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ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether an assessment order passed after a registered person's death, without involving the legal representative, is valid.
2) How Section 93 of the GST Act applies to liability and recovery of tax, interest and penalty when the registered person has died and the business is discontinued.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of assessment proceedings/orders initiated or continued against a deceased person without impleading the legal representative
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 93(1) of the GST Act, noting it addresses liability and recovery where a person liable to tax, interest, or penalty dies, and differentiates between cases where business is continued and where it is discontinued.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that Section 93 does not prescribe the manner in which assessment proceedings relating to a deceased person are to be carried out. The Court nevertheless applied the settled principle that assessments and other proceedings can only be initiated against living persons, and proceedings against a deceased person are not valid. At the same time, since Section 93 contemplates recovery of dues of a deceased person (either from the continuing business or from the estate where business is discontinued), the Court reasoned that, in the absence of an express procedural provision, the only practicable way to settle the deceased person's tax affairs is to conduct assessment proceedings by involving the legal representative (or the person continuing the business, if applicable).
Conclusion: The Court set aside the impugned assessment order and directed a fresh assessment to be carried out after involving the legal representative by issuing notice to him.
Issue 2: Extent and mode of recovery under Section 93 where business is discontinued after the registered person's death
Legal framework: The Court applied Section 93(1)(b), which provides that if the business is discontinued, the legal representative is liable to pay, out of the estate of the deceased and to the extent the estate can meet the charge, the tax, interest, or penalty due, whether determined before death and unpaid or determined after death.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court clarified that Section 93 is essentially concerned with recovery of tax and other amounts due against a deceased person, not with the procedural mechanics of assessment. Since the business was discontinued, the Court treated the legal representative's exposure as limited to the estate of the deceased available with him, consistent with Section 93(1)(b).
Conclusion: The Court directed that any recovery, after a fresh assessment order, shall be only against the estate of the deceased and against the legal representative only to the extent of the estate of the deceased that is available to him.
Assessment order passed against a dead peson - challenge to order of assessment on the ground that it is not accord with the provisions of Section 93 of the GST Act - HELD THAT:- It is settled law that the assessments and other proceedings can only be initiated against the persons who are living and such proceedings against death person would not be valid. However, the fact remains that, under Section 93 of the GST Act, the dues of the death person can be recovered either from the business he had set up or from his estate. In such circumstances, in the absences of any provision, this Court would have to be hold that the only practicable way of settling the affairs of the death person would be to direct the assessment being carried out by involving either the representative or person carrying on the business of a death person or which such business is not being carried on, by involving the legal representative who be holding the estate of the deceased person.
In the said circumstances, since the petitioner is the legal representative of the deceased person, being his son, it would be appropriate to set aside the impugned Order, dated 25.01.2024, with a direction to carry out a fresh assessment after involving the petitioner herein, by issuing a notice to the petitioner. Needless to say, any recovery that may be initiated, after an Order of assessment, shall be only against the estate of a deceased person and against the petitioner to the extent of the estate of his deceased father, which is available to the petitioner.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the appeal under the GST law could be rejected solely for non-filing of a hard copy when it had been filed electronically within limitation. (ii) Whether the appeal could be rejected for non-submission of a certified copy of the impugned order when the order had already been uploaded on the GST portal.
Issue (i): Whether the appeal under the GST law could be rejected solely for non-filing of a hard copy when it had been filed electronically within limitation.
Analysis: Section 107 permits an appeal to be filed in the prescribed form and verified in the prescribed manner. Rule 108 contemplates filing of the appeal in FORM GST APL-01 electronically or otherwise as may be notified, and does not make hard copy filing a mandatory condition in the facts presented. The appeal had been filed on the portal within the prescribed time and the authorities did not show any notification requiring a separate hard copy. A procedural requirement could not be used to defeat a substantive right of appeal where the appeal was otherwise timely and duly instituted.
Conclusion: The rejection of the appeal for non-filing of the hard copy was unsustainable and was in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the appeal could be rejected for non-submission of a certified copy of the impugned order when the order had already been uploaded on the GST portal.
Analysis: The judgment treated the later amendment to Rule 108 as removing the requirement of filing a certified copy where the impugned order is already available on the portal. Since the order dated 02.06.2021 had been uploaded and the appeal had been filed against that uploaded order, rejection on the ground of absence of a certified copy was viewed as a hyper-technical objection. The appellate process was required to be handled in a manner that advances justice rather than frustrates it on procedural formalities.
Conclusion: The rejection of the appeal for non-submission of the certified copy was unsustainable and was in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned appellate rejection was set aside and the appeal was directed to be heard afresh on merits after giving an opportunity of hearing.
Ratio Decidendi: An electronically filed GST appeal made within limitation cannot be rejected on purely technical filing defects when the governing rules do not make those defects mandatory in the circumstances and no prejudice is shown.
Rejection of appeal filed by the petitioner in Form GST APL-02 for the reason that the dealer has not submitted hardcopy as mandatory under Section 107 of the Jammu and Kashmir GST Act, 2017 - Failure to upload the certified copy of the order impugned - HELD THAT:- Section 107 of the J&K GST Act provides for filing of an appeal before the appellate authority against the order passed by the adjudicating authority. Sub-Section-(5) of Section 107 provides that every appeal in this section shall be filed in such form and verified in the prescribed manner. Rule 108(1) of the J&K GST Rules clearly provides that the appeal shall be filed along with all the relevant documents either in Form GST APL-01 electronically or otherwise as may be notified by the Commissioner - rejection of the appeal merely on the ground that hard copy of the appeal has not been filed is unsustainable. The respondents rather than rejecting the appeal on this technical ground could have granted time to the petitioner to file the same within some stipulated time, if required.
Failure to upload the certified copy of the order impugned - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the filing of the hard copy was not mandatory, therefore, rejection of the appeal merely on this ground affecting the substantial rights of the parties, is unsustainable and requires to be set aside. It is well settled that substantial justice cannot be sacrificed on the ground of mere technicalities. The mode of electronic filing stands provided in the rules and, therefore, there was no infraction of the same. This apart, rules of procedure are of hand maiden of justice and, therefore, the appeal could not be dismissed on the ground of technicalities.
In Saraogi E-Ventures Private Limited & ors. vs. The Assistant Commissioner CGST & ors. [2023 (11) TMI 766 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT], the Hon’ble Calcutta High Court has set aside the order rejecting the appeal for no submitting certified copy of the order as the petitioner has filed appeal within limitation period on GST portal along with the copy of the order. The Hon’ble Court also observed that the appeal should not be rejected on the hyper-technical grounds.
The impugned order dated 06.03.2023 is set aside. The matter is remanded back to the respondent No. 3 to decide the appeal afresh on merits in accordance with law after affording an opportunity of hearing to the parties - Petition allowed by way of remand.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the arrest under the GST investigation was vitiated for non-effective compliance with the statutory notice requirement under Section 35(3) BNSS, in light of the admitted errors in the notice and the arrest having occurred before the time fixed for appearance.
(ii) Whether such defective compliance with Section 35(3) BNSS, as applied to arrests by GST/revenue authorities, rendered the arrest infirm/defective so as to justify grant of bail on that technical ground.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity/effectiveness of compliance with Section 35(3) BNSS notice vis-à-vis timing of arrest
Legal framework: The Court considered that summons under Section 70 of the CGST Act are issued in the manner applicable to a civil court procedure, but for arrest by GST/revenue authorities, procedural requirements corresponding to criminal procedure (including Section 35(3) BNSS) must be complied with. The Court applied the settled position that such procedural compliance at the time of arrest is mandatory and that violation may make the arrest infirm and support grant of bail.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the case diary, the notice purportedly issued under Section 35(3) BNSS, and the arrest memo. The Investigating Officer conceded that the date in the notice mentioning appearance on 13.11.2025 was a typographical error. However, even treating the appearance date as 14.11.2025, the notice required appearance at 4:15 p.m., whereas the arrest memo recorded arrest on 14.11.2025 at 12:10 p.m. The Court found there was no explanation for arrest being earlier than the time fixed for appearance under the notice, meaning the accused was arrested before he could comply with the appearance requirement.
Conclusion: Because the accused was arrested before the time fixed for appearance, the Court held there was no effective compliance with Section 35(3) BNSS.
Issue (ii): Consequence of defective Section 35(3) BNSS compliance-whether arrest became infirm and bail should be granted
Legal framework: The Court applied the settled law that when notice/appearance safeguards corresponding to Section 35 BNSS apply, their proper observance is necessary; failure can render the arrest defective/infirm, and the Court must scrutinize compliance while considering custody and remand. The Court also proceeded on the basis that these procedural safeguards apply to arrests effected by revenue authorities under GST.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having found that the notice required appearance at a time later than the arrest, the Court held that the statutory safeguard was reduced to a faulty/mechanical formality and could not be treated as compliance. On that basis, the arrest was held to be infirm/defective "in terms of the settled law." The Court treated this defect as a sufficient technical ground to allow the subsequent bail application without entering into merits of the allegations.
Conclusion: The Court granted bail on technical grounds due to the defective arrest, subject to conditions including non-absconding, cooperation with investigation, and non-tampering with evidence or influencing witnesses; breach would make bail liable to cancellation.
Seeking grant of bail - obtaining GST registration of non-existing firms and acting as key persons for issuance of fake invoices to pass on fake Input Tax Credit (ITC) without any corresponding supply of goods and services - HELD THAT:- It is found that the notice under 35(3) B.N.S.S. given to the accused Sameer Malik, indicated his required appearance at 4.15 P.M on 13.11.2025, which is obviously a typing or writing error and the same has also been admitted by the Investigating Officer in his petition filed before the court. So, even, if the date of appearance is taken as 14.11.2025, the time indicated is 4.15 P.M. However, the arrest memo pertaining to Sameer Malik indicates his arrest on 14.11.2025 at 12.10 P.M.
Thus, as rightly contended by the learned Senior Counsel, by the time the petitioner was directed to appear in compliance with under 35(3) B.N.S.S., he had already been arrested on the same day at 11.45 A.M. In such a situation, there is no option but to hold that there has been no effective compliance with the notice under 35(3) B.N.S.S., thereby, making the arrest infirm/defective in terms of the settled law - on these technical grounds, the subsequent bail petition has to be accepted and the petitioner Sameer Malik has to be granted bail.
The bail application is allowed subject to fulfilment of conditions imposed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(a) Whether the ex parte adjudication under Section 73(9) and the consequential rectification rejection and appellate rejection required to be set aside and remitted, in light of the petitioner's plea of non-receipt of notices and request for one more opportunity to contest.
(b) Whether, given that the validity/effect of notifications extending limitation was stated to be pending consideration before the Supreme Court, the adjudication ought to be deferred and remitted to avoid multiplicity of proceedings and conflicting outcomes.
(c) Whether exclusion of time should be directed for limitation purposes for the period from the impugned adjudication order until disposal of the pending Supreme Court proceedings.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(a) Setting aside ex parte adjudication, rectification rejection, and appellate rejection; grant of opportunity
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis that the demand was confirmed by an adjudication order under Section 73(9) following a show-cause notice under Section 73(1), and that an appeal was dismissed as time-barred under Section 107(11). The Court also noted that a rectification application against the adjudication order had been rejected.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the adjudication had proceeded ex parte and recorded the petitioner's explanation that notices were not received, resulting in no reply being filed and no contest being made. The Court considered that the petitioner sought "one more opportunity" to submit a reply and contest the matter. Without adjudicating the merits of the tax demand, the Court found that, in the circumstances presented, an additional opportunity was warranted by setting aside the impugned orders and remitting for fresh consideration.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the adjudication order, the rectification rejection endorsement, and the appellate order dismissing the appeal as time-barred, and remitted the matter for reconsideration, subject to payment of costs.
(b) Impact of pending Supreme Court proceedings on limitation-extension notifications; remand and deferment to avoid multiplicity/conflict
Legal framework: The Court considered the parties' rival positions on limitation, including the revenue's reliance on notifications extending limitation and the petitioner's contention that their validity was under challenge and pending before the Supreme Court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the validity of the relevant notifications (relied upon to meet limitation objections) was stated to be "seized" by the Supreme Court, and held that the outcome of those proceedings would have an "impact/bearing" on the impugned proceedings. To avoid multiplicity of proceedings and potential conflicting orders, the Court found it appropriate that fresh adjudication should be undertaken only after disposal of the pending Supreme Court matter.
Conclusion: The Court directed remand for reconsideration and ordered that a fresh adjudication order be passed in accordance with law after disposal of the pending Supreme Court proceedings concerning the notifications' validity/effect.
(c) Exclusion of time for limitation pending Supreme Court disposal
Legal framework: The Court exercised its discretion to regulate limitation consequences arising from the set-aside and remand, in the context of the deferred adjudication direction tied to the Supreme Court's disposal.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Court required the adjudicating authority to await the Supreme Court's decision before passing a fresh order, it addressed the interregnum by directing exclusion of a defined period to prevent limitation prejudice attributable to the remand/deferment arrangement.
Conclusion: The Court ordered that the period between the date of the impugned adjudication order and the date of disposal of the pending Supreme Court proceedings shall stand excluded for the purpose of limitation.
Relief and conditions
The petition was allowed subject to payment of specified costs within a fixed time; the impugned appellate order, rectification rejection endorsement, and adjudication order were set aside; and the matter was remitted to the proper authority for fresh adjudication after the Supreme Court's disposal of the pending challenge affecting limitation-extension notifications, with a consequential direction excluding the intervening period for limitation purposes.
Wrongful claim of zero rated turnover for the F.Y. 2019-20 - petitioner could not submit replies / documents to the show-cause notice - proceedings barred by time limitation or not - extension of time limit vide Notification No. 13/2022 dated 05.07.2022, Notification Nos.9 and 56 of 2023 dated 31.03.2023 and 08.12.2023, respectively - HELD THAT:-The submissions made by both sides which will indicate that the validity of the aforesaid Notifications are seized by the Apex Court and which will have an impact / bearing on the impugned proceedings, it is opined that one more opportunity is required to be granted in favour of the petitioner by setting aside the impugned adjudication order and remitting the matter back to the respondents for reconsideration afresh in accordance with law by issuing certain directions.
In order to avoid multiplicity of proceedings and to ensure that there are no conflicting orders, it is deemed just and appropriate to direct the 2nd respondent to reconsider the matter afresh and pass a fresh adjudication order in accordance with law - Petition is hereby allowed subject to payment of cost of Rs. 10,000/- to the Karnataka High Court Legal Services Authority, Bengaluru, within a period of six weeks from today.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the petitioner's "data management services" rendered under the Master Service Agreement to a recipient situated outside the taxable territory are to be treated, for place-of-supply purposes, as services whose place of provision is the location of the recipient, thereby disentitling the respondents from demanding GST on such services.
2) Whether the impugned adjudication and appellate orders, insofar as they demand GST on data management services, are liable to be quashed in writ jurisdiction.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Place of provision / taxability of "data management services" provided to an overseas recipient
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined and applied Circular dated 04.05.2018, particularly paragraph 3.2, which states that for services on software involving "testing, debugging, modification etc." including "customisation, adaptation, upgradation, enhancement, implementation of information technology software," the place of provision of service is the location of the recipient of the service.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reviewed the Master Service Agreement dated 01.01.2018 and the nature of services actually provided. It concluded that the petitioner's services fall within "data management services" corresponding to the kind of services contemplated by paragraph 3.2 of the Circular. Since the recipient was located in the USA (outside the taxable territory), the place of provision was held to be the recipient's location.
Conclusion: The Court held that, applying paragraph 3.2 of the Circular to the petitioner's data management services rendered to the overseas recipient, the demand of GST on such services could not be sustained.
Issue 2: Validity of the impugned orders to the extent they levy GST on data management services
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found from the impugned adjudication and appellate orders that the authorities had demanded GST on "data management services" provided by the petitioner. Given the Court's conclusion on place of provision under the Circular and the overseas location of the recipient, the Court held that the impugned orders, to the limited extent of demanding GST on data management services, were unsustainable.
Conclusion: The Court allowed the petitions and quashed the impugned orders insofar as they related to the demand of GST for data management services. The Court expressly kept all other contentions on other aspects open and expressed no opinion on them.
Levy of GST - services provided by the Petitioner to its Foreign Affiliates - export of services or not - availment of ITC correctly or not - seeking quashing of N/N. 56/2023-CT dated 28.12.2023 - levy of interest and penalty - HELD THAT:- Para 3.2 of Circular No. 209/1/2018-ST [F.NO.137/26/2016-ST-PART-V] dated 04.05.2018 will clearly indicate that insofar as services on software involving testing, debugging, modification etc. i.e. customisation, adaptation, upgradation, enhancement, implementation of information technology software, the place of provision of service is the location of the recipient of the service.
In the instant case, a perusal of the Master Service Agreement dated 01.01.2018, entered into between the petitioner and its parent company which is situated in the USA and the nature of services provided by the petitioner will clearly indicate that the same amounts to data management services within the meaning of Para-3.2 of the said Circular and consequently, the impugned orders insofar as it relates to demanding payment of GST from the petitioner towards data management services, deserve to be quashed.
The impugned order is quashed - petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether amounts received by the petitioner from its Lending Service Providers (LSPs) under the relevant service agreements, described as compensation/liquidated damages for breach or non-performance, were exigible to GST and could be treated as consideration for a taxable supply (including as "tolerating an act or a situation" under Schedule II) as alleged in the show cause notice.
(ii) Whether the impugned show cause notice demanding GST on such receipts was liable to be quashed for ignoring the applicable portion of the departmental circular dealing with liquidated damages.
(iii) Whether the amount paid under protest during the dispute was required to be refunded with applicable interest, and within what time.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Taxability of amounts termed "liquidated damages/deficiency service fee" and validity of the show cause notice
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered the departmental circular dated 03.08.2022, particularly paragraphs 7.1 to 7.1.6 dealing with "liquidated damages", and also examined the revenue's reliance on Schedule II (para 5(e)) to treat the receipts as consideration for "tolerating" an act/situation. The Court also referred to the contractual stipulations showing that, on breach by the LSPs, the petitioner would be entitled to claim liquidated damages as compensation.
Interpretation and reasoning: On a perusal of the service agreement, the Court found that breach by the LSPs entitled the petitioner to claim liquidated damages. The Court held that the impugned show cause notice proceeded on the basis that the receipts were consideration for tolerating deficiency in services, but it failed to apply the specific part of the circular governing liquidated damages. The Court treated paragraphs 7.1 to 7.1.6 as directly applicable and determinative for the petitioner's case, and accepted the contention that those paragraphs specifically cover compensation received due to breach/non-performance under the contract. The Court rejected the revenue's attempt to characterise the amounts as taxable merely by describing them as "deficiency service fee" in accounts/ledgers, holding that, in substance, the receipts arose from breach-related compensation covered by the circular and therefore fell outside GST.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively held that the amounts received from the LSPs by way of liquidated damages/compensation for breach, as covered by paragraphs 7.1 to 7.1.6 of the circular, were not amenable to GST as demanded in the show cause notice. Consequently, the show cause notice demanding GST on these receipts was quashed.
Issue (i) (ancillary): Effect of alleged similar transactions with other entities on GST liability for the present receipts
Interpretation and reasoning: The show cause notice alleged that, for similar services to other entities, GST was charged under different nomenclature and that the petitioner could not adopt different methodologies. The Court held that the existence of other transactions could not be the basis to fasten liability here, because the taxability had to be determined from the terms of the specific agreement with the LSPs and the express coverage of liquidated damages under the applicable portion of the circular.
Conclusion: The Court rejected the revenue's reliance on other transactions as a ground to sustain the impugned demand in the present case.
Issue (iii): Refund of amount paid under protest and interest
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court relied on its approach in an earlier decision under "identical circumstances" to order refund with interest, and issued directions for repayment within a fixed timeframe.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having quashed the show cause notice and held the demand unsustainable, the Court directed refund of the amount paid under protest, together with applicable interest.
Conclusion: The Court directed the respondents to refund the entire amount of Rs. 5 crores along with applicable interest within eight weeks from receipt of the order.
Levy of GST on Liquidated damages for breach or non-performance - impugned show cause notice does not take into account Paragraph No. 7 of the Circular No. 178/10/2022 (F.No.190354/176/2022-TRU] dated 03.08.2022 - refund of amount paid under protest.
Levy of GST on Liquidated damages for breach or non-performance - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the Master Service Agreement entered into between the petitioner and aforesaid LSPs will clearly indicate that any breach of contract committed by the aforesaid LSPs would entitle the petitioner to claim liquidated damages which is covered by Paragraph No. 7 of the aforesaid Circular dated 03.08.2022 which mandates that a party to the contract who suffers such breach would be entitled to claim compensation from the other party towards such loss or damage caused to him by such breach or non-performance of the contract by either party in terms of Sections 73 and 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
In the instant case, a perusal of the impugned show cause notice will clearly indicate that the 1st respondent has imposed / levied GST on the petitioner in relation to the liquidated damages received by the petitioner and the same is clearly covered by Paragraph No. 7.1 and 7.1.6 to the aforesaid Circular and such payments are not taxable as wrongly contended by the respondents.
Refund of amount paid under protest - HELD THAT:- Under identical circumstances in the case of Ramesh Chand vs. Union of India & others [2025 (11) TMI 180 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], this Court held as 'the obtainment / collection / receipt of a sum of Rs.10 crores by the respondents from the petitioner at the time of search, inspection and seizure operations is not voluntary or by way of self-ascertainment and the same is wholly illegal, arbitrary and contrary to law and the provisions of the CGST Act and also without jurisdiction or authority of law and the said amount deserves to be refunded back to the petitioner together with interest at the rate of 6% p.a. within a stipulated timeframe.'
The impugned show cause notice at Annexure-A dated 25.04.2024 issued by the 1st respondent is hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the sanction order granting prosecution for delayed remittance of TDS was vitiated for failure to properly consider the petitioners' replies, explanations, and supporting material placed on record.
(ii) Whether, in the circumstances, the matter warranted remand to the sanctioning authority with liberty to file additional documents and with directions to provide reasonable opportunity and personal hearing before reconsideration.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of the sanction order in light of consideration of replies and material
Legal framework: The Court examined the sanction order granting prosecution under Section 276B read with Section 278B of the Income Tax Act, pursuant to the sanctioning power exercised under Section 279(1) of the Act, as reflected in the impugned order itself.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the petitioners had deducted TDS for the relevant assessment year and remitted it to the credit of the Central Government after a delay, along with penal interest. The Court further observed that the petitioners had submitted detailed replies and documents explaining the delay and pointing to subsequent payment with penal interest. On a review of the material on record including the impugned order, the Court concluded that the petitioners' explanations and supporting documents had not been considered by the authority "in its proper perspective." This deficiency was treated as material to the decision to grant sanction for prosecution.
Conclusion: The Court held that the impugned sanction order could not be sustained and warranted interference, leading to its setting aside.
Issue (ii): Appropriateness of remand with further opportunity, including additional documents and personal hearing
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court took note of the petitioners' specific assertion that, if granted one more opportunity, they would produce additional documents in support of their explanation for the delay. Considering this assertion and the earlier failure to properly assess the petitioners' material, the Court adopted a "justice oriented approach" and held that reconsideration by the sanctioning authority was necessary. The Court emphasized that the authority should consider additional pleadings/documents/replies, provide "sufficient and reasonable opportunity," and afford an opportunity of personal hearing before proceeding further in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The Court remitted the matter to the sanctioning authority for fresh consideration, expressly reserving liberty to the petitioners to file additional material, and directing the authority to provide reasonable opportunity and personal hearing while reconsidering the matter.
Sanction for prosecution u/s 276B r/w Section 278B - why there was a delay on the part of the petitioners for delayed remittance of TDS? - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the material on record including the impugned order will indicate that though the petitioners had submitted detailed replies along with documents to indicate that the TDS amount was subsequently paid together with penal interest and offering an explanation as to why there was a delay on the part of the petitioners, the same has not been considered by the respondents in its proper perspective.
Further in the light of the specific assertion on the part of the petitioners that if one more opportunity is provided, the petitioners would submit additional documents in support of its claim, we deem it just and appropriate to adopt a justice oriented approach and set aside the impugned order at Annexure-F passed by the first respondent and remit the matter back to the first respondent for reconsideration afresh in accordance with law.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether additions under section 69 for alleged "on-money" cash payments towards purchase of shops could be sustained for assessment years 2017-18 and 2018-19 when the underlying purchase/booking transaction occurred in the subsequent year.
(ii) Whether addition under section 69 for assessment year 2019-20 could be sustained when the Revenue's case rested solely on third-party statements recorded during search and an Excel sheet found in a pen drive seized from a third party, without independent corroboration and without confronting such adverse material to the assessee.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of section 69 additions in assessment years 2017-18 and 2018-19 despite purchase transaction occurring later
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered section 69 in the context of whether an unexplained investment (alleged cash component) could be attributed to years in which no purchase-related transaction was shown to have occurred on record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the sale agreements and banking records placed on record and found that the booking and payments related to the shops occurred in the financial year 2018-19 relevant to assessment year 2019-20. It noted cheque payments for booking and subsequent instalments prior to execution/registration of sale agreements, and found no material suggesting any cash "on-money" payment in the earlier two years. The record indicated that the transaction between the assessee and the builder took place only in the later year.
Conclusions: Since the purchase transaction itself was found to have taken place in assessment year 2019-20 and there was no supporting material for any cash payment in assessment years 2017-18 and 2018-19, the additions under section 69 for those two years were held unsustainable and were deleted.
Issue (ii): Whether section 69 addition for assessment year 2019-20 can be based only on third-party statement and uncorroborated Excel data from a pen drive, without confronting the material to the assessee
Legal framework: The Tribunal evaluated the evidentiary basis for section 69 addition where the alleged investment was inferred from third-party search material and statements, and considered the requirement of reliability/corroboration and adherence to principles of natural justice (including confronting adverse material and opportunity to rebut/cross-examine) as part of its decision on merits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the Revenue's sole reliance was on the statement of a third party recorded during search and the Excel sheet found in a pen drive seized from that third party. The Tribunal treated the Excel data as uncorroborated and noted the absence of independent evidence establishing that the assessee paid cash over and above the agreement value. It further accepted the contention that the adverse statement/material was not confronted to the assessee. The Tribunal also relied on co-ordinate bench decisions on identical facts arising from the same search material, which had held that such uncorroborated third-party electronic data and statements, without proper confrontation and without independent support, could not sustain an addition under section 69.
Conclusions: In the absence of independent corroboration and in view of the reliance on untested third-party statement/electronic sheet not confronted to the assessee, the addition under section 69 for assessment year 2019-20 was held unsustainable. The Tribunal deleted the section 69 additions for assessment years 2017-18 to 2019-20.
Addition u/s 69 - on-money payment in cash for the purchase of shops by the assessee - HELD THAT:- From the perusal of the documents placed on record and the order passed by the lower authorities, we find that there is no material to suggest that the assessee made payment of on-money in cash in the assessment years 2017- 18 and 2018-19. This fact is further substantiated by the sale agreements as well as the bank statement placed in the paper book by the assessee, which only suggests that the transaction between the assessee and the builder took place in the financial year 2018-19, relevant to the assessment year 2019- 20. Therefore, we do not find any merits in the impugned additions made u/s 69 of the Act for the assessment years 2017-18 and 2018-19, as the purchase transaction itself took place in the assessment year 2019-20.
Addition made in the AY 2019-20 - Revenue’s sole reliance is on the statements of Shri Imran Ansari recorded during the search and the Excel sheet found from the pen drive retrieved from his possession during the search - We find that on the basis of identical statements and information in the pen drive, a similar addition was deleted by the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Praveen Khetaramm Purohit [2025 (10) TMI 1336 - ITAT MUMBAI] as no addition can be made on the basis of documents found with third party.
Appeals by the assessee are allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the delay in filing the first appeal(s) before the appellate authority was supported by "sufficient cause" and required condonation.
(ii) Whether the reassessment notice under section 148 was invalid because it was issued by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer instead of the Faceless Assessing Officer, and whether the reassessment based on such notice had to be quashed.
(iii) Whether the sanction for issuance of the section 148 notice was invalid for non-compliance with section 151(ii), thereby vitiating assumption of jurisdiction.
(iv) Whether, on merits, the non-service of acknowledgement in Form 2 under the Income Disclosure Scheme Rules prevented triggering of sections 187(3) and 197(b) of the Finance Act, 2016, and consequently barred addition of the disclosed amount as income under section 69A for A.Y. 2017-18.
(v) Whether the enhanced rate contemplated under section 115BBE could be applied for A.Y. 2017-18 in the facts addressed by the Tribunal.
(vi) Whether the penalty levied under section 271AAC could survive once the reassessment was held invalid and the underlying addition was deleted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
A. Condonation of delay in filing first appeals
Legal framework (as discussed): The Tribunal applied the "sufficient cause" standard through a justice-oriented, pragmatic approach as reflected in the authorities it relied upon, emphasizing that technical delay should not defeat adjudication on merits where the explanation is bona fide.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the explanation that the delay occurred due to wrong professional advice and the assessee's circumstances, supported by affidavit, and found that an appellant ordinarily does not benefit from filing late. It distinguished the contrary authority relied upon by the revenue on facts, noting the assessee's status as an individual and the nature of explanation offered.
Conclusion: Delay of 677 days in the quantum appeal and 484 days in the penalty appeal was condoned; the refusal to condone by the appellate authority was not sustained.
B. Validity of reassessment notice issued by Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) instead of Faceless Assessing Officer (FAO)
Legal framework (as applied): The Tribunal applied the binding position (as noticed by it) that issuance of the concerned notice by the FAO is mandatory, and issuance by the JAO renders the notice invalid.
Interpretation and reasoning: On admitted facts, the notice under section 148 dated 27.07.2022 was issued by the JAO. Following the jurisdictional High Court view adopted by the Tribunal, the Tribunal held that such notice is invalid, and any reassessment founded upon it cannot stand.
Conclusion: The notice under section 148 issued by the JAO was held invalid; the reassessment based on it was quashed, subject to the Tribunal's note that the position was stated to be dependent on the outcome before the Supreme Court in the pending matter referred to in the judgment.
C. Validity of sanction/approval for issuing section 148 notice (section 151(ii))
Legal framework (as discussed and applied): The Tribunal analyzed which sanctioning authority was competent for approval for a notice issued beyond the three-year period, taking into account the time-limit position and the extension regime discussed in the judgment, and concluded that after the stated extended period, sanction must be from the authority specified in section 151(ii) of the new regime.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the relevant notice under section 148 was issued on 27.07.2022 and approval was obtained from an authority not specified under section 151(ii) for that situation. The Tribunal held that absence of sanction from the specified authority vitiated the assumption of jurisdiction.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the reassessment jurisdiction was bad in law for want of valid sanction under section 151(ii), providing an independent ground to quash the reassessment.
D. Merits: Applicability of sections 187(3) and 197(b) of the Finance Act, 2016 where Form 2 acknowledgement was not served; sustainability of addition under section 69A
Legal framework (as discussed): The Tribunal considered the scheme of Form 1 declaration, Form 2 acknowledgement (Rule 4(3)), proof of payment in Form 3 (Rule 4(4)), and the mechanism under section 197(b) for charging the declared undisclosed income to tax in the year of declaration if tax/surcharge/penalty is not paid within time. It also examined the argument about evidentiary use of the declaration, and the non-applicability of section 292BB to the Finance Act, 2016 regime.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal admitted additional grounds on Form 2 service as they arose from material on record. It found that while Form 2 was issued, there was no proof of service on the declarant. It reasoned that payment and filing of Form 3 is contemplated "pursuant to" acknowledgement received in Form 2; therefore, without service/receipt of Form 2, the obligation and timeline for payment under the scheme could not be said to have validly commenced for the purpose of invoking consequences under sections 187(3) and 197(b). The Tribunal also rejected the contention that section 192 barred evidentiary use of Form 1 in these circumstances, holding that otherwise section 197(b) would be rendered nugatory; it held Form 1 could be used as admissible material against the declarant in the situation considered. Nevertheless, because Form 2 service was not proved, the Tribunal held section 197(b) could not be triggered on the ground of non-payment within time.
Conclusion: In the absence of proved service of Form 2, sections 187(3) and 197(b) were held inapplicable in the case; consequently, the addition of the declared amount as income under section 69A for A.Y. 2017-18, made by invoking section 197(b), was directed to be deleted.
E. Applicability of enhanced taxation under section 115BBE for A.Y. 2017-18
Legal framework (as applied): The Tribunal applied the view (as noted by it) that the enhanced rate under section 115BBE is applicable only for transactions on or after 01.04.2017, i.e., from A.Y. 2018-19 onwards.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the Tribunal had already held the addition itself unsustainable, it recorded that even if an addition under section 69A were assumed, the higher rate under section 115BBE could not be invoked for A.Y. 2017-18 on the basis accepted by it.
Conclusion: The enhanced rate under section 115BBE was held not applicable for A.Y. 2017-18 in the manner contemplated; only the non-enhanced position would apply (if at all), though the addition was deleted on merits.
F. Sustainability of penalty under section 271AAC
Legal framework (as applied): Penalty under section 271AAC was treated as consequential to the validity of reassessment and the existence of the underlying addition.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Tribunal held the reassessment invalid (invalid notice and invalid sanction) and also deleted the underlying addition under section 69A, it held that the penalty order could not stand.
Conclusion: The penalty levied under section 271AAC was deleted.
Validity of reopening of assessment u/s 147 - filing of Form 1 under the Income Disclosure Scheme, 2016 [IDS] and the non payment of tax / surcharge / penalty thereafter would constitute fresh tangible material since the Form 1 under the IDS 2016, clearly stated that the assessee had income which had not been disclosed - HELD THAT:- It can be seen from the records that the assessee, in fact, has filed Form 1 under the IDS 2016 on 30.09.2016. The said Form 1 contains the income that the assessee wished to declare under the IDS 2016.
We also notice that section 197(b) of the Finance Act 2016 treats income which has been disclosed under IDS and on which tax / surcharge / penalty has not been paid within the time stipulated u/s. 187 of the Finance Act 2016 to be assessed as income of the A.Y. 2017-18 u/s.197(b) of the Finance Act 2016
A combined reading of section 197(b) along with the facts clearly demonstrate that the Form 1 itself would constitute fresh tangible material in relation to A.Y.2017-18 and we therefore find no merit in the contention of the Ld.AR of the assessee that there is no fresh tangible material leading to the reopening of the assessment by the issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Act in relation to A.Y.2017-18.
Issue of notice u/s 148 of the Act by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) and not by the Faceless Assessing Officer (FAO) -We hold that the notice in the instant case issued by the JAO u/s. 148 of the Act dated 27.07.2022 is invalid and consequently the assessment completed based on such invalid notice is hereby quashed. However, as ruled by TVS Credit Services [2025 (8) TMI 217 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] it may be noted that this order is also subject to the decision of the Hon’ble Apex Court in response to revenue’s appeal in the case of Hexaware Technologies Ltd. [2024 (5) TMI 302 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]
Validity of the approval obtained from the PCIT for issue of notice u/s. 148 - 3 year period calculation - Since the 3 year period lapsed only on 31.03.2021 for the A.Y. 2017-18 and since it fell during the TOLA period, the authorities empowered u/s. 151(1) of the old regime i.e. the PCIT could have granted sanction to reopen the assessment till the extended period upto 30.06.2021. However in case where the sanction has to be given after 30.06.2021, then the provisions of section 151 of the new regime would apply and that the sanction ought to have been obtained from the authorities empowered u/s. 151(ii) of the Act of the new regime i.e. Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or Chief Commissioner of Director General of Income Tax.
In the instant case, admittedly the AO for issue of notice u/s. 148 of the Act dated 27.07.2022, beyond the period of 3 years, has obtained approval from the PCIT who is not the specified authority u/s. 151(ii) of the Act.
Since the AO has not obtained sanction from the specified authority u/s. 151(ii) of the Act for issuing the notice u/s. 148 of the Act, we therefore are of the view that the assumption of jurisdiction by the AO to issue notice u/s. 148 of the Act is bad in law.
Invocation of the provisions of section 197(b) of the Finance Act, 2016 to make addition of the undisclosed income declared in Form 1 under IDS, 2016, as income in the assessment year 2017-18 u/s. 69A - A plain reading of the Form 3 clearly shows that the payment of the tax / surcharge / penalty are made pursuant to an acknowledgement received by a declarant in Form 2 from the ld.PCIT / CIT. Therefore, it is clear that if an acknowledgement in Form 2 is not received by a declarant the question of filing Form 3 and the payment of tax / surcharge / penalty pursuant to the declaration in Form 1 u/s. 183 of the FA 2016 does not and cannot arise. This being so, one will have to conclude that where the Form 2 is not served on the declarant the question of payment of tax / surcharge / penalty as contemplated by Sections 184 & 185 of IDS 2016 does not arise.
In the instant case there is no doubt that the Form 2 has been issued. Can in the circumstance there be a presumption that the Form 2 has been served on the assessee. In this connection one may notice the provisions of section 292BB of the Income Tax Act. Section 292BB of the Act specifically provides that where an assessee has appeared in any proceeding or co-operated in any enquiry under the Income Tax Act relating to an assessment or reassessment, such assessee shall be precluded from taking any objection in any proceedings or inquiry under the Income Tax Act that the notice was not served upon him or not served upon him in time or served upon him in an improper manner, unless he has raised such objection before completion of such assessment or reassessment. It can be seen that section 292BB is only applicable to the Income Tax Act and cannot be extended to the Finance Act, 2016. Therefore, the benefit of section 292BB of the Act will not be available while interpreting the service or otherwise of acknowledgement in Form 2 as contemplated by the Finance Act 2016 read with the Rules framed thereunder.
Therefore in the absence of any provisions corresponding to section 292BB of the Income Tax Act in the Finance Act 2016, it would lead to the irresistible conclusion that the burden of having served the notice in the present case having not been discharged by the revenue, there can be no valid service and consequently the provisions of section 197(b) cannot be triggered for an addition to be made in the A.Y. relevant to the previous year in which the declaration under IDS was made on the basis of a failure to make payment of tax / surcharge / penalty as contemplated by sections 184 & 185 of the Finance Act 2016
We have to necessarily conclude that in the facts and circumstances of the case the Form 2 having not been served on the assessee, section 187(3) and 197(b) have no application. Since section 197(b) has no application, we hold that the addition of a sum of Rs. 14,55,65,400/- u/s. 69A of the Act made in the assessment framed u/s. 147 r.w.s 144 of the Act could not have been made by invoking the provisions of section 197(b) of the Finance Act 2016.
We therefore direct the AO to delete the addition as income u/s. 69A of the Act by allowing the grounds of appeal raised by the assessee.
Invoking provisions of section 115BBE of the Act for charging higher rates of tax - Enhanced rate of 60% prescribed in section 115BBE of the Act is applicable only for transactions that have taken place on or after 01.04.2017 i.e. from assessment year 2018-19 onwards and not for transactions that have taken place in the previous year relevant to AY 2017-18.
Penalty u/s. 271AAC - As we have already decided that the reassessment is bad in law for the reasons that the notice u/s. 148 of the Act issued by the JAO is not a valid notice and that no proper sanction was obtained for issuance of the notice u/s. 148 of the Act and that we have also deleted the addition made u/s. 69A of the Act, we hold that the consequent penalty order passed u/s. 271AAC of the Act is also bad in law.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether penalty under section 272A(1)(d) is sustainable where statutory notices under section 142(1) were only uploaded on the income-tax e-filing portal, and the assessee claimed lack of actual communication/effective service due to absence of direct email/SMS alerts and portal access being handled by a professional.
2. Whether the assessee's non-compliance with multiple section 142(1) notices, in the above circumstances, constituted "reasonable cause" so as to warrant deletion of the penalty.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of penalty where notices were only uploaded on the portal without effective communication
Legal framework: The Tribunal examined levy of penalty under section 272A(1)(d) for failure to comply with notices issued under section 142(1), and evaluated sustainability of such penalty in the context of how notices were served/communicated through the e-filing portal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated the "core issue" as whether penalty can stand when notices were merely uploaded on the portal. It accepted the principle (as applied by the Tribunal) that an assessee cannot be expected to continuously monitor the portal for departmental activity, and that mere uploading on the portal, without resulting in effective service/communication, may lead to violation of natural justice. On the facts, the Tribunal found no effective communication beyond portal upload and noted the assessee's claim that no secondary alerts via email/SMS were received directly, resulting in absence of actual knowledge.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that penalty cannot be sustained merely because notices remained on the portal, in the absence of evidence of effective service or communication to the assessee. The penalty was therefore not sustainable on this basis.
Issue 2: Whether absence of actual knowledge constituted "reasonable cause" for non-compliance justifying deletion of penalty
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered whether the assessee's explanation amounted to "reasonable cause" for the failure to comply with the statutory notices, as relevant to sustaining or deleting penalty under section 272A(1)(d).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the non-compliance arose due to absence of actual knowledge of the notices uploaded on the portal. It treated lack of actual communication/effective service as sufficient to explain non-representation, and therefore as constituting reasonable cause for non-compliance in the circumstances examined.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that the assessee had reasonable cause for non-compliance because the notices were not effectively communicated. It set aside the appellate order affirming penalty and deleted the penalty amount.
Levy of penalty u/s 272A(1)(d) - as argued course of assessment proceedings the various statutory notices (four in numbers) u/s 142(1) reminded uncommunicated with the assessee and therefore, the AO had passed the ex-parte assessment order u/s 144 - whether the penalty u/s 272A(1)(d) is sustainable when the notices were only uploaded on the e-filing portal? - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the non-compliance on the part of the assessee was on account of absence of actual knowledge of the notices uploaded on the Income-tax portal, which constitutes a reasonable cause for such noncompliance.
Respectfully following the binding precedent of MUNJAL BCU CENTRE OF INNOVATION AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP [2024 (3) TMI 479 - PUNJAB & HARYANA HIGH COURT] we hold that a penalty cannot be sustained merely on the basis of notices remaining on the portal without there being any evidence of effective service or communication to the assessee. Accordingly, the order passed by the CIT(A) is set aside and the penalty is hereby deleted.
Issues: Whether the protective addition made in the assessee's hands could survive after the substantive addition in the connected case was quashed.
Analysis: The Tribunal noted that the substantive addition in the connected matter had already been set aside. It applied the settled principle that a protective addition is contingent upon the survival of a substantive addition and cannot stand independently once the substantive addition ceases to exist.
Conclusion: The protective addition was not sustainable and was deleted.
Undisclosed income from illegal "satta" or election betting - Protective Addition from Seized Loose Papers - AO discovered loose papers in a pocket diary at the Bajaj Group's corporate office containing code names and amounts owed by various individuals. The handwriting on these documents was identified as belonging to Sh. Vikram Bajaj - AO linked these entries to professional bookies, such as "Chotu Bansal," and identified a contact "KKS" as Shri Kamal Kishore Sarda through seized digital data. The AO found that payments were accepted at secretive locations across New Delhi rather than at official business premises, indicating the winnings were from illegal activities - AR argued that the protective addition cannot survive because the substantive addition in the case of Mr. Ram Narayan Bajaj (2025 (7) TMI 1949 - ITAT DELHI) has been quashed by the Hon'ble Tribunal
HELD THAT:- It is undisputed that the substantive addition in the case of Mr. Ram Narayan Bajaj was quashed by this Tribunal [supra]. It is a well settled legal principle that when a substantive addition does not survive, the protective addition also cannot be sustained. See Electrical and Electronic India Ltd[2023 (11) TMI 657 - DELHI HIGH COURT], LALJI HARIDAS [1961 (7) TMI 8 - SUPREME COURT] and PRAKASH WINE AGENCIES [1990 (3) TMI 99 - ITAT ALLAHABAD-B] - Decided against revenue.
Issues: Whether section 50C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be invoked where the assessee assigned only a life interest and undivided share in trust property, and whether the addition sustained on that basis was liable to be deleted.
Analysis: The transfer deed described the subject matter as the assessee's life interest and not the corpus of the land or building. The ownership of the immovable property continued to vest in the trust, while the assessee held only a limited, determinable and beneficial interest. A life interest is non-permanent, extinguishes on death, and is legally distinct from leasehold or ownership rights. Section 50C is a deeming provision and must be confined to transfers of land or building or both, and cannot be extended beyond its clear language to a transfer of a limited right or interest. The record, including the valuation material, also supported the conclusion that the assessee had not transferred an independently marketable estate in land or building.
Conclusion: Section 50C was not applicable to the transfer of the assessee's life interest and undivided share, and the addition sustained on that basis was directed to be deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: A transfer of a limited life interest in trust property is not a transfer of land or building or both for the purposes of section 50C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and the deeming fiction cannot be enlarged beyond its express terms.
Addition u/s 50C - legal nature of the interest transferred by the assessee - assessee had sold his rights in immovable property for a consideration less than stamp duty valuation of the said property - assessee claimed that the entire consideration was invested in purchase of a residential property at Ahmedabad and accordingly claimed exemption u/s 54F of the Act - AO invoked section 50C - assessee contended that what was transferred was not land or building, but only rights in land and building, and therefore section 50C was not applicable - HELD THAT:- Section 50C is a deeming provision which substitutes the stamp duty value as the full value of consideration where the capital asset transferred is land or building or both. It is a settled principle of interpretation that a deeming fiction must be strictly construed and confined to the purpose for which it is enacted.
The legislature itself has, in several provisions of the Act, consciously distinguished between transfer of land or building and transfer of rights or interests therein, as evident from provisions such as section 54D which expressly refers to “land or building or any right in land or building”. The absence of similar language in section 50C indicates that the provision is intended to operate in respect of transfer of land or building as such, and not every form of interest connected with immovable property.
As decided in V.S. Chandrashekar [2021 (2) TMI 587 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] section 50C cannot be invoked where what is transferred is only a limited right or interest and not land or building itself.
In the present case, the assignment remains confined to a life interest under a trust and does not partake the character of transfer of land or building.
Once the true legal nature of the interest transferred is ascertained from the contemporaneous registered instruments and corroborated by the valuation record itself, the applicability of section 50C has necessarily to be examined with reference to the actual interest transferred and not merely with reference to the character of the underlying immovable property. On the peculiar facts of the present case, the assignment of a life interest under a trust does not partake the character of transfer of land or building so as to attract the deeming fiction contained in section 50C.
Thus, subject matter of transfer in the present case is a limited and determinable life interest coupled with an undivided share and not land or building or both. Consequently, the invocation of section 50C in the facts of the present case is not warranted. CIT(A), in sustaining the addition under section 50C, did not adequately appreciate the true legal nature of the interest transferred by the assessee.
Accordingly, the addition sustained under section 50C of the Act is directed to be deleted. Decided in favour of assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the mandatory prior approval under section 153D for framing search assessments was validly granted, including whether it required discernible application of mind and approval for each assessment year rather than a consolidated, perfunctory sanction.
(ii) Whether, upon finding the section 153D approval to be mechanical/ritualistic, the consequential assessments framed under section 153A stood vitiated and were liable to be quashed, rendering the remaining grounds and the Revenue's appeals infructuous.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity and nature of approval under section 153D (mechanical approval; single consolidated approval for multiple years)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court treated prior approval under section 153D as a mandatory condition having a direct bearing on the sustainability of assessments. It noted that judicial precedent requires the approving authority to grant approval with application of mind and in relation to each assessment year.
Interpretation and reasoning: On examining the approval dated 10/04/2021, the Court found that it covered seven assessment years through a single consolidated approval and did not contain any discussion or even minimal indication regarding the subject matter of additions or examination of the draft assessment orders. The Court characterized it as a "Performa approval" and held that it "smacks of mechanical or perfunctory approval" and reflected a symbolic/ritualistic exercise rather than a meaningful statutory safeguard. The Court rejected the Revenue's contention that section 153D requires only the existence of approval and not application of mind, holding that the law, as applied through binding judicial exposition referred to in the order, does not permit rubber-stamping and requires year-wise consideration. The Court also noted the absence of any material showing communication or involvement evidencing considered approval.
Conclusions: The Court held that the approval under section 153D in the present case was mechanical/ritualistic and additionally flawed for being a single joint approval for multiple assessment years without demonstrating independent examination. It was therefore not a valid approval in the eyes of law for sustaining the ensuing assessments.
Issue (ii): Consequence of invalid section 153D approval-whether assessments under section 153A must be quashed; effect on other grounds and Revenue's appeals
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court treated compliance with section 153D as going to the "very substratum" of the assessments and consequential appellate proceedings, such that a defective approval vitiates the assessment itself.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having found the approval to be perfunctory and not in conformity with the requirement of meaningful sanction, the Court held that the assessment orders, being founded on such approval, "stand vitiated". Since the defect was foundational, the Court considered it unnecessary to adjudicate the remaining legal or factual issues raised in other grounds.
Conclusions: The Court quashed the assessment orders for the relevant years on the ground of erroneous approval under section 153D. Consequently, the Revenue's appeals challenging deletions for certain years were held to be infructuous and were dismissed.
Approval under Section 153D requiring application of mind - mechanical or perfunctory approval vitiating assessment under Section 153A - approval to be granted for each assessment year separately - justiciability of supervisory approval under Section 153D - office procedure and reasonable opportunity before granting approval
Approval under Section 153D requiring application of mind - mechanical or perfunctory approval vitiating assessment under Section 153A - approval to be granted for each assessment year separately - Validity of the approval dated 10/04/2021 under Section 153D and its effect on assessments framed under Section 153A for Assessment Years 2016-17 to 2019-20 - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the approval issued by the Additional Commissioner (Central Range-1) and found it to be a single, perfunctory form of approval covering seven assessment years without any indication that the draft assessment orders were perused or that an independent application of mind was applied. Reliance was placed on the jurisprudence of the Jurisdictional High Court and other High Courts which hold that the approving authority must apply independent mind to the material for each assessment year and each assessee, and that mere rubber-stamping or a token approval will not satisfy the statutory requirement. The Tribunal observed that the approval letter reproduced on record contained no discussion of the proposed additions or any record of thought-process, and that a consolidated single approval for multiple years and multiple cases granted on the same day, in the circumstances, amounted to a ritualistic exercise. Applying these principles, the Tribunal concluded that the statutory safeguard envisaged by Sections 153A-153D would be defeated by mechanical approvals and, where such approvals are shown to be ritualistic, the underlying assessments are vitiated. [Paras 9, 15]
The approval under Section 153D was held to be mechanical and without application of mind, thereby vitiating the assessment orders framed under Section 153A for the stated assessment years; those assessment orders are quashed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the assessee's appeals in part by quashing the assessment orders for AY 2016-17 to 2019-20 on the ground that the approval under Section 153D was ritualistic and devoid of application of mind; consequent Revenue appeals in respect of AY 2017-18 to 2019-20 became infructuous and were dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the first and second provisos to Section 50C(1) (permitting adoption of stamp value as on the agreement date where consideration/part consideration is received through banking channels) apply retrospectively to the relevant year.
(ii) Where there are multiple subsequent settlements/understandings and the original agreement fixing consideration is no longer acted upon, which "date of agreement" governs adoption of stamp valuation under Section 50C for computing long-term capital gains, including for any land transferred beyond what is covered by such later agreements.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Retrospective applicability of provisos to Section 50C(1)
Legal framework: The Court examined Section 50C and specifically the provisos inserted w.e.f. 01.04.2017, which allow stamp valuation on the date of agreement (instead of registration) where the agreement date and registration date differ, provided consideration/part consideration was received through specified banking modes on or before the agreement date.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the provisos were introduced to cure hardship where consideration is fixed earlier but registration occurs later, and treated the amendment as curative, thereby applicable to the transaction under consideration even though the registration occurred prior to the stated effective date.
Conclusion: The provisos to Section 50C(1) were held applicable to the relevant transaction on a retrospective/curative basis, subject to satisfaction of the stipulated conditions (including receipt through banking channels).
Issue (ii): Correct "agreement date" for adopting stamp valuation under Section 50C where original agreement is superseded/abandoned and land transferred differs from later settlement documents
Legal framework: Applying the provisos to Section 50C(1), the Court focused on identifying the operative "agreement fixing the amount of consideration" corresponding to the land actually transferred, and whether the transfer was referable to that agreement/settlement.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although an initial agreement existed with early banking receipts, the Court found that it "did not hold the ground anymore" and was not acted upon after disputes arose, followed by a later compromise recorded by a court order and later MOUs which re-defined the land to be transferred. The land ultimately transferred exceeded the aggregate land covered by the compromise and MOUs. Therefore, the Court held that the stamp valuation date cannot be uniformly pegged to the original agreement date; it must align to the specific later instrument that actually governed the transfer of each identifiable portion. For land transferred outside the scope of the compromise/MOUs, the proviso-based agreement-date substitution was not available, so the registration-date stamp value had to apply for that excess portion.
Conclusions: (a) For the portion covered by the compromise, the stamp valuation as on the date of the compromise order was directed to be adopted as deemed consideration under Section 50C. (b) For the portion covered by the later MOUs, the stamp valuation as on the dates of those MOUs was directed to be adopted. (c) For the balance land transferred beyond what was covered by the compromise/MOUs, the Court directed adoption of stamp valuation as on the dates of the last sale deeds (registration dates) for computing capital gains under Section 50C. The order allowing uniform adoption of the original agreement-year valuation was set aside and recomputation was directed accordingly.
Quantification of the LTCG as per the deeming provisions of Section 50C - original “agreement to sell” was rendered as ineffective - AO adopted the SRO values as on the dates on which the sale deeds were registered and recomputed the capital gain in the hands of the assessee company - Scope of amendment to Section 50C - HELD THAT:- We principally concur with the claim of the assessee company that for the purpose of determining the LTCG as per the deeming provisions of Sec. 50C of the Act (subject to the satisfaction of the pre-conditions therein contemplated), the SRO value of the property which is prevailing on the date on which the “agreement to sell' is executed is to be taken for the purpose of computing the capital gain arising on transfer of the subject property.
Conclusion:- As the assessee company had transferred 4 Acres – 72 Guntas of land (i.e., 22258.6 Sq. Yards), vide 15 registered sale deeds in favour of M/s Sama Constructions during the year under consideration, i.e., over the period 24.07.2015 to 18.11.2015, but the compromise entered into between the parties (as referred in the order of the Add. District Judge-XI, Ranga Reddy District on 23.11.2013 referred to the transfer of land admeasuring 3 Acers – 0 Guntas (14520 Sq. Yards) situated in Survey Nos. 9/4 and 9/5 situated at Saroornagar Mandal, Ranga Reddy District; AND (ii). as per the 2 memorandums of understanding (MOU’s), both dated 12.08.2013, it was agreed to further transfer an aggregate of 4845 Sq. yards of land, viz. (a). 2769 Sq. yards; and (b). 2076 Sq. yards to M/s Sama Constructions in Survey Nos. 9/4 AND Survey Nos. 9/4 and 9/5, situated at Saroornagar Mandal, Ranga Reddy District, respectively; therefore, the aggregate of land covered vide the aforesaid agreements/MOU’s/Compromise aggregates to 19365 Sq. Yards, i.e., 4 Acres- 0.125 Guntas. Accordingly, as the transfer of the balance land admeasuring 2893.60 Sq. Yards [i.e. 22258.6 Sq. Yards (minus) 19365 Sq. Yards] is not based either on the compromise or the MOU’s, therefore, the SRO value as applicable on the date of the last of the sale deeds that were executed during the year, i.e., as on 16/11/2015 and 18/11/2015, is to be adopted as the deemed sale consideration for computing the LTCG on the transfer of the said portion of land as per the provisions of Sec. 50C of the Act.
(b). as the compromise entered into between the parties (as referred in the order of the Add. District Judge-XI, Ranga Reddy District on 23.11.2013) refers to the transfer of 3 Acres – 0 Guntas of land situated in Survey Nos. 9/4 and 9/5 at Saroornagar Mandal, Ranga Reddy District, therefore, the SRO value as applicable on the date of order of the Add. District Judge-XI, Ranga Reddy District, i.e., 23.11.2013, is directed to be adopted as the deemed sale consideration for computing the LTCG on the transfer of the said portion of land as per the provisions of Sec. 50C of the Act.
(c). as per the 2 memorandums of understanding (MOU’s), both dated 12.08.2013, it was agreed to further transfer an aggregate of land admeasuring 4845 Sq. yards, viz. (i). 2769 Sq. yards; and (ii). 2076 Sq. yards to M/s Sama Constructions situated in Survey Nos. 9/4 AND Survey Nos. 9/4 and 9/5, situated at Saroornagar Mandal, Ranga Reddy District, respectively; therefore, the SRO value as applicable on the date of the said MOU’s, i.e., 12.08.2013, is directed to be adopted as the deemed sale consideration for computing the LTCG on the transfer of the said portion of land as per the provisions of Sec. 50C of the Act.
We, thus, in terms of our aforesaid observations, set aside the order passed by the CIT(A) and direct the AO to recompute the LTCG in terms of our aforesaid observations.
Issues: Whether, in a joint development arrangement involving a landowner, the revenue was justified in applying the percentage completion method and taxing the landowner's share of receipts in the relevant year, or whether the assessee was entitled to follow the project completion method and defer recognition until sale deeds were registered.
Analysis: The assessee was only a landowner and had granted development rights to the developer while continuing to retain ownership and possession of the land until completion. The agreement showed that the developer was responsible for construction and marketing, while the assessee's share arose from sale proceeds realised from ultimate purchasers. The accounting standard and real estate guidance note relied upon by the revenue were found inapplicable on these facts, because the assessee did not itself undertake the construction activity and the legal title and corresponding risks and rewards were not transferred merely on execution of the joint development arrangement or agreement to sell. The Court also noted that the assessee had consistently followed the project completion method and had offered the income in later years, so taxing the same receipts in the earlier year would result in impermissible double taxation.
Conclusion: The revenue could not compel the assessee to adopt the percentage completion method, and the assessee was entitled to recognise income under the project completion method; the addition made by the Assessing Officer was rightly deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: In a real estate joint development arrangement, a landowner who does not itself undertake construction and who retains ownership until registration of the sale deed may follow the consistently adopted project completion method, and income cannot be taxed on a percentage completion basis merely because the developer follows that method.
Accrual of income - Addition under the head Profits & gains of business or profession based on percentage completion method for income arising from revenue sharing from JDA - point of tax incidence - transfer of legal title -project completion method in accounting applied by the assessee - Whether significant risk and rewards of ownership had already been transferred under the JDA and thus income should be recognized in the year of accrual by adopting percentage of completion method? - HELD THAT:- Where the transfer of legal title is a condition precedent to the buyer taking on the significant risk and rewards of ownership and accepting significant completion of the seller’s obligation, the revenue should not be recognized till such time legal title is validly transferred to the buyer.
The Apex Court in the case of Babasheb DhondibaKute Vs. Radhu Vithoba Barde [2024 (2) TMI 1516 - SUPREME COURT] held that the conveyance by way of sale would take place only at the time of registration of a sale deed in accordance with section 17 of the Registration Act, 2008. Till the registration is made, there is no conveyance in the eye of law.
It is very much clear that transfer of immovable property by way of sale can only be by a deed of conveyance (sale deed). In the absence of a deed of conveyance (duly stamped and registered as required under law), no right, title or interest in an immovable property can be transferred.
The point of tax incidence for the assessee in our view would be the passing of risk and rewards of the ownership to the ultimate buyers upon registration of title deeds in favour of the buyer. The consideration that is earned by the landowner is on account of “transfer” to the ultimate customer and such transfer is occasioned on completion of the project and registration of the sale deed.
Therefore, in our view the project completion method in accounting applied by the assessee is appropriate.
Merely by making advance booking of flats by the buyer, it cannot be assumed that any income accrued to the assessee. The advance received remain a liability till the sale transaction is completed by delivering possession and the sale deed is executed. Accordingly, there is no element of accrual of income in these circumstances as contended by AO.
It is an admitted fact that assessee is only a landowner and through power of attorney gave license to the developer upon the land for the purpose of developing the land into flats and selling the same. The assessee as landowner in the present case is getting the consideration for sale of land held as stock in trade on account of entering into a JDA with M/s. Purvankara Projects Ltd., at a prescribed percentage of revenue as agreed upon on receipt and realization of the same from the ultimate purchasers of the development.
We also take note of the fact that the assessee along with the developer jointly entered into an agreement to sale with the prospective buyer which clearly establish that the land owner had not transferred/sold any land to the developer. The assessee being a landowner had given the license/permission for the construction/development to the developer who is a separate legal entity. The assessee will get his share for transfer of land only when the final sale deed will be executed with the prospective buyer, and therefore, the contention of D.R. that the advance received on account of agreement to sale based on percentage completion method cannot be accepted.
The revenue cannot thrust upon the assessee to adopt percentage completion method of accounting merely because the developer/builder/contractor was following the percentage completion method. The percentage completion method being one of the recognized method of construction contract is not applicable in the case of the assessee firm, being a land owner.
Since the assessee has adopted the project completion method of recognition of revenue and has been consistently following over the years, the method of accounting is also not subject to any change by the revenue. In view of the above, as the assessee has in subsequent years offered the income on project completion method and this method of accounting has also been consistently followed by the assessee from year to year and therefore, we find no infirmity in the order of ld.CIT(A)-15, Bengaluru, which relied upon the decision of M/s. Trishul Buildtech and Infrastructure Pvt Ltd [2022 (11) TMI 772 - ITAT BANGALORE]
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the reassessment initiated under section 147/148, based on the special audit report and accompanied by sanction under section 151, was valid and sustainable on the legal objections raised (including alleged change of opinion / lack of live link / borrowed satisfaction / absence of failure-to-disclose allegation), and whether the transfer order under section 127 vitiated the reassessment.
(ii) Whether disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of tax at source required reduction to avoid duplication where a disallowance for the same default had already been made in the original assessment; and whether the "30% disallowance" amendment could be applied to the year under consideration.
(iii) Whether deletion of ad hoc disallowances relating to (a) cash purchases (made as a percentage of cash payments) and (b) business promotion / tour and travel expenses was justified where the Assessing Officer did not establish specific defects or non-business purpose, and the trading results were accepted.
(iv) Whether assessments framed in search-related proceedings were vitiated for want of a valid approval under section 153D, where a common approval for two assessment years was granted by a single communication on the same day the approval was sought, without year-wise independent application of mind.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Validity of reassessment under section 147/148 and related legal objections (including section 127 and section 151 sanction)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court noted that initiation and completion of reassessment required recording of reasons, obtaining sanction under section 151, issuance of notice under section 148, and completion under section 147/143(3). It also considered the objection to the transfer order under section 127, but treated it as not appealable before the first appellate authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court upheld the findings that reasons were recorded on the basis of information available (including the special audit report), sanction under section 151 was granted "in accordance with law", and reassessment was completed by following the provisions of law. The Court also accepted the view that procedures relating to the transfer under section 127 "appear to have been followed", and noted that the assessee did not controvert the appellate findings on these legal grounds.
Conclusions: The reassessment proceedings under section 147/148 were held to have been correctly initiated and completed; the challenges alleging invalid reasons/sanction/change of opinion/lack of live link, and the challenge to the section 127 transfer, were rejected.
(ii) Disallowance under section 40(a)(ia): duplication adjustment and inapplicability of 30% restriction prior to the stated effective date
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court addressed disallowance for failure to deduct tax at source under sections 194C/194J leading to section 40(a)(ia) consequences, and considered the claim regarding the later "30% of default amount" disallowance regime, holding it prospective (as applied by the Court).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that a disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) had already been made in the original assessment for a category of default (taxi hire charges). To that extent, a further disallowance in reassessment would result in duplication, and therefore the reassessment disallowance had to be reduced by the amount already disallowed. The Court rejected the plea that recipients had already offered the receipts to tax because no supporting evidence was produced. On the "30%" plea, the Court held that the amendment was not applicable to the year before it, treating it as prospective and not available prior to the stated effective date relied upon by the Court.
Conclusions: The disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) was sustained only after reducing the amount already disallowed in the original assessment to avoid double disallowance; the remaining disallowance was confirmed. The claim for restricting disallowance to 30% was rejected as inapplicable for the relevant year.
(iii) Deletion of ad hoc disallowances: cash purchases and business promotion / tour and travel
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined disallowance purportedly linked to section 40A(3) and cash purchases, noting that the Assessing Officer did not invoke section 40A(3) for any violation. It also considered ad hoc disallowances of expenses made to cover "possible leakage" and on the premise that personal element could not be ruled out.
Interpretation and reasoning: On cash purchases, the Court emphasized that where the Assessing Officer accepted that there was no cash payment violating section 40A(3), and did not identify specific defective vouchers or any non-business purchases, an ad hoc percentage disallowance could not be sustained merely because some vouchers were alleged to be unsigned. It further relied on the fact that trading results were accepted, the reassessment did not specify any particular non-genuine payment, and even the special audit report did not point out any payment violating section 40A(3) that formed the basis of a disallowance.
On business promotion and tour/travel, the Court held that disallowances made solely on an ad hoc basis-because some vouchers were self-made or because personal element "cannot be ruled out"-were unsustainable absent specific defects. The Court also held that where a disallowance of expenses had already been made in the original assessment, a further disallowance without considering that earlier disallowance would amount to double addition. It further accepted the principle that in the case of a private limited company, disallowance on account of personal use by directors is not maintainable as a basis to treat expenditure as non-business.
Conclusions: The deletions of ad hoc disallowances relating to (a) a percentage of cash purchases and (b) ad hoc portions of business promotion and tour/travel expenses were upheld, for want of specific defects and because the disallowances were made on general suspicion/possible leakage, with accepted trading results and impermissible "personal use" reasoning in a corporate assessee.
(iv) Validity of approval under section 153D: common/omnibus approval for two years as mechanical, vitiating assessments
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court treated section 153D approval as a mandatory precondition and emphasized that approval must be granted with independent application of mind for each assessment year, after examining relevant material including assessment records and seized material, and with reference to the additions proposed in the draft assessment order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the approving authority granted a common approval for two assessment years through a single communication, on the same day the approval was sought. The approval was held to be "totally silent" on issues and reflective of an "omnibus" and "ritualistic" approach, without discernible thought process or year-wise evaluation. Applying the judicial principles it relied upon in its reasoning, the Court held such approval to be mechanical and contrary to the statutory requirement of independent year-wise approval.
Conclusions: The section 153D approval was held invalid; consequently, the assessment orders for the concerned years were quashed. Having quashed the assessments on this legal ground, the Court held that remaining grounds (including the Revenue's appeals for those years) required no adjudication.
Reassessment proceedings initiated u/s 148 - Reasons to believe - HELD THAT:- As notice u/s 148 of IT Act has been issued and the income escaping assessment proceedings have been completed u/s 147 of IT Act by following all the provisions of law and the order has been passed u/s 147/143(3) of IT Act. Under these circumstances, hold that the proceedings under section 147 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 have been correctly initiated and completed as per law.
Disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia) - non-deduction of tax at source u/s 194J towards consultancy charges and u/s 194C for transportation charges and for generator repair and maintenance expenses - HELD THAT:- Disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia) was already made for non-compliance of provisions of section 194C therefore, to this extent no further disallowance could be made. Accordingly, we direct the Ao to reduce the amount already considered and disallowed u/s 40(a)(ia) of the Act in the order passed u/s 143(3) and remaining disallowance is hereby confirmed.
Claim of the assessee is that in many cases the recipient had included this amount in their income and paid the taxes thereon, therefore, no disallowance could be made u/s 40(a)(ia). Since, no evidence is filed before us in support of this claim, therefore, the same cannot be accepted at this stage. Regarding other claim of the assessee of making disallowance @ 30% of the default amount u/s 40(a)(ia) of the Act, we find that the amendment has come into statute by Finance Act, 2014 and applicable from 01.04.2015 therefore, this amendment is not applicable to the year before us. This view is supported by the judgement of Shree Choudhary Transport Company [2020 (8) TMI 23 - SUPREME COURT] has held that such amendment is prospective in nature and cannot be applied prior to AY 2015-16.
Adhoc disallowance made being 5% of total cash payment made out of the total purchases claimed by the assessee - Assessee disclosed all the details of the payments made and further in the special audit report no instance of payment in violation to section 40A(3) was pointed out which has been considered and for which any disallowance was made by the AO. Disallowing out of expenses was mere ad-hoc disallowance, not based on finding of bogus expenses claimed. Expenses were not fully verifiable due to nature of payments made and as observed above the trading results were accepted.
As further seen that no incriminating paper was found as a result of search with respect to the cash purchases made nor any satisfaction of escapement of income of such cash purchases was reached in the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment. The payments to few individuals were doubted however, no adverse inference was taken on such payments by the AO after making verification of the records. In view of these facts, we find no error in the order of ld. CIT(A) in deleting the adhoc made and accordingly, we uphold the order of Ld. CIT(A). Therefore, Ground of appeal No.1 raised by the Revenue is dismissed.
Disallowance of business promotion expenses and disallowance out of tour & travel expenses - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- As in the assessment order passed u/s 143(3) dated 29.01.2015, AO has made disallowance of business promotion expenses, power and fuel, vehicle and bus and diesel expenses. It is also seen that those additions have been accepted by the assessee and no further appeal was preferred. Once disallowance has already been made towards the expenses further disallowance made without considering the to the earlier disallowance tantamount to double addition. AO is not competent to decide the business expediency of incurring any expenditure. It is relevant to note that we are dealing with a case of a private limited company. It is a settled legal position that there can be no disallowance of any expenditure on account of personal use by the directors of the company. There is no dearth of the judgments and the Tribunal orders on this aspect of the matter.
As decided in Sayaji Iron and Engg. Co [2001 (7) TMI 70 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] and Dinesh Mills Ltd. [2002 (10) TMI 10 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] held that there can be no disallowance of expenses by considering the personal use of the assets by the directors. CIT (Appeals) was justified in deleting this addition.
Validity of approval u/s 153D - mechanical approval cannot be sustainable in law in the light of judicial dicta available. The approval memo is totally silent on the issues involved and has granted omnibus approval without any thoughtful process being discernible. A single approval u/s 153D has been accorded in respect of two Assessment Years through single order on the request of the AO made on the very same day vide letter dt. 23.08.2018 as could be seen from the first para of the approval order as reproduced above. Thus, assessment order based on ritualistic approval stands vitiated and thus quashed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the unsecured loan credited in the assessee's books was liable to addition under section 68 on the ground that the lender's creditworthiness was not proved, despite identity and banking-channel transactions being undisputed, and whether "source of source" could be insisted upon for the relevant year.
(ii) Whether the Assessing Officer was justified in rejecting the trading results and estimating profit by applying a uniform gross profit rate on turnover, on the basis of alleged negative stock and audit remarks, when the assessee produced day-to-day quantitative stock records and no specific defect in books/stock register was identified.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Addition under section 68 for unsecured loan-creditworthiness and "source of source"
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied section 68 on the basis that the assessee must establish (a) identity of the creditor, (b) genuineness of the transaction, and (c) creditworthiness of the lender. The Court further held that the Finance Act, 2022 amendment relating to explaining "source of source" was stated to be effective from 1 April 2023 (AY 2023-24 onwards) and therefore not applicable to the year under consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that identity was established and not disputed, and genuineness was supported because transactions were through banking channels. On creditworthiness, the Court accepted the assessee's peak-credit/funds-flow analysis showing that the maximum fresh funds outstanding during the year was limited (peak worked out during the year), and held that this peak exposure, viewed with the lender's declared turnover and bank balances at the time of transfers, did not justify doubting capacity merely by comparing the year's loan movements with declared income/capital. The Court also treated as significant that the entire loan (including opening balance) was repaid during the year and that such repayments constituted the principal source enabling further advances, and that repayment was not doubted by the Assessing Officer. The Court also concluded that, for the relevant year, the Assessing Officer could not require the assessee to prove the lender's "source of source" under the later amendment.
Conclusion: The Court held that the assessee discharged the onus under section 68 and that the unsecured loan addition was unsustainable. The addition under section 68 was directed to be deleted.
Issue (ii): Rejection of books / estimation of profit by applying gross profit rate
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined whether rejection of books could be sustained under the principles governing rejection of accounts (including the need for valid reasons and identifiable defects), and considered the relevance of invoking section 145(3) where profits are sought to be estimated by disregarding the regular books.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the assessee's position that day-to-day stock registers with item-wise quantitative details were maintained and produced, and found that the Assessing Officer did not point out any specific defect in the entries or in the quantitative tally. The Court held that the Assessing Officer's inference of negative stock was derived from a value-based monthly working (including use of an averaged gross profit assumption), which could not override or discredit available quantitative records-particularly where multiple products were traded and margins could vary item-wise. The Court also noted that the books were audited and that the audit remark about non-production of stock register to the auditor did not, by itself, establish unreliability when the stock records were available to the tax authorities and remained uncontroverted. Having found no valid basis to reject the accounts, the Court held that applying a gross profit rate of the preceding year (despite a substantially higher turnover in the year under appeal) was unjustified.
Conclusion: The Court held that the books of account could not be rejected on the stated grounds and that the declared gross profit could not be disturbed. The trading addition made by applying a gross profit rate was directed to be deleted.
Addition on account of unsecured loan received u/s 68 - Onus to prove - failure on the part of the assessee to prove the creditworthiness/capacity of lender to provide funds to the assessee - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, assessee had filed copy of Aadhar of Karta of lender HUF, its PAN and ITR thus, the identity has been established which was also not doubted. Since all the transactions were caried out through banking channel, therefore, genuineness also established.
Creditworthiness of the lender it has declared turnover of INR 3.98 crores meaning thereby, there were sufficient and reasonable amount of transactions carried out in its bank account which is also evident from the copy of bank statements produced before the lower authorities. From the perusal of the same, it is further seen that there were sufficient balances available in the bank account of M/s Tejas Handloom as and when funds were transferred to the assessee. Therefore, the capacity to grant fresh loan to the assessee during the year under appeal by M/s Tejas Handloom cannot be doubted.
Amendment in section 68 was made vide Finance Act, 2022 wherein second proviso was inserted, so as to provide that the nature and source of any sum, whether in the form of loan or borrowing, or any other liability credited in the books of an assessee shall be treated as explained only if the source of funds is also explained in the hands of the creditor or entry provider. This amendment has taken effect from 1st April, 2023 and accordingly applies in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and all subsequent assessment years. The year before us is AY 2018-19 thus this amendment is not applicable in the present case.
The coordinate Bench of Delhi bench of Tribunal in the case of ACIT v Smt. Prem Anand [2017 (4) TMI 817 - ITAT DELHI] held that amendment made in section 68 of the Act w.e.f. 01.04.2013 empowers the A.O. to examine source of source in case of share application money / share capital / share premium and thus this amendment does not give power to the A.O. to examine source of source of non-share capital cases.
Assessee has been able to demonstrate that funds given by M/s Tejas Handloom are majorly sourced out of the loan repaid by the assessee herself which payment has not been doubted and, therefore, no addition could be made u/s 68 of the Act. Accordingly, we hereby direct the AO to delete the addition made u/s 68 of the Act. Assessee appeal allowed.
Rejection of books of accounts - Application of G.P. rate of 1.22 % on the gross turnover of the assessee - HELD THAT:- When the assessee has successfully demonstrated that it had no negative stock on daily basis in terms of the quantity, allegation of the AO of deficiency in stock cannot be accepted. AO has not identified any specific instance defect in the books of accounts maintained by the assessee nor in the stock records. Therefore no reason to disbelieve the books of accounts maintained by the assessee in regular course which are duly audited by the statutory Auditors. Therefore, we hold that the books of accounts of the assessee cannot be rejected by invoking the provision of section 145(3) of the Act.
Application of G.P. rate of 1.22%, we find that the AO has applied G.P. rate of immediately preceding year where the turnover of the assessee was of INR 40.87 crores as compared to INR 308.94 crores in the year under appeal. It is the settled principle of business that higher turnover could be achieved by lowering the profit margins. In the instant case, turnover of the assessee increased multi-fold which fact cannot be ignored by estimating the income.
As already held that provisions of section 145(3) cannot be invoked in the present case, G.P. rate declared by the assessee cannot be disturbed. Accordingly, the addition made by applying G.P rate of 1.22% is hereby, deleted.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether proceedings under section 153C could validly sustain disallowance of depreciation by reducing the cost of a commissioned power plant on the basis of seized third-party documents/soft data and third-party statements, when the seized material related to earlier years and did not establish a document-wise nexus with the assessment years in question.
(ii) Whether depreciation could be disallowed by treating part of capitalised project cost as "bogus" where (a) the plant was demonstrably constructed, commissioned and functional, (b) alleged bogus transactions were between the contractor and its sub-contractors, and (c) the allegation rested substantially on retracted statements and uncorroborated excel data.
(iii) Whether a one-day delay in deposit of employees' contribution to provident fund, allegedly caused by technical/system glitches after online generation of challan within due date, warranted disallowance under section 36(1)(va) read with section 2(24)(x).
(iv) Whether reversal of earlier recognised insurance-claim income, on receipt of surveyor/settlement recommendation limiting the claim, was allowable as an expense/adjustment in the relevant year.
(v) Whether depreciation on new assets claimed to have been acquired and put to use during the year could be denied for want of complete supporting purchase/put-to-use evidence, and whether remand for verification was warranted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Validity of section 153C action and disallowance of depreciation by reducing project cost as "bogus"
Legal framework (as discussed/applied by the Court): The Court applied the requirement that action and additions under section 153C must be founded on incriminating seized material that pertains to the relevant assessment years and has a nexus with the income sought to be assessed. The Court also applied the principle that statements alone, particularly when retracted and uncorroborated, do not substitute for seized incriminating material.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the work under the engineering/procurement/construction contract was in fact executed and the plant stood commissioned and operational, supported by invoices and completion/monitoring documentation referred to in the order. The alleged incriminating documents seized during search were work orders, acceptances, guarantees, bills and digital excel data relating to transactions between the contractor and its sub-contractors, and were incidentally connected to an earlier period (financial year 2010-11 / assessment year 2011-12). The Court accepted the appellate finding that the seized material did not support the inference that the assessee had entered into a dubious arrangement to inflate cost, and further noted an internal inconsistency relied upon by the appellate authority: certain digital entries were for January 2011, whereas sub-contract work orders were issued in March 2011, making the "kickback prior to sub-contract" inference implausible on the seized record. The Court emphasised that no independent enquiry was made with relevant third parties or monitoring institutions to corroborate the allegation, no evidence was found of any kickback receipt by the assessee, and the alleged arrangement was not shown through any admissible documentary linkage between the assessee and the sub-contractors.
On evidentiary weight, the Court held that the assessment substantially rested on oral statements of third parties; one key statement was retracted shortly after recording, thereby losing reliability absent corroboration, and the excel sheets relied upon were not treated as incriminating seized material against the assessee and were unsupported by primary records. The Court concluded that, in the absence of corroborative incriminating material connecting the assessee to alleged bogus capital cost, disallowance of depreciation by reducing project cost was unsustainable. It also noted that the alleged payments forming the basis of the "bogus cost" related to earlier years, and the Department had not disturbed the recorded project cost in the year(s) of incurrence; therefore, depreciation on the brought-forward capitalised cost could not be denied on the material relied upon.
Conclusions: The Court upheld deletion of depreciation disallowance for the relevant years where it was made on the alleged "bogus" portion of capitalised cost, holding that the Revenue failed to establish, through incriminating seized material and corroboration, any inflation/over-invoicing or kickback receipt by the assessee; reliance on retracted statements and uncorroborated excel data was insufficient. The Revenue's appeals on this depreciation issue for multiple years were dismissed by applying the same reasoning where facts were identical.
Issue (iii): Disallowance of employees' PF contribution for one-day delay attributed to technical glitch
Legal framework (as discussed/applied): The Court considered the rule that employees' contribution is disallowable if deposited beyond the due date under the relevant welfare legislation, but accepted that exceptional circumstances such as technical/system glitches may warrant relief if payment action was initiated within due date and delay was not attributable to the assessee.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the challan timestamps and found that the challan was generated online within the due date, while "presentation/realisation" reflected a later date consistent with system/banking processing issues. However, the Court found an evidentiary gap: it was not clear whether sufficient bank balance existed during the period between challan generation and realisation.
Conclusions: The matter was not finally allowed outright; the Court directed the assessing authority to verify availability of sufficient bank balance during the relevant period, and if sufficient balance existed, no disallowance should be made as the delay was attributable to technical glitches. The ground was partly allowed for statistical purposes with remand directions.
Issue (iv): Allowability of reversal of earlier recognised insurance-claim income (reduction in insurance claim)
Legal framework (as discussed/applied): The Court accepted that where an amount was earlier recognised/offered as income on a reasonable basis and later becomes not receivable due to limitation/settlement, the difference can be adjusted in the year of crystallisation; it approved the appellate analogy to bad debt-type adjustment, with the safeguard that any later recovery would be taxable in the year of receipt.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that earlier recognition of insurance-claim income had not been disputed in those years. Upon receipt of the surveyor's report/recommendation limiting the claim, the assessee reversed the excess income previously recognised and debited it under "other expenses" as reduction in insurance claim. The Court accepted that the limiting information was received before signing the financial statements and therefore appropriately accounted in the year under appeal. It also recorded that the assessee had losses in the relevant years and treated the issue as not causing revenue prejudice on timing.
Conclusions: Deletion of the disallowance was upheld; the reduction in insurance claim was allowable in the relevant year, subject to taxation of any subsequent excess recovery if received later.
Issue (v): Depreciation on new assets allegedly purchased and put to use-lack of complete evidence and remand
Legal framework (as discussed/applied): Depreciation allowance depends on proof of acquisition and put to use. Where the claim is denied for lack of evidence but the assessee seeks an opportunity to furnish complete documentation, remand for verification may be ordered in the interest of justice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the sole basis for disallowance was failure to furnish complete purchase bills/e-way bills and proof of put-to-use, though the assessee asserted it had furnished sample documents and the remaining documents were voluminous. The Revenue did not oppose verification on remand.
Conclusions: The issue was set aside to the assessing authority to verify purchase/supporting documents and put-to-use evidence; depreciation is to be allowed in accordance with law upon such verification. The assessee's ground was partly allowed for statistical purposes.
Assessment u/s 153C - Disallowance of depreciation claimed towards the total cost of power plant - includes cost alleged as bogus thus, the cost to the extent of this sum could not form part of total cost capitalized during the year of power plant owned by the assessee situated at Annupur, Madhya Pradesh - HELD THAT:- As based on oral evidences in the shape of retracted statements the genuinely incurred expenses could not held as bogus. It is settled law that solely oral evidence cannot be relied upon to dispute or negate documentary evidence that too in the situation when such statements were retracted by the person who made them. What is most relevant is that there must exists some corroborative material on record to establish the link between the oral evidence and expenses claimed alleged as bogus in the shape of payment to alleged sub-contractors and to support the allegation that cash was generated through these sub-contractors and received back by the assessee company or any person related to its management. The entire link is missing in this case and the allegation of AO that sub-contractors had paid cash to the assessee in its offshore is without any basis. It is settled legal position that satisfaction must be based on seized material and merely on assumption and presumptions no addition could be made in the case of assessment completed u/s 153C.
Hon’ble Delhi High Court in Saksham Commodities Ltd. [2024 (4) TMI 461 - DELHI HIGH COURT] has held that “unless the material gathered and recovered is found to have relevancy to the AY which is sought to be subjected to action u/s 153C, it would be legally impermissible for the respondents to invoke those provisions. Consequently, the AO would be bound to ascertain and identify the year to which the material recovered relates. The years which could be then subjected to action under Section 153C would have to necessarily be those in respect of which the assessment is likely to be influenced or impacted by the material discovered”
Excel sheets provided by Shri Saxena cannot be considered as incriminating documents for commencing and justifying the proceedings under section 153C of the Act against the assessee.
We are of the view that the AO has failed to establish any direct or indirect relationship between the assessee company and the Five sub- contractors who were alleged as bogus solely on the basis of retracted statements of Shri Paras Mal Lodha. Moreover, no material was brough on record to hold that cash were generated through inflating the cost of the power plant, and then these funds were sent for the benefit of management of the assessee company through Shri Paras Mal Lodha. We have already hold that the excel sheets recovered from/produced by Mr Lodha and/or Mr Saxena has no legal sanctity as these are not legally admissible evidence. Further all the payments alleged as bogus were made in the financial year 2010-11 and no action was taken by the department in that year to doubt the cost recorded in the books of accounts.
CIT(A) was justified in deleting the disallowance made by AO out of depreciation which order is hereby upheld. Accordingly, all the grounds of appeal raised by the revenue are dismissed.
Addition u/s 2(24)(x) r.w.s. 36(1) (va) - delay in deposit of employees' contribution to PF despite the fact that the said amount was deposited before the due date of filing of return of income - HELD THAT:- Though the judgement delivered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Checkmate Services P. Ltd. [2022 (10) TMI 617 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] provides that no deduction should be allowed for delayed payments of employee’s contribution towards PF however, exceptional circumstances should be considered. In the present case, as observed above, assessee has been able to demonstrate that challan was deposited within due date and due to technical glitches, it was realized beyond the due date.
Thus, by respectfully following the judgement of Tandem Data Processing Pvt. Ltd. [2025 (9) TMI 352 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] and also FIL India Business & Research Services (P) Ltd. [2023 (9) TMI 906 - ITAT DELHI] wherein it is held that where the delay is due to technical glitches and the circumstances were beyond the control of the assessee, no disallowance should be made u/s 36(i)(va) of the Act. Accordingly, we direct the AO to verify whether sufficient balance was available in the bank account of the assessee during the period from 13.06.2017 till 19.6.2017 when the payment was realized, and if so, no disallowance be made for such technical glitches.
Depreciation on assets including plant, machinery and other equipment put to use during the month of March, 2021 - HELD THAT:- As seen that solitary reason for disallowing the depreciation on the new assets purchased and put to use during the year was that the assessee failed to produce all the necessary evidences of purchases and put them for use. Before us, it is prayed by AR that if one more opportunity is given, assessee will produce all the requisite details in support of claim of depreciation. Thus, in the larger interest of justice, we set aside the issue to the file of AO and direct the assessee to produce all the bills and vouchers with respect to new assets purchased.
Addition on account of reduction in insurance claim - as per revenue complete details were not filed, and it is not clear whether the claim was finally settled - HELD THAT:- The assessee’s claim is duly supported by the respective details and it is also a matter of fact that in all the assessment years, there were loss declared by the assessee therefore, even otherwise no loss to the revenue if the claim was made during the year under appeal or was reduced from the total income for the respective Assessment Years i.e. 2017-18 & 2018-19. Accordingly, we uphold the order of Ld.CIT(A) on this issue. Grounds of appeal Nos. 1 & 2 raised by the Revenue are dismissed.
Disallowance of depreciation claimed on the Written down value of the Power plant owned and operated by the assessee - as alleged same as part of the bogus cost recorded in the books of accounts through bogus billings - AO has not made any disallowance in the AY 2019-20 and 2020-21 out of depreciation claimed on the cost incurred of 242.33 crores in FY 2010-11 and had disallowed the same for the first time in AY 2016-17 when power plant was put to use and assessee capitalized the total cost of power plant from Work-in- progress brought forwards from earlier years. As there is no change in the circumstances as existed in AY 2016-17 and the year under appeal, which fact is admitted by both the parties during the course of hearing, therefore, ground of assessee allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether revision under section 263 was sustainable on the ground that the Assessing Officer inadequately examined the allowability of deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) on interest earned from deposits/investments with co-operative banks.
(ii) Whether revision under section 263 was sustainable on the ground that the Assessing Officer failed to examine/incorrectly allowed a debit described as "NPA provision".
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Section 263 revision regarding section 80P(2)(a)(i) deduction on interest from deposits with co-operative banks
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal applied the settled requirement that for invoking section 263 the "twin conditions" must coexist: the assessment order must be erroneous and also prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. Where the Assessing Officer adopts a plausible view after considering the material, the order cannot be treated as "erroneous" merely because the revisional authority prefers another view.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found from the record that the Assessing Officer issued a questionnaire specifically requiring justification of the section 80P claim, and the assessee furnished a written explanation supporting eligibility. After considering those submissions, the Assessing Officer allowed the deduction. The Tribunal also noted that under similar circumstances in an earlier year the deduction had been allowed in scrutiny assessment. On these facts, the Tribunal held that the assessment was not a case of "no enquiry"; rather, the Assessing Officer took a view after calling for and considering the explanation. The Tribunal further treated the Assessing Officer's approach as being in line with coordinate bench decisions, reinforcing that the view taken was at least plausible.
Conclusion: Even if the outcome could be viewed as adverse to Revenue, the Tribunal held the order was not erroneous because a plausible view had been taken after enquiry. Consequently, section 263 could not be sustained on this issue.
(ii) Section 263 revision regarding allowance of "NPA provision" debit
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal again applied the section 263 twin-condition test and assessed whether the alleged failure regarding the "NPA provision" made the assessment order both erroneous and prejudicial.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted the assessee's contention that, on the facts before it, the revisional direction on the "NPA provision" did not justify section 263 interference in the circumstances of this case. It relied on a coordinate bench decision dealing with the same two revision grounds (interest from co-operative bank deposits and NPA provision) and, finding the facts identical, followed that decision. The Tribunal therefore treated the revisional exercise as not meeting the statutory threshold for section 263 interference once the assessment involved a permissible view and the coordinate bench precedent governed the controversy.
Conclusion: Following the coordinate bench decision on identical facts, the Tribunal held that section 263 revision was not maintainable on the "NPA provision" ground as well.
Final determination
The Tribunal set aside the revisional order under section 263 and allowed the appeal, holding that the assessment order could not be treated as "erroneous" within the meaning of section 263 when the Assessing Officer had made enquiry and adopted a plausible view, and where identical issues were already covered by coordinate bench rulings applied by the Tribunal.
Revision u/s 263 - eligibility for claiming deduction u/s. 80P(2)(a)(i) - as per CIT AO has not properly examined the allowability of deduction u/s. 80P(2)(a)(i) on the interest income earned from deposits of surplus funds made with various banks
HELD THAT:- A perusal of the questionnaire issued by the AO shows that vide letter dated 15/02/2022, the AO at clause (f) has asked the assessee to justify its claim of deduction u/s. 80P. We find the assessee vide submissions has justified its claim of deduction u/s. 80P. We find, after considering the reply given by the assessee, the AO passed the order allowing deduction u/s. 80P.
A perusal of the assessment order for A.Y. 2018-19, shows that AO in the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3), dated 02/02/2021 has allowed the claim of deduction u/s. 80P.
When the AO after considering the submissions made by the assessee has allowed the claim of deduction u/s. 80P(2)(a)(i) which is in line with the decisions of the coordinate Benches of the Tribunal, therefore, the order passed by the AO, in our opinion, cannot be held to be erroneous. It has been held, in various decisions, that in order to invoke the provisions of section 263, the twin conditions namely; (i) the order is erroneous, and (ii) the order is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue must be fulfilled. In the instant case, although the order may be prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, however, it cannot be said that the order is erroneous, since the AO has taken a plausible view.
As relying on Shrisant Savtamali Gramin Bigarsheti Sahakari Patsanstha Maryadit [2025 (7) TMI 1951 - ITAT PUNE] we set aside the order passed by the PCIT u/s. 263 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.Appeal filed by the Assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether exemption claimed under section 11 could be disallowed at processing stage on the stated ground that the audit report in Form No. 10B was not e-filed one month prior to the due date, when Form No. 10B and Form No. 9A were stated to have been uploaded and e-verified within the extended due date and were available on record at the time of processing.
(ii) Whether the assessing authority should be directed to verify the filing/availability of Form No. 10B and Form No. 9A within the extended due date and, upon such verification, delete the additions/disallowance made in respect of exemption for charitable purposes and deemed application.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Disallowance of section 11 exemption due to alleged non-filing/late filing of Form No. 10B and mismatch with Form No. 9A
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court considered the assessee's claim of exemption under section 11, the requirement of audit and audit report in Form No. 10B, and the filing of Form No. 9A for deemed application, in the context of processing under section 143(1).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the assessee's submission that the due date for filing the return stood extended and that the relevant forms were filed within such extended timeline. It recorded that Form No. 10B was uploaded on 13.03.2022 and e-verified by the Trust, and Form No. 9A was e-verified on 12.03.2022. The Court further proceeded on the basis that both forms were available on record at the time of processing. On these facts, it found no justification to disallow the exemption for charitable purposes and the claimed deemed application merely on the grounds reflected in the processing adjustment, when the forms were stated to be available before the processing authority.
Conclusions: The Court held that, if Form No. 10B and Form No. 9A were filed/e-verified within the extended due date and were available on record at the time of processing, disallowance of the exemption claim and deemed application was unjustified.
Issue (ii): Direction for verification and consequential deletion of additions/disallowance
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court addressed the correction of the processing outcome by directing verification by the assessing authority with respect to the filing of the requisite forms within time.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the assessee asserted timely uploading and e-verification of Form No. 10B and Form No. 9A within the extended due date, the Court considered verification to be the appropriate course. It reasoned that once verified, the assessee would be entitled to exemption on account of application of income for charitable purposes and the corresponding deemed application.
Conclusions: The Court directed the assessing authority to verify the assessee's claim regarding filing of Form No. 10B and Form No. 9A within the extended due date and, upon such verification, to delete the additions/disallowance made. The appeal was allowed accordingly.
Denial of exemption claimed u/s 11 - Trust has not E-filed the Audit Report in Form 10B one month prior to the due date for furnishing return u/s 139(1) -HELD THAT:- As submitted by the assessee that since the due date was extended, therefore, Form No. 9A was separately filed in time. In any case, if both Form No. 9A and Form No. 10B were available at the time of processing of the return of income as Form No. 10B was uploaded by the assessee on 13.03.2022 and was e-verified by the Trust and Form No. 9A was also e-verified on 12.03.2022, therefore, there was no justification for disallowance of the claim of exemption of income for charitable purposes and the deemed application of income as both the forms were available on record.
AO is directed to verify the claim of the assessee regarding filing of these forms within the extended due and delete the additions made as the assessee is entitled to exemption on account of application of income for charitable purposes. Assessee appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the entire cash deposits in the bank account could be assessed as unexplained cash credit under section 68 when the deposits were found to pertain to the assessee's regular grain trading business.
(ii) Whether, in the facts accepted by the appellate authority, it was permissible to replace the section 68 addition with an estimation of business income by applying a net profit rate on the cash deposits treated as business receipts.
(iii) Whether any separate addition was warranted merely because the receipts shown in the return were lower than the total cash deposits (including the alleged excess amount), despite acceptance that the deposits related to business activity.
(iv) Whether the contention regarding applicability/violation of section 44AB (audit requirement) justified interference with the estimation approach and restoration for fresh assessment.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i) & (ii): Sustainability of section 68 addition on total cash deposits vs. estimation of business income
Legal framework: The Court considered the assessment which had treated the full credit side of the bank account as unexplained cash credit under section 68, and the appellate order which treated the deposits as arising from the assessee's business and directed estimation of net profit at a fixed percentage on the deposits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellate authority recorded a clear factual finding that the assessee was carrying on grain merchant business and that the deposits in the concerned bank account pertained to that business; it also noted that the assessment order itself accepted the existence of business activity. On those accepted facts, the appellate authority held that adding the entire cash deposits as unexplained under section 68 was not correct, and that a more reasonable method was to estimate income from sales by applying a net profit rate. The Tribunal examined the record and found no error in this approach, particularly because the deposits were treated as business-related receipts rather than unexplained credits.
Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld deletion of the section 68 addition on the entire cash deposits and affirmed substitution of that addition with estimated business income computed by applying an 8% net profit rate on the total cash deposits treated as business receipts.
Issue (iii): Whether an additional section 68 addition was required for the difference between receipts shown in the return and total cash deposits
Legal framework: The contention was advanced that the return disclosed receipts lower than total cash deposits, and therefore the differential should be added as unexplained credit under section 68.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the appellate authority had accepted the deposits as relating to regular grain business and had already directed estimation of income at 8% on the entire cash deposits figure. Since the estimation was applied on the full amount of deposits, the premise for carving out a further section 68 addition on the alleged difference did not survive on the facts as accepted by the appellate authority and affirmed by the Tribunal.
Conclusion: No separate addition was directed on the alleged differential; the Tribunal dismissed the challenge and sustained estimation on the full deposit base.
Issue (iv): Effect of alleged non-compliance with section 44AB on the outcome
Legal framework: The Revenue contended that receipts exceeded the audit threshold and therefore section 44AB was violated, seeking remand for fresh assessment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal, after considering the totality of facts and the appellate authority's treatment of deposits as business receipts with income estimated at 8%, found no error warranting interference or remand. The Tribunal did not accept the audit-related contention as a ground to overturn the estimation-based resolution adopted by the appellate authority.
Conclusion: The Tribunal declined to set aside or remand the matter on the basis of the section 44AB contention and dismissed the Revenue's grounds.
Unexplained cash credit u/s 68 - estimation of @ 8% net profit - as per DR total receipts of the assessee are more than Rs. 1 crore and therefore the assessee was required to get his accounts audited and the assessee has violated the provisions of section 44AB - HELD THAT:- CIT(A)/NFAC has partly allowed the appeal of the assessee wherein he has accepted the contention of the assessee that he is involved in business of grain merchant and the whole of the deposits made in the impugned account maintained with M/s Shri Renuka Mata Multi State Urban Cooperative Society pertains to his grain business and accordingly Ld.
CIT(A)/NFAC deleted the addition made by the AO u/s 68 of the IT Act and further directed to estimate @ 8% net profit i.e. the amount deposited by the assessee in the account maintained with M/s Shri Renuka Mata Multi State Urban Cooperative Society.
No error in the order passed by CIT(A)/NFAC and accordingly, the grounds of appeal raised by the Revenue are dismissed.
Issues: Whether the petitioner was entitled to release of the imported goods pending the statutory appeal, in view of the amended Quality Control Order, the petitioner's MSME status, and the CESTAT order staying the impugned adjudication order.
Analysis: The amended Medical Textiles (Quality Control) Order, issued in exercise of powers under the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, applied to declared stock of sanitary napkins and panty liners and, after the 30.07.2025 amendment, extended the benefit expressly to an importer as well as a manufacturer, provided the goods were imported before the relevant cut-off date and did not bear the standard mark. The petitioner was an importer, held UDYAM registration as a small enterprise, and the goods were covered by the same order. The CESTAT had also allowed the miscellaneous application and stayed the order-in-original pending appeal. The Court held that an office memorandum could not override the statutory order and that judicial orders of the tribunal had to be given effect.
Conclusion: The petitioner was entitled to release of the goods, subject to deposit of Rs. 15,00,000/- within 24 hours, and the respondent was directed to release the consignments forthwith.
Ratio Decidendi: A statutory quality control order, as amended, prevails over an administrative clarification, and where the importer falls within the amended exemption and the adjudication order stands stayed by the appellate tribunal, provisional release can be directed subject to appropriate conditions.
Entitlement for release of goods on the basis of CESTAT order - appeal still pending before the jurisdictional Tribunal - applicability of time limitation - manufacturer or an importer is permitted to sell, display or offer to sell, the declared stock only up till 31.12.2025 - HELD THAT:- The first amendment order was issued on 01.01.2025. It only enabled a manufacturer to sell or display or offer to sell the declared stocks up till 30.06.2025. By an amendment on 30.07.2025, in addition to the word ‘manufacturer’, the word ‘importer’ had been inserted. Insofar as schedules are concerned, it remained unaffected - That the petitioner is an importer is not in dispute. UDYAM Registration granted to the petitioner as a small enterprise is also not in dispute. That being the situation, the petitioner, being an importer and a small enterprise as per the MSME Act, would in my view, be entitled to the benefit of the amended order dated 30.07.2025. In other words, the petitioner would be entitled to sell, display or offer to sell the declared stocks up till 31.12.2025.
Under Section 125 of the Customs Act, the adjudicating officer has the option to give to the owner of the goods, even if the importation or exportation of the goods are prohibited under the Customs Act or any other law for the time being in force, the option to pay a fine in lieu of confiscation - in terms of Article 261 of the Constitution of India, “full faith and credit” has to be given to judicial orders. CESTAT is a quasi judicial authority. It has kept the order-in-original in abeyance and had allowed the application. Hence, the respondent has to comply with the same.
There shall be a direction to the respondent to forthwith release the goods imported - the release is subject to the petitioner deposing a sum of Rs. 15,00,000/- directly to the account of the respondent within 24 hours from today - In case of failure to deposit the aforesaid amount, the petitioner will not entitled for the benefit of this order.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a writ petition seeking release of detained/seized imported consignments survives once a show cause notice culminates in an adjudication order directing absolute confiscation of the goods.
(ii) What relief, if any, should be granted in the writ jurisdiction when the petitioner remains unrepresented and does not participate in departmental adjudication, and an order-in-original has already been passed against the petitioner.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Maintainability/tenability of the writ petition seeking release after absolute confiscation by Order-in-Original
Legal framework (as discussed/applied by the Court): The Court proceeds on the basis that the departmental adjudication has culminated in an Order-in-Original directing absolute confiscation (under the Customs Act provisions referenced in the Order-in-Original), and treats that adjudication outcome as determinative of whether a writ for release can continue.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the relief originally sought was release of seized chemicals. During pendency, a show cause notice was issued and, thereafter, an Order-in-Original was passed directing absolute confiscation of the seized consignment along with penalties. Once absolute confiscation has been ordered, the premise for release of the same goods through the pending writ petition no longer subsists. The Court therefore held that the petition seeking release cannot be maintained after the confiscation order and becomes infructuous.
Conclusion: The writ petition was held to be no longer tenable and was disposed of as infructuous because the seized goods had already been directed to be absolutely confiscated by the Order-in-Original.
Issue (ii): Appropriate relief in writ jurisdiction in light of petitioner's non-appearance and availability of alternative remedies against the Order-in-Original
Legal framework (as discussed/applied by the Court): The Court recognized that remedies "in accordance with law" remain available to challenge the Order-in-Original, and confined its writ disposition to that observation rather than granting release-related relief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized that the petitioner remained unrepresented in the writ proceedings and had also failed to appear in the departmental proceedings, despite being aware that proceedings were ongoing concerning the seized goods and the request for provisional release. Given that adjudication had concluded in an Order-in-Original, the Court refrained from examining merits relating to release and instead noted that the petitioner's course is to pursue statutory remedies against the adjudication order.
Conclusion: No release/provisional release was granted. The petition (and pending application) was disposed of, leaving the petitioner to avail remedies in accordance with law against the Order-in-Original.
Seeking release of the consignments imported by the Petitioner Company which are detained by the Custom authorities - seizure of goods on the ground that incorrect exemptions were being claimed by the Petitioner - HELD THAT:- The OIO pursuant to the SCN has, therefore, been passed in the absence of the Petitioner as they have failed to appear. The Petitioner, despite being fully aware of the proceedings that have been going on, as the goods have been confiscated and this petition has been filed seeking provisional release, chose to not appear before the Customs Department during the course of the proceedings.
The Court notes that even today, none appears for the Petitioner in the matter. Since the SCN has already been issued in the case and absolute confiscation of the seized consignment has been directed vide the OIO dated 28th October, 2025, this writ petition is no longer tenable and has become infructuous.
The Petitioner is, however, left to avail of its remedies in accordance with law in respect of the OIO dated 28th October, 2025 which has been passed by the Department - Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a writ petition seeking release of detained/seized imported consignments remains tenable after adjudication has culminated in an Order-in-Original directing absolute confiscation and destruction of the goods with imposition of penalties.
(ii) What relief, if any, should be granted when the petitioner does not appear and does not participate in departmental adjudication despite issuance of a show cause notice and opportunities of personal hearing.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Tenability of writ seeking release after Order-in-Original directing absolute confiscation
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court proceeded on the factual position that the customs adjudication had concluded in an Order-in-Original directing confiscation under the Customs Act, 1962 (including confiscation under section 111(d) and penalties under sections 112(a)(i), 117 and 114AA), and noted the availability of remedies "in accordance with law" against that order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the petition was filed to seek release of five consignments which had been seized. During pendency, a show cause notice was issued proposing confiscation and penalties, and thereafter an Order-in-Original was passed directing absolute confiscation and destruction of the goods, along with penalties. Once the competent authority had finally adjudicated the matter and ordered confiscation, the relief of "release of goods" sought in the writ no longer survived in the same form; the controversy stood overtaken by the final adjudication order.
Conclusion: The writ petition seeking release of the seized goods was held to be no longer tenable and had become infructuous in view of the subsequent Order-in-Original directing absolute confiscation and destruction.
Issue (ii): Effect of petitioner's non-appearance and appropriate relief
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court relied on the record of adjudication reflecting grant of opportunities consistent with the "Principle of Natural Justice," including multiple dates fixed for personal hearing, and the petitioner's non-response.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded that the petitioner remained unrepresented even in the writ proceedings and also failed to appear before the customs authorities despite summons and personal hearing opportunities recorded in the Order-in-Original. The Court treated the adjudication as having proceeded after opportunities were granted, and noted that the petitioner, though aware of the proceedings (having filed the writ seeking provisional release), chose not to participate. In these circumstances, the Court did not grant any substantive relief on release and confined itself to noting the petitioner's statutory/other remedies against the final order.
Conclusion: No relief for release was granted. The petition was disposed of as infructuous, while expressly leaving the petitioner at liberty to pursue remedies available in law against the Order-in-Original.
Seeking release of the consignments imported by the Petitioner Company which are detained by the Custom authorities - seizure of goods on the ground that incorrect exemptions were being claimed by the Petitioner - HELD THAT:- The OIO pursuant to the SCN has, therefore, been passed in the absence of the Petitioner as they have failed to appear. The Petitioner, despite being fully aware of the proceedings that have been going on, as the goods have been confiscated and this petition has been filed seeking provisional release, chose to not appear before the Customs Department during the course of the proceedings.
The Court notes that even today, none appears for the Petitioner in the matter. Since the SCN has already been issued in the case and absolute confiscation of the seized consignment has been directed vide the OIO dated 17th September, 2025, this writ petition is no longer tenable and has become infructuous.
The Petitioner is, however, left to avail of its remedies in accordance with law in respect of the OIO dated 17th September, 2025 which has been passed by the Department - Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the Court could issue a writ of mandamus directing the State authorities to issue a circular/clarificatory instruction declaring that entry tax is not payable on import/procurement of goods by a Special Economic Zone unit.
(ii) Whether, notwithstanding the refusal to direct issuance of a circular, the Court should permit and/or require the State authorities to consider and dispose of the petitioner's pending representation, given that the underlying exemption dispute was already urged before the Tribunal and was stated to be pending before the Supreme Court with protective orders in place.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Mandamus to compel issuance of a circular/clarification on entry tax liability for an SEZ unit
Legal framework: The Court dealt with the permissibility of issuing a "mandatory direction" in writ jurisdiction in the specific context of directing the executive authorities to issue a circular/clarificatory instruction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it "apparent" that the petitioner had already urged before the Tribunal the same substantive point-exemption from tax under West Bengal State laws by reason of operating a manufacturing unit in an SEZ-and that the matter was stated to be pending before the Supreme Court. In that situation, the Court held that it could not grant a mandatory direction requiring the State authorities to issue a circular or clarification "of the nature sought for," especially when the issue was sub judice before the Supreme Court.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively declined to issue mandamus compelling the State authorities to issue the requested circular/clarification regarding entry tax non-payability for SEZ units.
Issue (ii): Whether the authorities may still consider and dispose of the pending representation despite the pendency before the Supreme Court
Legal framework: The Court addressed the scope of permissible administrative action during pendency of proceedings before the Supreme Court and the need to avoid violating any order passed by the Supreme Court.
Interpretation and reasoning: While refusing to compel issuance of a circular, the Court clarified that its order would not prevent the State authorities from "considering and disposing of" the petitioner's representation dated October 13, 2025. The Court conditioned such consideration on being "in accordance with law" and "without in any manner violating any order passed" by the Supreme Court, and directed that it be done "as expeditiously as possible." The Court also expressly refrained from expressing any opinion on the merits of the petitioner's claim or on the representation.
Conclusion: The Court permitted (and effectively encouraged) the State authorities to consider and dispose of the representation promptly, subject to compliance with law and non-violation of the Supreme Court's orders, while keeping the merits open.
Seeking to consider the petitioner’s representation and to issue necessary circulars/ clarification - petitioner has set up a solar module manufacturing facility at the Falta Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in the State of West Bengal - petitioner exempt from tax, duties, levies and cess payable under the provisions of West Bengal State Laws - It has been submitted by the parties that the matter is presently pending before the Hon’ble Supreme Court - HELD THAT:- In such of the view of the matter no mandatory direction can be passed directing the respondent-state authorities to issue a circular or clarificatory instruction of the nature sought for by the petitioner. However, this order shall not prevent the respondents-State Authorities from considering and disposing of the petitioner’s representation dated October 13, 2025, in accordance with law and without in any manner violating any order passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, as expeditiously as possible. Needless to mention that this Court has not expressed any opinion on the merits of the petitioner’s case or on the representation dated October 13, 2025.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the imported product, described as a micronutrient fertilizer containing magnesium, zinc, boron and a small quantity of phosphorus, is classifiable under tariff item 3105 90 90 as an other fertilizer, or under heading 3824 as a chemical preparation not elsewhere specified or included.
Analysis: Classification under heading 3105 depends on Note 6 to Chapter 31, which applies only to products used as fertilizers and containing, as an essential constituent, at least one of the fertilizing elements nitrogen, phosphorus or potassium. The product was found to be a micronutrient preparation in which magnesium and zinc predominated, while phosphorus was present only in a comparatively insignificant quantity and did not provide the essential character of the goods. The FCO licence and inclusion in the FCO schedule did not control tariff classification. The circular on micronutrients clarified that mixtures whose essential character is predominately trace elements are excluded from Chapter 31 and fall under heading 3824, and micronutrient preparations containing small amounts of fertilizing elements but not as essential constituents are also excluded from Chapter 31.
Conclusion: The product is not classifiable under tariff item 3105 90 90 and is classifiable under heading 3824, specifically tariff item 3824 99 90.
Ratio Decidendi: For heading 3105, the fertilizing element must be an essential constituent giving the product its essential character; a micronutrient preparation in which trace elements predominate and phosphorus is only incidental falls outside Chapter 31 and within heading 3824.
Classification under Chapter 31 / Heading 3105 as "other fertilizers" - essential constituent (presence of Nitrogen, Phosphorus or Potassium) - General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) - HSN Explanatory Notes (General exclusion of micronutrient preparations) - CBIC Circular No. 1022/10/2016-CX - classification of micronutrients and mixtures - Fertilizer (Inorganic, Organic or Mixed) (Control) Order, 1985 (FCO) - recognition/parameters for micronutrient fertilizers - classification under CTH 3824 (chemical products not elsewhere specified)
Classification under Chapter 31 / Heading 3105 as "other fertilizers" - essential constituent (presence of Nitrogen, Phosphorus or Potassium) - CBIC Circular No. 1022/10/2016-CX - classification of micronutrients and mixtures - classification under CTH 3824 (chemical products not elsewhere specified) - HSN Explanatory Notes (General exclusion of micronutrient preparations) - Classification of YaraVita Bud Builder (Magnesium Hydroxide and Zinc Phosphate Micronutrient Fertilizer) - HELD THAT: - The Authority analysed the product composition as furnished in the TDS, COC and MSDS and found the product to be a mixture whose predominant constituents are Magnesium (24%) and Zinc (10%), with Phosphorus present only in a comparatively small quantity (2.5% as per COC; 6.9% per TDS). Applying the GRI and Chapter 31 Note 6, the Authority observed that classification as "other fertilizers" under Heading 3105 requires that at least one of the primary fertilizing elements (Nitrogen, Phosphorus or Potassium) be present as an essential constituent providing the product's essential character. The CBIC Circular No.1022/10/2016-CX and the HSN General Explanatory Note were held to be determinative: they state that micronutrient preparations which contain only small amounts of N/P/K, or mixtures whose essential character is predominately micronutrients/trace elements, are excluded from Chapter 31 and are to be classified elsewhere (for example under Chapter 28/38) unless a primary element (N/P/K) gives the product its essential character. Although the product is recognised under the FCO as a micronutrient fertilizer, the Authority held that FCO recognition does not override the Chapter/HSN scheme and the CBIC circular for tariff classification. On the composition and applicable interpretative notes and circular, Phosphorus was held not to be the essential constituent imparting the product's essential character; rather Mg and Zn (secondary and micronutrients) predominate. Consequently the product does not fall within Heading 3105 and, lacking a specific heading for the chemically undefined mixture, is classifiable as a chemical preparation "not elsewhere specified" under CTH 3824 (specifically the residual item under 3824 99 90/38249900). [Paras 21, 26, 33]
YaraVita Bud Builder is excluded from Chapter 31/CTH 3105 and is classifiable under CTH 3824 (CTI 38249900 - other).
Final Conclusion: Advance ruling: the product "YaraVita Bud Builder (Magnesium Hydroxide and Zinc Phosphate Micronutrient Fertilizer)" is not classifiable under Heading 3105 as an "other fertilizer" but is classifiable under Chapter 38, CTH 3824 (residual item/CTI 38249900).
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the "Solitaire AB Stent", an implantable intracranial neurovascular stent used in endovascular treatment of cerebral aneurysms, is classifiable under Customs Tariff Heading 9021 as an "artificial part of the body" under sub-heading 9021 39 00, or as an "other" implanted appliance under residual sub-heading 9021 90 90.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Correct sub-heading classification within Heading 9021 (9021 39 00 vs 9021 90 90)
Legal framework (as applied by the Court/Authority): The Authority applied the General Rules for Interpretation, principally Rule 1 (classification by the terms of headings/subheadings read with relevant notes) and proceeded to compare the competing subheadings within Heading 9021, assisted by the Explanatory Notes reproduced and relied upon for understanding the scope of "artificial parts of the body" and "other appliances ... implanted in the body, to compensate for a defect or disability".
Interpretation and reasoning: The Authority accepted that the product is an implantable device used inside brain blood vessels during treatment of wide-necked/complex cerebral aneurysms, functioning as a scaffold across the aneurysm neck to enable secure placement/retention of embolization coils and to maintain vessel patency. However, it held that classification under 9021 39 00 requires that the article must wholly or partially replace a defective body part (an anatomical substitution test), and that this replacement/substitution criterion is decisive. The Authority found that the stent does not replicate or substitute the vessel or aneurysm wall segment; rather, it therapeutically provides scaffolding to facilitate coil placement while the native vessel continues to exist around it. It therefore does not satisfy the essential requirement of being an "artificial part of the body" for 9021 39 00.
Conclusions: The claim for classification under 9021 39 00 was rejected because the device neither replaces nor substitutes an anatomical structure; it performs a therapeutic support function.
Issue 1 (continued): Applicability of residual entry 9021 90 90
Interpretation and reasoning: Having excluded the "artificial parts of the body" subcategory, the Authority held that the stent still falls within Heading 9021 at the four-digit level because it is an appliance implanted in the body to compensate for a defect/disability. The Authority then applied an elimination approach at the single-dash level and concluded that, since the product is not covered by specific preceding subheadings (including 9021 31/39), it falls under the residual category 9021 90 90. It treated 9021 90 90 as covering implantable/wearable medical appliances that compensate defects or disabilities but do not replace anatomy, and found that the stent's function of providing a scaffold facilitating secure placement of coils fits this scope.
Conclusions: The "Solitaire AB Stent" is classifiable under Tariff Heading 9021 and specifically under CTI 9021 90 90 as "Other".
Classification of imported Solitaire AB stent - classifiable under Customs Tariff Heading 9021 as an artificial part of the body under sub-heading 9021 39 00, or as an other implanted appliance under residual sub-heading 9021 90 90? - HELD THAT:- The tariff heading 9021 covers "orthopaedic appliances, including crutches, surgical belts and trusses; splints and other fracture appliances; artificial teeth and dental fittings, artificial parts of the body; hearing aids; and other appliances which are worn, carried, or implanted in the body to compensate for a defect or disability". Within this tariff heading, CTI 9021 39 00 constitutes a residual sub-category under "other artificial parts of the body" which includes implantable devices not specifically enumerated elsewhere in the heading. Similarly, CTI 9021 90 90 is a residual entry under the heading 9021 90, covering "parts and accessories of hearing aids" and "others". Thus, it is observed that both CTIs 9021 39 00 and CTI 9021 90 90 represent broad "other" categories, and their applicability depends on whether the impugned goods can be regarded as "artificial body parts" under 9021 39 00 or "other" appliances under 9021 90 90 intended to compensate for a defect or disability as contemplated under Heading 9021.
On examination of the product under consideration viz. "Solitaire AB Stent", it is observed that the product under consideration functions by providing a scaffold across the aneurysm neck and facilitating secure placement of embolization coils. It does not replicate or substitute the anatomical structure of the vessel or aneurysm wall but instead keeping embolization coils securely in place preventing from slipping in to main vessels. Its function is therefore therapeutic rather than structural replacement. The device is a self-contained implantable medical appliance and is not intended to act as an artificial part of the body in the sense contemplated under CTI 9021 31 00 or 9021 39 00.
The 'Solitaire AB stent' is used inside brain blood vessels (intracranial) during endovascular treatment acting as a support frame (scaffold) across the aneurysm opening, keeping Solitaire AB Stents securely in place, preventing them from slipping into the main vessel (parent artery), and ensuring the aneurysm is safely sealed (occlusion) - the goods "Solitaire AB Stent", is not a prosthetic substitute replacing a blood vessel or aneurysm wall segment but a therapeutic implant causing deliberate intravascular occlusion while the native blood vessel continues to exist around it which fails the anatomical replacement test under CTI 9021 31 00 and 9021 39 00.
The goods viz. "Solitaire AB Stent", is covered under the umbrella of Heading 9021 at the four-digit level, being a device implanted to compensate a defect. This is not contested. For selecting the correct single-dash and eight-digit classification, it is observed that competing entries must be at the same hierarchical level - thus, by elimination, CTI 9021 3100 and CTI 9021 39 00, are not applicable.
The goods viz. "Solitaire AB Stent", proposed to be imported by the Applicant, merits classification under Tariff Heading 9021 and specifically under CTI 9021 90 90.
Issues: Whether the imported Short Block Sub-Assembly was classifiable as parts of gas compressors of a kind used in refrigerating and air conditioning appliances and machinery under Tariff Item 84149011, or as a compressor in incomplete or unassembled form under Tariff Item 84143000.
Analysis: The classification was tested under Rule 1 and Rule 2(a) of the General Rules for the Interpretation of the Import Tariff, read with Section Note 2 to Section XVI. The imported goods were found to comprise the principal housing and mechanical components of a scroll compressor, but they did not include the scroll set, which is the component that performs the compression function and imparts the essential character of the finished compressor. The imported goods therefore did not answer the description of an incomplete compressor having the essential character of the complete article. The Authority also found that the goods were not presented as a compressor in unassembled or disassembled form, and that the post-import operations and additional components required in India were material to completion of the final compressor.
Conclusion: The Short Block Sub-Assembly is classifiable under Tariff Item 84149011 and not under Tariff Item 84143000.
Classification of Short Block Sub-Assembly being imported for manufacturing scroll compressors - classifiable under Tariff Item 84143000 or under 84149011? - HELD THAT:- A scroll compressor actually consists of two scrolls or spirals. One scroll is moving, whereas the second one is fixed (attached to the compressor body). The first scroll orbits (rotates) in a path defined by its mating fixed scroll. The orbiting scroll is connected to the compressor's crankshaft. As a result of the scroll's movement, gas pockets are formed between the two scrolls. At the outer part of the scrolls, the pockets suck in gas and then move towards the center of the scroll, where the compressed gas is discharged. As the gas moves into the continuously smaller internal pockets, both its temperature and pressure are increased. Thus, a desirable discharge pressure is achieved by the motion of the compressor scrolls.
Since the product i.e. Short Block Sub-assembly does not have the scroll set, which rotate by drive transferred by crankshaft and compress the gas, the question remains whether the product can be termed an incomplete machine and classified in the same heading as that of complete machine or it needs to be classified as parts of the machine i.e. scroll compressor in the subject matter.
In a number of Judgments, Hon'ble Supreme Court has held that The HSN explanatory notes are safe guide and provide an insight into classification matters and helps in resolution of various disputes.
The Short Block Sub-Assembly includes most of the vital components. However, it does not include all components which together make the subject goods i.e. Short Block Sub-Assembly have the essential character of a scroll compressor as the Scroll set, which perform the compression function, is not part of the Short Block Sub-Assembly. Since the product i.e. Short Block Sub-Assembly lacks the essential character of a compressor, therefore, it would be classified as parts under CTSH 8414 90 and specifically under CTI 8414 90 11 as 'parts of gas compressors of a kind used in refrigerating and air conditioning appliances and machinery'. Needless to say, that if at the time of import, this Short Block Sub-Assembly is imported with Scroll Set, then it would merit classification under CTI 8414 30 00 as it would modify and upgrade the subject goods to goods having the essential character of the Scroll Compressor and would be capable of performing the compression function.
Thus, the product i.e. Short Block Sub-Assembly as detailed in the present application is classifiable under Tariff Item 84149011 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
Issues: Whether the connected company appeals should be disposed of by referring the parties to mediation, appointing a mediator by consent, and fixing the terms for conduct of the mediation.
Analysis: The appeals arose from rejection of company petitions under the Companies Act, 2013. The parties stated that they were willing to resolve the dispute through mediation, but there was disagreement over selection of the mediator. The Tribunal therefore secured the consent of a retired Judge of the High Court to act as mediator, fixed remuneration and incidental expenses to be shared equally, and directed that the mediation be conducted in accordance with Section 424 of the Companies Act, 2013, read with Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and the Companies (Mediation and Conciliation) Rules, 2016. The parties were directed to appear before the mediator on the specified date and to complete the process within the indicated limit of sittings.
Conclusion: The appeals were directed to be taken to mediation and were disposed of on those terms, with the parties left at liberty to pursue legal remedies available in law after the mediator's decision.
Rejection of petition which was preferred by invoking the provisions contained u/s 59, Section 241, to be read with Section 242, Section 244 of the Companies Act, 2013 - reference of appeal to mediation - HELD THAT:- It was left open for the parties to select a Mediator and to initiate the mediation process. It was also left open to the parties to resort to legal remedies available under law, if the need so arises, as against the decision of the Mediator.
When inquired about the progress of mediation as ordered above, the learned counsels for the parties have stated that, though the earlier Company Appeal (AT) (CH) No.26/2025 was disposed of, leaving it open for the parties to appoint the Mediator, the same is yet to be done and the mediator is yet to be appointed owing to a disagreement between the parties with regards to the selection of Mediator, who would be taking up the matter to be decided amongst the parties. Even today the same stalemate prevails and hence the parties agreed that, if this Appellate Tribunal appoints a retired Hon’ble Judge of a High Court as a Mediator, it would be acceptable by them, and that they would be effectively and willingly participating in the proceedings before the Mediator, as ordered by this Appellate Tribunal.
Based upon the willingness extended by his Lordship, his Lordship is requested to act as a Mediator between the parties to these 3 company appeals, so as to resolve the dispute between them by making an effort for mediation/settlement - the Hon’ble Mediator would be paid with a remuneration of Rs. 1,00,000/- per sitting, which would be borne equally by both the parties to the company appeal (i.e., 50% each) - The Hon’ble Mediator, is requested to complete the mediation proceedings as far as possible, within maximum of 10 sittings.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether failure to maintain pre-trade and post-trade confirmations under the SEBI circular dated 22 March 2018 made the stockbroker liable to compensate the clients for losses in the F&O trades; (ii) Whether the award of 50% of the alleged losses without proof of actual loss or proper quantification could be sustained.
Issue (i): Whether failure to maintain pre-trade and post-trade confirmations under the SEBI circular dated 22 March 2018 made the stockbroker liable to compensate the clients for losses in the F&O trades.
Analysis: The SEBI circular was held to be a regulatory safeguard meant to strengthen evidentiary standards against disputed trades, but not a mandatory rule that by itself fixed civil liability on the broker in every case. Where the clients had trusted an authorised person, allowed her to trade on their behalf, received contract notes and messages, and did not promptly object, the absence of recorded pre-trade confirmation did not, by itself, permit them to disown the trades and shift the entire loss to the broker. The earlier decisions on the same point were followed, and the distinction between blatantly unauthorised trades and trades consciously permitted through an authorised person was emphasized.
Conclusion: The broker was not liable to bear the clients' trading losses merely because the circular's recording requirements were not followed.
Issue (ii): Whether the award of 50% of the alleged losses without proof of actual loss or proper quantification could be sustained.
Analysis: Damages under the law of contract require proof of loss, and a rough-and-ready estimate is permissible only where loss is shown but its precise computation is difficult. Here, no meaningful enquiry was made into the actual loss suffered, yet half of the claimed amount was mechanically awarded. Such a method was treated as irrational and unsupported by evidence, and therefore contrary to the settled principles governing compensation and arbitral adjudication. The award was also found to suffer from patent illegality and conflict with the fundamental policy of Indian law.
Conclusion: The 50% loss award was unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The impugned awards and the IGRC order could not survive judicial scrutiny and were set aside in entirety, with no costs.
Ratio Decidendi: Breach of a regulatory circular requiring trade confirmations may invite regulatory consequences, but it does not automatically fasten civil liability for trading losses where the client knowingly permitted the trades and the claim for compensation is not proved by evidence of actual loss.
Failure to scrupulously follow the requirement of maintaining pretrade and post-trade confirmations under SEBI Circular dated 22 March 2018 - Liability to bear the losses incurred by a client in trades -challenged the Awards passed by the three Member Appellate Tribunal constituted under the Rules, Bye-laws and Regulations of National Stock Exchange of India Ltd - awarded 50% losses incurred by them towards execution of Future & Options Segment - HELD THAT:- Failure to adhere to the regulatory directives by SEBI or NSE may entail necessary disciplinary measures against the Stock Broker. However, the same would not necessarily create a liability on the stockbroker to compensate the client/investor in respect of the losses suffered in the trade transactions. In a case like the present one, where clients have authorized or have let another person to effect trades on their behalf, relied on her skills and took the risks in the volatility of the stock market, cannot later turn around and disown the trade transactions by taking a specious plea that the stockbroker did not maintain written/recorded pre-trade confirmations. The maintenance of written/recorded trade confirmations would have some significance in a case where it is proved that the client/investor had actually not given any instruction for effecting a particular trade and somebody in the office of stockbroker has unauthorisedly effected a trade. In that case, the client/investor cannot be held responsible for losses arising out of such blatantly unauthorised trades and the stockbroker would be made responsible for consequences arising out of such trades. However, in a case where client/investor specifically admits that he/she authorised another person to effect trades on his/her behalf, client/investor.
In case before the Division Bench in Erach Khavar [2025 (9) TMI 185 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] also, the appellant therein had authorised another person to effect trades in his account and the appellant has received all the contract notes and text messages. He later sought to wriggle out of consequences of such trades by disowning the same by relying on NSE Regulation 3.4.1.
In the present case also, Respondent specifically admitted that they had trusted Siddhi and had allowed her to effect trades on their behalf. This is not a case where Siddhi is an unknown person to Respondents, who has effected trades in their accounts in a blatantly unauthorised manner. Therefore Respondents cannot take shelter behind regulatory directives of SEBI Circular dated 22 March 2018 and hold Petitioner responsible for recovering the losses suffered by them.
The methodology adopted by the Arbitral Tribunals in not conducting any enquiry into the losses suffered by Respondents due to the alleged negligent act of the Petitioner and straightaway awarding 50% of loss suffered in the trades executed in F & O Segment is required to be deprecated. Such an approach actually is in conflict with the fundamental policy of India under Section 32(2)(b)(ii) of the Arbitration Act.
Here, award of sum is not out of any contractual obligations between the parties. It is towards damages suffered due to alleged negligent conduct of Petitioner in not maintaining the pre-trade conformations. This principle therefore would not be attracted to the present case as Respondents have made no attempt to lead evidence of loss and simply claimed the entire amount of loss suffered in trades executed on their behalf.
Thus, the impugned Awards are clearly unsustainable and liable to be set aside. - Petitions are accordingly allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the Appellant could, in an appeal against the later admission order, re-agitate the contention that the statutory "ingredients" for admission of an application under Section 9 of the I & B Code were not satisfied, when an earlier appellate decision had already directed admission and had attained finality.
2) Whether the admission order was liable to be interfered with on the ground of lack of opportunity/non-service, when the Adjudicating Authority recorded service after revival and, in any event, the Adjudicating Authority was bound to admit pursuant to the final appellate direction.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Re-opening Section 9 "ingredients" after a final appellate direction to admit
Legal framework: The Court considered the effect of its prior appellate determination directing admission of the Section 9 application, and the consequence of that determination having "attained finality" due to absence of further challenge.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that it had already, in the earlier appellate proceedings, scrutinized the record and concluded that the Section 9 application "deserves to be admitted," issuing a positive direction to initiate CIRP. Since that adjudication had attained finality and was not challenged further, the Court held it could not "revisit" or "judicially scrutinize" the same admission grounds in a subsequent appeal aimed at the later consequential order.
Conclusions: The Court conclusively decided that the Appellant was barred from re-arguing non-satisfaction of Section 9 requirements at this stage; the earlier direction to admit governed, and the merits of admission could not be reopened.
Issue 2: Effect of alleged lack of notice/opportunity before the consequential admission order
Legal framework: The Court examined the contention of absence of notice/hearing in light of the Adjudicating Authority's recorded finding of service and the binding nature of the appellate direction requiring admission.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the unchallenged finding that fresh notices were issued after revival and were recorded as delivered, but the Appellant did not appear despite service. The Court further held that, even presuming absence of hearing, examining the point would be futile because the propriety of admission had already been adjudicated by the earlier appellate judgment, leaving the Adjudicating Authority bound to pass an admission order in compliance with that direction, without re-testing Section 9 ingredients.
Conclusions: The Court rejected the natural justice challenge as providing no basis to interfere with the admission order, both because service was recorded and because any hearing would have been inconsequential given the final and binding appellate direction to admit.
Final outcome: The appeal was dismissed as lacking merit, and the impugned admission order was not interfered with.
Initiation of the CIRP process - case of appellant is that the factors that were required to be established prior to initiation of Section 9 of the I & B Code, 2016, were not prevailing at the time when CIRP was commenced - non-participation of the proceedings - HELD THAT:- Examining and scrutinizing the aspect pertaining to the non-issuance of the notice to the Appellant, even presuming that, he was not heard before passing of the order dated 03.03.2022, would be an exercise in futility, for the reason being that, the propriety of admission of the application under Section 9 of the I & B Code, had already been adjudicated upon by this Appellate Tribunal by the Judgment of 07.09.2021, and nothing much material was required to be tested by the Learned Adjudicating Authority by revisiting the evidence, and rather they were bound to pass an order of admission of the Appellant into the CIRP process in pursuance to the direction that were issued by the Appellate Tribunal on 07.09.2021, hence even if an opportunity would have been granted, then too it would have been inconsequential because there already stood direction in the judgment of 07.09.2021 [2021 (9) TMI 415 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, CHENNAI] to admit the application under Section 9 of the I & B Code, which in the absence of its challenge under Section 62 of the I & B Code, before the Hon’ble Apex Court, had attained finality and could find the Learned Adjudicating Authority, couldn’t have re-tested the ingredients required to be satisfied for invoking Section 9 of the I & B Code.
In these eventualities, so far as the impugned order is concerned, that is not required to be ventured into by this Appellate Tribunal because of the earlier decision taken by this Appellate Tribunal of admitting the Appellant to face the CIRP process under Section 9 of the I & B Code, particularly when the finding has been recorded by the Appellate Tribunal that there exists a prima facie case establishing the ingredients of Section 9 of the I & B Code.
The appeal lacks merit, and the same is accordingly dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether shareholders who challenged dismissal of an application alleging fraudulent/malicious initiation of insolvency proceedings under Section 60(5) read with Section 65 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, have locus standi as "any person aggrieved" and whether the appeal is maintainable.
(ii) Whether, on the facts found, the insolvency proceedings initiated under Section 7 were collusive between a related-party financial creditor and the corporate debtor and thus amounted to fraudulent or malicious initiation for a purpose other than insolvency resolution, warranting setting aside of the insolvency admission and imposition of penalty/cost under Section 65.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Locus standi / maintainability of the appeal by shareholders
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered Section 61 of the Code using the expression "any person aggrieved" and the nature of CIRP as proceedings in rem, as discussed in the judgment. The Court also addressed whether earlier tribunal views restricting shareholder standing applied to an appeal arising from dismissal of an application under Section 60(5) read with Section 65.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court distinguished decisions holding that shareholders cannot challenge admission of CIRP in their individual capacity, because the present appeal arose from dismissal of an application specifically invoking Section 60(5) and Section 65 alleging collusive/fraudulent initiation. The Court accepted that "any person aggrieved" under Section 61 is to be read widely in the insolvency context, and reasoned that where collusion between the financial creditor and corporate debtor is alleged, public shareholders may be the only stakeholders effectively positioned to challenge such initiation. The Court held that the Code does not bar such an appeal and that serious allegations of fraudulent initiation warranted appellate scrutiny.
Conclusion: The Court held the shareholders were "aggrieved persons", had locus standi, and the appeal was maintainable.
Issue (ii): Whether the Section 7 insolvency initiation was collusive and fraudulent/malicious under Section 65
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied Section 65(1) of the Code, which permits imposition of penalty where insolvency resolution is initiated fraudulently or with malicious intent for a purpose other than resolution. The Court treated Section 65 as enabling the setting aside of proceedings where initiation itself is found to be a collusive device.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court relied on the sequence of events and record-based indicators to conclude collusion: (a) the financial creditor and corporate debtor were admitted related parties with common management; (b) initiation under Section 7 followed immediately after shareholder rejection of key resolutions at the annual general meetings, including resolutions concerning related party transactions and director appointments; (c) the corporate debtor did not genuinely oppose admission and a settlement proposal was made and rejected despite common management on both sides, indicating a predetermined course to ensure admission; (d) the insolvency admission was found to have proceeded mechanically without reflecting consideration of the related-party nature and common governance, even though these facts had bearing on initiation; (e) the record showed inconsistency between the alleged loan agreement terms (including interest) and disclosures in annual reports/audited statements indicating nil interest and describing the advance as operational in nature, and even the adjudicating authority noted mismatch between agreement contents and accounting/audited statements; (f) the Court treated delayed disclosure of the Section 7 filing to shareholders as raising serious doubt about intent, because it curtailed timely challenge by shareholders.
The Court concluded that the related-party creditor route under Section 7 was used to evade the shareholder-approval safeguard that would apply to a voluntary initiation route, and that the overall design was to wipe out public shareholding rather than to seek genuine insolvency resolution. The Court rejected the contention that the allegations were mere suspicion or beyond pleadings, finding sufficient material on record and that fraudulent initiation was the core issue before both forums.
Conclusions: The Court held that the Section 7 application was filed collusively by related parties, that CIRP was initiated fraudulently/maliciously for a purpose other than resolution, and that the adjudicating authority erred in dismissing the Section 60(5)/Section 65 application. The Court therefore set aside the insolvency proceedings admitted under Section 7, imposed cost/penalty of Rs. 25 lakhs on the financial creditor under Section 65, and directed referral to the regulator to examine the facts and conduct of the resolution professional and for examination of company affairs by the appropriate authority.
Maintainability of appeal - Appellants as shareholders have locus standi of filing appeal or not - initiation of CIRP has been done fraudulently or not.
Maintainability of the Appeal - HELD THAT:- The arguments presented by Respondent do not come in the way of the Appellant to be considered as an aggrieved person. The Code doesn’t bar the Appellant to file an appeal. Section 61 of the Code clearly states that notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained under the Companies Act, 2013, “any person aggrieved” by the order of the AA under this part may prefer an appeal to the NCLAT. The shareholders are the Appellant in this case and they are aggrieved by the order of the AA and interpreting the law in it widest terms and not in a restricted manner, it is concluded that the appellants have the locus to file an appeal and their appeal is maintainable. Even otherwise, it is found that there are serious allegations of fraudulent initiation of CIR proceedings, which should be looked into.
Is CIRP initiated fraudulently? - HELD THAT:- The admission of insolvency has been done in a very mechanical manner. It is not noted in the impugned order that the two entities namely Respondent No.1 and 2 are managed, owned and governed by the same management and they are related parties, which though not barred yet would require deeper scrutiny. The Board of Directors of the two companies is also more or less identical and they have common members of Audit Committee. The fact that the said companies are related is not even disputed. All these facts would have a bearing on the insolvency initiation - the CIRP initiation order dated 02.01.2025 does not reflect that the aspect of related parties (Directors and Shareholders) was considered by the bench - there is a pre-determined course of action to ensure insolvency against the Corporate Debtor succeeds. It is also noted that the rejection of the resolution by shareholders at the AGM, including the related party transaction was not mentioned in the order. All this indicates collusiveness between the FC and CD.
Respondent No.2, admittedly disclosed the Company Petition filed by Respondent No.1 to its shareholders only in January 2025, despite the fact that the Company Petition was filed in October 2024. We note that the same is contrary to Regulation 30 read with Schedule III (Item 16) of the SEBI LODR, which requires disclosure of any application being filed by a financial creditor for initiation of CIRP. It raises serious doubts about the intentions of both FC and CD and closes the options of other shareholders to agitate timely. It is for this reason the Appellant could file the Application belatedly upon becoming aware of the said proceedings. This indicates beginning of covering of fraud played by the common management of Respondent No.1 and Respondent No.2.
The pleadings relate to a fraud basis which CIRP has been initiated and for arriving at a conclusion, sufficient material exists on record - there are nothing beyond the pleadings.
Thus, when Appellant has made out a case for fraudulent initiation of CIR proceedings and both the FC and the CD are related parties, we unhesitatingly conclude that Appellants are aggrieved person and have the locus to file the Appeal and the Appeal is maintainable - it is also concluded that FC and CD being related parties have collusively filed the Section 7 application and got CD admitted into CIR Proceedings and this is case of a fraudulent initiation of CIR proceedings - It is also concluded that the filing of Section 7 in this case is not for resolution of the Corporate Debtor but for some other purpose. Had the purpose been the resolution of the CD, the offer of settlement of Corporate Debtor could have been accepted by FC, especially when both have the same management. CD could have explored Section 10 route under the code. This is a sure way of wiping out major shareholding.
There are no hesitation to come to a conclusion that Adjudicating Authority erred in dismissing the Appellant’s Application under Sections 60(5) and 65 of the Code, despite clear evidence that the Section 7 proceedings were collusive device between related parties to wipe out the interests of public shareholders of Respondent No.1.
The CIRP proceedings under Section 7 of the Code against Respondent No. 2-CD set aside - a cost of ₹ 25 lakhs is imposed against Respondent No. 1 – Financial Creditor - matter referred to IBBI to look into the facts and circumstances of the case and also the conduct of the Resolution Professional.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the resolution plan could be rejected as non-compliant with Section 29A(g) on the ground that deposit/recovery of an amount in relation to an application under Section 43 amounted to admission of a preferential transaction, even though no adjudicatory order had been passed holding such preferential transaction under the Code.
(ii) At what point of time the eligibility/disqualification under Section 29A(g) is to be assessed for a successful resolution applicant, and whether the material on record established ineligibility at that stage.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Rejection of the plan under Section 29A(g) without an order holding preferential transaction
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis that for Section 29A(g) to operate, there must be a preferential transaction (or other specified transaction) "in respect of which an order has been made by the Adjudicating Authority under this Code". The Court treated the existence of such an order as a necessary condition for invoking Section 29A(g).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the impugned reasoning-treating deposit of the amount claimed in the Section 43 application as an "admission" of preferential transaction and therefore dispensing with any "formal order"-was not sustainable. The Court emphasised that, on the record, there was no order by the Adjudicating Authority holding that a preferential transaction existed so as to trigger Section 29A(g). The Court also noted the material showing that the sum in question had been repaid prior to submission of the plan, as recorded in an earlier order referred to in the proceedings.
Conclusion: The finding that the plan was hit by Section 29A(g) was set aside, as the condition of an adjudicatory order under the Code establishing the preferential transaction was not met on the facts noted by the Court.
Issue (ii): Timing of assessment of Section 29A(g) eligibility and evidentiary basis for ineligibility
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court held that eligibility/disqualification of the successful resolution applicant is to be assessed at the time of submission of the resolution plan. The Court applied this timing principle while examining whether Section 29A(g) disqualified the applicant.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court relied on the contemporaneous compliance material placed on record: (a) a certificate referred to from the chartered accountant appointed in the process, (b) the applicant's affidavit/undertaking asserting no ineligibility under Section 29A(g), and (c) the resolution professional's certification after searching the relevant portal, coupled with the disclosure that the Section 43 application had been disposed of with recovery/deposit and that the amount stood in the corporate debtor's CIRP account for the benefit of creditors. On this basis, the Court concluded that the record did not support disqualification at the plan-submission stage, and that the absence of an order determining a preferential transaction further negated Section 29A(g) ineligibility.
Conclusion: The Court held that the plan could not be rejected on Section 29A(g) ineligibility on the material before it, set aside the contrary finding, and directed that the plan be considered afresh by the Adjudicating Authority in light of these conclusions within a stipulated timeframe.
Rejection of resolution plan as approved by the Committee of Creditors of the Corporate Debtor - plan being non-compliant of Section 29A(g) of IBC - HELD THAT:- A bare perusal of the judgement in HARI BABU THOTA VERSUS MR. BISHWAJIT DUBEY, AMICUS CURIAE [2023 (12) TMI 1255 - SUPREME COURT] would show the ineligibility or disqualification of the Successful Resolution Applicant has to be seen at the time of submission of the Resolution Plan. The certificates of Chartered Accountants and of the Resolution Professional makee it categorically clear that the Successful Resolution Applicant never was ineligible to submit the plan.
The finding of the Ld. NCLT is set aside so far it relates to the plan being non-compliant of Section 29A(g) of the Code. Let the plan be considered afresh by the Ld. NCLT as expeditiously as possible, preferably within a period of four weeks from the date the parties appear before it.
With these directions the appeal is disposed of. The parties to appear before the Ld. NCLT on 05.01.2026.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether an execution proceeding to enforce an arbitral award can be maintained when the award-debtor company has been dissolved by an unchallenged dissolution order passed under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
(ii) Whether the High Court, while exercising execution jurisdiction, can inquire into and decide allegations of fraud, misrepresentation, and misappropriation said to vitiate the corporate insolvency resolution process and the dissolution order, and on that basis implead ex-directors and the erstwhile resolution professional to execute the award against them personally.
(iii) Whether the execution applicant's plea of absence of notice/communication under Regulation 6-A of the CIRP Regulations vitiated the insolvency process and dissolution, despite issuance of a public announcement and upload on the IBBI website, thereby justifying continuation of execution-related reliefs.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Maintainability of execution against a dissolved corporate award-debtor
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the admitted position that an NCLT order dated 13 April 2023 directed dissolution of the award-debtor, recording that there were no assets to be disposed of and the operations were completely wound up, and that the order had not been challenged and had attained finality.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated dissolution and the resulting cessation of corporate existence as determinative of whether proceedings could be initiated or continued against the corporate entity. Since the dissolution order remained final and binding, the award-debtor was non-existent for the purposes of execution.
Conclusions: Proceedings could not be continued against a dissolved, non-existent award-debtor; consequently, the execution application was held not maintainable.
Issue (ii): Jurisdiction of the executing court to adjudicate fraud-related challenges to CIRP/dissolution and to implead individuals for personal execution
Legal framework: The Court examined Sections 60(1) and 60(5)(c) (NCLT jurisdiction over questions of law/fact arising out of or in relation to insolvency resolution or liquidation), Section 65 (fraudulent or malicious initiation of proceedings), and the jurisdictional bars in Sections 63 and 231 of the IBC.
Interpretation and reasoning: The relief sought-impleadment of ex-directors and the erstwhile resolution professional and execution against them personally-was founded on allegations that the insolvency process and dissolution were fraudulently initiated/managed to defeat the award and that funds were misappropriated. The Court characterised these assertions as fact-intensive allegations (fraud, misrepresentation, misappropriation) requiring evidence and as questions "arising out of or in relation to" insolvency resolution/liquidation and the dissolution order itself. It held that such questions fall within the NCLT/NCLAT domain under Section 60(5)(c), with Section 65 specifically addressing fraudulent initiation, and that Sections 63 and 231 expressly bar civil-court jurisdiction in matters where the NCLT/NCLAT/IBBI are empowered to act. The Court further held that an executing court cannot go behind binding adjudications; here, the applicant's attempt would require the Court to go behind not only the award/decree but also the NCLT dissolution order, which it lacked jurisdiction to do.
Conclusions: The High Court in execution had no jurisdiction to decide whether the insolvency proceedings/dissolution were vitiated by fraud or to grant execution reliefs premised on such challenges; such challenges must be pursued before the NCLT/NCLAT. On this ground also, the execution-related impleadment application could not be entertained.
Issue (iii): Effect of alleged non-communication under Regulation 6-A where public announcement was made
Legal framework: The Court considered Regulation 6-A in the manner it is discussed in the judgment: communication of the public announcement to creditors as per the last available books of account, and a deeming communication where such direct communication is not possible, provided the public announcement under Regulation 6 is made.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted it was admitted that the execution applicant was not shown as a creditor in the award-debtor's books of account and therefore was not sent an individual communication. However, it was also admitted that a public announcement dated 8 October 2022 inviting claims from creditors was published in two newspapers and uploaded on the IBBI website. In these circumstances, the Court applied the deeming consequence contemplated within Regulation 6-A as described in the judgment and rejected the contention that absence of individual notice rendered the CIRP/dissolution vitiated for purposes of the execution reliefs sought.
Conclusions: The ground of "no notice as per law" was held untenable because a public announcement was admittedly made and uploaded, satisfying the deemed communication mechanism discussed by the Court.
Maintainability of execution proceeding - Seeking impleadment of the proposed Respondents no. 1 to 4 as party Respondents to the Execution Application - award debtor stands dissolved - allegations of fraud and misrepresentation involved in the way in which the order of NCLT was obtained - HELD THAT:- The adjudicating authority in relation to insolvency resolution and liquidation for Corporate persons including Corporate debtor and personal guarantor thereof is the NCLT having territorial jurisdiction over the places where the registered office of the Corporate person is located. In the facts of this case, it is the NCLT, Hyderabad. Section 60(5)(c) of the IBC is a non-obstante clause which clearly provides that the NCLT shall have jurisdiction to entertain or dispose of any question of priorities or any question of law or facts arising out of or in relation to the insolvency resolution or liquidation proceedings of the Corporate debtor or Corporate person under the IBC.
The challenge on the basis of these allegations is to the order dated 13th April 2023 passed by the NCLT whereby the NCLT has passed an order directing dissolution of the Award debtor recording that there are no assets to be disposed of and that the operations of the Award debtor have been completely wound up - the NCLT/NCLAT have jurisdiction to determine the aforesaid facts and also to decide whether the order dated 13th April 2023 was vitiated by fraud, misrepresentation and misappropriation thereby. Infact, Section 65 also provides for penalty for fraud or malicious intent in the initiation of the insolvency resolution process or liquidation proceedings.
Under Section 63 of the IBC there is an express bar against the Civil Court entertaining any Suit or proceedings in respect of any matter on which the NCLT or NCLAT has jurisdiction. Even Section 231 of the IBC provides that no Civil Court shall have jurisdiction in respect of any matter in which the adjudicating authority viz. the NCLT in this case / NCLAT or the IBBI is empowered by or under the Code to pass any order and no injunction shall be granted by any Court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuant to any order passed by the NCLT / NCLAT or the IBBI under the IBC.
In the decision of Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Limited v. Amit Gupta and Others [2021 (3) TMI 340 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that the residuary jurisdiction of NCLT under Section 60(5)(c) of the IBC provides a wide discretion to adjudicate questions of law or fact arising from or in relation to the insolvency resolution proceedings.
It is the case of the Applicant that there are elements of fraud and misrepresentation involved in the way in which the order dated 13th April 2023 of the NCLT was obtained and the Award Debtor company dissolved and also that the directors of the Award Debtor company in connivance with the Resolution Professional misappropriated the funds of the company which although denied raised questions of fact in relation to the insolvency resolution as well as the liquidation proceedings of the Award Debtor and challenge to the process of dissolution of the order would have to be filed only before the NCLT / NCLAT as under Section 60(5) as well as under Section 231 of the IBC, the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is barred. Such exercise of jurisdiction by the NCLT would not be dehors the insolvency proceedings nor would the same fall outside the realm of IBC - Moreover, it is also trite law that a Court executing a decree cannot go behind the decree between the parties or their representatives and it must take the decree according to its tenor, and cannot entertain any objection that the decree was incorrect in law or on facts until it is set aside by an appropriate proceeding in appeal or revision, a decree even if it be erroneous is still binding between the parties. In the facts of this case, the Applicant is not only asking the Court to go behind the decree but also to go behind the Order of dissolution of the Award Debtor for which this Court does not have jurisdiction.
The Execution Application is not maintainable and that this Court also has no jurisdiction to entertain or decide this application. The other arguments of the learned Counsel and the judgments relied upon, therefore, need not be gone into.
Ergo, the Execution Application as well as the Interim Application stand dismissed.
Issues: (i) whether the petition for enforcement of the foreign awards was barred by limitation and whether the earlier limitation order operated as res judicata; (ii) whether enforcement of the foreign awards could be refused as being contrary to the public policy of India; (iii) whether the appeal was maintainable against the 2nd, 3rd and 4th respondents; and (iv) whether the 2nd, 3rd and 4th respondents could be impleaded and whether execution could be levied against them.
Issue (i): whether the petition for enforcement of the foreign awards was barred by limitation and whether the earlier limitation order operated as res judicata.
Analysis: The earlier order on limitation had attained finality after dismissal of the challenge before the Supreme Court. The limitation question was directly and substantially in issue in the earlier stage of the same proceedings. The finding that the petition was within time was not a mere incidental observation but a reasoned determination based on law and facts. Subsequent overruling of certain legal propositions in other cases did not convert that inter partes decision into a nullity. The limitation ruling also involved a mixed question of law and fact, not a pure jurisdictional question of the kind that would exclude res judicata.
Conclusion: The limitation objection was rejected. The petition was held to be within limitation and the earlier decision operated as res judicata.
Issue (ii): whether enforcement of the foreign awards could be refused as being contrary to the public policy of India.
Analysis: The public policy defence under Section 48 had to be construed narrowly. A mere alleged breach of FEMA, or alleged non-consideration of belated expert evidence, did not justify refusal of enforcement where the underlying transaction had been restructured and the arbitral findings could not be re-opened on merits. The record did not show a prohibition rendering the agreement void in the manner contemplated by the authorities relied on by the respondents. The objections relied upon were, in substance, attempts at a merit-based review, which is impermissible in enforcement proceedings for foreign awards.
Conclusion: Enforcement could not be refused on public policy grounds. The objection was rejected.
Issue (iii): whether the appeal was maintainable against the 2nd, 3rd and 4th respondents.
Analysis: A composite petition seeking recognition, enforcement and execution of a foreign award is maintainable. An appeal under Section 50 cannot be read in a truncated manner so as to permit challenge to refusal of enforcement but deny challenge to the consequential refusal to execute the award. Such a reading would fragment a single composite adjudication and undermine the statutory pro-enforcement scheme.
Conclusion: The appeal was held maintainable against all the respondents.
Issue (iv): whether the 2nd, 3rd and 4th respondents could be impleaded and whether execution could be levied against them.
Analysis: The diversion of the award debtor's assets to associated companies during the arbitral process, while control remained with the same corporate group, justified lifting the corporate veil to the limited extent necessary to protect execution. The 2nd and 3rd respondents could therefore be proceeded against only in relation to the award debtor's assets diverted to them. The 4th respondent could be impleaded as a proper party on the facts, but no asset of the award debtor had been shown to have been diverted to it, so no execution could lie against it or its assets.
Conclusion: The impleadment was upheld. Execution was permitted against the award debtor and against the diverted assets in the hands of the 2nd and 3rd respondents, but not against the 4th respondent independently.
Final Conclusion: The impugned decision was modified. The foreign awards were held enforceable, the limitation and public policy objections failed, the appeal was maintainable against all respondents, and execution was permitted only to the extent of the award debtor's assets diverted to the 2nd and 3rd respondents.
Ratio Decidendi: A final inter partes determination on limitation in the same proceedings binds the parties at later stages by res judicata, and in enforcement of foreign awards, the public policy defence cannot be used to reopen the merits or to defeat execution through corporate restructuring that merely places the award debtor's assets beyond reach.
Seeking recognition and enforcement of foreign arbitral awards - prescribed period of limitation - Applicability of res judicata - violation of India's public policy. -lift the corporate veil -impleadment of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th Respondents and levy of execution against them - Whether a third party could be made personally liable to satisfy a decree or a foreign award, even though it was not a party to the arbitration proceedings and no award had been made against it. - HELD THAT:- In the present case, E-City or the other Respondents never challenged this Court’s jurisdiction to entertain a Petition to enforce or execute a foreign award. There were no grounds for such a challenge. The only objection to IMAX’s Petition was that it was filed after the prescribed period of limitation. Therefore, even if the learned Single Judge of this Court (Kulkarni, J.) mistakenly held that IMAX’s Petition was within the three-year limitation period prescribed under Article 137 of the Limitation Act, that decision cannot be regarded as a nullity that could have been disregarded at the final hearing of the same Enforcement or Execution Petition. Besides, there is no ground to hold that the reasoning or finding in Kulkarni J’s order about IMAX’s petition being within the three-year limitation period prescribed under Article 137 of the Limitation Act was erroneous.
The first precondition for the exception to the application of the doctrine of res judicata, namely that the issue decided involved a pure question of law and not a question of fact or a mixed question of law and fact, is not fulfilled in the present case.
Secondly, the expression “jurisdiction” referred to in Mathura Prasad Jaiswal. [1970 (2) TMI 139 - SUPREME COURT] and explained in N.G. Subbaraya Setty [2018 (4) TMI 1901 - SUPREME COURT], refers to the inherent jurisdiction of a Court or the legal competency of the Court to entertain a suit or a proceeding of a particular nature. The examples given in N.G. Subbaraya Setty’s (supra) case bring home this point very clearly.
However, the impropriety is evident, as properties and assets valued at Rs.210 Crores held by E-City (1st Respondent) were diverted solely to defeat execution of the liability award. Secondly, in the present case, there is both control of the Company by the wrongdoers and the impropriety, i.e., the Company's use and misuse of them as a device or façade to conceal their wrongdoings. In fact, the wrongdoers have managed to retain complete control over the diverted properties while, at the same time, attempting to render them immune from execution proceedings to defeat the enforcement and execution of the foreign awards.
This is not a case in which IMAX is challenging the orders of this Court that sanction the Schemes of Arrangement. Therefore, the arguments that such orders operate in rem rather than merely in personam need not detain us. Even if such orders were made in compliance with the validly prescribed procedures, that by itself would not prevent the enforcing/executing Court from lifting the corporate veil and addressing the impropriety of diverted properties and assets, given the facts in the present case.
There are undoubtedly different considerations that apply in the doctrine of lis pendens. Still, the reference is only to show that a transaction may be legal, in the sense that the statutory formalities have been complied with. However, there may still be impropriety, which will entitle the Court to lift the corporate veil, as was held in Balwant Rai Saluja and Anr. [2014 (8) TMI 1084 - SUPREME COURT] There is a distinction between illegality and impropriety that cannot be ignored. Impropriety may not always overemphasise the form but would stress the substance, the motives, the intentions and the final effect of the disputed transaction.
That there was nothing wrong in impleading the 2nd to 4th Respondents in IMAX’s Petition. Besides, execution can be levied against those of E-City’s (1st Respondent’s) properties and assets that were diverted to the 2nd and 3rd Respondents for satisfaction of the foreign awards. However, such execution can be only qua the diverted properties and assets presently held by the 2nd and 3rd Respondents, and not against the 2nd and 3rd Respondents independently.
It is clarified that there can be no execution against any other properties or assets independently held by the 2nd and 3rd Respondents’ Companies to satisfy the foreign awards.
Insofar as the 4th Respondent is concerned, though there was nothing wrong in its impleadment to IMAX’s Petition, since no properties or assets of E-City (1st Respondent) were diverted to the 4th Respondent, there is no question of levying any execution on the 4th Respondent, its properties or assets.
IMAX’s petition is held to have been filed within the prescribed period of limitation. IMAX’s petition for enforcement of the foreign awards could not have been refused on any alleged violation of India's public policy. This appeal was maintainable as against all the Respondents. There was no error in impleading the 2nd to 4th Respondents as parties to IMAX’s petition. The foreign awards are recognised and can be executed unreservedly against the 1st Respondent and against the 2nd and 3rd Respondents to the extent of the properties and assets diverted from E-City [1st Respondent] to them under the schemes of arrangements dated 20.06.2007 and 31.08.2007. However, no execution can be levied against the 4th Respondent. To this extent, Dangre, J’s order will have to be set aside or modified.
Now that the foreign awards are recognised, they shall have the status of deemed decrees and be executed in accordance with what is set out above. However, this would require constant monitoring and the timely issuance of directions in execution proceedings, such as the attachment and sale of properties. Such an exercise could be best undertaken by the executing Court, i.e., the learned Single Judge.
The 1st Respondent has succeeded in frustrating the enforcement of the foreign awards made between 2006 and 2008. Full advantage was taken of the Master Agreement entered into in 2000, and by taking undue advantage of the pressure on the Indian court’s dockets, payments have been successfully resisted for all these years. During the pendency of the arbitral proceedings, the 1st Respondent improperly diverted its properties and assets worth Rs. 210 crores to the associated companies, i.e. the 2nd and 3rd Respondents, with the sole objective of frustrating the execution of the awards or, in any event, further delaying the matters.
To borrow the words of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Vijay Karia [2020 (2) TMI 628 - SUPREME COURT], the first Respondent is “indulging in speculative litigation with the fond hope that by flinging mud on a foreign tribunal award, some of the mud so flung would stick”. For all these reasons, we impose a cost of Rs 5 lakhs on the 1st Respondent, payable within 4 weeks to the Appellant, IMAX.
The parties are directed to appear before the learned Single Judge. - Appeal and the pending applications therein are disposed of in the above terms.
Issues: Whether the writ petition could be maintained to reopen an issue already adjudicated in the civil suit and the related appeals, or whether such challenge was barred by finality and constructive res judicata.
Analysis: The dispute regarding compliance with the foreign exchange regime and the effect of the RBI permission had already been framed as an additional issue in the civil proceedings and was decided on merits. The resulting decree was carried in appeal, and the appellate court also examined the same issue and recorded findings that the transaction fell within the general permission under the RBI notification and complied with the statutory framework under FERA. In these circumstances, the same controversy could not be re-agitated in writ proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. The Court also held that failure to effectively contest the issue in the proper forum did not create a fresh right to reopen it later.
Conclusion: The writ challenge was not maintainable to the extent it sought reopening of an issue already finally decided, and the appeal was liable to be dismissed.
Writ proceedings under Article 226 for reopening of issues sought to be agitated by the appellant therein had already been considered and decided by the Division Bench - underlying writ petition was predicated on violation of statutory conditions within the statutory framework of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (“FERA”) - RBI approval regarding property transaction - Valid documents before 31.12.1999 - GPA/SPA/Will etc. - HELD THAT:- In light of the clear findings recorded by an Appellate Court under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, we are unable to appreciate as to on what grounds a writ Court can examine the same issue again. Moreover, in case the appellant was not satisfied with the findings recorded either by the learned Single Judge in the Original Suit or the observations of the Appellate Court, nothing precluded him from challenging the same in accordance with law.
This Court also has to bear in mind the fact that once an issue was framed, though the burden of discharging the onus was on the respondent nos.2 and 3, who were the plaintiffs in CS (OS) 2773/2000, nothing precluded the appellant from adducing proper evidence, whether documentary or oral, in support of the aforesaid contention which could and ought to have been placed in the trial proceedings to vindicate his stand. This would have been the appropriate procedure to be followed by the appellant in order to sustain and prove the stand taken on the additional issue. If the appellant has failed in such endeavour for any reason whatsoever, it would not, ipso facto, vest any right upon the appellant to agitate the very same issue again which has been settled by the learned Single Judge as also the learned Division Bench. Urging that the fundamental question is one of violation of statutory framework, and hence, amenable to writ jurisdiction is unsustainable, furthermore, on the grounds of constructive res judicata too. Law conceives of finality of disputes.
Thus, we do not find any merit in the present appeal and the same is dismissed,
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(a) Whether the respondent was entitled, for the disputed period, to settle its obligation under Rule 6 by proportionate reversal of CENVAT credit attributable to inputs used in exempted goods with applicable interest, instead of payment of a fixed percentage of the value of exempted goods, and whether the adjudicating authority correctly granted such benefit while finalising the demands.
(b) Whether the respondent had complied with the Tribunal's remand directions by producing the required accountant's certification and by discharging the quantified reversal and interest, so that the adjudicating authority's acceptance of such compliance required no interference.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(A) Entitlement to proportionate reversal (rather than percentage payment) and correctness of extending such benefit for the disputed period
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined Rule 6 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, particularly the options under Rule 6(3) and the procedure under Rule 6(3A) for paying an amount equivalent to credit attributable to inputs used in exempted goods. The Court also examined the Finance Act, 2010 provisions described in the judgment, which were discussed as retrospectively enabling resolution of disputes by payment/reversal of attributable credit with interest, subject to verification and supporting certification.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court read the scheme as providing an option to discharge obligation through attributable credit reversal (with interest) and noted that this approach had already been accepted in the remand directions earlier issued by the Tribunal, which directed verification of the quantum reversed and interest liability, and grant of the Finance Act, 2010 benefit upon compliance. The Court treated the impugned adjudication as an implementation of those directions, rather than an independent re-opening of liability under the percentage method. It also noted that, although the respondent asserted that the disputed input was not used for exempted goods, the respondent nevertheless reversed a quantified attributable amount "out of abundant caution," and the adjudication focused on whether the statutory discharge (reversal plus interest) had been correctly made and verified.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the adjudicating authority's acceptance of proportionate reversal with interest as legally sufficient discharge for the disputed period, and rejected the Revenue's challenge that sought confirmation of demand on the basis of percentage payment of exempted turnover. The Court concluded that no interference was warranted with the impugned order granting the benefit on the basis of reversal and interest payment as verified.
(B) Compliance with remand directions: verification through accountant's certificate; acceptance of quantified reversal and interest
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court relied on the remand directions (described in the judgment) requiring the respondent to produce certification by an accountant regarding the amount of credit attributable to exempted goods and to discharge interest at the rate specified in the remand directions, followed by verification and grant of benefit if found in order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the adjudicating authority examined the certification produced, scrutinised the annexed computation, and recorded findings accepting (i) the quantified attributable credit reversal for the relevant period and (ii) the quantified interest payment computed at the required rate and appropriated it. The Court treated these findings as fulfilment of the remand conditions and as a proper implementation of the Tribunal's earlier order. Since the impugned order was consistent with the remand mandate and recorded verification-based acceptance, the Court held that the Revenue's objections did not justify overturning the order.
Conclusions: The Court held that the impugned order correctly carried out the Tribunal's remand directions by accepting the certified reversal and interest payment, and therefore required no interference. The Revenue's appeal was dismissed and the impugned order was upheld.
Utilisation of input naphtha on which CENVAT credit was taken, in the manufacture of dutiable and/or exempted goods during the disputed period - amount that is required to be reversed proportionately by the respondent in terms of Rule 6 (3A) of CCR of 2004 have been fulfilled or not - eligibility for benefit of amendments brought in through the Finance Act, 2010 during the entire disputed period - HELD THAT:- From the order of the Tribunal in DEEPAK FERTILIZERS & PETROCHEMICAL CORP LTD. [2014 (8) TMI 495 - CESTAT MUMBAI], it clearly transpires that reversal of CENVAT credit by the respondents in terms of CENVAT statute had been accepted by the Tribunal and specific directions was given to the original authority, to consider the C.A. certificate to be produced by the respondents, and if such payments were found to be as per law, then directing the adjudicating authority to grant the benefit provided under the Finance Act, 2010 with respect to reversal of credit on inputs used in the manufacture of exempted product.
It is found that the dispute in a similar case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Patna Vs. New Swadeshi Sugar Mills [2015 (9) TMI 881 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon’ble Supreme Court had by upholding the decision of the Tribunal have held that the CENVAT credit taken cannot be denied to the assessee on the ground of Rule 6 of 2002 Rules as it only prohibited availability of credit to manufacture of exempted goods specified therein. Accordingly, the Civil Appeal No.2043 of 2006 filed by the department was dismissed.
In the present case, even though the respondents have claimed that they had not used naphtha for generating steam and it is only the exothermic steam generated in the chemical reaction that is used in or in relation manufacture of ammonia-fertiliser, being exempt from payment of excise duty, the respondents had paid the requisite proportionate amount of CENVAT credit involved in the manufacture of exempted goods.
The impugned order dated 08.10.2015 does not require any interference - the impugned order passed by the learned adjudicating authority is upheld and the appeal filed by the Revenue is dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the revisional authority was justified in revising the assessment and raising additional tax on the ground that the disputed turnover had "escaped assessment", despite the dealer having produced H-forms (and copies thereof) relating to export sales.
(ii) Whether the revisional authority erred in refusing to take into account H-forms on the premise that they were not produced before the assessing authority at the time of original assessment, and in recording that no documents were placed despite the record showing production of such documents.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of revision and additional demand when H-forms evidencing export sales were produced
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court proceeded on the basis that exemption for export sales is claimable on production of H-forms in relation to export of rice under Section 5(1) of the CST Act, and that the dispute concerned whether such proof had been produced for the turnover treated as escaped.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the original assessment did not deal with the disputed turnover and that the assessing authority later issued a notice specifically calling upon the dealer to produce proof of export and that the dealer asserted it had produced the H-forms. In the revision proceedings, the revisional authority itself recorded that xerox copies of H-forms were filed before it for the disputed turnover. The Court also relied on the subsequent endorsement indicating that the H-forms had been returned by the assessing authority, supporting that the forms had in fact been produced. On these facts "on record", the Court held the material established the dealer's claim and the H-forms ought to have been considered for granting the benefit sought.
Conclusion: Since necessary H-forms had been filed and copies were produced before the revisional authority, the additional demand based on treating the turnover as taxable was unsustainable; the revisional order could not stand.
Issue (ii): Refusal to consider H-forms on the ground they were not produced at assessment stage / incorrect factual finding of non-production
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court addressed the revisional authority's reasoning that documents could not be looked into because they were not before the assessing authority at the time of assessment, in the context that the disputed turnover was not part of what was addressed in the assessment order.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it "not understandable" to treat the H-forms as filed "after the order of assessment" because the assessment order did not touch the disputed turnover and the issue arose only subsequently. The Court held the revisional authority was wrong to refuse consideration of the H-forms after recording their production in xerox form, and the later endorsement further indicated that the original H-forms had been with the assessing authority and were returned later. The Court therefore rejected the factual premise that no documents were placed and rejected the legal premise that the H-forms were to be ignored for being filed after assessment in the circumstances of this case.
Conclusion: The revisional authority's refusal to consider the H-forms and the finding of non-production were held unsustainable on the record; consequently, the revisional order was set aside.
RESULT
The Court set aside the revisional order raising additional tax and allowed the petition, holding that the H-forms produced should have been taken into account and the benefit flowing from them granted.
Production of H-forms as proof of export - revisional order on escaped turnover - exemption for inter-state export under Section 5(1) of the CST Act - admissibility of documents produced before revisional authority - requirement of proof before assessing/revisional officer
Production of H-forms as proof of export - admissibility of documents produced before revisional authority - revisional order on escaped turnover - Whether the revisional order dated 19.04.2018 rejecting the petitioner's claim of export exemption and raising demand on the alleged escaped turnover was sustainable where H-forms and photostat copies had been placed on record - HELD THAT: - The Court found on the record that the petitioner had disclosed turnover for assessment year 2011-12 and that the Commercial Tax Officer issued a subsequent notice alleging escapement of turnover of Rs.1,21,67,500/-. The petitioner produced H-forms before the Commercial Tax Officer on 11.02.2016 and furnished photostat copies and other documents before the Deputy Commissioner in response to the revision show cause notice. Although the Deputy Commissioner recorded that no material had been placed before the Assessing Officer and rejected the claim, the Court noted the Deputy Commissioner's later endorsement recording return of seven H-forms by the Commercial Tax Officer and that the assessment order dated 31.03.2015 had not dealt with the disputed turnover. The High Court held that the Deputy Commissioner's rejection on the ground that the documents were not placed before the Assessing Officer or were produced after the assessment was not tenable in the facts of the case, and that the photostat copies and H-forms placed before the revisional authority should have been taken into account to decide the claim of exemption. [Paras 9, 10]
The revisional order dated 19.04.2018 was set aside and the writ petition allowed.
Final Conclusion: The High Court set aside the Deputy Commissioner's revision order of 19.04.2018 and allowed the writ petition on the ground that the petitioner had produced H-forms (and photostat copies) in support of its claim of export exemption, which the revisional authority ought to have considered.
Issues: (i) Whether a prosecution under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 may be transferred under the transfer jurisdiction of the Court notwithstanding the territorial scheme in Section 142(2) of that Act, on considerations of convenience, hardship, and the ends of justice. (ii) Whether the facts of the case justified transfer of the pending complaints from Chandigarh to Hyderabad.
Issue (i): Whether a prosecution under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 may be transferred under the transfer jurisdiction of the Court notwithstanding the territorial scheme in Section 142(2) of that Act, on considerations of convenience, hardship, and the ends of justice.
Analysis: The statutory scheme after the 2015 amendment fixes territorial jurisdiction for cheque dishonour complaints under Section 142(2), while Section 142A validates the transfer-and-jurisdiction regime. Even so, the transfer power under the criminal procedure law remains intact where transfer is expedient for the ends of justice. The relevant test is not confined to physical inconvenience alone. It includes comparative hardship to the accused, complainant, and witnesses, and the broader impact on fair-trial rights. In prosecutions under Section 138, the imbalance created by statutory presumptions and evidentiary advantages to the complainant can make venue-related hardship especially significant where the accused is a small individual facing a powerful institutional complainant.
Conclusion: Yes. The territorial scheme in Section 142(2) does not exclude transfer jurisdiction, and comparative inconvenience may justify transfer when the ends of justice so require.
Issue (ii): Whether the facts of the case justified transfer of the pending complaints from Chandigarh to Hyderabad.
Analysis: The transactions arose in Andhra Pradesh, the accused were located there, relevant documents and witnesses were available there, and related proceedings concerning the same transaction were already pending at Hyderabad and before the High Court of Andhra Pradesh. The complainant bank's choice of Chandigarh as the collection venue could not override the substantial hardship caused to the petitioners, who would otherwise have to defend themselves at a distant forum in a different language. The relative convenience of the bank did not outweigh the petitioners' fair-trial concerns and practical inability to secure effective legal assistance at Chandigarh. However, instead of sending the matter to Adoni, the proceedings were directed to be placed at Hyderabad because connected DRT proceedings arising from the same transaction were already pending there.
Conclusion: Yes, but only partly. Transfer was warranted, and Hyderabad was chosen as the transferee forum.
Final Conclusion: The transfer request succeeded in substance, and the complaints were moved to a more convenient forum aligned with the connected proceedings, while the issue was also placed before a larger bench for definitive consideration.
Ratio Decidendi: In transfer petitions involving Section 138 prosecutions, the court may order transfer where the comparative inconvenience, hardship, and fair-trial impact on an unequal accused outweigh the complainant's forum preference, and the territorial scheme under Section 142(2) does not bar such transfer in the ends of justice.
Dishonour of Cheque - seeking transfer of the case u/s 138 of NI Act - determination of territorial jurisdiction - what situations may prompt this Court to transfer a proceeding under Section 446 BNSS [Corresponding to Section 406 CrPC.] (and High Courts under Section 447 BNSS [Corresponding to Section 407 CrPC.]) to meet the ends of justice? - HELD THAT:- Petitioners are facing prosecution under Section 138 of the N.I. Act. Section 138 of the N.I. Act was incorporated in order to promote financial discipline and credibility of banking systems. Penal liability was introduced to ensure confidence in transactions through negotiable instruments. It is essentially an offence against an individual, compoundable at his option, and not against the State. The nature of the offence is quasi-criminal and does not fall within the species of grave crimes like murder, rape and corruption etc. which may be termed as crimes against the society. Given this situation, shifting of situs of trial in such a case may not impact the State or societal interests and may be judged primarily on the relative convenience and inconvenience of the parties inter se and their witnesses.
While the Bank may consider it convenient to present all cheques for collection at Chandigarh Branch, its stratagem to create jurisdiction in Chandigarh must be seen in light of the relative inconvenience caused to the accused to defend himself at such a far-off place. As the accused’s inconvenience by itself may not be a good ground for transfer, similarly, the bank’s convenience to present the cheques only at Chandigarh and institute proceeding there cannot be viewed in exclusion of inconvenience and hardship to the accused to defend himself at such distant place.
The Bank has its branches throughout the country, including Adoni, Andhra Pradesh. Its resources are overwhelmingly more than the petitioner. The petitioners’ case is further bolstered by other relevant considerations, namely, overdraft facility was extended from the branch office at Adoni, availability of documents and witnesses (particularly of the accused) at Adoni and pendency of related proceedings at DRT, Hyderabad and High Court of Andhra Pradesh. Such a factual situation persuades us to hold that shift of the cases from Chandigarh would not seriously skew the scales and cause undue hardship to the Bank. However, instead of allowing the transfer to Adoni, the Apex Court is inclined to transfer the proceedings to the court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Hyderabad, where the DRT proceedings arising out of the self-same transaction are also pending inter parties as it would be to the convenience of both of them.
It is considered prudent to place the matters before the Hon’ble Chief Justice for constituting a Larger Bench to give a definitive opinion on the issue at hand. In the interregnum, the proceedings shall be transferred to the Court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Hyderabad.
Issues: Whether, after issuance of summons in a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the Magistrate could discharge the accused on an application questioning the maintainability of the proceeding.
Analysis: In a summons case arising from a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, once cognizance is taken and process is issued, the proceeding must ordinarily move in accordance with Chapter XX of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The Magistrate has no inherent power to review or recall the summons merely on reconsideration of the complaint materials. The decision to drop the proceeding after process is not available in the manner adopted by the trial court, and the earlier Constitution Bench exposition makes it clear that Section 258 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 does not apply to such complaints. The trial court therefore acted without jurisdiction in discharging the accused on the maintainability objection.
Conclusion: The discharge order was unsustainable and the petitioner succeeded on this issue.
Ratio Decidendi: After summons are issued in a complaint case under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the Magistrate cannot discharge the accused by recalling or reviewing the summons; the case must proceed in accordance with Chapter XX of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Dishonour of Cheque - jurisdiction to discharge the accused without exhausting the procedure contained in Chapter XX of the Code - requirement at law for impleading the Company as accused - authority of the Magistrate to discharge the accused in a case under Section 138 of the NI Act.
HELD THAT:- A three-Judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in a case of Adalat Prasad Vrs. Rooplal Jindal & Ors. [2004 (8) TMI 647 - SUPREME COURT] held that after taking cognizance of the complaint and examining the complainant and the witnesses, if the Magistrate is satisfied that there is sufficient ground to proceed with the complaint, he can issue process by way of summons under Section 204 of the Code and thereafter there is no scope for the accused to approach the Court by making an application for dismissal of the complaint under Section 203 of the Code on reconsideration of the materials available on record as already the phase of taking decision under Section 203 by the Magistrate is already over.
The learned Magistrate committed error in discharging the respondent No. 1 on his application filed challenging maintainability of the proceeding. Once the Magistrate has issued summons to him asking his appearance, said Court was to follow the procedure laid down in Chapter XX of the Code and to take the proceeding to its logical end. Therefore, the impugned order is liable to be set aside.
The issue regarding the maintainability of the proceeding is concerned, the same is kept open to be decided by the learned trial Court at the time of final hearing of this case, since it is already held by this Court that the impugned order was passed by the said Court without having the jurisdiction to do so.
The impugned order dated 03.12.2024 passed by learned Addl. Chief Judicial Magistrate, West Tripura, Agartala in case No. NI 51/2018 is hereby set aside. The original proceeding is restored to its file - petition allowed.
TaxTMI