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Issues: Whether the cancellation of GST registration for non-filing of returns could be revoked on consideration of the petitioner's representation.
Analysis: The Court noted the petitioner's medical explanation for the default, the supporting materials placed on record, and the absence of objection from the respondent to a decision by the competent authority. It found sufficient cause to require the representation to be considered on merits and directed the authority to decide it after affording an opportunity of hearing and to pass a reasoned order within a fixed time.
Outcome: The writ petition was disposed of by directing consideration of the representation for revocation of cancellation in accordance with law, without adjudicating the merits.
Revocation of cancellation of GST registration - Opportunity of hearing -Consideration of representation for non-filing of returns - Sufficient cause - Seeking revocation of cancellation of GST registration on the ground that non-filing of returns was due to the medical condition of the person handling statutory compliance. - HELD THAT: - The Court recorded a prima facie satisfaction that sufficient cause had been shown for non-filing of returns and, to balance equities, directed the competent authority to consider and dispose of the representation in accordance with law after giving the petitioner an opportunity of hearing. The petitioner was also directed to produce the relevant medical documents before the authority, and the Court clarified that revocation could be considered by the authority if the explanation was found satisfactory. The merits of revocation were not adjudicated and all questions were left open. [Paras 8, 9, 10, 11]
The representation was directed to be decided by a reasoned order after hearing the petitioner, without any adjudication on the merits of the cancellation or its revocation.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was disposed of by directing the competent authority to consider the petitioner's representation for revocation of cancellation of GST registration in accordance with law after hearing the petitioner. The Court did not decide the merits and left all questions open for determination by the authority concerned.
Issues: (i) whether the petitioner, whose GST registration had been cancelled for continuous non-filing of returns, could be granted an opportunity to seek restoration upon furnishing all pending returns and payment of dues under the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017; (ii) whether the period under Section 73(10) of the CGST Act and State GST Act was to be computed from the date of the order, with the stated exception for financial year 2024-25.
Issue (i): whether the petitioner, whose GST registration had been cancelled for continuous non-filing of returns, could be granted an opportunity to seek restoration upon furnishing all pending returns and payment of dues under the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017.
Analysis: Cancellation under Section 29(2)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017 for failure to furnish returns for six months or more is attended by serious civil consequences. The proviso to Rule 22(4) permits the proper officer to drop cancellation proceedings where the person, instead of merely replying to the notice, furnishes all pending returns and makes full payment of tax dues along with applicable interest and late fee. The petitioner was therefore entitled to be given a further opportunity to comply and seek restoration in accordance with that proviso.
Conclusion: The petitioner was held entitled to approach the competent authority for restoration of GST registration within the stipulated time, and the authority was directed to consider restoration on compliance with the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017.
Issue (ii): whether the period under Section 73(10) of the CGST Act and State GST Act was to be computed from the date of the order, with the stated exception for financial year 2024-25.
Analysis: The disposal order recorded that the limitation period for action under Section 73(10) would run from the date of the present order, while the financial year 2024-25 would be governed by Section 44 of the CGST Act and State GST Act. This was linked to the conditional restoration relief and the petitioner's continuing liability to clear arrears.
Conclusion: The computation of the period under Section 73(10) was directed to run from the date of the order, subject to the stated exception for financial year 2024-25 under Section 44.
Final Conclusion: The cancellation was not set aside outright, but the petitioner was afforded a conditional route to restoration of GST registration on full compliance with the prescribed statutory requirements and payment of arrears, while ancillary tax-period directions were also issued.
Ratio Decidendi: Where GST registration is cancelled for non-filing of returns, the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017 enables restoration-related relief if the taxpayer furnishes all pending returns and clears the tax dues with applicable interest and late fee.
Restoration of GST registration - Cancellation for non-filing of returns - Compliance under proviso to Rule 22(4) -Opportunity for restoration on subsequent compliance - Seeking restoration by approaching the proper authority and complying with the proviso to Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules, 2017
GST registration cancellation for continuous non-filing - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the controversy was covered by the Coordinate Bench decision in Dhirghat Hardware Stores [2025 (10) TMI 1070 - GAUHATI HIGH COURT], rendered on similar facts and law. Accepting that position, the Court proceeded on the basis that where registration was cancelled under Section 29(2)(c) for non-filing of returns, and the registered person is ready to furnish all pending returns and pay the tax dues with applicable interest, penalty and late fee, the proper authority may consider dropping the proceedings in terms of the proviso to Rule 22(4). On that basis, the petitioner was held entitled to the same relief, namely an opportunity to apply for restoration and have such application considered in accordance with law. [Paras 11, 12, 13]
The petitioner was permitted to approach the concerned authority within sixty days for restoration of GST registration, and on compliance with the requirements of the proviso to Rule 22(4), the authority was directed to consider restoration expeditiously in accordance with law.
Computation of limitation under Section 73(10) - Exception for financial year 2024-25 - HELD THAT: - Following the same relief moulded in Dhirghat Hardware Stores, the Court directed that the statutory period under Section 73(10) would run from the date of the present order, while carving out an express exception for the financial year 2024-25, which was left to be governed as per Section 44 of the CGST Act/State GST Act. [Paras 13]
The limitation period under Section 73(10) was directed to be reckoned from the date of the order, except in relation to the financial year 2024-25.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was disposed of by granting the petitioner liberty to seek restoration of GST registration within the time stipulated, with a direction to the authority to consider such request on compliance with the requirements of the proviso to Rule 22(4). The Court also directed how the period under Section 73(10) was to be computed, subject to the stated exception for the financial year 2024-25.
Issues: Validity of the show cause notice and consequential order cancelling GST registration, and whether they were liable to be quashed.
Analysis: The Court followed its earlier decision on an identical challenge, where a system-generated notice that did not disclose the name or office of the issuing authority was held to be unsustainable. The present notice and the consequential cancellation order were also issued under the GST regime in the same manner, and the Court treated the defect as fatal to the validity of the action.
Conclusion: The show cause notice dated 11.02.2025 and the consequential order dated 26.03.2025 cancelling the GST registration were quashed.
Cancellation of GST registration - System generated show cause notice - Jurisdictional authority in issuance of notice - Notice without name or office of issuing authority - Digital Signature - failure to identify the issuing authority - Principles of natural justice - HELD THAT: - Following M/s M Y Ent Bhatta v. State of UP & anr [2025 (5) TMI 2198 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT], the Court held that the statutory power to issue notice vests in the competent officer and not in the system. An advisory regarding issuance of notices or orders without digital signatures could not validate a notice which did not disclose either the name or the office of the issuing authority and merely described itself as system generated. Since the show cause notice was itself dehors the Act and the Rules, the consequential order cancelling registration could not survive.
The show cause notice and the consequential order cancelling the petitioner's GST registration were quashed.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was allowed. Applying the earlier Division Bench view, the Court quashed the show cause notice and the consequential cancellation order on the ground that the notice was merely system generated and did not disclose the competent issuing authority.
Outcome: The writ petition was disposed of by declining to entertain it at this stage and leaving the petitioner to pursue the appellate remedy.
Alternative statutory remedy - Maintainability of writ petition against refund rejection - Refund of IGST by SEZ unit - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the dispute turned on the nature of the refund claim, including whether it stood outside the scope of zero-rated supply and whether it was a simplicitor refund claim in respect of supplies made to the insurance company. Since these were matters going to the merits and required examination of the rival claims, the proper course was to pursue the statutory appellate remedy rather than invoke writ jurisdiction at that stage. [Paras 5]
The writ petition was disposed of leaving it open to the petitioner to file an appeal on all available grounds of fact and law, with a direction that delay, if any, be considered in light of the petitioner having pursued the writ remedy.
Final Conclusion: The Court declined to entertain the writ petition against the refund rejection order on the ground that the dispute involved issues on the merits of the refund claim which should be raised before the appellate authority. Liberty was granted to file an appeal, and the question of delay was directed to be considered in that background.
Issues: Whether the respondents should be directed to carry out reassessment of the six bills of entry and whether coercive action should be restrained till such exercise is completed.
Analysis: The petition was founded on alleged inaction in carrying out reassessment of the bills of entry and in issuing challans for the IGST payable. The respondents did not dispute that reassessment could be undertaken in a time-bound manner, while the question of waiver of interest was left to be considered by the authorities at the stage of reassessment. The Court therefore directed reassessment in accordance with the applicable law and restrained coercive action until the exercise was completed.
Conclusion: The respondents were directed to reassess the six bills of entry within eight weeks and no coercive action was to be taken against the petitioner in the meantime.
Seeking directection to carry out reassessment of the six bills of entry - coercive action - Time-bound compliance - Liberty to avail appropriate legal remedy - HELD THAT:- The writ petition was disposed of with a direction to the customs authorities to carry out reassessment of the six bills of entry within the stipulated period, leaving the petitioner's claim regarding waiver of interest to be considered by the authorities at the time of reassessment, and without expressing any opinion on the merits.
Outcome: The writ petition challenging the show cause notice was not entertained at the threshold and was disposed of with directions to file a reply and proceed with adjudication.
Writ against show cause notice - Exceptional interference under Article 226
Maintainability of writ against show cause notice - Jurisdictional challenge at threshold - Abuse of process - Exceptional circumstances - Reasoned order - Opportunity of hearing - A writ petition challenging the CGST show cause notice at the threshold was not entertained where adjudication had not commenced and the petitioner had an adequate opportunity to submit its reply before the adjudicating authority. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that a writ court ordinarily does not interfere against a mere show cause notice. Interference under Article 226 is confined to exceptional cases where the notice is without jurisdiction, violates principles of natural justice, or amounts to abuse of process. As the petitioner had only been called upon to show cause and the adjudication proceeding had yet to commence, the proper course was to permit the petitioner to place its contentions and documents before the adjudicating authority. To secure a fair adjudication, the Court directed filing of a detailed reply, consideration of the same by a reasoned order after hearing the petitioner and the supplier, and completion of the adjudication within the time fixed by the Court, while leaving all merits open. [Paras 12, 13, 14, 15]
The writ petition was disposed of without examining the merits, with directions for the petitioner to reply to the show cause notice and for the adjudicating authority to decide the matter by a reasoned order after hearing the concerned parties.
Final Conclusion: The Court declined to quash the show cause notice at the threshold and held that the petitioner must pursue the adjudicatory process. The matter was disposed of with directions for a detailed reply, hearing of the petitioner and the supplier, and a time-bound reasoned adjudication, with all merits kept open.
Issues: Whether the proceedings and impugned order under Section 74 of the GST enactments were barred by limitation and whether the invocation of the extended period was sustainable.
Analysis: The dispute arose from a mismatch between GSTR-2A and GSTR-3B, leading to an allegation of excess input tax credit. The Court noted that for the relevant tax period, the ordinary limitation under Section 73 had been extended by the exclusion of the Covid-19 period and by the operation of Section 168A and the relevant notifications/orders. It also noticed that the returns had been scrutinised under Section 61 and that an ASMT-10 notice had preceded the intimation and show-cause notice, indicating suppression-like circumstances sufficient to justify resort to Section 74.
Conclusion: The proceedings were not time-barred and the invocation of Section 74 was upheld.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the limitation period stands extended by statutory and judicial exclusion of the Covid-19 period and the record indicates suppression or similar non-disclosure, proceedings under Section 74 of the GST enactments are not barred by limitation.
Extended limitation for GST demand proceedings - Invocation of Section 74 for excess input tax credit mismatch - Suppression for purposes of extended period - Judicial exclusion of the Covid-19 period - Mismatch between GSTR-2A and GSTR-3B, leading to an allegation of excess input tax credit - barred by limitation - HELD THAT: - The Court held that, for the tax period 2017-2018, the limitation for demand proceedings could not be treated as having expired under either Section 73 or Section 74, since the period affected by the Covid-19 outbreak had to be excluded in terms of the orders extending limitation, read with the statutory relaxations introduced under Section 168A. The Court further noted that the impugned order itself indicated scrutiny of returns under Section 61 and issuance of Form ASMT-10 before the intimation and show cause notice, and considered that, in the circumstances, suppression was made out for purposes of invoking Section 74. Relying on the common order rendered in the batch matters on the same day, the Court also observed that the threshold for invoking the extended period under Section 74 under the GST enactments is lower than under the earlier indirect tax laws. On that reasoning, the challenge to the jurisdictional shift from the earlier intimation to the notice under Section 74 was rejected. [Paras 21, 22, 23, 24, 25]
The writ petition was dismissed, with liberty to the petitioner to pursue the statutory appeal on merits before the Appellate Commissioner subject to compliance with Section 107.
Final Conclusion: The Court upheld the impugned order under Section 74 for the tax period 2017-2018, holding that the proceedings were within limitation after giving effect to the Covid-19 exclusion and statutory extensions, and that invocation of the extended period was justified on the facts noticed in the order. The writ petition was accordingly dismissed, with liberty to pursue the statutory appellate remedy on merits.
Issues: (i) Whether the challenge to invocation of the extended period of limitation and proceedings under Section 74 of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 was maintainable. (ii) Whether the impugned demand arising from dispatch of goods for job work without proper records under Section 143 of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Rule 45 of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 could be sustained, and whether the matter required verification on the plea of revenue neutrality.
Issue (i): Whether the challenge to invocation of the extended period of limitation and proceedings under Section 74 of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 was maintainable.
Analysis: The Court held that under the GST scheme the Department proceeds on the basis of the records maintained by the taxpayer, and where scrutiny reveals a mistake or shortfall, proceedings under Section 74 can be initiated. It further held that the threshold for invoking Section 74 is lower than under the earlier indirect tax regime and that such proceedings are not excluded merely because the assessee characterises the lapse as technical or jurisdictional.
Conclusion: The challenge to invocation of Section 74 was rejected.
Issue (ii): Whether the impugned demand arising from dispatch of goods for job work without proper records under Section 143 of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Rule 45 of the Tamil Nadu Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 could be sustained, and whether the matter required verification on the plea of revenue neutrality.
Analysis: The Court noted that the assessee was required to maintain proper accounts for goods sent to job workers and to comply with the statutory conditions governing return of goods and reporting in the prescribed form. At the same time, it found that the plea that the issue may be revenue neutral required factual verification and could not be conclusively decided in the writ proceedings.
Conclusion: The matter was remitted to the respondent for verification of the revenue-neutrality plea and for passing fresh orders on merits after hearing the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The writ petitions did not succeed on the jurisdictional objection, but the demand was not finally affirmed and the matter was sent back for reconsideration on the limited question of revenue neutrality.
Ratio Decidendi: In GST proceedings, a notice under Section 74 may be invoked where scrutiny of the taxpayer's own records reveals a shortfall or mistake, and a factual plea such as revenue neutrality can justify remand for fresh consideration.
Maintainability of Invocation of the extended period of limitation and proceedings under Section 74 - Job work records and deemed supply - Revenue neutrality - Demand arising from dispatch of goods for job work without proper records under Section 143 - verification on the plea of revenue neutrality
Invocation of extended limitation under GST - Job work records and deemed supply - The demand proceedings under Section 74 for goods sent on job work without proper records were not without jurisdiction merely because the notice did not separately elaborate all ingredients of Section 74. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that under the GST scheme the Department proceeds on the basis of the records maintained by the taxable person under self-assessment. Where goods are claimed to have been sent on job work basis, the principal must maintain the accounts and records contemplated under Section 143 and Rule 45, and the goods must be duly accounted for. In the absence of records showing return of the goods within the prescribed period, the deeming consequence under the job work provisions is attracted. On that basis, and in view of the common order rendered in the connected batch, the Court held that Section 74 could be invoked where scrutiny discloses such shortfall, and that the threshold for invoking the extended period under GST is lower than under the earlier indirect tax enactments. The technical challenge to the notices and orders on lack of jurisdiction was therefore rejected. [Paras 16, 17, 18, 19, 20]
The challenge to the invocation of Section 74 and to the impugned orders on technical and jurisdictional grounds was rejected.
Revenue neutrality - The assessee's plea that the dispute may be revenue neutral was left open for factual verification by the assessing authority. - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the contention that the inputs sent for job work had already suffered tax, either in the hands of the assessee or in the hands of the job worker, required detailed factual examination. Since that question was disputed and depended on proof to be produced by the assessee, the Court declined to decide it in writ jurisdiction. The matter was therefore remitted to enable the assessee to file a proper reply and establish the plea of revenue neutrality, after which the authority was directed to pass fresh orders on merits after hearing the assessee. [Paras 21, 22, 23, 24, 25]
The matter was remitted for fresh consideration limited to the assessee's plea of revenue neutrality.
Final Conclusion: The Court upheld the validity of invoking Section 74 in the facts of the case and rejected the technical challenge to the impugned orders. However, as the assessee's plea of revenue neutrality required factual verification, the matters were remitted to the respondent for fresh decision on that aspect after receiving the assessee's reply.
Issues: Whether the order rejecting the application for revocation of cancellation of registration on the ground of delay could be sustained when the delay condonation request was disposed of by a non-speaking order.
Analysis: The application for revocation was filed beyond the prescribed 90 days but within the extended period contemplated under Rule 23 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, along with a request for condonation of delay. The impugned order merely stated that the reasons for condonation were not correct or that the justification was insufficient. Such a cryptic disposal did not disclose any proper consideration of the explanation or supporting material and therefore reflected non-application of mind.
Conclusion: The rejection order was unsustainable and was set aside. The matter was remitted to the competent authority to pass a fresh order after considering the petitioner's explanation and supporting documents.
Non-speaking order - Application of mind in delay condonation - Revocation of cancellation of registration - Rejection of the revocation application for cancellation of registration on the ground of delay, without dealing with the explanation furnished in the delay condonation application - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the impugned order merely stated that the reasons given for condonation were not correct or that the justification was insufficient, without disclosing any consideration of the explanation or supporting material placed by the petitioner. Since the revocation application had been accompanied by a delay condonation request and the authority gave no reasoned determination on that request, the order was held to be a non-speaking order suffering from lack of application of mind. On that ground, the matter required fresh consideration by the competent authority. [Paras 6, 7]
The impugned order was set aside and the matter was remitted to the competent authority to pass a fresh speaking order after considering the petitioner's explanation and supporting documents.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was allowed on the limited ground that the rejection of the revocation application was by a non-speaking order lacking application of mind. The competent authority was directed to reconsider the matter and pass a fresh order.
Issues: Whether the petitioner's cancelled GST registration should be restored despite non-filing of returns for a continuous period of six months.
Analysis: The cancellation arose from failure to file GST returns, but there was no allegation of unlawful activity or fraud. The default was attributed to financial and the period of non-compliance was proximate to the Covid-19 pandemic. The petitioner expressed readiness to pay the outstanding GST dues, late fees, penalty, and applicable interest. In similar circumstances, restoration had been granted by the Court subject to payment of all dues.
Conclusion: The cancelled GST registration was directed to be restored after the authorities ascertain the dues and the petitioner pays the amount intimated within the stipulated time.
Ratio Decidendi: Where cancellation of GST registration is solely for non-filing of returns, without fraud or unlawful conduct, and the taxpayer undertakes to clear all outstanding dues with interest and consequential charges, restoration may be ordered on payment of the assessed amount.
Restoration of cancelled GST registration - Cancellation for non-filing of returns for continuous period of six months - Conditional revival on payment of outstanding tax, late fees and interest - Financial hardship - Covid-19 disruption - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the record did not disclose any allegation that the petitioner had indulged in unlawful activity or attempted to defraud the GST authorities. It further noted that the delay in filing returns was attributable to financial constraints and that the period of default was proximate to the disruption caused by the Covid-19 pandemic, which position was not controverted. In these circumstances, and particularly since the petitioner expressed readiness to pay the outstanding GST dues together with applicable interest and late fees or penalty, the Court held that restoration of registration would serve the interests of both the petitioner and the revenue, enabling lawful business activity while securing recovery of statutory dues. [Paras 14, 15, 16, 17, 18]
The cancelled GST registration was directed to be restored after the authorities determine and intimate the outstanding dues and the petitioner pays the same within the stipulated time; failing such payment, the petition would stand dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The petition was disposed of by directing ascertainment of the outstanding GST dues, interest, and late fees or penalty, and by ordering restoration of the petitioner's GST registration upon payment within the prescribed time. In default of such payment, the petition was directed to stand dismissed without further reference to the Court.
Issues: Whether the order rejecting the request for revocation of GST registration cancellation could be sustained when the relevant documents were not considered and a personal hearing was not afforded.
Analysis: The factual questions relating to the petitioner's actual business activity and the alleged temporary closure of the premises required verification on the basis of the documents filed along with the revocation request. The rejection order was found deficient because the documents accompanying the application had not been considered and the petitioner was entitled to a personal hearing before a decision on revocation.
Conclusion: The rejection order was quashed and the proceedings were restored to the second respondent for fresh consideration after granting a personal hearing and considering the materials filed by the petitioner.
Revocation of cancellation of GST registration - Failure to consider material documents and applications - No Personal hearing - Rejection of the application for revocation of cancellation of GST registration without considering the documents and applications filed by the petitioner and without proper opportunity of hearing was unsustainable. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the question whether the petitioner was carrying on business from the declared place of business or had temporarily closed the premises for personal reasons involved factual verification on the basis of the documents furnished. Such verification had to be undertaken by the competent authority after extending a personal hearing. Since the order rejecting revocation did not consider the several applications and documents filed by the petitioner, it was found wanting and could not be sustained. [Paras 4]
The order rejecting revocation was quashed and the proceedings were restored to the second respondent for fresh consideration after granting the petitioner a personal hearing.
Final Conclusion: The petition was allowed in part. The order rejecting revocation of cancellation of GST registration was set aside and the matter was remitted for fresh decision after personal hearing; no adjudication was made on the underlying factual question whether business was conducted from the declared premises.
Issues: Whether letters issued by the GST authorities to the petitioners' customers, before the issuance of orders-in-original determining tax liability, were valid and could support further coercive action, and whether the revenue retained liberty to proceed with recovery after adjudication.
Analysis: The communication to customers was issued when only a tax proposal was pending and no tax liability had crystallised. In that situation, the prior communication could not be treated as a valid basis for coercive recovery or further action. At the same time, the disposal preserved the revenue's right to initiate lawful recovery proceedings after orders-in-original, including action under Section 79(1)(c) of the applicable GST enactments, and the earlier availability of refund proceedings under Section 54 remained unaffected.
Conclusion: Letters issued before adjudication determining tax liability were held invalid and incapable of sustaining further action, but the revenue was left free to pursue recovery in accordance with law after the orders-in-original.
Pre-adjudication recovery of GST dues from customers - Invalidity of recovery proceedings before determination of tax liability - Crystallisation of tax liability - Recovery from customers of the taxable person - Letters issued by the respondents to customers of the petitioners before issuance of the order-in-original determining tax liability - HELD THAT: - The Court held that, at the time when the communications were issued to the customers of the petitioners, there was only a tax proposal and no determined tax liability. In such circumstances, recovery action against persons liable to pay the petitioners for goods supplied could not be sustained. The Court therefore declared that any such letters issued prior to adjudication of liability were invalid and could not furnish the basis for further action. At the same time, the Court preserved the respondents' right to initiate recovery in accordance with law after the orders-in-original determining liability. [Paras 4, 7]
Pre-adjudication letters issued to the petitioners' customers were held invalid, without prejudice to lawful recovery proceedings after determination of tax liability under the orders-in-original.
Final Conclusion: The writ petitions were disposed of by declaring that letters issued to the petitioners' customers before determination of tax liability were invalid and could not be acted upon further. The respondents were, however, left free to pursue recovery in accordance with law after issuance of the orders-in-original.
Issues: Whether the petitioner, having not received the show cause notice and having been unable to file a reply, should be granted an opportunity to respond before the adjudicating authority passes a fresh order.
Analysis: The petition was directed against an order passed under Section 107 of the West Bengal Goods and Services Tax Act and the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The Court noted that the petitioner had not been able to receive the show cause notice or file a reply and, therefore, had been deprived of an opportunity to place its defence before the authority. In these circumstances, the Court considered it appropriate to restore the petitioner's opportunity to respond and to require the authority to reconsider the matter after hearing the petitioner and by passing a reasoned order in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The petitioner was permitted to file a reply within four weeks, and the authority was directed to consider the same, afford a hearing, and pass a reasoned order within the stipulated time.
Opportunity to reply to show cause notice - Failure of effective service through GST portal - Reasoned order after hearing - Principles of natural justice - Entitlement to an opportunity to reply to the show cause notice where he had not been able to receive the notice and therefore could not file a response. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that, on the materials placed, the petitioner had not been able to receive the show cause notice and consequently had no opportunity to submit a reply. On that procedural defect, the matter required reconsideration after permitting the petitioner to respond. The authority was therefore directed to accept the reply, consider it, grant hearing, and pass a reasoned order in accordance with law. [Paras 7, 8]
The petitioner was permitted to file a reply to the show cause notice, and the authority was directed to decide the matter afresh by a reasoned order after affording hearing.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was disposed of by directing that the petitioner be given an opportunity to reply to the show cause notice for the financial year 2018-2019, after which the authority must pass a reasoned order upon hearing the petitioner.
Issues: Whether the applicants were entitled to bail in a case involving allegations of cheating, forgery and conspiracy, where the prosecution material mainly comprised statements of co-accused and the charge-sheet had already been filed.
Analysis: The applicants were not named in the FIR, and the prosecution sought to connect them chiefly through statements of co-accused. The Court noted the rival positions on the evidentiary value of such statements at the bail stage, including the distinction between witness statements and statements attributable to an accused. The Court also took note that the charge-sheet had been filed and assessed the nature of the offence, the material collected, the alleged complicity, the severity of punishment, and the overall circumstances bearing on bail.
Conclusion: The applicants were held entitled to bail and their applications were allowed.
Entitlement to bail in GST-related forgery and cheating prosecution - Use of co-accused police statements at bail stage - Magistrate-triable offences and documentary evidence - Prima facie case - Parity in bail - Confessional statement - Corroborative statement - Grant of bail where their implication rested only on their alleged confessional statement and the statements of co-accused, and charge-sheet had already been filed in offences triable by a Magistrate. - HELD THAT: - Apex Court in the case of Salim Khan Vs. Sanjai Singh [1999 (12) TMI 888 - SUPREME COURT] wherein the Apex Court while considering an application of the informant for cancellation of bail of the accused observed that the High Court was duty bound to consider all the statements recorded u/s 161 of Cr.P.C., examine the gravity of the offence and also examine the question of possibility of the accused tampering with the evidence and possibility of getting the attendance of the accused during the trial and then would be entitled to grant bail to an accused.
The Court examined the legal position governing reliance on police statements at the stage of bail and noted the distinction between statements of witnesses and statements of accused persons. Referring to the later decision in P. Krishna Mohan Reddy Vs. The State of Andra Pradesh [2025 (5) TMI 1900 - SUPREME COURT], it held that police statements of accused persons, particularly confessional statements implicating co-accused, do not stand on the same footing as statements of witnesses for bail purposes. On the facts before it, the Court found that the only material against the applicants consisted of their confessional statement and the statements of co-accused, while the charge-sheet had already been filed. Taking into account the nature of the accusation, the material on record, the severity of punishment, and the fact that the case was to proceed on filed material, the Court concluded that a case for bail was made out. [Paras 16, 17]
Bail was granted to both applicants subject to conditions.
Final Conclusion: The Court allowed the bail applications and directed release of the applicants on conditions. It held that, in the circumstances of the case, the material against them was insufficient to deny bail once the charge-sheet had been filed.
Issues: Whether the writ appeal was maintainable despite the availability of an alternative statutory remedy, and whether the alleged absence of prior notice under Section 142(1)(a) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 could be examined in writ jurisdiction.
Analysis: The challenge rested on the contention that no statutory notice had been issued before the show cause notice and that the impugned order was therefore null and void. The Court held that the existence or non-existence of such prior notice was itself a factual dispute. In view of the settled limits on the exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, such disputed factual questions were not fit for adjudication in writ proceedings, particularly when an efficacious statutory remedy was available.
Conclusion: The Court found no error in the refusal to entertain the writ petition on the ground of alternative remedy and held that the writ appeal was liable to be dismissed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the validity of an impugned action turns on a disputed factual question and an effective statutory remedy exists, writ jurisdiction will ordinarily not be invoked.
Alternative statutory remedy - Maintainability of writ petition- Disputed questions of fact under Article 226- absence of prior notice under Section 142(1)(a) -HELD THAT: - The Court held that though a writ petition may be maintainable notwithstanding an alternative statutory remedy if the impugned order is shown to be null and void, that principle could not be invoked here because the very foundation of the challenge, namely, absence of a notice prior to the show cause notice, was itself disputed on facts. Since adjudication of that controversy would require examination in the factual realm, the High Court, in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226, could not undertake such enquiry. On that reasoning, the refusal to entertain the writ petition on the ground of availability of an efficacious statutory remedy was found justified. [Paras 4, 5]
The dismissal of the writ petition on the ground of alternative statutory remedy was upheld, leaving the appellant to pursue the statutory forum.
Final Conclusion: The writ appeal was dismissed, the Court holding that the challenge to the GST order raised a disputed factual issue unsuitable for examination in writ jurisdiction and was therefore required to be pursued before the statutory forum. Liberty was, however, reserved to seek exclusion of the time spent before the High Court for limitation purposes.
Issues: Whether the order rejecting the revision application under section 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, without granting personal hearing and without dealing with the assessee's contentions by a reasoned order, was liable to be set aside and the matter remanded.
Analysis: The Assessing Officer had indicated that the assessee could pursue a revision under section 264, and the assessee accordingly filed the application and requested a personal hearing. The rejection was made without granting such hearing and the objections raised in the reply were dealt with cursorily. The decision was founded only on the view that the mere reference to section 264 in the assessment order could not justify acceptance of the revision application.
Conclusion: The impugned order was quashed and set aside, and the matter was remanded to the competent authority to reconsider the revision application after dealing with all contentions by a reasoned order and, if considered necessary, after affording an opportunity of hearing. The writ petition was partly allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: A revision application under section 264 cannot be rejected without a fair opportunity of hearing and a reasoned consideration of the contentions raised.
Revision u/s 264 - Reasoned disposal of revision application - Failure to consider material contentions
HELD THAT: - The Court noted that the assessee had invoked the revisional remedy u/s 264 on the basis of the AO's own observation that such remedial action was available. It found that, despite the assessee's request to appear and the detailed reply filed in support of the revision, the revisional authority dealt with the contentions only cursorily and rejected the application merely by stating that the AO's observation regarding Section 264 did not mean that the application could be accepted. The determinative defect was the absence of a proper and reasoned consideration of the revision application and the contentions raised by the assessee. [Paras 5, 6]
The impugned order passed u/s 264 and consequential orders were quashed, and the matter was remanded for fresh decision by a reasoned order in accordance with law after dealing with the assessee's contentions.
Final Conclusion: The High Court held that the revision application under Section 264 had been rejected without proper consideration of the assessee's contentions and without a reasoned determination. The impugned order was therefore set aside and the matter remanded for fresh decision in accordance with law.
Issues: (i) Whether the reassessment proceedings under Sections 148A(b), 148A(d) and 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 were barred by limitation under Section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. (ii) Whether the reopening based on audit objection and the alleged non-disclosure of advance fees and other receipts was jurisdiction or otherwise unsustainable on merits.
Issue (i): Whether the reassessment proceedings under Sections 148A(b), 148A(d) and 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 were barred by limitation under Section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The dispute related to Assessment Year 2015-16. The Court held that the amended regime permits initiation of reassessment within the statutory period under Section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and that the period between the Section 148A(b) notice and the assessee's reply is to be excluded for computing limitation. Relying on the finality of the law declared in the Supreme Court decisions governing notices issued during the transition from the old regime to the new regime, the Court found the impugned proceedings to be within time.
Conclusion: The limitation challenge failed and the reassessment proceedings were held to be in time.
Issue (ii): Whether the reopening based on audit objection and the alleged non-disclosure of advance fees and other receipts was jurisdiction or otherwise unsustainable on merits.
Analysis: The Court noted that the amount alleged to have escaped assessment had not been included in the return and was not part of the earlier scrutiny assessment under Section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. It also recorded prima facie material indicating non-disclosure of certain receipts and other expenditure-related discrepancies. On that basis, the Court found no jurisdictional infirmity in invoking the reassessment machinery merely because the proceedings were triggered in the background of audit-related material.
Conclusion: The challenge on merits and jurisdiction failed, and the reopening was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was rejected, and the reassessment notice and order were sustained, with liberty reserved to raise all other issues before the assessing authority.
Ratio Decidendi: Reassessment under the amended regime is valid when initiated within the statutory time after exclusion of the period consumed by the Section 148A process, and audit-related material coupled with prima facie escaped income can lawfully support reopening.
Reassessment limitation under amended regime - Exclusion of time in Section 148A proceedings - Reopening of completed assessment
HELD THAT: - The Court held that under the amended reassessment regime, proceedings may be initiated within the period prescribed by Section 149, but a notice u/s 148A cannot be sustained if the case had already become time-barred under the old regime.
For the relevant assessment year, however, the Court found that the case was within the permissible six-year period under the old law. The Court further held that, for computing limitation, the period between issuance of the notice u/s 148A(b) and the assessee's reply is liable to be excluded, and therefore the subsequent order u/s 148A(d) and notice u/s 148 were in time.
It also recorded that the amount alleged to have escaped assessment had not formed the subject matter of the earlier scrutiny assessment, and therefore invocation of the reassessment machinery could not be faulted at this stage. All other issues were expressly left open to be raised before the respondents, except the plea of limitation. [Paras 13, 14, 16, 17, 23]
The limitation challenge failed; the writ petition was dismissed, leaving all other issues open to the petitioner before the respondents except the issue of limitation.
Final Conclusion: The Court declined to interfere with the impugned order under Section 148A(d) and the consequential notice under Section 148, holding that the reassessment proceedings for Assessment Year 2015-16 were not barred by limitation. The writ petition was dismissed, with liberty to the petitioner to raise all other issues before the respondents except the plea of limitation.
Issues: (i) whether the deductee was entitled to credit of tax deducted at source on the basis of Form 16A and the bank certificates despite non-reflection on the portal, and (ii) whether the Department could withhold credit and consequential refund without verifying the genuineness of the certificates and TDS particulars.
Issue (i): Whether the deductee was entitled to credit of tax deducted at source on the basis of Form 16A and the bank certificates despite non-reflection on the portal.
Analysis: The statutory scheme under Sections 198, 199, 200, 200A, 201, 203, 203A, 205 and 206 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, together with Rule 37BA of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, treats tax deducted and paid to the Central Government as payment on behalf of the deductee. The certificates issued by the deductor-bank contained the relevant particulars of deduction and deposit, and the Department did not dislodge their correctness by any affidavit or verified material. In these circumstances, mere non-display in Form 26AS or on the portal could not defeat the statutory right to credit.
Conclusion: The deductee was entitled to credit of TDS on the basis of the certificates and Form 16A, subject to verification of genuineness.
Issue (ii): Whether the Department could withhold credit and consequential refund without verifying the genuineness of the certificates and TDS particulars.
Analysis: The Department was required to verify the particulars furnished in the certificates and Form 16A within a reasonable time. Once the deductor's certificates were not shown to be false and no adverse material was placed on record, the Department could not keep the matter pending indefinitely or deny credit. If verification revealed no infirmity, full credit had to be given and refund issued after adjustment of any existing demand, with statutory interest from the date the refund became due.
Conclusion: The Department was directed to verify the TDS particulars and, if no adverse discrepancy was found, grant full credit and consequential refund with statutory interest.
Final Conclusion: The batch of writ applications succeeded, and the income tax authorities were obliged to verify the TDS certificates and, upon finding them genuine, extend credit and refund relief to the petitioners.
Ratio Decidendi: Where deduction and deposit of TDS are supported by statutory certificates containing requisite particulars and the Department does not establish any falsity, credit cannot be denied merely because the amount is not reflected on the portal; the authorities must verify and, if the particulars are found genuine, grant credit and consequential refund.
Credit for tax deducted at source on basis of Form 16A and deductor's certificate - Bar against direct demand where tax has been deducted at source - Departmental duty to verify TDS claim before denying credit
Denial of credit for tax deducted at source merely because the deduction was not reflected on the departmental portal or in Form 26AS - HELD THAT: - The Court held that under the scheme of the Act, the obligation to furnish TDS statements and to deposit the deducted amount rests on the deductor, and failure in that regard attracts consequences against the deductor. Once tax has been deducted, the statutory bar against calling upon the assessee to pay the same tax is attracted. In the present cases, the Bank had issued Form 16A and certificates containing challan details and particulars of deposit, and the Department had neither denied the correctness of those particulars by affidavit nor shown any adverse finding on verification. In such circumstances, the Department could not continue to deny credit to the deductees merely because the amount was not displayed on the portal. Its duty was to verify the particulars furnished, and only if the information was found incorrect could credit be denied. [Paras 31, 33, 34]
The Department was directed to verify the particulars furnished in Form 16A and the certificates within one month and, if no adverse material was found regarding their genuineness, to grant full TDS credit and issue consequential refund, after adjustment of any previous outstanding demand, with statutory interest from the date on which the refund became due on regular assessment.
Final Conclusion: The writ petitions were disposed of by directing the Department to verify the TDS certificates and Form 16A within the prescribed time and, if found genuine, to grant credit of the deducted tax and release any consequential refund with statutory interest, subject to adjustment of prior outstanding dues.
Issues: Whether disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D was sustainable when no exempt income was earned during the relevant year.
Analysis: The assessee had not earned any exempt income and had not claimed exemption under section 10(34). Relying on the view that section 14A does not apply where no exempt income is received or receivable during the relevant previous year, the disallowance was found to be unsustainable. The amendment inserted by the Finance Act, 2022 was treated as prospective and applicable only from assessment year 2022-23 onwards, and therefore did not govern the year under appeal.
Conclusion: The disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D was deleted and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Section 14A disallowance cannot be sustained for a year in which no exempt income is earned, and the Finance Act, 2022 amendment applies prospectively.
Disallowance u/s 14A in absence of exempt income - Prospective operation of Finance Act, 2022 amendment to section 14A - Rule 8D disallowance -
HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted that it was undisputed that the assessee had not earned any exempt income and had claimed no exemption in the return. On that factual basis, section 14A was held inapplicable and the disallowance made under Rule 8D was unsustainable.
Tribunal further held that the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2022, providing for application of section 14A even where no exempt income has accrued, arisen or been received, is prospective and applicable only from assessment year 2022-23 onwards. Accordingly, for the year under appeal, the amendment could not be invoked to sustain the disallowance. [Paras 6, 7, 8]
The disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D was deleted.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was allowed. The Tribunal held that, for assessment year 2020-21, no disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D could be made in the absence of exempt income, and the Finance Act, 2022 amendment to section 14A was prospective.
Issues: Whether the addition made under section 69 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 towards alleged unexplained investment in purchase of immovable property, including the small balance amount, was sustainable when the assessee produced documentary evidence explaining the source and movement of funds.
Analysis: The assessee furnished a source-wise reconciliation of the entire purchase consideration, supported by the sale deed of the earlier property, the seller's bank statement, the husband's affidavit, the gift deed, identity and tax records of the husband, the bank confirmation identifying the remitter, and the pay order for the balance amount. The Revenue did not dispute the genuineness of the purchase transaction, the identity and capacity of the contributor, or the receipt of funds by the seller, and brought no contrary material to show that the money represented undisclosed income of the assessee. The mere non-availability of an exchange bureau remittance record, by itself, was held insufficient to reject the explanation when the transaction stood otherwise fully corroborated.
Conclusion: The assessee had satisfactorily explained the entire investment, and the addition under section 69 was not sustainable; the impugned addition of Rs. 80,10,000/- was directed to be deleted.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the assessee establishes the source of investment through a coherent chain of corroborative evidence and the Revenue brings no rebuttal material, an addition for unexplained investment under section 69 cannot rest on suspicion or on the absence of one collateral document.
Unexplained investment in purchase of immovable property - Discharge of burden u/s 69 through corroborative documentary evidence - Source of funds explained through spouse's direct remittance and own sale proceeds
HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the assessee had furnished a complete source-wise and payment-wise reconciliation of the entire property consideration, supported by interconnected documentary evidence including the seller's bank statement, the husband's identity and tax records, his affidavit, the gift deed, bank confirmation, the earlier sale deed showing availability of own funds, and the pay order for the balance amount.
Revenue did not dispute the identity of the husband, his financial capacity, the receipt of the disputed sums in the seller's account, the genuineness of the registered property transaction, or the authenticity of the documents produced. In these circumstances, the explanation could not be rejected merely because a further remittance record from the Dubai Exchange Bureau was unavailable after a long lapse of time.
Tribunal held that once the entire investment stood fully reconciled and no contrary material was brought to show that the funds represented the assessee's undisclosed income, suspicion cannot substitute evidence, and the burden under section 69 stood discharged. [Paras 9, 10, 11, 12, 13]
The entire addition u/s 69 was directed to be deleted.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal on merits and deleted the entire addition made under section 69 in respect of the property purchase, holding that the assessee had satisfactorily explained the full investment by cogent documentary evidence. The challenge to the reassessment proceedings was left open and was not adjudicated separately.
Issues: (i) whether the cost of acquisition for computing long-term capital gains had to be taken at the amount actually paid and proved by the assessee, instead of the lesser amount mentioned in the sale deed; and (ii) whether the cost of improvement could be restricted to 30% in the second round when that issue was not part of the earlier remand.
Issue (i): whether the cost of acquisition for computing long-term capital gains had to be taken at the amount actually paid and proved by the assessee, instead of the lesser amount mentioned in the sale deed.
Analysis: The assessee produced the housing society certificate and receipts showing payment of the higher consideration, along with registration and stamp duty charges. The lesser value shown in the sale deed was explained as having been adopted to avoid higher stamp duty. The materials on record demonstrated that the amount actually paid was the real cost of acquisition, and the authorities below had not properly appreciated the documentary evidence.
Conclusion: The actual cost of acquisition was accepted as claimed by the assessee and not the lower amount mentioned in the sale deed.
Issue (ii): whether the cost of improvement could be restricted to 30% in the second round when that issue was not part of the earlier remand.
Analysis: The earlier remand was confined to verification of the difference between the sale deed value and the actual cost of acquisition shown by the society certificate. The estimation of cost of improvement had not been the subject of dispute in the earlier round, and no finding on that issue had been returned then. In the second round, the restriction of improvement expenses to 30% was therefore unwarranted.
Conclusion: The restriction of cost of improvement to 30% was set aside and full allowance was directed.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on both contested issues, and the recomputation made by the lower authorities could not be sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Where documentary evidence establishes the actual purchase consideration, that amount governs computation of capital gains despite a lower value shown in the sale deed, and issues outside the scope of an earlier remand cannot be newly curtailed in the second round.
Cost of acquisition for capital gains computation - Actual consideration vis-a-vis value stated in sale deed - Scope of remand proceedings - Cost of improvement
Cost of acquisition for capital gains computation - Actual consideration vis-a-vis value stated in sale deed - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the assessee had produced the certificate of the housing society and the corresponding receipts showing payment of the higher consideration for the plot. It held that once the assessee was able to demonstrate by supporting documents that the actual price paid exceeded the amount recorded in the sale deed, the figure in the sale deed could not govern the computation of cost of acquisition.
The lower authorities had failed to consider this material despite the explanation for the difference. Since the relevant documents were available before the Tribunal and were not effectively disputed, the assessee's computation based on the actual cost was accepted without further remand. [Paras 10, 11, 12]
The assessee's cost of acquisition as claimed for computing long-term capital gain was accepted.
Scope of remand proceedings - Cost of improvement - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the earlier remand was confined to verification of the difference between the cost of acquisition shown in the sale deed and the actual cost reflected in the society's certificate. Since there was no discussion or remand on the question of cost of improvement in the earlier round, the Assessing Officer had no occasion in the second round to make an adverse estimation on that aspect. The restriction of the improvement claim to 30 per cent was therefore beyond the scope of the remand. [Paras 13]
The Assessing Officer was directed to allow the full cost of improvement instead of restricting it to 30 per cent.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was allowed. The Tribunal accepted the assessee's actual cost of acquisition for capital gains purposes and held that the Assessing Officer could not curtail the cost of improvement in the second round beyond the scope of the earlier remand.
Issues: Whether the assessee was entitled to renewal of registration under section 12AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 despite the Commissioner's finding that no application had been filed after amendment of the objects under section 12A(1)(ac)(v); and whether the consequential rejection of approval under section 80G could survive once the registration issue was decided in the assessee's favour.
Issue (i): Entitlement to renewal of registration under section 12AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The impugned rejection was founded on the assumption that the assessee had not sought approval after modification of its objects. The record showed otherwise: an application under section 12A(1)(ac)(v) had been filed and had culminated in approval in Form No. 10AD dated 18.04.2024. The Commissioner was bound to consider that subsisting order, and could not base a later refusal on a factual premise contradicted by the departmental record. No adverse finding was recorded that the objects were not charitable, that the educational activities were not genuine, or that any law material to the objects had been violated.
Conclusion: The refusal of renewal of registration under section 12AB was unsustainable and the assessee was entitled to renewal.
Issue (ii): Entitlement to renewal of approval under section 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The rejection under section 80G rested entirely on the denial of renewal of registration under section 12AB. No independent adverse finding was recorded for refusing 80G approval. Once the denial of registration failed, the sole foundation for rejecting 80G approval also disappeared.
Conclusion: The rejection of approval under section 80G could not survive and the assessee was entitled to renewal.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded in both appeals. The adverse orders were set aside and the statutory benefits sought by the assessee were directed to be granted for the relevant renewal period.
Ratio Decidendi: A later registration or approval proceeding cannot rest on a factual assumption that is contradicted by a subsisting order already passed by the competent authority, and consequential denial of one benefit cannot survive once the foundational refusal is found unsustainable.
Rejection of registration u/s 12AB - Renewal of charitable registration after amendment of objects - Scope of inquiry at registration stage - Consequential approval u/s 80G
Renewal of charitable registration after amendment of objects - Non-consideration of subsisting approval order - Scope of inquiry at registration stage - Renewal of registration under section 12AB rejected on the ground that approval for amended objects had not been obtained - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the rejection rested entirely on a factual premise contrary to the Department's own record, since the assessee had already filed an application after amendment of its objects and had obtained approval in Form No.10AD. That approval had also been specifically placed before the authority in the renewal proceedings, yet it was ignored. Once such subsisting approval existed and had neither been withdrawn nor cancelled, the authority could not proceed as if no approval had been granted. The Tribunal further held that inquiry at the stage of registration is confined to the charitable nature of the objects, genuineness of activities, and compliance with legal requirements material to achieving the objects; it is not an assessment exercise. In the absence of any adverse finding on charitable objects, genuineness of educational activities, or violation of any law material to the objects, renewal could not be denied. The order was therefore unsustainable both on facts and in law. [Paras 13, 14, 15, 16, 17]
The rejection of renewal of registration under section 12AB was set aside, and renewal was directed to be granted with effect from 01.04.2026.
Consequential approval under section 80G - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the order under section 80G contained no independent reasoning and was entirely consequential to the denial of registration under section 12AB. Once the denial of registration was set aside and the assessee was held entitled to renewal, the very basis for refusal of approval under section 80G disappeared. In the absence of any separate infirmity noted by the authority, the assessee was also entitled to renewal of approval under section 80G. [Paras 18, 19, 20]
The rejection of approval under section 80G was set aside, and approval was directed to be granted with effect from 01.04.2026.
Final Conclusion: Both appeals were allowed. The Tribunal held that renewal of registration had been wrongly denied on a factual assumption contrary to the record, and since the refusal of approval under section 80G was purely consequential, both impugned orders were set aside with directions to grant renewal in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether gain computed under section 50 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on transfer of a depreciable asset can be treated as short-term capital gain for all purposes so as to deny set-off of current year's and brought forward long-term capital losses under section 74.
Analysis: Section 50 is a special computation provision for depreciable assets and creates a legal fiction only for the mode of computing capital gains under sections 48 and 49. The fiction is confined to the computation of the gain and does not convert the underlying long-term capital asset into a short-term capital asset. Where the transferred asset is admittedly a long-term capital asset, the character of the asset remains relevant for section 74, and the deeming provision cannot be expanded beyond its intended purpose. The binding jurisdictional precedent holds that section 50 does not alter the intrinsic nature of the asset and cannot be used to deny statutory set-off otherwise available under the Act.
Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to set off current year's and brought forward long-term capital losses against the gain arising from transfer of the depreciable asset, and the Revenue's objection was rejected.
Scope of legal fiction u/s 50 - Set-off of long-term capital loss against gain on transfer of depreciable long-term asset - Character of capital asset for purposes of section 74 - Transfer of depreciable long-term capital asset - Set-off of current year's and brought forward long-term capital losses against gain computed under section 50 on transfer of a depreciable asset held as a long-term capital asset
HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that section 50 is a special provision confined to computation of capital gains on transfer of depreciable assets and the deeming fiction therein cannot be extended beyond that purpose. While the gain is deemed to be short-term capital gain for computational purposes, the provision does not convert the underlying long-term capital asset into a short-term capital asset.
For applying section 74, the relevant test is the actual character of the asset transferred. Since the asset was admittedly held for a period qualifying it as a long-term capital asset, the gain arising from its transfer retained that character for purposes of set-off, notwithstanding computation under section 50. The Assessing Officer's view enlarged the deeming fiction beyond the legislative purpose and was therefore unsustainable. [Paras 11, 12, 13, 14, 15]
The direction to allow adjustment of current year's and brought forward long-term capital losses against the gain computed under section 50 was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld the appellate order allowing set-off of current year's and brought forward long-term capital losses against the gain arising from transfer of the depreciable asset computed under section 50, and dismissed the Revenue's appeal.
Issues: Whether reassessment under the Income-tax Act, 1961 is invalid when the assessee has filed a return in response to notice under section 148 but the Assessing Officer fails to issue notice under section 143(2) before completing the reassessment.
Analysis: The assessee had originally filed a return under section 139(1) and later filed a return in response to notice under section 148. The Tribunal held that the belated filing could not be treated as non-est so as to dispense with the statutory requirement of notice under section 143(2). Relying on the principle that once a return is filed in response to section 148, the Assessing Officer must follow the reassessment procedure contemplated by sections 142 and 143(2), the Tribunal found that non-issuance of the jurisdictional notice was not a curable irregularity. The Tribunal also treated the reassessment as unsustainable in light of the binding precedents applied to similar facts.
Conclusion: Notice under section 143(2) was mandatory in the facts of the case, and the reassessment completed without such notice was invalid and void ab initio.
Mandatory notice u/s 143(2) in reassessment - Belated return in response to notice u/s 148 - Invalidity of reassessment for non-issuance of statutory notice
Whether Reassessment could not be sustained where the assessee had filed a return in response to notice under section 148, but no notice under section 143(2) was issued before completion of the reassessment? - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found from the assessment record itself that the assessee had filed its return on 31.01.2022 in response to notice u/s 148 and that the AO treated it as non-est only because it was filed belatedly. Tribunal accepted the assessee's explanation that the delay was attributable to the Covid period and held that, once such return was on record, the AO was bound to follow the statutory procedure of issuing notice u/s 143(2) before proceeding to frame reassessment.
Relying on ACIT v. Hotel Blue Moon [2010 (2) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT] as followed in Staunch Marketing Pvt Ltd [2017 (8) TMI 249 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Saptagiri Finance & Investments [2012 (8) TMI 523 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] the Tribunal held that the requirement of notice under section 143(2) is mandatory and its omission is not a curable procedural defect. The view of the appellate authority that no such notice was required because the belated return could be treated as non-est was held to be unjustified. [Paras 10, 12, 14, 16, 17]
The reassessment order passed under sections 147 read with 144 and 144B, without issuance of notice under section 143(2), was held bad in law and was quashed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal and quashed the reassessment. It held that, once the assessee's return filed in response to notice under section 148 was on record, non-issuance of notice under section 143(2) rendered the reassessment invalid; the remaining grounds were left academic.
Issues: Whether the assessee-trust was entitled to approval under section 80G(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The trust was constituted with objects directed towards relief of the poor, empowerment of disadvantaged women and children, employment generation, training, village industries, publication and natural dyeing activities. The denial of approval was based on the view that no separate charitable expenditure was shown and that the activities were commercial in nature. The Tribunal held that this approach was too narrow. It found that the publication division and natural dyeing centres were carried on as means of achieving the stated charitable objects, particularly livelihood support, skill development and employment for weaker sections, and that the financial statements showed substantial salary and wage expenditure and, in some years, excess expenditure over income. The genuineness of the trust was not doubted and no adverse material showed diversion of funds or non-charitable use.
Conclusion: The assessee satisfied the conditions for approval under section 80G(5), and the rejection order was set aside with a direction to grant approval.
Ratio Decidendi: An institution does not lose eligibility for approval under section 80G merely because its charitable objects are pursued through revenue-generating activities, so long as those activities are intrinsically connected with and carried on in furtherance of the charitable objects and the institution remains genuine.
Approval u/s 80G - Relief of the poor through employment-oriented activities - Charitable character of revenue-generating activities
Whether assessee-trust was entitled to approval u/s 80G(5), notwithstanding that its publication and natural dyeing activities generated revenue? - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the rejection proceeded on an unduly narrow view of the trust's activities. It found that the publication division and natural dyeing centres were not independent profit-driven ventures, but activities intrinsically connected with the trust's stated objects of providing livelihood, skill development, training and employment to disadvantaged rural sections, particularly women, artisans and marginalised communities.
The financial material, including substantial expenditure on salaries and wages and excess of expenditure over income in certain years, did not support a finding of predominant profit motive.
Tribunal further held that charitable character could not be denied merely because no separate expenditure head was shown as "charity"; where the dominant object is charitable and the activities are carried on to attain those objects, generation of receipts by itself does not render the institution non-charitable. On the record, the trust's genuineness was not doubted, it already held registration under section 12AB, and no material showed diversion of funds, personal benefit to trustees, or use of income for non-charitable purposes. The activities for employment generation, skill development, village industries and empowerment of rural women were held to fall within the broader scope of relief of the poor and charitable purpose under section 2(15). [Paras 16, 17, 18, 19, 20]
The order rejecting approval was set aside, and the Commissioner was directed to grant approval to the assessee-trust under section 80G(5) in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal and held that the assessee's revenue-generating activities were carried on in furtherance of its charitable objects and did not negate its charitable character. The rejection of approval under section 80G(5) was therefore unsustainable, and approval was directed to be granted.
Issues: Whether the disallowance of purchases as non-genuine under section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was justified on the facts and evidence on record.
Analysis: The assessee produced purchase invoices, delivery challans, stock register, banking evidence of payment, GST returns, ledger account, and complete particulars of the supplier. The record also showed that the supplier had died, and the business had ceased thereafter. The alleged non-response from the supplier could not, in these circumstances, be treated as conclusive against the assessee. The revenue did not dispute the corresponding sales or point out any mismatch in the purchase vis-a -vis sales. Mere cancellation of GST registration, without more, was held insufficient to sustain the addition when the surrounding evidence supported the purchase transactions.
Conclusion: The disallowance of the purchase amount as non-genuine was held to be unsustainable and the addition was deleted in favour of the assessee.
Disallowance of purchases as non-genuine - GST registration cancellation on account of supplier's demise - Acceptance of corresponding sales
HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the cancellation of the supplier's GST registration could not, by itself, be treated as the sole basis for disallowing the purchases. It found that the Revenue had ignored the material fact that the supplier had died and that his proprietary business had stopped on that account. The purchase invoices and transport documents were prior to the supplier's demise, and the assessee had explained the circumstances regarding the non-response from the seller. Since the Revenue accepted the sales and did not dispute or identify any discrepancy in the purchases linked to those sales, the conclusion that the purchases were non-genuine was unjustified. [Paras 7]
The addition made by disallowing the purchases and its confirmation in appeal were held to be unjustified and were deleted.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal and deleted the addition made on account of alleged non-genuine purchases. It held that cancellation of the supplier's GST registration due to his demise, without any discrepancy in the supporting purchase records and while accepting the corresponding sales, could not justify the disallowance.
Issues: Whether receipts from web hosting services received by the assessee from its Indian customer were taxable in India as royalty or fees for technical services under the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the India-USA DTAA.
Analysis: The web hosting arrangement showed that the assessee provided standard server space, internet connectivity and related infrastructure, while the customer had no possession, operational control or dominion over the servers. Limited inspection rights for security verification did not amount to use or right to use industrial, commercial or scientific equipment. The payments were therefore for availing a facility and not for use of equipment, and the domestic-law expansion of royalty could not enlarge the treaty definition in the absence of a corresponding treaty amendment. The services also did not make available technical knowledge, skill, know-how or process so as to constitute fees for technical services under the treaty.
Conclusion: The receipts from web hosting services were held not taxable in India as royalty or fees for technical services, and the Revenue's appeals were rejected.
Taxability of web hosting receipts in India -Use or right to use equipment - Make available test - Royalty under India-USA DTAA - Fees for technical services - services provided by the US assessee to its Indian affiliate - Treaty override over domestic law amendments
HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found from the web hosting agreement that the assessee provided only standard hosting facilities comprising server space, internet connectivity and related infrastructure support, while possession, control and operation of the servers remained entirely with the assessee. The Indian customer had no physical access or independent right to use the equipment, and its limited right of inspection for security verification did not amount to use or right to use industrial, commercial or scientific equipment.
On that basis, the receipts were for availing a facility and not for use of equipment or intellectual property. The Tribunal further held that web hosting did not make available technical knowledge, skill, know-how or process so as to fall within the treaty definition of fees for technical services. On the Revenue's reliance on the expanded domestic definition of royalty after the Finance Act, 2012, the Tribunal held that unilateral amendments to domestic law cannot enlarge the narrower treaty definition in the absence of a corresponding amendment to the DTAA, and the more beneficial treaty provision would prevail. The same conclusion was applied to the remaining years as the facts were identical. [Paras 9, 10, 12, 13]
The deletion of the addition on account of web hosting receipts was upheld for all the assessment years in appeal.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the assessee's web hosting receipts from its Indian affiliate were not taxable in India either as royalty or as fees for technical services under the Act or the India-USA DTAA. The Revenue's appeals for all the assessment years were accordingly dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the revisional jurisdiction under section 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be invoked where the Assessing Officer had examined the reassessment issue and adopted a permissible view; (ii) Whether the Principal Commissioner could treat the mutual fund investment as a sham transaction, deny exemption on dividend income and capital loss relief, and issue directions beyond the relevant assessment year.
Issue (i): Whether the revisional jurisdiction under section 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be invoked where the Assessing Officer had examined the reassessment issue and adopted a permissible view.
Analysis: The reassessment record showed that the Assessing Officer had issued notices, called for details, examined the investment and dividend transactions, and thereafter concluded that the transaction was genuine and not a sham. The power under section 263 requires the order to be both erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. Where the Assessing Officer has made enquiries and taken one of the permissible views, revisional interference is not warranted merely because the Principal Commissioner holds a different opinion.
Conclusion: The invocation of section 263 on this issue was unsustainable and was against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the Principal Commissioner could treat the mutual fund investment as a sham transaction, deny exemption on dividend income and capital loss relief, and issue directions beyond the relevant assessment year.
Analysis: No independent material established that the assessee knowingly participated in any colourable device or had prior knowledge of the alleged dividend declaration methodology. The alleged violation of market regulations, if any, was attributable to the fund and not to the investor. The transaction also fell outside the mischief of section 94(7), and the dividend had already suffered dividend distribution tax in the hands of the mutual fund under section 115R. The further direction relating to Assessment Year 2019-20 travelled beyond the scope of revisional proceedings for Assessment Year 2018-19.
Conclusion: The sham-transaction characterization, the consequential denial of exemption and loss relief, and the direction for the subsequent assessment year were all rejected.
Final Conclusion: The reassessment order was restored and the revisional order was quashed, leaving the assessee with full relief.
Ratio Decidendi: Revision under section 263 cannot be sustained where the Assessing Officer has enquired into the issue and adopted a lawful plausible view, and a transaction cannot be treated as sham or denied statutory reliefs in the absence of cogent material showing the assessee's conscious participation in avoidance.
Revision u/s 263 - Plausible view after enquiry - Sham transaction allegation in mutual fund investment - Dividend stripping beyond statutory period - Exemption on mutual fund dividend - Revisional directions beyond assessment year
Revision u/s 263 - Plausible view after enquiry - Change of opinion - whether AO had examined the reassessment issue relating to the JM Financial mutual fund investment and had taken a plausible view on the material available? - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the reassessment had been initiated on the very issue of the assessee's investment in the mutual fund scheme and the alleged claim of exempt dividend income coupled with capital loss. In the reassessment, the AO had called for details, examined the investment, the dividend, the holding pattern and the genuineness of the transaction, and then recorded a categorical conclusion that no short-term capital loss had been claimed in the relevant year and that the assessee was regularly investing in mutual funds. On those facts, the Assessing Officer had consciously taken a permissible view. Tribunal held that once enquiry had been made and a view taken after application of mind, revisional jurisdiction could not be invoked merely because the Principal Commissioner preferred a different conclusion. As the assessment order was neither erroneous nor prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue, assumption of jurisdiction under section 263 was invalid. [Paras 26, 27, 28, 29, 37]
The order u/s 263 was held unsustainable and the reassessment order was restored.
Sham transaction allegation in mutual fund investment - Dividend stripping beyond statutory period - Exemption on mutual fund dividend - Principal Commissioner justification in treating the mutual fund investment as a sham transaction, denying exemption on the dividend and questioning the capital loss position when there was no material showing conscious participation by the assessee and the transaction fell outside the statutory mischief of dividend stripping - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the allegation of payment of dividend out of capital was essentially against the mutual fund and, by itself, did not establish that the assessee-investor had colluded in any colourable device. The assessee's investment formed part of its regular investment activity, the transactions were through banking channels, and no material showed prior knowledge of the dividend declaration or participation in any manipulation. Tribunal further held that the legislature had specifically addressed dividend stripping through section 94(7), and that provision applied only where the units were sold within nine months from the record date.
Since the units were sold beyond that period, the case fell outside that provision. In such circumstances, the Revenue could not deny the claim merely by branding the transaction as sham without cogent evidence. Tribunal also accepted that denial of exemption on the mutual fund dividend would result in double taxation, and that even under the dividend stripping provision the statute restricts loss only to the specified extent and does not deny the dividend exemption itself. [Paras 31, 32, 33, 34, 35]
The findings used by the Principal Commissioner to deny exemption and to treat the transaction as sham were rejected.
Revisional directions beyond assessment year - Scope of section 263 - Directions issued in section 263 proceedings for AY 2019-20 when the revision related only to the reassessment order for A.Y. 2018-19 - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that while exercising revisional power in relation to A.Y. 2018-19, the Principal Commissioner could not travel beyond that assessment year and issue directions concerning capital loss for AY 2019-20. Such a direction was outside the statutory scope of the revision proceedings under consideration. [Paras 36]
The direction concerning AY 2019-20 was held incapable of being sustained.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal and held that the reassessment order for A.Y. 2018-19 had been passed after due enquiry and on a permissible view, so the assumption of revisional jurisdiction under section 263 was invalid. The order under section 263 was set aside, the reassessment was restored, and the direction issued for AY 2019-20 was also held to be beyond jurisdiction.
Issues: (i) Whether the arm's length price of intra-group services could be determined at nil and the transfer pricing adjustment sustained; (ii) whether the disallowance under section 37(1) could survive once the services were accepted as rendered; (iii) whether the assessee was entitled to verification and grant of interest under section 244A.
Issue (i): Whether the arm's length price of intra-group services could be determined at nil and the transfer pricing adjustment sustained.
Analysis: The assessee had produced service agreements, allocation keys, cost workings, emails, presentations and independent audit material to evidence receipt and use of central corporate, global business unit and information technology services. The revenue did not bring cogent material to disprove rendition of services. Once receipt of services was demonstrated, the arm's length price could not be fixed at nil merely on a subjective view of benefit.
Conclusion: The transfer pricing adjustment for intra-group services was deleted for both assessment years, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the disallowance under section 37(1) could survive once the services were accepted as rendered.
Analysis: The disallowance was consequential to the transfer pricing finding that no services had been availed. As that no longer survived after acceptance of actual receipt of services, the foundation for disallowance under section 37(1) ceased to exist.
Conclusion: The disallowance under section 37(1) was deleted, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the assessee was entitled to verification and grant of interest under section 244A.
Analysis: The claim of short grant of refund interest required verification of computation and grant of statutory interest up to the date of actual refund, if any.
Conclusion: The Assessing Officer was directed to verify the computation and grant interest in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were accepted with deletion of the transfer pricing addition and the related disallowance, while the refund-interest claim was directed to be examined and granted as per law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where contemporaneous documentary evidence establishes actual receipt of intra-group services and the revenue fails to rebut that evidence, the arm's length price cannot be substituted at nil on a mere subjective perception of benefit; a consequential disallowance based solely on that rejected premise also cannot stand.
TP Adjustment - Arm's length price of intra-group services - Benefit test in transfer pricing - Business expenditure on intra-group service charges - Interest on refund
Arm's length price of intra-group services - Benefit test in transfer pricing - Receipt of central corporate, GBU and IT services - TP adjustment on payment for central corporate, GBU and IT intra-group services by determining the arm's length price at nil - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the assessee had produced detailed service agreements, allocation keys, cost pool workings, emails, presentations and independent audit certificates showing the nature, need, receipt and use of the services in its business. It held that once the existence and receipt of the services were demonstrated, the arm's length price could not be fixed at nil merely on a subjective perception that adequate benefit was not proved. The Tribunal also noted that the DRP had accepted that services were rendered, while upholding the adjustment without adequately dealing with the evidences placed on record, and that the Revenue had brought no cogent material to disprove rendition of services. [Paras 8]
The transfer pricing adjustment in respect of CCA, GBU and IT services was deleted for both assessment years.
Business expenditure on intra-group service charges - Consequential disallowance under section 37(1) - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the disallowance under section 37(1) rested solely on the transfer pricing finding that no services had been availed. Since it had already held, on the evidences on record, that the services were actually rendered and had deleted the transfer pricing adjustment, the very basis of the business expenditure disallowance ceased to exist. [Paras 9]
The disallowance under section 37(1) was directed to be deleted.
Short grant of interest u/s 244A - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal did not undertake the computation itself, but directed the Assessing Officer to verify the computation and grant interest in accordance with law up to the date of actual refund, if any. [Paras 10]
The matter was directed to be verified and consequential interest granted in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed both appeals, deleted the transfer pricing adjustment on intra-group services for both years, and consequently deleted the related disallowance under section 37(1) for AY 2018-19. The claim for interest under section 244A was directed to be verified and granted in accordance with law.
Issues: (i) Whether, on the sale of the township after amalgamation, the assessee was entitled to claim indexation benefit from FY 2008-09 and treat the amalgamation as a tax-neutral transfer for computing capital loss; (ii) Whether the loss claimed on sale of Bharath Nirman Fund units to a subsidiary was a genuine loss or an artificial and colourable device.
Issue (i): Whether, on the sale of the township after amalgamation, the assessee was entitled to claim indexation benefit from FY 2008-09 and treat the amalgamation as a tax-neutral transfer for computing capital loss.
Analysis: The township had been constructed by the amalgamating company in FY 2008-09 and rental income from the property was being earned and assessed from that period. The amalgamation scheme fixed 1 April 2010 as the appointed date, and the transfer under the scheme was covered by the statutory exemption for amalgamation transactions. In these circumstances, the relevant holding period and indexation were correctly linked to FY 2008-09, and the Assessing Officer was not justified in adopting only the date of the occupancy certificate.
Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to indexation from FY 2008-09, and the addition made on this issue was rightly deleted.
Issue (ii): Whether the loss claimed on sale of Bharath Nirman Fund units to a subsidiary was a genuine loss or an artificial and colourable device.
Analysis: The purchase and sale valuations were supported by registered valuer reports, and the appellate record showed that both valuations were based on the same NAV methodology. The material also explained the fall in value through erosion in the underlying investments of the fund. The transaction was not shown to be false merely because it was between related parties, and the Revenue did not bring contrary material to displace the valuation evidence.
Conclusion: The loss was genuine and the disallowance was not sustainable.
Final Conclusion: Both departmental appeals fail on the merits, and the assessee's claims as accepted by the first appellate authority stand affirmed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the factual record shows that an amalgamation is tax-neutral and the evidence supports the relevant holding period and valuation basis, a capital loss cannot be disallowed merely on a different administrative view of the timing or on the basis of related-party dealings without contrary material.
Indexation benefit on capital asset received in amalgamation - Period of holding of amalgamated asset - Short-term capital loss on sale of AIF units to subsidiary - Related-party transaction and colourable device - Valuation of AIF units under NAV method
Indexation benefit on capital asset received in amalgamation - starting point for indexation -Period of holding of amalgamated asset - Tax-neutral transfer in amalgamation - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the only dispute was the starting point for indexation. Since the township had been constructed by the amalgamating company and had already been let out from FY 2008-09, with rental income being offered to tax from that year, the asset was in existence and held from that period. The transfer of the asset to the assessee under the scheme of amalgamation was tax neutral, and therefore the AO was not justified in treating the effective ownership as commencing from the later date of the amalgamation order or from the occupancy certificate. On that basis, the assessee was entitled to adopt FY 2008-09 for indexation and for reckoning the holding period. [Paras 10, 12]
The deletion of the addition was upheld and the Revenue's challenge to grant of indexation from FY 2008-09 was rejected.
Short-term capital loss on sale of AIF units to subsidiary - Related-party transaction and colourable device - Valuation of AIF units under NAV method - short-term capital loss on sale of Bharath Nirman Fund units to the assessee's subsidiary disallowed merely because the transaction was between related parties - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal accepted the finding that both the acquisition and sale valuations were based on the NAV method and noted that the Revenue could not show any difference in valuation methodology. The material on record explained the fall in value through decline in the fair market value of the AIF's underlying investments, and those materials had not been properly verified or rebutted by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal further held that a transaction with a subsidiary does not by itself become a colourable device in the absence of any other material showing tax avoidance. In the absence of contrary evidence, and particularly when the AIF was a SEBI-regulated entity, the loss could not be treated as non-genuine. [Paras 21]
The deletion of the disallowance of the claimed short-term capital loss was upheld.
Final Conclusion: Both departmental appeals were dismissed. The Tribunal upheld the grant of indexation from FY 2008-09 on the township sold by the assessee and also sustained the deletion of the disallowance of short-term capital loss on sale of AIF units to its subsidiary.
Outcome: The Special Leave Petitions were dismissed and no interference was made with the impugned judgment or order.
Entitlement to reduction of the bank guarantee stipulated in the provisional release order despite the show-cause notice - Smuggling - Provisional release of seized goods - The Court [2026 (4) TMI 1875 - DELHI HIGH COURT] refused to reduce the bank guarantee required under the provisional release order, having found prima facie material indicating smuggling and foreign-origin markings on the seized goods. - HELD THAT:- The Special Leave Petitions were dismissed and the pending applications, if any, were disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether the seized cash could be retained beyond six months under the first proviso to section 110(2) of the Customs Act, 1962 without a valid, communicated order of extension passed by the competent authority; (ii) whether the post-expiry transfer of the cash to the Income Tax authorities could cure the illegality in retention; (iii) whether exemplary costs were warranted for the manner in which the customs authorities dealt with the seized cash during the pendency of the writ petition.
Issue (i): Whether the seized cash could be retained beyond six months under the first proviso to section 110(2) of the Customs Act, 1962 without a valid, communicated order of extension passed by the competent authority.
Analysis: The statutory scheme permits retention beyond six months only if the competent customs authority, for reasons recorded in writing, extends the period before expiry and informs the person from whom the goods were seized. The order-sheet relied upon by the department was found to be merely a signed note without disclosed reasons or demonstrable application of mind, and it had not been communicated to the petitioners before expiry of the six-month period. The Court held that the approval was mechanical and did not satisfy the mandatory requirements of section 110(2).
Conclusion: The extension of time was invalid, and the petitioners became entitled to return of the seized cash on expiry of the statutory period.
Issue (ii): Whether the post-expiry transfer of the cash to the Income Tax authorities could cure the illegality in retention.
Analysis: The cash had already crossed the statutory limit by the time the requisition from the Income Tax authorities was acted upon. The right to return had accrued to the petitioners before any such requisition was received, and the subsequent handing over of the cash could not validate an already unlawful retention. The Court treated the later transfer as incapable of defeating the petitioners' accrued entitlement.
Conclusion: The post-expiry transfer did not cure the illegality, and the petitioners' right to refund remained unaffected.
Issue (iii): Whether exemplary costs were warranted for the manner in which the customs authorities dealt with the seized cash during the pendency of the writ petition.
Analysis: The Court found that the authorities acted in disregard of the pending proceedings and attempted to overreach the judicial process. Although a subsequent affidavit and office order expressed regret and assured future compliance, the Court held that the petitioners had suffered loss due to the unlawful retention and the conduct of the officials warranted deterrent costs, later reduced on the basis of the assurance tendered.
Conclusion: Costs were justified, though the amount was reduced from the initially indicated figure to one lakh rupees.
Final Conclusion: The petition succeeded in substance to the extent that the seizure could not lawfully be retained beyond the statutory period, the later transfer to income tax proceedings did not defeat the accrued right of return, and the authorities were saddled with reduced costs for their conduct.
Ratio Decidendi: Retention of seized goods or cash beyond the statutory period is impermissible unless the competent authority, before expiry, grants a reasoned extension in writing and communicates it to the person concerned; a mechanical or uncommunicated approval does not satisfy the mandate of section 110(2) of the Customs Act, 1962.
Extension of time for show cause notice under seizure provisions - Communication of extension order before expiry of six months - Mechanical approval and absence of recorded reasons - Illegal retention of seized cash - Costs for overreaching pending judicial proceedings - Prior approval - Application of mind - Reasons to be recorded in writing - Mandatory statutory compliance -
Extension of time for show cause notice under seizure provisions - Communication of extension order before expiry of six months - Mechanical approval and absence of recorded reasons - Illegal retention of seized cash - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the note sheet relied upon as an order extending time did not disclose a valid exercise of power under the proviso to Section 110(2) of the Customs Act, 1962. Mere signature of the higher authority, without any remark showing consideration of the proposal, recording of reasons, or approval upon application of mind, was treated as a mechanical act and not a lawful approval. The Court further held that the statute requires not only extension for recorded reasons but also that the person from whom the goods were seized must be informed before expiry of the original six months. Since no show cause notice had been issued in respect of the cash and the alleged extension had never been communicated to the petitioners within time, both mandatory conditions failed. The petitioners therefore acquired a right to return of the cash on expiry of six months, and its continued retention thereafter was wholly illegal and without jurisdiction. [Paras 14, 16, 17, 18, 19]
The petitioners were held entitled to return of the seized cash, and its retention beyond the statutory period was declared unlawful.
Costs for overreaching pending judicial proceedings - Transfer of seized cash during pendency of writ proceedings - HELD THAT: - The Court found that, despite being aware that the validity of continued retention of the cash was under active consideration in the writ proceedings, the customs authorities transferred the cash to the Income Tax authorities without leave of the Court. As their jurisdiction to retain the cash had already ceased on expiry of six months, they could not lawfully deal with the petitioners' property thereafter. The Court treated the hurried execution of the requisition during pendency of the matter as conduct intended to overreach and defeat the proceedings. Although the Court recorded that the petitioners may pursue return of the money from the Income Tax authorities in accordance with law, it held that such further proceedings had been forced upon them solely because of the illegal conduct of the respondents. On the subsequent application, in view of the affidavit tendering unconditional apology and the assurance of future compliance, the Court reduced the originally proposed exemplary costs while maintaining that loss had been caused to the petitioners by deliberate omission or commission. [Paras 25, 26, 27, 28, 36]
Costs were awarded against the respondents for overreaching the judicial process, though the amount was reduced to Rs. One Lac in view of the later assurance and apology.
Final Conclusion: The Court held that the seized cash could not lawfully be retained beyond six months because there was neither a valid, reasoned approval for extension nor communication of any extension to the petitioners within time. As the subsequent transfer of the cash to the Income Tax authorities was made after the customs authorities had lost jurisdiction and during pendency of the writ proceedings, the petition was disposed of with liberty to seek return from the Income Tax authorities in accordance with law, and with costs of Rs. One Lac against the respondents.
Issues: Whether penalty under Section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be imposed on the supporting manufacturer and the 100% EOU when the facts were materially similar to an earlier Tribunal decision applying the same export-scheme framework.
Analysis: The appeal arose only against the omission to impose penalties on M/s. Kalpena Industries Ltd. and M/s. Tara Holding Pvt. Ltd. The Tribunal found the factual matrix to be broadly identical to an earlier final order of the same Bench dealing with the same scheme structure and the same kind of allegations. On that basis, it applied the earlier ratio and held that no case was made out for penal action under Section 112(a) against the two entities. The impugned order was therefore found free from infirmity to the extent challenged.
Conclusion: Penalty under Section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 was not warranted against M/s. Kalpena Industries Ltd. and M/s. Tara Holding Pvt. Ltd., and the Revenue's challenge failed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an earlier final decision on materially identical facts has held that the scheme conditions were not breached in a manner attracting penal consequences, penalty under Section 112(a) cannot be sustained merely on the Revenue's repeated challenge to the same factual foundation.
Penalty on supporting manufacturer and deemed export recipient under Section 112(a) - Application of coordinate Bench precedent - misuse of duty-free import authorisations - Export obligation discharge certificate - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the controversy stood covered by its earlier decision in the case of Commissioner of Customs (Port), Kolkata v. M/s. Kalpena Plastiks Ltd. & ors.[2026 (5) TMI 1389 - CESTAT KOLKATA], involving broadly similar facts. Applying that ratio, it found that no case had been made out for imposing penalties under Section 112(a) on the supporting manufacturer or on the deemed export recipient. Since the impugned order had declined to impose such penalties, no infirmity was found in it to the extent challenged by the Revenue. [Paras 9]
The challenge to the non-imposition of penalties under Section 112(a) failed.
Final Conclusion: Following its earlier decision on an identical controversy, the Tribunal held that no ground existed to impose penalties on the supporting manufacturer or the deemed export recipient under Section 112(a). The Revenue's appeal was therefore rejected and the impugned order was upheld to the extent challenged.
Issues: (i) Whether the sampling of imported coal could be rejected for not following the procedure prescribed under IS 436, thereby denying the benefit of the exemption notifications; (ii) Whether the request for re-testing could be ignored despite mismatch between the load port test report and the laboratory test results.
Issue (i): Whether the sampling of imported coal could be rejected for not following the procedure prescribed under IS 436, thereby denying the benefit of the exemption notifications.
Analysis: The dispute arose in the context of provisional assessment under Section 18(1)(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 and the claim for exemption under Notification No. 21/2002-Cus. dated 01.03.2002 and Notification No. 20/2006-Cus. dated 01.03.2006. The sampling procedure had to conform to IS 436. In the absence of compliance with the prescribed method, the sample could not be treated as legally valid, and the test report based on such sampling could not be relied upon. The presence of the importer's representative at the time of sampling did not cure the illegality, as there can be no estoppel against law.
Conclusion: The sampling objection was rightly accepted and the Revenue's challenge to the rejection of the test report failed.
Issue (ii): Whether the request for re-testing could be ignored despite mismatch between the load port test report and the laboratory test results.
Analysis: Where the test report from the load port and the laboratory report do not match, a request for re-testing by an independent laboratory cannot be brushed aside without justification. The delay in seeking re-testing was explained by the late communication of the laboratory report, and the circumstances did not support treating the request as an afterthought. The demand for re-testing was therefore a relevant and valid basis for interference with the original test outcome.
Conclusion: The request for re-testing was rightly accepted and the Revenue's objection was rejected.
Final Conclusion: The appeal failed on all material grounds, and the order allowing the exemption benefit was sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the prescribed sampling procedure is not followed, the resulting test report cannot be treated as legally reliable, and illegality in sampling is not cured by acquiescence or the mere presence of a representative; likewise, a credible mismatch in test results warrants consideration of re-testing.
Sampling of imported coal under IS 436 - Validity of test reports based on improper sampling - Retesting on conflicting laboratory reports - compliance with the prescribed method in accordance with IS 436 - provisional assessment under Section 18(1)(b) - claimed the benefit of Notification No.21/2002-CUS and Notification No.20/2006-Cus. - strict compliance with sampling procedure
Sampling of imported coal under IS 436 - Invalidity of test reports based on non-compliant sampling - No estoppel against law - The test report relied on to deny the customs exemption for imported coking coal could not be sustained where the samples were not drawn in accordance with IS 436. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the Commissioner (Appeals) was justified in following Tata Chemicals Ltd. [2015 (5) TMI 557 - SUPREME COURT], wherein the Supreme Court held that, when the statute or notification does not prescribe a testing method, the Indian Standard method applies, and samples drawn contrary to IS 436 cannot form the basis of a valid test report. The Revenue's contentions that the importer had earlier accepted similar testing, that the samples were drawn in the presence of its agent, and that the notification did not expressly prescribe the sampling procedure, were rejected in view of the principle that if law requires an act to be done in a particular manner, it must be done in that manner, and there can be no estoppel against law. [Paras 4]
The Revenue failed to dislodge the finding that the non-compliant sampling rendered the test report unreliable for denying the claimed notification benefit.
Retesting on conflicting laboratory reports - Delayed communication of test report - The request for retesting was rightly accepted as justified where the load port test report and the departmental laboratory report did not match and the departmental report was communicated only after substantial delay. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal upheld the finding that, once there was variation between the load port report and the CIFMR report, the request for testing by an independent laboratory ought not to have been ignored. The Revenue's objection that the request for retest was belated was not accepted, since the departmental test report itself had been communicated to the importer only after about eight months, which explained the timing of the request. [Paras 5]
The refusal to entertain the retest request was unjustified, and this furnished an additional ground to reject the Revenue's appeal.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal dismissed the Revenue's appeal and sustained the order granting the notification benefit. It held that the departmental test report could not be relied upon where sampling was not in accordance with IS 436, and that the request for retesting could not be ignored in the face of conflicting reports and delayed communication of the departmental result.
Outcome: The writ petition was disposed of by leaving the petitioner to pursue the statutory remedy of appeal against the SEBI order relating to the proposed IPO.
Alternate statutory remedy against SEBI order - Maintainability of writ petition challenging IPO approval - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the petitioner had specifically sought to stay the operation and implementation of the approval granted for the IPO and that SEBI had already issued proceedings in that regard. On a reading of the appellate provision, the Court held that any order issued by SEBI is appealable thereunder. The objection that the petitioner had not been served with the order was overcome by the production of the SEBI proceeding before the Court and handing over of its copy to the petitioner's counsel. In that situation, the Court held that the petitioner had to work out his remedy in accordance with the statutory scheme rather than invoke writ jurisdiction. [Paras 7, 8]
The petitioner was relegated to the statutory appellate remedy against the SEBI proceeding relating to the IPO approval, and the writ petition was disposed of without examining the merits of the allegations.
Final Conclusion: The Court declined to entertain the writ challenge to the proposed IPO approval on the ground that the petitioner had an effective statutory remedy of appeal against the SEBI proceeding. The writ petition was accordingly disposed of, leaving the petitioner to pursue that remedy in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether the criminal proceeding arising out of the FIR disclosed the ingredients of offences under Sections 406, 418, 420, 467, 468, 471 and 120B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, or whether the dispute was only a civil dispute arising out of a commercial transaction and novation of contract, warranting quashing of the proceeding.
Analysis: The allegations showed that money had been paid for proposed flat transactions, that the project later stalled, and that the parties subsequently converted the advance into a loan arrangement with agreed interest. The Court found that the material did not establish dishonest intention at the inception of the transaction, nor prima facie entrustment coupled with misappropriation necessary for criminal breach of trust. The alleged forgery was also treated as an afterthought, since the alleged fake documents were not shown to have induced the initial payment and no contemporaneous allegation of forgery appeared in the earlier insolvency proceedings. The Court further held that the subsequent loan arrangement amounted to novation under Section 62 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, and that the grievance, at its highest, reflected a claim for recovery of money or breach of contract. The unexplained delay in lodging the FIR and the absence of the essential ingredients of the penal offences supported the conclusion that the criminal process was being used as a recovery mechanism.
Conclusion: The proceeding did not disclose a prima facie criminal offence under the cited penal provisions and was liable to be quashed in favour of the petitioners.
Final Conclusion: The criminal case was held unsustainable in law as the dispute was essentially civil in nature, lacking the foundational ingredients of cheating, criminal breach of trust, or forgery, and the continuation of the prosecution was treated as an abuse of process.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the foundational facts show a commercial transaction later novated into a repayment arrangement, and the allegations do not establish dishonest intention at inception or the essential ingredients of the charged offences, criminal proceedings cannot be used as a mechanism for civil recovery and may be quashed as an abuse of process.
Civil dispute masquerading as criminal prosecution - Cheating and criminal breach of trust in flat booking transaction - Novation of contract - Forgery allegations as afterthought - Interim order not binding at final hearing -Quashing of criminal proceedings - unexplained inordinate delay in lodging the FIR - Mere breach of contract - Mens rea from inception
Cheating and criminal breach of trust in flat booking transaction - Conversion of advance into loan - Abuse of criminal process for recovery of money - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the FIR itself showed that the complainant paid the amount for allotment of flats, thereafter entered into an agreement for sale, and later, on mutual understanding, agreed to conversion of the amount into a loan carrying interest. The materials relied on by the petitioners showed that the delay in construction was connected with objections from the jail authorities and not with any demonstrated false representation existing at the inception. Mere projection of the project or statements about market demand could not, in the circumstances, be treated as criminal inducement. Once the parties mutually treated the amount as a loan, the earlier contractual arrangement stood substituted, and the grievance thereafter was essentially of non-repayment. The Court further found that the FIR, read as a whole, sought recovery of money and that criminal prosecution could not be used as a recovery mechanism.
In All Cargo Movers India Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Dhanesh Badarmal Jain and another [2007 (10) TMI 620 - SUPREME COURT],the court categorically observed, it is one thing to say that the court at this juncture would not consider the defence of the accused but it is another thing to say that for exercising the inherent jurisdiction of this court it is impermissible also to look to the admitted documents. It was further observed criminal proceeding should not be encouraged when it is found to be mala-fide or otherwise an abuse of the process of the court. The Superior courts while exercising this power should also strive the ends of justice.
The prosecution, insofar as it was founded on alleged cheating, criminal breach of trust and wrongful retention of money, was held unsustainable and liable to be quashed.
Forgery in municipal sanction documents - Absence of nexus with initial inducement - allegations of forgery under sections 467, 468 and 471 IPC were not prima facie made out. - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the alleged forged documents were said to have been shown years after the payment had already been made, and therefore they could not constitute the basis of the initial deception for the transaction in question. It also noted that despite the complainant's earlier proceedings before the NCLT, there had been no allegation there of forged or fabricated documents, which made the later accusation appear to be an afterthought. On the material before the Court, no document was produced connecting the petitioners with the making of a false document, nor was there prima facie material to establish the requisite dishonest intention for the forgery-related offences. [Paras 35, 36]
The allegations of forgery and use of forged documents were held insufficient to sustain the criminal proceeding.
Effect of refusal to interfere with interim order - Final adjudication independent of interim stage - The Supreme Court's refusal to interfere with the interim protection order did not preclude the High Court from examining the quashing prayer on merits at the final stage. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the earlier order of the Supreme Court was confined to the interim stage and merely declined interference with the High Court's interim arrangement while investigation was to proceed. Such an order did not amount to a final determination of the validity of the FIR.
The Apex Court in the case of Amaresh Tiwari Vs. Lalta Prasad Dubey and another [2000 (4) TMI 833 - SUPREME COURT], that it is settled law that interim orders even though they may have been confirmed by the higher courts never bind and do not prevent, passing of contrary order at the stage of final hearing.
Relying on the settled principle that interim orders do not bind the court at the stage of final hearing, the Court held that the quashing application remained open for full consideration on merits. [Paras 39, 40]
The objection founded on the Supreme Court's interim order was rejected, and the quashing application was held maintainable for final decision.
Final Conclusion: The High Court allowed the revision and quashed the criminal proceeding, holding that the FIR disclosed, at best, a contractual and monetary dispute later treated by the parties as a loan transaction, and that the forgery allegations were unsupported. The amount deposited pursuant to the interim order was directed to remain available for refund to the complainant on proper application.
Issues: (i) whether the alleged business plan submitted by the successful bidder, and the stipulations concerning third-party, subsidiary, joint venture and associate assets, were approved so as to bind the liquidation process; (ii) whether the request for extension of time to pay the balance sale consideration was liable to be allowed; (iii) whether cancellation of the bid and forfeiture of the amount deposited could be sustained.
Issue (i): whether the alleged business plan submitted by the successful bidder, and the stipulations concerning third-party, subsidiary, joint venture and associate assets, were approved so as to bind the liquidation process.
Analysis: The bidding document invited participation only for sale of the corporate debtor as a going concern on an as-is, where-is, whatever-there-is and no-recourse basis. The record of the stakeholders' consultations and the orders passed earlier were read as fixing only the payment schedule and not as approving any expanded entitlement over the assets of subsidiaries or other third parties. The liquidation estate under section 36 excludes assets of Indian or foreign subsidiaries, and the scope of the auction could not be enlarged beyond the terms of the bid documents or the liquidation framework.
Conclusion: The alleged business plan was not approved as a binding enlargement of the auction subject-matter, and the bidder could not inclusion of subsidiary or third-party assets in the sale.
Issue (ii): whether the request for extension of time to pay the balance sale consideration was liable to be allowed.
Analysis: The earlier order had already fixed the balance payment schedule in instalments with interest for delay. The subsequent applications were treated as attempts to reopen that concluded arrangement. In the absence of any legal basis to alter the settled schedule, and in view of the bidder's acceptance of the auction terms and the payment direction already operating, no further extension was warranted.
Conclusion: The request for extension of time was rejected.
Issue (iii): whether cancellation of the bid and forfeiture of the amount deposited could be sustained.
Analysis: The majority view held that once the bidder failed to comply with the payment schedule, the liquidation conditions permitting cancellation stood attracted and the challenge to cancellation did not merit interference. The dissenting view held that, although the bid cancellation was justified, forfeiture of the entire amount deposited was not warranted and refund ought to follow. Because of this difference of opinion, the forfeiture question was referred for appropriate nomination.
Conclusion: The cancellation challenge failed, but the issue of forfeiture did not attain a final majority determination and was referred.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were disposed of by sustaining the rejection of the claims for broader rights over subsidiary assets and for further time to pay, while the forfeiture aspect remained unresolved and stood referred for decision.
Ratio Decidendi: In a liquidation auction governed by the bid document and the insolvency framework, the successful bidder cannot expand the subject-matter of sale beyond what was expressly offered, and an unapproved business plan cannot override the auction terms or the statutory exclusion of subsidiary assets from the liquidation estate.
Sale of corporate debtor as a going concern - Business plan in liquidation auction - Liquidation estate and assets of subsidiaries - Extension of time for payment of sale consideration - Forfeiture of earnest money and deposited sale consideration - Difference of opinion between Judicial Member and Technical Member, only with regards to the issue of forfeiture of a sum
Going concern sale - Business plan - Payment schedule - No recourse basis - As is where is basis - Estoppel - Forfeiture of earnest money deposit - Principles of natural justice - Whether submission of the business plan mandated as per the e-auction notice
Business plan in liquidation auction - Sale of corporate debtor as a going concern - Terms of e-auction document - HELD THAT: - Both Members treated the controversy as turning on the auction terms and the legal status of the so-called business plan. The Judicial Member held that the auction notice and bidding document were confined to sale of the corporate debtor alone, on an as is where is, as is what is, whatever there is and no recourse basis, and that neither the order fixing the payment schedule nor the later order constituted approval of a business plan enabling inclusion of assets of subsidiaries, joint ventures or associates. The Technical Member accepted that a business plan had in fact been submitted and acknowledged in the process, but held that no final consensus was ever reached between the bidder, liquidator and stakeholders except on payment scheduling, and that the Tribunal had not approved the business plan as such. On either line of reasoning, the appellant could not claim rights over third-party assets on the basis of the alleged business plan. [Paras 50, 51, 53, 58, 59]
The appellant's case that the business plan stood approved and governed the sale was rejected.
Liquidation estate and assets of subsidiaries - Assets of third parties - HELD THAT: - The Judicial Member held that Section 36(4)(d) excludes assets of Indian or foreign subsidiaries from the liquidation estate, and therefore such assets could not be brought within the auction by reference to the appellant's business plan or by reading the earlier orders as granting such approval. He further held that the auction documents themselves did not contemplate inclusion of assets of separate legal entities. The Technical Member did not enter into the larger question sought to be raised on the interplay of Section 36(4)(d) and Regulation 21A, observing that the bid itself had never matured into a finalized arrangement on that footing; nevertheless, he upheld rejection of the appellant's claim to third-party assets because the alleged business plan terms had never crystallised into an accepted contractual basis. Thus, the appellant's prayer to treat subsidiary or third-party secured assets as covered by the auction was not accepted. [Paras 52, 56, 58, 75, 76]
The claim that subsidiary or third-party assets formed part of the auctioned estate was declined.
Restraint against alienation of third-party assets - Absence of established threat of transfer - HELD THAT: - The Judicial Member held that, apart from the statutory exclusion of subsidiary assets from the liquidation estate and the absence of any approved business plan, the appellant had not established any specific overt act warranting a restraint order against the respondents. Relief could not be granted on mere apprehension. The Technical Member also saw no basis to interfere with the order rejecting protection of assets claimed under the unapproved business plan. Since the appellant had no enforceable right to those assets under the auction, the prayer for restraint necessarily failed. [Paras 34, 35, 36, 37, 43]
The refusal to restrain alienation of such assets was upheld.
Extension of time for payment of sale consideration - Finality of payment schedule - HELD THAT: - The Judicial Member held that the order fixing the payment schedule had attained finality and merely prescribed time for remittance of the balance sale consideration; it did not approve the business plan or create any enlarged rights. Having sought extension under that order, the appellant was bound by its terms and could not use later applications to re-open the basis of the sale. The Technical Member separately held that the Tribunal had already exercised discretion by extending the statutory payment period once and that refusal to extend it again could not be faulted, especially when the extension was sought on the footing of a dispute over third-party assets that was answered against the appellant. Both Members therefore upheld rejection of the applications seeking extension and amendment. [Paras 22, 23, 43, 45, 46]
The orders refusing further extension of time and amendment of the extension prayer were sustained.
Cancellation of bid for non-payment - Forfeiture of earnest money and deposited sale consideration - Difference of opinion - There was a difference of opinion on whether, after cancellation of the bid, the amounts deposited by the appellant could be forfeited. - HELD THAT: - The Judicial Member treated the appellant as bound by the auction terms and by the payment schedule accepted and left unchallenged, and held that the relief sought against cancellation and forfeiture stood effectively denied; on that reasoning, he found no merit in the appeals and dismissed them. The Technical Member agreed that cancellation of the bid was justified, but held that forfeiture was not. According to him, the bid process had remained fundamentally incomplete because the bidder's conditional business plan was never fully accepted, and the proper course, consistent with standard tender practice, was cancellation of the bid with refund of the deposited amount rather than forfeiture for non-performance of a concluded contract. As the Members differed only on forfeiture, the question was directed to be placed before the Chairperson for appropriate nomination on that limited issue. [Paras 46, 48, 79, 80, 81]
Cancellation of the bid was upheld by both Members, but the issue of forfeiture of the deposited amount was left unresolved in view of the split opinion and was referred on that limited question.
Final Conclusion: The Members concurred that the appellant could not enlarge the auction sale of the corporate debtor by relying on an alleged approved business plan, that subsidiary or other third-party assets were not shown to form part of the auctioned estate, and that the orders refusing restraint and refusing further time for payment called for no interference. They differed, however, on the legality of forfeiture of the amounts deposited after cancellation of the bid, and that limited question was directed to be placed before the Chairperson for appropriate nomination.
Issues: Whether the appeal against the order directing handover of possession in liquidation proceedings was maintainable when it was only consequential to earlier orders already affirmed, and whether the tenant's independent possession-related objections could be entertained in such proceedings.
Analysis: The impugned order was found to be a continuation of earlier directions requiring handover of possession, and those earlier directions had already been affirmed in appeal. The subsequent order also recorded that possession of the asset had already been taken, so the cause did not survive independently. The tenant's asserted inter se rights against the appellant were held to be outside the scope of the liquidation compliance proceedings and could be pursued before the appropriate forum. The rights of the successful auction purchaser were also recognised as flowing from the sale process and the liquidation orders.
Conclusion: The appeal was not maintainable against the consequential order and was dismissed.
Ratio Decidendi: An appeal does not survive against an order that is merely consequential to earlier orders already confirmed in appeal and that lacks an independent legal existence, especially where the underlying relief has already been worked out.
Consequential orders in liquidation proceedings - Claim arising out of the landlord-tenant relationship - Rights of successful auction purchaser - Challenged to the order directing handing over of possession pursuant to earlier liquidation directions - Successful auction purchaser - entitlement to be heard in the appeal concerning possession of the auctioned assets
Consequential orders in liquidation proceedings - Maintainability of appeal against compliance directions - HELD THAT: - The Appellate Tribunal held that the order under challenge merely continued and enforced the earlier orders directing delivery of possession, including the order that had already stood affirmed in appeal. Once the earlier directions for handing over possession had been passed and the appeal against the police-assistance order had been dismissed, the later order could not be treated as giving rise to an independent cause of action. The Tribunal further noted that possession of Asset No. 1 had already been taken pursuant to the subsequent proceedings, and therefore no surviving cause remained in favour of the appellant to separately assail the consequential order. [Paras 9, 14, 15, 16]
The appeal against the order of 29.09.2025 was dismissed as not tenable, the impugned order being purely consequential to the earlier orders for handing over possession.
Tenant-landlord disputes outside liquidation adjudication - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal rejected the submission that the tenant could resist compliance with the possession directions by asserting independent rights against the appellant as landlord. It held that inter se disputes between landlord and tenant could not be made the subject matter of consideration in liquidation proceedings against the corporate debtor. Any claim such as refund of security deposit or other tenant remedies had to be pursued before the appropriate legal forum in accordance with law. [Paras 10, 11]
The tenant was left to pursue independent remedies before the appropriate forum, and could not obstruct compliance with the possession directions in liquidation.
Rights of successful auction purchaser - Locus of successful auction purchaser in possession proceedings - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that, once declared the successful auction purchaser, the purchaser acquired rights that would be directly affected by proceedings relating to delivery of possession of the assets. The objection that the purchaser had no say because it was not originally a party to the proceedings was therefore misconceived. The Tribunal also noticed the adjudicating authority's observation that necessary parties, including the successful auction purchaser, could be impleaded, and recorded that the purchaser had in fact been impleaded in the appeal. [Paras 12, 13]
The objection to the participation of the successful auction purchaser was rejected, and its right to be heard in relation to possession of the assets was recognised.
Final Conclusion: The Appellate Tribunal dismissed the appeal, holding that the impugned order was only a consequential compliance order flowing from earlier possession directions already affirmed. It further held that tenant-landlord disputes could not be examined in liquidation proceedings and that the successful auction purchaser had a legitimate right to participate in the proceedings affecting possession of the assets.
Issues: Whether bail should be granted in a prosecution under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 despite the rigours of section 45, having regard to the petitioner's custody period, the stage of the investigation, and the protection of personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
Analysis: The allegations disclosed a serious money-laundering case arising out of a large recruitment scam, and the Court was not satisfied on merits that there were reasonable grounds for believing that the petitioner was not guilty or that he was not likely to commit any offence while on bail. Ordinarily, the twin conditions under section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 would bar release. However, the Court held that prolonged incarceration without trial can, in an appropriate case, outweigh the statutory rigours of section 45 when tested on the anvil of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. The Court took note of the petitioner's age, his relative role compared with other accused, the delay in taking him into custody in the PMLA case, the fact that he had already been granted bail in the predicate case, and the circumstance that the trial was not likely to conclude soon.
Conclusion: Bail was granted to the petitioner notwithstanding the section 45 threshold.
Seeking grant of Bail under the PMLA - Satisfaction of the twin conditions under section 45 and Article 21 - Proceeds of Crime - Unduly long incarceration without trial - serious money-laundering case arising out of a large recruitment scam - Reasonable Grounds for Believing - Pre-cognizance Hearing - HELD THAT: - The Court held that, on merits, it was not in a position to record satisfaction that there were reasonable grounds for believing that the petitioner was not guilty or that he was not likely to commit an offence while on bail, and therefore the statutory bar under Section 45 could not be crossed. It nevertheless applied the principle that, in an appropriate case, unduly long incarceration without trial may outweigh the rigour of Section 45 when tested on the anvil of Article 21. In doing so, the Court weighed the seriousness of the allegations and the possibility of influence over witnesses against the mitigating factors, namely the petitioner's age and frail health, his comparatively lesser role than the principal accused, the delay on the part of the Enforcement Directorate in taking him into custody in the PMLA case, the fact that he had already obtained bail in the predicate case involving graver punishment after prolonged custody, the limited maximum sentence in the present case, and the possibility of further delay in commencement or progress of trial. On that cumulative assessment, continued detention was not justified and bail was directed subject to stringent conditions. [Paras 8, 9, 10, 11, 12]
Bail was allowed subject to conditions, notwithstanding non-fulfilment of Section 45 on merits, because prolonged incarceration and the mitigating circumstances were held sufficient to warrant release under Article 21 considerations.
Final Conclusion: The Court granted bail in the PMLA case subject to strict conditions. While holding that the petitioner could not surmount the statutory bar under Section 45 on merits, it found that the prolonged custody and overall mitigating circumstances justified release on Article 21 considerations.
Issues: (i) Whether the order rejecting discharge suffered from legal error; (ii) Whether the materials collected during investigation disclosed a prima facie case of money laundering against the petitioner.
Issue (i): Whether the order rejecting discharge suffered from legal error.
Analysis: The governing standard at the discharge stage is limited to whether the record and prosecution materials disclose sufficient ground to proceed. Defence material, detailed appreciation of evidence, and a mini trial are impermissible. Revisional interference is warranted only where there is patent illegality or the case is groundless on the face of the prosecution record. The impugned order was a reasoned order based on the complaint, statements, and investigation material.
Conclusion: The rejection of discharge did not suffer from legal error and called for no interference.
Issue (ii): Whether the materials collected during investigation disclosed a prima facie case of money laundering against the petitioner.
Analysis: The materials disclosed that the petitioner allegedly accumulated assets far beyond known salary income, routed cash through multiple bank accounts and insurance policies, and used family accounts to project tainted funds as untainted. The investigation also traced investments in immovable property and seizure of cash, which were treated as proceeds of crime under the PMLA. At this stage, the court was not required to test the defence explanation regarding agricultural income, dairy income, rental income, or the absence of prosecution of the wife in the predicate case. On the prosecution material, the essential ingredients of the offence under the PMLA were found to be present.
Conclusion: A prima facie case of money laundering was made out against the petitioner.
Final Conclusion: The prosecution was held fit to proceed to trial, and the discharge plea was rejected on the basis that the complaint and investigation material disclosed sufficient grounds against the petitioner.
Ratio Decidendi: At the discharge stage, the court must confine itself to the prosecution record and determine only whether there is ground for presuming the accused's involvement; where the materials disclose prima facie proceeds of crime, layering, and projection of tainted assets as untainted, discharge cannot be granted on the basis of defence material.
Discharge under PMLA - Proceeds of Crime -Prima facie case of money-laundering from disproportionate assets - Reverse burden at charge stage - Scope of revisional interference against refusal of discharge - Refusal to discharge the petitioner in the PMLA prosecution - materials collected by the Enforcement Directorate disclosed a prima facie case of acquisition, possession, layering and projection of disproportionate assets as untainted property - HELD THAT: - The cumulative facts and findings clearly establish that the accused misused his official position to generate proceeds of crime and subsequently invested them in movable and immovable properties. The valuation of assets and scrutiny of accounts, insurance policies, deposits, and investments confirm his direct involvement in acquisition, possession, concealment, and projection of tainted money as untainted. Accordingly, there exists sufficient material to hold prima facie that the accused has committed the offence of money laundering under Section 3 of the PMLA, 2002.
The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Munna Devi v. State of Rajasthan and Another [2001 (11) TMI 1021 - SUPREME COURT], has observed that the revisional power under the Code of Criminal Procedure cannot be exercised in a routine and casual manner. While exercising such powers the High Court has no authority to appreciate the evidence in the manner as the trial and the appellate courts are required to do. Revisional powers could be exercised only when it is shown that there is a legal bar against the continuance of the criminal proceedings or the framing of charge or the facts as stated in the first information report even if they are taken at the face value and accepted in their entirety do not constitute the offence for which the accused has been charged.
Thus, it is evident that the revisional power can only be exercised to correct patent error of law or procedure which would occasion unfairness, if it is not corrected. The revisional power cannot be compared with the appellate power. A Revisional Court cannot undertake meticulous examination of the material on record as it is undertaken by the trial court or the appellate court. This power can only be exercised if there is any legal bar to the continuance of the proceedings or if the facts as stated in the charge-sheet are taken to be true on their face value and accepted in their entirety do not constitute the offence for which the accused has been charged.
The Court held that at the stage of discharge the court is confined to seeing whether the prosecution material, taken at face value, discloses the ingredients of the alleged offence, and it cannot conduct a mini trial or evaluate the accused's defence documents on merits. On the complaint and investigation materials, the scheduled offence case against the petitioner was subsisting; the assets found in the names of the petitioner and his family members, the routing of funds through multiple bank accounts, deposits, insurance policies and investments, and their use in acquisition of properties were sufficient to prima facie show involvement in processes connected with proceeds of crime within Section 3 of the PMLA. The Court further held that the petitioner's reliance on the closure report concerning his wife or on claims of agricultural, dairy and rental income could not justify discharge at this stage, since those matters were part of the defence to be tested at trial. Once foundational material showing prima facie generation and routing of tainted assets was available, the statutory presumption under Section 24 operated, and the petitioner could not seek to rebut it in revision through unverified defence material. Revisional jurisdiction being limited, no patent illegality or jurisdictional error was found in the Special Judge's order rejecting discharge. [Paras 110, 112, 115, 116, 117]
Sufficient prima facie material existed to proceed with the PMLA trial, and the criminal revision against rejection of discharge was dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The High Court held that the prosecution materials disclosed a prima facie case of money-laundering against the petitioner and that the Special Judge had rightly refused discharge. Finding no patent illegality warranting revisional interference, the criminal revision was dismissed, leaving all merits to be examined at trial.
Issues: (i) whether the petitioners were entitled to bail in the State case under the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 despite the statutory embargo in Section 21(4), having regard to prolonged pre-trial incarceration and the nature of their alleged roles; (ii) whether Deepak was entitled to bail in the money-laundering proceedings under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, in view of the length of custody, Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and parity with co-accused.
Issue (i): whether the petitioners were entitled to bail in the State case under the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 despite the statutory embargo in Section 21(4), having regard to prolonged pre-trial incarceration and the nature of their alleged roles.
Analysis: The Court held that the constitutional guarantee under Article 21 required the period of custody, the likely duration of trial, and the prima facie role of the accused to be assessed even where special bail restrictions applied. The petitioners had remained in custody for nearly five years, charges had only recently been framed, and the case involved numerous accused, witnesses, and voluminous material. On the prosecution version, their participation was confined to collection, transmission, and distribution of funds on instructions of others, which was characterised as financial and logistical facilitation rather than strategic command or conceptualisation of the alleged organised crime.
Conclusion: Bail was held to be warranted in the State case, and the petitioners were found entitled to release.
Issue (ii): whether Deepak was entitled to bail in the money-laundering proceedings under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, in view of the length of custody, Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and parity with co-accused.
Analysis: Deepak had spent more than four years and nine months in custody, while the maximum sentence for the offence was seven years. The Court held that this period exceeded the threshold contemplated by Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and that the twin conditions under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 could not defeat the constitutional and statutory consequence of such prolonged detention. The Court also noted that a substantial number of co-accused had already been granted bail, including persons alleged to have played more serious roles in laundering or handling the proceeds of crime, and held that Deepak stood on no graver footing.
Conclusion: Deepak was held entitled to bail in the PMLA proceedings as well.
Final Conclusion: The Court enlarged the petitioners on bail in the State case, and Deepak was also enlarged on bail in the PMLA proceedings, subject to conditions, on the footing that prolonged incarceration had outweighed the statutory restrictions in the facts of the case.
Ratio Decidendi: Constitutional protection against prolonged pre-trial incarceration under Article 21 can justify bail even under special statutes with stringent bail conditions, where the custody period is substantial, the trial is unlikely to conclude soon, and the accused's alleged role is limited to facilitative conduct rather than strategic control.
Entitlement to bail on the ground of prolonged period spent in custody as under-trials, particularly having regard to the twin restrictions on the grant of bail, provided in Section 21(4) of MCOCA and Section 45 of PMLA - Organised Crime - Prolonged pre-trial incarceration - Article 21 vis-a-vis statutory bail restrictions - benefit of Section 479 BNSS in PMLA proceedings - Parity in money-laundering bail.
Article 21 vis-a-vis statutory bail restrictions - Constitutional limitation on special-statute bail embargo - The approach to bail where prolonged incarceration is invoked despite the restrictive bail conditions under MCOCA and PMLA was determined - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the petitioners' claim of prolonged pre-trial incarceration could not be excluded merely because the proceedings arose under special statutes containing stringent bail limitations. Until the apparent divergence in later Supreme Court decisions is authoritatively resolved, the proper course was to examine, on facts, the length of custody, the likely time for completion of trial, the sentence prescribed, the attribution of delay, and the prima facie nature of the accuseds' role.
The judgments in Sheikh Mehmood [2026 (6) TMI 393 - SUPREME COURT] and Balraj Singh [2026 (6) TMI 696 - SUPREME COURT] to the extent that they provide guidance on the proper approach in bail cases, do not, in my view, require a different approach from the one I propose to adopt. The Court, in Sheikh Mehmood, held that “bail is the rule and jail is an exception” is a cardinal principle of bail jurisprudence in India, but not an absolute rule. Mr. Jain emphasised that the Court has mandated consideration inter alia of statutory restrictions, which would include Section 21(4) MCOCA. While that is true, it bears notice that the Court has also delineated several other factors, including prima facie case, gravity of offence, nature of evidence, antecedents, differentiation of roles, parity, delay in conclusion of trial, age of the accused, medical grounds, etc. Balraj Singh stands on a somewhat different footing than the present case, as the Court found that the period of custody in that case was not such as to warrant interference in view of Article 21 of the Constitution. In the present case, however, the period of custody is close to five years, and the charges have just been framed. The petitioners’ Article 21 rights are therefore, clearly implicated.
As noted, the judgments of this Court granting bail to Pinky Irani [2023 (10) TMI 1504 - DELHI HIGH COURT], Sunil Kumar [2024 (4) TMI 1410 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Avtar [2023 (11) TMI 1448 - DELHI HIGH COURT] in the State case, were carried in appeal to the Supreme Court. As the reasoning in those judgments has been set aside by the Supreme Court, and the State’s appeal in the case of Avtar was rendered infructuous by his demise, This court does not considered the ground of parity in the State cases at all, or relied upon the judgments of this Court in those cases. This judgment proceeds on an independent analysis on the merits of each case.
The Court therefore proceeded on the basis that constitutional protection of personal liberty remains relevant even where statutory restrictions apply, and that bail adjudication must retain an individualized assessment rather than treat the statutory embargo as conclusive. [Paras 22, 23, 24, 26]
The bail applications were to be decided by balancing Article 21 concerns with the statutory restrictions, on the facts of each petitioner's role and the progress of trial.
Prolonged pre-trial incarceration - Bail under MCOCA for facilitative role - Financial and logistical facilitation - In the State case under MCOCA, prolonged incarceration coupled with the petitioners' alleged facilitative role justified grant of bail. - HELD THAT: - The Court noted that both petitioners had undergone almost five years of custody, charges had not been formally framed by the last hearing, one further supplementary chargesheet was still expected, and the case involved numerous accused and witnesses, making early conclusion of trial unlikely. Although delay was not attributed solely to the prosecution, the Court found that the role attributed to Deepak and Pradeep was, at the highest, executory and facilitative in nature. Deepak was alleged to have collected and transmitted funds, arranged their movement through intermediaries and acted on Sukesh's instructions, without prima facie material showing autonomous strategic command or conceptualization of the foundational offence. Pradeep's role was found still narrower, being confined to collection of extorted amounts on instructions. On that footing, continued detention would assume a punitive character disproportionate to the limited role prima facie ascribed to them at the post-investigation stage. [Paras 28, 35]
Deepak and Pradeep were held entitled to bail in the MCOCA case.
Section 479 BNSS in PMLA proceedings - Parity in money-laundering bail - Prolonged incarceration under PMLA - In the PMLA case against Deepak, the custody undergone, the sentence structure, and parity with co-accused warranted bail notwithstanding the rigour of Section 45 PMLA - HELD THAT: - The Court found that Deepak had remained in custody for about four years and nine months in the PMLA case, against a maximum sentence of seven years, while charges had only recently been framed and the volume of witnesses and documents made early completion of trial improbable. It held that this incarceration crossed the threshold contemplated by Section 479 BNSS, and that the benefit of that provision extended to PMLA proceedings despite the twin conditions under Section 45. The Court further noted that most co-accused in the ECIR had already been enlarged on bail and that Deepak's alleged role, namely collection, transport and delivery of the proceeds of crime on behalf of the principal accused, could not be treated as standing on a graver footing than those co-accused. On both prolonged incarceration and parity, further pre-trial detention was held unjustified. [Paras 31, 32, 33, 34, 35]
Deepak was held entitled to bail in the PMLA proceedings as well.
Final Conclusion: The Court granted bail to Deepak and Pradeep in the MCOCA case on account of their prolonged custody and the prima facie facilitative nature of the roles attributed to them. Deepak was also granted bail in the PMLA case, the Court holding that the custody already undergone, the applicability of Section 479 BNSS, and parity with co-accused rendered further pre-trial detention unwarranted.
Issues: Whether the review petition disclosed any error apparent on the face of the record in the earlier judgment granting benefit under the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019.
Analysis: The challenge was found to be an attempt to reargue the matter on merits, which is impermissible in review. The Court considered the scope of Clause viii of Circular No. 1074/07/2019-CX dated 12th December, 2019 and Section 121 of the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019, and held that the reference to expiry of the appeal period was in the context of an appeal by the declarant, not the Department. The Court also noted that the Order-in-Original and the declaration were both dated 14.01.2020, so it could not be said that the Department's process of deciding whether to prefer an appeal had commenced by then. The observation on limitation for appeal was not treated as the basis of the earlier judgment and, even if assumed inaccurate, did not affect the result. The review jurisdiction, being limited, could not be invoked on these grounds.
Conclusion: No error apparent on the face of the record was made out and the review petition was dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The earlier judgment remained undisturbed and the request to reopen the matter was rejected.
Ratio Decidendi: Review cannot be used to reargue the case on merits or to correct an observation that does not form the basis of the decision; only an error apparent on the face of the record can justify interference.
Review jurisdiction - Error apparent on the face of the record- benefit under the Sabka Biswas Scheme categorisation of tax dues - Reappreciation of merits - Limited scope of review - Monetary limit on litigation - Scope of Clause viii of Circular No. 1074/07/2019-CX dated 12th December, 2019 and Section 121 of the Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the review petition was, in substance, an attempt to reargue the matter on merits, which falls outside the limited scope of review jurisdiction. It further found that the Department itself had understood that the proper remedy against the earlier judgment, if aggrieved, was to pursue an appeal and not invoke review in the absence of the settled parameters for such exercise. On merits also, no error apparent on the face of the record was shown: on a prima facie consideration of clause viii of the Circular dated 12th December 2019 read with the definition of "amount in arrears" under Section 121 of the Scheme, the reference to expiry of the appeal period was taken to relate to an appeal by the declarant and not by the Department. Besides, since the Order-in-Original and the declaration were both made on the same date, it could not be accepted that the process of departmental review for deciding whether to file an appeal had already commenced by then. The Court also held that the observation about the departmental appeal being time-barred was not the basis of the original judgment and, even if that observation were excluded, the result would remain unchanged. [Paras 9, 10, 11, 12, 13]
No ground for review was made out, and the challenge to the grant of Scheme benefit failed.
Final Conclusion: The review petition was dismissed. The Court held that no patent or apparent error was shown in the earlier judgment granting the benefit of the Scheme, and the Department could not use review proceedings to reopen the merits.
Issues: Whether the show cause notice and the demand of service tax were barred by limitation on the ground that the extended period could not be invoked merely on the basis of Form 26AS and income tax data without corroborative evidence of suppression.
Analysis: The Appellant had furnished documents to the Department prior to the issuance of the show cause notice, and the record showed that the Revenue was already seeking and receiving information regarding the Appellant's activities. The demand was founded substantially on income tax data and Form 26AS, without independent corroboration from service tax records to establish taxable services or deliberate suppression. In such circumstances, mere reliance on 26AS was held to be insufficient for invoking the extended period of limitation.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not invokable, and the demand was time-barred.
Ratio Decidendi: A service tax demand based solely on Form 26AS or income tax data, without corroborative evidence of taxable service and suppression, cannot sustain invocation of the extended period of limitation.
Extended period of limitation - Reliance on Form 26AS for service tax demand - corroborative evidence of suppression - Suppression of facts - show cause notice and the demand of service tax - barred by limitation - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the Department had called for documents and the assessee had furnished the audited balance sheets, Form 26AS statements and related records by letter dated 30.09.2019. The show cause notice, however, did not even advert to that disclosure and proceeded entirely on the basis of information gathered from the Income Tax Department. The Tribunal held that mere reliance on Form 26AS or income-tax data, without corroborative evidence of taxable services and without substantiating the allegation of suppression, could not justify invocation of the extended period. Since the Revenue had not corroborated suppression by any evidence, the confirmed demand was held to be hit by time-bar. [Paras 7, 8, 9]
The impugned order was set aside on limitation and the appeal was allowed with consequential relief according to law.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the confirmed service tax demand could not survive as the show cause notice invoked the extended period solely on the basis of Form 26AS data without corroborative evidence and despite prior disclosure of records by the assessee. The impugned order was therefore set aside as time-barred and the appeal was allowed.
Issues: Whether the appeals deserved remand for reconsideration of service tax liability on the EPC/works contracts in the light of the Larger Bench ruling and the uncertain status of the Revenue's further appeal before the Supreme Court.
Analysis: The dispute concerned classification of the contracts under Works Contract Service and the applicability of the Larger Bench decision which had considered canal construction, irrigation-related pipelines and turnkey/EPC projects. As the parties could not confirm whether the Revenue's appeal against that ruling had been finally decided by the Supreme Court, the record was found insufficient for a final adjudication on merits. The appropriate course was to restore the matter to the original authority to first verify the status of the Supreme Court proceedings and then decide the liability after applying the Larger Bench ruling and any subsequent Supreme Court order.
Conclusion: The matters were remanded to the original adjudicating authority for fresh decision after ascertaining the status of the Supreme Court proceedings.
Final Conclusion: The service tax dispute was not finally decided on merits, and the adjudication was reopened for reconsideration at the original level.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the final status of the controlling precedent in appellate proceedings is uncertain, the matter may be remanded for fresh determination after verification of that status and application of the governing legal position.
Taxability of irrigation-related turnkey/EPC contracts under Works Contract Service -Applicability of Larger Bench precedent - Remand for fresh adjudication - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted that the controversy regarding levy of service tax on irrigation-related turnkey/EPC contracts under Works Contract Service stood covered by the Larger Bench decision in M/s Lanco Infratech Ltd & Ors Vs CC, CE & ST, Hyderabad [2015 (5) TMI 37 - CESTAT BANGALORE (LB)], which had examined contracts relating to canals, irrigation and turnkey/EPC projects. Since both sides were unable to state whether any further order had been passed by the Supreme Court in the Revenue's appeal against that Larger Bench ruling, the Tribunal held that the proper course was to remit the matter to the adjudicating authority to first ascertain that position and then decide the dispute in the light of the Larger Bench order and any order of the Supreme Court. [Paras 6, 7]
The impugned orders were set aside and the matters were remanded to the adjudicating authority for fresh decision after verifying the status of the appeal against the Larger Bench ruling.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were allowed by way of remand. The adjudicating authority was directed to first ascertain the status of the appeal against the Larger Bench decision and thereafter re-decide the taxability issue in accordance with that ruling and any order of the Supreme Court.
Issues: Whether the 50% of capital cost collected upfront towards water supply infrastructure from allottee-lessees was liable to service tax as a taxable service, or whether it fell within the exemption for one-time upfront amounts under Section 104 of the Finance Act, 1994.
Analysis: The amount was found to be an upfront fee collected for setting up water supply infrastructure for industrial plots leased for 99 years. The legal framework under Section 104 exempts service tax on one-time upfront amounts, by whatever name called, received by a State Government industrial development corporation or undertaking in respect of long-term leases of thirty years or more for industrial plots. The demand on the same component had already been dropped for an earlier period on the same reasoning, and that decision had not been shown to have been challenged. In view of that binding departmental determination, the contrary demand for the present period could not be sustained. As the tax demand failed, the connected demand for interest and penalty also did not survive.
Conclusion: The 50% water supply capital cost was held to be exempt as a one-time upfront amount under Section 104 of the Finance Act, 1994, and the service tax demand, interest and penalty were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Service tax exemption on one-time upfront amount for long-term industrial lease - Water supply capital cost as upfront amount - Departmental consistency on identical issue - The one-time amount collected as 50% of the capital cost for water supply from allottees under the 99-year industrial lease arrangement was not exigible to service tax in the present proceedings. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the amount in dispute was an upfront fee collected from the allottee-lessee for setting up water supply infrastructure relating to the leased land, distinct from annual water charges based on consumption. It further noted that, pursuant to the earlier remand, the Principal Commissioner had subsequently examined the same issue, including the earlier show cause notice, and had dropped the demand by treating the water capital cost as a one-time amount forming part of the long-term lease and therefore covered by the exemption under Section 104. Since that departmental order on the identical issue had not been shown to have been challenged, the Department was held bound by its own decision [2018 (3) TMI 551 - CESTAT CHENNAI] and precluded from sustaining a contrary view for the present period. [Paras 4, 5]
The demand on the 50% water supply capital cost was unsustainable; the impugned order was liable to be set aside, and the consequential interest and penalty did not survive.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the impugned order. It held that the water supply capital cost, being an upfront amount already treated by the Department itself as exempt on the same issue, could not be subjected to service tax for the period in dispute, and the interest and penalty consequently failed.
Issues: (i) Whether handling and transportation of gypsum for fertilizer use was covered by the exemption for services relating to transport of chemical fertilizer under the relevant notification. (ii) Whether the amounts received towards renting of immovable property were merely reimbursements and therefore not liable to service tax.
Issue (i): Whether handling and transportation of gypsum for fertilizer use was covered by the exemption for services relating to transport of chemical fertilizer under the relevant notification.
Analysis: The relevant exemption under Notification No. 5/2012-ST, as amended by Notification No. 3/2013-ST, applied to services provided by a goods transport agency by way of transport of chemical fertilizer, organic manure and oil cakes. Gypsum was found to be a fertilizer supplying calcium and sulphur, and the mere absence of gypsum from the Fertilizers (Control) Order, 1985 did not exclude it from the exemption. The exclusion urged by the department was therefore not accepted.
Conclusion: The exemption was available to the appellant for the gypsum handling and transportation service, and the service tax demand on that component was set aside.
Issue (ii): Whether the amounts received towards renting of immovable property were merely reimbursements and therefore not liable to service tax.
Analysis: The claim that the receipts were only reimbursements was not supported by any documents before the lower authorities or before the Tribunal. In the absence of documentary proof, the receipts could not be treated as mere reimbursements.
Conclusion: The demand relating to renting of immovable property was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only to the extent of the gypsum-related demand, with the corresponding penalty reduced proportionately, while the remaining demand was sustained and the matter was sent back only for recalculation and consequential relief.
Ratio Decidendi: A service falling within the substantive ambit of a statutory exemption cannot be denied the benefit merely because the commodity is not expressly named in a control order, where the commodity is in fact a fertilizer for the purpose of the exemption.
Service tax exemption for handling and transportation of fertilisers - Gypsum as fertiliser for exemption purposes - Renting of immovable property service and claim of reimbursement - Benefit of notification no. 5/2012- ST as amended by 3/2013-ST
Exemption for handling and transportation of fertilisers - Gypsum as fertiliser - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that, after the negative list regime, tax was payable on services unless covered by exemption, and examined the appellant's claim under the notification relating to transport of chemical fertiliser. It found that gypsum is a fertiliser supplying calcium and sulphur to plants, and is used directly in some conditions and crops as well as in manufacture of other fertilisers. The absence of gypsum from the Fertiliser Control Order, 1985 was held not to be determinative, since that order was issued under the Essential Commodities Act and did not exhaustively define every substance that could answer the description of fertiliser. On that reasoning, the exemption was held available to the appellant's service to that extent. [Paras 13, 15]
The demand relating to transportation or handling of gypsum was set aside and the penalty under section 78 was directed to be reduced proportionately.
Renting of immovable property service - Reimbursement claim without supporting documents - Amounts received under renting of immovable property service could not be excluded as mere reimbursements in the absence of supporting evidence. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted the appellant's plea that no premises had in fact been rented and that the receipts were only reimbursements. It upheld rejection of that plea because no documents were produced either before the Commissioner (Appeals) or before the Tribunal to establish the reimbursement nature of the amounts received. In the absence of proof, the demand on this component was sustained. [Paras 14, 15]
The service tax demand on renting of immovable property service was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was partly allowed. The Tribunal deleted the demand insofar as it related to handling or transportation of gypsum by treating gypsum as fertiliser for the exemption, but sustained the demand on renting of immovable property service for want of proof that the receipts were mere reimbursements, and remitted the matter only for recalculation and consequential relief.
Issues: (i) whether the 1% margin retained by the appellant on purchase and sale of goods at trade discount amounted to commission liable to service tax; (ii) whether, after excluding such amount, the taxable services in each year remained within the exemption threshold under Notification No. 33/2012-ST dated 20.6.2012.
Issue (i): whether the 1% margin retained by the appellant on purchase and sale of goods at trade discount amounted to commission liable to service tax.
Analysis: The appellant purchased goods on its own account from registered sellers at a discount and resold them on its own account at a different discount to registered buyers. The arrangement was principal-to-principal and not one of agency. A commission agent acts on behalf of another, does not take title to the goods, and earns commission for connecting buyer and seller. A trade discount retained in buying and selling transactions is not the same as commission merely because the margin is small or the counterparties are pre-registered.
Conclusion: The 1% margin was trade profit and not commission. The service tax demand on the alleged commission income was not sustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): whether, after excluding such amount, the taxable services in each year remained within the exemption threshold under Notification No. 33/2012-ST dated 20.6.2012.
Analysis: Once the alleged commission income was excluded, the value of taxable services for each year fell below the exemption limit of Rs. 10,00,000. The remaining service values for the relevant years were below the threshold prescribed for service tax liability under the notification.
Conclusion: The remaining taxable value was exempt and no service tax was payable on that count.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order could not be sustained, and the appeal succeeded with consequential relief to the appellant.
Ratio Decidendi: A person buying and selling goods on its own account on a principal-to-principal basis at trade discount is not a commission agent, and the resulting trading margin cannot be taxed as commission income for service tax purposes.
Purchase and sale of goods at trade discount - Trade discount vis-a-vis commission agency - Small service provider exemption - Exemption threshold under Notification No. 33/2012-ST - Principal-to-principal Transaction -
Trade discount vis-a-vis commission agency - Taxability of margin on purchase and sale of goods - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that a commission agent acts on behalf of the principal, merely connects buyer and seller, and neither pays for the goods nor obtains title to them. A buyer-trader, on the other hand, purchases and sells on its own account and earns a trade discount or trading margin. On the material recorded in the impugned order itself, the appellant had purchased goods from sellers at 14% discount and sold them to buyers at 13% discount, thereby retaining 1%. The existence of registered sellers and buyers, the pre-arranged nature of dealings, or the smallness of the margin did not convert the appellant into a commission agent. The amount treated as commission was therefore not liable to service tax as commission income. [Paras 6]
The demand of service tax on the amount treated as commission income was set aside.
Small service provider exemption - Threshold exemption on aggregate taxable services - After excluding the amount wrongly treated as commission income, the remaining value of taxable services for each of the three financial years was below the exemption threshold. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that once the alleged commission income was excluded, the aggregate value of the remaining services, even if otherwise taxable, remained below Rs. 10,00,000 in each year. Since services below that threshold were undisputedly exempt under notification no. 33/2012-ST, the surviving demands could not be sustained. [Paras 7]
The appellant became entitled to threshold exemption for each year, and the impugned order was set aside.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the appellant was not acting as a commission agent and that the 1% retained by it was only trading margin. On that basis, the taxable value for each of the relevant financial years fell below the small service provider exemption threshold, and the impugned order was set aside with consequential relief.
Issues: Whether the refund claim for the financial years 2009-10 to 2012-13 could be rejected as time barred under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 after the levy of service tax on members' clubs had been declared ultra vires, and whether the rejected claim required reconsideration on merits.
Analysis: The levy of service tax on services purportedly provided by incorporated clubs to their members had already been held ultra vires and that view stood confirmed by the Supreme Court. Once the collection itself was without authority of law, the refund claim could not be defeated merely by applying the limitation prescribed under Section 11B. A refund claim arising from tax collected without lawful authority and under mistake of law cannot be denied on the ground of delay when the levy itself has been declared impermissible. The rejection of the claim for the relevant years on limitation was therefore unsustainable, and the application had to be examined afresh on merits, including the question of interest.
Conclusion: The rejection of the refund claim for FYs 2009-10 to 2012-13 as time barred was quashed, and the matter was remanded to the respondents for on merits in accordance with law, including interest.
Refund of tax collected under an ultra vires levy - Limitation for refund of service tax paid under mistake of law - Mutuality and non-taxability of incorporated members' clubs - Levy of service tax on services purportedly provided by incorporated clubs to their members had already been held ultra vires - HELD THAT: - The Court recorded that the levy of service tax on services purportedly provided by an incorporated club to its members had already been declared ultra vires in Sports Club of Gujarat Limited [2013 (7) TMI 510 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT], and that view stood confirmed by the Supreme Court in State of West Bengal Vs. Calcutta Club Limited [2019 (10) TMI 160 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], which held that from 2005 onwards the Finance Act, 1994 did not purport to levy service tax on members' clubs in incorporated form. On that basis, the collection of service tax from the petitioner was treated as without authority of law. The Court held that where tax is paid under mistake of law, and particularly where the levy itself is ultra vires, the refund claim cannot be defeated by applying the limitation under section 11B, since such rejection would run contrary to Article 265 of the Constitution. The order rejecting the claim for the relevant financial years solely on limitation was therefore unsustainable, and the matter had to be reconsidered on merits, including the claim for interest. [Paras 10, 11, 12, 13]
The rejection of refund for FYs 2009-10 to 2012-13 on the ground of limitation was quashed, and the matter was remanded for decision on merits in accordance with law, including interest.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was allowed to the extent that the refund rejection for FYs 2009-10 to 2012-13, having been founded solely on limitation, was set aside. The respondents were directed to decide the refund claim on merits, including interest, in accordance with law.
Issues: (i) Whether the petition to quash the criminal complaint and summoning order was maintainable despite earlier petitions having been withdrawn, and (ii) whether the criminal complaint under Sections 9 and 9AA of the Central Excise Act, 1944 could survive after the appellate tribunal set aside the duty demand on merits.
Issue (i): Whether the petition to quash the criminal complaint and summoning order was maintainable despite earlier petitions having been withdrawn.
Analysis: The earlier petitions were dismissed as withdrawn and not on merits. No adjudication was rendered on the controversy at that stage. The appellate tribunal's later decision on merits materially changed the factual and legal position and gave rise to a fresh cause of action.
Conclusion: The petition was maintainable and was not barred by the earlier withdrawals.
Issue (ii): Whether the criminal complaint under Sections 9 and 9AA of the Central Excise Act, 1944 could survive after the appellate tribunal set aside the duty demand on merits.
Analysis: The tribunal held that there was no contravention of Rule 8(3A) of the Central Excise Rules, 2001 and set aside the demand, noting that the disputed amount with interest had already been deposited before the show cause notice. Once the foundational demand was annulled on merits, the basis of the prosecution ceased to exist and continuation of criminal proceedings would amount to abuse of process of law.
Conclusion: The criminal complaint and summoning order were liable to be quashed.
Final Conclusion: The prosecution could not be sustained after the competent appellate forum negatived the very basis of the demand on merits, and the criminal proceedings were quashed.
Ratio Decidendi: When the competent adjudicatory authority sets aside the underlying demand on merits and finds no statutory contravention, the very substratum of a related criminal prosecution disappears, justifying quashing of the proceedings to prevent abuse of process.
Maintainability of successive quashing petition on subsequent change in circumstances - Criminal prosecution under Central Excise law after appellate adjudication on merits in favour of assessee - Contravention of Rule 8(3A) - Earlier petitions were dismissed as withdrawn and not on merits - criminal complaint under Sections 9 and 9AA - Fresh Cause of Action - Abuse of Process of Law - Simultaneous Civil and Criminal Proceedings - Substratum of Prosecution
Fresh cause of action - Withdrawal of earlier quashing petitions - The present quashing petition was maintainable notwithstanding withdrawal of two earlier petitions seeking the same relief. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the earlier petitions had been dismissed as withdrawn and not on merits, and no adjudication of the controversy had then taken place. Since the appellate tribunal subsequently rendered a final order on merits in favour of the petitioners, holding that there was no contravention of the relevant rule and setting aside the demand, that subsequent adjudication constituted a material change in circumstances and gave rise to a fresh cause of action. [Paras 6]
The objection to maintainability was rejected.
Quashing of prosecution after collapse of adjudicatory basis - Abuse of process - HELD THAT: - Relying upon various judgments including Joseph P. Bangera versus State of Maharashtra [2005 (11) TMI 82 - SC ORDER] Jagan Nath Nagpal & Co. versus Assistant Collector of Central Excise [1993 (11) TMI 62 - HIGH COURT OF PUNJAB & HARYANA AT CHANDIGARH] and Bihariji Manufacturing Company Pvt. Ltd. versus Commissioner of Central Excise [2007 (2) TMI 225 - HIGH COURT OF DELHI] held that though adjudication proceedings and criminal prosecution may simultaneously continue, however criminal prosecution cannot be permitted to continue once the competent appellate authority decides the matter on merits in favour of the assessee and the very basis of prosecution disappears.
In the present case, the tribunal did not grant relief on a technical ground; it recorded a categorical finding that there was no contravention of Rule 8(3A), set aside the demand forming the basis of the complaint, and also noticed that the disputed amount with interest had been deposited before issuance of the show cause notice. The Court further noted that the complaint had been instituted despite concealment of the interim stay of the adjudication order. With the very substratum of the prosecution having ceased to exist, continuation of the criminal proceedings was held to be an abuse of process. [Paras 7, 8, 9, 10]
The complaint, the summoning order, and all consequential proceedings were quashed.
Final Conclusion: The High Court held that the petition was maintainable because the earlier withdrawals were not decisions on merits and the subsequent appellate order created a fresh cause of action. Since the tribunal had on merits held that there was no contravention and had set aside the very demand forming the basis of the complaint, the criminal prosecution was quashed as an abuse of process.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant was entitled to refund of excess Oil Industry Development Cess paid on account of incorrect valuation under the Oil Industry (Development) Act, 1974 and the Central Excise Act, 1944. (ii) Whether the refund claim was barred by unjust enrichment under Sections 11B and 12B of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
Issue (i): Whether the appellant was entitled to refund of excess Oil Industry Development Cess paid on account of incorrect valuation under the Oil Industry (Development) Act, 1974 and the Central Excise Act, 1944.
Analysis: The levy of cess under Section 15 of the Oil Industry (Development) Act, 1974 was ad valorem for the relevant period, so valuation had to be tested on the principles of Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944. The sale price under the crude oil sale agreement was treated as if it were exclusive of duty, though the pricing mechanism did not separately recover the cess. The record showed that excess cess was paid by adopting an ex-duty value instead of a cum-duty value, and the verification report accepted the mathematical excess. The contractual terms and invoices also showed that the cess was not a recoverable component from the buyer.
Conclusion: The appellant established payment of excess cess due to incorrect valuation, and refund was admissible in principle in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the refund claim was barred by unjust enrichment under Sections 11B and 12B of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
Analysis: Section 12B raised a rebuttable presumption that the duty burden had been passed on, but the appellant rebutted it through the crude oil sale agreement, invoices, a chartered accountant's certificate, and the buyer's confirmation. These documents showed that the contractual price did not include Oil Industry Development Cess and that the buyer had not paid that cess to the appellant. The Department produced no contrary material to show passing on of the incidence, so the statutory presumption stood displaced on the evidence.
Conclusion: The refund was not hit by unjust enrichment, and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The excess cess paid on incorrect valuation was refundable, and the rejection of refund on unjust enrichment grounds was unsustainable; the appeal succeeded with consequential relief.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an ad valorem cess is paid on an inflated value under a contract that does not permit recovery of the cess from the buyer, refund is allowable if the assessee rebuts the Section 12B presumption by credible contractual and documentary evidence showing non-passing of the duty burden.
Cum-duty valuation for ad valorem OID Cess - Refund of excess cess paid on incorrect assessable value - Unjust enrichment in OID Cess refund - Rebuttal of presumption of passing on of duty incidence - Cum-duty concept - Levy of cess under Section 15 - Entitlement to refund of excess Oil Industry Development Cess paid on account of incorrect valuation - Appellant failed to establish that the incidence of duty had not been passed on, thereby attracting unjust enrichment
Whether the refund of OID Cess claimed by the Appellant is admissible on merits in terms of valuation under Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 read with Section 15 of the Oil Industry (Development) Act, 1974 and Notification dated 28.03.2016, in the context of the COSA with M/s. CPCL ? - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that once OID Cess became an ad valorem levy, valuation had to be determined under the principles of Section 4 of the Central Excise Act. Where the transaction price did not separately recover OID Cess and the pricing under the crude oil sale agreement was fixed independently of such cess, the sale price had to be treated as a cum-duty price and the duty element had to be backed out. The verification report itself recorded that cess had been paid at 20% on the sale price and that the excess arose from adoption of ex-duty value instead of cum-duty value. The agreement and invoices showed that the price charged to the buyer comprised only the agreed price components and VAT, without inclusion of OID Cess. The subsequent correction of methodology from June 2016 onwards supported the finding that the earlier payments were made under an erroneous valuation method. The Tribunal therefore accepted that the excess payment was a direct consequence of incorrect valuation and could not be retained by the Department. Reliance was also placed on the Larger Bench decision in the appellant's own case, M/s. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited Versus The Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, TiruchirappalliI [2024 (6) TMI 1417 - CESTAT CHENNAI (LB)], on the evidentiary standard for establishing refund entitlement. [Paras 12, 13, 14, 16, 17]
The appellant established that excess OID Cess had been paid due to incorrect valuation, and the refund was admissible on merits subject to unjust enrichment.
Whether the refund claim is hit by the doctrine of unjust enrichment in terms of Section 11B read with Section 12B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 ? - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the presumption under Section 12B is rebuttable and must yield to cogent evidence. The crude oil sale agreement was treated as the decisive document because its pricing mechanism was exhaustive and specifically identified the levies recoverable from the buyer; while VAT and certain other levies were expressly provided for, OID Cess was not included as a recoverable component. That contractual structure showed that OID Cess was to be borne by the seller. The invoices also did not show any OID Cess element and reflected only base price and VAT. This position was independently corroborated by the Chartered Accountant's certificate certifying that the cess burden had been borne by the appellant, and by the buyer's confirmation that no amount towards OID Cess had been paid by it. In the absence of any contrary evidence from the Department, the Tribunal held that the documentary record effectively rebutted the statutory presumption. It further held that thecum-duty conceptis a valuation principle and cannot, by itself, lead to an inference that the duty burden was passed on. [Paras 30, 31, 32, 33, 34]
The appellant successfully proved that the incidence of OID Cess had not been passed on to the buyer, and the refund was therefore not hit by unjust enrichment.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the appellant had paid excess OID Cess due to adoption of an incorrect assessable value instead of cum-duty valuation and had also rebutted the presumption of unjust enrichment through the contract, invoices, Chartered Accountant certification and buyer confirmation. The refund rejection was therefore set aside and the refund claim allowed with consequential relief in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether attachment of the petitioners' bank accounts under Section 24(5) of the Andhra Pradesh Value Added Tax Act, 2005 was valid without indicating the basis of gross negligence, misfeasance or breach of duty on the part of the directors and without first establishing that the tax dues of the company in liquidation could not be recovered.
Analysis: Section 24(5) permits recovery from directors of a private company in liquidation only when the tax due from the company cannot be recovered and the non-recovery is attributable to the directors' gross neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty. The Court held that the first condition is satisfied only when recovery from the company has become impossible, irrespective of the reason for such non-recovery. As to the second condition, the provision requires the tax authorities to first indicate the primary facts showing gross negligence, misfeasance or breach of duty; only then does the burden shift to the directors to disprove personal fault. The impugned notice did not disclose any such foundation, though the authorities had earlier issued a notice under Section 24(5).
Conclusion: The bank attachments were contrary to Section 24(5) and were set aside. The authorities were left free to proceed afresh in accordance with law after satisfying the statutory requirements and affording an opportunity of objection.
Directors' liability for tax dues of company in liquidation- Attachment of the bank accounts - Preconditions for recovery under Section 24(5) of the AP VAT Act - Requirement to indicate gross negligence, misfeasance or breach of duty - Recovery of tax dues from directors of private company in liquidation - Exhaustion of recovery remedies - Natural justice - Lifting of corporate veil - HELD THAT: - The Court held that Section 24(5) permits recovery from directors of a private company in liquidation only when recovery from the company itself is not possible. The expression that tax cannot be recovered covers situations where recovery has become impossible either because no assets are available or because recovery stands barred, including by operation of the insolvency process; the authorities' own negligence in pursuing the claim does not take the case outside that expression. However, the further statutory condition concerning non-recovery being attributable to gross negligence, misfeasance or breach of duty on the part of the directors cannot be invoked mechanically. Though the directors bear the burden of disproving such conduct, the tax authorities must first place the foundational allegation before them by indicating the nature of the alleged gross negligence, misfeasance or breach of duty. Since the earlier notice did not disclose any such foundation, the subsequent bank attachment was not in accordance with Section 24(5). [Paras 9, 10, 11, 13, 14]
The bank attachments were set aside, with liberty to the authorities to proceed afresh for recovery from the directors only upon complying with Section 24(5) and giving them an opportunity to file objections.
Final Conclusion: The Court allowed the writ petitions and set aside the attachment of the petitioners' bank accounts. It held that recovery from directors of a company in liquidation cannot be sustained without prior compliance with the statutory conditions under Section 24(5), particularly disclosure of the basis on which gross negligence, misfeasance or breach of duty is alleged.
Issues: (i) whether continuation of arbitration against the petitioners despite interim moratorium under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was sustainable; (ii) whether refusal to permit cross-examination of the Bank's witness vitiated the awards; (iii) whether the arbitral findings on proof of claim, stamp duty, membership and discharge of guarantor called for interference under Section 34; and (iv) whether the directions enforcing mortgage-related reliefs were arbitrable.
Issue (i): whether continuation of arbitration against the petitioners despite interim moratorium under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was sustainable.
Analysis: The interim moratorium under Section 96 operates in respect of the debt and not merely against the individual applicant. Once the moratorium came into force on the applications filed by some guarantors, the debt itself was kept in abeyance. Continuation of the arbitral proceedings against the remaining guarantors, while the same debt was under statutory interdiction, disregarded binding legal principles and amounted to enforcement of an unenforceable debt.
Conclusion: The continuation of the proceedings against the petitioners was unsustainable and the awards were liable to be set aside on this ground.
Issue (ii): whether refusal to permit cross-examination of the Bank's witness vitiated the awards.
Analysis: The Bank led evidence by affidavit and the arbitral tribunal relied upon that evidence to hold the claim proved. The petitioners had disputed execution of the guarantee and related documents and sought cross-examination of the witness. In such a contested factual situation, denial of cross-examination impaired the equal treatment of parties and the full opportunity to present the case, offending the requirements of natural justice under Sections 18 and 24.
Conclusion: The refusal to permit cross-examination constituted a breach of natural justice and furnished a ground for setting aside the awards.
Issue (iii): whether the arbitral findings on proof of claim, stamp duty, membership and discharge of guarantor called for interference under Section 34.
Analysis: The challenge regarding sufficiency of stamp duty, the principal instrument, the petitioners' membership of the Bank, and the effect of contractual clauses on the guarantor's liability involved factual appraisal and scrutiny of the terms of the instruments. Those matters did not justify re-appreciation of evidence in Section 34 proceedings. The finding that the guarantee permitted variation and restructuring, and the finding that the petitioners were members of the Bank, were not interfered with on merits. However, the finding that the Bank's claim stood proved was rendered vulnerable because it rested on evidence that ought to have been tested by cross-examination.
Conclusion: No interference was warranted on the stamp duty, membership and contractual discharge issues, but the finding on proof of claim could not be sustained in view of the procedural infirmity.
Issue (iv): whether the directions enforcing mortgage-related reliefs were arbitrable.
Analysis: The award contained directions declaring the Bank's charge, permitting disposal of mortgaged property, restraining third-party rights and directing attachment till sale and realisation. Such reliefs amount to enforcement of a mortgage, which is a right in rem and falls outside arbitral jurisdiction.
Conclusion: The mortgage-enforcement directions were non-arbitrable and could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The awards were set aside on substantive and procedural grounds, namely the statutory moratorium, denial of cross-examination, patent illegality in the proof of claim, and the grant of non-arbitrable mortgage-enforcement reliefs.
Ratio Decidendi: Interim moratorium under Section 96 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code stays the debt itself, refusal of cross-examination in a contested evidentiary arbitration violates natural justice, and mortgage enforcement remains outside arbitral jurisdiction as a right in rem.
Continuation of arbitration proceedings against co-guarantors - interim moratorium in respect of debt - Natural justice in arbitral proceedings - Denial of Cross-examination of arbitral witness - Non-arbitrability of mortgage enforcement - arbitral findings on proof of claim, stamp duty, membership and discharge of guarantor called for interference under Section 34 - directions enforcing mortgage-related reliefs - Fundamental Policy of Indian Law - Principles of Natural Justice - Audi Alteram Partem - Patent Illegality - Right in Rem - Waiver of Surety's Rights
Interim moratorium in respect of debt - fundamental policy of Indian law - Continuation of the arbitration proceedings against the petitioners after interim moratorium had commenced on applications filed by other guarantors - HELD THAT: - In Tata Capital Ltd. vs. Geeta Passi and Anr [2024 (6) TMI 962 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] the Petition therein challenged the order of Learned Arbitrator which had kept in abeyance the proceedings in view of the moratorium under Section 96 of IB Code. In the facts of that case, the Arbitrator stayed the arbitration proceedings against the proprietor and one of the guarantor. The other guarantors filed an application seeking indefinite stay in view of Section 96(1)(b)(i) of IB Code, which came to be allowed. This Court considered the statutory definition of “debt” under IB Code. It held that the expression “any person” used in defining “debt” would mean that no distinction can be drawn between principal borrower or guarantor. It further held that when Section 96 speaks of moratorium in respect of “any debt”, the same would mean the entire debt irrespective from whom it is due.
The Court held that the settled legal position under Section 96 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is that the interim moratorium operates in respect of the debt and not merely the individual debtor who has applied. Once the arbitrator accepted the moratorium and stayed the proceedings qua two guarantors, the same debt could not be pursued piecemeal against the remaining guarantors. The arbitral proceedings could not be split in that manner.
The continuation of the arbitration proceedings by the Learned Arbitrator against the Petitioners despite the interim moratorium imposed qua the debt constitutes grant of relief in respect of an presently unenforceable debt. It is settled that the expression “fundamental policy of Indian law” must amount to breach of some legal principle or legislation which is so basic to Indian law that it is not susceptible of being compromised. It refers to the principles and legislative policy on which Indian statutes and laws are founded and connotes the basic and substratal rationale, values and principles which form the bedrock of laws in our country.
By continuing the arbitration against the petitioners and making an award on a debt which had become temporarily unenforceable, the arbitrator disregarded binding judicial pronouncements and acted in violation of the fundamental policy of Indian law. [Paras 43, 44, 45, 46, 67]
The awards were liable to be set aside under Section 34(2)(b)(ii) on account of continuation of proceedings despite the statutory moratorium operating on the debt.
Natural justice in arbitral proceedings - Cross-examination of arbitral witness - Patent illegality based on no evidence - HELD THAT: - The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of M/s. Narinder Singh and Sons vs. Union of India [2021 (11) TMI 1234 - SUPREME COURT] has held that the lack of full opportunity as envisaged by Section 18 of the Act impedes a fair and just decision and had consequently set aside the Award in terms of clause (iii) to Section 34(2)(a) as well as clause (ii) to Section 34(2)(b) of Arbitration Act.
The Court held that Sections 18 and 24 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act require equal treatment of parties and full opportunity to present the case. Once the arbitrator permitted the bank to lead evidence, fairness required the opposite party to have the opportunity to cross-examine that witness, particularly when execution of the guarantee and allied documents was specifically denied and forgery was pleaded. The arbitrator wrongly proceeded on the basis that the petitioners had to prove their defence without allowing them to test the bank's evidence. As the findings that the bank's claim stood proved were founded on the bank's affidavit and documents, denial of cross-examination rendered the decision a violation of fair hearing and also patently illegal as being based on no evidence. [Paras 54, 55, 56, 57, 67]
The awards were liable to be set aside under Section 34(2)(a)(iii) and Section 34(2A) for denial of cross-examination and the resulting patent illegality.
Non-arbitrability of mortgage enforcement - Rights in rem - Directions in the awards permitting sale of mortgaged property and restraining creation of third-party rights were beyond arbitral competence. - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the operative directions declaring subsistence of the bank's charge, permitting disposal of mortgaged property for recovery, injuncting transfer, and directing attachment till sale amounted to enforcement of mortgage by sale. Such enforcement concerns a right in rem and, in view of Booz Allen and Hamilton Inc. v. SBI Home Finance Ltd. [2012 (10) TMI 459 - SUPREME COURT], falls for decision by courts of law and not by an arbitral tribunal. These directions could not be treated as merely ancillary reliefs. [Paras 64, 65]
The mortgage-enforcement directions in the awards were unsustainable as they related to a non-arbitrable dispute.
Limited scope of interference under Section 34 - Factual appraisal in arbitral challenge - Statutory arbitration disclosure challenge - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the arbitrator's conclusion on waiver and non-discharge of surety rested on construction of the guarantee terms, and revisiting that exercise would involve factual appraisal and merits review, which is impermissible under Section 34. The finding on stamp duty similarly depended on application of Section 4 of the Maharashtra Stamp Act and on factual inquiry as to the principal instrument, which could not be undertaken for the first time in the Section 34 proceedings. The finding that the petitioners were members of the bank was based on documentary evidence and could not be reopened by re-appreciation. As regards the challenge based on defective disclosure under Section 12, the Court held that in this statutory arbitration, and in light of the decisions considered by the arbitrator, no case was made out under Section 34 on that ground. [Paras 60, 61, 62, 63, 67]
These objections were not accepted as separate grounds to set aside the awards.
Final Conclusion: The Court set aside both arbitral awards. It held that the proceedings had been continued in the teeth of the interim moratorium operating on the debt, that denial of cross-examination violated natural justice and rendered the findings patently illegal, and that the directions for enforcement of mortgage were beyond arbitral competence.
Issues: (i) Whether the defendant had disclosed a bona fide defence or triable issue so as to merit leave to defend in the summary suit based on the signed confirmation of accounts. (ii) Whether the plaintiff was entitled to future interest at the claimed contractual rate or at any rate beyond the decree.
Issue (i): Whether the defendant had disclosed a bona fide defence or triable issue so as to merit leave to defend in the summary suit based on the signed confirmation of accounts.
Analysis: The bank transfers of Rs. 50 lakhs stood proved and were specifically reflected in the confirmation of accounts signed by both parties, including the defendant's endorsement confirming the balance and the agreed interest terms. The defence that the amount represented a cash loan allegedly arranged by the defendant was found unsupported by reliable material and was treated as a sham and moonshine defence. The signed confirmation was held to amount to a written acknowledgment and contract for the purposes of the summary suit, and no triable issue was found warranting leave to defend.
Conclusion: The refusal of leave to defend was upheld and the decree for the principal sum was sustained.
Issue (ii): Whether the plaintiff was entitled to future interest at the claimed contractual rate or at any rate beyond the decree.
Analysis: In a summary suit, pre-decree interest follows the contractual stipulation, but post-decree interest falls within the Court's discretion under Section 34 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. The Court held that the reduction of pendente lite interest to 9% simple interest did not suffer from arbitrariness, but the complete denial of future interest required correction. Considering the money decree and the discretionary power under Section 34, future interest was held payable, though not at the claimed compounded rate.
Conclusion: The plaintiff succeeded in part and future interest at 9% simple interest per annum from the date of decree till payment was awarded.
Final Conclusion: The decree on the principal claim was affirmed, the challenge to the dismissal of leave to defend failed, and the decree was modified only to grant post-decree interest at 9% simple interest per annum.
Ratio Decidendi: A duly signed confirmation of accounts may constitute a written acknowledgment and contract supporting a summary suit, and post-decree interest under Section 34 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 remains a matter of judicial discretion, even where pre-decree interest is contractually claimed.
Summary suit on acknowledged loan liability - Confirmation of accounts as written contract and acknowledgement - bona fide defence or triable issue - Leave to defend - sham and moonshine defence - Pendente lite and future interest in money decree - Entitlement to future interest at the claimed contractual rate or at any rate beyond the decree
Confirmation of accounts as written contract and acknowledgement - Maintainability of summary suit on acknowledged loan - Leave to defend - sham and moonshine defence - The signed confirmation of accounts recording the bank transfers as loan with interest constituted a written contract and acknowledgement sufficient to sustain a summary suit, and the defence that the transfers were only repayment of an earlier cash arrangement did not raise any triable issue. - HELD THAT: - Admittedly, the Plaintiff Company and the Defendant had a longstanding professional and personal relationship, since 2000. The Appellant/Defendant was not only a Chartered Accountant/Auditor for the Plaintiff Company, but had longstanding personal relationship.
The simple case of the Plaintiff was that on the request of the Defendant/Appellant for urgent need of Rs. 50 lakhs Rs.30 lakhs were transferred through the bank on 24.09.2018 and Rs.20 lakhs on 28.09.2018 to the bank account of the Defendant/Appellant; a fact which is not denied by the Defendant/Appellant.
The Court found it undisputed that the amounts were transferred through bank transactions to the defendant. The confirmation of accounts letter specifically recorded both transfers as loan transactions, mentioned the agreed interest at 15% per annum with quarterly compounding, reflected the interest entries, and was signed by both sides with the endorsement confirming the statement. On a fair reading, the document embodied the terms of the loan and amounted both to a written contract and to an acknowledgement of liability. The explanation that the defendant signed it only on assurance that it would not be acted upon was rejected as untenable. The defence that he had earlier arranged cash for the plaintiff and that the bank transfers were only refund of that amount was held to be unsupported, with no disclosed source or credible explanation, and therefore a sham and moonshine defence not entitling him to leave to defend. [Paras 54, 55, 57, 59, 60]
The dismissal of the leave to defend application and the decree in the plaintiff's favour were upheld, and the defendant's appeal was dismissed.
Pendente lite interest in summary suit - Future interest under Section 34 CPC - Discretion in award of post-suit interest - HELD THAT: - In the case of Clariant International Limited and another. Vs Securities & Exchange Board of India [2004 (8) TMI 390 - SUPREME COURT], it was held that interest can be awarded in terms of an Agreement or statutory provisions. It can also be awarded by reason of usage or trade having the force of law or on equitable considerations. Interest cannot be awarded by way of damages, except in cases where money due, is wrongfully withheld and there are equitable grounds thereof, for which a written demand is mandatory. In the absence of any agreement or statutory provision or a mercantile usage, interest payable can be only at the market rate. Such interest is payable upon establishment of totality of circumstances, justifying the exercise of such equitable jurisdiction. This judgment was endorsed in Rampur Fertiliser Limited vs. Vigyan Chemicals Industries [2009 (2) TMI 694 - SUPREME COURT].
The Court held that under Order 37 Rule 2(3) CPC the plaintiff in a summary suit is entitled to the specified rate of interest up to the date of decree. Thereafter, Section 34 CPC governs the matter, under which pendente lite and future interest are discretionary and must be awarded fairly and not arbitrarily. Since the trial court had already granted pre-suit interest at the agreed rate and had reduced pendente lite interest to 9% simple interest in exercise of discretion, and there was nothing to show that such exercise was arbitrary or contrary to commercial norms, no interference was warranted on that part. However, as no reason had been given for denying future interest altogether, the plaintiff was held entitled to future interest under Section 34 CPC at 9% simple interest per annum from the date of decree till payment. [Paras 66, 67, 71, 72, 73]
The plaintiff's appeal was partly allowed by modifying the decree to grant future interest at 9% simple interest per annum from the date of decree till payment, while maintaining pendente lite interest at 9% simple interest.
Final Conclusion: The defendant's appeal against refusal of leave to defend failed, the Court holding that the signed confirmation of accounts furnished a written contractual acknowledgement of the loan and that the defence set up was sham. The plaintiff's appeal succeeded only in part, by addition of future interest at 9% simple interest per annum from the date of decree till payment, while the reduced pendente lite interest was maintained.
Issues: Whether the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could be compounded on the basis of a voluntary compromise between the parties, warranting exercise of inherent jurisdiction under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and modification of the sentence already imposed.
Analysis: The parties had entered into a compromise, the complainant had received the entire settled amount, and the execution proceedings had been withdrawn. Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 makes every offence under the Act compoundable notwithstanding the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. In view of the settled nature of the dispute, its essentially commercial character, and the absence of any material showing coercion, fraud, or undue influence, continuation of the prosecution would serve no useful purpose. The inherent power preserved under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 was therefore attracted to secure the ends of justice and prevent abuse of process.
Conclusion: The offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 was compounded, and the sentence was modified to the period already undergone by the petitioner.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a cheque dishonour dispute is voluntarily and fully settled and the complainant has received the entire amount in full satisfaction, the offence is compoundable at any stage and the Court may invoke inherent jurisdiction to bring the proceedings to an end in the interests of justice.
Dishonour of Cheque - Compounding of offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act - Proceedings arising from commercial transactions - Inherent jurisdiction under Section 528to quash criminal proceedings on compromise - Modification of the sentence already imposed - Principles for exercise of inherent jurisdiction - Voluntary compromise between the parties - Abuse of process of law - HELD THAT: - Section 528 BNSS confers inherent jurisdiction upon this Court to secure the ends of justice and to prevent abuse of the process of law. However, such extra-ordinary power is required to be exercised sparingly, and with circumspection, and can be invoked where continuation of criminal proceedings would serve no useful purpose and would merely result in unnecessary prolongation of litigation despite settlement between the parties.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in K. Bharthi Devi v. State of Telangana [2024 (10) TMI 212 - SUPREME COURT], has observed that the guiding principles for exercise of inherent jurisdiction are whether such exercise would secure the ends of justice or prevent abuse of the process of Court. It was further held that criminal proceedings arising out of commercial, financial, mercantile, civil or matrimonial disputes, where the wrong is essentially private or personal in nature, stand on a different footing and may appropriately be quashed where the parties have genuinely resolved their disputes. The Hon’ble Court further emphasized that in such matters, continuation of criminal proceedings despite settlement would amount to unnecessary oppression and injustice.
The Court held that offences under the Negotiable Instruments Act are compoundable by virtue of Section 147, and that proceedings under Section 138, though carrying criminal consequences, are essentially rooted in a compensatory commercial liability. On the material placed before it, the Court found that the parties had voluntarily settled the dispute, the complainant had received the entire amount in full and final satisfaction, and the execution proceedings had also been withdrawn. In those circumstances, the substratum of the dispute no longer survived, there was no indication of coercion or fraud in the settlement, and continuation of the conviction and further proceedings would serve no useful purpose. Applying the principles governing exercise of inherent jurisdiction, the Court concluded that bringing the proceedings to a close would secure the ends of justice and prevent abuse of process. Since the petitioner had also sought limited relief regarding sentence, the sentence order was modified to the period already undergone. [Paras 12, 13, 14, 15, 16]
The offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act was compounded, the petition was partly allowed, and the sentence was modified to the sentence already undergone.
Final Conclusion: The Court accepted the compromise between the parties in the cheque dishonour case, compounded the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, and exercised inherent jurisdiction to terminate the surviving criminal consequences. The sentence was modified to the period already undergone and release of the petitioner was directed.
Issues: (i) whether prolonged pre-trial incarceration and alleged delay in the trial justified grant of bail despite the stringent conditions under Section 21(4) of the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999; (ii) whether parity with co-accused who had been granted bail warranted release of the petitioner.
Issue (i): whether prolonged pre-trial incarceration and alleged delay in the trial justified grant of bail despite the stringent conditions under Section 21(4) of the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999.
Analysis: The Court held that constitutional concerns under Article 21, including the right to a speedy trial, remain relevant even under special statutes such as MCOCA, but the inquiry must be structured by the statutory embargo and the prima facie material. The Court distinguished cases where delay alone had justified bail and noted that, on the record, the delay in the present case was not attributable solely to the prosecution or the Court, as several adjournments had also been taken on behalf of the accused. The case was found to be complex, involving multiple accused and witnesses, and the petitioner had already undergone substantial custody, but the Court considered the alleged role, statutory punishment, and trial trajectory together rather than treating passage of time as decisive.
Conclusion: Prolonged incarceration and delay did not, in the facts of the case, satisfy the statutory and constitutional threshold for bail, and this ground was rejected against the petitioner.
Issue (ii): whether parity with co-accused who had been granted bail warranted release of the petitioner.
Analysis: The Court compared the petitioner's role with the roles attributed to the co-accused who had been enlarged on bail and found material distinctions. The co-accused had limited or different roles, whereas the petitioner was prima facie portrayed as a co-leader of the organised crime syndicate, involved in coordination with the principal accused during his incarceration, handling proceeds of crime, and facilitating the alleged extortion machinery. The Court held that parity cannot be applied mechanically and must turn on the similarity of role and material.
Conclusion: The petitioner was not similarly situated to the co-accused granted bail, so parity was not made out.
Final Conclusion: The bail request was rejected because the petitioner's alleged central role in the syndicate and the prima facie material against her outweighed the delay-based and parity-based grounds.
Ratio Decidendi: In bail matters under special statutes like MCOCA, prolonged incarceration is a relevant but not standalone ground; it must be weighed with the statutory twin conditions, the prima facie material, the causes of delay, and the specific role attributed to the accused, while parity depends on real similarity of role and circumstances.
Bail under MCOCA - Prolonged pre-trial incarceration - Article 21 and statutory bail restrictions - Parity with co-accused - Satisfaction of Twin conditions for bail - stringent conditions under Section 21(4) - Entitlement to bail on parity with co-accused - Prima facie satisfaction - Organised crime syndicate - Accused-specific inquiry
Prolonged pre-trial incarceration - Article 21 and statutory bail restrictions - Twin conditions for bail under MCOCA - Prolonged custody of the petitioner, despite non-framing of charges, did not by itself justify bail in a prosecution under MCOCA. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that, although custody of about four and a half years without framing of charges was substantial, the constitutional plea founded on delay had to be examined in a structured manner along with the statutory rigour of Section 21(4) of MCOCA. Adopting the approach stated in decisions under UAPA and applying it to the stricter MCOCA regime, the Court held that delay is a relevant consideration but not a stand-alone ground, and must be assessed with reference to the nature of the offence, the prima facie material, the trajectory of the proceedings, the causes contributing to delay, and the role attributed to the accused. On facts, the Court found that the delay could not be attributed solely to prosecutorial or judicial inaction, as repeated adjournments had also been taken on behalf of the accused, and the case was inherently complex owing to the number of accused, witnesses and supplementary charge-sheets. The Court further held that the petitioner could not derive assistance from a possible remission claim at this stage, as the offence under MCOCA carries a sentence extending to life imprisonment. Having regard to the prima facie findings already recorded in the earlier bail judgment that the petitioner was actively coordinating the syndicate, handling proceeds of crime, and facilitating use of the mobile phone and the so-called Silent Calling App allegedly central to the extortion, the Court concluded that her attributed role was pivotal and that the material did not satisfy the statutory requirement for bail. [Paras 38, 39, 40, 41, 42]
Bail was refused on the ground of delay, the Court holding that continued custody had not become constitutionally unjustifiable in the facts of the case.
Parity with co-accused - Distinct role in organised crime syndicate - HELD THAT: - The Court held that parity was unavailable because the co-accused who had obtained bail stood on materially different footing. Their roles were found to be limited and distinct, such as facilitation through hawala channels, salaried assistance, arranging meetings, or jail-related acts, whereas the petitioner was attributed the role of co-leader of the organised crime syndicate, coordinating its affairs during the principal accused's incarceration. In view of the prima facie material already noticed against her, the Court found her case incomparable with that of the released co-accused. As regards one co-accused, the Court also noted that the Supreme Court had directed that the order granting bail was not to be cited as a precedent. [Paras 44, 46, 47]
The plea of parity was rejected.
Final Conclusion: The Court declined regular bail to the petitioner. It held that, despite substantial custody, the statutory restrictions under MCOCA were not displaced on the facts, and neither delay in the proceedings nor parity with co-accused justified release.
TaxTMI