation were admitted for adjudication.
Issue 3 - Consequence of time-barred TPO order on downstream proceedings: Legal framework
Sections 92CA(4) and 144C tie the assessing officer's power to the TPO determination and provide a mechanism (draft assessment, DRP objections, final assessment); section 144C(15) defines "eligible assessee" for the scheme.
Issue 3 - Precedent treatment
Judicial authorities relied upon have held that if the TPO order is invalid for being time-barred, the assessing officer cannot legitimately invoke section 92CA(4) or complete assessment under the 144C procedure based on that order; consequently the assessment based on such order is without jurisdiction.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court reasoned that the TPO order is a pre-condition and foundational act for invoking the extended assessment machinery under sections 92CA/144C; a time-barred TPO order therefore destroys the legal basis for treating the assessee as an "eligible assessee" under section 144C(15) and for completing assessment in conformity with an invalid TPO determination. Allowing a late TPO order would subvert the statutory time limits and the mandatory sequencing enshrined in the TP and assessment provisions.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: A time-barred TPO order vitiates the status of the assessee as an "eligible assessee" under section 144C(15), and renders subsequent draft/final assessment proceedings founded on the invalid TPO order without jurisdiction.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
Because the TPO order was time-barred, it is invalid; the assessee therefore was not an "eligible assessee" under section 144C(15), and the draft/final assessment based on the invalid TPO order is without jurisdiction and set aside. Other substantive grounds of appeal were left open for adjudication if required in future proceedings.
Validity of order u/s 92CA (3) after expiry of time limit provided under section 92CA(3A) r/w section 153 - order passed u/s. 92CA(3) is barred by limitation by one day - period of limitation for passing the assessment order under section 153(1) of the Act (i.e. 3 years from the end of AY) and the time limit for passing the order u/s 92CA(3A) of the Act 60 days prior to the assessment order - whether the 31st March, 2013 would be excluded/included for counting the 60 days prior to the date on which the assessment gets barred by limitation?
HELD THAT:- The period of limitation for passing the assessment order in the instant case expires on 31st March, 2013. The time limit for passing the order under section 92CA(3A) of the Act is sixty days prior to the date on which the limitation referred in section 153 of the Act expires. Thus, the limitation in the present case for passing the order under section 92CA(3A) of the Act expires on 29th January, 2013.
TPO passed the order under section 92CA(3A) of the Act expires on 29th January, 2013. A perusal of clause 43 of Circular No.3/2008 dated 12/03/2008 shows that the word ‘month’ has been used therein instead of ‘days’ used in the Act. Undoubtedly, to months may not necessarily be equal to sixty days always as specified in the Act. "Two months" as mentioned in Circular can be more or even less than sixty days. Therefore, expression issued to evaluate limitation period as specified in the Act has to be strictly followed.
Following the reasoning of the decision of Saint Gobain India (P) Ltd. [2022 (4) TMI 808 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] we are of the considered view that the order of Ld. TPO in the present case is barred by limitation by one day. Ordered accordingly. Thus, the order of Ld. TPO in the present case is held as invalid order being barred by limitation. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the validity of reassessment proceedings under Section 147/148 (including validity of sanction under Section 151 and service / procedural prerequisites under Section 148A) can be challenged in collateral/revision proceedings under Section 263 and in an appeal arising from such revisionary order.
2. Whether the notice under Section 148 and the order under Section 148A(d) dated 19.04.2022 were validly sanctioned under Section 151, having regard to the three-year cutoff and the identity of the competent authority (clauses (i) and (ii) of Section 151 as they stood at the relevant time).
3. Whether prior approval to issue a show-cause notice under Section 148A(b) obtained from the PCIT suffices as sanction under Section 151 for subsequently issuing the Section 148 notice and passing the order under Section 148A(d), or whether a fresh sanction is required at the stage of issuing the Section 148 notice.
4. Whether an amendment (Finance Act, 2023) inserting a proviso to Section 151 that affects computation of the three-year period can be given retrospective/clarificatory effect to validate a sanction granted prior to the effective date of that amendment.
5. Whether the Principal Commissioner's exercise of revisionary jurisdiction under Section 263 can set aside an assessment/reassessment order that is non est (void for want of jurisdiction) and thereafter direct the Assessing Officer to pass a fresh assessment.
ISSUE 1 - Challenging validity of reassessment in collateral/revision proceedings
Legal framework: Revision under Section 263 is collateral to assessment proceedings; ordinarily the validity of primary proceedings is to be challenged in appeals against those proceedings, but judicial principles relating to nullity and want of jurisdiction permit collateral attack where the primary order is void.
Precedent Treatment: The Court considered apex and High Court authorities distinguishing void (non est) orders from merely erroneous or irregular orders (e.g., principles in Kiran Singh, Balwant N. Viswamitra and related decisions) and Tribunal / High Court decisions holding that jurisdictional invalidity of reassessment can be raised in collateral proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where the primary assessment/reassessment order is inherently invalid for lack of jurisdiction or fundamental defect, it cannot serve as a foundation for collateral revision; the maxim sublato fundamento - if the foundation is removed, the superstructure falls - was applied. The Tribunal held that jurisdictional invalidity may be raised in appeal arising from a revision order because an invalid primary order cannot be validly revised.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - validity of reassessment that is void for want of jurisdiction can be challenged in proceedings under Section 263 and in appeals against revision; this is binding on the issue before the Tribunal. Observations on cases aligning with this view are treated as supporting ratio.
Conclusion: The Tribunal accepts that validity of reassessment proceedings can be examined in appeal against revisionary order under Section 263 where the reassessment is alleged to be non est.
ISSUE 2 - Competent authority under Section 151 and validity of sanction
Legal framework: Section 151 prescribes specified authority for sanction to issue notices under Section 148 / Section 148A; the competent authority depends on whether the notice/order is issued within or after three years from the end of the relevant assessment year (clauses (i) and (ii) as in force at relevant time).
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on decisions of the jurisdictional High Court and other tribunals (including Madras High Court in Core Logistic) holding that sanction by an improper authority vitiates reassessment proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Section 148A(d) order and the Section 148 notice were dated 19.04.2022. For A.Y. 2018-19, those actions occurred after expiry of three years from the end of the assessment year, therefore clause (ii) of Section 151 prescribed a higher authority (Principal Chief Commissioner / Principal Director General or equivalents) as competent. The sanction recorded from PCIT (authority under clause (i)) was therefore not the competent authority and vitiated the reassessment for want of proper sanction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - if sanction for issuance of notice under Section 148 / order under Section 148A(d) is not accorded by the authority specified by Section 151(ii) where required, the reassessment proceedings are invalid (non est). This finding is dispositive in the case.
Conclusion: The sanction from PCIT was not the competent sanction required by Section 151(ii) for the notices/orders dated 19.04.2022; hence the reassessment proceedings are void for want of proper sanction.
ISSUE 3 - Whether prior approval to issue Section 148A(b) show-cause notice suffices as sanction for subsequent Section 148 notice
Legal framework: Section 148A procedure gives the taxpayer an opportunity to respond before issuance of a Section 148 notice; Section 148 (as amended) requires prior approval of specified authority to issue the Section 148 notice.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal examined statutory scheme and legislative intent behind Section 148A and Section 151 rather than relying on a single precedent to conflate initial approval with final sanction.
Interpretation and reasoning: A prior approval to issue the Section 148A(b) show-cause notice is given at the stage of proposing reassessment; if, after considering the taxpayer's response, the AO decides to proceed, a fresh sanction is required at that later stage because otherwise the protective purpose of Section 148A (the taxpayer's chance to demonstrate why reassessment should be dropped) would be defeated. Therefore the initial approval for issuance of Section 148A(b) cannot be treated as a blanket sanction for issuing the Section 148 notice or for passing Section 148A(d) order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - separate sanction is required when the AO, after considering responses, decides to issue the Section 148 notice; the preliminary sanction for the show-cause stage does not substitute for the sanction required under Section 151 for issuing the Section 148 notice.
Conclusion: The approval obtained for issuance of the Section 148A(b) notice did not obviate the need for a fresh competent sanction for the Section 148 notice; absence of that sanction vitiates the reassessment.
ISSUE 4 - Effect of Finance Act, 2023 amendment to Section 151 (proviso) - retrospective/clarificatory applicability
Legal framework: Finance Act, 2023 inserted a proviso to Section 151 specifying computation of the three-year period by taking into account exclusion/extension under specified provisos to Section 149(1); the amendment took effect from 01.04.2023.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal rejected the Department's plea to treat the amendment as clarificatory/retrospective, and declined reliance on an authority suggesting retrospective effect where legislative text and the effective date do not support it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The amendment expressly took effect from 01.04.2023; the notice/sanction in the present case were recorded on 19.04.2022. The AO and sanctioning authority could not have relied on an amendment that did not exist at the time; statutory language and legislative notes do not permit retrospective application to validate earlier invalid sanction. The Tribunal therefore disallowed retroactive validation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an amendment expressly effective from a later date cannot be applied retrospectively to validate sanction given prior to its effective date absent clear legislative intent; consequently the Finance Act, 2023 amendment did not cure the invalid sanction in this case.
Conclusion: The Finance Act, 2023 amendment cannot be given retrospective effect to validate the sanction dated 19.04.2022; it does not cure the jurisdictional defect.
ISSUE 5 - Legality of Section 263 revision of a non est reassessment and the consequence of directing fresh assessment
Legal framework: Section 263 empowers the Commissioner to revise an order if it is erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of revenue; but revision presupposes a valid primary order that can be corrected.
Precedent Treatment: Relying on established jurisprudence, the Tribunal treated attempts to revise an order that is void for want of jurisdiction as impermissible because an invalid order cannot be the subject of valid revisionary action.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where reassessment is void (non est) due to lack of competent sanction, the Commissioner could not lawfully exercise Section 263 to set aside that non est order and instruct a fresh assessment because that would amount to revising a non-existent valid substrate and indirectly extending limitation and jurisdiction that statute prescribes. The Tribunal held that the PCIT could not set aside the invalid reassessment under Section 263 and could not direct AO to pass a fresh assessment based on the invalid order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 263 cannot be used to revise an assessment order which is void ab initio for want of jurisdiction; any revision predicated on such a non est order is itself without jurisdiction.
Conclusion: The PCIT's exercise of revisionary jurisdiction to set aside the reassessment order of 20.11.2023 (which the Tribunal found void for want of proper sanction) was impermissible; the revision order is quashed and the appeal is allowed.
Revision u/s 263 - Validity of reopening of assessment - sanction in terms of Section 151 of the Act for the purpose of issuance of such notice u/s.148 - whether the validity of the re-assessment proceedings initiated and completed in terms of Section 147 of the Act can be questioned in the revisionary proceedings and the appellate proceedings arising therefrom, being the collateral proceeding?
HELD THAT:- Respectfully following the decision of Core Logistic Company [2025 (6) TMI 727 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] we hold that the sanction accorded by the authorities prescribed u/s. 151(i) of the Act on the facts of the case, i.e. PCIT, Madurai – 1 for the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act dated 19.04.2022 and the order u/s. 148A(d) of the Act after the expiry of 3 years from the end of the relevant assessment year as against the correct sanction to have been granted by the authorities prescribed u/s. 151(ii) of the Act would vitiate the entire re-assessment proceedings initiated and completed in terms of Section 147 of the Act. The PCIT by assuming revisionary jurisdiction in terms of Section 263 of the Act could not have set aside a non-est re-assessment order and further could not have directed the AO to pass a fresh assessment order. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a show-cause/penalty notice under section 271B of the Income-tax Act is vitiated by ambiguity when it fails to specify which distinct default under section 44AB (failure to get accounts audited v. failure to furnish audit report) is alleged.
2. Whether an assessment-order articulation of satisfaction can cure ambiguity in the subsequent statutory penalty notice so as to validate penalty proceedings under section 271B.
3. Whether the principles developed in cases concerning omnibus/ambiguous penalty notices under section 271(1)(c) (including requirements of striking out inapplicable limbs and the necessity to show non-application of mind/prejudice) apply to procedural penalties under section 271B.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Ambiguity in the penalty notice under section 271B: Legal framework
Section 44AB prescribes circumstances mandating tax audit and furnishing of audit report; section 271B provides penal consequences for non-compliance (penalty calculable as per law). A statutory show-cause/penalty notice must inform the assessee of the precise grounds so as to afford effective opportunity of hearing (principles of natural justice and statutory notice requirements under section 274 read with the penal provisions).
Precedent Treatment
The Court reviewed authority treating omnibus or printed notices containing inapplicable alternatives as invalid: decisions disapproving failure to strike out irrelevant limbs (e.g., Supreme Court and various High Court precedents referenced in the judgment) and more recent High Court rulings holding that ambiguity must be resolved in favour of the assessee and that penalty notices must be precise (including the Delhi High Court decision in Gragerious Projects and the Bombay Full Bench analysis discussed).
Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal examined the AO's assessment record and the penalty notice and found inconsistent formulations: the assessment order recorded initiation of penalty for "non-maintenance of accounts and get audited" (suggesting books were maintained but not audited), whereas the statutory penalty notice recited that the assessee "failed to get accounts audited or failed to furnish a report of such audit as required under section 44AB," using the disjunctive "or." The Tribunal held these are two distinct defaults - (a) maintaining books but not getting them audited; (b) failing to furnish an audit report of maintained books - and that the notice did not make clear which default was relied upon. The Tribunal concluded that the ambiguity in the penalty notice deprived the assessee of the clarity required to frame effective rebuttal and thus created prejudice in a penal context.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: A penalty notice under section 271B that ambiguously alleges distinct defaults without specifying which limb is invoked is invalid; ambiguity must be resolved in favour of the assessee where penal consequences follow, because the assessee requires a precise statutory notice to meet the allegations.
Conclusions
The Tribunal held the penalty notice dated 24.03.2022 to be ambiguous and therefore unsustainable; the penalty levied under section 271B was deleted.
Issue 2 - Whether the assessment order can cure a defective/ambiguous statutory penalty notice
Legal framework
Assessment proceedings may record the AO's satisfaction to initiate penalty, but statutory penalty proceedings are distinct and must be launched by a proper show-cause notice under the applicable statutory scheme; compliance with notice formalities is necessary to ensure the assessee's right to be heard.
Precedent Treatment
The Tribunal considered authorities holding that defects in the notice are not always cured by the assessment order and that a penalty proceeding must stand on its own; reliance was placed on recent High Court analyses rejecting the proposition that reasons in an assessment order can automatically remedy vagueness in a subsequent omnibus notice.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal rejected the contention that because the assessment order recorded initiation of penalty for "non-maintenance of accounts and get audited," the ambiguity in the penalty notice was rendered harmless. The Tribunal reasoned that assessment proceedings provide the basis but cannot substitute for a clear statutory notice; penalty proceedings culminate under a distinct statutory scheme and the notice must clearly inform the assessee of the specific default. The Tribunal emphasized that penal provisions demand strict construction and any ambiguity must be resolved for the assessee.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Assessment order entries cannot cure ambiguity in a subsequent statutory penalty notice; the notice must itself be precise and intelligible in a penal context.
Conclusions
The Tribunal held that the assessment order did not cure the vagueness in the penalty notice and therefore the penalty could not be sustained.
Issue 3 - Applicability of principles from section 271(1)(c) omnibus-notice jurisprudence to procedural penalties under section 271B
Legal framework
Section 271(1)(c) penalties concern concealment/furnishing inaccurate particulars and have extensive jurisprudence requiring specification of the particular limb of default; section 271B is a procedural penalty for statutorily mandated audit compliance. Both provisions impose penal consequences, triggering principles of strict construction and natural justice.
Precedent Treatment
The Tribunal noted that some coordinate benches had treated the section 271(1)(c) jurisprudence as inapplicable to procedural penalties like section 271B; however, it analyzed more recent High Court authority (notably the Delhi High Court and Bombay Full Bench discussions) holding that there is no principled distinction for purposes of notice-vagueness where penal consequences and prejudice result, and that omnibus notices betray non-application of mind.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal concluded that the reasoning against omnibus/ambiguous notices in the context of section 271(1)(c) applies equally to section 271B because both attract civil/penal consequences and prejudice can follow. The Tribunal emphasized that the mandatory nature of penal notice formalities and the requirement to afford a clear right to be heard means ambiguity in procedural penalty notices is equally fatal.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Principles disallowing omnibus/ambiguous penalty notices (developed under section 271(1)(c) jurisprudence) extend to procedural penalty provisions such as section 271B where penal consequences and prejudice are possible; hence ambiguity in a section 271B notice is equally fatal.
Conclusions
The Tribunal applied those principles and set aside the penalty under section 271B as the notice was ambiguous, thereby aligning the treatment of procedural penalty notices with the established jurisprudence on omnibus notices and mandatory preciseness of penal communications.
Disposition and Ancillary Observations
Because Ground No.1 (notice ambiguity) was allowed and the imposed penalty deleted, the Tribunal treated Ground No.2 (merits of applicability of section 44AB/271B) as academic and left it open. The Tribunal applied recent High Court authority favoring the assessee on the point of notice precision, resolved ambiguity in the assessee's favour, and directed deletion of the penalty.
Penalty u/s 271B - not comply with provisions of sec 44AB - assessee was a non-filer and, as per the data available with the AO, the assessee had deposited cash in his saving bank account maintained with the HDFC Bank Ltd. - HELD THAT:- AO in the assessment order states that he had initiated penalty proceedings for non-maintenance of accounts and getting it audited whereas in the penalty notice u/s 271B AO states that he had initiated the penalty proceedings for the failure of the assessee in getting its account audited or its failure to furnish a report of such audit as required u/s 44AB of the Act.
Therefore, in the impugned penalty notice it is not clear as to for which default the AO was initiating the penalty notice u/s 271B of the Act, whereas there is a semblance of clarity, found while initiating the penalty proceedings u/s 271B of the Act, in the assessment order where it was mentioned as further, penalty u/s 271B of the I.T. Act is hereby initiated for non-maintenance of account and get audited. The default of the assessee in not getting its account audited and its failure to furnish a report of such audit as required u/s 44AB of the Act, are two different and distinct defaults.
The failure of the assessee is not getting its accounts audited indicates that the assessee had maintained its books of account which he did not get it audited whereas the failure to furnish a report of such audit as required u/s 44AB of the Act indicates that assessee failed to submit the Audit Report of such books of accounts maintained by the assessee, whereas the assessee did not maintain any books of accounts as admitted by the assessee in this case.
In this regard, in the case of Pr. CIT-04 vs M/s Gragerious Projects Pvt. Ltd. & Ors [2024 (11) TMI 1108 - DELHI HIGH COURT] has agreed with the decision of Mr. Mohd. Farhan A. Shaikh [2021 (3) TMI 608 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT (LB)] which held that such an action of the AO was not sustainable.
In the present case, it is seen that a penalty has been levied upon the assessee by the AO vide his order u/s 271B and thus a prejudice is caused to the assessee. Therefore, as held by the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in above cited case that ambiguity if any, in the penalty notice must be resolved in the affected assessee’s favour.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether payments of External Development Charges (EDC) made by a developer to the state development authority (HUDA/HSVP) fall within the scope of section 194C (contractor) or section 194I (rent) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
2. Whether the order passed by the Assessing Officer under sections 201(1)/201(1A) treating non-deduction of TDS on EDC as default was erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of revenue, such as to warrant revision under section 263-particularly where an appeal against the AO's order was pending before the Commissioner (Appeals) at the time of initiation of section 263 proceedings.
3. Whether the Commissioner (TDS) could exercise jurisdiction under section 263 after a departmental appellate authority had already been seized of the same issue (i.e., whether invoking section 263 was impermissible because the matter was sub judice before the first appellate authority).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework: Sections 194C and 194I prescribe TDS on payments to contractors/sub-contractors and on rent respectively; section 201(1)/201(1A) deals with deeming an assessee to be an assessee in default for failure to deduct/credit TDS; CBDT OM dated 23.12.2017 provides departmental clarification that EDC paid to a development authority (HUDA) is subject to TDS unless paid to government.
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on the decision of the High Court holding that EDC payments to HSVP/HUDA fall within section 194C and that the CBDT clarification was sustainable. The High Court's ruling (reproduced in the record) treated invocation of section 194C as justified and rejected the challenge to the CBDT OM; the Supreme Court had dismissed/directed in some connected proceedings (SLP dismissed as per record) or stayed in related instances as noted by co-ordinate decisions.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning: The court examined the nature of EDC as charges for development work relating to creation/maintenance of urban infrastructure - civil works/amenities and therefore akin to payment for contract services rather than rent. The Tribunal applied the High Court's reasoning that EDC is for work carried out by the authority and aligns with the scope of section 194C; the AO's classification of EDC as rent (section 194I) was found inconsistent with this reasoning and the High Court's exposition.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio: EDC payments made to the state development authority (HUDA/HSVP) are covered by section 194C and not section 194I, where the authority is a taxable entity and the payment is for development/contractual work. Obiter: Observations on the extent to which the ultimate incidence of EDC on homebuyers or RERA guidance affect TDS characterisation are descriptive and ancillary.
Issue 1 - Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that section 194C applies to the EDC payment of Rs. 5,34,24,000 and that section 194I does not apply to such payments; accordingly, any TDS liability should be adjudicated under section 194C (with applicable rates) and the AO's invocation of section 194I was incorrect.
Issue 2 - Legal framework: Section 263 permits revision of an assessment order that is erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the revenue; the power must be exercised where the order suffers from an error apparent on the face of the record or when there is prejudice to revenue. Jurisprudence recognises that revision is not permissible where the subject matter is debatable or pending adjudication before the first appellate authority.
Issue 2 - Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal followed a co-ordinate-bench decision on identical facts which set aside a section 263 order where (a) the issue was debatable, (b) the appellate authority was seized of the matter and (c) the change in legal position (High Court decision) post-dated the AO's order. That co-ordinate bench observed that the AO's order was not erroneous when passed and that the matter was pending before the CIT(A).
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that at the time the AO passed the order under sections 201(1)/201(1A) he applied section 194I; subsequent judicial developments (High Court decision holding section 194C applicable) emerged later. The Tribunal held that where the first appellate authority was already seised of the identical issue, and the question was debatable and not settled at the time of assessment, initiating revision under section 263 was inappropriate. The Tribunal reasoned that the CIT(TDS)'s cancellation of the AO's order and direction to re-examine and apply section 194C effectively substituted the appellate process and interfered while appeal was pending; further, the direction reduced the TDS slab (10% under 194I to 1-2% under 194C) and was not prejudicial to revenue but a change in characterization that should be adjudicated in appeal.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio: Section 263 should not be used to revise an assessment order on a debatable issue that is sub judice before the appellate authority; where the AO's order was not erroneous when passed and appeal is pending, the revision is impermissible. Obiter: Remarks on relative impact to revenue from shifting between TDS rates are factual observations supporting the view that no prejudice warranted revision here.
Issue 2 - Conclusions: The Tribunal set aside and quashed the CIT(TDS)'s order passed under section 263 (insofar as it revised the AO's order while appeal was pending), following the co-ordinate bench rationale that the AO's order was not erroneous at the time of passing and the issue was debatable and pending adjudication. The section 263 exercise was held to be improper and therefore quashed.
Issue 3 - Legal framework: Principles of administrative law and statutory interpretation of section 263 require that revision powers be exercised only when criteria of error and prejudice are fulfilled; appellate process and ongoing appeals limit the prudential use of revision powers.
Issue 3 - Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on a co-ordinate-bench decision with identical factual matrix which concluded that initiating revision while the first appeal was pending was not appropriate, particularly where a higher court had rendered a decision changing the legal landscape.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the CIT(TDS) issued show-cause and passed the revision order while the assessee's appeal against the AO's section 201 order was pending before the CIT(A); given that the appellate authority could address the section 194C/194I question, and because the matter was not settled law at the time AO acted, the exercise of section 263 jurisdiction was inappropriate. The Tribunal emphasized that the AO's decision was not erroneous when passed and that revision in such circumstances would circumvent appellate adjudication.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio: The Commissioner should not initiate section 263 revision on an issue that is already under adjudication before the appellate authority and which is debatable; the pendency of appeal militates against the use of revision power. Obiter: Comments on timing of judicial decisions and their effect on departmental revision powers are explanatory.
Issue 3 - Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the CIT(TDS) erred in invoking section 263 while the same issue was pending before the first appellate authority; accordingly, the section 263 order was set aside insofar as it revised the AO's order on the EDC/TDS issue.
Cross-references and operative outcome: Issues 1-3 are interlinked: while the Tribunal accepted that section 194C applies to EDC payments (Issue 1), it nonetheless found the use of section 263 to revise the AO's earlier order improper because the matter was contested and pending on appeal (Issues 2-3). Consequential directions: AO's order under section 201(1)/(1A) is to be treated in light of section 194C and modified accordingly; the section 263 order is quashed where it attempted revision during pendency of appeal.
Revision u/s 263 - proceedings u/s 201(1)/(1A) - as per CIT AO had incorrectly applied section 194I of the Act to such payments - HELD THAT:- Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in IREO PRIVATE LIMITED [2025 (1) TMI 173 - ITAT DELHI] issue under consideration is payment of EDC to HUDA which is pending before first appellate authority where the provisions of section 194I or 194C can also be the point of adjudication.
PCIT found that it is against the law and also observed that it is against the interest of Revenue.
Slab at which the AO calculated liability u/s 201/201(1A) is at 10% considering the same as rental payment. However, Id. PCIT has cancelled the relevant assessment order following the provisions of section 194C for which slab of 2% is applicable. It is not against the interest of Revenue.
As observed that the order passed by the AO is not erroneous when the same was passed and also this is a debatable issue not settled considering the fact that the issue was pending before ld. CIT (A) and also Id. PCIT should not have proceeded to initiate proceedings u/s 263 of the Act when the same was pending before the ld. CTT (A). Let alone the fact that there is no prejudicial to the interest of Revenue in this case. Decided in favour of assessee.
Invocation of section 194C on EDC payments to Haryana Shahari Vikas Pradhikaran (earlier known as HUDA) - As decided in Puri Constructions (P.) Ltd. [2024 (2) TMI 756 - DELHI HIGH COURT] invocation of section 194C of the Act, on EDC payments to Haryana Shahari Vikas Pradhikaran (earlier known as HUDA) was justified. Thus, we hold that the provision of section 194C on the payment by the assessee to HUDA towards EDC charges would be applicable.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether denial of deduction under Section 10AA for failure to file Form 56F within the specified time in the electronic portal is sustainable where the assessee made timely attempts to upload but was prevented by technical/server errors of the Department, and the form was ultimately uploaded before the first appellate hearing.
2. Whether the requirement to file prescribed forms (here, Form 56F) for claiming deduction under Section 10AA is mandatory (jurisdictional) or directory, such that belated filing during assessment or appellate proceedings may cure initial non-filing.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Denial of Section 10AA deduction due to non-filing of Form 56F on electronic portal when upload attempts failed because of Departmental technical errors
Legal framework: Deduction under Section 10AA is claimable in the return of income subject to prescribed conditions and procedural requirements, which include filing prescribed forms (Form 56F) as part of claim substantiation; returns are processed under Section 143(1) and intimation may reflect disallowance if procedural requirements are not met.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal (following higher court authority) treats the filing of prescribed forms as a procedural requirement that can be directory rather than a condition going to the root of the entitlement, thereby permitting acceptance of such forms filed during assessment or appellate proceedings where justifiable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The factual matrix showed multiple documented attempts by the assessee to upload Form 56F on dates prior to and around the processing/intimation date, with screenshots evidencing failed uploads due to portal/server issues attributable to the Department. The form was successfully uploaded before the commencement of the first appellate hearing. The Tribunal accepted that non-filing during processing was not due to the assessee's fault but to departmental technical failures. In that context, disallowance in the intimation solely on the ground of non-upload was not justified where the assessee later produced the form and demonstrated both prior practice of timely compliance and actual attempts frustrated by system errors.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that technical failure of the Department absolves the assessee of blame for non-filing in the processing window and justifies acceptance of the form subsequently filed is a ratio applied to decide the appeal in favour of the assessee on these facts.
Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the appellate authority's admission of the belatedly filed Form 56F and directed verification by the Assessing Officer, holding that denial of the Section 10AA deduction on the ground of non-filing in the intimation was not sustainable where non-filing resulted from Departmental technical error and the form was uploaded before the appellate hearing.
Issue 2 - Whether filing of prescribed forms for claiming deduction is mandatory or directory; effect of belated filing during assessment/appellate proceedings
Legal framework: Statutory/administrative procedures often prescribe forms and timelines for claims; the legal question is whether such procedural prescriptions are conditions precedent to substantive entitlement (mandatory) or procedural steps that can be remedied (directory).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the established doctrine from higher court authority that the prescription of filing necessary forms for claiming a deduction is a directory requirement and not mandatory in the sense of extinguishing the substantive right if not complied with strictly within the initial window. Accordingly, submission of prescribed forms during assessment or appellate proceedings, where permissible, can suffice to substantiate and allow the claim.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that permitting acceptance of the prescribed form filed during appellate proceedings aligns with the directory character of such procedural prescriptions and prevents formality from defeating substantive tax relief where the taxpayer has otherwise complied or attempted compliance. The Tribunal also relied on the assessee's historical compliance (past timely filing and allowance of the deduction) as a contextual factor supporting admission of the late form.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The statement that filing of prescribed forms is directory and acceptance during assessment/appellate proceedings can cure initial non-compliance constitutes the ratio relied upon to uphold the appellate admission; it is applied, not merely obiter.
Conclusions: The Tribunal confirmed that the prescriptive filing requirement (Form 56F) is directory. Where the taxpayer is prevented from timely filing due to verifiable technical errors of the Department and the form is produced during assessment/appellate proceedings, the form can be admitted and the substantive deduction allowed after verification by the Assessing Officer.
Cross-reference and consequential direction
Where belated filing is admitted on the above basis, the Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to verify the contents of Form 56F and allow the deduction under Section 10AA if verification supports the claim; the Tribunal dismissed the Revenue's grounds challenging the appellate authority's admission of the form and the consequential direction to the AO.
Denial of deduction u/s 10AA - non-filing of Form No. 56F during the processing of the return of income - HELD THAT:- It is settled law that prescription of filing necessary Forms for claiming deduction is only a directory requirement and not mandatory and if the prescribed Forms are submitted during assessment proceedings it would suffice for allowing the assessee’s claim of deduction. This ratio has been laid down by the Hon’ble apex court in the case of CIT vs G. M Knitting & Others [2015 (11) TMI 397 - SC ORDER]
Assessee was deprived from filing the prescribed Form even up to the processing of its return on account of the fault in the system of the Department and therefore, it cannot be said that the assessee failed to deposit the requisite Form during assessment proceedings. Having successfully submitted the Form before the First Appellate Authority, thus, we hold that the CIT(A) was right in entertaining the same and directing the AO to allow the deduction u/s 10AA of the Act after verification.
As assessee has in the past filed the requisite form in time and claimed deduction u/s 10AA we hold has been rightly appreciated by the Ld.CIT(A) while admitting the form filed belatedly by the assessee. Appeal filed by the Revenue is dismissed.
Maintainability of SLP - low tax effect - belated SCN - HELD THAT:- This Court in similar matters has granted relief to the similarly placed assessees by holding that the belated show cause notices cannot be adjudicated, on the principle of delay and laches.
There are no reason to interfere in these matters - SLP dismissed.
Exemption benefit of N/N. 50/2017-Cus dated 30.06.2017, entry at Sl. No. 512 - It is alleged that the appellant has used the imported goods (parts, components, accessories etc.) received on concessional rate of customs duty in terms of N/N. 50/2017 dated 30.06.2017 not for the manufacture of Lithium-ion battery but for manufacturing the power bank - it was held by CESTAT that 'It is held that from the raw material imported by the appellant at concessional/ exempted rate of customs Duty in terms of Notification No. 50/2017 dated 30.06.2017 has been utilised by them to manufacture Lithium Ion Battery (Accumulator) which has been captively used by them to manufacture ‘Power Bank’. Hence it is held that appellants have rightly claimed the exemption.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good reason to interfere with the impugned order dated 18.10.2024 passed by the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether export duty can be imposed under the Customs Act, 1962.
2. Whether export duty can be levied under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 in respect of movement/supply of goods from the Domestic Tariff Area to a Special Economic Zone.
3. Whether the definition of "export" in the SEZ Act, 2005 can be incorporated into the Customs Act, 1962 so as to permit imposition of export duty on supplies from the Domestic Tariff Area to SEZ units.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Whether export duty can be imposed under the Customs Act, 1962.
Legal framework: Section 2(18) of the Customs Act defines "export" as "taking out of India to a place outside India." Section 12 is the charging provision for customs duties, specifying duties on goods "imported into, or exported from, India."
Precedent Treatment: The High Courts whose orders are under challenge analysed the statutory wording and reached a conclusion consistent with the textual limits of the Customs charging provisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reads Section 12 together with the statutory definition of "export" in Section 2(18), and concludes that the Customs Act's charging provisions apply only when goods are taken out of India to a place outside India. Movement of goods within India's territory, including to areas excluded from the Domestic Tariff Area, does not fall within the Customs Act's concept of "export" as defined in that Act.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the Customs charging provision (Section 12) cannot be invoked to levy export duty where the movement does not constitute "taking out of India" as defined in the Customs Act.
Conclusion: Export duty cannot be imposed under the Customs Act, 1962 on movement of goods which do not amount to "export" as defined in the Customs Act (i.e., taking goods out of India).
Issue 2: Whether export duty can be levied under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 for supplies from the Domestic Tariff Area to an SEZ unit.
Legal framework: The SEZ Act contains its own definition of "export" in Section 2(m), which expressly includes (inter alia) "supplying goods... from the Domestic Tariff Area to a Unit or Developer." Section 51 provides that the SEZ Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent in any other law.
Precedent Treatment: The impugned High Court judgments (and other High Courts referred to in the judgment) construed the SEZ Act and refused to treat its definitions as displacing the charging provisions of the Customs Act for the purpose of levy of export duty.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognises that the SEZ Act adopts a broader, context-specific definition of "export" for the purposes of that Act (which governs SEZs and their fiscal/regulatory regime). However, the Court distinguishes between the SEZ Act's definitional scheme and the charging mechanism under the Customs Act. While Section 51 gives the SEZ Act overriding effect "notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law," the Court interprets the statutes together and emphasises that the Customs Act's charging provision applies to exports as the Customs Act defines them. The SEZ Act's definition cannot, by itself, convert a domestic movement into an "export" under the Customs Act so as to trigger customs export duty, absent express charging power to that effect.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the SEZ Act's definition of "export" for SEZ purposes does not, without more, authorize imposition of export duty under the Customs Act on supplies from the Domestic Tariff Area to SEZ units; such levy is not justified.
Conclusion: Export duty cannot be levied under the SEZ Act (by reference to its wider definition of "export") on movement of goods from the Domestic Tariff Area to SEZ units unless there is a charging provision permitting such duty; the Court held that levy of export duty on such movement is not justified.
Issue 3: Whether the Customs Act can incorporate the SEZ Act's definition of "export" to permit imposition of export duty on supplies from the Domestic Tariff Area to SEZ units.
Legal framework: Interaction of Section 2(18) (Customs Act) and Section 2(m) (SEZ Act); Section 12 (Customs charging); Section 51 (SEZ Act overriding effect); Section 26 (SEZ Act power to grant exemptions/concessions where duty is leviable under Customs Act).
Precedent Treatment: The High Court considered and rejected the proposition that the Customs Act can be read so as to incorporate the SEZ Act's definition for purposes of charging export duty; other High Courts have taken a similar view and those decisions are noted.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court conducts a conjoint reading of the two Acts. It recognises that Section 51 gives the SEZ Act an overriding character but emphasises that an overriding provision cannot be read so as to create a charging provision in a statute that otherwise limits its own charging scope. Section 26 of the SEZ Act contemplates that exemptions or concessions may be granted where a duty is leviable under the Customs Act; this presupposes that the Customs Act's charging provisions operate independently to determine when duty is leviable. Thus, the SEZ Act can operate to grant relief from duties that are properly leviable under the Customs Act, but it cannot, by adopting a definition of "export," expand the scope of the Customs Act's charging provisions to create new instances of export duty where the Customs Act's own definition does not reach.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the definition of "export" in the SEZ Act cannot be incorporated into the Customs Act to extend the Customs Act's charging reach; statutory interaction must respect the scope of the Customs charging provision.
Conclusion: The Customs Act cannot be made to incorporate the SEZ Act's definition of "export" for the purpose of levying export duty on supplies from the Domestic Tariff Area to SEZ units; consequently, those supplies are not chargeable to export duty under the Customs Act.
Consolidated Conclusion and Disposition
The Court affirms the High Court conclusion that the levy of export duty on movement/supply of goods from the Domestic Tariff Area to Special Economic Zone units or developments is not justified. On statutory construction and interaction between the Customs Act, 1962 and the SEZ Act, 2005, the Customs charging provision applies only to exports as defined in the Customs Act (taking goods out of India), and the SEZ Act's broader definitional scheme cannot be used to expand the Customs Act's charging scope; appeals dismissed. Cross-reference: the Court notes conformity of reasoning with decisions of other High Courts that took a similar view.
Levy of Export duty under the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 - levy of Export Duty under the Provisions of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 - levy of Export Duty under the Customs Act, 1962 by incorporating the definition of the terms `Export’ under the SEZ Act, 2005 into the Customs Act, 1962 - HELD THAT:- Section 12 of the Customs Act, 1962 is the charging Section. However, under Section 26 of the SEZ Act, power is reserved to grant an exemption or a concession if under the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962, a duty is leviable as per the charging Sections.
There are no reason to interfere with the impugned judgment. Hence, the appeals are dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Section 134 of the Finance Act, 2023 (which purports to amend Sections 9, 9A and 9C of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975) was validly brought into force by notification and, if not, whether the amended provision of Section 9C (as retrospectively effective from 1 January 1995) is in force.
2. Whether the Customs, Excise & Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT) had jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the Central Government's notification imposing, modifying or not imposing anti-dumping duty in light of the amendments effected by Section 134 of the Finance Act, 2023.
3. Whether the interim order of CESTAT holding that Section 134 was not separately notified and therefore not in force should be stayed, and if so, to what extent CESTAT may proceed with pending appeals while the validity/notification issue is adjudicated.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity/Notification and Commencement of Section 134 of the Finance Act, 2023
Legal framework - The Finance Act, 2023 contains Section 1 (general commencement) and Section 134 (amendments to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, including substitution/omission of certain words in Sections 9, 9A and 9C). Section 134 states that amendments are "with effect from the 1st day of January, 1995." The question of commencement turns on whether Section 134 was brought into force by appropriate notification under Section 1(2) of the Finance Act, 2023 and related principles governing notification/commencement of amending provisions affecting indirect tax statutes.
Precedent treatment - The decision refers to prior treatment of notification/commencement of indirect tax provisions (including parallel situations in GST enactments) where substantive operative provisions were brought into force by separate notifications; the Court also notes earlier disposal of writ petitions raising similar challenges, where petitioners did not press matters because of CESTAT's interim ruling. Those earlier observations are relied on for context; no contrary precedent is overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning - The Court reads Section 1(2) of the Finance Act, 2023 (which begins with "save as otherwise provided in this Act") and counsels' rival contentions. The State's contention is that Section 1(2) and the general notification of the Finance Act suffice to bring Section 134 into force; the opposing contention is that indirect tax related provisions (Sections 128-163) required specific notification analogous to later-notified GST provisions, and no separate notification for Section 134 was issued. Given that CESTAT had held Section 134 was not separately notified, the Court recognises a real controversy as to whether the amendment has actually come into force despite the text of Section 134 specifying retrospective effect. The Court considers that the question whether the Finance Act's general commencement provision automatically operates to notify Section 134 raises legal consequences that require adjudication and cannot be left to an appellate tribunal to determine as an incidental matter in appeals concerned with anti-dumping notifications.
Ratio vs. Obiter - The Court's determination that the notification/commencement question is substantive and requires adjudication is ratio for interim relief; observations about similarity with GST notification practice and past writs disposed of as infructuous are explanatory/contextual (obiter) with respect to the legal question.
Conclusions - There exists a justiciable dispute as to whether Section 134 was validly brought into force; the question cannot be treated as settled by CESTAT's interim order without further judicial examination. The Court issues notice and directs pleadings to resolve the notification/commencement issue.
Issue 2: Jurisdiction of CESTAT to Hear Challenges to Government Notifications Imposing Anti-Dumping Duty Post-Amendment
Legal framework - Pre-amendment Section 9C provided that an appeal lies to the Appellate Tribunal against the "order of determination or review" and prescribed time limits and powers of the Tribunal to confirm, modify or annul the order. Post-amendment Section 9C refers to appeals against the "determination or review" and makes corresponding temporal and substantive changes. The core issue is whether the amended text, if in force, restricts or alters CESTAT's jurisdiction to hear appeals against Government notifications imposing anti-dumping duties (as distinct from appeals challenging the designated authority's determinations).
> (Cross-reference: Issue 1 for the antecedent question of whether amendment is in force.)Precedent treatment - The Tribunal (CESTAT) has interpreted the absence of notification of Section 134 as preserving its jurisdiction to entertain appeals against Government notifications; the Court recognises that such a jurisdictional ruling by CESTAT has broader implications and thus warrants judicial scrutiny.
Interpretation and reasoning - The Court notes that both pre- and post-amendment language of Section 9C, on its face, contemplates CESTAT's jurisdiction in relation to "determination" by the designated authority. The contentious point is whether challenges to a Government notification (a separate act by the Executive) fall within CESTAT's appellate remit after the amendment. Given the pendency of appeals concerning both the designated authority's findings and the Government notification, the Court deems it appropriate to permit CESTAT to continue hearing appeals insofar as they concern the final findings of the designated authority while the higher question of jurisdiction to adjudicate the Government notification remains pending before this Court.
Ratio vs. Obiter - The Court's direction permitting partial continuation of CESTAT hearings (limited to final findings of the designated authority) while staying the Tribunal's interim order on notification is ratio for interlocutory relief. Broader comments on the comparative language pre- and post-amendment are interpretive and may be treated as obiter pending fuller adjudication.
Conclusions - While the question of CESTAT's jurisdiction to hear challenges to a Government notification in light of Section 134 requires determination, CESTAT remains competent to hear appeals solely to the extent they relate to the designated authority's final findings. The jurisdictional question is reserved for adjudication after notice and pleadings.
Issue 3: Appropriateness and Scope of Interim Relief - Stay of CESTAT's Interim Order and Direction for Further Proceedings
Legal framework - The Court has power to grant interim relief including stay of subordinate tribunal orders where necessary to prevent unintended consequences and preserve the subject matter pending adjudication. The appropriateness of such relief depends on the balance of convenience, potential prejudice, and the need to prevent jurisdictional overreach.
Precedent treatment - The Court relies on its supervisory jurisdiction to review the legality of interlocutory orders of tribunals where such orders raise questions of law that may have widespread consequences; the recorded practice of disposing similar writs as infructuous in light of CESTAT's order is noted but does not preclude the present judicial review.
Interpretation and reasoning - The Court observes that CESTAT's interim order holding Section 134 to be not notified could produce unintended and far-reaching consequences if left unexamined, including altering the appellate architecture for anti-dumping matters. To prevent such consequences while the legal issue is adjudicated, the Court finds it appropriate to stay the operative effect of CESTAT's interim order. Simultaneously, to avoid undue delay to merits determination of the designated authority's findings, the Court permits CESTAT to proceed with hearing appeals insofar as they concern the designated authority's final determinations. The Court also prescribes a timetable for counter-affidavit and rejoinder and directs written submissions, thereby structuring the further adjudication of the notification/commencement issue.
Ratio vs. Obiter - The stay of CESTAT's interim order and the carve-out permitting continuation of hearings on the designated authority's findings constitute the operative ratio of the interim disposition. Ancillary references to prior disposed writs and procedural observations are obiter/contextual.
Conclusions - The interim order of CESTAT dated 26th August, 2025 is stayed. CESTAT is, however, permitted to continue hearing appeals only insofar as they relate to the final findings of the designated authority. The Court issues notice on the challenge to the non-notification/commencement of Section 134, directs filing of pleadings on a specified timetable, and lists the matter for further hearing.
Cross-References and Procedural Directions
1. Issues of notification/commencement (Issue 1) are determinative of the jurisdictional question (Issue 2) and therefore are being separately adjudicated; until conclusion, CESTAT's interim ruling that Section 134 was not notified is stayed (Issue 3).
2. Procedural timetable: counter affidavit in 4 weeks; rejoinder in 2 weeks thereafter; written submissions to be filed; matter listed for hearing on a specified date.
3. The stay does not preclude final adjudication by CESTAT of the designated authority's findings and does not decide the substantive merits of the amended provisions; those substantive issues are reserved for final determination after the pleadings and hearing.
Levy of definitive Anti-Dumping Duty for a period of 5 years - Section 134 of the FA, 2023, was not separately notified by the Central Government - effective date of amended Section 9C - jurisdiction of CESTAT to hear a challenge to the notification by the Central Government imposing Anti-Dumping Duty - HELD THAT:- Section 9C of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, pre and post amendment does not leave any doubt that insofar as the determination of Anti-Dumping Duty is concerned, the appeal could be heard by CESTAT. It is only in respect of an order by the Government notifying, modifying or not notifying Anti-Dumping duty that the dispute has arisen, owing to the amendment in the FA, 2023. The Central Government’s notification dated 27th December, 2022, in this case is the subject matter of the dispute.
The appeals arising from the interim order are stated to be listed before CESTAT tomorrow, i.e. 23rd September, 2025 - Considering the fact that CESTAT has ruled on whether amendments to the Finance Act itself has come into force or not, this Court would like to examine this matter.
There shall be a stay of the interim order No. 5.2025 dated 26th August, 2025 passed by CESTAT. However, CESTAT would be free to proceed with hearing of the appeals, only insofar as they relate to the final findings of the designated authority. The pendency of this proceeding would not affect the final hearing of the appeals in respect of the final findings of the designated authority - Issue notice.
Ld. Counsels for both the parties may file their written submissions - List for hearing on 24th November, 2025.
Issues: (i) Whether the attachment of the petitioner's bank account and factory premises could be sustained under Section 142 of the Customs Act, 1962 without first exhausting recovery by sale of the detained goods; (ii) whether relief under Article 226 of the Constitution of India should be granted in view of the finality of the customs liability and the equities arising in the case.
Issue (i): Whether the attachment of the petitioner's bank account and factory premises could be sustained under Section 142 of the Customs Act, 1962 without first exhausting recovery by sale of the detained goods.
Analysis: The liability had already attained finality, and the detained photocopy machines had remained in customs custody for an extended period while the dispute over liability was being litigated. The delay in selling the machines was not treated as unreasonable in the peculiar facts, particularly since the machines had likely become obsolete and the recovery proceedings had been affected by repeated litigation and remands. The Court therefore held that the recovery officials had not acted wholly without jurisdiction by invoking the attachment mechanism under Section 142(1)(c)(ii), and substantial compliance with the recovery framework was sufficient on the facts.
Conclusion: The challenge to the attachment on the ground of non-exhaustion of the earlier recovery modes failed.
Issue (ii): Whether relief under Article 226 of the Constitution of India should be granted in view of the finality of the customs liability and the equities arising in the case.
Analysis: The Court treated writ jurisdiction as equitable and discretionary, and declined to interfere merely on a legal objection where the liability had attained finality and the petitioner could not dispute the dues. At the same time, the Court balanced the equities by taking into account the amount already recovered, the earlier payment, and the practical difficulty in selling obsolete goods. It accepted an undertaking to pay the balance amount, fixed the dues at a reduced sum as full and final settlement, and made continuance and quashing of the attachment dependent on compliance with that undertaking.
Conclusion: Limited conditional relief was granted in favour of the petitioner, with the attachment liable to be quashed on timely payment of the amount fixed by the Court.
Final Conclusion: The petition was disposed of by sustaining the attachment in the interim, but granting conditional relief that would result in quashing of the attachment upon payment of the balance amount within the stipulated time, while preserving the customs authorities' rights in case of default.
Ratio Decidendi: In recovery proceedings under the customs law, a writ court may refuse interference with attachment measures where the underlying liability has attained finality and the recovery process shows substantial compliance, while still moulding relief on equitable terms by imposing a conditional payment undertaking.
Sale of detained/attached goods for recovery of alleged dues from the petitoner - vires of invocation of Section 142(1)(c)(ii) of the Customs Act - HELD THAT:- At this stage, the issue of the Petitioner’s liability has attained finality. No doubt, the Petitioner took out several proceedings, but ultimately, this Court confirmed the Petitioner’s liability to pay the customs dues. At one stage, the Petitioner, to wriggle out of the liability, even went to the extent of denouncing its title on the attached goods. However, even this attempt met with no success when a Co-ordinate Bench dismissed the Petitioner’s Writ Petition No. 2272 of 2013, vide order dated 27 October 2014.
No doubt, there is some delay on the part of the Customs Authorities in selling the attached photocopy machines. However, the delay in the peculiar facts of this case cannot be said to be unreasonable. By the time the proceedings relating to liability were finally settled, in all probability the photocopy machines which were seized in the year 1987 had already become obsolete, and there was no point in selling such obsolete machines towards the recovery of the Petitioner’s liability.
It cannot be said that the Respondents have resorted to the remedy provided under Section 142(1)(c)(ii) without first exhausting the remedies provided in Section 142(1)(a) and (b) of the Customs Act. At most, the Customs Authorities could be directed to make another attempt to sell the attached photocopy machines and see if at least some part of the amount was recoverable. That would not have significantly reduced the liability mentioned in the notice dated 28 February 2017, i.e., the liability of Rs. 26,91,397/-, which was still stated as recoverable from the Petitioner - The Respondents have already recovered Rs.2.50 lakhs in June and July 2025. Thus, out of the liability of Rs. 26.91 lakhs referred to in the notice of 28 February 2017, an amount of Rs. 3.50 lakhs has already been recovered by the Customs Authorities, leaving a balance of approximately Rs . 23.50 lakhs.
There is no clarity whether there were any restraint orders on selling the photocopy machines during the pendency of proceedings. At least post-2014, some attempt could have been made to sell the photocopy machines. Besides, the amount of Rs. 1 lakh paid by the Petitioner in 2002 was also accounted for when raising the demand of Rs. 26.91 lakhs. Therefore, by balancing all these aspects, it is held that the dues would now have to be frozen at Rs. 23.50 lakhs, as and by way of full and final settlement of the customs dues. In these peculiar circumstances, it is declined to accede the request to direct the Petitioner to pay some interest.
Needless to add that until the Petitioner pays the amount of Rs. 23.50 lakhs by 20 December 2025, the impugned attachment shall continue. However, until 20 December 2025, the Customs Authorities must not take out any proceedings for the sale of the Petitioner’s factory premises. If the Petitioner fails to pay the amount of Rs. 23.50 lakhs despite the undertaking given to this Court, without prejudice to seeking action under the Contempt of Courts Act, the Customs Authorities would be at liberty to sell the Petitioner’s attached factory - In case of failure to abide by the undertaking, we clarify that the Customs Authorities will be entitled to demand not only the amount now frozen by us at Rs. 23.50 lakhs but also interest as prescribed under the law.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether imposition of penalty under Section 114 of the Customs Act is sustainable against a person whose role was limited to filing airway bills that facilitated export of prohibited goods mis-declared in baggage declaration.
2. Whether penalty under Section 114AA of the Customs Act (which requires knowledge/intention in making, signing or using false documents) can be imposed on a person who filed the airway bill, when the baggage declaration (a document filed under the Act) was the false/incorrect document.
3. Whether the appeal raises a substantial question of law attracting the Court's jurisdiction under Section 130 of the Customs Act.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of penalty under Section 114 for the airway-bill filer
Legal framework: Section 114 permits imposition of penalty where an act or omission renders goods liable to confiscation under Section 113; the section does not require proof of mens rea - liability can arise from the act/omission itself.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not rely upon or discuss any external precedents in resolving this issue; the Tribunal's reasoning on causation and statutory language is followed by the Court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court and the Tribunal examined causation - whether the filing of the airway bill was an act that enabled the export and thereby rendered the goods liable to confiscation. The airway bill was initially filed in the name of a fictitious company and later altered to match the baggage declaration; the mis-declarations in both baggage declaration and airway bill together enabled the fraud. The Tribunal found that without the airway bill being filed by the appellant in the fictitious name, the fraudulent export could not have occurred. Given that Section 114 is concerned with acts/omissions that make goods liable for confiscation, the factual link between filing the airway bill and the confiscation ground satisfied the statutory threshold.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the decision that Section 114 liability attaches to a person whose act (filing an airway bill in a fictitious name and thereby enabling export of prohibited goods) rendered the goods liable for confiscation. The finding that Section 114 does not require proof of intent is central to the holding.
Conclusions: The imposition of penalty under Section 114 on a person who filed the airway bill was upheld as sustainable because the act/omission itself materially contributed to the export and consequent confiscation; the quantum of penalty (Rs.10 lakhs) was regarded by the Court as sufficient and not warranting interference.
Issue 2 - Applicability of Section 114AA (knowledge/intention) to the airway-bill filer
Legal framework: Section 114AA prescribes penalty where a person knowingly or intentionally makes, signs or uses any declaration, statement or document which is false or incorrect in any material particular in any transaction for the purposes of the Act. The provision, thus, incorporates a mens rea element (knowledge/intention) and is directed at documents "for the purposes of" the Act.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial authorities are invoked in the text to delineate the scope of "document" under the Act; the Tribunal's statutory construction is accepted by the Court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal distinguished between documents filed under the Customs Act (such as baggage declarations) and documents required by carriers (such as airway bills). Although an airway bill is essential for carriage, it was held to be not a document "filed under the Act" and therefore not a document contemplated by Section 114AA. The baggage declaration - the document filed under the Act which was false - was not prepared/used by the airway-bill filer. Because Section 114AA requires that the person knowingly make/sign/use a false document in the transaction for the purposes of the Act, and because the airway bill was treated as outside that category, imposition of Section 114AA on the airway-bill filer was not justified. The Tribunal therefore correctly refused to impose Section 114AA liability on the appellant; the Court endorsed that view.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 114AA was inapplicable to the airway-bill filer because the false document for purposes of the Act was the baggage declaration (not filed by the appellant), and the airway bill is not a document "for the purposes of" the Customs Act in the relevant statutory sense. Obiter - observations on the functional importance of airway bills for airlines and their counterpartship with bills of lading are contextual but supportive of the statutory distinction.
Conclusions: Penalty under Section 114AA cannot be sustained against a person whose only involvement was filing an airway bill, where the false declaration under the Act was a baggage declaration prepared/used by others. Consequently, the appellate challenge by Revenue to impose Section 114AA on such a person was dismissed.
Issue 3 - Existence of a substantial question of law under Section 130 for entertaining the appeal
Legal framework: Appeals to the High Court under Section 130 lie only where a substantial question of law arises from the Tribunal's decision.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not cite authorities delineating what constitutes a "substantial question of law"; the Court applies the statutory threshold in a fact-specific manner.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court assessed whether any substantial question of law arose from the Tribunal's findings. The challenge was essentially fact-based - disputing the role and extent of participation of the appellant in the chain of documents facilitating illegal export - and the legal questions addressed by the Tribunal (interpretation of Sections 114 and 114AA and their application to the facts) did not present a novel or substantial question of law warranting interference. The Court therefore found the conditions for invoking Section 130 unsatisfied.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of a substantial question of law where the dispute is primarily factual and where statutory provisions were applied in a straightforward way by the Tribunal. Obiter - none significant beyond the application of the statutory threshold.
Conclusions: The appeal did not raise any substantial question of law under Section 130; therefore the Court declined to entertain interference with the Tribunal's order on that ground.
Cross-references and Interplay between Issues 1 and 2
The Court's treatment of Section 114 and Section 114AA is interlinked: Section 114 permits liability based on an act/omission that renders goods liable to confiscation (no mens rea), whereas Section 114AA imposes liability only where there is knowledge/intention in respect of a document "for the purposes of" the Act. The factual finding that the airway bill was instrumental to the export but not a document filed under the Act drove divergent outcomes - liability under Section 114 was sustained, while Section 114AA liability was rejected. The Court and the Tribunal applied these statutory distinctions consistently.
Levy of penalty on appellant u/s 114 of the Customs Act, 1962 - Illegal export of Red Sanders which is stated to have been received by the Customs Department - rejection of declared value - HELD THAT:- Considering the role played by appellant, this Court is of the opinion that a penalty of Rs.10 lakh, which has already been imposed and has been upheld by the CESTAT, would be sufficient penalty.
Moreover, an appeal from the order of the CESTAT would arise under Section 130 of the Customs Act, 1962, only when there is a substantial question of law that arises. In the present case, the Court does not find any substantial question of law and therefore, the conditions under Section 130 of the Customs Act, 1962 remain unsatisfied.
The penalty imposed upon the Appellant, does not warrant any interference of this Court - appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether imposition of penalty under Section 114 of the Customs Act is justified on a freight forwarder who facilitated procurement of documents, arranged airway bills in the name of a fictitious entity and coordinated changes to consignor/consignee and goods description to align with a fake baggage declaration.
2. Whether penalty under Section 114AA of the Customs Act (penalty for mis-declaration where knowledge is established and in respect of a document filed for the purposes of the Act) can be imposed on a person whose role related to procuring/arranging airway bills (airline documents) rather than filing the baggage declaration (a document filed for purposes of the Act).
3. Whether the extent/quantum of penalty already imposed under Section 114 is adequate in the facts of the case, and whether imposition of the additional, higher penalty under Section 114AA would be appropriate given the defendant's limited role.
4. Whether the requisite mens rea/knowledge for triggering Section 114AA is established on the materials, particularly where there is no direct evidence of monetary benefit or explicit awareness of mis-declaration.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legality of penalty under Section 114 for facilitating export through forged/false documentation
Legal framework: Section 114 provides for penalty where a person causes or facilitates export in contravention of the Act, including by abetment, or otherwise is responsible for acts rendering goods liable for confiscation.
Precedent Treatment: The Court treated the Tribunal's findings on factual role and causation as determinative for Section 114 liability (no precedent explicitly overruled or distinguished in the judgment).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the Tribunal's factual findings that the appellant facilitated procurement of documents from the broker, arranged issuance of fictitious airway bills, and coordinated amendments to align airway bill particulars with a fake baggage declaration. The Court held that but for these actions, the attempted export would not have been possible. Accordingly, facilitation and critical participation in the conspiracy satisfied the statutory test for imposing penalty under Section 114.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the factual nexus between facilitating false airway bills/changes and the attempted unlawful export justifies imposition of Section 114 penalty. The Court's affirmance of the Section 114 penalty is a binding part of the decision on these facts.
Conclusions: Penalty under Section 114 was correctly imposed and upheld given the causal and facilitative role of the freight forwarder in enabling the attempted export using forged documents.
Issue 2 - Compatibility of the appellant's actions with penal liability under Section 114AA (knowledge + document filed for purposes of the Act)
Legal framework: Section 114AA penalises mis-declaration where the knowledge of the person is established and the mis-declaration relates to a document filed for purposes of the Customs Act (e.g., baggage declarations submitted to customs). The section contemplates both a knowledge element and a nexus to the statutory document.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal's approach - followed by the Court - distinguished acts relating to airline/airway bills from acts of filing documents with customs; no overruling of prior authority recorded.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized the two prerequisites for Section 114AA: (a) knowledge of the person; and (b) mis-declaration in respect of a document filed for purposes of the Act. The Court found that the operative customs document was the baggage declaration (filed with customs), whereas the appellant's role was in obtaining/arranging airway bills (documents related to the airline). Because the appellant's primary acts related to an airline document and not to filing the baggage declaration with customs, the Court concluded that Section 114AA did not apply to him. The Court further noted absence of direct evidence of monetary benefit or explicit knowledge of mis-declaration sufficient to establish the knowledge element required under Section 114AA.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a person's actions relate only to airline/transport documents and not to documents filed for the purposes of the Customs Act (such as baggage declarations), Section 114AA is not attracted. The requirement of knowledge for Section 114AA is a substantive element; its non-satisfaction is decisive. This forms a central holding in the judgment.
Conclusions: Section 114AA not imposable on the appellant given (i) the statutory document to which mis-declaration relates was the baggage declaration filed with customs, and (ii) the appellant's activities were confined to obtaining and altering airline airway bills; hence the knowledge-plus-document nexus for 114AA was absent.
Issue 3 - Quantum and sufficiency of penalty under Section 114 vis-à-vis imposition of Section 114AA penalty
Legal framework: Penalties under Section 114 are discretionary and related to the nature and extent of involvement; Section 114AA provides for a higher penalty (in this case, potentially five times the value of goods) where its conditions are met.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied principles of proportionality and consideration of role in assessing adequacy of penalty; no conflicting precedent was considered or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that although the appellant was a key facilitator, his role was limited and indirect (arranging airway bills and procuring documents). Given that a Rs.10 lakh penalty under Section 114 had already been imposed and upheld, the Court considered that further imposition of the substantially higher Section 114AA penalty would be disproportionate in light of the limited role. The Court therefore declined to entertain the Revenue's appeal seeking additional penalty, while leaving open the broader legal question for another proceeding.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - on these facts, the existing penalty under Section 114 is sufficient; imposing Section 114AA (with its much larger formulaic quantum) would be excessive where the statutory criteria for 114AA are not met. This assessment of proportionality as applied to the facts is a decisive part of the judgment.
Conclusions: The Rs.10 lakh penalty under Section 114 is adequate and properly imposed; additional penalty under Section 114AA was not warranted and is correctly refused in the present appeal.
Issue 4 - Establishment of requisite knowledge/mens rea for Section 114AA
Legal framework: Section 114AA requires proof of knowledge that a person was aware of the mis-declaration in a document filed for purposes of the Act.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on the statutory formulation requiring knowledge; no express precedential exposition was set out beyond acceptance of the legal standard.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the appellant disputed failure of due diligence and KYC as well as absence of evidence of monetary benefit. The factual matrix did not demonstrate that the appellant had knowledge of the mis-declaration in the baggage declaration (the customs document). The acts proved were procurement and arrangement of airway bills and communication to effect changes - insufficient to prove the subjective element of knowledge with respect to the baggage declaration filed to customs.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of requisite knowledge precludes imposition of Section 114AA; this is a core legal holding for the facts before the Court.
Conclusions: Knowledge/mental element necessary for Section 114AA was not established on the materials; hence Section 114AA could not be applied to the appellant.
Cross-reference
The holdings on Issues 2 and 4 are interrelated: the Court's conclusion that Section 114AA does not apply rests both on the positional distinction between airline/airway bill documents and customs-filed baggage declarations (Issue 2) and on the absence of evidence of the requisite knowledge/mens rea (Issue 4). These findings together justify the refusal to impose the additional higher penalty (Issue 3) while upholding the Section 114 penalty (Issue 1).
Rejection of prayer of the Appellant for imposition of penalty u/s 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 - illegal export of Red Sanders, stated to have been received by the Customs Department - HELD THAT:- The respondent facilitated the procurement of documents from Customs Broker and, through freight forwarder, arranged for the issuance of airway bills in the name of the fictitious entity and subsequently coordinated changes to consignor/consignee details and goods description to align with a fake baggage declaration.
Considering the role played by respondent, this Court is of the opinion that a penalty of Rs.10 lakh, which has already been imposed and has been upheld by the Court, would be sufficient penalty. Further penalty u/s 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962 would entail five times the value of goods being imposed upon the Respondent.
In view of the limited role played by respondent, this Court is of the opinion that the penalty u/s 114A of the Act has been rightly imposed on the Respondent - the Court is not inclined to entertain the present appeal. However, the question of law raised in the present appeal is left open to be considered in an appropriate proceeding.
Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an Authority for Advance Ruling may refuse to consider an application for an advance ruling or its renewal on the ground that adjudicatory proceedings, initiated after the date of the application but prior to the decision, are pending before an adjudicating authority - i.e., whether the proviso to Section 28-I(2)(a) applies with reference to pendency as on the date of filing or as on the date of decision.
2. Whether an adjudicating authority may finalise a show-cause notice covering a period during which a binding advance ruling subsisted, without considering the affected party's specific contention that the advance ruling was valid and binding for that period.
3. Whether an adjudicating order can be sustained on grounds not reflected in the body of the order, or by relying on factual developments (e.g., audit findings) not mentioned or considered in the order itself.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of proviso to Section 28-I(2)(a): timing of "already pending"
Legal framework: Section 28-I(2) permits the Authority for Advance Ruling to allow or reject an application; the proviso bars allowance where the question is "already pending in the applicant's case before any officer of customs, the Appellate Tribunal or any Court." The provision governs applications for advance rulings and renewals.
Precedent treatment: High Court decisions addressing analogous statutory formulations under other tax/indirect tax statutes have held that "already pending" must be judged with reference to the date of filing of the application (not the date of decision). This approach has been adopted in decisions of coordinate High Courts and this Court in comparable contexts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court construed the phrase "already pending" as temporally anchored to the date when the application for an advance ruling (or renewal) is filed. The legislative intent, as reflected in parallel statutory schemes, supports that the bar operates only where proceedings were in existence on the filing date. Subsequent initiation of adjudicatory proceedings cannot retrospectively render the question "already pending" on the filing date.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the proviso to Section 28-I(2)(a) bars acceptance only where proceedings were pending as on the date of filing; subsequent proceedings instituted after filing do not attract the bar.
Conclusion: The Authority for Advance Ruling erred in refusing to entertain the renewal application on the ground of a show-cause notice issued after the renewal application was filed. The CAAR's refusal (as to the subject items) was based on an incorrect construction of Section 28-I(2)(a) and is set aside; the CAAR is directed to decide the renewal application afresh, observing principles of natural justice and rendering a reasoned decision.
Issue 2 - Requirement to consider binding advance ruling when adjudicating a show-cause notice
Legal framework: Advance rulings, where valid and binding, preclude re-openings or contrary classification for the period during which they subsist. The statutory scheme provides for advance rulings to be binding for a prescribed period; where an advance ruling covers the period in question, adjudicating authorities must assess jurisdiction accordingly.
Precedent treatment: This Court and High Courts have recognized the binding effect of advance rulings for the period they remain valid. Earlier rulings have been relied upon to hold that adjudicating bodies cannot issue or sustain demands disregarding a binding advance ruling without reasoned consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the renewal chronology and the temporal scope of the 2016 advance ruling, concluding it remained valid for the period covered by the show-cause notice. The adjudicating authority's order merely recorded the petitioner's plea but failed to engage with or decide the contention that the advance ruling precluded jurisdiction for the show-cause period. An adjudication finalising liability must address and reason upon such threshold jurisdictional/entitlement objections rather than summarily dismiss them.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an adjudicating authority must consider and give reasons on a contention that a binding advance ruling covered the period in question; failure to do so renders the order unsustainable and liable to be quashed and remanded.
Conclusion: The adjudication (show-cause finalisation) is quashed and remanded because the authority did not consider, discuss or decide the specific contention that the earlier advance ruling was binding for the relevant period. The matter is remitted for fresh disposal after considering all contentions, including the impact of the binding advance ruling.
Issue 3 - Reliance on grounds not stated in the adjudicatory order; supplementation of reasons
Legal framework: Statutory administrative orders must be judged by the reasons contained in the order itself. Fresh reasons or new factual grounds cannot be relied upon in litigation to cure deficiencies in the order unless they are traceable to the record and were available to the affected party with an opportunity to be heard.
Precedent treatment: The Court reiterated the well-established principle that public orders are to be construed objectively by reference to their language; subsequent ex post facto explanations (including affidavits) cannot be used to validate an order that lacks those grounds on its face.
Interpretation and reasoning: The revenue sought to sustain the adjudication by invoking audit findings and changed facts. Those grounds were not reflected in the impugned order, nor was any opportunity given to the petitioner to meet such a case. The Court held that the statutory order's validity must be judged on the order's own reasoning; the attempt to supplement the adjudication with extraneous grounds in affidavit material was impermissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an order unsupported by reasons on a material contention cannot be fortified by new grounds outside the record; where the body of the order does not disclose consideration of a central contention, the order is vitiated.
Conclusion: The adjudicating authority's reliance, in argument, on changed factual grounds not reflected in its order is impermissible to sustain the order; that infirmity supports quashing and remitting the adjudication for fresh, reasoned decision after affording opportunity to the parties.
Remedial and ancillary conclusions
1. The Authority for Advance Ruling's refusal to decide the renewal application (insofar as it concerned the specified goods) is quashed and set aside; the Authority is directed to decide the renewal afresh and expeditiously, affording full hearing and a reasoned order.
2. The adjudicating authority's order finalising the show-cause notice is quashed and set aside; the matter is remitted to the adjudicating authority to decide the show-cause notice afresh, considering all contentions (in particular the contention regarding the binding advance ruling for the relevant period) and observing principles of natural justice.
3. No view is expressed on the merits of the classification or on the correctness of the advance ruling; all substantive contentions are left open for the authorities to decide in the fresh proceedings.
Justification in declining to entertain Petitioner’s Renewal Application dated 14 November 2024 on the grounds of issuance and pendency of the show cause notice dated 27 December 2024 before the Adjudicating Authority (R2) - whether the CAAR could have declined to entertain the Petitioner’s Renewal Application dated 14 November 2024 based on the subsequent show cause notice dated 27 December 2024 and its pendency, given the provisions of Section 28 I of the Customs Act?
HELD THAT:- In Hyosung Corporation [2016 (2) TMI 575 - DELHI HIGH COURT], the Delhi High Court was concerned with the provisions of Section 245R read with Section 143 of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Under Section 245R (2) of the Income Tax Act, the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR), on examining the application and calling for the records, could either allow or reject the application. The proviso to Section 245R (2) places the restriction on the AAR, allowing such an application if the question raised in the application was already pending before any Income Tax authority or Appellate Tribunal. In this context, the Delhi High Court ruled that the question raised in the application seeking an Advance Ruling had to be pending before the Income Tax Authority or the Appellate Tribunal as on the date of making an application seeking an Advance Ruling and not on the date when the AAR decides such an application seeking an Advance Ruling.
In the case of M/s SRICO Projects [2022 (9) TMI 418 - TELANGANA HIGH COURT], the Telangana High Court took the same view as was taken by the Delhi High Court in the case of similar provisions under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (CGST Act). There is no considerable difference between the corresponding provisions of the CGST and the Customs Act on the issue of Advance Rulings.
In the case of General Motors [2024 (12) TMI 728 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], this Court, in the context of the provisions of the State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, containing similar provisions, also ruled that the proceedings had to be pending on the date of the application seeking the Advance Ruling and not on the date of the decision on such an application. In that case, the Petitioner’s application seeking an advance ruling was filed on 28 December 2023, and a pre-show cause notice was issued only on 22 October 2024. Therefore, this Court held that the subsequent issue of such a pre-show cause notice would not come in the way of the Advance Ruling authority disposing of the application dated 20 December 2023 on its own merits and in accordance with law.
From the reply dated 5 March 2025 filed by the Petitioner to the show cause notice dated 27 December 2024, we find that the Petitioner had clearly objected to the show cause notice dated 27 December 2024 on the ground that the 2016 Advance Ruling squarely covered the issue in the show cause notice. It was contended that this 2016 advance ruling was valid and binding during the period 1 April 2021 to 22 December 2021, and therefore, the 2nd Respondent had no jurisdiction to issue the show cause notice dated 27 December 2024.
The impugned order is set aside - the matter is remanded to the adjudicating authority for fresh disposal of the show cause notice dated 27 December 2012 in accordance with law and on its own merits.
Issues: (i) Whether adjudication of the show cause notice and the order-in-original, after an inordinate delay of more than a decade, was vitiated for want of action within a reasonable time; (ii) Whether the writ petition was maintainable despite the availability of an alternative appellate remedy, where the challenge was founded on procedural fairness and violation of natural justice.
Issue (i): Whether adjudication of the show cause notice and the order-in-original, after an inordinate delay of more than a decade, was vitiated for want of action within a reasonable time.
Analysis: The statutory scheme did not permit indefinite dormancy of adjudication merely because no specific limitation period was prescribed for the case as a whole. The record showed that the notice remained unattended for about 13 to 14 years, with no cogent explanation from the department and no proof that the matter had been properly kept in call book or that the petitioner or his predecessor had been informed. The Court applied the settled principle that administrative and quasi-judicial powers must be exercised within a reasonable time, and that prolonged inaction causes prejudice, defeats procedural fairness, and violates natural justice.
Conclusion: The adjudication was held bad in law and the order-in-original was declared void; the finding was in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the writ petition was maintainable despite the availability of an alternative appellate remedy, where the challenge was founded on procedural fairness and violation of natural justice.
Analysis: The grievance concerned the legality of a stale adjudication vitiated by inordinate delay, silence for years, and non-disclosure of the status of the proceedings. In such circumstances, relegating the petitioner to an appeal was not appropriate, because the complaint went to the fairness of the process itself and involved a substantial breach of natural justice. The availability of an appellate remedy did not oust writ jurisdiction on these facts.
Conclusion: The writ petition was held maintainable and the objection based on alternate remedy failed; the finding was in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned show cause notice and the consequential order-in-original were quashed because the department's prolonged inaction and failure to justify the delay rendered the proceedings unsustainable, and the petitioner was not to be driven to an alternate remedy in the circumstances.
Ratio Decidendi: Even where no express period of limitation is prescribed, a show cause notice must be adjudicated within a reasonable time, and inordinate unexplained delay that causes prejudice and undermines procedural fairness vitiates the adjudication.
Applicability of doctrine of reasonable time - adjudication of SCN after an inordinate delay of 13 years, without any explanation - Alleged misuse of export promotion schemes - drawback and DEPB - principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- A bare perusal of the record reveals that investigation was carried out by the Directorate for the period 2001-05, and Show Cause Notice was issued on 31st March 2008, father of petitioner (Prop. of M/s J. Minakshi International) passed away on 22nd April 2021, and the impugned Order-in-Original has been passed on 18th October 2022 after a lapse of more than 14 years from the date of the impugned Show Cause Notice. It is also evident that it is not respondent’s case that petitioner’s case was transferred to call book or petitioner or his late father was informed about the same. Petitioner was neither informed that the impugned notices had been transferred to call book, nor any documents to substantiate the same have been placed on record by respondent-department.
The Hon'ble Supreme Court and various High Courts have repeatedly held that doctrine of reasonable time applies universally to all proceedings, and the nature of the recovery does not alter the fundamental requirement of timely adjudication.
The maxim lex dilationes abhorret, i.e., law abhors delay has not lost its temper over the years. The 14-year delay in adjudication is an antithesis to the norms of a lawful, fair and effective quasi judicial adjudication. Courts have consistently held that inordinate delay in adjudication of notice violates principles of natural justice as where no period of limitation is prescribed, power cannot be exercised indefinitely. Respondent has failed to provide any cogent explanation for the inordinate delay of 14 years. Moreover, petitioner was never informed about the matter being transferred to call book, nor was there any communication regarding the status of proceedings for a good 13 years period. This complete lack of transparency and procedural non-compliance renders the entire proceedings vitiated by arbitrariness.
Even though the remedy of appeal is available, petitioner is not required to exercise this alternate remedy, in the facts and circumstances of the present case. The present writ petition is maintainable as the challenge in the present writ petition arises on account of the contravention of the rules of procedural fairness by respondent. This conduct of respondent has resulted in grave prejudice being caused to petitioner and amounts to a violation of the principles of natural justice. Thus, the present writ petition is squarely maintainable and petitioner does not have to be relegated to the remedy of appeal even though available.
There are no hesitation in holding that petitioner was entirely justified in concluding that respondents had abandoned the impugned Show Cause Notice - petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the imported product was classifiable as an Ayurvedic medicament under heading 3003 or as a food supplement / other food preparation under heading 2106, and whether the duty demand confirmed on that basis was sustainable.
Analysis: The importer failed to substantiate the claim that the product was intended for treatment or prevention of diseases with supporting evidence. The materials on record and the product description showed that the goods were marketed as a health and food supplement for general well-being rather than as a medicament. The onus to establish the declared classification lay on the importer, and that burden was not discharged. The earlier coordinate Bench decision on a similar product was treated as binding, and the mere pendency or admission of an appeal before a higher forum was held not to keep the precedent in abeyance or prevent the Tribunal from deciding the appeal on merits.
Conclusion: The goods were correctly classified under heading 2106, the duty demand was sustainable, and the appeals failed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal affirmed the classification adopted by the department and upheld the consequential duty liability.
Ratio Decidendi: A product promoted for general health or well-being, without proof of therapeutic or prophylactic use, is classifiable as a food supplement and not as a medicament; an appeal pending in a higher forum does not suspend the binding force of the existing decision in the absence of a stay.
Classification of imported Bulk Reishi Gano Powder - to be classified under Customs Tariff Heading 3003 9011 as Medicaments of Ayurvedic System or under CTH 2106 9099 as other food preparations not elsewhere specified? - Precent of an earlier judgement of the tribunal against which an appeal has been admitted by the Supreme Court - HELD THAT:- Once an appeal had been admitted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court against a judgment of the Tribunal it is in jeopardy and cannot be relied upon. Hence no further action could be taken to decide the matter in this appeal before the tribunal till the issue is decided by the Hon'ble Supreme Court
Firstly as stated by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in its judgment in the case of State of Orissa & Ors. Vs Md. Illiyas [2005 (11) TMI 469 - SUPREME COURT] a decision is a precedent on its own facts. It is found that this is not a case of an appellant who is before the Hon’ble Supreme Court on an identical mater for the past/ future period, in his own case - Secondly there is no stay granted by the Hon’ble Supreme court even in the appeal filed before it by DXN Manufacturing (India) Pvt. Ltd. [2015 (8) TMI 1418 - SUPREME COURT]. In fact, in the said case the Hon’ble Court found that duty and interest had already been paid and directed the appellant to pay the penalty also. Hence the judgment continued to be effective and binding on the appellant who was before the Hon’ble Court in appeal - Thirdly the admission of an appeal filed before a superior court cannot be held to be equivalent to a stay order.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court in West Coast Paper Mills Ltd. [2004 (2) TMI 344 - SUPREME COURT], thus stated that as per the doctrine of merger there cannot be more than one decree or operative orders governing the same subject-matter at a given point of time. Hence an order is in jeopardy until the matter is decided by the last court and the finality of the lis is attained. However, this does not mean that all other proceedings involving the same issue would remain stayed till a decision was rendered in the reference. In facts when the Apex Court had felt it necessary that the Court and Tribunals below stay their hands on a matter, the same has been clearly stated.
The primary onus is on the importer to produce the desired details/information, necessary for the assessment of the imported goods. Once the needful is done and such information etc. is supplied, then the burden shifts on the assessing authority to controvert the assessee's stand - it is thus opined that in tune with Section 101 in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the onus of establishing the truth of the use of the goods declared in the Bill of Entry and self-assessed, is on the assessee-appellant. The legal principle is that he who asserts must prove. [Section 104 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023]. It is satisfied that such evidence has not been submitted by the appellant and hence their claim cannot be taken at face value.
After a detailed discussion the Ld. Adjudicating Authority concluded that the imported goods would merits classification under Customs Tariff Heading 3003, only if the goods possess any qualities for treatment or prevention of human or animal ailments. However, since the preparations are intended for maintaining general health or wellbeing it is appropriately classifiable under chapter 2106.
Considering the facts and circumstances of the case, it is found that revenue has discharged its burden in the classification of the impugned goods and the appeals merits rejection. It is hence so ordered - appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the declared customs value of imported used cranes could be rejected and re-determined solely on the basis of statements recorded during investigation without complying strictly with the Customs Valuation Rules framed under section 14 of the Customs Act and without independent corroborative evidence.
2. Whether refusal to permit cross-examination of persons whose statements were relied upon (in the absence of recorded reasons) violated principles of natural justice and the requirement of testing relevancy under section 138B of the Customs Act.
3. Whether appropriation of amounts paid during investigation towards alleged dues arising from imports effected beyond the period permitted for recovery under section 28 of the Customs Act was legally sustainable in the absence of statutory empowerment or voluntary acceptance of liability.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of rejection/re-determination of declared value based solely on statements and compliance with Customs Valuation Rules
Legal framework: Rejection of declared value and re-determination must conform to the Rules made under section 14 of the Customs Act (Customs Valuation (Determination of Price/Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 1988/2007). Any reassessment to recover differential duty requires a proper foundation in those Rules and must satisfy statutory tests for determination of value.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal's prior decision addressing similar valuation exercises held that reliance solely on statements without corroboration is insufficient; reassessment must be supported by compliance with the valuation Rules. The decision of the Supreme Court in the cited precedent (referred to by parties) on evidentiary and procedural safeguards was relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that the impugned re-valuation rested essentially on statements taken during investigation (including confessional or admissions) and certificates from a chartered engineer, but lacked independent corroborative proof of the actual price of each used crane. In such circumstances, reliance on statements alone is too fragile a foundation to justify rejection of declared value or application of the Rules to compute a new value. The Court emphasized that strict compliance with the statutory valuation regime is necessary before disturbing declared value; otherwise the re-assessment cannot meet the test of soundness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where re-determination of customs value is founded solely on uncorroborated statements obtained in investigation, absent strict adherence to the Rules under section 14 and independent corroboration, the re-assessment is unsustainable and must be set aside/remanded for fresh determination under the applicable valuation Rules. (Cross-reference to Issue 2 regarding necessity of cross-examination for corroboration.)
Conclusion: The impugned order's rejection and recalculation of declared value on the basis of statements alone was unsound; matter is remitted to the original authority to determine value afresh in terms of the Customs Valuation Rules, 1988/2007 as applicable.
Issue 2 - Right to cross-examination and relevancy under section 138B; natural justice implications
Legal framework: Section 138B of the Customs Act governs admissibility and relevancy of statements recorded under investigation; the principles of natural justice require that evidence relied upon for adverse findings be susceptible to testing, including cross-examination where relevance or weight is disputed or where statements form the sole or principal basis for adverse inference.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal's earlier ruling in a similar matter was cited, holding that cross-examination is essential when material adverse findings are based on statements and that denial of cross-examination without recorded reasons is contrary to principles of natural justice. The Court accepted that line of reasoning and applied it to the present facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Commissioner denied requests for cross-examination of key declarants without recording specific reasons and that the statements were pivotal to the finding of undervaluation. Given the absence of corroboration, the test of cross-examination becomes critical for attributing relevancy and weight. Reliance on prior judgments stating cross-examination is not an absolute right was held to be misplaced where the authority fails to furnish reasons for denial, particularly when such statements are the primary basis for reassessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where statements form the principal basis for valuation adjustment, refusal to allow cross-examination without recording specific reasons violates natural justice and the statutory requirement for testing relevancy under section 138B; such a refusal vitiates proceedings and requires remand. Obiter - General propositions that cross-examination is not an absolute right remain subject to the qualification that denial must be reasoned when the statements are crucial.
Conclusion: The refusal to permit cross-examination of key persons whose statements were used to overturn declared value was procedurally unsound; the matter requires remand for fresh adjudication with opportunity to test such evidence in accordance with section 138B and principles of natural justice.
Issue 3 - Legality of appropriation/recovery for imports beyond the statutory period and requirement of statutory empowerment
Legal framework: Section 28 of the Customs Act prescribes limitation and manner of recovery of customs duty; appropriation of amounts paid requires statutory empowerment and cannot be effected where the period for recovery has lapsed or where no liability has been established or voluntarily accepted.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated the appropriation issue in light of the statutory recovery regime and the requirement of lawful empowerment to recover duties; no authority was found to permit appropriation in respect of time-barred imports or when impugned liability remains unproved.
Interpretation and reasoning: The impugned order had appropriated amounts paid during investigation towards alleged dues for imports that were prior to the permissible five-year recovery period (as invoked). The Court observed that appropriation is a consequence of lawful empowerment to recover; absent statutory power or voluntary acceptance of liability, appropriation is not a legitimate remedy. Since the disputed imports were outside the period for recovery under section 28 and there was no acceptance of liability, the appropriation could not stand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Appropriation of amounts towards alleged customs dues requires statutory empowerment to recover the dues; appropriation is impermissible where the claim is time-barred under the recovery provisions or where there is no voluntary acceptance of liability. Obiter - None beyond the immediate holding.
Conclusion: The appropriation of amounts paid during investigation towards alleged duties on time-barred imports was not sustainable; appropriation cannot be operated without empowerment or voluntary acceptance, and the impugned appropriation was set aside.
Final Disposition (cross-references)
Given (a) the re-determination rested principally on uncorroborated statements (see Issue 1), (b) cross-examination of those persons was denied without recorded reasons in breach of section 138B and natural justice (see Issue 2), and (c) appropriation was effected in respect of purported liabilities beyond the statutory recovery period without empowerment (see Issue 3), the impugned order was set aside and the matter remanded to the original authority for fresh determination of value and consequential relief strictly in accordance with the Customs Valuation Rules and the statutory recovery provisions.
Recovery of short paid duty - Mis-declaration of value of ‘used cranes’ - rejection of declared value - re-determination of the value in terms of rule 8 under the erstwhile Customs Valuation (Determination of Price of Imported Goods) Rules, 1988 and rule 9 of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007 - applicability of time limitation - re-valuation based upon the certificate of chartered engineer, the plea for cross-examination of the certifying authority was rejected peremptorily - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- An identical issue on valuation of similar goods had come up before the Tribunal and, while setting aside unsupported appropriation, the re-assessment was called in question on the plea of importer therein that reliance upon statements for the purpose, and that, too, without testing for relevancy under section 138B of Customs Act, 1962, for disturbing the declared value was improper even if the manner of such declaration was questionable. In other words, except by strict compliance with the Rules framed under the authority of section 14 of Customs Act, 1962, re-assessment would not meet the test of soundness to enable which the matter was remanded.
The culmination of de novo proceedings was agitated once again before the Tribunal and, in re Karim Jaria [2022 (4) TMI 948 - CESTAT MUMBAI] while holding that 'The re-assessment, recovery of differential duty and confiscation of ‘used cranes’ imported by M/s Crown Lifters Pvt Ltd in the impugned order fails.'
As, in the present dispute, the value had been similarly determined solely on the basis of statements recorded during the course of investigation, it would be appropriate to set aside the impugned order similarly and remand the matter back to the original authority to determine the value afresh in terms of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 1988/2007, as applicable.
It is seen that the impugned order had appropriated the amount paid during investigation towards alleged dues arising from short-payment of duty on imports effected prior to the period permitted by section 28 of Customs Act, 1962. Clearly, that is not a liability in the absence of empowerment to contemplate recovery. There is no voluntary acceptance of duty liability and willing readiness to accept that obligation either. Appropriation is a consequence of empowerment to recover and hence not applicable to the disputed imports.
Appeal allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the adjudicating authority was entitled to re-open and re-adjudicate a show cause notice against an appellant after the Tribunal had earlier set aside the adjudicating authority's order in that appellant's appeal.
2. Whether the adjudicating authority could validly issue a fresh personal hearing notice and impose penalty on an appellant where the only stated ground for re-opening was a subsequent remand in proceedings involving a different respondent arising from the same show cause notice.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Power to re-open adjudication after Tribunal order in same appellant's appeal
Legal framework: Principles of finality of judicial/administrative adjudication and effect of an appellate Tribunal's order setting aside an adjudicatory order govern whether and when an adjudicating authority may re-open or re-hear a matter previously decided against the same party.
Precedent Treatment: No specific precedents were cited in the impugned order or in the presented submissions; the Court relied on principles of finality and the record of the Tribunal's earlier decision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal had previously set aside the adjudicating authority's order in the appellant's own appeal. That Tribunal order became final because the department did not challenge it. Where an appellate order has disposed of the matter in favour of the appellant (setting aside the penalty), the adjudicating authority cannot re-open the appellant's matter afresh on the basis of developments in separate proceedings unless there is a legally valid ground specific to that appellant (such as fraud, newly discovered material applicable to that appellant, or jurisdictional defects). Re-opening solely because a different party's appeal was remanded is not a sufficient legal ground to re-adjudicate the appellant's matter already concluded by a final order of the Tribunal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A final appellate order setting aside an adjudicatory penalty in an appellant's case precludes the adjudicating authority from re-opening that appellant's matter merely because of a subsequent remand in proceedings of another party arising from the same show cause notice. Obiter - General administrative power to re-open in limited circumstances (e.g., fraud or new material) is recognised but was not found to be invoked or established on the facts.
Conclusions: The re-opening and fresh adjudication of the appellant's matter was impermissible. The adjudicating authority's order imposing penalty on the appellant cannot be sustained and must be set aside.
Issue 2 - Validity of issuing a fresh personal hearing notice and imposing penalty where remand related to a different party
Legal framework: Adjudicatory fairness requires that notices and hearings be issued only where the authority has jurisdiction and a valid basis to proceed; procedural acts cannot be used to circumvent final appellate outcomes.
Precedent Treatment: No specific authority was relied upon by the adjudicating authority to justify reopening the appellant's file; the Tribunal's prior disposal in the appellant's favour was treated as decisive by the Court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record shows a personal hearing notice was issued to the appellant after the Tribunal remanded proceedings in the matter of a different respondent. The appellant objected, pointing to the Tribunal's earlier order setting aside the adjudicating authority's order in the appellant's appeal and to the finality of that order. The adjudicating authority ignored that objection and proceeded to impose penalty. The Court found that the adjudicating authority "completely failed to appreciate the issue" and that issuing a fresh notice and imposing penalty under those circumstances lacked necessity and legal justification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Issuing a personal hearing notice and re-imposing penalty on an appellant is invalid where the appellant's matter was previously set aside by the Tribunal and no valid, appellant-specific ground for re-opening is shown. Obiter - Administrative authorities should assess the impact of orders in related proceedings before mechanically reopening concluded files.
Conclusions: The fresh personal hearing and subsequent penalty were not legally justified; the impugned order must be set aside and the appeal allowed.
Cross-references and Concluding Legal Point
Where a final appellate order in favour of a party has been rendered and not challenged, that party's matter stands concluded and cannot be re-adjudicated on the sole basis that separate proceedings involving other parties arising from the same show cause notice were remanded. The adjudicating authority must identify and record a valid, party-specific legal basis to re-open before issuing fresh notices or imposing penalties; absent such basis, subsequent action is unsustainable.
Levy of penalty u/s 112(a)(ii) of the Customs Act, 1962 - necessity of issuing a personal hearing notice to the appellant when the matter of the appellant stood concluded by the decision of the Tribunal - HELD THAT:- Once the SCN that was issued to the appellant had been adjudicated upon by an order dated 12.02.2015 and penalty was imposed on the appellant but this order of the adjudicating authority was set aside by the Tribunal in the appeal filed by the appellant before the Tribunal by order dated 07.09.2015, the matter of the appellant could not have been re-opened merely because of S.B. Mehta filed an appeal against the order dated 12.02.2015 and the Tribunal by order dated 04.07.2017 in the matter of S.B. Mehta had remanded the matter to the Principal Commissioner. The Principal Commissioner completely failed to appreciate the issue and again imposed a penalty of Rs. 2 lakhs upon the appellant.
The order passed by the Principal Commissioner dated 12.03.2025, therefore, cannot be sustained and is set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the delay in filing the challenge to the liquidator's rejection of claim ought to have been condoned and the claim examined on merits; (ii) Whether provident fund and allied statutory dues of the petitioner were to be treated as excluded from the liquidation estate and the petitioner's claim as that of a secured creditor entitled to adjudication and priority consideration.
Issue (i): Whether the delay in filing the challenge to the liquidator's rejection of claim ought to have been condoned and the claim examined on merits.
Analysis: The claim was filed only two days after the last date notified in the liquidation process. The delay was marginal, and the refusal to condone it rested on a technical view rather than an adjudication of the claim. In matters involving limitation, a liberal approach is required where the controversy can be decided on merits and no prejudice of substance is shown. The rejection of the challenge at the threshold was therefore found unsustainable.
Conclusion: The delay ought to have been condoned, and the claim should have been considered on merits.
Issue (ii): Whether provident fund and allied statutory dues of the petitioner were to be treated as excluded from the liquidation estate and the petitioner's claim as that of a secured creditor entitled to adjudication and priority consideration.
Analysis: Under the insolvency framework, the liquidator is required to verify and settle claims, and the liquidation estate excludes sums due to workmen or employees from provident fund, pension fund and gratuity fund. The statutory scheme also recognises the distinct position of a secured creditor and the independent rights available in relation to security interest. The rejection of the petitioner's claim without proper adjudication was held to be hyper-technical, and the matter required examination on merits in light of the statutory protections available to such dues.
Conclusion: The petitioner's dues required adjudication on merits, and the liquidator could not reject the claim in a rigid or mechanical manner.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside, the matter was remitted to the liquidator for fresh adjudication of the petitioner's claim, and the liquidation-related orders were kept in abeyance pending such exercise.
Ratio Decidendi: A marginal delay in filing a claim under the liquidation regime should not defeat adjudication on merits where statutory dues are asserted and the liquidation estate excludes specified provident fund-related amounts.
Dismissal of petition filed for condoning the delay, on the ground that liquidation under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was a time bound process which came to an end - marginal delay of 2 days in filing the claim - rejection of claim towards Provident Fund and allied dues, on the ground that the Petitioner did not file the claim in Form C and failed to comply with Regulation 17 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 - HELD THAT:- Under Section 36 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 the assets of a Corporate Debtor which forms part of the Liquidation estate during the process of liquidation has been specified. Under Section 36(4)(a)(iii), all sums due to any workman or employee from the provident fund, the pension fund and the gratuity fund shall not be included in the liquidation estate assets and shall not be used for recovery in the liquidation. That apart, the Role of Liquidator is fiduciary in nature. Therefore, a liquidator cannot take a partisan role.
As per Regulation 42 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, subject to the provisions of Section 53, the liquidator shall not commence distribution of assets of Corporate Debtor before the list of stakeholders and the asset memorandum has been filed with the Adjudicating Authority - The liquidator has to distribute the proceeds from realization within [ninety days] from the receipt of the amount to the stakeholders. The insolvency resolution process costs, if any, and the liquidation costs shall be deducted before such distribution is made. While distributing the proceeds from realization, the Liquidator has to take note of the amounts due as claimed and the amounts that are discernible from the records.
The reasons for rejecting the Claim Statement dated 21.10.2022 extracted in the order dated 29.10.2022 is untenable. It has been rejected only on the ground that it has not been filed in Form-1 and instead had been filed just as an Annexure-A to e-mail dated 21.10.2022 and that there was a delay in filing Claim Statement on 21.10.2022. This rejection is a hyper technical one - There was only a marginal delay of 2 days. Thus, the rejection of the Claim Statement of the Petitioner by the 2nd Respondent/Liquidator was unjustified on account of marginal delay of 2 days without adjudicating the claims of the Petitioner.
The Petitioner or for that matter any other Government Entity as a “secured creditor” within the meaning of Section 3(30) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, are entitled to have their claims adjudicated before the 2nd Respondent/Liquidator. Thus, the Employment Provident Fund Organisation, the Petitioner is a “secured creditor” within the meaning of Section 3(30) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
The Impugned Orders dated 28.06.2024 of the 1st Respondent is liable to be set aside and is accordingly set aside and therefore the case is remitted back to the 2nd Respondent/Liquidator to adjudicate the claims of the Petitioner on merits as to whether the Petitioner is indeed entitled for the claims for the aforesaid sum of Rs. 21,94,745/-.
Petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a creditor who has filed and had its claim admitted in the CIRP of the principal debtor can file and have admitted the same claim against the corporate guarantor in the guarantor's CIRP.
2. Whether a Resolution Professional/Interim Resolution Professional is obliged to receive, collate and verify a timely filed claim notwithstanding prior rejection based on then-prevailing judicial view, and whether failure to admit such a claim constitutes a material irregularity affecting the resolution process.
3. Whether a belated application to entertain a claim (after prior rejection and at an advanced stage of CIRP when resolution plans are negotiated/submitted) can be refused solely on the ground that entertaining it would delay the time-bound CIRP, including where the claim was originally filed within the time permitted by Regulation 12.
4. The legal effect of a resolution plan or liquidation of the principal debtor on the independent liability of a personal/corporate guarantor under the contract of guarantee.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - ISSUE 1: Admissibility of same claim in CIRP of Guarantor where admitted in Principal Debtor's CIRP
Legal framework: Regulation 12 of the CIRP Regulations requires submission of claims with proof within the publicised timeline or within 90 days of insolvency commencement date; Section 18(1)(b) & Section 25(2)(e) impose duties on IRP/RP to receive, collate and maintain an updated list of claims. The Code recognises independent contracts of guarantee and treatment of guarantor's liability under general contract law principles.
Precedent Treatment: Two lines of NCLAT authority existed on whether the same claim can be admitted against both principal and guarantor; subsequent Supreme Court authority clarified that a guarantor's liability under an independent guarantee is not ipso facto discharged by insolvency/liquidation of the principal debtor.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the guarantee is an independent contract and that creditor's remedy against guarantor survives involuntary discharge of the principal. Consequently, filing of claim in guarantor's CIRP is legally permissible even if claim existed in principal's CIRP. The Resolution Professional's rejection based on an earlier NCLAT view was an interpretation error in light of binding higher-court pronouncements affirming independence of guarantee obligations.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A claim founded on an independent contract of guarantee can be filed in the CIRP of the guarantor notwithstanding prior filing in the CIRP of the principal debtor; guarantor's liability survives liquidation/insolvency of the principal. Obiter - Observations about bench-strength divergences of tribunal precedents and advisability of seeking clarification from appellate forum.
Conclusions: The creditor was entitled to have its claim examined in the guarantor's CIRP on merits; rejection solely on the ground that the claim was admitted in the principal debtor's CIRP was legally unsustainable in light of higher court law.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - ISSUE 2: Duties of RP/IRP to receive, collate and verify timely filed claims and legal consequence of failure
Legal framework: Sections 18(1)(b) and 25(2)(e) of the Code mandate IRP/RP to receive, collate and maintain updated list of claims; Regulations 12 and relevant CIRP Regulations govern timing and form of claim submission; the time-bound object of the Code must be balanced with duties owed to creditors.
Precedent Treatment: Supreme Court authority emphasises both strict timelines and fair treatment of claims; jurisprudence recognises that form is directory where substantive proof exists; failure to acknowledge a timely claim can vitiate a resolution process (as indicated by later decisions setting aside plans for omission of a creditor's claim).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that where a creditor submitted claim with proof within the 90-day window, the RP had an obligation to apply correct legal position and process the claim. The RP's repeated rejections based on an arguably incorrect interpretation constituted an omission that materially affected the process. The RP, as a technical expert, must implement the law of the land and exercise diligence, fairness and neutrality in collating and verifying claims.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An IRP/RP is duty-bound to receive and verify timely claims and cannot refuse admission based on a misconstruction of settled law; failure to do so may constitute a material irregularity justifying corrective relief. Obiter - Comments on the practical expectation that technical officers should update legal position once higher court law is available.
Conclusions: The RP's refusal to admit a timely filed claim, when higher-court law supported admission, was erroneous and required remediation by directing verification and admission as per law.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - ISSUE 3: Permissibility of entertaining claim at an advanced stage of CIRP and effect of time-bound process
Legal framework: The Code and CIRP Regulations prescribe time-bound stages for CIRP; courts and tribunals have underscored the need to adhere to timelines to maximize value. Regulations permit late claims only within prescribed limits; prior jurisprudence permits rejection of belated claims where admission would jeopardise timeliness and fairness of the process.
Precedent Treatment: NCLAT/NCLT decisions have held that admission of fresh claims at an advanced stage may be refused to prevent prejudice to the CIRP process; however, Supreme Court jurisprudence also emphasises that omission of valid claims from process/plan may vitiate a plan.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court balanced two public policy aims - timeliness of CIRP and completeness/fairness in claim recognition. Where a claim was originally filed within Regulation 12 timelines (90 days) but subsequently rejected due to legal interpretation errors by the RP, mere lapse of time and advanced stage of CIRP are insufficient grounds to refuse correction. The Court found that the initial claim was timely and the RP's error (not the claimant's delay) produced the "belated" correction; therefore, the NCLT's rejection for being belated after three years was not justified in the circumstances.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A claim originally filed within prescribed timelines should not be defeated at a later stage solely because the claimant sought enforcement after RP's erroneous rejection, particularly where the RP's error caused the delay in effective adjudication; timeliness cannot be used to perpetuate procedural error that materially affects the plan. Obiter - Guidance on the need to avoid reopening CIRP unduly where true belated claims (not timely filed) are sought to be admitted.
Conclusions: Rejection of the claim at the advanced stage of CIRP, where the underlying claim had been duly submitted within time and rejected earlier due to legal misinterpretation, was not permissible; the RP must verify and entertain the claim notwithstanding advanced stage, subject to practical directions to avoid prejudice to bona fide commercial processes.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - ISSUE 4: Effect of resolution plan/liquidation of principal debtor on guarantor's liability
Legal framework: Principles of contract law (Section 128 and Section 134 of the Contract Act as explicated by higher courts) and insolvency jurisprudence addressing surety liability; Code provisions on approval of resolution plan and finality under Section 31.
Precedent Treatment: Apex Court has held that sanction of a resolution plan or liquidation of the principal does not per se discharge a guarantor; guarantor's liability, being independent, survives involuntary discharge of the principal unless contractually provided otherwise.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court relied on the settled principle that discharge of the principal debtor by operation of law does not automatically absolve the guarantor, who remains liable according to the terms of the guarantee. Thus, approval of a resolution plan or liquidation of the principal does not ipso facto extinguish the creditor's right to proceed against guarantor or to have the guarantor's claim adjudicated in its CIRP.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Guarantor's liability under an independent contract is not extinguished by liquidation or approval of a resolution plan in respect of the principal; therefore, claims against guarantors remain cognisable. Obiter - None material beyond reaffirmation of settled law.
Conclusions: The creditor's right to seek realization from the guarantor survives the principal debtor's insolvency/liquidation or resolution plan approval; RP's refusal premised on discharge of principal was unfounded.
OVERALL CONCLUSION AND RELIEF DIRECTED
The Court held that the impugned refusal to admit/verify the appellant's timely filed claim in the guarantor's CIRP was erroneous: (a) guarantor's liability is independent and admissible notwithstanding claim in the principal's CIRP; (b) the RP/IRP is duty-bound to collate and verify timely claims and apply the law of the land; and (c) rejection at an advanced stage of CIRP solely on timeliness grounds, when the initial filing was within Regulation 12 and the rejection was due to the RP's legal interpretation, was unjustified. The impugned order rejecting the application was set aside and the RP was directed to verify and entertain the claim as per law. No order as to costs.
Admission of same claim twice - filing of two claims against two different Corporate Debtors for the same debt - claim of appellant admitted into in the CIRP of principal debtor - whether the same claim can be admitted in the CIRP of the corporate guarantor? - Respondent submitted that the application/claim of the appellant was rejected as the same was barred by law of limitation - HELD THAT:- Section 18 of IBC, 2016 specifies duties of Interim Resolution Professional (IRP). IRP has to receive and collate all the claims submitted by the creditors as per provisions of Section 18(1)(b) of IBC, 2016. As per the provisions of Section 25(2)(e), the duty of Resolution Professional (RP), who succeeds IRP, includes maintenance of an updated list of claims. It is expected that the Resolution Professional exhibits diligence, fairness and neutrality in collating and verifying the claims.
It is noted that in the present case the claim, along with proof, was submitted by the appellant before the Resolution Professional within time of 90 days allowed under the Regulation 12. It was only due to legal interpretation that the claim was not admitted by the Resolution Professional. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has already settled the issue in the case of Lalit Kumar Jain case, [2021 (5) TMI 743 - SUPREME COURT]. Admittedly, there was delay on part of the appellant in bringing this judgment to notice of the Resolution Professional. However, the Resolution Professional being a technical expert was also duty bound to implement the law of the land.
As noted earlier, it is the duty of the IRP/RP to receive, collate and verify the claims as per law. There was no delay on the part of the appellant in submitting its claim, along with proof, in the CIRP of the Corporate Debtor. The omission or error on part of the Resolution Professional in admitting the claim materially affects the resolution plan. However, the resolution plan is yet to be approved by Ld. NCLT.
There are no hesitation to hold that the Ld. NCLT erred in rejecting the application regarding claim of the appellant - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Resolution Professional was justified in terminating the leave and licence arrangements and seeking eviction of the occupants. (ii) Whether the Adjudicating Authority could direct payment of unpaid licence fee or occupation charges while ordering vacation of the premises.
Issue (i): Whether the Resolution Professional was justified in terminating the leave and licence arrangements and seeking eviction of the occupants.
Analysis: The notice of termination referred to the sanctioned plan and stated that the third and fourth floors were earmarked for car parking and not for commercial use. The agreements themselves contained clauses enabling either party to terminate the arrangement on one month's notice. On that basis, the termination was held to be in accordance with the contractual terms and the objection based on absence of separate proceedings by another authority did not defeat the Resolution Professional's right to terminate.
Conclusion: The termination and the direction to vacate were upheld against the appellants.
Issue (ii): Whether the Adjudicating Authority could direct payment of unpaid licence fee or occupation charges while ordering vacation of the premises.
Analysis: The direction to pay the unpaid amount was treated as a consequential relief flowing from the continued occupation after termination. The occupants had retained possession beyond the notice period while the premises remained under their use, and the grant of such relief did not cause any legal prejudice merely because a separate prayer for that component was not specifically framed.
Conclusion: The direction to pay unpaid licence fee or occupation charges was sustained.
Final Conclusion: The impugned orders were affirmed, the appeals failed, and the occupants were granted time only for handing over vacant possession with adjustment of the security deposit against outstanding dues.
Ratio Decidendi: A termination made in accordance with the contractual notice clause and supported by the stated use restrictions can justify eviction in insolvency proceedings, and consequential payment of occupation charges may be directed when occupation continues after termination.
Termination of pre-CIRP leave and licence agreements by one-month notice - No prayer for payment of any amount towards lease rent in the application filed by RP - No proceedings have been initiated by RERA or any other authority asking the appellant to vacate, RP could not have terminated the Leave and license agreement.
No prayer for payment of any amount towards lease rent in the application filed by RP - HELD THAT:- The present is the case where notice was issued for termination on 28.10.2024 and in which appellants were asked to vacate by 28.11.2024.
Application was filed by the RP before the Adjudicating Authority in January 2025 and the order which was passed by Adjudicating Authority was on 13.08.2025. When the Adjudicating Authority was directing for vacation of the premises, the order for direction to pay the licence fee which remains unpaid for the period under which premises is under occupation that is till time of vacation, was a consequential relief which could have very well be granted by Adjudicating Authority, while directing for vacation.
The judgment of the Supreme Court in Bharat Amratlal Kothari vs Dosukhan Samadkhan Sindhi & Ors. [2009 (11) TMI 942 - SUPREME COURT], relied by the appellant has held that relief which is not claimed shall not be granted in the case where granting of such relief would result in serious prejudice and deprive him of the valuable right under the statue.
Present is the case, where the grant of relief is not depriving the appellant of any valuable rights under any statue. The premises were taken by appellant under lease and licence agreement for fixed amount for payment of monthly licence fee. When the licence was terminated by RP by notice dated 28.10.2024 and gave one-month time to vacate and the appellant having continuing in the occupation of premises, they are liable to pay occupation charges and unpaid amount of lease rent - there are no substance in the submission that direction by the Adjudicating Authority to pay licence fee for period which remains unpaid was unjustified.
No proceedings have been initiated by RERA or any other authority asking the appellant to vacate, RP could not have terminated the Leave and license agreement - HELD THAT:- It is already noticed the statement in notice dated 28.10.2024 that sanction approval was received for commercial utilisation of ground, first and second floor of ‘Pulse Care’ and third and fourth floor was designated for car parking area and no commercial usage of third and fourth floor is permitted - RP having noticed aforesaid, did not commit any error in issuing notice to the appellant to vacate. In any view of the matter, clause 10 and 19 of the leave and licence entitled both the party to terminate the licence with one-month notice. Termination notice was issued with notice of one-month period which notice was in accordance with leave and licence agreement - there are no substance in the submission of the appellant that since no proceedings have been initiated by RERA. RP could not have issued the termination notice.
The mere fact that appellant was ready to pay the licence fee for the period for which leave and licence agreement was granted cannot preclude the RP to exercise his right under clause 10 and 19 to terminate the Leave and licence agreement in appropriate case.
The Adjudicating Authority did not commit any error in directing vacation of the appellant and the order passed by the Adjudicating Authority has to be upheld. Appellant although were granted one-month time in order dated 13.08.2025, but premises have not yet been vacated as submitted by the learned counsel for the RP.
The order impugned dated 13.08.2025 passed in I.A. No. 852, 1404, 1100 of 2025 are upheld - appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether services received from a foreign entity for coordination, translation, escorting and related support constitute taxable Business Support Services liable to service tax under the reverse charge mechanism.
2. Whether the department was entitled to invoke the extended period of limitation to demand service tax based on audit observations (i.e., whether there was suppression, wilful misstatement or fraud justifying extended limitation).
3. Whether penalties under Section 76 and Section 78 of the Finance Act can be imposed simultaneously for the same default, or whether those provisions operate in mutually exclusive spheres.
4. Whether, in the facts of the case (including payment of disputed tax and interest and the nature of appellant's conduct), penalties should be mitigated or waived (including consideration under Section 80).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Taxability of services received from foreign consultant under reverse charge (Business Support Services)
Legal framework: Taxability of services provided by a non-resident to a recipient in India can attract service tax under the reverse charge mechanism where the nature of service falls within taxable categories (here, alleged Business Support Service).
Precedent treatment: The adjudicating authority initially treated the foreign-sourced services as taxable and invoked reverse charge. The appellate authorities considered the demand and allowed part relief on reimbursable expenses, but the Tribunal's order as reproduced focuses on penalties and limitation rather than re-evaluating in detail the characterisation of services.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record shows services consisted of coordination with the collaborator, escorting and translation during customer visits, transmission of technical data with translation, board matters and miscellaneous training support. The adjudicating authority and Commissioner (Appeals) treated these as attracting service tax under reverse charge; the appeal before the Tribunal proceeded on the basis of that demand being raised and partly sustained by lower authorities.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Treatment of taxability is effectively treated as a background premise for resolution of penalty and limitation issues; the Tribunal's operative reasoning and modification relate principally to penalty applicability rather than recharacterising the underlying demand. Thus conclusions on taxability in the order are largely obiter/contextual to the penalty and limitation determinations.
Conclusions: The Tribunal proceeded on the established record that the services were treated as taxable under reverse charge; no further substantive re-determination of taxability is made in the Tribunal's order reproduced.
Issue 2 - Invoking extended period of limitation based on audit observations (suppression/wilful misstatement/fraud)
Legal framework: Extended period of limitation for recovery of service tax can be invoked where there is suppression of facts, wilful misstatement, fraud, collusion or contravention carried out with intent to evade tax; ordinary audit-detected omissions do not automatically establish those elements.
Precedent treatment: Authorities and courts have held that mere emergence of issues from audit does not ipso facto amount to suppression or wilful misstatement; the existence of one of the statutory elements required for extended limitation must be specifically established and cannot be presumed solely because the regime is self-assessment based.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant's case arose from audit observations; counsel relied on precedents holding suppression cannot be presumed from audit findings and that the department must establish one of the requisite elements before invoking extended limitation. The Tribunal's order discusses extended period arguments raised by the appellant but does not expressly overturn the demand on limitation grounds; instead, the Tribunal's decision centers on penalty relief. The record shows the Commissioner (Appeals) had alreadyallowed reduction for reimbursable expenses, implying part re-characterisation but maintained demand otherwise.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The principles that audit-originated issues do not automatically justify extended limitation are treated as relevant legal standards (ratio in broader jurisprudence) relied upon by the appellant; the Tribunal's decision does not fully adjudicate or dismiss the extended-period invocation on factual sufficiency but adopts appellate findings and focuses on penalty relief.
Conclusions: While the appellant pressed that extended limitation was not justified because the issue arose from audit and no suppression was shown, the Tribunal's order does not expressly overturn the extended period invocation on the facts; the Tribunal accepts earlier appellate relief on reimbursable items but resolves the appeal primarily by addressing the penalties.
Issue 3 - Simultaneous imposition of penalties under Section 76 and Section 78 (mutual exclusivity)
Legal framework: Section 76 and Section 78 impose penalties for different kinds of defaults. Section 78 targets cases involving fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts or contravention with intent to evade tax; Section 76 addresses other defaults (with later statutory amendments clarifying mutual exclusivity).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal and several High Courts have held that imposing equal penalties under both Sections 76 and 78 for the same act is not justified; subsequent statutory amendment and judicial interpretation treat Sections 76 and 78 as mutually exclusive in application. The proviso to Section 78 (clarificatory amendment) reinforces that cases covered by Section 78 (involving fraud/suppression/intent) are to be dealt with under Section 78, and Section 76 applies to other cases.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined authorities interpreting the proviso to Section 78 as a clarificatory measure making explicit the implicit mutual exclusivity between Sections 76 and 78. The Court reasoned that where a penalty under Section 78 (for suppression/intent) has been imposed, imposition of a penalty under Section 76 alongside it is generally unjustified. The appellant had paid disputed tax and interest and contested simultaneous penalties; the Tribunal found the appellant's overall conduct and the legal position warrant waiver of the Section 76 penalty.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that Section 76 penalty should be set aside where Section 78 penalty is imposed is ratio in the context of this appeal, grounded on prior authoritative decisions and statutory interpretation; related citations and comparative precedent are treated as binding guidance for modifying the penalty imposition.
Conclusions: The Tribunal modified the impugned order by setting aside the penalty imposed under Section 76 while upholding the penalty under Section 78 and other penalties. The Tribunal held that Sections 76 and 78 operate in mutually exclusive domains and simultaneous equal penalties are not warranted in the present circumstances.
Issue 4 - Mitigation or waiver of penalties (including consideration under Section 80) and effect of payment of tax and interest
Legal framework: Penalty relief or mitigation can be considered where there is reasonable cause, absence of mala fide intent, voluntary payment, or where statutory or judicial guidance favours leniency. Section 80 permits waiver of penalty in appropriate cases.
Precedent treatment: Decisions have recognized that payment of disputed tax and interest, absence of deliberate concealment, and presence of arguable legal positions may justify mitigation or waiver of penalties. Authorities have accepted that double penalisation is harsh and that discretion should be exercised in favour of waiver where justified.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant had paid the disputed tax and interest and asserted absence of suppression or intent. The Tribunal considered the appellant's overall intent and prior authority treating similar situations as warranting deletion of Section 76 penalty while retaining Section 78 penalty where applicable. The Tribunal found it fit to waive the Section 76 penalty in the circumstances, treating the appellant's conduct as not warranting dual penalties.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The specific waiver of Section 76 penalty on the facts (payment of tax and interest; no finding of egregious conduct necessitating both penalties) is the operative ratio of the decision. Observations on applicability of Section 80 and the mitigating significance of payment and absence of mala fides are supporting reasoning.
Conclusions: The Tribunal partly allowed the appeal by setting aside the penalty under Section 76 while upholding penalty under Section 78 and other penalties; consequential relief, if any, was directed. The Tribunal's decision reflects discretion in mitigation consistent with precedent and statutory interpretation.
Non-payment of service tax under Reverse charge mechanism, along with interest - failure to declare the details of the services and service tax payable in their service tax returns - HELD THAT:- Similar issue came up before Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of M/s Raval Trading Company Vs. Commissioner of Service Tax [2016 (2) TMI 172 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT], wherein Hon’ble Court had discussed insertion of Proviso to Section 78 and held that 'Even without the aid to this further proviso to Section 78, one entire plausible view was that the situation envisaged under Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994, would exclude those cases covered under Section 78 of the Finance Act, 1994. In other words, Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994, would cover only the cases of non-payment of service tax which are not related to fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts or contravention of any of the provisions of the said Chapter or the rules made thereunder with the intent to evade payment of service tax since legislature had already provided for penalty in Section 78 in such situations. Thus further proviso to Section 78 made it explicit which was till then implicit.'
It is also found that in the case of The Financers Vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Jaipur and in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Ludhiana Vs. Pannu Property Dealers [2008 (10) TMI 175 - CESTAT, NEW DELHI], it has been held that when equal penalty under Section 78 has been imposed, prima facie, there is no justification for imposition of penalty under Section 76.
Similar finding was given by the Tribunal in the case of CCE, Ludhiana Vs. Silver Oak Gardens Resort [2007 (11) TMI 82 - CESTAT, NEW DELHI], wherein the Tribunal held that penalty under Section 76 is not warranted when penalty under Section 78 has been imposed and that imposition of penalty under Section 76 as well as Section 78 is too harsh. These cases also pertain to period when proviso to Section 78 was not in existence as in the present matter.
Considering overall intent of the Appellant, their case is squarely covered by the above decision and therefore, it is found fit for waiver of penalty imposed upon them under Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994. The prayer of the appellant therefore, is partly allowable. Accordingly, we modify the impugned O-I-A to the extent of setting aside penalty imposed on the appellant under Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994.
Appeal allowed in part.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a person entitled to a refund under the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004 and Rules, 2005 is entitled to receive interest on the refunded amount where the refund was sanctioned after processing of an application in Form DVAT-21.
2. From which date interest on the refund is payable under Section 42(1) of the DVAT Act - (a) the date the refund was due to be paid; (b) the date the overpaid amount was paid by the person; or (c) a later date as claimed by the Revenue.
3. Whether the period for which interest is payable must exclude any period of delay attributable to the person claiming the refund and, if so, how the explanation to Section 42(1) operates in the facts where the department asserts the delay in depositing dues and procedural verification as justification for denial of interest.
4. Whether the departmental rejection of interest on the ground that time taken for verification and procedural requirements did not constitute delay, and on the ground that delay in settling Government dues was attributable to the claimant, is a sustainable reason for denying interest under the statutory scheme.
5. The applicability and effect of the co-ordinate bench decision interpreting Section 42(1) (held in favour of grant of interest from the date the refund ought to have been paid) and the consequence of a subsequent dismissal of an appeal against that decision by the Supreme Court in the peculiar facts of the challenge.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Entitlement to interest on refund under the statutory scheme
Legal framework: Rule 57 read with Rule 34 of the Delhi Value Added Tax Rules, 2005 and Section 42(1) of the DVAT Act provide procedures for refund and expressly prescribe that a person entitled to a refund shall, in addition to the refund, receive simple interest at the annual rate notified by the Government, computed on a daily basis.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes that Rule 34(6) requires the Commissioner, when issuing a refund order, to simultaneously record any amount of interest payable under Section 42(1). The statutory scheme therefore contemplates mandatory grant of interest where a refund is found due. The department's refusal to grant interest in the impugned order was contrary to these statutory provisions because interest is not discretionary where the conditions for refund are met.
Precedent treatment: The Court relies on a co-ordinate bench decision that construed Section 42(1) to entitle a taxpayer to interest once the taxpayer's claim for refund is vindicated; that decision was left undisturbed in a special leave dismissal by the Supreme Court in the peculiar facts of that petition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - interest is payable under Section 42(1) whenever a refund is due and sanctioned; denial of interest where refund is otherwise payable is contrary to the statutory mandate.
Conclusion: The claimant is entitled to interest on the refunded amount in law; the departmental denial (by treating interest as not payable) cannot stand.
Issue 2 - Date from which interest is payable under Section 42(1)
Legal framework: Section 42(1) prescribes interest from the later of (a) the date the refund was due to be paid, or (b) the date the overpaid amount was paid by the person, until the date on which the refund is given. The second proviso further provides that if the amount of refund is enhanced or reduced, interest shall be varied accordingly.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court adopts the interpretation that the expression "the date that refund was due to be paid" must be construed as the date when such a refund ought to have been paid to the taxpayer. Where a taxpayer's claim for refund (for example, as made in a return or otherwise) is vindicated by subsequent proceedings, the refund ought to have been paid from that earlier date and interest accrues from that date. Calculating interest only from a later administrative action or from two months after filing Form DVAT-21 (as contended by the Revenue) would place a taxpayer who successfully challenges an assessment at a disadvantage and render the statutory interest provision nugatory.
Precedent treatment: The co-ordinate bench decision is followed: interest is payable from the date the refund ought to have been paid (in the present case, from the date of filing Form DVAT-21, where that is the operative date on which the refund claim was presented and vindicated).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - interest accrues from the date the refund ought to have been paid; in the facts where the claimant filed Form DVAT-21 on 5th January 2022 and subsequently obtained sanction of refund, interest is payable from 5th January 2022.
Conclusion: Interest in the present matter is to be computed from the date the refund application (Form DVAT-21) was filed, namely 5th January 2022, until the date of payment, subject to exclusion of any period attributable to the claimant as per Issue 3.
Issue 3 - Exclusion of period attributable to the claimant under the Explanation to Section 42(1)
Legal framework: The Explanation to Section 42(1) provides that if the delay in granting the refund is attributable to the person, whether wholly or in part, the period of such delay attributable to him shall be excluded from the period for which interest is payable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The statutory scheme allows exclusion of periods of delay that are the claimant's fault. However, the department bears the burden of establishing, with reasons, the precise period of delay that is attributable to the claimant. General statements that procedural verification or earlier delay in settling dues justify withholding interest are insufficient unless the department demonstrates the causal link and quantifies the period to be excluded. Procedural verification intrinsic to the departmental obligation to process refund claims cannot, without more, be equated to delay attributable to the claimant.
Precedent treatment: The Court applies the principle that the Explanation operates to exclude only the period that can be specifically attributed to the claimant's conduct; routine or mandatory departmental procedures do not automatically translate into claimant-attributable delay.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - exclusion applies only where delay attributable to the claimant is shown and quantified; mere assertion that time was taken for verification or that dues were deposited late by the claimant without demonstrating resultant delay in processing is insufficient to deny interest for the entire period.
Conclusion: The department's broad reasons (procedural requirements, verification, and alleged delay in settling dues) do not justify denial of interest unless a specific period of claimant-attributable delay is identified and excluded; absent such quantification, interest must be paid for the full period from the claim date to payment.
Issue 4 - Validity of departmental reasons for rejecting interest in the impugned order
Legal framework and interpretation: Rule 34(6) and Section 42(1) require simultaneous inclusion of interest in any refund order; the department's rejection must be tested against these mandates and the Explanation.
Reasoning: The impugned order rejected interest on two stated grounds: (i) time taken was due to mandatory procedural requirements and not delay; and (ii) delay in settling Government dues and depositing amounts was attributable to the dealer. The Court found these grounds inadequate as a basis for complete denial of interest. Procedural verification undertaken by the department is part of its statutory duty; unless the department shows that the claimant's conduct caused a specific delay, the Explanation cannot be invoked to exclude the whole period. The assessment of entitlement to interest must follow the statutory parameters, and the department's conclusion that "there is no delay" contradicts the statutory requirement to pay interest where refund is due.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - departmental conclusions that fail to engage with the statutory test (including identifying and excluding claimant-attributable delay) are unsustainable; such orders are liable to be set aside.
Conclusion: The impugned denial of interest is unsustainable; the order is set aside and the department is directed to compute and pay interest in accordance with Section 42(1) and Rule 34(6), subject only to excluding any specifically proven and quantified period attributable to the claimant (none demonstrated in the impugned order).
Issue 5 - Effect of the co-ordinate bench decision and subsequent dismissal of challenge by higher forum
Legal framework and reasoning: The co-ordinate bench decision interpreting Section 42(1) to require interest from the date the refund ought to have been paid is applied. The Revenue's challenge to that decision was dismissed by the higher forum in the peculiar facts of that petition; consequently, the interpretation stands for purposes of present adjudication.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows the co-ordinate bench interpretation and treats the higher forum's dismissal as not warranting interference with the legal position adopted therein in the present facts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the co-ordinate bench interpretation is binding on the issue in the present matter and supports the conclusion that interest runs from the date the refund ought to have been paid (here, date of Form DVAT-21).
Conclusion: The co-ordinate bench precedent, left undisturbed in the peculiar SLP dismissal, supports entitlement to interest from the date the refund application was filed; the department must act accordingly and compute statutory interest at the notified rate for the relevant period.
Seeking payment of interest on the refund amount which has not been allowed in favour of the Petitioner - relevant date for calculation of interest - HELD THAT:- There can be no doubt that interest has to be paid on the refund amount. This is clear from a reading of Rule 57 read with Rule 34 of the Delhi Value Added Tax Rules, 2005 as also Section 42(1) of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004.
A Co-ordinate Bench of this Court in the decision in Ramky Infrastructure Limited v. Commissioner of Trade and Taxes, [2023 (7) TMI 941 - DELHI HIGH COURT], while interpreting Section 42(1) of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004, held that the taxpayer, upon vindicating its stand that the refund claim was correct and the subsequent assessments erroneous, would be entitled to the refund along with interest from the said date - As per the above decision, interest is payable from the date when the refund ought to have been paid.
The Court is of the view that the Petitioner is entitled to interest on the refunded amount of Rs. 14,54,896/- which ought to be paid from the date when the refund application i.e., Form DVAT-21 was made i.e., 5th January, 2022 by the Petitioner - the impugned order dated 9th May, 2024 is set aside. Let the Department process the statutory interest @ 6% liable to be paid to the Petitioner from the date when the refund application was filed by the Petitioner i.e., 5th January 2022, and credit the same to the Petitioner within a period of four weeks.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) whether the High Court was justified in entertaining the writ petition despite the availability of the statutory remedy under the SARFAESI Act; (ii) whether, on a proper construction of amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act read with Rules 8 and 9 of the Security Interest (Enforcement) Rules, 2002, the borrowers could redeem the secured asset after publication of the auction notice and whether separate sale notices were required; and (iii) whether the amended Section 13(8) applied to the case notwithstanding that the loan transaction pre-dated the amendment.
Issue (i): whether the High Court was justified in entertaining the writ petition despite the availability of the statutory remedy under the SARFAESI Act.
Analysis: The dispute had already been carried through the statutory framework under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act, and the High Court nevertheless entertained the writ petition to unsettle a concluded auction and sale certificate. The governing principle is that writ jurisdiction is not ordinarily to be invoked when an efficacious statutory remedy exists, particularly in a self-contained recovery statute designed for expeditious enforcement. Equitable considerations cannot be used to override the statutory auction process once the prescribed remedies were available and had been pursued earlier.
Conclusion: The High Court was not justified in entertaining the writ petition; the impugned interference on that footing was unsustainable and was against the appellants.
Issue (ii): whether, on a proper construction of amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act read with Rules 8 and 9 of the Security Interest (Enforcement) Rules, 2002, the borrowers could redeem the secured asset after publication of the auction notice and whether separate sale notices were required.
Analysis: The amended Section 13(8) was construed as curtailing the borrower's right of redemption up to the point of valid publication of the notice for sale. The provision was held to operate uniformly across the recognised modes of transfer under Rule 8(5), and the expression "before the date of publication of notice" was read in conjunction with the rules governing service, publication, affixation and upload of the single composite notice of sale. The Court rejected the view that the rules contemplate distinct sale notices with independent thirty-day gaps. The right of redemption was held not to survive after the statutory notice process had been completed in the manner prescribed by the Rules and the sale process had progressed to confirmation and issuance of sale certificate.
Conclusion: The borrowers had no surviving right to redeem after publication of the valid notice of sale in the manner contemplated by the Act and Rules; the contrary view of the High Court was against the appellants.
Issue (iii): whether the amended Section 13(8) applied to the case notwithstanding that the loan transaction pre-dated the amendment.
Analysis: The Court held that the relevant event for application of the amended provision was the enforcement step and publication of the auction notice, not the date of the loan sanction. Since the auction notice was published after the amendment came into force, the amended Section 13(8) governed the controversy. The amendment was treated as applying to live enforcement proceedings and not as being excluded merely because the underlying loan originated earlier.
Conclusion: The amended Section 13(8) applied to the case, and the borrowers could not rely on the pre-amendment position; this point was against the respondents and in favour of the appellants.
Final Conclusion: The statutory auction and sale certificate were upheld, the High Court's interference was reversed, and the secured creditor's enforcement action in favour of the auction purchasers was restored.
Ratio Decidendi: Under the amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act, the borrower's right of redemption continues only until a valid notice of sale is published in the manner prescribed by the SARFAESI Rules, the sale-notice framework under Rules 8 and 9 is a single composite process, and post-amendment enforcement is governed by the amended regime even where the underlying loan transaction is earlier.
Petition preferred without availing the alternative statutory remedy of preferring statutory appeal before the Appellate Tribunal - seeking to take over the possession of the secured asset for the debt - right of redemption - borrower’s auction was classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) by the Bank due to default in repayment of the outstanding dues - retrospective operation of Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act or not - Ratio of the Decision of Bafna Motors [2023 (10) TMI 48 - SUPREME COURT] - Effect of the 2016 Amendment on the Right of Redemption under Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act.
HELD THAT:- This Court in Bafna Motors considered the conflicting orders passed by various High Courts in interpreting the provisions of Section 13(8) in relation to the right of redemption by the borrower - In the final analysis, this Court noted that under the pre-amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act, the borrower could repay the dues, along with the interest and charges at any time “before the date fixed for sale or transfer”. However, post Amendment, redemption is available before the date of publication of notice for public auction.
However, under the amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act allows the right of redemption only till the date of publication of notice, which is a departure from the general right of redemption under the general law and therefore is inconsistent with Section 60 of Transfer of Property Act. In such a situation of inconsistency, the SARFAESI Act being a special one, would override the general law. This Court also took note of Section 35 and Section 37 respectively of the SARFEASI Act and held that Section 35 of the SARFEASI Act will have an overriding effect, notwithstanding anything which is inconsistent with any other law. Further, this Court held that the laws that are mentioned in Section 37 of SARFEASI Act i.e., laws which deal with securities or occupy the same field as the SARFAESI Act, would be applicable in addition to it and not in derogation to any other law.
The objects and reasons for the Amendment of the SARFEASI Act was to facilitate expeditious disposal of recovery applications. Taking the same into consideration, the Court noted that an interpretation which furthers the said object and reasons should be preferred and adopted. If the general law is allowed to govern, it will defeat the very object and purpose of the amended Section 13(8).
All the courts and tribunals, on a reading of the decision of this Court in Bafna Motors, have construed the amended Section 13 sub-section (8) of the SARFAESI Act to mean that the right of redemption of the borrower stands extinguished on the date on which the notice of auction is published by the secured creditor. In other words, the effect of Section 13(8) has been understood to mean that the borrower would retain the right to redeem the mortgage only up to the date of publication of such auction notice, once such notice is published, the right of redemption would cease.
Sub-section (8) of Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act, a borrower can tender the amount of due to the secured creditor along with all costs, charges and expenses, at any time, before the date of publication of notice for public auction or inviting quotations or tender from public or private treaty, as the case may be.
The rigours of Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act, including clause(s) (i) and (ii) therein, are intended to apply equally irrespective of whether the transfer / sale of the secured asset happens to be by either public auction, or obtaining quotations or inviting tenders or private treaty, as all of the said methods are inevitably for the same purpose i.e., for the transfer of secured asset, by lease, assignment or sale of the secured asset - Thus, in order to better understand the true import of the expression “before the date of publication of notice”, it would apposite to understand the form and manner of notice or notice(s), as the case may be, that is required under the SARFAESI Rules for the transfer of secured asset, by lease, assignment or sale of the secured asset.
This Court in Bafna Motors never examined the interplay between the amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act with the SARFAESI Rules, more particularly, Rule 8(6), the Proviso thereto and Rule 9(1).
The Auction Sale amount was deposited on 20.03.2021 and the Sale Certificate was issued by the Bank in favour of the appellants herein on 22.03.2021 - In such circumstances, the right to redeem the secured asset stood extinguished on 22.01.2021. The borrowers could be said to have failed to pay the outstanding debt before the publication of the auction notice dated 22.01.2021 by which date the amended Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act had already come into force.
The High Court was not justified in exercising writ jurisdiction to quash a sale certificate where statutory remedies existed and no extraordinary cause to bypass them was made out.
The impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court is hereby set aside - both the appeals succeed and are hereby allowed.
TaxTMI