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ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Rejection of Petitioner’s Application for revocation of cancellation - dismissal of petitioner's appeal on the ground of time limitation - non-speaking SCN - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- The order for cancellation for registration dated 31 August 2023 does not reflect any consideration of such reply. In fact, this order does not even specifically refer to the cancellation of registration except in its title - The cancellation order must reflect the due consideration of the noticee’s response and contain reasons for the drastic action of cancellation of the registration.
The show-cause notice in this case is blissfully vague. Therefore, if this order dated 31 August 2023 is to be read along with the vague show cause notice dated 18 August 2023, even this order dated 31 August 2023 must be set aside. This order is vague, non-speaking and unreasoned.
The Petitioner then applied for revocation of the cancellation, again, by furnishing material regards the place of business. Even this Application was rejected on 08 December 2023, stating that the valid address proof for the place of business had not been submitted. This is more of a conclusion than a reason. There is nothing even in this order to indicate any consideration of the compliance filed by the Petitioner.
The show cause notice dated 18 August 2023, the cancellation order dated 31 August 2023 and the order of rejection of Application for revocation of cancellation dated 08 December 2023 set aside - As a result of such quashing, the Petitioner’s registration would revive and is declared as revived.
Application disposed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Challenge to provisional attachment of the bank account - an appeal has been filed by the Petitioner and the pre-deposit has already been made - HELD THAT:- A perusal of Section 107(7) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the judgments relied on, would show that once an appeal is filed and pre-deposit is made, there is automatic stay of the impugned order. In view thereof, the attachment of the bank account is not sustainable.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Detention of goods - on the e-way bill, the name of the transporter was not mentioned - intent to evade tax and penalty or not - HELD THAT:- The record shows that the goods were transported from Delhi to Delhi, against which tax invoice, e-way bill, etc. were issued. On perusal of the e-way bill (Annexure No. 19 to the writ petition), it is clear that the transporter's name was not mentioned, but the truck number and all other details were clearly mentioned. An inference has been drawn on the statement of the truck driver that the goods were coming from Delhi meant for Ghaziabad. The record further shows that in the grounds of appeal, specific averment has been made that the goods gone for full truck load to its godwon, which has not been denied at any stage. Further, in absence of any finding with regard to intention to evade payment of tax, the penalty proceedings under section 129 of the GST Act cannot be attracted and therefore, the same cannot be justified as held by this Court in M/s. Varun Beverages Limited v. State of U.P. and 2 Others [2023 (2) TMI 133 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT].
The impugned order dated 30.04.2021 passed by the respondent no. 2 as well as the impugned appellate order dated 23.10.2021 passed by the respondent no. 1 cannot be sustained in the eyes of law. The same are hereby quashed.
Petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Grant of bail in economic offences - compundable offence with right to appeal against tax determination - trial before Judicial Magistrate - deposit of disputed input tax as mitigating factor - custodial period and pendency of trial as ground for bail - documentary and electronic evidence reducing risk of tampering - application of Ratnambar Kaushik in bail assessment - conditions of bail including personal bond, sureties and passport deposit
Grant of bail in economic offences - compundable offence with right to appeal against tax determination - deposit of disputed input tax as mitigating factor - custodial period and pendency of trial as ground for bail - application of Ratnambar Kaushik in bail assessment - Whether the petitioner is entitled to be released on bail. - HELD THAT: - The Court considered that the offence under Section 132(1) of the CGST Act is bailable and compundable up to the quantum of five crore and is exclusively triable by the Judicial Magistrate. It noted the petitioner has been in judicial custody since 2.5.2025, the complaint/charge-sheet has been filed and a portion of the disputed input tax (Rs. 1,37,27,000/-) has been deposited. Relying on the principle applied in Ratnambar Kaushik, the Court observed that where investigation and charge-sheeting are complete, the accused has undergone custodial incarceration and the trial would take considerable time, these factors weighed in favour of bail. The Court also took into account the absence of criminal antecedents and the availability of statutory remedies to challenge tax determination, concluding that, without expressing any opinion on merits, the balance of factors justified releasing the petitioner on bail subject to conditions. [Paras 8]
Bail granted to the petitioner on account of the nature of the offence being bailable/compundable, deposit of disputed tax, custodial period, absence of antecedents and applying Ratnambar Kaushik.
Conditions of bail including personal bond, sureties and passport deposit - trial before Judicial Magistrate - conditions to secure presence and participation in trial - What conditions should be imposed upon granting bail. - HELD THAT: - The Court prescribed terms to secure the petitioner's attendance and participation in trial. It directed the petitioner to furnish a personal bond with two sureties to the satisfaction of the trial court, to deposit his passport, and not to travel abroad without prior permission of the trial court. The conditions are framed as protective measures to ensure presence for trial and do not opine on the merits of the complaint. [Paras 9]
Bail subject to a personal bond and sureties, deposit of passport and prohibition on foreign travel without trial court permission.
Final Conclusion: The bail application is allowed; the petitioner is released on bail on furnishing the specified bond and sureties and subject to passport deposit and travel restrictions, while the trial proceeds and without any expression on the merits of the case.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Rejection of refund claim on the ground of time limitation - HELD THAT:- The Notification dated 05 July 2022 excludes the period from 01 March 2020 to 28 February 2022 for computation of the limitation period for filing a refund application under Section 54 or Section 55 of the CGST Act. Irrespective of whether the Petitioner cited or relied upon such Notification, the 1st and 2nd Respondents should have taken cognisance of such Notification and not nonsuit the Petitioner, by citing the bar of limitation.
Even the reasoning of the Appellate Authority for not following the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court or this Court is not quite appealing. In any event, the Notification dated 05 July 2022 clinches the issue, and based upon the same, the Petitioner’s Application could not be held to have been barred by limitation.
The impugned order-in-appeal dated 22 June 2022, and the order dated 27 October 2021 are hereby set aside, and the 2nd Respondent is now directed to consider afresh and decide the Petitioner’s refund application on merits (and not on limitation), within 60 days from the date of uploading of this order. The 2nd Respondent must hear the Petitioner and pass a reasoned order, which must be communicated to the Petitioner within this period of 60 days.
Petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Issuance of SCN within the period of limitation, as prescribed u/s 73 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 - adequate opportunity has been afforded to the Petitioner for filing a reply with respect to the impugned SCN and for participating in the personal hearings thereafter or not - principles of natural justice.
Whether the impugned SCN was issued to the Petitioner within the period of limitation, as prescribed under Section 73 of the CGST Act? - HELD THAT:- Under the Scheme of Section 73 of the CGST Act, whenever it appears to the ‘proper officer’ that any tax has not been paid or short paid or has been erroneously refunded or where ITC has been wrongly availed or utilized, a notice can be served on the person chargeable with such tax, requiring to show cause as to why he should not pay the amount specified in the notice along with interest payable thereon.
The statutory intent behind providing this gap of 3 months can be interpreted to arise from a further reading of Section 73, CGST Act wherein, Section 73(3), CGST Act contemplates the service of a statement upon the noticee, giving all the details of the demand proposed to be raised. Further, under Section 73(5), CGST Act, the noticee has the option of paying the tax by doing a self-assessment and if such amount is paid within 30 days of the issuance of the show cause notice under Section 73(1), CGST Act, no penalty would be payable by the noticee.
In the facts of the present case, the period under Section 73(10), CGST Act, for issuance of the impugned order was to end on 28th February, 2025. Calculating backwards, the impugned SCN had to be issued at least three months prior to 28th February, 2025 i.e., there ought to be a clear three months period between the date of issuance of the impugned SCN and the outer limit for passing of the impugned order - upon a careful consideration of all the facts and circumstances of this case, read with all the relevant case laws, as relied upon by the parties, this Court is of the opinion that the issuance of the impugned SCN dated 30th November, 2024, is well within the stipulated time period of 3 three months before the passing of the impugned order dated 28th February, 2025. Thus, the impugned SCN and the impugned order, having been issued within the statutory limitations, are neither time barred nor issued without jurisdiction and are thus, not liable to be set aside on this ground.
Whether adequate opportunity has been granted to the Petitioner for filing a reply to the impugned SCN and for participating in the personal hearing? - HELD THAT:- It is only upon sufficient cause being shown, that an adjournment of hearing can be granted by the proper officer. The proviso to the said provision states that a maximum of three adjournments can be granted in any circumstance - In the present case, for the first hearing, an adjournment was sought and the same was granted. For the second hearing, no adjournment appears to have been sought. In fact, in the reply dated 22nd January, 2025, even if it is presumed that the Petitioner sought a hearing, the hearing was granted on 27th January, 2025 but was not attended by the Petitioner.
A conjoint reading of all the relevant notices along with the replies filed by the Petitioner would show that adequate opportunity has been granted by the Respondent-Department for filing of reply and for personal hearing. The interpretation given to Section 75(5), CGST Act, that a minimum of three adjournments ought to be granted is not tenable. In terms of the said provision, it is a maximum of three adjournments that can be granted upon showing sufficient cause and upon a request being made - this Court is of the view that entertaining the present writ petition is not warranted.
This Court is not inclined to entertain the present writ petition. However, considering the nature of the demand raised in the impugned order, since the order is an appealable order, the Petitioner is permitted to avail of the appellate remedy by 31st August 2025, along with the necessary pre-deposit mandated under Section 107 of the CGST Act, in which case the appeal shall be adjudicated on merits and shall not be dismissed on the ground of limitation.
Petition dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Issuance of multiple SCN on same subject matter and period - multiplicity of proceedings - requirement of authorities to act upon SCN, notwithstanding the subsisting stay granted by the High Court of Karnataka - HELD THAT:- If multiple show cause notices are issued and conferring jurisdiction on a plurality of officers on the same subject matter, it would result in chaos, harassment, contrary and conflicting decisions. The show cause notice dated 03.08.2024 issued by DGGI for the same period and on same subject matter pending before the High Court of Karnataka (which includes turnover of Goa Branch), no adjudication should have been carried out by respondent no. 1 as it would result in duplication of proceedings or multiplicity of proceedings on same issue for same period. In other words, the subject proceedings should have been transferred to the DGGI for further adjudication as the notice issued by DGGI is on all India basis (including Goa Branch).
It was held in Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd. [2004 (4) TMI 342 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] that an order passed on writ petition questioning the constitutionality of a Parliamentary Act, whether interim or final, will have effect throughout the territory of India subject to the applicability of the Act.
The decision in the case of Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd. would cover the issue of the present petitioner as the show cause notice dated 03.08.2024 was challenged before the High Court of Karnataka and the same has been stayed. The fact that the DGGI, Mumbai had issued notice on all India basis, which included the demand for Goa branch also and it was informed to the respondent no. 1 to keep the subject show cause notice proceedings in abeyance but the said request was ignored and the respondent no. 1 proceeded to adjudicate the matter and passed the order dated 30.01.2025 confirming the demand of GST on the very same issue which is set aside in view of the judgment passed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd. it is deemed appropriate to allow the petition.
Petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Applicability of time limitation on revised refund claim - barred by limitation of time in view of the N/N. 02/2019-CT dated 29.01.2019 - HELD THAT:- Vide a common impugned order the application about refund for three different periods had been decided by the appellate authority and now the applicability of the judgment passed by the Hon’ble Apex Court in case of suo motu Petition (Civil) No.3/2020 [2021 (3) TMI 497 - SC ORDER] and Circular No.157/13/2021- GST and as per Notification No.13/2020 Central Tax dated 05.07.2022 are liable to be considered after the remand, therefore, it would be proper to remand all these three matters by disposing all the writ petitions to be decided afresh. If occasion so arises, the respondents shall be at liberty to raise all the grounds in a subsequent writ petition or any other proceedings.
The impugned orders dated 18.02.2021 passed by the respondent No.2, 28.10.2020 passed by the respondent No.3 and 27.01.2021 passed by the respondent No.5 are hereby set aside. The matters are remanded back to the First Appellate Authority - petition allowed in part.
Issues: Whether the appeal under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 could be dismissed solely for non-submission of a self-certified copy of the impugned order, and whether the dismissal order was liable to be set aside with restoration of the appeal.
Analysis: The dismissal of the statutory appeal rested only on the absence of a self-certified copy. The Court noted that the defect had been treated as curable in similar cases and that no distinguishing feature was shown to justify a different course. The objection based on limitation under Section 107(1) did not warrant sustaining the dismissal in the facts of the case.
Conclusion: The dismissal order was set aside and the petitioner was permitted to file the self-certified copy within fifteen days, whereupon the appeal was to be restored and decided on merits by the Appellate Authority.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition succeeded, the impugned appellate dismissal was annulled, and the statutory appeal was directed to proceed for decision on merits.
Ratio Decidendi: A statutory appeal should not be rejected only for non-submission of a self-certified copy where the defect is curable and the appeal can be restored without defeating adjudication on merits.
Dismissal of appeal filed by petitioner - dismissal only on the ground that self-certified copy of order against which appeal was filed, was not submitted - applicability of time limitation - HELD THAT:- Keeping in view the facts and circumstances as above, order dated 17.01.2025 (Annexure P5) is set aside with liberty to petitioner to file self-certified copy of order appealed against before the Appellate Authority within a period of fifteen (15) days from today. In case, such self-certified copy of order is filed by appellant before Appellate Authority within a period of fifteen (15) days henceforth, appeal be restored and decided on merits by the Appellate Authority expeditiously and preferably within a period of two months therefrom.
Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Estoppel by prior adjudication - Double taxation - Liability to pay Goods and Services Tax by developer under a Joint Development Agreement - Adjudication order quashing - Preclusive effect of revenue's earlier acceptance of an agreement and payment
Estoppel by prior adjudication - Double taxation - Liability to pay Goods and Services Tax by developer under a Joint Development Agreement - Adjudication order quashing - Impugned Adjudication Order dated 30.12.2023 holding the petitioner liable to pay GST for the period July-2017 to March-2018 was unsustainable and set aside. - HELD THAT: - The Court found that an earlier adjudication (dated 28.12.2023) by the Deputy Commissioner, Audit-4.1, had imposed and the registered developer M/s. DivyaSree Projects had discharged the GST liability in respect of the entire property (including the share claimed by the petitioner under the Joint Development Agreement dated 06.02.2017). In those circumstances respondent No.1 was estopped from adopting a contrary conclusion in the impugned order that the Joint Development Agreement was unregistered and that the petitioner (landowner) alone was liable to pay tax. Because the Department had recognised and acted upon the Joint Development Agreement in the earlier adjudication and accepted payment, calling upon the petitioner to pay again would amount to double taxation; accordingly the impugned adjudication was quashed. The Court therefore did not permit respondent No.1 to take a diametrically opposite stand after the Department had accepted and given effect to the agreement in the prior order. [Paras 5, 8, 9, 10]
The petition is allowed; the Adjudication Order dated 30.12.2023 and its Form GST DRC-07 summary are quashed.
Final Conclusion: The High Court allowed the petition and quashed the adjudication order dated 30.12.2023 (and its Form GST DRC-07 summary) because an earlier adjudication had fixed and been satisfied by the registered developer, producing an estoppel against the revenue and preventing double taxation of the petitioner.
Issues: Whether the appellate order dismissing the refund appeal was liable to be set aside for failure to consider all the grounds raised by the appellant and for non-application of mind.
Analysis: The appeal memo contained several grounds on merits in support of the refund claim, but the appellate authority dealt only with the ground based on the Advance Ruling Authority's decision. The other grounds were neither adverted to nor evaluated. Such omission indicated that the appeal had not been properly examined and amounted to non-application of mind.
Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the matter was remanded to the appellate authority for a fresh decision on the appeal.
Ratio Decidendi: An appellate order that fails to consider the substantive grounds raised and addresses only one ground without evaluating the remaining issues is vulnerable to interference for non-application of mind, warranting remand for fresh adjudication.
Dismissal of petitioner's appeal - various grounds have not even been considered - non-application of mind - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- It is apparent that the decision of the Advance Ruling Authority was only one of the grounds raised by the Petitioner in support of the plea for refund. Apart from this ground, several grounds on merits were raised by the Petitioner, and these grounds have been transcribed in the impugned order.
However, upon referring to the discussion, it is apparent that the Commissioner (Appeals) has addressed only one of the grounds, namely the ground based on the decision of the Advance Ruling Authority. None of the other grounds on merits have even been adverted to, much less considered or evaluated. This omission does suggest non- application of mind or, in any event, indicates that the Petitioner’s Appeal has not been properly evaluated. On this short ground, the impugned order warrants interference.
Matter remanded to the Additional Commissioner (Appeals) (Respondent No. 4) for a fresh decision on the Petitioner’s Appeal against the orders dated 15 September 2022. The Additional Commissioner (Appeals) should endeavour to dispose of this Appeal within three months of the uploading of this order - appeal allowed by way of remand.
The Supreme Court, through Justices M. M. Sundresh and Aravind Kumar, rejected the application for oral hearing and condoned the delay. Upon review of the petition and the Criminal Appeal record, the Court found "no error apparent warranting its reconsideration." Consequently, the Review Petition was dismissed, and all pending applications were disposed of.
Review petition - Offence punishable u/s 276CC - mens rea of the petitioner - rebuttal of presumption u/s 278E - non filing of the income tax return for the assessment year 2012-2013 - as decided [2024 (12) TMI 1219 - SC ORDER] continuing the criminal proceedings would be unnecessary. We are dealing with a case where the appellant did in fact file the revised income tax return, and penalty proceedings which were initiated against the appellant itself have been dropped. As a consequence, refund was also ordered. Criminal proceedings initiated under Section 276CC against the appellant stands quashed.
HELD THAT:- As perused the Review Petition and record of the Criminal Appeal and are convinced that the order, of which review has been sought, does not suffer from any error apparent warranting its reconsideration.
Review Petitions is, accordingly, dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Determinate Trust - Measures to plug loopholes for tax avoidance through the medium of private trusts – Section 164 - Validity of Circular No. 13/2014 dated 28.07.2014 issued by CBDT
Order passed by the respondent no. 2/BAR holds that if the names of the beneficiaries are not set out in the original Trust Deed then such Trust would be treated as “indeterminate” and resultantly be subject to Maximum Marginal Rate under the provisions of section 164 - Legality of instructions contained in Circular no. 13/2014 dated 28.07.2014
Petitioner contended that the provisions of Regulation 3(1) and Regulation 6(3) of the SEBI Regulations read with provisions of section 12 of the SEBI Act would prohibit the petitioner from accepting any investment or mentioning the name of the beneficiaries in the original Trust Deed unless the said provisions were scrupulously complied with and that too, only after obtaining the certificate of registration from SEBI
HELD THAT:- Circular NO. 13/2014 [F.NO. 225/78/2014-ITA.II] pertains to clarification issued by the CBDT in respect of section 164 of the Act particularly as to how the charge of tax, where the share of beneficiaries is unknown, is to be ascertained and determined. Apparently, this clarification is in respect of AIF entities having status of non-charitable Trusts.
The Circular clarifies that where the Trust Deed either does not name the investors or does not specify their beneficial interests, provisions of sub-section (1) of section 164 of the Act would be applicable and the entire income of the fund would be liable to be taxed at the Maximum Marginal Rate of income tax in the hands of the trustees of such AIFs in their capacity as “Representative Assessee”.
Interpretation and construction of the requirement of mentioning the names of the investors or their beneficial interests in the original Trust Deed was engaging the attention of the Courts. The said interpretation and construction of such a requirement has no bearing in respect of which of the assessment years were in question. This opinion is further strengthened by the fact that even before Circular no. 13/2014 was notified, Explanation 1 to section 164 of the Act was on the statute book with effect from 01.04.1980 having identical restrictions.
Karnataka High Court in India Advantage Fund [2017 (2) TMI 722 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] has succinctly tested the proposition and set out its opinion. The Court was interpreting the provisions of section 164 of the Act and considering whether shares are determinable even when even or after the trust is formed or may be in future when the Trust is in existence; and on the facts of that case had concluded that once the benefits are to be shared in the proportion to the investments made, any person with reasonable prudence would reach to the conclusion that the shares are determinable. Consequently, on such reasoning, the Karnataka High Court concluded that once the shares were determinable, it would meet the requirement of law to come out of the applicability of section 164 of the Act. We respectfully concur with such reasoning. Thus, the said submission is unmerited and untenable both on law as well as on facts.
Thus, in view of the ratio decidendi in the judgements of India Advantage Fund (supra) and TVS Shriram Growth Fund [2020 (10) TMI 665 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] coupled with our own analysis above, we find the impugned order dated 27.06.2024 of the respondent no. 2/BAR unsustainable and is accordingly set aside.
CBDT Circular No. 13/2014 is concerned we direct that the same be read down in the manner as constructed and interpreted by us hereinabove.
Non-maintainability of the present writ petition on the premise that a statutory appeal under section 245W of the Act is available to the petitioner - We are not quite convinced with the said submission. This is for the reason that existence of an alternate efficacious remedy though may bar exercise of discretionary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, 1950, however, is not a complete prohibition to exercise judicial review in such cases where it is deemed appropriate by the High Court. In the present case, though statutory appeal is available, yet, since the impugned order of BAR overlooks and ignores the interpretation and construction of section 164 of the Act by learned Division Bench of Karnataka and Madras High Court, this by itself would propel this Court to interfere with the impugned order.
Since the issue would have a wide impact on Category III AIFs all over the country, the remedy of an appeal specific to the petitioner may not be in public interest. The public interest as also the interest of the revenue would be sub-served, in our considered opinion, by exercising our jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, 1950. For the same reason, the impugned CBDT Circular No. 13/2014 also would be amenable to exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, 1950 since the recitals of Para 6 are contrary to the well settled principles of law.
Writ petition is allowed, the impugned order of the respondent no. 2/Board for Advance Rulings is quashed and set aside and simultaneously, the clarification contained in CBDT Circular No. 13/2014 dated 28.07.2014 is directed to be read down to conform to the above analysis and conclusion.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Faceless Assessment Scheme u/s 144B - violation of the principles of natural justice - Scope of provisions of Section 144B - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, in the present case, the Petitioner furnished its reply on 04.03.2025, to the final Show Cause Notice dated 21.02.2025 which is within the time granted by the 2nd Respondent himself on 28.02.2025. Therefore, the observations of the 2nd Respondent that no response is furnished by the Petitioner clearly proceeds on incorrect facts and cannot be sustained.
Not just that, it is also in violation of Section 144B(1)(xv) of the Act which specifically mandates that the reply of the Assessee as well as all material available with the Assessment Unit shall be taken into consideration before passing the final Assessment Order. Therefore, the impugned order deserves to be set aside on this ground itself.
Petitioner did seek a personal hearing by video conference. The said personal hearing has not been granted before passing the Assessment Order - This Court has, in the case of Vimal Trading [2025 (3) TMI 51 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] categorically held that grant of a personal hearing is mandatory in terms of Section 143 (3) of the Act.
A similar view has been taken by this Court in the case of M.I. Alloys [2025 (1) TMI 770 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. It is therefore evident the impugned order deserves to be quashed on both the above stated counts.
Issues: Whether, at the interim stage, the petitioner made out a strong prima facie case that tax deduction at source was not attracted when Transferrable Development Rights certificates were issued in lieu of compensation under the relevant provisions.
Analysis: The Court found, at least prima facie, that the words "or by any other mode" in Section 194C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and the corresponding words in Section 194LA, had to be read ejusdem generis with payment by cash, cheque, or draft. The Court further held, at this stage, that those provisions did not appear to cover issuance of TDR certificates in lieu of compensation. Support was drawn from Sections 194B and 194R, which specifically contemplate situations where payment is wholly or partly in kind, a feature absent from Sections 194C and 194LA.
Conclusion: The petitioner established a strong prima facie case for interim protection, and operation of the impugned order, demand notice, and penalty notice was stayed pending final disposal of the writ petition.
Assessee in default u/s 201 - TDS u/s 194C and 194LA - assessee not deducting TDS u/s 194C at the time of issuing Transferrable Development Rights (TDR) to the developer as per the instructions of the Slum Rehabilitation Authority - not deducted TDS u/s 194LA for issuing TDR in lieu of compensation for lands acquired for public purposes from the original owners as contemplated u/s 126 of the MRTP Act, 1966
As per assessee Section 194C does not contemplate deduction of TDS when payment is made by issuing TDR Certificates, was the submission and even Section 194LA which relates to deduction of TDS for payment of compensation on acquisition of immovable property, uses the same terminology.
HELD THAT:- As far as interim relief is concerned, at least, prima facie, we find substance in the argument canvassed by the Petitioner that the words “or by any other mode” appearing in Section 194C would have to be read ejusdem generis to the words “payment thereof in cash or by issue of a cheque or draft”. Similarly, in Section 194LA, the words “or by any other mode” would have to be read ejusdem generis to the words “payment of such sum in cash or by issue of a cheque or draft”.
Prima facie, we are of the view that Section 194C and Section 194LA would not apply when TDR Certificates are issued in lieu of compensation. As mentioned earlier, we find support for this reasoning by referring to Section 194B as well as Section 194R, which in fact contemplate as to what is to be done when payment is to be made entirely in kind or partly in cash and partly in kind. Those provisions are conspicuously absent in Section 194C as well as Section 194LA of the Income Tax Act.
Thus, Petitioner has made out a strong prima facie case for grant of interim relief. We accordingly order that pending the hearing and final disposal of the above Petition, implementation and operation of the impugned Order passed u/s 201 and 201(1A) of the Income Tax Act,1961 is hereby stayed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Retention of documents during survey u/s 133A - Validity of u/s 133A(3) (ia), order passed u/s 281B and order passed u/s 133(A)(3)(ia)(b) - Seeking direction to the respondents to return all the documents, paper, hard disk impounded by the order and the document taken without receipt of the petitioners - HELD THAT:- By way of reply, it is specifically stated by the respondents that during the survey proceedings, no hard copies of books of account like cash book, ledger and journal were found, therefore, none could be impounded.
Vide order dated 30.10.2007, this Court held that the petitioners / Company is entitled to obtain certified copies of the books of account and other documents impounded by the respondents on payment of charge prescribed under the law, hence, the respondents were directed to supply, in case the petitioners appliy for grant of certified copies of the relevant book of account and other documents.
During the pendency of this petition, the assessment proceedings were completed by the Assessing Officer. During the pendency of this petition, an interlocutory application was filed on 07.03.2007 seeking direction to hand over the assessment orders to the petitioners. The said order was complied with by the respondent.
Thereafter, the appeals were filed before the learned CIT, which were partly allowed, and the petitioners, thereafter, filed Income Tax Appeals before the learned ITAT, and all were dismissed by a common order. The petitioners have preferred the aforesaid income tax appeals, which have been admitted on common questions of law. Since all the impugned orders have culminated in assessment orders and have been upheld by the ITAT, therefore, this writ petition has rendered infructuous as all the appeals are liable to be decided on the question of law framed by this Court while admitting the appeal.
Share application money unexplained - Reliance on loose scrap of unsigned calculations on a paper that is not even a letter pad of the Appellant, nor does it bear any rubber stamp -Search was conducted by the Income Tax Authorities in the companys' affairs and the Income Tax Authority examined all the material, which was confirmed by the Commissioner of Income Tax as well as the ITAT. Therefore, loose scrap papers containing certain entries of money were found in corroboration with the bank statements, and the same were duly appreciated by the Assessing Officer, CIT as well as ITAT, and all the correspondence money found in the bank account has rightly been treated as books of account. Hence, the facts and the law involved in the case of V.C. Shukla[1998 (3) TMI 675 - SUPREME COURT]are different from the case at hand. Hence, question Nos. 1 & 2 are answered against the petitioners/appellants.
Appellant could not produce any documents before the Assessing Officer or the CIT because books of accounts were under seizure of the Department - Appellants could not produce any document before the Assessing Officer or CIT despite the opportunity available to them. In the writ petition, the interim order was passed for the supply of certified copies of the documents seized during the search. The respondents came up with the reply that in compliance with the said order, all the documents were supplied. Thereafter, the petitioners never filed any application alleging non-compliance with the order. Therefore, all the materials which were seized from the premises of the appellants were provided to them - Question No.3 is also answered against the appellants.
Survey operation carried out was actually a “search” or not? - Whether the order of assessments, as confirmed by ITAT, is bad in law and illegal as they were passed without following the procedure under Section 153-A, 153-B,153-C and 153-D? - Principal Officer, M/s Praksons Securities Ltd. mentioned that vide letter dated 21.12.2011, a request was made for supply of the copies of all the books of account seized during the search operation conducted on 2nd & 3rd March, 2006. The Assistant Commissioner has simply replied that in this connection, you are requested to please receive the photocopies of all the seized documents and books of account on 22.12.2011. Therefore, the Assistant Commissioner has never admitted in its letter that on 2nd & 3rd March, 2006, there was a search operation. The appellants tried to put the word search in the mouth of the Assistant Commissioner by mentioning the word search operation in their letter.
Admittedly, the provisions of Sections 153A to 153D of the Act apply in case of search under Section 132 of the Act and not in case of survey. Hence, questions No.4 & 5 are also answered against the appellants.
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Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - period of limitation - scope of new regime - TOLA was enacted to extend limitation periods during the COVID-19 pandemic under the old law -HELD THAT:- Notices u/s148 (unamended) were issued between 01.04.2021 and 30.06.2021. The said notices were treated as deemed notices u/s 148A (b) pursuant to the directions in Ashish Agrawal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] After issuing show-cause notices under Section 148A (b), reply /objection were filed by the assessee’s, orders u/s 148A (d) were passed and fresh reassessment notices u/s 148 (as amended) were issued most of which are dated post- July 2022.
All the above listed petitions are covered by the decision given by the Hon’ble Apex Court in Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
We find that the impugned notices in all the above listed petitions were issued beyond prescribed time and thus are held as time barred. The impugned notices in the petitions listed above are quashed. Assessee appeal allowed.
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Proceedings against the dead person - continued proceedings against the legal representatives - scope of Section 159 - HELD THAT:- As decided in SMT. PREETHI V, [2025 (1) TMI 1300 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] proceedings initiated against the Assessee by issuing notice after his demise cannot be continued against his/her legal representative. Had the proceedings been initiated against the Assessee during his life time, they could be continued against the legal representatives of the deceased Assessee. However, that is not the factual position here. Therefore, the order of the learned Single Judge cannot be faltered in quashing what were challenged before him.
Under the circumstances, the proceedings initiated against the dead person in the instant case is liable to be set aside.
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Denial of Foreign Tax Credit - Form 67 was not furnished along with the return filed u/s 139(1) of the Act but was filed belatedly - HELD THAT:- We observe that identical issue came up in the case of Neha Kapoor [2023 (9) TMI 31 - ITAT DELHI]as held Rule 128(9) of the Rules does not provide for disallowance of FTC in case of delay in filing Form No.67; (ii) filing of Form No.67 is not mandatory but a directory requirement and (iii) DTAA overrides the provisions of the Act and the Rules cannot be contrary to the Act. Thus we hereby direct the AO to allow the impugned credit of FTC to the assessee. Assessee appeal allowed.
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Disallowance u/s 14A r.w.r. 8D - AO made addition under 8D(2)(ii) in respect of interest and disallowance under 8D(2)(iii) being 0.5% of average investments -primary contention of the assessee is that the disallowance u/s 14A read with Rule 8D cannot be made on the basis of investment that do not yield any exempt income - HELD THAT:- We restore this issue to the file of the Assessing Officer who shall examine as to whether the opening balance of investment as on 01.04.2014 and also as on 31.03.2015 is Nil and consider only the income yielding investments if any for the purpose of disallowance under Rule 8D(2)(iii) r.w.s. 14A of the Act.
Disallowance under Rule 8D(2) is concerned, we direct the Assessing Officer to examine whether the assessee for the year ended 21.03.2015 has sufficient interest free funds for making investments which yielded dividend income during the year under consideration and if the interest free funds are more than the investments there cannot be any disallowance under Rule 8D(2)(ii). The AO shall examine this aspect with reference to the financials of the assessee and decide in accordance with law after providing adequate opportunity to the assessee.
Whether no satisfaction recorded? - We noticed that there was no suo moto disallowance made by the assessee u/s 14A towards expenditure incurred for earning exempt income during the current assessment year. On perusal of the assessment order, we noticed that the AO on examination of the audited financials of the assessee and considering the replies furnished by the assessee, recorded that he is not satisfied with the replies furnished by the assessee. Since the assessee had not made any suo moto disallowance there was no occasion for the AO to examine the expenditure incurred for earning exempt income. Therefore, the contention of the assessee that no satisfaction has been recorded is apparently not correct as the AO considered the reply and examined the financials and recorded his satisfaction that he is not satisfied with the submissions of the assessee that no expenditure has been incurred for earning exempt income.
Thus, the contention of the assessee that there was no satisfaction recorded and therefore no disallowance can be made u/s 14A is rejected.
Issues: Whether the assessee was liable to be treated as an assessee in default under section 201(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and liable for interest under section 201(1A) for non-deduction of tax at source under section 194C on payment of External Development Charges to HUDA.
Analysis: The payment of External Development Charges to HUDA was held to attract the provisions governing deduction of tax at source. The order under challenge had followed the binding jurisdictional High Court decision holding that such payments by real estate developers to HUDA fall within section 194C of the Income-tax Act, 1961. On that basis, failure to deduct tax at source justified treating the assessee as an assessee in default and levy of consequential interest.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the assessee and in favour of the Revenue; the assessee was rightly treated as an assessee in default and was liable to interest under section 201(1A).
Ratio Decidendi: Payment of External Development Charges to HUDA by a real estate developer attracts deduction of tax at source under section 194C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and non-deduction renders the payer an assessee in default under section 201(1), with consequential liability to interest under section 201(1A).
Assessee in default u/s 201(1) - non-deduction of tax at source in terms of section 194C for External Development Charges (EDC) paid to HUDA - HELD THAT:- We find that this issue was subject matter of consideration in the case of Puri construction [2024 (2) TMI 756 - DELHI HIGH COURT] wherein it was held that provisions of section 194C of the Act would get attracted in respect of EDC paid by real estate developers to HUDA.
We find that the CIT-A had followed the decision of Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court and held that EDC paid by the assessee without deduction of tax at source to HUDA makes the assessee as ‘assessee in default’ in terms of section 201(1) of the Act and consequentially liable for levy of interest under section 201(1A) of the Act. Decided against assessee.
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Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - Addition u/s 68 - amount received from the shell company - HELD THAT:- As in the annexure attached to notice u/s 148A(b) of the Act there has been no whisper about the escapement of income. Thereafter AO passed the order u/s 148A(d) of the Act dated 06.04.2022, wherein it has been stated that the assessee was given show cause notice and the same was replied.
Thereafter in the third last para of the order, AO simply noted that the amount received from the shell company is liable to be treated as income u/s 68 - AO thereafter noted that the assessee has received ₹17 lacs from M/s Eclcat Constructions Pvt. Ltd. in his bank account and failed to include the same in their return of income.
Simply discussing the modus operandi of the shell companies, the AO noted that ₹17 lacs is required to be added in the income of the assessee and it is a fit case for issuance of notice. Thus, we find that there is infirmity in the procedure followed by AO in reopening the case and accordingly, the legal issue raised by the assessee is dismissed.
Addition on account of sale of investments - The assessee has discharged the burden by furnishing all the evidences before the ld. AO as well as before the CIT (A) but both the authorities below have not commented on the evidences filed by the assessee. In these circumstances, we are not in a position to sustain the addition.
CIT (A) has not given any finding as to how the assessee has introduced his own money into its books of accounts and simply acted on presumption and surmises. Accordingly, we set aside the order of ld. CIT (A) and direct the AO to delete the addition.
Disallowance of salaries - AO noted that the assessee has paid salaries to 34 employees which in his opinion is excessive and unreasonable keeping in view the profile of the company - HELD THAT:- we find that the assessee has employed these employees on regular basis and these employees were being paid salaries constantly from the earlier assessment years. Both the authorities below have not point out any defect in the payments made by these employees and simply acted on the presumption that the salary is excessive and unreasonable. It is the domain of the assessee how to run the business and how many employees are to be employed in the company and the tax authorities have no role to play in the running of the business of the assessee. The ld. AO cannot be allowed to step into the shoe of the businessman. See S.A Builders [2006 (12) TMI 82 - SUPREME COURT]
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Validity of reopening of assessment - period of limitation - Notice u/s 148 as issued to the appellant at the end of 6th year - Assessee has paid External Development Charges (EDC) to HUDA without deducting TDS
HELD THAT:- There was nothing on the part of assessee which was lacking in disclosure in the return of income of assessment concluded u/s 143(3) of the Act as it was only subsequently, the issue about deductibility of TDS was judicially settled in favour of revenue and at the same time the Circular relied by ld. AO for reopening certainly doesn’t have retrospective effect as it is settled law that CBDT circulars are binding on the department but cannot override judicial interpretation or cannot be applied retrospectively to completed assessments.
Reliance for this can be placed on Suchitra Components Ltd.[2007 (1) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] and SIL Investments Ltd. [2010 (5) TMI 68 - HIGH COURT OF DELHI].
So reopening is not only bad being illegal exercise of jurisdiction u/s 147 of the Act being hit by Proviso to section 147 of the Act it is also bad for applying retrospectively a Circular which had no force of law binding on the AO for examining the issue in original assessment concluded u/s 143(3) of the Act, because same was not in place when assessment was conducted. Assessee appeal allowed.
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Addition u/s 68 - AO noted loan was not explained by the assessee and therefore, treated the same as unexplained investment - HELD THAT:- The provisions of Section 68 of the Act cannot be applied where the repayment of loan has been made even in the subsequent year.
The case of the assessee also finds support from the decision of Ambe Tradecorp (P.) Ltd. [2022 (7) TMI 902 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] in which as held that once the repayment of loan has been established based on the documentary evidences then the credit entries cannot be looked in isolation after ignoring the debit entries despite the fact that debit entries were carried out in the later years.
Even the case of the assessee is squarely covered in the case of Poddar Realtors [2023 (11) TMI 628 - ITAT KOLKATA] Consequently, we do not find any infirmity in the order of the CIT (A) and accordingly we uphold the order of the ld. CIT (A)by dismissing the appeal of the Revenue.
Addition u/s 69C - disallowance of interest paid on unsecured loan - HELD THAT:- CIT (A) deleted the addition after treating the loan as genuine so far as the loan of Everlight Vincom Private Limited. Since, we have affirmed the order of the ld. CIT (A) on this issue, therefore, the interest paid on the said loan is also rightly deleted by the ld. CIT (A).
So far as the interest amount paid to Rasili Barter Private Limited is concerned, we note that the ld. CIT (A) has recorded the finding that in A.Y. 2015-16, the assessee has taken the said loan from Rasili Barter Private Limited and AO has not made any reverse finding and no addition as made. Accordingly, we do not find any infirmity in the order of the ld. CIT (A). The ground no.2 is dismissed by upholding the order of the ld. CIT (A) on this issue.
Disallowance of 5% on account of bogus purchase - CIT (A) noted that the entire bogus purchases cannot be added to the income of the assessee and it is only the profit element embedded therein can be added - HELD THAT:- CIT (A) noted that in case of bogus purchases, the purchases are normally made from the grey market where the assessee made saves VAT and other incidental expenses and earn more than normal profit and hence, applied 5% on the bogus purchases over and above the profits declared in the books. Accordingly, we don’t find any infirmity in the order of the CIT (A) and accordingly, we affirm the same.
Appeal of the Revenue is dismissed.
Issues: Whether the assessee's additional evidence was rightly admitted and whether additions made on account of foreign bank account credits were sustainable under sections 68 and 69 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The assessee furnished foreign bank statements and US tax return material before the appellate authority. The appellate authority called for a remand report and, after considering the objections under Rule 46A of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, admitted the evidence. On merits, the material showed that the balances traced back to earlier years, including opening balances, ESOP-related receipts already taxed in earlier years, and rental receipts taxed in the USA. The Tribunal found no reason to disturb these factual findings and agreed that the credits were explained on the basis of the record.
Conclusion: The additions under sections 68 and 69 were not sustainable, and the appellate relief in favour of the assessee was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The Revenue's appeal failed and the deletion of the impugned additions was sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Once credits in a bank account are shown, on the basis of acceptable evidence, to represent earlier taxed receipts or opening balances, additions under sections 68 and 69 cannot be sustained.
Income exclusion method of elimination of double taxation under India-USA DTAA instead of tax credit method as per the tax treaty - Additions made u/s 68 and 69 -CIT(A) accepting plea of the assessee/Additional evidences allowed claim
HELD THAT:- The assessee lived in USA from 1997 and moved to India in August 2012. He was earlier employed with Amazon.com and all his emoluments were taxed as per US laws and the savings remain with his foreign bank accounts. From the order of the CIT(A), we find that the assessee was not maintaining books of account which he was also not required to maintain any books of account. There is no dispute that the assessee did not explain the large balance in the foreign bank account before the AO. It is equally true that the assessee furnished certain evidences during the appellate proceedings.
CIT(A) has examined the additional evidences in the nature of foreign Bank statements and ITRs filed in USA and found that various credits in the bank accounts pertain to opening balances, sale proceeds of ESOP received in earlier years and rent received in USA. CIT(A) examined the tax returns filed in USA and concluded the rent received in the banks are taxed in USA. Similarly, the sales consideration on account of ESOPs were also taxed in appropriate years.
CIT(A) as relying on Ivan Singh [2020 (2) TMI 850 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], Baladin Ram [1968 (8) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] and Ms. Mayawati [2011 (8) TMI 12 - DELHI HIGH COURT] as held no additions can be made u/s 68 of the amount which was credited in the preceding previous years - Decided in favour of assessee.
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LTCG - Determination of fair market value of the land - Departmental Valuation Officer, assumption of jurisdiction to determine the value - conversion rates taken as a benchmark for comparability with the fair market value of an independent property - HELD THAT:- When the Act prescribes specific modes for accepting the valuation of a property, then, without establishing that the two modes are not rationally applicable or have any hardship to comply with, the valuation cannot be on the basis of independent parameters. These independent parameter like circle rates or conversion rates notified by the Ministry of Urban Development may be used to corroborate the valuation reports prepared by expert or the DVO but resorting to these independent parameters without getting DVO report is not what the Act expects.
The evidentiary value of the valuation report given by expert needs to be disturbed by the AO on the basis of factual findings in the valuation report, rather on a general assumption or applying the rules of prudence, like done in present case.
The valuation report of the registered valuer has been prepared by qualified expert in the field after inspection of the premises and carrying out technical analysis. The same cannot be brushed aside on bald allegations that valuation done has been on higher side.
As a matter of fact, supplementary comparable sale deeds were provided by the assessee during assessment proceedings to corroborate the FMV determined by the registered valuer in the valuation report, however, the same have also not been considered by the AO. AO having sufficient powers of inquiry on his own has also not done any exercise of his own to inquire into the value of the surrounding property to disturb the FMV given by the qualified expert.
Then, without mentioning reasons for not making reference to Departmental Valuation Officer, assumption of jurisdiction to determine the value on his own, on the basis of circle rates and that too by interpolation and extrapolation of the rates was certainly not sustainable and, therefore, the DRP had rightly intervened to hold that AO was supposed to refer to DVO.
DRP also committed an error in giving direction to compute the cost of acquisition of the impugned property by applying Land & Development Office conversion rates.
We find justification in the contention of the ld. AR that conversion rates cannot be taken as a benchmark for comparability with the fair market value of an independent property, which is both a residential and commercial.
Ld. counsel has drawn our attention to Sanjeev Kumar Kathuria [2025 (3) TMI 143 - ITAT CHANDIGARH] where the L&DO land conversion rates were not approved for the purpose of determining fair market value/cost of acquisition of the property.
Thus, we are of the considered view that the AO, without rebutting and contradicting the valuation report of expert, which has a rebuttable evidentiary value under the Act, could not have resorted to any other mode but to make a reference to DVO only for the purpose of valuation of the impugned property.
As in the case of Vidhi Agarwal [2017 (12) TMI 134 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] has approved the finding of the Tribunal noting that when there is nothing on record to doubt the correctness of the report or its contents, the Valuer’s Report should have been accepted by the Department.
As in Ved Kumari Subhash Chander [2019 (10) TMI 239 - ITAT DELHI] has, in similar facts and circumstances, set aside the order directing the AO to recompute the fair market value of the land by taking into account the rate as adopted by the valuer. Assessee appeal allowed.
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Benami Property Transaction - Provisional Attachment Order - cash deposited in the accounts of proprietors - as argued no money was found during the course of search and that if the transactions are held to be fictitious then the same cannot be held to be benami transaction.
HELD THAT:- Benami transactions may be a transaction or an arrangement. The material made available to us goes to show that there were accommodation entries provided by M/s Ghanshyam Jewelers and M/s Raj Enterprises against some commission for routing the alleged unaccounted money during the period of demonetization. The so-called Proprietors of M/s Ghanshyam Jewelers and M/s Raj Enterprises have given their statements in this regard that they have lent their names against payment of commission, which goes to show that some arrangements were provided to the Beneficial Owners through the Benamidars, without transferring the gold bullion as stated in the preceding paras. Therefore, it is held that the transactions alleged against the Appellants are covered by the definition of Benami transactions as defined u/s Section 2(9) of the PBPTA.
As argued from the side of the Appellants that no money was found during the course of search - By no stretch of imagination, this can be accepted that if no money is found, then the entire allegations are false. It may so happen that the Appellants have concealed the money generated out of the arrangements on or before the search. So, the argument of the Appellants that the order is bad in law as no money was found during the search is liable to be rejected.
Appellant’s arguments that if it is alleged that the transactions are fictitious, then, there cannot be any benami transactions - In the present case, the Respondent Authority has argued that the Appellants had made arrangements of accommodation entries to route the OHD currencies during demonetization period with back-dated bills/kachha slips, so, it falls within the second limb of definition of Benami transaction i.e. ‘arrangement’. In view of the same, it is held that even though the word ‘fictitious transactions’ have been used, the same is nothing but an arrangement, therefore, can be termed as Benami transactions to defeat the law.
Non-verification of the names of the purchasers are concerned - As admitted fact that most of the retail sales of bullion were made below Rs. 1,00,000/- as shown in the kachha slips/books of account, wherein the name of the purchasers, their addresses and their PAN Card number were not mentioned. In the absence of these information, we failed to understand as to how the authorities will verify the name of purchasers. So, this contention of the Appellants has no legs to stand, therefore, cannot be accepted.
Assessment of Income Tax Authority has not been considered is also not acceptable. The assessment of income is for the purpose of only ascertaining the tax to be paid by the assessee. This has nothing to do with the present proceedings under the PBPTA. So, the contention of the Appellants cannot be accepted.
It is also to be noted that no appeal has been filed by the Benamidar Sh. Yogesh B. More in reference no. 139/2017.
Sh. Kapil D. Patel and Sh. Ajeshbhai A. Patel regarding retraction of their statements are also not accepted in view of the fact that these two Appellants have retracted their statements much after the statement made before the Authorities under Income Tax Act, which is nothing but an afterthought. The judgments of Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in the matter of Narayan Bhagwantrao Gosavi Balajiwale v. Gopal Vinayak Gosavi [1959 (9) TMI 53 - SUPREME COURT] and Avadh Kishore Das v. Ram Gopal [1978 (12) TMI 185 - SUPREME COURT] cited by the Respondent Authority are applicable to the present fact and circumstances of the case. The retraction is held to be an afterthought. Therefore, this contention is of no help to the Appellants.
Appellants have failed to substantiate their respective cases. The appeals are devoid of merits and hence liable to be dismissed.
Issues: Whether the order-in-original was liable to be quashed for violation of principles of natural justice on account of non-consideration of the petitioner's reply and failure to grant personal hearings at sufficient intervals as required by the departmental circular.
Analysis: The impugned order recorded that no reply had been filed, although the petitioner had sent a reply to the show cause notice and it was received well before the adjudication order. The reply was not considered, showing non-application of mind. The record also showed that personal hearings were fixed on three consecutive dates without sufficient interval. Clause 14.3 of Circular No. 1053/2/2017-CX requires at least three opportunities of personal hearing with sufficient interval of time and separate communications for each opportunity. That requirement was treated as mandatory, and the adjudication process did not satisfy it.
Conclusion: The order-in-original was vitiated for breach of natural justice and was set aside.
Final Conclusion: The matter was remitted to the adjudicating authority for fresh consideration on merits after affording three effective personal hearings and considering the petitioner's reply.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a mandatory adjudicatory procedure requires multiple personal hearings at sufficient intervals and the noticee's reply has in fact been filed, failure to consider the reply and to follow the hearing protocol vitiates the order for breach of natural justice.
Violation of principles of natural justice - respondent has not adhered to the CBIC Circular, dated 10.03.2017 by affording three personal hearings to the petitioner with sufficient interval of time - reply sent by the petitioner to the show cause notice has not been considered in the impugned order-in-original - rejection of petitioner's classification - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, the personal hearing dates for the petitioner were fixed on 09.10.2024, 10.10.2024 and 11.10.2024, but however, the petitioner failed to appear on the said dates. However, as seen from Clause 14.3 of the Board's Circular, dated 10.03.2017, it has been made clear that there should be sufficient interval of time between the personal hearing dates and further it has been made clear that separate notice of personal hearing will have to be sent by the respondent for each and every personal hearing. However, as seen from the personal hearing dates, the respondent has fixed the date of personal hearings consecutively without any sufficient interval of time as the hearing dates were fixed on 09.10.2024, 10.10.2024 and 11.10.2024 which are consecutive dates.
The petitioner has also placed on record before this Court the reply sent by the petitioner to the respondent, dated 18.05.2024. Admittedly, the said reply has not been considered in the impugned order-in-original. The petitioner in the said reply has categorically contended by giving reasons as to why the classification declared by the petitioner is the correct classification. However, in the impugned order-in- original, the respondent has stated that no reply was received from the petitioner. The impugned order-in-original is dated 17.10.2024. The reply sent by the petitioner was on 18.05.2024 and received by the respondent on 20.05.2024. When the impugned order-in-original has been passed only on 17.10.2024, the respondent ought to have considered the reply submitted by the petitioner, which is dated 18.05.2024 and admittedly, the same was also received by the respondent on 20.05.2024. However, in the impugned order-in-original, it has been stated that no reply was received from the petitioner by total non application of mind.
This Court is of the considered view that the impugned order-in-original has been passed in violation of principles of natural justice by not considering the reply sent by the petitioner dated 18.05.2024 and also by not adhering to Clause 14.3. of the Board Circular, dated 10.03.2017 which makes it clear that three personal hearing notices will have to be given to the petitioner by fixing personal hearing dates at sufficient intervals of time.
The matter will have to be remanded back to the respondent for fresh consideration, on merits and in accordance with law within a time frame to be fixed by this Court, after adhering to the principles of natural justice and by affording three personal hearings to the petitioner - Petition allowed by way of remand.
Issues: Whether the impugned order confirming the duty drawback demand was liable to be quashed for violation of principles of natural justice, and whether the matter should be remanded for fresh adjudication after granting further opportunity to produce Bank Realization Certificates and other documents.
Analysis: The demand arose from alleged non-compliance with Rule 16A of the Customs, Central Excise & Service Tax Drawback Rules, 1995 read with the proviso to Section 75(1) of the Customs Act, 1962. The petitioner asserted that the relevant Bank Realization Certificates for the export period were available and that only one personal hearing had been granted before the adverse order. The record disclosed that only a single hearing had been afforded. In view of the claim that the supporting documents were available and the requirement of fair opportunity in adjudication, the petitioner was entitled to one more opportunity to place the materials before the authority.
Conclusion: The impugned order was quashed and the matter was remanded to the same authority for fresh consideration after affording an opportunity to produce the relevant documents and after following the principles of natural justice.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an adjudication affecting duty drawback liability is passed after only one opportunity of hearing, and the assessee asserts availability of material documents supporting its defence, the order is liable to be set aside and the matter remitted for fresh decision after due opportunity.
Violation of principles of natural justice - opportunity of hearing was provided only once rather than three time as required - failure to produce Bank Realization Certificates for the subject exports for the periods 2009-10, 2010-11, 2011-12, 2012-13 and 2013-14 - HELD THAT:- In the case on hand, admittedly as seen from the impugned order in original, the above procedure has not been followed. Only one personal hearing was afforded and thereafter the impugned order in original came to be passed. Since the petitioner has also filed documents before this Court to establish their case that they have the Bank Realization Certificates for the subject period for which the demand has been made and since only one personal hearing was afforded to the petitioner prior to passing of the impugned order in original, necessarily one more opportunity should be granted to the petitioner to place all the relevant documents, which includes the Bank Realization Certificates for the subject period from 2009-10 to 2013-14 to enable the respondent to consider the matter afresh on merits and in accordance with law and thereafter decide as to whether the petitioner is still liable to pay the amount as per the impugned demand or not.
Since the respondent had violated the principles of natural Justice and since the petitioner has also filed documents to substantiate their contention that they are not liable to pay the amount stipulated under the impugned order in original, this Court is of the considered view that the impugned order in original has to be quashed and the matter has to be remanded back to the very same respondent for fresh consideration on merits and in accordance with law and after affording an opportunity to the petitioner to produce the Bank Realization Certificates for the subject period and other documents, if any. This Court is not expressing any opinion on the merits of the petitioner's contentions. It is for the respondent to consider the same on merits while passing the final orders pursuant to the directions issued by this Court today.
The matter is remanded back to the respondent for fresh consideration on merits and in accordance with law - Petition allowed by way of remand.
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Dismissal of appeal on the ground of limitation as the appeal was filed purportedly beyond the limitation prescribed under Section 128 of the Customs Act, 1962 - contention of the petitioner is that the petitioner has neither exported nor filed any shipping bill nor had filed the mentioned letter - HELD THAT:- The matter requires a detailed consideration. Considering the fact that the petitioner claims that the petitioner had neither received a show cause notice nor was heard before the Order-in-Original was passed nor the Order-in-Original was served to the petitioner earlier, to balance the interest of the petitioner and the respondents, the case is remitted back to the first respondent/Appellate Commissioner to redo the exercise. It is open for the petitioner to request the Appellate Commissioner to summon for the records before passing final orders. This exercise shall be completed by the first respondent within a period of six (6) weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
Petition disposed off.
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Violation of principles of natural justice - detention and confiscation of goods without issuance of SCN - Opportunity of hearing not provided - HELD THAT:- The Order-in-Original dated 29th March, 2024 is an appealable order. Though the time for appeal has already lapsed, considering the fact that no personal hearing had been granted in this case, the Petitioner is permitted to file an appeal before the Appellate Authority within thirty days. The same shall be disposed of within three months from the date of filing of the appeal.
Insofar as the gold chain of the Petitioner is concerned, subject to payment of Rs. 45,000/- the gold chain may be released to the Petitioner.
Petition disposed off.
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RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Entitlement to claim export benefit on a subsequent date if not so claimed along with original shipping bill - Amendment of shipping bills - grant of benefits under the remission of duties and taxes on exported products - HELD THAT:- There are situations where the assessee by inadvertence or even otherwise has uploaded certificate/forms or returns which contains some errors which would require correction. The said correction or amendment cannot be denied on the basis of the technological system which has been introduced by the Department to contend that the software does not allow for such amendment. Prior to software being introduced, it was always available to allow amendment of the documents by the petitioner physically by submitting the application which would be considered by the concerned authorities. Merely because of a software system is introduced, it would not mean that the software would override the principles of natural justice and rights of the parties. The software cannot govern the relationship between the assessee and the revenue.
It would therefore required for the revenue to implement such features as may be required in the software to enable the petitioner to amend any of the documents filed subject of course to certain restrictions and supervision of the concerned authorities. In as much as, these amendments can be allowed to be made by the assessee after prior approval of the concerned authorities by following due procedure in relation thereof.
A Mandamus is issued directing the respondents to either permit the petitioner to amend the shipping bills in the online system or accepting the amendment submitted by the petitioner manually and process the same within a period of four weeks from the date of submission of such amended documents by the petitioner - Petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Sanction of non-observance of conditions under Section 111(o) - discretion not to confiscate despite liability under Section 111 - penalty not imposable under Section 112 where non-observance is sanctioned - residuary penalty under Section 117 unavailable where express penalty provision applies
Sanction of non-observance of conditions under Section 111(o) - discretion not to confiscate despite liability under Section 111 - Sanctioning the non-observance of the re-export condition and consequent liability to confiscation under section 111(o). - HELD THAT: - The adjudicating authority has the power to sanction non-observance of conditions subjecting exempted goods to confiscation; that power vests in the 'proper officer' who assesses the Bill of Entry or, where the question arises in adjudication, in the officer conducting adjudication (paras 13-16). Although goods falling under clause (o) of section 111 are "liable to confiscation," the expression denotes liability and not an absolute mandate to confiscate; the authority retains judicial discretion to refrain from confiscation in appropriate circumstances (paras 19-22). Applying these principles to the facts - disruption of carriage due to war and the absence of any recorded decision refusing sanction - the Tribunal exercised its discretion to sanction the non-observance of the re-export condition under section 111(o) (para 17). [Paras 16, 17]
Non-observance of the re-export condition is sanctioned under section 111(o); the imported vehicle is not liable to confiscation.
Penalty not imposable under Section 112 where non-observance is sanctioned - discretion to impose penalty under Section 112 - Imposability of penalty under section 112 consequent to the alleged failure to re-export within time. - HELD THAT: - Section 112 penalties flow from goods being liable to confiscation under section 111. Having sanctioned the non-observance of the condition and held that the goods are not liable to confiscation, there is no basis to sustain a penalty under section 112. The Tribunal also corrected the appellant's erroneous submission about a composite penalty and observed that the impugned order in fact imposed penalty only under section 112(ii) (paras 9, 17, 22). [Paras 9, 17]
Penalty under section 112 is not imposable and is set aside.
Residuary penalty under Section 117 unavailable where express penalty provision applies - Validity of imposition of penalty under section 117 in addition to penalty under section 112. - HELD THAT: - Section 117 is a residuary penal provision for contraventions where no express penalty is provided. The Commissioner had identified a contravention covered by section 112; therefore section 117 could not be invoked in respect of the same contravention. The Tribunal held that once the matter falls within section 112, a separate penalty under section 117 is not imposable (para 18). [Paras 18]
Penalty under section 117 is not imposable and is set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed: the non-observance of the re-export condition is sanctioned under section 111(o) so the vehicle is not liable to confiscation; the redemption fine and penalties imposed under sections 112 and 117 are set aside; consequential relief granted to the appellant; no order as to costs.
Issues: Whether the declared FOB value of export goods could be rejected and re-determined, and whether confiscation, redemption fine, and penalties could be sustained where the exporter had declared the transaction value for export benefits.
Analysis: The valuation framework under Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 and the Valuation Rules was applied to hold that, after the 2007 amendment, transaction value is the relevant export value, and the proper officer may only determine assessable value for customs purposes by rejecting the declared value under the Rules. The declared FOB value in the shipping bill remained the transaction value agreed between buyer and seller, and re-determination by customs did not alter that contractual value. Because drawback and MEIS benefits were linked to FOB value, the assessable value re-determined for customs purposes was held to be inconsequential in the absence of export duty. On confiscation, the only value an exporter can reasonably declare is the transaction value, and Section 113(i) was held inapplicable where the value declared in the shipping bill was not shown to be different from the transaction value. The consequent redemption fine and penalties also could not stand.
Conclusion: The re-determination of FOB value, confiscation of the goods, redemption fine, and penalties were unsustainable and were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded and the impugned order was annulled, leaving no operative adverse consequence against the exporter.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an exporter has declared the transaction value in the shipping bill, customs may re-determine assessable value under the valuation rules for customs purposes, but cannot treat the declared transaction value itself as false for confiscation unless the declaration is shown to depart from that transaction value; export-linked benefits based on FOB value are not displaced merely because assessable value is re-determined.
Transaction value - FOB value - re-determination of value - assessable value - Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Export Goods) Rules - confiscation under Section 113(i) - redemption fine under Section 125 - penalty under Section 114AA - drawback and export benefits based on FOB value
Transaction value - FOB value - re-determination of value - assessable value - Legal effect of rejection of declared value under the Valuation Rules and the distinction between transaction value (FOB) and assessable value. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the transaction value (FOB) is the contractual price between buyer and seller and cannot be altered by the proper officer; rejection under the Valuation Rules only means the officer refuses to accept that transaction value as the assessable value and may re-determine the assessable value by another method. The re-determined value becomes the assessable value for customs duty purposes but does not change the underlying transaction (contractual) consideration receivable by the exporter. An illustration was given to demonstrate that duty is payable on the re-determined assessable value, while the exporter remains entitled to the contractually agreed FOB. This legal position follows from the Valuation Rules and the amended Section 14 which makes the value, ordinarily, the transaction value subject to the officer's right to re-determine under the Rules. [Paras 11, 12, 13, 15, 22]
Rejection of declared transaction value under the Valuation Rules does not alter the transaction value itself; the officer may re-determine the assessable value which is then relevant for duty assessment.
Drawback and export benefits based on FOB value - transaction value - Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Export Goods) Rules - Whether re-determination of value by Customs affects entitlement to export benefits such as drawback, ROSL, MEIS and IGST refund. - HELD THAT: - The Court observed that export incentives (drawback, MEIS etc.) are calculated as a percentage of the FOB (transaction) value and not of the assessable value fixed for duty. Where no export duty is payable, re-determination of the assessable value is legally inconsequential to entitlement to export benefits, because those benefits continue to be measured by the FOB/transaction value. However, section 76(1)(b) operates as a separate statutory limit: if the amount of drawback payable on the transaction value exceeds the market price of the goods, drawback shall not be allowed. Otherwise, a higher transaction value per se does not disentitle the exporter from export benefits. [Paras 13, 24, 25, 26]
Export benefits are payable as a percentage of the FOB/transaction value; re-determination of assessable value does not, by itself, affect entitlement to those benefits except where section 76(1)(b) precludes drawback because the drawback exceeds market price.
Confiscation under Section 113(i) - redemption fine under Section 125 - penalty under Section 114AA - Sustainability of confiscation, redemption fine and penalties where the exporter declared the transaction value in the shipping bill but Customs re-determined value under the Valuation Rules. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that Section 113(i) makes export goods liable to confiscation where the goods 'do not correspond in respect of value' with the entry made under the Act (the shipping bill). The only value an exporter can reasonably be expected to declare is the transaction value (the contract price). If the exporter declared the true transaction value in the shipping bill, subsequent re-determination by the proper officer does not render the goods non-correspondent for the purpose of Section 113(i). Consequently, confiscation, and any redemption fine imposed in lieu of confiscation under Section 125, are not sustainable where there is no finding that the declared value was not the transaction value. On this basis the Court found the confiscation, redemption fine and the penalties under Section 114(iii)/114AA cannot be sustained and must be set aside. [Paras 16, 17, 27, 28]
Confiscation under Section 113(i), the redemption fine under Section 125 and penalties imposed cannot be sustained where the exporter declared the transaction value and there is no finding that the declared value was not the transaction value.
Final Conclusion: The re-determination of value by Customs affects only the assessable value for duty purposes and does not alter the contractual transaction (FOB) value; export benefits remain measured by the FOB value unless excluded by section 76(1)(b). Since the exporter declared the transaction value, confiscation, redemption fine and penalties imposed in the impugned orders were unsustainable and the appeal was allowed with the impugned order set aside.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Amendment of bills of entry under section 149 of the Customs Act, 1962 - no provisional assessment - duty was not paid under protest - applicant has not challenged the assessment in any court of law/appellant authority/tribunal - HELD THAT:- In ITC [2019 (9) TMI 802 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], the Supreme Court observed that the provisions of section 27 cannot be invoked in the absence of amendment or modification having been made in the Bills of Entry on the basis of which self-assessment was made. The Supreme Court further observed that refund proceedings are in the nature of execution proceedings and, therefore, the order of self-assessment is required to be followed unless modified/amended before the claim for refund is entertained under section 27.
Section 17(5) of the Customs Act only requires a speaking order to be issued if the proper officer re-assesses the Bills of Entry under section 17(4) of the Customs Act contrary to self-assessment. It has nothing to do with permitting amendment of any document by the assessee under section 149 of the Customs Act. The process of assessment under section 17 of the Customs Act comes to an end once an order clearing the goods for home consumption is given by the proper officer. This, however, would not prevent an assessee from seeking amendment of a document under section 149 of the Customs Act.
The Commissioner (Appeals) has followed the decisions of the Bombay High Court in Dimension Data India [2021 (1) TMI 1042 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and the Telangana High Court in Sony India [2021 (8) TMI 622 - TELANGANA HIGH COURT] to arrive at a conclusion that Trust Marketing can file an application section 149 of the Customs Act for seeking amendment in the 180 Bills of Entry filed during the period from February, 2014 to October, 2014. These two judgments of the Bombay High Court and the Telangana High Court have been followed by this Tribunal in Vivo Mobile [2021 (9) TMI 646 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] and Ingram Micro India [2024 (3) TMI 460 - CESTAT NEW DELHI]. There is, therefore, no error in the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals).
The appeal filed by the department, therefore, deserves to be dismissed and is dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Rejection of refund the excess amount of additional fees charged from the appellants and the companies amalgamated with interest - Circular No. 13/2019 dated 29.10.2019 issued by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs extended the date of submission of e-forms like AOC- 4, AOC-4(CFS) and AOC-4 XBRL upto 30.11.2019 without levy of additional fee or not - entitlement for exemptions from levy of additional fee for the period upto 30.11.2019 - HELD THAT:- Undoubtedly, Section 137(1) prescribes a period of 30 days from the date of holding of AGM for a Company to submit copy of its financial statements etc. with such fee or additional fee as may be prescribed within the time specified under Section 403 of the said Act. Section 403 provides that any document required to be submitted, filed or registered, or any fact or information required or authorised to be registered under the Companies Act shall be done in the manner stipulated within the time specified in the relevant provisions on payment of such fee as may be prescribed. Learned Single Judge relied upon Section 403 to conclude that the said Section does not give any discretion to extend the time of taking the statements under Section 92 or 137 of the Companies Act or of reducing/waiving the fines. Unfortunately, the proviso to Section 403 was overlooked by the learned Single Judge while interpreting such provisions.
A plain reading of the contents of the Circular leads us to observed that the Circular unequivocally postulates an extension of time for filing of financial statements for FY ending 31.03.2019, till upto 30.11.2019 for Companies without levy of additional fee. Once the time for submission of financial statements was extended from 29.10.2019 to 30.11.2019, such period would have to be considered conferring entitlement upon Companies to file/submit financial statements without levy of additional fee uptill 30.11.2019. If that were the case, then any company including the appellants herein had the right and entitlement to file its financial statements beyond 30.10.2019 but uptil 30.11.2019 without the necessity of paying additional fee. In such a scenario, if a company including the appellants submitted their financial statements beyond 30.11.2019, then having regard to the proviso to sub-section (1) of Section 403 of the Companies Act read with Circular no. 13/2019, no levy of additional fee upto 30.11.2019 could be demanded and an additional fee on or from 01.12.2019 to 21.12.2019 or any other later date, as the case may be, would undoubtedly be leviable upon the appellants.
The appellants have also not disputed, rather, have admitted that additional fee of Rs.100/- per day on or from 01.12.2019 to 21.12.2019 or any other later date, would be payable by the appellants.
The respondents are directed to calculate the additional fee at the rate of Rs.100/- per day for every day delay beyond 30.11.2019 in terms of Circular no. 13/2019 till the date of submission as the case maybe - appeal allowed.
The Supreme Court, through Hon'ble Justices Sanjay Kumar and Satish Chandra Sharma, dismissed the appeal against the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal's impugned judgment/order, finding "no good ground and reason to interfere." Consequently, the appeal was dismissed, and all pending applications were disposed of.
Seeking recall of the order - resignation of a director affects the maintainability of an appeal filed by that director on behalf of the corporate debtor or not - it was held by NCLAT that the resignation of a director nullifies their capacity to maintain an appeal on behalf of the corporate debtor, leading to the dismissal of the appeal.
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground and reason to interfere with the impugned judgment/order passed by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Contravention u/s 10(4) & Section 10(5) of FEMA, 1999 - Appellant responsible to alleged contravention - certain companies had hired transponders of foreign satellite, but had not sought permission to remit foreign exchange from the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting - penalty imposed on Deputy General Manager of Andhra Bank (now Union Bank of India)
HELD THAT:- When the alleged contravention took place in the Cannaught Circle Branch of the then Andhra Bank Ltd., appellant was working there.
In view of contention of respondent, specific query was put to the Ld. Counsel for the appellant to disclose the place of posting of the appellant in July, 2012 and December, 2012, so as to rule out his posting in the said Branch. But the Ld. Counsel for the appellant, instead of clarifying this factual position, consistently asserted that the appellant was working in the said Branch only from 04.08.2014 to 17.01.2017. This evasive answer on the part of the Ld. Counsel for the appellant, in-spite of specific query shows that he is trying to conceal the material fact regarding the posting of the appellant in July 2012 and December, 2012 by producing the posting order, and hence, he is intentionally trying to misguide this Tribunal just by relying upon subsequent posting order of the appellant in the Cannaught Circle Branch from 04.08.2014 to 17.01.2017.
It was duty on the part of the appellant to request his Bank to issue the letter reflecting his posting order for the period of July, 2012 to December, 2012, which he failed to do so. Thus, we are of considered view that in absence of any positive evidence to negate his posting from July, 2012 to December, 2012 in the concerned Branch, the present appeal needs to be dismissed being devoid of any merit.
Present appeal is hereby dismissed being devoid of any merits. The penalty of Rs. 10,000/- is hereby maintained, which is already on the lower side seeing the quantum of contravention. The said penalty is already deposited by the appellant, and accordingly, the said pre-deposit of Rs. 10,000/- stands adjusted against the said penalty amount. However, the appellant is at liberty to move the review petition along with his posting order from July, 2012 to December, 2012, within the period of limitation, if his contention is factually correct.
Money Laundering - allotment of sites - proceeds of crime - challenge to registration of Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR) against the petitioner arising out of predicate offence and consequent act of issuance of summons under Section 50 of PMLA - Whether the petitioner should be permitted to be investigated into on the impugned ECIR? - it was held by High Court that 'this Court is of the considered view that the petitioner cannot be permitted to be prosecuted for offences under the provisions of Money Laundering Act through the impugned ECIR. However, the findings rendered herein are for the purpose of consideration of the case qua the impugned ECIR. This would not become applicable to proceedings in Crime No. 11 of 2024.'
HELD THAT:- There are no error with the reasoning given by the learned Single Judge of the High Court in these cases.
The special leave petitions are, accordingly, dismissed.
Issues: Whether the provisional attachment of properties could be interfered with when the appellants admitted receipt of alleged proceeds of crime and claimed that the money was received bona fide as a loan without knowledge of the scheduled offence.
Analysis: The Tribunal noted that the appellants were not named in the FIRs, but they admitted receipt of Rs. 9.5 crores from the accused persons. The record showed no loan documents and no satisfactory proof of repayment. The Tribunal held that mere assertion of bona fide receipt without knowledge of the source did not displace the fact that the money constituted proceeds of crime in the hands of the appellants. Since the properties were found to have been acquired out of, or for value representing, such proceeds, provisional attachment was justified to secure the amount till completion of trial.
Conclusion: The challenge to the provisional attachment failed, and the attachment was upheld.
Ratio Decidendi: Property representing admitted proceeds of crime may be provisionally attached under the PMLA even if the recipient claims bona fide receipt, where the receipt is admitted and no credible loan or repayment basis is shown.
Money Laundering - proceeds of crime - preparation of 17 fake bills of entry and presenting the same before the ICICI Bank for foreign outward remittances - commission of crime under sections 120 B, 420, 465, 467, 468, 471, 477 A IPC - HELD THAT:- There is an admission on the part of the appellant for receipt of the crime proceed from the accused to the extent of Rs. 9.5 crores, thus the property was liable to be provisionally attached to secure the proceeds of crime till conclusion of the Trial. The interference in the order provisionally attaching the property cannot be made only for the reason that the amount was received by the appellant bonafidely without knowing about the involvement of the accused in commission of crime. The appellant in his statement under section 50 of the Act of 2002 had stated that he was a Director of M/s I.B. Commercial Pvt. Ltd. who is also an appellant along with Abdul Karim Ibrahim whose statement was recorded by the respondent. The entity owned by the appellant was in business of ship breaking and purchased and sale of distress assets. He was knowing Sh Afroz Mohamed Hasanfatta since long and had taken Rs. 9.5 crores from him in the month of March 2014.
However, the facts on record does not show the payment of loan amount and thus the respondent would justify attachment of proceeds of crime in the hands of the appellants. The statement of the appellant Abdul Karim Ibrahim was recorded even on 10.01.2019 under the Act of 2002 where again he has admitted about the receipt of 9.5 crores from the accused and his family members.
The appellant has admitted the receipt of proceeds of crime to the extent of 9.5 crores said to have been transferred as a loan but no loan document has been placed on record and otherwise it does not involve even repayment, thus what remain in the hands of the appellant is the proceeds of crime - there are no reason to cause interference in the impugned order where the appellants more so when the counsel for the appellant did not raise any argument other than what has been dealt with by us and there is also a literal admission for receipt of proceeds of crime to extent of Rs. 9.5 crores.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Proportionate reversal of CENVAT Credit - providing taxable service of Management, Maintenance & Repair and are providing exempted services like trading etc - requirement to follow the provisions of Rule 6(2) and Rule 6(3) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 - appellants have neither maintained separate records for common inputs and input services on which credit is availed - HELD THAT:- The issue is decided in the case of M/S. IFB INDUSTRIES LIMITED VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE & ST, CHANDIGARH [2018 (1) TMI 429 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH] where it was held that the appellant are selling their own goods, manufactured by them. If the person selling the goods manufactured them, in that circumstance, the appellant cannot be said that he is a trader and the appellant is not engaged in the activity of trading.
The issue is squarely settled in favour of the appellants and therefore, the impugned order cannot be sustained - appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Short payment/non-payment of service tax - sudden resignation of the accountant of the appellant who alone was dealing with payment of service tax - allegation of wilful suppression - invocation of extended period of limitation - levy of penalty - HELD THAT:- It is evident that there was no positive evidence of any wilful misstatement or suppression of facts with intent to evade payment of duty that has been put to the notice of the appellant and which the appellant has been called upon to answer. It is settled by a catena of decisions that absent such a positive or deliberate act on the part of the appellant, extended period of limitation cannot be invoked.
There are no evidence to substantiate this averment has been adduced even in the appeal filed before us. Thus, such averment, sans evidence, cannot be countenanced. Be that as it may, it is noticed that the appellant has all along been making payments of service tax, albeit in part, which fact is also reflected in the records. It is consequent to the perusal of such payments made and verification of the challans that the audit party has determined that there has been short payment. In such circumstances, given the appellant’s contention that it was financial hardship that prevented the appellant from discharging its liability in full, the explanation is not implausible, especially since the same has not been controverted in any manner by the lower authorities. Therefore, in these circumstances, in as much as none of the ingredients that are required for invoking extended period of limitation has been evidenced by the Department, the invoking of the extended period of limitation is unsustainable.
As regards the demand upheld in the second show cause notice we find that the Department was well aware of the fact situation of the appellant when it issued the first SCN dated 24.12.2009. Therefore, it was incumbent upon the Department to have issued the notice for the subsequent period from October 2008 within the normal period of limitation prescribed under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994. It is seen that the notice for the period October 2008 to September 2010 was issued only on 17.02.2011. However, the appellate authority has rendered a finding that the notice was issued well within the normal period of one year that existed during the material period.
In the instant case, the appellant was required to file half yearly ST-3 returns as per Rule 7(1) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994. The appellant ought to have filed the ST-3 return for the half yearly period from September 2009 to March 2010, by the due date of 25th April 2010 as per Rule 7(2) of the Service Tax Rules ibid. As the Appellant did not do so, as per section 73(6)(i)(b) of the Finance Act, 1994, the relevant date for calculating the period of limitation, being the last date on which the return is to be filed, would therefore be 25th April 2010. Thus, inasmuch as the second SCN has been issued only 17.02.2011, it would bring within its ambit only the period from September 2009 to September 2010 as within the normal period, and the demand for the period October 2008 to August 2009, which was sought to be covered under the said SCN, is clearly barred by limitation. Therefore, the appellant is liable to pay the service tax along with the interest due thereon only for the period from September 2009 to September 2010 in so far as the SCN dated 17.02.2011 is concerned - there are no reason to interfere with the penalty imposed under Section 77.
Matter remanded back to the jurisdictional adjudicating authority solely for computing the duty liability of the appellant afresh. The adjudicating authority is required to put the appellant to notice of the quantification so arrived at and also adhere to principles of natural justice during the denovo adjudication proceedings, which are directed to be completed within ninety days of receipt of this order.
Appeal allowed in part.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Short payment of service tax - declaration filed under VCES (Service Tax Voluntary Compliance Encouragement Scheme-2013) was substantially false or not - mis-representation of material facts or not - HELD THAT:- The assessee was required to declare their true service tax liability for the period upto December 2012. However, from the perusal of work-sheet submitted by the DGCEI, Vadodara vide their letter dated 19.05.2014, it appeared that, while the total liability for the said period upto December 2012 worked out to an amount of Rs. 50,20,187/- from the worksheet. After deducting an amount of Rs. 9,01,128/-, which remained already paid by the assessee at relevant times and an amount of Rs. 27,86,192/- declared under VCES-2013 as the tax dues, it was found that the assessee had short declared the service tax liability to the tune of Rs. 13,32,867/- for the period 2011-2012. It is also pertinent to note that in the impugned order, the learned Principal Commissioner has observed that amount of Rs. 9,01,128/-, was paid by the assessee through various Challans over the period from 07.07.2008 to 05.08.2011. These payments were made by the assessee towards their service tax liability already declared to the department at relevant times by way of ST-3 returns filed at such times. From the calculation sheet of Service Tax liability provided by the DGCEI, Vadodara, vide their letter dated 19.05.2014, based on which the present demand remains raised against the assessee, the amount of Rs.9,01,128/- has already been considered while arriving at the quantum of Short-payment of Service Tax to the tune of Rs. 13,32,867/- for the year 2011-12. Therefore, the payment of Rs. 9,01,128/- is not adjustable against the service tax liability of Rs. 13,32,867/- being confirmed as recoverable from the assessee/appellant under the provisions of Section 73(1) of Finance Act, 1994.
There is no merit in the arguments advanced by the learned Counsel for the appellant. Whereas the impugned order passed by learned Principal Commissioner is well reasoned order. Therefore, the impugned order is liable to be confirmed whereas the appeal is liable to be rejected - Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Taxability - Commercial Training or Coaching Centre Services - training for courses affiliated with Sikkim Manipal University [SMU] and Manonmaniam Sundaranar University [MSU] - HELD THAT:- The courses conducted by the appellant are fully recognized by the respective universities. That both the universities are recognized by their respective State Government i.e. SMU is a public partnership between Government of Sikkim & Manipal & MSU is established by Government of Tamil Nadu. The students who are admitted in the Institute of the appellant undergo a regular course of study and practical training at the Institute of the appellant. Thereafter, examinations are conducted under the supervision of the University and evaluation of the examination is done by the University. After the results are declared, statement of marks is forwarded by the University to the appellant which is then forwarded to the students. After successful completion of the courses by the students, the degrees are awarded by the University.
The observations made in the impugned order that the appellant did not issue any degree/diploma/certificate recognized by law and the same is issued by SMU and MSU and therefore, the benefit of the notification is not available to the appellant is contrary to the earlier decisions of the Tribunal. In the case of Tandem Integrated Services, the Revenue had raised similar plea that the respondent therein is not a regular college which grants certificate, diplomas or degree for any educational qualification recognized by law and would therefore, not come within the exemption under subsection (27) of Section 65 of the Finance Act, 2003. The learned Division Bench did not agree with the submissions of the Revenue in view of para 2.2.3 of CBEC Circular dated 20.06.2003 clarifying the position and also in view of the decision in Mallapuram District - vide N/N. 10/2003 dated 20.06.2003, Central Government, in the public interest has exempted the taxable services provided by a commercial training or coaching centre, in relation to commercial training or coaching, which form an essential part of a course or curriculum of any other institute or establishment, leading to issuance of any certificate or diploma or degree or educational qualification recognized by law for the time being in force, to any person, from the whole of the service tax leviable thereon under Section 66(2) of the Act. This Notification had come into force w.e.f. 01.07.2003.
The show cause notices have also made allegation that the appellant is providing coaching for the multimedia professional courses and claiming exemption on the amount charged for books purchased from open market and supplied by them to the students pursuing multimedia professional courses. The fee charged by the appellant from the students is inclusive of value of books, and the same is not reflected separately in the bills raised to the students. The appellant has placed reliance on N/N.12/2003-ST dated 20.06.2003, which provides that the value of goods and material sold by the service provider to the recipient of service, while providing service shall not be liable to service tax subject to the condition that there is documentary proof specifically indicating the value of the said goods and materials sold. Thus, the intention is to immune goods and materials from levy of service tax.
The learned Counsel has taken a preliminary objection that the impugned order is unsustainable as it is beyond the scope of the show cause notice and also that extended period cannot be invoked.
The impugned order needs to be set aside and is hereby quashed - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax on remuneration paid to the Directors by the appellant - failure to pay appropriate service tax under the reverse charge on the services rendered by the Directors of the company and received by the Appellant during the period from Aug 12 to March 2014 - existence of employee-employer relationship or not - HELD THAT:- The Appellant has all along argued that the whole-time Directors have been paid salary and other remuneration which was subjected to Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) under the Income Tax Act and as such there is an employer-employee relationship which is excluded from the payment of service tax. All the seven Directors of the Company were appointed as whole time Directors of the Company by employment agreements. It appears that these Executive Directors were delegated with the work of managing the day-to-day affairs of the Company and they were not giving any advice to the Company in order to term them as service providers to levy service tax.
It is also found that a whole-time director is considered and recognized as ‘key managerial personnel’ under Section 2(51) of the Companies Act. Further, he is an officer in default [as defined in clause (60) of Section 2] for any violation or non-compliance of the provisions of Companies Act. Thus, in our view, the whole-time Director is essentially an employee of the Company and accordingly, whatever remuneration is being paid in conformity with the provisions of the Companies Act, is pursuant to employer-employee relationship and the mere fact that the whole-time Director is compensated by way of variable pay will not in any manner alter or dilute the position of employer-employee status between the company /appellant and the whole-time Directors - It is convinced that when the very provisions of the Companies Act make whole-time director (as also in capacity of key managerial personnel) responsible for any default/offences, it leads to the conclusion that those directors are employees of the Appellant company.
The activity of appointment of Directors and their services is covered under Negative List of services prescribed under Section 65B (44) (b) of the FA 1994 and so it follows that the impugned Order-in-Original No. 15/2015 (ST-Commr.) dated 23.10.2015 is not tenable.
Existence of employee-employer relationship or not - HELD THAT:- The issue of payment of service tax on the remuneration paid to the Directors is no more res-integra where it is termed as salary and subjected to TDS under Section 192 of the Income Tax Act, the employer and employee relationship gets established and the same is excluded from the purview of the service tax. We find that similar issue has been discussed in the case of M/s. Dixcy Textiles Pvt. Ltd. Vs. The Commissioner of Central Excise & Service Tax, Salem [2025 (5) TMI 316 - CESTAT CHENNAI], wherein the Tribunal Chennai has held 'demand of service tax on remuneration paid to whole-time directors cannot be sustained and hence set aside.'
In a recent decision of this Tribunal in the case M/s. Vinayaka Electro Alloys Pvt. Ltd. vs Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, Salem, [2025 (6) TMI 13 - CESTAT CHENNAI], it was held that no service tax is payable under RCM on remuneration paid to whole-time directors functioning as employees. This judgment reinforces the principle that remuneration to whole-time directors, when functioning as an employee, does not attract service tax under RCM.
Both the demand of service tax and penalties confirmed in the impugned order are set aside - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Irregular availment of CENVAT credit - service portion in the execution of works contract and construction services - non-payment of service tax on lease rental income - non-reversal of CENVAT credit as per Rule 6(3) of the Cenvat Credit Rules (CCR), 2004 - irregular availment of abatement with respect to repair and maintenance service under works contract - Invocation of extended period of limitation - penalty.
Irregular availment of cenvat credit on the service portion in execution of works contract and construction services - period October 2010 to March 2013 and period April 2013 to March 2014 - denial of credit on the ground that the service portion in the execution of works contract is used for laying of foundation for support of capital goods and the services are not specified services listed under clause (b) of 66E of Finance Act, 1994 - HELD THAT:- In the instance case, it is an admitted fact that the input service credit was with regard to laying of foundation or making of structures for support of capital goods i.e. wind turbines. As per the above definitions the input service credit cannot be allowed if used for laying of foundation. However, the clause also says except for the provision of one or more specified services, in other words the input service is allowed only if the output service is one of the specified services. Erection and Commissioning services admittedly the output service which is as per zzzza is part of works contract and since works contract is one of the specified services, the claim of the appellant that they are eligible for the benefit of input service credit is justified.
Non-payment of service tax on lease rental income - HELD THAT:- This issue stands settled and is no longer res integra. We find that this Tribunal in a similar set of facts and circumstances in the case of Haldiram Marketing Pvt. Ltd. Vs. CCE, New Delhi [2023 (2) TMI 783 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] held that share of rent of the premises is an internal arrangement between the appellant and its associated enterprises and the said activity cannot be considering as rendering of service - service tax demand on lease rental income is set aside.
Non-reversal of cenvat credit as per Rule 6(3) of the Cenvat Credit Rules (CCR), 2004 - HELD THAT:- The issue is squarely covered by the CBIC Circular No.213/3/2019-ST dated 05.07.2019. where it was held that 'On a plain and strict interpretation of the provisions, all services mentioned in notification 26/2012-Service Tax, dated 20-6-2012 do not, ipso facto, become “exempted services”. They will become so only if they satisfy the twin conditions specified in section 2(e) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 i.e. there is a restriction on both inputs and input services.' - the Circular clearly exempts services which only cover those services within its purview and satisfies the condition of ‘restriction on credit of input and input services both’ - the demand on this ground is also unsustainable and the same is set aside.
Irregular availment of abatement with respect to repair and maintenance service under works contract - HELD THAT:- On perusal of Rule 2A of the Valuation Rules, it is very clear that the basis of the classification of transactions is based on the nature of the property on which the activity was undertaken. In the case of maintenance and repair, clause (B) would be applicable and Service Tax should have to be charged on 70% of the total amount charged for the works contract after availing abatement of 30%. In the case of maintenance and repair service, Clause (C) would applicable and service tax should be charged on 60% of the total amount charged for the works contract after availing abatement of 40%. Since, it is a case of maintenance and repair of installed wind turbine, the appellant has rightly discharged duty on 60% of the value as per Rule 2A (ii) clause (C) of the Valuation Rules, 2006, hence the demand on this count cannot be sustained.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Original works - completion and finishing service - works contract service - determination of value of service portion in execution of a works contract under Rule 2A - abatement of 60% and taxable value of 40%
Original works - completion and finishing service - works contract service - determination of value of service portion in execution of a works contract under Rule 2A - abatement of 60% and taxable value of 40% - Whether the works executed by the appellant for the Developer fall within the definition of "Original Works" and thereby qualify for 60% abatement (service tax payable on 40% of the contract value) under Rule 2A of the Valuation Rules, 2006. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the nature and scope of the work awarded to the appellant - extensive civil construction activities including earthwork, waterproofing, carpentry, glazing, plumbing, sanitary installations, lift installation, internal and enamel painting and other finishing/installation tasks - and the certificate from the Developer recording that the work subcontracted was part of the main contract for a new construction. The Bench relied on earlier Tribunal decisions which held that where a sub-contractor converts an incomplete skeletal structure into a complete, habitable unit by undertaking works such as electrical, plumbing, HVAC, flooring, partitioning and related activities, such works cannot be treated as merely cosmetic finishing but must be considered "Original Works" under Explanation I to Rule 2A. Applying that principle to the present factual matrix, the Tribunal found that the appellant's activities were integral to making newly constructed towers habitable and therefore fall within the scope of "Original Works". Consequently, the works contract services rendered by the appellant attract the abatement applicable to original works and service tax is payable on 40% of the total amount charged. [Paras 9]
Work carried out by the appellant held to be "Original Works"; abatement of 60% allowed and service tax payable on 40% of the total amount charged.
Interest on deposited amount - pre-show cause deposit - Whether interest charged on the amount deposited by the appellant prior to issuance of the show cause notice should be maintained. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted that the appellant had deposited a sum prior to issuance of the show cause notice but that deposit was made after a lapse of more than two years from the due date of payment of service tax. Although the main demand relating to classification as original works was set aside, the Tribunal held that interest levied on the earlier short payment (the amount deposited pre-show cause notice) was properly maintainable because the deposit had been made belatedly. [Paras 10]
Interest on the amount deposited prior to the show cause notice is maintained; however, interest and penalty relating to the main demand (which was set aside) are quashed.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed: the works performed by the appellant are held to be "Original Works" entitling them to 60% abatement (service tax payable on 40% of the contract value); consequential interest and penalty on that demand are quashed, but interest on the pre-show cause deposit (made after more than two years from the due date) is sustained.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Abatement under Notification No. 1/2006-ST - Cenvat Credit - notification qua output service and not qua supplier - scope of levy under the Finance Act, 1994 - limitation / extended period - penalty under Section 76 and Section 78
Abatement under Notification No. 1/2006-ST - Cenvat Credit - notification qua output service and not qua supplier - scope of levy under the Finance Act, 1994 - Whether the appellant was disentitled to claim abatement on Erection/Construction services for the stated periods merely because the appellant availed Cenvat Credit for other contracts. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal accepted the appellant's unchallenged stance that abatement was claimed only in respect of certain contracts for which no Cenvat Credit was availed, and that the departmental case proceeded on an impermissible assumption that taking Cenvat Credit for any contract disentitles the assessee from claiming abatement for other contracts. The Tribunal held that Notification No. 1/2006-ST operates in relation to the particular output service (i.e., it prescribes how gross value must be determined for the purpose of abatement) and does not operate qua the supplier to prohibit availing Cenvat Credit for inputs/input services used in unrelated contracts. Applying this principle, the Tribunal found that where abatement was claimed for contracts in which no Cenvat Credit was taken, the departmental disallowance was not sustainable. The Tribunal further observed that demanding service tax on the abated value would amount to an indirect tax on sale of goods, which falls outside the levy under the Finance Act, 1994, where the facts showed VAT was paid on the goods component. On these bases the demand for service tax on the abated value was set aside. [Paras 4, 5]
Demand for service tax on the abated value was quashed and impugned orders setting that demand aside.
Limitation / extended period - Whether the demand for the month of September-2007 was barred by limitation. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the abatement for September-2007 was clearly declared in the appellant's ST-3 return and there was no suppression or mis-statement with intent to evade tax. Consequently, the extended period provisions could not be invoked by Revenue for that month, and the demand relating to September-2007 was accordingly barred by limitation. [Paras 4]
Demand for the month of September-2007 was held to be timebarred and set aside.
Penalty under Section 76 and Section 78 - Whether penalties under Section 76 and Section 78 could be imposed simultaneously on the appellant. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal agreed with the appellant that no case was made out for imposing both penalties concurrently. Applying settled principle that both penalties cannot be imposed simultaneously for the same cause of action, the Tribunal held that imposition of penalties under both sections by the Adjudicating Authority and confirmed by the Commissioner was not warranted. [Paras 4]
Penalties imposed under both Section 76 and Section 78 were set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was allowed: the OrderinOriginal dated 27.11.2013 and the Commissioner (Appeals) order dated 15.12.2014 were set aside; demands of service tax, interest and penalties for the specified periods were quashed; amounts deposited shall be returned to the appellant with applicable interest.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Time limitation - suppression of facts or not - it is the contention of the Revenue that the appellant has not furnished all the relevant details in the S.T.-3 Returns filed - HELD THAT:- It is observed that appellant have filed their Returns regularly and furnished all the information before the Departmental authorities. Thus, the demand raised in the Show Cause Notice dated 09.08.2010 by invoking the extended period of limitation for the period from 2005-06 to 2008-09, on the basis of difference observed between figures in the balance sheet / Profit & Loss Account and S.T. Returns filed, is legally not sustainable.
The Show Cause Notice in this case has been issued on the basis of the data available in the statutory records of the appellant, which were always open to the Department for any query / scrutiny. The Department has also failed to bring any corroborative evidence on record to establish suppression of facts with the intent to evade payment of Service Tax, on the part of the appellant herein. Under such facts and circumstances, the submission of the appellant that the extended period of limitation cannot be invoked for confirming the demand of Service Tax against them, is agreed upon.
A similar view has been expressed by this Tribunal in the case of M/s. Munna Construction v. Commissioner of C.Ex. & S.T., Jamshedpur [2024 (11) TMI 1136 - CESTAT KOLKATA] where it was held that 'the demand cannot be raised in this case by invoking the extended period of limitation. Thus, we hold that the demand confirmed in the impugned order by invoking the extended period of limitation is not sustainable.'
Thus, the invocation of extended period of limitation is not sustainable in the facts and circumstances of the case. Accordingly, the demand of service tax confirmed in the impugned order is liable to be set aside, being barred by limitation.
The Show Cause Notice, issued without quantifying the demand of Service Tax category-wise, is void ab initio and hence the demand of Service Tax confirmed on the basis of such Notice is legally not sustainable. Consequently, the demand of Service Tax confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable and hence, the same is set aside - As the demand of Service Tax is not sustained, the question of demanding interest and imposing penalties does not arise. Accordingly, the demand of interest and penalties imposed in the impugned order set aside.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether service tax could be sustained on reimbursement of advocate's expenses under reverse charge by invoking the extended period of limitation; (ii) Whether service tax was payable again on the amount for which the service provider had already charged and deposited service tax, on the ground of reverse charge; (iii) Whether reimbursements of electricity, water and diesel generator charges were exigible to service tax; (iv) Whether consideration received for permanent transfer of leasehold/assignment rights in immovable property was taxable as renting of immovable property; and (v) Whether interest and penalties, including penalty on the Manager (Accounts), could survive once the tax demands failed.
Issue (i): Whether service tax could be sustained on reimbursement of advocate's expenses under reverse charge by invoking the extended period of limitation.
Analysis: The demand was found to be revenue neutral because any tax paid under reverse charge would have been available as credit. The appellant had been regularly filing returns and disclosing the relevant facts, and no fraud, collusion or suppression was established. In such circumstances, invocation of the extended period was held impermissible.
Conclusion: The demand on this count was held unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether service tax was payable again on the amount for which the service provider had already charged and deposited service tax, on the ground of reverse charge.
Analysis: Once service tax had already been charged, collected and deposited on the same service, a second levy on the recipient would amount to double taxation. On that basis, the demand was held to be untenable.
Conclusion: The demand on this count was held unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether reimbursements of electricity, water and diesel generator charges were exigible to service tax.
Analysis: The amounts were collected on actual consumption basis, and the material on record showed that the sums paid to the utility provider exceeded the amounts recovered. The Tribunal treated the issue as covered by its earlier decisions holding that electricity-related recoveries on actual basis are not taxable as service, including where the assessee acts in the nature of a pure agent for such recoveries.
Conclusion: The demand on this count was held unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether consideration received for permanent transfer of leasehold/assignment rights in immovable property was taxable as renting of immovable property.
Analysis: The agreement showed a one-time transfer of commercial space together with proportionate leasehold rights for the remaining lease period, with no reversionary interest left in the transferor. The receipt was treated as a one-time premium for transfer of interest, not periodic rent. Applying the distinction between premium and rent, the Tribunal held that such permanent assignment was outside the taxable category of renting of immovable property.
Conclusion: The demand on this count was held unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (v): Whether interest and penalties, including penalty on the Manager (Accounts), could survive once the tax demands failed.
Analysis: Since the substantive service tax demands were set aside, the basis for charging interest and imposing penalties also disappeared. The penalty on the Manager (Accounts) was likewise found unsustainable because the alleged contravention itself was not established.
Conclusion: Interest and penalties, including the penalty on the Manager (Accounts), were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The entire tax, interest and penalty burden under the impugned order was removed, and the appeals succeeded with consequential relief.
Ratio Decidendi: A one-time premium or consideration for permanent transfer of leasehold rights is not rent for taxing a transaction as renting of immovable property, and a demand cannot survive where tax, if any, is revenue neutral, already paid on the same service, or unsupported by suppression for invoking the extended period.
Levy of service tax - amount reimbursement of expenses of Advocate - reverse charge mechanism - Liability of service recipient to pay service tax - Service Provider has charged and collected the Service Tax from the appellant - applicability of reverse charge mechanism - Levy of service tax - Reimbursement of electricity charge, water consumption charge, diesel generating charge - Levy of service tax - Sale of immovable property by way of long terms lease for 999 years.
Levy of service tax - amount reimbursement of expenses of Advocate - reverse charge mechanism - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, there is no element of fraud, collusion or suppression of facts is present. The appellant has been filing returns regularly and disclosed all information in the returns filed. Therefore, invocation of the larger period is not applicable in this case. In support of this view, reliance placed on the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of Jet Airways (India) Ltd. Versus Commissioner [2018 (1) TMI 210 - SC ORDER]. Thus, the demand confirmed on this count is not sustainable and hence the same is set aside.
Liability of service recipient to pay service tax - Service Provider has charged and collected the Service Tax from the appellant - applicability of reverse charge mechanism - HELD THAT:- The service provider has charged, collected and paid Service Tax. Therefore, the demand of service tax on the same service again would tantamount to double taxation. In support of this view, reliance placed on the decision in the case of SHREE SAIBABA CHEMICALS INDUSTRIES VS. COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE & SERVICE TAX, VADODARA-II, [2025 (3) TMI 383 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD]. Thus, the demand confirmed on this count is not sustainable and hence the same is set aside.
Levy of service tax - Reimbursement of electricity charge, water consumption charge, diesel generating charge - HELD THAT:- The appellant states that they have collected the actual amount on the basis of consumption. In support of this claim, the appellant submitted a Chartered Accountant’s Certificate and ledger account, payment particulars. On perusal of the same, it is found that the amount paid by the appellant to the WBSEDCL is more than what is collected. It is also found that that the issue is squarely covered by the decision of this Tribunal in their own group companies appeals, in Forum Mall Management Services Pvt Ltd VS. Commissioner of Service Tax, [2024 (10) TMI 146 - CESTAT KOLKATA]. The same view has been taken in the decision rendered by this Tribunal in the case of M/s. Choicest Enterprises limited Vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Kolkata [2024 (7) TMI 1533 - CESTAT KOLKATA] - the demand of service tax confirmed on this count is not sustainable and hence we set aside the same.
Levy of service tax - Sale of immovable property by way of long terms lease for 999 years - HELD THAT:- The clauses of the agreement clearly indicate that the said agreements were not for 'renting' but for outright transfer of the property. In this regard, we observe that the permanent assignment of commercial space together with proportionate right on leasehold land cannot be called as ‘lease’ and hence it would not fall under the definition of taxable service as defined under Section 65(105)(zzzz) of the Finance Act, 1994 - the demand of service tax confirmed on this count is not sustainable and hence the same is set aside.
As the demands of service tax confirmed in the impugned order are not sustained, the question of demanding interest and imposing penalty on the appellant company does not arise and hence the same is set aside - Regarding the penalty imposed on the Manager (Accounts), it is observed that penalty has been imposed on him for his role in the alleged offence. Since the demand of service tax is held as not sustainable, the role of the Manager (Accounts) in the alleged offence is also not established.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax - Short Term Accommodation Service - Demand confirmed on account of denial of abatement as claimed by the appellant-assessee - Applicaility of N/N. 1/2006-ST dated 01.03.2006 - Refundable Security Deposit - On Advance from Customers – closing balance has been considered instead of amount received during the year - Service tax charged on closing balance of Pre-Receipt Amount and Sports Activity Fees under Pre-receipt Income - Misc. Income – Sale of Liquor Bottle, Cartoon - Service Tax charged on opening balance of Sundry Debtor instead of amount received during the year - Dispensing charges & Enlistment charge - sale of property.
Levy of service tax - Short Term Accommodation Service - HELD THAT:- It is observed that levy of service tax on Short Term Accommodation Service has been introduced only w.e.f. 01.05.2011. When a new service is brought into service tax net without changing an existing entry, it is presumed that the earlier entry did not cover the said activity. Therefore, it is observed that service tax can be levied on Short Term Accommodation Service only after 01.05.2011. It is observed that the appellant has discharged the service tax liability on the rentals received from members as well as non-member under the head Short Term Accommodation w.e.f 01.05.2011. Thus, demanding service tax on room rentals under the taxable head of “Club or Association Service” for the period prior to 1.5.2011, is not sustainable and accordingly, the same is set aside.
Service tax confirmed on account of denial of abatement as claimed by the appellant-assessee - applicaility of N/N. 1/2006-ST dated 01.03.2006 - HELD THAT:- In terms of the said notification, no credit of tax paid on input, input services, capital goods used for providing such output service on which the benefit of abatement is taken, would not be available. However, the notification does not preclude the right of the appellant-assessee to avail the Cenvat credit in relation to input services used in providing other taxable output services on which service tax has been discharged on 100% of the taxable value. In this regard, the appellant-assessee submitted that they have not availed the credit on input services which are exclusively used in providing such taxable service on which abatement is claimed. We observe that the department has not disputed this claim of the appellant-assesse. Thus, it is observed that the appellant-assessee has rightly availed the benefit of abatement as provided under Notification 01/2006- ST dated 01.03.2006 and they have not violated any of the terms and conditions specified in the said notification to avail the abatement. Accordingly, the demand of service tax confirmed in the impugned order on this count is not sustainable and hence the same is set aside.
Refundable Security Deposit - HELD THAT:- The deposits collected by the club or association from its members at the time of admission are in the nature of interest-free refundable security deposits, which are intended as a safeguard for the use of various facilities and amenities provided by the club. These deposits are refundable upon the expiry or termination of the membership agreement and are not linked to the provision of any specific service. As per Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994, service tax is levied on the gross amount charged as consideration for a service provided or to be provided. Since these deposits are refundable and do not constitute consideration for any service, they fall outside the scope of service tax - the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped the demand raised in the notice on this count.
On Advance from Customers –closing balance has been considered instead of amount received during the year - HELD THAT:- The submission of the appellant-assessee agreed upon that during the relevant period, service tax is payable on receipt basis, and hence only the advance received during the year is taxable, not the cumulative closing balance. Furthermore, for the years 2010–11 to 2012–13, the SCN has clubbed figures for advance from members and pre-receipt income without proper bifurcation. As such, the demand raised by considering the entire closing balance is incorrect and not legally sustainable. Accordingly, the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped this demand.
Service tax charged on closing balance of Pre-Receipt Amount and Sports Activity Fees under Pre-receipt Income - HELD THAT:- The appellant-assessee follows the accrual system and raises invoices in advance of the service period. Accordingly, the amount billed in advance is shown under liabilities in the balance sheet, and transferred to income only in the year of service, on which service tax is duly paid either upon billing or receipt—whichever is earlier. The SCN, however, inconsistently includes closing balances in some years and billed amounts in others, ignoring the correct accounting treatment. This leads to duplicative inclusion of amounts under multiple heads, despite such amounts already being taxed once - the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped this demand.
Misc. Income – Sale of Liquor Bottle, Cartoon - HELD THAT:- The miscellaneous income disclosed by the appellant-assessee includes proceeds from the sale of scrap, primarily consisting of used liquor bottles. Since the sale of scrap bottles constitutes a transaction in goods, it does not fall within the ambit of service as defined under the Finance Act, 1994. Thus, no service tax liability arises on such sales. Accordingly, the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped this demand.
Service Tax charged on opening balance of Sundry Debtor instead of amount received during the year - HELD THAT:- It is important to note that with the introduction of the Point of Taxation Rules, 2011 effective from 01.04.2011, tax liability arises at the time of billing or receipt, whichever is earlier. Therefore, considering sundry debtor balances for taxation purposes is no longer valid. In light of this, the demand raised in the SCN is incorrect and unsustainable in law. Accordingly, the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped this demand.
Dispensing charges & Enlistment charge - HELD THAT:- The demand raised under the category of "Business Auxiliary Service" (BAS) in the Show Cause Notice (SCN) included income from enlistment charges and dispensing charges. The appellant-assessee contended that these charges were not received for acting as an agent, and thus, do not fall under the ambit of BAS. Accordingly, it is found that the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped this demand.
Sale of Property - HELD THAT:- The appellant-assessee supported their claim by submitting relevant purchase and sale agreements. Therefore, it is observed that the transaction did not fall under the scope of taxable service, and the demand does not sustain. Accordingly, the Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped this demand.
The appeal filed by the appellant- assessee is allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Refund claim - applicability of Entry No. 25 of Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 to service provider - rejection on the grounds that the appellant is not the service provider who had paid service tax to the Government and the eligible person to claim the refund would be the service providers - applicability of limitation u/s 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 as made applicable to Finance Act by virtue of Section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994.
HELD THAT:- There is no express or clear intent emanating from the Notification No.6/2014-ST dated 11.07.2014, amended the Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 so as to substitute the item (a) of entry Sl.No.25, that it is retrospective in its operation. Moreover, since it has been stated by CBEC to be with an intent to expand the tax base, it fortifies our view that the said substitution of item (a) in Sl.No.25 is only prospective in nature. Further, it is noted that the refund claim was in respect of Service Tax paid during the period from July 2012 to September 2013 and has been filed on 13.06.2014, even prior to the issue of the Notification No.6/2014-ST dated 11.07.2014, which amended the Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012. Therefore, it is the unamended entry at Sl.No.25(a) of the notification No.25/2012-ST ibid that would have to be applied while evaluating the appellant’s claim of refund.
Reliance placed on the Judgement of the Honourable Apex Court in Commissioner of Cus. (Import), Mumbai v. Dilip Kumar & Company, [2018 (7) TMI 1826 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], wherein the Honourable Supreme Court has held that when an assessee claims tax exemption under a notification, the burden to prove its entitlement to the benefit of such exemption notification is on the assessee who is claiming such exemption.
The exemption as provided in the unamended clause 25(a) of the Notification No.25/2012-ST ibid provided exemption to Services provided to Government, a local authority or a governmental authority by way of carrying out any activity in relation to any function ordinarily entrusted to a municipality in relation to water supply, public health, sanitation conservancy, solid waste management or slum improvement and upgradation. Hence, given the fact that the appellant’s status as a governmental authority is not in dispute, and in light of the facts as stated in the show cause notice itself as to the nature of the activities of the services provided by the service providers to the appellant, as well as in view of the expansive nature of the exemption as it existed when the service providers rendered the service to the appellant as provided in the unamended exemption clause 25(a) of the notification ibid; which brought within its ambit “any activity in relation to water supply”; the appellant’s case comes within the parameters of the unamended exemption clause 25(a) of the exemption notification No.25/2012-ST ibid.
On examining the N/N. 6/2014-ST dated 11.07.2014, by which the N/N. 25/2012-ST ibid came to be amended to substitute the clause 25(a), we find that it does not convey any clear legislative intent to give the amendment brought about by the said notification, a retrospective effect. By the said substitution of clause 25(a), it does not confer any benefit and in contradistinction it widens the tax base by taking away the benefit of exemption from services that were hitherto excluded. The restriction of the exemption to the specified services post the substitution, thus imposes fresh burden on services that had till then remained excluded, thereby attracting the presumption of prospectivity. Given that the clause 25(a) as it existed was clear and unambiguous, the substitution cannot be considered to be clarificatory or declaratory either and therefore, its operation can only be construed to be prospective in nature.
Applicability of the time limit prescribed under Section 11B, as made applicable to the Finance Act, 1994 by virtue of Section 83 of the Finance Act ibid - HELD THAT:- The appellant’s refund claim although found to be sustainable on merits, but nevertheless, are found to attract the limitation prescribed under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, ibid. Therefore, it is only the amount of tax paid within the period of limitation prescribed under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, which the appellant can legally claim a stake to, subject however to satisfying the refund sanctioning authority that the appellant is not being unjustly enriched.
In matters involving refund of tax that has already been paid to the Government Exchequer, the evidence adduced should be a certification by an independent professional, so that it carries the credibility of impartiality. However, given that the refund claim of the appellant for the period within limitation merits consideration and has to be quantified, for which purpose, the matter remitted to the adjudicating authority, the appellant is permitted to produce before the adjudicating authority, a certificate by an independent chartered accountant to the effect that the appellant’s records and relevant documents have been verified and it has been found that the appellant is not being unjustly enriched.
The appellant is entitled to refund of the amount due which is not barred by the period of limitation specified under Section 11B, it is held that the impugned Order in Appeal is untenable and cannot sustain - matter remanded back to the jurisdictional adjudicating authority to quantify and refund the amount due which is not barred by the period of limitation specified under Section 11B, duly putting the appellant to notice as to the amount so quantified and subject to the appellant producing a chartered accountant’s certificate to substantiate that the appellant is not being unjustly enriched.
Appeal disposed off by way of remand.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax - transportation of breaking of coal - reverse charge mechanism - levy of penalty - HELD THAT:- By going through the agreement, the main activity of the appellant is transportation of coal by the Road, on which the appellant has not paid the service tax and the service recipient has paid the service tax under reverse charge mechanism. It is also found that whether the activity of transportation of goods is the main activity for the ancillaries or not? The said issue has been examined by this Tribunal in the case of Laxmi Narayan Transport [2023 (9) TMI 1282 - CESTAT KOLKATA], wherein this Tribunal has observed that 'the Appellant is not liable to pay service tax under the category of 'Cargo handling service' and service tax on the said GTA service has been rightly paid by the recipient M/s. JSL.'
It is found that in this case, the appellant is paying service tax on tipper loading and wagon loading, but for transportation and breaking of coal, it is an ancillary activity and the main activity is the transportation of coal by road. In that circumstances, no service tax is payable by the appellant. On transportation of breaking of coal, admittedly, the service recipient has paid the service tax under “Goods Agency Service” by way of reverse charge mechanism. In view of this also, the appellant is not payable the service tax.
The impugned order is set aside - no penalty is imposable on the appellant - appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of penalty under Rule 26 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 on Managing Partner of the Appellant-firm - clearance of goods without payment of duty, without even Central Excise Registration and without following the procedure prescribed under the Central Excise Law - time limitation - Denial of Cenvat Credit of the duty paid on input, i.e. kraft paper.
Levy of penalty under Rule 26 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 on Managing Partner of the Appellant-firm - clearance of goods without payment of duty, without even Central Excise Registration and without following the procedure prescribed under the Central Excise Law - time limitation - HELD THAT:- It is an admitted position of law that the purposes of Direct Tax and Indirect Tax which operate on different platforms, are different and the requirements of maintaining accounts/books may thus differ. The only common factor, however, is the collection of tax as authorized by the relevant statute/s and it is undisputed that income reported for the purpose of income--tax may not attract Central Excise duty per se. Hence, the Central Excise Authority undertaking adjudication may call for details reported under Income Tax Act since the Central Excise Levy is on the manufacture or removal of the manufactured goods but not on the sales of the same. To treat the income so declared as turn--over for Central Excise law is perhaps not the correct approach and hence, the request of the Appellant for Cross--examination of the Central Excise authorities who had ignored the very basics and purpose of declaration of income, appears to us to be in order. This is because, when a Statutory Authority over--steps the boundary, it cannot be said that such an act was always permissible or authorized by law. Perhaps the officer who felt it proper to levy Central Excise duty on the income tax returns alone could justify the legality of the same in his cross examination.
Denial of Cenvat Credit of the duty paid on input, i.e. kraft paper - HELD THAT:- From the reply to the SCN, there is a specific mention by the Appellant as to procuring the raw materials after paying appropriate excise duty under proper cenvatable invoice, the burden on the Appellant stood discharged and the onus would shift to the Revenue to disprove. The Adjudicating Authority therefore cannot simply assert without any verification or examination that the procurement of inputs is improper. By doing so, the officer has not discharged his statutory duties in the manner it was expected from him. In fact, the Appellant has even referred in its reply, to its earlier letter dated 02.03.2015 furnishing all the invoices for the years 2010––11 to 2014––15 but unfortunately, this plea also has failed to impress the Adjudicating Authority in any way.
The impugned order has been passed in a haste and in an arbitrary manner which makes it difficult for us to sustain and hence, there are no hesitation in setting aside the same. In the interest of both the parties, it is deemed appropriate to remand the case back to the file of the Adjudicating Authority. However, since the Adjudicating Authority has never doubted the bonafide claim of the Appellant and the fact that he has applied the amended law to the earlier period, the allegation as to suppression that too, with an intention to evade duty does not arise and hence, the demand, if any, has to be worked only for the normal period.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the questions proposed by the petitioners arose out of the Tribunal's order and were referable to the High Court; (ii) Whether penalty could be sustained by invoking provisions of the General Sales Tax/VAT regime when the goods were admittedly liable to entry tax under the Entry Tax Act and the Act itself contained only a limited penalty provision.
Issue (i): Whether the questions proposed by the petitioners arose out of the Tribunal's order and were referable to the High Court.
Analysis: The reference jurisdiction could be exercised only where the question of law actually arose from the proceedings decided by the Tribunal. Once the petitioners accepted that the seized goods were liable to entry tax under the Entry Tax Act, the controversy as framed by them on the effect of invoking one provision instead of another did not survive as a referable question. The Court treated the proposed questions as unrelated to the real basis of the Tribunal's decision.
Conclusion: The questions were not referable to the High Court.
Issue (ii): Whether penalty could be sustained by invoking provisions of the General Sales Tax/VAT regime when the goods were admittedly liable to entry tax under the Entry Tax Act and the Act itself contained only a limited penalty provision.
Analysis: The Entry Tax Act was held to be a self-contained scheme. Section 4 provided the substantive charging provision for entry tax and Section 4(3) authorised penalty only where the accompanying documents were fake or false. Section 6 merely incorporated specified procedural provisions of the General Sales Tax Act for limited purposes and did not create a new charging source for penalty. A penalty being a statutory liability could not be imposed unless a substantive charging provision existed, and a machinery provision could not be read to create such liability. On the facts, the documents were not found to be fake or false, so the precondition for penalty under the Entry Tax Act was absent.
Conclusion: The penalty imposed under the borrowed VAT/GST provisions was unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The petition failed because the impugned questions did not warrant reference and the penalty could not be justified by resort to provisions that did not supply a substantive charging basis under the Entry Tax Act.
Ratio Decidendi: A penalty can be imposed only by a substantive charging provision, and a machinery or incorporated procedural provision cannot be used to create penalty liability where the parent statute does not itself authorise it.
Power and entitelment appeal versus power to levy penalty - Applicability of provisions of GST Act for the prior acts of erstwhile repealed acts - of Exercise of power so long as the power does exist and can be traced to a source available in law - Source of power is not specifically referred to or a reference is made to a wrong provision of law - Invocation of of section 67 (1) (o) of the J&K VAT Act, 2005 - section 17 (1) (o) of the J&K GST Act, 1962 is pari-materia to section 69 (1) (o) of the J&K Vat Act, 2005 or not - HELD THAT:- Once it is conceded by the Petitioners that the goods seized by the authorities at Lower Munda Check Post were leviable to Entry tax Under Section 4 of the Act of 2000, no proceedings should have been initiated, either under the GST Act or the Act of 2005.
From careful reading of Section 6 of the Act of 2000, it is abundantly clear that the provisions of the GST Act or, for that matter, the Act of 2005 do apply to the proceedings under the Act of 2000, but their application is limited to the provisions relating to appeal, revisions, Appellate Tribunal, power to withdraw and transfer cases, recovery of fines, taxes or penalties, etc., etc. The procedural provisions of the GST Act, of which reference is made in Section 6 of the Act of 2000, have been applied to the proceedings under the Act of 2000 mutatis mutandis and, therefore, shall be deemed to be part of the Act of 2000 by reference. The provisions of Section 69 (1) (o) of the Act of 2005 and the provisions of Section 17 (1) (o) of the GST Act have, thus, not been made part of the Act of 2000. In short, the only provisions which are adopted mutatis mutandis for the proceedings under the Act of 2000, in terms of Section 6 of the Act of 2000, are either those which pertain to the right of appeal and revision and the forums for hearing such appeals and revisions or to the provisions providing for recovery and refund of fines, taxes and penalties imposable under the Act of 2000. Since, no penalty is imposable under the Act of 2000 for bypassing the Commercial Taxes Check Post simplicitor, as such, Section 6 of the Act of 2000 cannot be interpreted to create a provision of penalty which otherwise does not exist in the Act of 2000.
It is, thus, trite that penalty, being a liability and a sort of additional tax, requires constitutional mandate for its imposition. Article 265 of the Constitution of India provides that no tax shall be levied or collected, except by authority of law. It is, thus, well settled that the penalty is like addition tax and can only be charged or levied by a substantive ‘Charging Section’. In the instant case, Section 4 of the Act of 2000 is a standalone ‘Charging Section’ dealing with imposition of penalty and provides for its imposition only if the documents accompanying the taxable goods are found false and forged with regard to particulars containing therein. Section 6 of the Act of 2000 is merely a ‘Machinery Provision’ that is by reference to GST Act/ Act of 2005.
There may be lacuna in the Act of 2000, but the Court has to interpret and apply the provisions of the Statute as they stand. We also find it little anomalous that a person, who violates law and does not report the concerned Check Post for verification of the documents and the goods, is not held liable for any penalty and would be let off only by payment of the Entry Tax leviable under the Act of 2000. This was something for the Petitioners herein to ponder over and take remedial measures, if they so deemed it fit - However, in the instant case, the debate on the various provisions of the GST Act and the Act of 2005 was totally uncalled for and the forums below were unnecessarily kept engaged on the issues that never arose for determination in the proceedings.
There are no merit in the petition - petition dismissed.
Issues: Whether the Tribunal's order remanding the matter for fresh determination of the taxable value of dyes, colours and chemicals transferred in the course of job work under the Haryana Value Added Tax Act could be sustained.
Analysis: The earlier Division Bench decision had held that chemicals used in job work are taxable, but the extent of tax depends on the quantity of dyes, colours and chemicals actually transferred or retained in the fabric. The matter was therefore remitted to the Assessing Officer to undertake a factual enquiry, permit the parties to adduce evidence, and determine the value of the consumables embedded in the textile in accordance with law. That decision was thereafter carried in appeal to the Supreme Court, which declined interference and dismissed the appeals, leaving all contentions open before the Assessing Officer. In view of that binding outcome, the present appeal raised no surviving question against the Tribunal's remand order.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's remand order was correctly upheld and the appeal failed.
Final Conclusion: The legal position on taxability of consumables used in textile job work stood settled against the appellant, and the assessment had to proceed on the basis of factual determination of the quantity actually transferred.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the taxability of consumables in job work turns on the extent of goods actually transferred, the Assessing Officer must determine the factual quantity embedded or retained, and a remand for that purpose is sustainable when supported by binding precedent.
Levy of tax on chemicals used as consumables in the process of job work of dyeing of fabric by assuming that property in the goods has passed on to the principals - levy of tax on the entire value of dyes used by the appellant in the job work process of dyeing of fabric ignoring the quantity of dyes which are wasted during the process in which property is not transferred to the principals - HELD THAT:- It is specifically mentioned in Grounds of Appeal in the present matter that as the matter is pending before Hon’ble the Supreme Court, proceedings in present appeal should be kept in abeyance till decision thereof. This appeal was adjourned sine die on 19.01.2023 to await the decision of Hon’ble the Supreme Court in pending matters.
Questions of law as raised are answered accordingly. Impugned order dated 30.08.2018 passed by learned Tribunal is, accordingly, upheld - Appeal dismissed.
TaxTMI