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Seeking permission to withdraw the special leave petition with liberty to file an appeal under Section 107 of the Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - Maintainability of petition - efficacious remedy of appeal available u/s 107 of the GST Act - requirement to pass separate orders against the consolidated show cause notice issued for raising the GST liability during the period from July, 2017 to March, 2022 - it was held by High Court that 'It is refrained from entertaining this petition by relegating the petitioner to file the appeal if the petitioner is desirous to challenge this order under Section 107 of the GST Act.'
HELD THAT:- The special leave petition stands dismissed as withdrawn, with liberty as prayed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the impugned suspension order was justified to be continued, having regard to the material on record concerning the officer's role in the events leading to a fraudulent input tax credit claim by an assessee.
(ii) Whether setting aside the suspension should nonetheless permit the authorities to proceed with and conclude disciplinary proceedings within a fixed timeframe.
(iii) Whether, upon setting aside the suspension, the officer was entitled to subsistence allowance for the period during which the suspension remained operative, subject to statutory conditions.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability/continuance of the suspension order
Legal framework: The Court considered the administrative basis of suspension in the context of alleged misconduct linked to a fraudulent claim of input tax credit by an assessee. The judgment records submissions referring to departmental circulars concerning timelines for post-deemed approval physical inspection, but the Court's determination rested on the sequence of actions and the officer's report and its consequences, rather than on a definitive interpretation of those circulars.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the admitted chronology: an application for registration was followed by deemed approval; a physical inspection was subsequently conducted by the officer and an adverse report was submitted; a show cause notice was issued by the competent authority; the registration was not suspended at that stage; thereafter the assessee fraudulently claimed input tax credit; and later the registration was cancelled. On these facts, the Court formed a prima facie view that since an adverse inspection report had already been submitted and action thereafter lay with the proper officer who issued the show cause notice but did not suspend the registration, the suspension of the officer "need not be continued".
Conclusion: The Court set aside the suspension order, holding that on the material sequence of events, continuation of suspension was not warranted.
Issue (ii): Effect of quashing suspension on disciplinary proceedings; time-bound conclusion
Interpretation and reasoning: While quashing the suspension, the Court expressly preserved the employer's power to conduct disciplinary proceedings arising out of the same episode. It balanced reinstatement from suspension with administrative accountability by directing expeditious completion and recording the officer's stated willingness (through counsel) to participate. The Court also provided for the contingency of non-cooperation by the officer, directing that unnecessary adjournments should not derail timely completion.
Conclusion: Quashing of suspension was ordered without precluding disciplinary proceedings, which were directed to be concluded within three months; in case of non-participation or unnecessary adjournments by the officer, the authority was to conclude proceedings within three months thereafter.
Issue (iii): Subsistence allowance for the period of suspension until it was set aside
Interpretation and reasoning: Upon setting aside the suspension, the Court directed payment of subsistence allowance for the operative suspension period up to the date it was annulled, expressly conditioning payment on fulfillment of statutory requirements.
Conclusion: The officer was held entitled to subsistence allowance from the date of suspension till the date it was set aside, subject to statutory provisions.
Validity of suspension order - fraudulent claim of ITC, while claiming ITC to the crores of rupees - cancellation of GST registration - HELD THAT:- Importantly, on 18.03.2024, an application came to be filed by the assessee for GST registration which was accorded deemed approval on 18.04.2024 and physical inspection was conducted and report was submitted by the writ petitioner on 21.06.2024 and based upon the said report, on 01.07.2024 show cause notice was issued by the Assistant Commissioner (Proper Officer) and on 20.09.2024 the ITC was claimed and on 24.10.2024, the GST registration was cancelled. Be that as it may be, since a report had already been submitted but the writ petitioner on 21.06.2024, a show cause notice was issued and ITC was claimed fraudulently on 20.09.2024, thus, prima facie, the Court is of the opinion that the suspension need not be continued.
The suspension order dated 30.11.2025 is set aside - Quashing of the suspension order would not preclude the respondents from conducting disciplinary proceedings and concluding the same within a period of three months from today.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the writ petition challenging rejection of the appeal against the GST assessment order warranted remand for fresh consideration on merits, with consequential relief regarding pre-deposit and bank attachment.
Analysis: The petitioner had filed the statutory appeal beyond limitation but had already made a 10% pre-deposit at the time of filing. Taking note of the petitioner's submission and the course adopted in similar matters, the impugned order was not sustained on merits and the matter was sent back for fresh adjudication. The petitioner was directed to deposit an additional 40% of the disputed tax in cash or through the Electronic Cash Register, file an additional reply with supporting documents, and have the impugned order treated as an addendum to the show cause notice. On such compliance, the authority was required to pass a fresh order after hearing the petitioner, and the bank attachment would stand lifted.
Conclusion: The matter was remitted to the assessing authority for fresh orders on merits subject to compliance with the stipulated pre-deposit and filing requirements, and the interim bank attachment was directed to be vacated upon such compliance.
Rejection of petitioner’s appeal against the Assessment order - appeal was filed beyond the limitation period for filing an appeal against the order dated 12.08.2024 - at the time of filing an appeal on 18.09.2025, the petitioner had pre-deposited 10% of the disputed tax - HELD THAT:- Considering the petitioner’s submissions and following the consistent view taken by this Court under similar circumstances, the case is remitted back to the 1st respondent to pass a fresh order on merits, subject to the petitioner depositing 40% of the disputed tax in cash or from petitioner’s Electronic Cash Register, over and above 10% of the disputed tax already pre-deposited at the time of filing of an appeal, within 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order - Within such time, the Petitioner shall also file an additional reply to the Show Cause Notice together with requisite documents to substantiate the defence by treating the impugned order as an addendum to the Show Cause Notice.
In the event of the petitioner complying with the above stipulations, the 1st respondent shall proceed to pass a final order on merits and in accordance with law, as expeditiously as possible, preferably within a period of three (3) months from the date of such reply/pre-deposit. Subject to such compliance, the attachment of the petitioner’s bank account shall also stand automatically raised/vacated.
In case the petitioner fails to comply with any of the above stipulations, the 1st respondent is at liberty to proceed against the petitioner to recover the tax in accordance with law, as if this writ petition had been dismissed in limine today - Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether the writ petition challenging the assessment-cum-demand order should be entertained despite the availability of an appellate remedy, and whether liberty could be granted to pursue the statutory appeal on payment of a portion of the disputed tax.
Outcome: The writ petition was disposed of by directing the petitioner to avail the appellate remedy on deposit of 50% of the disputed tax within the stipulated time, with consequential vacation of the bank attachment on compliance.
Excess claim of iTC - Applicability of time limitation - HELD THAT:- The petitioner ought to have filed an appeal against the impugned order in a timely manner before the Appellate Commissioner under Section 107 of the respective GST enactment - Under similar circumstances, liberty is given to the petitioner to file an appeal before the Appellate Authority, subject to the deposit of 10% to 100% of the disputed tax depending upon the lengthy of delay in approaching Court.
Therefore, to balance the interest of both parties, viz., the Assessee and the Revenue, the liberty is granted to the petitioner to challenge the assessment order before the Appellate Authority subject to the petitioner depositing 50% of the disputed tax in cash or from the Petitioner’s Electronic Cash Register within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order - In case the petitioner fails to comply with any of the stipulations, the respondent is at liberty to proceed against the petitioner to recover the tax in accordance with law, as if this writ petition was dismissed in limine today.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the impugned rectification order issued under Section 161 of the GST enactments, read with the underlying demand order, should be interfered with in writ jurisdiction when the petitioner asserts partial reversal/payment and confines challenge to a quantified disputed portion, but the revenue cannot confirm the factual position without detailed verification.
(ii) Whether, in the above circumstances, the matter should be remitted for a fresh decision on merits subject to conditions of 100% deposit of admitted and disputed amounts, filing of reply with documents, and consequential relief regarding bank account attachment upon compliance.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Interference with the rectification order and confirmed demand in writ jurisdiction where facts require verification
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court noted that the impugned order was passed under Section 161 of the respective GST enactments as a rectification to the earlier order, making minor corrections regarding "place of supply of goods" (Karnataka instead of Tamil Nadu). The Court also treated the impugned order, for purposes of further proceedings, as an addendum to the show cause notice referenced in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner claimed that out of the total confirmed tax liability, a substantial amount had been reversed in returns and that the challenge was confined to the balance disputed amount. The revenue was unable to confirm the petitioner's assertion at the hearing, and the Court held that such confirmation would require "detailed consideration." In view of this need for factual verification and consistent approach in similar circumstances, the Court declined to finally adjudicate the disputed factual aspects within the writ proceedings and instead opted for remand for a merits determination by the statutory authority.
Conclusion: The Court did not set aside the demand on merits at this stage; rather, it held that the dispute required a fresh merits consideration by the respondent authority after verification, making remand appropriate.
Issue (ii): Conditions for remand-mandatory deposits, treatment of earlier debit, filing reply, timeline, and bank attachment
Legal framework (as discussed in the judgment): The Court imposed conditions while remitting the matter, requiring deposit from the petitioner's Electronic Cash Register and directing the petitioner to file a reply to the show cause notice with supporting documents, while treating the impugned rectification order as an addendum to that notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: To balance the petitioner's request for reconsideration with protection of revenue, the Court made remand conditional upon deposit of (a) 100% of the admitted tax demand confirmed in the earlier order along with interest and penalty, and (b) 100% of the quantified disputed tax liability, within 30 days. The Court further directed that any purported debit earlier made for a specified amount would be adjusted towards the required pre-deposit, but only "subject to verification." The petitioner was mandated to submit a reply with documents within the same compliance period, enabling adjudication on merits. Upon compliance and absence of other arrears (apart from the impugned demand), the Court directed that the bank account attachment shall stand lifted. Conversely, non-compliance would entitle the respondent to proceed with recovery as if the writ petition had been dismissed at admission, subject to due notice before any such order/action.
Conclusion: The Court remitted the matter for a fresh final order on merits, subject to strict time-bound deposits and filing of reply with documents; it ordered expeditious adjudication (preferably within three months from compliance), provided conditional lifting of bank attachment upon compliance, and preserved the respondent's recovery powers in case of default, with a requirement of due notice.
Rectification of demand - out of the total tax liability of Rs. 13,57,041/- the Petitioner has reversed an amount of Rs. 8,05,443/- partly in the 3B return filed for the tax period 2018 – 2019 - HELD THAT:- Following the consistent view taken by this Court under similar circumstances, the case is remitted back to the Respondent to pass a fresh order on merits subject to the Petitioner depositing 100% of the admitted tax demand in cash and confirmed vide order dated 26.12.2023 together with interest and penalty from the Petitioner's Electronic Cash Register within a period of thirty (30) days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. The Petitioner shall also deposit 100% of disputed tax liability of Rs. 4,51,596/- within such time.
Needless to state, any debit purportedly made from the Petitioner’s Electronic Cash Register for the month of September 2018 for the aforesaid sum of Rs. 8,05,443/-, shall be adjusted towards the pre-deposit shall be subject to verification.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the reopening of assessment by issuance of notice under section 148 pursuant to direction under section 150(1) is valid; (ii) Whether the addition of Rs. 14,08,400 for unsecured loans is justified; (iii) Whether the disallowance of Rs. 1,16,417 as undisclosed commission income is justified.
Issue (i): Whether the Assessing Officer could validly issue notice under section 148 in consequence of a direction contained in the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) under section 150(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: Section 251 empowers the Commissioner (Appeals) to confirm, reduce, enhance or annul an assessment. Section 150(1) permits issuance of notice under section 148 at any time to make assessment, reassessment or recomputation in consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction contained in an order passed by an authority in any proceeding under the Act. The appellate direction to reopen was not challenged before the Tribunal in the present appeal. The Assessing Officer acted pursuant to the appellate direction and section 150(1) applies to permit reopening in consequence of that direction.
Conclusion: The reopening of assessment by issuing notice under section 148 in consequence of the Commissioner (Appeals) direction under section 150(1) is valid; grounds challenging reopening are rejected.
Issue (ii): Whether the addition of Rs. 14,08,400 relating to unsecured loans should be sustained.
Analysis: The assessee produced loan confirmations and relevant bank details evidencing identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of creditors. The Revenue did not produce material to controvert those evidences. The primary onus in respect of identity and genuineness was discharged by the assessee and the authorities below did not have contrary material to sustain the addition.
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 14,08,400 for unsecured loans is deleted and the ground is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the disallowance of Rs. 1,16,417 on account of undisclosed commission income is sustainable.
Analysis: The Assessing Officer identified a reconciliation discrepancy of Rs. 1,16,417 between disclosed and actual receipts. The assessee failed to provide satisfactory explanation or reconciliation before the authorities and before the Tribunal. In absence of satisfactory documentary reconciliation, the addition is supported by the record.
Conclusion: The disallowance of Rs. 1,16,417 as undisclosed commission income is sustained and the ground is dismissed against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed by deleting the addition relating to unsecured loans while sustaining the addition relating to undisclosed commission income; the reopening of assessment in consequence of the Commissioner (Appeals) direction under section 150(1) is valid.
Ratio Decidendi: Section 150(1) permits issuance of a notice under section 148 at any time to make assessment or reassessment in consequence of or to give effect to a direction contained in an appellate order; where the assessee discharges the primary onus regarding identity and genuineness of loans and the Revenue produces no contradicting material, additions based on absence of supporting evidence cannot be sustained.
Validity of the re-opening of assessment u/s 147 - Applicability of provisions of section 150(1) - HELD THAT:- As per the provisions of section 150(1) of the Act, the Assessing Officer, in pursuance of a direction contained in an order passed by an authority in any proceedings under the Act by way of appeal, is empowered to issue a notice u/s 148 of the Act at any time for the purpose of making an assessment or reassessment. Therefore, so far as the action of the Assessing Officer is concerned, no fault can be found.
The contention of the assessee that the action of the AO was in utter disregard of the CBDT Instructions is misplaced, as the said Instructions were not issued keeping in view the provisions of section 150(1) of the Act. The case laws relied upon by assessee are not applicable to the facts of the present case, as the same are clearly distinguishable. The assessee ought to have challenged the findings of the Ld. CIT(A) passed in appeal against the original assessment order by way of a separate appeal. Under the law, the assessee cannot be permitted to assail an order indirectly which is not the subject matter of the present appeal. Accordingly, Grounds Nos. 1 to 6 of the assessee’s appeal are rejected.
Addition on account of unsecured loans and disallowance of expenses - It is seen that the assessee has filed confirmations of the unsecured loans along with the relevant bank details. Revenue has not brought on record any material to controvert the evidences so furnished. Therefore, the addition is unjustified. The assessee has duly discharged the primary onus cast upon him with regard to the identity, genuineness, and creditworthiness of the creditors. Thus, the impugned addition made and sustained by the authorities below cannot be sustained. Hereby direct the AO to delete the impugned addition.
Disallowance on account of commission income - AO has pointed out a discrepancy in the disclosure of profit and cash from business. As per the Assessing Officer, there is a difference - It is noted by the AO that assessee had earned higher commission income than disclosed in the profit and loss account. The assessee was required to re-concile the difference but no material is placed on record explaining the difference. No submission is made in this regard. Even before this Tribunal, the assessee has failed to reconcile the said difference. Therefore, in the absence of any satisfactory explanation or reconciliation, the findings of the lower authorities are justified. The ground no. 8 of the assessee’s appeal is dismissed.
Unexplained cash credits u/s 68 - unexplained unsecured loans - Onus to prove - substantial question of law OR fact - HC [2024 (8) TMI 1372 - MADHYA PRADESH HIGH COURT] confirmed ITAT setting aside the order of the CIT(A) which upheld the addition - HELD THAT:- Having heard learned counsel for the petitioner, we are not satisfied that it is a fit case to exercise our discretion under Article 136 of the Constitution of India. The present petition is, accordingly, dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the jurisdictional Assessing Officer, upon receipt of incriminating material pertaining to an assessee from the Assessing Officer of the searched person, can reopen assessment under Sections 147/148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without any satisfaction recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and without resort to Section 153C; (ii) Whether a searched person (under Section 153A) can be subjected to reopening under Sections 147/148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the basis of incriminating material found during the search.
Issue (i): Whether jurisdictional AO can invoke Sections 147/148 solely on incriminating material transmitted from the AO of the searched person without a satisfaction note under Section 153C.
Analysis: The statutory scheme introduced search-specific provisions (Sections 153A153D) which begin with non-obstante clauses and create a distinct procedure for assessments arising from searches. Section 153C conditions assessment of a third person on the Assessing Officer of the searched person recording satisfaction about seized books/documents/ assets and transmitting material to the jurisdictional AO. Binding precedents and CBDT guidance require such satisfaction as a jurisdictional precondition. Where the jurisdictional AO relies exclusively on incriminating material sent by the AO of the searched person and no satisfaction note has been recorded, the special scheme governs and the jurisdictional AO cannot bypass it by invoking general reassessment provisions under Sections 147/148, unless the jurisdictional AO possesses material from independent sources (post-search) satisfying the requirements for reopening under Sections 147/148.
Conclusion: The jurisdictional Assessing Officer cannot reopen assessment under Sections 147/148 solely on the incriminating material transmitted without a satisfaction note; conclusion is in favour of the Assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the searched person under Section 153A can be reopened under Sections 147/148 on the basis of incriminating material found during the search.
Analysis: Section 153A provides a special code for assessment of the searched person and contains an overriding clause excluding application of specified general provisions. The Supreme Court has held that where incriminating material is found the AO can proceed under Section 153A; where no incriminating material is found, Sections 147/148 may be resorted to subject to their conditions. Thus, for the searched person the special procedure of Section 153A applies to search-derived incriminating material and reopening under Sections 147/148 cannot be used to circumvent the search-specific framework unless independent material satisfying Sections 147/148 is available.
Conclusion: Reopening a searched person's assessment under Sections 147/148 on the basis of incriminating material found during search is impermissible in the absence of adherence to Section 153A; conclusion is in favour of the Assessee (searched person).
Final Conclusion: The special statutory mechanism for search-based assessments (Sections 153A153C) must be followed for matters arising from search material; jurisdictional Assessing Officers may resort to Sections 147/148 only when they have independent/post-search information or otherwise satisfy the statutory conditions for reopening. The Court applied these principles to the petition groups: petitions relying on independent post-search admissions/material were dismissed, whereas petitions where reopening relied solely on transmitted search material without a satisfaction note were allowed and reopening quashed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where assessment action is founded on material obtained from a search, the statutory scheme of Sections 153A153C (including the requirement of a recorded satisfaction note) governs and excludes resort to Sections 147/148 unless the jurisdictional Assessing Officer has independent material meeting the conditions for reassessment under Sections 147/148.
Validity of reopening of assessment provisions of Sections 147/148 based on material obtained during a search conducted u/s 132/132A without resorting to proceedings u/s 153A or 153C - principle of statutory interpretation - search u/s 132 was conducted on the entities, i.e. the searched persons u/s 153A and the information/material was derived/collected from such searches and forwarded to the jurisdictional Assessing Officers of the respective petitioners, i.e. the other persons under Section 153C, however, instead of recording satisfaction, the jurisdictional Assessing Officers proceeded to issue the impugned notices under Section 148 of the Act for reopening the assessments
as submitted that Sections 153A and 153C are special provisions having non-obstante clauses for assessment or reassessment of income based on material seized during search proceedings u/s 132 and have an overriding effect on Sections 147/148 of the Act - whether it is mandatory in all such cases to invoke Section 153C?
Recording of satisfaction u/s 153C and its impact on section 147/148 - HELD THAT:- The use of the expression “the Assessing Officer is satisfied” in Section 153C mandates the recording of satisfaction on the incriminating material sent to him/her by the Assessing Officer of the searched person. The law relating to the recording of satisfaction by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and its transmission to the jurisdictional Assessing Officer is no longer res integra. The Supreme Court in the case of Manish Maheshwari with Indore Construction (Pvt.) Limited [2007 (2) TMI 148 - SUPREME COURT] on a similar issue arising of non-recording of satisfaction note in the old provision of section 158BD(153C) as held that the AO has not recorded its satisfaction, which is mandatory; nor has it transferred the case to the AO having jurisdiction over the matter, we are of the opinion that the impugned judgments of the High Court cannot be sustained, which are set aside accordingly. The appeals are allowed.
Unequivocally, the law mandates the recording of satisfaction by the Assessing Officer of the ‘searched person’ (u/s 153A of the Act) at the stage of transmission of seized material to the jurisdictional Assessing Officer of the ‘other person’ before assuming jurisdiction u/s 153C.
The absence of satisfaction recorded by the AO of the searched person does not vest jurisdiction in the AO of the third person to directly invoke the provisions of Sections 147/148 of the Act on the incriminating material found during search, more particularly when the provisions of Section 153C of the Act are not followed. Such satisfaction is a statutory requirement and a jurisdictional pre-condition, and not a mere procedural formality. This position stands fortified by binding judicial precedents and the clarificatory Circular issued by the CBDT, which is binding on the Department.
Scope of proceedings u/s 147/148, 153A, AND 153C r.w.s. 132 - HELD THAT:-We answer the issues by summarizing the observations as under:
A) It is mandatory for the Assessing Officer of a “searched person” (Section 153A of the Act) to record satisfaction on the incriminating material found during the search under Sections 132/132A of the Act and communicate the same to the jurisdictional Assessing Officer of the “other/third person”.
B) In the absence of any satisfaction note recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person, the jurisdictional Assessing Officer of the other person cannot assume jurisdiction u/s153C of the Act solely on the basis of material sent to him by the Assessing Officer of the searched person. In other words, the “other person” cannot be subjected to assessment/ reassessment under Section 153C of the Act on the material received by him sans a satisfaction note; hence, such an approach would be illegal, without jurisdiction, and liable to be quashed.
C) The jurisdictional Assessing Officer of the “other/searched person” (Section 153C) can invoke the provisions of Sections 147/148 of the Act only on the basis of material available to him from other sources, other than the incriminating material sent to him. In case a satisfaction note is recorded on the incriminating material and transmitted to him/her, then the only recourse available to the jurisdictional AO is to proceed under Section 153C of the Act and not under Sections 147/148 of the Act.
D) In the case of assessees who are subjected to reassessment under the provisions of Section 153A of the Act, the Assessing Officer cannot switch over or invoke the provisions of Sections 147/148 of the Act on the basis of incriminating material found during the search and seizure conducted under Sections 132 or 132A of the Act. However, the Revenue cannot be restricted, barred, or left remediless from invoking the provisions of Sections 147/148 of the Act, subject to fulfillment of the conditions mentioned therein, and the assessment can be reopened on the basis of material collected post-search from any other independent source.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the addition of Rs. 9,44,138/-, computed by applying the assessee's disclosed net profit/gross profit rate of 26.40% to the determined unrecorded transactions, was justified on the facts as examined by the appellate authorities.
(ii) Whether, in light of concurrent factual findings by the first appellate authority and the Tribunal, any substantial question of law arose warranting admission of the appeal.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Justification of addition of Rs. 9,44,138/- based on profit ratio applied to unrecorded transactions
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis that the appellate authority and the Tribunal had examined the material and sustained an addition arising from unrecorded transactions, with the quantum ultimately determined by applying an appropriate profit ratio (as found from the assessee's own disclosed rates).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the first appellate authority examined the matter in detail and, after calling for and considering a report from the Assessing Officer, found an unexplained/unrecorded transaction figure of Rs. 20,53,984/-. The Court accepted the finding that there was an admission by the assessee supporting the existence of such unrecorded activity and that it was not shown to be wrong by any cogent material. Instead of mechanically sustaining the entire unrecorded amount as an addition, the appellate authority treated the matter as requiring addition of profit element and applied the same net profit/gross profit rate of 26.40% which the assessee himself had disclosed, thereby computing the unaccounted profit at Rs. 9,44,138/-.
Conclusions: The Court held that the approach of restricting the addition to Rs. 9,44,138/- by applying the assessee's own profit ratio to the unrecorded transactions was fully justified, and the Tribunal correctly affirmed it.
Issue (ii): Existence of a substantial question of law in presence of concurrent findings
Legal framework: The Court examined whether the appeal disclosed any substantial question of law in view of concurrent factual findings by the appellate authority and the Tribunal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized that both appellate forums recorded concurrent findings upholding the restricted addition based on detailed examination of the material and computation methodology. It also noted that substantial relief had already been granted by restricting the earlier addition to the profit element. On these facts, the Court found no legal infirmity requiring further consideration.
Conclusions: The Court found that no substantial question of law arose, declined admission, and dismissed the appeal.
Addition of unexplained investment u/s 69 - addition was based on the statement recorded during the survey - application of net profit ratio to the unrecorded sales - HELD THAT:- Valuation in this appeal is only Rs. 9,44,138/- against the discloser of income by the appellant Rs. 3,20,837/-. We find that the learned CIT has duly examined the matter in detail.
While hearing the appeal, the Assessment Officer was directed to conduct a re-assessment. As per the report submitted by the Assessment Officer, CIT has rightly found that there is an unexplained transaction of Rs. 20,53,984/- and there is an admission by the appellant, which has not been found wrong.
Instead of approving the addition made by the Assessment Officer mechanically, the learned CIT has found that there should be an addition of Rs. 20,46,184/- and found it justified to apply the net profit ratio to the unrecorded sales in the year under consideration. The appellant himself has shown a net profit and gross profit rate at the rate of 26.40%. Applying the same profit ratio, the total unaccounted profit is worked out to Rs. 9,44,138/-.
Hence, in place of the addition of Rs. 20,53,984/-, an addition of only Rs. 9,44,138/-was made, which is fully justified. Tribunal has also found it correct and approved, while dismissing the appeal of the assessee as well as the revenue; therefore, there are concurrent findings recorded by both the appellate authority as well as Tribunal. The substantial relief has been granted to the appellant by the CIT. Appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the income-tax department can deny credit of Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) claimed by an assessee on salary income, when the employer deducted TDS as evidenced by a TDS certificate but did not deposit the deducted amount in the Central Government account, and consequently raise/maintain outstanding demand and adjust refunds against such demand.
2. Whether, upon denial of such TDS credit and consequential recovery/adjustment, the assessee is entitled to grant of TDS credit and refund of any amount already recovered/adjusted, together with statutory interest, and whether the department's remedy lies against the employer-deductor.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Denial of TDS credit and sustainability of outstanding demand/adjustment where employer deducted TDS but did not deposit it
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court proceeded on the legal position applied in an earlier co-ordinate bench order, which in turn applied the statutory scheme concerning credit and recovery where tax is deductible at source, including the protection that an assessee should not be subjected to recovery to the extent tax has been deducted, and the corresponding ability of the department to proceed against the deductor for default.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the matter as covered by a prior co-ordinate bench decision on materially identical facts. The Court noted that the factual matrix-salary TDS being deducted by the employer but not deposited-was not disputed. On the evidentiary aspect, the Court found that the assessee had supplied a certified TDS certificate (Form-16) showing deduction of TDS. In view of the settled position applied in the earlier decision, the Court concluded that the department is precluded from denying the benefit of TDS deducted by the employer during the relevant financial years, and consequential demand/adjustment based on non-grant of such credit cannot stand against the assessee.
Conclusion: The Court held that TDS credit must be granted to the assessee for the relevant years notwithstanding the employer's non-deposit, and the department cannot sustain recovery/adjustment against the assessee on that basis.
Issue 2: Refund of any recovery/adjustment with statutory interest; liberty to proceed against employer
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court applied the operative directions from the earlier co-ordinate bench order governing relief where refunds had been adjusted against such disputed demand.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Court directed grant of TDS credit, it followed that any amount already recovered or adjusted from refunds in the meantime had no basis to be retained. The Court therefore ordered refund of such recovered/adjusted amount with statutory interest and fixed a time-bound compliance period. Simultaneously, the Court clarified that the department remains free to initiate or continue proceedings against the employer (deductor) for failure to deposit deducted TDS.
Conclusion: The Court directed (i) grant of TDS credit, and (ii) refund of any recovery/adjustment with statutory interest within eight weeks from receipt of the order, while expressly leaving it open to the department to proceed against the employer for the default.
Denial of TDS - TDS not deposited by the deductor in the Central Government Account - petitioner is a pilot by profession, who was an employee of M/s Kingfisher Airlines - Since the tax was not deposited by the deductor, demands were raised in petitioner's case - HELD THAT:- As relying on Kartik Vijaysinh Sonavane [2021 (11) TMI 682 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] we direct that the credit of the tax shall be given to the petitioner and if in the interregnum any recovery or adjustment is made by the respondent, the petitioner shall be entitled to the refund of the same, with the statutory interest, within eight (8) weeks from the date of receipt of copy of this order. Petition succeeds.
Issues: (i) Whether the assessee's supply of KD parts constituted offshore sales with title, risk and rewards passing outside India; (ii) Whether the assessee had a supervisory permanent establishment in India through seconded employees; (iii) Whether the assessee had a fixed place permanent establishment in India through the Indian subsidiary's premises; (iv) Whether the addition made in the final assessment order survived.
Issue (i): Whether the assessee's supply of KD parts constituted offshore sales with title, risk and rewards passing outside India.
Analysis: The relevant invoices, bills of lading, insurance material and affidavit evidence showed that the goods were supplied on a principal-to-principal basis and that the transfer of title and risk occurred outside India. The inspection clause in the supply arrangement did not, by itself, establish that the sale was completed in India. The documentary material supported the assessee's claim that the transaction was an offshore supply.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the assessee had a supervisory permanent establishment in India through seconded employees.
Analysis: The decisive inquiry was whether the seconded employees were carrying on the business of the foreign enterprise or were working for the Indian entity. The material on record, including the secondment terms, job profiles and surrounding facts, indicated that the employees were working for the Indian company and that the Revenue had not established operational control by the assessee over the Indian company's business. Mere reporting, information sharing or reimbursement of salary on cost-to-cost basis was held insufficient to establish supervisory PE.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the assessee had a fixed place permanent establishment in India through the Indian subsidiary's premises.
Analysis: A fixed place PE requires a place of business at the disposal of the foreign enterprise through which its business is carried on. The Revenue failed to show that the Indian subsidiary's premises were to the assessee for carrying on its own core business or that the assessee exercised such control over the premises as to satisfy the disposal test. The assembly/manufacturing operations of the Indian subsidiary, without more, did not convert that unit into the assessee's fixed place PE.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the addition made in the final assessment order survived.
Analysis: Once offshore supply was accepted and both supervisory PE and fixed place PE were negated, there was no basis to attribute the disputed income to a PE in India. The consequential addition could not stand.
Conclusion: The addition was deleted.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on the substantive PE and offshore supply disputes, and the impugned addition was set aside, leaving only the minor procedural grounds to be dealt with separately.
Ratio Decidendi: A foreign enterprise is taxable on business profits in India only if the Revenue establishes, on cogent material, that it has a place at its disposal through which its own business is carried on or that seconded personnel are in fact performing the enterprise's business in India; mere subsidiary operations, salary reimbursement or internal communications are insufficient.
Addition on supply of goods by the assessee to its subsidiary - income attributable to the PE of the assessee in India - India China DTAA - attribution of profits on offshore supply- Action of the Assessing Officer in determining Permanent Establishment (PE) of the Assessee in India by way of supervisory PE and Fixed Place PE - assessee SAIC Motor Corporation Limited is a tax resident of the Republic of China engaged in the business of research, production and sale of passenger cars and commercial vehicles. It is engaged in Automobile business under the brand "MG" - AO in the DAO held that the receipts from offshore supply are taxable in India as per the provisions of the Act and as per the provisions of the India- China DTAA - DRP held that the sales conducted by the assessee were offshore sales wherein the title and risk of the goods sold were transferred outside India and held that the findings of the AO in respect of the assessee not having conducted the offshore sales are contrary to facts.
Supervisory PE in India - seconded employees arrangement - secondment of employees which may consist of technically trained personnel or persons with experience - HELD THAT:- AO referred to the employment agreement wherein the job profile assigns “supervisory responsibilities” but did not bring on record any material/ findings of the search conducted by the Investigation Wing to show that the seconded employees were engaged in the supervisory activity by the assessee company.
The evidence on record does not show that the activities carried out by the six seconded employees were such nature to establish the supervisory PE of the Assessee.Thus, we hold that the assessee does not have a supervisory PE in India. Ground No. 6 to 6.1 of the Appeal are allowed.
AO in view of the facts stated in DAO held that the Assessee had a Fixed Place PE of the assessee in India in the assembly unit owned by MFIPL - In this case, the assessee company supplied the goods in KD condition which is assembled/manufactured in India and sold to the Indian customers. This is an arrangement which generally speaking is followed by all the multinationals who set up their shop/subsidiary companies to sell their products in India. Again, generally speaking, these multinationals start manufacturing their products in India by procuring materials locally. Thus, it is an arrangement which is followed by a multinational to set-up its base in a country where it sells its products in India and / or export it to other countries.
Such an arrangement cannot be termed as ‘Fixed Place PE’ unless it is established by the Revenue that the assessee has a fixed place of business in India which is at disposal where the assessee has the right to use the said place and has control thereupon. No such evidence has been brought on record either by the Assessing Officer or in the Ld. DRP proceedings that the assessee satisfied the said conditions as held in the case of One World Championship Ltd [Formula One World Championship Ltd vs CIT(International Taxation) [2017 (4) TMI 1109 - SUPREME COURT]
(a) existence of fixed place of business and ;
(b) through that place business of an enterprise is wholly or partly carried out
As already held by us that the assessee has no Supervisory PE in India through the six seconded employees. Therefore, the submissions of the Ld. CIT(DR), that Fixed Place PE of the case of the assessee is linked to Supervisory PE through its personnel and the Assessee Company through its six seconded employees got access to the office premises of MGMIPL is not acceptable. In view of these facts, the decision relied by the Ld. CIT(DR) does not support the case of the assessee.
Merely the fact that the manufacturing activity of KD products by its subsidiary cannot amount to Fixed Place PE without satisfying the above two conditions. No evidence was brought on record by the Revenue that the Assessee had an access to it i.e., business premises of MGMIPL from where the business of the assessee company was carried out.
DRP in its order had taken note that an affidavit was also submitted by the Deputy Managing Director of MGMIPL on a Non-Judicial Stamp Paper that even though, the agreement provided for the procedure of inspection of the KD Parts there were no employees or other personnel of the SMCL present in India for the FY 2021-22 and hence no inspection was conducted by any employee/personnel of the SMCL during the subject year. Therefore, this fact does not support the case of the Assessing Officer that designated personnel of the assessee company will have a permanent place in the office in Gurgaon to fulfil his duties in India as described above because without which the contracts could not get competed because no such inspection by the assessee company was carried out during the year.
We are afraid that if the view of the revenue that the assessee company earns income, when the car is assembled in India to establish a Fixed Place PE is acceptable, then, it will create huge disruptions in the taxability of the incomes of the parent/subsidiary set-up in a multinational set-up driven economies in the entire world wherein such an arrangement like in the case of the assessee is the norm.
We hold that the assessee company does not have a Fixed Place PE in India as held by the Assessing Officer and confirmed by the Ld. DRP. Ground No. 7 to 7.4 of the appeal are allowed.
Also, we hold that there is no permanent establishment of the assessee in India either by way of Supervisory PE or Fixed Place PE. Hence, Ground No. 5 of the Appeal is also allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, for the purposes of applying section 56(2)(vii)(b) in respect of purchase of an immovable property, the relevant stamp-duty/ready-reckoner value should be taken as on the date of allotment (booking/allotment letter) or as on the date of registration of the sale agreement, where consideration (or part thereof) was paid through banking channels before registration.
(ii) Whether any addition under section 56(2)(vii)(b) could survive in the impugned year when the stamp-duty/ready-reckoner value as on the relevant earlier date (allotment) was lower than the actual purchase consideration, even though the stamp-duty value as on the registration date was higher than the stated consideration.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Relevant date for adopting stamp-duty value (allotment vs registration)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal examined the provisos to section 56(2)(vii)(b), which permit adoption of stamp-duty value as on the date of the agreement (where agreement date and registration date differ), with the further condition that consideration, or part thereof, must have been paid by a mode other than cash on or before the date of the agreement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found, on facts, that the flat was booked in an earlier financial year and an allotment letter was issued in that year, and that payments were made through banking channels. On this basis, it held that the stamp-duty/ready-reckoner value is required to be adopted as on the date of allotment (i.e., in the earlier financial year), rather than taking the valuation as on the registration date in the impugned year.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that, in the given facts where allotment occurred earlier and consideration was paid through banking channels, the stamp-duty valuation relevant for section 56(2)(vii)(b) was the value as on the date of allotment (earlier year), not the value as on the date of registration.
Issue (ii): Sustainability of addition under section 56(2)(vii)(b) in the impugned year
Interpretation and reasoning: After adopting the stamp-duty/ready-reckoner value as on the allotment year, the Tribunal noted that the ready-reckoner value for that earlier year was lower than the actual purchase consideration paid by the assessee. Since section 56(2)(vii)(b) is attracted only where the stamp-duty value exceeds the consideration (beyond the statutory threshold), the Tribunal held that no addition could be made when the consideration was higher than the relevant stamp-duty/ready-reckoner value. Consequently, the addition computed in the impugned year by comparing registration-year stamp-duty value with stated consideration was held to be unsustainable.
Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the appellate order and quashed the addition made (including the amount allocated to the assessee's joint ownership share), holding that the addition under section 56(2)(vii)(b) did not arise on the correct adoption of stamp-duty/ready-reckoner value as on the allotment date.
Addition u/s 56(2)(vii)(b) - assessee purchased the said flat with joint ownership but during the impugned assessment year the stamp duty valuation of the property was more - difference amount was treated as the contravention of section 56(2) - assessee adopted the stamp-duty/ ready-reckoner value applicable in F.Y. 2016-17 - Considering the 50% share of the assessee, half of the amount was added back with the total income of the assessee
HELD THAT:- In the present case, the assessee entered into an agreement for purchase of the property, pursuant to which an allotment letter was duly issued by the promoter. The consideration was paid through proper banking channels. Accordingly, the stamp-duty valuation of the property is required to be adopted as on the date of allotment, i.e., Financial Year 2016-17.
On perusal of the ready-reckoner value applicable for F.Y. 2016-17, it is observed that the stamp-duty valuation of the property was Rs. 4,19,98,028/-, whereas the actual purchase consideration paid by the assessee was Rs. 4,50,00,000/-, which is significantly higher than the ready-reckoner value. Consequently, the addition being 50% representing the difference between the stated consideration and the stamp-duty valuation, is unsustainable in the impugned assessment year.
As undisputed fact that the assessee purchased the flat jointly with her husband for a total consideration of Rs. 4,50,00,000/-. The stamp-duty valuation of the property in the year of registration was Rs. 4,55,55,939/-. However, the documentary evidence placed on record clearly establishes that the assessee had booked the flat during F.Y. 2016-17 and the allotment letter was duly issued during the said financial year. The assessee has rightly adopted the stamp-duty/ ready-reckoner value applicable in F.Y. 2016-17, wherein the valuation of the property was Rs. 4.19 crore, which is lower than the actual cost of acquisition.
In view of the provisions of section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act, where the consideration has been paid through banking channels and the allotment has taken place in an earlier year, the stamp-duty valuation as on the date of allotment alone is relevant. Therefore, the observations and conclusions drawn by the Ld. AO as well as the Ld. CIT(A) are contrary to the statutory provisions of section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act.
AR has rightly placed reliance on the decision of Awadhnarayana Bhagwanta Singh [2025 (12) TMI 1423 - ITAT MUMBAI] wherein it was held that the stamp-duty valuation as on the date of allotment is to be adopted. Also see Manjulaben Himmatlal Jain [2024 (11) TMI 688 - ITAT MUMBAI] Assessee appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the confirmed addition under section 69A in respect of cash deposits could be sustained when the assessee claimed, for the first time at the appellate stage, that a substantial portion of the cash deposited belonged to a company (debtor collections) and the balance represented past savings/opening balance, requiring verification by the Assessing Officer.
(ii) Whether penalty under section 271B was justified where the assessee admittedly did not get accounts audited despite turnover exceeding the statutory threshold, and contended that exemption under section 10(26) relieved him from maintaining books and audit compliance.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustenance of section 69A addition for part of cash deposits vs. remand for verification
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court examined the addition made under section 69A on the basis that large cash deposits in bank accounts remained unexplained for want of satisfactory source explanation and supporting evidence, particularly where the assessee conceded non-maintenance of books of account.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the assessee deposited substantial cash in bank accounts and, despite opportunities, did not satisfactorily explain the source during assessment. The appellate authority had deleted a major portion but confirmed a balance addition. Before the Court, the assessee asserted that the confirmed portion comprised (a) cash collected on behalf of a company from its debtors and deposited into the assessee's bank account, and (b) past savings/opening balance, and emphasized that these factual explanations were not presented before the Assessing Officer and were not properly appreciated.
Conclusions: In the interests of justice, and because the explanations relied upon required factual verification and were not examined by the Assessing Officer, the Court remitted the matter relating to the confirmed section 69A addition back to the Assessing Officer for fresh examination on merits in accordance with law, after granting reasonable opportunity. The assessee was directed to substantiate the source with cogent documentary evidence, and cautioned against unnecessary adjournments.
Issue (ii): Validity of penalty under section 271B despite claim of exemption under section 10(26)
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court considered the interrelation of sections 44AA (maintenance of books), 44AB (audit requirement), and 271B (penalty for failure to get accounts audited), and addressed the assessee's contention that exemption under section 10(26) negated these compliance obligations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the assessee admitted non-maintenance of books and also did not obtain audit, while turnover (excluding GST) exceeded the prescribed limits. It rejected the argument that exemption under section 10(26) dispensed with the obligation to maintain books and obtain audit under the Act. The Court further held that failure to maintain books under section 44AA and failure to get accounts audited under section 44AB are separate and independent defaults, governed by different statutory conditions. It also held that section 271B does not require, as a pre-condition, that penalty for non-maintenance of books be levied first, nor does absence of such penalty bar penalty for non-audit.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the confirmation of penalty under section 271B, finding no infirmity in the appellate authority's decision, since turnover exceeded the threshold and the assessee failed to comply with audit requirements, and the "exempt income" contention did not provide a valid basis to avoid statutory audit compliance in the circumstances.
Unexplained money u/s 69A - cash deposits in bank account - HELD THAT:-During the course of hearing before us, assessee submitted that sum was received from M/s Yepthomi Motors Pvt. Ltd. from debtors was also deposited in the assessee’s bank account and the out of past savings/opening balance is opening and debtor’s collections and this fact were never presented before AO. During the course of assessment proceedings and the assessee submitted that the CIT(A) also not properly appreciated on the submissions made in this regard. Considering the facts of the case and interests of justice, we are remitting this issue back to the file of AO for afresh examination on merits and decide the issue as per law.
Penalty levied u/s 271B - As turnover of the assessee excluding GST and the income reported in the income tax return noted (supra) is more than the specified limits to maintain the books of accounts as per section 44AA, but assessee failed to do so - HELD THAT:- The conditions prescribed in section 44AA of the Act to keep and maintained books of account are different then the conditions prescribed in section 44AB of the Act to get accounts audited. Section 271B of the Act does not prescribe any pre-condition that if penalty u/s 271A of the Act is levied for non-maintenance of books of accounts as required u/s 44AA of the Act and then the penalty u/s 271B of the Act for non-auditing of accounts provided u/s 44AB of the Act cannot be levied. In support of the decisions relying on the judgment of Rakesh Kumar Jha [2023 (5) TMI 704 - ITAT RANCHI]. Considering the facts and order passed by the Ld. CIT(A)(NFAC), we do not find any infirmity in the order of Ld. CIT(A) for confirming the penalty levied by the AO u/s 271B of the Act. Decided against assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the international transactions relating to (i) Annual Maintenance/Trading of spare parts (AMC-related activity) and (ii) Agency & Marketing Support Services were required to be benchmarked segment-wise on the basis of the assessee's segmental accounts, or could be aggregated and benchmarked on an entity-wide basis by treating both as one composite segment for determining the arm's length price.
2. Whether the amount paid as non-compete fee was to be treated as revenue expenditure in light of the later Supreme Court ruling, and what consequential treatment was to be given to the depreciation already claimed by the assessee on such non-compete fee.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Segment-wise vs. aggregated benchmarking for transfer pricing (AMC segment and Agency & Marketing Support Services segment)
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that determination of arm's length price had to be tested in accordance with the transfer pricing provisions, including application of the tolerance range under the proviso to section 92C(2), and that benchmarking had to be performed in a manner consistent with the functional segregation accepted on record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the transfer pricing controversy was effectively governed by the findings in the assessee's own earlier years, where the business activities were accepted as comprising two different segments. Relying on the approach reflected in the extracted prior-year reasoning, the Tribunal accepted that the functional, asset and risk profile of the AMC-related activity differed from that of Agency & Marketing Support Services, and therefore the entity-wide aggregation adopted by the TPO/AO was not to be maintained. The Tribunal also adopted the principle that where segmental accounts exist, benchmarking is to be carried out segment-wise, subject to verification of the segmental accounts and comparables and after granting opportunity to the assessee.
Conclusions: The Tribunal restored the arm's length price determination to the AO/TPO with directions to (i) treat the assessee's operations as comprising two segments as presented, (ii) conduct benchmarking separately for each segment, (iii) analyze the assessee's submissions and comparables and pass an order after hearing the assessee, and (iv) test whether the resulting margins fall within the tolerance range contemplated under the proviso to section 92C(2); if within range, no adjustment would be warranted.
Issue 2: Treatment of non-compete fee and consequential handling of depreciation already claimed
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal applied the later Supreme Court decision on the tax treatment of non-compete fee, and issued consequential directions to give effect to that ruling in the assessment, including addressing the downstream impact on depreciation already claimed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the appellate authority had earlier followed the then-prevailing High Court view to deny depreciation, inter alia on the reasoning that the payment was capital/personal in nature. However, since the Supreme Court had subsequently settled the treatment of non-compete fee as revenue expenditure, the Tribunal held that the assessment must be aligned with that binding position. Given that the assessee had already claimed depreciation by treating the non-compete fee as part of depreciable assets, the Tribunal considered it necessary for the AO to recompute the correct tax treatment consistent with the Supreme Court's ruling, with the assessee's assistance, rather than mechanically sustaining the earlier depreciation disallowance.
Conclusions: The Tribunal directed the AO to (i) treat the non-compete fee as revenue expenditure in accordance with the Supreme Court ruling, and (ii) work out the appropriate treatment for the depreciation already claimed by the assessee on the non-compete fee, using (as an aid for implementation) the portion of the earlier High Court reasoning that dealt with depreciation, insofar as it could assist in giving effect to the Supreme Court's order.
TP Adjustment - addition to the returned income of the Appellant made by AO / TPO by re-computing the arm’s length price of the international transactions u/s 92 - treating Indenting / Marketing support segment and Trading of spare parts (AMC) segment as single business segment - HELD THAT:- We direct the AO/TPO to consider the two segments of the business as presented by the assessee. Thereafter, the Bench marking has to be done with respect to the two segments of business. TPO would analyze and consider the submissions of the assessee, including the details of comparables provided by him, and thereafter pass an appropriate order on the segmental aspects of the assessee’s business. Secondly, the TPO would also test his conclusions on the parameters and conclusions arrived at by the assessee and see if the same are within the tolerance level provided in the proviso to section 92C(2) of the Act. Accordingly, with these directions the issue of working out ALP is restored to the file of the Ld.TPO/AO
Nature of receipt - revenue or capital receipt - non-compete fee receipt - HELD THAT:- We find that the CIT(A) was right at that point in time to follow the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the Sharp Business System case [2012 (11) TMI 324 - DELHI HIGH COURT]. However, with the latest judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court [2025 (12) TMI 1235 - SUPREME COURT] the issue is now settled regarding the treatment to be given to non-compete fees and respectfully following the same, we direct the Ld. AO as under:
1. The AO must follow the said judgment in treating noncompete fees as a revenue expenditure.
2. The Ld. AO must, with the help of the assessee, work out the treatment to be given to the said asset now in the light of the Apex Court’s judgment, with regard to the depreciation already claimed by the assessee. In this regard the portion pertaining to depreciation issue in the Delhi High Court’s Judgment (supra) can also be utilized for giving effect to the Hon’ble Apex Court’s order.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, for computing long-term capital gain, the "full value of consideration" should be taken as the stamp duty value reduced by the amount paid to confirming parties, where such payment was made out of the transaction proceeds.
(ii) What fair market value (FMV) as on 01.04.1981 should be adopted for the inherited land for purposes of computing indexed cost, where the Assessing Officer and the assessee relied on different per-square-meter rates.
(iii) Whether indexation should be applied with reference to the cost inflation index as on 01.04.1981 (CII 100) rather than a later year linked to an aborted agreement, when the property was admittedly inherited in 1981.
(iv) Whether the assessee is entitled to relief for investment in a new residential flat (jointly purchased), and how such relief should be given while recomputing long-term capital gain.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Treatment of payment to confirming parties while determining consideration for capital gains
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that although the stamp duty valuation was higher than the stated sale consideration, a substantial amount was paid to confirming parties who had earlier entered into an agreement to purchase the land. The Court held that, if stamp duty valuation is adopted for computation, the payment made to confirming parties cannot be ignored because it affects the amount attributable to the actual sellers/co-owners from the transaction.
Conclusion: The Court directed that, for computation of long-term capital gain, the consideration should be taken at Rs. 1,79,00,000/- (i.e., stamp duty value of Rs. 2,79,00,000/- reduced by Rs. 1,00,00,000/- paid to confirming parties), and the assessee's proportionate share should be applied to such figure.
Issue (ii): Adoption of FMV as on 01.04.1981 for inherited land
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Assessing Officer adopted a lower per-square-meter rate than the assessee's valuation report, and considered that adopting a "middle path" would better serve real adjudication and substantial justice. It therefore chose a compromise FMV rate between the two competing rates to resolve the factual valuation dispute without prolonging litigation.
Conclusion: The Court directed the Assessing Officer to adopt FMV as on 01.04.1981 at Rs. 17.50 per sq. mtr. for purposes of computing the cost of acquisition and indexation, and then recompute the assessee's long-term capital gain on a proportionate basis.
Issue (iii): Base year for indexation where property was inherited in 1981 and a later agreement was aborted
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court examined the competing use of cost inflation index figures and the rationale for selecting the relevant base year for indexation in the facts of an inherited property.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the property was inherited in 1981 and found no logic in applying the cost inflation index of a later year merely because of an agreement executed in that later period, particularly when that agreement was described as aborted. The Court therefore preferred indexation from 01.04.1981.
Conclusion: The Court directed that indexation be computed by adopting CII 100 as on 01.04.1981 (and not CII 172 of FY 1989-90) while recomputing the long-term capital gain.
Issue (iv): Relief for investment in a new residential flat (joint purchase)
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the claim of investment in a new flat as plausible on the record, noting that the assessee had intimated such investment and that the purchase was joint with a brother, with the assessee's share quantified. The Court held that relief should be granted in recomputation, but linked it to verification of the alternative claim regarding the new flat investment.
Conclusion: The Court directed the Assessing Officer, while recomputing long-term capital gain, to give relief in respect of Rs. 11,15,320/- invested in the jointly purchased new property, subject to verification as required in implementing the direction.
Computation of Long Term Capital Gain - FMV determination - difference between the FMV in calculations submitted by the parties - Revenue considered the Cost Inflation Index @ 172 as of FY 1989-90, whereas the Assessee has taken Cost Inflation Index @ 100 as on or before 1/4/1981 on the pretext that the property under consideration was inherited property in that year particularly.
HELD THAT:- This Court has given thoughtful consideration to the valuations of LTCG submitted by the parties and find logic in the adoption of Cost Inflation Index @ 100 as on 1/4/1981, as the property was admittedly inherited in 1981 by the Assessee being one of legal heirs and there is no logic in adopting the Cost Inflation Index @ 172 on the basis of an aborted agreement (executed during the AY 1989-90).
This Court for just and proper decision of case and substantial justice and fair play is inclined to direct the AO to re-compute the LTCG by considering the amount as consideration accrued to actual purchasers as per stamp duty valuation, for calculation of the LTCG and the FMV as on 01-04-1981 @ 17.50/- per sq. mtr and adopting the Cost Inflation Index @ 100 as on 1/4/198, applying the proportionate share in the hands of the assessee and giving relief qua investment made in new property jointly purchased by the Assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether rejection of declared import value and consequential demand for differential customs duty could be sustained when the Revenue primarily relied on a self-incriminating worksheet/statement material, without following the mandated verification process for doubting transaction value under the Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007.
2. Whether redemption fine could be imposed when the imported goods were not seized/available and had already been cleared for home consumption without execution of any bond for provisional release.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainability of value enhancement and differential duty demand
Legal framework (as deliberated and applied by the Court): The Court applied the valuation framework under Section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 read with the Customs Valuation Rules, 2007, specifically the procedure under Rule 12 (doubt as to truth/accuracy of declared value) and the consequential determination under Rules 4 to 9 only after the Rule 12 process is duly followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that although strict rules of evidence do not govern adjudication, the burden to prove undervaluation rests on the department, and suspicion cannot substitute legal proof. On facts, the evidence for undervaluation and redetermination was found to be "near totally" based on self-incriminating material from the importer, including a worksheet used to compute differential duty. The Court found that basing the demand on such a worksheet is not a procedure laid down under the Customs Act or the Valuation Rules. The Court further found non-compliance with the essential, sequential exercise required under Rule 12-seeking further information, applying mind to whether reasonable doubt persists, and only thereafter rejecting transaction value and moving to Rules 4 to 9. This procedural deficiency was treated as critical, particularly because the department's case was not supported by adequate independent corroboration and suffered from investigative lapses, including failure to properly retrieve electronic material and reliance on a statement found procedurally unreliable.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the attempt to enhance the declared value failed due to lack of proper evidence and failure to follow the requisite Rule 12 procedure; consequently, the demand for differential duty was unsustainable and was correctly dropped by the adjudicating authority.
Issue 2: Imposition of redemption fine in absence of seizure/availability of goods
Legal framework (as deliberated and applied by the Court): The Court proceeded on the principle that redemption fine is linked to confiscation and the availability of goods for redemption; where goods are not available (and have been finally cleared for home consumption), the concept of redemption does not arise. The Court also treated the position as different where goods are provisionally released under bond, which was not the case here.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that no goods were seized and the imports had been cleared for home consumption. In these circumstances, it held that redemption fine could not be demanded because the goods were not available for redemption. The Court expressly distinguished situations where goods, though not physically available, were provisionally released under bond; here, no bond had been executed for clearance.
Conclusions: The Court held that redemption fine was not imposable in the present facts because the goods were neither seized nor available and had been cleared without any bond-backed provisional release mechanism.
Undervaluation of welding machines imported from various China-based suppliers - demand for differential duty - HELD THAT:- We find that the Original Authority has not complied with the two-step verification and examination exercise, as stated by the Hon’ble Supreme Court above. Revenue has not followed the procedure under sub-rule (2) of Rule 12 of CVR, 2007. This was all the more necessary when the proper officer only relied upon a self-incriminating worksheet purportedly submitted by the importer and statement recorded, to arrive at the transaction value and little else.
Gross errors in the investigation like not making an attempt to retrieve deleted electronic documents from the importers phone or by using a statement recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act 1962, that was not recorded before any officer, let alone a gazetted one. Hence the attempt to enhance the value of the imported goods fail and so does the demand for duty as rightly held by the Ld. Original Authority.
We find that in the circumstances that the Original Authority followed proper principles during the decision-making process and considered all relevant factors while deciding the issues raised in the SCN. Hence the final conclusion drawn and ‘Order’ made, cannot be stated to be illegal, irrational, or procedurally improper.
We hence uphold the ‘ORDER’ as made in OIO. The respondent is eligible for consequential relief as per law. The appeal is disposed of accordingly.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the re-imported goods qualified for the exemption under Notification No. 94/96-Cus (Sl. No. 2) on the requirement that "the goods are the same which were exported", despite absence of "marks and numbers" on the goods.
(ii) Whether, upon establishing eligibility to the said exemption, the re-determination of value and the consequential confiscation, redemption fine, and penalty could be sustained.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Satisfaction that the re-imported goods were the same as the exported goods for purposes of Notification No. 94/96-Cus (Sl. No. 2)
Legal framework: The Court considered Section 20 of the Customs Act, 1962 (re-imported goods to be treated as imported goods), and the exemption under Notification No. 94/96-Cus (Sl. No. 2), which limits duty to the duty leviable on the fair cost of repairs (including materials, insurance, and freight both ways). The notification's proviso requires the proper officer to be satisfied that (a) the goods are re-imported within the prescribed period, and (b) "the goods are the same which were exported" (and, for Sl. No. 2, no change in ownership).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court identified the sole dispute as whether sufficient evidence existed to establish identity of the re-imported goods with the exported goods. It found that the notification does not specifically mandate "marks and numbers" as the only method of identification. While the lower authorities denied the exemption because the goods lacked marks and numbers, the Court held that identity can be established through documentary linkage. It relied on the consistent chain of documents connecting export for repair and re-import after repair: the re-import invoice referenced an order confirmation; the airway bill also referred to the same confirmation; the export commercial invoice described sending defective parts of the relevant machine for repair on returnable basis; and a certificate from the foreign repairer certified that the specified parts dispatched under the re-import invoice were re-export after repair and had been received earlier under the export invoices. On this basis, the Court was satisfied that the exported and re-imported goods were the same.
Conclusion: Documentary evidence established the required link between export and re-import; therefore, the appellant was entitled to the benefit of Notification No. 94/96-Cus dated 16.12.1996.
Issue (ii): Sustainability of re-determined value, confiscation, redemption fine, and penalty after holding the exemption applicable
Interpretation and reasoning: The re-determination of value and the punitive measures were founded on denial of the exemption (premised on lack of marks and numbers and alleged failure to establish identity). Once the Court concluded that identity was established and the exemption applied, the basis for re-determining the value on a non-exemption footing and for treating the declaration as warranting confiscation and penal consequences did not survive.
Conclusion: The re-determination of value, confiscation, redemption fine, and penalty were held unsustainable and were set aside along with the impugned order; the appeal was allowed with consequential relief.
Entitlement to exemption to goods re-imported after repairs in excess of the duty leviable on the cost of repairs including any material used in repairs - benefit of notification no. 94/96-Cus -Whether there is sufficient evidence that the imported goods were the same as those which were exported or not - Undisputedly, there were no marks and numbers on the goods and it is for this reason, that the Joint Commissioner and the Commissioner (Appeals) denied the benefit of the exemption notification.
HELD THAT:- In the absence of any marks and numbers, going by the above details in the documents from the Commercial Invoices under which the appellant had exported defective parts to the invoices and Airway bills under which they have been re-imported including the Certificate issued by the Starlinger, we are convinced that the link between the exported goods and the imported goods has been established through documentary evidence. Accordingly, the appellant is entitled to the benefit of the exemption notification no. 94/96-Cus dated 16.12.1996.
The re-determination of the value of the goods, confiscation of the goods, redemption fine and penalty cannot, therefore, be sustained.
The impugned order dated 23.10.2019 passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) is set aside and the appeal is allowed with consequential relief to the appellant.
Issues: Whether pressure relief valves imported for use in a common rail fuel injection system were classifiable under Heading 8481 as safety or relief valves, or under Heading 8409 as parts of diesel engines for motor vehicles.
Analysis: Heading 8481 covers taps, cocks, valves and similar appliances used on or in pipes, tanks and similar structures to regulate the flow or pressure of fluids, and the HSN Explanatory Notes state that such valves remain in that heading even if specialized for a particular machine or vehicle. The imported goods were complete valves in themselves, not mere machinery parts incorporating a valve, and their function was to relieve excess pressure in the common rail by spring actuation. Section Note 2 to Section XVI requires articles which are themselves covered by a specific heading to be classified in that heading rather than as parts of a machine. The exclusion relied on for Heading 8409 applied only when the goods could not be classified under a specific heading and were merely parts suitable for use with engines of Heading 8407 or 8408. Since the goods were complete safety or relief valves covered by Heading 8481, they could not be shifted to Heading 8409 merely because they were used in a diesel engine system.
Conclusion: The pressure relief valves were correctly classifiable under Heading 8481 and not under Heading 8409, so the contrary classification could not be sustained.
Classification of "pressure relief valves" used in a common rail fuel injection system - function of valves described in the HSN Explanatory Notes -classifiable as "Safety or relief valves" under CTI 8481 40 00, or as "parts suitable for use solely Or principally with diesel engines for motor vehicles" under CTI 8409 99 41 - HELD THAT:- It would be seen that machinery parts which are complete valves in themselves are not excluded from the scope of CTH 8481. The goods involved in the present appeal are complete valves and are not machinery parts incorporating a valve. The goods are also not machinery parts performing the function of valve. It also needs to be noted that they do not regulate the flow of any fluid, since they only relieve excess pressure, when required.
It will now be appropriate to examine whether the goods are classifiable under CTI 8409 99 41.
It is seen that CTH 8409 covers parts suitable for use solely or principally with the engines of heading 8407 or 8408. CTI 8409 99 41 covers goods which are parts suitable for use solely or principally with the diesel engines for motor vehicles. Section Note 2 to Section XVI can be taken note of as it lays down provisions to classify parts of goods of Chapter 84 and 85. In the present case, the goods are covered under Section Note 2(a) as there is a specific heading for valves, which are specifically covered under CTI 8481 40 00.
The Commissioner (Appeals) has recorded a finding that CTH 8409 is excluded from the purview of Section Note 2(a). To examine this, it will be necessary to examine HSN Explanatory Note to Part-II for Section Note 2 of Section XVI. It clearly provides that parts which constitute a part are to be classified in their own respective heading even if it is specifically designed to work as part of a specific machine. The HSN Explanatory Notes to Section XVI explain the scope of Section Note 2 and provide that valves are classifiable under CTH 8481 even if it is a ‘part’.
Only if parts cannot be classified as per Section Note 2(a), recourse has to be made to Section Note 2(b) which states that parts other than those covered by Section Note 2(a), if suitable for use solely or principally with a particular kind of machine, or with a number of machines of the same heading (including a machine of heading 8479 or 8543) are to be classified with the machines of that kind or in CTH 8409, 8431, 8448, 8466, 8473, 8503, 8522, 8529 or 8538 as appropriate.
The Commissioner (Appeals) has also held that the appellant had only quoted partial HSN Explanatory Notes to CTH 8481 and if the complete Note is read, machinery parts which regulate flow in a machine, though not complete valves in themselves are to be classified as part of a machine.
It would be seen that machinery parts which are complete valves in themselves are not excluded from the scope of CTH 8481. The goods involved in the present appeal are complete valves and are not machinery parts incorporating a valve. The goods are also not machinery parts performing the function of valve. It also needs to be noted that they do not regulate the flow of any fluid, since they only relieve excess pressure, when required.
Thus, the pressure relief valves imported by the appellant cannot not be classified under CTI 8409 99 41.
Thus, the pressure relief valves imported by the appellant were correctly classified by the appellant under CTI 8481 40 00. The Commissioner (Appeals) committed an error in classifying them under CTI 8409 99 41.
Appeal is, accordingly, allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether penalties could be sustained on the premise that restricted rough marble was cleared for home consumption without valid licence coverage, when the department relied only on electronic Bill of Entry data and licence details, without producing assessed Bills of Entry, adjudication orders, or evidence of clearance without adjudication/redemption.
(ii) Whether, in the absence of evidence showing collusion/negligence of Customs officers or release by the custodian without "out of charge", the Court should presume regularity of official acts and accept that disputed clearances likely occurred only after adjudication/redemption fine/penalty (or licence amendment), thereby defeating the foundation for confiscation-based penalties.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Sustainability of penalties where the department lacked assessed records/adjudication orders and proceeded on assumptions from ICES and licence data
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the pre-self-assessment import clearance process under the Customs Act, including filing of Bill of Entry under section 46, assessment/examination under section 17, and clearance for home consumption under section 47. It also noted that if restricted goods were imported without adequate licence coverage, they would be liable to confiscation under section 111 and penalty under section 112, typically after show cause notice and adjudication, with release often on payment of redemption fine under section 125.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated it as undisputed that the commodity was restricted and that in some Bills of Entry the import quantity exceeded the quantity indicated in the corresponding licence or lacked full coverage. However, the Court found that the department's case rested on an inference drawn merely from comparing (a) Bills of Entry data available in the electronic system and (b) licence quantities issued by the licensing authority. The Court held this comparison was incomplete because it did not establish what occurred after filing of the Bill of Entry-particularly whether the consignments were subjected to offline adjudication and released on payment of redemption fine/penalty (or covered by licence amendments), a practice which statements of the importer, its agent, and Customs officers indicated had occurred. The Court emphasised that the department could not produce adjudication orders or assessed Bills of Entry reflecting manual adjudication entries and redemption particulars, and that it was therefore impermissible to presume, solely from missing old records, that goods were cleared without licence and without adjudication.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the show cause and the impugned orders proceeded on assumptions unsupported by positive evidence of unauthorised removal/clearance without adjudication. Consequently, the penalties imposed could not be sustained on merits.
Issue (ii): Presumption of regularity in Customs clearance; absence of evidence of collusion/negligence or custodian release without "out of charge"
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court analysed the multi-officer clearance architecture for the relevant period: assessment by the appraising officers, physical examination, and issuance of "out of charge" under section 47 only upon satisfaction that duty was paid and goods were not prohibited. The Court also considered the role of the custodian, who releases goods only upon production of requisite documents including the Bill of Entry with the Customs "out of charge".
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that, given the structured clearance process involving multiple Customs functionaries and the custodian, it was not plausible that restricted goods could be removed from the Customs area without either (a) a valid licence or (b) adjudication leading to confiscation with an option of redemption and consequent payment of fine/penalty, followed by "out of charge". Accepting the department's conclusion would necessarily imply that, across the disputed Bills of Entry, all officers involved (and/or the custodian) had either colluded or acted negligently; the Court found there was no evidence whatsoever to support such an implication. In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the Court held it must be presumed that clearances occurred through regular official process, including adjudication/redemption where licence shortfall existed, consistent with confirmations recorded during investigation. The Court also held that if adjudication had already been done for the same goods, initiating another proceeding again proposing confiscation/fine/penalty on the same basis was unsustainable.
Conclusions: The Court declined to accept the department's theory of clearance without licence/adjudication, held the foundational factual premise for penalties was unproven, and set aside the penalties not only on the importer entity but also on the other noticees whose penalties were based on the same impugned findings.
Final outcome applied to all issues: On merits, the Court set aside the impugned orders and allowed all appeals. Having decided in favour of the appellants on merits, the Court did not examine limitation.
Confiscation for import without licence - confiscation and penalty for non-compliance with import licensing restrictions - onus on revenue to prove clearance without adjudication - presumption of regularity of official acts - requirement of positive evidence of unauthorized removal of goods - availability and production of adjudication records in show cause proceedings
Confiscation for import without licence - onus on revenue to prove clearance without adjudication - presumption of regularity of official acts - availability and production of adjudication records in show cause proceedings - Whether the impugned orders holding goods liable to confiscation and imposing penalties could be sustained when the department relied on ICES data showing mismatch between SILs and Bills of Entry but did not produce adjudication orders or other positive evidence that the goods were cleared without licence or adjudication. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found it undisputed that restricted goods were imported and that some Bills of Entry showed quantities exceeding the corresponding SILs. However, during the relevant period assessment and clearance involved multiple officers (appraiser, assistant commissioner, examining officer and the out-of-charge officer) and the custodian; it is implausible that goods would be cleared without the out-of-charge unless there was collusion or negligence by all these officers. The DRI, having access only to ICES entries and DGFT licence data, could not locate or produce adjudication orders, records of redemption fines or manual entries that would show that adjudication did not occur; many adjudication records were not part of ICES and were unavailable due to age. The Tribunal held that where the department issues a show cause notice alleging unauthorized clearance or absence of adjudication, it must first investigate and produce positive evidence to support that inference; an adverse inference cannot be drawn merely from a mismatch between electronic Bills of Entry and licences without evidence of what transpired after filing the Bill of Entry. In the absence of any material showing that goods were removed without out-of-charge or that officers colluded/neglected their duties, the presumption of regularity in official acts favours the importer and precludes sustaining confiscation and penalties. The Tribunal therefore resolved the controversy on merits in favour of the appellants and did not examine the question of limitation. [Paras 23, 24, 26, 27, 28]
Impugned orders holding the goods liable to confiscation and imposing penalties are set aside; appeals allowed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal, on the merits, allowed all six appeals, set aside the impugned orders of confiscation and penalties because the department failed to produce positive evidence that goods were cleared without adjudication or licence and the presumption of regularity of official acts favoured the appellants; limitation was not decided.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether import of restricted gold dore bars under an import licence stating that the import is "subject to" a specified customs exemption notification conclusively bars the importer from claiming another, otherwise applicable, exemption notification providing a NIL rate of duty.
(ii) Whether customs authorities can sustain a demand for duty on the premise of violation/misuse of import licence conditions where the import licence remains valid and has not been cancelled or invalidated by the competent authority under the foreign trade law framework.
(iii) Whether, upon failure of the duty demand, consequential confiscation-based action (confiscation liability, redemption fine, and penalty) can be maintained.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Effect of licence condition "subject to" a specified notification on availability of another exemption (NIL duty) notification
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the 2008 exemption notification granting exemption (including NIL basic customs duty and AIDC) to specified goods originating from listed least developed countries, and the notification referenced in the licence (issued in 2012 and later superseded in 2017) prescribing concessional duty for gold dore bars subject to stated conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the licence condition stating that the import is "subject to" the specified notification does not, by itself, impose a bar on availing another exemption which otherwise applies to the imported goods. The Court found that the licence condition did not expressly stipulate that no other exemption could be claimed, nor did it mandate that duty must be paid at the rate indicated in the referenced notification "if and only if" the importer complied with that payment. The Court rejected the adjudicating authority's construction that the licence conditions were satisfied only upon payment of duty under the referenced notification.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that, on the terms of the licence as issued, the importer was not prohibited from claiming the 2008 exemption notification merely because the licence referenced the 2012 notification; therefore, denial of the 2008 exemption solely on that basis was unsustainable.
Issue (ii): Jurisdiction of customs authorities to raise duty demand premised on licence-condition violation when the licence remains valid
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered the institutional allocation of authority between the foreign trade administration (licensing authority) and customs, and applied the principle that the validity and continuation of a licence/instrument issued under the foreign trade law framework is for the competent licensing authority to examine and determine.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that customs could proceed to recover duty on the footing of licence-condition breach only if the licence had been cancelled/invalidated by the licensing authority. Since the import licence was valid and subsisting, and there was no determination by the licensing authority cancelling it, customs could not sustain a duty demand by effectively treating the licence as unusable or violated in a manner that defeats the benefit flowing from it.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that, absent cancellation/invalidity of the licence by the competent authority, the duty demand under the customs law provisions on the asserted licence-condition violation could not be sustained.
Issue (iii): Sustainability of confiscation liability, redemption fine, and penalty once duty demand fails
Interpretation and reasoning: The confiscation liability, redemption fine in lieu of confiscation, and penalty had been founded on the premise that the importer wrongly claimed the 2008 exemption and thereby violated licence conditions rendering the goods liable to confiscation. Since the Court held that the duty demand itself could not stand (both because the 2008 exemption was not barred by the licence terms as construed, and because customs could not sustain the demand without licence cancellation), the confiscation-based consequences could not survive.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the duty demand and, consequentially, also set aside the penalty and redemption fine; the impugned order was therefore entirely set aside and the appeal was allowed.
Availing exemption of customs duty under N/N. 96/2008-Cus dated 13.08.2008 on import of gold dore bars from Tanzania in terms of the Import License dated 16.09.2021 issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade permitting imports subject to N/N. 12/2012-Cus dated 17.03.2012 - whether the appellant could have taken benefit of the 2008 Exemption Notification when the Condition of the License issued to the appellant provided that the import of gold dore bars is subject to the 2012 Notification? - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the Condition shows that the import has been made subject to the 2012 Notification. It does not provide that the benefit of any other Notification, which otherwise would be available to the appellant, cannot be availed of by the appellant. The appellant may have had to discharge customs duty provided under the 2012 Notification, but if there is a Notification which exempts payment of customs duty than there is no bar in the appellant availing the benefit of the said Notification. The finding recorded by the Principal Commissioner that the Conditions of License can be fulfilled “if and only if” customs duty is paid in terms of the 2012 Notification is, therefore, not borne out from the Conditions of License.
In M/s. Designco and others vs. Union of India [2024 (11) TMI 1150 - DELHI HIGH COURT], the Delhi High Court examined the provisions of the FTDR Act alongside the Foreign Trade Policy as well as the Foreign Trade (Regulation) Rules, 1993 and held that 'A harmonious interpretation of the two statutes, namely, the Customs and the FTDR Acts leads us to the inescapable conclusion that the law neither envisages nor sanctions a duality of authority inhering in a separate set of officers and agents simultaneously evaluating and adjudging the validity of an instrument which owes its origin to the FTDR Act alone.'
Thus, it is only if the Import License issued by the DGFT was cancelled by the DGFT that the customs could have decided to recover the duty under section 28(1) of the Customs Act.
The demand of customs duty from the appellant cannot be sustained nor can the imposition of penalty under section 112(a)(ii) of the Customs Act or imposition of redemption fine in lieu of confiscation be maintained - The impugned order is, accordingly, set aside and the appeal is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether import of gold dore bars under an import licence stipulating that the import is "subject to" a specified concessional-duty customs notification bars the importer from claiming a separate duty-free exemption notification otherwise applicable to goods originating from least developed countries.
2) Whether customs authorities can sustain a demand of duty (with interest) and impose penalty for alleged violation of import licence conditions when the licence remains valid and has not been cancelled or invalidated by the competent authority under the foreign trade law framework.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Effect of the import licence condition referring to a specific customs notification on availability of another exemption
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined the import licence condition stating that import is "subject to" a particular customs notification providing a concessional rate for gold dore bars, and contrasted it with the separate exemption notification granting duty-free treatment (including AIDC exemption) for eligible goods imported from listed least developed countries.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the licence condition, on its plain terms, only makes the import subject to the referenced notification; it does not state that the benefit of any other notification otherwise available cannot be availed. The Court rejected the view that licence conditions are met "if and only if" duty is paid at the concessional rate under the notification named in the licence. The Court further held that, absent an express bar, the licence condition did not prohibit simultaneous availment of more than one exemption notification, and the importer could discharge liability under the referenced notification unless a separate notification granted a complete exemption. The Court distinguished reliance placed on another decision on the basis that, in that case, the imported goods did not satisfy the relevant specification, whereas here there was no finding that the importer was ineligible for the least-developed-country exemption on merits.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the mere reference in the import licence to the concessional-duty notification did not bar the importer from claiming the duty-free exemption notification, and the contrary interpretation adopted in the impugned order was unsustainable.
Issue 2: Jurisdiction of customs authorities to raise demand/penalty based on alleged licence-condition violation when the licence remains valid
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court relied on the principle that instruments/licences issued under the foreign trade regulatory framework are to be administered by the designated competent authority, and customs authorities cannot go behind such an instrument or treat it as invalid absent action by that competent authority. The Court applied the proposition that if misrepresentation/violation is alleged, it is for the licensing authority to cancel or question the licence; till then, customs cannot refuse benefits or proceed on the footing that the licence is ineffective.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that customs could have proceeded to recover duty on the premise of licence invalidity/violation only if the import licence had been cancelled by the competent authority. Since the licence was valid and subsisting and there was no cancellation, the foundation for the duty demand premised on licence-condition violation was missing. Consequently, the associated penalty, which was imposed on the basis of the same alleged contravention and resultant liability to confiscation, also could not stand.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that, with the import licence remaining uncancelled, the duty demand could not be sustained and the penalty imposed under the Customs Act was also unsustainable; the impugned order was set aside and the appeal allowed.
Correctness of availing exemption of customs duty under N/N. 96/2008-Cus dated 13.08.2008 on import of gold dore bars from Tanzania in terms of the Import License dated 13.06.2022 issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade permitting imports subject to N/N. 12/2012-Cus dated 17.03.2012.
Whether the appellant could have taken benefit of the 2008 Exemption Notification when the Condition of the License issued to the appellant provided that the import of gold dore bars is subject to the 2012 Notification? - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the said Condition shows that the import has been made subject to the 2012 Notification. It does not provide that the benefit of any other Notification, which otherwise would be available to the appellant, cannot be availed of by the appellant. The appellant may have had to discharge customs duty provided under the 2012 Notification, but if there is a Notification which exempts payment of customs duty than there is no bar in the appellant availing the benefit of the said Notification. The finding recorded by the Principal Commissioner that the Conditions of License can be fulfilled “if and only if” customs duty is paid in terms of the 2012 Notification is, therefore, not borne out from the Conditions of License.
In M/s. Designco and others vs. Union of India[2024 (11) TMI 1150 - DELHI HIGH COURT], the Delhi High Court examined the provisions of the FTDR Act alongside the Foreign Trade Policy as well as the Foreign Trade (Regulation) Rules, 1993 and held that 'A harmonious interpretation of the two statutes, namely, the Customs and the FTDR Acts leads us to the inescapable conclusion that the law neither envisages nor sanctions a duality of authority inhering in a separate set of officers and agents simultaneously evaluating and adjudging the validity of an instrument which owes its origin to the FTDR Act alone. It is these factors, as well as the role assigned to the DGFT which perhaps weighed upon courts to acknowledge its position of primacy when it come to the interpretation of policy measures referable to the FTDR Act as well as issues of classification emanating therefrom.'
Thus, it is only if the Import License issued by the DGFT was cancelled by the DGFT that the customs could have decided to recover the duty under section 28(1) of the Customs Act.
The demand of customs duty from the appellant cannot be sustained nor can the imposition of penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act be maintained. The impugned order is, accordingly, set aside - Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether expenses incurred by the importer in India towards advertisement and sales promotion of imported goods were includible in the assessable value under rule 10(1)(e) of the Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007, on the facts found by the Tribunal.
(ii) Whether the adjudicating authorities could rely upon a statement recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 to sustain inclusion of such expenses and demand, when the mandatory procedure under section 138B of the Customs Act was not followed.
(iii) Whether the appellate order could be sustained where it conclusorily applied rule 10(1)(e) without giving reasons addressing its prerequisites and without dealing with the importer's submissions and cited decisions.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (ii): Reliance on statement under section 108 without compliance with section 138B
Legal framework: The Court examined the relevance of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act in adjudication, and held that such statements become relevant for proving the truth of their contents only when the procedure contemplated under section 138B is complied with.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the Commissioner (Appeals) substantially relied on the Managing Director's statement to conclude that advertisement and sales promotion expenses were includible. The Tribunal held that this reliance was impermissible because the statutory procedure under section 138B had not been followed; therefore, the section 108 statement could not be treated as relevant evidence for proving the facts asserted in it.
Conclusion: In absence of compliance with section 138B, the statement recorded under section 108 could not be relied upon to sustain the inclusion of expenses in assessable value or the consequential demand.
Issue (i) & (iii) (grouped): Includibility of advertisement/marketing expenses under rule 10(1)(e) and sustainability of a non-reasoned appellate conclusion
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered rule 10(1)(e) of the 2007 Valuation Rules, which permits addition to transaction value only of "all other payments" made as a condition of sale of imported goods, by the buyer to the seller or to a third party, to satisfy an obligation of the seller, to the extent not included in the price actually paid or payable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the Commissioner (Appeals) merely quoted rule 10(1)(e) and drew a conclusion of includibility without explaining how the requirements of the rule were met on the facts. The Tribunal emphasised that the authority was required to specifically consider and record reasons demonstrating application of rule 10(1)(e) to the case. The Commissioner (Appeals) also failed to engage with the importer's submissions and did not consider the cited authority on the point, instead making a general observation that the decisions were confined to their facts.
On merits, the Tribunal held that the advertisement and sales promotion expenses in question were incurred by the importer on its own account after import, and there was no demonstrated basis to treat them as payments made as a condition of sale to satisfy an obligation of the foreign seller within rule 10(1)(e). The Tribunal rejected an attempt to support includibility by reference to a "marketing support" clause, noting that (a) it did not establish that the impugned expenses were payments made as a condition of sale satisfying a seller's obligation, and (b) in any event the demand had not been confirmed on that basis, so the department could not introduce that ground at the appellate stage before the Tribunal.
Conclusion: The Tribunal conclusively held that the importer's expenditure on sales promotion and advertisement, incurred on its own account, cannot be included in assessable value under rule 10(1)(e). The appellate order was set aside as unsustainable due to lack of legally reasoned application of rule 10(1)(e) and impermissible reliance on the section 108 statement. The appeal was allowed with consequential relief.
Valuation - Inclusion of expenses incurred towards advertisement and sales promotion - assessable value under rule 10(1)(e) - differential customs duty - interest and penalty - import of sports goods and fitness products from different countries- Non-compliance of the procedure contemplated u/s 138B -relevancy of statement of the Managing Director of the appellant made u/s 108 - HELD THAT:- As the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act was not followed in the present case, the statements made by the Managing Director of the appellant under section 108 of the Customs Act could not have been relied upon in view of the decision of the Tribunal in Surya Wires[2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI].
This apart, instead of considering the submissions made by the appellant, the Commissioner (Appeals) noted that these submissions were considered by the adjudicating authority and the appellant could not make out any case in its favour.
This issue relating to addition of the amount incurred by the appellant towards advertisement and sales promotion to the assessable value was examined at length by a Division Bench of the Tribunal in Adidas India [2020 (3) TMI 324 - CESTAT NEW DELHI]. After examining the provisions of rule 10(1)(e) of the 2007 Valuation Rules and Note to rule 3 contained in the Schedule.
A bare perusal of the clause 5 of the agreement deals with ‘Marketing Support’ would indicate that the Major Sports SA helped the appellant in marketing the product and provided catalogues, posters and some POP material in English and a support of 5% discount on the products in the first year.
It cannot be concluded from this clause, in view of the decision of the Tribunal in Adidas India, that the discount was given as a condition of sale of the imported goods by the buyer to the seller.
Thus, for all the reasons stated above, the expenses incurred by the appellant on its own account for sales promotion and advertisement of the imported product cannot be included in the assessable value under rule 10(1)(e) of the 2007 Valuation Rules.
It is, accordingly, set aside and the appeal is allowed with consequential relief, if any.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the seized PA systems/parts were liable to confiscation under section 111 of the Customs Act, 1962 on the ground that the appellants failed to establish licit import/local lawful procurement through credible duty-paying or purchase documents.
2) Whether penalties imposed under section 112 of the Customs Act, 1962 on the concerned persons were justified in the facts found, including the finding that the supporting invoices/documents were fabricated or unrelated to the seized goods.
3) Whether the adjudication suffered from violation of principles of natural justice, particularly regarding opportunity of hearing and cross-examination, so as to warrant interference with the confiscation and penalties.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Liability of seized goods to confiscation for want of proof of licit import/procurement
Legal framework: The Court examined confiscation under section 111 of the Customs Act, 1962, as applied in the impugned order, on the footing that goods suspected to be imported without duty/valid documents and supported by unreliable documents are liable to confiscation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the decisive question as whether the documents produced by the appellants credibly established legal import or lawful local purchase of the seized foreign-brand goods. The purported invoices from three sources were verified and found unreliable: one supplier denied issuing the invoices and this was reaffirmed in cross-examination; another purported supplier was found not to exist; and the third supplier's statement was that goods sold by it carried MRP/RSP stickers while the seized goods had none, leading to the conclusion that those invoices did not pertain to the seized goods. The Court accepted that these verifications and corroborated statements established that the appellants' documents did not relate to the seized goods and did not prove licit import/procurement.
Conclusions: The Court upheld confiscation under section 111, finding that the appellants failed to establish lawful import or lawful local procurement of the seized goods and that the relied-upon invoices/documents were fabricated or unrelated to the seized goods.
Issue 2: Sustainability of penalties under section 112
Legal framework: The Court considered penalties under section 112 as imposed in the impugned order in connection with the established basis for confiscation.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having affirmed that the appellants could not substantiate licit import/local purchase and that the documentary defence was discredited by verification and cross-examination, the Court found the consequential imposition of penalties to be "fair and proper." The Court specifically relied on the categorical nature of statements recorded under section 108 and the fact that cross-examination did not dislodge them, but instead supported the departmental case.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the penalties imposed under section 112 as justified on the facts found and the failure of the appellants' documentation to prove lawful possession/source of the seized goods.
Issue 3: Alleged breach of natural justice (hearing/cross-examination) as a ground to set aside the order
Legal framework: The Court assessed compliance with principles of natural justice in the adjudication, focusing on whether adequate opportunity was provided, including cross-examination of relied-upon witnesses.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that opportunities of personal hearing were granted and cross-examination of relevant witnesses whose statements were relied upon was allowed. It further held that cross-examination confirmed the earlier statements and therefore strengthened, rather than weakened, the case supporting confiscation and penalties. On this basis, the Court characterized the impugned order as "fair and balanced" and passed after following natural justice.
Conclusions: No violation of natural justice was found; the Court therefore declined to interfere and upheld the confiscation and penalties, dismissing the appeals.
Confiscation u/s 111 - licit import of the goods - gross undervaluation and mis-declaration - impostion of penalties - HELD THAT:- After considering the replies in defence, giving opportunities of personal hearing and allowing cross examination of the individuals, the Commissioner passed the impugned order. He observed that the goods had been seized under the belief that they were imported without paying customs duty and without the cover of valid duty paying documents. To the extent the documents submitted by the appellants in defence correlated to the goods, they were excluded from the SCN.
On verification, CINETEKK existed in Pondicherry but Shri Saravanan of this firm, after verification, confirmed that the purported invoices were never issued by them. He also gave a statement to this effect under section 108 of the Act. The appellant cross-examined Shri Saravanan during adjudication proceedings which also established that the purported invoices were never issued by CINETEKK.
Thus, the statements of the persons recorded under section 108 and their cross examination by the appellants categorically established that the invoices and other documents submitted by the appellant Elgin to show that the goods were legally imported into India and were bought locally by the appellant were not related to the seized goods.
It is for this reason that the Commissioner confiscated the seized goods under section 111 and imposed penalties under section 112 on Elgin and on Shri Sumit Gupta.
We find the order of the Commissioner fair and balanced and having been passed after following principles of natural justice including allowing cross examination of the witnesses who made statements. The cross-examination only buttressed the case of the department.
Thus, we find no reason to interfere with the impugned order which is accordingly upheld and both appeals are dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the Company Law Board (a quasi-judicial body) had jurisdiction to condone delay in filing an appeal under Section 58(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, including by invoking the Limitation Act, 1963 or by applying the "principles" underlying Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, or by relying on inherent powers under the CLB Regulations.
2) Whether Section 433 of the Companies Act, 2013 (making the Limitation Act applicable to proceedings/appeals before the NCLT/NCLAT) could be applied retrospectively or otherwise used to validate condonation of delay by the CLB for a Section 58(3) appeal filed before the constitution of the NCLT/NCLAT.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: CLB's power to condone delay under Section 58(3) of the Companies Act, 2013
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court examined that, during the relevant period, the CLB's powers as a "court" were limited to those expressly enumerated under the then-governing provision conferring CPC-type powers, and there was no provision empowering the CLB to apply the Limitation Act, 1963 or to extend limitation for filing a statutory appeal under Section 58(3). The Court also examined the distinction between (i) statutory inclusion of Limitation Act powers, and (ii) attempting to import "principles" of limitation without such statutory conferral.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to courts and not to quasi-judicial bodies unless the statute expressly provides otherwise. The CLB, being a quasi-judicial body and only a "court" in a restricted sense for specified purposes, could not assume Section 5 power. Further, the Court rejected the argument that "principles" underlying Section 5 could be applied by analogy, distinguishing Section 5 (extension of limitation through discretionary condonation) from provisions like Section 14 (exclusion of time), whose principles have been applied in limited contexts because exclusion does not involve discretionary enlargement of the limitation period itself. Because condonation under Section 5 depends upon discretionary enlargement of time-an attribute that must be specifically conferred-the Court ruled that such power cannot be inferred for the CLB. The Court also held that Regulation 44 (inherent powers) could not be used to override or circumvent a statutory limitation period for instituting the proceeding itself, as there is no inherent power to extend limitation absent legislative authorization.
Conclusions: The CLB lacked authority to condone delay in filing a Section 58(3) appeal. Neither Section 5 of the Limitation Act nor its underlying principles could be invoked, and inherent powers under the CLB Regulations could not be used to extend a statutory filing period. The limitation period in Section 58(3) was treated as mandatory and not merely directory.
Issue 2: Retrospective application or pendency-based application of Section 433 of the Companies Act, 2013 to validate CLB condonation
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered the phased commencement of the Companies Act, 2013 provisions and noted that Section 433 came into force when the NCLT/NCLAT were constituted. It addressed whether this later provision could retrospectively empower the CLB or be applied because an appeal was pending.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that Section 433 could not be "borrowed" to confer Limitation Act powers on the CLB, because the applicability of limitation provisions is institution-specific and depends on express legislative conferral. The timing of Section 433's commencement alongside the creation of NCLT/NCLAT showed a conscious legislative choice not to clothe the CLB with such power earlier. Additionally, on the facts, the Court found the remedy had already become time-barred even under the prior regime before Section 58(3) itself came into force; therefore, a later change empowering a different forum could not revive a dead remedy or defeat accrued rights.
Conclusions: Section 433 was not retrospectively applicable to the CLB and could not validate condonation of delay for a Section 58(3) appeal filed before the NCLT/NCLAT framework. The change in law could not revive an already time-barred remedy.
Condonation of delay of 249 days in filing the appeal under Section 58(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 - power of CLB, being a quasi-judicial body to condone the delay in filing an appeal under Section 58(3) of the Act, 2013 - Section 433 of the Act, 2013 which was brought into force on 01.06.2016 in order to empower the NCLT and NCLAT respectively, to apply the provisions of the Act, 1963, could be given retrospective effect such that it applied to the CLB as well.
The implementation of the provisions of the Act, 2013 in phases and the powers conferred upon the CLB in the period between 12.09.2013 and 01.06.2016 - HELD THAT:- It is deemed necessary to reemphasize that there was no provision either akin to or corresponding to Section 433 of the Act, 2013 which empowered the CLB to apply the Act, 1963 during this period between 12.09.2013 and 01.06.2016. The legislature had very consciously timed the coming into force of Section 433 of the Act, 2013 with that of the creation of the NCLT and NCLAT respectively, which unambiguously revealed their intention to not confer the CLB with any power insofar as the issue of limitation was concerned.
Whether the CLB, being a quasi-judicial body, could be said to have the power to condone the delay in filing an appeal under Section 58(3) of the Act, 2013? - HELD THAT:- Section 433 of the Act, 2013 which specifically empowers the NCLT and the NCLAT respectively to apply the provisions of the Act, 1963 to proceedings or appeals before itself, must be given retrospective effect such that it applies to the CLB as well.
Decisions of this Court as regards the application of Section 5 of the Act, 1963 to quasi-judicial bodies or tribunals - HELD THAT:- In the light of the ratio of Officer on Special Duty [1996 (2) TMI 538 - SUPREME COURT] and Prakash H. Jain [2003 (9) TMI 771 - SUPREME COURT] it can be seen that the CLB was also to be treated as a court but for very limited purposes which were enumerated under Section 10E(4C) of the Erstwhile Act. Therefore, the powers conferred under Section 10E(4C) must neither be conflated with nor extended to encompass the powers which a court would otherwise exercise under Section 5 of the Act, 1963.
Whether the principles underlying certain provisions of the Act, 1963 could be made applicable to quasi-judicial bodies or tribunals? - HELD THAT:- Although the provisions of the Act, 1963 per say have been made inapplicable to applications or appeals before quasi-judicial bodies, yet the principles underlying the provisions of the Act, 1963, more specifically Section 14 thereof, have been made applicable to applications or appeals made before quasi-judicial bodies. This aspect of applying the principles underlying Section 14 of the Act, 1963 was discussed in Parson Tools [1975 (2) TMI 86 - SUPREME COURT] - Although the decision in Parson Tools did not apply the principles underlying Section 14 of the Act, 1963 to the facts of their case, based on how the concerned provision i.e., Section 10 of the U.P. Sales Tax Act, 1948, was phrased, yet it left open the possibility for future decisions to apply the said principles where a contrary intention could not be inferred or culled out from the provision to which the principles underlying Section 14 was sought to be applied.
The difference between the principles underlying Sections 5 and 14 of the Act, 1963 respectively - HELD THAT:- The term “sufficient cause” under Section 5 must not be subject to undue rigidity and must be construed in a manner such that it can be contextualised in the facts and circumstances of each case. In other words, it must be kept sufficiently flexible and not be subject to an exhaustive set of circumstances or reasons. Courts must adopt a liberal and justice-oriented approach in assessing whether sufficient cause is made out. While there exists some outer boundaries within which the term “sufficient cause” must be construed, yet it is no doubt true that a significant amount of leeway is given to courts which are faced with an application under Section 5 of the Act, 1963 to ascertain whether the reasons assigned qualify the subjective test of the words “sufficient cause”.
There are certain well-defined pre-requisites that must be satisfied for a party to take benefit of Section 14. Section 14(2) deals with computing the period of limitation for an application and the following are its requisite conditions – First, both the earlier and the subsequent proceedings must be civil proceedings; Secondly, both the earlier and the subsequent proceedings must be before a court; Thirdly, they must be between the same parties; Fourthly, they must be for the same relief; Fifthly, the previous proceedings must have been incapable of being entertained owing to a defect of jurisdiction or any other cause of a like nature; Lastly, the earlier proceedings must have been prosecuted with good faith and due-diligence.
The argument that the principles underlying Sections 6 or 14 of the Act, 1963 respectively, could be applied to quasi-judicial bodies is not sufficient reason to hold the same insofar as Section 5 of the Act, 1963 is concerned.
Whether the CLB Regulations confer any discretionary power to the CLB to extend time or condone delay under Section 5 of the Act, 1963? - HELD THAT:- Regulation 25 deals with the discretion given to the CLB to grant additional time on an altogether different aspect. It deals with granting time, upon showing that sufficient cause existed, for the ‘adjournment’ of a hearing of the petition or application, as the case may be. One must not conflate this with the power to enlarge or extend time for the filing of the petition or application itself with is dealt with by the Act, 2013 - when the question is as regards the “extension of time” in the filing of an appeal or application itself, before a quasi-judicial body, we must be careful to not overread between the silences and instead, must look at whether there is any express indication to that effect. Whenever and wherever the legislature deemed it fit, it has granted either a limited or an unlimited power to extend time.
How Section 58(3) of the Act, 2013 which is a simpliciter provision prescribing a limitation period, must be construed? - HELD THAT:- Section 58(3) of the Act, 2013 uses the expression “The transferee may appeal to the Tribunal”. As elucidated in Fairgrowth [2004 (10) TMI 328 - SUPREME COURT] the use of this word does not directly give rise to any inference that the limitation period prescribed therein is only directory - the respondent herein must have preferred his appeal under Section 58(3) of the Act, 2013 before the CLB, strictly within the time-limit prescribed therein.
Whether Section 433 of the Act, 2013 must be made retrospectively applicable or the change in law during the pendency of the appeal must be taken into account in the facts and circumstances of the present case? - HELD THAT:- Section 433 of the Act, 2013 was brought into force w.e.f 01.06.2016 i.e., from the same date on which the NCLT and the NCLAT respectively came to be constituted. In the phased manner of implementation of the provisions of the Act, 2013, such a decision to time the coming into force of Section 433 in a way that coincides with the creation of the NCLT and NCLAT respectively, was clear and conscious. This, by itself, is a good indication to steer away from the retrospective application of Section 433 in favour of the CLB.
It is concluded that the High Court could be said to have committed an error in dismissing the statutory appeal filed under Section 10F of the Erstwhile Act and thereby, affirming the order of the CLB condoning the delay of 249 days in filing the appeal under Section 58(3) of the Act, 2013.
The impugned judgement and order of the High Court is set-aside - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether, after approval of a corporate resolution plan under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the suit for quantification of mesne profits could continue against the corporate debtor and/or its "new/present management", or whether it was barred by the binding terms of the approved resolution plan.
2) What is the meaning and effect of the resolution plan stipulation that any "financial recovery" in relation to the pending suit should be recovered from "existing management", and whether this permits continuation of the mesne profits proceeding only against the erstwhile management rather than the corporate debtor/new management.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Post-approval continuation of mesne profits proceedings against the corporate debtor/new management
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied the principle that once a resolution plan is approved under Section 31(1) of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the plan becomes binding on stakeholders; claims not forming part of the approved plan stand extinguished, and no person is entitled to initiate or continue proceedings in respect of such claims.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the claim relating to the pending suit was specifically recorded in the approved resolution plan and its annexures, and the plan expressly stated that there would be "no claim" against the corporate debtor/new management in relation to the suit. The Court further held that the subsequent order of the insolvency tribunal (passed on an application by the plaintiffs) did not modify the approved plan and therefore could not be read as permitting continuation of the suit against the corporate debtor/new management contrary to the plan. Accordingly, the suit, as framed against the corporate debtor, could not proceed because the approved plan barred such continuation and recovery from the corporate debtor/new management.
Conclusions: The suit for mesne profits/its quantification was held not maintainable against the corporate debtor and its new/present management in view of the approved resolution plan; the suit was dismissed as against the corporate debtor.
Issue 2: Construction of "existing management" and permissibility of proceeding against erstwhile management for recovery
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court treated the approved resolution plan as binding and determinative of the permissible forum/target for recovery, and interpreted the plan terms in light of the contemplated and actual change of management under the plan.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the plan clauses stating that any financial recovery arising from the pending matters should be recovered from "existing management," while simultaneously providing "no claim" against the corporate debtor/new management. Giving "anxious consideration" to the phrase "existing management," the Court found that the plan envisaged a change of management upon occurrence of specified events, and there was no dispute that such change occurred. Therefore, "existing management" was construed to mean the management immediately prior to the present/new management taking over. On that basis, the Court held that the quantification of mesne profits could proceed only to the limited extent permitted by the plan-i.e., for establishing monetary liability, if any, recoverable from the erstwhile management, not from the corporate debtor/new management.
Conclusions: The mesne profits quantification could continue only as against the erstwhile management, and any monetary liability found is to be realized from such erstwhile management. The plaintiffs were permitted to take appropriate steps in the suit within a specified time to proceed accordingly; failing such steps, the suit would be treated as disposed of, and in any event it stood dismissed as against the corporate debtor.
Resolution plan binding on stakeholders - claims extinguished on approval of resolution plan - effect of approved resolution plan on pending proceedings of operational creditors - interpretation of "existing management" in a resolution plan - recovery of monetary liability from erstwhile management
Effect of approved resolution plan on pending proceedings of operational creditors - claims extinguished on approval of resolution plan - Whether the suit for possession and mesne profits can proceed against the appellant/new management after sanction of the resolution plan (RP). - HELD THAT: - The Court held that once a resolution plan is duly approved by the adjudicating authority under Section 31(1) of the Code of 2016, the claims as provided in the RP stand frozen and the approved RP is binding on all stakeholders; claims which are not part of the RP stand extinguished and no person is entitled to initiate or continue proceedings in respect of such claims. Applying this principle, the approved RP in the present case did not permit any claim to be continued or recovered from the appellant or the new management; accordingly CS 16 of 2007 cannot proceed as against the appellant/new management and is dismissed as against the appellant. The Court referred to the nature of the RP and the clarification order of the NCLT, noting the RP's provisions were not modified. [Paras 15, 19, 20, 21, 22]
CS 16 of 2007 is dismissed as against the appellant; the suit cannot proceed against the appellant or the new management in view of the sanctioned RP.
Interpretation of "existing management" in a resolution plan - recovery of monetary liability from erstwhile management - What is the meaning of the term "existing management" in the RP and from whom any monetary liability found by the mesne profit proceedings is recoverable? - HELD THAT: - The Court examined the RP and the events contemplated therein and found there was a change of management as postulated by the RP. Consequently the term "existing management" in the RP was construed to mean the management of the appellant immediately prior to the takeover by the present (postRP) management. The RP allowed the suit to continue only insofar as any monetary liability, if found, would be realized from that erstwhile/existing management and not from the appellant or the new management. [Paras 16, 17, 18]
"Existing management" in the RP means the management immediately prior to the change effected by the RP; any monetary liability found shall be recovered from the erstwhile management.
Resolution plan binding on stakeholders - recovery of monetary liability from erstwhile management - What procedural direction should be given to the plaintiffs/respondents for pursuing any financial relief in light of the RP? - HELD THAT: - Having held that the suit cannot proceed against the appellant/new management but may proceed against the erstwhile management for quantification and recovery of monetary liability, the Court directed the respondents/plaintiffs to take appropriate steps in CS 16 of 2007 within a fortnight to pursue recovery from the erstwhile management; failing which the suit will be treated as disposed of. If steps are taken, the suit will proceed in accordance with law as against the erstwhile management. [Paras 22]
Respondents/plaintiffs shall take steps within a fortnight to pursue recovery from the erstwhile management; in default CS 16 of 2007 will be treated as disposed of; if steps are taken, the suit will proceed against the erstwhile management.
Final Conclusion: The sanctioned resolution plan operates to bar continuation of CS 16 of 2007 against the appellant and the new management; the suit may continue only for quantification and recovery of any monetary liability from the erstwhile management (as interpreted in the RP), and the plaintiffs are directed to take appropriate steps within a fortnight or the suit will be treated as disposed of as against the appellant.
Issues: (i) Whether the notice issued under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 invoked the personal guarantee and furnished a valid for proceedings under Section 95 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016; (ii) Whether alleged defects in authorisation and filing of the petition vitiated the insolvency application.
Issue (i): Whether the notice issued under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 invoked the personal guarantee and furnished a valid for proceedings under Section 95 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Analysis: The guarantee deed provided that the guarantor's liability would arise on demand and that notice could be given personally or by post without any prescribed special form. The notice dated 29.02.2016 demanded payment of the outstanding liability from the addressees, including the appellant, in relation to the credit facilities extended to the corporate debtor. The fact that the appellant was described as a director did not alter the substance of the demand. The Tribunal also distinguished earlier decisions and held that whether a Section 13(2) notice invokes the guarantee depends on the wording of the notice and the terms of the guarantee deed.
Conclusion: The notice was a valid invocation of the personal guarantee and the insolvency proceedings were maintainable.
Issue (ii): Whether alleged defects in authorisation and filing of the petition vitiated the insolvency application.
Analysis: The objection was treated as a hypertechnical one. No prejudice was shown and the defect, if any, was of a rectifiable procedural nature. Such procedural infirmities were held not to justify rejection of the insolvency petition when the debt, default, and invocation of guarantee were otherwise established.
Conclusion: The alleged procedural defects did not vitiate the petition.
Final Conclusion: The appeal failed on merits, and the order initiating insolvency against the personal guarantor was sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: A Section 13(2) notice under the SARFAESI Act will constitute invocation of a personal guarantee where, read with the guarantee deed, it clearly demands payment from the guarantor in respect of the secured liability; technical defects in authorisation do not defeat insolvency proceedings in the absence of prejudice.
Petition moved by the financial creditor u/s 95 - invocation of personal guarantee through notice u/s 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act though was not pleaded specifically before the Adjudicating Authority - Whether notice issued under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 which was addressed to the Appellant is sufficient to invoke guarantee and gives any cause of action to the financial creditor to file application under Section 95 of the Code.
CD failed to fulfil the terms and conditions of the loan restructuring sanction letter and consequently the loan account of the CD was classified as Non-Performing Asset (NPA).
HELD THAT:- Since the appellant has extended guarantee by executing a deed and the principal borrower/ CD failed to pay the amount of credit facilities extended by the Financial Creditor and the liability of the principal borrower and guarantor is coextensive, this demand notice was sufficient communication to the appellant to discharge his liability under the guarantee deed towards the credit facility extended by the creditor to the CD and is sufficient invocation of guarantee.
Thus, the requirement of only sending a notice was contemplated in the guarantee deed and no specific or particular process or the format of notice or formality was stipulated therein. To our understanding if nothing special or specific has been given under the terms of the guarantee, the sending of notice to the guarantor specifically demanding outstanding payment within specific time frame, would be sufficient, in so far as invocation of guarantee is concerned, if it sufficiently demonstrate the liability of the guarantor and also having a clause for discharge of its liability for the credit facilities extended to the CD.
We have already observed herein before that notice dated 29.02.2016, given by the financial creditor under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act has sufficiently indicated the Appellant to discharge his liability for the amount mentioned in the notice of which the credit facilities were extended to the CD and simply by the fact that word ‘director’ has been suffixed after the name of the Appellant/Personal Guarantor, the same will not be sufficient to change the character of the Appellant from the guarantor of the CD and therefore, in our considered opinion, the personal guarantee has been rightly considered by the Tribunal to have been invoked by issuance of this notice given under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act and we do not find any illegality therein.
So far as the submissions of the Appellant, with regard to some defects arisen in not filing any authorisation letter or the affidavit before the Tribunal, is concerned, we are of the firm view that hyper technicalities so far as the procedure is concerned, should not come in the way of imparting substantial justice between the parties, more so when there is no conflict between the financial creditor and his agent, who has filed the petition before the Tribunal, the petition could not be rejected/ dismissed only on this hyper technical ground. Therefore, we also do not find any illegality in the approach of the Tribunal in dealing with this objection of the Appellant.
Thus, we are of the considered opinion that there is no good ground exists on the basis of which any interference may be made in the impugned judgment and resultantly, the appeal lacks merit and is dismissed as such.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, for deciding a Section 9 application post-remand, the Operational Creditor could re-segregate and expand the set of invoices claimed to fall outside the protective ambit of Section 10-A, contrary to the invoice categorisation and quantum expressly pleaded in its own Section 9 application and reflected in earlier orders.
(ii) Whether rejection of the Section 9 application was justified where the Corporate Debtor tendered (and deposited with the Tribunal Registry) the entire operational debt amount that was pleaded as enforceable (i.e., outside Section 10-A), and the Operational Creditor refused to accept it while insisting on a higher amount by revising the enforceable invoice set.
(iii) Whether liabilities covered by Section 10-A were extinguished, or merely rendered unenforceable in Section 7/9 proceedings, and what remedy remained available to the Operational Creditor for such invoices.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Permissibility of altering the pleaded invoice segregation/quantum vis-à-vis Section 10-A
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court proceeded on the premise that Section 10-A creates a "protective shield" in respect of certain defaults, making them not actionable under Section 7 and Section 9 proceedings during the barred period, while invoices outside that ambit could sustain a Section 9 claim.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Operational Creditor itself had filed the Section 9 application relying on 60 invoices split into two tables: 53 invoices in one table treated as hit by Section 10-A and 7 invoices in another table treated as outside Section 10-A, aggregating to Rs. 1.65 Cr for the enforceable portion. This exact segregation was reflected in the Adjudicating Authority's earlier order and in the Tribunal's remand order. The remand did not interfere with, nor reopen, the pleaded invoice list or classification. After remand, the Operational Creditor had not challenged this categorisation, and only later sought to add two invoices from the earlier "barred" table by asserting that, due to credit terms, their payable dates fell beyond the Section 10-A period. The Court held this to be an impermissible contradiction of its own pleadings, amounting to "shifting the goal-post" and an attempt to "improve" the case by inflating the quantum of default to pressure the Corporate Debtor.
Conclusion: The Operational Creditor was not permitted to alter, modify, expand, or re-segregate the invoices beyond what it had originally pleaded in the Section 9 application; the enforceable operational debt, for Section 9 purposes in this case, remained confined to the 7 invoices aggregating to Rs. 1.65 Cr as originally admitted by it.
Issue (ii): Effect of tender/deposit of the admitted enforceable amount and refusal by the Operational Creditor-misuse of Section 9 as recovery tool
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the Corporate Debtor offered to pay the entire Rs. 1.65 Cr corresponding to the 7 invoices undisputedly outside Section 10-A and, pursuant to directions, deposited the amount in an interest-bearing fixed deposit with the Tribunal Registry. This was treated as demonstrating bona fides to discharge the enforceable liability and also as indicative of financial solvency. The Operational Creditor's refusal to accept the amount, coupled with its insistence on a higher figure premised on an impermissible reclassification of invoices, was held to show that the insolvency process was being invoked as a "coercive recovery tool" rather than as a mechanism aligned with the object of the IBC. In these circumstances, the Court agreed that it would not be in consonance with IBC objectives to "drag" the Corporate Debtor into insolvency when the enforceable portion stood fully tendered/deposited.
Conclusion: The rejection of the Section 9 application was upheld because the Corporate Debtor had deposited the entire enforceable amount (as per the Operational Creditor's own pleaded segregation), and the Operational Creditor's refusal to accept it, while seeking to enlarge the enforceable claim, amounted to misuse of the insolvency process.
Issue (iii): Nature of Section 10-A protection and availability of alternate remedies
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court expressly clarified that the Section 10-A "protective shield" does not extinguish or wipe out the underlying liability; it only renders such liability unenforceable in Section 7 and Section 9 proceedings. Consequently, claims arising from invoices falling within the Section 10-A period could not be pursued through Section 9 but could be pursued through civil remedies.
Conclusion: Liabilities within the Section 10-A period were held not to be extinguished, but only not actionable under Section 9; the Operational Creditor retained liberty to pursue other remedies in accordance with law for such amounts.
Scope of adjudication under Section 9 - supply of chemicals and raw materials - default exceeds the statutory threshold outlined u/s 4 - no grounds of pre-existing dispute raised by the Corporate Debtor - Whether the Adjudicating Authority had erred in rejecting the Section 9 application after noticing that the Corporate Debtor had agreed to discharge their outstanding liabilities of Rs. 1.65 Cr. arising out of 7 invoices which fell outside the Section 10-A period. - HELD THAT:- Since the Corporate Debtor did not make any offer to clear the outstanding liability arising out of these 2 invoices, the Section 9 application could not have been dismissed by the Adjudicating Authority. It was also asserted that when the matter had been considered by this Tribunal on 09.07.2024, this Tribunal had not looked into the number of invoices which fell beyond the Section 10-A period but had only looked into whether the invoices relied upon by the Operational Creditor crossed the threshold of Rs. 1 Cr. for the purpose of maintaining the Section 9 application. Since no finding had been returned by this Tribunal as such on individual invoices, there is no restriction operating on the Operational Creditor to identify the final set of invoices beyond the 10-A period basis which the operational debt claim could be quantified.
Hence, the Operational Creditor was well within its rights to claim full dues and merely because full payment was sought by the Operational Creditor, it cannot be inferred that the Section 9 petition was being used as a recovery tool.
When the matter was remanded back to the Adjudicating Authority by this Tribunal on 09.07.2024, the Operational Creditor had not challenged the categorization of the invoices in Table-A relating to invoices barred by Section 10-A and Table-B relating to invoices unaffected by Section 10-A.
Thus, the Operational Creditor having expressly acknowledged at the time of filing Section 9 application that only 7 invoices amounting Rs. 1.65 Cr. fell outside the protective shield of Section 10-A, the Operational Creditor cannot be seen to claim subsequently that there were other invoices apart from the aforementioned 7 invoices which also fell outside the ambit of Section 10-A.
The present claim of adding 2 more invoices to the earlier list of 7 invoices as invoices falling outside the Section 10-A period amounts to shifting the goal-post which cannot be accepted. This amounts to be an attempt to improving their own case to inflate the quantum of default and arm-twist the Corporate Debtor into parting with more than what was envisaged in the original Section 9 application. We are of the firm view that the Operational Creditor cannot now canvass for reopening for segregation of invoices afresh from what was originally depicted by them while filing the Section 9 application.
Once the Operational Creditor had on their own volition admitted the operational debt to be Rs. 1.65 Cr. qua 7 invoices not hit by Section 10-A, it cannot alter, modify, expand or shrink the list of invoices originally set up by themselves in Table-A and Table- B which had been set out by them in their Section 9 application.
We have no reasons to disagree with the Adjudicating Authority that it would not be in consonance with the objective of IBC to drag the Corporate Debtor into insolvency. The objective of IBC is for the revival, resolution and rejuvenation of a Corporate Debtor from financial distress rather than leverage the provisions of IBC as a coercive recovery tool to abandon the Corporate Debtor to face the peril of corporate death and extinction. We would like to add that the protective shield of Section 10-A does not extinguish or wipe out the liability but only renders it unenforceable in Section 7 and 9 proceedings. The Operational Creditor can always enforce the liability arising out of invoices falling within the Section 10- A period by taking recourse to civil remedies and not by way of Section 9 proceedings.
We are in agreement with the impugned order rejecting the Section 9 application in view of the fact that the amount of Rs. 1.65 Cr. stands deposited by the Corporate Debtor by FDR with NCLT Registry for making the same available to the Appellant towards discharge of operational debt in terms of Table-B of the invoices alongwith liberty to the Appellant to avail other remedies in accordance with law. We do not find any good ground to interfere with the above order of the Adjudicating Authority. There is no merit in the Appeal.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a Section 9 application could be dismissed as barred by Section 10A when the operational creditor's Part-IV particulars included two invoices whose dates of default fell outside the Section 10A excluded period and, on those invoices alone, the claimed default exceeded the statutory threshold.
(ii) What consequential relief ought to follow where the adjudicating authority rejected the Section 9 application by considering only invoices falling within the Section 10A excluded period and omitted consideration of invoices falling outside that period.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Applicability of Section 10A to the invoices forming the basis of the Section 9 claim
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal proceeded on the basis that Section 10A bars filing of CIRP applications for defaults occurring within the excluded period (as referred to in the impugned order), and examined whether the defaults pleaded in the Section 9 application fell within or outside that excluded period. The Tribunal also took note that maintainability depended on whether the pleaded default crossed the monetary threshold under Section 4.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the Part-IV particulars in the Section 9 application and found that the operational creditor had raised a claim based on six invoices across three projects. Two invoices relating to one project were specifically shown with invoice dates of 29.03.2022 and 13.07.2022 and corresponding dates of default of 14.04.2022 and 29.07.2022. The Tribunal held that these two dates of default undisputedly fell outside the Section 10A excluded period. The adjudicating authority, however, treated the application as barred by Section 10A by recording and relying only upon invoices whose defaults fell within the excluded period, thereby omitting consideration of the two invoices that were outside Section 10A.
Conclusions: Since defaults arising from the two invoices fell beyond the Section 10A period, the Section 9 application could not have been dismissed on the ground of Section 10A. Further, the amount arising from those two invoices exceeded the threshold under Section 4; hence, dismissal without examining those invoices was held to be unsustainable.
Issue (ii): Appropriate appellate relief for omission to consider invoices outside Section 10A
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal exercised appellate jurisdiction to set aside an order found unsustainable for non-consideration of material pleaded defaults and remitted the matter for fresh consideration in accordance with law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found a clear error in the impugned order: the adjudicating authority decided maintainability solely on invoices within Section 10A and failed to take note of the two invoices outside Section 10A that were part of the pleaded claim. During oral submissions, the operational creditor confined its claim to only those two invoices. The Tribunal also explicitly refrained from deciding any contention on "pre-existing dispute" regarding the said project, leaving that question open for determination by the adjudicating authority on remand.
Conclusions: The impugned order was set aside; the Section 9 application was restored and remanded for reconsideration in accordance with law, with the caveat that the operational debt claim shall remain confined to the two specified invoices (dated 29.03.2022 and 13.07.2022). No opinion was expressed on the merits of alleged pre-existing disputes, and no costs were awarded.
Section 9 application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - Section 10A exclusion period - pre-existing dispute - threshold requirement under Section 4 of the IBC - remand for fresh consideration confined to specific invoices
Section 10A exclusion period - Section 9 application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - threshold requirement under Section 4 of the IBC - Whether the Adjudicating Authority was correct in dismissing the Section 9 application on the ground that the claimed defaults fell within the Section 10A excluded period. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined PartIV of the Section 9 application which listed six invoices, including two invoices relating to the Vanijya Bhawan Project dated 29.03.2022 and 13.07.2022 with dates of default 14.04.2022 and 29.07.2022 respectively. These two dates of default are undisputedly outside the Section 10A excluded period. The impugned order, however, recorded only three invoices dated 06.11.2020, 27.11.2020 and 03.03.2021 (which fall within Section 10A) and concluded that the application was barred by Section 10A. The Tribunal held that the Adjudicating Authority erred in failing to take note of the two Vanijya Bhawan invoices which give rise to defaults beyond the Section 10A timeframe. Since the amount arising from these two invoices exceeds the monetary threshold prescribed under Section 4, the Section 9 application could not have been dismissed solely on the basis of Section 10A without considering those invoices. The Tribunal further recorded the appellant's election to confine its claim to these two Vanijya Bhawan invoices. [Paras 9, 11]
Impugned dismissal on grounds of Section 10A is unsustainable; the Adjudicating Authority failed to notice two Vanijya Bhawan invoices which fall outside Section 10A and meet the Section 4 threshold.
Remand for fresh consideration confined to specific invoices - pre-existing dispute - The course to be followed after finding that certain invoices fall outside Section 10A. - HELD THAT: - Having found the impugned order defective for not considering the two Vanijya Bhawan invoices, the Tribunal set aside the impugned order and restored the Section 9 application. The matter was remanded to the Adjudicating Authority with an express caveat that the claim of operational debt shall be confined to the two Vanijya Bhawan invoices dated 29.03.2022 and 13.07.2022. The Tribunal did not express any opinion on the contentions raised by the parties regarding a preexisting dispute or on initiation of arbitration and left those contentions open for the Adjudicating Authority to consider afresh in accordance with law. [Paras 12]
Appeal allowed; impugned order set aside; CP No. 126 of 2023 restored and remanded to the Adjudicating Authority to consider the Section 9 application limited to the two Vanijya Bhawan invoices, with pre-existing dispute and arbitration contentions left open for fresh adjudication.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed: the impugned order dismissing the Section 9 application is set aside because the Adjudicating Authority failed to consider two Vanijya Bhawan invoices which fall outside the Section 10A excluded period and satisfy the Section 4 threshold; the Section 9 application is restored and remanded to the Adjudicating Authority for reconsideration confined to those two invoices, with no expression of opinion on the alleged preexisting dispute or arbitration.
Issues: (i) Whether dues payable under Section 9(2) of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 constitute secured debt by creating a first charge on the corporate debtor's assets; (ii) Whether the approved resolution plan suffered from any infirmity on account of non-recognition of such CST dues as secured debt.
Issue (i): Whether dues payable under Section 9(2) of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 constitute secured debt by creating a first charge on the corporate debtor's assets.
Analysis: Section 9(2) of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 was held to be a machinery provision dealing with assessment, collection, enforcement, and allied recovery procedures through the State sales tax framework. The provision imports procedural powers and applicable recovery mechanisms, but it does not contain any express language creating a statutory first charge comparable to Section 48 of the Gujarat Value Added Tax Act, 2003. The distinction between procedural recovery powers and a substantive charge on property was treated as decisive. The precedents dealing with GVAT dues were found inapplicable because they rested on the express first-charge provision in that statute.
Conclusion: The CST dues were not secured debt and did not enjoy first-charge status on the corporate debtor's assets.
Issue (ii): Whether the approved resolution plan suffered from any infirmity on account of non-recognition of such CST dues as secured debt.
Analysis: Once CST dues were held not to be secured debt, the challenge to the resolution plan on that footing could not succeed. The approval of the plan was not shown to violate Section 30(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. The Tribunal also noted that the argument based on earlier decisions concerning GVAT dues did not extend to CST dues in the absence of a corresponding charging provision.
Conclusion: No infirmity was found in the approval of the resolution plan.
Final Conclusion: The appeals failed because CST dues could not be elevated to secured status in the absence of a statutory first charge, and the resolution plan approval was left undisturbed.
Ratio Decidendi: A tax claim becomes a secured debt only when the governing statute creates a substantive security interest or first charge by operation of law; a provision conferring only procedural recovery powers does not, by itself, confer secured status.
Statutory first charge on property - security interest created by operation of law - deeming provision in Section 9(2) of the CST Act - Section 48 of the GVAT Act creates a first charge - machinery provision as distinct from substantive right - secured creditor under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code - principle in State Tax Officer v. Rainbow Papers Ltd.
Deeming provision in Section 9(2) of the CST Act - machinery provision as distinct from substantive right - security interest created by operation of law - statutory first charge on property - Whether Central Sales Tax (CST) dues are secured debt by virtue of Section 9(2) of the CST Act and thus attract a first charge on the assets of the corporate debtor. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined Section 9(2) of the CST Act and contrasted it with Section 48 of the GVAT Act. Section 9(2) empowers authorities to assess, re-assess, collect and enforce CST 'as if' it were a tax under the State general sales tax law and imports procedural provisions and powers (returns, recovery steps, appeals, penalties, etc.). The provision was held to be a machinery or procedural deeming provision and does not itself create a substantive right or a statutory first charge on the assets of the dealer. By contrast, Section 48 of the GVAT Act expressly creates a first charge on the property by operation of law; the Supreme Court in Rainbow Papers recognised that such a charge gives rise to a security interest capable of making the State a secured creditor under the IBC. The Tribunal therefore accepted that where a statutory provision like Section 48 exists, a security interest by operation of law may arise, but Section 9(2) of the CST Act does not contain or import an equivalent substantive provision creating a first charge. Earlier decisions relied upon by the appellant (including judgments addressing recovery machinery or scope of enforcement) did not decide the specific question whether Section 9(2) creates a charge on property; accordingly those authorities did not compel a contrary conclusion. Applying this legal distinction, the Adjudicating Authority correctly treated GVAT dues as secured (where Section 48 applied) and correctly held CST dues to be unsecured. [Paras 8, 10, 11, 22]
CST dues are not secured debt; Section 9(2) of the CST Act is a machinery provision and does not create a statutory first charge on the assets of the corporate debtor.
Principle in State Tax Officer v. Rainbow Papers Ltd. - secured creditor under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code - statutory first charge on property - Whether the Resolution Plan approved by the Adjudicating Authority in IA No.766 of 2021 and the Adjudicating Authority's partial allowance of IA No.447 of 2025 (recognising GVAT dues as secured and CST dues as unsecured) offended Section 30(2) of the IBC or otherwise required interference. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal accepted the settled proposition from Rainbow Papers that where a statutory provision (such as Section 48 of the GVAT Act) creates a charge by operation of law, the State may be a secured creditor under the IBC and a resolution plan must account for such secured claims. In the present case the Adjudicating Authority had accepted the GVAT claim as secured and rejected the CST claim as secured for the reasons discussed above. The appellant failed to demonstrate that the Resolution Plan violated Section 30(2) of the IBC or otherwise suffered material irregularity warranting interference. Consequently there was no ground to set aside the order approving the Resolution Plan or the Adjudicating Authority's orders in the interlocutory applications. [Paras 23, 24]
The impugned orders (approval of the Resolution Plan and partial allowance of IA No.447 of 2025) are upheld; no interference is warranted and both appeals are dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal held that Section 9(2) of the CST Act is a procedural/machinery provision and does not create a statutory first charge on the corporate debtor's assets; GVAT dues (under Section 48) may constitute a security interest by operation of law and were correctly treated as secured. The Adjudicating Authority's orders approving the Resolution Plan and partly allowing IA No.447 of 2025 were upheld and the appeals were dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the "trade advance" arrangement under the parties' agreement, including its conversion mechanism, constituted a financial debt, making the applicant a financial creditor for purposes of initiating proceedings under Section 7 of the Code.
(ii) Whether the Section 7 application was barred by limitation, specifically: (a) whether the email dated 27.12.2019 amounted to an acknowledgment extending limitation; and (b) whether the COVID-19 limitation exclusion directions of the Supreme Court applied so as to render the filing within time.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Nature of the trade advance-financial debt and status as financial creditor
Legal framework: The Court examined whether the transaction had the character of a financial debt, including the element of time value of money, based on the contractual terms placed on record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court relied on the agreement provisions governing adjustment of the trade advance through trade discounts against purchase targets, and, critically, the proviso stipulating that any unadjusted trade advance "shall be deemed to be a loan" carrying interest at 1% per month (12% per annum) from the date of release until actual repayment. The Court held that this contractual deeming clause and interest component embedded the time value of money into the obligation upon default, converting the arrangement into a debt with time value of money. It found no reason to disagree with the Adjudicating Authority's conclusion on this classification.
Conclusion: The Court affirmed that the applicant was correctly classified as a financial creditor and the liability as a financial debt in the given contractual framework.
Issue (ii): Limitation for the Section 7 application (acknowledgment and COVID-19 exclusion)
Legal framework: The Court evaluated limitation on the basis of the prescribed three-year period from the date of default as computed by the Adjudicating Authority, and applied the Supreme Court's directions excluding time for limitation during the COVID-19 period.
Interpretation and reasoning (acknowledgment): The applicant relied on an email dated 27.12.2019 as acknowledgment. The Court read the email and found that it did not contain a "clear cut acknowledgement of debt" and merely referred to poor business conditions and difficulties. Accordingly, the Court declined to treat the email as an acknowledgment extending limitation.
Interpretation and reasoning (COVID-19 exclusion): The Court held that the Adjudicating Authority erred by not applying the Supreme Court's exclusion of the period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 for limitation purposes. It computed the balance limitation remaining as on 15.03.2020 (one year, eight months, and six days) and added it from 01.03.2022, arriving at a revised limitation end-date of 06.11.2023. Since the Section 7 application was filed on 28.10.2022, it was within limitation.
Conclusion: The Court held the Section 7 application was within limitation after applying the COVID-19 exclusion directions, notwithstanding rejection of the acknowledgment argument. The dismissal on limitation was set aside, and the insolvency petition was restored for consideration by the Adjudicating Authority.
Additional conclusively decided point (raised by respondent): The Court rejected the objection that the matter was merely contractual/specific performance or that parallel civil proceedings/contract validity disputes barred insolvency initiation. It held that inability to meet debt obligations justified initiation of CIRP, and civil recovery proceedings could continue independently of CIRP.
Rejection of Section 7 petition filed by the Appellant solely on the ground of limitation - date of default is well within the limitation period of 3 years or not - appellant is a Financial Creditor as claimed by the Appellant or Operational Creditor as claimed by the Respondent.
Whether the Appellant is Financial or Operational Creditor? - HELD THAT:- The second proviso to Clause 7 clearly shows that the trade advance gets converted into a debt with time value of money in case of default by the respondent, so the underlying contract shows the time value of money ingrained in the debt in case of default by the Respondent - it is also noted that the Adjudicating Authority has discussed all the relevant provisions of the Code and related Judgments cited by either side and held that the aforesaid trade advance is a financial debt with time value of money - there are no reason to disagree with the findings of Adjudicating Authority.
Time limitation - HELD THAT:- Based on the directions in the Suo-Motu Judgement [2022 (1) TMI 385 - SC ORDER] the balance period of limitation from 15.03.2020 has to be added to 01.03.2022 to get the revised date of limitation. In the instant case the period is one year 8 months and 6 days. The revised end date of limitation would then be 06.11.2023. The section 7 application in this case was filed on 28.10.2022 which was well within limitation period.
The Adjudicating Authority has rightly classified the Appellant as Financial Creditor. However, the issue of limitation has been decided by the Adjudicating Authority without taking into account the directions of Hon’ble SC in suo motu proceeding (supra) due to which the Section 7 application was not found maintainable. Whereas the same is well within the limitation period after applying a grace period as per Hon’ble SC’s order.
The appeal is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1) Whether the evidence on record established a horizontal anti-competitive agreement amounting to bid rigging/collusive bidding in relation to the impugned tender, attracting Section 3(3)(d) read with Section 3(1) of the Act.
2) Whether, upon establishing bid rigging under Section 3(3)(d), the statutory presumption of appreciable adverse effect on competition (AAEC) applied, and whether it stood rebutted on the evidence relied upon by the appellant.
3) Whether the penalty imposed under Section 27 was legally sustainable and proportionate, including whether it was computed on an appropriate "relevant turnover" basis and at an appropriate level.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1) Proof of bid rigging/collusive bidding under Section 3(3)(d) read with Section 3(1)
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis that bid rigging/collusive bidding is covered under Section 3(3)(d) read with Section 3(1), and that an "agreement" (including inferred coordination) must be established on the evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court upheld the finding of collusion based on cumulative circumstantial and documentary evidence: (i) extreme proximity of bid prices among the three bidders (differences of only Rs. 11/-, Rs. 17/-, and Rs. 28/-), considered highly unlikely under normal competitive conditions without coordination, especially since no cost data or other evidence was produced to justify such minuscule variation; (ii) the filing of bids (including the commercial envelope) using the same IP address belonging to the appellant's cyber café, which the Court found improbable for independent competitors; (iii) the financial trail showing the appellant facilitated tender fee/EMD payments for the other two bidders and that refund of their EMD ultimately came back to the appellant, treated as strong evidence of coordinated participation and "cover bidding"; and (iv) call data records showing frequent and sustained communication between the bidders immediately before bid submission, treated as inconsistent with independent competitive conduct in the context of the other incriminating circumstances. The Court also agreed that direct evidence of cartel formation is rarely available and that collusion may legitimately be inferred from a coherent chain of circumstances.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the evidence established a "meeting of minds" and coordination among the bidders, constituting bid rigging/collusive bidding in contravention of Section 3(3)(d) read with Section 3(1), and found no illegality in the Commission's finding of contravention and cease-and-desist direction.
2) Presumption of AAEC under Section 3(3) and rebuttal
Legal framework: The Court accepted that once an "agreement" falling within Section 3(3) is established, a presumption of AAEC follows, and the onus shifts to the contravening parties to rebut the presumption.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the contention that AAEC was not shown, holding that the established bid rigging attracted the statutory presumption. It further held that the appellant's explanations-such as subsequent price reduction after bid opening, the claim of operating a tender-filling cyber café business, alleged familiarity among local bidders, and purported documentary material to show other clients-did not rebut the presumption, particularly because the asserted tender-filling justification was not substantiated by credible evidence and certain supporting documents were found infirm/liable to rejection. The later reduction of price was held not to negate prior collusive conduct established from the surrounding evidence.
Conclusions: The Court held that the presumption of AAEC validly arose and was not rebutted; the conduct was therefore treated as having AAEC for purposes of Section 3(3)(d).
3) Sustainability and proportionality of penalty under Section 27
Legal framework: The Court noted that the Commission applied the principle of proportionality and determined penalty with reference to "relevant turnover," treating revenue from the implicated product line (supply of sewing machines) during the relevant period as the appropriate base.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the challenge that the Commission used overall turnover, finding instead that the Commission relied on product-specific revenue for the relevant period and then imposed a penalty amount that was substantially below 10% of that revenue. Given the gravity of cartelisation/bid rigging found proved, the Court held the quantum to be commensurate and proportionate.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the penalty amount as lawful and proportionate and found no ground to interfere with the Commission's penalty determination.
Cartelisation and bid rigging/collusive bidding in Tender floated by the Pune Zilla Parishad for supply of Picofall-cum-Sewing Machine - contravention of the provisions of Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 - persons/officers in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the OPs concerned at the time of the said contravention - HELD THAT:- The allegations in the complaint/information were pertaining to the rigging in bids invited by Respondent No. 5 from eligible vendors for the purpose of procurement of Picofall-cum-sewing machine with ISI mark for distribution amongst certain classes of persons living in the rural area under some scheme of the State Govt.
It is found that in order to arrive at a finding that the Appellant and other two Respondents were indulged in bid rigging / collusive bidding in respect of the impugned tender floated by Respondent No. 5 the Commission considered price parallelism and examined the rates quoted by the bidders and in para 40 of the impugned order has provided the rates quoted by bidders including the Appellant and the difference in rates quoted by them - The main argument which has been taken by the Appellant is with regard to the lowering of bid price by him, from Rs. 12,621/- to Rs. 12,521/- and further reduction of same to Rs. 12,250/- and also that had there been a cartelization or bid rigging there was no occasion for him to reduce quoted price any further.
The NCLAT is agreed with the observations made by the Commission that the direct evidence of formation of any cartelization or bid rigging is seldom available. The conspiracies with regard to the such illegal acts are hatched in isolation and executed with precision and therefore it would only the circumstances by which the formation of cartelization or bid rigging may be inferred. The strong evidence of the close association of the Appellant with Respondent No. 3 and 4 and submission of the bids by using the same IP address of the Appellant and their close association on phone calls as well as through the CDR records and the fact that the EMD of the Respondent No.3 and 4 was managed by the appellant, clearly establishes that they were not fairly competitive with each other and rather they have formed a cartelization in order to bid rigging.
It is also found that once an agreement as defined in Section 2(b) of the Act is established and found to be established in respect of the specified clauses of Section 3(3) of the Act then a presumption may be safely drawn with regard to the fact that such an agreement was having an AAEC and the onus in such scenario is shifted to the other party to rebut this presumption, once the burden has been discharged by the reliable evidence collected by the DG.
Thus, keeping in view all the evidence and material which is available on record before the Commission, there are no illegality so far as the holding of the Appellant guilty in terms of Section 27(a) of the Act and the directions issued by the Commission therein, is concerned - having regard to the formation of illegal cartelization and gravity of the illegal act, commensurate and proportionate penalty has been awarded by the Commission - there are no good ground to interfere in the impugned judgment passed by the Commission and resultantly the appeal filed by the Appellant is hereby dismissed and the impugned order passed by the Commission is hereby affirmed.
Appeal dismissed.
Issues: Whether the applicant was entitled to bail under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 on the ground of prolonged incarceration and delay in trial, and whether the rigours of Section 45 stood satisfied in the facts of the case.
Analysis: The application was considered in the backdrop of long custody, a large number of witnesses, voluminous documentary material, and the fact that the trial in the predicate offence had not commenced. The delay in framing of charge was found not attributable to the applicant. The Court applied the settled principle that the statutory restrictions on bail under special enactments do not oust constitutional jurisdiction where continued detention would amount to denial of the right to speedy trial under Article 21. The Court further relied on the principle that the rigours of Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 must be harmonised with constitutional protections, and that prolonged incarceration without a realistic prospect of early conclusion of trial can justify bail.
Conclusion: The applicant was held entitled to bail, and the twin conditions under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 were treated as satisfied in his favour.
Final Conclusion: Bail was granted on the ground that continued custody, in the circumstances of the case, could not be justified when the trial was unlikely to conclude in the near future.
Ratio Decidendi: In a case under a special statute with stringent bail conditions, constitutional courts may grant bail where prolonged incarceration and no realistic prospect of timely trial would otherwise defeat the right to personal liberty and speedy trial.
Money Laundering - Bail Application - Applicant submitted that, his fundamental right of speedy trial and he is in custody since 30th August, 2023, i.e. more than two years, without there being any progress in the ECIR, as well as, in the trial of the predicate offence, which is pending adjudication before the CBI Court, Shimla. - Generation, acquisition and concealment of proceeds of crime and also intentionally and dishonestly verified the claims of the PMS Scheme - formation of shell entities - existence of twin conditions as per Section 45 of the PMLA or not
HELD THAT:- The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Manish Sisodia versus Directorate of Enforcement, [2023 (11) TMI 63 - SUPREME COURT] has elaborately discussed the provisions of PMLA, viz-a-viz, offences, which are punishable for death, imprisonment for life, ten years or more like offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, murder, cases of rape, dacoity, kidnapping for ransom, mass violence, etc.
Whether the twin conditions, as per Section 45 of the PMLA, are existing in favour of the applicant, on account of his long custody? - HELD THAT:- A three Judge Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in Union of India versus K.A. Najeeb [2021 (2) TMI 1212 - SUPREME COURT], has elaborately discussed the statutory restrictions, provided under Section 43-D(5) of the UAPA - In view of the ratio of law, laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in the aforesaid dictum, this Court is of the view that the twin conditions, as enumerated in Section 45 of the PMLA can be said to be existing in favour of the applicant, on account of his long incarceration, by holding that, at this stage, it can be said that he is not guilty of such offence and while, on bail, he will not commit any offence. Moreover, for the second condition, that he will not commit any offence, reasonable conditions can be imposed on him.
In this case, the earlier bail application of the applicant was dismissed by this Court, on the basis of the non-fulfilment of the conditions, as enumerated under Section 45 of the PMLA, however, considering the fact that there is no possibility regarding the commencement and conclusion of the trial, against the applicant, in near future and considering the fact that the trial, arising out of the RC, registered by CBI, has also not yet been commenced, this Court is of the view that the embargo, as created by Section 45 of the PMLA, does not come in the way of releasing the applicant, on bail, as the applicant is in custody for about two years and four months, since, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Athar Parwez versus Union of India, [2024 (12) TMI 1682 - SUPREME COURT], has held that the constitutional jurisdiction, viz-a-viz, the restrictions, under the statute need to be harmonized.
Moreover, at the time of deciding the bail application, the Court should not dwell deep into the merits and de-merits of a case, to ascertain the guilt/innocence of the accused (applicant), as, it is the sole prerogative of the learned trial Court to decide, on the basis of the evidence, so adduced before it, during the trial. The decision of this Court, affecting the merits of the case would cause prejudice to the case of the prosecution, as well as, to the case of the accused (applicant). However, merely because the applicant falls within the definition of ‘government servant’, responsible for the verification of the claims submitted for scholarship, is too short to decline the relief to him, as, the bail is being granted, mainly, on the ground of undue delay, in the conclusion of trial, as, his application for bail, on merit, has already been rejected by this Court. From the pace of the trial, it cannot be concluded, at this stage, that there are chances of commencement and conclusion of the trial, against the applicant, in near future - Moreover, the applicant is permanent resident of District Shimla and in view of the apprehensions expressed by the ED, for securing his presence, during the trial, stringent conditions can be imposed. Even otherwise, the applicant has not misused the liberty, which was granted to him, by way of interim bail, on various occasions.
This Court is of the view that the bail application is liable to be allowed, subject to fulfilment of conditions imposed - bail application allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the short delay in filing the appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) was liable to be condoned; (ii) Whether the service tax demand, interest and penalty were sustainable where the demand was founded only on Income Tax Department data and the assessee claimed exemption as a sub-contractor for works relating to Railways.
Issue (i): Whether the short delay in filing the appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) was liable to be condoned
Analysis: The record showed that a delay condonation application had in fact been filed along with the appeal and bore the same stamp date as the appeal memo. The finding that no such application was filed was therefore incorrect. The explanation for the short delay was found to be satisfactory.
Conclusion: The delay in filing the appeal was condoned in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the service tax demand, interest and penalty were sustainable where the demand was founded only on Income Tax Department data and the assessee claimed exemption as a sub-contractor for works relating to Railways
Analysis: A mere mismatch between Income Tax returns and service tax returns could not by itself establish provision of taxable services. The burden to prove the taxable event lay on the Revenue, and no evidence was shown to connect the receipts with taxable services. The assessee's activity as a sub-contractor in relation to works contract services for Railways also attracted the exemption under the relevant notification, since the principal service to Railways was exempt and the sub-contractor's service was covered by the exemption provision for subcontracted works contract services.
Conclusion: The demand of service tax, along with interest and penalty, was unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the assessee's appeal was allowed with consequential reliefs.
Ratio Decidendi: A service tax demand cannot rest merely on income-tax return figures unless the Revenue proves, with material evidence, that the receipts represent taxable services, and an exempt principal works contract service may carry exemption to the subcontracted service where the notification so provides.
Short payment of service tax - recovery with interest and penalty - Appellant filed any delay condonation application before the Commissioner (Appeals) or not - entire case of the revenue was based on information received from the Income Tax Department - revenue failed to adduce any evidence to show that the consideration received was consideration towards provision of taxable services.
Whether the Appellant filed any delay condonation application before the Commissioner (Appeals)? - HELD THAT:- The appeal paper book is a delay condonation application bearing stamp dated 03.03.2023, which is identical to the stamp affixed on the appeal memo in Form ST-4 filed before the Commissioner (Appeals). Thus, the application appearing at page 23 of the appeal paper book is an application seeking condonation of delay of two days in filing of appeal on 03.03.2023 with specific averment of order dated 09.12.2022 served on the assessee on 02.01.2023. The reason assigned for delay is that the counsel for the Appellant was busy in some other official work.
Demand of service tax based on information received from the Income Tax Department - HELD THAT:- The demand of Service Tax in the present case is based on the income tax return of the Appellant wherein the Appellant has disclosed the receipts of Rs.30,12,405/-. Merely there was a mismatch in figures disclosed in Income Tax return and Service Tax return, the same by itself cannot form the basis for initiating proceedings unless the revenue is in possession of some evidence showing that the amount disclosed in income tax return represents consideration against taxable services. This is more so when the burden to prove taxable event i.e. provision of taxable services is on the revenue and the Appellant is duly registered under the Act. However, it is found from the adjudication and the impugned order that there is neither any evidence nor any material on record to suggest that the amount disclosed in income tax return represents consideration against taxable services. In the adjudication order as well as the impugned order, the burden of proving taxable event has been reversed on the Appellant and the revenue has proceeded on an assumption that the Appellant has provided taxable services against consideration and has failed to substantiate the claim of exemption.
There are also force in the submission of the Counsel for the Appellant that the Appellant acted as a sub-contractor in providing works contract services of construction, renovation to the main contractor i.e. M/s EMC Limited, who in-turn provided such works contract services to Railways. I find that clause 14(a) of Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 exempts services by way of construction, erection, commissioning or installation of original works pertaining to Railways. Thus, once the main service provided by M/s EMC Limited to Railways is exempted under the said notification, then the services provided by the Appellant as a sub-contractor is also exempted under clause 29(h) of N/N.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 which exempts services provided by a sub-contractor by way of works contract to another contractor providing works contract services which are exempt. The demand of Service Tax is therefore not sustainable in law.
The impugned order is set-aside and the appeal filed by the Appellant is allowed.
Issues: Whether the amount of Rs. 2 crores paid under the memorandum of understanding was taxable as consideration for renting of immovable property, and whether the arrangement involved any service element.
Analysis: The amount was found to have been paid for upgradation and modernization of the sugar mill, including improvement of machinery, capacity and energy efficiency, and not as consideration for leasing the land. The separate lease deed provided only a nominal rent for the land, which supported the conclusion that the disputed amount was not linked to renting of immovable property. The project never took off, and the arrangement was treated as being in the nature of a joint venture, in which there was no component of service between the parties. The departmental reliance on the circular was held to be inapplicable on these facts.
Conclusion: The demand of service tax under the category of renting of immovable property was unsustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: A payment made for modernization and upgradation of industrial assets, where the substance of the arrangement is a joint venture and not a service transaction, cannot be taxed as consideration for renting of immovable property.
Levy of service tax on amount received in terms of MoU for Modernization and upgradation of Sugar Mills - Renting of Immovable Property service - reliability on Circular No.151/2/2012-ST - HELD THAT:- It is found that as per the MoU entered into between the appellant and M/s SIL, the amount of Rs. 2 crores was paid by the M/s SIL to the appellant, which is not a consideration for provision of any service much of leasing of 2 acre land but for upgradation of machinery and plant out of which M/s SIL was to drive compensatory benefits by way of sparing of more quantity of electric energy which was to be sold by M/s SIL and getting bagasse for use by M/s SIL.
It is also found that in the present case, no service can be said to have been provided as the project never took-off and the appellant has initiated arbitration proceedings against M/s SIL for violation of the MOU; at the most, the arrangement between the appellants and SIL was in the nature of a joint venture and therefore, there is no component of service between the two parties.
In the case of M/s Fazilka Corporative Sugar Mills Ltd. [2024 (3) TMI 1231 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH], the Department sought to demand service tax under the category of business support service which was also rejected by the Tribunal - It is also found that the arrangement between the appellant and M/s SIL was in the nature of a joint venture and therefore, there is no component of service between the parties.
The demand of service tax under the category of “Renting of Immovable Property” under Section 65(105)(zzzz) on the amount received in terms of MoU for modernization and upgradation of sugar mills is not sustainable in law - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether refund of unutilized CENVAT credit on closure of the factory is admissible after the amendment to Rule 5 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 with effect from 01.04.2012; (ii) Whether the rejection of refund travelled beyond the show cause notice.
Issue (i): Whether refund of unutilized CENVAT credit on closure of the factory is admissible after the amendment to Rule 5 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 with effect from 01.04.2012.
Analysis: Section 11B(2)(c) of the Central Excise Act, 1944 makes refund of credit subject to the rules and notifications issued under the Act. The amended Rule 5, applicable from 01.04.2012, confines refund of CENVAT credit to specified export situations and does not provide for refund merely because the factory has closed. The prior line of cases relied upon by the appellant pertained to the pre-amendment regime and was held inapplicable.
Conclusion: The refund on closure of the factory was not admissible and the finding is against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the rejection of refund travelled beyond the show cause notice.
Analysis: The show cause notice specifically proposed rejection of the claim under Rule 5 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 read with Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944. The impugned orders proceeded on the same statutory basis and did not introduce a new ground outside the notice.
Conclusion: The contention that the orders travelled beyond the show cause notice was rejected and the finding is against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal failed on merits because the post-amendment refund framework did not permit refund of accumulated credit on mere closure of the unit, and no procedural infirmity in the rejection order was established.
Ratio Decidendi: After 01.04.2012, refund of unutilized CENVAT credit is available only within the confines of Rule 5 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 and cannot be claimed solely on closure of the factory unless the rule itself provides for such refund.
Admissibility of refund of unutilized credit on account of closure of the manufacturing unit - HELD THAT:- Before 01.04.2012, Rule 5 gives scope for refund of CENVAT credit for the reason that the same cannot be utilized because of exports or for any other reason. It is found that after Rule 5 (ii), it is mentioned that where for any reason such adjustment is not possible, the manufacturer or the provider of output service shall be allowed refund of such amount subject to such safeguards, conditions and limitations, as may be specified, by the Central Government, by notification. However, after amendment w.e.f. 01.04.2012, Rule 5(1) provides that a manufacturer who clears a final product or an intermediate product for export without payment of duty under bond or letter of undertaking, or a service provider who provides an output service which is exported without payment of service tax, shall be allowed refund of CENVAT credit as determined by the following formula subject to procedure, safeguards, conditions and limitations, as may be specified by the Board by notification in the Official Gazette.
Thus, it is seen that the Rule w.e.f 01.04.2012 provides that refund of unutilized CENVAT credit only in the cases where the credit could not be utilized on account of exports and not for any other reason.
If the Rule 5 does not provide for refund of CENVAT credit on any other account other than export w.e.f. 01.04.2012 the appellants are not eligible for refund of CENVAT credit on closure of the factory - the Tribunal being the creature of Statute, cannot go beyond the four corners of law and interpret the statutory position for a situation which is not provided for in the said Statute. Therefore, the appeal is not maintainable on that count.
Another submission of the appellant is that the OIO dated 14.04.2015 and the OIA dated 02.07.2019 have gone beyond the grounds of rejection stated in the SCN dated 22.01.2015 - It is found that the impugned SCN has clearly proposed rejection of refund claim under the provisions of Rule 5 of CCR,2004 read with Section 11B of the CEA,1944 and therefore, there is no merit in the submissions of the appellant.
Appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether interest was payable on the refunded amount under section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 when the refund sanctioned under section 11B was granted within three months from the date of receipt of the refund application.
2. Whether a claim for interest on refunded pre-deposit under section 35FF of the Central Excise Act, 1944 could be examined in an appeal arising from a refund application made only under section 11B, where the application did not seek refund/interest of pre-deposit and the dispute before the authorities related to section 11BB interest on the section 11B refund.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Interest on section 11B refund under section 11BB
Legal framework: The Court considered section 11B (refund application for duty and interest paid) and section 11BB (interest on delayed refunds), which makes interest payable only if the refund ordered under section 11B is not refunded within three months from the date of receipt of the section 11B(1) application.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the refund as one pursued and processed strictly under section 11B, as the refund application itself expressly stated it was filed under section 11B pursuant to the Tribunal's earlier directions. On the statutory scheme, section 11BB interest is attracted only upon delay beyond the three-month period computed from the date of receipt of the refund application. Since the refund application was filed on 26.09.2019 and the refund was sanctioned on 18.10.2019, the refund was granted within three months. Consequently, the statutory condition for section 11BB interest was not met. The Court also found no error in the reasoning of the authorities who denied interest on this basis.
Conclusions: Interest under section 11BB was held not payable because the refund was sanctioned within three months of the section 11B application; the rejection of the interest claim by the authorities was upheld.
Issue 2: Entertaining section 35FF interest claim on pre-deposit within section 11B refund appeal
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the appeal before it arose from a refund application under section 11B for a specified refunded amount and that the application did not refer to refund of pre-deposit or interest on pre-deposit under section 35FF. It further recorded that the pre-deposit itself had already been refunded and only interest was said to remain unpaid. The Court held that if interest on pre-deposit was not paid, the appellant was required to pursue separate appropriate proceedings, because the claim could not be examined within the present proceedings emanating solely from the section 11B refund application and the section 11BB interest dispute.
Conclusions: The Court held that the section 35FF pre-deposit interest contention was not examinable in the present appeal and must be pursued separately, as it did not arise from the section 11B refund application under consideration.
Interest on amount sanctioned as refund to the appellant from the date of deposit of the amount by the appellant to the date the amount was refunded to the appellant - HELD THAT:- From the submissions advanced by the learned senior counsel for the appellant, it transpires that this pre-deposit amount was paid to the appellant. The only contention is that interest was not paid. If interest was not paid it was for the appellant to have pursued separate appropriate proceedings and this claim for interest cannot be examined in these proceedings which emanate from the application filed by the appellant under section 11B of the Central Excise Act. This application does not refer to refund of the amount of pre-deposit or payment of interest on it under section 35FF of the Central Excise Act. This issue, therefore, cannot be examined in this appeal.
There is, therefore, no merit in this appeal - It is, accordingly, dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the appellant is presently entitled to interest on the refund amount that was deposited in a nationalized bank pursuant to court directions, when the substantive entitlement to receive the principal refund amount (as against credit to the Consumer Welfare Fund on the ground of unjust enrichment) has not attained finality.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Entitlement to interest on the bank-deposited refund amount pending final determination of refund entitlement
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal treated the grant of interest as consequential and dependent on the determination of who is legally entitled to the principal amount-either the claimant as refund or the Consumer Welfare Fund due to unjust enrichment. The Tribunal relied on the existence and effect of operative adjudicatory orders regarding unjust enrichment and refund entitlement, rather than independently adjudicating interest in isolation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the principal question-whether the amount earlier sanctioned but kept aside is payable to the appellant or must be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund-had not attained finality because the appellant's challenge to the later decision was earlier disposed of with liberty to revive after the final verdict of the High Court. The Tribunal further observed that, at present, there exists an order of the Commissioner holding against the appellant on unjust enrichment and directing credit of the amount to the Consumer Welfare Fund. On this footing, the Tribunal held that interest cannot be granted to the appellant unless and until that adverse determination is set aside and it is held that the refund amount is payable to the appellant. Since interest is contingent on a final finding that the appellant is entitled to the principal refund, deciding interest now would be premature.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the appeal seeking interest need not be kept pending. It disposed of the appeal, holding that the appellant can receive interest only if it is ultimately held that the refund amount is payable to the appellant, and that the appellant must first take steps to obtain a decision on whether the principal amount is refundable to it or is to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund.
Denial of interest accruing on the amount of refund sanctioned that was deposited in the bank - principles of unjust enrichment - whether the amount of refund that was sanctioned has to be paid to the appellant or deposited in the Consumer Welfare Fund had earlier been decided by the Commissioner holding that it would have to be deposited in the Consumer Welfare Fund? - HELD THAT:- The present appeal has been filed against that part of the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) refusing to grant interest to the appellant on the amount of Rs.9,69,12,799/- deposited in the bank pursuant to the order by the Rajasthan High Court. Grant of interest to the appellant would depend on whether it is the appellant which has to receive the refund amount or the amount has to be deposited in the Consumer Welfare Fund. At the moment there is an order of the Commissioner against the appellant and unless that order is set aside and an order is passed that the amount has to be paid to the appellant, interest cannot be paid to the appellant.
It is therefore not necessary to keep this appeal pending any longer. It is for the appellant to take appropriate steps for getting a decision on the issue as to whether the principle amount of Rs.9,69,12,799/- has to be refunded to the appellant or it has to be deposited in the Consumer Welfare Fund. The appellant can get interest only if it is held that the refund amount has to be paid to the appellant.
Appeal disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether Cenvat credit of service tax was admissible under Rule 2(l) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 on technical inspection services availed for HDPE pipes prior to their supply for a government-funded project.
(ii) Whether Cenvat credit of service tax was admissible under Rule 2(l) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 on outward courier services used in connection with the appellant's manufacturing business and clearance of final products.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Cenvat credit eligibility on technical inspection services
Legal framework: The Court examined the definition of "input service" under Rule 2(l) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004. It noted that the definition uses both "means" and "includes", treating it as an exhaustive definition that nevertheless expressly expands coverage through the inclusive limb to cover services used directly or indirectly in manufacture and clearance, and further to include "activities relating to business".
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it admitted that the HDPE pipes were manufactured for a government water supply distribution project funded under an external loan arrangement and implemented through the State's urban development department. This factual context disproved the Department's objection that technical inspection was not required. The Court further held that, even independent of whether the inspection was "necessary" in the abstract, once such services were availed before clearance to a government agency, and the Department produced no evidence of any alternative purpose, the services bore a clear nexus to the appellant's business and manufacturing activity.
Conclusion: Technical inspection services availed for the manufactured HDPE pipes prior to supply were held to be services used "in relation to" manufacture/business, qualifying as eligible input services. Denial of credit was therefore held unsustainable.
Issue (ii): Cenvat credit eligibility on outward courier services
Legal framework: Applying the same Rule 2(l) framework, the Court treated services connected with manufacture and clearance, and more broadly "activities relating to business", as capable of qualifying for credit where the nexus is established.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that outward courier services, in the facts considered, were also availed in relation to the manufacturing process/business of the appellant. It treated such courier services as having sufficient business nexus within the meaning of Rule 2(l), and found no basis to sustain the denial of credit once the services were shown to be connected with the appellant's business and clearance-related activities.
Conclusion: Outward courier services were held to be eligible input services, and the appellant was entitled to Cenvat credit of the service tax paid on such services.
Final decision on the disputed demand: Since both disputed services were held eligible input services under Rule 2(l), the confirmation of reversal/demand of Cenvat credit (with interest) was found erroneous and was set aside, and the appeal was allowed to that extent.
Eligibility of the appellant to avail Cenvat credit of service tax paid - technical inspection services - outward courier services - HELD THAT:- Perusal of Rule 2(l) of Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 shows that the legislature has used both the words in the said definition that is ‘means’ and ‘includes’. Therefore the definition is exhaustive. Any services rendered directly or indirectly in the manufacture of final product and clearance thereof, the inclusive definition sets out various services and further enlarge the scope by showing that all activities relating to business constitute the input services.
No doubt the product in question is HDPE pipes which is very much different from a pharmaceutical product as was in consideration in the case of Cadila Healthcare Ltd. [2013 (1) TMI 304 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT]. However, it is an admitted fact that the appellant had manufactured those pipes for a government project of water supply distribution system of Roorkee awarded to M/s. NCC Ltd. Admittedly the project was funded by Asian Development Bank under a loan agreement between Government of India and the said bank. The scheme was to be implemented by Urban Development Department of Uttarakhand. These admissions falsify the plea of department that the services of technical inspection were not required by the appellant.
In the light of discussion about meaning of input services under rule 2(l) of Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004, the said service is also held to have been availed in relation to the manufacturing process/business of the appellant. Hence it is held that these were also eligible input services qua which the appellant was entitled to avail the Cenvat credit - it is held that Commissioner (Appeals) though had dropped the major demand of excise duty as well as that of service tax but has committed an error while confirming the demand/reversal of Cenvat credit availed by the appellant. With these observations, the order under challenge confirming the reversal of Cenvat credit amounting to Rs.93,662/-is hereby set aside.
Appeal allowed.
TaxTMI