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Issues: Whether the petition challenging the show-cause notice under the GST enactments was liable to be entertained, and whether the petitioner could raise objections as to jurisdiction and applicability of the tax laws before the authority issuing the notice.
Analysis: The notice was only a show-cause notice and the petitioner had an opportunity to file a reply. The petitioner was expressly left free to object to the jurisdiction of the Commissioner and to contend before the authority that the transaction did not fall under the CGST Act, the IGST Act, or the Jammu and Kashmir GST Act. The authority was directed to consider the reply on merits and in accordance with law, and no coercive action was to be taken until a decision was rendered.
Conclusion: The writ petition was not entertained, and the petitioner was relegated to the statutory reply and decision-making process before the Commissioner.
Ratio Decidendi: A writ petition against a show-cause notice will ordinarily not be entertained where the noticee has an effective opportunity to reply and raise jurisdictional or applicability objections before the competent authority.
Show cause notice - right to reply and adjudicatory consideration on merits - jurisdiction to issue show cause notice - applicability of CGST, IGST and J&K GST Acts - interim protection from coercive action
Show cause notice - right to reply and adjudicatory consideration on merits - Writ petition seeking quashing of the show cause notice not entertained and petitioner directed to file reply before the Commissioner. - HELD THAT: - The High Court declined to entertain the petition for quashing of the show cause notice and observed that the petitioner Bank is entitled to reply to the notice and to have that reply considered on merits by the Commissioner. The Court recorded that the Commissioner had given reasons for invoking the CGST, IGST and J&K GST enactments in the show cause notice but left the determination of those contentions to the statutory adjudicatory process. The petitioner was granted two weeks to file its reply and the Court emphasised that any reply filed shall be considered strictly in accordance with law. [Paras 2, 3, 4]
Petition not entertained; petitioner given two weeks to file reply which must be considered on merits by the Commissioner.
Jurisdiction to issue show cause notice - applicability of CGST, IGST and J&K GST Acts - The Commissioner is directed to consider and decide the contentions raised by the petitioner, including jurisdiction and applicability of the cited enactments, within a specified time frame. - HELD THAT: - The Court mandated that the Commissioner Central Goods and Services Tax, Jammu shall specifically deal with all contentions raised by the petitioner, including the question whether the transaction falls within the CGST Act, the IGST Act or the J&K GST Act and whether the Commissioner has jurisdiction to issue the show cause notice. The direction requires the authority to address these points expressly and to take an appropriate decision in accordance with law within four weeks from receipt of the reply. [Paras 4, 5]
Commissioner to consider the petitioner's reply and decide on jurisdiction and applicability of the Acts within four weeks.
Interim protection from coercive action - No coercive action to be taken against the petitioner Bank until the Commissioner takes a decision on the show cause notice. - HELD THAT: - As interim relief, the Court ordered that until the respondent Commissioner takes a decision on the show cause notice after considering the petitioner's reply, no coercive measures shall be initiated against the petitioner Bank. This protective injunction is confined to the period until the authority reaches its decision pursuant to the directions of the Court. [Paras 6]
Prohibition on coercive action against the petitioner until the Commissioner decides the matter.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition challenging the show cause notice is not entertained; the petitioner is permitted to file a reply within two weeks, the Commissioner must consider all contentions (including jurisdiction and applicability of the CGST, IGST and J&K GST enactments) and decide within four weeks, and no coercive action shall be taken against the petitioner until that decision is rendered.
Ex parte assessment - failure to assign reasons - right to be heard - opportunity of hearing - quashing of assessment order - reassessment after hearing - Section 73(9) of the CGST/DGST Act, 2017
Ex parte assessment - failure to assign reasons - right to be heard - Section 73(9) of the CGST/DGST Act, 2017 - Legality of the assessment order dated 19.03.2024 which was passed ex parte under Section 73(9) of the CGST/DGST Act, 2017. - HELD THAT: - The Court found that although the Assessing Officer recorded that the taxpayer had not responded to the show cause notice and had been given opportunities (including a reminder and a personal hearing), the final order nonetheless lacked the assignment and disclosure of reasons required before concluding an assessment. The order of 19 March 2024 therefore failed the requisite test of recording reasons and could not be sustained. On this basis the writ petition was allowed and the impugned assessment order was quashed. [Paras 3, 4, 5]
Impugned order of assessment dated 19.03.2024 quashed for failure to assign reasons and for not meeting the obligation to record reasons before finalizing assessment.
Opportunity of hearing - reassessment after hearing - quashing of assessment order - Whether the respondents may proceed to reassess after quashing the impugned order and the scope of such reassessment. - HELD THAT: - The Court expressly left open the respondents' right to draw an order of assessment afresh, subject to affording the writ petitioner an opportunity of hearing. The quashment was without prejudice to the respondents' statutory power to reassess, but any fresh assessment must follow the requirements of law, including providing hearing and recording reasons. All substantive rights and contentions on merits were kept open for determination in any fresh proceedings. [Paras 5, 6]
Respondents permitted to make a fresh assessment after affording the petitioner an opportunity of hearing; all merits preserved.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition allowed; the ex parte assessment order dated 19.03.2024 for the GST period 01-04-2018 TO 31-03-2019 is quashed for failure to assign reasons, without precluding the respondents from reassessing after affording an opportunity of hearing and complying with legal requirements.
Issues: Whether the provisional attachment order issued under Section 83 of the WBGST/CGST Act, 2017 could continue beyond one year and remain enforceable against the petitioner.
Analysis: The attachment was made under Section 83 of the Act, which provides that a provisional attachment ordinarily ceases to have effect after one year from the date of the order. The Court did not enter upon the separate controversy relating to enforcement of demand after the appeal proceedings, and instead confined itself to the statutory duration of the attachment. On the admitted chronology, the attachment order dated 13 April 2023 had crossed the one-year period and had, therefore, ceased to operate by efflux of time.
Conclusion: The provisional attachment could not be continued or enforced against the petitioner at that stage. The writ petition succeeded to that extent.
Provisional attachment under Section 83 of the WBGST/CGST Act, 2017 - Expiry of provisional attachment by efflux of time - Enforceability of attachment after expiry
Provisional attachment under Section 83 of the WBGST/CGST Act, 2017 - Expiry of provisional attachment by efflux of time - Enforceability of attachment after expiry - Provisional attachment dated 13th April, 2023 whether has ceased to have effect by efflux of time and whether it can be enforced against the petitioner - HELD THAT: - The Court examined the scheme of Section 83 and observed that a provisional attachment made under Subsection (1) ordinarily ceases to have effect after the expiry of one year from the date of the order. Applying that principle to the order of attachment dated 13th April, 2023, the Court concluded that the attachment has, by efflux of time, expired and therefore cannot be enforced against the petitioner at this stage. The Court expressly refrained from deciding the separate question whether respondents may seek to implement their demand consequent upon dismissal of the appeal, and confined its conclusion to the temporal expiry and consequent unenforceability of the provisional attachment; it clarified that this finding does not prevent the respondents from proceeding against the petitioner on any independent cause of action or from enforcing the demand in accordance with law. [Paras 6]
The provisional attachment dated 13th April, 2023 has expired by efflux of time and cannot be enforced against the petitioner; respondents remain free to proceed on independent causes of action or to enforce the demand in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition disposed of on the basis that the provisional attachment dated 13th April, 2023 has expired by efflux of time and is not enforceable against the petitioner; no order as to costs.
Confirmation of demand u/s 74 of the GST Act - applicability of clarificatory circulars were issued on 01.08.2023 and 11.10.2024 - HELD THAT:- Apparently, from the impugned order, there is no consideration of the Circulars, as such, no useful purpose would be served in relegating the petitioner to the remedy of appeal. Thus, on the limited question of the circulars, which are binding on the department, not being taken into account, the order impugned dated 21.11.2024 is set aside. The matter is remanded to the authority concerned to pass a fresh order.
While doing so, the benefit of the Circular No.200/12/2023- GST dated 01.08.2023 and Circular No.236/30/2024-GST dated 11.10.2024, as claimed by the petitioner, shall be specifically considered by the adjudicating authority. The petitioner is also permitted to file an application claiming the benefit of the said circulars indicating the manner in which he is entitled to the benefit of the said Circulars, which shall be considered by passing a fresh order.
Petition disposed off.
Challenge to the Garnishee Notice, the Show Cause Notice, and the impugned order - challenge to N/N. 56/2023-Central Tax dated 28th December 2023 and Notification No. 56/2023-State Tax, No. MGST-1524/C. R.6/Taxation-1 dated 16th January 2024 issued under Section 168A of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - HELD THAT:- The issues raised in this Writ Petition are pending adjudication in several other Writ Petitions, including Writ Petition No.5146 of 2024 and Precaution Properties Pvt. Ltd. Versus State of Maharashtra & Ors.
[2025 (3) TMI 250 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. The Hon’ble Gauhati High Court has infact already struck down these Notifications. Though on this issue, the Telangana High Court has held in favour of the Petitioner before it, the Telangana High Court came to the conclusion that because of the order of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Re-Cognizance for extension of limitation [2022 (1) TMI 385 - SC ORDER] the assessment was not time barred. This order of the Telangana High Court has been challenged before the Hon’ble Supreme Court, and which is pending adjudication. Once these are the facts, it is opined that the Petitioner has not only made out a case for admission but also for grant of interim relief.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the writ petition challenging the assessment proceedings and consequential attachment required substantive adjudication, or whether the petitioner should be relegated to the pending statutory appeal with interim protection.
Analysis: The writ petition was disposed of by directing the appellate authority to decide the pending appeal on merits within a fixed time. Pending such consideration, the orders passed by the assessing authority were directed to remain in abeyance. The Court also made it clear that no view was expressed on the merits of the dispute.
Outcome: The petition was disposed of by granting time-bound consideration of the appeal and interim protection against enforcement of the impugned orders.
Direction to appellate authority to decide appeal within a stipulated time - interim abeyance of assessment and attachment orders - right to be heard / opportunity to file submissions - no expression of opinion on merits by the Court - consequential attachment pending appellate adjudication
Direction to appellate authority to decide appeal within a stipulated time - right to be heard / opportunity to file submissions - The appellate authority was directed to consider and decide the appeal on merits within a specified timeframe after giving the petitioner due opportunity. - HELD THAT: - The Court, while declining to express any view on the merits, ordered that the Joint Commissioner (Appeals) shall consider Appeal No.372 of 2024 on its merits and pass appropriate orders in accordance with law after affording the petitioner an opportunity to be heard. The direction fixes a three-month period from receipt of a copy of the order for disposal of the appeal, thereby mandating timely adjudication by the appellate authority and ensuring observance of principles of natural justice. [Paras 5]
The Joint Commissioner (Appeals) is directed to decide the appeal on merits within three months after giving due opportunity to the petitioner.
Interim abeyance of assessment and attachment orders - consequential attachment pending appellate adjudication - no expression of opinion on merits by the Court - The orders passed by the assessing authority, including the attachment order, were ordered to be kept in abeyance pending disposal of the appeal. - HELD THAT: - In view of the direction to the appellate authority to decide the appeal expeditiously, the High Court ordered that the respondent's orders and the consequential attachment shall remain in abeyance during the interregnum. The Court expressly recorded that it had not expressed any view on the merits, leaving the appellate authority free to adjudicate the matters on their own merits. [Paras 5, 6]
The assessing authority's orders and the consequential attachment are kept in abeyance until the appeal is decided; the writ petition is disposed without expressing views on merits.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition disposed by directing the appellate authority to decide the pending appeal on merits within three months after giving the petitioner an opportunity; the assessing authority's orders, including the attachment, are kept in abeyance in the meantime; no expression of opinion on merits and no order as to costs.
Issues: Whether the impugned order declining adjustment of input tax credit on the basis of a portal-level technical error required interference and remand.
Analysis: The dispute related to assessment year 2017-2018 and turned on the appellant's claim that input tax credit available to its credit had not been reflected in the portal because of a technical glitch. The written instruction placed before the Court accepted that the tax due and input tax credit details had been incorrectly displayed as zero and stated that, if the matter was remitted, a revised order would be passed on the basis of available records and the relevant statement for the year 2017-18. In view of this development, the order under challenge and the order of the learned single Judge were set aside and the matter was sent back for fresh consideration.
Conclusion: The appellant succeeded, and the matter was remanded to the respondent for fresh notice and decision in accordance with law.
Input tax credit - technical error in GST portal - remand for fresh adjudication - exhaustion of alternative statutory remedies
Exhaustion of alternative statutory remedies - input tax credit - Validity of dismissal of the writ petition on the ground that alternate remedy before the Deputy Commissioner (GST) was not exhausted. - HELD THAT: - The learned single Judge dismissed the writ petition because the appellant had not pursued the remedy before the Deputy Commissioner (GST). The High Court found it inappropriate to allow the respondent's stand of declining adjustment solely on that procedural ground without permitting fresh consideration in light of the subsequently disclosed portal error and corrected records. Accordingly, the order of the Single Judge dismissing the writ petition on the ground of non-exhaustion of statutory remedy was set aside.
Order of the Single Judge dismissing the writ petition for non-exhaustion of alternate remedy is set aside.
Technical error in GST portal - remand for fresh adjudication - input tax credit - Consequences of the technical glitch which caused the appellant's input tax credit not to be reflected and the appropriate remedial course. - HELD THAT: - The respondent submitted a written report acknowledging a technical error which had displayed zero tax due and ITC adjusted details for the appellant's GSTR-3B for March 2017, and stating that the ITC claim and auto-populated GSTR-2A entries for March 2018 are now reflected in the 'Tax Liabilities and Comparison Statement' for 2017-18. In view of this admission and the availability of corrected records, the Court held that the matter should be remitted to the assessing officer for fresh consideration. The respondent was directed to issue a fresh notice and decide the matter in accordance with law and the available records, including the Tax Liabilities and Comparison Statement for 2017-18.
Matter remitted to the respondent for fresh notice and adjudication based on corrected portal records and the Tax Liabilities and Comparison Statement for 2017-18.
Final Conclusion: Writ appeal allowed; impugned orders set aside and the matter remitted to the respondent to issue fresh notice and decide afresh in accordance with law on the basis of the corrected portal records for the assessment period 2017-2018; no costs.
Issues: Whether refund of integrated goods and services tax paid on exports could be denied on the basis of Circular No. 37/2018-Customs dated 09.10.2018 when the refund claim was made under the integrated goods and services tax regime and the relevant rule governing refund remained applicable.
Analysis: The export was treated as a zero-rated supply and the claim for refund was founded on the statutory scheme under Sections 16 and 54 of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 read with Rule 96 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017. The circular relied upon by the Revenue was held not to prevail over the statutory rule. The prior view that the circular could not defeat the entitlement under Rule 96 had already been accepted, and the same legal position had been followed by the High Court in an earlier decision.
Conclusion: The refund could not be denied on the basis of the circular, and the order granting relief to the exporter was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The Revenue's challenge failed, and the exporter's entitlement to refund under the statutory scheme was maintained.
Ratio Decidendi: A departmental circular cannot override a statutory rule governing refund of integrated goods and services tax on zero-rated exports.
Refund of IGST - zero rated supply - duty drawback is claimed - HELD THAT:- The Hon'ble Division Bench of Gujarat High Court in M/s.Amit Cotton Industries Through Partner, Veljibhai Virjibhai Ranipa Vs Principal Commissioner of Customs [2019 (7) TMI 472 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] had categorically held that the aforesaid circular cannot prevail over Rule 96. The Hon'ble Division Bench observed that the circular will not save the situation for the Department.
This decision was followed by the Madras High Court in M/s.Precot Meridian Limited Vs The Commissioner of Customs, The Assistant Commissioner of Customs [2020 (1) TMI 90 - MADRAS HIGH COURT].
It is also informed that several other High Courts have also taken the very same view. Since the learned single Judge granted relief to the writ petitioner only by following the existing legal position, interference with the said order is not warranted.
Appeal dismissed.
1. Whether the summons issued by the Central Goods and Services Tax authorities are valid despite proceedings initiated by the State GST authoritiesRs.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS:
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
- Section 6(2)(b) of the Central Goods and Services Act, 2017
- Judgment of the Jharkhand High Court in Vivek Narsaria v State of Jharkhand (2024 SCC OnLine Jhar 50)
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
- The Court interpreted Section 6(2)(b) to prohibit parallel proceedings by different authorities on the same subject matter.
- The Court distinguished between a search/investigation and actual assessment proceedings under Sections 73 and 74 of the Act.
- The Court held that a summons issued during a search is intended to gather information and does not bar the authorities from taking further action based on the findings.
Key evidence and findings:
- Summons issued by the Central GST authorities following a search conducted on 16 January 2025.
- Proceedings initiated by the State GST authorities based on a Show Cause Notice dated 18 November 2024.
Application of law to facts:
- The Court found that Section 6(2)(b) does not prohibit the Central GST authorities from issuing summons during a search conducted post the State GST proceedings.
- The Court emphasized the distinction between a search/investigation and subsequent assessment proceedings.
Treatment of competing arguments:
- The petitioner argued that the State GST proceedings should take precedence over the Central GST summons.
- The Court rejected this argument, stating that the summons issued during a search is a preliminary step and does not hinder the authorities from further assessment.
Conclusions:
- The Court dismissed the writ petition challenging the validity of the summons issued by the Central GST authorities.
- The Court granted the petitioner liberty to request access to data stored on seized electronic devices from the competent Central GST authority for participation in the investigation.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS:
- The Court clarified that Section 6(2)(b) does not bar the Central GST authorities from issuing summons during a search, as it is a preliminary step and does not hinder subsequent assessment proceedings.
- The Court upheld the validity of the summons issued by the Central GST authorities and dismissed the writ petition challenging the same.
Validity of summons issued by the Central Goods and Services Tax authorities, despite proceedings initiated by the State GST authorities - HELD THAT:- What the statute seeks to ensure and prohibit are parallel proceedings pertaining to assessment which may be drawn in exercise of powers conferred by Sections 73 and 74 or for that matter any other proceedings akin thereto by two separate sets of authorities.
A summons issued pursuant to a search would have to be distinguished from an actual assessment that an authority may choose to undertake. This since such a summons is principally intended to elicit information in respect of material that may have been gathered or comes to light in the course thereof. A search may lead to the discovery of material and information which may not have been even available at the stage of the original assessment proceedings - A search could, hypothetically speaking, also lead to the recovery of material that never formed part of the original assessment and was unknown to the assessing authority. It could, theoretically speaking, also have a bearing on the truthfulness of the disclosures made in the course of the original proceedings.
Of equal significance are the observations of the High Court in Vivek Narsaria [2024 (1) TMI 809 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] when it held that Section 6(2)(b) is principally concerned with “a chain of a particular event” and of proceedings being “interrelated”. The search which constitutes the basis for the issuance of summons cannot possibly be construed as being related to the earlier assessments or the pending notice proceedings since, undisputedly, it was undertaken post those events.
There are no justification to interdict the summons which have been issued and which, as was noticed above, are only in aid of proceedings that may be ultimately drawn or initiated - petition dismissed.
Issues: Whether the Trial Court erred in permitting the respondent to summon a witness from the GST Department for production of GST records relating to the petitioner.
Analysis: The petition arose from an interlocutory order passed at the stage of the respondent's evidence. The record showed that the GST documents were stated to be outside the respondent's power, possession and control, and the Trial Court allowed the witness to be summoned on costs. The petitioner's objection that no list of witnesses was on record was not found sufficient to prevent the respondent from leading evidence in support of its case. The Court held that the plaintiff has the burden to prove its case and is entitled to decide which witness is required for that purpose, while questions of relevance can be examined when the evidence is actually led.
Conclusion: No infirmity was found in the Trial Court's order permitting summoning of the GST Department witness, and the petition was dismissed.
Trial court's discretion to summon thirdparty witnesses and public officers - onus of proof rests on the plaintiff - right of a party to summon witnesses to prove its case - judicial restraint in appellate interference with discretionary orders - conditioning attendance of summoned witnesses on payment of costs
Trial court's discretion to summon thirdparty witnesses and public officers - right of a party to summon witnesses to prove its case - judicial restraint in appellate interference with discretionary orders - Validity of the trial court's order permitting the plaintiff to summon a witness from the GST Department for production of GST records - HELD THAT: - The petition challenged the Trial Court's order dated 08.10.2024 which allowed the plaintiff to procure attendance of a witness from the GST Department for production of GST records on the ground that no list of witnesses was on record. The High Court noted that the suit was at the stage of the plaintiff's evidence and that the GST records were not in the possession, power or control of the plaintiff. The Court emphasised that the onus to establish the plaintiff's case lies on the plaintiff, who is entitled to decide which witnesses to summon and what records to seek. The High Court observed that if the summoned record is found irrelevant it would not be considered, but at the interlocutory stage the plaintiff cannot be prevented from summoning witnesses to prove its case in its chosen manner. Having found no judicial infirmity in the Trial Court's exercise of discretion, the High Court declined to interfere with the order.
Petition dismissed; impugned order allowing summons of GST Department witness upheld.
Conditioning attendance of summoned witnesses on payment of costs - Applications for exemption from filing formalities (CM Appls. 72101-02/2024) and related interim relief (CM(M) 4029/2024 & CM Appl. 72103/2024) - HELD THAT: - The Court allowed the applications for exemptions subject to all just exceptions and disposed of those applications. In relation to the stay applications, the Court recorded the Trial Court's condition that the summoned GST witness's attendance would be subject to payment of costs and proceeded to dismiss the petition impugning the summons order.
CM Appls. 72101-02/2024 allowed (exemptions) and disposed of; stay applications refused in substance as the petition challenging the summons order was dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The High Court dismissed the petition challenging the Trial Court's order permitting the plaintiff to summon a witness from the GST Department, finding no infirmity in the exercise of discretion; applications for exemptions were allowed and the related stay challenge was unsuccessful.
Issues: Whether the order denying input tax credit under Sections 16(2)(c) and 16(4) of the CGST/SGST Acts required interference and whether the petitioner's claim had to be reconsidered in the light of Section 16(5) and the directions in M. Trade Links.
Analysis: The order rejecting the claim for input tax credit was set aside. The respondent was directed to pass fresh orders taking note of Section 16(5) of the CGST/SGST Acts, notified with effect from 27-09-2024, and to extend the benefit of the directions contained in paragraph 101 of M. Trade Links. No opinion was expressed on the merits of the petitioner's entitlement, leaving the competent authority to reconsider the claim afresh in accordance with the relevant statutory provisions and circulars.
Conclusion: The petitioner succeeded to the extent of securing setting aside of the impugned order and a fresh consideration of the input tax credit claim.
Denial of input tax credit on account of the provisions contained in Sections 16(2)(c) and 16(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax/State Goods and Services Tax Acts, 2017 (CGST/SGST Acts) for the period from October 2018 to March 2019 - HELD THAT:- This writ petition will stand disposed of setting aside Ext.P2 order and directing the respondent to pass fresh orders taking note of the provisions contained in sub-section (5) of Section 16 of the CGST/SGST Acts, which has been notified with effect from 27-09-2024, and also extending to the petitioner the benefit of the directions issued by this Court in paragraph No.101 of the judgment of this Court in M. Trade Links [2024 (6) TMI 288 - KERALA HIGH COURT].
Petition disposed off.
Outcome: The appeal was rejected for want of the complete set of supporting documents necessary to decide the matter.
Exemption from service tax - lump-sum amount received for Health care Services to be provided for 20 years by the applicant as “Diamond Plan” - applicability of Sr. No. 74 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax. - HELD THAT:- The appellant has now vide Annexures H and I to the appeal papers, attached only a single sheet of paper listing out the details of Diamond plan and has also submitted a copy of the bill of supply No. 3/2021-22 dated 12.8.2021, issued to one of their customers.
The only option left is to reject the appeal filed by the appellant on the grounds that they have not provided the relevant documents to enable us to decide the matter.
Appeal rejected.
Appropriate classification & rate of GST applicable on supply of PVC floor mats [Cars] under CGST and GGST - HELD THAT:- The PVC floor mats for use in cars supplied by the applicant is classifiable under CTH 8708 & would be leviable to GST @ 28%.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether treated water obtained from a common effluent treatment plant and classifiable under Chapter 2201 was entitled to exemption as "water" under Serial No. 99 of Notification No. 2/2017-Central Tax (Rate), as amended, or was taxable under Serial No. 24 of Schedule III.
Analysis: The treated water was found to be supplied for industrial use and not for public drinking purposes. The appellate authority declined to rely on the laboratory certificate produced for the first time in appeal, noting the absence of proof that the laboratory was accredited and the absence of material showing proper sampling. The authority also held that advance rulings cited by the appellant did not assist it, as an advance ruling is binding only on the applicant and the concerned officers. The circulars relied upon were distinguished on the ground that they dealt with drinking water for public purposes and treated sewage water, and did not alter the conclusion reached on the facts of the present case.
Conclusion: Treated water obtained from the CETP was held not eligible for exemption under Serial No. 99 and was held taxable at 18% under Serial No. 24 of Schedule III. The appeal was not accepted and the impugned ruling was upheld.
Classification of goods - Treated Water’ obtained from CETP - exemption from GST by virtue of SI. No. 99 of the Exemption Notification No. 02/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), dated 28-6-2017 (as amended) - HELD THAT:- The appellant has not controverted the findings except for the averment that it is not a de-mineralized water. The appellant has also produced a laboratory certificate, which was not produced before the GAAR. It is not inclined to accept the certificate produced by the appellant because [a] the same is being produced at an appellate stage; [b] the certificate nowhere states that the laboratory is an accredited laboratory and [c] there is no mention about the manner in which the sample was drawn. It goes without saying that drawal of sample is sacrosanct, failing which the credibility of the results is questionable.
The Tamilnadu Authority for Advance Ruling has held that treated water obtained from CETP, is de-mineralized water and will therefore not be eligible for the benefit of the notification Nos. No. 2/2017-CT(R) dated 28.6.2017 as amended vide notification No. 7/2022-CT(R) dated 13.7.2022, in the case of M/s. Mannarai CETP P Ltd. [2024 (7) TMI 358 - AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING, TAMILNADU].
While circular No. 52/26/2018-GST dated, 9.8.2018, clarifies that supply of drinking water for public purposes, if it is not supplied in a sealed container, is exempt from GST, likewise, circular no. 179/11/2022-GST dated 3.8.2022 clarified that supply of treated sewage water, falling under heading 2201, is exempt under GST and that the word ‘purified’ is being omitted from the above-mentioned entry vide notification No. 7/2022-Central Tax (Rate), dated 13.7.2022.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) whether the lump sum EPC contract could be treated as a divisible contract so as to separate the supply of imported materials from the works contract; (ii) whether the value of goods sold on high seas sale basis could be excluded from the transaction value of the works contract and kept outside GST under Schedule III; and (iii) whether the supply of imported materials formed part of the composite supply and the works contract for GST purposes.
Issue (i): whether the lump sum EPC contract could be treated as a divisible contract so as to separate the supply of imported materials from the works contract;
Analysis: The contract was held to be a single lump sum turnkey EPC contract. The appellant was contractually bound to supply both goods and services, and the attempt to split the contract into separate supplies of goods and services was found not legally tenable.
Conclusion: The contract was not held to be divisible, and the separation of imported materials from the EPC works contract was rejected.
Issue (ii): whether the value of goods sold on high seas sale basis could be excluded from the transaction value of the works contract and kept outside GST under Schedule III;
Analysis: High seas sale was treated as neither a supply of goods nor a supply of services under Schedule III read with section 7(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. However, because the appellant remained contractually obliged to supply the goods under the EPC arrangement, their value was held to form part of the transaction value under section 15, including section 15(2)(b), for computing GST on the works contract.
Conclusion: The value of the high seas sale goods was not excluded from the works contract value and was held includible in the taxable transaction value.
Issue (iii): whether the supply of imported materials formed part of the composite supply and the works contract for GST purposes.
Analysis: The authorities below had already found that the EPC arrangement encompassed both goods and services and that the imported materials were integral to the overall contractual supply. No material was shown to displace that finding, and the reliance on contrary case law was not accepted on the facts.
Conclusion: The imported materials were held to form part of the composite supply and the works contract.
Final Conclusion: The advance ruling was affirmed, the appeal failed, and the GST treatment of the EPC arrangement, including inclusion of the imported goods value in the works contract valuation, was sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a contractor is contractually obliged to supply both goods and services under a lump sum EPC contract, the contract cannot be artificially split, and the value of goods supplied as part of that obligation is includible in the transaction value for GST even if the goods are routed through a high seas sale.
Valuation of work contract service for charging GST - transaction of sale of goods by Tecnimont Pvt. Ltd. (TCMPL) to Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. (IOCL) on High Seas Sale basis in terms of Contract No. 44AC9100-EPCC-1 would be covered under Entry No. 8(b) of Schedule III of the CGST Act or not.
Divisible contract or not - HELD THAT:- The GAAR vide its impugned ruling dated 5.1.2024 after dwelling into what is a works contract in terms of section 2(119), ibid, and further relying on the judgement of Kone Elevator India Private Limited [2014 (5) TMI 265 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] held that [i] works contract for EPC work pertaining to EPCC-1 project; & [ii] supply of imported materials for the said project, is a lumpsum turnkey EPC contract & hence division of a turnkey EPC contract into two parts, is legally not tenable.
The reliance of the appellant on the judgement of BSNL [2006 (3) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT]and Gannon Dunkerley & Co., [1958 (4) TMI 42 - SUPREME COURT], to aver that it is a divisible contract is not tenable owing to the fact that in terms of the contract the applicant was contractually bound/liable to supply both the goods and services.
Levy of tax on that part of the goods which are sold on HSS basis - HELD THAT:- In terms of Schedule III, read with section 7 (2) of the CGST Act, 2017, supply on High Sea Sale basis, is treated as neither a supply of goods nor a supply of services. It is found that the impugned ruling clearly states that the EPC contract encompasses both the supply of goods and services and that in terms of the contract, the appellant is liable to provide the goods [supplied on HSS basis]. Therefore, the submission that the value is not to be included in the transaction value in respect of works contract service is legally not tenable more so since as is already mentioned, the applicant is contractually bound/liable to supply both the goods and the services. The averments even otherwise, stand answered in paragraph 34 of the impugned ruling. Hence, the finding that in terms of section 15, ibid, the value of such imported goods invariably forms an integral part of the Transaction value, agreed upon. Thus, the averment that the GAAR had mis-interpreted the provisions of section 15 (2) (b) of the CGST Act, 2017 is not a plausible argument.
Conclusion - i) The value of goods sold on HSS basis should be included in the transaction value for GST calculation. ii) The sale of goods on HSS basis was determined to be neither a supply of goods nor services under the CGST Act.
Appeal dismissed.
Outcome: Delay in refiling was condoned, but the special leave petition was dismissed on the ground of delay as well as on merits, with pending applications disposed of.
Bogus purchases - bogus accommodation bills - hawala transactions from certain parties who were only providing accommodation sale bills - delay filling SLP
As decided by HC [2022 (2) TMI 1482 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] purchases cannot be rejected without disturbing the sales in case of a trader and additions limited to the extent of bringing the G.P. rate on purchases at the same rate of other genuine purchases.
HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 628 days in filing this Special Leave Petition. Following the order passed by this Court in Hasmukh J Visaria [2024 (3) TMI 1415 - SC ORDER] this Special Leave Petition also stands dismissed both on the ground of delay as well as on merits.
Issues: Whether the proposed substantial question of law arose for admission in respect of transfer pricing adjustment and whether benchmarking of the adjustment could be confined to associated enterprise transactions rather than the entire turnover.
Analysis: The appeal concerned assessment year 2009-10. The Court noted that earlier coordinate bench decisions had already held that benchmarking for transfer pricing purposes is to be carried out only with reference to associated enterprise or related party transactions and not on the basis of the entire turnover. It further noted that the issue had already been treated as concluded against the Revenue in prior decisions, and that the proposed question therefore did not survive as a substantial question of law.
Conclusion: The proposed question was answered against the Revenue and in favour of the assessee; the appeal was not admitted and stood dismissed.
Ratio Decidendi: Transfer pricing adjustment must be confined to associated enterprise transactions, and once the issue is settled by binding coordinate bench precedent, no substantial question of law arises for admission.
TP Adjustment - ITAT is justified in restricting the adjustment only on international transactions where the assessee has selected TNMM and applied the same on entity level - HELD THAT:- Although it is correct that Income Tax Appeal [2024 (9) TMI 1703 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] we cannot overlook the fact that at that time, the decisions in Spicer India Ltd. [2023 (7) TMI 139 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and Hindustan Unilever Ltd. [2016 (7) TMI 1245 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] had not been delivered. The decisions of the Coordinate Bench hold that benchmarking should be done only on associated enterprise or related party transactions and not with respect to the entire turnover.
In fact, in Hindustan Unilever Ltd. (supra.), the learned counsel for the revenue had fairly stated that this issue concerning transfer pricing adjustment stood concluded against the revenue and in favour of the assessee by decisions of this Court in Tara Jewellers Exports (P) Ltd. [2015 (12) TMI 1130 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], Petro Araldite (P.) Ltd. [2015 (11) TMI 1628 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]
There is no point in admitting this appeal, which now no longer raises any substantial question of law.
The primary issue considered by the Court was whether the reopening of the assessment for the Assessment Year 2014-2015 under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, was justified. Specifically, the Court examined whether the reopening was based on tangible material or merely a change of opinion, which is impermissible under the law. The Court also considered whether the assessment completed on 31.03.2016 was erroneous or prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue, thereby justifying the reopening of the assessment.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Legal Framework and Precedents:
The legal framework for reopening assessments is governed by Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which requires the Assessing Officer to have "reason to believe" that income has escaped assessment. The Court referenced several precedents, including the Supreme Court's decision in Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi Vs. Kelvinator of India Limited, which emphasized that reopening based on a mere change of opinion is not permissible. The Court also cited other cases, such as Kalyanji Mavji and Co. Vs. Commissioner of Income Tax and Indian and Eastern Newspaper Society Vs. CIT, to elucidate the scope of "reason to believe" and the impermissibility of reopening assessments based on a change of opinion.
2. Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
The Court found that the reopening of the assessment was based on a change of opinion rather than any new tangible material. The Court observed that the Assessing Officer had already considered the material facts during the original assessment completed on 31.03.2016. The search conducted on 03.09.2013 and the subsequent proceedings under Section 153A had already been accounted for in the assessment, and the amounts seized were considered in the returns filed by the petitioner.
3. Key Evidence and Findings:
The Court noted that during the search conducted on 03.09.2013, cash and gold were seized from the petitioner and associated entities. The petitioner had filed a return on 22.02.2016, declaring an income of Rs. 2,34,86,595/-, which was accepted in the assessment order dated 31.03.2016. The Court found no evidence of any failure by the petitioner to disclose material facts necessary for the assessment.
4. Application of Law to Facts:
The Court applied the legal principles established in the precedents to the facts of the case, concluding that the reopening of the assessment was not justified. The Court emphasized that the Assessing Officer had already formed an opinion based on the available material during the original assessment, and the reopening was prompted by a mere change of opinion.
5. Treatment of Competing Arguments:
The petitioner argued that the reopening was based on a change of opinion, supported by precedents that prohibit such action. The respondents contended that the income had escaped assessment and cited various cases to support their position. However, the Court found the petitioner's arguments more persuasive, noting that the original assessment had already considered the relevant material and that the reopening was not based on any new information.
6. Conclusions:
The Court concluded that the reopening of the assessment was unjustified and based on a change of opinion. The Impugned Order dated 11.02.2022 and the Notice dated 31.03.2021 were quashed.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
1. Core Principles Established:
The Court reiterated the principle that reopening an assessment under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, requires tangible material and cannot be based on a mere change of opinion. The Court emphasized the need for a "live link" between the new information and the belief that income has escaped assessment.
2. Final Determinations on Each Issue:
The Court determined that the reopening of the assessment for the Assessment Year 2014-2015 was not justified, as it was based on a change of opinion. The Court quashed the Impugned Order and Notice, allowing the writ petition.
Validity of reopening of assessment - reasons to believe - search proceedings and the seizure made pursuant to the search conducted - HELD THAT:- The assessment order that was passed on 31.03.2016 u/s 143(3) of Income Tax Act, 1961, may have given rise to an option either to invoke the machinery of revision under Section 263 of the Income Tax Act, on the ground that the assessment order dated 31.03.2016, passed under Section 143(3) of the Income Tax Act, was both erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the revenue, or that there was income that had escaped assessment.
Although there was no suppression of fact in the return that was filed on 22.02.2016, merely because amounts were recovered from the petitioner, the associate firms, and related party, itself would not justify the conclusion that there was failure on the part of the petitioner to fully disclose all materials that were required for passing the assessment order dated 31.03.2016, and there should have been a live link between the information that was surfaced for issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, to reopen the assessment and to pass fresh re-assessment order under Section 147 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
To invoke the machinery under Section 148 of the IT Act as it stood till 31.03.2021, the Courts have repeatedly held that the term “reason to believe” means that Assessing Officer must have some tangible material passing before assuming jurisdiction under Section 147 of the IT Act. A reference is made to Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi Vs. Kelvinator of India Ltd. [2010 (1) TMI 11 - SUPREME COURT]
The dispute in the present case pertains to the Assessment Year 2014-2015. It can therefore hardly be said that the Assessing Officer was unaware of the search proceedings and the seizure made pursuant to the search conducted on 03.09.2013 resulting in seizure of a sum of Rs. 1,77,50,045/- from the petitioner Firm, and a sum of Rs. 50,00,000/- from the petitioner's partner, and gold worth of Rs. 38,69,168/-, which was recovered from M/s.VIP City. Writ Petition is allowed.
The core legal issue considered in this judgment is whether the disallowance of depreciation claimed on goodwill under Section 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, post-demerger, was sustainable in law. The Court examined the applicability of the Fifth Proviso to Section 32(1) concerning the aggregate deduction for depreciation in the context of a demerger.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
The legal framework revolves around Section 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which allows depreciation on tangible and intangible assets, including goodwill, and the Fifth Proviso that restricts aggregate depreciation claims in cases of succession, amalgamation, or demerger. The Court relied on precedents, including the Supreme Court's decision in Smifs Securities Ltd., which recognized goodwill as an intangible asset eligible for depreciation.
The Court's interpretation focused on the Fifth Proviso to Section 32(1), which limits aggregate depreciation claims to the amount that would have been allowable had the succession, amalgamation, or demerger not occurred. The Proviso applies only in the year of such corporate restructuring and not in subsequent years.
The Tribunal had accepted the position that goodwill is an intangible asset eligible for depreciation, referencing the Supreme Court's judgment in Smifs Securities. However, it based its decision on the Fifth Proviso, which the Court found inapplicable to the assessment years in question (2015-16 and 2016-17) since the demerger occurred in FY 2013-14.
The Court examined evidence, including the Scheme of Arrangement and the Tribunal's findings, which showed goodwill was recorded in the appellant's books in FY 2013-14. The depreciation claim for subsequent years was based on the written down value (WDV) of goodwill.
Competing arguments included the respondents' reliance on Section 43, which prescribes the computation of WDV. However, the Tribunal did not address this aspect, focusing solely on the Fifth Proviso's applicability.
The Court concluded that the Fifth Proviso was not applicable to the assessment years in question, as it pertains only to the year of succession, amalgamation, or demerger. It emphasized that the Tribunal's decision was based on an incorrect interpretation of the Proviso.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Court held that the Fifth Proviso to Section 32(1) restricts aggregate depreciation claims only in the year of succession, amalgamation, or demerger, not in subsequent years. This interpretation aligns with judgments from the Karnataka High Court in Padmini Products (P) Ltd. and the Bombay High Court in Dharmanandan Diamonds (P) Ltd.
The Court set aside the Tribunal's order and remitted the matter for fresh examination, emphasizing that the Tribunal should consider the issue of WDV computation as per Section 43, which was not addressed in the original decision.
The appeal was allowed, and the Tribunal was directed to re-evaluate the case in light of the Court's observations, particularly regarding the applicability of the Fifth Proviso and the computation of WDV.
Depreciation claimed on goodwill u/s 32, albeit post demerger - depreciation claimed by the appellant for AYs 2015-16 and 2016-17 - HELD THAT:- We are concerned with a Scheme which came into effect in FY 2013-14 and the Proviso thus being pertinent only for AY 2014-15. The said provision could have had no bearing on the issue of depreciation claimed by the appellant in AY 2015-16 or 2016-17.
As decided in Padmini Products (P) Ltd. [2020 (10) TMI 424 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] 5th proviso to Sec 32 of the Act restricts aggregate deduction both by the predecessor and the successor and if in a particular year there is no aggregate deduction, the 5th proviso does not apply. Thus, it is axiomatic that until and unless it is the case of aggregate deduction, the proviso has no role to play. The 5th proviso in any case will apply only in the year of succession and not in subsequent years and also in respect of overall quantum of depreciation in the year of succession.
Tribunal has failed to even notice or examine the issue from that angle. Its judgment is based solely on the applicability of the Fifth Proviso to Section 32 (1) and which we, in any case, have found was clearly not germane to AYs 2015-16 and 2016-17.
In view of the above in our considered opinion, therefore, the ends of justice would warrant the matter being remitted to the board of the Tribunal for examining the appeal afresh and bearing in mind the issue which stands flagged hereinabove.
We accordingly allow the instant appeal and set aside the Order of the Tribunal dated 03 February 2023.
Issues: Whether the rejection of the application seeking condonation of delay in filing Form 10-IC under Section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for availing the concessional tax regime under Section 115BAA, was justified.
Analysis: The petitioner had already exercised the option for taxation under Section 115BAA in the return and had foregone the deductions contemplated by that provision. The delay in filing Form 10-IC was attributed to the pandemic period and the consequent remote functioning of the tax department, and the record disclosed substantial compliance with the conditions of the concessional regime. The governing power under Section 119(2)(b) is to be exercised to avoid genuine hardship, and the failure to permit filing of Form 10-IC would defeat the benefit already opted for in substance.
Conclusion: The rejection of condonation was unsustainable and the petitioner was entitled to be permitted to upload Form 10-IC, with the claim under Section 115BAA to be considered on merits.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the authorities were directed to enable filing of Form 10-IC and then decide the petitioner's claim under the concessional tax regime in accordance with law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an assessee has substantially complied with the conditions for a concessional tax regime and denial of procedural relaxation would cause genuine hardship, the power under Section 119(2)(b) must be exercised to permit belated compliance.
Condonation of delay in filing Form 10-IC as required to avail the concessional tax rate prescribed u/s 115BAA - HELD THAT:- This Court, after carefully considering the submissions and examining the scope, purport and object of Section 119 (2) (b), finds that identical submissions were made before this Court and the same was rejected in[2024 (11) TMI 1434 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] as held Respondent Authority/Board has completely mis-directed itself in not examining if the failure to consider the claim of option to discharge tax under Section 115BAA on the ground of failure on the fact of the petitioner to file Form 10-IC within the period stipulated under Section 115BAA would cause “genuine hardship” to the petitioner/assessee and thus it is desirable as expedient to permit the petitioner to file Form 10-IC in support of its option under Section 115BAA and deal with the same on merit. The facts narrated supra leaves no room for doubt that the rejection of the petition under Section 119 (2) (b) to permit the petitioner to file Form 10-IC in support of its exercise of option under Section 115BAA of the Act would cause genuine hardship and it is desirable and expedient to permit the petitioner to file Form 10-IC in support of its claim / option under Section 115BAA of the Act and deal with such claim on merits in accordance with law.
The impugned order is set-aside, the respondent shall keep the portal open to enable the petitioner to upload the Form 10-IC and the petitioner shall file the Form 10-IC within a period of four weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
The core legal questions considered in this judgment revolve around the procedural compliance with the Faceless Assessment Scheme under Section 144B of the Income Tax Act, 1961, particularly regarding the issuance of a draft assessment order and the opportunity for the assessee to respond to variations proposed in the assessment. The issues include:
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Compliance with Section 144B of the Income Tax Act
2. Invocation of Writ Jurisdiction under Article 226
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The judgment underscores the importance of adhering to statutory procedures in tax assessments to ensure fairness and transparency, reinforcing the role of courts in safeguarding procedural justice through writ jurisdiction when necessary.
Procedure of faceless assessment u/s 144B - absence of show cause notice - HELD THAT:- The entire faceless assessment scheme provides for an opportunity to be given to the assessee whenever there is a proposed variation from the earlier determination of assessment prejudicial to the interest of the assessee. Therefore, the absence of such a show cause notice would clearly be a violation of the principles of natural justice, rendering the Assessment Order passed as void.
In the present case, the perusal of the e-proceeding sheet clearly indicates that, after having issued notice u/s 148, the Respondent issued only two notices; one u/s 143(2) dated 21.05.2021 and another issued on 15.02.2022 u/s 142(1), which simply called for the details, and as such, the same were pre-assessment notices as envisaged in clause (vi) of Section 144B(1).
The entire procedure subsequent to obtaining further information, documents or evidence has not been gone through in case of the Petitioner, and straightaway, the impugned assessment has been finalized. Thus, there has been a blatant violation of the mandatory procedure prescribed under the Faceless Assessment Scheme as stipulated u/s.144B of the Act as held in case of Akashganga Infraventures Indi Ltd. Vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre [2021 (8) TMI 1343 - DELHI HIGH COURT]
Thus, the present petition succeeds and is accordingly allowed. The matter is remanded back to the AO by quashing and setting aside the impugned assessment order as well as demand notice u/s 156 of the Act, as well as the notice for penalty u/s 271(1)(C) read with Section 274.
Issues: Whether penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sustainable where the assessee's claim for expenses towards the objects of the trust had been disallowed and the resultant addition did not amount to concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars.
Analysis: The addition arose from disallowance of expenses claimed by the trust after denial of exemption under section 11. The disallowance was held to relate to a claim made on the basis of the assessee's return and accounts, and not to any suppression of income or false particulars. On the facts, the materials did not bring the case within the mischief of section 271(1)(c).
Conclusion: The penalty was not leviable and the levy confirmed by the first appellate authority was cancelled.
Final Conclusion: The assessee's appeal succeeded and the penalty order did not survive.
Ratio Decidendi: Mere disallowance of an expense claim, without concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars, does not justify penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) - AO denying the exemption u/s 11 of the Act and disallowing the expenses towards the object of the assessee trust - HELD THAT:- Expenses claimed by the assessee was disallowed by the AO which neither falls under the realm of concealment of income nor filing of inaccurate particulars of income and hence under these facts and circumstances, penalty cannot be levied u/s 271(1)(c) of the Act. Consequently, we hereby cancel the levy of penalty imposed by the AO and confirmed by the learned CIT(A). Accordingly, grounds raised by the assessee are allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the addition of Rs. 84,040 under section 69B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was to be sustained or required verification of the assessee's claim regarding loan funds; (ii) Whether the addition under section 56(2)(x) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, arising from the difference between the stated purchase consideration and stamp duty valuation, was to be sustained without a valuation reference; (iii) Whether the penalty under section 271AAC(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, could survive when the foundation addition was remitted for reconsideration.
Issue (i): Whether the addition of Rs. 84,040 under section 69B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was to be sustained or required verification of the assessee's claim regarding loan funds.
Analysis: The amount sustained by the appellate authority turned on a factual discrepancy in the loan figure claimed by the assessee. The record indicated a possible difference between the loan actually received and the amount considered in the assessment, and the assessee was required to be given an opportunity to place supporting material.
Conclusion: The issue was remanded to the Assessing Officer for verification, and the addition was not finally sustained.
Issue (ii): Whether the addition under section 56(2)(x) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, arising from the difference between the stated purchase consideration and stamp duty valuation, was to be sustained without a valuation reference.
Analysis: The assessee had sought consideration of the third proviso to section 56(2)(x) and requested a reference to the Departmental Valuation Officer. That request had not been dealt with at the appellate stage, and the valuation issue required fresh examination in accordance with the statutory safeguard.
Conclusion: The issue was restored to the Assessing Officer with a direction to refer the property valuation to the DVO, and the addition was not finally upheld.
Issue (iii): Whether the penalty under section 271AAC(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, could survive when the foundation addition was remitted for reconsideration.
Analysis: The penalty arose from the additions made under sections 69B and 115BBE, but the principal addition remained pending fresh verification to the extent of Rs. 84,040. The penalty therefore depended upon the final outcome of that addition.
Conclusion: The penalty issue was also restored to the Assessing Officer for reconsideration.
Final Conclusion: The additions and the consequential penalty were sent back for fresh consideration, and the assessee obtained relief in the form of remand on all contested issues.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the computation of an addition depends on unresolved factual verification or a statutorily available valuation reference, the matter should be remanded for fresh adjudication, and any consequential penalty must follow the final determination of the underlying addition.
Addition u/s 69B for the purchase of immovable property - difference in the Loan amount and consideration for the purchase of immovable property - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) considered the loan amount as received from ICICI Bank. However, the assessee contended that the actual loan amount was Rs. 30,00,000/-. Upon review, we find that there is a factual discrepancy in this regard. Therefore, we remit the matter to the file of the Ld. AO for verification of the addition granting the assessee an opportunity to furnish any relevant evidence or documents during the set-aside assessment proceedings.
Addition u/s 56(2)(x) - assessee purchased the property less than stamp duty valuation - HELD THAT:- As assessee had already requested before the CIT(A) that the valuation be considered in accordance with the Third Proviso to Section 56(2)(x) of the Act. However, we find that the CIT(A) passed the order without considering this aspect. Accordingly, we remit the matter to the file of the Ld. AO for reconsideration of the issue. AO is directed to refer the valuation of the property to the DVO, taking into account the provisions of the Third Proviso to Section 56(2)(x) of the Act.
The primary issues considered in this judgment are:
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Validity of Reopening under Section 147
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents:
Section 147 of the Income Tax Act allows for the reopening of an assessment if the Assessing Officer (AO) has reason to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. The proviso to this section stipulates that if an assessment has been made under section 143(3), no action can be taken after four years unless the income has escaped assessment due to the failure of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts.
The Court referenced several precedents, including the Supreme Court's decision in Asstt. CIT v. Rajesh Jhaveri Stock Brokers (P.) Ltd. and Phool Chand Bajrang Lal v/s ITO, which emphasize the necessity of tangible material for reopening and the requirement that the reasons for reopening must be based on new information not previously considered.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
The Court found that the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment did not allege any failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts. The Court emphasized that reasons must be read as recorded by the AO, without any additions or substitutions, and must clearly state the failure to disclose material facts to justify reopening after four years.
Key Evidence and Findings:
The Court noted that the reasons for reopening were based on a re-examination of the same records that were available during the original assessment under section 143(3). No new or tangible material was presented to justify the reopening of the assessment.
Application of Law to Facts:
The Court applied the proviso to section 147, determining that the conditions for reopening after four years were not met because there was no allegation or evidence of the assessee's failure to disclose material facts. The reopening was deemed to be based on a change of opinion rather than new information.
Treatment of Competing Arguments:
The Court rejected the Revenue's argument that the AO had a prima facie belief of income escaping assessment due to excessive relief claimed by the assessee. The Court found that the reasons for reopening did not support this claim, as they lacked any mention of the assessee's failure to disclose material facts.
Conclusions:
The Court concluded that the reopening of the assessment was invalid due to the absence of any new or tangible material and the lack of any allegation of failure to disclose material facts by the assessee. Consequently, the reassessment proceedings were quashed.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Preserve Verbatim Quotes of Crucial Legal Reasoning:
The Court cited the Hon'ble Jurisdictional High Court in Hindustan Lever Ltd v/s R.B. Wadkar: "The reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer nowhere state that there was failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts necessary for the assessment of that assessment year. It is needless to mention that the reasons are required to be read as they were recorded by the Assessing Officer. No substitution or deletion is permissible."
Core Principles Established:
The judgment reinforces the principle that reopening an assessment after four years requires a clear allegation of failure to disclose material facts, and reasons for reopening must be based on new, tangible material not previously considered.
Final Determinations on Each Issue:
The Court quashed the reassessment proceedings and the assessment order passed under section 143(3) r/w section 147 of the Act due to the invalidity of the reopening. The other grounds raised by the assessee were rendered academic and left open.
The appeal by the assessee was allowed, and the order was pronounced in open Court on 04/03/2025.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - reasons to believe - notice after the expiry of 4 years - denying the claim made u/s 90 - HELD THAT:- There is no dispute that a return of income was filed by the assessee u/s 139(1) - from the perusal of the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment, as noted above, we find that there is not even an allegation by the AO that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment due to failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts.
From the perusal of the order disposing the assessee’s objections against the reopening of assessment, we find that it was for the first time there was any whisper of the allegation that there was gross failure on the part of the assessee to disclose all the material facts fully and truly. Therefore, it is ostensible that the reasons recorded while initiating the re-assessment proceedings were completely silent as regards the allegation that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment due to failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts, and vide order disposing the assessee’s objections, the AO tried to improve upon the reasons by making the allegation, which is completely impermissible.
From the perusal of the reasons recorded there is not even a mention of any new or tangible material which formed the basis to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment during the year under consideration. We find that the entire edifice of the impugned re-assessment proceedings is based on the perusal of case records which were already considered during the scrutiny assessment proceedings concluded u/s 143(3) of the Act.
This aspect is further evident from order passed u/s 143(3) r/w section 147, wherein the AO completely denied the claim made under section 90, after noting that partial relief was granted to the assessee vide order dated 16/03/2015 passed u/s 143(3) of the Act.
Thus re-assessment proceedings initiated by the AO, in the present case, are bad in law on more than one count and are not in conformity with the provisions of section 147 - Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the adjustment reducing the carry-forward loss under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act was justified on the basis of an alleged mismatch between the return of income and the tax audit report regarding the GST refund.
Analysis: The assessee had disclosed the amount as refund of value added tax / GST, and the audit report separately indicated that no amount fell within the scope of section 28. The mismatch was found to have arisen because the processing authority treated the GST refund information as an item falling under the provision dealing with business income, although the material on record showed it was a factual error in processing and not a correct basis for reducing the loss to be carried forward.
Conclusion: The adjustment was held to be unsustainable and the reduction in carry-forward loss was directed to be deleted, in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The addition made while processing the return was set aside and the assessee's claim for carry-forward loss was restored.
Ratio Decidendi: A processing adjustment under section 143(1) cannot be sustained where the alleged mismatch is only the result of a factual misunderstanding of the disclosure and audit report materials, and not a valid statutory basis for disallowance.
Reduction in the current year loss eligible to be carried forward - addition made in the intimation passed u/s 143(1) of the Act by CPC, Bangalore - HELD THAT:- We find that the assessee has shown refund of value added tax which was admitted by the authority concerned. In the tax auditors report same was duly reported.
As stated that the amount falling within the scope of Section 28 was ₹ Nil. We also note that assessee has stated that the goods and service tax was not rooted through the profit and loss account.
Considering these facts, we find merit in the contention of the ld. AR that the information furnished by the assessee in the tax report qua the refund of GST admitted by the authority concerned has been mistook and misunderstood by the CPC, Bangalore to be item falling under Para 16a which is qua the item falling within the scope of 28 of the Act.
Since, this is a factual mistake committed by the CPC, Bangalore at the time of processing which the CIT (A) failed to appreciate and rectify during the appellate proceedings. The order passed by the ld. CIT (A) is incorrect and accordingly, set aside order and the AO is directed to delete the adjustment made by the AO. The appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - reasons to believe - addition u/s 68 - HELD THAT:- On perusal of the above reasons, we observe that the ld. AO has not completely mentioned the details of transactions which the assessee has entered into during the impugned year as accommodation entries such as the particulars as to person from whom/ entity from whom the money was received and when it was received etc.
AO merely reproduced the information available with the department and recorded his so-called satisfaction in one line that on the basis of information available, the assessee has taken accommodation entry which in our opinion is wrong and against the provisions of the Act.
The reasons are sanctity, unambiguous and vague and the ld. AO acted merely on the basis of borrowed satisfaction without any independent application of mind. Therefore, we are of the view that the case of the assessee was invalidly reopened u/s 148 of the Act.
Addition u/s 68 - Even on merit, we note that the loans raised by the assessee were fully repaid and assessee has filed all the information/ evidences before the ld. AO but the ld. AO has not done any independent verification and so much so that that the notice u/s 133(6) of the Act were not issued and he merely relied on the statement recorded during the course of search u/s 132(4) of the Act that Mr Banks and his associate concerns were engaged in providing accommodation entries. Even the cross examination requested by the assessee was not granted and the ld. CIT (A) after taking int account all the facts allowed the appeal of the assessee by directing the ld. AO to delete the addition. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the reopening of assessment under sections 147 and 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was valid when the assessment had already been completed under section 143(3) and the very loan transaction was examined in the original proceedings.
Analysis: The original assessment had scrutinised the unsecured loan of Rs. 19 lakhs, with details called for from the assessee and the lender under section 133(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The reasons recorded for reopening did not state how the assessee had failed to disclose fully and truly all material facts relating to that transaction. Since the reassessment was initiated after four years from the end of the assessment year and the matter had already been examined earlier, the statutory requirement for reopening was not satisfied.
Conclusion: The reopening was invalid and was quashed, in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an assessment completed under section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is sought to be reopened after four years, the reasons must expressly show failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts; if the very issue was examined in the original assessment and such failure is not recorded, the reopening is bad in law.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - Addition u/s 68 - Reason to believe or suspect - HELD THAT:- Assessee filed all the details before the AO during the assessment proceedings and similarly, the loan creditor responded to the notice issued u/s 133(6) and acknowledged that the assessee has been given an unsecured loan.
The transaction of loan was examined in the original assessment proceedings. Now, the reasons recorded by the AO has not stated as to how the assessee failed to disclose the fully and truly all material facts qua the said loan which has resulted into escapement of income. Therefore, the issue at hand is squarely covered in the case of CEAT Ltd. [2023 (1) TMI 73 - SC ORDER] and accordingly we quash the reopening of assessment made by the AO. Appeal of the assessee is allowed
The judgment revolves around two primary issues:
1. Whether the addition of Rs. 52,17,38,000/- to the assessee's income under Section 68 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, on account of revaluation of assets by the AOP, is justified.
2. Whether the disallowance of brokerage expenses amounting to Rs. 7,69,655/- claimed by the assessee against unsecured loans is warranted.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Addition under Section 68
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 68 of the Income Tax Act deals with unexplained cash credits, allowing the tax authorities to add such credits to the income of the assessee if the nature and source are not satisfactorily explained. The case references the principles laid out by the Supreme Court in CIT Vs Hind Construction.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the revaluation of assets by the AOP, M/s. D.D. Associates, was done independently and reflected in the capital accounts of its members, including the assessee. The revaluation did not involve any actual transfer of assets or realization of income, and thus, did not trigger tax liability under Section 68.
Key Evidence and Findings: The assessee provided documentary evidence, including bank statements, ledger accounts, and replies from M/s. D.D. Associates, supporting the revaluation and subsequent accounting entries. The Tribunal found no defects in these documents.
Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal held that the revaluation entries did not constitute income in the hands of the assessee firm. The AOP, being taxed separately, was responsible for any tax liabilities arising from its operations. The Tribunal emphasized that the revaluation was a legitimate accounting exercise and not a 'colourable device' to evade taxes.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Revenue argued that the revaluation was a means to introduce undisclosed income and avoid capital gains tax. The Tribunal rejected this, noting that the ownership of the land remained unchanged and that the revaluation did not lead to any real income or transfer of assets.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the addition under Section 68 was unwarranted, as the revaluation did not constitute income in the hands of the assessee firm.
Issue 2: Disallowance of Brokerage Expenses
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The deduction of expenses is governed by the provisions of the Income Tax Act, which require that expenses be genuine and incurred wholly and exclusively for business purposes.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal found that the brokerage expenses were paid through banking channels, with TDS deducted, and were supported by invoices. The expenses were incurred for business purposes, specifically for facilitating loans.
Key Evidence and Findings: The assessee provided details of brokerage payments, including the nature of services rendered and the parties involved. The Tribunal noted the absence of any adverse findings by the Assessing Officer regarding the genuineness of these expenses.
Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal applied the principle that expenses genuinely incurred for business purposes should be allowed as deductions. The brokerage payments were found to meet this criterion.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Revenue contended that the brokerage expenses were not justified due to a lack of increase in loans. The Tribunal dismissed this argument, emphasizing the business rationale behind the expenses.
Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the CIT(A)'s decision to allow the brokerage expenses, finding them to be legitimate and incurred for business purposes.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Tribunal's significant holdings include:
- The revaluation of assets by an AOP does not constitute income for its members unless there is an actual realization of income or transfer of assets.
- Section 68 cannot be invoked merely based on accounting entries reflecting revaluation, absent any evidence of undisclosed income.
- Legitimate business expenses, supported by documentation and incurred for business purposes, should be allowed as deductions.
- The Tribunal reiterated the principle that accounting entries, in themselves, do not create tax liabilities without corresponding real-world transactions.
The Tribunal ultimately dismissed the Revenue's appeal, confirming the CIT(A)'s decision on both issues. The judgment underscores the importance of distinguishing between accounting practices and actual income realization for tax purposes.
Addition u/s 68 -as alleged that the assessee firm has introduced its undisclosed income in the process and has failed to prove the genuineness of the transaction for which he invoked provisions of section 68 - CIT (A) held that Section 68 is not applicable because here in this case AOP had re-valued its assets and accordingly, credited into creditor’s profit and loss account - HELD THAT:- The amount credited to the assessee’s account in the books of AOP was recorded by the assessee by debiting the investment in AOP and crediting the capital account of individual partners in their respective shares which has been as highlighted above.
AO without understanding the true nature of transaction has held that during this process, the development rights in line is getting transferred from one partner to other without getting registered through instrument and that it is some kind of accounting gimmick to reduce the tax liability by transferring entries by denying the real income.
First of all, we are unable to understand how any income has arisen on account of such revaluation by the joint venture M/s. DD Associates in assessee’s hand. The revaluation has been done by M/s. DD Associates who is independently assessed to tax as an AOP. The assessee was only entitled to receive share debt surplus from AOP because any such tax incidence would be only in the hands of the AOP only. The AOP i.e. M/s.DD Associates have members having determined share therefore, liable to pay tax in its own hands. Even otherwise also there is no sale or transfer of any assets warranting liability to tax as it is only a revaluation of stock in trade to recognize in the books of accounts and the present value does not trigger in tax liability either in the hands of joint venture AOP from any of its members.
It has also been brought on record and also noted in the CIT(A) order that credit of small share of re-valuation of stock-in-trade in the books of the other member i.e. Friends Development Corporation, no adverse view has been taken by the department in their case.
Here in this case, the total re-valuation of project land was Rs. 125.72 Crores as per the audited financial statement of M/s. DD Associates-AOP and the share of the assessee till 31/03/2017 was Rs. 46.50 which was brought down to 5% at the year ending 31/03/2018. The gain equivalent to 41.50% to which assessee was entitled to is recognized by AOP by crediting to the capital account by such amount and pressing equivalent debit to the capital account of the other member of the AOP. It was for this reason that the profit and loss share alleged was increased by 41.1%. There is no sale consideration as inferred by the ld. AO or any kind of transfer of property to trigger capital gain and stamp duty or to reduce any tax liability. There is no provision or law which has been referred by the ld. AO that form of partner cannot revalue assets or is there any procedure to moderate such exercise. Accordingly, we do not find any reason to uphold the addition as stated by the ld. AO and order of the ld. CIT(A) is confirmed. Decided in favour of assessee.
Disallowance of property paid for loan -disallowance of brokerage expenses claimed against unsecured loans - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- On perusal of the facts and material brought on record, once there is a finding of the fact that the brokerage has been paid for the specific purpose and the amounts have been paid through cheques and TDS has been deducted and without any adverse material, we do not find any infirmity in the order of the ld. CIT (A) deleting the addition. Accordingly, this ground raised by the Revenue is dismissed.
The core legal questions considered in this judgment were:
1. Whether the addition of Rs. 59,86,000/- to the assessee's income on account of unexplained cash deposits during the demonetization period was justified under Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
2. Whether the addition of Rs. 25,74,129/- on account of the difference in the value of opening stock as on 01.04.2016 was justified.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Addition of Rs. 59,86,000/- on account of unexplained deposit in Bank A/c during demonetization period:
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents:
The addition was made under Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, which pertains to unexplained money, etc., found in the possession of the assessee. The Tribunal referenced a precedent from ITAT, Chennai in the case of M/s Sahana Jewellery Exports Pvt. Ltd., which held that non-response from customers to notices does not automatically justify the addition of unexplained income.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
The Tribunal noted that the assessee provided detailed documentation, including a cash book, VAT registration, and VAT returns, to substantiate the source of the cash deposits. The Tribunal found that the Assessing Officer (AO) did not dispute the purchases, sales, or cash book entries but based the addition solely on the non-response of customers to notices under Section 133(6).
Key Evidence and Findings:
The assessee presented evidence of cash deposits in three tranches during the demonetization period, supported by a cash book and VAT registration. The Tribunal observed that the AO had acknowledged examining these documents and found no discrepancies in the books of accounts.
Application of Law to Facts:
The Tribunal applied the precedent from ITAT Chennai, emphasizing that the non-response of customers to notices does not justify an addition when the assessee has provided sufficient documentation to explain the source of cash deposits.
Treatment of Competing Arguments:
The Tribunal considered the arguments from both sides. The Revenue argued that the non-response justified the addition, while the assessee contended that the documentation provided was sufficient to explain the deposits. The Tribunal sided with the assessee, finding the documentation credible and the AO's reliance on non-response insufficient for the addition.
Conclusions:
The Tribunal concluded that the addition of Rs. 59,86,000/- was not sustainable and directed the AO to delete the addition.
Addition of Rs. 25,74,129/- on account of opening stock:
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents:
This issue pertained to the treatment of opening stock in the assessee's accounts. The Tribunal did not reference specific legal precedents for this issue but focused on the factual matrix presented by the assessee.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
The Tribunal noted that the assessee had transitioned from job work and brokerage to trading in jewelry, which justified the treatment of "Sunari Work Gold Investment" as opening stock for the new business activity.
Key Evidence and Findings:
The assessee provided evidence of the purchase of jewelry in the preceding year, which was initially recorded as a fixed asset. This was later reclassified as opening stock when the business activity changed. The Tribunal found that the AO did not dispute the purchase bills or the transition in business activity.
Application of Law to Facts:
The Tribunal applied the factual evidence provided by the assessee to determine that the reclassification of the jewelry from fixed assets to opening stock was justified given the change in business operations.
Treatment of Competing Arguments:
The Revenue's argument relied on the discrepancy between the closing stock in the previous year's ITR and the opening stock claimed. The assessee successfully demonstrated the rationale for this discrepancy, which the Tribunal accepted.
Conclusions:
The Tribunal concluded that the addition of Rs. 25,74,129/- was unwarranted and directed the AO to delete this addition as well.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Tribunal held that:
"The sole reason of taking adverse view against assessee is the non-response of notices sent by AO u/s 133(6) to customers. This, in our considered view, is not a valid reason to make addition."
The Tribunal established the principle that adequate documentation provided by the assessee can discharge the onus of explaining cash deposits, even if third parties do not respond to verification notices.
The final determination was that both additions made by the AO were not sustainable, and the appeal was allowed in favor of the assessee.
Addition u/s 69A on account of unexplained deposit in Bank A/c during demonetization period - HELD THAT:- Assessee claimed before AO that the sales of business was the source for accumulation of cash which was deposited in bank a/c. The assessee has filed contemporary details/documents of purchases, sales, cash-book, VAT return and the AO has examined those details/documents as is clearly acknowledged by him.
Nowhere in the assessment-order, the AO has pointed out any fallacy or flaw in the books of account of assessee or the transactions of purchases and sales made by assessee. The sole reason of taking adverse view against assessee is the non-response of notices sent by AO u/s 133(6) to customers. This, in our considered view, is not a valid reason to make addition. Accordingly, we direct the AO to delete the impugned addition.
Addition on account of difference in value of opening stock - HELD THAT:- AR successfully demonstrated that in AY 2016-17, the assessee was engaged only in job work, commission and brokerage, therefore the assessee declared “Sunari Work Gold Investment under the heading “Fixed Assets” in the Balance-Sheet as on 31.03.2016 and there was no closing stock shown. It is when the assessee started trading of jewellery from 17.08.2016 during current year after obtaining registration under VAT that the same jewellery held by assessee in the list of fixed assets as on 31.03.2016 became part of business stock of assessee and was declared as opening stock as on 01.04.2016 in Trading and P&L A/c.
Thus factum of purchases made by assessee in preceding AY 2016-17 which has given rise to holding of impugned closing stock as on 31.03.2016 / opening stock as on 01.04.2016. Even the AO has also mentioned in assessment-order that the assessee filed purchase bills. Ld. DR for revenue though relied upon orders of lower-authorities yet could not controvert the submissions made Ld. AR with are fully supported by documentary evidences. No justification in the addition made by AO. Accordingly, the AO is directed to delete this addition also. The assessee succeeds in this issue.
Assessee appeal is allowed.
Issues: Whether interest earned by a co-operative society engaged in providing credit facilities to its members from deposits made with banks was eligible for deduction under section 80P, and whether the allowance restricted by the Commissioner (Appeals) called for interference.
Analysis: The assessee was a co-operative society, not a co-operative bank, and had earned interest on surplus funds kept in bank deposits. The Commissioner (Appeals) granted limited relief by allowing deduction only on interest earned from the reserve amount required to be maintained under the State Societies Act and by allowing expenditure relatable to interest income that was treated as income from other sources. The Tribunal held that the decision in Nawanshahar Central Cooperative Bank Ltd. did not assist the assessee because that case concerned a banking entity with a banking licence, whereas the present assessee was only a credit co-operative society. The CBDT circular relied upon was also held inapplicable for the same reason. The Tribunal found no infirmity in the appellate order granting only partial relief.
Conclusion: The assessee was not entitled to further deduction under section 80P on the disputed bank interest beyond the relief already granted, and the restricted allowance made by the Commissioner (Appeals) was upheld.
Disallowance u/s 80P - assessee has earned the alleged sum towards the interest earned from the scheduled banks - CIT(A) confirming the action of Ld. AO in treating the interest received from bank as Income From Other Sources and denying the benefit of deduction u/s 80P
HELD THAT:- We find assessee argument have no merits because in the judgment of Nawanshahar Central Cooperative Bank Ltd [2005 (8) TMI 28 - SC ORDER] the assessee was a cooperative bank having banking licensing whereas in the instant case the assessee is not cooperative bank and it does not have any banking license but is merely a cooperative society engaged in providing credit facility to its members. Therefore the ratio laid down in the case of Nawanshahar Central Cooperative Bank Ltd (supra) is not applicable on the facts of the instant case.
Even the CBDT circular No.18/2015 is not applicable on the assessee society because this circular has been given referring to the judgment of Nawanshahar Central Cooperative Bank Ltd (supra) and it was only with regard to bank/commercial bank to which banking license applies. Since the assessee is not registered under banking Act 1949 and is merely a cooperative society CBDT Circular No.18/2015 (supra) will not apply on it.
We fail to find any merit in the grounds of appeal raised by the assessee and thus no infirmity is called for in the finding of Ld. CIT(A). Appeal of the assessee is dismissed.
The Tribunal considered the following core legal questions:
(a) Whether Section 2(9)(D) of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPTA) requires proof that the Benamidar holds the property for the benefit of a Beneficial Owner who is not traceable or fictitious.
(b) Whether the disclosure and assessment of benami property under the Income Tax Act, 1961, in the hands of the Benamidar, removes the taint of it being Benami.
(c) Under what circumstances will the statements initially made and subsequently retracted be admitted or rejected as evidence for holding the property as Benami.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (a): Interpretation of Section 2(9)(D) of PBPTA
- Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 2(9)(D) of the PBPTA was analyzed in contrast with Section 2(9)(A) to understand the requirements for proving a benami transaction. The definitions of "Benamidar" and "Beneficial Owner" under Sections 2(10) and 2(12) were also considered.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal clarified that Section 2(9)(D) does not require proof that the property is held for the benefit of an untraceable or fictitious Beneficial Owner. The provision aims to cover transactions where the person providing the consideration is not traceable.
- Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal found that the Respondent firm acted as a Benamidar by lending its name to the benami properties, benefiting unknown Beneficial Owners without needing to identify them.
- Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the properties were held as benami under Section 2(9)(D) without needing to establish the identity of the Beneficial Owner.
Issue (b): Impact of Income Tax Disclosure on Benami Transactions
- Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The Tribunal referred to the Supreme Court's ruling in the case of State of Karnataka Vs. Selvi J. Jayalalitha, which held that income tax returns do not prove the lawful source of income.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized that income tax proceedings do not validate the lawful source of income and cannot negate the benami nature of the property.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The Tribunal noted the timing of the Respondent's ITR filings, which were made after the search and seizure, indicating an attempt to legitimize the seized properties.
- Conclusions: The Tribunal determined that income tax disclosures do not remove the benami taint from the properties.
Issue (c): Admissibility of Retracted Statements
- Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The Tribunal referred to the Supreme Court's judgment in Vinod Solanki Vs. Union of India, which discussed the factors for considering retracted statements.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal considered the timing and circumstances of the retractions, finding them suspicious due to the coordinated actions of the partners.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The Tribunal noted the inconsistency in the partners' statements and the lack of records for the seized properties in the firm's accounts.
- Conclusions: The Tribunal rejected the retracted statements as unreliable, supporting the finding of benami transactions.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
- Core Principles Established: The Tribunal clarified that Section 2(9)(D) of the PBPTA does not require identifying the Beneficial Owner, and income tax proceedings do not validate the source of income under the PBPTA.
- Final Determinations on Each Issue: The Tribunal set aside the Impugned Order, confirming that the seized properties were held as benami under the PBPTA and allowing the appeal.
Benami Property Transactions - Provisional Attachment order had held that the movable properties comprising of total cash of Rs. 98,93,34,581/- and total gold bullion weighing 166.27 kg are the Benami Property - Adjudicating Authority has not confirmed the Provisional Attachment Order
Whether the provisions of Section 2(9)(D) of the PBPTA require it to be shown that the Benamidar holds the benami property for the benefit of the Beneficial Owner, who is not traceable or fictitious? -HELD THAT:- The circumstances under which the statement or its retraction is to be accepted or rejected need to be evaluated by the Tribunal/ Court. Very circumstance of working in unison among the three partners while shifting their positions at the time of tendering statements and retractions, which are supposed to be true and voluntary, cast doubt on the veracity of their narrations.
The recovery of huge cash and gold bullion of substantial amount and quantum cannot be overlooked. The seizure was made by the Appellant only of that amount of cash and the quantum of gold which was not even explained in the parallel books of account, besides, no mention thereof in the regular books of account. The reason stated by the Respondent that Shri S Nagarathinam could not have kept record of these recoveries because the Respondent undertook sand sale at many places cannot cut much ice in view of the Firm having established businesses which how could not even keep regular accounts. It is not convincing that the Firm was clueless of its business activities so as to maintain its record even in informal accounting. It cannot also be ignored that the detection and the recovery of unaccounted cash and gold bullion happened within a months‟ time of the demonetization. The rush by the Respondent as reflected in the filing of the ITRs for the seizures effected under the PBPTA on the same date for the AYs 2016-17 & 2017-18 cannot but show their attempt to bypass the provisions of the PBPTA. It, therefore, appears to us that the seized cash and gold bullion are Benami Properties for which the Respondent lent its name rather disclose the name of the Beneficial Owner(s).
We find that the transactions or the arrangements relating to seized movable properties are Benami within the import of Sub-Section 2(9)(D) of the PBPTA. We, therefore, set aside the Impugned Order as being devoid of merit and allow the Appeal. The pending applications are accordingly disposed of.
Smuggling of Gold Bar - discharge of burden of prove - Section 123 of the Customs Act - HELD THAT:- Chapter 14 of the Customs Act deals with confiscation of goods and conveyance and imposition of penalties. Before proceeding with confiscation of goods, the Officer of Customs not below the rank of an Assistant Commissioner of Customs shall cause notice informing the grounds on which he proposed to confiscate the goods or to impose penalty after affording reasonable opportunity, goods improperly imported can be confiscated under Section 111 and penalty can be imposed under Section 112 of the Customs Act. Gold with foreign marking is a dutiable goods which requires valid import document under law.
The statement of M/s Surana Corporation Limited and their purchase documents reveals that M/s Surana Corporation importing gold from (1)NATAXIZ (2) Bank of Novascotia (3) Standard Bank through M/s.MMTC Ltd., whereas gold bar seized have the marking of Commerz Bank, Switzerland. Further enquiry with M/s Surana Corporation in respect of the said discrepancies, certain documents were produced by M/s Surana Corporation. None of these documents correlate the gold bar with marking of Commerz Bank seized from Rajan with the invoices and bill of entry packing list furnished by M/s Surana Corporation. Hence, it is apparent that when the statute under Section 123 cost burden the possessor of the goods reasonably believed to be a smuggled goods to distract the burden. In this case, the appellant had miserably failed to distract the said burden. The order in original as well as the order in appeal had disclosed this fact in detail. It has been concluded that the gold bar seized does not supported by valid import documents either at the time of seizure or later.
Conclusion - The imposition of the penalty on the appellant was justified, but the penalty amount was reduced considering the appellant's role. The Court found no error in the CESTAT's decision.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether the show cause notice issued under Regulation 20(1) of the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2013 was barred by the 90-day period prescribed for initiating revocation or penalty proceedings.
Analysis: The notice dated 02.12.2014 could qualify as an offence report in principle, but the record did not show that the issuing authority had received it or was even aware of it. Unlike the precedents relied on, there was no admitted receipt of an offence report by the Commissioner, and no material to establish that the proceedings were initiated beyond the prescribed period on the facts of the case.
Conclusion: The writ appeal succeeded, the order quashing the notice was set aside, and the challenge based on limitation was not accepted on the available record. The question of limitation was left open.
Time limitation to issue SCN - SCN issued by the appellant quashed on the ground that it was issued beyond the limitation period of 90 days proscribed in the Regulation - HELD THAT:- There are no doubt that the show cause notice dated 02.12.2014 issued by the Additional Director General, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, Chennai Zonal Unit would definitely be qualified to be an offence report. But then, there is nothing on record to show that the appellant was in receipt or was at least in the knowledge of the aforesaid show cause notice dated 02.12.2014. In the affidavit filed in support of the writ petition, the respondent / writ petitioner has no where averred that the authority who issued show cause notice impugned in the writ petition was cognizant of the show cause notice dated 02.12.2014.
In A.M.Ahamed and Company Vs. Commissioner of Customs (Imports), Chennai) [2014 (9) TMI 237 - MADRAS HIGH COURT], it was specifically mentioned that copy of the show cause notice issued to the writ petitioner therein on 08.05.2010 was marked to the Commissioner of Customs (Imports), Chennai. In this case, there is nothing on record to show that copy of the show cause notice dated 02.12.2014 was issued to the Commissioner of Customs, Tuticorin.
Conclusion - The show cause notice dated 02.12.2014 could qualify as an offence report, but there was no evidence that Shanmugasundaram was aware of this notice.
Appeal allowed.
Dismissal of appeal for default due to the appellant's non-appearance at the hearing - applicability of Section 35C of the Central Excise Act, 1944, and Rule 20 of CESTAT (Procedure) Rules, 1982 - HELD THAT:- The Division Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Benny D'Souza & Ors vs Melwin D'Souza & Ors [2023 (11) TMI 1309 - SC ORDER], heard an appeal wherein the major contention of the appellant was that the High Court should have dismissed the appeal for non-prosecution in terms of the order XLI Rule 17 CPC and particularly the Explanation thereto instead of dismissing the appeal on merits.
The Hon’ble Court after extracting Order XLI Rule 17 of the CPC held that the Explanation to the Order categorically states that if the appellant does not appear when the appeal is called for hearing it can only be dismissed for non-prosecution and not on merits and went on to allow the appeal.
Considering the statutory position and the views expressed by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the various judgments, adjournments can’t be given for the mere asking without any serious reason, backed with proof, for the non-appearance of the Appellant or his authorised representative on the dates of public hearing. we find that no purpose would be served in continuing with these appeals and hence reject the same for default as per Rule 20 of CESTAT (Procedure) Rules, 1982.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether imported lubricants declared as "not for retail sale" and cleared to industrial consumers directly or through distributors were liable to MRP/RSP-based assessment under Section 4A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for computing CVD. (ii) Whether the demand relating to SAD, and the connected invocation of extended limitation and penalties, were sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether imported lubricants declared as "not for retail sale" and cleared to industrial consumers directly or through distributors were liable to MRP/RSP-based assessment under Section 4A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 for computing CVD.
Analysis: The relevant test was whether the goods were in fact meant for retail sale or were packages meant for industrial consumers. The declaration in the Bills of Entry that the goods were "not for retail sale", the contemporaneous stand taken throughout the proceedings, and the evidence that the goods were cleared to industrial consumers directly or through distributors showed that the goods did not answer the description on which MRP-based valuation was fastened. The reasoning in the cited precedent on exclusion of packages meant for industrial consumers was accepted, and the distinction drawn by the adjudicating authority was not upheld. The later sale price of some goods did not alter the character of the import for valuation purposes.
Conclusion: The demand of differential CVD based on MRP/RSP assessment was not sustainable and this issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand relating to SAD, and the connected invocation of extended limitation and penalties, were sustainable.
Analysis: The record was not sufficient to determine the exact extent to which SAD had been paid at import and the post-import procedure followed for refund or adjustment under the notification governing exemption on subsequent sale. For that limited aspect, factual verification was necessary and the matter required re-examination. On limitation and penalty, the consistent declaration that the goods were not for retail sale and the absence of evidence showing diversion to non-industrial retail consumers negatived suppression, so the extended period and penalties could not be sustained.
Conclusion: The SAD issue was remanded for limited verification, while the extended period and penalties were held unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The adjudged liability under MRP/RSP-based assessment was set aside, the consequential penalties did not survive, and only the limited SAD aspect was sent back for fresh examination.
Ratio Decidendi: Imported goods declared as not for retail sale and shown to have been cleared to industrial consumers do not attract MRP/RSP-based assessment merely because they passed through distributors, and in the absence of suppression, extended limitation and penalties are not justified.
Determination of applicability of MRP/RSP based assessment of imported goods cleared to/meant for industrial consumers as declared by the appellant in their Bills of Entry as “NOT FOR RETAIL SALE” - Extended period of limitation - penalty.
HELD THAT:- It is clear from the evidences on record that all the goods were cleared/sold to industrial consumers directly or through their distributors/stockists by the appellant. Since, all the imported goods in dispute were cleared to industrial consumers only, revision of RSP declared at the time of import will also have no significance.; hence, the demand on this count cannot be sustained.
This Tribunal in the case of Hi-Tech Computers [2024 (4) TMI 1234 - CESTAT BANGALORE] following the judgment of this Tribunal in the case of Starlite Components Ltd. [2013 (4) TMI 624 - CESTAT, MUMBAI] in similar circumstances held that the goods imported and cleared to industrial consumers cannot be assessed to CVD under Section 4A of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
The claim of the appellant is that in most of the cases, they have cleared the imported goods on payment of SAD; however, in few/stray cases even though, they have not paid SAD at the time of its import but later cleared on payment of applicable Sales Tax on sale of such goods, hence the demand on this count also not sustainable.
Extended period of limitation - penalty - HELD THAT:- From the records, since it is not clear as the extent of imported goods cleared on payment of SAD at the time of import and the procedure followed later under the said N/N.102/2007, the matter is remanded to the adjudicating authority to examine the demand relating to SAD. The appellant all along has been clearing the goods declaring in the respective Bills of Entry that the goods are not meant for retail sale and in fact no evidence brought on record indicating that the goods are ultimately not sold to industrial consumers. Therefore, invocation of extended period of limitation cannot be sustained. Also, on the same ground, penalty imposed on the company as well as on other appellants cannot be sustained. Therefore, the demand attributable to differential additional duty (CVD) applying MRP/RSP based assessment cannot be sustained.
Conclusion - i) Goods declared as "not for retail sale" and sold to industrial consumers are exempt from MRP/RSP-based assessment under Section 4A of the Central Excise Act, 1944. ii) The Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011, do not apply to goods sold to industrial consumers, even if through distributors, as these are not retail sales. iii) The demand for SAD requires further examination, and the matter is remanded to the adjudicating authority for this purpose. iv) The invocation of the extended period of limitation and penalties is unsustainable due to the lack of evidence of suppression of facts.
Appeal allowed by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether the delay in filing the appeal before the Tribunal was liable to be condoned; (ii) whether stay of the operation of the impugned order was warranted; (iii) whether the classification dispute regarding gas calcined anthracite coal and electrically calcined anthracite coal under CTH 27011100 or CTH 38249090 was liable to be interfered with.
Issue (i): Whether the delay in filing the appeal before the Tribunal was liable to be condoned.
Analysis: The explanation tendered for the delayed filing was accepted as satisfactory.
Conclusion: The delay was condoned and the applications for condonation of delay were allowed.
Issue (ii): Whether stay of the operation of the impugned order was warranted.
Analysis: The impugned order was found not to be ex facie illegal or without jurisdiction, and the stay request was treated as routine and devoid of merit.
Conclusion: The stay application was rejected.
Issue (iii): Whether the classification dispute regarding gas calcined anthracite coal and electrically calcined anthracite coal under CTH 27011100 or CTH 38249090 was liable to be interfered with.
Analysis: The dispute had already been decided in the respondent's own earlier cases. The Tribunal followed its earlier view that calcination does not change the essential character of anthracite coal and that the issue was no longer res integra. The impugned classification under CTH 27011100 was therefore not found to suffer from infirmity.
Conclusion: The Revenue's appeal was dismissed and the classification adopted in favour of the respondent was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal granted condonation of delay, rejected the stay request, and sustained the impugned classification by dismissing the Revenue's appeal.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the essential character of imported coal remains unchanged, calcination by itself does not alter its classification for customs purposes, especially when the issue has already been settled in the importer's own case.
Classification of imported goods under the Customs Tariff Act - HELD THAT:- This Bench in the case of Commissioner of Customs (Port), Kolkata Vs. Carbon Resources Private Limited [2019 (1) TMI 1891 - CESTAT KOLKATA] where it was held that 'the imported goods is a carbon additive, used in Steel and Casting Industry (not used as fuel) and classifiable under CTH 38249911, attracting BCD @ 7.5% and CVD @ 12.5%.'
Appeal of Revenue dismissed.
The core legal questions considered in this judgment include:
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Eligibility under Section 29A of IBC
Locus and Standing to Seek Reconsideration
Justifiability of CoC's Decision
Correctness of NCLT's Dismissal
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Eligibility of Appellant to submit a resolution plan under Section 29A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - locus to seek reconsideration of its resolution plan after the refund of the Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) - HELD THAT:- The default under Section 164(2) had occurred on 01.12.2017, the date on which the GADPPL failed to file financial statements and annual returns for a continuous period of three years. Thus, Mr. Avanish Kumar Singh was ineligible to be a director as per provisions of Section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 and the Appellant company also accordingly was not eligible to be a resolution applicant in terms of provisions of clause (e) of Section 29A of IBC, 2016. Further, it is noticed that the Appellant, after writing repeated reminders to RP, had taken back the EMD amount, and it is only as an afterthought, after nearly six months, that the Interlocutory Application was filed for consideration of the resolution plan. This clearly appears to be an attempt to delay the process of CIRP/liquidation. The CoC, in its commercial wisdom, has not accepted the resolution plan and had directed the liquidation of the Corporate Debtor. The commercial wisdom of the CoC regarding acceptance/rejection of the resolution plan is “non-justiciable”.
Conclusion - The Ld. NCLT had rightly refused to intervene in the decision of the CoC and its commercial wisdom in rejecting the resolution plan of the Appellant.
There is no ground to interfere with the order of the Ld. NCLT, and accordingly, the appeal fails and is dismissed.
The core legal questions considered in the judgment were:
A. Whether the appellants were 'insiders' under Regulation 2(1)(g) of the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015, due to being 'connected persons'Rs.
B. Whether the trading behavior of the appellants indicated that they were in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI)Rs.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
A. Whether the appellants were 'insiders' under Regulation 2(1)(g) of the PIT Regulations, being 'connected persons'Rs.
- Relevant legal framework and precedents: The SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015, particularly Regulation 2(1)(d)(i), defines a "connected person" as someone associated with a company in a manner that gives them access to UPSI. Regulation 2(1)(g) defines an 'insider' as a 'connected person' or someone having access to UPSI.
- Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that appellant No. 1 was closely associated with Key Managerial Persons (KMPs) of Biocon, serving as an independent director in a foundation linked to Biocon's promoters and managing trading accounts for Biocon's CMD and CEO. This established a frequent communication and contractual relationship, qualifying him as a 'connected person' under the regulations.
- Key evidence and findings: The appellant was involved in advisory roles on significant deals and had frequent communication with Biocon's senior officials. The Tribunal noted that the appellant's involvement in cross-border collaborations and handling of trading accounts for Biocon's top management supported the inference of access to UPSI.
- Application of law to facts: The Tribunal applied the definition of 'connected person' to the appellant's relationships and interactions with Biocon's management, concluding that these connections provided access to UPSI.
- Treatment of competing arguments: The appellants argued that there was no direct evidence of UPSI access and that Biocon's confidentiality protocols were robust. However, the Tribunal emphasized the circumstantial evidence and the high probability of access due to the appellant's roles and relationships.
- Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that appellant No. 1 was a 'connected person' with access to UPSI, and appellant No. 2, being controlled by appellant No. 1, was also a 'connected person' under the regulations.
B. Whether the trading behavior of the appellants indicated that they were in possession of UPSIRs.
- Relevant legal framework and precedents: Under the PIT Regulations, trades by an 'insider' during the UPSI period are presumed to be based on UPSI. The Tribunal referred to the standard of proof as 'preponderance of probability' for insider trading cases.
- Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal analyzed the trading patterns of the appellants, noting significant purchases of Biocon shares during the UPSI period, which indicated trading based on UPSI.
- Key evidence and findings: The appellants made substantial trades in Biocon shares just before the public announcement of the Sandoz deal, which led to a significant price increase. This trading behavior, coupled with their access to UPSI, supported the inference of insider trading.
- Application of law to facts: The Tribunal applied the presumption under the PIT Regulations that trades by insiders during the UPSI period are based on UPSI, given the appellants' trading behavior and access to sensitive information.
- Treatment of competing arguments: The appellants contended that there was no direct evidence of UPSI communication. However, the Tribunal relied on circumstantial evidence and the appellants' trading patterns to uphold the insider trading charge.
- Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the finding that the appellants' trades were based on UPSI, given their status as insiders and the timing and volume of their trades.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
- Preserve verbatim quotes of crucial legal reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized the standard of proof as 'preponderance of probability' and the reliance on circumstantial evidence in insider trading cases, citing precedents such as SEBI vs. Kishore R. Ajmera.
- Core principles established: The judgment reinforced the principle that circumstantial evidence and trading patterns can establish insider trading, even in the absence of direct evidence of UPSI communication.
- Final determinations on each issue: The Tribunal dismissed the appeal, affirming the SEBI's findings that the appellants were insiders who traded based on UPSI and upholding the penalties imposed.
Insider trading - use of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information - ‘connected persons’ - restraining the appellants from dealing in the securities market and directing to disgorge an amount and to pay penalties mentioned in the order.
Whether the noticees are ‘insiders’ in terms of Regulation 2(1)(g) of the PIT Regulations, being ‘connected persons’? - HELD THAT:- Undisputedly, the appellant No. 1 was in close association with KMP of Biocon and Mr. Arun Chandawarkar, CEO and joint MD of Biocon and CFO of Biocon Mr. Sidharth Mittal both were directly involved in the negotiations on the Biocon-Sandoz deal as also in CIMAB licensing deal. Appellant No. 1 was undoubtedly in frequent and regular communication with senior managerial persons of Biocon, who had direct knowledge of UPSI.
Keeping the twin sensitive assignment being handled by the appellant No. 1 – (a) advising on CIMAB licensing deal, which allowed him frequent access to CEO and CFO during the year long deal period while these KMPs were also negotiating the Sandoz deal; and (b) handling trading accounts of the CMD and Joint CMD of the company, we hold that the preponderance of probabilities test was correctly applied by the learned WTM.
The appellant nos. 1 is a ‘connected person’ in terms of Regulation 2(1)(g)(i) of the PIT Regulations by having access to UPSI, and the appellant No. 2 is a ‘connected person’ in terms of Regulation 2(1)(d)(i) of the PIT Regulations.
Possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI) - Whether the trading behavior of the appellant’s shows that they were in possession of UPSI? - Considering the fact that there was a spike in the trading of Biocon within four days of the said UPSI period suggests that such trades were made based on the knowledge of the UPSI. No error in the finding recorded by the learned WTM that there was a strong ‘preponderance of probability’ that the trades executed by the appellants in Biocon during the UPSI period, were guided by UPSI on account of appellants being ‘insiders’.
We are also in agreement with the finding of the learned WTM of holding the appellants as ‘connected persons’ within the meaning of Regulation 2(1)(d)(i) of the PIT Regulations and not on the basis of ‘possession of UPSI’ under the Regulation 2(1)(g)(ii) of the PIT Regulation, which distinguishes ruling in case of Balram Garg [2022 (4) TMI 945 - SUPREME COURT]
In our considered view, in case of ‘insider trading’, the evidence cannot be direct but circumstantial, since evidence with respect to communication channel may not be on record. Often such sensitive information in case of ‘connected persons’ falling under 2(1)(d)(i), need not be necessarily through an email or a letter because, in the instant case, appellant was admittedly working closely with joint CMD & CEO and CFO on cross-border licensing deal and was in frequent communication with them for a long period of time, while they were simultaneously working on another cross- border deal (Sandoz-Biocon deal).
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether the appellants were entitled to bail on the ground of parity with co-accused and the likelihood of delay in conclusion of trial under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
Analysis: The appellants were not alleged to be involved in the predicate offence and were added in supplementary complaints. The co-accused who had already been granted bail were stated to be involved in higher amounts of proceeds of crime than the appellants. The Court also noted the large number of witnesses and the voluminous documentary record, indicating that trial would take substantial time.
Conclusion: Bail was granted to the appellants on parity, and the impugned order dismissing bail was set aside.
Ratio Decidendi: Where co-accused similarly or more seriously placed have been granted bail and the trial is likely to take considerable time, bail may be granted on parity even in proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
Money Laundering - seeking grant of bail - appellants acted in collusion with the main accused and became beneficiaries of the proceeds of crime - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the co-accused have been granted bail. Apart from that, we have taken note of the value of the proceeds of crime that the appellants are alleged to have been involved with. We have also perused the rejoinder affidavit filed on behalf of the appellants which indicates the specific roles played by the coaccused who have been granted bail. Suffice it is to state that the co-accused who have been granted bail are involved with higher amounts of proceeds of crime in comparison to the appellants.
Conclusion - On the grounds of parity, bail is allowed.
Bail application allowed.
Issues: Whether bail was to be granted in a prosecution under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 despite reliance on the twin conditions under Section 45, in view of the constitutional safeguards under Article 21, the documentary nature of the evidence, and the grant of bail to co-accused.
Analysis: The petitioner's case was considered in the light of the bail already granted to similarly placed co-accused. The Court noted that the prosecution case rested largely on documentary material already seized, that a large number of documents and witnesses would be involved at trial, and that there was no apparent risk of tampering with the seized evidence. The Court also observed that the person for whose benefit the alleged transactions were said to have occurred had not been arrayed as an accused, and that the petitioner had been granted bail in the predicate offences. In these circumstances, the Court applied the principle that the stringent bail conditions under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 cannot operate so as to negate the constitutional protection against prolonged pre-trial incarceration under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
Conclusion: Bail was granted to the petitioner.
Ratio Decidendi: The twin conditions for bail under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 cannot override the constitutional safeguard against unjustified prolonged pre-trial detention under Article 21 of the Constitution of India where the evidence is substantially documentary and already secured.
Money Laundering - involvement in a crime of defalcation of huge sum in the matter of managing the award of tenders to PHED - twin conditions under Section 45 of the PMLA - HELD THAT:- In the case of Manish Sisodia [2024 (8) TMI 614 - SUPREME COURT] the Court has not exercised the powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India. The Court has held that the twin conditions under Section 45 of the PMLA cannot override the constitutional safeguards, as provided under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. This Court has held that a prolonged incarceration cannot be permitted to be converted pre-trial detention into a sentence without trial. Like in the case of Manish Sisodia [2024 (8) TMI 614 - SUPREME COURT] in the present case also thousands of documents are required to be considered at the stage of trial, so also around 50 witnesses are required to be examined. The main evidence in the present case is documentary in nature, which is already seized by the prosecution agency. As such, there is no possibility of the same being tampered with.
It is further to be noted that the Minister, for whose benefit the alleged transactions have taken place, has also not been implecated as an accused in the present case. The petitioner has already been released on bail in the predicate offences.
SLP disposed off.
Issues: Whether the attachment over the subject properties under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 could be raised and the registering authority directed to record the release.
Analysis: The attachment had been made in connection with proceedings arising from the predicate offence. The appellate tribunal had already directed release of the attached properties after noting that the accused had been acquitted in the predicate NDPS proceedings. In that situation, the attached properties could not be treated as continuing to stand attached on the premise of proceeds of crime. The Court also noticed the statutory remedy under Section 8(8) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
Conclusion: The attachment was raised and the registering authority was directed to record the release in the relevant records.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the predicate offence has ended in acquittal and the appellate tribunal has directed release of the attached property, the attachment under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 cannot continue to subsist.
Money Laundering - predicate offence - direction to remove the attachment made by the 2nd respondent - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the order passed by the appellate Tribunal reveals that when predicate offence does not survive on account of acquittal, then it cannot be presumed that the said attached properties were purchased out of proceeds of crime by way of money laundering. Further, the appellate Tribunal directed the 2nd respondent to release the attached properties of the appellants / affected persons, as V. Kasimayan and the other accused persons are already acquitted in predicate offence under NDPS Act vide judgment of acquittal dated 01.08.2017 in Complaint Case No.52 of 2016.
Since already the appellate Tribunal directed the 2nd respondent to release the attached properties in pursuant to the Complaint Case No.52 of 2016, the attachment made by the 2nd respondent in respect of the subject properties is hereby raised in pursuant to the order passed by the appellate Tribunal dated 14.09.2023. The registering authority is directed to record the same in the book of records in respect of the subject properties forthwith.
Conclusion - i) When an accused is acquitted in a criminal case, the attached properties cannot be presumed to be proceeds of crime through money laundering. ii) The attachment made by the 2nd respondent on the subject properties was raised in accordance with the appellate Tribunal's order, and the registering authority was directed to record the same.
Petition allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the services rendered by the university to the regional centres and learning centres were education services covered by the negative list and exemption notifications; (ii) whether the arrangement constituted franchise service under the Finance Act, 1994; (iii) whether any taxable service was rendered by the university so as to sustain the service tax demand.
Issue (i): Whether the services rendered by the university to the regional centres and learning centres were education services covered by the negative list and exemption notifications.
Analysis: The university retained control over curriculum, admissions, syllabus, examinations, results and award of degrees, while the centres acted only as facilitating arms for implementation of its distance education programme. Services by way of education as part of a curriculum for obtaining a qualification recognised by law fall in the negative list under section 66D(l)(ii). The exemption framework under Notification No. 25/2012-ST, as amended by Notification No. 6/2014-ST, also covers educational services and services relating to admission and conduct of examination. The arrangement, viewed as a whole, was directed to imparting recognised education and not to a commercial service distinct from education.
Conclusion: The services were covered by the educational services negative list and related exemptions, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the arrangement constituted franchise service under the Finance Act, 1994.
Analysis: Franchise requires a grant of representational right identified with the franchisor, ordinarily involving a trade mark, service mark, trade name, logo or similar symbol, and the agreement must be read holistically. The centres were not granted an independent representational right to exploit the university's name commercially; they merely assisted in carrying out the university's statutory educational functions under close supervision. The university controlled the core academic functions and the revenue-sharing structure did not establish a franchisor-franchisee relationship.
Conclusion: The arrangement did not amount to franchise service, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether any taxable service was rendered by the university so as to sustain the service tax demand.
Analysis: The university did not receive consideration from the centres for any alleged service; instead, the centres collected student fees and remitted the agreed shares while the university retained the academic and statutory functions. On a proper appreciation of the MoU and the statutory setting, there was no taxable service rendered by the university. Even on the Revenue's characterization, the activity was education-related and exempt. The service tax demands and consequential penalties could not survive.
Conclusion: No taxable service was rendered by the university, in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The service tax demands and penalties were unsustainable because the university's distance-education arrangement was part of its exempt educational function and not a taxable franchise activity.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a university retains control over the academic core of a distance-education programme and its centres merely facilitate that statutory function without an independent representational right or commercial exploitation, the arrangement is not franchise service and remains within the educational exemption framework.
Taxability of service - classification of services - education services - franchise service.
Whether the service alleged to have been rendered by the appellants to RCs/LCs can be termed as ‘Education Service’ as claimed by the appellants? - HELD THAT:- Punjab Technical University is a body created under Punjab Technical University Act, 1996; they have 494 affiliated colleges; in terms of the decision taken in the seventh meeting of the Boards of Governor in the year 2001, the appellants have started implementing Distance Education Programme (DEP); for this purpose, they have established Learning Centers (LCs) and Regional Centers (RCs) to coordinate/ control the learning centers and have entered into a Memorandum of Understanding with them.
In terms of the Agreement, the fee is collected by the LCs from the students in the form of Demand Drafts drawn in favour of “The Registrar” of the appellant; the total revenue collected is distributed as per the agreed share of the appellant RCs and LCs, which is in the range of 28/32.2/37%, 18/20/22% and 45/47.5/50% respectively; however, Authorization Fee and Additional Authorization Fee collected is entirely retained by the appellant. On going through the clauses of the Agreement, we find that the appellant retains the core functions; eligibility for admission of the students, syllabus and qualification of the teachers, setting of question papers and examination time-table and award of degree/ diploma is decided by the appellant; LCs/ RCs are responsible for appointment of teachers, classroom coaching & practical training as per the syllabus, conduct of examinations; LCs/ RCs may advertise/ canvas about the courses in the university.
The services as regards education fall in the Negative List. It is also found that these Notifications provide exemption for Auxiliary Education Services also. Exemption is also extended to services to education by way of Renting of Immovable Property also. In such circumstances, it is not understood as to why such exemption is not available to the appellant-university, which is established by an Act of State Legislature to propagate education. CBEC vide Circular No.172/7/2013-ST dated 19.09.2013 clarifies the kind of exemptions available to the services rendered in relation to education.
Whether the service alleged to have been rendered by the appellants to RCs/LCs can be termed as ‘Franchise Service’ as alleged by the Revenue? - HELD THAT:- The definition of “Franchise” involves trademark, service mark, trade name or logo (or any such symbol); learned Counsel for the appellants submits that the expression “any such symbol” should be read with the preceding words and should not be extended beyond. The principal of ejusdem generis is agreed, it is found that the name of the university being used by LCs/ RCs cannot be taken to be a trademark, service mark, trade name or logo (or any such symbol). A reading of the MOU does not give an understanding that it is Franchise Agreement. There are force in the argument of the learned Counsel for the appellants that even if it is a Franchise Service, it would be exempt in terms of the Notification discussed above as they are rendered in relation to education.
This Bench while deciding the case of Swift Institute of Engineering and Technology [2019 (4) TMI 1151 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH] held that the appellant-university is not rendering any Franchise Service. The position of Swift Institute of Engineering and Technology and the LCs/ RCs in the impugned case is comparable. In fact, the position of the LCs/ RCs is on a better footing inasmuch as they are conducting courses approved by the appellant-university, who also award degree/ diploma.
The learned Commissioner has grossly overlooked the fact that the appellant university is in total control of the fees, the curriculum and award of degree/ diploma. The LCs/ RCs cannot operate independently just by using the name of the university in the respective area assigned to them - the entire proceedings are based on a grave misconception on the part of Revenue. There is no clarity in the approach of the department vis a vis the serviced provider, service rendered and the consideration in the impugned case. In case the appellant-university is alleged to have rendered any service, say Franchise Service to the LCs/ RCs, they should have received some consideration towards the same. In fact, the university is not getting any consideration from the LCs/ RCs. It is the appellant-university who are paying the LCs/ RCs by way of a percentage of the revenue - It is very clear from the facts of the case and the MOU that the appellant-university is using the services of LCs/ RCs in discharging their statutory function of spreading education. Service tax, if any, is leviable on the LCs/ RCs. However, this is not the case of the Department.
Conclusion - i) The appellants are rendering services related to education, which is exempt from service tax. ii) The alleged service is also exempted under Entry No. 39 of Notification No. 25/2012-ST, dated 20.06.2012, as amended and Notification No. 6/2014 – ST dated 11.07.2014 during the relevant period.
Appeal allowed.
Whether the appellants are rendering any taxable service to the RCs/LCs? - HELD THAT:-
The core legal questions considered in this judgment include:
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Determination of Taxable Value and Misrepresentation of Services
The relevant legal framework includes the Finance Act, 1994, and Notification No. 25/2012 which exempts certain services from service tax. The Department's audit revealed discrepancies between the appellant's submitted agreements and invoices and those provided by their clients. The appellant claimed services were exempt, but evidence from clients indicated taxable manpower supply services.
The Tribunal found that the appellant deliberately forged agreements and invoices to misrepresent the nature of services and evade service tax. The appellant's contention that the taxable value was incorrectly determined was unsupported by evidence, as no original documents were presented to substantiate their claims.
Imposition of Interest and Penalties
Sections 75, 76, and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994, provide for the recovery of interest and penalties in cases of service tax evasion. The Tribunal upheld the imposition of interest and penalties, noting the appellant's deliberate misrepresentation and failure to deposit collected service tax.
Competing arguments regarding the duplication of demand were dismissed due to the appellant's failure to provide credible evidence. The Tribunal emphasized the appellant's responsibility to substantiate claims with authentic documents.
Service Tax on Legal Fees
The appellant incurred legal fees expenses during the fiscal year 2016-17. The Tribunal found no submissions contesting the applicability of service tax on these expenses under RCM. Consequently, the service tax demand on legal fees was upheld in the absence of any contrary evidence or argument from the appellant.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Tribunal's significant holdings include:
The Tribunal concluded that the appellant had not provided sufficient evidence or arguments to warrant interference with the Commissioner's order. The appeal was dismissed, and the order confirming the service tax demand, interest, and penalties was upheld.
Recovery of service tax with interest and penalty - correctly determination and declaration of taxable value of services provided during the audit period from April 2015 to June 2017 - exempted services under the Notification No. 25/2012 dated 20.06.2012 - evasion of service tax by misrepresenting the nature of services provided - legal fees expenses.
Exemption of services - HELD THAT:- As per Agreements of the appellant, the nature of services were exempted from service tax viz. Distribution of SIM cards, Recharge Coupons, Supply of Farm Labour for agriculture operation, business facilitator etc. However, as per the copies of Agreements provided by the clients of the appellant, the services related to manpower supply services and other taxable service. The impugned order goes on to note that the appellant had submitted agreement dated NIL of farm labour supply with Gujrat Tea Processors und Packers Ltd., Ahmadabad in which scope of work was mentioned as "Supply of contract Farm labour/workers for agricultural operations and agricultural produce" and contract period was mentioned as 1st April 2015 to 31 March 2017.
The impugned order has established that during the period 2015-16, 2016-17 and 2017-18 (up to June, 2017), the appellant had rendered taxable services which was deliberately suppressed resulting in the evasion of service tax of Rs. 19,81,97,629/-(including cess). We find that in their grounds of appeal, the appellant has stated that as per audited accounts, gross receipts for 2015-16 is Rs. 15,67,08,892/-, for 2016-17 is Rs. 62,16,63,588/- and for first quarter of 2017-18 is Rs. 10,83,21,412/- - apart from merely stating that the impugned order has added the amount shown in 26AS statement with the amount shown in Books of Accounts no evidence has been adduced by the appellant in support of their contention. No one even appeared on the day this case was posted for hearing, nor any written submissions have been filed.
It has been clearly established that the services provided by the appellant are covered under the definition of Taxable Services in the light of the changed provisions of the Finance Act, 1994 made applicable with effect from 01.07.2012. We find that the impugned order has given evidence that the appellant had received Rs. 1,52,54,53,781/- from its service recipients against provision of the said taxable services and was liable to pay service tax on said amount.
The impugned order notes that the appellant failed to provide any relevant authentic documents like invoices in original work orders in original etc to justify their claim of duplication of demand in case of few of their clients. In the absence of any authentic evidence in the form of original invoice etc showing the actual value of taxable services provided by the appellant during the relevant period, it is found that there is no reason to interfere with the computation of service tax liability against the appellant in the impugned order. Hence, there is no merit in the above contention of the appellant and the same is rejected.
Legal fees expenses - HELD THAT:- The appellant has shown Legal fees expense of Rs. 2,12,000/-in 2016-17. In this regard, no submission was made by the appellant nor have they contested the applicability of Service Tax on the said expense. In absence of any reply or any supporting documents, it is held that Legal fees expense incurred by the appellant are expenses towards Legal services. Accordingly, Service Tax amounting to Rs. 31800/- on Legal Fee expense incurred by the appellant during the period F.Y. 2016-17 is upheld.
Conclusion - i) The appellant's deliberate misrepresentation of service nature and forgery of documents constituted a clear intent to evade service tax. ii) The imposition of interest and penalties was justified given the appellant's failure to deposit collected service tax and misrepresentation of taxable services. iii) The appellant's claims of duplication in service tax computation were unsupported by evidence, leading to the rejection of these claims. iv) The service tax liability on legal fees under RCM was upheld due to the lack of contestation or evidence from the appellant.
There are no infirmity in the impugned order - appeal dismissed.
The core legal questions considered in this judgment were:
(i) Whether the services provided by the appellant, Allahabad Development Authority (ADA), fall under the purview of service tax and are appropriately classifiable under "construction of complex service".
(ii) Whether ADA is eligible for exemptions under various notifications, as claimed by them.
(iii) Whether the show cause notice was rightly issued to ADA under the extended period provision.
(iv) Whether the demand for service tax is maintainable, interest is leviable, and the proposal for imposition of penalties justified.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
(i) Classification under "Construction of Complex Service"
The relevant legal framework included Section 65(30a) and Section 65(91a) of the Finance Act, 1994, which define "construction of complex" and "residential complex". The Court examined the statutory provisions and concluded that ADA's activities of constructing and selling residential complexes fall under "construction of complex service". The Court relied on the self-acknowledged construction activity by ADA and the statutory provisions to classify the service correctly.
(ii) Eligibility for Exemptions
The Court considered various notifications, including Notification No. 25/2012-ST and Notification No. 1/2006-ST, which provide exemptions and abatements for certain services. The Court noted that ADA claimed exemptions as a government authority under these notifications. However, the Court found that the exemptions did not apply to ADA's activities, as the services provided were not statutory functions performed in the public interest. The Court referenced CBEC Circulars and previous judgments to support its conclusion.
(iii) Issuance of Show Cause Notice under Extended Period
The Court analyzed whether the extended period for issuing the show cause notice was justified. It found that ADA had not obtained service tax registration, paid service tax, or submitted information to the department, constituting suppression of facts with the intent to evade payment. Thus, the invocation of the extended period was deemed justified.
(iv) Maintainability of Service Tax Demand, Interest, and Penalties
The Court upheld the demand for service tax, including interest under Section 75 of the Finance Act, 1994, as mandatory. Regarding penalties, the Court found no merits in imposing penalties under Section 78 due to the lack of intent to evade tax by ADA, a government authority. However, penalties under Section 77 for failure to comply with statutory provisions were upheld.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Court held that ADA's activities are classifiable under "construction of complex service" and are subject to service tax. It emphasized that exemptions claimed by ADA were not applicable, as the services were not statutory functions. The Court supported the invocation of the extended period due to ADA's non-compliance and suppression of facts. However, it allowed for the redetermination of taxable value after considering abatement, remanding the matter to the Original Authority for de-novo adjudication.
The Court partially allowed the appeal, setting aside the demand for the extended period and penalties under Section 78, while upholding penalties under Section 77. The matter was remanded for reconsideration within three months.
Classification of services - construction of complex service or not - services provided by the appellant, Allahabad Development Authority (ADA) - denial of benefit of abatement - extended period of limitation.
Classification of services - construction of complex service or not - services provided by the appellant, Allahabad Development Authority (ADA) - HELD THAT:- The issue involved in the present case is squarely covered by the decision of Hon’ble jurisdictional Allahabad High Court in the case of GREATER NOIDA INDUSTRIAL DEV. AUTHORITY VERSUS COMMR. OF CUS., C. EX. [2015 (4) TMI 1231 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] by holding that 'The fee or amount collected as per the provisions of the relevant statute for performing such functions is in the nature of a compulsory levy and are deposited into the Government account. Such activities are purely in public interest and are undertaken as mandatory and statutory functions. These are not to be treated as services provided for a consideration. Therefore, such activities assigned to be performed by a sovereign/public authority under the provisions of any law, do not constitute taxable services. Any amount/fee collected in such cases are not to be treated as consideration for the purposes of levy of Service Tax.'
The decision of the Tribunal in case Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority [2014 (9) TMI 306 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] has not been agreed to by the larger bench of Tribunal in case of Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation Ltd. [2025 (2) TMI 211 - CESTAT NEW DELHI - LB] and Larger Bench has observed settled the issue stating 'The value of “premium” or “salami” is exigible to service tax under “renting of immovable property” for the period prior to 01.07.2012 under section 65(105)(zzzz) of the Finance Act and from 01.07.2012 under section 66B of the Finance Act.'
The submission made by the appellant that they are not liable to pay service tax being government authority in respect of the services in dispute, is thus devoid of merits.
Denial of abatement - HELD THAT:- The appellant have claimed benefit of abatement for determination of the value of taxable services provided by them which has been denied for production of sufficient documents admissibility. Denial of such abatement cannot be justified and the value of taxable services needs to be determined after allowing for abatement either under the composition scheme or on the basis of actual documents, if documents produced. The said view is in line with the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of COMMISSIONER, CENTRAL EXCISE & CUSTOMS VERSUS M/S LARSEN & TOUBRO LTD. AND OTHERS [2015 (8) TMI 749 - SUPREME COURT] wherein following has been held that 'It is interesting to note that while introducing the concept of service tax on indivisible works contracts various exclusions are also made such as works contracts in respect of roads, airports, airways transport, bridges, tunnels, and dams. These infrastructure projects have been excluded and continue to be excluded presumably because they are conceived in the national interest. If learned counsel for the revenue were right, each of these excluded works contracts could be taxed under the five sub-heads of Section 65(105) contained in the Finance Act, 1994.'
For redetermination of value of taxable services, the matter remanded back to the Original Authority after allowing the abatement.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- Appellant being a development authority duly constituted by the Government under Section-4 of the Uttar Pradesh Town Planning and Development Act on 20 August 1974 by the Government’s release dated 09-08-1974 to solve the complex housing problem arising out of the pressure of this growing population, cannot be imputed with intention to evade payment off service tax. Hence, there are no merits in invocation of extended period of limitation for making this demand - the demand for normal period of limitation upheld.
Conclusion - i) ADA's activities are classifiable under "construction of complex service" and are subject to service tax. ii) The exemptions claimed by ADA were not applicable, as the services were not statutory functions. iii) There are no merits in invocation of extended period of limitation for making this demand.
Matter is remanded back to the Original Authority for consideration and de-novo adjudication - Appeal allowed in part.
The primary issue considered was whether a sub-contractor is liable to pay service tax when the main contractor has already discharged the service tax liability on the entire contract value. Additionally, the tribunal examined the classification of services rendered by the appellant and the applicability of the extended period of limitation for demanding service tax.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Liability of Sub-Contractor for Service Tax
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The tribunal considered the legal position under Section 68 of the Finance Act, 1994, which mandates that every person providing taxable service must pay service tax. The Board's Circular No. 96/7/2007-ST dated 23.08.2007 clarified that sub-contractors are liable for service tax even if the main contractor has already paid it. The tribunal also referred to the Larger Bench decision in Commissioner of ST, New Delhi V. M/s. Melange Developers Pvt. Ltd, which confirmed the liability of sub-contractors.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The tribunal noted that the sub-contractor is a taxable service provider and must discharge service tax liability irrespective of the main contractor's payment. This interpretation aligns with the statutory framework and the Larger Bench's ruling.
Key Evidence and Findings: The tribunal acknowledged the existence of conflicting tribunal decisions and the subsequent resolution by the Larger Bench, which overruled previous contrary views.
Application of Law to Facts: The tribunal applied the statutory requirement for service tax payment to the sub-contractor, affirming the legal obligation despite the main contractor's tax discharge.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The appellant's reliance on Trade Notice No. 53-C.E (service Tax) /97 was considered, but the tribunal emphasized the subsequent Board Circular and Larger Bench decision, which clarified the sub-contractor's liability.
Conclusions: The tribunal concluded that the sub-contractor is liable to pay service tax, but due to the appellant's reliance on the earlier Trade Notice and lack of suppression, the demand was not sustained for the disputed period.
2. Classification of Services
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The tribunal referred to Section 65(105)(zzzza) of the Finance Act, 1994, and the Supreme Court's decision in Commissioner of Central Excise & Customs Vs. Larsen & Toubro Ltd., which clarified the classification of services with materials under 'Works Contract Service'.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The tribunal found that the services provided by the appellant, being composite in nature, were classifiable under 'Works Contract Service' post-June 01, 2007.
Key Evidence and Findings: The tribunal relied on documentary evidence showing that the appellant provided services with materials, satisfying the conditions for classification under 'Works Contract Service'.
Application of Law to Facts: The tribunal determined that no service tax was payable prior to June 01, 2007, as the services were rendered with materials. Post-June 01, 2007, the demand could only be made under 'Works Contract Service', which was not proposed by the Revenue.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The tribunal considered the appellant's argument regarding the abatement benefit and classification, aligning with the Supreme Court's precedent.
Conclusions: The tribunal concluded that the appellant was not liable for service tax under 'Commercial or Industrial Construction Services' for the disputed period.
3. Invocation of Extended Period of Limitation
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The tribunal examined the conditions under which the extended period of limitation could be invoked, focusing on the absence of wilful misstatement or suppression of facts.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The tribunal found that the appellant had regularly filed returns and disclosed non-payment of service tax as a sub-contractor. The department's prior audits did not object to this practice.
Key Evidence and Findings: The tribunal noted the appellant's compliance with the earlier Trade Notice and the department's knowledge of the facts.
Application of Law to Facts: The tribunal held that the extended period of limitation was not applicable due to the absence of suppression or misstatement by the appellant.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The tribunal considered the department's reliance on the Board Circular but emphasized the appellant's adherence to previous guidance.
Conclusions: The tribunal concluded that the invocation of the extended period of limitation was not justified.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Preserve Verbatim Quotes of Crucial Legal Reasoning: "A sub-contractor would be liable to pay Service Tax even if the main contractor has discharged Service Tax liability on the activity undertaken by the sub-contractor in pursuance of the contract."
Core Principles Established: The tribunal reinforced the principle that sub-contractors are liable for service tax irrespective of the main contractor's payment, aligning with statutory provisions and judicial precedents.
Final Determinations on Each Issue: The tribunal set aside the demand for service tax, interest, and penalties due to the appellant's reliance on earlier guidance and the absence of suppression. The appeal was allowed with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Liability of sub-contractor to pay service tax when the main contractor has already discharged the service tax liability on the entire contract value - Commercial or Industrial Construction Service - Retrospective applicability of the Circular - invocation of extended period of limitation - interest and penalties - HELD THAT:- Even if the main contractor pays Service Tax on the full amount, the sub-contractor shall be liable to pay Service Tax for the services rendered by them to the main contractor.
It is found that during period under dispute, Trade Notice. No.53-C.E (service Tax) /97 dated 04.07.1997 was in existence, which clarified that the sub contractor is not liable to pay service tax when the main contractor discharges service tax on the entire value. Thus, the appellant cannot be held responsible for non payment of service tax for the period under dispute.
Retrospective applicability of the Circular - HELD THAT:- The circular is oppressive in nature in-as-much-as it has taken a diagonally opposite view that has been taken in the Trade Notice. This circular has put the burden of discharging the liability of service tax to the sub- contractor. It has been held in the case of Commissioner of Central Excise, Bangalore Vs. Mysore Electrical Industries Ltd. [2006 (11) TMI 202 - SUPREME COURT] and also in the case of Suchitra Components Ltd Vs Commissioner of C. Ex, Guntur [2007 (1) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] that a beneficial circular has to be applied retrospectively while an oppressive circular has to be applied prospectively. Thus, the said Circular cannot be applied retrospectively.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The appellant have not suppressed any information from the department. The appellant has followed the clarification issued in the Trade Notice. No.53-C.E (service Tax) /97 dated 04.07.1997. They have regularly filed ST-3 returns and declared in the ST- 3 returns that they have not paid service tax as a sub-contractor as the principal contractor paid service tax. The departmental audit conducted on February 20, 2008 has not issued any objection for non-payment of service tax as a sub-contractor - the extended period of limitation was not applicable due to the absence of suppression or misstatement by the appellant.
Interest and penalties - HELD THAT:- Since the demand of service tax is not sustained, there is no question of demanding interest and imposing penalties.
Conclusion - A sub-contractor would be liable to pay Service Tax even if the main contractor has discharged Service Tax liability on the activity undertaken by the sub-contractor in pursuance of the contract. Extended period of limitation as well as interest and penalties set aside.
The impugned order set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether transportation of coal within the mining area with incidental loading is classifiable under mining services or transportation services, and whether the demand of service tax, interest, and penalty could survive.
Analysis: The scope of the work orders showed that the appellant was engaged in transportation of coal within the mines. Applying the principles of service classification under sections 65A and 66F of the Finance Act, 1994, the activity was held to be more appropriately classifiable as transportation service and not as service in relation to mining of mineral, oil or gas under section 65(105)(zzzy) of the Finance Act, 1994. The conclusion was supported by the decision of the Supreme Court in Singh Transporters and by the Tribunal's earlier view in Ambey Mining Pvt. Ltd., both holding that transportation of coal within mining areas does not become mining service merely because it occurs inside the mines.
Conclusion: The demand of service tax under mining services was unsustainable and was set aside. As the tax demand did not survive, the interest and penalty demands also failed and were set aside.
Classification of services - mining services or not - transportation services provided by the Appellant within the mines - HELD THAT:- The appellant has rendered the activities of "Transportation within the mines" and the said services cannot be classified under the category of "Mining Services”. It is observed that the ld. adjudicating authority has classified the said transportation services with incidental loading, and confirmed the demand, under the category of "Mining Services" on the ground that the said services are provided within the Mines. However, going by the scope of works under the contract and applying the principles of classification set out under sections 65A and 66F of the Finance Act, 1994, it is observed that the said services cannot be taxed under the category of "Mining Services”. It is clear that the services are appropriately classifiable under the category of "Transportation Services" on which the Appellant is not liable to pay Service Tax.
Conclusion - The transport services are logistic services which are not understood as a mining activity in the common parlance. The activity of transportation is not understood as an activity in relation to mining of mineral, oil or gas. Transport services are 'post mining activity’ and hence, the transport services provided by the appellant cannot be classified under "Mining Services”. The demand of Service Tax under the category of ‘Mining Services’ is not sustainable.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether excise proceedings initiated against a deceased proprietorship proprietor could be continued against the legal heir and whether such heir had locus standi to maintain the appeal.
Analysis: The proceedings for excise demand were initiated against a proprietor who had died before the adjudication concluded. In the absence of any statutory machinery comparable to the Income-tax Act provisions governing representatives of deceased assessees, the excise law could not be stretched to fasten liability on legal heirs. A taxing statute must be construed strictly, and nothing can be read into it by implication to continue assessment or recovery against a dead person. The cited income-tax provisions and the distinction drawn in precedent between a deceased individual and a dissolved firm reinforced that, without an express enabling provision, proceedings against the deceased could not survive against the heir. The appellant also failed to establish that he had legally stepped into the proprietorship.
Conclusion: The appeal was not maintainable and the proceedings could not be continued against the legal heir. The issue was decided in favour of the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The adjudication against the deceased proprietor was left undisturbed and the challenge by the claimed legal heir failed.
Ratio Decidendi: In the absence of an express statutory mechanism, excise proceedings cannot be continued against the legal heir of a deceased proprietor, and a taxing statute cannot be expanded by implication to create such liability.
Proceedings for demand of tax against a deceased proprietor, to be continued against his legal heirs or not - legal heir has the locus standi to challenge the impugned order or not - HELD THAT:- All the proceedings for demand of tax etc are alive till the proprietor is alive and will die with him, as has been held by Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of M/s Shabina Abraham [2015 (7) TMI 1036 - SUPREME COURT].
As the death certificate of the proprietor is available in the file, there are o merits for entertaining this appeal. The proceedings initiated against the deceased proprietor of proprietorship firm could not have been continued against his legal heir. In terms of Section 22, if legal heir or any person intends to make a claim against this appeal he should have file an appeal under Rule 22 and that was possible only when the appeal was filed before the date of death of proprietor and in this case that is not so. Hence, the appeal is dismissed as not maintainable as Shri Nadeem Akhtar, appellant could not produce the documents as observed by first Appellate Authority evidencing that he has taken over the proprietor ship concern of his father.
Conclusion - The proceedings initiated against the deceased proprietor of proprietorship firm could not have been continued against his legal heir.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether royalty formed part of the assessable value of coal; (ii) Whether stowing excise duty and Assam land tax were excludible from the assessable value under the valuation provision; (iii) Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Issue (i): Whether royalty formed part of the assessable value of coal.
Analysis: The valuation dispute was decided in the light of the prevailing Supreme Court position that royalty is not a tax. Since the exclusion under the valuation provision is confined to duty of excise, sales tax and other taxes actually paid or payable, royalty did not fall within the excluded categories. The component was therefore required to be added while arriving at the assessable value.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the assessee and in favour of the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether stowing excise duty and Assam land tax were excludible from the assessable value under the valuation provision.
Analysis: Stowing excise duty was treated under the governing coal legislation as a duty of excise, and the exclusion for duty of excise in the valuation provision was held not to be confined to central excise duty alone. Assam land tax was treated as a tax within the meaning of the exclusion for taxes actually paid or payable. On that basis, both components were held not to form part of the assessable value.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.
Issue (iii): Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Analysis: The demand was based on a disclosed valuation method followed in returns and records, and the finding dropping penalty had attained finality as the Revenue did not challenge it. In the absence of suppression of facts, wilful misstatement or intent to evade duty, the ingredients for invoking the extended period were not made out.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded in part, with relief granted on the valuation of stowing excise duty and Assam land tax and on limitation, while royalty remained includible in the assessable value.
Valuation of Central Excise duty - inclusion of components like “Royalty”, “Stowing Excise Duty” (SED), and “Assam Land Tax” in the assessable value - invocation of extended period of limitation -penalty - HELD THAT:- As on date, the issue as to whether “Royalty” is tax of not, stands clearly held against the appellant in view of the 9 Member Supreme Court decision in the case of MINERAL AREA DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY & ANR. VERSUS M/S STEEL AUTHORITY OF INDIA & ANR ETC. [2024 (7) TMI 1390 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]. Therefore, on merits the appellants do not have any case. Accordingly, we hold that the Royalty component is required to be added to arrive at the Assessable Value. We dismiss the appeal on merits to this extent in respect of Royalty component.
he levy is being termed as “Duty of Excise” and also being treated as such. It is also not disputed that in the case of the goods in question, the Stowing Excise Duty is being paid by the appellant. The Revenue cannot take a contorted and narrow view that only when the Duty of Excise is paid as Central Excise Duty, such exclusion is available. It is to be noted that the word used is “duty of excise” along with “sales tax” and “other taxes”, which would clarify that if these are paid to State Govt or to any other agency also, the transaction value should exclude the same.
Assam Land Tax - HELD THAT:- The very word used therein is Tax. As we have observed above, the Section 4 (3) (d), when speaking of Tax, speaks of Central Govt and State Govt Taxes. Hence, we hold that the Assam Land Tax is not required to be included while arriving at the Assessable Value. Accordingly, we set side the confirmed demand on account of the Assam Land Tax component.
Time limitation - HELD THAT:- Admittedly the appellant is a reputed Public Sector Undertaking, having no necessity to indulge in any suppression with an intent to evade Excise Duty payment. They have been paying the Excise Duty on the AV arrived at by them as per their interpretation and filing their Returns. Hence, no case of suppression has been made out by the Revenue, so as to invoke the extended period provisions.
Levy of penalty - HELD THAT:- When the penalty under Section 11AC is waived on the ground that no case of suppression has been made out, even the duty demand would not legally sustain. There cannot be a case where it is held that there is no suppression, but only the penalty is dropped, but the Duty is confirmed. Both the Duty as well as penalty are required to be dropped if the case of suppression is not made out.
Conclusion - i) The demand on account of Royalty component sustains. ii) The demand on account of Stowing Excise Duty and Assam Land Tax components gets set aside. iii) The confirmed demand towards the extended period stands set aside and the demand stands allowed on account of time- bar to this extent.
Appeal allowed in part.
Issues: Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked for the demand of central excise duty on performance incentive received from buyers.
Analysis: The adjudicating authority had dropped penalty under Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944, on the basis that there was no fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts, or contravention with intent to evade duty, and that finding had attained finality as it was not challenged by the Revenue. In view of that final finding, the ingredients necessary to sustain invocation of the extended period were absent.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was held to be not invokable. The demand was consequently set aside and the appeal succeeded.
Levy of Centrat Excise Duty - amount of performance incentive received from the buyers for the Financial Year 2010-11 - suppression of facts or not - invocation of extended period of limitation - penalty - HELD THAT:- In this case, it is found that the observation of the adjudicating authority while dropping the penalty against the appellant under Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944, has attained finality - the extended period of limitation is not invokable in the facts and circumstances of the case.
The extended period of limitation is not invokable. Consequently, whole of the demand is set aside - appeal allowed.
Process amounting to manufacture - whether the excise duty paid by appellant by utilizing the CENVAT credit is recoverable? - HELD THAT:- While disposing the Revenue appeal regarding manufacture, it is beyond the scope of show cause notice since there is no such allegation as to the activity of the appellant not falling under manufacture in the Show cause notice.
Moreover, the issue is well settled by the decision of this Tribunal in M/S. MINERAL ENTERPRISES LIMITED VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CUSTOMS AND SERVICE TAX [2017 (5) TMI 99 - CESTAT BANGALORE], M/S. MINERALS ENTERPRISES LTD. VERSUS THE COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE, BANGALORE [2017 (10) TMI 500 - CESTAT BANGALORE] and M/S. MINERAL ENTERPRISES LTD. VERSUS THE COMMISSIONER OF CUSTOMS, BANGALORE [2024 (8) TMI 848 - CESTAT BANGALORE] holding that the activity carried out by the Appellant is manufacture. As regards allegation of considering the excise duty paid by the appellant has deposit, there are strong force in the contention of the appellant that once the duty is not exempted absolutely, as per the provision of Section 5(1) of the Central Excise Act, it is an option available to the appellant to either opt for the benefit of Notification No. 23/2003-CE or not and it is for the assessee to decide the best method of making payment and merely if the assessee fails to avail the benefit of said notification, no allegation can be made that they have made an attempt to evade duty and to confirm demand of duty and impose penalty alleging violation of provision of law.
Conclusion - The findings on manufacture by the Appellate Authority are beyond the scope of the Show Cause Notice and were settled by previous Tribunal decisions in favor of the appellant.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the assessable value of clinkers transferred to sister concerns for captive use had to be determined under Rule 4 read with Rule 11 of the Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000, or under Rule 8 of those Rules. (ii) Whether penalty was sustainable in a valuation dispute of this nature.
Issue (i): Whether the assessable value of clinkers transferred to sister concerns for captive use had to be determined under Rule 4 read with Rule 11 of the Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000, or under Rule 8 of those Rules.
Analysis: The valuation dispute was governed by the statutory scheme of Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and the sequential operation of the Valuation Rules. Following the binding precedent already applied in the appellant's own case, Rule 8 was held inapplicable where part of the production was cleared to independent buyers, and Rule 4 read with Rule 11 was preferred for determining value. The later amendment by Notification No. 14/2013-CE (NT) dated 22.11.2013 did not alter the result for the period in dispute. The plea of revenue neutrality was treated only as a factor relevant to intention and not as a substitute for the statutory valuation method.
Conclusion: The correct valuation method was Rule 4 read with Rule 11, not Rule 8, and the matter required redetermination on that basis.
Issue (ii): Whether penalty was sustainable in a valuation dispute of this nature.
Analysis: Since the dispute turned on interpretation of the valuation provisions and the Tribunal had accepted the appellant's contention on the governing method of valuation for the purposes of remand, penalty was not justified on the facts recorded.
Conclusion: Penalty was set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded to the extent of remand for fresh quantification under the correct valuation rule, while the penalty component was annulled.
Ratio Decidendi: Where excisable goods are transferred to sister units but part of the production is also sold to independent buyers, valuation must follow Rule 4 read with Rule 11 of the Central Excise Valuation Rules rather than Rule 8, and revenue neutrality does not displace the statutory method of valuation.
Method of Valuation - clinkers transferred by the appellant to their sister concern - to be valued under Rule 8 of Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000 or under Rule 4 read with Rule 11 of Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000? - Revenue neutrality - HELD THAT:- This Tribunal in appellant’s own case for their own unit for the period from March 2011 to November 2013 held that Rule 4 read with Rule 11 of the Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000 be adopted following the judgment of the Larger Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Ispat Industries case [2006 (9) TMI 181 - SUPREME COURT].
This Tribunal in M/S. ULTRATECH CEMENT LTD., (UNIT: RAJASHREE CEMENT WORKS) , VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE AND CUSTOMS, [2024 (1) TMI 663 - CESTAT BANGALORE] observed as 'we have no hesitation to hold that the appropriate rules for determination of the assessable value of the goods for the transferred clinkers to sister units will be Rule 4 read with 11 of the Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2004 rather than Rule 8 of the Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000 for the period in question.'
Revenue neutrality - HELD THAT:- The revenue neutrality is not a statutory concept but a principle of equity developed by courts as a mitigating factor in appreciating the intention of the persons while applying the principle of law to a particular situation to determine the reason for non-payment of duty. Revenue neutrality cannot be considered as an incentive not to follow the statutory provision governing principle of valuation solely on the ground that the other unit could avail the benefit of credit of the differential duty payable.
Conclusion - i) The goods transferred should be valued under Rule 4 read with Rule 11. ii) Revenue neutrality cannot be a reason to deviate from statutory provisions and that the correct method of valuation should be applied.
Appeal allowed by way of remand.
The primary issues considered in this judgment are:
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Applicability of Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004
Issue 2: Sustainability of the Demand, Interest, and Penalty
Issue 3: Applicability of the Extended Period of Limitation
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Reversal of CENVAT Credit under Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, due to provisions made in the books for slow-moving inventory - invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The appellant had not written off the obsolete items. They only reduced the value of the slow-moving items, at the end of each financial year, if such inputs were lying in stock for a specified period. It is intended to determine the profit & loss at the end of the year. It is based on the principle of conservatism and to comply with the Accounting Standards, which was never with an intention to write off any portion of inventory in the Books of Accounts. Since it is not concerned with obsolete items, which are unusable, we hold that the provision of Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules was not applicable.
The issue is no more res integra as the issue has been decided by this Tribunal in the case of M/S. STEEL AUTHORITY OF INDIA LIMITED VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE, DURGAPUR NOW COMMISSIONER, CGST & CX, BOLPUR COMMISSIONERATE [2024 (12) TMI 1538 - CESTAT KOLKATA], wherein it has been held that the provisions of Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Rules are not applicable in such cases.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The appellant is a wholly owned Govt. of India undertaking whose complete set of records were maintained and whose accounts were audited by statutory auditors appointed by CAG as well as supplementary audit by representatives of CAG-New Delhi. The appellant did not suppress any information from the Department and in fact maintained all the statutory documents, records/registers and accounts and filed the statutory returns. Thus, it is observed that the conditions precedent for invoking longer period of limitation under proviso to Section 11A(4) of the Central Excise Act are not satisfied in the present case and hence the demand confirmed by invoking the extended period of limitation is not sustainable.
Conclusion - i) Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, does not apply to provisions for slow-moving inventory that are not written off. ii) The demand, interest, and penalty set aside as unsustainable. iii) The extended period of limitation under Section 11A(4) was not applicable due to the appellant's transparent and audited practices.
The demands confirmed in the impugned order set aside - appeal allowed.
The core legal questions considered in this judgment pertain to the eligibility of CENVAT Credit claimed by the appellant, particularly concerning:
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Eligibility of GTA Services for CENVAT Credit
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The eligibility of GTA services as input services is governed by the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. The Tribunal referred to the decision in M/s. The Ramco Cements Ltd. v. Commissioner of C.Ex., Puducherry, which established that for FOR destination contracts, the place of removal extends to the customer's premises, allowing for CENVAT Credit on GTA services.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized that the issue is no longer res integra due to established precedents, affirming that GTA services qualify as input services when goods are sold on an FOR basis.
Conclusions: The appellant is entitled to CENVAT Credit on GTA services for goods sold on an FOR basis, and the denial of such credit is unjustified.
2. Eligibility of Clearing and Forwarding Agency Services
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The Tribunal considered decisions such as CCE v. Cadila Healthcare Ltd. and Nitco Ltd. v. C.C.E. & S.T. Daman, which support the eligibility of clearing and forwarding services for CENVAT Credit.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reiterated that clearing and forwarding services are integral to the distribution of goods in FOR contracts and therefore qualify as input services.
Conclusions: The appellant is entitled to CENVAT Credit for clearing and forwarding services in FOR destination contracts.
3. Location-Based Denial of CENVAT Credit
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, defines input services broadly, allowing for credit irrespective of the location of service receipt. Decisions such as Deepak Fertilizers & Petrochemicals Corpn. Ltd. v. CCE, Belapur were considered.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the services received at locations other than the manufacturing premises still qualify as input services, as they are essential to the appellant's business operations.
Conclusions: The denial of CENVAT Credit based on the location of service receipt is not sustainable.
4. Proceedings Against ISD
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The Tribunal referred to cases like Castrol India Ltd. v. CCE, Kolkata-VI and Indsil Energy Electrochemicals Ltd. v. CCE & ST, Raipur, which establish that any challenge to credit should be directed at the ISD.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that no proceedings were initiated against the ISD, and thus, the denial of credit at the appellant's end is improper.
Conclusions: The proceedings should have targeted the ISD, and the appellant's credit claim cannot be denied on this basis.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Core principles established: The Tribunal established that for FOR destination contracts, the place of removal includes the customer's premises, and services integral to this process qualify for CENVAT Credit. The Tribunal also reinforced that proceedings should be initiated against ISDs when challenging credit distributions.
Final determinations on each issue: The Tribunal concluded that the appellant is entitled to CENVAT Credit for GTA and clearing and forwarding services, and the denial of credit based on service location is unsustainable. Additionally, the Tribunal held that proceedings should have been initiated against the ISD, not the appellant.
Verbatim quotes of crucial legal reasoning: The Tribunal quoted from M/s. The Ramco Cements Ltd. case, emphasizing the need to ascertain the place of removal for FOR contracts to determine credit eligibility.
The Tribunal set aside the impugned orders, allowing the appeals with consequential relief as per law, thereby affirming the appellant's entitlement to CENVAT Credit and negating the penalties imposed.
CENVAT credit - input services - GTA services used for transportation of goods on FOR basis - initiation of proceedings against the Input Service Distributor (ISD) instead of the appellant for the alleged incorrect availment of CENVAT Credit.
Whether the appellant is entitled to CENVAT Credit in respect of GTA services and clearing and forwarding agency services in case of FOR destination contracts or not? - HELD THAT:- The said issue has been examined by this Tribunal in the case of M/s. The Ramco Cements Ltd. v. Commissioner of C.Ex., Puducherry [2023 (12) TMI 1332 - CESTAT CHENNAI-LB] wherein it has been observed that 'the eligibility of CENVAT credit on GTA services for outward transportation should be determined by ascertaining the place of removal based on the facts of each case, considering the Supreme Court's judgments and the Board's Circular.' - Thus, the appellant is entitled for availment of CENVAT Credit on GTA services and clearing and forwarding agency service in case the good are sold on FOR basis. Accordingly, the CENVAT Credit cannot be denied.
Whether proceedings should have been initiated against the Input Service Distributor (ISD) instead of the appellant for the alleged incorrect availment of CENVAT Credit? - HELD THAT:- The appellant has availed CENVAT Credit on the basis of invoices issued by their ISD and admittedly, no proceedings had been initiated against the ISD. In these circumstances, the CENVAT Credit availed at the end of the appellant cannot be denied, as held by this Tribunal in the case of Indsil Energy Electrochemicals Ltd. v. Commissioner of C.Ex. and S.Tax, Raipur [2016 (9) TMI 944 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] - the CENVAT Credit in respect of the said input services cannot be denied to the appellant.
Conclusion - The appellant had correctly taken CENVAT Credit and the denial of CENVAT Credit is therefore not sustainable. Accordingly, no penalty is imposable on the appellant.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether duty demand on clearances to a sister unit was sustainable when any additional duty paid would be available as Cenvat credit, making the exercise revenue neutral.
Analysis: The appellant cleared goods to its sister unit on payment of duty under Rule 8 of the Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000 by adopting 110% of cost of production as determined under CAS-4. The additional duty, if any, would remain available as Cenvat credit to the receiving unit. On these facts, the valuation dispute did not result in any real revenue gain to the exchequer, and the situation was treated as revenue neutral.
Conclusion: The demand was held unsustainable and the appeal was allowed in favour of the assessee.
Extended period of limitation - undervaluation of goods - stock transfer to related units - contravention of provisions of Section 4(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 read with Rule 8 and Rule 9 of the Valuation Rules - Revenue Neutrality - HELD THAT:- In this case, the appellant has cleared the goods to their sister unit on payment of duty under Rule 8 of the Central Excise Valuation (Determination of Price of Excisable Goods) Rules, 2000, by adopting 110% of the cost of the product determined as per CAS-4. If any excess duty is to be paid by the appellant, the same is entitled to take the cenvat credit by the appellant’s unit only.
In that circumstances, it is the case of revenue neutrality as held by this Tribunal in the case of M/s Hindalco Industries Limited [2023 (5) TMI 720 - CESTAT KOLKATA] wherein this Tribunal has held 'When excess paid duty is adjusted against the short payment that net result is that there is no short payment by the Appellant. The Adjudicating Authority failed to do this adjustment. Demanding duty onlu on the short payment, ignoring the excess payment is bad in law. Accordingly we hold that the demand confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable.'
Accordingly, relying on the decision of this Tribunal in the case of Hindalco Industries, it is held that it is a revenue neutral situation. No demand is sustainable against the appellant.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the department could adjust the sanctioned rebate against the alleged demand when the earlier order had been set aside and the matter was remanded to the adjudicating authority for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The operative demand had not attained finality because the revisionary authority had set aside the order and remanded the matter. In such a situation, no subsisting demand could be treated as existing for the purpose of appropriation or adjustment of the rebate amount. The authorities relied upon by the department were held distinguishable on facts.
Conclusion: The adjustment of rebate against demand was not sustainable and was set aside.
Challenge to order of adjustment of demand made by the department against the rebate claim which was sanctioned - suo moto adjustment of rebate amount is done - HELD THAT:- The rival submissions have been considered by this court. It finds weight in whatever learned advocate has stated that as on date with the setting aside of the order by the Revisionary Authority, there is no demand which is existing.
Appeal allowed.
The core legal issue in this case revolves around whether the appellant-accused is liable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (NI Act) for the dishonour of four post-dated cheques issued to the respondent-complainant, and whether the amount of compensation awarded by the lower courts was justified. The specific questions considered include:
1. Whether the cheques issued by the appellant-accused constituted a legally enforceable debt or liability under the NI Act.
2. Whether the enhancement of compensation from Rs.3,00,000/- to Rs.9,00,000/- by the appellate and High Court was justified.
3. Whether the appellant-accused was entitled to deduct rent and maintenance dues from the security deposit covered by the cheques.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Legally Enforceable Debt under Section 138 of the NI Act
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 138 of the NI Act mandates that a cheque must be issued for the discharge of any debt or other liability, and its dishonour due to insufficient funds constitutes an offence.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court examined whether the cheques were issued for a legally enforceable debt. The appellant-accused contended that the cheques were given as security for the lease agreement and not for an enforceable debt, as the respondent-complainant did not vacate the flat and continued to occupy it without paying rent.
Key Evidence and Findings: The respondent-complainant admitted during cross-examination that he had not vacated the flat and continued to occupy it without paying rent. The appellant-accused had filed a suit for ejectment and damages, which was decreed in his favour, further supporting his claim.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court found that the appellant-accused was not liable for the full amount of the security deposit since the respondent-complainant had not vacated the flat, and thus, the cheques did not represent a legally enforceable debt.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The respondent-complainant argued that the cheques were issued for the refund of the security deposit. However, the Court concluded that due to the respondent-complainant's continued occupation of the flat without rent, the appellant-accused was entitled to deduct rent and maintenance from the deposit.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the appellant-accused was not liable under Section 138 of the NI Act as the cheques did not constitute a legally enforceable debt.
2. Enhancement of Compensation
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The appellate and High Court had enhanced the compensation from Rs.3,00,000/- to Rs.9,00,000/- based on the dishonoured cheques.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Court scrutinized the basis for compensation enhancement and found it unjustified given the circumstances of the case.
Key Evidence and Findings: The evidence showed that the respondent-complainant continued to occupy the flat without paying rent, which affected the enforceability of the entire cheque amount.
Application of Law to Facts: The Court determined that the enhancement was not warranted as the appellant-accused was entitled to deductions from the security deposit for unpaid rent and maintenance.
Treatment of Competing Arguments: The respondent-complainant's argument for higher compensation was rejected as the evidence supported the appellant-accused's entitlement to deductions.
Conclusions: The Court set aside the enhanced compensation and restored the trial court's original judgment.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Preserve Verbatim Quotes of Crucial Legal Reasoning:
The Court emphasized that "the appellant-accused was definitely not liable to refund the entire security deposit amount of Rs.9,00,000/- covered by the post-dated cheques, to the respondent-complainant because he was entitled to deduct the amount of due rent and maintenance from the said amount."
Core Principles Established:
The judgment reinforced the principle that for a cheque to constitute a legally enforceable debt under Section 138 of the NI Act, the underlying obligation must be clear and uncontested. The entitlement to deductions for unpaid rent and maintenance was also affirmed.
Final Determinations on Each Issue:
The Court quashed the judgments of the appellate and High Court, restoring the trial court's decision, which confined the compensation to Rs.3,00,000/- with the appellant-accused entitled to deductions for unpaid rent and maintenance. The appeals were partly allowed, and the trial court was directed to ensure compliance with the judgment within two months.
Dishonour of Cheque - Security Cheque against renting / leasing of property - whether the appellant-accused is liable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (NI Act) for the dishonour of four post-dated cheques issued to the respondent-complainant, and whether the amount of compensation awarded by the lower courts was justified? - HELD THAT:- It is evident from the record that the appellant-accused was prosecuted for the dishonour of four post-dated cheques totalling to an amount of Rs.9,00,000/- which were issued by him in favour of the respondent-complainant and on presentation, had been dishonoured with an endorsement ‘funds insufficient’. In regard to the dishonour of these four post-dated cheques, the respondentcomplainant instituted four separate complaints. The trial Court convicted the appellant-accused under Section 138 of the NI Act concluding that the specific plea taken by the appellant-accused that he had repaid a sum of Rs.5,00,000/- to the respondentcomplainant was not controverted by the respondent-complainant by way of any rejoinder or counter to the reply notice submitted by the appellant-accused - the trial Court while convicting the appellantaccused for the offence punishable under Section 138 of the NI Act confined the sentence of fine, to Rs.3,00,000/- with simple interest @ 6% per annum from the date of the cheques till realisation, to be paid by the appellant-accused to the respondent-complainant. From the said amount of Rs.3,00,000/-, a sum of Rs.5,000/- was directed to be forfeited to the State Exchequer towards defraying expenses. In default, the appellant-accused was directed to undergo simple imprisonment for a period of one year.
Despite the decree, the respondent-complainant failed to vacate the subject flat on which the appellant-accused, being the decree-holder, was compelled to institute execution proceedings. The Small Causes Court, Bengaluru after perusing the bailiff report which stated that the respondent-complainant(judgment debtor) had locked the subject flat, vide order dated 2nd January, 2020, directed police assistance to break open the locks in order to ensure that the decree is satisfied and possession of the subject flat is handed over to the appellant-accused(decree holder). In compliance of the aforesaid order, the locks were broken and possession of the subject flat was handed over to the appellant accused( decree holder) on 8th January, 2020.
The appellant-accused was definitely not liable to refund the entire security deposit amount of Rs.9,00,000/- covered by the post-dated cheques, to the respondent-complainant because he was entitled to deduct the amount of due rent and maintenance from the said amount. Hence, the respondent-complainant failed to lead evidence to conclusively establish that the entire amount under the post-dated cheques was a legally enforceable debt against the appellantaccused.
Conclusion - The appellant-accused was definitely not liable to refund the entire security deposit amount of Rs.9,00,000/- covered by the post-dated cheques, to the respondent-complainant because he was entitled to deduct the amount of due rent and maintenance from the said amount.
The impugned judgments, dated 6th March, 2018 passed by the appellate Court and dated 8th July, 2024 passed by the High Court are hereby, quashed and set aside. The judgment dated 9th November, 2016 rendered by the trial Court is restored - Appeal allowed in part.
Issues: Whether non-executive directors, who did not sign the dishonoured cheques and against whom the complaints lacked specific averments of responsibility for the company's business, could be proceeded against under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, and whether the criminal proceedings were liable to be quashed.
Analysis: Vicarious liability under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is penal in nature and must be strictly construed. Liability cannot be fastened merely because a person held the office of director. The complaint must contain clear and unambiguous averments showing that, at the relevant time, the accused was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business. Where the accused are non-executive directors, do not sign the cheques, and are shown by the record to have no role in financial or operational management, the statutory requirements are not met. Attendance at board meetings, without more, does not establish control over the transaction or business affairs.
Conclusion: The Appellant(s) were not vicariously liable under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, and the proceedings against them were liable to be quashed.
Final Conclusion: The complaint could not be sustained against the Appellant(s), and the criminal process against them was set aside.
Ratio Decidendi: For prosecution of a director under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the complaint must specifically aver that the director was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business at the time of the offence; absent such pleadings and supporting material, a non-executive director cannot be fastened with vicarious liability.
Dishonour of Cheque - seeking quashing of criminal proceedings initiated against the Appellant(s) under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 - vicarious liability of non-executive directors - HELD THAT:- This Court has consistently held that non-executive and independent director(s) cannot be held liable under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the NI Act unless specific allegations demonstrate their direct involvement in affairs of the company at the relevant time.
In Pooja Ravinder Devidasani v. State of Maharashtra & Anr., [2014 (12) TMI 1070 - SUPREME COURT], this Court while taking into consideration that a non-executive director plays a governance role, they are not involved in the daily operations or financial management of the company, held that to attract liability under Section 141 of the NI Act, the accused must have been actively in charge of the company’s business at the relevant time. Mere directorship does not create automatic liability under the Act. The law has consistently held that only those who are responsible for the dayto- day conduct of business can be held accountable.
There is no material on record to suggest that they were responsible for the issuance of the cheques in question. Their involvement in the company’s affairs was purely non-executive, confined to governance oversight, and did not extend to financial decisionmaking or operational management - The complaint lacks specific averments that establish a direct nexus between the Appellant(s) and the financial transactions in question or demonstrate their involvement in the company’s financial affairs.
Conclusion - Non-executive directors cannot be held liable under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the NI Act without specific allegations of their direct involvement in the company's affairs.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether an accused who was not a signatory to the cheque could be prosecuted for an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 in the absence of specific averments satisfying Section 141 of that Act.
Analysis: Liability under Section 138, in the case of a company, can be fastened on persons other than the signatory only when the complaint contains the necessary averments that, at the time of commission of the offence, such person was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company. The complaint must plead both ingredients required by Section 141(1). On the face of the complaints, there was no assertion that the appellant was in charge of the business of the company when the offence was committed.
Conclusion: The appellant could not be prosecuted under Section 138 with the aid of Section 141, and the cognizance order was quashed as against the appellant.
Dishonour of Cheque - appellant (director of company) is a signatory to the cheque or not - HELD THAT:- As the appellant is not a signatory to the cheque, he is not liable under Section 138 of the 1881 Act. As it is only the signatory to the cheque is liable under Section 138, unless the case is brought within the four corners of Section 141 of the 1881 Act, no other person can be held liable.
There are twin requirements under sub-Section (1) of Section 141 of the 1881 Act. In the complaint, it must be alleged that the person, who is sought to be held liable by virtue of vicarious liability, at the time when the offence was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible to the company for the conduct of the business of the company. A Director who is in charge of the company and a Director who was responsible to the company for the conduct of the business, are two different aspects. The requirement of law is that both the ingredients of sub-Section (1) of Section 141 of the 1881 Act must be incorporated in the complaint. Admittedly, there is no assertion in the complaints that the appellant, at the time of commission of the offence, was in charge of the business of the company. Therefore, on a plain reading of the complaints, the appellant cannot be prosecuted with the aid of sub-Section (1) of Section 141 of the 1881 Act.
Conclusion - The appellant, who was not a signatory to the cheque and did not meet the requirements under Section 141(1) of the 1881 Act, could not be held liable under Section 138.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the promissory note and cheque were supported by consideration and whether the defendant had rebutted the statutory presumption arising from their execution.
Analysis: The dispute turned on the presumption under Section 118(a) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 that negotiable instruments are drawn for consideration unless the contrary is proved. The defendant admitted the signatures but placed surrounding circumstances to show improbability of the alleged loan, including the closure and sale of the mill, the plaintiff's admission that he was only an electrical contractor, inconsistencies in the testimony of the supporting witness, and the absence of convincing proof that the plaintiff actually advanced the amount. The bank statements relied on by the plaintiff were found insufficient to prove withdrawal or passing of consideration on the relevant date. On a total evaluation of the evidence, the defendant raised a probable defence and discharged the initial presumption on a preponderance of probabilities, after which the burden shifted back to the plaintiff, who failed to prove consideration.
Conclusion: The defendant successfully rebutted the presumption attached to the promissory note and cheque, and the plaintiff failed to establish passing of consideration.
Liability of defendant to pay the plaintiff with interest as prayed in the plaint - suit promissory note was supported by consideration or not - discharge of a lawfully owed debt payable under the suit promissory note or not - discharge of legal presumption or not - HELD THAT:- It is needless to state that as per Section 118(a) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 until the contrary is proved, it shall be presumed that every negotiable instrument was made or drawn for consideration. This presumption can be rebutted by the opposing party by way of evidence that the instrument was not issued for consideration effectively disproving the initial presumption. In other words, it is obligatory on the part of the court to raise the initial presumption in every case where the factual basis for the raising of the presumption has been established. Such a presumption is rebuttable. The defendant can prove the non-existence of a consideration by raising a probable defence.
In Kundan Lal Rallara v. The Custodian, Evacuee Property Bombay [1961 (3) TMI 100 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon'ble Supreme Court has held that the presumption of law under Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act could be rebutted, in certain circumstances, by a presumption of fact raised under Section 114 of the Evidence Act.
Whether the execution of Ex.A.1-Promissory Note and Ex.A.2-Cheque have been proved to attract the legal presumption? - Whether the defendant has brought out circumstances to discharge such legal presumption? - HELD THAT:- Though it was stated by the plaintiff that Ex.A.1 Promissory Note was executed by the defendant on 09.09.2014 and Ex.A.2 Cheque dated 15.10.2016 was issued by the defendant in discharge of the legally owned debt under the promissory note, during cross examination, it was clearly admitted by the plaintiff that he was an Electrical Contractor for the defendant mill. P.W.2-P.K.Rajendran in his crossexamination stated that he was present at the time of borrowal of the suit loan by the defendant, but in the chief examination he never spoke about the execution of promissory note nor stated that Ex.A.1 was signed by the defendant in his presence. P.W.2’s evidence had proceeded as if he had signed as a witness on the promissory note.
The burden shifts to the plaintiff to establish the fact that consideration was passed on to the defendant under Ex.A.1 promissory note. The plaintiff has placed much reliance on Ex.A.10-Statement of Account from Axis Bank for the period between 01.08.2024 and 31.08.2024 and Ex.A.11- Statement of Account from Canara Bank for the period between 01.09.2014 to 26.09.2015 relating to Roja Textiles. According to him, from 01.08.2014 to 30.08.2014, he has sufficient funds in the account.
To show whether the plaintiff was running Roja Textiles or not, no material whatsoever was produced by the plaintiff. Even if it is assumed that the plaintiff was running that company, merely showing the income in the account of Roja Textiles would not by itself prove that the plaintiff had sufficient means at the relevant point in time, i.e., on the date of the Ex.A.1 promissory note dated 09.09.2014. Ex.A.10 and Ex.A.11 do not show any entry to prove that the amount had been withdrawn from his bank account to pay the consideration under the promissory note. Therefore, merely showing that some amount is lying in the bank account, by producing a bank statement, it cannot be said that the burden of establishing passing of consideration has been discharged. When the plaintiff was working as an electrical contractor in the defendant's mill and he was aware of the fact that the defendant's mill had been closed and was sold in the year 2013, still by reciting in the promissory note as if the mill was run by the defendant even in the year 2014 and getting a cheque in 2016 drawn by the company that was closed in the year 2013 is highly improbable. It goes against the normal prudence of an ordinary man.
It is further to be noted that though the promissory note was said to be executed on 09.09.2014, a suit was not filed immediately for recovery of money due on the promissory. On the contrary, pursuant to the so-called cheque (Ex.A.2), which was returned dishonored for the reason “account closed,” a notice was caused to the defendant, and thereafter, a private complaint under Section 200 of Cr.P.C. was filed against the defendant alleging an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, before the jurisdictional magistrate - The trial court has completely lost sight of all these aspects of the matter and erred in decreeing the suit of the plaintiff by granting the relief of recovery of money against the defendant.
Conclusion - The plaintiff failed to establish the passing of consideration and the execution of the promissory note and cheque. The defendant successfully rebutted the presumption of consideration and execution under the Negotiable Instruments Act.
The appeal suit is allowed.
TaxTMI