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- Whether the impugned appellate order dated 19th March, 2024, passed by the respondent no.3, is challengeableRs.
- Whether the Circular No. 224/18/2024-GST dated 11th July, 2024, issued by the Ministry of Finance, regarding recovery of outstanding dues in cases of disposed first appeals, is applicable in the present caseRs.
- Whether the petitioner has made out a prima facie case warranting an unconditional stay of the demand of the Appellate order dated 19th March, 2024Rs.
- Whether the petitioner's payment of 10% of the balance amount of tax in dispute, in addition to the amount already deposited, would allow for the continuation of the interim orderRs.
- What are the timelines for filing affidavit-in-opposition and reply in the present writ petitionRs.
Issue-wise Detailed Analysis:
Impugned Appellate Order and Circular:
The petitioner challenges the impugned appellate order dated 19th March, 2024. The petitioner's counsel relies on Circular No. 224/18/2024-GST issued by the Ministry of Finance, which provides guidelines for recovery of outstanding dues in cases where the first appeal has been disposed of. The circular outlines the procedure for making payments and filing appeals before the Appellate Tribunal.
The Court notes the absence of the Appellate Tribunal and decides to hear the petition. It grants an unconditional stay of the demand of the Appellate order for two weeks. The petitioner is given the option to continue the stay by making a payment of 10% of the balance amount of tax in dispute within two weeks.
Prima Facie Case and Stay of Demand:
Considering the materials on record and the absence of the Appellate Tribunal, the Court finds that the petitioner has made out a prima facie case. As a result, an unconditional stay of the demand of the Appellate order is granted for two weeks. The petitioner is further given the opportunity to extend the stay by making a specified payment.
Timelines for Filings:
The Court orders the filing of the affidavit-in-opposition to the writ petition within six weeks and allows for a reply to be filed within one week thereafter. It grants liberty to mention after the exchange of affidavits as per the specified timelines.
Significant Holdings:
The Court has granted an unconditional stay of the demand of the Appellate order dated 19th March, 2024, for a period of two weeks, based on the petitioner's prima facie case. The petitioner has the option to extend the stay by making a payment of 10% of the balance amount of tax in dispute. The timelines for filing affidavits in opposition and reply have been set by the Court.
Challenge to impugned appellate order - reliance placed on Circular No. 224/18/2024-GST dated 11th July, 2024 issued by the Ministry of Finance debarring the guidelines for recovery of outstanding dues in cases wherein first appeal has been disposed of - HELD THAT:- Having considered the materials on record as also taking note of the fact that the Appellate Tribunal is yet to be constituted, it is opined that the petition should be heard.
Since, the petitioner has been able to make out a prima facie case, there shall be an unconditional stay of the demand of the Appellate order dated 19th March, 2024, for a period of two weeks from date - In the event, the petitioner makes payment of 10% of the balance amount of tax in dispute, in addition to the amount already deposited in terms of Section 107 (6) of the said Act, within two weeks from date, the interim order passed herein, shall continue till the disposal of the writ petition or until further order, whichever is earlier.
Let affidavit-in-opposition to the present writ petition be filed within a period of six weeks from date, reply, if any, be filed within one week thereafter.
Issues: Whether a show-cause notice issued under section 73 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 was liable to be interfered with for not recording the adjudicating authority's prima facie reasons after considering the assessee's reply to the final audit report under section 65(6) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: The notice arose after audit proceedings in which the assessee had responded to the discrepancy memo and also to the final audit report. The disputed notice referred to the reply filed by the assessee, but did not disclose why the adjudicating authority was not satisfied with that reply. A show-cause notice must indicate the basis of the prima facie view against the assessee so that an effective reply can be furnished. Since the authority did not deal with the reply to the final audit report or state reasons for its disagreement, the notice was found to be deficient.
Conclusion: The show-cause notice was interfered with to that extent, and the matter was remanded for issuance of a fresh notice recording reasons and for fresh adjudication after giving the assessee reasonable opportunity to reply.
Show-cause notice - reasoned show-cause notice recording prima facie view - opportunity to reply to audit findings - final audit report under section 65(6) of the CGST Act - unspecific and vague notice doctrine
Show-cause notice - reasoned show-cause notice recording prima facie view - opportunity to reply to audit findings - final audit report under section 65(6) of the CGST Act - unspecific and vague notice doctrine - Adequacy of the impugned show-cause notice in relation to the assessee's reply to the final audit report and the requirement to record reasons for the adjudicating authority's prima facie view. - HELD THAT: - The Court examined the show-cause notice which related to a single discrepancy between GSTR-9 and GSTR-1 and observed that, although the adjudicating authority acknowledged receipt of the assessee's reply to the final audit report (filed October 21, 2024), the notice merely extracted that reply and stated in a single line that the decision stands without dealing with or recording reasons why the reply or the documents enclosed were not satisfactory. It reiterated the settled proposition that a show-cause notice must be specific, disclose what passes in the mind of the adjudicating authority and state reasons for the prima facie finding; otherwise it will be unspecific and vague and deny the assessee an effective opportunity to reply. Having regard to sub-section (6) of Section 65 which requires that the proper officer inform the registered person about findings, rights, obligations and reasons for such findings, and to the fact that the assessee had replied to the discrepancy memo and to the final audit report, the Court found the impugned notice deficient insofar as it failed to record reasons dealing with the assessee's reply. The Court accordingly held that the matter required interference limited to that defect and directed a remand for issuance of a fresh show-cause notice which must record the adjudicating authority's prima facie reasons as to why the reply dated October 21, 2024 (and supporting documents) are not satisfactory, afford the assessee reasonable time to reply, and thereafter be adjudicated in accordance with law. [Paras 6, 7, 9, 10, 11]
Impugned show-cause notice set aside to the extent of its failure to record reasons dealing with the assessee's reply; matter remanded for issuance of a fresh, reasoned show-cause notice, opportunity to reply and adjudication in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed in part: the impugned show-cause notice is quashed insofar as it fails to record reasons addressing the assessee's reply to the final audit report; the matter is remanded to the adjudicating authority to issue a fresh reasoned show-cause notice, grant reasonable time to the assessee to reply and thereafter adjudicate the matter in accordance with law. No costs.
Issues: Whether the statutory appeal could be dismissed solely because no formal application for condonation of delay had been filed, when the appeal was otherwise stated to fall within the additional condonable period under Section 107(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Analysis: The appeal was treated as falling within the larger period of limitation under Section 107(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The refusal to entertain the appeal was based only on the absence of a formal condonation application. Following the earlier view taken in an identical matter, such a narrow and pedantic approach was not approved, since the additional condonable period could be invoked to examine the appeal on merits.
Conclusion: The dismissal order was quashed and the appeal was restored before the appellate authority for in accordance with law.
Dismissal of statutory appeal - time limitation - failure on the part of the petitioner to formally seek condonation of delay - HELD THAT:- Undisputedly the appeal would fall within the larger period of limitation which stands constructed in terms of Section 107 (4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 [CGST Act]. The only issue which thus survives is whether despite the explanation which was proffered in the course of hearing of the appeal, the same was liable to be dismissed solely on the ground that the petitioner had not moved a formal application for condonation of delay.
In Urbkra Bearing Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Goods and Services Tax and Others [2025 (2) TMI 665 - DELHI HIGH COURT] it was held that 'In our considered opinion the Additional Commissioner has clearly taken an extremely narrow and pedantic view since the condonable period of an additional 30 days was one which was clearly applicable and could have been invoked for the purposes of entertaining the appeal and trying the challenge on merits.'
The order dated 31 December 2024 is quashed - petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a show cause notice for cancellation of GST registration is valid when it is vague as to reasons, fails to specify the period of default, and is not signed or does not identify the issuing officer by name, designation and office.
2. Whether an order purportedly cancelling GST registration is sustainable when it contains no independent reasons, merely refers to a defective show cause notice, and lacks an individual officer's signature or signified application of mind.
3. Whether a show cause notice rejecting an application for revocation of cancellation is valid when it (a) directs the filer to submit pending returns without specifying material particulars, and (b) is unsigned or does not identify the issuing authority.
4. What is the legal effect of initial procedural defects in the show cause notice on subsequent proceedings (cancellation order and revocation rejection)?
5. What standards of decision-making (reasons, application of mind, procedure) apply to cancellation of GST registration and remedial consequences when those standards are not met?
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of the show cause notice for cancellation (vagueness, omission of period, absence of officer identification/signature)
Legal framework: Cancellation of GST registration may be initiated on specified grounds including non-filing of returns; such proceedings must comply with principles of natural justice and statutory procedure by informing the registrant of the precise grounds and particulars of alleged default so as to enable a meaningful response.
Precedent Treatment: The Court did not rely upon, distinguish or overrule any authority; analysis proceeds on statutory principles and settled norms of reasoned administrative action and notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The show cause notice stated only a generic ground ("returns furnished by you under section 39") and an isolated observation ("Failure to furnish returns for a continuous period of six months") without specifying which returns, the exact period of non-compliance, or the factual basis. It directed appearance before the "undersigned" but did not identify the officer by name, designation or office. It bore a digital signature of an entity (the digital portal) rather than an individual officer. Such vagueness and absence of identifiable signatory deprive the noticee of effective notice of the default and of the person before whom to appear, rendering the notice defective.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A show cause notice is invalid if it fails to particularize the period and nature of default and fails to identify and sign by a responsible officer; such defects vitiate the proceedings.
Conclusions: The show cause notice is defective and unsustainable for want of adequate particulars and proper issuance/signature.
Issue 2 - Validity of the cancellation order in absence of reasons and individual signature
Legal framework: Administrative orders affecting rights (here, registration) must record reasons and reflect application of mind; cancellation being a drastic step requires cogent reasons and proper authorization.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents cited or applied; reasoning follows general requirements of reasoned orders in administrative law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The cancellation order merely referred back to the defective show cause notice, stated an effective date of cancellation, and did not set out reasons or indicate any individual officer's signature (digitally signed by the portal entity). The order therefore displayed non-application of mind and mechanical action, lacking the essential elements of reasoned administrative decision-making.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An order cancelling GST registration must contain reasons and proper authorisation; an order that simply references a defective notice and lacks an individual signatory is vitiated.
Conclusions: The cancellation order is unsustainable for want of reasons and proper signing/authorization; it demonstrates mechanical decision-making and is set aside.
Issue 3 - Validity of the show cause notice rejecting the revocation application (lack of particulars, absence of responsible signatory)
Legal framework: Decisions on revocation of cancellation require notice specifying grounds for rejection and must permit meaningful response; notices must be attributable to an identifiable officer.
Precedent Treatment: No authority applied; Court assessed consistency with statutory expectations and procedural fairness.
Interpretation and reasoning: The revocation-rejection show cause notice asked the petitioner to "PLEASE FILE ALL THE PENDING GST RETURN AND PROVIDE THE TAX LIABLITY SHEET FROM APRIL-23 TO TILL DATE" but did not identify the officer, did not explain application of relevant provision(s), and was digitally signed by the portal entity only. The requirement to file returns without specifying periods and the absence of an identifiable issuing authority rendered the notice vague and defective.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A show cause notice rejecting a revocation application is invalid if it lacks specificity about the required compliance and is not attributed to a proper officer.
Conclusions: The revocation-rejection notice and the consequent order (stating non-filing of reply and rejecting the application) are defective for want of particulars, reasoning and proper signature; they are unsustainable.
Issue 4 - Effect of initial procedural defects on subsequent proceedings
Legal framework: Where an initial step forming the basis of a statutory proceeding is fundamentally defective, subsequent actions dependent upon that step are tainted; administrative action must show bona fide application of mind throughout.
Precedent Treatment: None cited; Court applied principle that the "seed" defect contaminates subsequent proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the initial show cause notice to be the genesis of the entire cancellation process. Because it was defective in multiple material respects, subsequent proceedings (cancellation order and revocation rejection) which flowed from it were rendered unsustainable. The orders displayed complete non-application of mind and mechanical issuance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A fundamental defect in the foundational notice vitiates all consequential orders flowing from it unless and until proper notice and opportunity are provided.
Conclusions: All proceedings emanating from the defective initial show cause notice are set aside.
Issue 5 - Standards for cancellation of GST registration and remedial consequences (requirement of application of mind; restoration subject to compliance; preservation of recovery rights)
Legal framework: Cancellation of registration has serious commercial consequences and therefore requires careful, non-mechanical decision-making with cogent reasons; natural justice and statutory procedure entail stating reasons and providing an opportunity to be heard.
Precedent Treatment: Not invoked; reasoning rests on accepted administrative law principles and statutory expectations under the GST regime.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized that cancellation cannot be done mechanically or casually. Given the defects, the Court set aside the impugned notices and orders and restored registration, while making clear that restoration does not extinguish the revenue authorities' rights to recover tax, penalty or interest in accordance with law, or to initiate new cancellation proceedings after giving proper notice and opportunity of hearing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Restoration is an appropriate remedy where procedural defects are foundational; however, authorities retain the right to pursue substantive recovery or fresh cancellation after complying with proper procedure.
Conclusions: The registration is restored; petitioner must file requisite returns and comply with statutory rules; respondents may pursue recovery or fresh cancellation only after giving proper notice and opportunity of hearing. These directions constitute the operative remedy and establish the requirement that future action adhere to procedural and substantive standards.
Cancellation of GST registration - defective show cause notice - requirement of reasoned order and individual signature - non-application of mind - opportunity of hearing and proper notice - restoration of registration subject to compliance
Defective show cause notice - requirement of reasoned order and individual signature - Validity of the show cause notice dated 11.10.2023 - HELD THAT: - The show cause notice dated 11.10.2023 was held to be vitiated by multiple defects: the reasons stated were vague and did not specify the period of default; the notice directed appearance before the "undersigned" without naming the officer, designation or office; and it was digitally signed by an entity managing the GST portal rather than by an identifiable individual officer. These defects meant the notice did not put the noticee properly on notice and was therefore unsustainable. [Paras 5, 6, 7]
Show cause notice dated 11.10.2023 set aside.
Cancellation of GST registration - non-application of mind - requirement of reasoned order and individual signature - Validity of the order dated 12.01.2024 cancelling the petitioner's GST registration - HELD THAT: - The consequential cancellation order dated 12.01.2024 was found to be devoid of reasons, merely referring to the earlier defective show cause notice and stating an effective date without specifically directing cancellation. The order likewise lacked an individual officer's signature and bore only the digital signature of the portal entity, indicating mechanical action and non-application of mind. Cancellation being a drastic step affecting livelihood requires cogent reasons and proper authorisation. [Paras 8, 11, 12]
Order dated 12.01.2024 cancelling registration set aside; registration restored.
Defective show cause notice - non-application of mind - opportunity of hearing and proper notice - Validity of the show cause notice dated 12.03.2024 and order dated 02.04.2024 rejecting the application for revocation of cancellation - HELD THAT: - The show cause notice dated 12.03.2024 regarding rejection of the revocation application was defective for lacking the name, designation, office or signature of any individual and for stating a generalized direction to file pending returns without adequate specification. The consequent order dated 02.04.2024 rejecting the revocation merely recorded non-filing of a reply and did not contain reasons, reflecting mechanical disposal and lack of application of mind. [Paras 9, 10, 11]
Show cause notice dated 12.03.2024 and order dated 02.04.2024 set aside.
Restoration of registration subject to compliance - opportunity of hearing and proper notice - Consequent directions following setting aside of impugned notices and orders - HELD THAT: - Having set aside the defective proceedings, the Court restored the petitioner's GST registration but directed the petitioner to make necessary compliances and file requisite returns and information under the Act and Rules. The respondents were not precluded from pursuing recovery of tax, penalty or interest or from cancelling registration in future provided they give proper notice and opportunity of hearing in accordance with law. [Paras 13, 14]
Registration restored subject to compliance by the petitioner; respondents free to act lawfully after issuing proper notice and hearing.
Final Conclusion: The High Court allowed the petition: the show cause notice dated 11.10.2023, the cancellation order dated 12.01.2024 and the revocation-rejection proceedings dated 12.03.2024/02.04.2024 were set aside for being defective and mechanically issued; the petitioner's GST registration is restored subject to filing requisite returns and compliances, and respondents may pursue lawful recovery or fresh cancellation only after issuing proper notice and affording opportunity of hearing.
Issues: Whether the appellate authority was justified in rejecting the appeal as time barred without verifying due service of the original order and whether delay in filing the appeal was liable to be condoned.
Analysis: The writ petition challenged the dismissal of the statutory appeal on limitation. The material question was whether the original order had been duly communicated to the petitioner, since the period under section 107 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 runs from communication of the decision or order. The appellate authority rejected the request for condonation without undertaking verification of physical or electronic service and without fair consideration of the petitioner's version regarding receipt of the order.
Conclusion: The rejection of the appeal as barred by limitation was unsustainable. The delay, if any, was condoned and the matter was remitted to the appellate authority for fresh decision on merits.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the date of communication of the order is disputed, limitation for a GST appeal cannot be decided mechanically without verifying due service, and delay may be condoned to enable adjudication on merits.
Condonation of delay in filing appeal - Dismissal of appeal filed by the petitioner as time barred - HELD THAT:- In the considered opinion of this Court, the appellate authority in rejecting the application for condonation of delay and as a consequence rejecting the appeal vide impugned order dated 30/05/2024 on the ground of delay, does not seem to be proper, legal and justified.
The appellate authority ought to have given a fair consideration to the contentions of the petitioner and ought to have got it verified whether the order was duly served either physically or electronically to the petitioner and only then should have taken a decision. In the absence of any such exercise and deciding the application for condonation of delay only on the basis of pleadings, the impugned order, in the considered opinion of this Court, is not sustainable and deserves to be and is accordingly set aside. In consequence thereof, delay, if any in filing the appeal by the petitioner before the appellate Court is hereby condoned.
The matter stands remitted back to the appellate authority i.e. respondent No.1 to consider and decide the appeal filed by the petitioner on its own merits after due verification of the facts - Petition disposed off by way of remand.
Issues: Whether the Appellate Authority under Section 107 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 could condone delay beyond the statutory period of thirty days, and whether Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applied to an appeal filed under that provision.
Analysis: Section 107 prescribes a three-month period for filing an appeal and permits condonation only on sufficient cause being shown for a further period of one month. The provision was treated as a complete code for GST appeals. Since the appeal was filed after more than seven months from the date of the impugned order, the delay exceeded the maximum condonable period. In view of the specific statutory scheme, the general power under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 was held inapplicable to such appeals.
Conclusion: The Appellate Authority had no jurisdiction to condone the delay beyond one month, and dismissal of the appeal as time-barred was upheld against the petitioner.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a special statute prescribes a specific limitation period and permits condonation only up to a defined additional period, the appellate authority cannot invoke the general limitation law to extend that period further.
Condonation of delay under Section 107(4) of the GST Act - appellate jurisdiction under Section 107 of the GST Act as a complete code - exclusion of Section 5 of the Limitation Act
Condonation of delay under Section 107(4) of the GST Act - appellate jurisdiction under Section 107 of the GST Act as a complete code - Whether the Appellate Authority had jurisdiction to condone delay beyond thirty days in an appeal filed under Section 107 of the GST Act. - HELD THAT: - The Court examined Section 107(4) which expressly authorises the Appellate Authority to allow presentation of an appeal within a further period of one month if satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause. The provision was held to be a self-contained code governing condonation in appeals under Section 107. Where an appeal was filed after more than the prescribed period (the appeal in the present proceedings being filed after over seven months), the Appellate Authority lacked jurisdiction to condone delay beyond the one-month extension provided by Section 107(4). The Appellate Authority's dismissal of the appeal as time-barred was therefore held to be legally correct. [Paras 3, 5]
Appellate Authority had no jurisdiction to condone delay beyond thirty days and correctly dismissed the appeal as barred by time.
Exclusion of Section 5 of the Limitation Act - appellate jurisdiction under Section 107 of the GST Act as a complete code - Whether Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to provide further condonation power for appeals under Section 107 of the GST Act. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that Section 107 of the GST Act constitutes a complete code in relation to appeals and provides the sole mechanism for condonation of delay (viz., a further period of one month under Section 107(4)). Consequently, the discretionary power under Section 5 of the Limitation Act could not be invoked to enlarge the condonation period for appeals under Section 107. The petitioner was unable to point to any provision, order or precedent empowering the Appellate Authority to condone delay beyond one month, supporting the conclusion that the Limitation Act does not supply additional condonation power in this context. [Paras 4, 5]
Section 5 of the Limitation Act does not apply to appeals under Section 107 of the GST Act; the statutory onemonth condonation limit is exhaustive.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition dismissed; the appeal to the Appellate Authority was correctly held timebarred as the Appellate Authority could condone delay only up to one month under Section 107(4) of the GST Act and Section 5 of the Limitation Act does not enlarge that period.
Challenge to assessment order - the proceeding does not contain the signature of the assessing officer and also DIN number, on the impugned assessment order - HELD THAT:- The effect of the absence of the signature, on an assessment order was earlier considered by this Court, in the case of A.V. Bhanoji Row Vs. The Assistant Commissioner (ST), [2023 (2) TMI 1224 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT]. A Division Bench of this Court, had held that the signature, on the assessment order, cannot be dispensed with and that the provisions of Sections160 & 169 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017, would not rectify such a defect. Following this Judgment, another Division Bench of this Court, in the case of M/s. SRK Enterprises Vs. Assistant Commissioner, [2023 (12) TMI 156 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], had set aside the impugned assessment order.
A Division Bench of this Court in the case of M/s. Cluster Enterprises Vs. The Deputy Assistant Commissioner (ST)-2, Kadapa [2024 (7) TMI 1512 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], on the basis of the circular, dated 23.12.2019, bearing No.128/47/2019-GST, issued by the C.B.I.C., had held that non-mention of a DIN number would mitigate against the validity of such proceedings. Another Division Bench of this Court in the case of Sai Manikanta Electrical Contractors Vs. The Deputy Commissioner, Special Circle, Visakhapatnam [2024 (6) TMI 1158 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT], had also held that non-mention of a DIN number would require the order to be set aside.
In view of the aforesaid judgments and the circular issued by the C.B.I.C., the non-mention of a DIN number and absence of the signature of the assessing officer, in the impugned assessment order would have to be set aside.
Conclusion - i) The non-mention of a DIN number and absence of the signature of the assessing officer will make the assessment order invalid. ii) This Writ Petition is disposed of setting aside the impugned assessment order in Form GST DRC-07, dated 06.10.2023, issued by the 1st respondent, with liberty to the 1st respondent to conduct fresh assessment, after giving notice and by assigning a signature to the said order.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the pending GST show-cause/adjudication proceedings could be completed without granting the petitioner an opportunity of hearing.
Analysis: The proceedings were stated to remain pending, and it was ed that no notice of hearing had been issued after the show-cause notice. In these circumstances, the matter required completion of adjudication only after affording the petitioner a hearing within a fixed time.
Conclusion: The petitioner was entitled to a hearing before completion of adjudication, and the respondent was directed to complete the adjudication after giving such opportunity within two months.
Show-cause notice - opportunity of hearing - adjudication - time-bound direction for completion of adjudication - communication of order
Show-cause notice - opportunity of hearing - adjudication - time-bound direction for completion of adjudication - Whether the respondent authority must provide the petitioner an opportunity of hearing and complete adjudication in respect of the GST MOV 07 show-cause notice dated 25th July, 2019 within a specified time-frame. - HELD THAT: - The Court recorded that a show-cause notice in the form GST MOV 07 dated 25th July, 2019 remains pending and that no notice of hearing was given to the petitioner after issuance of that notice. On that factual foundation the Court directed the respondent authority to afford the petitioner an opportunity of hearing and to complete the adjudication. The direction imposed a clear, time-bound obligation on the authority to conclude the adjudicatory process within two months from the date of the order. The Court also required effective communication of the order to the respondent authority and permitted transmission of the order by both the petitioner and the respondent's counsel to ensure compliance.
Respondent no.2 is directed to give the petitioner an opportunity of hearing and to complete adjudication in respect of the GST MOV 07 notice dated 25th July, 2019 within two months; order to be communicated to respondent no.2.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition disposed of with directions that the pending GST MOV 07 show-cause notice dated 25th July, 2019 shall be adjudicated after giving the petitioner a hearing and the adjudication shall be completed within two months; no order as to costs.
The primary legal issue considered in this judgment is the validity of the retrospective cancellation of the petitioner's Goods and Services Tax (GST) registration. Specifically, the court examined whether the cancellation order, which was applied retroactively, was justified under the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, particularly Section 29. The core questions include:
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents
Section 29 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, empowers authorities to cancel GST registration, including retrospectively, under certain circumstances. However, the exercise of this power must be reasoned and justified, particularly when applied retroactively. The court referenced previous judgments, including Riddhi Siddhi Enterprises vs. Commissioner of Goods and Services Tax and Ramesh Chander vs Assistant Commissioner of Goods and Services Tax, which emphasized the necessity of providing reasons for retrospective cancellations and ensuring due process.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning
The court emphasized that the power to cancel GST registration retrospectively should not be exercised mechanically or without sufficient justification. The court noted that the absence of reasons in the Show Cause Notice (SCN) for the proposed retrospective cancellation and the failure to notify the petitioner of such intent were significant procedural lapses. The court highlighted that the mere existence of power under Section 29 does not justify its exercise without a demonstrable application of mind and reasoning.
Key Evidence and Findings
The court found that the SCN issued to the petitioner did not disclose any intent to cancel the GST registration retrospectively, nor did it provide reasons for such action. The cancellation order also lacked clarity and failed to specify the grounds for retrospective application. The court observed that similar deficiencies were present in other cases, such as Delhi Polymers vs Commissioner, Trade and Taxes, where the lack of reasons and procedural irregularities led to the invalidation of retrospective cancellations.
Application of Law to Facts
The court applied the legal principles established in previous judgments to the facts of the case. It concluded that the absence of reasons and prior notice of the intent to cancel the registration retrospectively rendered the cancellation order invalid. The court emphasized that the procedural safeguards under Section 29 were not followed, and the order lacked the necessary justification for retrospective effect.
Treatment of Competing Arguments
The court acknowledged the respondent's argument that retrospective cancellation could affect the taxpayer's customers by denying them input tax credit. However, the court did not find it necessary to delve into this aspect, as the procedural deficiencies were sufficient to invalidate the order. The court reiterated that retrospective cancellation should only be applied when warranted by circumstances and supported by objective criteria.
Conclusions
The court concluded that the writ petition should succeed due to the lack of reasons and prior notice for the retrospective cancellation. The court held that the cancellation should take effect from the date of the SCN, rather than retroactively.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The court established several core principles regarding the cancellation of GST registration:
The court's final determination was to allow the writ petition, modifying the cancellation order to take effect from the date of the SCN (28 March 2023) and quashing the stipulation for cancellation from 24 September 2022.
Retrospective cancellation of GST registration - Requirement of reasoned show-cause notice for retrospective action - Duty to place assessee on notice of proposed retrospective effect - Modification of cancellation effective date as judicial relief - Application of Section 29(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
Retrospective cancellation of GST registration - Requirement of reasoned show-cause notice for retrospective action - Duty to place assessee on notice of proposed retrospective effect - Application of Section 29(2) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - Validity of cancelling GST registration with retrospective effect where the show-cause notice and impugned order did not disclose or reason the intention to cancel retrospectively. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that although Section 29(2) confers power to cancel registration from a retrospective date, that power cannot be exercised mechanically or routinely. Cancellation with retrospective effect must be preceded by a reasoned order and a show-cause notice that places the taxpayer on notice of the proposed retrospective cancellation so that the taxpayer has an opportunity to contest the consequential effects. Where the original show-cause notice embodied no disclosure or intent to cancel with retrospective effect and the impugned order lacked rudimentary reasons for such retroactivity, the exercise of power was vitiated. The Court relied on earlier decisions emphasising that satisfaction under Section 29(2) must be based on objective criteria and that consequences of retrospective cancellation (including impact on third-party input tax credit) require consideration before invoking retrospective effect. Absent such reasoning and prior notice, the retrospective cancellation could not be sustained. [Paras 4]
Impugned retrospective cancellation is invalid for want of reasons and absence of prior notice in the show-cause notice.
Modification of cancellation effective date as judicial relief - Appropriate remedial order when retrospective cancellation is invalidated. - HELD THAT: - Having found the retrospective cancellation unsustainable on the short ground of absence of reasons and lack of notice of retrospective intent in the show-cause notice, the Court exercised remedial jurisdiction to modify the effective date of cancellation. The cancellation was directed to take effect from the date of the show-cause notice (28 March 2023) rather than the earlier retrospective date imposed by the authority. The Court quashed the stipulation making cancellation effective from 24 September 2022 and substituted the SCN date as the operative date of cancellation. [Paras 5, 6]
Cancellation to take effect from the date of the show-cause notice (28 March 2023); earlier retrospective effective date quashed.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition allowed: retrospective cancellation set aside; GST registration cancellation made effective from the show-cause notice date (28 March 2023); the impugned effective date of 24 September 2022 quashed.
Issues: Whether cancellation of GST registration could be sustained merely on the basis of a single inspection and a presumption that the firm was non-functional, and whether the orders rejecting revocation and appeal were liable to be set aside with restoration of registration.
Analysis: The order records that the cancellation was founded only on the Inspector's inability to find the person at the office premises on one occasion, despite the nameplate being displayed and business transactions and return filings continuing. Such a presumption of non-functionality was held to be unsustainable, and the action was found to have been taken in haste. The reasoning follows the approach adopted in the cited precedent concerning cancellation and revocation of registration under the CGST Rules, where adverse civil consequences arising from cancellation were treated as significant.
Conclusion: The cancellation order, the order rejecting revocation, and the appellate order were set aside, and the petitioner's GST registration was restored.
Ratio Decidendi: GST registration cannot be cancelled or kept cancelled merely on a solitary inspection-based presumption of non-functionality when the material on record shows continued business activity and compliance.
Cancellation of GST registration of the petitioner - firm was not functional because the petitioner was not present at the office during an inspection - HELD THAT:- In Gupta Enterprises [2024 (1) TMI 954 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT], after noticing the provisions of Rule 21(a) and 25 of the CGST Rules, 2017, and after considering that the revocation of registration has resulted in financial loss caused to the concerned businessman, the Court restored the registration of the concerned petitioner.
In the present case, it is found that merely on one inspection, if the person is not found to be available at his place of office, a presumption cannot be drawn that the firm is not functional, more so when there have been transactions and the firm has been regularly filing its returns - the action taken by the respondents is in haste, and the same is not sustainable in law.
The impugned order is set aside - petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the impugned assessment orders could be sustained when the break-up of tax paid on scrap sales and battery sales, produced for the first time before the Court, had not been considered by the assessing authority, and whether the matter required remand for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The dispute turned on a mismatch between turnover reflected in the profit and loss account and the figures shown in GSTR-3B. The petitioner asserted that scrap sales were accounted for under cost of materials and that tax had been paid on both scrap and battery sales. The additional break-up and supporting documents were produced before the Court for the first time, and it was not disputed that these materials had not been examined by the assessing authority before passing the impugned orders. In these circumstances, the petitioner was entitled to place the materials before the authority for consideration.
Conclusion: The impugned orders were set aside and the matter was remanded to the assessing authority for fresh consideration, with liberty to the petitioner to file additional objections and documents and with a direction to grant notice and personal hearing before passing a fresh order.
Assessment orders set aside - remand for fresh consideration - opportunity to produce additional evidence - discrepancy between GSTR-3B and profit and loss account - personal hearing before passing fresh order
Remand for fresh consideration - opportunity to produce additional evidence - assessment orders set aside - Whether the impugned assessment orders should be upheld where material documents showing break-up of tax paid were not considered by the assessing authority - HELD THAT: - The petitioner produced before this Court, for the first time, documents showing the break-up of tax paid towards sale of scrap and tax paid on sale of batteries, which were not considered by the first respondent while passing the impugned assessment orders. The respondent did not dispute that these materials were not taken into account. In view of this omission, the Court concluded that the petitioner must be afforded an opportunity to place the newly produced materials before the authority. The Court therefore set aside the impugned orders and remanded the matter to the first respondent for fresh consideration. The petitioner was directed to file any additional reply/objections along with the required documents and break-up figures within two weeks of receipt of the order. On receipt, the authority is to consider the material, issue a 14 days clear notice fixing a personal hearing, and thereafter pass appropriate orders on merits and in accordance with law, expeditiously. [Paras 8, 9, 10]
Impugned orders set aside and matter remanded to the first respondent for fresh consideration after the petitioner files additional documents and is afforded a personal hearing.
Final Conclusion: Impugned assessment orders for financial years 2017-2018 and 2018-2019 set aside; matter remitted to the assessing authority for reconsideration on merits after the petitioner files additional documents and is given a personal hearing; writ petitions disposed of with no costs.
The core legal questions considered by the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) relate to the validity and scope of search and seizure proceedings under the GST Act, specifically:
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 & 2: Validity of Search and Seizure at Places Other Than Those Specified in the Search Warrant
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Under the GST Act, search warrants specify the place where search can be conducted. The law mandates that searches should be confined to the locations authorized in the warrant to protect the rights of the persons concerned.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The applicant contended that an unauthorized search was conducted at the residential premises of his uncle, which was not covered by the search warrant. The AAR noted that searches conducted beyond the scope of the warrant are invalid and violate procedural safeguards.
Application of Law to Facts: Since the search was conducted at a place not specified in the warrant, the proceedings arising therefrom were challenged as invalid from the outset.
Competing Arguments: The department did not specifically rebut the claim of unauthorized search at the uncle's residence. The applicant's submissions were supported by departmental records indicating the location of search.
Conclusion: The search conducted at the uncle's premises was unauthorized and hence invalid.
Issue 3, 5 & 8: Seizure and Confiscation of Cash and Goods Belonging to Persons Other Than the Assessee
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: The GST Act defines "goods" and regulates seizure and confiscation under section 130 and related rules. Cash is specifically excluded from the definition of goods under section 2(75) of the CGST Act. The Delhi High Court's recent judgment in Jagdish Bansal v. Union of India held that cash is not goods and cannot be seized under the GST Act.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The applicant argued that the cash seized (Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 47.45 lakhs) belonged to persons other than the assessee, supported by affidavits and explanations on record. The seized cigarettes were also stated to belong to various agents and representatives, not to the assessee. The applicant relied on the Delhi High Court ruling to assert that cash cannot be seized or confiscated under GST laws.
Key Evidence and Findings: The applicant provided bifurcation of amounts, affidavits, and supporting documents demonstrating that the seized cash and goods belonged to third parties. The department had not released the cash despite these explanations.
Application of Law to Facts: Since cash is not "goods" under GST, its seizure and confiscation under GST laws is impermissible. Further, seizure and confiscation of goods belonging to third parties without proper adjudication against them is legally untenable.
Competing Arguments: The department's justification for seizure and confiscation was not detailed in the ruling. The applicant's submissions were uncontroverted and supported by judicial precedent.
Conclusion: Cash and goods belonging to persons other than the assessee cannot be validly seized or confiscated under the GST Act.
Issue 4: Whether Cash Can be Classified as Goods Under GST Act and Subject to Confiscation
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents: Section 2(75) of the CGST Act defines "goods" and excludes money. The Delhi High Court judgment in Jagdish Bansal categorically held that cash is not goods and cannot be seized under GST laws.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The applicant relied on this precedent to argue that cash seized by the department is not liable for confiscation under the GST Act.
Application of Law to Facts: The cash seized from the uncle's premises and other locations cannot be treated as goods and thus cannot be confiscated under the GST Act.
Conclusion: Cash is outside the purview of "goods" under GST and cannot be confiscated under the GST Act.
Issue 6, 16-23: Imposition of Penalties on the Assessee for Seizure of Cash and Goods Belonging to Others
Relevant Legal Framework: Penalties under sections 122 and 130 of the CGST Act can be imposed on persons responsible for tax evasion or contravention. However, imposition of penalty requires that the goods or cash in question belong to the person against whom penalty is imposed.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The applicant contended that penalties imposed on his father and brother under various provisions of section 122 were unjustified as the seized cash and goods belonged to other persons. The applicant requested quashing of all penalties.
Application of Law to Facts: Since the cash and goods did not belong to the assessee, penalties imposed in respect thereof are not sustainable.
Competing Arguments: The department's stand on penalty imposition was not elaborated in the ruling. The applicant's submissions were supported by documents and affidavits.
Conclusion: Penalties imposed on the assessee for seizure of cash and goods belonging to others are liable to be quashed.
Issue 7, 11 & 24: Whether Explanations and Affidavits Submitted by the Assessee Can be Ignored by the Department
Relevant Legal Framework: The GST adjudicating authority is required to consider explanations and documentary evidence submitted by the assessee before passing orders of confiscation or penalty.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The applicant submitted that despite providing detailed explanations and affidavits regarding the ownership of cash and goods, the department ignored these and proceeded with confiscation and penalties.
Application of Law to Facts: Ignoring credible evidence and explanations violates principles of natural justice and statutory mandates.
Conclusion: The department cannot disregard affidavits and explanations and proceed with confiscation and penalties against the assessee unjustifiably.
Issue 9 & 10: Seizure of Cash from Homes of Assessee and Relatives and Clubbing of Cash from Different Premises
Relevant Legal Framework: Search and seizure must be conducted at locations specified in the warrant. Seizure of cash from relatives' premises without authorization is impermissible. Further, assessment must be based on facts attributable to the assessee.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The applicant contended that cash was seized from his uncle's residence without authorization and that cash seized from two different premises was improperly clubbed and assessed against the assessee.
Application of Law to Facts: Unauthorized seizure from relative's premises and clubbing of cash from different locations for assessment against the assessee is legally impermissible.
Conclusion: Seizure from unauthorized premises and clubbing of cash for assessment is invalid.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
"The applicant has not raised any questions which are found to be covered under any of the clauses of sub-section (2) of section 97 of the GST Act."
"The Authority shall not admit the application where the question raised in the application is already pending or decided in any proceedings in the case of an applicant under any of the provisions of this Act."
"The cash seized does not fall within the purview of the definition of goods under the GST Act and therefore cannot be confiscated under the provisions of the GST Act."
"Search proceedings conducted at premises other than those specified in the search warrant are unauthorized and invalid."
"Goods and cash belonging to persons other than the assessee cannot be seized, confiscated, or subjected to penalty proceedings in the hands of the assessee."
"Explanations, affidavits, and supporting documents submitted by the assessee regarding ownership of seized cash and goods must be duly considered by the authorities before passing any confiscation or penalty orders."
"The application for advance ruling is liable to be rejected if the questions raised do not fall within the scope of section 97(2) of the GST Act or if the matter has already been adjudicated."
Final Determinations:
Withdrawal of Advance Ruling application - GST Search can be conducted other than the place specified in the Search warrant or not - cash or valuables can be seized by the department from the place other than specified and authenticated in the search warrant or not - cash and goods pertaining to the person other than the assessee can be seized by the Department or not - confiscation of cash seized - HELD THAT:- The applicant has not raised any questions which are found to be covered under any of the clauses of sub-section (2) of section 97 of the GST Act. It is satisfied that the applicant has been provided reasonable opportunity to counter the aforesaid observations. Therefore, there are no reason to accept the instant application made by the applicant for pronouncement of ruling. The application is, therefore, rejected on this ground alone.
In terms of first proviso of sub section (2) of section 98 of the GST Act “the authority shall not admit the application where the question raised in the application is already pending or decided in any proceedings in the case of an applicant under any of the provisions of this Act”. Here, found that as the matter has already been decided by Assistant Commissioner, CGST division-J, Ajmer vide Order in Original No. 14/GCM/GST/DIV-I/2024-25/AC dated 11.06.2024. Therefore, the application filled by the applicant is not fit to accept for pronouncement of ruling. The application is liable to be rejected, hence, rejected.
Since the ruling authority has not found any reason to accept the application for pronouncement of ruling as above and the applicant has also requested for withdrawal of the application, therefore, their request to withdraw the application is considered.
Issue-wise detailed analysis:
1. Interpretation of Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act regarding ITC blockage:
The legal framework under Section 17(5) blocks ITC on goods or services used for construction of immovable property other than plant and machinery. Clause (c) restricts credit on works contract services for construction of immovable property (other than plant and machinery), and clause (d) restricts credit on goods or services received for construction of immovable property (other than plant or machinery) on own account, including when used in the course or furtherance of business.
The applicant contended that the tailing dam is an integral part of the milling plant and thus qualifies as "plant and machinery" under the CGST Act, which is defined to include "apparatus, equipment, and machinery fixed to earth by foundation or structural support that are used for making outward supply of goods or services or both." The applicant argued that the tailing dam is a complex apparatus incorporating automated pipelines, drainage systems, and geomembranes/clay liners, all functioning collectively for processing tailings and environmental protection, and is therefore not merely a civil structure or immovable property.
The jurisdictional officer, however, contended that the tailing dam is a civil structure and immovable property, constructed on natural soil or rock foundations, and that the pipelines and drainage systems are common to civil structures and do not convert the dam into plant or machinery. The officer emphasized that cement and concrete are used in the dam's construction, which is characteristic of immovable property, and that the dam does not constitute an apparatus or plant used in the business but is a mandated environmental compliance structure. Therefore, ITC is blocked under the relevant provisions.
2. Definition and functional test of "plant and machinery" versus immovable property:
The applicant relied on dictionary meanings and judicial precedents to define "apparatus" as a complex system of equipment designed for a specific function, applying a functional test to argue that the tailing dam qualifies as plant and machinery. The applicant cited judgments where functional utility rather than mere structural form determined classification, including the Supreme Court's endorsement of the functional test in relation to specialized ponds used in aquaculture.
The applicant further argued that the tailing dam is indispensable to the mining and milling process operationally and legally, as tailings must be safely disposed of to continue mining operations. The dam's functions include processing tailings, environmental protection, and compliance with mining laws such as the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 and Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017. The applicant also referred to pre-GST rulings where credit was allowed on similar grounds.
The jurisdictional officer distinguished these precedents, emphasizing that the tailing dam is a civil structure and immovable property, not a plant or machinery. The officer noted that the functional test is not applicable to immovable property and furtherance of business issues. The officer also highlighted the recent amendment to Section 17(5) blocking ITC on goods or services used for corporate social responsibility activities, implying that environmental compliance structures like tailing dams may fall outside ITC eligibility. The officer stressed that the dam does not form part of the manufacturing process but is a compliance requirement and a place where business is carried out, not a means of production.
3. Nature and construction of the tailing dam:
The applicant submitted that the tailing dam is constructed mainly by earthworks using waste materials from mining, such as rocks, mud, sand, HDPE sheets, and liners, with minimal or no use of cement or traditional civil construction materials. The dam is a dynamic system with integrated pipelines and drainage designed for processing tailings and environmental management, not a static civil structure. The applicant argued that the predominant activity is earthwork, which is not defined as construction of immovable property under GST law.
The jurisdictional officer countered that the tailing dam is constructed on natural soil or rock foundations and involves cement and RCC (reinforced cement concrete) structures such as garland drains, which constitute civil structures and immovable property. The officer noted that even if earthworks predominate, the addition of earth and other materials to raise the dam's height falls within the definition of immovable property, blocking ITC. The officer also pointed out the lack of technical evidence from the applicant to substantiate the claim of absence of cement or civil construction materials.
4. Legal and regulatory context of tailing dam construction and its role in mining operations:
The applicant emphasized that construction and maintenance of tailing dams are legally mandated under mining laws and environmental regulations, making the dam an integral part of the mining process. The dam enables continued extraction and processing of minerals by safely managing hazardous waste. The applicant argued that this operational necessity and legal mandate distinguish the dam from mere environmental compliance structures and support ITC eligibility.
The jurisdictional officer acknowledged the legal mandate but maintained that compliance obligations do not override the clear statutory provisions of the CGST Act. The officer observed that mining laws impose environmental protection duties but do not convert such structures into plant or machinery for GST purposes. The officer also highlighted that CSR-related activities, which may include environmental protection, are specifically excluded from ITC under Section 17(5)(fa).
5. Relevant judicial precedents and authoritative rulings:
The applicant cited several judicial decisions supporting the functional test and classification of certain immovable properties as plant or machinery based on their use in business operations, including the Supreme Court's recent rulings. The applicant also referred to pre-GST tribunal rulings allowing credit for services related to tailing dams.
The jurisdictional officer distinguished these precedents, noting differences in factual matrix, statutory context, and the evolution of GST law with explicit ITC blocking provisions. The officer emphasized that the GST regime's specific provisions on immovable property and ITC blockage must prevail over earlier interpretations.
6. Application of law to facts and final conclusion:
The Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) examined the facts, submissions, and legal provisions. It observed that the tailing dam is constructed on foundations of natural soil or rock, extended over several kilometers, and involves use of cement and RCC structures, qualifying it as immovable property and a civil structure. The AAR noted that the materials used do not affect the classification, as civil structures can be built with various materials.
Further, the AAR found that the tailing dam serves as a storage facility for waste products but does not play a role in the quantity or quality of minerals extracted or metals manufactured, thus not qualifying as plant or machinery used in the business. The dam is primarily for environmental protection and compliance, which does not amount to furtherance of business for ITC purposes.
The AAR also considered the recent Supreme Court ruling clarifying that "plant or machinery" in Section 17(5)(d) should be interpreted consistently with the defined term "plant and machinery" in Section 17(5)(c), and that ITC is denied on immovable property except when it qualifies as plant and machinery. The AAR noted the GST Council's recommendation to align the language retrospectively.
Accordingly, the AAR concluded that the tailing dam is an immovable property and civil structure, and ITC on goods and services used for its construction or height increase is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act.
Significant holdings:
"We find that since tailing dams are resting on foundation of natural rock or soil with the help of cement and is stretch over several kilometers, it is clear that they are immovable and are thus covered under definition of "immovable property". ... A civil structure can be built with cement and steel or by means of other materials depending on the purpose of the structure and its feasibility. The materials used for construction of structure does not play a vital role in defining it as a "civil structure" or otherwise."
"The tailing dams can not be qualified to be used for carrying on the core business activities. ... The dam is primarily for environmental protection and compliance, which does not amount to furtherance of business for ITC purposes."
"The intent of Section 17(5)(c) and (d) is to deny ITC when goods or services or both are used for construction of immovable property, other than when the immovable property was in nature or plant and/or machinery."
"The expression 'plant or machinery' used in Section 17(5)(d) cannot be given the same meaning as the expression 'plant and machinery' defined by the explanation of section 17."
"When there is a clear cut and expressed provision in GST law of block credit under section 17, there is no scope for liberal interpretation."
Final determination: Input tax credit is not available on goods and services received for increasing the height of the tailing dam used for disposal and treatment of hazardous mining waste, as the tailing dam qualifies as immovable property (civil structure) and not as plant or machinery under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act, 2017. The ITC is therefore blocked.
Input tax credit - plant and machinery - immovable property - blocked credits under Section 17 (5) (c) and Section 17 (5) (d) of the CGST Act, 2017 - functionality test
Input tax credit - plant and machinery - immovable property - blocked credits under Section 17 (5) (c) and Section 17 (5) (d) of the CGST Act, 2017 - functionality test - Availability of input tax credit for goods and services received for increasing the height of the tailing dam under Section 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act, 2017 - HELD THAT: - The Authority examined whether the tailing dam qualifies as "plant and machinery" (or "plant or machinery") such that the restrictions in Section 17(5)(c) and (d) would not apply. The Explanation to Section 17(5) excludes "land, building or any other civil structures" from the definition of "plant and machinery." A civil- engineering appreciation shows a civil structure to be a manmade construction having fixed location on the ground, irrespective of the materials used. The Authority found that tailing dams rest on foundations of natural soil or rock, are constructed (and raised) using materials including cement and form large, fixed storage structures for waste; they therefore fall within the concept of immovable property/civil structure. The Authority further observed that the tailing dam functions principally as a storage and disposal facility for waste (tailings) mandated by mining and environmental laws, and does not play a role in altering the quantity or quality of the minerals produced at the milling plant so as to be integral to the core manufacturing process for the purposes of classifying it as "plant." While the applicant relied on the functionality test and precedents where specialised structures were held to be plant, the Authority concluded that on the facts before it the tailing dam is a civil/immovable structure and the Explanation to Section 17(5) applies to exclude it from the definition of "plant and machinery." Accordingly the goods and works contract services used for construction/raising of the tailing dam are hit by the blocking provisions of Section 17(5)(c) and (d). [Paras 6, 10, 11]
Input tax credit is not available for goods and services received for increasing the height of the tailing dam; the claim is barred by Section 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act, 2017.
Final Conclusion: The Authority ruled that the tailing dam is an immovable/civil structure and, therefore, ITC paid on goods and services for increasing its height is blocked under Section 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act, 2017; the application is answered in the negative.
The primary issue considered was whether GST is applicable to services provided by clubs to their members under the current GST regime, in light of the Supreme Court's decision in the case of State of West Bengal & others vs Calcutta Club Limited, which addressed service tax applicability in the erstwhile regime.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Applicability of GST on Services Provided by Clubs to Members
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents:
The applicant, a registered club, sought clarity on the applicability of GST on services provided to its members, referencing the Supreme Court decision in the Calcutta Club case, which ruled that service tax was not applicable to incorporated clubs under the previous regime. The applicant argued that similar principles should apply under the GST regime.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning:
The Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) examined the legal framework under the CGST Act, specifically Section 7, which defines the scope of "supply" and includes activities between a person and its members. The AAR noted that the GST regime, through a retrospective amendment, explicitly includes transactions between clubs and their members as taxable supplies, overriding the mutuality principle upheld in the Calcutta Club case.
Key Evidence and Findings:
The AAR considered the retrospective amendment introduced by the Finance Act, 2021, which inserted clause (aa) in Section 7(1) of the CGST Act. This amendment clarified that transactions between clubs and their members are taxable, treating them as distinct persons for GST purposes.
Application of Law to Facts:
Based on the amendment, the AAR concluded that the services provided by the club to its members fall within the scope of taxable supply under the GST regime. The decision emphasized the legislative intent to tax such transactions, notwithstanding previous judicial interpretations under the service tax regime.
Treatment of Competing Arguments:
The applicant's reliance on the Supreme Court's decision was addressed by highlighting the specific legislative changes under the GST regime that counter the mutuality principle. The AAR clarified that the retrospective amendment effectively nullifies the applicability of the Calcutta Club decision to the GST regime.
Conclusions:
The AAR concluded that GST is applicable to services provided by clubs to their members, effective from July 1, 2017, as per the amended provisions of the CGST Act.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The ruling established that the retrospective amendment to the CGST Act, introduced by the Finance Act, 2021, effectively overrides previous judicial interpretations regarding the non-applicability of service tax to incorporated clubs. The amendment clarifies that transactions between clubs and their members are taxable under the GST regime.
Core Principles Established:
The ruling reinforced the principle that legislative amendments can retrospectively alter the taxability of transactions, overriding prior judicial decisions. It also emphasized the distinct legal treatment of clubs and their members under the GST framework.
Final Determinations on Each Issue:
The AAR ruled that GST is payable on services provided by clubs to their members, confirming the applicability of the amended provisions of the CGST Act.
Levy of GST - services provided by clubs to its members - mutuality of interest - reliance placed on Supreme Court's decision in the case of State of West Bengal & others vs Calcutta Club Limited [2019 (10) TMI 160 - SUPREME COURT], which addressed service tax applicability in the erstwhile regime - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of State of West Bengal V/s Calcutta Club Limited, ordered that service tax was not leviable on the services provided by a club to its member under erstwhile Service tax regime. Consequent to the said judgment, to bring the services provided by the clubs to its members in the net of GST, 39th GST council in their meeting dated 14.03.2020 recommended retrospective amendment in the GST Act, so as to explicitly include the transactions and activities involving goods and services or both, by, to its members, for cash, deferred payment or other valuable consideration along with an explanation stating that for the purpose of this section, an association or a body of persons, whether incorporated or not as taxable supply w.e.f 01.07.2017. It is also proposed that such an association or a body of persons, whether incorporated or not and member thereof shall be treated as distinct persons under section 7 (1) of the CGST Act. Consequently, para 7 of Schedule II of the CGST Act is proposed to be deleted.
GST laws expanded the scope of 'supply' to tax supplies between the club/association and its members, to overcome the principle of mutuality. The scope of supply clearly ascertains that supply made by a person registered under GST is exigible to GST if it falls under section 7(1) of GST Act - A retrospective amendment (w.e.f. July01,2017) has been made vide Finance Act, 2021 by inserting a new clause '(aa)' after clause (a), in Section 7 (1) of the CGST Act to widen the scope of term 'supply' by including therein activities or transactions of supply of goods or services or both between any person (other than individual) to its members or constituents or vice versa for cash, deferred payment or other valuable consideration. Consequently, Para 7 of Schedule II of the CGST Act has been deleted retrospectively (w.e.f. July 1, 2017) which was related to 'supply of goods by unincorporated associations or body of persons to a member thereof for cash, deferred payment or other valuable consideration' being activity/ transaction treated as supply of goods.
Further, an explanation is added to say that the person and its members or constituents shall be deemed to be two separate persons and overriding effect has been given to the said explanation over anything contained in any other law for the time being in force and even to the judgements of any Court, Tribunal or any other authority. Thus, the decision given by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in State of West Bengal & Ors. v. Calcutta Club Limited for erstwhile Service tax regime, is no more applicable on account of specific overriding effect over judgments.
Conclusion - The clause 7 (1) (aa) have been inserted and deemed to have been inserted w.e.f. 01.07.2017 by Finance Act, 2021. Thus, the Services provided by the Club to its members is taxable as per clause (aa) of sub-section (1) of Section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 w.e.f. July 01, 2017.
The core legal questions considered by the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) were:
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Classification of the hand-held multi-tool products under HSN and applicable GST rate
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The classification of goods under GST is guided by the HSN codes, which categorize products based on their industrial and technical characteristics. Chapter 82 covers tools and implements of base metal, including hand-operated spanners and wrenches under heading 8204. Chapter 85 covers electrical machinery and equipment, including battery indicators under heading 8517. The GST rates applicable to these chapters vary, with hand tools generally attracting 18% GST.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The AAR examined the technical composition and primary function of the products. The products are hand-held multi-tools primarily composed of various sized spanners integrated with other tools such as screwdrivers and hex keys. Two of the products also include a battery voltage level indicator, an electrical component showing battery status.
The AAR noted that the battery indicator is a minor component providing an ancillary function that does not alter the principal use of the product as a hand tool. The primary function remains the manual operation of spanners and related tools for battery replacement tasks.
Key evidence and findings: The applicant submitted detailed descriptions of the products, including claims and drawings illustrating the multi-tools' components and functions. The jurisdictional officer's comments supported classification under Chapter 8204, emphasizing that the battery indicator's presence does not change the essential character of the product.
Application of law to facts: Since the primary function of the multi-tools is manual operation via spanners and screwdrivers, they fall under Chapter 8204. The electrical battery indicator is a supplementary feature and insufficient to reclassify the product under Chapter 8517.
Treatment of competing arguments: The applicant argued for a concessional 5% GST rate to promote export competitiveness and employment generation. The AAR clarified that such policy considerations do not influence HSN classification, which is strictly technical and industrial in nature.
Conclusions: The hand-held multi-tools are classified under Chapter 8204 attracting 18% GST, notwithstanding the inclusion of a battery indicator component.
Issue 2: Classification as machinery tools under industry machinery tools chapter
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Machinery tools classification generally applies to industrial machinery and equipment used in manufacturing or heavy industry, often attracting specific GST rates.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The AAR found that the multi-tools are hand-operated manual tools rather than industrial machinery or machine tools. The products are portable and intended for battery replacement, not industrial manufacturing processes.
Key evidence and findings: Product descriptions and the nature of components (spanners, screwdrivers, battery indicator) indicated hand-held use rather than machinery classification.
Application of law to facts: The products do not fall under machinery tools classification and thus do not attract any GST rate applicable to industry machinery tools.
Treatment of competing arguments: The applicant's suggestion that the products be treated as machinery tools was rejected based on the technical characteristics and intended use.
Conclusions: The products are not machinery tools and are instead hand tools under Chapter 8204, attracting 18% GST.
Issue 3: Ascertainment of GST classification and rates for multi-tools
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Section 97(2)(a) of the CGST Act allows advance ruling on classification and applicable tax rates. However, the question must be clear and within the scope of the Act.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The third question posed by the applicant was found to be vague and unclear, lacking specificity and clarity required for advance ruling.
Key evidence and findings: The question did not clearly specify the classification or tax rate issue and was beyond the scope of the advance ruling provisions.
Application of law to facts: The AAR declined to answer the third question on grounds of ambiguity and procedural limitations.
Treatment of competing arguments: No further submissions were made to clarify the question.
Conclusions: The third question was not answered.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The AAR held as follows:
"The tools in question are classified under chapter heading 8204 and attract GST @ 18%."
"The integration of battery indicator in these tools provides an additional feature only and does not alter the key functionality of the tools."
"The HSN code - section or chapter to which a particular product belongs is determined by its industrial and technical sophistication."
"The third question raised before us... is not clear and beyond the scope of sub-section (2) of the section 97 of the CGST Act, 2017, hence not answered."
Core principles established include:
Final determinations on each issue:
Classification of goods under HSN chapter 8204 - GST rate applicability at 18% - Primary function / essential character test for composite goods - Accessory electronic component not altering classification - Advance Ruling jurisdiction under Section 97(2)(a)
Classification of goods under HSN chapter 8204 - GST rate applicability at 18% - Primary function / essential character test for composite goods - Accessory electronic component not altering classification - Classification and applicable GST rate of the applicant's handheld multitools (including variants with a battery indicator). - HELD THAT: - The Authority examined the composition and images of the three multitools and found that spanners constitute the major component integrated with additional hand tools such as screwdrivers and hex keys. Although some variants include a battery voltage level indicator, that indicator is a minor/electronic adjunct which provides additional information and does not change the primary function of the article as a handoperated tool. Applying the essential character/primary function approach, the integration of the minor electrical indicator does not alter classification. Consequently, the multitools are classifiable under chapter heading 8204 (handoperated spanners and wrenches) and attract the GST rate applicable to goods under that chapter.
The tools are classifiable under chapter heading 8204 and attract GST @ 18%.
Advance Ruling jurisdiction under Section 97(2)(a) - Applicant's third question seeking clarification on the nature/classification in the terms presented was not answered by the Authority. - HELD THAT: - The third question as framed by the applicant was found to be unclear and beyond the scope of subsection (2) of section 97 of the CGST Act for an advance ruling. The Authority therefore declined to give a substantive answer to that question rather than adjudicating or remanding it for fresh consideration.
Third question not answered as it is unclear and beyond the scope of the advance ruling provisions.
Final Conclusion: The Authority rules that the applicant's handheld multitools (including those with a battery indicator) are classifiable under chapter heading 8204 and attract GST at 18%; the third, unclearly framed question is not answered as being beyond the scope of the advanceruling provision.
Outcome: The Special Leave Petition was disposed of after the Court noted that the tax effect was below the threshold in the applicable circular.
Income accrued in India - Benefit of DTAA between India and USA - rightful owner of the remittances - fees for technical service (FTS) - Payment for certification of Diamonds - as per HC [2023 (8) TMI 296 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT]based on factual appreciation especially the condition in the customer service agreement, the bank invoice and the Bank remittance advice a finding of fact has been arrived at that the assessee’s case was protected under the India-USA DTAA and that mere rendering of services cannot be roped into FTS unless the person utilising the services is able to make use of the technical knowledge etc. Simple rendering of services as in the present case is not sufficient to qualify as FTS .
HELD THAT:- Having heard the learned Additional Solicitor General appearing for the petitioner and having gone through the materials on record, it appears that the tax effect of the subject matter of the Special Leave Petition is falling below the threshold contained in the circular dated 22nd August 2019 of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs.
Special Leave Petition is disposed of.
Scrutiny assessment - Validity of notice u/s 143(2) - period of limitation - defects in return of income removed - as decided by HC [2019 (10) TMI 1583 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] it is an admitted position that the impugned notice u/ss (2) of section 143 of the Act has been issued on 11.08.2018, which is much beyond the period of limitation for issuance of such notice as envisaged under that subsection. The impugned notice, therefore, is clearly barred by limitation and cannot be sustained.
HELD THAT:- We are not inclined to interfere in the matter having regard to the facts of the present case.
Hence, the Special Leave Petition is dismissed.
However, the question of law, if any, is left open to be agitated in any other appropriate case.
Issues: Disallowance under Section 35(2AB) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for clinical trial expenses incurred outside the approved facility and the consequential course of disposal.
Analysis: The impugned order dealt only with the disallowance relating to clinical trial expenses said to have been incurred outside the approved facility. As the same issue was already pending consideration before the High Court in another connected appeal, the Court found it appropriate to interfere only to the limited extent necessary and to send the matter back for disposal along with the connected appeal. No opinion was expressed on the merits.
Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside only for the limited issue concerning disallowance under Section 35(2AB) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and the appeal was remanded to the High Court for fresh consideration along with the connected matter.
Disallowance u/s 35(2AB) - clinical trial expenses incurred outside the approved facility - HELD THAT:- We set aside the impugned order only insofar as the issue of disallowance under Section 35(2AB) for clinical trial expenses incurred outside the approved facility is concerned. To this limited extent Appeal [2020 (3) TMI 345 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] is remanded to the High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad.
Issues: Whether, for registration under Section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Commissioner may consider only existing charitable activities or may also examine the proposed activities and the genuineness of the trust's objects.
Analysis: Registration under Section 12AA is a threshold inquiry directed to the objects of the trust and the genuineness of its activities. The decision affirms that the word "activities" in the registration context is not confined to past acts alone and includes proposed activities that are aligned with the charitable objects of the trust. At the same time, registration does not by itself confer exemption under Sections 10 and 11, which must still be examined by the assessing authority on the materials before it. The Court declined to refer the matter to a larger Bench and found no reason to disturb the settled position expressed in the earlier decision relied upon.
Conclusion: The issue is answered in favour of the assessee. Registration under Section 12AA depends on satisfaction about charitable objects and genuine proposed activities, while actual exemption remains subject to assessment.
Interpretation of Section 12-AA - registration pertains to objects and proposed activities - Requirement of satisfaction regarding genuineness of objects and activities for registration - Distinction between registration under Section 12-AA and grant of exemption under Sections 10 and 11 - Precedential binding of Ananda Social and Educational Trust on Section 12-AA interpretation
Interpretation of Section 12-AA - registration pertains to objects and proposed activities - Precedential binding of Ananda Social and Educational Trust on Section 12-AA interpretation - Section 12-AA must be read to permit the Commissioner to consider the objects of the trust and the activities proposed to be carried on at the time of registration, and the Court will follow the ratio in Ananda Social and Educational Trust. - HELD THAT: - The Court observed that the three-judge decision in Ananda Social establishes that Section 12-AA relates to registration of a trust and that the term "activities" in that provision includes "proposed activities". The petition seeking reconsideration or reference to a larger bench was declined. While acknowledging the revenue's contention that the authority must be satisfied as to genuineness, the Court held it would be inappropriate at this stage to refer or overrule Ananda Social and therefore adhered to its legal principle that registration is concerned with whether the objects are charitable and whether the activities the trust proposes to carry out are genuine and in line with those objects. The Court refused to disturb the High Court and Tribunal findings that, given the nascent status of the trust, it was premature for the Commissioner to refuse registration solely because activities had not yet begun. [Paras 9, 13]
The legal interpretation in Ananda Social is authoritative for present purposes and Section 12-AA permits consideration of proposed activities when deciding registration; the petition to re-examine that precedent is refused.
Requirement of satisfaction regarding genuineness of objects and activities for registration - While registration requires satisfaction as to objects and genuineness, the Commissioner cannot decline registration merely because no activities have yet been carried out where the trust's objects and deed contain no demonstrable defect. - HELD THAT: - The Court accepted that an applicant should adduce cogent material to satisfy the Commissioner that activities are genuinely charitable. However, it agreed with the Tribunal and High Court that where a trust is newly formed and no activity has been performed up to the relevant date, it is premature to conclude the activities are not genuine. The Commissioner is expected to examine the trust deed for defects in objects; absent such defects, refusal solely for lack of past activity is not justified. [Paras 14]
The Commissioner should not refuse registration on the ground of absence of prior activities alone where the trust deed and stated objects are not shown to be defective.
Distinction between registration under Section 12-AA and grant of exemption under Sections 10 and 11 - Registration under Section 12-AA does not automatically entitle a trust to claim exemption under Sections 10 and 11; entitlement to exemption remains subject to scrutiny by the assessing officer. - HELD THAT: - The Court emphasised that the primary purpose of seeking registration is to enable claims under Sections 10 and 11, but registration is not determinative of entitlement to exemption. When a return claiming exemption is filed, the assessing officer must examine the materials and may decline the exemption if not convinced of the genuineness of the claim. Thus registration is distinct from the subsequent process of allowing tax exemption. [Paras 15]
Registration under Section 12-AA does not preclude later scrutiny and possible refusal of exemption claims under Sections 10 and 11 by the assessing officer.
Final Conclusion: The petition is disposed of by upholding the interpretation in Ananda Social that Section 12-AA registration involves consideration of objects and proposed activities; the High Court's dismissal of the revenue's appeal is sustained, and it is clarified that registration does not automatically confer entitlement to exemptions under Sections 10 and 11.
The core legal issues considered in this judgment are:
[A] Whether the ITAT, after determining that the communication/order dated 28 December 2009 did not amount to a cancellation of BCCI's registration under Section 12A of the IT Act, 1961, and further holding that no appeal was maintainable against this communication/order, was justified in examining the merits of the communication/order and recording observations that virtually upheld the reasons and conclusions within it.
[B] Whether the Revenue could initiate any action to deny exemption or cancel Section 12A registration based solely on the impugned communication/order dated 28 December 2009, which was styled or accepted as an advisory or a non-statutory letter.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue [A]: Examination of the Merits by ITAT
The ITAT concluded that the appeal against the communication/order dated 28 December 2009 was not maintainable, as it did not constitute a cancellation or withdrawal of registration under Section 12A. The ITAT accepted the Revenue's contention that the communication was merely advisory and not an exercise of statutory power. Despite this, the ITAT examined the merits of the communication/order and made observations that virtually upheld the DIT's view.
The Court found that once the ITAT concluded the appeal was not maintainable, it exceeded its jurisdiction by evaluating the merits of the communication/order and making observations supporting it. Such actions were deemed without jurisdiction and could not be relied upon by the Revenue in related proceedings.
The Court cited precedents from the Supreme Court, emphasizing that when a court or tribunal concludes it lacks jurisdiction, it cannot decide on the merits of the case. The ITAT's observations were thus declared without jurisdiction and should not influence subsequent proceedings regarding BCCI's registration or tax assessments.
Issue [B]: Legality of Actions Based on Advisory
The Court examined whether the Revenue could take action based on the impugned communication/order, styled as an advisory. The Revenue argued that the communication was legal and merely informed BCCI of the consequences of amending its objects without notifying the registering authority. However, the Court emphasized that statutory powers for assessment or cancellation of registration must be exercised as prescribed by law, and no statutory provision empowers authorities to issue advisories affecting an assessee's rights.
The Court held that a non-statutory advisory could not be used to deny exemptions or cancel registration. The Revenue's contradictory stance-treating the communication as non-statutory for appeal purposes but using it to affect BCCI's rights-was rejected. The Court emphasized that decisions on exemption or cancellation must be made independently by statutory authorities, without reliance on the advisory communication.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Court held that the ITAT exceeded its jurisdiction by making observations on the merits of the impugned communication/order after concluding the appeal was not maintainable. These observations were declared without jurisdiction and should not influence related proceedings.
The Court quashed the impugned communication/order dated 28 December 2009, emphasizing that it could not be used to affect BCCI's rights or to deny exemptions, as it was non-statutory and advisory in nature.
The Court clarified that issues of exemption or cancellation of registration on merits remain open and must be decided by statutory authorities as prescribed by law, without influence from the impugned communication/order or the ITAT's observations.
In conclusion, the Court disposed of the appeal and writ petition, emphasizing that statutory authorities must independently assess the merits of exemption and registration issues according to the law, without being influenced by the advisory communication or ITAT's jurisdictionally flawed observations.
Appeal maintainable against the communication/order amounting to a cancellation of BCCI's registration under Section 12A -Denial of benefit of registration granted u/s 12A available to the amended objects - Petitioner/BCCI is a society established under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act with the aim of promoting sports, particularly cricket - HELD THAT:- Based on the contention that the impugned communication/order dated 28 December 2009 was not statutory and that it was only an advisory or further, that the impugned communication/order dated 28 September 2012 was not an order cancelling or withdrawing the BCCI’s registration, the Revenue even persuaded the ITAT in holding that the BCCI’s Appeal against the impugned communication/order was not maintainable. At the same time, based on such advisory/non-statutory exercise, the Revenue cannot proceed on the premise that the BCCI’s registration stands cancelled or that the BCCI is not entitled to any exemption under Section 11 of the IT Act, 1961. The impugned communication/order dated 28 December 2009 cannot be non-statutory or an advisory to defeat an assessee’s right of appeal. Still, based upon the same non-statutory order or advisory, the assessee's rights cannot be affected, or a situation created in which the assessee cannot claim an exemption or is liable to have its registration cancelled. The revenue cannot adopt such contradictory stances or blow hot and cold in the same breath.
Again, we emphasise that these matters could be independently considered whilst deciding the issue of exemption or even the issue of cancellation of registration. However, decisions on such vital matters cannot be solely based on some advisory or non-statutory communication, such as the impugned communication/order dated 28 December 2009.
Revenue could not have issued the impugned communication/order, which it agrees, was only an advisory or a non-statutory exercise.
Issues: (i) whether the adjustment of refundable income-tax amount against a penalty demand could be sustained when the penalty order was digitally signed only after the adjustment order, and (ii) whether the Court should interfere with the penalty order itself in writ jurisdiction.
Issue (i): whether the adjustment of refundable income-tax amount against a penalty demand could be sustained when the penalty order was digitally signed only after the adjustment order.
Analysis: The adjustment was made under the refund-adjustment mechanism after notice proceedings. However, the penalty order on which the adjustment was founded was digitally signed only after the adjustment order. On the date of adjustment, the demand could not be treated as existing and payable so as to justify set-off against the refund.
Conclusion: The adjustment order was unsustainable and was set aside, and refund of the adjusted amount was directed in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): whether the Court should interfere with the penalty order itself in writ jurisdiction.
Analysis: The penalty order was not challenged in these proceedings, and an efficacious remedy was available to question it in the appropriate appellate forum.
Conclusion: No interference was made with the penalty order, and the challenge to it was left open to be pursued in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on the refund-adjustment issue and obtained consequential refund relief, but the penalty order itself was not adjudicated on merits in these proceedings.
Ratio Decidendi: A refund cannot be adjusted against a demand that had not legally come into existence on the date of adjustment, and a writ court may decline to interfere with an unchallenged penalty order where an effective alternative remedy is available.
Adjustment of the refundable amount which was adjusted towards the penalty order - writ of mandamus to direct the first respondent to issue a refund due along with interest u/s 244A (1) till the date of grant of refund - HELD THAT:- We agree with Petitioner, that based upon an order which was digitally signed on 22 May 2024, the Respondents were not entitled to issue the order dated 16 February 2024 adjusting an amount of Rs. 16,81,893/- against the alleged dues arising out of this order which was digitally signed only thereafter i.e. on 22 May 2024. As of 16 February 2024, we cannot reasonably hold that any amount was due and payable by the Petitioner which could have been adjusted from out of the refunds that had to be made to the Petitioner.
On this short ground, we set aside the order and direct the Respondents to refund to the Petitioner within four weeks from today. If the amount is not refunded within four weeks from today, it will carry interest as provided under the law. This shall be without prejudice to any action under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
If so advised, the petitioner is free to challenge the penalty order digitally signed on 22 May 2024 and communicated to the Petitioner in these proceedings following law. All parties’ contentions in this regard are kept open to be decided by the appellate authority in the first instance.
Issues: (i) Whether the Assessing Officer could refuse a certificate for deduction of tax at nil rate under section 197(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without a prima facie basis that the remittances were chargeable to tax in India; (ii) Whether the reseller arrangement and the material on record justified a prima facie conclusion that the Indian reseller constituted a dependent agent or permanent establishment of the non-resident petitioner.
Issue (i): Whether the Assessing Officer could refuse a certificate for deduction of tax at nil rate under section 197(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without a prima facie basis that the remittances were chargeable to tax in India.
Analysis: Section 197(1) read with Rule 28AA requires the Assessing Officer to form an informed view on existing and estimated tax liability, including the taxability of receipts on a prima facie basis, while stopping short of finally adjudicating the assessment. The obligation to deduct tax at source arises only where the sum paid is chargeable to tax. Where the record does not disclose sufficient material to support chargeability, refusal of a nil withholding certificate cannot be sustained merely on a cautious or tentative approach.
Conclusion: The refusal of the nil withholding certificate was not justified and was liable to be set aside.
Issue (ii): Whether the reseller arrangement and the material on record justified a prima facie conclusion that the Indian reseller constituted a dependent agent or permanent establishment of the non-resident petitioner.
Analysis: Under Article 7 of the India-Ireland DTAA, business profits are taxable in India only if the foreign enterprise carries on business through a permanent establishment in India. Article 5 permits attribution of a permanent establishment only where the agent habitually concludes contracts, habitually secures orders, or otherwise satisfies the treaty conditions for a dependent agent, and independence under the agreement remains material. The agreement described the relationship as seller and buyer on a principal-to-principal basis, with no power to bind the other party, and the material cited by the Assessing Officer on pricing inputs, commission structure, and indemnity did not, by itself, establish a dependent agency relationship or a prima facie permanent establishment.
Conclusion: No prima facie permanent establishment or dependent agent relationship was established against the petitioner.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order could not be sustained on the material available, and the petitioner was entitled to a nil withholding certificate, while the Assessing Officer remained free to examine taxability in regular assessment proceedings according to law.
Ratio Decidendi: A certificate under section 197(1) cannot be refused unless the Assessing Officer has a prima facie basis to treat the remittance as chargeable to tax in India, and a dependent-agent permanent establishment cannot be inferred absent treaty conditions showing authority to conclude contracts, habitual securing of orders, or comparable indicia of control.
Nil certificate under Section 197 of the Income Tax Act - Obligation to deduct tax at source only if payment is chargeable to tax - Examination of taxability on a prima facie basis guided by Rule 28AA of the Income Tax Rules - Permanent establishment by dependent agent under Article 5 of the India-Ireland DTAA - Business profits taxable only in resident state unless attributable to a permanent establishment (Article 7 of the India-Ireland DTAA)
Nil certificate under Section 197 of the Income Tax Act - Examination of taxability on a prima facie basis guided by Rule 28AA of the Income Tax Rules - Obligation to deduct tax at source only if payment is chargeable to tax - Whether the Assessing Officer's refusal to grant a certificate under Section 197 entitling the petitioner to receive payments from SFDC India without deduction of tax at source was sustainable. - HELD THAT: - The court held that an AO deciding an application under Section 197 must form an opinion on the taxability of receipts on a prima facie basis and be guided by Rule 28AA, which requires consideration of existing and estimated tax liability including tax in prior years. While a final determination of tax liability is not required at the Section 197 stage, the AO must nevertheless examine whether the payments are chargeable to tax; the obligation to deduct TDS arises only if the sum is chargeable under the Act. The impugned order declined the nil certificate primarily on administrative grounds and an absence of assessment history, without forming adequate prima facie findings that the receipts were chargeable in India. On the material before it (including the Reseller Agreement and prior judicial findings), the court found insufficient basis to sustain the AO's refusal and set aside the order, directing issuance of a nil-deduction certificate while preserving the AO's right to examine and assess on merits later. [Paras 26, 30, 60, 61, 62]
The impugned order refusing a Nil certificate is set aside and the AO is directed to issue a certificate under Section 197(1) permitting nil withholding, subject to the AO's power to examine and assess the taxability in accordance with law.
Permanent establishment by dependent agent under Article 5 of the India-Ireland DTAA - Business profits taxable only in resident state unless attributable to a permanent establishment (Article 7 of the India-Ireland DTAA) - Whether SFDC India prima facie constitutes a dependent-agent permanent establishment of the petitioner under Article 5 of the India-Ireland DTAA, making the petitioner's receipts taxable in India as business profits attributable to a PE. - HELD THAT: - The court examined Article 5 (including paragraph 6 and paragraph 8) and related model-convention commentary to identify the required indicia of a dependent-agent PE (habitual exercise of authority to conclude contracts in the name of the enterprise, habitual maintenance of stock for delivery, or habitually securing orders). The Reseller Agreement expressly records a principal-to-principal relationship, independence of the parties, and that neither party can bind the other. The AO did not make an explicit prima facie finding that SFDC India habitually exercised authority to conclude contracts in the petitioner's name, maintained stock on behalf of petitioner, or habitually secured orders wholly or almost wholly for the petitioner. The AO's observations as to price inputs, remuneration model and indemnity obligations were held insufficient, without further material, to treat SFDC India as a dependent-agent PE for the purposes of denying the nil certificate at the Section 197 stage. [Paras 50, 54, 55, 56, 60]
There was no sufficient prima facie material to treat SFDC India as a dependent-agent permanent establishment of the petitioner; the AO's conclusion to the contrary cannot be sustained for the purpose of refusing the Section 197 certificate.
Examination of taxability on a prima facie basis guided by Rule 28AA of the Income Tax Rules - Consideration of prior years' TDS and assessed income under Rule 28AA - Whether the AO complied with the requirements of Rule 28AA in considering the application for lower or nil deduction of tax. - HELD THAT: - The court reiterated that Rule 28AA mandates that the AO determine existing and estimated liability by having regard to tax payable on estimated income for the year, tax payable in the last four years, existing liabilities and TDS/advance tax particulars. The AO must take these factors into account to form a prima facie view on chargeability before rejecting a Section 197 application. The impugned order failed to demonstrate adequate application of the Rule's criteria or to form a reasoned prima facie view that the receipts were chargeable to tax in India. [Paras 24, 25, 26]
The AO did not adequately apply Rule 28AA's considerations in declining the nil certificate; a reasoned prima facie examination as required by Rule 28AA was missing.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is allowed: the impugned order refusing a nil-deduction certificate is set aside and the AO is directed to issue a certificate under Section 197(1) permitting nil withholding in respect of payments from SFDC India for FY 2024-25 (AY 2025-26), subject to the AO's untrammelled right to examine and frame assessment in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether freight logistic support services amounted to fees for technical services or fees for included services under section 9(1)(vii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and Article 12(5) of the India-US Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
Analysis: The decisive test was whether the services involved specialised knowledge, skill or expertise and whether such knowledge was made available to the recipient so as to enable independent use thereafter. The freight and logistics functions described in the record were held to be in the nature of operational assistance, including customs clearance support, documentation and coordination, and not a transfer of technical know-how. The references to complicated functions and global personnel development did not establish the make available condition. The services were therefore treated as routine or support services, not managerial, technical or consultancy services within the treaty sense.
Conclusion: The freight logistic support services did not constitute fees for technical services or fees for included services, and the Revenue's challenge on this question failed.
Ratio Decidendi: For a payment to be taxable as fees for technical services under the treaty, the service must both involve specialised technical or consultancy input and make that knowledge, skill or expertise available to the recipient for independent future use.
Reimbursement of Global Account Management charges received by assessee taxable as FTS/FIS and reimbursement of Leaseline charges received by assessee is taxable as Royalty u/s 9 (l) (vi) - HELD THAT:- Insofar as questions ‘B’ and ‘C’ are concerned, it could not be disputed before us that those also formed the subject matter of [2009 (8) TMI 1258 - DELHI HIGH COURT] ITA 475/2009 and the decision on which came to be followed in [2010 (7) TMI 1218 - DELHI HIGH COURT] ITA 751/2010 wherein appellant could not dispute that question of law proposed to be raised is covered by the judgment in Woodward Governor India Pvt. Ltd. [2009 (4) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] and judgment of this Court in Skycell Communications Ltd. [2001 (2) TMI 57 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] which has been followed in Bharti Celluar Ltd. [2008 (10) TMI 321 - DELHI HIGH COURT] The appeal is accordingly dismissed.
Income deemed to accrue or arise in India - Freight Logistic Support services provided by the assessee is in the nature of Fee for Technical Services/Fee for Included Services as per Section 9 (1) (vii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and Article 12(5) of the India-US Double Taxation Avoidance Treaty - HELD THAT:- As we had explained in International Management Group, FTS is firstly concerned with rendition of specialized knowledge, skill, expertise and know-how. It is principally concerned with a transfer of knowledge, skill and expertise. Those three attributes must be those which are possessed by the service provider and are distinctive and special qualities that it possesses.
The second facet of FTS is the “make available” condition and which envisions an enablement or transfer of specialized knowledge and skill. As was explained in International Management Group, the mere furnishing of service would not be sufficient to categorise the service as FTS. It would have to be necessarily accompanied by a transfer of expertise and which would consequently enable the recipient of service becoming skilled in its own right and empowered to perform those functions independently.
When tested on those precepts we firstly find that rules and regulations pertaining to clearance of customs frontiers was clearly not specialized skill or knowledge acquired or possessed by the assessee. These rules are in the public domain and have been framed by competent authorities operating in different jurisdictions. A fortiori, imparting instructions in respect of those statutory regulations would also not qualify FTS. Similarly, we fail to appreciate how the creation of a global ethos or a workforce which is expected to follow a common code could be said to constitute FTS.
Insofar as the question of the development of software is concerned, we need not render any independent observations except to remind the appellant of the principles which the Supreme Court had come to authoritatively lay down in Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P) Ltd. [2021 (3) TMI 138 - SUPREME COURT] - Decided against revenue.
The primary issue considered was whether the initiation of reassessment proceedings for the Assessment Year (AY) 2019-20 under Section 148A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, was valid. This involved examining whether there was a legitimate basis for the belief that income had escaped assessment for the relevant year.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
The reassessment proceedings were initiated under Section 148A of the Income Tax Act, 1961. This provision allows the Assessing Officer (AO) to issue a notice for reassessment if there is reason to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. The validity of such proceedings is contingent upon the existence of tangible material that justifies the formation of such a belief.
Precedents considered include decisions from the Delhi High Court and the Supreme Court, which emphasize that the reasons for reopening an assessment must be based on tangible material and cannot be supplemented or changed after the issuance of the notice. The Court referred to cases such as ATS Infrastructure Ltd. vs. ACIT and Indivest Pe. Ltd. v. Additional Director of Income-tax, which highlight that the reasons for reopening must be clear and cannot be based on a mere change of opinion.
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
The Court scrutinized the reasons provided for the reassessment, which were based on alleged unexplained investments in immovable property and luxury cars. The Court noted that the initial notice under Section 148A(b) only mentioned unexplained investments in immovable property, and subsequent allegations about luxury cars and other assets were not part of the original notice. This inconsistency was critical in the Court's reasoning.
The Court emphasized that the reasons for the formation of belief must be consistent and based on tangible material available at the time of issuing the notice. The introduction of new allegations not mentioned in the original notice was deemed impermissible.
Key evidence and findings:
The evidence presented included information from the Insight Portal, which suggested unexplained investments. However, the petitioner denied any transactions in immovable property for AY 2019-20 and provided explanations for the assets in question. The AO's failure to provide concrete evidence supporting the allegations for the specific assessment year was a significant factor in the Court's decision.
Application of law to facts:
The Court applied the legal principles regarding reassessment proceedings, emphasizing the need for tangible material and consistency in the reasons for reopening an assessment. The Court found that the AO did not have adequate material to substantiate the belief that income had escaped assessment for AY 2019-20.
Treatment of competing arguments:
The petitioner's argument centered on the lack of any transaction in immovable property during AY 2019-20 and the absence of evidence supporting the AO's claims. The AO's argument relied on information from the Insight Portal and subsequent allegations. The Court found the petitioner's arguments more compelling due to the lack of consistent and tangible evidence from the AO.
Conclusions:
The Court concluded that the reassessment proceedings for AY 2019-20 were not sustainable due to the absence of tangible material supporting the belief that income had escaped assessment. The introduction of new allegations not mentioned in the original notice further weakened the AO's position.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Court held that the reassessment proceedings initiated for AY 2019-20 were invalid due to the lack of tangible material supporting the belief that income had escaped assessment. The Court emphasized the principle that reasons for reopening an assessment must be based on existing information and cannot be supplemented with new allegations post issuance of the notice.
Preserve verbatim quotes of crucial legal reasoning:
The Court quoted previous decisions, emphasizing that "additional reasons cannot be provided or recorded by the Assessing Officer subsequent to the issuance of a notice under Section 148 of the Act." The Court reiterated that "the validity of the proceedings initiated upon a notice under Section 148 of the Act would have to be adjudged from the standpoint of the reasons which formed the basis for the formation of opinion with respect to escapement of income."
Core principles established:
The judgment reinforced the principle that reassessment proceedings must be based on tangible material and consistent reasons. The introduction of new allegations after the issuance of the notice is impermissible and undermines the validity of the proceedings.
Final determinations on each issue:
The Court quashed the order under Section 148A(d) and the notice under Section 148 of the Act, both dated 26 April 2023, for AY 2019-20. However, the Court clarified that this decision does not preclude the AO from initiating reassessment proceedings for other assessment years if appropriate and permissible by law.
Validity of Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - reasons to believe - what income as escaped assessment for the relevant year - transaction pertaining to immovable property - HELD THAT:- Reasons for the formation of opinion cannot be of changing hues.
We find ourselves unable to sustain the commencement of reassessment action for AY 2019-20 in light of the abject failure on the part of the AO, even at this stage and before us, to have placed any material which may have even remotely indicated or sustained the formation of belief that income pertaining to AY 2019-20 had escaped assessment. While the AO does appear to have also doubted the acquisition of various other assets in the previous years, that surely would not sustain or commend to us as constituting material that would be pertinent or relevant to AY 2019-20.
While the other material which has now come or fallen into the hands of the AO may, hypothetically speaking, constitute information which may warrant examination as to whether a concluded assessment for any previous AY is liable to be reopened, surely that material which was wholly unconnected with AY 2019-20, would not sustain the invocation of Section 148 for that year.
Thus, allow the instant writ petition and quash the order u/s 148A (d) as well as the notice under Section 148 of the Act.
Treating liabilities as unascertained or contingent - ITAT justification in deleting the addition made by the AO on account of provision for uncertain liability of an insurance company other than Life Insurance Company - HELD THAT:- Liability is a present obligation arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow of resources and in respect of which a reliable estimate of the amount of obligation is possible.
The fact that Rotork Controls [2009 (5) TMI 16 - SUPREME COURT] concerned an army of items of sophisticated goods manufactured and sold by the assessee or Metal Box Company [1968 (8) TMI 53 - SUPREME COURT] pertained to an army of employees due to retire in future or Bharat Earth Movers [2000 (8) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT] was concerned with the provision made by the Assessee for meeting the liability incurred under Leave Encashment Scheme, are no grounds not to follow the principle laid down in such binding presidents. Provisions based upon actuarial valuation are well accepted in several decisions.
Hon’ble Supreme Court has explained the difference between accrued and contingent liabilities in the above decisions. Merely because these decisions may have dealt with the issue of leave encashment for employees or payment of bonus to the employees or warranties provided by the assessee, we cannot agree with Mr Chhotaray’s contention that these decisions are entirely irrelevant or do not apply to the facts of this case.
The ratio decidendi of the above precedents is not much coloured by the factual aspects of how those decisions were delivered. However, the principle involved is important, and this principle has been followed to reject the Revenue’s contention that the provisions or expenditures were toward some unascertained liability or contingent liability.
Besides, in the present case, since the assessee is obliged to maintain its accounts in terms of the IRDA directives or to adopt the actuarial method of valuation, there was no error in the first appellate authority and the ITAT holding that no additions could have been made in respect of the provisions made by the assessee entirely consistent with the IRDA directives and the methods of valuation prescribed by IRDA. The approach of the AO in this case was contrary to the law laid down in General Insurance Corporation [1999 (9) TMI 3 - SUPREME COURT]
As far as in the precise factual context which obtains in the present case, the Division Bench of the Delhi High Court concluded that it would be wholly incorrect to treat the IBNR (incurred but not reported) provisioning to be a contingent liability. The Court noted that the IRDA regulations, which provided for adopting the actuarial method of valuation, was a scientific method that the assessee involved in the insurance business was mandated to apply.
We are satisfied that this Appeal is not required to be admitted on question (A) as same, cannot be regarded as any substantial question of law. This is a mixed question of law and fact. The first appellate authority and the ITAT, have, both on facts and law, correctly decided the matter. No case of perversity is made out. The ITAT has also referred to circumstances, such as how consistently the revenue has assessed identical provisioning made by the assessee for the past assessment years.
ITAT has also noted that though principles of res-judicata may not apply to the tax proceedings, in the absence of any change circumstances, the AO was not justified in treating liabilities as unascertained or contingent.
Accordingly, this Appeal is admitted only on substantial question of law at (B) above - ITAT justification in allowing u/s 14A r.w. Rule 8D (2) (ii)
Issues: Whether the notice for reassessment issued beyond four years from the end of the relevant assessment year could be sustained when the recorded reasons did not specify the material facts allegedly not fully and truly disclosed by the assessee.
Analysis: The reasons recorded for reopening referred to matters said to have emerged from the case records, but the crucial requirement under the first proviso to Section 147 was not met because the reasons did not identify the specific material facts that were allegedly withheld by the assessee. In the absence of such disclosure in the recorded reasons, the reopening could not be justified by later affidavit or oral submissions, and the reasons had to stand or fall on their own contents. The statutory bar on reopening after four years could be crossed only by a clear and reasoned assertion of failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts necessary for assessment.
Conclusion: The reassessment notice was unsustainable and was quashed.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - failure of the petitioner to disclose fully and truly all material facts necessary for assessment - HELD THAT:- As Hindustan Lever Ltd. [2004 (2) TMI 41 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] thus holds that the AO must disclose all the reasons for reopening the assessment. This would include a reference to the facts or materials which were allegedly not disclosed by the assessee for the relevant assessment year.
The Court held that the AO in case of a challenge to the reasons, must be able to justify the same based on the material on record. The AO must disclose the reasons as to which fact or material was not disclosed by the assessee fully and truly necessary for assessing that assessment year to establish a vital link between the reasons and the evidence.
Court emphasised that this vital link safeguards against the arbitrary reopening of the concluded assessment. The reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer cannot be supplemented by filing affidavits or making oral submissions. Otherwise, the reasons lacking in material particulars would get supplemented by the time the matter reaches the Court on the strength of the affidavit or oral submissions advanced.
Thus, relying on the issue in Hindustan Lever Ltd. [2004 (2) TMI 41 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and applying it to the facts in the present case, including the fact that the Assessing Officer, in the reasons furnished to the petitioner, has not bothered to disclose which material facts, according to the Assessing Officer, were not fully and truly disclosed by the Petitioner for the relevant assessment year, we quash the impugned notice.
In any event, this is a case of reopening beyond the prescribed period of four years. Therefore, unless a case of failure to disclose fully and truly all the material facts by the assessee was made out, there is no question of overcoming the statutory bar in seeking to reopen the assessment beyond four years.
In Shrenik Kumar Baldota [2025 (1) TMI 1067 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] we had to reject a similar objection because the reasons furnished to the assessee in the Petition did not mention the audit objections as one of the reasons for reopening.
Accordingly, we held it was the settled position that the reopening restrictions must be tested on the touchstone of the reasons as recorded. Nothing could be added or subtracted there. Since neither the reasons recorded nor the order deciding the objections stated that the reopening was done based on the audit objections, the reopening notice could not be sustained.
Issues: Whether interim stay ought to be granted against reassessment proceedings where the notice under section 148A(b) was issued in the name of the amalgamating company, while the section 148A(d) order was passed in the name of the amalgamated entity, and whether the wrong PAN number warranted immediate interference.
Analysis: The challenge was founded on the issuance of preliminary notice to a non-existing entity after amalgamation. The final order, however, was passed in the name of the petitioner-amalgamated company. The Court noted that the effect of the incorrect PAN number could be examined at the final hearing and found no substantial showing of prejudice from the preliminary notice stage. The relied-upon precedent was treated as potentially distinguishable because, there, both the notice and the order were issued in the name of the non-existent amalgamating company.
Outcome: Interim stay was refused, the reassessment proceedings were directed to abide by the final orders in the petition, and the hearing was expedited.
Reassessment proceedings in the name of a non-existing entity - Notice in the name of company as already amalgamated - HELD THAT:- Although we have granted the Rule in this petition, we are not inclined to stay the assessment proceedings. This is because though the Section 148A (b) notice dated 11 March 2023 was issued in the name of DDB Marketing Services Private Limited, the final order u/s 148A (d) dated 10 April 2023 was issued in the name of the petitioner, into which the earlier company had amalgamated.
The impact of citing the wrong PAN number can always be considered at the final hearing stage. The affidavit filed on behalf of the respondents explains why this was required. In the petition, we also did not find any serious averments regarding prejudice on account of the issue of preliminary notices under the name of DDB Marketing Services Private Limited.
Petitioner did rely upon the decision of the co-ordinate bench in UBER India Systems (P.) Ltd. [2024 (10) TMI 1001 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] However, we find that in the said case, both the notices u/s 148A (b) and the order under Section 148A (d) were issued in the name of the non-existent amalgamating company. To that extent, we will have to decide whether the decision in UBER India Systems (P) Ltd. (supra) is distinguishable.
While we decline interim relief, we clarify that the reassessment proceedings will abide by the final orders in this petition.
Issues: Whether the provisions of Section 115JA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are applicable to the respondent bank (foreign bank) for assessment year 1999-2000 and whether the Revenue's appeal is maintainable.
Analysis: Section 115JA was the provision applied in the assessment order for computation of book profit and tax. The assessment computed book profit and resultant tax under Section 115JA; the tax amount on that computation is below the Rs. 2 crore threshold referenced in the Central Board of Direct Taxes Circular dated 17 September 2024. The issue of applicability of MAT provisions to banking companies, including foreign banks, is addressed by prior precedent of this Court in Commissioner of Income Tax-LTU v. Union Bank of India which covers the question raised.
Conclusion: The appeal is not maintainable because the tax computed under Section 115JA is below the Rs. 2 crore threshold and the issue is covered by existing precedent; accordingly the appeal filed by the Revenue is dismissed and the decision under Section 115JA stands in favour of the respondent bank (assessee).
Ratio Decidendi: An appeal by Revenue challenging application of Section 115JA is liable to be dismissed where the tax on book profit computed under Section 115JA is below the statutory/administrative threshold and the question of applicability to banking institutions is already covered by binding precedential decision of the Court.
Section 115JA Applicability to Banking company - HELD THAT:- The issue raised in the appeal is covered by the decision of this court in the case of Union Bank of India [2019 (5) TMI 355 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] against which the leave is granted by the Supreme Court [2020 (3) TMI 58 - SC ORDER]. There is no dispute that the issue is covered by the decision of this Court in the case of Union Bank of India (supra). Therefore, looked from any angle, the appeal filed by the Revenue is not maintainable.
Book profit has been computed u/s 115JA in the assessment order. In the grounds of appeal before this Court, there is a reference of Section 115JA/115JB which in our view is incorrect, since the section which was involved in the assessment order is 115JA and not 115JB.
The core legal questions considered in this judgment are:
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Addition under Section 69A
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Section 69A of the Income Tax Act pertains to unexplained money, bullion, jewelry, or other valuable articles not recorded in the books of account and for which the assessee offers no satisfactory explanation.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined whether the funds credited to the appellant's bank account were unexplained. The Tribunal noted that the appellant provided evidence of post-dated cheques and regular banking transactions, suggesting these were part of financial operations rather than unexplained money.
Key evidence and findings: The appellant submitted bank statements, confirmation of account from involved parties, and evidence of transactions with Radhe Corporation, Shankar Corporation, and Krishna Enterprises. The appellant argued these were legitimate financial transactions involving post-dated cheques.
Application of law to facts: The Tribunal found that the appellant had sufficiently demonstrated the identity, genuineness, and creditworthiness of the parties involved. The transactions were consistent with regular financial operations, not accommodation entries.
Treatment of competing arguments: The appellant's argument was that these transactions were part of a financing arrangement using post-dated cheques, not unexplained money. The Tribunal found this explanation credible and supported by documentary evidence.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the addition under Section 69A was not justified, as the appellant provided sufficient evidence to demonstrate the legitimacy of the transactions.
2. Nature of Banking Transactions
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The assessment of banking transactions involves examining the nature and purpose of the transactions to determine if they are genuine or part of an accommodation entry scheme.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered the appellant's explanation that the transactions were part of a financing arrangement involving post-dated cheques, which is a common practice in business.
Key evidence and findings: The appellant provided evidence of post-dated cheques, bank statements, and confirmations from involved parties to substantiate the claim of legitimate financial transactions.
Application of law to facts: The Tribunal found that the appellant's explanation was consistent with the evidence provided and reflected a legitimate business practice rather than an attempt to conceal unexplained income.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Tribunal considered the revenue's argument that these were accommodation entries but found the appellant's evidence and explanation more compelling.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the nature of the banking transactions was consistent with regular financial operations, not accommodation entries.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Preserve verbatim quotes of crucial legal reasoning: "The three key ingredients being Identity, Genuineness, and Creditworthiness of the said parties being proven, the said transactions cannot be said to be bogus."
Core principles established: The Tribunal emphasized the importance of the assessee providing credible evidence to demonstrate the legitimacy of transactions and the necessity of the revenue authorities to consider such evidence before making additions under Section 69A.
Final determinations on each issue: The Tribunal allowed the appeals of the assessee, concluding that the transactions were genuine financial operations and not unexplained money under Section 69A.
Addition u/s 69A - unexplained money - Nature of the banking transactions and cheques deposited by the appellant - HELD THAT:- The assessee has submitted due evidences to explain that the transaction in the bank statement reflect post dated cheque issued and cross barer cheque against the cheques received. The cheques received were deposited on the same day. On the due date the post dated cheques were being credited. It is a system of obtaining loans by issuing post dated cheques which are encashed within 90 to 110 days for availing credit.
With regard to finance obtained from Radhe Corporation, Shankar Corporation and Krishna Enterprise, the Ld.AR submitted all details such as PAN, Bank Statement extract reflecting the finance received substantiating the Genuineness of the said Party, ITR Acknowledgement of the return filed by the said Party for AY 2013-14 substantiating the Creditworthiness of the said Party, Ledger Confirmation of the said party substantiating the Identity, PAN, Sample copy of cheques issued to the said Party which are obtained from Bank.
The three kay ingredients being Identity, Genuineness and Creditworthiness of the said parties being proven, the said transactions cannot be said to be bogus. All the documents prove that the assessee have received short term finances and also repaid the amounts. Hence, we hold that no addition in this is called for. Appeals of the assessee are allowed.
(1) Whether the Pharmacy Division of the assessee hospital is an integral part of the dominant purpose of the hospital itself and the provisions of section 11(4A) are not attracted.
(2) Whether the running of the chemist shop by the assessee hospital is incidental or ancillary to the dominant object of the assessee trust for running its hospital and whether the requirements of section 11(4A) are fulfilled by the assessee by maintaining separate books of account.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Pharmacy Division as an Integral Part of Hospital
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Section 11(4A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, requires that the business must be incidental to the attainment of the objectives of the trust and that separate books of account be maintained. The court considered precedents including the Bombay High Court decision in Baun Foundation Trust vs. Chief Commissioner of Income Tax.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the pharmacy division was integral to the hospital's operations, as it provided essential medicines to patients, which is crucial for medical treatment. The court referenced similar cases where pharmacy operations were considered incidental to the hospital's primary purpose.
Key evidence and findings: The pharmacy income was a substantial part of the hospital's total receipts, but the Tribunal noted that this did not detract from its integral role in hospital operations.
Application of law to facts: The Tribunal applied section 11(4A) and determined that the pharmacy's operations were indeed incidental to the hospital's charitable purposes, thus not requiring separate books of accounts as per the precedents.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Tribunal rejected the argument that the pharmacy was a separate business activity, citing the necessity of the pharmacy for hospital operations.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the pharmacy division was not a separate business and was integral to the hospital's charitable activities, thus qualifying for exemption under section 11.
2. Chemist Shop as Incidental to Hospital Operations
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Similar to the pharmacy division, the chemist shop's operations were considered under section 11(4A) and relevant case law.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal viewed the chemist shop as ancillary to the hospital's primary objective of providing medical relief, as it served the patients' needs.
Key evidence and findings: The chemist shop's operations were found to be consistent with the hospital's charitable objectives, and separate books of account were maintained.
Application of law to facts: The Tribunal applied section 11(4A) and found that the chemist shop met the conditions for exemption, as it was incidental to the hospital's operations and separate accounts were maintained.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Tribunal dismissed the view that the chemist shop was an independent business, emphasizing its role in supporting the hospital's charitable mission.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the chemist shop was an incidental activity to the hospital's operations and qualified for exemption under section 11.
3. Opportunity of Hearing Not Provided
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The principles of natural justice require that parties be given an opportunity to be heard.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the lack of opportunity for a hearing via video conferencing, which was a procedural lapse.
Conclusions: The Tribunal acknowledged the procedural lapse but focused on the substantive issues of the case.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Tribunal held that both the pharmacy division and the chemist shop were integral parts of the hospital's operations and were incidental to its charitable purpose. Therefore, they were not separate business activities and qualified for exemption under section 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to delete the additions made to the income on account of the pharmacy and chemist shop operations.
Core principles established: The integration of pharmacy and chemist operations within a hospital's charitable activities can qualify for tax exemption under section 11 if they are incidental to the hospital's primary purpose and separate books of accounts are maintained where required.
Final determinations on each issue: The Tribunal allowed the appeal, granting the exemption sought by the assessee for the pharmacy and chemist shop income, and directed the deletion of the additions made by the Assessing Officer.
Exemption u/s 11 - Whether the Pharmacy Division of the assessee hospital is an integral part of the dominant purpose of hospital itself ? - HELD THAT:- We have noticed that the case of the Ld.AO as well as the CIT(A) hinges around the belief that the provisions of section 11(4A) were attracted in case of the assessee and since the separate books of account are not maintained, the assessee is not entitled for benefit of exemption u/s 11(1) because the the pharmacy business is not integral and dominant part of philanthropic activity of the hospital.
DR has made a submission that the assessee has not brought on record any documents/material to show that the surplus of the pharmacy business income has been spent for the philanthropic purpose of the trust.
For this, once again, AR submitted that the assessee hospital had always been spending this surplus income from the pharmacy division for the philanthropic purpose of the trust. Moreover, in case there is any violation of registration u/s 12A by the Trust, the revenue authorities are always at liberty to take action as permitted by law in case it is found that the assessee is not spending the surplus funds for philanthropic purpose of the trust/hospital.
We are of the considered opinion that the case of the assessee hospital is very well covered by the judgement of the co-ordinate bench in the case of M/s Jaslok Hospital & Research Centre [2016 (6) TMI 1486 - ITAT MUMBAI].
Income from the Chemist division for A.Y. 2017-18 wherein similar issue for income from pharmacy division has been dealt with and decided in favour of the assessee.
It is not in dispute that the assessee is running a hospital and is also having in-house patients. Medicines are essential for the treatment of the patients.
Assessee is also giving treatment to the OPD patients, who are at liberty to purchase the medicines from the chemist shop of hospital. It has been vehemently argued on behalf of the assessee by the Ld.AR that for saving the life and proper treatment of the in-house patients, running of pharmacy division is the most essential requirement for running the assessee hospital and for fulfillment of the dominant purpose of the assessee trust. We, therefore, are of the considered opinion that the facts and circumstances of the assessee’s case are fully covered by the judgement of the co-ordinate benches cited supra.
We find that the appellant/assessee fulfills all the requirements which necessitates the running of pharmacy and chemist division in the hospital to achieve the dominant purpose of the trust for which the revenue authority have given approval u/s 12A to the assessee hospital and, therefore, the assessee hospital is entitled for the benefit u/s 11(1) of the Act and the income from the pharmacy and chemist division of the assessee cannot be treated as business income from a separate and independent activity carried out by the assessee.
Thus, on the basis of summarized grounds the points of determination enumerated in the beginning of the order are accordingly decided in the affirmative and in favour of the assessee. We accordingly direct the AO to delete the addition.
Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction - Initiating Officer (IO) had provisionally attached property - purchase of gold for which the amount was transferred through RTGS - Whether the transaction involving the transfer of Rs. 1 Crore for the purchase of gold constitutes a benami transaction under PBPTA?
HELD THAT:- Appellant has admitted in his statement that the gold was not delivered directly to Smt. Suman Dua, from whose account RTGS transfer of Rs. 1 Crore was received in the account of M/s Harsh Bullion, wherein he was a partner with Shri Anoop Kumar Agrawal. The copy of the identification documents of Smt. Suman Dua was received by the Appellant through Shri Mahendra Pal Malhotra to whom gold was admittedly delivered along with the invoice thereof.
Appellant believes that having received copy of the invoice signed by Smt. Suman Dua from Shri Mahendra Pal Malhotra was sufficient as proof of his delivery of gold worth Rs.1 Crore to Smt. Suman Dua. We observe that such belief is neither corroborated by normal business practice nor supported by the fact that the transaction involved gold sale of Rs.1 Crore. While it established that the funds were transferred from the account of Smt. Suman Dua, the Appellant failed to establish the delivery to the person from whose account the amount of Rs.1 Crore was transferred to his firm M/s Harsh Bullion.
Appellant has claimed that M/s Harsh Bullion is a bonafide business entity yet no convincing argument has been made as to why it closed the Punjab & Sind Bank account Janakpuri, Bareilly on 20.06.2017 and transfer the closure proceeds to M/s Bankey Bihari Bullion, another firm of the Appellant wherein Shri Mahendra Pal Malhotra is also a partner.
The argument of the Appellant that M/s Harsh Bullion had conducted a number of transactions of Rs.10 Lakh and more in the FY 2016-17 is good enough ground as not to regard transfer of Rs.1 Crore by Smt. Suman Dua as strange is not acceptable. The transfer is not strange because of its high value but because of the circumstances in which it occurred. The initiation of the transfer of funds in the name of Smt. Suman Dua, in the presence of Shri Mahendra Pal Malhotra from the branch in which Shri Malhotra had an account appears suspicious.
It is all the more strange that Smt. Suman Dua did not have an account in the same branch. She is supposedly to have deposited Rs.1 Crore in cash which was accepted by the Chief Manager of the said branch in spite of her not being an account holder in the same branch.
Appellant went on to deliver gold to Shri Malhotra. The Appellant was sure of having delivered it to Smt. Suman Dua because the invoice was signed by Smt. Dua, that too, in the absence of the Appellant and to accept the signed invoice received from Shri Malhotra as a token of receipt of gold worth Rs.1 Crore make the transaction ‘strange' and inexplicable.
Appellant cannot maintain that he acted in good faith. Shri Mahendra Pal Malhotra is also a partner in his other firm of M/s Bankey Bihari Bullion to which the closure proceeds of the account of M/s Harsh Bullion were transferred on 20.06.2017. The inconsistencies pointed out by the Appellant in the statements of Smt. Suman Dua cannot wipe out the circumstances under which the said transaction occurred. Appeal dismissed.
Imposition of duty and penalty on the appellant on the pilfered goods in terms of Section 45 of the Customs Act, 1962 read with Regulation 6 of Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulations - principal contention of the appellant is that the appellant was not a party to the Panchnama and security of the container was the prime responsibility of the CISF deployed at ICD Tughlaqabad - it was held by High Court that 'In terms of Section 45 of the Act and the ‘HCCAR’, being the custodian of imported goods, appellant was burdened with the responsibility of safe custody of the imported goods. Appellant cannot escape such burden by shifting its responsibility upon the CISF and has therefore been rightly held liable to pay customs duty and penalty as prescribed under Section 45 (3) of the Act and Regulation 6 (1) (j) of HCCAR, 2009.'
HELD THAT:- The appeal is admitted - Issue notice on the application for grant of interim relief returnable on 28th March, 2025.
The primary issue considered by the Tribunal was whether the appellants, M/s Varian Medical Systems International (India) Private Limited, were eligible for a refund of Rs. 10,25,253/- paid twice as customs duty for the same import transaction under a specific Bill of Entry due to a technical error in the customs software system.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents
The Tribunal examined the provisions of Section 12 and Section 27 of the Customs Act, 1962. Section 12 governs the levy of customs duties, while Section 27 pertains to the refund of duties. The Tribunal also considered precedents, particularly the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Swastik Sanitarywares Ltd. and the Supreme Court's judgment in Mafatlal Industries, which addressed the issue of refund of duty paid twice.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning
The Tribunal interpreted Section 27 to mean that any customs duty paid erroneously, such as in the case of double payment, does not have a legal basis for levy or payment. The Tribunal emphasized that the customs duty for the second payment lacked a taxable event, thereby making the second payment refundable.
Key Evidence and Findings
The Tribunal reviewed the original authority's findings, which included evidence from the State Bank of India confirming the double payment, a chartered accountant's certificate verifying no unjust enrichment, and the customs broker's role in facilitating the payment. The Tribunal found that these documents sufficiently demonstrated that the duty was paid twice for the same Bill of Entry.
Application of Law to Facts
The Tribunal applied the legal framework to the facts by acknowledging that the customs broker acted as an agent for the importer and that the payment of duty was made on behalf of the importer. The Tribunal found that the evidence supported the claim that the duty was paid twice, and the importer bore the burden of the duty without passing it on to others, fulfilling the criteria for a refund under Section 27.
Treatment of Competing Arguments
The Tribunal considered the arguments presented by the Revenue, which contended that the refund was not permissible due to the lack of direct evidence from the importer. However, the Tribunal rejected this argument, stating that the customs broker's involvement and the supporting documentation provided sufficient proof of the double payment.
Conclusions
The Tribunal concluded that the impugned order denying the refund was contrary to the factual and legal position. The Tribunal found that the appellants were entitled to a refund of the amount paid twice as customs duty, as the original authority had correctly determined.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Tribunal held that the impugned order was liable to be set aside, allowing the refund of Rs. 10,25,253/- to the appellants. The Tribunal established the principle that a refund is warranted when duty is paid twice without a legal basis, aligning with the judgments of higher judicial forums.
Core Principles Established
The Tribunal reinforced the principle that a refund of customs duty is permissible when it is shown that the duty was paid twice due to an error, and the burden of the duty was not passed on to another party. The Tribunal also emphasized the role of customs brokers as agents for importers, whose actions and documentation can substantiate claims for refunds.
Final Determinations on Each Issue
The Tribunal determined that the appellants were eligible for a refund of the customs duty paid twice, setting aside the impugned order and allowing the appeal in favor of the appellants.
Refund claim - amount paid by the appellants twice through their customs broker towards import duty liability for the imports - HELD THAT:- All the relevant issues relating to grant of refund has been examined by the original authority, to ascertain the fact whether the import duty has been twice on the very same consignment of imported goods. However, it is found that the learned Commissioner (Appeals) had held that the appellant importer have neither paid impugned duty not they submitted any documentary evidence that the said duty, for which they are claiming refund has been borne by them.
Further, on careful perusal of the records of the case, it is amply clear that in respect of imports through courier mode, the importer has to file the Bill of Entry through authorised customs broker. Such customs broker besides providing assistance for clearance of goods from customs control, may also provide services such as logistics, payment of duty on behalf of the importer as their agent, which charges are reimbursed by the importer on actual basis - The documents such as Bill of Entry for which the import duty has been assessed under the Customs statute and the challans in which the customs duty have been paid twice for the same amount and for the very same Bill of Entry are sufficiently evidence that the customs duty has been paid twice for one import.
Further, the chartered accountant certificate dated 23.08.2019 produced by the importer -appellants also demonstrates that the burden of duty have been borne by them on being had to pay the customs duty twice, and they had not passed on such burden to any other person. On the above basis, a clear case has been made out by the appellants and the original authority had verified the facts, before grant of refund to the importer-appellants in this case. Therefore, the impugned order is contrary to the factual position of the case as discussed herein and on this ground alone it is liable to be set aside.
The issue of refund arising on account of payment of duty/tax twice has been dealt with in detail by the by the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of Swastik Sanitary wares Limited [2012 (11) TMI 149 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT], upon taking into account the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mafatlal Industries and it was held the assessee is eligible for refund of the amount paid for the second time.
Conclusion - i) A refund of customs duty is permissible when it is shown that the duty was paid twice due to an error, and the burden of the duty was not passed on to another party. ii) The impugned order is liable to be set aside, as it had denied refund to the appellants, which has been paid twice towards one single import activity on which customs duty applicable has already been paid at the first time, as per law.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the imported cap sub-assembly for door outside handle was classifiable under CTH 8708 99 00 as claimed by the appellant or under CTH 8708 29 00 as held by the Department, and whether the demand of differential duty and interest was sustainable.
Analysis: The classification was determined by applying Rule 1, Rule 2(a) and Rule 3(a) of the General Rules for Interpretation together with Section Note 3 to Section XVII and the persuasive guidance of the HSN Explanatory Notes. The imported goods were described by the appellant itself as door handles for specific vehicle doors, and the Tribunal found that they were designed solely and principally for motor vehicles. On that basis, the goods were held to have the essential character of door handles in incomplete or unfinished form, attracting the specific entry for parts and accessories of bodies rather than the residual heading. The plea based on challenge to assessment was rejected in the context of self-assessment, and once the duty demand was sustained, interest was also upheld as consequential.
Conclusion: The imported goods were held classifiable under CTH 8708 29 00, not under CTH 8708 99 00, and the demand of differential duty along with interest was sustained against the assessee.
Classification of imported Cap Sub Assembly for Door Outside Handle - classifiable under CTH 87089900 as claimed by the appellant or 8708 2900 as alleged by the Department? - demand of differential duty with interest - HELD THAT:- The appellant had himself described the product as ‘door handles’ in the Bills of Entry. The goods so imported were described as RR door outside handle or FR door handle or outside door handle, clearly specifying the placement of each such door handle. It has been argued before us that the door handle cannot be affixed as such and the plastic base material has to be affixed around its base in order to manufacture door handle. The true test for classification is the test of commercial identity. It has to be ascertained as to how the goods in question are referred to in the market by those who deal with them. In the instant case, the imported goods are door handles for the front door, rear door and in commercially identifiable as such, forming part of the body of the car.
The Supreme Court in M/s Thermax Ltd Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune [2022 (10) TMI 468 - SUPREME COURT] has reiterated the view that the HSN code is the bedrock of custom controls and procedures. It has also been held that as per the HSN, classification is done by placing the goods under the most apt and fitting sub-heading.
The Appellant had declared goods as "RR door outside handle or FR door handle or outside door handle". The CTH 87082900-other parts and accessories of bodies-is a specific description for the imported goods. The door handles are part of door as per Section note 3 of section XVII and HSN Explanatory note B of CTH 87.08 and Rule 3(a) of the GIR. When the appellant has specifically given the description of the goods as door handles at the time of import, mere addition of a plastic material to affix the imported goods on doors does not change its principal use. As per rule 2(a) of GIR, the incomplete/ unfinished door handles has the essential character of the complete or finished door handles. Therefore, the same can be considered as 'finished door handle' and accordingly is liable to be classified under CTH 87082900. Since, the imported goods are for specific use, therefore, considering Rule 3(a) of the GIR, the goods are classifiable under CTH 87082900.
The appellant is liable for the differential duty
Demand of interest - HELD THAT:- In the instance case, the customs duty had already been deposited at the time of import, hence, interest is not liable to be paid. As regards interest, Supreme Court in the case of Pratibha Processors & Ors vs Union of India & Ors [1996 (10) TMI 88 - SUPREME COURT] has held that “Interest is compensatory in character and is imposed on an assessee who has withheld payment of any tax as and when it is due and payable.” As the differential duty is liable to be paid, hence, the demand for interest is also upheld.
Conclusion - The imported goods are correctly classifiable under CTH 87082900, and the appellant is liable for the differential duty and interest.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the writ petition seeking a direction to the Reserve Bank of India to exercise its statutory powers against an NBFC was maintainable despite pending proceedings before the NCLT and NCLAT. (ii) Whether the impugned order was vitiated for violation of natural justice on the ground that the appellant was not heard on merits before directions were issued.
Issue (i): Whether the writ petition seeking a direction to the Reserve Bank of India to exercise its statutory powers against an NBFC was maintainable despite pending proceedings before the NCLT and NCLAT.
Analysis: The relief sought in the writ petition was a mandamus to compel the regulator to act on alleged regulatory violations by the NBFC. The Court held that where a public authority is vested with statutory powers and fails to exercise them, a writ court can issue directions under Article 226 to secure performance of that duty. It also held that the pending company law proceedings did not oust writ jurisdiction because the tribunals could not grant the same relief against the regulator under the Reserve Bank of India Act, and the appellant was estopped from taking a contrary stand after having relied upon RBI action in the company law proceedings.
Conclusion: The writ petition was maintainable, and the challenge to the impugned order on this ground failed.
Issue (ii): Whether the impugned order was vitiated for violation of natural justice on the ground that the appellant was not heard on merits before directions were issued.
Analysis: The record showed that the parties had addressed both maintainability and merits before the Single Judge. The Court found that the appellant's grievance of denial of hearing was not borne out, and that the impugned order was passed after considering the rival submissions already placed before the Single Judge.
Conclusion: No violation of natural justice was established.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was rejected and the order upholding maintainability and the consequential directions was sustained, while leaving the parties at liberty to urge their remaining contentions before the writ court in the main proceedings.
Ratio Decidendi: A High Court may compel a public regulator to exercise statutory powers under Article 226 where there is a failure to act, and the existence of parallel proceedings before another forum does not bar such writ relief when that forum cannot grant the same relief against the regulator.
Maintainability of writ petition filed by respondent no. 1 under Article 226 of the Constitution - directions issued by the learned Single Judge were beyond the scope of the writ petition - main grievance of the respondent no. 1 (writ petitioner) is that there is a failure to exercise the power by the RBI in relation to the affairs of ECL - HELD THAT:- It is an elementary principle that when a public authority is vested with specific powers, it is duty bound to act accordingly. Therefore, any failure to exercise statutory powers gives rise to a cause of action to secure performance of such duty by way of issuance of writ of mandamus under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
In the case of CAG vs. K. S. Jagannathan & Anr. [1986 (4) TMI 344 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that a writ of mandamus can be issued where there is a failure to exercise power vested with a public authority.
A duty is implied by the vesting of statutory power upon a public authority. Further, the performance of such duty can be secured by proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
The respondent no. 1 has sought for the interference of the learned Single Judge considering the failure of RBI to act in exercise of its power under Chapter-III-B and more particularly Section 45-IE and Section 45MA of the RBI Act. Such reliefs claimed are, therefore, clearly maintainable in proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
The learned NCLT has no jurisdiction to issue prerogative writs to RBI to exercise such powers under the RBI Act. Therefore, this fact has no bearing on the merits of the dispute or such that is determinative of the outcome of these proceedings since the existence of the NCLT proceedings is duly disclosed and considered by the learned Single Judge while passing the impugned order - The impugned order dated 23rd October, 2024, has been passed by the learned Single Judge on the basis of clear findings of the RBI that there have indeed been violations of mandatory regulations by the ECL. These findings recorded by an apex expert body like the RBI, certainly warrant for issuance of protective ad-interim orders.
Conclusion - i) The High Court has the power to issue a writ of mandamus when a statutory authority fails to exercise its powers. ii) Proceedings before the NCLT and NCLAT do not preclude the High Court's jurisdiction under Article 226 to address issues related to the RBI's statutory duties. iii) The principles of natural justice are upheld when parties are given the opportunity to argue on both maintainability and merits.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a winding-up petition filed under the Companies Act, 1956, pending before a High Court at a stage where no irreversible steps towards liquidation have been taken, can be transferred to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under Section 434 of the Companies Act, 2013.
2. Whether the High Court may order such a transfer suo motu (or without a formal transfer application by a party), and whether written submissions requesting transfer can be treated as an application for transfer.
3. Whether the facts of a case in which no provisional or official liquidator has been appointed and no substantive orders have been passed are appropriate for transfer to the NCLT.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Transferability of winding-up petitions to the NCLT where no irreversible steps have been taken
Legal framework: Section 434 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for transfer of certain pending proceedings from High Courts to the Tribunal, including winding-up proceedings subject to prescribed stage limitations; Chapter XX of the Companies Act, 2013 and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) scheme are relevant to the interpretation of transferability and beneficial results of transfer.
Precedent treatment: The Supreme Court's guidance in Action Ispat and Power P. Ltd. v. Shyam Metalics and Energy Ltd. was applied as binding precedent: winding-up proceedings that have not progressed to an advanced/irreversible stage ought to be transferred to the NCLT. A coordinate High Court bench decision (Gurbakhsh Singh BA v. Fortis Hospital Ltd.) was followed, which held that even post-admission transfer is permissible if no irreversible steps have been taken.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that the statutory scheme contemplates various winding-up stages and that the Tribunal retains significant powers post-transfer; therefore, transfer furthers the legislative intent of consolidating corporate insolvency resolution under the new regime. The pivotal factual determinant is whether assets or business have been taken into custodia legis and irreversible actions (sale, dissolution, material dispossession) have occurred. Where no provisional/official liquidator is appointed and no substantive orders have been passed, the stage is not irreversible and transfer is warranted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A winding-up petition that has not reached an irreversible stage may be transferred to the NCLT; the absence of appointment of a liquidator and absence of substantive orders are decisive factual markers. Obiter - Observations on the broader benefits of the IBC scheme and consolidation of proceedings, insofar as they contextualize the ratio.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that where no irreversible steps have been taken, the petition should be transferred to the NCLT for determination under the statutory scheme; the present petition met that criterion.
Issue 2 - Necessity of a formal application for transfer and the High Court's power to transfer suo motu
Legal framework: Section 434 uses the discretionary term "may" and prescribes transfer of pending proceedings; the provision allows for applications for transfer in certain circumstances but does not rigidly prescribe that transfer must only follow a formal application in every case.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed Gurbakhsh Singh BA (coordinate bench) which held that transfer is a matter of jurisdiction and may be effected suo motu by the High Court; by contrast, the Calcutta High Court decision in Abhijeet Projects Ltd. v. Yogesh Khanna held that transfers without a formal application were impermissible in some instances and set aside some suo motu transfers. The present Court distinguished Abhijeet where relevant facts or consent were different and applied the reasoning of Gurbakhsh Singh BA as binding for the circumstances before it. Action Ispat was relied upon as affirming transfer where proceedings have not reached an irreversible stage.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court interpreted Section 434's discretionary language and the statutory scheme as not mandating a formal application in all cases; jurisdiction to transfer is inherent and may be exercised by the Court where warranted by facts and law. The Court examined Abhijeet but treated its holding as not universally prohibiting suo motu transfers - particularly where the party seeking transfer has clearly indicated consent/request in the record. The presence of an explicit request in the record negated any need for a separate formal application; moreover, where the transfer is consistent with statutory purpose and no prejudice ensues, insisting on a technical application would be unnecessary.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The High Court may order transfer of winding-up proceedings to the NCLT without awaiting a separate formal application where (a) the statutory scheme and facts warrant transfer and (b) the intent/request for transfer is evident, or no irreversible steps have occurred. Obiter - Detailed commentary on the interplay between different High Court decisions and the limits of suo motu power in other factual matrices.
Conclusions: The Court held that a formal application is not indispensable; written submissions requesting transfer suffice to constitute an application on the record, and the High Court may transfer proceedings suo motu where jurisdictional and factual conditions are satisfied.
Issue 3 - Appropriateness of transfer in cases with no appointment of liquidator and no substantive orders
Legal framework: Principles governing custody of assets in winding up, role of provisional/official liquidator, and the test of reversibility guide whether transfer will prejudice existing steps in winding-up proceedings.
Precedent treatment: Action Ispat and Gurbakhsh Singh BA were applied to hold that transfer is appropriate when no irreversible steps (such as appointment of official liquidator taking custody or sales) have occurred. Abhijeet was noted for distinguishing cases where transfer was objectionable because a judge had exceeded jurisdiction without party request.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the record and found seven years of stagnation with no provisional/official liquidator appointed and no substantive orders recorded - facts that indicated the petition was at a preliminary stage. Given the absence of custody or irreversible acts, transfer would not frustrate ongoing liquidation or make it impossible to set the clock back. Transfer was therefore consistent with both the statutory mandate and precedents emphasizing that irreversibility, not mere age or pendency, controls the decision.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Non-appointment of a liquidator and absence of substantive or irreversible steps establish suitability for transfer; such factual circumstances justify immediate transfer to the NCLT. Obiter - Observations regarding possible further evaluation by the NCLT on merits after transfer.
Conclusions: The Court concluded the present petition was fit for transfer to the NCLT, directed electronic transmission of records within one week, listed the matter before the NCLT for a specified date, and held that any interim orders of the High Court would continue until that date.
Cross-references
Refer to Issue 1 and Issue 3 for the interlinked factual/legal test centering on "irreversible steps" as the determinative criterion for transferability; refer to Issue 2 for the treatment of procedural formalities (application/suo motu transfer and written submissions as sufficient record of request).
Seeking winding up of company - Sections 433(e)/434(1)(a)/439 of the Companies Act, 1956 - HELD THAT:- Upon an examination of the record, it is evident that the present winding-up petition is a non-starter. The proceedings remain at a preliminary stage, with neither a provisional liquidator nor an official liquidator having been appointed to assume control over the assets and affairs of the respondent company. Consequently, no substantive orders have been passed in this petition for seven years.
Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Action Ispat and Power P. Ltd. v. Shyam Metalics and Energy Ltd. [2020 (12) TMI 535 - SUPREME COURT] held that those winding up proceedings pending before the High Courts, which have not progressed to an advanced stage, ought to be transferred to the NCLT.
In the present case, the respondent has submitted written submissions explicitly requesting the transfer of the winding-up petition to the NCLT. In view of the respondent’s express request for transfer and the legal precedents affirming that a formal application is not indispensable, this Court finds no impediment in treating the written submissions as an application for transfer of the present petition to the NCLT. The Court is not bound to insist on a separate application when the intent of the party seeking transfer is evident from the record.
Considering the express request by the respondent, the fact that no substantive proceedings have been undertaken towards winding up of the company, the present petition cannot be allowed to be continued before this Court. Hence, the instant petition is transferred to the NCLT, Delhi Bench, for further proceedings.
Conclusion - The petition should be transferred based on the respondent's request and the lack of substantive progress towards liquidation.
List before the NCLT on 10.03.2025 - Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the Section 95 application was barred by limitation; (ii) Whether the demand notice under Rule 7(1) was served at the wrong address and whether service under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 could substitute it; (iii) Whether the aggregate claim in the demand notice and Section 95 application was vague and unsupported by the required account-wise particulars and documents.
Issue (i): Whether the Section 95 application was barred by limitation.
Analysis: The material on record showed that the debt arose from separate loan accounts of different banks, with the underlying default predating the Rule 7 notice by several years. The later recovery certificate could not, on the facts, cure the absence of proper linkage between the earlier debts and the aggregate amount claimed in the insolvency application. Excluding the covid suspension period did not alter the position because the claim, as presented, remained unsupported by account-wise particulars necessary to show that the proceedings were within time.
Conclusion: The Section 95 application was held to be barred by limitation in the form in which it was filed.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand notice under Rule 7(1) was served at the wrong address and whether service under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 could substitute it.
Analysis: Rule 7(1) requires a separate demand notice in the prescribed form before initiation of personal insolvency proceedings. Service at an address different from the one shown to be current in the record was not treated as a complete answer, and the earlier SARFAESI notice could not be regarded as a legal substitute for the Rule 7 notice. At the same time, the defect in service was not treated as the sole basis of the final decision, because the larger controversy turned on the maintainability of the claim and the sufficiency of the materials supporting it.
Conclusion: The objection regarding service of the Rule 7(1) notice was not accepted as a complete answer to the proceedings, but the Court found the notice issue insufficient to sustain the impugned order in the absence of a properly supported claim.
Issue (iii): Whether the aggregate claim in the demand notice and Section 95 application was vague and unsupported by the required account-wise particulars and documents.
Analysis: Section 95(4) requires the application to be accompanied by details and documents relating to the debts owed, the failure to pay after the demand notice, and evidence of default. The application and notice contained an aggregate figure drawn from multiple accounts, but did not adequately furnish individual account details, dates of default, statement of accounts, or a clear correlation between each account and the total amount claimed. In these circumstances, the Court found the application incomplete and the demand vague. The reliance placed on a later recovery certificate was also not sufficient to cure those deficiencies on the facts presented.
Conclusion: The claim was held to be vague and the Section 95 application was found not to satisfy the statutory requirement of supporting details and documents.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order initiating personal insolvency was set aside and the matter was sent back for fresh consideration of limitation and account-wise maintainability of the insolvency claim.
Ratio Decidendi: An application under Section 95 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 must be supported by clear, account-wise particulars and documents establishing the debt, default, and timeliness of the claim; a vague aggregate demand without proper linkage to individual debts cannot sustain admission of personal insolvency proceedings.
Limitation - service of demand notice under Rule 7(1) - substitution of notices (Rule 7(1) vs Section 13(2) SARFAESI) - requirements of Section 95(4) IBC - vagueness of demand / particulars of debt - remand to Adjudicating Authority
Service of demand notice under Rule 7(1) - substitution of notices (Rule 7(1) vs Section 13(2) SARFAESI) - Whether the Rule 7(1) demand notice was served at the wrong address and whether service under Section 13(2) SARFAESI can substitute service under Rule 7(1) - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found no infirmity in the Adjudicating Authority's conclusion that the demand notice dated 28.06.2021 under Rule 7(1) was served at the address recorded in the appellant's passport and bank KYC, and that the appellant had not denied execution of the personal guarantee or service of the Section 13(2) SARFAESI notice. While recognising the legal proposition that one statutory notice cannot generally substitute for another, the Tribunal held that on the facts the appellant had opportunity and time to respond and had been communicated with subsequently; accordingly the Adjudicating Authority's finding that non-service, as alleged, did not absolve the guarantor of liability was not shown to be vitiated. [Paras 31, 32, 33, 34]
Finding of the Adjudicating Authority that alleged non-service of the Rule 7(1) notice did not absolve the personal guarantor is upheld; no infirmity is found on this ground.
Limitation - requirements of Section 95(4) IBC - vagueness of demand / particulars of debt - remand to Adjudicating Authority - Whether the Section 95 application and Rule 7 demand were barred by limitation and whether the Section 95 application complied with the requirement to furnish details and documents of individual debts - HELD THAT: - On close scrutiny the Tribunal found material deficiencies in the Rule 7 notice and the Section 95 application: the notices aggregated amounts from multiple account numbers (SBI and erstwhile SBBJ) without providing particulars of individual accounts, dates of defaults and linking of each account to the total quantum claimed. Because the Section 95 application did not satisfactorily furnish the 'details and documents' required by Section 95(4), the Tribunal concluded that the question of limitation could not be resolved on the record before it. The Tribunal held that, prima facie, parts of the claim (as to unmerged SBI accounts) appear timebarred even after accounting for the exclusion of the COVID period, but that a final determination required the Adjudicating Authority to examine and correlate individual account particulars, dates of default and any recovery certificates or decrees before concluding whether the debt (in whole or in part) is timebarred or whether the Section 95 proceedings are maintainable. [Paras 41, 45, 46, 47, 48]
The Section 95 application is deficient in particulars and prima facie timebarred in part; the matter is remanded to the Adjudicating Authority to determine afresh whether the debt (in full or in part) is barred by limitation and whether the Section 95 proceedings are maintainable, after examining individual account details and supporting documents.
Requirements of Section 95(4) IBC - vagueness of demand / particulars of debt - Whether the Section 95 application had a valid foundation in respect of debts said to belong to the erstwhile SBBJ and whether the DRT recovery certificate/decree was properly relied upon - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal observed that the Section 95 application relied on a total figure that appears to be an aggregate of certain SBI account statements filed with the application and an unrelated account, while the SBBJ account numbers mentioned in the Rule 7 notice were not matched with the particulars or evidence in the Section 95 filing. The DRT decree/recovery certificate dated 17.03.2018 (in favour of SBBJ) was taken on record during hearings but had not been pleaded or linked in the original Section 95 application. Given these lacunae, the Tribunal found that the connection between the DRT proceedings and the Section 95 claim was not fully established on the record and that the application, as filed, did not satisfy the statutory requirement to provide details and documents for each debt. [Paras 43, 44, 45, 46, 47]
The linkage between the Section 95 claim and the SBBJ/DRT decree is not established on the record; the application is deficient and the matter is remanded to the Adjudicating Authority to examine and decide these contentions with regard to individual accounts and the effect, if any, of the DRT recovery certificate.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order admitting the Section 95 petition is set aside and the matter is remanded to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh consideration limited to whether the debt (in whole or in part) is timebarred and whether the Section 95 proceedings are maintainable, after filing and examination of particularised account details and supporting documents; the Adjudicating Authority's finding on service of the Rule 7(1) notice is sustained.
The core legal issues considered in this judgment include:
1. Whether the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has the authority to modify an approved resolution plan, particularly concerning the distribution of compensation from potential land acquisition.
2. Whether the resolution plan submitted by the Successful Resolution Applicant (SRA) is valid, considering allegations of it being a real estate transaction, its valuation, and compliance with the Request for Resolution Plan (RFRP) and relevant regulations.
3. The jurisdiction of the NCLT in interfering with the commercial wisdom of the Committee of Creditors (CoC) in approving the resolution plan.
4. The rights of a dissenting financial creditor in challenging an approved resolution plan.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Authority of NCLT to Modify Resolution Plan
- Legal Framework and Precedents: The resolution plan is subject to the commercial wisdom of the CoC, and the NCLT's role is limited to ensuring compliance with Section 30(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). The NCLT cannot modify the plan but can approve or reject it.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal held that the NCLT exceeded its jurisdiction by modifying the resolution plan to include distribution of potential land acquisition compensation among creditors, which was contrary to the plan's provisions.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The resolution plan explicitly stated that any compensation from land acquisition would accrue to the Corporate Debtor, not the creditors. The NCLT's modification was thus contrary to the plan's terms.
- Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal applied the principle that the NCLT cannot interfere with the CoC's commercial decisions, emphasizing that the plan's terms regarding compensation were clear and binding.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Tribunal dismissed the argument that the NCLT could modify the resolution plan, citing established legal principles and past judgments.
- Conclusions: The modification imposed by the NCLT was set aside, reaffirming that the NCLT cannot alter the commercial terms of a resolution plan.
2. Validity of the Resolution Plan
- Legal Framework and Precedents: The resolution plan must comply with the IBC and relevant regulations, including valuation standards and procedural requirements.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal found that the resolution plan was compliant with the IBC, and the valuation was conducted by independent registered valuers. The plan's commercial viability was affirmed by the CoC's approval.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The CoC meetings and the resolution plan's terms were scrutinized, showing compliance with the IBC and addressing potential land acquisition contingencies.
- Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal applied the IBC's provisions, emphasizing the CoC's role in assessing commercial viability and the plan's adherence to regulatory requirements.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Tribunal dismissed allegations of the plan being a real estate transaction and undervaluation, citing lack of evidence and the CoC's approval.
- Conclusions: The resolution plan was upheld as valid, with the Tribunal emphasizing the CoC's commercial wisdom and the plan's adherence to legal requirements.
3. Jurisdiction of NCLT and Commercial Wisdom of CoC
- Legal Framework and Precedents: The CoC's commercial decisions are paramount, and judicial review is limited to ensuring compliance with the IBC.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal reiterated that the NCLT cannot interfere with the CoC's commercial decisions, which are binding unless they violate specific legal provisions.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The CoC's approval with a significant majority was a key factor in affirming the plan's validity.
- Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal applied established principles, emphasizing the limited scope of judicial review in resolution plan approvals.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Tribunal dismissed arguments for NCLT intervention, citing the CoC's decisive role and past judgments affirming this principle.
- Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the CoC's decision, emphasizing the limited role of the NCLT in resolution plan approvals.
4. Rights of Dissenting Financial Creditor
- Legal Framework and Precedents: A dissenting financial creditor's rights are limited to challenging distribution under the resolution plan, not the plan's approval.
- Court's Interpretation and Reasoning: The Tribunal held that the dissenting creditor lacked the locus to challenge the plan's approval, as it was not contrary to Section 53(1) of the IBC.
- Key Evidence and Findings: The CoC's approval and the plan's compliance with distribution requirements were key factors in dismissing the appeal.
- Application of Law to Facts: The Tribunal applied the IBC's provisions, emphasizing the limited grounds for a dissenting creditor to challenge a resolution plan.
- Treatment of Competing Arguments: The Tribunal dismissed the dissenting creditor's arguments, citing lack of evidence of any violation of Section 53(1).
- Conclusions: The dissenting creditor's appeal was dismissed, reaffirming the limited grounds for challenging an approved resolution plan.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
- The Tribunal held that the NCLT has no jurisdiction to modify a resolution plan approved by the CoC, reaffirming the principle that judicial review is limited to ensuring compliance with the IBC.
- The Tribunal emphasized the paramount status of the CoC's commercial wisdom, which is non-justiciable except on limited grounds specified in the IBC.
- The Tribunal dismissed the appeals challenging the resolution plan, upholding the CoC's decision and the plan's compliance with legal requirements.
- The Tribunal reiterated that a dissenting financial creditor cannot challenge the approval of a resolution plan unless it violates specific distribution provisions under the IBC.
Power of NCLT to modify the resolution plan - HELD THAT:- The powers of the Ld NCLT with respect to the approval of the Resolution Plan does not extend to examine the commercial wisdom of the CoC and once it is found all the mandatory requirements have been duly complied with and taken care of by the Resolution Applicant, the process of judicial review under Section 31 of the Code cannot be stretched to carry out quantitative analysis concerning a particular creditor. Admittedly, the Resolution Plan has been approved by the CoC with 79.10% voting share after taking into account the feasibility and viability of the Resolution Plan.
The Ld. NCLT also does not have any jurisdiction to specifically direct and/or impose a condition for the distribution of an amount that may be received and/or recoverable by Corporate Debtor amongst the creditors while approving the Resolution Plan - The modification made to the resolution plan are set aside, and hence these three appeals are thus allowed.
Locus of Appellant, being the dissenting financial creditor of the Corporate Debtor to challenge the Resolution Plan - HELD THAT:- The Appellant, being the dissenting financial creditor of the Corporate Debtor, does not have the requisite locus to challenge the Resolution Plan as duly approved by the members of the CoC. In DBS Bank Ltd. v. Ruchi Soya Industries Ltd. [2024 (1) TMI 186 - SUPREME COURT], wherein the Hon’ble Supreme Court categorically held a dissenting financial creditor does not have any say when the Resolution Plan has been approved by a two-third majority of the CoC and a dissenting financial creditor can only object to the distribution of the proceeds under the Resolution Plan, when the proceeds are less than what the dissenting financial creditor would be entitled to in terms of Section 53(1) of the Code. It is not the case of the Appellant that it has been paid less than it is entitled to under Section 53(1) of the Code under the Resolution Plan. As such, the Appellant is precluded from raising objections to the Resolution Plan.
The Appellant has failed to raise any cogent ground that may warrant the setting aside of the Resolution Plan. Admittedly the Appellant has duly participated in all the CoC Meetings till the approval of the Resolution Plan and has indulged in extensive deliberations and negotiations with regards to the terms of the Resolution Plan. Therefore, it is clear the Appellant has preferred these Appeals as an afterthought.
Thus there is no merit in these two appeals and thus are dismissed.
Issues: Whether the penalty and confiscation imposed for alleged contravention of Section 3(c) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 were sustainable in the absence of independent corroboration, proper investigation, and in view of the respondent's prompt retraction of the statement recorded by the enforcement authorities.
Analysis: The Appellate Tribunal noted that the alleged chain of events linking the seized currency to instructions from persons in the United Kingdom and the United States was not verified by investigation. No enquiry was shown to have been made from the named persons whose contact numbers were available in the respondent's statement, and the nexus between the persons referred to in the statements remained unestablished. The Tribunal also found that the respondent retracted the statement within two days, that the statement had been recorded in the police station in the presence of police officers, and that there was no material showing rejection of the retraction by the competent authority. The cash book and accounts produced by the respondent were also not satisfactorily dealt with by the adjudicating authority.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the impugned adjudication could not be sustained on the available material and declined to interfere with the appellate order setting aside the penalty and confiscation.
Ratio Decidendi: A retracted statement, especially one recorded in suspicious circumstances, cannot by itself sustain penal action unless it is supported by independent corroboration and a properly investigated chain of evidence.
Contravention of Section 3(c) of FEMA - Admissibility of statement under Section 37 of FEMA recorded in presence of police - Retraction of statement and requirement of independent corroboration - Requirement of independent investigation to establish hawala transactions - Proof of source of seized cash by CA certified cash book - Confiscation and penalty under FEMA
Contravention of Section 3(c) of FEMA - Requirement of independent investigation to establish hawala transactions - Whether the Enforcement Directorate established contravention of Section 3(c) of FEMA in respect of the seized amount - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the ED's case rested largely on the voluntariness and content of the respondent's statement and the statement of a third party, but that critical links in the alleged chain of events were not independently established. The recorded account that the seized sum was moved on instructions from a person in the UK and was delivered via an identified intermediary was not corroborated by enquiries of those persons or by evidence establishing nexus with the purported beneficiary in USA. In the absence of such corroboration, the Tribunal concluded that the ED failed to demonstrate a clear chain of events proving the seized amount to be involved in a hawala transaction; consequently the contravention under Section 3(c) was not established on the material produced. [Paras 9, 11]
Contravention of Section 3(c) of FEMA not established due to lack of independent corroboration and inadequate investigation
Admissibility of statement under Section 37 of FEMA recorded in presence of police - Retraction of statement and requirement of independent corroboration - Whether the respondent's statement dated 12.05.2010 could be treated as a voluntary, admissible statement despite retraction - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal observed that the statement recorded on 12.05.2010 was taken at the police station and that ED officers recorded it in the presence of police officers who had earlier recorded a similar statement. The respondent retracted the statement within two days by a letter to the Director of Enforcement, and there is no record showing that the retraction was considered and rejected by a competent authority. Given the recording circumstances and the proximate retraction, and because there was no independent corroboration of the material particulars of the statement, its admissibility and weight as a voluntary statement were undermined. [Paras 10]
The statement's admissibility and evidentiary value are hit by the circumstances of recording and the prompt retraction in the absence of independent corroboration
Proof of source of seized cash by CA certified cash book - Confiscation and penalty under FEMA - Whether the respondent's CA certified cash book explaining the source of the seized cash was rightly rejected as an afterthought - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted that the respondent produced accounts of his proprietorship firm, certified by a Chartered Accountant, showing a cash balance from which the alleged withdrawal had been made for a proposed vehicle purchase. The Adjudicating Authority rejected this documentary explanation as an afterthought without cogent reasoning. The Tribunal found that such documentary evidence ought to have been given due consideration and that the Adjudicating Authority's inference rejecting the cash book explanation was not adequately reasoned. [Paras 12]
The CA certified cash book warranted consideration and the Adjudicating Authority erred in dismissing it as an afterthought without cogent reasoning
Requirement of independent investigation to establish hawala transactions - Whether the investigations conducted by ED were adequate to establish the alleged hawala transaction and to justify confiscation and penalty - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal emphasised that critical investigative steps were not taken: there is no record of enquiries made from the persons named (including the alleged UK resident and the intermediary) despite phone numbers being available, and the nexus between the purported foreign instructing person and the alleged beneficiary in USA was not probed. The lack of efforts to trace or record statements of these persons and to follow the trail of money rendered the investigative basis for levy of penalty and confiscation unsound. [Paras 9, 11, 13]
Investigations were inadequate; failure to trace or examine key persons and the money trail undermined the basis for confiscation and penalty
Final Conclusion: The appeal is dismissed. The Tribunal refrained from interfering with the Special Director (Appeals) order which set aside the Adjudicating Authority's order of confiscation and penalty, finding that the ED failed to establish the contravention due to inadequate investigation, problems with admissibility and corroboration of statements, and insufficient consideration of the CA certified cash book explanation.
Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 - Seeking direction to Petitioner to make the payment as per Form SVLDRS-3 and to issue discharge certificate in Form SVLDRS -4 under sub-section (8) of Section 127 of the scheme - recovery of CENVAT Credit on the ground of wrongful availment of Input Cenvat Credit and wrong utilization for the payment of duties - it was held by High Court that 'The Scheme being prerogative of the Government and since the petitioner had not abided by the terms and conditions of the Scheme -2019, there are no reason to interfere.'
HELD THAT:- No case for interference is made out in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India. The Special Leave Petition is accordingly dismissed.
The primary issues presented and considered in this judgment include:
1. Whether the Customs, Excise & Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT) was correct in concluding that the towers, shelters, and accessories used by the appellant for providing business support services are immovable property.
2. Whether the appellant is entitled to claim Cenvat Credit on the towers and shelters either as capital goods or inputs in terms of Rule 2(a) or 2(k) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
3. Whether the CESTAT erred in applying the nexus test with reference to MS angles and Channels, whereas the appellant contends that what was brought to the site were towers, shelters, and accessories in CKD/SKD condition for providing services.
4. Whether the appellant was justified in terms of Rule 4(1) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, in claiming Cenvat Credit of excise duty paid by the manufacturer of towers and shelters after receipt of such towers and shelters at their premises (i.e., tower sites).
5. Whether the emergence of an immovable structure at an intermediate stage (assuming without admitting) is a criterion for denial of Cenvat Credit.
6. Whether the finding of the CESTAT that there was no suppression of material facts is perverse to the materials on record.
7. Whether, in view of the stand taken by the appellant that there was suppression of material facts, the CESTAT was justified in holding that demand beyond the normal period of limitation shall not be sustainable in law.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Immovable Property and Cenvat Credit Entitlement
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, particularly Rule 2(a) and Rule 2(k), define capital goods and inputs. The Supreme Court's decision in M/s. Bharti Airtel Ltd. Vs. The Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune, clarified the classification of towers and shelters.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court relied on the Supreme Court's interpretation that towers and prefabricated buildings (PFBs) are essential for the functioning of antennas and are not immovable property. They qualify as "inputs" under Rule 2(k) and as "capital goods" under Rule 2(a).
Key evidence and findings: The Supreme Court's ruling established that towers and PFBs are indispensable for mobile telecommunication services, thus qualifying them as inputs and capital goods.
Application of law to facts: The Court applied the Supreme Court's reasoning to conclude that the appellant is entitled to Cenvat Credit for the towers and shelters.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Court dismissed the argument that towers and shelters are immovable property, aligning with the Supreme Court's broader interpretation of inputs and capital goods.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the towers and shelters qualify for Cenvat Credit as inputs and capital goods.
2. Nexus Test and Intermediate Stage Structures
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The nexus test examines the relationship between goods used and the output service provided.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the nexus between towers and mobile services is integral and not remote, as towers are essential for the proper functioning of antennas.
Key evidence and findings: The Supreme Court's decision highlighted the indispensability of towers for mobile services, negating the argument of remoteness.
Application of law to facts: The Court applied the Supreme Court's interpretation to affirm the integral role of towers in providing mobile services.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Court rejected the argument that intermediate structures should deny Cenvat Credit, emphasizing the essential use of towers.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the emergence of an immovable structure at an intermediate stage does not preclude Cenvat Credit entitlement.
3. Suppression of Material Facts and Limitation Period
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The issue revolves around the applicability of the extended period of limitation due to alleged suppression of facts.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court found no evidence of suppression of material facts, aligning with the CESTAT's findings.
Key evidence and findings: The CESTAT's decision, supported by the Supreme Court's ruling, indicated no suppression by the appellant.
Application of law to facts: The Court upheld the CESTAT's decision, finding no justification for applying the extended limitation period.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Court dismissed the Revenue's argument for the extended limitation period due to suppression.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the normal limitation period applies, and there was no suppression of material facts.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Court held that:
- Towers and shelters are not immovable property and qualify as "inputs" and "capital goods" under the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
- The nexus between towers and mobile services is integral, justifying Cenvat Credit entitlement.
- There was no suppression of material facts, and the normal limitation period applies.
The Court set aside the CESTAT's decision regarding the denial of Cenvat Credit and ordered the refund of the amount deposited by the appellant, with applicable interest.
CENVAT Credit - capital goods or inputs - towers, shelters and accessories used by the appellant for providing business support services are immovable property or not - emergence of immovable structure at intermediate stage (assuming without admitting) is a criterion for denial of Cenvat Credit or not - suppression of facts or not - invocation of extended period of limitation.
HELD THAT:- The Hon’ble Supreme Court in M/s. Bharti Airtel Ltd. Vs. The Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune[2024 (11) TMI 1042 - SUPREME COURT] has held that Mobile Service Providers (MSPs) could avail the benefit of Central Value Added Tax/CENVAT Credit over excise duties paid on items such as mobile towers and prefabricated buildings (PFBs). The Hon’ble Supreme Court has further observed that the towers and PFBs, though themselves are not electrical equipments, are essential for proper functioning of antenna. Thus, tower being essential for rendering of the output service of mobile telephony, these items certainly can be considered to be “inputs” akin to antenna. It is further observed that without the towers and the pre-fabricated buildings (PFBs), there cannot be proper service of mobile telecommunication. Hence, these certainly would come within the definition of “input” under Rule 2 (k)(ii) of CENVAT Rules.
Conclusion - Towers and shelters are not immovable property and qualify as "inputs" and "capital goods" under the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004.
Appeal allowed.
The core legal issue considered in this judgment is whether the appellant is entitled to a refund of an amount of Rs.6,30,235/- paid twice towards service tax liability for the period April 2017 to June 2017. The Tribunal examined whether the refund claim is time-barred under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, as applied to service tax by Section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Relevant legal framework and precedents:
The legal framework involves Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, which governs the refund of duty and interest, and Section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994, which applies the provisions of Section 11B to service tax. The appellant argued that the second payment was not a tax but a deposit, and thus not subject to the limitation period under Section 11B. The appellant relied on precedents, including decisions from the Gujarat High Court and the CESTAT, which supported the view that payments made by mistake do not attract the limitation period under Section 11B.
Court's interpretation and reasoning:
The Tribunal interpreted that the amount paid twice does not constitute a tax since there was no taxable event for the second payment. Therefore, the limitation period under Section 11B does not apply. The Tribunal referenced the decision in Bansal Biscuits Pvt. Ltd., which held that the limitation under Section 11B is inapplicable when an amount is paid under a mistaken notion.
Key evidence and findings:
The appellant provided evidence of the duplicate payment made via two separate challans on the same date. The Tribunal found that the second payment was made inadvertently and was not in respect of any taxable service, thus qualifying as a deposit rather than a tax.
Application of law to facts:
The Tribunal applied the legal principles established in prior cases to the facts, determining that the second payment was not a tax and therefore not subject to the statutory limitation period for refund claims. The Tribunal concluded that the appellant is entitled to a refund of the duplicate payment.
Treatment of competing arguments:
The Revenue argued that the refund claim was time-barred under Section 11B. However, the Tribunal rejected this argument, emphasizing that the second payment did not constitute a tax and thus the limitation period did not apply. The Tribunal found the appellant's reliance on precedents persuasive and applicable to the current case.
Conclusions:
The Tribunal concluded that the appellant is entitled to a refund of Rs.6,30,235/-, as the second payment was not a tax but a deposit made by mistake. The Tribunal set aside the impugned order, allowing the refund claim.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Tribunal held that the limitation period under Section 11B does not apply to amounts paid by mistake, as they do not constitute a tax. The Tribunal stated: "The limitation prescribed under section 11B of the Excise Act would not be applicable if an amount is paid under a mistaken notion as it was not required to be paid towards any duty/tax."
The Tribunal established the principle that amounts paid inadvertently and not in respect of any taxable event should be refunded, as retaining such amounts would be inequitable and without legal basis.
The final determination on the issue was that the appellant is entitled to a refund of Rs.6,30,235/-, and the appeal was allowed in favor of the appellant, setting aside the previous orders that denied the refund.
Refund of amount paid twice towards service tax liability for the period April 2017 to June 2017 - time-barred refund claim under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, as applied to service tax by Section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994 - HELD THAT:- Plain reading of Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 make the position very clear that the scope of Section 11B ibid, deals with refund of duty/tax and duty/tax refers to the duty/tax leviable as per the provisions of the Central Excise/ Service Tax statute. If there are certain taxable services provided over a period for which the service tax payable is “X” and when the same has been paid firstly as per law, and secondly by mistake inadvertently, it is obvious that the amount paid in the context of service tax for the second time has no legal basis, either for levy or for payment as service tax, inasmuch as there is no taxable event for which the levy and payment would apply.
The above issue has been dealt with in detail by the Co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Bansal Biscuits P Ltd. [2023 (11) TMI 615 - CESTAT KOLKATA], wherein it was held that the limitation of time prescribed under Section 11B ibid is not applicable.
The issue of payment of duty/tax for second time, has also been examined by the Hon’ble High Court of Gujarat in the case of Swastik Sanitary wares Limited [2012 (11) TMI 149 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT], upon taking into account the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mafatlal Industries and it was held the assessee is eligible for refund of the amount paid for the second time.
Conclusion - i) The limitation prescribed under section 11B of the Excise Act would not be applicable if an amount is paid under a mistaken notion as it was not required to be paid towards any duty/tax. ii) The amount paid in the context of service tax for the second time has no legal basis, either for levy or for payment as service tax, inasmuch as there is no taxable event for which the levy and payment would apply.
The impugned order is set aside - refund allowed - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether refund of CENVAT credit was admissible on hotel and short-term accommodation service, event management service, and management/business consultancy service as input services used for exported output services; (ii) Whether refund was admissible on outdoor catering service and health check-up service in view of the exclusion clause in the definition of input service.
Issue (i): Whether refund of CENVAT credit was admissible on hotel and short-term accommodation service, event management service, and management/business consultancy service as input services used for exported output services.
Analysis: Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 defines input service through a means part, an inclusive part, and an exclusionary part. Services used for project deployment of employees and for skill enhancement and business/process improvement were found to have nexus with the exported output services and to fall within the eligible part of the definition. The accommodation service had earlier been accepted for the same assessee on similar facts, and no material change in the statutory position justified a different view.
Conclusion: Refund was admissible on these services and the assessee succeeded on this issue.
Issue (ii): Whether refund was admissible on outdoor catering service and health check-up service in view of the exclusion clause in the definition of input service.
Analysis: The exclusion clause in Rule 2(l) expressly removes outdoor catering and health services when used primarily for personal use or consumption of employees, and the post-amendment regime made such services ineligible for credit. The denial of refund was therefore consistent with the statutory exclusion and the amendment introduced by Notification No. 3/2011-CE (N.T.).
Conclusion: Refund was not admissible on these services and the assessee failed on this issue.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only to the extent of refund on eligible input services, while the rejection of refund on excluded services was sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Services used for deployment of employees on project work and for skill enhancement related to exported output services may qualify as input services, but services expressly covered by the exclusion clause of the input-service definition remain ineligible for refund or credit.
Refund claim - input services - whether denial of refund of CENVAT credit on the aforesaid disputed services by holding the same as ineligible ‘input service’ in terms of Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 is legally sustainable or not? - Invocation of Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 read with Section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994.
HELD THAT:- Plain reading of the definition of ‘input service’ indicate that there are three categories of input services viz., the first category services given under the ‘means’ part; second category, under the ‘inclusion’ part and the third category of services which are given under the ‘exclusion’ part. Therefore, in order to ensure that a particular input service is eligible for availing CENVAT credit, it should be covered either under first or second category and should not be covered under the third category of excluded items.
Hotel & Short term accommodation service - HELD THAT:- The above services are to be considered as eligible for refund as the learned Commissioner (Appeals-II) himself had held so, and that different stand cannot be taken on the admissibility of input services for allowing refund, and that too for the same assessee-appellants again during the same period, in the absence of any substantial changes in the statute.
Event management service - Management Business consultancy service - HELD THAT:- Since these have been used for enhancing the skills of the employees on duty involved in the company’s projects in order to provide desired results in respect of output services, these fall under the category of “means part” as eligible services under the definition of Rule 2(i) ibid. Therefore, the refund of CENVAT benefit on the above services allowed.
Refund of service tax paid on ‘outdoor catering services’/ ‘outdoor services’ and ‘Health Check-up service’ claimed during the period of April, 2015 to December, 2015 - HELD THAT:- The issue is no more res integra in view of the decision of the Larger Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Wipro Ltd. [2018 (4) TMI 149 - CESTAT BANGALORE - LB], wherein it has been held that the definition of 'input service' has been amended w.e.f. 01.04.2011 providing the exclusion clause, wherein the definition of input service under Rule 2(l) ibid, specifically excludes 'outdoor catering services' and ‘health services’. It has been concluded in the said order that the outdoor catering service is not eligible for input service credit post amendment dated 01.04.2011 vide Notification No. 3/2011-CE (NT) dated 01.03.2011 - the appellants are not eligible to refund of CENVAT credit on such input services.
Invocation of Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 read with Section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994 in rejection of refunds after providing sufficient opportunity for the appellants to demonstrate that the availment of CENVAT credit is in compliance with the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 - HELD THAT:- In such circumstances, it cannot be said that what is clearly excluded from the scope of eligible ‘input service’ in terms of Rule 2(l) ibid, can be treated as eligible, since the appellants have already taken CENVAT credit on the same, on the sole ground that it was not objected to earlier by the department. Therefore, sufficient compliance of requirement of Rule 14 of Cenvat Credit Rules,2004 has been adhered to in this case.
Conclusion - The services explicitly excluded under Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, such as Outdoor catering and Health Check-up services, are not eligible for CENVAT credit, stating that "denial of refund of CENVAT credit in respect of 'outdoor catering services'/ 'outdoor services' and 'Health Checkup service' is proper and justified, being not in conformity with the statutory provisions."
Appeal allowed in part.
Adjustment of excess Service Tax - Rule-6(4A) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 - succeeding month or quarter - interpretation of singular to include plural - Section 13 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 - avoidance of absurdity in statutory construction - consequential relief
Adjustment of excess Service Tax - Rule-6(4A) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 - Section 13 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 - succeeding month or quarter - avoidance of absurdity in statutory construction - Adjustment of service tax paid in excess in September, 2012 by the assessee in subsequent months/quarters (including October 2012 to March 2013 and January-February 2014) is valid under Rule-6(4A) when read with Section 13 of the General Clauses Act, 1897. - HELD THAT: - Rule-6(4A) permits an assessee to adjust excess amount paid against service tax liability for the succeeding month or quarter. Section 13 of the General Clauses Act provides that words in the singular include the plural, and this principle of construction applies unless repugnant in context. Applying that rule avoids an anomalous result where residual excess would lapse to the detriment of the assessee. The Tribunal relied upon consistent judicial authority endorsing that singular words may be read as plural to prevent absurdity and gave effect to prior decisions of the Bench holding that 'succeeding month' need not be restricted to the immediate succeeding month. On that basis adjustments made by the appellant in the months and quarters following September 2012 were held to be within the scope of Rule-6(4A) when read with Section 13, notwithstanding departmental guidance taking a narrower view. [Paras 6, 7, 8, 9, 10]
The adjustments made by the appellant in the stated subsequent months/quarters are valid; the appeal is allowed and the Commissioner (Appeals) order is set aside with consequential relief.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal, holding that excess service tax paid in September 2012 could lawfully be adjusted in the succeeding months/quarters specified, after construing Rule-6(4A) in light of Section 13 of the General Clauses Act; the Commissioner (Appeals) order is set aside with consequential relief.
Relevant date for calculation of interest on refund claim - Interest on the refund amount has not been granted from the date of the application for refund - seeking grant of interest for the remaining period from 11.11.2016 to 13.06.2022 - HELD THAT:- Reference made to the earlier two orders of the Commissionerate, Jaipur and Gautam Budh Nagar has interpreted the order of the Tribunal transferring the refund claims to the concerned jurisdictional Commissionerate to mean that the date of filing of the original refund application shall be the date of transfer of refund and, therefore, the interest has to be calculated from the said date. The application for refund has now been considered on being transferred to the Jurisdictional Commissionerate. Accordingly, the appellant has been granted interest on the refund amount from the date of the original filing of the refund claim, after a period of three months.
In view of the above two orders, which seems to have been accepted by the Revenue, it is felt that they have rightly interpreted the order of the Tribunal as referred above. The Revenue cannot pick and choose to grant relief in one case and deny the same in the other case. Once the original date of filing of the application has to be considered, the necessary implication is that the grant of interest shall also relate back to the said date after the expiry of three months.
Reference made to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. Vs. Union of India [2011 (10) TMI 16 - SUPREME COURT], wherein it has been held that 'interest under Section 11BB of the Act becomes payable, if on an expiry of a period of three months from the date of receipt of the application for refund, the amount claimed is still not refunded.'
Conclusion - The appellant is entitled to interest after the expiry of three months from the date of original filing of the refund application i.e. 11.11.2016 till the date of payment of refund amount i.e. on 13.06.2022.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether goods manufactured and exported from a Special Economic Zone were liable to Special Additional Excise Duty and Additional Duty of Excise, and whether refund with interest was admissible on duty paid under protest.
Analysis: The liability to levy depended on whether the charging provision under the Central Excise law extended to goods manufactured in a Special Economic Zone. The duties in question were held to follow the same exclusionary position applicable to such SEZ clearances, and the statutory levy was not attracted. As the duties had been paid under protest, refund followed with statutory interest.
Conclusion: The goods manufactured in the Special Economic Zone were not liable to the impugned duties, and the refund claim with interest was maintainable. The Revenue's appeal failed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the principal excise levy does not extend to goods manufactured in a Special Economic Zone, ancillary surcharge or cess levies founded on the same charge also do not apply.
Liability of duties on goods manufactured in SEZ - exclusion from levy to SEZ units - application of Special Additional Excise Duty and Additional Excise Duty to SEZ clearances - refund under Section 11B read with Section 147(3) and Section 112(3) - interpretation of the charge under Section 3(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944
Liability of duties on goods manufactured in SEZ - application of Special Additional Excise Duty and Additional Excise Duty to SEZ clearances - interpretation of the charge under Section 3(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 - Whether goods manufactured and cleared from the SEZ during the specified period were liable to SAED (surcharge) and AED (cess). - HELD THAT: - The Court accepted the conclusions of the Tribunal and the Commissioner (Appeals) that the charge under the Principal Act (Section 3(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944) does not extend to goods manufactured in a Special Economic Zone. Consequently, additional levies framed as SAED (surcharge) and AED (cess) could not be held to extend to clearances from an SEZ. The earlier decisions of this Court relied upon were held to cover the issue and the Tribunal committed no error in concluding non-liability of the respondent for those duties on SEZ clearances. [Paras 7, 8]
Goods manufactured and exported from the SEZ between 01.07.2022 and 19.07.2022 are not liable to SAED and AED.
Refund under Section 11B read with Section 147(3) and Section 112(3) - exclusion from levy to SEZ units - Whether the duties paid under protest by the respondent for the specified period are refundable with interest. - HELD THAT: - The Commissioner (Appeals) held that, by virtue of the statutory exclusions relied upon, the duties were not payable and the respondent was entitled to refund under Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944. The Tribunal affirmed that conclusion, holding that duties so paid by the SEZ unit are refundable along with interest in accordance with law. The Court upheld these findings and the consequent entitlement to refund. [Paras 6, 7]
Duties paid under protest by the respondent for the period 01.07.2022 to 19.07.2022 are refundable with interest in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is dismissed. The Tribunal's dismissal of the Revenue's appeal is affirmed: clearances from the SEZ during 01.07.2022 to 19.07.2022 are not liable to SAED and AED, and the duties so paid are refundable with interest as held below.
Levy of penalty u/r 26(2) of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 - Clandestine removal - sale invoices supplied by the appellants without actual despatch/receipt of goods - HELD THAT:- The adjudged demands against the duty evasion having been confirmed against the main noticee SPPL, the issue in respect of duty evasion and consequent confirmation of demands in this case has become final. In this context, it is found that legal provisions under Rule 26(2) of Central Excise Rules, 2002 clearly provide that any person, who issues an excise duty invoice without delivery of the goods, on the basis of which the main noticee SPPL had taken ineligible CENVAT credit, shall be liable to a penalty not exceeding the amount of such benefit or five thousand rupees, whichever is greater. On careful reading of the documents on record, it is noticed that the appellants have admitted that they had issued the documents extending CENVAT credit to the manufacturer without supply of inputs, in a few cases.
Considering the overall duty evasion involved in the present case, the penalty imposed on the appellants in the present case is in accordance with the provisions of the Rule 26(2) ibid. The gravity of the offence involved in issue of such invoice or abetting, does not gets diluted as the adjudged demands against duty evasion has become final.
Conclusion - The penalty imposed on the appellants for issuing excise duty invoices without delivering goods was justified based on their admission and the gravity of the offense.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether an appeal filed in the wrong form, but challenging the order-in-original within the limitation period, could be treated as a valid appeal under Section 35 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and whether the later rectification of form would relate back to the original filing date.
Analysis: The appellant had filed cross objections instead of the prescribed appeal form, but the substance of the grievance, the grounds and the prayer remained the same as in the subsequently filed appeal. The defect was only one of form and not of substance. Following the binding view that procedural errors should not defeat substantive rights, the original filing was treated as the operative challenge and the corrected appeal form was held to relate back to that date.
Conclusion: The appeal was within limitation and the dismissal as time barred was unsustainable. The impugned order was set aside and the matter was remanded to the Commissioner (Appeals) for decision on merits, in favour of the appellant.
Rejection of appeal as being time barred, ignoring the date of filing of the cross objections by the appellant in computing the limitation - whether the date of filing the cross objections (which is not the correct Form) has to be taken into account while considering the issue of limitation, in preferring the appeal before the Commissioner? - HELD THAT:- There is absolutely no difference in the prayers made either in the cross objections or in the appeal filed. Considering the decisions cited by the learned counsel for the appellant, the principle laid down is that it is only a procedural error, which can be rectified and does not warrant dismissal of the appeal. Secondly, in such cases, the limitation would relate back to the date when the original memorandum (though not in the correct form) was filed before the Commissioner (Appeals). The decision of the Single Member in CCE Vs. Nisha Chemicals, Bombay [1986 (4) TMI 172 - CEGAT, BOMBAY] has dealt with the appeal in Form-C.A.-3, which was not the valid form as it was meant for an appeal under Section 129A(1), whereas the appeal was filed under Section 129A(2) and it was observed that the forms are meant for helping the authorities in the disposal of the appeals and the applications and they cannot be interpreted to act as a hindrance to such disposals. In other words, the use of a non-prescribed form will not make the appeal invalid.
Apart from the decisions of the Tribunal, the learned counsel for the appellant has relied on the decision of the Madras High Court in Planet POP Foods Pvt. Ltd. Vs. AC, Customs [2017 (2) TMI 422 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] and the issue considered was whether to treat the representation made by the petitioner seeking withdrawal of the order-in-original as an appeal to assail the order-in-original. In the said case, the appellant was informed vide letter dated 21.04.2016 that an appeal could be preferred before the Commissioner of Customs and, therefore, the appellant preferred the appeal in the appropriate format on 15.12.2016, however, the appeal was dismissed, as being time barred. In the circumstances, the Court considered, whether the party aggrieved by the order-in-original has lodged its grievance before the appropriate forum within the prescribed time limit. The Court considering the representations sent by the petitioner found that they had sought withdrawal of the order i.e. the order-in-original and, therefore, the representation dated 27.04.2016 was within time, though not in the manner prescribed under the Rules. The Court categorically noted that this was more than an error which pertained to the form than the substance of the matter.
Conclusion - The cross objections filed by the appellant, though initially incorrect, were within the limitation period, and the rectified form related back to the original filing date. Therefore, the appeal was not time-barred.
Matter remanded back to the Commissioner (Appeals), to consider the appeal on merits in accordance with law. The appeal is, therefore, allowed by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether the demands based on theoretical production ratios, batch charges, computer printouts, diary entries and alleged clandestine removals were sustainable without corroborative evidence; (ii) Whether denial of Cenvat credit could stand when receipt and use of the goods was established; (iii) Whether the shortage-based duty demand founded on eye estimation was sustainable; (iv) Whether the consignment-agent related demand required verification and remand; (v) Whether the extended period of limitation and penalties were invocable.
Issue (i): Whether the demands based on theoretical production ratios, batch charges, computer printouts, diary entries and alleged clandestine removals were sustainable without corroborative evidence.
Analysis: The demands founded on assumed input-output ratios, estimated batch production, unauthenticated computer printouts and private diary entries were held to rest only on theoretical calculations and suspicion. The record did not show chemical testing, independent verification, proof of excess raw-material procurement, transport evidence, buyer statements, cash trail, or any other tangible material to establish clandestine manufacture and removal. A charge of clandestine removal requires direct, affirmative and corroborative evidence, and cannot be sustained merely on assumptions, presumptions or private notes.
Conclusion: The demands on these heads were held unsustainable and were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether denial of Cenvat credit could stand when receipt and use of the goods was established.
Analysis: The credit was denied only on the allegation that the invoices did not correspond to receipt of goods in the factory. The assessee maintained that the goods covered by those invoices were actually received and used in the manufacture of dutiable final products, and the Revenue did not rebut that factual assertion with contrary evidence.
Conclusion: The denial of Cenvat credit was not sustained and the demand was dropped in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the shortage-based duty demand founded on eye estimation was sustainable.
Analysis: The alleged shortage was not based on actual stock verification but on eye estimation. In the absence of physical weighment or reliable stock-taking, the quantity difference could not be treated as proved shortage for fastening duty liability.
Conclusion: The shortage-based demand was unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the consignment-agent related demand required verification and remand.
Analysis: For the demand arising from clearances through the consignment agent, the proper duty liability depended on verification of the realisation and cum-duty working. The record indicated that part of the amount had already been paid, but the exact payable duty required factual verification by the adjudicating authority.
Conclusion: The matter on this limited issue was remanded for verification, and the assessee was granted conditional relief on the basis that no further demand would survive if the duty had already been correctly paid.
Issue (v): Whether the extended period of limitation and penalties were invocable.
Analysis: The department had earlier searched the premises, seized records, and was already aware of the relevant facts. The later show cause notice, issued after a substantial interval, was not supported by the ingredients required for invoking the extended period. Since the substantive demands largely failed and no independent evidence justified the allegations, the penalties also could not survive.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was held inapplicable and the penalties were set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was substantially reversed, the bulk of the duty demands and all penalties were set aside, and only the limited consignment-agent issue was sent back for fresh verification.
Ratio Decidendi: A charge of clandestine manufacture and removal must be proved by tangible, corroborative and affirmative evidence, and cannot be sustained on theoretical calculations, assumptions, private writings, or estimations alone.
Clandestine manufacture and removal - input-output ratio - demand alleging that for production of LABSA, the ratio is to be 1:1.475 whereas the appellant has shown 1:1.45 - suppression of facts or not.
Allegation made out on the basis of theoretical method - HELD THAT:- The allegation has been made out on the basis of theoretical method as stated by Shri K.S. Parasuram, but no chemical examination was done to know how much LAB is required to manufacture LABSA - In that circumstances, the said demand is not sustainable as held by this Tribunal in the case of Shree Durga Cables Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise & Customs, Bhubaneswar-I, [2020 (1) TMI 542 - CESTAT KOLKATA], wherein the Tribunal has held 'In any case, since we have already noted hereinabove, that the whole basis of allegation of clandestine removal is the production pattern of other assessees, which has no legal or scientific basis, the impugned duty demand cannot be sustained.' - Demand not sustained.
Demand of Rs.19,36,934/- was sought to be confirmed against the appellant on the basis of suppression of batch charges for production - HELD THAT:- The mixed quantity required further operation for separation and temporarily stored in the dedicated storage tank and subsequently processing take place, the re-processed batch again placed in a separator like normal batches recovered LABSA and Spent Acid as per norms. The explanation given by the appellant has not been verified or has not been taken up at the time of investigation, same had to be done to know how the batch charge has taken placed then it will be clear. Without any concrete evidence the charge of clandestine removal on the basis of batch charges cannot be confirmed held by this Tribunal in the case of Commr. of Cus., C.E. & S.T., Ghaziabad vs. Auto Gollon Industries P.Ltd. [2018 (1) TMI 307 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] - The adjudicating authority sought to allege clandestine removal on arithmetical calculation of the number of batches charges which is not sustainable under law. Accordingly, the demand of Rs.19,36,934/- is dropped.
Demand of Rs.14,03,998/- sought to be confirmed alleging suppression of production and clandestine removal as evidenced from computer print outs - HELD THAT:- The data in the computer print outs are nothing but movement chart of the respective hired tanker. On the basis of this, the Revenue sought to allege that there is clandestine removal of goods. The computer print outs as explained by the appellant have not been verified by the adjudicating authority from M/s. A.R. Stenchem (P) Ltd. also and it is only on the basis of these print outs, it is alleged that there is a clandestine manufacture and removal of goods. But the said computer print outs are not admissible evidence without following the provisions of Section 36B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, therefore, the said computer print outs cannot be relied upon - the demand of Rs.14,03,998/- is not sustainable, hence dropped.
Demand of Rs.1,93,90,293/- was sought to be confirmed on the basis of diary notes recovered from a diary seized during the course of investigation - HELD THAT:- As Revenue has failed to produce any corroborative evidence to allege clandestine removal of goods and same has been alleged only on the basis of diary notes made by their employee Shri Debasis Ghosh, therefore, the said demand is not sustainable in the eyes of law.
Demand of Rs.2,27,850.62 has been confirmed on account of clandestine removal of Spent Acid - HELD THAT:- The said allegation is made on the basis that Spent Acid is generated during the course of production of LABSA, therefore, appellant has suppressed the clearance of Spent Acid. The reply made by the appellant is that the said clearance of Spent Acid depends on production of LABSA and there is no evidence in the show cause notice to support the said allegation and there is no evidence in respect of disproportionate procurement of LAB/Sulphuric Acid illegally by the appellant and no corroborative evidence has been produced - As no such effort has been made by the Revenue and brought in any evidence in support of their allegation and the demand is raised on assumption and presumption only, therefore, demand of Rs.2,27,850.62 is not sustainable. Accordingly the same is set aside.
Cenvat credit of Rs.1,38,040/- was denied on irregular availment of credit on the goods on the basis of some invoices which were not received in their factory - HELD THAT:- The contention of the Ld.Counsel for the appellant is that the appellant has received the goods containing those invoices which has been used in the manufacture of the final product which ultimately suffered the duty. The said fact has not been denied by the Revenue, in that circumstances, the demand of Rs.1,38,040/- is also not sustainable for denial of Cenvat credit and dropped.
Demand on account of shortage of Acid Slurry of Rs.79,675.20 found on 22.11.2001 - HELD THAT:- The measurement of the said Acid Slurry was done only on eye estimation basis. No actual stock taking was taken, in that circumstances, the shortage cannot be alleged against the appellant on the basis of eye estimation, therefore, the said demand of Rs.79,675.20 is also not sustainable hence dropped.
Demand of Rs.3,27,046/- has been alleged as short payment of Central excise on account of sale through consignment agent, on the value at which the goods were sold from the consignment agent’s place - HELD THAT:- To find out how much is short payment on account of Central Excise duty on account of sale through consignment agent is required to be verified. For that purpose we remand the matter back to the adjudicating authority only to verify how much duty is payable by the appellant on account of sale through consignment agent. If the appellant has paid duty correctly of Rs.40,707/-, no demand is sustainable against the appellant - the case made against the appellant by the Revenue is only on the basis of assumption and presumption, therefore, in such cases without bringing any evidence on record of procurement of raw material from other sources demands are not sustainable.
Penalties - HELD THAT:- In the facts and circumstances of the case no penalty is imposable on the appellants. Accordingly, penalties imposed on the appellant and co-appellants are set aside.
Conclusion - i) Demands based on theoretical calculations without corroborative evidence are unsustainable. ii) Admissibility of evidence such as computer printouts requires compliance with statutory provisions. iii) Extended periods of limitation require evidence of deliberate withholding of information. iv) Penalties cannot be imposed without substantiated demands.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: Whether Rule 21(8) of the Punjab Value Added Tax Rules, 2005 could be introduced and applied from 25.01.2014 to 01.04.2014 when the parent Punjab Value Added Tax Act, 2005 did not then contain the enabling amendment to Section 13(1) permitting reduction of input tax credit on stock-in-trade at the reduced rate of tax.
Analysis: The benefit of input tax credit flows from the statute and any curtailment of an accrued credit entitlement, particularly one already earned on purchases made at a higher rate of tax, must have clear statutory support. Before 01.04.2014, the unamended first proviso to Section 13(1) linked eligibility to the goods being for sale or for use in manufacture etc., whereas the amendment substituting the words "are sold" and "are used" came into force only on 01.04.2014. Although Rule 21(8) was inserted earlier with effect from 01.02.2014, the parent Act at that time did not authorise a rule reducing already earned credit on existing stock by reference to the lower rate prevailing on the date of sale or use. A rule framed in advance of the enabling amendment could not operate to the detriment of concluded transactions or take away an accrued credit without statutory sanction.
Conclusion: Rule 21(8) could not be given effect from 25.01.2014 to 01.04.2014 and was applicable only from 01.04.2014 when the amended Section 13(1) came into force. The challenge to the High Court's view failed and the result was against the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The statutory scheme did not permit reduction of already earned input tax credit on stock-in-trade before the parent Act was amended, and the appeals challenging that view failed.
Ratio Decidendi: A delegated rule that curtails or reduces an accrued tax credit can operate only when supported by an enabling provision in the parent statute, and it cannot be applied retrospectively to concluded transactions in the absence of clear legislative sanction.
Interpretation of statute - New conditions for allowing ITC - Whether Rule 21(8) of the Punjab Value Added Tax Rules, 2005 (Punjab VAT Rules) could have been introduced during the period between 25.01.2014 to 01.04.2014 when there was no enabling provision in the parent statute i.e. the Punjab Value Added Tax Act, 2005 (Punjab VAT Act)? - HELD THAT:- Punjab VAT Act was amended the second time by the Punjab Value Added Tax (Second Amendment) Act, 2013 (Punjab Act No. 38 of 2013). Though as per Section 1(2) of the Second Amendment Act, the same was to come into force at once, the proviso thereto mentioned that amendment of sub-section (1) of Section 13 shall come into force on and with effect from the first day of April, 2014 i.e. from 01.04.2014. Section 5 of the Second Amendment Act deals with amendment to Section 13 of the Punjab VAT Act.
A taxable person who had stock in trade as on 25.01.2014 or as on 01.02.2014 had already paid the tax while making the purchase of such goods. In this case, the purchase was made by paying higher rate of tax on iron and steel goods to be used as input for the purpose of manufacture etc. of taxable goods. The taxable person who is otherwise entitled to avail input tax credit on the goods already purchased and lying in stock would suffer serious prejudice and loss if his entitlement to input tax credit are reduced by virtue of lowering of the rate of tax on such goods on a subsequent date. High Court has noted that the enabling provision in the statute came into effect on and from 01.04.2014 and, therefore, Rule 21(8) of the Punjab VAT Rules which permits application of the reduced rate of tax cannot be given effect to transactions which already stood concluded prior thereto. It could only be applied to transactions on and from 01.04.2014.
In Eicher Motors Limited Vs. Union of India [1999 (1) TMI 34 - SUPREME COURT], a three- Judge Bench of this Court examined the challenge to the validity and application of the scheme as modified by way of introduction to Rule 57(F) of the Central Excise Rules, 1944 under which credit which was lying unutilised as on 16.03.1995 with the manufacturers stood lapsed in the manner set out therein. While examining the above issue, this Court held that if on the inputs, the assessee had already paid the taxes on the basis that when the goods are utilised in the manufacture of further products as inputs thereto then the tax on these goods gets adjusted which are sold subsequently. Thus, a right accrued to the assessee on the date when he paid the tax on the raw material or the input would continue until the facility available thereto gets worked out or until those goods existed. The impugned rule cannot be applied to the goods manufactured prior to the date it came into force i.e. 16.03.1995 on which duty had been paid and credit facility thereto has been availed of for the purpose of manufacture of further goods.
The respondent had earned input tax credit on purchase of iron and steel goods which it kept as its stock in trade to be used as inputs or raw materials in the manufacture etc. of taxable goods. State lowered the rate of tax with effect from 01.02.2014 on those goods. The related amendments in the rules i.e. Rule 21(8) of the Punjab VAT Rules were notified on 25.01.2014 to come into effect from 01.02.2014. There was however no corresponding provision in the parent statute i.e. Punjab VAT Act which permitted availing of input tax credit at the lower rate of tax on the existing stock in trade though the purchase of such input was already made at a higher rate of tax thereby reducing the quantum of credit. The enabling provision in the statute i.e. first proviso to Section 13(1) of the Punjab VAT Act came into force with effect from 01.04.2014.
Under sub-section (9) of section 13, a person is under a mandate to reverse input tax credit availed by him on goods which could not be used for the purposes specified in subsection (1) of Section 13 of the Punjab VAT Act or which remained in stock at the time of closure of business. If the interpretation sought to be given to Rule 21(8) of the Punjab VAT Rules by the State is accepted, the natural corollary would be that reversal of input tax credit would be at the lower rate of tax on the goods in question when those goods could not be used for the purposes specified in Section 13(1) or which remained as part of the stock in trade at the time of closure of business. Such an interpretation besides being fallacious, would also lead to revenue loss for the State exchequer.
Conclusion - The interpretation given by the High Court to the applicability of Rule 21(8) of the Punjab VAT Rules read with the amended first proviso to sub-section (1) of Section 13 of the Punjab VAT Act is legally sound and warrants no interference.
There are no merit in the appeal which is accordingly dismissed.
Issues: Whether an independent non-executive director could be proceeded against under Sections 138 and 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 in the absence of specific averments showing that he was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business at the relevant time.
Analysis: Liability under Section 141 is vicarious and penal in nature and therefore requires strict construction. Mere designation as a director does not create automatic criminal liability. The complaint must contain specific and unambiguous averments showing the role played by the director and how he was responsible for the conduct of the business when the offence occurred. A non-executive director, who is not involved in day-to-day operations or financial decision-making and who was not a signatory to the dishonoured cheques, cannot be roped in merely on account of office held. On the record, the complaints lacked such particulars and the appellant was shown to have had no active role in the relevant transactions.
Conclusion: The appellant could not be fastened with vicarious liability under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, and the proceedings against him were liable to be quashed.
Final Conclusion: The criminal complaints against the appellant were set aside and quashed, and the appeals succeeded.
Ratio Decidendi: For fastening liability on a director under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the complaint must specifically aver and, where required, establish that the director was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business at the relevant time; mere directorship is insufficient.
Dishonour of Cheque - vicarious liability of non-executive director - case of appellant is that Appellant had resigned from the company well before the offence occurred - Section 141 of the NI Act - HELD THAT:- This Court has consistently held that a mere designation as a director does not conclusively establish liability under section 138 read with section 141 of the NI Act. Liability is contingent upon specific allegations demonstrating the director’s active involvement in the company’s affairs at the relevant time.
In S.M.S. Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Neeta Bhalla and Another, [2005 (9) TMI 304 - SUPREME COURT], this Court laid down that mere designation as a director is not sufficient; specific role and responsibility must be established in the complaint.
Upon perusal of the record and submissions of the parties, it is evident that the Appellant was neither a signatory to the dishonoured cheques nor was he actively involved in the financial decision-making of the company. Moreover, he resigned from the post of independent non-executive director on 03.05.2017, duly notified through Form DIR-11 and DIR-12 to the Registrar of Companies - Petitioner’s role in the accused company was limited to that of an independent non-executive director, with no financial responsibilities or involvement in the day-to-day operations of the company. Furthermore, he was not responsible for the conduct of its business.
Conclusion - The Appellant cannot be held vicariously liable under section 141 of the NI Act. The complaints do not meet the mandatory legal requirements to implicate him.
The Impugned Judgment and Order dated 06.08.2019 of the High Court is set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the conviction and sentence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could be set aside on the basis of a compromise entered into between the parties after confirmation by the appellate court.
Analysis: The compromise was taken on record and it was found that the complainant had received the cheque amount in full. Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 makes every offence under the Act compoundable notwithstanding the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and the Court held that the compounding power can be exercised even at the revisional stage. It was further held that the compensatory object of the provision and the need to secure the ends of justice justified giving effect to the settlement notwithstanding the earlier conviction and appellate confirmation.
Conclusion: The conviction and sentence were liable to be annulled on the basis of compounding, and the petitioner was entitled to be treated as acquitted.
Dishonour of Cheque - nullification of conviction and sentence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act by High Court based on a compromise reached between the parties after the appellate court has confirmed the conviction - HELD THAT:- It is well settled that inherent power of the Court can be exercised only when no other remedy is available to the litigants and nor a specific remedy as provided by the statute. It is also well settled that if an effective, alternative remedy is available, the High Court will not exercise its inherent power, especially when the Revision Petitioner may not have availed of that remedy. The power can be exercised by the High Court to secure the ends of justice, prevent abuse of the process of any court and to make such orders as may be necessary to give effect to any order under this Code or Act, depending upon the facts of the given case. This Court can always take note of any miscarriage of justice and prevent the same by exercising its power. These powers are neither limited, nor curtailed by any other provision of the Code or Act. However, such inherent powers are to be exercised sparingly and with caution.
In the instant case, it is true that the appeal was dismissed and the conviction and sentence was upheld by the appellate court, but it cannot be lost sight of the fact that this Court has power to intervene in exercise of its power only with a view to do the substantial justice or to avoid a miscarriage and the spirit of compromise arrived at between the parties. This is perfectly justified and legal too.
In the case of Krishan Vs. Krishnaveni, [1997 (1) TMI 529 - SUPREME COURT], Hon'ble the Apex Court has held that though the inherent power of the High Court is very wide, yet the same must be exercised sparingly and cautiously particularly in a case where the applicant is shown to have already invoked the revisional jurisdiction under section 397 of the Code. Only in cases where the High Court finds that there has been failure of justice or misuse of judicial mechanism or procedure, sentence or order was not correct, the High Court may in its discretion prevent the abuse of process or miscarriage of justice by exercising its power.
Merely because the litigation has reached to a revisional stage or that even beyond that stage, the nature and character of the offence would not change automatically and it would be wrong to hold that at revisional stage, the nature of offence punishable under Section 138 of the N.I. Act should be treated as if the same is falling under table-II of Section 320 IPC.
In the instant case, the problem herein is with the tendency of litigants to belatedly choose compounding as a means to resolve their dispute, furthermore, the arguments on behalf of the Govt. Advocate (crl.side) on the fact that unlike Section 320 Cr.P.C., Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act provides no explicit guidance as to what stage compounding can or cannot be done and whether compounding can be done at the instance of the complainant or with the leave of the court.
Conclusion - Taking into account the fact that the parties have settled the dispute amicably by way of compromise, this Court is of the view that the compounding of the offence as required to be permitted.
The present Criminal Revision Case is disposed of in terms of Memorandum of Compromise arrived at between the parties to this litigation out of Court.
TaxTMI