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Issues: Whether the orders cancelling registration and dismissing the statutory appeal were liable to be quashed and the petitioner granted a fresh opportunity of hearing in view of the show cause notice and denial of effective opportunity.
Analysis: The show cause notice did not clearly indicate the authority before whom the petitioner was required to appear, and the petitioner was consequently unable to participate before cancellation of registration. The appeal was thereafter rejected as time-barred. In these circumstances, the absence of a clear notice and the resulting denial of a meaningful opportunity to be heard required corrective intervention to secure fair procedure.
Conclusion: The impugned cancellation order and the appellate order were set aside, and the petitioner was to be afforded a fresh notice, personal hearing, and a fresh decision by the competent authority.
Cancellation of registration of petitioner - no physical/ oral hearing in the matter was afforded to Petitioner - adverse material has not been confronted to Petitioner - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Upon perusal of the SCN, it appears that it is not clear before whom the petitioner was required to appear. Accordingly, the petitioner did not appear and registration was cancelled. Thereafter, the petitioner filed an appeal under Section 107 of the GST Act, which was also dismissed on the ground of delay in submission of the appeal.
The petitioner may be granted another opportunity to present his case before the relevant officer - The department is directed to issue a fresh show cause notice upon the petitioner by email or by registered post. Once the same is done, the petitioner should appear and after granting a personal hearing to the petitioner, the necessary orders should be passed within a period of eight weeks from date.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the State Public Information Officer erred in issuing notice to third parties under Section 11 of the Right to Information Act when the information sought related to GST returns of firms.
2. Whether Section 158 of the Goods and Services Tax Act prohibits disclosure of particulars contained in GST returns in response to an RTI request and, if so, whether the GST provision overrides the RTI Act.
3. Whether the proviso to Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act (larger public interest) justified disclosure of the GST returns despite the exemptions and third-party objections.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Requirement to invoke Section 11 RTI before disclosure of third-party GST information
Legal framework: Section 2(n) defines "third party"; Section 11 mandates written notice to a third party where disclosure relates to or has been supplied by that third party and has been treated as confidential; Section 8 provides exemptions including clause (j) on personal information.
Precedent treatment: The Constitution Bench decision in Central Public Information Officer v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (Supreme Court) was applied and followed for the proposition that Section 11's procedure is mandatory where information sought is third-party personal/confidential information; Section 8 and Section 11 must be read together.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that GST returns held by the tax authority constitute information relating to third parties. Where such information is prima facie treated as confidential by the third party and falls within the scope of Section 8(1)(j) or other clause(s), the statutory procedure under Section 11 is mandatory and the information officer must give the third party opportunity to make submissions before deciding disclosure.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 11 procedure is mandatory for third-party information prima facie treated as confidential; the officer must consider third-party objections in deciding disclosure. (The Court expressly follows the constitutional bench ratio.)
Conclusions: The objection that no notice should have been issued is rejected; issuance of notice under Section 11 was legally required and properly made in the circumstances.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Effect of Section 158 GST Act on disclosure under the RTI Act
Legal framework: Section 158(1) of the GST Act prohibits disclosure of particulars contained in statements, returns, accounts or documents furnished under that Act, subject to specified exceptions in Section 158(3); RTI Act's Section 8 provides general exemptions and allows disclosure where larger public interest outweighs harm.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated the GST provision as a later and special enactment vis-à-vis the RTI Act (a general enactment) and applied the principle that a special, later statute will override a general earlier statute insofar as there is inconsistency.
Interpretation and reasoning: Section 158(1) expressly bars disclosure of particulars in GST returns except as permitted by subsection (3). Given the express prohibition, the GST Act's embargo on disclosure operates as a statutory bar to furnishing returns under RTI. The Court reasoned that where a specific statutory provision restricts disclosure, that regime takes precedence over the general disclosure obligations under the RTI Act; thus, information prohibited by Section 158(1) cannot be supplied under RTI except under the enumerated exceptions in Section 158(3).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 158(1) being specific and later in time overrides the RTI Act's general disclosure regime; GST returns protected by Section 158(1) cannot be disclosed under RTI except where Section 158(3) permits.
Conclusions: Section 158(1) constitutes an independent statutory impediment to disclosure of GST returns in response to an RTI request; the tax authority was correct in treating Section 158 as a bar to disclosure outside the exceptions listed in subsection (3).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Whether larger public interest warranted disclosure despite exemptions
Legal framework: Proviso to Section 8(1)(j) permits disclosure of personal information if the Central/State Public Information Officer is satisfied that larger public interest justifies disclosure; Section 11 proviso similarly permits disclosure where public interest outweighs harm to third party.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied the constitutional bench guidance that exemptions are qualified and may be overridden by demonstrable larger public interest; however, a claimant must establish prima facie material to demonstrate that larger public interest exists.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner alleged large-scale fraud and sought GST returns to substantiate that allegation. The Court examined the record and found the allegations bald and unsupported by prima facie evidence. The firms' responses referred to harassment, and the authorities concluded there was no demonstrable larger public interest warranting disclosure. Further, where Section 158 of GST Act separately bars disclosure, the scope for overriding exemptions under RTI is constrained by the GST statutory bar unless an exception in Section 158(3) applies.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Mere allegation of wrongdoing, absent prima facie material showing larger public interest, is insufficient to overcome statutory protections (Section 8/11 of RTI and Section 158 GST); public-interest override requires substantive justification and cannot be inferred from bald assertions.
Conclusions: No larger public interest was demonstrated to justify disclosure of the GST returns; the proviso to Section 8(1)(j) was not attracted and the RTI-based request for GST returns was properly refused on that ground (and in light of Section 158). The petition for disclosure was therefore dismissed.
Cross-references and final synthesis
Section 11's mandatory notice procedure applies to third-party GST information (Issue 1) and must be observed before any disclosure decision; independently, Section 158 of the GST Act (Issue 2) places an express statutory prohibition on disclosure of GST particulars except as listed in subsection (3), and being a later, special enactment it constrains disclosure under the RTI Act; finally, even where RTI exemptions are qualified by a larger public interest test (Issue 3), the petitioner failed to adduce prima facie material to satisfy that test, and therefore disclosure was not justified.
Validity/correctness in issuing notice to the industries under Section 11 of the RTI Act - Whether Section 158 of the GST Act would also be an impediment in providing information under the RTI Act?
Validity/correctness in issuing notice to the industries under Section 11 of the RTI Act - HELD THAT:- The said issue is answered by the Constitution Bench in the case of Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India V/s. Subhash Chandra Agarwal [2019 (11) TMI 895 - SUPREME COURT]. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that in any case where the information sought is personal information within the meaning of Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act the procedure under Section 11 must be complied with before final order is passed and the third party concerned are required to be issued notice and heard as they are not parties before it. Third party information relates to or has been supplied by any other person (including a public authority) other than the information applicant and has to be treated as confidential by such third party. Where disclosure of third party information is sought, such information must be prima facie treated as confidential by the third party and the procedure under Section 11 of the RTI Act must be mandatorily followed. Section 8 and 11 must be read together.
This Court has dealt with the issue of applicability of Section 8 and 11 of the RTI Act by analyzing the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court of India V/s. Subhash Chandra Agarwal and the Court has explained that the RTI Act operationalize the disclosure of information held by public authorities to reduce the asymmetry of information between individual citizens and the State apparatus. However, the Constitution Bench has observed that enacting the RTI Act the Parliament was cognizant that an unrestricted disclosure of information could be fiscally inefficient, result and would do real-world harms and infringe the rights of others. Thus, the Constitution Bench while quoting the provisions of Section 8 of the RTI Act explained the non-obstante phrase carved exceptions under Section 8 to the general obligation to disclose information under the RTI Act. Therefore, where the conditions set out in any of the sub-clauses of Clause (1) of Section 8 are satisfied, Information Officers are under no obligation to provide information of any applicant - In the instant case the information which is sought relates to the third party and the GST Authorities holds the information i.e. GST returns of the third party. When such an information is asked the Authorities constituted has to issue under Section 11 to the effected person as this provision is held to be mandatory. As such, the first objection of the Petitioner that no notice ought to have been given to the Industries whose GST returns were asked by applicant is rejected.
Whether Section 158 of the GST Act would also be an impediment in providing information under the RTI Act? - HELD THAT:- Section 158 (1) of the GST Act provides that the information of the GST cannot be provided to third parties - In the instant case, the Petitioner has applied for the information contending that that there is a large scale fraud and that he needs the information in order to prosecute the industries. The allegation is bald in nature. There is no prima facie evidence to show that the industries have indulged in large scale fraud. Although the response given by the industries is that the industries are closed on account of the harassment by the Petitioner. Based on the reply the Authorities have not provided information of GST returns of the Industries as there is no larger public interest involved in the matter. Thus no case is made out under proviso to Section 8 (1) (j) to grant information.
Writ Petition is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether, where misclassification of certain "combo packs" (electronic chargers with rechargeable batteries) is alleged for specified invoices, the tax demand can lawfully be computed on the taxpayer's total turnover instead of being limited to the turnover attributable to the allegedly misclassified items (B2B and B2C sales).
2. Whether a writ under Articles 226/227 is the appropriate remedy to examine the factual calculation of tax/penalty, or whether the taxpayer should be relegated to the appellate remedy, including issues of pre-deposit and limitation.
3. Whether the imposition of multiple and identical penalties (under Section 74(1), Sections 122(1)(x), 122(1)(xvi), 122(1)(xvii), and Section 125 of the CGST/DGST Acts) without distinct reasoning as to the basis and quantum for each is sustainable in view of the manner in which the demand was computed.
4. Whether the directions previously issued by the Court for a personal hearing and consideration of the claim that the item constituted only a small percentage of turnover were complied with and adequately reflected in the adjudicating authority's reasoned order.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Computation of Demand on Total Turnover vs. Turnover Attributable to Allegedly Misclassified Items
Legal framework: Tax liability under the CGST/DGST scheme is determined by classification of goods/services and the applicable rate for those items; assessment/demand should reflect the taxable value of affected supplies. Section 50 (interest) and provisions for determination of tax arrears apply once tax short-payment is established.
Precedent Treatment: The impugned order does not rely upon or cite binding precedent; the Court's decision proceeds on statutory interpretation and factual analysis of the record rather than on authority-following or distinguishing.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court finds a "fundamental flaw" in the Adjudicating Authority's approach of levying GST on the total turnover despite recorded and available breakup of actual combo-pack sales (B2B and B2C). The Adjudicating Authority recorded turnover figures for each financial year and separately identified turnover of combo sales, yet proceeded to compute tax demand on total turnover without articulating reasons why the misclassification of only certain invoices justifies taxation of all sales. The Court observes that applying a lower/higher rate inconsistently to particular invoices suggests misclassification for those transactions only; therefore computation ought to be confined to the turnover attributable to those transactions unless the authority explains and proves a basis for broader application.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - It is impermissible for the tax demand to be computed on total turnover where the asserted misclassification and short payment relate to specific itemized sales unless the authority provides reasoned findings justifying extension to total turnover.
Conclusions: The Adjudicating Authority's computation on total turnover lacks reasoning and is unsustainable on the face of the record; factual analysis necessary to determine correct quantum is not appropriate in a writ, and thus corrective relief is procedural (see Issue 2).
Issue 2 - Appropriateness of Writ Remedy and Relegation to Appellate Remedy; Pre-deposit Direction
Legal framework: The statutory scheme contemplates an appellate remedy against adjudication orders; appellate forums consider pre-deposit requirements and limitation. High Court's writ jurisdiction under Articles 226/227 is discretionary and not intended for detailed factual reappraisal where efficacious statutory remedies exist.
Precedent Treatment: The Court characterizes the matter as primarily factual and within the scope of an appeal, rather than deciding on precedent; no precedent is applied to alter this approach.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the factual and detailed computation issues (turnover breakups, invoices, classification on a transaction-by-transaction basis), the Court declines to undertake that factual exercise in a writ petition. Instead, the Court directs relegation to the appellate forum, while safeguarding the petitioner's right to appeal by specifying that the pre-deposit shall be calculated and made only in respect of amounts falling under B2B and B2C sales for each financial year. The Court grants a time-limited opportunity to file the appeal and orders that the appeal not be treated as barred by limitation if filed within the period.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where adjudication involves detailed factual computation of taxable turnover for specific transactions, the appropriate course in a writ is to remit the matter to the appellate remedy rather than re-evaluate facts; the High Court can regulate the pre-deposit requirement to reflect the amounts genuinely in dispute (here, B2B/B2C turnover).
Conclusions: The petitioner must file appeal within the stipulated time with pre-deposit confined to the turnover attributable to the alleged misclassified combo sales; the appellate authority must afford personal hearing and pass a reasoned order. The writ is disposed of accordingly.
Issue 3 - Validity of Multiple Identical Penalties Without Distinct Reasoning
Legal framework: Penalties under Sections 74, 122 and 125 of the CGST/DGST Acts attach on different statutory bases (e.g., fraud/suppression, furnishing false information, failure to keep proper books), and imposition requires satisfaction of statutory conditions and reasoned findings proportional to misconduct and quantification principles.
Precedent Treatment: The impugned order levies identical penalty amounts under multiple provisions but does not provide compartmentalized or distinct reasoning to show how each penal provision's distinct mens rea or statutory condition is satisfied beyond the core finding of misclassification; the Court does not articulate reliance on authorities but flags lack of reasoned differentiation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes that the massive quantum of identical penalties (equal to the tax demand) and the lack of articulated reasons as to why each penal provision warrants the same quantum are problematic, particularly when the foundational tax computation is itself flawed (see Issue 1). Because the order's penalty findings flow from the primary demand assessment, the inadequacy in assessing tax undermines the basis for multiple punitive impositions without separate, reasoned findings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter/Practical direction - While the Court does not hold each penalty invalid on merits, it indicates that penalty imposition cannot stand absent a reasoned nexus between the specific statutory contraventions and the quantum imposed; appellate reconsideration is required.
Conclusions: Penalties require re-examination on appeal after proper determination of taxable turnover for the specific transactions; the appellate authority must articulate separate reasoned findings for each penal provision if sustaining penalties.
Issue 4 - Compliance with Earlier Court Direction for Personal Hearing and Consideration of Turnover Percentage
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice require personal hearing and consideration of material placed before the authority. Prior court directions to afford personal hearing and consider specific contentions must be complied with and reflected in the reasoned order.
Precedent Treatment: The record shows the Court had earlier directed a personal hearing and that the petitioner's contention that the product constituted only about 3% of turnover "shall be taken into consideration". The impugned order, while noting turnovers and making findings of deliberate misclassification, does not provide clear reasoning reconciling the prior direction with the computation on total turnover.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observes that the earlier direction required a personal hearing and verification of the contention as to the small percentage of turnover; the adjudicating order does not satisfactorily explain why that factor did not prevent computation on total turnover. Because the order lacks a coherent explanation of compliance with the earlier directions, appellate re-examination is warranted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Failure to demonstrate compliance with an earlier judicial direction and to record reasoned findings on that point undermines the order and supports appellate reconsideration.
Conclusions: The appellate authority must conduct/furnish a personal hearing and pass a reasoned order addressing the prior directions and the turnover-percentage contention before sustaining demand or penalties.
Relegation to appellate remedy - Pre-deposit to be calculated on the basis of B2B and B2C turnover - Demand cannot be levied on total turnover without reasoning - Personal hearing and reasoned order by appellate authority - Penalty under Section 74 and Section 122 for deliberate misclassification and tax evasion
Relegation to appellate remedy - Pre-deposit to be calculated on the basis of B2B and B2C turnover - Petitioner to be relegated to appellate remedy with pre-deposit calculated on B2B and B2C sales of each financial year - HELD THAT: - The Court found that the impugned order levied tax on the petitioner's total turnover whereas the adjudicating authority had available the actual sales of combo packs for B2B and B2C. The Court noted the absence of reasoning as to why GST was sought to be levied on total turnover and observed that factual analysis on merits was not appropriate in a writ petition. In these circumstances the Court directed that the petitioner be relegated to the appellate remedy and that the requisite pre-deposit for filing the appeal shall be calculated and made in respect of the amounts falling under B2B and B2C for each financial year. The petitioner was granted time to file the appeal and deposit accordingly. [Paras 27, 28, 30, 31]
Petitioner relegated to appeal; pre-deposit to be calculated and paid on B2B and B2C turnover for each financial year and time granted to file appeal.
Demand cannot be levied on total turnover without reasoning - Impugned demand based on total turnover held to suffer from lack of reasoning and therefore unsuitable for adjudication in the writ - HELD THAT: - The Court identified a fundamental flaw in the adjudicating authority's approach: although turnover particulars for combo sales (B2B and B2C) were available, the demand and recovery of short-paid GST were computed on the petitioner's total turnover without explaining the basis for doing so. Given this lack of reasoning and the necessity of factual analysis, the Court refrained from deciding merits in the writ petition and instead directed appellate remedy. [Paras 27, 28, 29]
Impugned levy on total turnover found to lack cogent reasoning; merits to be considered in appeal.
Personal hearing and reasoned order by appellate authority - Commissioner (Appeals) to afford personal hearing and pass a reasoned order on the appeal filed within the stipulated time - HELD THAT: - The Court directed that if the appeal is filed within the granted period and the pre-deposit made as directed, the Commissioner (Appeals) shall afford the petitioner a personal hearing and decide the appeal on merits by passing a reasoned order in accordance with law. The Court clarified that the present observations are limited to the unique facts of the case and shall not bind the appellate adjudication. [Paras 31, 32, 33, 34]
Commissioner (Appeals) to hear the appeal personally and pass a reasoned order; filing within time will not be treated as barred by limitation.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition disposed by relegating the petitioner to the appellate remedy; petitioner given time to file appeal with pre-deposit calculated on B2B and B2C turnover for each financial year and directed that the Commissioner (Appeals) hear the matter personally and pass a reasoned order.
Issues: Whether a reply to a show cause notice under Section 73(1) of the State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, received after the time given in the notice but before passing of the order under Section 73(9), must be considered by the proper officer, and whether omission to do so vitiates the order.
Analysis: The time for filing reply to a notice under Section 73(1) is not statutorily fixed and may be regulated by the proper officer. However, where the reply is actually received before the final order under Section 73(9) is passed, the proper officer cannot ignore it merely because it was filed beyond the period stated in the notice. In such a situation, the officer is required to consider the response and pass a reasoned order. Non-consideration of the reply in these circumstances is inconsistent with principles of natural justice and the requirement of a speaking order. The notice and demand mechanism under Rule 142(1) of the J & K GST Rules, 2017 also supports consideration of the assessees response before final adjudication.
Conclusion: The reply filed before the order under Section 73(9) was bound to be considered, and the impugned order passed without considering it was unsustainable.
Violation of principles of natural justice - the reply submitted by the petitioner to the show cause notice dated 25.11.2024 has not been considered - tax demand for the financial year 2020-2021 - whether non-consideration of such reply/representation filed by the assessee in response to the show cause notice would vitiate the order passed under Section 73(9) of the SGST Act, 2017 being in violation of principles of natural justice? - HELD THAT:- The time period for submitting reply to the show cause notice issued under Section 73(1) has not been statutorily prescribed. However, nothing stops or prevents the proper officer to solicit reply to the show cause notice within a reasonable period fixed by it.
It is true that if the period prescribed for giving reply to the show cause notice or filing reply/representation has expired, it is open to the proper officer to presume that assessee has nothing to say in the matter and pass an order under Section 73(9) of the CGST Act, 2017, however, in a case where before the proper authority could pass a final order under Section 73(9), reply/representation submitted by the assessee to show cause notice is received, it becomes incumbent upon the proper officer to consider the reply/representation and then pass a speaking order in terms of Section 73(9) of the Act after dealing with such response/representation. It is so because the time to file response to the show cause notice is not statutorily fixed and is left to the discretion of the proper officer.
If response to the show cause notice is received by the proper officer after the period stipulated in the show cause notice, but before the final order is passed, it is incumbent upon the proper officer as also in the interest of justice, equity and fairplay to consider such response/representation before passing a final order under Section 73(9) of the CGST Act, 2017. It is made clear that nothing stops or prevents the proper officer to pass an appropriate order under Section 73(9) immediately on the expiry of period stipulated in the show cause notice for filing response/representation on the assumption that assessee has nothing to say in defence - In the instant case, there is no dispute with regard to the fact that reply to the show cause notice issued by the proper officer under Section 73(1) was received before the final order under Section 73(9) dated 26.02.2025 was passed by the proper officer.
In these circumstances, the proper officer should not have declined to consider the reply and pass the order under Section 73(9) of CGST Act, 2017 as if there was no reply/explanation or representation submitted by the assessee.
The impugned order dated 26.02.2025 passed by STO Cirrcle Kishtwar under Section 73(9) of the CGST Act, 2017 is set aside - petition allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether delay beyond the statutory limit under the goods and services tax appeal provision could be condoned; (ii) whether cancellation of GST registration should be set aside and registration revived subject to payment of dues.
Issue (i): Whether delay beyond the statutory limit under the goods and services tax appeal provision could be condoned.
Analysis: The appeal provision prescribed a filing period of three months with a further condonable period of one month, and the outer limit fixed by the statute could not be extended by the appellate authority. The judgment also noted that no application for revocation or appeal within the prescribed time had been filed.
Conclusion: The delay beyond the statutory condonable period could not be extended.
Issue (ii): Whether cancellation of GST registration should be set aside and registration revived subject to payment of dues.
Analysis: The petitioner had defaulted in payment of tax, but the State did not oppose relief subject to payment of tax dues, interest, late fee, and penalty. In these circumstances, the cancellation order was interfered with and directions were issued to restore the registration on compliance with the monetary obligations and related formalities.
Conclusion: The cancellation order was set aside and the registration was directed to be revived subject to payment of the outstanding dues and compliance requirements.
Final Conclusion: The petition was allowed, with restoration of GST registration made conditional upon payment of the statutory dues and completion of the required formalities.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the goods and services tax statute prescribes a fixed outer limit for appeal, the authority cannot condone delay beyond that limit, and cancellation of registration may be interfered with and restored where the dues are directed to be paid and compliance is secured.
Cancellation of registration of GST Goods and Services Tax Registration Number of the petitioner debarring him from paying tax under GST Act - petitioner was in default in making payment of tax to the Department - competence of appellate authority to condone delay - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, the petitioner was in default in making payment of tax to the Department and resultantly show cause notice for cancellation of registration under Rule 22 (1) read with Sub Rule 2(A) of Rule 21(A) of the CGST Rule was issued on 24.05.2023, whereby registration of petitioner was suspended w.e.f 24.5.2023. For failure in depositing the tax, order dated 17.6.2023 for cancellation of registration of petitioner was passed - Though impugned order was an appealable order under Section 107 of CGST Act 2017 but the said appeal was to be preferred within three months from the date of passing of the order as provided under Section 107(1) of the CGST Act. The fresh appeal/revision may have also been preferred after expiry of three months but within one month thereafter as provided under Section 107(4) of the CGST Act.
Once outer limit of period, which can be condoned by the authority, has been prescribed under the Act, the Appellate Authority is not competent to condone the delay beyond the one month after expiry of three months - Admittedly, petitioner has also not filed any application under Section 30 or appeal under Section 107 of CGST Act for revocation of cancellation of registration within the limitation period prescribed for that.
The order dated 17.6.2023, passed for cancellation of registration of the petitioner is set aside and the concerned authority is directed to revive the registration of the petitioner to its original status with original number but subject to payment of entire tax payable for the relevant period along with interest, late fee and penalty leviable upon by depositing the same on or before 15.11.2025 for which necessary arrangement shall be made by the respondents by opening the portal so as to enable the petitioner to deposit the requisite amount with the department.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the blocking of input tax credit (ITC) in the electronic credit ledger under Rule 86A of the GST Rules is permissible where the supplier is alleged to be "non-functioning" or its registration cancelled suo motu.
2. Whether a recipient who has filed returns, met conditions under Section 16 of the GST Act and produced invoices and payment proofs is entitled to a writ direction to unblock ITC while a statutory investigation by DGGI into alleged fraudulent/suspect transactions is pending.
3. What is the scope of the writ court's jurisdiction under Articles 226/227 when factual adjudication and investigation by statutory authorities concerning ITC claims are ongoing?
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity of blocking ITC under Rule 86A
Legal framework: Rule 86A empowers tax authorities to block input tax credit in the electronic ledger where there is "reason to believe" that fraudulent or erroneous availment of ITC has taken place; Section 16 prescribes conditions for entitlement to ITC.
Precedent Treatment: No earlier judicial precedents were cited or treated in the judgment; the Court proceeded on statutory text and material produced by enforcement authorities.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the enforcement communication indicating the supplier was found non-functioning and the DGGI alert/notice flagging dubious transactions. The authority's invocation of Rule 86A followed an ongoing intelligence and investigative process directed to identify fraudulent availment, circular trading, and non-existent suppliers. Given that the blocking was limited to specified transactions and made in the context of an active investigation, the Court accepted that such action reflects a prima facie "reason to believe" sufficient to trigger Rule 86A.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Court holds that invocation of Rule 86A by an authority in the course of an ongoing DGGI investigation into allegedly dubious suppliers, where material indicates non-functioning suppliers, is not invalid per se; preliminary blocking in such circumstances is permissible. Obiter - Observations on merits of individual transactions were refrained from.
Conclusions: Blocking ITC under Rule 86A in the factual matrix of an ongoing probe into non-functioning/fraudulent suppliers was not set aside; the Court declined to characterise the blocking as arbitrary or an excess of power on the record before it.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Entitlement to writ relief to unblock ITC pending investigation
Legal framework: Section 16 sets conditions for ITC; remedial relief by writ under Articles 226/227 is available where statutory rights are infringed and no adequate alternative remedy exists, but relief is discretionary where factual adjudication is pending before specialized administrative authorities.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on general principles governing exercise of writ jurisdiction when factual issues are pending before statutory authorities rather than on any particular case law.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner produced invoices, bank payment proofs and explanations to the enforcement unit. However, the Court emphasized that the authority is seised of the matter and that the DGGI investigation encompasses verification of the transaction chain, demand/recovery prospects, and detection of circular trading. Given that factual determination is actively being undertaken by the statutory machinery, the Court considered it inappropriate to preempt or curtail that process by issuing a mandamus to unblock the ledger.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A writ directing immediate unblocking of ITC is unsuitable and premature where the statutory investigation into suspect suppliers and transactions is in progress and the authority is seized of explanations and documents. Obiter - The Court noted the petitioner's production of documents but declined to assess their sufficiency on merits.
Conclusions: The petitioner's entitlement to ITC could not be vindicated by interim writ relief at that stage; the Court refused to mandate unblocking of the electronic credit ledger while investigations continue.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Scope of writ jurisdiction when investigation/adjudication is pending
Legal framework: The extraordinary jurisdiction of the writ court under Articles 226/227 is to be exercised with caution where specialised statutory authorities are engaged in factual adjudication; courts should avoid substituting their own factual findings for those of the authority.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied established constitutional principles about deference to fact-finding by specialized authorities; no specific cases were cited in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that factual findings are within the domain of the statutory authority and that the writ jurisdiction should not be used to curtail or pre-empt the authority's inquiry. It found that making factual observations at that juncture would be unjustified and that the petitioner's remedy lay in contesting the authority's conclusion after completion of the investigatory/adjudicatory process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - When an investigation by a statutory body into alleged fraudulent transactions is ongoing, the writ court should ordinarily refrain from exercising its extraordinary jurisdiction to decide factual disputes that are the subject of that investigation. Obiter - A caveat that the decision does not preclude the petitioner from pursuing statutory remedies or approaching the court after the authority's determination.
Conclusions: The Court declined jurisdiction to decide on the factual merit of the ITC claim while the DGGI investigation and related proceedings are pending, thereby dismissing the writ petition as premature.
CONSOLIDATED CONCLUSION
The Court dismissed the petition as misconceived and premature: (a) preliminary blocking of ITC under Rule 86A in the context of an ongoing DGGI investigation into non-functioning/dubious suppliers was not interfered with; (b) the writ remedy was inappropriate while statutory fact-finding and investigation continued; and (c) no mandamus to unblock the electronic credit ledger was issued. Observations on factual merits were intentionally avoided as the statutory authority retains primary jurisdiction to adjudicate those issues.
Bocking of input tax credit - supplier found nonfunctioning - supplier having furnished returns, though its registration is shown to have been cancelled suo motu by the Department - HELD THAT:- Scrutiny of documents enclosed to the writ petition reveals that the petitioner in order to show the genuineness of the transaction(s) with the named supplier(s) has adduced evidence along with explanation/submission before the Deputy Commissioner of State Tax, State Enforcement Unit, Bolangir. Therefore, it is construed that appropriate authority is in seisin of the matter relating to transaction effected between the named suppliers and the petitioner.
Any observations on facts made by this Court at this juncture may not be justified as finding of facts is the domain of the statutory authority vested with power. It is trite that while invoking extraordinary jurisdiction under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India, this Court should be circumspect particularly when factual adjudication is pending before the authority concerned and the writ court should not curtail the power of the authority by taking to itself the exercise of adjudication on the factual merit of the matter.
This Court is afraid to entertain the writ petition at this stage, inasmuch as the investigation qua the transactions effected between the named suppliers in the report of the DGGI and the petitioner is continuing. Therefore, this Court declines to make any observation on the factual aspect on the material collected during such investigation.
Since it is conceded by the learned Standing Counsel that the blocking of electronic credit ledger has been limited to the extent of claim of input tax credit with respect to certain transactions effected with the named suppliers, this court is not persuaded with the submission of the learned counsel for the petitioner to issue writ of mandamus to the authority concerned to unblock the electronic credit ledger. This Court having perceived no prejudice caused to the petitioner during course of investigation undertaken by the DGGI, finds no merit in the writ petition.
The writ petition, being misconceived and premature, the same is liable to be dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether service of show-cause notices and adjudication orders through the common GST portal (under Section 169(1)(d) of the UPGST Act, 2017) satisfies statutory service and audibility requirements when such notices/orders are not prominently displayed on the portal dashboard.
2. Whether failure of an assessee to notice a portal-uploaded show-cause notice and adjudication order, resulting in non-appearance and expiry of limitation for appeal, can justify judicial interference with the adjudication order by writ despite existence of statutory appellate remedy.
3. What legal consequences follow where an appeal against an adjudication order is dismissed as time-barred (or where condonation of delay was not granted), and whether the writ court may entertain challenge to the original adjudication order notwithstanding the appellant authority's dismissal of condonation application.
4. Extent of appellate authority's powers under the GST scheme (specifically whether it can remit/remand to the adjudicating authority or is confined to deciding merits), and consequences for post-service adjudication process when procedural infirmity in service is shown.
5. Appropriate relief and conditions where procedural defects in electronic service are established but merits of demand remain unadjudicated - including deposit conditions and directions for fresh adjudication.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of electronic service via the common portal (Section 169(1)(d))
Legal framework: Service of notices and orders under the UPGST Act may be effected through the common GST portal as provided by Section 169(1)(d). The GST regime contemplates electronic communication as a mode of service.
Precedent treatment: The Court refers to established practice under the GST scheme permitting portal service; no specific conflicting precedent in the judgment is overruled. The Court also notes a body of recurring writs raising similar portal-service complaints.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognized that while statutory provision permits portal service, practical realities of portal design and user experience matter. Where notices and orders are uploaded but not displayed prominently on the home page/dashboard (e.g., placed under an "Additional Notices and Orders" tab not directly visible), the electronic mode may fail to bring the document to the addressee's effective notice. The Court treated the question as one of adequacy of communication required for a fair opportunity to observe and respond, not an absolute prohibition of portal service.
Ratio vs. obiter: Ratio - Portal service is valid only if it affords reasonable and effective notice to the taxpayer; where portal placement makes notice not reasonably visible, procedural infirmity can be established. Obiter - general observations about volume of litigation and practical difficulties faced by taxpayers.
Conclusions: Service via the common portal is permissible but must be effectuated in a manner that reasonably notifies the assessee; mere uploading under less visible tabs without further facilitation may not suffice to constitute effective service. (Cross-ref Issues 2-5.)
Issue 2 - Judicial interference where lack of effective notice leads to loss of appellate limitation
Legal framework: The statute prescribes rigid limitation for filing appeals; condonation of delay is tightly circumscribed by law and subject to Supreme Court precedent limiting power to extend statutory time.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows the Supreme Court principle that condonation of delay cannot be granted beyond fixed statutory periods; appeal authorities lack power to extend prescribed limitation beyond statutory confines. The Court also observes that appellate authorities cannot remand merely to cure procedural defects where their powers are defined by statute.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court balanced the statutory insistence on limitation against principles of natural justice. It recognized that a taxpayer deprived of actual knowledge due to inadequacies in the portal display may be denied opportunity to appeal through no fault of his own. Given the rigidity of limitation and the absence of effective remedy before the appellate authority when notice was not reasonably brought to the assessee's attention, the writ jurisdiction remains available to correct gross procedural unfairness. The Court emphasized the need to preserve taxpayer trust in the tax regime.
Ratio vs. obiter: Ratio - Where electronic service is ineffective and results in denial of opportunity to appeal within the statutory period, the writ court may grant relief notwithstanding the rigid limitation, because the appellate remedy was practically inaccessible. Obiter - normative remarks about trust in the tax regime and the volume of similar petitions.
Conclusions: Failure of effective portal service that prevents timely appeal can justify setting aside adjudication orders by writ, subject to appropriate conditions, as statutory appellate remedies may be practically unavailable when notice was not brought to the assessee's attention (cross-ref Issue 3 on consequences of time-barred appeals).
Issue 3 - Effect of appeal being dismissed as time-barred and availability of challenge to original order
Legal framework: Where an appeal is dismissed for delay, the appellate order may merely dispose of the condonation application and not the substantive appeal on merits unless delay is condoned. The aggrieved party may seek extraordinary relief by writ if procedural infirmity prevented the effective exercise of the statutory right.
Precedent treatment: The Court adheres to the distinction between an order refusing condonation (procedural) and an adjudication order on merits; it treats the former as not precluding independent judicial review of the adjudication order where jurisdictional defect in service is shown.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that dismissal of an appeal as time-barred does not amount to an adjudicatory determination on the merits of the tax demand; hence, the writ court can examine whether procedural defects in service deprived the assessee of the opportunity to file a timely appeal. The Court rejected the contention that the dismissal of the appeal extinguishes the ability to challenge the original order by writ.
Ratio vs. obiter: Ratio - A procedural dismissal for delay does not foreclose writ jurisdiction to challenge the original adjudication order where service-related jurisdictional defects are alleged and established. Obiter - observations on the nature of orders passed by appeal authorities.
Conclusions: The existence of a time-barred dismissal before the appellate authority does not render a writ petition against the original adjudication order non-maintainable if procedural infirmities in notice/service are established.
Issue 4 - Powers of the appellate authority under the GST scheme (remand/remit limitations)
Legal framework: Statutory scheme delimits appellate authority powers; appellate body may decide the appeal on merits but may not have unfettered power to remit/remand to the adjudicating authority beyond statutory provisions.
Precedent treatment: The Court notes that appeal authorities "do not have the power to remand or remit the matter" in the usual course and can only pass orders on merits, following the statutory design and prior judicial exposition referenced in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the limited remedial capacity of appellate authorities to address procedural defects caused by ineffective portal service (particularly where limitation bars a merits hearing), reliance solely on appellate remedies may be illusory. This reality informs the Court's readiness to exercise writ jurisdiction to secure a fresh adjudicatory opportunity.
Ratio vs. obiter: Ratio - Because appellate authorities may be unable to remit matters for fresh adjudication, administrative or procedural defects that prevent the filing of a timely appeal may necessitate judicial intervention. Obiter - practical commentary on appellate powers within GST regime.
Conclusions: The appellate authority's limited power strengthens the case for judicial relief where procedural flaws in service deprived the assessee of effective access to the appellate process (cross-ref Issues 2-3).
Issue 5 - Appropriate relief where electronic service was procedurally defective
Legal framework: Writ jurisdiction permits grant of relief calibrating both protection of legal rights and prevention of vexatious delay; courts may condition relief (e.g., deposit) and direct fresh adjudication within time limits to balance competing interests.
Precedent treatment: The Court applies equitable principles routinely employed in tax litigation - conditional setting aside of demands subject to deposit and directions for reconsideration - consistent with judicial practice where substantive adjudication is desirable but procedural regularity is to be ensured.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the petitioner's explanation of non-receipt and non-visibility of portal notices credible and of a class of genuine grievances. To balance revenue interest and protect procedural fairness, the Court set aside the impugned order subject to a substantial deposit (Rs. 1,00,000/-) within one month, allowed filing of reply within two weeks thereafter, and directed the adjudicating authority to hear and decide a speaking and reasoned order on or before a specified date. The Court clarified that deposited amounts remain subject to the final adjudication.
Ratio vs. obiter: Ratio - Where procedural defect in electronic service is demonstrated, the Court may set aside the order conditionally and direct fresh adjudication after giving the assessee opportunity to be heard, subject to deposit to protect revenue. Obiter - specifics of deposit amount and timeline tailored to facts of the case.
Conclusions: Conditional relief - impugned order set aside subject to deposit and directions for fresh hearing and reasoned decision within fixed timeframe; amounts deposited to be subject to final adjudication. The remedy balances taxpayer's right to a hearing and revenue protection (cross-ref Issues 1-4).
Violation of principles of natural justice - valid service of SCN or not - SCN and the impugned order were put up on the common portal under the Tab meant for 'Additional Notices and Orders' - appeal dismissed on the ground of delay - HELD THAT:- In the first place it has been recognized that a considerable influx of litigation of similar nature is arising every day. Clearly, the assessee’s are facing difficulties in working on the GST Portal especially with respect to communication of Show Cause Notices and Adjudication Orders. Every day a large number of similar writ petitions are arising wherein numerous assessee’s are raising the common complaint that such notice and orders were not in their knowledge as they were not displayed promptly on the dash board upon such notices being issued or orders being passed.
Under the law as declared by the Supreme Court condonation of delay cannot be granted beyond the fixed time period provided by the statute. Third, even their appeals are filed within time, the appeal authorities do not have the power to remand or remit the matter to the Adjudicating Authority. They may only pass an order on merits - The fact that the appeal authority may have rejected the appeal as time barred may not amount to an order passed in the appeal. It may only remain order passed on the application seeking condonation of delay. Only if the delay had been condoned, a regular appeal may have arisen.
The impugned order is set aside subject to the petitioner depositing Rs. 1,00,000/- lacs within a period of one month from today. Subject to such deposit being made, the impugned order shall stand set aside. The petitioner shall file his reply within two weeks - Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the petitioner can challenge show-cause/adjudication and recovery notices issued under the CGST regime on the ground that the Customs Department had taken custody of the goods and proceedings, thereby rendering action under Section 130 of the CGST Act invalid (allegation of double proceedings/double jeopardy).
2. Whether the writ petition is maintainable in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226 when the adjudication order has been the subject of an appeal under Section 107 of the CGST Act which was dismissed and where no challenge to that appellate order has been pursued.
3. Discretionary issue: Whether the Court should permit withdrawal of the writ petition with liberty to refile so as to include and challenge the appellate order dated 07.12.2023 that was not originally on record.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of GST adjudication/recovery in light of Customs having custody and parallel proceedings (double proceedings/double jeopardy)
Legal framework: Adjudication and recovery proceedings under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, including seizure/confiscation and recovery provisions (reference: Section 130 procedure and Form GST MOV processes), and concurrent action potential by Customs under the Customs Act.
Precedent Treatment: The Court's reasoning does not invoke or distinguish any prior authorities; the adjudicating authority had considered and decided the specific contention that Customs had custody and that CGST proceedings were impermissible.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes that the adjudicating authority in the MOV-11 order expressly dealt with the contention that the Customs Department had taken the case property and that consequent GST proceedings were not maintainable. The petitioner challenged that adjudication by way of statutory appeal under Section 107 which was dismissed. Given the adjudicating authority's consideration of the point and the appellate dismissal, the petitioner's attempt to relitigate the same plea in a writ under Article 226 is not permissible in the absence of any statutory provision disallowing CGST action where Customs has custody, and in absence of any successful challenge to the appellate decision.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A petitioner who has had the specific contention considered by the adjudicating authority and the appellate authority (appeal dismissed) cannot relitigate the same ground in a writ petition under Article 226 without first challenging the appellate order; the Court will not overturn tax recovery notices on that ground where the statutory appellate remedy has been availed and dismissed. Obiter - Observations that no provision of law was pointed out before the Court explicitly prohibiting simultaneous proceedings by Customs and CGST.
Conclusions: The challenge to MOV-11, GST-MOV-09 and subsequent recovery notices on the ground of double proceedings/double jeopardy is not sustain-able before the High Court in writ jurisdiction when the point was decided by the adjudicating authority and the appellate order dismissing the appeal has not been set aside.
Issue 2 - Maintainability of writ petition under Article 226 after dismissal of statutory appeal under Section 107
Legal framework: Constitutional writ jurisdiction under Article 226 and the principle that extraordinary constitutional relief is discretionary and generally not to be used to bypass efficacious statutory remedies; statutory appeal mechanism under the CGST Act (Section 107).
Precedent Treatment: No express judicial precedent is cited or relied upon in the judgment; the Court applies established principles of restraint in exercise of writ jurisdiction where statutory remedies exist and are effective.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the petitioner had pursued the statutory appeal which was dismissed on 07.12.2023, and that no subsequent challenge was mounted to that appellate order. The petitioner's failure to challenge the appellate dismissal and attempt to re-raise identical grounds before the High Court in writ jurisdiction militates against relief. The Court emphasized the lack of any legal provision shown to the Court prohibiting concurrent action by Customs and CGST, and treated the statutory appeal process and its result as decisive in this context.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a statutory appeal against adjudication under the CGST Act has been filed and dismissed, and no challenge to that appellate order is on record, the High Court will ordinarily decline to entertain a writ under Article 226 raising the same grounds; absence of a shown legal prohibition against concurrent action by Customs/CGST reinforces refusal. Obiter - Remarks on the petitioner's incomplete record-keeping and unexplained withdrawal of a criminal miscellaneous application.
Conclusions: The writ petition is not maintainable and is dismissed as devoid of merit because the statutory appellate remedy was availed and dismissed and remains unchallenged, making the constitutional forum inappropriate for re-agitating identical issues.
Issue 3 - Whether leave to withdraw and refile with appended appellate order should be granted
Legal framework: Judicial discretion to allow withdrawal with liberty to refile, balanced against finality, procedural fairness, and prejudice to respondents.
Precedent Treatment: No reliance on authority; the Court exercised discretion based on case-specific considerations.
Interpretation and reasoning: On being apprised that the appellate order dismissing the appeal was not placed on record, learned counsel sought leave to withdraw and refile with that order appended and to challenge it. The Court declined this request because the writ petition was otherwise meritless in substance: the point raised was already adjudicated and dismissed in appeal, and no legal provision was shown proscribing the impugned actions. Allowing withdrawal and refiling to include the appellate order would be an inappropriate procedural route to relitigate settled issues and would not alter the absence of substance in the petitioner's claim.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Court will refuse an application to withdraw and refile where the underlying petition is substantively devoid of merit and seeks to relitigate matters already determined by statutory appellate process; refusal is a valid exercise of discretion. Obiter - The Court noted the curious fact of a withdrawn criminal miscellaneous application without details but did not treat that as decisive.
Conclusions: The Court declined to permit withdrawal with liberty to refile; dismissal of the writ petition was ordered instead.
Overall Conclusion
The writ petition challenging the adjudication order, show-cause notice and recovery notices on the ground of parallel Customs proceedings and alleged double jeopardy is dismissed. The Court found that the adjudicating authority considered the contention and that the petitioner's statutory appeal against the adjudication was dismissed; no successful challenge to that appellate order is on record, and no legal provision precluding concurrent Customs and CGST action was shown. The Court exercised its discretion to refuse leave to withdraw and refile, concluding the petition to be devoid of merit.
Withdrawal of petition - Seeking to set aside notice seeking recovery of government dues arising out of adjudication order - setting aside subsequent notice seeking recovery - HELD THAT:- This writ petition is clearly devoid of any merit and does not call for interference by this Court in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
The ground as raised in respect to proceedings under Section 130 of the CGST Act not being valid as goods have already been seized by the Customs Department, has been dealt with specifically by the adjudicating authority and appeal filed by petitioner was dismissed way back on 07.12.2023. Admittedly no appeal was filed by petitioner to challenge this order till date, though curiously a criminal miscellaneous application, details of which are not forthcoming, was filed and withdrawn. Petitioner at this stage cannot be permitted to raise the ground as above and that too in the absence of any provision of law pointed out before us which prohibits such action.
This writ petition is dismissed being devoid of any merit.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether service of a Show Cause Notice on an email address other than the authorized/registered email on the GST portal, and subsequent service on the authorized email beyond the time prescribed under Section 73(2) read with Section 73(10) of the CGST Act, renders the Show Cause Notice time-barred and precludes passing of an adjudicatory order.
2. Whether an adjudicatory order passed without consideration of the specific contention that the Show Cause Notice was time-barred (including failure to consider a binding Jurisdictional High Court decision relied upon by the taxpayer) is vitiated for want of application of mind.
3. Whether prima facie relief (stay of operation of the impugned order) is justified where (a) there is material showing change of authorized email on the GST portal and (b) the authority did not address the time-bar/contention or relevant precedent.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework: Time-bar and service via registered email
Legal framework: Sections 73(2) and 73(10) of the CGST Act govern issuance and service of Show Cause Notices and prescribe timelines for initiation of recovery/proceedings; service on the taxpayer at the registered/authorized email address on the GST portal is the accepted mode for electronic communication.
Precedent treatment: The Petition relied on a Jurisdictional High Court decision (referred to before the authority) delineating how service and timelines under the CGST regime must be complied with; the impugned order does not record any engagement with that decision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined documentary material on record (portal entries and prior departmental correspondence) showing that the authorized email on the GST portal had been amended to a particular email in February 2022 and that subsequent departmental communications (including audit intimation, audit observations and pre-SCN hearing notice) were sent to that authorized email. The SCN for the relevant financial year was issued on 30 October 2024 and, on the authority's case, served on 27 November 2024; however, the SCN was initially sent to a different email (the earlier/non-authorized address) and only sent to the authorized email on 18 February 2025-beyond the timeline prescribed under the CGST provisions for that financial year.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where statutory timelines and service via the registered/authorized email are mandatory under the CGST Act, belated electronic service on the authorized email can render the SCN time-barred for the period in question. Obiter - specific factual comparisons to other modes of service or hypothetical alternative notice mechanisms not raised in the record.
Conclusions: Prima facie the Show Cause Notice insofar as it pertains to Financial Year 2020-21 is time-barred because it was not served on the authorized email within the period permitted under Sections 73(2) read with 73(10) CGST; the Court found sufficient material to treat the contention as strong on the facts presented.
Issue 2 - Application of mind: Failure to consider time-bar argument and binding precedent
Legal framework: Administrative/adjudicatory orders must record consideration of objections raised by the party and relevant jurisprudence cited before the authority; failure to do so may vitiate the order for want of application of mind.
Precedent treatment: The petitioner specifically placed a Jurisdictional High Court ruling before the authority (on similar issues concerning service/timelines); the impugned order contains no discussion of that ruling and does not address the petitioner's time-bar contentions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the petitioner had expressly raised the time-bar issue and cited the Jurisdictional decision prior to the authority, yet the impugned order neither engages with the factual matrix demonstrating change of authorized email nor addresses the precedent relied upon. This omission indicates that relevant submissions were not considered and the order does not reflect any reasoned rejection of those submissions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an adjudicatory order that omits consideration of a pleaded time-bar defence and pertinent binding precedent undermines the decision's validity for want of application of mind. Obiter - commentary on the proper scope of departmental fact-finding where evidence is contested and requires full adjudication at the merits stage.
Conclusions: The impugned order is prima facie vitiated by failure to consider the petitioner's central contention (time-bar) and the cited Jurisdictional authority; this deficiency strengthens the case for interim relief and necessitates fresh consideration at final hearing.
Issue 3 - Appropriateness of ad-interim relief and scope (financial year distinction)
Legal framework: Interim relief in writ proceedings is appropriate where the petitioner makes out a prima facie case, balance of convenience favours relief, and irreparable injury would follow; relief may be tailored to distinct periods/claims where merits differ.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied established injunctive principles to administrative tax proceedings and treated the petitioner's documentary record and unaddressed submissions as establishing a strong prima facie case.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the facts, the Court found (a) clear documentary evidence that the authorized email had been changed on the portal and used in departmental communications after the change, (b) a delay in service on the authorized email which, for FY 2020-21, resulted in belated service beyond the statutory timeline, and (c) non-consideration of the time-bar contention and precedent by the adjudicating authority. The Court limited its prima facie finding: the time-bar conclusion was confined to FY 2020-21 only; for FY 2021-22 the time-bar did not arise on the present record. However, the defect of non-consideration of submissions/precedent was held to impinge upon both financial years.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - interim stay of the impugned order was warranted to preserve the petitioner's position pending full adjudication because of the time-bar for FY 2020-21 and failure to consider key submissions on both years. Obiter - the Court's observations do not preclude the Revenue from addressing the points fully at final hearing nor adjudicating the merits where time-bar is not established.
Conclusions: The Court granted ad-interim stay of operation of the impugned order (limited to preserving status quo) until further orders, holding that prima facie grounds existed for relief-time-bar for FY 2020-21 and failure to consider contentions/precedent for both years. The matter was listed for admission with directions for filing of affidavits and observance of timelines; failure by the Revenue to file a reply within the specified time would lead the Court to proceed on the basis of the material on record.
Service of SCN on the authorized registered email address of the Petitioner beyond the time prescribed u/s 73 (2) read with Section 73 (10) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - impugned order is passed without taking into consideration most of the submissions of the Petitioner - judgment of the Jurisdictional High Court, in the case of Vodafone Idea Limited v/s The Union of India & Ors [2022 (7) TMI 645 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] not followed - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- The GST Department was very well aware that the authorized email address was changed from [email protected] to [email protected] from February 2022 onwards.
The Show Cause Notice has been served on the authorized email address, namely, [email protected] only on 18th February 2025. We may once again clarify that the Show Cause Notice was served on 27th November 2024, but not on the authorized email address but on [email protected]. This being the case, atleast prima facie, we find that the Show Cause Notice was time barred.
The Petitioner has made out a strong prima facie case for stay of the operation of the impugned order - Stand over to 20th November 2025 for admission.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a writ petition challenging an assessment order confirmed in absence of the assessee (no reply to Show Cause Notice) and filed after expiry of statutory limitation can be entertained and relief granted.
2. Whether the impugned assessment order can be quashed and matter remitted for de novo consideration on conditional terms (deposit of part of disputed tax) where the assessee had not participated and has not produced documentary substantiation.
3. Whether past consistent decisions of the Court permitting conditional relief in similar circumstances (deposit of a portion of disputed tax) are applicable and binding for grant of similar relief on the facts of the present matter, notwithstanding Supreme Court authorities cited by the Respondent.
4. Whether recovery already effected precludes remitting the matter or affects the form of relief
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Entertainability of writ petition filed after expiry of statutory limitation where assessee did not participate in assessment
Legal framework: Statutory right to appeal/rectify assessment is governed by limitation prescribed under the relevant GST enactments; non-participation in assessment (failure to reply to GST DRC-01 Show Cause Notice) permits confirmation of demand.
Precedent treatment: The Respondent relied on Supreme Court decisions emphasizing strictness in challenges to adjudicatory tax orders (cited authorities asserting circumspection where statutory remedies exist); the Court noted those authorities but considered its own consistent line of decisions granting conditional relief in similar circumstances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court acknowledged the late challenge and the Petitioner's non-participation, but placed weight on the equitable principle of giving a further opportunity to substantiate claims where the court has, in like cases, exercised remedial power subject to conditions. The Court balanced statutory limitation and finality against principles of fairness and remedial jurisdiction in writ jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The observation that limitation and non-participation are relevant and ordinarily bar relief is ratio when applied to deny unconditional relief; the decision to nonetheless grant conditional relief is a discretionary exercise and forms part of the operative ratio in this judgment.
Conclusion: The writ is entertainable only to the extent the Court exercises discretionary remedial power to quash and remit subject to conditions; unconditional setting aside would not be appropriate given limitation and non-participation.
Issue 2 - Quashing assessment and remitting for de novo adjudication subject to deposit of 25% of disputed tax and filing of reply/documents
Legal framework: Writ jurisdiction permits quashing of an administrative order and remand for fresh consideration where procedural fairness or opportunity to be heard is at stake; courts may impose terms (including interim deposits) to balance revenue interest and assessee's right to be heard.
Precedent treatment: The Court referred to its consistent precedents where, under similar facts (non-participation but later invocation of writ jurisdiction), relief was granted on terms of deposit of 25% of disputed tax. The Respondent cited higher court authorities cautioning against judicial interference where statutory remedies are available; the Court distinguished those authorities to the extent its discretionary remedy is conditioned and aimed at enabling adjudication on merits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found it just to quash the impugned assessment order and remit for de novo consideration because (a) the demand was confirmed solely on the ground of non-reply, (b) the petitioner sought an opportunity to substantiate the case, and (c) the Court has previously adopted a consistent practice to afford conditional relief in comparable circumstances. To protect revenue, the Court required a 25% deposit of disputed tax from the petitioner's electronic cash register within 30 days, and contemporaneous filing of a reply and supporting documents treating the impugned order as an addendum to the Show Cause Notice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The direction to quash and remit subject to a 25% deposit and filing of reply is ratio of the judgment - it is the operative relief and binding in the instant controversy. Observations that the assessee must cooperate and that the fresh assessment shall not be influenced by prior observations are explanatory but form part of the operative mandate (ratio) for the remand.
Conclusion: The Court quashed the impugned assessment order and remitted the matter for de novo adjudication on merits, conditional on (i) deposit of 25% of disputed tax within 30 days, and (ii) filing a reply with documents within 30 days; if conditions unmet, respondent may proceed as if petition dismissed.
Issue 3 - Applicability of the Court's consistent practice vis-à-vis higher court authorities cited by Respondent
Legal framework: Lower courts exercise writ jurisdiction consistent with higher courts but may develop remedial practices within bounds of law; Supreme Court authorities guide the limits of interference with statutory adjudication.
Precedent treatment: Respondent relied on Supreme Court decisions that generally restrict interference where statutory remedies exist; however, the Court observed its own consistent practice in similar factual matrices granting conditional relief. The Court did not overrule or disregard the cited Supreme Court authorities; rather, it applied its discretion narrowly by imposing protective conditions favoring both parties.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reconciled higher authority by limiting relief to conditional remand rather than wholesale setting aside; this approach respects the principle of finality while affording an opportunity to be heard - a remedial balance that does not contravene the cited higher court principles because the remedy is not an unconditioned substitution of judicial judgment for statutory process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's reliance on its consistent practice to impose a deposit condition and remand is part of the operative reasoning (ratio) for granting relief in the present matter. The discussion distinguishing higher authorities is explanatory and contextual but not intended to depart from Supreme Court precedent.
Conclusion: The Court applied its established discretionary approach in a manner it considered compatible with higher court principles by granting a conditional remand rather than unqualified relief.
Issue 4 - Effect of recovery already effected on grant of relief and directions for subsequent proceedings
Legal framework: Where recovery has been effected prior to judicial intervention, courts may still quash the order and direct de novo proceedings; directions may address restitution, further recovery, or fresh adjudication as appropriate.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the entire demand was recovered and recorded confirmation of recovery. Despite recovery, the Court proceeded to quash the impugned assessment order and remand for fresh adjudication subject to depositional condition and participation, thereby enabling the respondent to consider recovery status while conducting de novo proceedings. The Court explicitly preserved the respondent's right to proceed for recovery if petitioner fails to comply with conditions, and required notice before any order adversely affecting petitioner.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The treatment of recovery as not an absolute bar to conditional relief and remand is operative in this judgment (ratio) insofar as it informs the remedial directions given.
Conclusion: Recovery already effected does not preclude conditional quashing and remand; respondent remains entitled to take steps to recover tax if petitioner fails to comply with stipulated conditions, and must give due notice before taking action.
Operative Directions (Condensed as Ratio)
1. Impugned assessment order quashed.
2. Matter remitted for de novo adjudication on merits, the fresh assessment to be uninfluenced by prior observations made before the Show Cause Notice.
3. Petitioner to deposit 25% of disputed tax in cash from Electronic Cash Register within 30 days and to file reply with supporting documents within 30 days treating the impugned order as an addendum to the Show Cause Notice.
4. Respondent to pass fresh order de novo expeditiously (preferably within three months) and give due notice to petitioner before taking any adverse action; failure by petitioner to comply permits respondent to proceed as if the writ petition were dismissed.
Expiry of the limitation period prescribed both for filing an appeal against the impugned Assessment Order dated and to rectify the same - Petitioner has not participated in the assessment proceedings by filing a reply to the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 - HELD THAT:- Having considered the consistent view taken by this Court under similar circumstances, the Court is inclined to come to a partial rescue of the Petitioner by quashing the impugned Assessment Order dated 22.04.2024 and remits the case back to the Respondent to pass a fresh order de novo, subject to the Petitioner depositing 25% of the disputed tax in cash from the Petitioner's Electronic Cash Register within a period of thirty (30) days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
The Petitioner shall also file a reply to the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 dated 08.12.2023 together with requisite documents to substantiate the case by treating the impugned Assessment Order dated 22.04.2024 as an addendum to the Show Cause Notice dated 08.12.2023 within a period of thirty (30) days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order - In case the Petitioner complies with the above stipulated conditions, the Respondent shall proceed to pass a fresh order de novo on merits and in accordance with law as expeditiously as possible, preferably, within a period of three (3) months thereafter.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether import IGST paid through a TR-6 challan, either alone or read with the Special Valuation Branch (SVB) order and Customs authorities' letters, constitutes an eligible "tax paying document" under Section 16(2) of the CGST Act read with Rule 36(1)(d) of the CGST Rules for availing input tax credit (ITC).
2. Whether eligibility to avail ITC of import IGST paid via TR-6 challan is subject to the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the CGST Act.
3. Whether ITC of import IGST paid on the basis of a re-assessed bill of entry is subject to the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the CGST Act, and if so, whether the time runs from original bill of entry or from the date of re-assessment (the last sub-question was not appealed and therefore not considered afresh).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: TR-6 challan (alone or with SVB order/letters) as an eligible document for ITC
Legal framework: Section 16(2)(a) CGST Act requires possession of a tax invoice or such other tax-paying documents as may be prescribed. Rule 36(1)(d) CGST Rules expressly includes "a bill of entry or any similar document prescribed under the Customs Act ... for the assessment of integrated tax on imports." Customs Act defines "assessment" and prescribes certain documents (e.g., bill of entry) under specific sections.
Precedent treatment: Appellant relied on pre-GST decisions and prior regime analogies where documents not expressly listed were accepted for credit; administrative and judicial pronouncements addressing practical difficulties (including a CBIC Circular addressing TR-6 usage where BE re-assessment post Out-of-Charge is system-restricted) were also invoked. The AAR and Appellate Authority preferred post-GST statutory scheme and the circulars' guidance on process over pre-GST analogies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The phrase "bill of entry or any similar document prescribed under the Customs Act ... for the assessment of integrated tax on imports" was read conjunctively: (i) the document must be similar in content/purpose to a bill of entry (containing particulars of assessment/payment), and (ii) it must be a document prescribed under the Customs Act or rules made thereunder. A TR-6 challan is a treasury/payment instrument prescribed under Treasury Rules, not a document prescribed under the Customs Act for assessment; it lacks the assessment particulars embedded in a bill of entry. Even when read together with SVB orders and Customs letters, those documents do not convert TR-6 into a Customs Act-prescribed assessment document akin to a bill of entry. The CBIC circular acknowledging operational constraints (ICES/ OOC issues) was held to be relevant for procedure (suggesting re-assessment and notional OOC to enable transmission), but it does not alter the statutory classification of TR-6.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - TR-6 challan, whether alone or read with SVB order and Customs letters, is not a "bill of entry or any similar document prescribed under the Customs Act" and therefore is not an eligible Rule 36(1)(d) document for availing ITC. Observations on the applicability of the CBIC circular and distinctions from pre-GST jurisprudence are explanatory (supporting ratio) rather than departing from core statutory interpretation.
Conclusion: A TR-6 challan, either alone or coupled with SVB orders and Customs communications, is not an eligible tax-paying document under Section 16(2) read with Rule 36(1)(d) for claiming ITC of import IGST; the AAR's conclusion to that effect is upheld.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Applicability of Section 16(4) time limit to ITC claimed via TR-6 challan
Legal framework: Section 16(4) CGST Act prescribes the outer time limit for taking ITC "in respect of any invoice or debit note" (the thirtieth day of November following the end of the financial year to which the invoice/debit note pertains or furnishing of the relevant annual return, whichever is earlier). Rule 36 distinguishes invoices/debit notes from other prescribed documents (e.g., bill of entry).
Precedent treatment: Appellant relied on pre-GST precedents and administrative circulars to argue against application of the statutory time bar to non-invoice documents; AAR and Appellate Authority relied on the structure of CGST/IGST Acts and mutatis mutandis application to conclude otherwise.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the Appellate Authority has held that TR-6 challans (alone or with SVB/letters) are not eligible documents under Rule 36(1)(d), the question whether Section 16(4) applies to ITC based on TR-6 does not arise. Procedurally and substantively, Section 16(4) on its face limits credit in respect of invoices and debit notes; the issue of time limitation for TR-6 would be moot given non-eligibility status. The CBIC circular's procedural fixes do not convert TR-6 into an eligible document nor negate the question's non-relevance once non-eligibility is established.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Because TR-6 is not an eligible document for ITC, the applicability of Section 16(4) to TR-6 payments is not relevant; this is dispositive for the second issue. Observations distinguishing invoices/debit notes from other documents under Section 16(4) are part of the ratio.
Conclusion: The question whether Section 16(4) applies to ITC claimed via TR-6 challan is academic given TR-6's non-eligibility; AAR's decision that the question does not arise is affirmed.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Applicability of Section 16(4) to ITC on re-assessed bill of entry
Legal framework: Section 16(4) prescribes the outer time limit for credit "in respect of any invoice or debit note"; Rule 36(1)(d) expressly includes a "bill of entry or any similar document prescribed under the Customs Act ... for the assessment of integrated tax on imports." Section 20 IGST Act and Rule 2 IGST Rules apply CGST provisions mutatis mutandis to integrated tax matters.
Precedent treatment: Appellant invoked pre-GST case law and administrative circulars to argue non-application of the Section 16(4) time bar to bills of entry. The AAR and Appellate Authority applied the mutatis mutandis principle to conclude that the time bar applies to ITC claimed on import IGST evidenced by bills of entry.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Appellate Authority reasoned that when CGST provisions relating to input tax credit are made applicable to IGST "mutatis mutandis" under Section 20 IGST Act, necessary adaptations include treating bills of entry (the import assessment document) as the equivalent category to invoices/debit notes for import IGST. The legislative architecture shows that: (i) CGST's Section 16 limitation is directed at invoices/debit notes for intra-state supplies; (ii) for imports/inter-state items, IGST provisions borrow CGST input credit rules with necessary changes so that the limitation attaches to the appropriate import document (i.e., bill of entry or similar document). The statutory scheme, structure of Section 16(4), and the need for an outer limit for ITC together support applying the limitation period to re-assessed bills of entry. Reliance on the doctrine that legally enforceable causes of action attract limitation (as applied in analogous prior decisions) bolsters the position that re-assessed bills of entry are subject to the Section 16(4) timeline.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 16(4) limitation applies, mutatis mutandis via Section 20 IGST Act and Rule 2 IGST Rules, to availment of ITC based on a bill of entry (original or re-assessed); this is a binding part of the decision. Comparative and policy comments regarding pre-GST differences and the CBIC circular are explanatory.
Conclusion: ITC claimed on the basis of a re-assessed bill of entry is governed by the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) CGST Act (as applied mutatis mutandis to IGST matters); the AAR's view on this point is affirmed.
DISPOSITIONAL CONCLUSION
The Appellate Authority upholds the AAR ruling: (i) TR-6 challan, alone or read with SVB order and Customs letters, is not an eligible Rule 36(1)(d) document for ITC; (ii) the question of Section 16(4)'s applicability to TR-6 does not arise; and (iii) ITC based on a re-assessed bill of entry is subject to the time limit under Section 16(4) (applied mutatis mutandis to IGST). The advance ruling is therefore affirmed and the appeal dismissed.
Eligibility to avail ITC - import IGST paid through TR-6 Challan in terms of Section 16(2) of the CGST Act read with rule 36 of CGST Rules - import IGST paid vide TR-6 Challan is subject to the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the CGST Act - import IGST paid vide re-assessed bill of entry is subject to the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the CGST Act - time limit for availing ITC would begin from the initial date of bill of entry originally filed or from the date of re-assessment of bill of entry.
Whether the Applicant can avail the ITC of the import IGST paid through TR-6 Challan in terms of Section 16(2) of the CGST Act read with rule 36 of CGST Rules? - HELD THAT:- Apart from the other documents prescribed under rule 36(1) for the purpose of availment of ITC, ‘a bill of entry or any similar document’ also figures as one of the documents under sub-clause (d) to Rule 36(1). In this regard, we observe that though the phrase “any similar document” occupies center-stage along with the term “Bill of Entry” under the said sub-clause, the presence of other phrases, viz., ‘prescribed under the Customs Act, 1962 or rules made thereunder’, and ‘for the assessment of integrated tax on imports’ clearly brings in a restriction, purpose and the legislative intent behind the framing of said sub-clause.
The payment of differential duties of customs including IGST for import by the applicant in the instant case, is a fall-out of the suo-motu declaration of price revision (of the foreign supplier) by the appellant. The said fact has duly been considered and acknowledged by the Department by way of SVB Order dated 27.02.2015 issued the Deputy Commissioner of Customs, SVB, New Delhi, which further stands renewed vide order dated 11.06.2018. Further, we observe that in the instant case, the transaction involving import of goods that has already been assessed to duties of Customs including IGST, is being subjected to re-assessment whenever upward price revision takes place between the applicant and the foreign supplier who happen to be a related party - irrespective of the fact whether the differential duties of customs and Integrated taxes on import gets paid under a re-assessed bill of entry, or, by way of TR-6 challans, it amounts to ‘assessment’ as defined under Section 2(2) of the Customs Act, 1962.
TR-6 challan is not a document prescribed under the Customs Act or the rules made thereunder, and we find that a TR-6 challan is a document prescribed under the Treasury Rules of the Central Government’, under which any person can pay money into the treasury or Bank on Government Account. It is further observed that as far as the taxation law including the Customs Act, 1962 is concerned, it is nothing but a tool to transfer money to Government Account, and apart from the nature of duties/taxes paid, and the relevant code/heads of account, it does not contain all the details relating to assessment encapsulated in a ‘bill of entry’ - the contention of the appellant about a TR-6 challan to be treated as a document similar to a ‘Bill of Entry’ or a ‘TR-6 challan along with the SVB order and letter issued by the tax authorities to pay duty under Section 28(1)(b) of Customs Act’, to be treated as a document similar to a ‘Bill of Entry’, lacks legal backing and is not sustainable.
There is a noticeable difference in the pre-GST legal provisions as compared to GST provisions, which is due to the fact that the dynamics involving the transmission of the duties of customs including IGST, Cess, etc., to the GSTN portal, so as to enable the same to be available for the claim of ITC, was not a pre-requisite in the pre-GST era - the case laws relied upon by the appellant, especially relating to the pre-GST period, do not have any relevance to the instant case.
As it is clear that a TR-6 challan as such, or a TR-6 challan read with the SVB order and letters issued by the tax authorities, cannot be considered as a document similar to a ‘Bill of Entry’ and since they are not the prescribed document under the Customs Act, 1962 or the rules made thereunder, we are of the considered opinion that neither a TR-6 challan as such, nor a TR-6 challan read with the SVB order and letters issued by the tax authorities as claimed by the applicant, can be considered to be an eligible document for the purpose of availment of ITC.
Whether the eligibility to avail ITC of the import IGST paid vide TR-6 Challan is subject to the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the CGST Act? - HELD THAT:- The question of answering this query does not arise, having already held that TR-6 challan as such, or a TR-6 challan read with the SVB order and letters issued by the tax authorities, cannot be considered as an eligible document for the purpose of availment of ITC.
Whether the eligibility to avail ITC of the import IGST paid under the re-assessed bill of entry is subject to the time limit prescribed under Section 16(4) of the CGST Act? - HELD THAT:- The Bill of Entry’ figures as one of the prescribed document for the purposes of availment of ITC, under rule 36(1)(d) of the CGST Rules, 2017, as a result of which, availment of ITC based on a ‘Bill of entry’ becomes eligible.
The provisions of 16(4) of the CGST Act, 2017 that prescribes the time frame for availment of ITC refers just to an invoice or a debit note, in view of the fact that the levy enabled under Section 9 of the Act, ibid, is only in respect of ‘intra-state’ supplies of goods or services or both. As one may be aware, only a Bill of Entry’ is relatable to import of goods involving payment of taxes under IGST. Accordingly, by virtue of Section 20 of the IGST Act, 2017, whereby the provisions of CGST Act, 2017, becomes applicable ‘mutatis mutandis’ in relation to Integrated tax, it is inferred that the time limit prescribed under the provisions of Section 16(4) of CGST Act, 2017, applies in equal measure to the availment of ITC based on a ‘Bill of Entry’ in relation to Integrated taxes, as much as it applies to availment of ITC based on an invoice or debit note in relation to Central tax.
A taxing statute must be read as it is with no additions and no subtractions on the grounds of legislative intendment or otherwise, it also becomes necessary to consider the requisite changes/interpretation, when the IGST Act, 2017, through Section 20 of the Act, ibid, seeks to borrow the provisions in relation to ‘Input Tax Credit’ of the CGST Act, 2017.
Appeal dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the implementation (supply, installation, commissioning) of the city-wide surveillance system qualifies as a works contract/original works under Section 2(119) of the CGST Act and Notification No.12/2017 (original works) and, if so, the rate of GST applicable before and after amendments to Serial No.3(vi) of Notification No.11/2017 (i.e. effect of notifications dated 31.12.2021 and 13.07.2022).
2. Whether operation and maintenance (O&M) services provided post-implementation form part of a composite supply of works contract (with the principal supply being the works contract) and, consequently, the GST rate applicable to such O&M services in light of the amendments to Serial No.3(vi) of Notification No.11/2017.
3. Whether the recipient(s) of the services (the contracting government-related entities) qualify as a "Union territory" or a "local authority" for the purpose of eligibility under Serial No.3(vi) as amended.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Qualification of implementation as works contract / original works and applicable GST rate pre- and post-amendments
Legal framework:
Section 7 (supply) and Schedule II (entry treating works contract as supply of services) read with Section 2(119) (definition of "works contract") govern classification; Notification No.11/2017 prescribes concessional rates for certain construction/works-contract composite supplies (Serial No.3(vi)); Notification No.12/2017 defines "original works." Amendments by notification dated 31.12.2021 substituted the list of eligible recipients and the subsequent notification dated 13.07.2022 omitted Serial No.3(vi) effective 18.07.2022.
Precedent treatment:
State AAR orders (noted by the Authority) - prior AAR determinations treated comprehensive CCTV/surveillance projects as immovable property and works contracts (e.g., Allied Digital; Sterlite) and applied works-contract/works classification; relevant judicial principles on annexation and object of annexation (Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v. Indian Oil Corporation; Duncan-affiliated jurisprudence) were relied upon to determine permanence.
Interpretation and reasoning:
The surveillance system comprises permanently affixed poles/cantilevers, underground OFC, raised flooring, server racks, integrated command centres and permanent ICCC infrastructure; these components, when considered by extent and object of annexation, indicate permanence and attachment to earth. Applying the tests from established authority (extent of annexation and object/intention of annexation), the components are intended for long-term city-wide surveillance and are not temporary or movable in ordinary course. Transfer of property in goods occurs in execution of the contract intertwined with installation/erection. Therefore the implementation satisfies the statutory indicia of a works contract under Section 2(119) and also falls within "original works" as per Notification No.12/2017 Clause 2(zs) (erection/commissioning/installation of plant, machinery or equipment or structures).
Ratio vs. Obiter:
Ratio: The determination that the implementation constitutes a works contract/original works (based on annexation test and object of annexation) is central to the ruling and operates as binding reasoning for classification under GST.
Conclusions:
Prior to amendment (i.e., before 01.01.2022) Serial No.3(vi) covered composite works-contract supplies to specified government-related recipients at concessional rate (12%); with the substitution effective 01.01.2022 and eventual omission effective 18.07.2022, the concessional category was narrowed and subsequently removed. For the present contract, the Authority finds implementation qualifies as works contract/original works; in consequence, after the amendment(s) such works-contract services fall outside the omitted concessional entry and attract the general rate applicable to comparable construction/works services (18% - 9% CGST + 9% SGST) with effect from 01.01.2022 (and more clearly after 18.07.2022 when the entry was omitted).
Issue 2 - Whether O&M services post-implementation qualify as composite supply of works contract and applicable rate
Legal framework:
Section 2(30) (definition of composite supply), Section 2(90) (principal supply), Schedule II (treatment of works contract as supply of services), and Section 2(119) (works contract) are determinative. Notification No.11/2017 (Serial No.3(vi)) historically provided concessional rate for composite works-contract supplies to certain public bodies; amendments affected eligibility.
Precedent treatment:
Prior AAR holdings (Allied Digital; Sterlite) treated comprehensive surveillance/network projects as works contracts with composite supply character. Industry practice and prior rulings view O&M as integral to EPC/works contracts in government tenders.
Interpretation and reasoning:
The O&M obligations (preventive/corrective maintenance, spare replacement, helpdesk, SLA compliance, manpower, facility management, network monitoring, integration support) are contractually inseparable from the initial erection/commissioning; they are naturally bundled and are supplied in conjunction with the principal works-contract supply. The objective and commercial reality - that the infrastructure would be non-functional for its intended purpose without O&M - supports classification of O&M as ancillary to the principal works-contract supply. Accordingly, under the composite-supply test the principal supply is the works contract (installation/erection/commissioning) and O&M is ancillary.
Ratio vs. Obiter:
Ratio: The conclusion that O&M services provided as part of the same contract form a composite supply with the principal works-contract supply (and thereby inherit the tax treatment of the principal supply) is a binding outcome of the analysis.
Conclusions:
Where O&M is contractually bundled and naturally linked to erection/installation/commissioning, it constitutes a composite supply of a works contract. Given the amendment and omission of Serial No.3(vi), such bundled works-contract supplies (inclusive of O&M) attract the general works/ construction rate - determined here as 18% (9% CGST + 9% SGST) with effect from 01.01.2022 (and consequent to the omission effective 18.07.2022).
Issue 3 - Whether recipient(s) qualify as "Union territory" or "local authority" for eligibility under Serial No.3(vi)
Legal framework:
Definitions under UTGST Act and Section 2(69) of the GST Act for "Union territory" and "local authority" govern eligibility for concessional entries. The textual definitions are exhaustive.
Interpretation and reasoning:
The contractual counterparties (an autonomous society/agency and the police) do not fall within the statutory definitions of "Union territory" or "local authority" as enumerated (which include specified territories under UTGST or defined municipal/local bodies). A conjoint reading shows such government-related entities are not automatically equated to Union territory or local authority for the purpose of the concessional entry.
Ratio vs. Obiter:
Ratio: The finding that the recipients in this contract do not qualify as "Union territory" or "local authority" for Serial No.3(vi) eligibility is determinative for applicability of the concessional rate.
Conclusions:
The recipients are not within the statutory definitions of Union territory or local authority; hence, post-amendment the contract does not qualify for the narrowed concessional category and must be taxed under the residual/general applicable rate (18%).
Ancillary observations
1. The Authority relied on established principles of annexation (extent and object), industry practice in EPC/government contracts, and prior administrative rulings to determine composite supply and works-contract character; those precedents were followed rather than distinguished or overruled.
2. The classification conclusions are ratio decidendi for tax treatment of implementation and bundled O&M in the factual matrix described; application to different factual matrices would require fresh analysis of permanence/annexation and contractual bundling.
Rate of GST applicable on the project scope of work before and after the amendment in the N/N. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28June 2017 - the term “Government entity” was removed from serial no. 3(vi) of the notification w.e.f. 01 January 2022 and thereafter the serial no. 3(vi) of the notification was omitted w.e.f. 18 July 2022 - operation and maintenance services post implementation would qualify as composite supply of works contract or not.
What is the rate of GST applicable on the project scope of work before and after the said amendment in the notification? - HELD THAT:- This Authority is of the considered view that the applicant, Delhi Police and CDAC do not qualify as a Union territory under UTGST Act. 2017 or a local authority under Section 2(69) of the GST Act, 2017 for the purposes of GST law.
The contracts were initially covered under Clause 3(vi) of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28 June 2017, which prescribed a concessional GST rate of 12% for works contract services provided to the Central Government, State Government, Union territory, local authority, Governmental Authority, or Government Entity. However, changes were introduced through Notification No. 22/2021-Central Tax (Rate), effective 1 January 2022, which removed Governmental Authorities and Government Entities from the list of eligible recipients under Clause 3(vi). Further, Notification No. 3/2022-Central Tax (Rate) dated 13 July 2022 omitted Clause 3(vi) entirely from the rate notification with effect from 18 July 2022, thereby eliminating the concessional tax rate category for such works altogether. As a result of these legislative changes, any works contract services delivered by the Applicant to CDAC shall now fall under Clause 3(xii) of the same notification instead of clause 3(vi) under which the rate was 12% prior to aforesaid legislative changes w.e.f. 01st January. 2022. Consequently, such services shall attract GST at the rate of 18% with effect from 01 January 2022 in respect of the applicant.
Whether the operation and maintenance services post implementation would qualify as composite supply of works contract? - HELD THAT:- The services relating to the operation and maintenance of the surveillance system, when provided as part of a package with installation and commissioning, should be treated as a composite supply of works contract under GST law. Following the deletion of the concessional 12% GST rate due to the deletion of the entry at Sr. No.3 (vi) of the instant notification, provision for such works contract services (specifically via Clause 3(vi)), O&M services rendered by the Applicant under the Contract with CDAC shall attract GST at the rate of 18% with effect from 01 January 2022 and more clearly with effect from 18 July 2022. This position flows from both the current legal provisions and prevailing industry practice, which sees O&M as an integral element of works contract supply rather than a separable or stand-alone service.
Issues: (i) Whether the applicant qualifies as a Governmental Authority or Local Authority for GST purposes. (ii) Whether the fees collected by the applicant for issuing licences, granting consent or registration, and operating in-house laboratories are exempt from GST under Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate).
Issue (i): Whether the applicant qualifies as a Governmental Authority or Local Authority for GST purposes.
Analysis: The applicant was constituted by the Central Government under Section 3 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and performs statutory functions under environmental enactments. The ruling treated its constitution by statute, its public character, and its functional link with matters of public health, sanitation, solid waste management, and environmental protection as sufficient to place it within the GST concept of Governmental Authority and Local Authority for the purposes of the exemption entry.
Conclusion: The applicant is a Governmental Authority or Local Authority for GST purposes.
Issue (ii): Whether the fees collected by the applicant for issuing licences, granting consent or registration, and operating in-house laboratories are exempt from GST under Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate).
Analysis: Entry 4 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) exempts services by a governmental authority or local authority by way of activity in relation to a function entrusted to a municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution. The applicant's activities were found to be statutory and regulatory in nature and to fall within the municipal subjects relating to public health, sanitation, solid waste management, and protection of the environment and ecological aspects. On that basis, the collections were treated as consideration for exempt services rather than taxable commercial receipts.
Conclusion: The fees collected for the stated statutory activities are exempt from GST and no GST liability arises on such receipts.
Final Conclusion: The advance ruling holds that the applicant is covered by the exemption framework for municipal-function related services and its statutory collections for the specified activities are not liable to GST.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a statutory body qualifies as a governmental or local authority and performs activities that are in relation to functions entrusted to a municipality under Article 243W, the related receipts fall within the exemption under Entry 4 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate).
Levy of GST - amount collected by the applicant in lieu of Grant of License/Consent/Registration/Consent to the various business entity - applicant is Government Authority or Local Authority - activity undertaken are in relation to a municipality under Article 243 W of the Constitution or not - Liability of CPCB (An autonomous body of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change of Govt. of India) to charge GST on the amount collected by it in the Course of discharge of its sovereign and statutory functions/duties under Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974), and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act; 1986.
Whether the amount collected by the applicant in lieu of Grant of License/Consent/Registration/Consent to the various business entity is liable to GST or not in terms of SI. No. 4 of N/N. 12/2017 dated 28.06.2017? - whether the applicant is fall under the definition of Government Authority or Local Authority and the activity undertaken by them are in relation to a municipality under Article 243 W of the Constitution or not? - HELD THAT:- As a result of the analysis of the constitution of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), its legal status under GST laws qualifies it as a “Governmental Authority”/Local Authority in terms of the Notification No. 31/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 13.10.2017 (amendment in N/N. 11/2017 dated 28.06.2017 and Section 2(69), of CGST Act, 2017. Further, it is clarified through Entry No. 4 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28th June 2017, with effect from 28th June, 2017 that services provided by a Governmental Authority/Local Authority in relation to any function entrusted to a municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution is exempt from payment of GST.
The core functions of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), while regulatory in form, are inherently statutory and sovereign in character, and closely align with several functional areas enumerated in the Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution, as contemplated under Article 243W. These include critical domains such as public health, sanitation, solid waste management, environmental protection, and urban forestry, which are also functions entrusted to municipalities. In view of the nature and scope of these responsibilities, and keeping in mind the framework laid down under N/N. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), it is understood that the services rendered by CPCB in furtherance of such functions shall be regarded as falling within the scope of the exemption envisaged therein, as may be, applicable from the date the said notification came into operation.
The functions, under Article 243 @ of the Constitution, entrusted to Municipality specifically mention “Solid waste management and Protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects”. Thus, it is observed that providing protection to the environment and promotion of ecological aspects and Solid Waste Management are one of the functions entrusted to the Municipality under the said Article (Article 243W). It is evident that primary function of CPCB is also to safeguard the environment as well as general public from the negative impact of polluting generating plants. Thus, both the conditions viz. Service has to be provided by Local Authority/Government Authority and activity should falls under Article 243 W of the Constitution, has been fulfilled, hence, the said activity of the applicant is exempted in terms of SI. NO. 4 of the N/N. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017. Therefore, there is no liability of GST arises on the amount collected by the applicant in respect of said activity as the same is exempted service.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an attachment order issued under the recovery provisions of the Income Tax Act must be lifted where appellate authorities (CIT(A) and ITAT) have set aside assessment additions on factual grounds and the order of ITAT has been given effect to.
2. Whether an order of ITAT that resolves factual disputes and is given effect to constitutes a "final and conclusive" determination for the purpose of Section 225(3) of the Income Tax Act so as to oblige the Tax Recovery Officer to amend or cancel a recovery certificate and lift attachment, notwithstanding the Revenue's intention to file higher appeals.
3. Whether payment/remittance of the arrears as per the tribunal's order affects the obligation of the Tax Recovery Officer to lift attachment and remove encumbrances from public records.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Obligation to lift attachment where appellate authorities have set aside assessment additions on factual grounds and orders have been given effect to
Legal framework: Sections 222 and 225 of the Income Tax Act govern the issuance of certificates for recovery and the amendment/cancellation of such certificates where demand is reduced by appeal or other proceeding; the second schedule (Rule 12 and related rules) prescribes procedures for recovery including attachment and sale of immovable property.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed prior decisions which held that when the highest fact-finding authority (ITAT) has decided the factual issues in favour of the assessee and consequential orders are given effect to, the Tax Recovery Officer is bound to act upon such orders and lift attachments; these precedents applied the principle in earlier Supreme Court authority that a tax recovery officer cannot confirm sale or continue recovery when the demand has been reduced to nil by appellate proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court read Sections 222 and 225 together and reasoned that the recovery regime operates on the existence of an outstanding demand certified by the Tax Recovery Officer. If appellate orders eliminate or reduce the demand on fact-finding grounds and those orders are given effect to (i.e., consequential steps taken by tax authorities), there remains no matured certified demand to justify attachment. Attachment is an incident of a certificate of default; when that certificate is rendered inapplicable by final factual adjudication and effect is given, continuing attachment is inconsistent with statutory purpose.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where factual findings by the ITAT result in the demand being set aside or reduced and those findings have been given effect to, the Tax Recovery Officer is obliged to lift attachment and amend/cancel the certificate under Section 225. Observations about procedural steps and practical consequences of future appeals are explanatory (obiter) to the extent they discuss subsequent recommencement of recovery if higher appeal succeeds.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the Tax Recovery Officer must lift attachment once the tribunal's factual determination has been given effect to and no certified arrear subsists.
Issue 2: Meaning of "final and conclusive" in Section 225(3) vis-à-vis the Revenue's further appeals
Legal framework: Section 225(3) uses the expressions "final" and "conclusive" regarding orders in appeal or other proceedings that reduce a demand; Rules in the second schedule and Section 222 contextualise recovery steps premised upon default certification.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on prior High Court decisions interpreting "final and conclusive" in light of the Supreme Court's exposition that reduction to nil by appellate process obliges cancellation of recovery certificates; the Court distinguished authorities that construed finality to require exhaustion of all appellate remedies where facts did not show the demand had been effectively annulled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the Revenue's contention that "final and conclusive" requires exhaustion of all appellate remedies up to higher courts. It reasoned that Section 225(3) must be read with Section 222, and the practical trigger for cancelling certificates is the operative reduction of demand by a competent fact-finding authority and giving effect to that order. Finality for the purpose of cancellation of recovery measures is the effective finality of the demand (i.e., when demand stands reduced or wiped out by appellate orders applied in practice), not the mere pendency of a proposed appeal which has not yet produced a new certificate or consequential demand-making step by the Tax Recovery Officer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - "Final and conclusive" should be understood for recovery cancellation as operative finality of the demand following appellate factual determination and implementation, not theoretical finality pending all further appeals. Obiter - Commentary on the Revenue's liberty to pursue recovery afresh if it succeeds in subsequent appeals.
Conclusions: The Court held that a pending intention by the Revenue to file further appeals does not justify maintaining attachment if the ITAT's factual finding has been given effect to and the demand has been reduced/paid as per that order; cancellation/lifting is required once the demand is effectively nullified.
Issue 3: Effect of remittance/payment of arrears in compliance with tribunal orders on attachment and encumbrances
Legal framework: The statutory scheme ties attachment and other recovery steps to certified arrears; payment of amounts which extinguish the certified liability eliminates the basis for attachment and triggers obligations under Section 225 to amend or cancel certificates and under procedural rules to remove encumbrances.
Precedent treatment: Prior decisions applied the principle that where an assessee pays or the demand stands wiped out pursuant to appellate determination, continued attachment or confirmation of sale is impermissible; courts have ordered returning of documents and removal of encumbrances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted factual matrix where CIT(A) set aside additions, ITAT confirmed the CIT(A) order, and the petitioner had remitted amounts in accordance with the orders; since the arrears thus stood extinguished in substance and effect, no certified default existed to sustain attachment. Procedural obligations followed: Tax Recovery Officer must lift attachment within a fixed period and communicate to registry authorities to remove encumbrances.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Payment/remittance in accordance with and consequent upon appellate disposal that results in no outstanding demand obliges the Tax Recovery Officer to lift attachments and notify registries to remove encumbrances. Observations explaining timelines for fresh recovery if Department later succeeds in appeal are obiter.
Conclusions: The Court directed lifting of attachment within a stipulated period and removal of encumbrances upon communication from the Tax Recovery Officer; it left open the Revenue's right to pursue recovery anew if it later obtains a valid certificate following successful appellate relief.
Cross-references and Practical Outcome
1. Cross-reference to Issues 1-3: The Court applied a consistent statutory reading - Sections 222 and 225 together with second schedule rules - and precedent to hold that effective nullification of demand by fact-finding appellate orders, given effect to, extinguishes the basis for attachment and compels the Tax Recovery Officer to cancel/amend certificates and lift attachments; remittance in accordance with such orders reinforces that position.
2. Practical consequence emphasized: While the Revenue retains the procedural right to appeal, such pending appeals do not preserve attachment if no certified arrear subsists and the tribunal's order has been implemented; the Department may, on success in further appeal, initiate fresh recovery by issuing a fresh certificate and following statutory procedure.
Authority bound to lift attachment when appellate factfinding order is given effect - finality on the factual aspect - attachment cannot continue after demand reduced to nil by appellate order - effect of reduction of demand and cancellation of recovery certificate - Tax Recovery Officer's duty to give effect to orders in appeal/other proceedings
Finality on the factual aspect - attachment cannot continue after demand reduced to nil by appellate order - authority bound to lift attachment when appellate factfinding order is given effect - Whether the attachment dated 10.12.2021 had to be lifted where ITAT confirmed the CIT(A) order on facts and the assessee's arrears stood reduced/paid. - HELD THAT: - The Court held that where the highest factfinding authority (ITAT) has decided the factual controversy in favour of the assessee and the consequent demand has been reduced to nil or the arrears paid in accordance with the appellate orders, further recovery cannot be initiated. Reading Sections 222 and 225(3) together, and following the precedents relied upon, the Court concluded that the Tax Recovery Officer is obliged to give effect to the appellate orders and cannot maintain attachment which is a step antecedent to sale once the demand stands reduced to nil by the appellate authority. The Court treated the issue as no longer res integra in view of earlier decisions of this Court and found those decisions applicable to the facts here where ITAT confirmed the CIT(A) order and the petitioner had presented evidence of payment/adjustment of arrears. [Paras 18, 21]
Attachment could not continue and had to be lifted as the ITAT order on facts had been given effect and the arrears stood reduced/paid.
Tax Recovery Officer's duty to give effect to orders in appeal/other proceedings - effect of reduction of demand and cancellation of recovery certificate - Whether the Tax Recovery Officer and the SubRegistrar should be directed to lift the attachment and remove encumbrances consequent to the appellate orders. - HELD THAT: - Applying the legal position established by this Court and the precedents extracted in the judgment, the Court directed the first respondent (Tax Recovery Officer) to lift the impugned order of attachment and communicate the lifting to the SubRegistrar so that encumbrances reflected in the encumbrance certificate are removed. The direction follows from the principle that once the demand has been reduced to nil by an appellate order and given effect to, the certificate of recovery must be amended/cancelled and consequential steps taken to release the property from attachment; departmental appeal rights do not permit continuation of attachment while the actoadministrative consequence of the appellate order remains unimplemented. [Paras 22]
First respondent directed to lift attachment and inform the third respondent to remove encumbrances within four weeks; writ petition disposed of.
Final Conclusion: Writ petition allowed; Tax Recovery Officer directed to lift the attachment dated 10.12.2021 and communicate the same to the SubRegistrar for removal of encumbrances within four weeks; connected petitions closed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Tribunal was justified in restricting additions for alleged bogus purchases to 15% of the disputed amount rather than adding the full amount claimed as bogus.
2. Whether the Tribunal was justified in accepting the assessee's contention that purchases from a particular supplier were overstated (typographical error) and limiting the disputed purchase figure accordingly.
3. Whether reliance by the Assessing Officer on information received from the Sales Tax/ VAT authorities, without furnishing that information to the assessee or permitting cross-examination of alleged suppliers, justified holding the purchases to be wholly bogus.
4. Whether payments routed through banking channels negate a finding of bogus purchases where the supplier is alleged to be non-existent.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of restricting addition to 15% of alleged bogus purchases
Legal framework: Income Tax law permits addition of income where expenditure/ purchases are found to be bogus; assessing authorities must form a reasoned belief under sections permitting reassessment and make additions where income has escaped assessment.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal and Commissioner (Appeals) applied a percentage method (15%) to quantify the portion of alleged hawala/bogus purchases attributable to unaccounted income, relying on prior judicial decisions permitting restriction of full additions to a reasonable embedded profit/taxable element.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes concurrent findings by the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal that (a) materials/ goods were consumed by the assessee; (b) payments were made through banking channels; (c) the assessee had offered and paid tax on high gross and net profit ratios for actual trading; and (d) the nature of alleged hawala transactions indicated inflation of purchases rather than complete siphoning of funds. Given these factual findings and authorities relied upon, the lower authorities concluded that the quantum of unaccounted income could not be equated with the entire amount of disputed purchases and a restricted addition of 15% was appropriate.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where there is no unequivocal proof that the entirety of disputed purchases are bogus, Assessing Officer must not make a full addition; quantification may be restricted to a reasonable percentage representing the taxable element. Obiter - considerations on the precise percentage chosen may depend on facts and precedents applied.
Conclusion: The Court upheld the concurrent factual and legal conclusion of the lower authorities that restricting the addition to 15% of the hawala purchases was justified; this finding of fact does not raise a substantial question of law warranting interference.
Issue 2 - Acceptance of corrected purchase figure for a specific supplier (typographical error)
Legal framework: Assessing proceedings require verification of claimed purchases; where assessee produces documentary evidence (ledgers, purchase bills, bank payments, VAT auditor certificate) demonstrating error in reported figures, authorities must consider corrected figures.
Precedent treatment: Lower authorities accepted certificate from the assessee's VAT auditor correcting the supplier amount and recalculated the disputed quantum accordingly.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court records that the assessee produced a VAT auditor's certificate indicating a typographical error (actual purchase much lower than recorded). The Tribunal and Commissioner (Appeals) found that the assessee furnished detailed documents and that the corrected figure was supported on the record; hence they reduced the disputed purchase amount for that supplier accordingly.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where documentary evidence, including a VAT auditor's certificate, establishes a bona fide correction of recorded purchase figures, assessing authorities should accept and base additions on the corrected amount unless there is contrary cogent evidence. Obiter - the weight to be accorded to such certificates depends on the whole evidence.
Conclusion: The Court affirmed the reduction of the specific supplier's purchase figure to the corrected amount as a concurrent factual finding, not raising a substantial legal question for interference.
Issue 3 - Reliance on Sales Tax information without furnishing it or permitting cross-examination; natural justice
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice and fair procedure require that material relied upon to form an opinion affecting taxpayer's rights be disclosed so the taxpayer can respond; Assessing Officer's re-opening and additions based solely on third-party information must be supported by furnishable, specific material.
Precedent treatment: The Court referred to an earlier decision (Principal Commissioner v. SVD Resins and Plastics Pvt. Ltd.) holding that general information from Sales Tax authorities, without specific corroborative proof and without furnishing to the assessee, is an insufficient basis to wholly reject documents produced by the assessee.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the re-opening and additions were based primarily on information from the Sales Tax Department which was not furnished to the assessee and which did not conclusively demonstrate that transactions with the assessee were bogus. The VAT assessments were pending; the assessee had filed bills, bank proofs and other documents and asserted no acceptance of hawala purchases. The Court held that making full additions without allowing the assessee to cross-examine the alleged suppliers or furnishing the Sales Tax material breached fairness and was an improper approach.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - general information from Sales Tax authorities, not placed on record or specific as to the assessee's transactions, cannot justify making full additions; the assessee is entitled to be furnished the material and an opportunity to meet it. Obiter - coordination between Income Tax and Sales Tax authorities is desirable to avoid anomalous outcomes.
Conclusion: The Court held that reliance on undisclosed Sales Tax information and denial of opportunity to cross-examine suppliers rendered the Assessing Officer's approach invalid for sustaining full additions; thus the Tribunal's and CIT(A)'s approach (which required more specific proof and reduced the addition) was justified.
Issue 4 - Sufficiency of banking channel payments to rebut allegation of bogus purchases
Legal framework: Evidence of payment through banking channels is a relevant factor bearing on genuineness of transactions but is not, by itself, conclusive; assessment requires overall appraisal of documents and inquiry outcomes.
Precedent treatment: Lower authorities considered payments through account-payee cheques and other documentary proofs as supporting genuineness; they nonetheless examined whether purchases were inflated.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the assessee produced bank payment proofs and that payments were routed through banking channels. While the revenue argued that non-existence of a supplier can render transactions bogus despite banking payments, the Court accepted the concurrent finding that banking payments, consumption of material, and absence of defects in invoices warranted a restricted approach rather than a full addition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - banking channel payments constitute material relevant to veracity of purchases and, together with other documents, may rebut a finding of wholly bogus transactions; they should be considered in the assessee's favour in absence of specific contrary proof. Obiter - banking payments alone may not be decisive if independent evidence establishes supplier non-existence.
Conclusion: The Court accepted the lower authorities' factual conclusion that banking channel payments, along with other documentary material, supported restricting the addition rather than treating the entire purchase amount as bogus.
OVERALL CONCLUSION
The Court affirmed the concurrent factual findings of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal that: (i) the Assessing Officer's wholesale rejection of disputed purchases based solely on undisclosed Sales Tax information was improper; (ii) the assessee had produced documentary evidence (including corrected VAT auditor certificate and bank payments) justifying reduction/ re-quantification; and (iii) a restricted addition of 15% of disputed hawala purchases was appropriate. These are findings of fact which do not raise any substantial question of law; the appeal by revenue is dismissed.
Estimating of income - bogus purchases - Addition based on information received by the Assessing Officer from the Sales Tax Department - ITAT restricting GP to 15% and in turn calculating the GP on amount of bogus purchases - HELD THAT:- As both the CIT(A) and the ITAT have examined all the facts in so far as the alleged bogus purchases are concerned and also that the Respondent-Assessee had discharged the onus of proving the genuineness of the purchases made from the respective purchase and also submitted the certificate from the VAT Auditor in respect of the transaction from M/s. Entech Enterprises, to the tune of Rs. 11,63,175/- as opposed to Rs. 1,16,53,175/-. Both the authorities i.e. CIT(A) and ITAT have reached their conclusion, on the basis of the facts and the material on record.
It is our view the CIT(A) and ITAT on appreciation of the facts have recorded concurrent factual finding in respect of the bogus purchases and have rightly restricted the additions @ 15% of Hawala purchases. No substantial question of law arises.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the transfer pricing adjustment made by the assessing authorities on account of Advertising, Marketing and Promotional (AMP) expenses could be sustained where the issue is governed by an earlier decision of the High Court in the assessee's own case.
2. Whether the amendment to Section 14A of the Income-tax Act read with Rule 8D of the Income-tax Rules (inserted by Finance Act, 2022 with a non obstante clause and an Explanation stated to be "for removal of doubts") operates retrospectively so as to affect assessment years prior to its stated effective date.
3. Condonation of delay in filing/refiling the appeal (application for condonation of delay) - whether the delay should be excused.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Transfer pricing adjustment on AMP expenses
Legal framework: Transfer pricing adjustments are permissible where international transactions require arm's length pricing; adjustments to AMP expenses are assessed against the taxpayer when such expenditure is treated as international transaction benefiting associated enterprises.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on an earlier decision of the same High Court in the assessee's own case which held in favour of deleting the transfer pricing adjustment on AMP expenses; that earlier High Court view has subsequently been followed by the Tribunal.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the present issue is squarely covered by the prior High Court decision and by the Tribunal's reliance on that decision. The appellant/Revenue candidly accepted that the AMP issue is covered by the earlier Division Bench ruling. Given the direct precedent in the same factual and legal matrix, the Court was not inclined to frame any substantial question of law nor to disturb the deletion of the adjustment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an identical legal issue in the same factual context has been finally decided by a coordinate Division Bench of the High Court in favour of the taxpayer, subsequent identical adjustments ought to be deleted unless and until that precedent is stayed or overruled; Obiter - none material to this point.
Conclusion: The transfer pricing adjustment on AMP expenses cannot be sustained in the present appeal and that ground is covered by precedent in favour of the assessee; no substantial question of law arises on this issue.
Issue 2 - Retrospectivity of amendment to Section 14A and applicability of Rule 8D
Legal framework: Section 14A governs disallowance of expenditure attributable to exempt income; Finance Act, 2022 inserted (i) a non obstante clause in sub-section (1) and (ii) an Explanation stated to clarify application "for removal of doubts". The legislative memorandum expressly indicates that these amendments take effect from 1 April 2022 and apply to assessment year 2022-23 and subsequent years. The general tax law principle is that the law operative in the relevant assessment year governs assessments unless a statute clearly provides retrospective effect.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on controlling Supreme Court principles that an Explanation described as being "for removal of doubts" will not be given retrospective effect if it alters or changes the existing law; such an Explanation, if clarificatory in nature, may be read back to the original provision, but if it changes the substantive law, it should operate prospectively as the legislature has expressly provided. The Court further relied on High Court precedents of coordinate benches applying these principles and holding against retrospective application of the 2022 amendment to Section 14A for earlier assessment years.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the Memorandum to the Finance Bill which expressly confines the amendment's effectivity to 1 April 2022 and subsequent assessment years. Applying the Supreme Court's jurisprudence, the Court held that where an Explanation actually changes the law as it earlier stood (rather than merely clarifies an ambiguity), it cannot be presumed to have retrospective effect notwithstanding the phrase "for removal of doubts". The Court found that the amendment would alter the legal position previously applied by authorities and tribunals; consequently it cannot be treated as retrospectively applicable to the assessment year under challenge. The Court also noted that several Division Bench decisions of this Court had adopted the same approach and that those decisions were under challenge before the Supreme Court but not stayed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An Explanation in a tax statute that is framed "for removal of doubts" will not be construed as retrospective to affect prior assessment years if it alters or widens the law as it earlier stood; where the legislative memorandum or statutory text indicates prospective operation (specific effective date), the amendment applies prospectively only. Obiter - references to particular prior decisions and their interplay with pending appeals in the Supreme Court do not alter the above principle.
Conclusion: The amendment to Section 14A (and its interaction with Rule 8D) cannot be applied retrospectively to the assessment year in question; the Tribunal/High Court decisions in favour of the assessee on Section 14A issues remain binding for the relevant year and no substantial question of law arises warranting interference. Accordingly, the Court dismissed the appeal insofar as it sought to invoke the 2022 amendment retrospectively.
Cross-reference between Issues 1 and 2
Both issues were treated on the basis of binding coordinate High Court precedents in the assessee's favour; the Court refused to entertain re-litigation of points where identical questions had been decided by a Division Bench and where the legislative amendment relied upon by Revenue cannot be given retrospective effect to disturb those decisions.
Issue 3 - Condonation of delay
Legal framework: Judicial discretion to condone delay in filing or refiling appeals is exercised on established principles; reasons presented for delay must be considered and, if acceptable, delay may be condoned.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court considered the applications and reasons presented and exercised its discretion to condone the delays of 18 days in filing and 17 days in refiling the appeal.
Conclusion: Delay in filing/refiling the appeal was condoned and the condonation applications were disposed of accordingly.
TP Adjustment - Advertising Marketing and Promotional (AMP) expenses - international transaction or not? - HELD THAT:- The addition on account ALP adjustment for AMP Expenses is squarely covered by the decision of the Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court in assessee/appellant's own case, which was followed by the ITAT subsequently. Hence, no addition on this score either protective or substantive could be made.
Amendment to section 14A of the Act read with 8D of the IT Rules - The amendment of Section 14A, which is “for removal of doubts” cannot be presumed to be retrospective even where such language is used, if it alters or changes the law as it earlier stood.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the order passed under Section 148A(3) read with Sections 147/148 of the Income Tax Act is amenable to quashing at the writ stage where the Assessing Officer has recorded reasons to believe escapement of income and issued notice after independent verification.
2. Whether the Assessing Officer's action suffers from "borrowed satisfaction" or lack of independent application of mind, rendering the reopening invalid.
3. Whether the sanction under Section 151 was vitiated by want of application of mind such that proceedings are void.
4. Whether the material relied upon (STR/Investigation Wing report, bank statements obtained under Section 133(6), ledger entries and admissions) suffices to show prima facie escapement of income and justification for additions under Sections 68 and 69C.
5. Whether alleged procedural or substantive arbitrariness/selective action (Article 14) arises from initiating proceedings against the assessee without proceeding against the counterparty.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of reopening under Sections 147/148 read with Section 148A(3): Legal framework
The statutory scheme permits reopening where the Assessing Officer forms a reasoned belief that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; at the notice stage a prima facie belief based on material in possession suffices. Reopening must satisfy procedural pre-conditions under Sections 148/148A and, where applicable, prior approval under Section 151.
Precedent Treatment
The Court treated governing authorities consistently with the principle that at the stage of issuing notice the AO need only have prima facie reasons (as encapsulated in earlier authoritative rulings referred to by the order) and followed the approach of validating issuance of notice where credible material exists.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Court examined the impugned order which (i) reviewed the petitioner's replies and documentary record, (ii) recorded absence of requisite NBFC documentation and (iii) recorded independent verification steps (including Section 133(6) inquiry producing bank statements). The Court concluded the order is a speaking order addressing petitioner's contentions and demonstrating a prima facie case for escapement.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where the AO records specific reasons based on verifiable material and conducts independent verification, the reopening notice under Section 148 is not susceptible to quashing in writ jurisdiction merely on merits. Obiter: Remarks on broader fact patterns distinguishing mere suspicion from documentary corroboration.
Conclusion
The Court held the reopening under Sections 147/148 read with 148A(3) was justified and not liable to be quashed at this stage.
Issue 2 - Allegation of "borrowed satisfaction" and independent application of mind
Legal framework
The doctrine of "borrowed satisfaction" invalidates actions where the AO mechanically adopts investigation findings without independent verification. Conversely, independent application of mind by the AO cures that vice; issuance of independent queries and examination of primary documents is determinative.
Precedent Treatment
The Court relied on and applied precedent principles distinguishing borrowed satisfaction from legitimate reliance where independent verification has been conducted; it accepted that independent verification neutralises the borrowed satisfaction objection.
Interpretation and reasoning
The order under challenge demonstrates independent steps: specific queries to the assessee, issuance of Section 133(6) notice to the counterparty, scrutiny of bank statements and ledger entries, and comparative analysis of conflicting statements. The Court found these steps evidence application of mind and negated the borrowed-satisfaction contention.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Independent enquiries (e.g., Section 133(6) notices, documentary verification) constitute application of mind and validate reliance on investigative inputs; mere invocation of borrowed satisfaction is insufficient where AO has undertaken independent fact-finding. Obiter: Emphasis on depth of inquiry required in other factual matrices.
Conclusion
The Court concluded the AO applied independent mind; the objection of borrowed satisfaction fails.
Issue 3 - Validity of sanction under Section 151
Legal framework
Sanction under Section 151 is a pre-condition for initiation of proceedings in certain cases; it must not be a merely mechanical approval and must be based on the material placed before the sanctioning authority.
Precedent Treatment
The Court applied the established rule that absence of meaningful application of mind in sanctioning can vitiate proceedings, but where record shows prior independent enquiries and adequate material, sanction is sustainable.
Interpretation and reasoning
The impugned order expressly records that prior independent verification and material (bank statements, STRs, ledger entries, contradictory statements) existed and that sanction was obtained after such inquiry. The Court found no specific challenge of mala fides or extraneous consideration in the sanctioning process.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Sanction under Section 151 is valid where it follows consideration of relevant material evidencing escapement; absence of detailed narrative by the sanctioning authority does not automatically invalidate sanction if the overarching record demonstrates application of mind. Obiter: Not all forms of brief sanctioning will suffice in materially different circumstances.
Conclusion
The Court found the Section 151 sanction was not vitiated and the challenge to sanction failed.
Issue 4 - Sufficiency of material (STR, Section 133(6) bank statements, ledger entries) to prima facie establish escapement and justification for invoking Sections 68 and 69C
Legal framework
Section 68 requires the assessee to satisfactorily explain credits in books (identity, creditworthiness, genuineness). Section 69C deems unexplained expenditure to be income where the assessee fails to explain nature and source. STRs, bank records and internal ledgers may constitute material to form prima facie belief.
Precedent Treatment
The Court applied established principles (as represented in earlier authorities cited in the order) that where an assessee's explanation is not satisfactory and material corroborates suspicious fund flows, additions under Sections 68/69C are prima facie justifiable for assessment/reopening purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning
The AO relied on: (i) STR/Investigation Wing report, (ii) bank statement entries obtained under Section 133(6) showing transfers from the alleged accommodation-provider to the counterparty, (iii) ledger entries and admissions by the assessee of transactions on "mutual understanding," (iv) absence of NBFC-prescribed documentation, and (v) demonstrable falsehoods in counterparty's prior statements. Collectively these items were held to establish a traceable money trail and undermine the genuineness/creditworthiness of the counterparty and the genuineness of claimed expenditures.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Documentary bank evidence and corroborative material can substantiate a prima facie case of unexplained credits and bogus expenditure to permit reopening and additions under Sections 68 and 69C. Obiter: The ultimate viability of specific additions remains for the Assessing Officer/Tribunal on full adjudication.
Conclusion
The Court found there was sufficient credible material to justify the AO's prima facie conclusion that Rs.6.75 crores had escaped assessment comprising unexplained credits and bogus expenditure.
Issue 5 - Allegation of arbitrariness/selective action (Article 14) for not initiating proceedings against the counterparty
Legal framework
Article 14 prohibits arbitrary or discriminatory state action; selective prosecution may incur constitutional scrutiny where shown to be mala fide or discriminatory without rational basis.
Precedent Treatment
The Court applied the threshold that mere selective action does not vitiate proceedings in absence of material showing mala fides, discriminatory intent or extraneous considerations influencing decision-making.
Interpretation and reasoning
The impugned order shows specific independent inquiries directed at the counterparty (Section 133(6) notice). The AO's focus on the assessee's books and explanations was justified because the statutory burden in respect of credits rests on the recipient; the fact that proceedings against a counterparty were not initiated immediately does not demonstrate arbitrariness where the record shows targeted verification and credible suspicion against the assessee.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Selective action will not invalidate proceedings unless demonstrable mala fide or extraneous considerations are shown; targeted enquiries into a particular assessee may be justified by the material on record. Obiter: Different fact patterns where counterparty is clearly exonerated might attract different outcomes.
Conclusion
The Court found no established arbitrariness or Article 14 violation warranting interference.
Overarching Conclusion of the Court
The Court dismissed the writ petition, holding that the impugned order under Section 148A(3) and consequent issuance of notice under Section 148 are supported by specific and credible material, show independent application of mind, satisfy sanction requirements under Section 151, and that statutory and jurisprudential thresholds for prima facie escapement of income under Sections 68/69C were met; therefore the Court declined to interfere at the writ stage, leaving merits to be adjudicated by the Assessing Officer/tribunal as per law.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - reasons to believe - allegation of Proceedings Based on Suspicion, Borrowed Satisfaction and No Specific Nexus -HELD THAT:- Having noted the above factual narrative and in view of settled position of law in terms of the judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Principal Director of Income Tax (Investigation) and Others v. Laljibhai Kanjibhai Mandalia [2022 (7) TMI 639 - SUPREME COURT] we are of the view that the impugned order needs no interference, when no jurisdiction plea has been advanced.
The Supreme Court has held in Laljibhai (supra) as held the sufficiency or inadequacy of the reasons to believe recorded cannot be gone into while considering the validity of an act of authorisation to conduct search and seizure. The belief recorded alone is justiciable but only while keeping in view the Wednesbury 22 Principle of Reasonableness. Such reasonableness is not a power to act as an appellate authority over the reasons to believe recorded.
The formation of opinion and the reasons to believe recorded is not a judicial or quasi-judicial function but administrative in character.The information must be in possession of the authorised official on the basis of the material and that the formation of opinion must be honest and bona fide. It cannot be merely pretence. Consideration of any extraneous or irrelevant material would vitiate the belief/satisfaction. The authority must have information in its possession on the basis of which a reasonable belief can be founded that the person concerned has omitted or failed to produce books of accounts or other documents for production of which summons or notice had been issued, or such person will not produce such books of accounts or other documents even if summons or notice is issued to him.
The relevance of the reasons for the formation of the belief is to be tested by the judicial restraint as in administrative action as the Court does not sit as a court of appeal but merely reviews the manner in which the decision was made. The Court shall not examine the sufficiency or adequacy thereof. In terms of the Explanation inserted by the Finance Act, 2017 with retrospective effect from 1-4-1962, such reasons to believe as recorded by the Income Tax Authorities are not required to be disclosed to any person or any authority or the Appellate Tribunal.
We accordingly dismiss the petition.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether deduction under section 80IA(4)(iii) for construction, development and maintenance of an industrial park can be disallowed on the basis of a subsequent administrative withdrawal of the approval/notification by the Central Government where the assessee had earlier been notified and deduction was allowed in an earlier assessment year.
2. Whether the rule of consistency/preclusive effect of an earlier allowance of deduction in the initial year precludes reassessment or disallowance in subsequent years absent fresh material showing non-fulfilment of conditions.
3. Consequences of a judicial quashing of the Government's withdrawal of approval/notification on assessments and whether the basis for prior disallowance falls away.
4. Whether penalty under section 271(1)(c) can be sustained where the addition/disallowance that formed the basis for the penalty is negated by subsequent acceptance of the deduction (including by judicial order), such that there is no concealed income or inaccurate particulars.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of disallowance of section 80IA deduction based solely on administrative withdrawal of approval/notification
Legal framework: Deduction under section 80IA(4)(iii) is available to undertakings notified by the Central Government; such notification/approval is a material condition for claiming the deduction. Administrative withdrawal of approval is effected by the granting authority and may be relied upon by revenue to disallow benefits claimed on that basis.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied a leading Supreme Court authority on the rule of consistency (referred to generically) and a ratio from a High Court decision concerning interpretation of scheme conditions and reasonable delay in commissioning of projects (Bombay High Court reasoning described in the judgment) as persuasive on the proper construction of Scheme provisions permitting some temporal flexibility.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined that the only substantive basis for disallowance in the assessment order was the Central Government's withdrawal of approval. The withdrawal itself was subsequently challenged and quashed by the jurisdictional High Court which found the withdrawal to be unreasoned, to have ignored record and explanations regarding constructed area, super area leased and non-suppression of facts, and to be inconsistent with scheme provisions (notably paragraph 9 of the Scheme) and analogous High Court reasoning. The Tribunal held that where the administrative act of withdrawal is set aside by the High Court, the foundational basis for the assessment disallowance (i.e., lack of valid notification/approval) no longer existed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where disallowance is founded solely on an administrative withdrawal of approval, judicial quashing of that withdrawal removes the basis for disallowance and supports restoration of the deduction. Obiter - observations on the scope of administrative powers to withdraw approvals beyond the specific record of the case.
Conclusion: Disallowance of the section 80IA deduction based only on the withdrawn notification cannot stand when the withdrawal has been quashed on merits; the deduction is to be allowed if no other adverse finding exists on eligibility.
Issue 2 - Effect of prior allowance in the initial year and application of the rule of consistency
Legal framework: Judicial principle that when an assessee's entitlement to an exemption/deduction is examined and allowed in an earlier (initial) year after due verification, the same entitlement ordinarily continues in subsequent years unless fresh material or changed circumstances justify reconsideration.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the established Supreme Court principle (described generically) that the rule of consistency requires continuation of the allowance in subsequent years in absence of fresh material affecting eligibility.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the deduction was first claimed and allowed after verification in earlier assessment years (the initial year and a subsequent year). No fresh material, beyond the administrative withdrawal (later quashed), was placed on record to justify denying the deduction in later years. The Tribunal therefore applied the rule of consistency and concluded that once the eligibility was tested and allowed initially, subsequent disallowance was not permissible without new evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - consistency principle binds subsequent assessments and supports continuing allowance of deduction absent new adverse material. Obiter - remarks on the limits of consistency where genuine fresh material emerges (not applicable in present facts).
Conclusion: The assessee's previously allowed deduction should have been continued for subsequent years; the rule of consistency precluded disallowance in the absence of fresh adverse material.
Issue 3 - Effect of High Court order quashing withdrawal and duty of authorities thereafter
Legal framework: A judicial order quashing an administrative withdrawal reinstates the position antecedent to withdrawal unless a fresh reasoned order, following grant of opportunity and addressing the record, is issued by the competent authority as directed by the Court.
Precedent treatment: The High Court remitted the matter to the administrative authority to consider all materials, grant hearing and pass a reasoned order restricted to specific factual questions (constructed area, suppression, scheme requirements). Tribunal treated that directive as leaving the earlier approval effectively intact pending any fresh reasoned order - none of which was produced by revenue.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because revenue did not produce any subsequent reasoned order of the competent authority following the High Court's remit, the notification/approval remained in force. The Tribunal held that the absence of any fresh administrative determination meant that the only ground for the AO's disallowance (the withdrawn notification) no longer subsisted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a judicial quashing restores the approval and no fresh administrative order is issued, assessments predicated solely on the withdrawn approval must be re-evaluated in favor of the assessee. Obiter - procedural expectations from administrative reconsideration following judicial remittal.
Conclusion: The quashing of withdrawal restored the basis for the section 80IA deduction; in absence of any fresh administrative action adverse to the assessee, the Tribunal allowed the deduction for the relevant years.
Issue 4 - Sustenance of penalty under section 271(1)(c) where disallowance is negated
Legal framework: Penalty under section 271(1)(c) attaches where the assessee has furnished inaccurate particulars or concealed income; such penalty presupposes that the addition/disallowance representing concealed/inaccurate particulars stands on merits.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the logical corollary that when the underlying addition is deleted (here by allowing the deduction on merits and in consequence of judicial quashing of the withdrawal), there remains no basis for concluding concealment or inaccurate particulars.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessment addition forming the basis of penalty was predicated on the disallowance of the section 80IA claim. As that disallowance was reversed (and the approval restored), there was no remaining concealed income or inaccurate particulars relating to that issue; the CIT(A)'s deletion of the penalty was therefore upheld.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalty cannot be sustained where the foundational addition has been reversed and no other independent finding of concealment or inaccuracy exists. Obiter - considerations where independent evidence of deceit or suppression exists irrespective of net additions (not present here).
Conclusion: Deletion of the penalty under section 271(1)(c) was correct because the deduction was held to be allowable, leaving no concealed income or inaccurate particulars on that account.
Final Disposition (as applied to the legal issues)
The Tribunal allowed the assessee's appeal on entitlement to section 80IA deduction for the year under challenge and upheld the deletion of penalty; revenue appeals for subsequent assessment years were dismissed where the CIT(A) had allowed the deduction following the High Court's quashing of the withdrawal and no fresh adverse administrative order was produced. Cross-reference: Issues 1-3 are interlinked - the judicial quashing (Issue 3) removed the administrative basis (Issue 1) and, combined with the rule of consistency (Issue 2), required allowing the deduction; Issue 4 flows from these results.
Denial of deduction u/s 80IA - Deduction was allowed in First year but denied subsequently - claim disallowed later years for the sole reason that there were difference in the area notified in the approval and the area constructed and finally the Government of India has withdrawn the notification granting the approval for construction of industrial park to the assessee
HELD THAT:- Once the deduction u/s 80IA is allowed in the first year it has to be allowed in the subsequent year also by following the rule of consistency as has been held in the case of Radha Swami Satsang [1991 (11) TMI 2 - SUPREME COURT]
As further seen that based on the withdrawal of the approval by the Central government, the AO has reopened the assessment proceedings for AY 2008-09 and 2009-10 which were challenged before the Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court [2018 (8) TMI 61 - DELHI HIGH COURT] has quashed such withdrawal.
Revenue has not placed any fresh order issued by the government after the order of hon’ble jurisdictional High court and thus the approval granted earlier remined in force. In view of these facts and further considering the order of Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court quashing the order of withdrawal of approval, in our opinion, the assessee is entitled for the deduction u/s 80-IA which is hereby allowed. All the grounds of appeal taken by assessee are allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether purchases allegedly made from eleven suppliers could be held non-genuine/unverifiable so as to attract addition under section 69C as unexplained expenditure.
2. If purchases are held non-genuine, what is the correct method and quantum for estimating the profit element to be added - whether AO's blanket 25% of purchases is sustainable or the gross profit rate declared in books may be applied.
3. Whether the assessing officer's enquiries under section 133(6) and physical verification were sufficient to justify treating suppliers as non-existent and to draw adverse inference in absence of replies.
4. Whether the confirmed disallowance of carriage inward expenses relating to such purchases is justified once purchases are treated as bogus.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legality of treating purchases from eleven suppliers as non-genuine/unverifiable
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered provisions empowering AO to verify transactions and treat unexplained expenditure under section 69C where transactions are not satisfactorily explained. Procedural provisions for enquiry under section 133(6) and reliance on physical verification reports were applied to test existence and genuineness of suppliers.
Precedent treatment: The Court referred to authorities recognising that AO cannot make additions merely on suspicion without independent inquiry (e.g., Pr. CIT v. Shapoorji Pallonji), and to cases where profit element only (not entire purchases) was disallowed where books/sales were otherwise accepted (e.g., Rajeev G. Kalathil; Belmarks Metal Works; cases cited in para 6.34-6.41). The decision in N.K. Proteins was discussed but not mechanically applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO issued notices under section 133(6) to suppliers; physical verification was carried out by verification unit which found most suppliers not traceable at given addresses and that GST registrations of most suppliers were cancelled (some cancelled before or during year under appeal). None of the called suppliers responded. The Tribunal accepted the AO's independent inquiries as adequate, distinguishing situations where AO made no independent inquiry. Given cancellation of GST numbers during or prior to the year under appeal and non-filing/non-response by suppliers, the Tribunal concluded the existence and creditworthiness of suppliers were doubtful and purchases could be treated as non-genuine.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - AO's independent enquiry by notices under s.133(6) and physical verification that suppliers were non-existent or had cancelled GST registrations, combined with non-response, can justify treating purchases as unverifiable/bogus under s.69C. Obiter - references to other cases where higher GP rates were applied in different factual matrices serve as contextual support.
Conclusion: Purchases from the eleven suppliers were correctly held non-genuine/unverifiable based on documentary and verification evidence and non-cooperation by suppliers; AO's enquiries were sufficient to draw adverse inference.
Issue 2 - Appropriate method and quantum of addition: 25% of purchases v. application of declared gross profit rate
Legal framework: Where purchases are held bogus but sales and books are otherwise accepted, the correct approach is to estimate the suppressed profit element embedded in bogus purchases rather than disallow entire purchase amount; estimating profit may be done by reference to gross profit rate in books or other reliable benchmarks.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on multiple precedents (e.g., Rajeev G. Kalathil; Belmarks; various Tribunal/High Court decisions) which often restrict addition to the profit element - sometimes applying book gross profit, sometimes applying higher rates where factual indicia justify it. The Supreme Court's non-speaking order in N.K. Proteins was considered but its factual distinction and non-speaking nature were noted; the Tribunal did not treat it as automatically mandating a 25% addition.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO applied a flat 25% disallowance without articulating basis for that specific rate in the facts of this manufacturing concern. The Tribunal found that (i) gross profit of the assessee for the year under appeal was 1.39% as per audited books; (ii) sales were accepted and books were not rejected in totality; (iii) in absence of basis for 25% the fairer approach is to estimate suppressed gross profit by applying the assessee's declared GP rate to the unverifiable purchases. The Tribunal acknowledged precedents permitting higher estimation in harsher factual matrices but concluded those were distinguishable on facts (e.g., admissions of bogus turnover, statements of suppliers, search cases). Accordingly it upheld the CIT(A)'s use of 1.39% on the aggregate unverifiable purchases to compute the addition (Rs. 56,94,317/-).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where sales/books are otherwise accepted and AO applies no reasoned basis for a higher rate, the profit element embedded in bogus purchases may be fairly estimated by applying the gross profit rate declared in the assessee's books for the year under appeal. Obiter - Discussion of cases applying much higher rates in more adverse factual situations illustrates the range of permissible estimation depending on facts.
Conclusion: AO's blanket 25% addition was not sustained; applying the declared GP rate of 1.39% to the unverifiable purchases was held fair and reasonable and the addition was accordingly limited to the profit element so computed.
Issue 3 - Sufficiency of enquiries under section 133(6) and physical verification to draw adverse inference
Legal framework: AO must conduct independent enquiries and afford opportunity to assessee to rebut adverse material before making additions. Section 133(6) and physical verification reports are appropriate investigative tools; absence of responses may justify adverse inference if enquiries were properly conducted.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal distinguished authorities where AO drew adverse inference without conducting independent enquiry, and aligned with cases upholding adverse inference where AO's independent probes (including statutory notices and verification) yielded no credible response from alleged suppliers.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO issued notices u/s 133(6); verification unit physically visited addresses and reported non-availability of parties; GST cancellations substantiated doubts. The Tribunal found these constituted adequate independent investigation. Because none of the suppliers replied, the assessee's documentary production (invoices, e-way bills, bank payments, GST returns) did not negate the absence/invalidity of suppliers. The Tribunal thus upheld drawing adverse inference based on these enquiries.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Independent inquiries under s.133(6) and physical verification that demonstrate non-existence or cancellation of registrations permit drawing adverse inference in absence of supplier responses. Obiter - Observations about digital footprints and non-issuance of some notices where contact details missing.
Conclusion: The AO's and verification unit's enquiries were sufficient to justify adverse inference; non-cooperation of suppliers reinforced the finding of unverifiable purchases.
Issue 4 - Disallowance of carriage inward expenses linked to bogus purchases
Legal framework: Expenses directly attributable to purchases held bogus are liable to be disallowed to the extent those purchases are disallowed; when only profit element is added, related expense disallowance should correspond to that treatment.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied the conclusion on bogus purchases to linked expenses; no separate novel legal principle was invoked.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having upheld the finding that purchases from the 11 suppliers were non-genuine and having limited addition to the profit element (1.39% on such purchases), the Tribunal found no infirmity in the CIT(A)'s confirmation of partial disallowance of carriage inward in relation to those purchases.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Once purchases are treated as bogus and profit element added, related carriage inward expenses attributable to such purchases can be disallowed proportionately. Obiter - None.
Conclusion: Confirmation of the limited disallowance of carriage inward expenses was justified and cross-objection on this score was dismissed.
Overall Disposition
The Tribunal upheld the CIT(A)'s findings that purchases from the specified suppliers were non-genuine/unverifiable on the basis of independent enquiries and physical verification, but restricted the quantum of addition to the profit element by applying the assessee's declared gross profit rate of 1.39% to the unverifiable purchases. Consequential disallowance of carriage inward expenses was also sustained.
Unverifiable and bogus purchases - addition of 25% of the total purchases from them was made u/s 69C by AO - CIT(A) confirmed the addition by applying GP rate of 1.39% on such bogus purchases - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) has reached the conclusion that purchases made from these 11 parties was not genuine purchases and under these circumstances a fair estimation is to be made, therefore, the profit rate of 1.39% on such bogus purchase as applied by ld. CIT(AP appears to be fair and reasonable and accordingly, the order of the Ld. CIT(A) on this score is hereby upheld.
Disallowance on account of carriage inward expenses - Since, we have already held the purchase of bogus and upheld the action of the Ld. CIT(A) in confirming the addition by applying the G.P. rate of 1.39%, we find no infirmity in the impugned order of Ld. CIT(A) in confirming the disallowance to the extent of the carriage inward related to such purchases. Accordingly, this Cross Objections of the assessee is dismissed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Assessing Officer was justified in treating cash bank deposits during the demonetisation period as unexplained cash credits and adding the amount under section 68 read with section 115BBE by rejecting the books of account under section 145(3).
2. Whether rejection of books of account under section 145(3) is permissible on the basis of comparative financial data, abnormality in cash sales and auditor's general remarks, absent identification of patent or material defects in books, vouchers or quantitative records.
3. Whether the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) was correct in deleting the addition when the assessee produced audited accounts, stock registers, VAT returns and other documentary evidence and the Assessing Officer did not point to specific defects in the books or quantitative records.
4. Whether invoices deficient in non-mandatory particulars (e.g., counter signature, delivery challan, quality particulars) can justify rejection of sales evidence without proof of falsity.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of addition under section 68 read with section 115BBE where books were rejected under section 145(3)
Legal framework: Section 68 permits addition where unexplained cash credits are not satisfactorily explained by the assessee; section 115BBE prescribes tax consequences for income from undisclosed sources; section 145(3) empowers AO to reject books where they are not correct or complete.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on Coordinate Bench decisions holding that rejection of books demands demonstration of patent/material defects; mere financial analysis or abnormality is insufficient.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined whether the AO had demonstrably established defects in books or quantitative records. The AO relied primarily on (a) abnormal increase in cash sales (notably October 2016), (b) invoices below Rs.2 lakh to avoid PAN, (c) certain deficiencies in invoice particulars and auditor's remarks, and (d) alleged non-compliance with requisitions. The Tribunal found that the assessee produced audited accounts, sales/purchase registers, cash book, bank statements, stock registers, invoices and VAT returns and that the AO did not identify any incorrect entry or provide independent verification to show falsity of records. The AO's reliance on comparative turnover and suspicion of inflation without pointing to omissions, bogus entries, absence of vouchers, unverified stock or other material lacunae was held to be inadequate for rejection under section 145(3).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - rejection of books under section 145(3) requires identification of patent or material defects; mere suspicion or anomalous financial data is insufficient to treat records as unreliable and to invoke section 68 additions. Obiter - observations on commercial improbability of declared profits despite higher turnover, and on the significance of PAN-avoidance below Rs.2 lakh invoices, as factual inputs supporting AO's view.
Conclusions: The addition under section 68 read with section 115BBE could not be sustained where the AO failed to point to specific defects in books or quantitative records; therefore the CIT(A)'s deletion of the addition was upheld.
Issue 2 - Permissibility of rejecting books of account on the basis of comparative analysis and auditor's remarks
Legal framework: Section 145(3) contemplates rejection where accounts are not correct or complete, or accounting method not regularly followed; AO must record dissatisfaction with correctness/completeness and identify defects.
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate Bench law was followed to the effect that rejection must be founded on concrete and demonstrable defects such as omission of transactions, absence of vouchers, bogus purchases, unverified stock or systemic lacunae.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasized that the AO reproduced the auditor's caution and noted abnormal cash sales but did not demonstrate that the books contained omissions, false entries, or unverifiable stock. The Tribunal observed that the particulars missing from invoices (counter signature, delivery notes, quality description) are not mandatory for a sale bill and their absence, without proof of falsity, cannot be a ground to reject the evidence. The AO's failure to seek independent verification or to secure confirmations and his reliance on presumptions meant the statutory threshold for rejection under section 145(3) was not met.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - AO cannot reject books solely on comparative financial data or auditor's general remarks; he must point to concrete defects that render accounts unreliable. Obiter - guidance that absence of non-statutory particulars in invoices is insufficient per se for rejection.
Conclusions: Rejection of books on the AO's stated grounds was held to be inappropriate; the CIT(A)'s reasoning that suspicion cannot replace evidence is affirmed.
Issue 3 - Adequacy of assessee's evidentiary burden and the role of suspicion
Legal framework: Burden lies on the assessee to explain unexplained credits; however, the AO must demonstrate why the explanation is unacceptable and cannot place reliance solely on suspicion to displace documentary evidence.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied settled principle that suspicion, however strong, cannot substitute for evidence; documentary evidence and quantitative stock records, when not shown to be false or deficient in material respects, must be accepted.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee furnished audited accounts, VAT returns and quantitative stock data (Form 3CD) which the AO did not dispute substantively. The Tribunal found that the AO reproduced auditor's comments but did not independently verify them or exhibit that specific entries were incorrect. The CIT(A) appropriately evaluated the evidence and concluded that mere timing and volume irregularity did not rebut the contemporaneous documentary records. The Tribunal noted that the AO did not call for remand or further verification before rejecting the books.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the assessee produces contemporaneous documentary evidence and quantitative stock records not shown to be false, the AO cannot displace the explanation merely by invoking suspicion; AO must point to and demonstrate material discrepancies. Obiter - factors such as festival season or business cycles may legitimately explain turnover spikes and warrant consideration.
Conclusions: The assessee's evidentiary production sufficed to meet the explanation burden in the absence of AO's demonstration of material defects; therefore deletion of addition was correct.
Issue 4 - Evidentiary value of invoices missing non-mandatory particulars
Legal framework: Invoice requirements are governed by statute and rules; particulars not mandated by law are not a prerequisite to treat a sale bill as evidence of transaction unless falsity is shown.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal followed authority that absence of non-mandatory invoice particulars does not, by itself, render the invoice inadmissible or the transaction bogus.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO criticized invoices for lacking buyer counter-signature, quality description, delivery challan, transport details and proof of cash receipt. The Tribunal observed these are not mandatory requisites for a sale bill and, absent evidence that particulars are fabricated, their absence cannot justify rejection of such bills. The AO did not show falsity or produce contradictory evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - non-mandatory deficiencies in invoices cannot be equated with bogus transactions unless corroborative evidence establishes falsity; Obiter - best practice considerations for records were noted but do not alter legal threshold.
Conclusions: Deficiencies in non-statutory invoice particulars did not justify rejection of sales evidence or books; invoices, together with other documentary records and quantitative stock, supported genuineness of sales.
Overall Conclusion
The Tribunal upheld the view that rejection of books under section 145(3) and consequent addition under section 68 read with section 115BBE cannot rest on suspicion, comparative financial anomalies or non-mandatory invoice deficiencies alone; absent demonstration of patent or material defects or proof of falsity, contemporaneous audited accounts, stock registers and VAT returns must be accepted. The CIT(A)'s deletion of the addition was accordingly sustained and the Revenue's appeal dismissed.
Addition u/s 68 read with section 115BBE - cash deposits during the demonetisation period - non rejection of books of account u/s 145(3) - CIT(A) deleted addition as same were supported by genuine sales - HELD THAT:- We find that the learned CIT(A) has examined the matter in detail and has recorded categorical findings that the Assessing Officer has not pointed out any specific defect in the books of account or in the quantitative stock records, and that the entire addition has been made merely on suspicion arising from the abnormal increase in cash sales. The assessee had placed all relevant evidences including audited accounts, quantitative stock registers and VAT returns, which have not been found defective by the AO.
The quantitative stock position reflected in Form 3CD further corroborates the genuineness of sales and availability of stock. The observations of the CIT(A) are well reasoned, and we concur with the same.
It is also settled law, as consistently held by the coordinate benches including in Kshetrapal Gold Pvt. Ltd.[2024 (11) TMI 1154 - ITAT AHMEDABAD] that books of account cannot be rejected unless specific and glaring defects are established, and that mere financial analysis or presumption of abnormal sales cannot justify an addition under section 68. Appeal filed by the Revenue is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Assessing Officer correctly ignored the difference between consideration paid and Fair Market Value (FMV) determined by the Departmental Valuation Officer (DVO) where such difference was less than 10%, by applying the amendment to Section 50C and CBDT Circular No. 8/2018 (and subsequent enhancement) with retrospective effect to the assessment year under consideration.
2. Whether the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax's exercise of revisional jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Act was justified on the ground that the assessment was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue, or whether that exercise amounted to an impermissible change of opinion.
3. Whether an assessment completed after reference to a DVO and consideration of judicial decisions and CBDT Circulars involved absence of inquiries/verification such that Explanation 2 to Section 263 would render the order amendable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Applicability and retrospective effect of amendment to Section 50C / CBDT Circular No. 8/2018 (and related amendment to Section 56(2)(viib))
Legal framework: Section 50C (and pari materia provisions such as Section 56(2)(viib)) govern treatment of stamp duty value vis-à-vis sale consideration; amendments and CBDT Circular No. 8/2018 rationalized adjustments by introducing a tolerance band (initially 5%, later enhanced to 10%). The Circular expressly stated amendments take effect from 1st April 2019 (AY 2019-20 onwards).
Precedent Treatment: Coordinate benches of Tribunals (as relied upon by the assessee) have treated the insertion of the proviso (tolerance band) as curative/declaratory and applied it retrospectively to the date of introduction of the relevant provision (1st April 2003). The Principal Commissioner relied on established principles of statutory interpretation that retrospective operation requires express provision or necessary implication and on apex-court authorities to the effect that retrospective effect should not be read in absentia.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO, after obtaining DVO valuation, found the FMV-consideration difference was Rs. 15,14,399 (less than 10%) and, applying Tribunal decisions treating the amendment as retrospective and CBDT Circular's rationale, ignored that difference in assessment. The PCIT, however, emphasised the express temporal operation stated in Circular No. 8/2018 (effective 1.4.2019) and precedent that retrospective operation requires explicit indication, concluding the amendment/circular could not be applied to AY 2016-17. The Tribunal examined both positions, noted the AO had considered the DVO report and judicial decisions treating the amendment as curative, and observed the PCIT did not distinguish or cite contrary judicial authority to rebut the retrospective application authorities relied upon by the assessee/AO.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's finding that the AO's application of the curative retrospective view (followed by coordinate Tribunal precedents) was permissible in the absence of contrary binding authority is treated as ratio for disposal of the revision; observations about general rules of statutory interpretation (that retrospective effect requires express provision) are reiteration of established law and serve as guiding principle (ratio to the extent applied to facts here).
Conclusion: Where the AO, after referral to DVO, arrived at FMV and noted the difference to be under 10%, and having considered judicial authorities applying the amendment/circular retrospectively, the Tribunal held the AO's approach was supportable. The Principal Commissioner's contrary conclusion, resting on the Circular's stated prospective effective date but without distinguishing precedent relied upon by the AO, did not constitute a sustainable basis to treat the assessment as erroneous prejudicial to revenue.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Validity of exercise of revisional jurisdiction under Section 263 - change of opinion vs. jurisdictional error
Legal framework: Section 263 empowers revision where an assessment is "erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the revenue." Explanation 2 (Finance Act, 2015) enlarges scope to include assessments where inquiries/verification which should have been made were not made.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities recognize that exercise of Section 263 cannot be used to substitute the opinion of the Commissioner for that of the Assessing Officer where the AO has applied mind to relevant facts and law; invoking Section 263 in such cases constitutes impermissible change of opinion unless there is lack of any inquiry, omission or illegality.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO had reopened under Section 147, referred valuation to DVO under Section 142(1), obtained DVO valuation, issued queries under Section 142(1) to the assessee, considered the CBDT Circular and judicial pronouncements, and concluded the difference (below 10%) was ignorable. These steps constitute due inquiry and application of mind. The PCIT's action rested on a divergent legal view (prospective operation of amendment) but did not identify absence of enquiry, malafide, or illegality in AO's process. Tribunal noted that PCIT did not demonstrate that necessary verifications were omitted or that AO failed to make inquiries that should have been made; rather PCIT substituted its view on a debatable legal issue.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's conclusion that revision under Section 263 was not justified because the AO had performed requisite inquiries and reached a justifiable conclusion constitutes ratio. Statements that mere disagreement of PCIT amounts to impermissible change of opinion are consistent with established precedent (ratio in context).
Conclusion: The exercise of revisionary power by the PCIT amounted to a change of opinion rather than correction of an assessment which was erroneous for lack of required inquiries. Accordingly, revision under Section 263 was unsustainable and was quashed.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Effect of DVO reference and consideration of judicial decisions on preclusion of revision under Section 263 (interaction with Explanation 2)
Legal framework: Explanation 2 to Section 263 makes assessable orders amendable where AO failed to make enquiries/verification which ought to have been made. Referral to a DVO under statutory procedure and consideration of judicial decisions may indicate that necessary enquiries were made.
Precedent Treatment: Jurisprudence indicates that when an AO conducts statutory verifications (including DVO reference) and applies legal precedents, Section 263 cannot be invoked merely because a Commissioner prefers a different view; only omission of requisite inquiries or procedural lapses warrant revision.
Interpretation and reasoning: AO's referral to DVO, consideration of DVO valuation, issuance of notices under Section 142(1), and application of precedents demonstrate performance of verification and legal consideration. The PCIT did not point to any specific omission in enquiries that would engage Explanation 2. Tribunal therefore found that Explanation 2 was not attracted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Tribunal's determination that Explanation 2 was not engaged on these facts is ratio; ancillary remarks about prerequisites for invoking Explanation 2 reiterate settled law (obiter to the extent general).
Conclusion: Where the AO obtained DVO valuation and considered judicial authorities before accepting the assessee's returned income, Explanation 2 to Section 263 was not attracted and revision on that ground was not permissible.
OVERALL CONCLUSION
The AO's acceptance of the returned income after statutory valuation by DVO and application of coordinating judicial precedents treating the tolerance-band amendment as applicable was a tenable exercise of discretion. The Principal Commissioner's revision under Section 263 - grounded principally on a contrary view about the temporal operation of the Circular/amendment but not on omission of requisite enquiries - amounted to an unjustified change of opinion. The revisional order under Section 263 was therefore quashed and the appeals allowed.
Revision u/s 263 - difference of actual consideration paid by the assessee and fair market value valued by the District Valuation Officer (DVO) - CIT observing that Circular no. 8/2018 CBDT stated that the amendments to Section 50C takes effect from 1st April 2019 and will accordingly apply in relation to A.Y. 2019-20 and subsequent years and will not apply for A.Y. 2016-17 as was the case of the present assessee, and therefore, the difference should have been added by the AO, which was not done by the AO.
HELD THAT:- PCIT did not comment or give any contrary decision to the case laws relied by the assessee in reply to the showcause issued to the assessee that the circular no. 8/2018 was to operate retrospectively which was considered by the AO in accepting the total income declared by the assessee relying upon the said decisions.
As noted that the assessee has relied upon the orders of Maria Fernandes Cheryl [2021 (1) TMI 620 - ITAT MUMBAI] and Chandra Prakash Jhunjhunawala [2019 (8) TMI 1192 - ITAT KOLKATA] which have held that the amendment to section 50C brought into the Act by finance Act, 2018 w.e.f. 01.04.2019 was to apply retrospectively w.e.f. 01.04.2003, when the section 50C was brought into statute.
The Section 56(2)(vii) being pari- materia to section 50C of the Act, and the said Circular no. 8/2018 also amending the provisions of Section 56 of the Act, will be applicable to the case of the assessee also and will accordingly the benefit of the said amendment will apply retrospectively in the case of the assessee also and the difference between the actual consideration paid and the FMV being less than 10% will have to be ignored for applying the provisions of Section 50(2)(vii) in the case of the assessee.
Therefore, view of the Ld. PCIT is not supported by any judicial authority and therefore his action in holding the assessment order passed in this case to be erroneous as well as prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue is merely a change of opinion and the same is not sustainable and the same is quashed. Appeals of the assessee are allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether amounts shown as unsecured loans in the books are taxable as unexplained cash credits under section 68 read with section 115BBE where the assessee produces ledger confirmations, PAN/ITR acknowledgments, bank statements and subsequent repayments.
2. What is the nature and extent of the onus on the assessee under section 68 to prove identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of lenders and what further steps must the Assessing Officer take if prima facie onus is discharged.
3. Whether subsequent repayment of loans, payment of interest with TDS and acceptance of such facts by the Department rebut the presumption of unexplained credits and warrant deletion of additions made under section 68.
4. The applicability and weight of judicial precedents where identity, genuineness and repayment were established - whether those decisions are to be followed or distinguished.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Whether unsecured loans are taxable as unexplained cash credits under section 68 when documents were furnished
Legal framework: Section 68 places initial onus on the assessee to prove identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of persons from whom credit entries/loans are made; failing which amounts can be treated as unexplained cash credits. Section 115BBE prescribes tax treatment for certain unexplained receipts.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on authorities which hold that once identity and creditworthiness are prima facie established and repayments are shown, additions under section 68 cannot be sustained unless AO brings contrary material.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee produced PANs, ITR acknowledgments, ledger confirmations, bank statements and audited accounts for lenders and showed subsequent repayments and interest with TDS. The Tribunal examined whether these documents, taken together, satisfy the initial onus under section 68. It held that the documentary matrix did prima facie establish identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of the lenders. The AO did not undertake further enquiries, seek additional material or produce contrary evidence to negate the documents furnished.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where adequate documentary evidence of identity, genuineness and creditworthiness is produced and AO fails to bring contrary material or make further enquiries, addition under section 68 is not sustainable. Obiter - none additional on procedural nuances beyond the facts considered.
Conclusion: The addition made under section 68 was unjustified on the material before the authorities; deletion by the Commissioner was upheld.
Issue 2 - Extent of assessee's onus and AO's duty once prima facie onus is discharged
Legal framework: The statutory scheme places primary/cum initial onus on the assessee to make a prima facie case; once discharged, the burden shifts to the revenue to show that credits are unexplained by bringing relevant evidence.
Precedent treatment: Courts and Tribunals have held that the AO must conduct meaningful enquiries, request additional documents or produce independent material to rebut records filed by the assessee; mere ipse dixit additions are impermissible.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the AO did not pursue additional enquiries or procure evidence contradicting the documentation. The Commissioner correctly held that absence of such counter-evidence made the AO's addition unsustainable. The Tribunal emphasized the need for AO to go beyond rejecting documents at face value - by seeking further proof or by adducing independent material - before making an addition.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - once assessee discharges prima facie onus, AO must bring contrary material or conduct further enquiries before treating amounts as unexplained; failure to do so renders addition unreasonable. Obiter - evaluative statements on what inquiries could be made in other factual matrices.
Conclusion: On the facts, the AO's failure to investigate further or produce contradictory material meant the onus was not met by the revenue; deletion was appropriate.
Issue 3 - Relevance of subsequent repayment, interest payment and TDS in determining genuineness
Legal framework: Subsequent repayment of advances/loans and payment of interest with deduction of TDS are relevant corroborative facts in assessing genuineness of transactions and may negate characterization as unexplained credits if accepted by revenue.
Precedent treatment: Decisions cited by the Tribunal hold that repayment in subsequent years and acceptance of repayments by the Department militates against sustaining additions under section 68 and that such facts can be decisive where no contrary evidence exists.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal considered admitted facts that the loans were repaid in subsequent years, interest was paid in most cases with TDS, and TDS/interest had been accepted by the Department in relevant assessments. Those facts were treated as corroborative of the genuineness of transactions and of the lenders' creditworthiness. In light of this corroboration and absence of counter-evidence, the Tribunal concluded that the amounts could not be treated as unexplained cash credits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - subsequent repayment coupled with documentation and acceptance of TDS/interest by revenue is strong corroboration and can justify deletion of section 68 additions absent contrary material. Obiter - none beyond application to the present facts.
Conclusion: Repayment, interest payments and TDS acceptance supported the assessee's case and justified deletion of the addition.
Issue 4 - Reliance on and application of judicial precedents
Legal framework: Consistent application of precedents is required; facts must be compared to see whether decisions are binding or distinguishable.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal expressly followed higher court/Tribunal decisions holding that establishment of identity and repayment leads to deletion of section 68 additions where revenue adduces no contrary material. Those precedents were applied to the present factual matrix.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found the present facts analogous to cited authorities - documentary evidence of lenders, repayments and accepted TDS/interest - and therefore applied those authorities to sustain deletion. No higher court contrary authority was identified by the revenue that would require distinguishing or overruling those precedents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where facts align with earlier decisions that deletion is warranted, those decisions are to be followed. Obiter - references to individual decisions' finer points were used for support rather than forming new legal propositions.
Conclusion: Precedents relied upon were appropriately followed and supported the Tribunal's affirmation of the deletion.
Overall Conclusion
On the combined application of the statutory burden under section 68, the documentary proofs furnished (PAN/ITR acknowledgments, ledger confirmations, bank statements, audited accounts), subsequent repayment and acceptance of interest/TDS, and the absence of any contrary material or further enquiries by the AO, the addition treating loans as unexplained cash credits was unsustainable. The deletion by the Commissioner was correct and is sustained; the appeal by the revenue is dismissed.
Addition u/sec. 68 r.w.s. 115BBE - onus to prove - Assessee has not proved creditworthiness of the persons, who advanced loans to the Assessee, while in some cases creditworthiness and genuineness of the transactions could not be proved - HELD THAT:- Assessee in support of its claim qua genuineness of the transactions of loans, has duly filed the PAN cards, ledger confirmations, ITR acknowledgments, bank statements and balance sheets etc. of the loaners. It is also a fact, which has not been disputed by the Department that the Assessee in subsequent years has already repaid the loan amounts, to the respective loaners.
Assessee, except in the case of Deepak Steels India qua loan of Rs. 5,50,000/-, has also paid the interest to other four parties by deducting TDS. It is also not disputed that interest and TDS has also been accepted by the Department, in the relevant assessment years. Therefore, Ld. Commissioner by considering above peculiar facts and circumstances and documents substantiated the genuineness of loans and identity and creditworthiness of the loaners and specific fact that loans have already been repaid with interest thereon by deducting the TDS.
In the case of PCIT vs. Ambe Tradecorp (P.) Ltd. [2022 (7) TMI 902 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] has held that once the identity of the lenders stood proved and loans were also paid subsequently, then no addition is permissible u/sec. 68 of the Act. Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a disallowance under Section 14A of the Income-tax Act can be made in a year where the assessee has not earned any exempt income during the relevant previous year.
2. Whether the amendment to Section 14A introduced by the Finance Act, 2022 (inserting a non-obstante clause and an Explanation) operates retrospectively (i.e., deemed to have always applied) or prospectively (with effect from 1st April 2022 / A.Y. 2022-23 onward).
3. Whether a lower authority (CIT(A)) is justified in holding a decision of a High Court to be per incuriam or sub silentio and thereby refusing to follow that High Court decision.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of Section 14A disallowance when no exempt income is earned
Legal framework: Section 14A disallows expenditure in relation to income not forming part of total income (exempt income). Rule 8D of the Income-tax Rules provides a method for computing such disallowance. The statutory scheme historically limited disallowance to cases where exempt income had accrued/been received.
Precedent treatment: Coordinate High Court rulings have held that Section 14A disallowance cannot be made in the absence of exempt income for the year (Bombay High Court; Delhi High Court in Cheminvest; Madras High Court - affirmed by dismissal of SLP). Several Tribunal benches have followed the High Court view and applied it to pre-amendment years.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined authoritative decisions and concluded that, insofar as the law stood prior to the 2022 amendment, the settled position was that disallowance under Section 14A could not exceed or be made in the absence of any exempt income in the relevant year. The Assessing Officer's application of Rule 8D to compute and effect a 1% addition where no exempt income had arisen was therefore not sustainable under pre-amendment law.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where no exempt income is earned in the relevant year, no disallowance under Section 14A could be made under the law as interpreted by the cited High Court decisions and followed by coordinate Tribunals. Observations about quantum computation under Rule 8D in particular cases are ancillary.
Conclusions: The disallowance made by the Assessing Officer under Section 14A r.w.r. 8D for the assessment year in question (where no exempt income arose) was deleted; the appeal in respect of this ground was allowed.
Issue 2 - Retrospective vs. Prospective operation of the Finance Act, 2022 amendment to Section 14A
Legal framework: The Finance Act, 2022 introduced a non-obstante clause and an Explanation stating that Section 14A shall apply "and shall be deemed to have always applied" where expenditure is incurred in relation to exempt income which has not accrued/arisen/been received during the previous year. The Memorandum to the Finance Bill explicitly stated the amendment will take effect from 1st April 2022 and apply to A.Y. 2022-23 onwards.
Precedent treatment: The Delhi High Court in Era Infrastructure held the amendment to be prospective, relying on the Memorandum and established principles that retrospective effect is not to be presumed where an amendment changes the law. Supreme Court authority (Sedco Forex; M.M. Aqua) cautions that an Explanation or "for removal of doubts" language does not make an amendment retrospective if it changes the earlier law and the legislature has specified an effective date.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied settled principles that (i) tax law effective in the relevant assessment year applies unless retrospective operation is explicitly intended or necessarily implied; (ii) an Explanation that alters the pre-existing law is not to be read retrospectively merely because phrasing suggests clarification; and (iii) express memorandum/effective date in the Finance Bill is significant. Reliance was placed on Supreme Court authority holding that "for removal of doubts" language does not automatically render a substantive change retrospective. Accordingly, the Tribunal found the amendment to be prospective, operative from 1st April 2022 (A.Y. 2022-23 onward).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The 2022 amendment to Section 14A is prospective and does not apply to earlier assessment years where exempt income did not arise, absent a clear and unambiguous legislative intent to the contrary; an Explanation that changes the law cannot be presumed retrospective. Obiter - Discussion of the Explanatory Memorandum's phrasing beyond its persuasive weight.
Conclusions: The amendment to Section 14A introduced by Finance Act, 2022 does not apply retrospectively to the assessment year under consideration; therefore pre-amendment judicial precedents limiting Section 14A (i.e., requiring exempt income) remain binding for that year.
Issue 3 - Permissibility of declaring a higher court decision per incuriam / sub silentio
Legal framework: Doctrine of stare decisis requires lower courts/tribunals to follow binding decisions of higher courts. The exceptions (per incuriam, sub silentio) have narrow application and cannot be invoked by a lower authority to displace a binding decision of a higher court or coordinate larger bench unless a directly applicable binding precedent has been overlooked.
Precedent treatment: Supreme Court authorities reiterate that a lower court cannot refuse to follow a higher court's decision by labelling it per incuriam merely because of disagreement with reasoning or perceived omission; only in narrow circumstances (e.g., a decision of a coordinate bench that ignored binding law) may per incuriam be invoked.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the CIT(A)'s characterization of the Delhi High Court judgment as per incuriam or sub silentio was impermissible. The Tribunal observed that a proper application of the doctrine requires compelling demonstration that the higher court ignored a binding statutory provision or binding precedent; mere disagreement, or reliance on later decisions, does not permit a lower authority to disregard the High Court ruling. The Tribunal also noted that subsequent Supreme Court pronouncements cited by the CIT(A) did not enable treating the High Court decision as per incuriam.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A lower authority cannot declare a binding High Court decision per incuriam without satisfying the strict requirements for that doctrine; therefore the CIT(A)'s refusal to follow the High Court decision was unjustified. Obiter - Broader commentary on judicial discipline and hierarchy.
Conclusions: The CIT(A)'s finding that the High Court decision was per incuriam and thus not binding was rejected; the Tribunal followed the binding High Court position that the 2022 amendment is prospective and that Section 14A disallowance cannot be made where no exempt income arose in the relevant year.
Cross-references and final disposition
See Issue 2 for the treatment of the 2022 amendment and Issue 1 for the consequence on the assessed addition under Section 14A/rule 8D. In application of the above legal framework and precedents, the Tribunal set aside the CIT(A)'s contrary conclusion, deleted the Section 14A disallowance for the assessment year in dispute, and allowed the appeal - subject to the outcome of any pending final adjudication by the Supreme Court in related proceedings (the Tribunal's order to abide by any final Supreme Court decision).
Disallowance u/s 14A r/w rule 8D - Scope of amendment to section 14A - CIT(A) referred to the amendment brought by the Finance Act, 2022 to hold that disallowance u/s 14A of the Act shall be operative even when there is no exempt income earned in the particular year -
Whether a disallowance u/s 14A Act can be made even when the assessee has not earned any exempt income during the relevant financial year under consideration? - whether the ld CIT(A) is justified in his finding of holding the order of Hon'ble Delhi High Court as per incuriam? - HELD THAT:- The doctrine of stare decisis mandates that decisions of higher courts are binding on lower courts and ensures consistency and predictability in the judicial process. However, the exceptions to this doctrine-per incuriam and sub silentio- are equally critical. A judgment is considered per incuriam when it is delivered in ignorance of a relevant statutory provision or binding authority. Conversely, a decision is deemed sub silentio when a particular legal issue is neither expressly addressed nor consciously adjudicated by the court. A balanced application of stare decisis and its exceptions fosters a judicial framework that is both consistent and legally robust.
Thus, normally a lower court should not hold the decision of higher court as per incuriam unless a direct decision of higher court or larger bench on the issue has not been considered. The Hon'ble Supreme Court, in Ravinder Singh v. Sukhbir Singh [2013 (1) TMI 853 - SUPREME COURT] clarified that a Supreme Court judgment cannot be deemed per incuriam merely due to perceived inadequacies in argument, consideration, or reasoning.
Furthermore, in South Central Railway Employees Cooperative Credit Society Employees Union v. B. Yashodabai [2014 (12) TMI 1287 - SUPREME COURT] it was unequivocally held that High Courts cannot disregard the binding decisions of Hon'ble Supreme Court by terming them per incuriam. Additionally, in Panchaxari Shidramappa Yeligar v. Shiggaon Taluka Shikshana Samithi [1998 (10) TMI 556 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] decisively opined that a lower court cannot declare a higher court's decision as per incuriam.
It is impermissible for the learned CIT(A) to disregard the binding decision of Hon'ble Delhi High Court in Era Infrastructure Ltd [2022 (7) TMI 1093 - DELHI HIGH COURT] on the ground of per incuriam or sub- silentio. The judicial discipline necessitates adherence to established precedents unless specifically overturned or superseded by a competent authority. The said observations of CIT(A) are accordingly deserves to be rejected.
We note that the Co-ordinate Benches of the Tribunal have followed the decisions of the Hon'ble Delhi High Court in the case of Era Infrastructure Ltd.[supra] and held the applicability of the amendment to section 14A of the Act as prospective.
Thus, we set aside the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) on the issue in dispute and delete the addition made by the Assessing Officer. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Validity of reopening of assessment - approval u/s 151 - period of limitation - three years after the expiry of assessment year - time limit for current proceedings - HC [2024 (4) TMI 1319 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] set aside reopening proceedings - HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 411 days in filing the Special Leave Petition which has not been satisfactorily explained by the petitioner.
Even otherwise, we see no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court. The Special Leave Petition is, therefore, dismissed on the ground of delay as well as merits.
Income recognition - Interest on NPA - non-recognition of income is not permissible under the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the same should be added to the total income of the assessee for the year - Interest on non-performing assets [NPA] - Accrual of interest on recurring deposit - Year of assessment - Assessee appeal allowed by HC [2024 (5) TMI 541 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT]
HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 385 days in filing the Special Leave Petition which has not been satisfactorily explained by the petitioner.
Even otherwise, we see no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court. Special Leave Petition is, therefore, dismissed on the ground of delay as well as merits.
Search warrant u/s 132(1) not made available in spite of a specific direction - delay filling SLP - HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 595 days in filing the Special Leave Petition which has not been satisfactorily explained by the petitioner.
Even otherwise, we see no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court. Special Leave Petition is, therefore, dismissed on the ground of delay as well as merits.
Issues: Whether the High Court was justified in interfering with the order of the ITAT and restoring the order of the Appellate Commissioner and the Assessing Officer.
Analysis: The Court found no reason to interfere with the High Court's view that the ITAT order was liable to be set aside and the orders of the Appellate Commissioner and the Assessing Officer restored. The separate request concerning the quantum of tax payable was not examined on merits.
Conclusion: The interference by the High Court was upheld and the restoration of the orders of the Appellate Commissioner and the Assessing Officer stood affirmed.
Exemption u/s 11 - charitable activity u/s 2(15) or not? - interest free secured loan given to the Manager - as decided by HC [2011 (8) TMI 805 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] since interest was charged @10%, as alleged by the assessee, it should have been reflected in the books of accounts of the assessee as well as in the audit report but the same was not reflected in any document even subsequent document filed by the assessee except the resolution, which cannot be relied and it can be considered an afterthought - in view of clause (c) of Section 13(1) rendering the entire income of Trust or charitable institution on liable to tax even if only part of income is directed to be applied for the benefit of the specified persons - Decided against the assessee
HELD THAT:- High Court was justified in interfering with the order of the ITAT, and thereby restoring the order of the Appellate Commissioner as well as that of the A.O. Hence, we do not find any reason to interfere in the present appeal.
The exemption has been withdrawn in respect of the entire amount of tax to be paid. The said approach of the A.O. is not in accordance with law. Therefore, this Court may permit the appellant herein to make a representation before the Assessing Officer with regard to the quantum of tax to be paid by the appellant herein despite there being no interference on the merits of the present appeal.We do not propose to go into this aspect of the matter.
We reserve liberty to the appellant herein to make a representation before the concerned Assessing Officer with regard to the actual tax to be paid by the appellant-assessee.
Issues: Whether the High Court ought to have interfered with the remand order passed for limited factual verification by the Assessing Officer.
Analysis: The appeal was disposed of in terms of the earlier judgment concerning the same assessee. The Court recorded that the remand had been made only for a limited factual verification by the Assessing Officer and that the High Court had no reason to interfere with such remand.
Conclusion: The challenge to the remand order did not succeed, and the remand for limited factual verification was upheld.
Accrual of income - whether duty drawn back accrues to the assessee only on passing of the order by appropriate authority and not in the year of export? -Excess consumption of raw materials and components shown by the Assessee - Not to reduce the amount of deduction allowable u/s 80-IB from the profits of business for the purpose of computing deduction under Section 80HHC?
HELD THAT:- Consequently, we dispose of this appeal also following the judgment passed by this Court in Maruti Suzuki India Limited through its Divisional Engineer) [2017 (12) TMI 1621 - DELHI HIGH COURT]
Consequentially, we also hold that there was no reason for the High Court to interfere with the order of remand, which was passed for the purpose of limited factual verification by the Assessing Officer.
Issues: (i) Whether the extended period of limitation under section 28(4) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be invoked for the demand covering the period prior to 14.05.2015; (ii) Whether, after the amendment to rule 2(bb) of the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011 with effect from 14.05.2015, the imported parts supplied to industrial consumers could still be subjected to MRP-based assessment.
Issue (i): Whether the extended period of limitation under section 28(4) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be invoked for the demand covering the period prior to 14.05.2015.
Analysis: The extended period under section 28(4) applies only where non-levy or short-levy is attributable to collusion, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts with intent to evade duty. Mere non-payment is insufficient. The record showed that the importer had disclosed its valuation position to Customs authorities, sought guidance, and in one instance cleared goods after departmental query on transaction value. The show cause notice and the adjudication record did not establish any deliberate concealment or positive act of evasion. The dispute was substantially one of interpretation and bona fide understanding of the legal position.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not available to the Revenue, and the demand for the pre-14.05.2015 period could not be sustained.
Issue (ii): Whether, after the amendment to rule 2(bb) of the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011 with effect from 14.05.2015, the imported parts supplied to industrial consumers could still be subjected to MRP-based assessment.
Analysis: After 14.05.2015, the definition of industrial consumer expressly included purchases from an importer, subject to use by the industry and the package carrying the declaration "not for retail sale". The adjudicating authority found that the buyers were industrial consumers, that the goods were used for their own consumption, and that the relevant marking was present on the packages. No material was shown to dislodge those findings. On that basis, the goods fell outside MRP-based assessment for the post-amendment period.
Conclusion: MRP-based assessment was not justified for the period from 14.05.2015 onwards, and the demand dropped for that period was not liable to be restored.
Final Conclusion: The demand was unsustainable for both the pre-amendment and post-amendment periods, and the consequential penalty on the individual appellant also failed.
Ratio Decidendi: Extended limitation under customs law requires deliberate suppression or wilful misstatement with intent to evade duty, and where the legal-metrology regime expressly covers purchases from importers for industrial use, MRP-based assessment cannot survive once the statutory conditions for industrial consumer status are satisfied.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - suppression of facts with intent to evade payment of duty - Confirmation of demand u/s 28(4) of the Customs Act, 1962 with interest and penalty - levy of penalty u/s 112 and 114AA of CA, 1962 - CVD on the goods imported by Toyota India was liable to be assessed on Maximum Retail Price (MRP) basis or not - HELD THAT:- It is not disputed that the appellant had, on the basis of legal opinion, informed the Deputy Commissioner of Customs, Air Cargo Complex, Bengaluru and also sought permission to discharge CVD on transaction value. The Delhi Customs Authority also cleared payment of goods on payment of CVD on the transaction value on 09.04.2015 after finding the reply to the query to be satisfactory. Thus, in 2014/2015 the department was well aware that the appellant was paying CVD on the transaction value and not on MRP basis.
The show cause notice was, however, issued on 30.01.2019 invoking the extended period of limitation by alleging suppression of facts. The Principal Commissioner had observed that the Toyota India did not pay heed to the correspondence sent by the department advising them to clear the goods under MRP assessment. There is nothing on record to indicate that such a letter was ever sent by the department. On the other hand, letters were sent by Toyota India to inform the department that it would be paying CVD on the transaction value in view of the legal advice tendered to it. The Customs Authorities at Delhi had also cleared the goods after raising the query that CVD should paid on MRP basis and not on transaction value - It cannot, therefore, be said the department was not aware that Toyota India was discharging payment of CVD on the basis of transaction value. There is, therefore, no question of suppression of facts, much less with an intent to evade payment of duty.
In Easland Combines, Coimbatore vs. Collector of Central Excise, Coimbatore [2003 (1) TMI 107 - SUPREME COURT] the Supreme Court observed that for invoking the extended period of limitation, duty should not have been paid because of fraud, collusion, wilful statement, suppression of fact or contravention of any provision. These ingredients postulate a positive act and, therefore, mere failure to pay duty which is not due to fraud, collusion or wilful misstatement or suppression of facts is not sufficient to attract the extended period of limitation.
The Supreme Court in Continental Foundation Joint Venture vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Chandigarh [2007 (8) TMI 11 - SUPREME COURT] also observed in connection with section 11A of the Central Excise Act, that suppression means failure to disclose full information with intention to evade payment of duty.
It would also be appropriate to refer the decision of the Delhi High Court in Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. vs. Union of India and others [2023 (4) TMI 216 - DELHI HIGH COURT]. The Delhi High Court observed that merely because MTNL had not declared the receipt of compensation as payment for taxable service, does not establish that it had wilfully suppressed any material fact. The Delhi High Court further observed that the contention of MTNL that receipt was not taxable under the Act is a substantial one and no intent to evade tax can be inferred by nondisclosure of the receipt in the service tax return.
The contention of the learned counsel for the appellant that the extended period could not have been invoked as the appellant bona fide believed that it was liable to pay duty on transaction value and not on MRP basis also deserves to be accepted in view of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Commissioner of C. Ex. & Customs vs. Reliance Industries Ltd. [2023 (7) TMI 196 - SUPREME COURT]. The Supreme Court held that if an assessee bona fide believes that it was correctly discharging duty, then merely because the belief is ultimately found to be wrong by a judgment would not render such a belief of the assessee to be mala fide. If a dispute relates to interpretation of legal provisions, the department would be totally unjustified in invoking the extended period of limitation. The Supreme Court further held that in any scheme of self-assessment, it is the responsibility of the assessee to determine the liability correctly and this determination is required to be made on the basis of his own judgment and in a bona fide manner.
The the demand confirmed for the period from 01.02.2014 to 13.05.2015, has to be set aside as the extended period of limitation could not have been invoked - It will, therefore, not be necessary to examine the contentions raised by the learned counsel for the appellant for setting aside the confirmation of demand on merits.
The Principal Commissioner placed emphasis on the amendment made to the definition of ‘industrial consumers’ with effect from 14.5.2015 in rule 2(bb) of the 2011 Metrology Rules. The Principal Commissioner found that condition no’s. (1) and (2) were satisfied and regarding condition no. 3, the Principal Commissioner found as a fact that when the officers visited the site on 22.03.2017 they found that the goods were carrying the marking ‘not for retail sale’. Thus, as all the conditions specified in the definition of ‘industrial consumer’ were satisfied, the applicability of the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Act, 2009 would not be applicable - Learned authorised representative appearing for the department has not been able to point out any infirmity in the aforesaid findings recorded by the Principal Commissioner. The appeal filed by the department would, therefore, have to be dismissed.
As the demand cannot be confirmed for the entire period of dispute, penalty cannot be imposed upon Senior Manager Finance and Accounts of Toyota. The imposition of penalty upon Senior Manager Finance and Accounts of Toyota, therefore, deserves to be set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the second proviso to Notification No.57/2000-Cus (requiring execution of a bond and export obligation within 120 days) was in force during the period 21.09.2015 to 21.10.2015 and, if omitted, whether demand for duty forgone and penal consequences could be levied for alleged non-fulfilment of that proviso.
2. Whether statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act (recorded during inquiry) could be relied upon by the adjudicating authority for proving diversion/non-export without complying with the procedure prescribed by section 138B of the Customs Act (i.e., examination of makers of statements before the adjudicating authority and forming an opinion on admissibility, with opportunity for cross-examination).
3. Whether a departmental circular prescribing procedural safeguards and exporter obligations (in relation to the now-omitted proviso) applied to the period after omission of the second proviso and could independently sustain a finding of liability.
4. Whether penalties under sections 112 and 114AA of the Customs Act could be sustained against the exporter and responsible individuals where (a) the foundational statutory proviso had been omitted and (b) reliance was placed on statements recorded under section 108 without following section 138B procedure.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Effect of omission of the second proviso to Notification No.57/2000-Cus during the relevant period
Legal framework: Notifications under the Customs Act create conditional exemptions; conditions specified therein (including provisos) determine obligations of nominated agencies and exporters. An amendment/omission to a notification operates from its effective date and removes the statutory condition thereafter.
Precedent Treatment: Not directly contested by earlier precedents in the text; Tribunal treats notification amendment as determinative of obligations.
Interpretation and reasoning: The subsequent Notification No.33/2015-Cus dated 15.05.2015 expressly omitted the second proviso to Notification No.57/2000-Cus. That proviso had required nominated agencies/importers to execute a bond undertaking export of jewellery equivalent to imported gold within 120 days. Since the period in dispute (21.09.2015-21.10.2015) is after the omission date, the statutory condition no longer existed. The Principal Commissioner's order premised the demand on non-fulfilment of that proviso; but omission of the proviso removed the legal basis for such a demand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a statutory proviso creating an export obligation has been omitted before the relevant period, no demand can be sustained for non-fulfilment of that omitted proviso; any recovery predicated solely on that omitted condition is without authority of law.
Conclusion: The proviso was omitted before the relevant period; therefore the demand for duty forgone founded on non-fulfilment of that proviso was unauthorized and must be set aside.
Issue 2 - Admissibility and evidentiary value of statements recorded under section 108 vis-à-vis section 138B procedure
Legal framework: Section 108 permits recording of statements during inquiry. Section 138B prescribes the conditions under which such statements may be treated as relevant in adjudication - either where clause (a) exceptions apply (dead, cannot be found, incapable, kept away by adverse party, or presence cannot be obtained without unreasonable delay/expense) or where clause (b) requires the person who made the statement to be examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and the authority to form an opinion to admit the statement in evidence, followed by allowing cross-examination.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal relied on its prior decisions (including those summarized from Surya Wires and Drolia Electrosteel) and various High Court authorities to hold that the s.138B procedure is mandatory; failure to comply renders statements recorded under s.108 inadmissible as proof of facts in adjudication.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority relied on several statements recorded under section 108 to infer a modus operandi and to connect the exporter to diversion. However, the statutory admission procedure under section 138B(1)(b) was not followed - the persons who made the statements were not examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and no reasoned opinion admitting their statements into evidence was recorded; cross-examination opportunities were not provided. The rationale of the mandatory procedure (to guard against coerced/confessional statements and to protect procedural fairness) was emphasized. Consequently, those statements could not be treated as relevant evidence to sustain the findings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - statements recorded under s.108 cannot be relied on for proving facts in adjudication unless the s.138B(1) procedure (either clause (a) or clause (b)) is complied with; non-compliance renders such statements inadmissible.
Conclusion: The statements relied upon by the Principal Commissioner were inadmissible for want of compliance with section 138B; they could not form any basis for demand, confiscation or imposition of penalty.
Issue 3 - Applicability of the DGEP circular (14.10.2009) after omission of the second proviso and its independent role in sustaining liability
Legal framework: Administrative circulars/guidelines implement procedures relating to statutory schemes but cannot re-impose the legal conditions that have been removed by amendment or omission of statutory notifications.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal held the circular applied to the procedural regime when the proviso existed, but cannot supplant statutory amendment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The circular prescribes registration/undertaking procedure for exporters receiving precious metal from nominated agencies and references compliance with the second proviso. Once the second proviso was omitted by the 15.05.2015 notification, the circular's procedural prescriptions that hinge on that proviso have no application to the post-omission period. The circular cannot be used as a substitute legal basis to resurrect the omitted statutory obligation or to support a demand or penalty founded on that omitted proviso.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - departmental circulars cannot be used to impose or revive statutory conditions that have been formally omitted; they do not create independent substantive obligations in place of an omitted statutory proviso.
Conclusion: The circular did not apply to the period after omission of the second proviso and could not sustain the finding of liability.
Issue 4 - Sustainability of penalties under sections 112 and 114AA where foundational demand is without authority and evidence inadmissible
Legal framework: Section 112 allows penalty for contravention of customs provisions; section 114AA penalizes use of false or incorrect material. Penalties require a valid foundation of statutory breach and proof of culpable act or use of incorrect material/personally attributable misrepresentation as per statutory thresholds.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal applied the principles that penal consequences cannot be sustained if the underlying demand is without legal foundation or is based on inadmissible evidence; imposition on individuals requires specific findings of knowing/intentional misstatement.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given (a) the statutory proviso forming the basis of the demand was omitted and thus no legal breach of that proviso occurred during the relevant period, and (b) the departmental case rested on statements recorded under section 108 which were inadmissible for want of section 138B compliance, there was no legally sustainable basis to impose penalty under section 112 on the exporter. As to penalties under section 114AA on responsible individuals, the order did not identify any specific statement or declaration made by those individuals which was knowingly or intentionally false; and in any event the primary demand itself could not be sustained. Penal measures premised on inadmissible evidence and a non-existent statutory obligation cannot be upheld.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties cannot be sustained where (i) the statutory condition forming the basis of the demand was omitted before the relevant period, and (ii) the evidence relied upon (statements under s.108) is inadmissible for failure to comply with s.138B; imposition of personal penalties requires clear proof of intentional or knowing use of false/incorrect material.
Conclusion: Penalties imposed under sections 112 and 114AA could not be sustained and were appropriately set aside.
Final Disposition (as derived from conclusions above)
The Court held that (a) the second proviso to Notification No.57/2000-Cus had been omitted prior to the relevant period and therefore could not form the basis for demand; (b) statements recorded under section 108 were inadmissible without compliance with section 138B and could not support the findings; (c) the departmental circular was inapplicable after omission of the proviso; and (d) consequential demands and penalties under sections 112 and 114AA were without authority and were set aside.
Challenge to customs duty forgone with interest under section 28AA of Customs Act, 1962 - failure to abide by the conditions of the N/N. 57/2000-Cus dated 08.05.2000 [the Notification] by enforcing the bond executed by the importer of gold with the customs authorities - levy of penalty u/s 112 of the Customs Act - relevancy of statements relied upon.
Whether the second proviso to the Notification had been omitted during the relevant period from 21.09.2015 to 21.10.2015? - HELD THAT:- On omission of the second proviso, the condition that required MMTC to execute a bond with the Assistant Commissioner to the effect that MMTC may either itself or through other exporters export gold equivalent to the imported gold within a period of 120 days from the issue of gold to the exporters was not in existence. The Principal Commissioner is, therefore, not justified in asserting that either the MMTC or the appellant had failed to fulfil the conditions stipulated in the Notification. The appellant may have given an undertaking to the MMTC and the MMTC may have executed a bond with the Assistant Commissioner, but as the second proviso to the Notification had been omitted on 15.05.2015, and the period involved is from 21.09.2015 to 05.10.2015 recovery of duty from the appellant could not have been made. Any demand, therefore, made for non-fulfillment of the conditions stipulated in the second proviso to the Notification is without any authority of law.
In view of the decision of the Tribunal in M/s. Surya Wires Pvt. Ltd.[2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], it has to be held that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act, on which reliance has been placed by the Principal Commissioner, could not have been considered as relevant.
The Principal Commissioner has also referred to a Circular dated 14.10.2009 which prescribes a detailed procedure for implementing the provisions of the Notification and from this has concluded that the exporter is equally responsible/accountable for compliance of the conditions of the Notification - This Circular dated 14.10.2009 would have no application to the facts of the present appeal for the simple reason that the Circular refers to the second proviso to the Notification which was omitted by a Notification dated 15.05.2015 and the period involved in this appeal is after 15.05.2015.
It would, therefore, not be necessary to examine the contention advanced by the learned counsel for the appellant that recovery could have been made from the appellant only under the provisions of section 28 of the Customs Act and not in terms of the bond since the recovery in the present case has been found to be without authority of law. Penalty, for the aforesaid reasons, could not have been imposed upon the appellant under section 112 of the Customs Act.
Penalty on partner and manager u/s 114AA of the Customs Act - HELD THAT:- This section provides for penalty for use of false and incorrect material. Not only is the finding based on the statements made by persons u/s 108 of the Customs Act but even otherwise it has not been pointed out which statement was made partner and manager knowingly or intentionally or they had made any declaration or statement which was found incorrect in any material particular. In any view of the matter, as the demand could not have been made, the imposition of penalty upon partner and manager cannot be sustained.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the Court should exercise its discretionary jurisdiction to interfere with the matter after the complaint was referred to a freshly constituted Internal Complaints Committee.
Analysis: The complaint had already been referred to a newly constituted Internal Complaints Committee for examination. In that situation, the Court found no reason to invoke its discretionary jurisdiction. The petitioner was left at liberty to raise all contentions, including limitation, before the Committee, which was expected to proceed uninfluenced by prior observations.
Conclusion: The Court declined to interfere and dismissed the petition.
Sexual harrasment at workplace - complaint has been filed on 24.05.2022 in relation to alleged events that had transpired in 2020 and 2021 - selection of officers to constitute the ICC - HELD THAT:- The complaint for sexual harrasment filed by respondent No.4 has been referred to an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) which has to be constituted afresh so as to examine the matter.
It is not deemed necessary to exercise discretionary jurisdiction in the matter - petition dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Tribunal's order, delivered belatedly, warranted quashing and remand for fresh consideration; (ii) whether the availability of an alternate remedy barred writ interference.
Issue (i): Whether the Tribunal's order, delivered belatedly, warranted quashing and remand for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The order under challenge was found to have been pronounced after an inordinate delay, and the delay was not disputed. In view of that undisputed belated delivery, the Court treated the order as vitiated and did not enter into the merits of the appeal grounds. The matter was required to be reconsidered afresh by the Tribunal after hearing all points raised in the appeal.
Conclusion: The impugned order was quashed and the matter was remanded to the Tribunal for fresh consideration.
Issue (ii): Whether the availability of an alternate remedy barred writ interference.
Analysis: The plea of alternate remedy was declined in the facts of the case, as the impugned order was considered flawed on account of delay in pronouncement and violation of natural justice.
Conclusion: The writ petition was entertained notwithstanding the alternate remedy objection.
Final Conclusion: The petition succeeded, the Tribunal's order was set aside, and the dispute was sent back for fresh adjudication by the Tribunal.
Ratio Decidendi: An order delivered after an unexplained and undisputed belated delay, causing a violation of natural justice, can be quashed in writ jurisdiction despite the availability of an alternate remedy, and the matter may be remanded for fresh decision.
Maintainability of petition - availability of alternative remedy - huge delay in passing the order - HELD THAT:- In the wake of this undisputed position, when there is a huge delay in passing of the order by the CESTAT and though it is specifically contended by the learned Counsel for the Petitioner that the relevant point has not been taken into consideration, without going into the same, merely on the ground of delay, it is constrained to quash the impugned order and remand the matter back to the Tribunal for its fresh consideration. Needless to state that by taking into consideration all the points raised in the Appeal, the arguments to be advanced, and it is expected that the decision to be taken forthwith.
Availability of alternative remedy - HELD THAT:- In the wake of the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Whirlpool Corporation v/s. Registrar of Trade Marks, Mumbai & Ors., [1998 (10) TMI 510 - SUPREME COURT], it is not satisfied that this is a case where the Petitioner should be relegated to the alternate remedy, as we find the order being flawed on both grounds, firstly, on the ground of violation of principles of natural justice, and secondly, the order is delivered belatedly.
Petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether respondent is liable to penalty under Section 117 of the Customs Act, 1962 and under Regulation 14 of the Courier Imports and Exports (Electronic Declaration & Processing) Regulations, 2010 for alleged facilitation of mis-declared imports.
2. Whether the Tribunal could interfere with or set aside the validity or enforcement of an independent bank guarantee/bond executed by a financial institution which stipulates payment without demur (issue not finally decided by the Court).
3. Whether the Tribunal could exercise equitable discretion to reduce an otherwise statutorily provided penalty.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Liability to penalty under Section 117 (Customs Act) and Regulation 14 (2010 Regulations)
Legal framework: Section 117 of the Customs Act empowers imposition of penalties for contraventions specified by the Act. Regulation 14 of the 2010 Regulations prescribes penalties for violations committed by authorized courier agents under the courier regulatory regime. Regulation 12 and Regulation 13 (revocation and related enforcement of bonds/guarantees) also bear on license-holder obligations and consequences.
Precedent Treatment: The CESTAT concluded that the respondent acted only as a facilitator without mens rea and therefore set aside penalties and revocation. The Court examined and applied reasoning from a contemporaneous appellate decision involving identical facts and parties to modify the CESTAT order by restoring the penalties under Regulation 14 and Section 117.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the respondent performed functions as an authorized courier agent and that facilitation alone does not automatically negate statutory liability where contraventions under the Act and Regulations are established. Although facts included initial denial and later acknowledgment of import by the ultimate consignor/importer (who paid duty, interest and penalty), the Court held that acceptance of duty etc. by the importer does not preclude imposition of penalties on the license-holder if the statutory contraventions under the Act and Regulations are otherwise made out. The Tribunal's reliance on absence of mens rea and equities to wholly set aside penalty was treated as insufficient to displace statutory penal consequences. Applying the reasoning in the similar disposed appeal, the Court restored penalties of Rs.50,000 under Regulation 14 and Rs.50,000 under Section 117.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where an authorized courier agent facilitates customs transactions and the statutory ingredients of violation under the 2010 Regulations and the Customs Act are established, the Tribunal cannot wholly negate statutory penalties merely on the basis that the agent acted as a facilitator or that the importer later paid duty and penalties; statutory liability can subsist. Obiter - Observations about the factual credibility of the importer's initial denial versus subsequent ownership admission are subsidiary factual findings supporting the ratio but not independently determinative of legal principles beyond the statutory interpretation above.
Conclusions: The Court answered the substantial question on liability (Issue 1) in favour of the revenue and against the respondent by restoring the penalties under Regulation 14 and Section 117; the CESTAT's complete exoneration on penalty was set aside to this extent.
Issue 2 - Power of Tribunal to interfere with an independent bank guarantee/bond executed by a financial institution which stipulates payment without demur
Legal framework: Bank guarantees and bonds executed by financial institutions are independent contracts guided by contract law principles, often stipulating unconditional payment obligations.
Precedent Treatment: The question was framed as a substantial question of law but the Court determined that this issue did not arise from the impugned CESTAT order and therefore was not decided on merits.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court expressly declined to adjudicate on the competence of the Tribunal to interfere with the validity or enforcement of an independent bank guarantee because the CESTAT order under challenge did not require determination of that specific legal point. The Court therefore left open any broader doctrine as to whether and when a tribunal may set aside or refuse enforcement of an independent guarantee.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - No ratio laid down since the issue was not adjudicated; the non-answer constitutes a procedural ruling that the point did not arise on the facts or issues before the Court.
Conclusions: Substantial Question No.2 was held not to arise from the CESTAT order and was not answered.
Issue 3 - Whether the Tribunal could exercise equitable discretion to reduce statutory penalty
Legal framework: Penalties under the Customs Act and the 2010 Regulations are statutory; tribunals exercise appellate jurisdiction but must apply statutory scheme. Discretionary relief based on equity is constrained where law prescribes penalties and conditions for mitigation or reduction.
Precedent Treatment: The CESTAT exercised discretion to wholly set aside penalties on equitable grounds and on findings about absence of mens rea. The High Court, following its approach in a contemporaneous decision with identical facts, treated such equitable reduction as impermissible to the extent of wholly negating penalties where statutory contraventions are made out.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that the Tribunal cannot, solely on equitable notions or absence of subjective mens rea, eliminate statutory penalties unless the statutory provisions themselves permit such mitigation or unless the facts do not establish the statutory ingredients. Equity cannot be invoked to contravene or nullify penalties expressly provided by statute where conditions for imposition are satisfied. The Court therefore restored statutory penalties even while recognizing the respondent's role as facilitator.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A tribunal may not resort to broad equitable discretion to reduce or negate penalties that are provided for by statute where the statutory requirements for imposition of penalties are satisfied; equitable considerations do not supplant statutory mandate. Obiter - Specific factual observations about the respondent's lack of mens rea are explanatory but do not establish a principle permitting elimination of statutory penalties on that basis alone.
Conclusions: Substantial Question No.3 was answered in favour of the appellant (revenue) and against the respondent; the Tribunal's exercise of equitable discretion to set aside penalties was rejected to the extent it negated statutorily prescribed penalties, and the penalties under Regulation 14 and Section 117 were restored.
Cross-reference
The Court disposed of the appeal by applying reasoning announced in a contemporaneous appellate judgment involving identical facts and parties, modifying the Tribunal's order only to the extent of restoring the statutory penalties while otherwise affirming the CESTAT's factual findings where not inconsistent with the recovery of penalties. No costs were awarded.
Liability for penalty under Section 117 of the Customs Act 1962 and also under Regulation 14 of the Courier Imports and Exports (Electronic Declaration & Processing) Regulation, 2010 - Tribunal could interfere and set aside a validity executed contract like Bank Guarantee which are guided by the provisions of the Indian Contract Act or not - power of Tribunal to exercise discretion on the ground of equity and reduce the penalty which is not provided in law - HELD THAT:- In identical facts, reliance placed in judgment in M/S. PIGEON INTERNATIONAL [2025 (10) TMI 686 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], where some of the parties involved in the alleged transactions are also the same.
Learned counsel for the respondent has reiterated the contentions raised by learned counsel in CSTA No.7/2024. In CSTA No.7/2024, after detailed consideration of the contentions urged, the order of the CESTAT is modified only to the extent of restoring the penalty imposed under the 2010 Regulations and the penalty under Section 117 of the Act. As the facts and the legal issues are identical to the above-referred case, it is deemed appropriate to dispose of this appeal in terms of the judgment in CSTA No.7/2024.
Substantial questions of law are answered in favour of the appellant and against the respondent - order of CESTAT set aside - appeal allowed in part.
Issues: Whether the rejection of the request for allowing All Industry Rate of duty drawback on free shipping bills, without conversion, was sustainable.
Analysis: The communication rejecting the request contained no reasons and did not indicate that the appellant had been heard. The governing circular clarified that free shipping bills could be considered for All Industry Rate drawback without conversion, subject to the Commissioner's discretion under the proviso to Rule 12(1)(a) of the Customs, Central Excise and Service Tax Drawback Rules, 1995. That discretion had to be exercised fairly and through a speaking order disclosing cogent reasons. The impugned order was found to be wholly bereft of justification and therefore contrary to the principles of natural justice. The authorities and circulars relied upon by the respondent were held to be distinguishable and inapplicable on the facts.
Conclusion: The rejection was not sustainable. The impugned communication was set aside and the matter was remanded for fresh decision in accordance with law and after granting an opportunity of hearing.
Denial of appellant's request for processing of the free shipping bills under drawback scheme without conversion in terms of the provisions to Rule 12 (1) (a) of the Customs, Central Excise and Service Tax Drawback Rules 1995 - whether the rejection of the appellant’s request vide the impugned communication/order is proper? - principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- It is bereft of any reason as to why the request of the appellant is found to merit rejection. There is also no reference to the factum of the appellant having been heard in the said matter before the said decision was taken. Ex facie, the said communication/order is in violation of the principles of natural justice.
The malaise of vague or imprecise reasoning and at times utter lack of reasoning in adjudicatory process, has come to our notice time and again only to be adversely commented upon, and hence we refrain from doing so yet again. While undoubtedly in terms of proviso to Rule 12(1) (a) of the Customs, Central Excise and Service Tax Drawback Rules, 1995, it is the discretion of the Commissioner of Customs to allow All Industry Rate of duty drawback on goods exported under free shipping bill, without conversion of such free shipping bill to Drawback Scheme shipping bill, nevertheless, such exercise of discretion necessarily ought to be in a free, fair and impartial manner, as ought to be evident from the order in this regard - while adjudicating a notice or an appeal, in order for the rival parties to know why one side succeeds and the other has failed, the adjudicating authority has to ensure that it details the narration of the necessary facts of the case of the parties to the lis, the issues arising for determination, the submissions urged, the legal principles applicable to the issues involved and the reasons in support of the findings on such issues, which to the authority’s mind justifies its conclusion. In the instant case, the impugned order/communication is woefully deficient in providing any such reasons.
The matter remanded to the concerned jurisdictional Commissioner of Customs for deciding the issue afresh in accordance with law - appeal allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the department complied with the statutory procedure under Section 110(1B) of the Customs Act, 1962 prior to disposal/melting of seized gold.
2. Whether disposal/melting of seized gold by the department without informing the owner and while appellate/revisional remedies were pending violates principles of natural justice and requires remedy in the form of refund on market value.
3. What is the proper basis for computing the amount payable to an owner where seized gold has been disposed of/transferred to SPMCIL: tariff value on date of transfer to SPMCIL (for Customs area seizures) as per Instruction No.22/2022 or market value on some other date; and the interplay of Section 125(2) with Instruction No.22/2022.
4. Whether redemption fine imposed by a revisional authority is deductible from the amount refunded where the gold has already been disposed of, particularly when the order of redemption envisaged release of goods on payment.
5. Whether other deductions (customs duty including SWS, penalty, warehouse charges) and additions (pre-deposit) were correctly effected in computing the refundable amount after disposal of seized gold.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Compliance with Section 110(1B) before disposal/melting of seized gold
Legal framework: Section 110(1B) requires a proper officer who has seized goods specified under sub-section (1A) to prepare an inventory containing particulars relevant to identity of the goods and to make an application to a Magistrate; statutory safeguards exist for preservation and identification of seized valuable goods.
Precedent treatment: Decisions referenced in the judgment (including Tribunal and High Court authorities cited) treat disposal of seized gold without following requisite procedures as a serious lapse and a violation of statutory duty and natural justice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that it was not proper for the department to send seized gold to the Mint without informing the owner and without following the prescribed safeguards; disposal while remedies were pending and without notice undermines the protective regime of Section 110(1B) and related safeguards.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - disposal/melting of seized gold without following statutory inventory/notice procedure under Section 110(1B) and without informing the owner is improper and constitutes a ground for relief. Obiter - factual comments on departmental conduct and moral obligation to inform appellate forums.
Conclusion: The department erred in disposing of the gold without observing the statutory procedure and without informing the appellant; this constituted a breach warranting remedial direction.
Issue 2 - Violation of principles of natural justice by disposing gold during pendency of appeals/revisions
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice (fairness, reasoned procedure) and Article 14 reasoning invoked by precedent require transparency and notice before depriving an owner of property or disposing it while proceedings are sub judice.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on earlier Tribunal and High Court decisions (as discussed in the order) that condemned disposal/auction/melting of goods while appeal was pending without notice to the owner or permission from the appellate forum; such actions entail restitutionary remedies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found departmental action to be a "serious mistake" and "gross violation of principles of natural justice" where goods were disposed of despite pendency of appeal and without intimating the appellant; consistent authorities require refund of value with interest where goods are sold/disposed ex parte.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - disposal of seized goods without informing owner and during pendency of appellate remedies violates natural justice and entitles owner to equitable restitution (refund of value). Obiter - rhetorical emphasis on reasonableness, fairness and transparency expected of customs officers.
Conclusion: Disposal without notice while matters were sub judice was contrary to law and justified directing payment of value to the owner.
Issue 3 - Proper basis for valuation where seized gold has been transferred to SPMCIL; application of Instruction No.22/2022 and Section 125(2)
Legal framework: Instruction No.22/2022-Customs (6.9.2022) prescribes that when seized gold is to be refunded but has been disposed off/transferred to SPMCIL, the refund calculation shall be: (i) for seizures in Customs area - based on Tariff Value of gold on date of transfer to SPMCIL; (ii) for seizures outside Customs area - based on average market price on date of transfer to SPMCIL. Section 125(2) and the revisional/order framework also govern refunds and deductions.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal noted decisions that have awarded market value as remedy where department disposed goods during pendency, including directions to refund market value prevailing "today" in some High Court orders cited by the Tribunal; these authorities have sometimes refused departmental deductions such as duty where specific facts warranted the same.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted that Instruction No.22/2022 binds the department for computing refund where gold has been transferred to SPMCIL. However, on facts the Tribunal disagreed with the Commissioner's acceptance of Adjudicating Authority's table as compliant, finding that established authorities require refund of market value as on date of payment/handing over in circumstances where disposal occurred without informing owner and while appeals were pending.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where department disposes of seized gold improperly (without notice/during pendency), equitable restitution in the form of payment of market value as on date of payment/handing over is appropriate notwithstanding the Instruction's tariff/transfer-date formula; the Instruction remains a binding administrative guideline but must be read in context of breach. Obiter - commentary on interplay of Instruction with Section 125(2).
Conclusion: The Tribunal directed payment of market value effective on the date the cheque was handed over to the appellant, after specified adjustments; Instruction No.22/2022 applies to valuation generally but the Tribunal awarded market-value restitution in the circumstances of improper disposal.
Issue 4 - Deductibility of redemption fine when goods were not available at time of redemption
Legal framework: Redemption fine is an instrument imposed by a revisional authority to allow a party to reclaim confiscated goods on payment; the legal position varies by factual context and precedents concerning whether fine is payable where goods are not liable to confiscation or are unavailable.
Precedent treatment: The appellant relied on authorities holding redemption fine should not be imposed when goods are not liable to confiscation; the Tribunal noted these lines of authority but applied reasoning based on the specific revisional order that granted redemption subject to fine.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the revisional authority's order imposed a redemption fine as an integral part of the order under which the appellant claimed the gold or its value; the appellant could not accept the benefits of that order and repudiate its onerous condition. Given the gold had been confiscated, the Tribunal found deduction of redemption fine justified.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a revisional order conditions redemption on payment of a redemption fine and the owner claims the gold/value under that order, the redemption fine can be deducted even if the goods are not physically available at the time of redemption, unless the order itself is shown to be contrary to law. Obiter - references to contrary authorities where fines were held inapplicable in different factual matrices.
Conclusion: Deduction of the redemption fine of Rs.4,25,000/- was held to be justified on the facts because the appellant sought relief under the revisional order that contained the redemption fine condition.
Issue 5 - Legitimacy of other deductions and computation of refund (duty, penalty, warehouse charges, pre-deposit)
Legal framework: Deductions from proceeds of sale or refund generally include customs duty, penalty if upheld, reasonable warehousing charges, and adjustments for pre-deposit; calculations should conform to statutory provisions and applicable administrative instructions.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal and High Court authorities require transparent, lawful computation and have ordered restitution with interest where departmental sale/disposal was improper; deductions may be permitted if legally enforceable and supported by orders.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that customs duty, penalty (as upheld by revisional authority), warehouse charges and the credited pre-deposit could be adjusted, but stressed that the overall computation must reflect the market value direction adopted by the Tribunal (market value as on date of cheque). The Tribunal disagreed with the Commissioner's blanket approval of Table no.4 and instead directed payment of market value after adjustment/deductions as shown in Table-3 of the Order-in-Original.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - lawful and enforceable dues (duty, penalties upheld, redemption fine, warehouse charges) may be adjusted against the market-value refund; the computation must be transparent and aligned with the remedial principle applied. Obiter - specific numerical tabulation discussion and comparison with Table no.4.
Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeal, set aside the Commissioner's order, and directed payment of the market value of the gold as effective on the date the cheque was handed over, after adjustment/deduction of redemption fine, penalty, warehouse charges, applicable duty and credit for pre-deposit - i.e., payment as per the adjusted computation (Table-3) with the department's earlier method (Table-4) rejected as non-compliant in the circumstances.
Absolute confiscation of Gold and disposal of the same without any information to the appellant (importer) - Right to pay redemption fine in lieu of confiscation - Prescribed procedure followed by the officers of the department during confiscation of gold, keeping it in their custody and returning the value of gold to the appellant after deducting dues or not - HELD THAT:- It was not proper on the part of the department to have sent the gold seized from the appellant to Mint without informing him. In this context, it is pertinent to refer to the order passed in Satish Mehta and Dhanishtha Gold vs C. C. Ahmedabad [2022 (11) TMI 62 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD]. The Tribunal has held in this case that during the disputed period when the matter was sub-judice before the Tribunal, the Department, in a hasty manner disposed off the goods without seeking permission from the Appellate Court where the matter was sub-judice. Thus, the department has committed a serious mistake by disposal of the disputed goods which was a subject matter of appeal. The department also did not intimate the appellants regarding the disposal of confiscated goods. This act of the department exparte cannot be held as proper and legal.
The Tribunal cited Kailash Ribbon Factory Ltd vs. Commissioner of Customs and Central Excise New Delhi [2002 (3) TMI 57 - HIGH COURT OF DELHI]sion of the Tribunal during pendency of the appeal without even giving notice to the appellant. It was also held that the department has to refund the declared value of the goods with interest per annum from the date of auction of the goods.
The Tribunal has also held in the above mentioned decided case that at the time when the goods were disposed off the department was well aware about the pendency of the appeal before this Tribunal. Therefore, the action of the department is clearly in gross violation of principles of natural justice. Hence the same cannot be allowed to sustain. In this case, the Tribunal allowed the appeal and held appellant entitled for the refund of differential value of the gold as claimed by them along with interest.
The Revenue is justified in deducting the redemption fine of Rs. 4,25,000/- imposed by the Revisional Authority vide order dated 24th August, 2022 because on the basis of that order, the appellant is claiming gold in question. The appellant cannot be allowed to take benefit of that order and at the same time refuse to accept the onerous part of the same order. In the present case the gold in question was confiscated. Therefore, if the appellant to take the gold in question back or its market value, he is bound to pay the redemption fine.
The learned Commissioner has erred in upholding the order of the first Adjudicating Authority and rejecting the appeal. In my opinion the impugned order passed by the learned Commissioner in liable to be set aside and the appeal deserves to be allowed.
The impugned order passed by the learned Commissioner is set aside - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Cost Recovery Charges (CRC) claimed under Regulation 5(2) of the Handling of Cargo in Customs Areas Regulations, 2009 (HCCAR 2009) for the period April 2020 to September 2023 are recoverable from the airport operator and enforceable by recovery under Section 142 of the Customs Act, 1962.
2. Whether interest on outstanding CRC can be levied under Section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962.
3. Whether the airport operator is entitled to exemption/waiver from payment of CRC under Board Circular No. 02/2021-Customs (and related DGHRD communications), and whether the adjudicating authority must re-examine such exemption requests.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Recoverability of CRC under Regulation 5(2) HCCAR 2009 and enforcement under Section 142
Legal framework: Regulation 5(2) HCCAR 2009 obliges a Customs Cargo Service Provider (CCSP) to "undertake to bear the cost of the Customs officers posted, at such customs area, on cost recovery basis... unless specifically exempted." Section 141(2) and Section 157 of the Customs Act empower regulation of receipt/storage/handling of imported/export goods and confer a general power to make regulations to carry out the purposes of the Act. Section 45 prescribes custody obligations of custodians in a customs area. Section 142 provides modes for recovery of sums payable under the Act.
Precedent treatment: Several High Courts and Tribunals have considered the vires and application of Regulation 5(2): Division Bench of Bombay High Court, Delhi High Court and Rajasthan High Court have upheld the Regulations and treated CRC as recoverable and in the nature of a fee for services rendered (or reimbursement of additional costs). A Division Bench of the Telangana High Court (on appeal in GMR matter) held the 2009 Regulations ultra vires and treated the levy as akin to a tax, not authorized by the Act; SLP against that Telangana decision is pending before the Supreme Court. Lower CESTAT benches have followed both lines depending on jurisdiction.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal notes the conflicting authorities. It recognizes the reasoning in Bombay/Delhi/Rajasthan judgments that: (a) appointment as custodian and undertakings executed create enforceable obligations; (b) Sections 45, 141(2) and 157 provide a framework permitting regulations to prescribe conditions for custodians, including bearing costs of additional customs staff; (c) CRC is properly characterized as a regulatory fee/recovery of cost incurred for services rendered by customs officers at commercially run facilities, not as a tax. Conversely, the Telangana Bench concluded that no express statutory authorization exists to recover salaries via regulation and classified the levy as a tax, thus ultra vires; the Tribunal finds that decision to be a binding precedent in absence of a stay or contrary binding High Court ruling in the same jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The core ratio in the upheld authorities is that Regulations framed under Sections 141(2) and 157 are intra vires and that CRC constitutes recoverable cost/fee where custodians have accepted the conditions and derive commercial benefit. The Telangana decision's ratio (that the Regulations are ultra vires because no statutory sanction exists to levy salaries by regulation) is of decisive effect in the relevant territorial/precedential context but is subject to pending SLP before the Supreme Court.
Conclusion: Given the conflicting High Court decisions and the pendency of SLP against the Telangana order, the Tribunal declined to pronounce finally on vires and recoverability. Instead, it remanded the question to the adjudicating authority to decide the recoverability issue after taking into account the outcome of the pending SLP in the Supreme Court (or further clarifications), noting that the Telangana decision is binding in absence of a stay and that the matter raises substantial conflicting precedents requiring resolution at the apex level.
Issue 2 - Levy of interest under Section 28AA on outstanding CRC
Legal framework: Section 28AA prescribes interest on delayed payment of "duty" payable in accordance with Section 28, calculated from the month succeeding the month in which duty ought to have been paid. Section 28AA applies only where the obligation is a duty as defined under Section 28.
Precedent treatment: Authorities distinguish between duties (attracting Section 28AA) and recoveries that are fees or cost reimbursements (which are not "duty" for purposes of Section 28AA). Decisions referenced by parties support the proposition that Section 28AA cannot be used to levy interest on non-duty recoveries.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasoned that CRC, if not characterized as duty, does not fall within Section 28AA. Since Section 28AA is explicitly linked to duty under Section 28, it cannot be pressed into service to charge interest on amounts whose legal character is CRC (fee/cost recovery) rather than duty. Consequently, interest levied under Section 28AA on CRC cannot be sustained.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 28AA is inapplicable where the underlying amount is not a duty; concluding that interest under Section 28AA on CRC is unsustainable is a binding holding of the Tribunal in these appeals. This conclusion is independent of the vires question of Regulation 5(2).
Conclusion: The levy of interest under Section 28AA on outstanding CRC was set aside; the adjudicating authority's confirmation of interest under Section 28AA cannot be sustained.
Issue 3 - Claim for exemption under Circular No. 02/2021 and DGHRD letter dated 18.08.2021
Legal framework: Board Circular No. 02/2021 prescribes norms and a procedural route for grant of exemption/waiver of CRC upon meeting prescribed performance benchmarks and with requisite recommendations by jurisdictional authorities. DGHRD communications may implement or operate exemptions in terms of Board directions and require formal recommendation/approval channels.
Precedent treatment: Administrative circulars and DGHRD decisions have been held to be procedural and not to have retrospective effect unless so specified; courts have examined compliance with prescribed processes for exemption. The Tribunal noted precedents holding that circulars do not apply retroactively where explicitly or implicitly limited.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the record and observed that the Commissioner rejected the exemption claim on the ground that no recommendation from the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner/Commissioner had been forwarded to DGHRD. The DGHRD letter of 18.08.2021 referenced exemption "in terms of conditions mentioned in Board's Circular No.02/2021" and indicated a recommendation-dependent grant. The Tribunal held that factual clarification is necessary to ascertain whether the procedural preconditions for exemption (including recommendations) were complied with and whether the DGHRD letter effectively granted exemption for the periods in question.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - entitlement to exemption under Circular No. 02/2021 depends on compliance with its conditions and proper recommendation/processing; an adjudicating authority must verify administrative steps and DGHRD communications before denying exemption. This is an operative direction remanding fact-specific inquiry. Obiter - broader commentary on merit of performance benchmarks or retrospective effect is ancillary.
Conclusion: The Tribunal directed the Commissioner to obtain necessary clarification from DGHRD and re-examine the exemption claim in light of the DGHRD letter and the procedural requirements of Circular No. 02/2021; the matter was remanded for fresh adjudication on exemption consistent with the Directorate's clarification.
Cross-references and final disposition
1. The Tribunal declined to decide the larger vires controversy in view of conflicting High Court precedents (Bombay/Delhi/Rajasthan vs. Telangana) and the pendency of SLP before the Supreme Court; the issue of recoverability under Regulation 5(2) was remitted to the adjudicating authority to be reconsidered after taking note of the outcome of the pending appellate proceedings or further authoritative pronouncement.
2. The Tribunal held as a matter of law that Section 28AA cannot be applied to levy interest on CRC where CRC is not a "duty" under Section 28 and set aside interest charged under Section 28AA.
3. The Tribunal required the adjudicating authority to verify DGHRD/Board communications and the requisite recommendation process under Circular No. 02/2021 and to decide the exemption claim afresh on that factual and legal basis.
Recovery of cost recovery charges under Section 142 of the Customs Act, 1962 - levy of interest u/s 28AA of Customs Act, 1962 - levy of penalties u/s 117 of the Customs Act, 1962 - admissibility of exemption under Circular No.02/2021 - period April 2020 to September 2023 - HELD THAT:- The very same provisions of the HCCAR, 2009 has been considered by the Bombay high Court, Delhi High Court, Rajasthan High Court and Telangana High Court. In the judgments of the Bombay High Court, Delhi High Court and Rajasthan High Court the provisions of the said Regulation has been held to be valid whereas the Telangana High Court has declared the same as ultra vires. SLP filed against the order of the Bombay High Court, has been dismissed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court being withdrawn by the petitioner, keeping the question of law open. Against the division bench judgement of the Telangana High Court, SLP has been filed before the honourable apex court and the SLP is pending as on date.
In the case of Mumbai International Airport Private Ltd. [2014 (10) TMI 508 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] the Division Bench of the Bombay High Court held that 'Cost recovery charges are not being recovered from the importer/exporter. It is because the Petitioners under a specific document sought the approval firstly, to set up a Perishable Cargo Terminal and for exports. That was granted and in that terminal, services of the Customs staff had to be provided so as to enable the goods exported being cleared therefrom.'
More or less a similar issue was raised before the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Allied ICD Services Ltd. [2018 (8) TMI 1610 - DELHI HIGH COURT], wherein Writ Petitions filed for seeking directions to declare levy and collection of CRC and posting of Customs officers and staff at the Inland Container Depots (ICDs), Container Freight Stations (CFSs), Air Cargo Complexes (ACCs) / Export Processing Zones (EPZs), wholly illegal, unlawful, null and void.
The Hon’ble Telangana High Court after considering the Judgments of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court and Delhi High Court declared the provisions of Regulation 2009 as Ultra Vires under which the Cost Recovery Charges has been confirmed by the Commissioner in the impugned Orders. It is opined that even though SLP has been filed by the Revenue against the said judgment of Hon’ble Telangana High Court, in absence of stay of the said Order from the Apex Court and also in absence of contrary judgment of the jurisdictional High Court on the question of vires of the said provision, it is binding on all concerned as on date. In these circumstances, it is prudent to remand the issue to the adjudicating authority to decide the same after taking note of the outcome of the SLP pending before the Hon’ble Apex Court.
Levy of interest under Section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962 on the outstanding CRC - HELD THAT:- There are merit in the argument of the learned advocate for the appellant that it is not leviable - Interest under Section 28AA would be attracted only when the amount required to be paid is ‘duty’ which has not been levied, short-levied or short paid under Section 28 of the Customs Act, 1962, whereas in the present case, the CRC has been held to be not duty; hence, Section 28AA cannot be pressed into service for recovery of interest. So, the Order of the learned Commissioner for recovery of interest under Section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962 on the outstanding CRC cannot be sustained.
Exemption from payment of CRC - HELD THAT:- On going through the letter, it indicates that exemption from payment of CRC is granted in terms of the conditions mentioned in Board’s Circular No.02/2021-Customs dated 19.01.2021 duly recommended by the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner / Commissioner. Since the Ld. Commissioner has denied the exemption observing that no such recommendation was ever forwarded by the jurisdictional Chief Commissioner / Commissioner, it is necessary to ascertain the facts in this regard. Thus, The Commissioner is directed to obtain necessary clarification from the DGHRD on the same and decide the issue of exemption accordingly.
Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the second proviso to Notification No.57/2000-Cus (requiring execution of bond and export obligation within 120 days) was in force during the relevant period and, if omitted, whether demand for duty forgone could be sustained on account of non-fulfillment of that proviso.
2. Whether statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act could be relied upon as evidence by the adjudicating authority without following the procedure prescribed by section 138B of the Customs Act (i.e., examination of declarants as witnesses and admission in evidence), and the consequent admissibility and relevance of such statements.
3. Whether recovery of duty and imposition of penalties under sections 112 and 114AA of the Customs Act were sustainable when founded on (a) alleged breach of the second proviso to the Notification after its omission and/or (b) inadmissible statements recorded under section 108.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Validity and effect of omission of the second proviso to Notification No.57/2000-Cus
Legal framework: The Notification granted customs exemption for imported gold under the "Export Against Supply by Nominated Agencies" scheme subject to conditions, including a second proviso (prior to 15.05.2015) requiring execution of a bond and export of equivalent jewellery within 120 days; Notification No.33/2015-Cus dated 15.05.2015 expressly omitted that second proviso.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal's reasoning relies on the statutory force of amending notifications and the temporal application of conditions: an omitted proviso cannot be applied retroactively to a period after its omission.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the text of Notification No.33/2015 and found the omission of the second proviso effective from 15.05.2015; since the period in dispute (03.08.2015 to 05.10.2015) is after omission, the conditional obligation (bond/export within 120 days and liability to pay duty on shortfall per that proviso) ceased to exist. The existence of private undertakings or bonds between exporter and nominated agency does not reintroduce or validate a statutory condition that had been lawfully omitted. Accordingly, any demand premised on non-fulfillment of the omitted proviso lacked legal authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a statutory proviso has been validly omitted by subsequent notification prior to the relevant period, the conditions in that proviso cannot underpin a demand for duty in that later period. Obiter - Observations on relationships or undertakings between private parties and nominated agencies insofar as they do not alter statutory effect.
Conclusion: Demand for duty stated to arise from non-fulfillment of the second proviso was without legal authority for the relevant period and cannot be sustained; related recovery and penalties founded on that demand fall.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Admissibility and relevance of statements under section 108 vis-à-vis section 138B
Legal framework: Section 108 authorizes recording statements during inquiry; section 138B(1)(b) makes such statements relevant to prove truth of contents only if the person who made the statement is examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority opines the statement should be admitted in evidence, subject to exceptions in clause (a).
Precedent Treatment (followed): The Tribunal followed its prior decisions (including Drolia Electrosteel and Surya Wires) and an established line of authority interpreting sections analogous to section 9D of the Central Excise Act - that the clause (b) procedure is mandatory and statements recorded under inquiry are not admissible unless the procedural safeguards (examination, opinion, and opportunity for cross-examination) are complied with.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reiterated that statements recorded under section 108 have high potential for coercion and therefore statutory safeguards in section 138B must be complied with. Where none of the clause (a) exceptions apply (dead, cannot be found, incapable, kept out of way, unreasonable delay/expense), the adjudicating authority must (i) summon and examine the declarant as a witness during adjudication, (ii) form a reasoned opinion that the statement may be admitted in the interests of justice, and (iii) only thereafter allow cross-examination. Failure to follow this mandatory sequence renders the statements irrelevant and inadmissible for proving the facts recorded in them.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Statements recorded under section 108 cannot be relied upon in adjudication unless the mandatory procedure of section 138B(1)(b) is followed (or a clause (a) exception is validly invoked). Obiter - Comments on the policy rationale (risk of coercion) and sequence of evidence referred to Section 138 of the Evidence Act.
Conclusion: The Principal Commissioner's reliance on statements under section 108 without complying with section 138B rendered those statements irrelevant and inadmissible; such reliance cannot sustain findings of fact, demands or penalties.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Sustainment of duty recovery and penalties under sections 112 and 114AA
Legal framework: Section 28AA (recovery with interest) and section 112 (penalty for acts and omissions) allow recovery and penalty where duty is found to be forgone due to breach of exemption conditions; section 114AA penalises use of false or incorrect material.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal applied the legal principle that substantive enforcement action (duty demand, interest, penalty) must be founded on lawful grounds and admissible evidence; precedent establishes that when foundational legal conditions no longer exist or relied-upon evidence is inadmissible, consequent enforcement actions must fail.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the second proviso had been omitted before the relevant period, there was no statutory duty-based obligation under that proviso to trigger recovery in that period. Independent private undertakings or bonds cannot supplant or revive a rescinded statutory condition. Separately, the evidentiary foundation for assertions of diversion and culpability comprised statements under section 108 which were not admitted in evidence in accordance with section 138B; therefore findings of fact critical to imposition of penalties lacked admissible support. For penalties under section 114AA, no specific false or incorrect statement attributable to the individual respondent was identified or proved in admissible evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Recovery of duty and imposition of penalties collapse where (a) the statutory condition alleged to be breached was legally omitted before the period in question, and (b) the adjudicating authority relies on inadmissible section 108 statements without complying with section 138B. Obiter - Notes on departmental circulars and administrative procedures have no application where the statutory condition is omitted.
Conclusion: Duty demand, appropriation of payments, imposition of penalty under section 112 and imposition of penalty under section 114AA were unsustainable on the record; the impugned order confirming duty forgone and penalties is set aside.
CROSS-REFERENCES
Refer to Issue 1 analysis regarding omission of the second proviso for the legal basis invalidating the duty demand; refer to Issue 2 for invalidity of evidentiary reliance; both issues jointly underpin the conclusion in Issue 3 that recovery and penalties cannot be sustained.
Customs duty forgone for failure to abide by the conditions of Notification No. 57/2000-Cus dated 08.05.2000 - Conditions of Export of Jewellery manufactured from the duty free imported gold - failure to fulfill the export obligation under the Notification in respect of 31kgs of duty free gold procured by it from the Bank of Nova Scotia - reliance placed on the statements made by various persons under section 108 of the Customs Act - levy of penalty u/s 114AA of the Customs Act, 1962.
Whether the second proviso to the Notification had been omitted during the relevant period from 03.08.2015 to 05.10.2015? - HELD THAT:- The appellant has brought on record Notification No. 33/2015-Cus dated 15.05.2015. At Serial No. 5 (iii) of this Notification, the second proviso to the Notification has been omitted. On omission of the second proviso, the condition that required Bank of Nova Scotia to execute a bond with the Assistant Commissioner to the effect that Bank may either itself or through other exporters export gold equivalent to the imported gold within a period of 120 days from the issue of gold to the exporters was not in existence. The Principal Commissioner is, therefore, not justified in asserting that either the Bank of Nova Scotia or the appellant had failed to fulfil the conditions stipulated in the Notification - The appellant may have given an undertaking to the Bank of Nova Scotia and the Bank of Nova Scotia may have executed a bond with the Assistant Commissioner, but as the second proviso to the Notification had been omitted on 15.05.2015, and the period involved is from 03.08.2015 to 05.10.2015 recovery of duty from the appellant could not have been made. Any demand, therefore, made for non-fulfillment of the conditions stipulated in the second proviso to the Notification is without any authority of law.
Whether the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act could not have been considered as relevant since the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act had not been followed? - HELD THAT:- The submission advanced by appellant is that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act could not have been considered as relevant since the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act had not been followed also deserves to be accepted.
In M/s. Surya Wires Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal Commissioner, CGST, Raipur [2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], the Tribunal examined the provisions of sections 108 and 138B of the Customs Act as also the provisions of sections 14 and 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and observed that 'What, therefore, follows is that a person who makes a statement during the course of an inquiry has to be first examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and thereafter the adjudicating authority has to form an opinion whether having regard to the circumstances of the case the statement should be admitted in evidence, in the interests of justice. Once this determination regarding admissibility of the statement of a witness is made by the adjudicating authority, the statement will be admitted as an evidence and an opportunity of cross-examination of the witness is then required to be given to the person against whom such statement has been made.'
In view of the aforesaid decisions of the Tribunal, it has to be held that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act, on which reliance has been placed by the Principal Commissioner, could not have been considered as relevant.
It would, therefore, not be necessary to examine the contention advanced by the learned counsel for the appellant that recovery could have been made from the appellant only under the provisions of section 28 of the Customs Act and not in terms of the bond since the recovery in the present case has been found to be without authority of law. Penalty, for the aforesaid reasons, could not have been imposed on the appellant under section 112 of the Customs Act.
Levy of penalty u/s 114AA of the Customs Act on partner of appellant- HELD THAT:- This section provides for penalty for use of false and incorrect material. Not only is the finding based on the statements made by persons under section 108 of the Customs Act, but even otherwise it has not been pointed out which statement was made by partner of appellant,knowingly or intentionally or partner of appellant, had made any declaration or statement which was found incorrect in any material particular. In any view of the matter, as the demand could not have been made, the imposition of penalty upon partner of appellant, cannot be sustained.
The order dated 09.01.2020 passed by the Principal Commissioner confirming the duty forgone for failure to abide the conditions of the second proviso to the Notification and imposition of penalty under section 112 of the Customs Act deserves to be set aside and is set aside. The imposition of penalty upon partner of appellant, under section 114AA of the Customs Act also deserves to be set aside and is set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether confirmation of customs duty forgone is sustainable where the exemption Notification does not require one-to-one correlation between imported duty-free gold and exported jewellery, and where the second proviso (requiring execution of bond and 120-day export obligation) was omitted prior to the alleged default period.
2. Whether demand for customs duty can be sustained against the exporter in respect of quantities for which the nominated agency had already paid duty and interest prior to investigation.
3. Whether statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act can be relied upon as evidence for adjudication and for imposition of penalties under sections 112 and 114AA where the procedural safeguards of section 138B were not complied with.
4. Whether recovery of duty in the present facts could be legitimately effected by enforcing a bond executed by the nominated agency, as opposed to recovery under section 28 of the Customs Act.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Requirement of one-to-one correlation and effect of omission of the second proviso to the Notification
Legal framework: The exemption Notification confers duty exemption for imports under the "Export Against Supply by Nominated Agencies" scheme subject to conditions; prior to amendment a second proviso required importers/nominated agencies to execute a bond undertaking export of jewellery equivalent to imported metal within 120 days and to pay duty on any shortfall. The proviso was omitted by a subsequent Notification dated 15.05.2015.
Precedent treatment: Administrative Circular (CBIC Circular 23/2018) clarifies there is no requirement of one-to-one correlation between a specific consignment of imported metal and a specific export consignment, provided proper records/accounting showing that duty-free metal has been exported through manufacture of jewellery are maintained. The Tribunal followed and applied this administrative position.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the Notification text and the amending notification. It found that: (a) the Notification, even before amendment, imposed an obligation to export jewellery manufactured from duty-free metal but did not on its face require a strict consignment-by-consignment identity; (b) CBIC Circular 23/2018 expressly disavows any one-to-one consignment requirement and requires accounting instead; and (c) crucially, the second proviso - the specific statutory mechanism creating a bond-based, time-bound export obligation - was omitted on 15.05.2015, removing the particular obligation relied upon by the Department for the October 2015 period. Consequently, findings that the exporter failed to use the very same imported bars in the particular shipping bills (i.e., a one-to-one correlation) could not sustain a duty demand for the period after omission of the proviso.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the Notification does not mandate one-to-one correlation and where the operative proviso creating a specific bond-based export obligation has been omitted prior to the alleged breach, duty cannot be confirmed on the basis of failure to meet that proviso. Obiter - observations about the policy rationale of the Notification and critique of the Department's interpretive approach beyond the direct application of Circular 23/2018.
Conclusion: The confirmation of customs duty forgone for the export consignments dated October 2015 cannot be sustained on the ground of non-use of the very bars imported by the nominated agency, particularly because the second proviso - the legal basis for the bond/120-day obligation relied upon - had been omitted before the relevant period and because administrative guidance negates a strict one-to-one requirement.
Issue 2: Duty demand where nominated agency had already paid duty and interest
Legal framework: The Notification contemplates reassessment/demand of duty on quantities not utilized for export. Where nominated agency or importer pays duty and interest prior to adjudication, the legal question is whether a subsequent demand against the exporter remains maintainable.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal accepted the uncontested fact that MMTC had deposited duty and interest for the first set of entries (4.5 kg) before investigation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted the Notification permits the department to demand duty only on the quantity not utilized for manufacture/export. When the nominated agency itself paid the duty and interest for those non-exported quantities prior to the investigation, there remained no legal foundation to confirm a demand against the exporter for that specific quantity. The impugned order did not provide reasons for confirming duty in respect of those entries; accordingly, the demand as to the first set was unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where duty with interest has been deposited by the nominated agency for quantities declared non-export prior to investigation, confirmation of a separate demand against the exporter for those specific quantities is not justified absent contrary findings. Obiter - none significant beyond application of the Notification text.
Conclusion: The duty demand in respect of the 4.5 kg tranche, already discharged by the nominated agency with interest, could not be sustained against the exporter and was not supported by the adjudicating order.
Issue 3: Admissibility and evidentiary value of statements under section 108 absent compliance with section 138B; consequence for penalties under sections 112 and 114AA
Legal framework: Section 108 permits recording of statements during inquiry; section 138B prescribes conditions under which such statements are admissible in adjudication (mirroring safeguards in section 9D of Central Excise law): where clause (a) exceptions do not apply, clause (b) requires the person to be examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and an express opinion be formed that the statement should be admitted, followed by opportunity for cross-examination. Penalties under sections 112 and 114AA require proof of culpable acts/false statements.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on its prior decisions and a consistent line of authorities holding the clause (b) procedure mandatory - statements recorded under section 108 are inadmissible for proving truth of their contents unless the statutorily prescribed examination/admissibility procedure is followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the impugned order materially relied on multiple statements recorded under section 108. The mandatory procedure under section 138B was not followed: the persons who made the statements were not examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and no reasoned admissibility determination was recorded; consequently the statements could not be treated as relevant evidence. Given that the Department's case and the penalty findings (sections 112 and 114AA) substantially rested on those inadmissible statements, the imposition of penalties could not be sustained.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - failure to comply with section 138B(1)(b) renders statements under section 108 irrelevant and inadmissible for proving substantive facts in adjudication; penalties predicated upon such inadmissible statements must be set aside. Obiter - observations on the rationale for procedural safeguards (risk of coerced confessions) reiterate established principles.
Conclusion: Statements recorded under section 108, relied upon without compliance with section 138B, were inadmissible; therefore penalties under section 112 (upon the firm) and section 114AA (upon the proprietor) could not be sustained and were set aside.
Issue 4: Recovery by enforcing nominated agency's bond versus recovery under section 28
Legal framework: Section 28 (and related recovery provisions) govern recovery of duties from liable persons; the second proviso (when in force) provided for bonds executed by nominated agencies, potentially creating contractual/conditional recovery mechanisms enforceable on default.
Precedent treatment and reasoning: Because the Tribunal concluded (Issue 1) that the second proviso had been omitted prior to the relevant export consignments and (Issue 2) that MMTC had paid duty for certain entries, the legal foundation for recovery by enforcing the bond - which presupposed existence of the proviso-based bond obligation - did not exist for the October 2015 period. Having found the overall substantive demand and penalty unsustainable on the identified grounds, it was unnecessary to adjudicate further the finer points of recovery mechanics; the Tribunal therefore declined to uphold recovery via bond enforcement.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the legislative/notification basis for a bond-based recovery has ceased to exist for the relevant period, recovery cannot be sustained by enforcing such a bond. Obiter - detailed comparative analysis of section 28 versus bond enforcement was not essential given other dispositive grounds.
Conclusion: Given the omission of the second proviso prior to the relevant period and the quashing of the substantive demand and penalties on other grounds, recovery by enforcing the bond was without lawful foundation in the facts of this case; consideration of recovery mechanics under section 28 was rendered unnecessary.
Overall Disposition
The Tribunal set aside the adjudicating authority's confirmation of customs duty forgone and the imposition of penalties under sections 112 and 114AA for the reasons summarized above: absence of a one-to-one consignment requirement (as per Circular 23/2018) and omission of the second proviso before the alleged defaults; prior payment of duty by the nominated agency for certain entries; and inadmissibility of statements recorded under section 108 in the absence of compliance with section 138B - the last ground being determinative for the penalty findings. The appeals were allowed accordingly.
Customs duty forgone for failure to abide by the conditions of N/N. 57/2000-Cus dated 08.05.2000 - Conditions of Export of Jewellery manufactured from the duty free imported gold - appellant failed to fulfill the export obligation under the Notification - levy of penalty on proprietor of appellant u/s 114AA of CA, 1962 - HELD THAT:- The appellant has brought on record N/N. 33/2015-Cus dated 15.05.2015. At Serial No. 5 (iii) of this Notification, the second proviso to the Notification has been omitted. On omission of the second proviso, the condition that required MMTC to execute a bond with the Assistant Commissioner to the effect that MMTC may either itself or through other exporters export gold equivalent to the imported gold within a period of 120 days from the issue of gold to the exporters was not in existence. The Principal Commissioner is, therefore, not justified in asserting that either MMTC or the appellant had failed to fulfil the conditions stipulated in the Notification. The appellant may have given an undertaking to the MMTC and MMTC may have executed a bond with the Assistant Commissioner, but as the second proviso to the Notification had been omitted on 15.05.2015, and the period involved is from 21.10.2015 to 26.10.2015 recovery of duty from the appellant could not have been made. Any demand, therefore, made for non-fulfillment of the conditions stipulated in the second proviso to the Notification is without any authority of law.
Levy of penalty u/s 112 - HELD THAT: The submission advanced by the learned counsel for the appellant against the imposition of penalty under section 112 of the Customs Act is that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act, which have been relied upon, could not have been considered as relevant since the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act had not been followed.
In M/s. Surya Wires Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal Commissioner, CGST, Raipur [2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], the Tribunal examined the provisions of sections 108 and 138B of the Customs Act as also the provisions of sections 14 and 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and observed 'What, therefore, follows is that a person who makes a statement during the course of an inquiry has to be first examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and thereafter the adjudicating authority has to form an opinion whether having regard to the circumstances of the case the statement should be admitted in evidence, in the interests of justice. Once this determination regarding admissibility of the statement of a witness is made by the adjudicating authority, the statement will be admitted as an evidence and an opportunity of cross-examination of the witness is then required to be given to the person against whom such statement has been made.'
The statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act, on which reliance has been placed by the Principal Commissioner, could not have been considered as relevant. Penalty, for this reason, could not have been imposed on the appellant under section 112 of the Customs Act.
Levy of penalty on proprietor of appellant u/s 114AA of CA, 1962 - HELD THAT:- This section provides for penalty for use of false and incorrect material. Not only is the finding based on the statements made by persons under section 108 of the Customs Act, but even otherwise it has not been pointed out which statement was made by Sudhir Bhalla knowingly or intentionally or Sudhir Bhalla had made any declaration or statement which was found incorrect in any material particular. In any view of the matter, as the demand could not have been confirmed, the imposition of penalty upon Sudhir Bhalla cannot be sustained.
The order dated 09.01.2020 passed by the Principal Commissioner confirming the duty forgone on the appellant for failure to abide the conditions of the Notification and imposition of penalty upon the appellant u/s 112 of the Customs Act is set aside. The imposition of penalty upon Sudhir Bhalla u/s 114AA of the Customs Act also deserves to be set aside and is set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Adjudicating Authority's dismissal of an application under Section 9 of the IBC without issuing notice to the Corporate Debtor and without recording reasons and submissions complied with the requirements of judicial/quasi-judicial decision-making and principles of natural justice.
2. Whether absence of a formal purchase order is a valid ground for rejecting an application under Section 9 of the IBC.
3. Whether an application under Section 9 of the IBC may be used primarily to recover contractual interest (or disputed interest), and whether initiation of CIRP for interest-only or interest-disputed claims constitutes misuse of the insolvency process (as raised by the Respondent and referred to relevant authorities).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Requirement of notice, recording of submissions and reasoned order when adjudicating an application under Section 9
Legal framework: Quasi-judicial authorities and tribunals are required to observe principles of natural justice (including hearing the parties) and to record reasons for admission or rejection of petitions; reasoned and speaking orders are necessary for just adjudication and appellate scrutiny.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied upon established authorities holding that orders of quasi-judicial bodies must be reasoned and that failure to record reasons or to afford opportunity of hearing is impermissible. The judgment follows the line of precedents requiring recording of submissions and reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Adjudicating Authority disposed of the Section 9 application by a laconic order which recorded conclusions (no purchase order; interest charged on invoices; repayments under some settlement; contradictory amounts) but did not record applicant's submissions, did not issue notice to the Corporate Debtor, and did not seek or record the respondent's reply. The Court held that the absence of contemporaneous recording of submissions and absence of reasons deprived the order of its life and soul, impeded appellate review and violated procedural fairness.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An Adjudicating Authority must provide a reasoned order and afford parties an opportunity to be heard on a Section 9 application; dismissal without notice and without recording reasons is procedurally defective and unsustainable. This is the binding operative conclusion of the Court.
Conclusions: The impugned order was set aside for being non-speaking and for failing to afford hearing and record submissions; the matter was remanded for fresh hearing after providing opportunity to the parties. All issues on merits were left open for adjudication by the Adjudicating Authority afresh; the Court made no observation on the merits and directed that nothing in its order should influence the decision on merits. No costs were imposed.
Issue 2 - Relevance of absence of a formal purchase order to maintain a Section 9 application
Legal framework: The IBC and Section 9 do not prescribe that an operational debt must be accompanied by a formal purchase order; admissibility of claims under Section 9 is determined by existence of an operational debt supported by evidence (invoices, correspondence, ledgers etc.), and not strictly by presence of a purchase order.
Precedent treatment: The Court noted submissions relying on settled principles that operational debt need not be supported by a purchase order; this position was advanced by the appellant and supported by case law cited to the Adjudicating Authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Adjudicating Authority treated absence of a purchase order as a ground for dismissal, but the Court observed that reliance on absence of purchase order alone is unsound since Section 9 does not mandate a purchase order. Because the impugned order neither recorded submissions nor engaged with documentary material (invoices, ledgers, bank statements), the Court declined to adjudicate this issue on merits and remitted it for fresh consideration.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter in the sense that the Court did not finally decide that absence of a purchase order is insufficient in every case; rather, the Court indicated that absence of purchase order is not a per se bar under Section 9 and left the matter open for the Adjudicating Authority to decide on fresh evidence and submissions.
Conclusions: The question of whether absence of a purchase order invalidates the Section 9 application was left undecided on merits; the Adjudicating Authority was directed to consider the documentary record and submissions afresh while noting that Section 9 does not statutorily require a purchase order.
Issue 3 - Claim for contractual interest and allegation of misuse of CIRP to recover disputed interest
Legal framework: Contractual interest, where validly agreed and supported by contract/invoice terms, forms part of operational debt and may be claimed under Section 9; however, initiation of CIRP for purely disputed or collateral claims may raise questions of misuse, depending on facts and proof.
Precedent treatment: The Court was referred to authorities supporting both propositions - that contractual interest can constitute operational debt and that initiation of CIRP for interest demands can be impermissible if used to effect recovery of disputed claims. The Court noted these precedents but did not resolve the tension, as the impugned order did not engage with evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The appellant contended that contractual interest at 24% p.a. (stated in invoices) and accounting adjustments of partial payments were part of admitted debt; the respondent contended the principal had been paid and that the petition sought primarily disputed interest. Given the absence of reasoned findings by the Adjudicating Authority as to how payments were applied (interest first or principal first) or whether the interest claim was contested and substantiated, the Court remitted the matter for fresh adjudication on these factual and legal issues.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - The Court did not lay down a definitive rule on entitlement to interest in the specific facts; rather, it reaffirmed that contractual interest can form part of operational debt but left the determination of whether the claim in this case is properly maintainable under Section 9 to the Adjudicating Authority after proper hearing and recording of reasons.
Conclusions: The contention that Section 9 cannot be used to recover disputed interest was noted but not decided; the Adjudicating Authority is to examine evidence (invoices, ledger entries, bank statements, correspondence) and legal submissions on whether the interest claimed is part of admitted operational debt or a disputed/impermissible ground for CIRP initiation. All such issues remain open on remand.
Cross-references and procedural outcome
The Court's decision is confined to procedural infirmity: failure to issue notice, failure to record submissions and reasons. The Court remanded the matter to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh hearing on merits with liberty to both parties to lead submissions and evidence; the appellate court made no observation on merits and directed that nothing in its order should influence the final decision. All issues identified above remain open for determination on remand.
Rejection of application filed u/s 9 of the IBC - no reasons assigned for such rejection - no notice was issued to the Respondent - CIRP u/s 9 of the IBC can be initiated for interest demand or not - HELD THAT:- It is clear that the Ld. Adjudicating Authority has not assigned any reasons for rejecting the application filed under Section 9 of the IBC by the appellant. The submissions made by the applicant/appellant have not been recorded, no notice was issued to the Respondent and no reply was sought from the Respondent on the claim of the applicant. It is apparent that impugned order is deficient in not recording in detail submissions and the reasons for dismissing the application. Recording of reasons in judicial and quasi-judicial orders are life and soul of such orders.
Recording of reasons are necessary not only for the satisfaction of the party who had lost the battle but also for the appellate court to appreciate the findings recorded by the Tribunal. In the interest of justice, the impugned order is set aside and the matter remanded back to the Ld. Adjudicating Authority for hearing it afresh, after providing an opportunity of being heard to the parties. All issues are kept open. Both the parties are at liberty to make their submission before the Ld. Adjudicating Authority. It is clarified that nothing contained in the order should influence the final decision of the Ld. Adjudicating Authority, as we have not made any observation on the merits of the case.
Appeal allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a pre-existing dispute existed between the parties such that an application under Section 9 (operational creditor) was liable to be rejected.
2. What is the correct application of the legal test (as articulated in Mobilox) by the Adjudicating Authority when examining a Section 9 application and a notice of dispute.
3. Whether the Adjudicating Authority exceeded its limited jurisdiction under Section 9 by adjudicating the merits of the contractual dispute (including allocation of responsibility for CCTV/DVR backup) instead of confining itself to the existence of a plausible, non-spurious dispute.
4. Whether the Adjudicating Authority rightly relied on (a) a ledger entry showing an admitted balance above the statutory threshold and (b) a representation made by the Corporate Debtor to the Ministry that the examination was "successfully conducted", as grounds to admit the Section 9 application despite the notice of dispute.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Existence of a pre-existing dispute and impact on Section 9
Legal framework: Under the scheme of Sections 8 and 9 of the Code, an adjudicating authority must refuse admission of a Section 9 application where there is a dispute (or pending suit/arbitration) in existence prior to receipt of the demand notice. The operational debt threshold (exceeding Rs.1 lakh) and documentary proof of debt are also relevant prerequisites.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed the Mobilox principles that require the AA to determine (i) whether there is an operational debt exceeding threshold; (ii) whether documentary evidence shows debt is due and unpaid; and (iii) whether a dispute exists or proceedings are pending before receipt of the demand notice. Paragraph 51 of Mobilox instructs that the AA must reject applications where notice of dispute shows a plausible contention requiring investigation and is not a patently feeble or unsupported assertion.
Interpretation and reasoning: Correspondences contemporaneous to the events (emails between the parties and ICAR, reports from a data-recovery agency, communications showing requests for CCTV footage and acknowledgments) were on record and pre-dated the demand notice. The Corporate Debtor had specifically pleaded deficiencies in services, alleged deletion/non-provision of CCTV footage at multiple centres, engagement of a third-party data-recovery agency and termination of the principal contract by the client. Those matters were pleaded in reply to the demand notice and supported by documentary annexures.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a plausible dispute, supported by contemporaneous documentary evidence, exists prior to the demand notice, Section 9 proceedings must be rejected at the admission stage; the AA need not and must not adjudicate merits beyond testing whether the dispute is spurious.
Conclusion: A pre-existing dispute, supported by contemporaneous documents and not shown to be a patently feeble defence, existed; therefore the Section 9 application should have been rejected under Section 9(5)(i)(d).
Issue 2 - Application of the Mobilox test by the Adjudicating Authority
Legal framework: Mobilox mandates a limited inquiry at the Section 9 admission stage - establish operational debt, documentary evidence of due and unpaid debt, and absence/presence of a bona fide dispute.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applies Mobilox strictly, emphasizing that the AA's role is not to decide contractual liabilities but to filter out spurious defences.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the Adjudicating Authority recognized existence of correspondence and dispute but nevertheless proceeded to examine substantive allocation of contractual responsibilities (e.g., who was responsible for backup of CCTV footage), effectively deciding merits rather than performing the narrow Mobilox inquiry. That approach conflicted with the limited threshold inquiry mandated by Mobilox.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The AA's mandate at admission is limited; entering into merits when a plausible pre-existing dispute is shown is an error.
Conclusion: The Adjudicating Authority misapplied the Mobilox test by going beyond determining whether the dispute was plausible and supported by evidence, and by resolving contested factual/contractual issues at the admission stage.
Issue 3 - Whether the AA exceeded jurisdiction by adjudicating merits (allocation of CCTV/DVR responsibility)
Legal framework: Section 9 is not a forum to decide contractual liabilities; the AA must confine itself to admissibility criteria and not adjudicate disputes on merits.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal reiterates that the AA must avoid resolving substantive disputes and must only reject applications where the dispute is real and supported.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the AA noted the correspondences showing the dispute, it nonetheless concluded (on its interpretation of the Facility Agreement and a post-termination representation) that the Corporate Debtor bore responsibility for backup. The Tribunal held such factual and contractual determinations impermissible at the admission stage and unnecessary to the Mobilox inquiry.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - AA's factual determination of contractual allocation of duties at the admission stage where a pre-existing dispute exists is beyond jurisdiction and constitutes an error warranting setting aside admission.
Conclusion: The AA exceeded its limited jurisdiction by adjudicating the merits and allocating responsibility for CCTV backups; that error vitiated the admission of the Section 9 application.
Issue 4 - Relevance of ledger balance and of representation to the Ministry as grounds to admit Section 9
Legal framework: Admission requires documentary proof of debt and absence of bona fide dispute. Isolated ledger entries or inconsistent representations may be relevant but cannot displace a bona fide pre-existing dispute supported by contemporaneous evidence.
Precedent treatment: Mobilox and subsequent jurisprudence require that where a notice of dispute is supported by prima facie evidence, the AA must reject; mere ledger balances do not negate a pleaded and evidenced dispute.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AA relied on (a) an alleged admitted balance in the corporate ledger exceeding Rs.1 lakh and (b) a representation to the Minister that the examination was successfully conducted. The Tribunal held (i) the ledger entry was not decisive where invoices had been disputed and a notice of dispute had been served; and (ii) a representation to the Ministry in relation to termination by the principal client (ICAR) did not resolve or negate the separate contractual dispute between the parties about deficiencies and deleted CCTV footage. Reliance on both items to admit Section 9 was misplaced given the existence of a pre-existing dispute supported by contemporaneous documents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Ledger entries and third-party representations do not obviate the requirement to reject a Section 9 application where a plausible dispute supported by evidence predates the demand notice.
Conclusion: The AA erred in admitting the application on the basis of ledger balance and the Ministry representation; those materials were irrelevant to negate the pre-existing dispute properly pleaded and supported.
Final Disposition (as to the Court's conclusion)
The Court concluded that the Adjudicating Authority committed jurisdictional error in admitting the Section 9 application: (a) a bona fide pre-existing dispute existed supported by contemporaneous documents; (b) the AA improperly entered into merits and misconstrued contractual allocation; and (c) reliance on ledger balance and a ministerial representation was misplaced. The admission order was set aside and the Section 9 application rejected; parties to bear their own costs.
Admission of Section 9 application - pre-existing dispute between the parties with regard to conduct of examination and services provided by Operational Creditor and its partner were in existence or not - denial of demand notice.
Whether there was any pre-existing dispute between the parties which is relevant factor for passing an order under Section 9 of the application? - HELD THAT:- Reference made to the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mobilox Innovations Private Limited [2017 (9) TMI 1270 - SUPREME COURT]. The Hon’ble Supreme Court had occasion to consider the scheme under Sections 8 and 9 of the IBC and after noticing the scheme held that 'the adjudicating authority must follow the mandate of Section 9, as outlined above, and in particular the mandate of Section 9(5) of the Act, and admit or reject the application, as the case may be, depending upon the factors mentioned in Section 9(5) of the Act.'
Notice of dispute - case of Respondent is that the dispute raised by the Corporate Debtor is a moonshine dispute - HELD THAT:- The test for finding out existence of dispute itself has been clearly laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mobilox Innovations Private Limited where it was held that the adjudicating authority is to see at this stage is whether there is a plausible contention which requires further investigation and that the “dispute” is not a patently feeble legal argument or an assertion of fact unsupported by evidence. Present is a case where Facility Agreement between the Corporate Debtor and the Operational Creditor was entered on 30.05.2021 for conduct of the examination entrusted to the Corporate Debtor by the ICAR.
Thus, the present is a case where issues pertaining to deficiency in services provided by Operational Creditor were on the record. The Adjudicating Authority in the impugned order noted the submission of the Corporate Debtor regarding Operational Creditor not been able to provide CCTV Footage which was required by ICAR and the Adjudicating Authority also noticed various e- mails, correspondences between the Corporate Debtor, Operational Creditor and the ICAR. The Adjudicating Authority, however, observed that under the Facility Agreement, the Corporate Debtor was responsible for taking back up of the DVR on the location. The Adjudicating Authority after noticing the various correspondences has entered into the dispute between the parties and proceeded to examine the same and gives its opinion which is not remit Adjudicating Authority - Dispute itself has been noticed by the Adjudicating Authority in its judgment which is apparent from correspondences in relevant time. However, Adjudicating Authority recorded the finding that under the Facility Agreement, it was the Corporate Debtor who was responsible for taking the backup of the CCTV Footage through its manpower.
There being pre-existing dispute, Section 9 application deserves rejection and the ledger account of the Corporate Debtor showing balance of Rs. 4,04,260/- was not relevant in the facts of the present case. More so, when there was dispute between the Operational Creditor and the Corporate Debtor with regard to invoices raised by the Operational Creditor which were refuted by notice of dispute given by Corporate Debtor. Adjudicating Authority was obliged to reject the application under Section 9(5)(2)(d). The present is a case where notice of dispute has been received by the Operational Creditor and it is not the finding of the Adjudicating Authority that notice of dispute is a moonshine dispute and unsupported by evidence.
The Adjudicating Authority committed error in admitting Section 9 application filed by the Operational Creditor - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the maintenance of a foreign bank account and deposits therein without Reserve Bank of India permission constitutes contravention of Section 4 of FEMA, 1999 read with Regulation 3 of the Foreign Currency Account Regulations, 2000, such as to sustain adjudication proceedings.
2. Whether a statement recorded under Section 132(4) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (recorded during search), which is subsequently retracted, is admissible and of sufficient evidentiary value to establish a contravention under FEMA when relied upon by an investigating agency.
3. Whether a bank statement or account transcript of foreign origin (allegedly from an overseas bank) is admissible and entitled to statutory presumptions under Section 39 of FEMA absent formal authentication and proof of origin.
4. Whether the Directorate/Investigating Agency under FEMA may rely solely on material gathered by Income Tax authorities (including statements and foreign documents obtained by them) without independent corroboration or exercise of its own powers under FEMA.
5. Whether, on the totality of record and on the preponderance of probabilities, the Adjudicating Authority was justified in dropping the proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Existence of contravention of Section 4 FEMA read with Regulation 3
Legal framework: Section 4 broadly proscribes acquisition, holding or possession of foreign exchange by a person resident in India except as provided by the Act; Regulation 3 prohibits opening/holding a foreign currency account except as permitted by RBI.
Interpretation and reasoning: The core legal question is fact-sensitive - whether the respondents in fact held/maintained the overseas account and deposits. The Court observed that the Directorate's case rested on an alleged foreign bank account balance and the respondents' initial admissions during IT search proceedings, later retracted. The presence of deposits in an overseas account could constitute contravention if proved with admissible and authenticated evidence linking the account to the respondent and absence of RBI permission.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - contravention under Section 4/Regulation 3 requires proof of holding/maintenance of foreign exchange/account by the resident; without reliable admissible evidence establishing that link, contravention is not made out on preponderance of probabilities. (See cross-reference to Issues 2-4.)
Conclusion: On the record, the Court found the existence of contravention not proved to the requisite standard and therefore proceedings could rightly be dropped.
Issue 2 - Evidentiary value of Section 132(4) IT Act statements and effect of retraction
Legal framework: Section 132(4) permits examination on oath of persons found in possession/control of documents during search; such statements may be used in related proceedings but are subject to principles of admissibility and relevance.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on judicial authorities that require a nexus between a statement recorded under Section 132(4) and incriminating material discovered during the search for the statement to be relied upon for substantive findings. Authorities were applied to hold that isolated admissions not corroborated by seized material lack legal sanctity.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the temporal sequence - admission during search, an offer to compute and tax undisclosed income, followed within days by retraction and later denials. Crucially, the bank statement alleged to have been confronted at search was not seized from the premises and its origin remained unexplained. CBDT instructions caution against treating confessions/forced admissions recorded in searches as conclusive absent corroborative evidence. The Court held that a retracted statement, unconnected to seized incriminating documents, cannot by itself sustain FEMA adjudication.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a statement under Section 132(4) is not conclusive; it must be related to incriminating material found during search to have probative value; a later retraction and absence of corroborative seizure diminishes admissibility/weight. Obiter - discussion of policy instructions cautioning coercive confessions (informative but supportive).
Conclusion: The initial admissions could not be treated as reliable evidence for FEMA contravention given retraction, absence of nexus to seized material, and lack of corroboration; reliance solely on those statements was impermissible.
Issue 3 - Admissibility and presumptions under Section 39 of FEMA for foreign documents
Legal framework: Section 39 prescribes presumptions as to documents produced/seized under the Act or received from outside India, but conditions such as prescribed authentication and manner are prerequisites for those presumptions to apply.
Interpretation and reasoning: The impugned bank statement was foreign in origin but neither authenticated in the prescribed manner nor shown to be an original signed/attested document. The Court emphasized that Section 39's presumptions require that documents received from abroad be duly authenticated as prescribed; mere photocopies or unauthenticated printouts do not attract statutory presumptions and cannot be admitted as inherently reliable evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - foreign-origin documents relied upon under FEMA must satisfy authentication requirements before Section 39 presumptions or admissibility can be invoked. Obiter - practical observation that provenance/origin must be established by the investigating agency.
Conclusion: The bank statement in the record was unauthenticated and of unclear origin; it did not qualify for presumptions under Section 39 and could not be used as reliable evidence to prove the alleged account holding.
Issue 4 - Reliance by Directorate on Income Tax investigation and need for independent corroboration
Legal framework: Officers under FEMA may exercise "like powers" as conferred on Income Tax authorities, but exercise of such powers for FEMA investigation requires independent action by the Directorate rather than blind reliance on IT records.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that while FEMA investigators can use powers analogous to IT authorities, the Directorate could not simply adopt the IT Department's case material wholesale. The Directorate's investigation comprised essentially recording statements under FEMA which were non-incriminating; it did not independently authenticate or corroborate the foreign bank document or obtain independent bank records. The Court reasoned that without independent exercise of investigatory powers to secure admissible evidence, the Directorate's reliance on IT material is inadequate to establish contravention.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - investigating agency under FEMA must independently exercise its powers and secure admissible evidence; mere adoption of another agency's uncorroborated materials is insufficient to sustain an adjudication. Obiter - expectation that agencies will coordinate but verify provenance and authenticity when relying on foreign-origin evidence.
Conclusion: The Directorate's sole reliance on IT investigation materials, without independent corroboration or authentication, was legally insufficient to prove contravention.
Issue 5 - Standard of proof and appropriateness of dropping proceedings
Legal framework: Adjudicatory proceedings under FEMA are governed by the civil standard of proof (preponderance of probabilities) for establishing contraventions (unless statutory provision prescribes otherwise for specific penal consequences).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the preponderance test to the totality of record - unauthenticated foreign document, retracted admissions, absence of seized corroborative material, dismissal of criminal complaints for lack of evidence, and the Directorate's failure to produce file/authentication (aggravated by loss of file due to fire). On balance, the Court concluded that the appellants/applicants had not shown the contravention on the balance of probabilities.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the adjudicator cannot be satisfied on preponderance of probabilities because of inadequate or unauthenticated evidence and lack of corroboration, dropping proceedings is justified. Obiter - observations on procedural adjournments and missing files (not central to law but relevant factually).
Conclusion: The Tribunal upheld the Adjudicating Authority's dropping of proceedings; the appeal by the Directorate failed for lack of proved contravention on the preponderance of probabilities and for insufficiency of admissible evidence.
Maintenance of a foreign bank account and deposits therein without Reserve Bank of India permission - contravention of Section 4 of the said Act read with Regulation 3 of The Foreign Exchange Management (Foreign Currency Accounts by a Person Resident in India) Regulations, 2000 - test of preponderance of probabilities -failed to furnish the relevant details regarding the bank account - search and seizure operation - Evidentiary value of statements recorded under Section 132(4) - coercion and duress - payment towards additional income tax plus interest but contested the matter in court - HELD THAT:- It is evident that although the appellant in his original statement recorded on 25.08.2011 during the course of the search and seizure operation admitted that the document in question contained details of bank account in his name and in the name of his wife and that the bank account was not reflected in his books or his wife’s books, his position changed merely 4 days after the said search wherein he stated he does not remember anything about the bank account transaction. Further, on 05.09.2011, he completely retracted his statement of 25.08.2011. The appellant directorate has based its entire case against the respondents on the evidence gathered by the I-T authorities during the proceedings under the I-T Act. No corroborating evidence or independent evidence whatsoever has been gathered in the case by the directorate. As per records, the only investigation conducted by the directorate appears to be to record a statement of the appellant under section 37 of the FEMA, 1999 wherein the appellant did not say anything incriminating. Although under section 38 of FEMA, 1999 the officers of the directorate exercise the “like powers” as are conferred on the I-T authorities under the I-T Act, it does not follow that the directorate, for the purposes of investigation under FEMA, can blindly rely on the statements recorded by the I-T authorities in the course of I-T proceedings, that too, without any supporting or corroborating evidence. They would have to exercise their “like powers” independently under FEMA, 1999.
Coming to the document in question, there is little doubt that it is foreign in origin. In the present case, the document is evidently neither signed by any bank official nor by the appellants herein nor has it been authenticated as required by the law. It is merely a photocopy of a document whose origin was not at once clear from a bare perusal.
During the hearing held on 08.04.2025, specific clarifications were sought from the respondent directorate on the nature of the document and its authenticity as it was not clear as to what was the nature of the document and what was the purpose of its issue; whether it was signed or authenticated by anyone competent to do so; where is the original of the document; how it was obtained. Subsequently, the matter was listed on 15.05.2025 on which day Ld. counsel for the appellant sought an adjournment stating that there had been a fire in the Mumbai office of the directorate to which the case pertains. At his request the matter was adjourned to 16.07.2025. On the said date, none was present on behalf of the appellant directorate and the matter was once again adjourned to 05.08.2025 so as to provide another opportunity to the appellant directorate to provide the necessary clarifications.
On 05.08.2025, Ld. Counsel for the directorate finally submitted that in view of the fire which occurred in the Mumbai Zonal Office of the Directorate, the concerned file relating to the case is not traceable. In view of the situation, an appropriate view may be taken by the Appellant Tribunal in the matter.
Allegations against the respondents cannot be considered to have been proved on the test of preponderance of probabilities. Accordingly, the case of the appellant directorate against the order of the learned adjudicating authority which dropped the proceedings against the respondents herein, fails and is hereby dismissed.
Issues: (i) whether penalties under FEMA could be avoided on the ground of absence of mens rea or absence of loss of foreign exchange; (ii) whether the proceedings were vitiated because the underlying provision had been deleted and because of delay in initiation/adjudication; (iii) whether the contravention amount was wrongly quantified and whether the penalty required reduction.
Issue (i): whether penalties under FEMA could be avoided on the ground of absence of mens rea or absence of loss of foreign exchange
Analysis: The proceeding concerned civil contraventions of reporting and filing obligations under FEMA. The statutory scheme treats such defaults as compliance failures attracting monetary penalty upon proof of contravention, without requiring proof of criminal intent. The absence of loss to the exchequer does not wipe out liability, because the penalty provision operates on the basis of the contravention and the sum involved, not on actual financial loss. The Tribunal also treated the later Supreme Court line of authority as governing the issue and held that the plea based on absence of mens rea could not succeed.
Conclusion: The plea based on absence of mens rea and absence of foreign exchange loss was rejected.
Issue (ii): whether the proceedings were vitiated because the underlying provision had been deleted and because of delay in initiation/adjudication
Analysis: The Tribunal held that the relevant contraventions arose during a period when the provision was in force, and the later deletion did not invalidate action for earlier violations. It further held that no specific limitation period was prescribed for such proceedings and that the defaults were continuing in nature, particularly in relation to repeated reporting failures over a long span. On that basis, the challenge based on alleged lack of jurisdiction and undue delay was not accepted.
Conclusion: The challenge to the proceedings on the grounds of deletion of the provision and delay was rejected.
Issue (iii): whether the contravention amount was wrongly quantified and whether the penalty required reduction
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted that the shares issued against foreign remittances were valued at the figure adopted by the adjudicating authority and, therefore, the sum involved in the contravention was not wrongly computed. At the same time, it considered the overall facts, the nature of the defaults, and the appellant's conduct, and held that the penalty imposed was excessive. The Tribunal therefore reduced the penalty substantially while maintaining the finding of contravention.
Conclusion: The quantification challenge failed, but the penalty was reduced.
Final Conclusion: The finding of contravention was sustained, but the monetary sanction was substantially scaled down, leaving the appellant with partial relief only.
Ratio Decidendi: Under FEMA, civil penalties follow proof of statutory contravention itself, without proof of mens rea, and the quantum of penalty must still be proportionate to the facts and the sum involved in the breach.
Penalty for contravention of FEMA compliance provisions - Mens rea not required for civil penalties under FEMA - Quantification of the 'sum involved in the contravention' - Continuing contraventions and effect of deletion of statutory provision - Reduction of penalty in exercise of appellate discretion
Penalty for contravention of FEMA compliance provisions - Mens rea not required for civil penalties under FEMA - Liability to monetary penalty arises for failure to comply with FEMA reporting and procedural requirements notwithstanding absence of loss of foreign exchange or absence of mens rea. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that FEMA is a compliance-oriented statute where contraventions of rules, regulations, notifications or directions attract monetary penalties regardless of any quantifiable loss to the exchequer. The scheme of FEMA (distinct from FERA) treats most obligations as civil and procedural; requiring mens rea to be established would render the penal provisions largely otiose. Reliance on earlier criminal/quasicriminal precedents (e.g., Hindustan Steel) is misplaced in view of subsequent Supreme Court authority (Chairman, SEBI v. Shriram Mutual Fund and Suborno Bose v. ED) establishing that mens rea is not an essential element for imposition of civil penalties under regulatory statutes including FEMA. Accordingly, absence of intent or lack of loss does not absolve the appellant from liability once contravention is established. [Paras 23, 24, 25, 27]
Appellant liable to penalty for the established contraventions despite absence of mens rea or direct loss of foreign exchange.
Continuing contraventions and effect of deletion of statutory provision - Deletion of Section 6(3)(b) of FEMA by Finance Act, 2015 did not invalidate initiation of proceedings for contraventions that occurred while the provision was in force and continued up to subsequent years. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted that the contraventions arose from transactions beginning in 2007 and, in the case of FLA returns, continued up to 2019. Since the alleged acts occurred while the statutory provision was operative, and FEMA prescribes no particular limitation for initiating penalty proceedings, the subsequent deletion of the provision did not render the proceedings or the show cause notice void. The continuing nature of nonfiling was relevant to deny the contention of undue delay. [Paras 28]
Contention that proceedings were illegal due to deletion of Section 6(3)(b) is rejected.
Quantification of the 'sum involved in the contravention' - The adjudicating authority correctly quantified the 'sum involved in the contravention' based on the value of shares issued in respect of which filing obligations were contravened. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal observed that the appellant did not dispute the valuation attributed to the shares issued for which Para 9(1)(B) of Schedule I read with Section 6(3)(b) applied. Because the value of the shares forming the subject matter of contravention was ascertainable, the quantification of the sum involved in the contravention was proper and a fixed minimal penalty for unquantifiable contraventions (as contended by the appellant) was inapplicable. [Paras 29]
Quantification of the contravening amount in the impugned order was upheld.
Reduction of penalty in exercise of appellate discretion - The appellate forum, exercising its discretion, reduced the monetary penalty imposed on the company while upholding liability and quantification. - HELD THAT: - Although the Tribunal sustained the findings of contravention and the quantification of the sum involved, it found on balancing the facts, nature of contraventions and appellants' conduct that the penalty imposed by the adjudicating authority was excessive. In the exercise of appellate power to correct disproportionate imposition, the Tribunal substantially reduced the penalty amount to a lesser sum to meet the ends of justice, and accordingly modified the impugned order. [Paras 30, 31, 32]
Penalty imposed by the adjudicating authority is reduced and the impugned order is modified accordingly.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partially allowed: liability for the accepted contraventions is upheld, the quantification of the sum involved is sustained, the challenge based on absence of mens rea and on deletion of Section 6(3)(b) is rejected, but the Tribunal, in appellate discretion, substantially reduces the penalty imposed on the company and modifies the adjudicating order accordingly.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a demand under Section 73A(2) of the Finance Act can be sustained against an entity found to be a paper/fake company when the investigation does not establish that the entity actually collected service tax beyond amounts disclosed and paid in ST-3 returns.
2. Whether two sets of invoices (one showing service tax and one not) allegedly recovered at recipients' premises, without corroborative evidence tying those invoices to the issuer, suffice to establish collection of service tax by the issuer and attract liability under Section 73A(2).
3. Whether recovery of service tax can be pursued from the issuer of fake invoices where recipients have availed/used CENVAT credit on those invoices (i.e., interplay between issuer liability and recipient's fraudulent credit use), and the effect of Board clarification applicable to analogous GST cases.
4. Whether alleged irregular/fabricated availing/utilisation of CENVAT credit by the issuer, in the absence of a corresponding service tax liability (because no actual supply was rendered), gives rise to a recoverable demand or requires separate recovery proceedings.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainment of demand under Section 73A(2) against a paper/fake entity when investigation does not prove collection beyond amounts disclosed and paid
Legal framework: Section 73A(2) requires proof that a person has collected an amount representing service tax and has not paid such collected amount to the Government; liability attaches only where collection is established on the basis of documents (e.g., invoices/challans) issued in terms of applicable rules.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal's earlier ratio in the decision applying Section 11D (pari materia) was followed: demand under a provision akin to Section 73A can be sustained only if it is established that the taxpayer collected tax amounts which were not remitted to the exchequer.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted departmental evidence that the company was a paper entity and transactions were sham; but reasoned that a finding of sham transactions undermines the premise for treating the issuer as having collected tax for supply of services. Where ST-3 returns and payment records show only Rs.1,53,40,510 was collected and paid, and no further evidence proves additional collections, demands beyond that admitted-and-paid amount are premised on assumption and speculation. The provision's textual requirement that the amount be "collected" is strictly applied; mere recovery of invoices at recipients' ends without chain-of-custody/corroboration does not establish collection by the issuer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Demand under Section 73A(2) cannot be confirmed absent proof that the assesssee actually collected the tax amount alleged and failed to remit it; admission in returns and payment shown in ST-3 limits recoverable liability. Obiter - Observations about the credibility weaknesses in investigation are persuasive but ancillary to the statutory proof requirement.
Conclusion: The demand beyond the admitted-and-paid amount is unsustainable; the adjudicating authority rightly dropped the remaining demand.
Issue 2: Sufficiency of alleged dual-set invoices recovered at recipients' premises to prove collection by the issuer
Legal framework: Proof of collection under Section 73A(2) depends on documentary evidence traceable to the issuer and compliance with invoicing rules; mere presence of invoices at recipient premises requires corroboration linking them to the issuer's books/records or other admissible evidence of collection.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on principles applied in comparable authority holding that issuance of invoices without evidence of receipt of payment or supply does not permit presuming collection for purposes of tax demand.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority found discrepancies between invoice data at clients' premises and records said to be recovered from the issuer; investigation did not produce tangible evidence (e.g., matching ledger entries, original signed delivery/acceptance, bank receipts tying the alleged tax collections to the issuer) to establish that invoices discovered at recipients were issued by the respondent. The Court emphasized that quantification based on recipient-side documents, without proof of issuance and collection by the putative issuer, rests on conjecture. The principle that bills cannot be assumed bogus or genuine merely by omission/mention of service tax was noted but applied to require positive proof linking the two sets of documents.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Dual sets of invoices recovered from recipients are insufficient, by themselves, to establish collection by the alleged issuer; corroborative evidence is necessary. Obiter - Comments on investigative lapses and the specific numeric discrepancies are explanatory.
Conclusion: The allegation that two sets of invoices demonstrate collection by the issuer was not substantiated; therefore such evidence cannot support additional demand.
Issue 3: Liability of issuer of fake invoices where recipients availed CENVAT credit; applicability of Board clarification (GST-era Circular) to pre-GST cases
Legal framework: Under the statutory scheme, recovery of tax and penal consequences depend on whether a person actually made a taxable supply and collected tax; where recipients fraudulently avail/ utilise input credit, separate recovery and penal action may lie against recipients. Administrative clarifications (Board Circular) address allocation of recovery between issuer and recipient in fake-invoice scenarios.
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied the principle from the Board's Circular (though issued under GST) by analogy to pre-GST/service tax cases: issuers of fake invoices, without underlying supply, are not to be treated as having tax liability under collection provisions; recovery should be targeted at recipients who availed/used irregular credit.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Circular's reasoning-that issuance of tax invoice without supply does not constitute "supply" and therefore does not give rise to tax liability against the issuer under tax-recovery provisions-was treated as a persuasive administrative exposition applicable by analogy. The Court observed that the Department had taken action against recipients in multiple zones, consistent with the Circular's approach. Given the admitted sham nature of transactions and absence of proof of collection by the issuer beyond amounts already paid, imposing liability on the issuer would conflict with the Circular's principle and statutory text.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Recovery of tax in fake-invoice situations should be directed at the ultimate recipient who availed/used the irregular credit; administrative clarification treating issuer as not liable for tax under collection provisions is applicable by analogy to the facts. Obiter - Remarks on policy and cross-regime applicability are persuasive but grounded in administrative guidance rather than binding authority.
Conclusion: Demand of service tax from the issuer in respect of fake credits is contrary to the Board's clarified position and not sustainable; recovery should be pursued against recipients who utilized the credit.
Issue 4: Effect of alleged irregular CENVAT credit availed by the issuer where no service tax liability exists
Legal framework: CENVAT credit improperly availed is generally recoverable; however, recoverability and quantification depend on the existence of an underlying tax liability against which credit could lawfully be used.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal treated irregular credit allegations in the factual matrix where issuer had no actionable tax liability as rendering the credit irrelevant to discharge non-existent liability; additionally, notice-demand drafting errors (failure to include recovery claim in final demand) were considered.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that where no service tax liability exists (except the admitted-and-paid amount), the irregularly availed credit could not be applied to discharge any liability and thus is "of no use" to the issuer. Separately, the Show Cause Notice did not pursue recovery of the alleged irregular credit in its final demand, a procedural deficiency the Court noted as fatal to that aspect of the claim. Consequently, the Revenue's ground on irregular credit lacked merit in the present proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Irregular CENVAT credit is not a basis for recovery if there is no service tax liability to be discharged and the demand notice does not specifically quantify/demand recovery of such credit. Obiter - Observations on the interplay between credit misuse and separate recovery actions are explanatory.
Conclusion: Allegation of fabricated CENVAT credit does not sustain a recoverable demand in the instant proceedings; absence of a recovery prayer in the notice compounds the Revenue's deficiency.
Overall Conclusion
The admitted-and-paid service tax stands discharged; demands under Section 73A(2) beyond the amounts shown in ST-3 returns are unsupported by evidence and unsustainable; the adjudicating authority correctly dropped the remaining demand, and the appeal by Revenue is rejected. The decision follows the principle that proof of actual collection by the issuer is a prerequisite for invoking collection provisions and that recovery of tax in fake-invoice schemes should focus on recipients who availed fraudulent credit.
Liaility of appellant to pay service tax, collected and not deposited in the government account - CENVAT credit - Respondent has fabricated ST-3 returns and availed CENVAT credit on paper without actual receipt of input service - HELD THAT:- It is found that the investigation conducted by the Department established that the Respondent company existed only on papers. It generated bogus invoices which could help interested business entities managing their Service Tax liability and books of accounts. The company has no establishment at the addresses declared to the various Government authorities. Also, they have no staff, no expertise or no infrastructure even to run an office. Thus, it is observed that the entire transactions recorded by the Respondents are only sham transactions and the Respondent was accommodating entries for various clients against commission charges. Now, the Department is presuming that the Respondent has actually provided services to the client and therefore, there are required to pay Service Tax for the services rendered.
The Service Tax demand cannot be confirmed against the Respondent unless it is established that the Respondent had actually rendered taxable services and not paid Service Tax. Since the investigation themselves admitted that the Respondent is only a fake entity and has not actually rendered the service, we are of the view that the demand of Service Tax cannot be sustained against the Respondent in this case.
In the present case, the provision of Section 73A(2) of the Finance Act has been invoked to demand Service Tax from the Respondent. The said section reads, “where any person who has collected any amount which is not required to be collected from any other person, in any manner representing service tax, such person shall forthwith pay the amount so collected to the credit of the Central Government”. From a plain reading of the said sub-section, it clearly transpires that for raising demand on the basis of the said sub-section, it requires to be proved that the Respondent has collected an amount representing Service Tax on the basis of documents viz. invoices/challans issued in terms of Rule-4A of Service Tax Rules, 1994 - any demand of service tax over and above the amount paid by the Respondent under the provision of Section 73A(2) of the Finance Act, is only based on assumptions and presumptions. Hence, the rest of the demand of Service Tax as raised in the Show Cause Notice, only on an assumption and presumption basis, is not sustainable.
In the present case, the Department has initiated action by writing to the Chief Commissioner of 16 zones about passing of fake credit by the Respondents and to initiate recovery action at the end of the Clients. This is evident from the findings of the Ld. adjudicating authority in the impugned order. The demand of Service Tax from the Respondent in respect of the credit passed on by them by issuing fake invoices, is against the clarification issued by Board in the said Circular. Thus, there will be no service tax liability in the hands of the Respondents.
The application of provision of Section 11D of the Central Excise Act, which is pari materia with the provision of Section 73A of the Finance Act, would be warranted only when it is established that Service Tax has been collected by the company, but not paid to the exchequer. In the instant case, it is an admitted fact that Service Tax of Rs.1,53,40,510/- as collected by the Respondent has been paid to the exchequer. There is no other evidence available on record to establish that the Respondent has collected any amount over and above the amount of Rs.1,53,40,510/- already paid by them. Thus, by relying upon the decision, it is held that the demand of service tax over and above this amount already paid by the Respondent is not sustainable under Section 73A of the Finance Act.
The Ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped the demand Rs.16,52,11,235/- and therefore, there are no infirmity in the dropping of the said demand in the impugned order.
Irregular availment of CENVAT Credit - HELD THAT:- The Respondent has availed the fake credit only to make payment of their service tax liability. In view of the discussions the preceding paragraphs, it is established that there is no Service Tax liability on the part of the Respondent other than those collected by them and paid as per the provisions of Section 73A(2) of the Finance Act, 1994. Thus, the irregular credit availed by the Respondent is of no use, as they cannot use the said credit for payment of their Service Tax liability, which is not there - the irregular credit availed by the Respondent has been discussed in the Notice, but there is no demand of recovery of the said credit in the final portion of the Notice raising the demand on the Respondents. Thus, the Notice is in error in not demanding the recovery of the CENVAT credit in the final recovery portion of the Notice. It is clear the Respondent cannot use the credit and they are not required to use the credit for discharging their service tax liability. Hence, the allegation on this count by the Revenue in the Grounds of Appeal does not have any merit.
The dropping of the demand of Service Tax in the impugned order is upheld - appeal of Revenue dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the demand of service tax (including cesses) for the period September 2015 to June 2017 and interest is sustainable; (ii) Whether extended period of limitation (proviso to Section 73(1)) and mandatory penalty under Section 78 are invocable for alleged suppression with intent to evade tax; (iii) Whether CENVAT credit claimed beyond the time limit is admissible and whether penalties under Sections 76 and 77(2) are correctly imposed.
Issue (i): Whether the demand of service tax, cesses and interest as quantified is sustainable.
Analysis: The adjudication relied on month-wise daily sale sheets recovered during search, bank statements, bill receipt books, ITRs and ST-3 returns showing discrepancies. The proprietor admitted recovery of the sale sheets and acknowledged receipts. The tribunal accepted reconciliation of receipts from the sale sheets and bank records as taxable consideration and applied the applicable rates of service tax and cesses for the relevant periods to compute tax, interest and shortfall.
Conclusion: Demand of service tax, Swachh Bharat Cess and Krishi Kalyan Cess for the period September 2015 to June 2017 and interest under Section 75 is confirmed in favour of Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether the extended period of limitation and mandatory penalty under Section 78 apply.
Analysis: The records show discrepancies across statutory returns, bank statements and documents recovered during search; the proprietor made admissions in statements recorded under Section 14; and the assessee failed to explain or rebut the material that indicated suppression of taxable receipts. The tribunal found these facts indicative of willful suppression/misstatement with intent to evade tax and applied the proviso to Section 73(1) to invoke extended limitation and imposed penalty under Section 78, with conditional reduction if amounts paid within 30 days.
Conclusion: Extended period of limitation is invocable and mandatory penalty under Section 78 is imposed in favour of Revenue.
Issue (iii): Admissibility of CENVAT credit and imposition of penalties under Sections 76 and 77(2).
Analysis: Input/service invoices produced post-investigation were not taken in returns within the statutory time-limit; Rule 4(7) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 bars availment after one year. The tribunal allowed only CENVAT credit actually reflected and timely claimed in ST-3 returns and dismissed other credit claims as time-barred. For failure to assess and deposit correct tax and to file returns, penalties under Sections 77(2) and 76 were considered; penalty under Section 76 was dropped while penalty under Section 77(2) was imposed.
Conclusion: Only CENVAT credit properly claimed within time is allowed; other credit claims are rejected. Penalty under Section 77(2) is upheld and penalty under Section 76 is dropped; overall disposition is partly adverse to the assessee and in favour of Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The appeals are dismissed and the impugned demands, interest and specified penalties are confirmed except as specifically allowed (limited CENVAT credit and dropping of certain demands/penalties); the revenue assessment and quantification as per the impugned order stand upheld.
Ratio Decidendi: Where recovered documentary evidence and bank records, corroborated by admissions, demonstrate non-disclosure of taxable receipts and contradict statutory returns, the extended period of limitation under proviso to Section 73(1) is invocable for demanding tax and mandatory penalty under Section 78; CENVAT credit is admissible only if availed within the time limits prescribed by the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.
Evasion of service tax - appellant in their filed ST-3 returns had mis-stated and suppressed the taxable value - case against the appellant is based on comparison of the receipts against the provision of taxable services through cash and by way of credit in their account electronically, with the amounts reflected in the ST-3 returns for the period in dispute - extended period of limitation - levy of penalties - HELD THAT:- Except for Month-wise daily sale sheet printout, which was resumed by the officers during the search of the premises of RDS Hospitality Pvt. Ltd. in the presence of Shri Gufran Khan who is one of the Directors in RDS Hospitality Pvt. Ltd. and is also the Proprietor of appellant all other documents were provided by the appellant (Shri Gufran Khan) during the course of investigation on the summons issued to him. Even at the time of search of premises of M/s RDS Hospitality Pvt. Ltd., Shri Gufran Khan was present in that premises and he in his statement dated 08.12.2017 recorded on the spot at the time of search admitted the fact of resumption/ recovery of the same and also informed that these pertain to the Appellant. (Shri Gufran Khan is Proprietor of the Appellant). It is totally absurd on the appellant to claim, that Shri Gufran Khan is uneducated and not aware of law etc. Shri Gufran Khan having DIN 03381886 has been Director in M/s RDS Hospitality Pvt. Ltd. a private limited company incorporated on Feb 10, 2011.
Further the fact that appellant was issuing invoices/ bills showing service tax (including cess) from its client (service recipients) is established from the Bill Book provided by the appellant during the course of investigation. Though appellant was collecting the service tax (including cesses) from his clients but was not depositing the same with the exchequer is evident from the ST-3 returns filed. Appellant has for some of the period not even filed the ST-3 returns and for the period during which they have filed the ST-3 return i.e. April 15 to September 2016 they have grossly under declared the Gross Receipts and service tax payable - The show cause notice has in great depth analyzed the various documents submitted by the appellant during the course of investigation and have concluded how the appellant was manipulating and suppressing the receipts in the statutory documents namely Balance Sheet and Income Tax Return (ITR) also.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- Appellant has from the time of initiation of proceedings have taken a stand that his Chartered Accountant has fraudulently filed returns suppressing the gross receipt. For the fraud committed by the C A he has filed an FIR and also complaint with the ICAI. It is observed that this submission is itself enough, to hold that appellant ST-3 returns were filed by suppressing the gross receipts/ taxable value of services provided with the intent to evade payment of service tax. It is act of commission of fraud, suppression with intent to evade payment of tax which is material for invoking the extended period of limitation as per proviso to Section 73 (1) and not the person who has committed the said act of fraud or suppression.
Penalty u/s 78 - HELD THAT:- The appellant has suppressed the value of the taxable services rendered with the intention to evade payment of service tax and extended period of limitation is invokable for making the demand, the imposition of penalty under Section 78, is justified in view of the decision of the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Rajasthan Spinning and Weaving Mills Ltd. [2009 (5) TMI 15 - SUPREME COURT].
Penalty u/s 77 (2) - HELD THAT:- As appellant has failed to assess the correct service tax liability and deposit the same the penalty under Section 77 (2) has been rightly imposed upon the appellant.
There are no merits in this appeal - appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the appellant's activity of conducting computer education courses leading to BCA, DCA and PGDCA qualifications recognised by law fell outside the taxable category of commercial training or coaching service and was covered by the exemption notification; (ii) whether grants-in-aid received for implementation of Government welfare schemes were includible in the taxable value; (iii) whether the principal employer's provident fund contribution could be added to the gross value for manpower recruitment and supply service; (iv) whether the demand under business auxiliary service was maintainable in the absence of a specific clause in the show cause notice; and (v) whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Issue (i): Whether the appellant's activity of conducting computer education courses leading to BCA, DCA and PGDCA qualifications recognised by law fell outside the taxable category of commercial training or coaching service and was covered by the exemption notification.
Analysis: The definition of commercial training or coaching centre excludes institutes that issue a certificate, diploma, degree or other educational qualification recognised by law. The courses were conducted in collaboration with a recognised university and culminated in recognised qualifications. The Board circular clarified that such institutes remain outside the purview of commercial training or coaching even if they also conduct other training. The fee structure under the memorandum of understanding showed that the appellant collected amounts only as a facilitator for remittance to the university, so the condition in the exemption notification requiring direct payment to the centre was not attracted against the appellant.
Conclusion: The activity was not taxable as commercial training or coaching service, and the exemption applied in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether grants-in-aid received for implementation of Government welfare schemes were includible in the taxable value.
Analysis: Grants disbursed by the Government that do not directly affect the value of the service are excluded from taxable value under the valuation rules. The material showed that the amounts were received as grant-in-aid for welfare programmes and were utilised for the specified schemes without any service provider-client consideration structure. The Board clarification and the cited tribunal precedent supported exclusion of such receipts from service tax computation.
Conclusion: The grant-in-aid receipts were not taxable and could not be added to the assessable value, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the principal employer's provident fund contribution could be added to the gross value for manpower recruitment and supply service.
Analysis: The provident fund contribution was a statutory liability of the principal employer and was remitted directly to the concerned fund accounts. It was not an amount paid by the service recipient to the appellant for the service rendered. Amounts not received by the assessee as consideration for the service cannot form part of the gross taxable value.
Conclusion: The provident fund contribution was not includible in the taxable value, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the demand under business auxiliary service was maintainable in the absence of a specific clause in the show cause notice.
Analysis: The notice proposed liability under business auxiliary service without identifying the precise sub-clause or the exact statutory basis applicable to the activity of acting as a business correspondent. Where the charging allegation is not specifically articulated, liability cannot be fastened under a broad residuary description covering multiple distinct activities. The absence of a clear and specific notice vitiated the demand.
Conclusion: The demand under business auxiliary service was not maintainable, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (v): Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Analysis: The demands covered periods substantially beyond the normal limitation period. Since the substantive demands themselves were unsustainable on merits, the invocation of the extended period was also not justified on the facts. The record did not support the ingredients necessary for extension of limitation.
Conclusion: Invocation of the extended period of limitation was not sustainable, in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned demands and penalties were unsustainable on merits and on limitation, and the appeals succeeded.
Ratio Decidendi: An institute issuing or facilitating recognised educational qualifications is outside the taxable category of commercial training or coaching, and amounts that are not received as consideration for the service cannot be added to the taxable value; a vague notice cannot sustain service tax liability under a broadly described category.
Short payment of service tax - Commercial Training or Coaching Service - Business Support Service - Management Consultancy Service - invocation of extended period of limitation.
Commercial Training or Coaching Services - HELD THAT:- The appellant is engaged in teaching, resulting in issuance of BCA, DCA and PGDCA certificates. These courses are run in collaboration with Madhya Pradesh Bhoj (Open) University, which is recognized by the University Grants Commission and is in the list of accredited State Universities. These courses are run at subsidised cost for the benefit of the financially weak students, who are not able to afford to study these courses from non-government institutions. In cases, where after the completion of courses, degree or diploma is awarded, which is recognised by law, service tax is not leviable.
The N/N. 10/2003–ST dated 20.06.2003 exempts taxable services provided by a commercial training or coaching centre, in relation to commercial training or coaching, which form an essential part of a course or curriculum of any other institute or establishment, leading to issuance of any certificate or diploma, degree or educational qualification recognised by law, subject to the condition that this exemption shall not be applicable if the charges for such services are paid by the person undergoing such course or curriculum directly to the commercial training or coaching centre - it is found that the Memorandum of Understanding [MOU] between the appellant and M.P. Bhoj (Open) University at Point No.20(c) provides: “prescribe fee for study material and examination will be collected by CEDMAP with the coordination of the principal, and sent to M.P. Bhoj (Open) University in the form of demand draft drawn in favour of Registrar, M.P. Bhoj (Open) University payable at Bhopal within the time specified by the University.
The appellant is engaged in computer education under the M.P. Bhoj (Open) University and engaged in teaching courses resulting in grant of BCA, DCA and PGDCA certificates, which are granted by the said university and is recognised by law.
In the case of M/s. Central I.T. College [2024 (10) TMI 569 - CESTAT KOLKATA], the Kolkata Bench of the Tribunal held that where the appellant, a learning centre was engaged in providing various educational programmes conducted by Sikkim Manipal University (SMU) under Distance Educational Programes as approved by UGC. Following the decision of the Tribunal in the case of Academy for Professional Excellence Vs. Commissioner of CGST & Excise, Howrah [2019 (10) TMI 1328 - CESTAT KOLKATA], where the issue again was whether the appellant operating as learning centre for SMU, Kolkata can be made liable to service tax, held that the services provided by the university is not the business activity and is not liable to service tax under “Commercial Training or Coaching Centre Services”.
Grant-in-aid received for training provided under Centrally Sponsored Schemes - HELD THAT:- The Board Circular No. 125/dated 30.07.2010 have clarified that the grant received for training provided under Centrally Sponsored Schemes is not taxable. In APITCO Ltd versus Commissioner of Service Tax, Hyderabad [2010 (7) TMI 176 - CESTAT, BANGALORE], where the appellant an organisation promoted jointly by several financial institutions and nationalised and other banks received grants– in–aid from the Central and State Governments for implementation of welfare schemes for various sections of society, such as minorities, poor villagers etc. The Bench set aside the demand of service tax on grants in-aid receipt from Government for implementation of Welfare Schemes when the grant-in-aid were fully utilised for such activity and no consideration was received for any service to the Government - In view of the Circular, the Notification and the decision of the Tribunal in APITCO Ltd., the amount received by the appellant as grant-in-aid is not taxable.
Manpower Recruitment and Supply Service - HELD THAT:- The appellant received contribution of the principal employer towards Provident Fund, which is the responsibility of the principal employer in terms of Rule 30 of the Provident Fund Rules. Reliance has been placed on the decision of the Tribunal in Young Brothers Transporters & Contractors [2017 (9) TMI 229 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], where it has been held that such contributed amount is not given by the service receiver to the assessee and hence the same cannot be taken into consideration - The issue is squarely covered by the aforesaid decision of the Tribunal and, therefore, this amount is not covered under the definition of Gross Value of Taxable Services for Manpower Supply.
Business Auxiliary Service - service tax on the appellant under the category of “Business Auxiliary Service” has been proposed in the show cause notice as the appellant had acted as business correspondent for implementation of IT enabled financial inclusion scheme of Reserve Bank of India for State Bank of India - HELD THAT:- The show cause notice does not refer to the specific clause which would have covered the case of the appellant and in the absence thereof, no liability can be fastened on the appellant under the category of “Business Auxiliary Service”. In United Telecoms Ltd. Versus Commissioner of Service Tax, Hyderabad [2010 (10) TMI 730 - CESTAT, BANGALORE], the Tribunal set aside the demand as the appellant was not put to notice on the exact liability as “Business Auxiliary Service” and “Business Support Service” covers several activities and neither the show cause notice nor the adjudication order mentions any of the sub-clauses applicable to the appellant. Hence the demand of service tax under the category of “Business Auxiliary Service” is not maintainable.
Invocation of the extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- Under the show cause notice dated 17.06.2013, covering the period April 2008 – March 2012 only last 6 months falls within the normal period. In respect of the third show cause notice dated 16.04.2015, the period involved was 01.04.2012–31.03.2014 and the normal period is only 2013– 14. Although the issue decided on merits in favour of the appellant, however, the learned Counsel is right in contending that in the facts and circumstances of the present case, the allegations for invoking the extended period of limitation are not sustainable.
There are no merits in the impugned orders and hence the same are set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the process undertaken on the batteries amounted to manufacture so as to fall outside service tax under the negative list, and whether the refund claim could be finally allowed without findings on unjust enrichment.
Analysis: The process of charging, filling, testing, sealing, finishing and packing semi-finished batteries was held to convert incomplete articles into complete and marketable batteries. Applying Note 6 to Section XVI of the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985, the activity was treated as manufacture. Once the activity amounted to manufacture, it was outside the service tax net under Section 66D of the Finance Act, 1994. On the refund aspect, the order under challenge had not recorded findings on unjust enrichment, and the appellate forum declined to decide that question in the first instance.
Conclusion: The activity was held to amount to manufacture and service tax was not payable on it. The refund matter was not finally determined and was remanded for findings on unjust enrichment and other admissibility conditions.
Rejection of refund claim of service tax paid - absence of any challenge to the self-assessment in appeal - processes undertaken by the appellants amount to manufacture or not - HELD THAT:- It is found that the processes undertaken by the appellants are identical to those involved in the case of Exide Industries Ltd. [2016 (2) TMI 591 - CESTAT NEW DELHI]. The process amount to manufacture in view of the above decision. Therefor, the appellants are correct in their contention that in terms of Section 66D of Finance Act, 1994, any activity amounting to manufacture is not exigible to service tax; therefore, the appellants were not required to pay service tax.
The Department, at this juncture, contends that the payment of service tax by the appellants and the self-assessed Returns thereof filed by them have attained finality and it is not open to the appellants to claim refund of the service tax paid without challenging the assessment as held in ITC Ltd. [2019 (9) TMI 802 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and B.T (India) Pvt. Ltd. [2023 (11) TMI 478 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Kalyan Toll Infrastructure Ltd. [2024 (5) TMI 369 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] - it is found that the decision in the case of ITC Ltd. was delivered in the context of Central Excise/ Customs Law. The decision of the Larger Bench is not stayed or set aside. However, Hon’ble High Court of Delhi decided the case of B.T India in the context of service tax only; the decision of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court has been approved by the Hon’ble Supreme Court referring to their lordship’s decision in the case of ITC Ltd. Therefore, the decision of the Larger Bench in the case of Balaji Warehouse [2023 (9) TMI 1478 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH (LB) has been indirectly not accepted by the Hon’ble Apex Court.
Thus, the processes undertaken by the appellants amount to manufacture and that the appellants were not required to pay service tax in view of Section 66D of the Finance Act, 1994. The appellants are eligible to avail refund if otherwise admissible. The appellants submit that though they have indicated the service tax paid by them in the invoices issued to their clients i.e M/s Eastman Auto and Power Ltd, they did not recover the service tax paid from their customers and therefore, the burden, to show that the service tax paid has not been passed on to others, is discharged. The appellants submit, moreover, that they have submitted a certificate by Chartered Accountant to the effect that they have not passed on the incidence of taxation to others.
In the absence of any findings on the issue of unjust enrichment by the Commissioner, this Bench cannot sit on judgment of the said order as far as this point is concerned. We find that it will be in the interest of justice that the matter should go back to the Commissioner (Appeals) to give his findings on the issue of unjust enrichment after going through the records of the case, the submissions of the assessee and the Chartered Accountant certificate.
Appeal is partially allowed to the extent of stating that the processes undertaken by the appellants amount to manufacture - appeal allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Tribunal may dismiss an appeal for default where the appellant and its counsel fail to appear repeatedly and attempts at service at the address on record are returned undelivered or ultimately effected by affixture.
2. Whether the Tribunal should hear and decide the appeal on merits ex parte in the absence of the appellant/its representative when there is no request by the appellant for such ex parte adjudication.
3. The extent to which statutory limits on adjournments and the Tribunal's procedural rule on dismissal for default (including restoration) govern the exercise of discretion to grant further adjournments or dismiss for default.
4. Whether failure to intimate change of address and repeated non-appearance, despite multiple notices and service attempts, constitute sufficient cause to refuse further adjournments and dismiss the appeal for default.
5. Whether liberty to apply for restoration after dismissal should be granted and on what basis such restoration may be allowed.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Dismissal for default where appellant repeatedly fails to appear and service attempts fail or end in affixture
Legal framework: Rule 20 of the CESTAT (Procedure) Rules, 1982 empowers the Tribunal to dismiss an appeal for default when the appellant does not appear on the day fixed for hearing; it also permits restoration if sufficient cause for non-appearance is shown. Section 35C (1A) of the Central Excise Act limits adjournments by providing that no adjournment shall be granted more than three times to a party during hearing.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on Supreme Court authority condemning mechanical or routine adjournments and emphasising the adverse impact of repeated adjournments on access to justice. That authority was followed and applied to the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the hearing chronology showing multiple adjournments and repeated non-appearance by the appellant on successive dates. Notices sent by RPAD to the address provided in the appeal were returned with an endorsement "no such person"; later service attempts by the department resulted in affixture on the office premises with a mahazar. The Tribunal treated the returned RPAD and subsequent affixture as evidence that the appellant could not be located at the address on record and that efforts to secure personal attendance had been made and exhausted. Against this factual matrix, and in light of the statutory adjournment cap, the Tribunal concluded that further adjournments would be futile and that dismissal for default was within its discretion under Rule 20.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The decision to dismiss for default on the facts - repeated non-appearance, failed service at the address on record, and exhaustion of service methods - is a ratio decidendi of the order. Observations about the permissibility of dismissal under Rule 20 and its application to similar facts also form part of the operative ratio.
Conclusion: Dismissal for default was upheld as a proper exercise of discretion where multiple adjournments had been granted, service attempts failed or were effected by affixture, and the appellant's whereabouts and interest in prosecution of the appeal were not demonstrably maintained.
Issue 2 - Whether the Tribunal should decide the appeal on merits ex parte absent an appellant request
Legal framework: Rule 20 provides that the Tribunal may either dismiss for default or "hear and decide it on merits" when the appellant does not appear. The proviso provides for restoration if sufficient cause is shown after dismissal.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal considered the principle of audi alteram partem and the consequence that deciding against an absent appellant without any request for ex parte adjudication may render the Tribunal functus officio and deprive the appellant of a meaningful right to be heard and to seek remedy by restoration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that there was no request on record to proceed ex parte on the merits, and that if the Tribunal were to decide adversely without hearing the appellant, any judgment might be unreviewable by the Tribunal itself (rendering it functus officio), thereby forcing the appellant to approach a higher forum to challenge consequences of non-hearing. The Tribunal therefore declined to decide on merits in the absence of the appellant, preferring dismissal for default with the statutory right of restoration preserved.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The ruling that the Tribunal should not decide on merits without an appellant's request when absence is unexplained is part of the reasoning supporting dismissal and preservation of restoration rights; it functions as a binding part of the decision on the facts (ratio) though it also contains broader procedural guidance (obiter) for future cases.
Conclusion: Absent an express request to proceed ex parte and given the potential injustice of final adjudication without hearing and the inability of the Tribunal to rehear once functus officio, the Tribunal should not decide the appeal on merits in the appellant's absence; dismissal for default with liberty to restore is preferable.
Issue 3 - Application of statutory limit on adjournments and interplay with Tribunal's discretion under Rule 20
Legal framework: Section 35C(1A) limits grant of adjournments to not more than three times to a party during hearing; Rule 20 confers a discretion to dismiss for default when appellant does not appear.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied principles from higher court rulings calling for restraint in granting adjournments and condemning mechanical indulgence that causes delay.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal counted the adjournments and non-appearances, observed that statutory protection against unlimited adjournments exists to prevent abuse, and concluded that continued indulgence would contravene statutory intent and established judicial admonitions against routine adjournments. Accordingly, the Tribunal found discretion to dismiss properly exercised where statutory and procedural safeguards had been exhausted.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The application of the statutory limit and consequent refusal of further adjournments is ratio in the factual matrix; the broader admonition against mechanical adjournments reiterates settled law and serves as an instructive remark (part ratio, part obiter).
Conclusion: The statutory cap on adjournments and Rule 20 together justify dismissal for default when repeated adjournments and non-appearances persist absent sufficient cause.
Issue 4 - Sufficiency of failed service and non-intimation of address change as grounds for dismissal
Legal framework: Principles permitting substituted or constructive service where personal service cannot be effected, coupled with the procedural duty of parties to keep addresses updated with the Registry.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal treated returned RPAD endorsement and departmental affixture with mahazar as evidence that prescribed methods of service were exhausted; such practice aligns with procedural norms permitting service by affixture when personal service fails.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found no record of the appellant informing the Registry of any change of address. Service to the address on record was returned "no such person"; department efforts culminated in affixture and mahazar. In these circumstances the Tribunal held that continuing the matter would serve no purpose and that the appellant's non-communication and inaccessibility amounted to disinterest in pursuing the appeal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that failed service at the address on record and lack of notice of change justify dismissal is ratio in this decision; reminders about parties' duty to update addresses are ancillary but pertinent observations.
Conclusion: Exhaustion of prescribed service methods and failure by the appellant to update address or respond amount to sufficient grounds for dismissal for default.
Issue 5 - Granting liberty to apply for restoration and standards for restoration
Legal framework: Rule 20's proviso allows setting aside dismissal if the appellant subsequently satisfies the Tribunal that there was sufficient cause for non-appearance.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal invoked the statutory restoration remedy and preserved the appellant's right to seek restoration by showing sufficient justification.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having dismissed for default, the Tribunal explicitly granted liberty to apply for restoration, signaling that dismissal is not an absolute bar and that the procedural safeguard of restoration remains available to address genuine causes for prior non-appearance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Granting liberty to restore is an operative part of the order (ratio) and conforms to Rule 20's proviso; guidance as to the nature of acceptable justification is implicit rather than exhaustively laid down (obiter).
Conclusion: Dismissal was subject to the statutory proviso - the appellant may apply for restoration by demonstrating sufficient cause for previous non-appearance; restoration remains the appropriate remedy where legitimate cause is shown.
Dismissal of appeal for default - Revenue submitted that as per Section 35C of the Central Excise Act, 1944, no adjournment shall be granted for more than three times to a party during the hearing of the appeals - HELD THAT:- In the decision of the Honourable Apex Court in ISHWARLAL MALI RATHOD VERSUS GOPAL AND ORS, [2021 (9) TMI 1301 - SUPREME COURT] the Honourable Supreme Court has deprecated the practice of adjournments sought mechanically and allowed by the Courts/Tribunals. Hon’ble Supreme Court has observed that 'the courts shall not grant the adjournments in routine manner and mechanically and shall not be a party to cause for delay in dispensing the justice. The courts have to be diligence and take timely action in order to usher in efficient justice dispensation system and maintain faith in rule of law.'
It is also noted that the Rule 20 of the CESTAT Procedure Rules reproduced supra, provides that if the appellant appears afterwards and satisfies the Tribunal that there was sufficient cause for his non-appearance when the appeal was called on for hearing can set aside the dismissal and restore the appeal.
It is noticed that there is no request on record for the appeal to be decided on merits ex-parte based on the grounds preferred in the appeal in the absence of the appellant’s presence or representation through its counsel. If it was to decide the matter on merits, without having the benefit of hearing the appellant and upon such hearing if we were to hold against the appellant, then, having no locus to review own judgement since it would be rendered functus officio, it would thus be not only depriving the appellant of a chance to be heard, but also would be relegating the appellant to seek appropriate remedy in a higher judicial forum, if at all the appellant has justifiable reasons for repeated non representation and also lack of representation today.
The appellant is not interested in pursuing the appeal that has been preferred and that the appeal is thus liable to be dismissed for default - appeal dismissed for default as per Rule 20 of CESTAT (Procedure) Rules, 1982.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether granting licenses to third parties to set up and operate Food Plazas, kiosks and similar units on railway station premises by a corporate entity authorised by the owner railway amounts to "renting of immovable property" as defined in clause (90a) of Section 65/read with Section 65(105)(zzzz) (taxable service) for levy of service tax.
2. Whether amounts received by the corporate entity from licensees (labelled as license fee/user charges and/or revenue-sharing) constitute taxable consideration under Section 67 for the period in dispute.
3. Whether extended period of limitation (proviso to Section 73(1)) could be invoked on the ground of suppression, fraud or wilful mis-statement when show cause notices did not allege such deliberate conduct and earlier notices/records were in departmental knowledge.
4. Whether penalties and interest under the relevant sections are sustainable where the activity is found not to be a taxable service or where extended period is improperly invoked.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 1. Characterisation: Licensing of Food Plazas as "Renting of Immovable Property"
Legal framework: Clause (90a) of Section 65 defines "renting of immovable property" to include renting/letting/leasing/licensing or similar arrangements for use in furtherance of business or commerce; Section 65(105)(zzzz) makes services related to renting of immovable property taxable; Explanations clarify inclusion of use of space irrespective of transfer of possession or control.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on authorities holding substance over form as controlling (State of Orissa v. Titaghur Paper Mills) and decisions distinguishing business/licensing arrangements from renting (cases involving hotels, multiplexes, storage/warehousing jurisprudence and Grand Royale/Indian Hotels line of decisions). Some precedents emphasise existence of a service provider-service recipient relationship and presence of fixed rent as indicators of renting service.
Interpretation and reasoning: The MOU, Catering Policy and license agreements were examined in bulk. The dominant object (essential character) of the MOU and licences is professional operation and management of catering services, provision of passenger amenities, and revenue-sharing to promote upgradation and investment - not transfer of estate rights or granting of exclusive possession. Relevant contractual terms (license to operate, "as is where is" space, leave and licence basis, licence period, obligation to construct/operate, exit provisions, hygiene and operational controls, revenue-linked consideration, and clause requiring delivery of vacant possession on expiry) indicate a business transaction where space is incidental to the commercial activity. Policy expressly disavowed separate rent for static units and prescribed revenue sharing; tender documents and eligibility criteria focused on catering expertise, hygiene, turnover and managerial capability - reinforcing operational, not locational, focus. The absence of a "fixed rent" and presence of consideration tied to turnover or revenue sharing weighs against classification as renting for business/commerce. The Tribunal emphasised the absence of a service provider / service recipient relationship and treated the arrangement as principal-to-principal commercial transaction rather than a taxable renting service.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a licensor (authorised corporate entity acting for owner) grants licences for operation/management of Food Plazas with revenue-sharing, subject to detailed operational obligations and without fixed rent or transfer of possession, such transactions do not constitute "renting of immovable property" under clause (90a) and are not taxable under Section 65(105)(zzzz). Obiter - comparative observations on other sectors (multiplex, hotels, ports) serve as supportive precedents but are not the core factual ratio.
Conclusion: The activity of awarding licences for setting up and operating Food Plazas and similar units on railway station premises is not "renting of immovable property" within the taxable entry; amounts received as license fee/user charges or revenue share are not taxable consideration under that head.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 2. Taxable Value and Section 67 Application
Legal framework: Section 67 prescribes valuation for taxable services; taxable consideration must be for services as defined under Section 65(105).
Precedent treatment: Authorities cited (including hotel and multiplex decisions) hold that consideration which is part of a business transaction dependent on turnover/profits and not a fixed rent does not automatically amount to consideration for renting service; joint cost-sharing or revenue sharing without service provider/recipient nexus is not taxable consideration.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given conclusion that the underlying arrangement is a business licence for operation/management and not a renting service, the amounts recorded as income/revenue sharing are proceeds of a commercial licence/operation and not consideration for a taxable renting service; therefore Section 67 valuation for renting service is not applicable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - valuation under Section 67 cannot be applied because the taxable service entry does not arise; Obiter - discussion on elements of consideration (fixed rent vs. turnover-linked fee) elaborates the test.
Conclusion: The demand computed under Section 67 for "renting of immovable property" is unsustainable on merits.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 3. Extended Period of Limitation under proviso to Section 73(1)
Legal framework: Proviso to Section 73(1) permits extended period where duty is evaded by fraud, suppression, willful mis-statement, collusion, or contravention with intent to evade.
Precedent treatment: Authorities (including Nizam Sugar Factory) establish that extended limitation cannot be invoked where the department already had knowledge of relevant facts or show cause notices did not allege deliberate suppression; mere failure to pay does not automatically import fraud or suppression.
Interpretation and reasoning: Earlier show cause notices and departmental knowledge of transactions negated any claim of suppression; the show cause notices in the instant matter did not allege fraud, suppression or wilful mis-statement; the issue of taxability was subject to litigation and divergent views, supporting a bona fide belief. The Tribunal found that the adjudicating authority went beyond the scope of the show cause notice in invoking the proviso.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - extended limitation cannot be invoked in absence of specific, pleaded and established suppression/fraud/collusion or where department had prior knowledge; Obiter - contextual remarks on bona fide litigation position.
Conclusion: Invocation of extended period for the demand is unsustainable; limitation defence succeeds.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - 4. Penalties and Interest
Legal framework: Interest under Section 75 and penalties under Sections 76-78 attach to confirmed tax liabilities and to cases involving misstatement/fraud as per statutory scheme.
Precedent treatment: Penalties are contingent on sustaining liability or established mala fides; where tax demand fails on merits or extended period is wrongly invoked, corresponding penalties/interest cannot stand.
Interpretation and reasoning: As tax demand and extended period findings were unsustainable, the factual and legal foundation for imposition of interest and penalties collapses. No culpable conduct (suppression/fraud) was established.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - penalties and interest contingent on valid demand and proven culpability are impermissible where demand is set aside; Obiter - comments on government undertaking status and bona fide compliance.
Conclusion: Interest and penalties imposed in the impugned order are unjustified and are set aside along with the demand.
FINAL DISPOSITIONAL RATIO
The Tribunal held that the scheme of the MOU, Catering Policy and the license/tender documents demonstrate that licences to operate and manage Food Plazas and similar units are commercial/business licences with operational obligations and revenue-sharing, not arrangements of renting immovable property; therefore the service tax demand, extended period invocation, interest and penalties are unsustainable and the impugned order is set aside.
Classification of services - Renting of Immovable Property service or not - activity performed by IRCTC to award lisensees for setting-up and operation of Food Plaza and other stalls by the licensees - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the parties are governed by the MOU and the license agreement and as per the principles of interpretation of documents, the nomenclature of any contract or document is not decisive of its nature, but an overall reading of the document and its effect is to be seen-State of Orissa versus Titaghur Paper Mills Company Ltd. [1985 (3) TMI 226 - SUPREME COURT]. The Courts have, therefore, consistently applied the test of substance over form, requiring a close look at the contents of the agreement. As discussed above, IR is the owner of the railway land and apart from its primary function of transportation of passengers and goods, they have been engaged in providing essential public utility services for which railway premises are used. The later activity is purely ancillary to the main activity without any profit element. Pursuant to the introduction of the Catering Policy, IR entrusted the catering activities to IRCTC, however to enable the implementation of this Policy, some space has to be provided within the vicinity of the railway station which by no stretch of imagination can be termed as rendering services of renting.
Agreements were executed by IRCTC titled as, “Agreement for License to Set-up and Operate Food Plaza at Vijayawada Railway Station with the successful bidders”. Similar agreements have been executed with respect to other railway stations in favour of third parties - IRCTC/IR was free to grant license to any other Caterer in the neighbourhood of the Food Plaza. Under the heading Obligation and Rights of the IRCTC, it is stated that the space has been provided by IRCTC ‘on as is where is basis’ and free from all encumbrances to the licensee on leave and license basis. Thereafter, other obligations have been specified to be taken care of by IRCTC solely with reference to the operation of the Food Plaza. Similarly, the Obligation and Rights of the licensee clearly enumerates that the licensee will construct Food Plaza as per building bylaws of the State and operate the Food Plaza in terms of other specifications provided therein.
Having examined the various clauses of the agreement, it is crystal clear that the agreement purely related to the transaction of business whereby the appellant was actually performing the activity of operation of catering and was not providing any service of renting of immovable property. The terms of the agreement makes it abundantly clear as to what is the true and actual purpose of the agreement and the relationship between the parties. This Tribunal has repeatedly held in series of decisions that operation and management of any hotel, unit or other activity does not amount to rendering services.
Somewhat similar issue had arisen with reference to the agreement between the producer/distributor of the films and the exhibitor who owned the Multiplex theatres which was alleged by the Department to be an agreement for renting of immovable property as defined under section 65(90a) of the Act. In M/s. M2K Entertainment (P) Ltd. [2025 (7) TMI 213 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], it was ruled that the purpose of the agreement and the intention of the parties is for screening of the film in the theatre, which cannot be treated as ‘renting of immovable property service’.
The element of consideration, i.e. the quid pro quo for services, which is a necessary ingredient of any taxable service is present. In the absence of any consideration, no service can be said to have been provided. Merely because the parties arrive at an understanding by way of an agreement to share the expenditure for availing certain facilities or for performing any activity does not amount to rendering ‘services’ and in the course of it, just because some amount is being charged by one party to another it cannot be treated as ‘consideration’. Neither the activity performed can be stretched to rendering ‘services’ nor the amount received for performing the activity can be stretched to ‘consideration’ in the technical sense to be covered under the provisions of Section 65(90a) of the Act - it is clear that the agreement between the parties was essentially for setting-up and operating the Food Plaza at the railway stations with a view to ensuring the availability of public utility facilities. There is nothing unusual in this kind of an arrangement as such business transactions are very much common in today’s economic world.
The transaction is purely on business terms on revenue sharing basis, the demand of service tax is not sustainable either on merits or on the ground of limitation.
There are no merit in the impugned order, and hence the same is set aside. The appeals are, accordingly allowed.
Issues: (i) whether the difference between the amount paid for cargo space and the amount recovered from customers was liable to service tax; (ii) whether reimbursable expenses were includible in the taxable value; and (iii) whether services rendered for transportation of stores to the UN Peace Mission were exigible to service tax.
Issue (i): whether the difference between the amount paid for cargo space and the amount recovered from customers was liable to service tax.
Analysis: The activity was found to be purchase and resale of cargo space on a principal to principal basis. The Tribunal relied on earlier decisions holding that such mark-up does not amount to rendition of taxable service and that buying and selling space is trading activity rather than support service or intermediary service.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee and the demand on this count was not sustainable.
Issue (ii): whether reimbursable expenses were includible in the taxable value.
Analysis: The reimbursable amounts were separately shown as statutory charges and the lower authority had found that the conditions for exclusion as a pure agent were satisfied. The Tribunal accepted that finding and noted that no contrary evidence was produced to dislodge the factual conclusion that the expenses were recoverable on actual basis.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee and the demand on reimbursable expenses was rightly dropped.
Issue (iii): whether services rendered for transportation of stores to the UN Peace Mission were exigible to service tax.
Analysis: The Tribunal held that the services were rendered to the United Nations peace-keeping mission and were covered by the exemption granted to services provided to the United Nations under Notification No. 16/2002-Service Tax and also by Notification No. 25/2012-ST. It further observed that the demand had been raised by reference to profit and loss figures rather than invoice-wise quantification, and that the exemption was available to the service in its entirety.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the assessee and the demand on this count was not sustainable.
Final Conclusion: The departmental appeal failed and the order granting relief to the assessee was sustained, with the entire confirmed demand, interest, and penalties remaining unset aside.
Ratio Decidendi: Purchase and resale of cargo space on a principal to principal basis is not a taxable service, reimbursable statutory expenses recoverable as a pure agent are excluded from value, and services provided to the United Nations are exempt where the relevant exemption notification applies.
Non-payment of service tax - commission earned in lieu of sale of cargo space - amount received as reimbursable expenses - pure agent - services provided to Indian Army for transportation of stores to United Nations Peace Mission out of India.
Commission earned in lieu of sale of cargo space - HELD THAT:- The same is no more res integra. This Tribunal in Tiger Logistics India Ltd. vs. Commissioner, Central Tax and GST, New Delhi [2023 (7) TMI 546 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] held that 'In MARINETRANS INDIA PVT. LTD. VERSUS CST, HYDERABAD - ST [2019 (4) TMI 534 - CESTAT HYDERABAD], the Division Bench held after considering the Circular dated 12.08.2016 issued by the Central Board of Excise and Customs that buying and selling space on ships does not amount to rendering a service and any profit or income earned through such transactions would not be leviable to service tax.'
Amount received as reimbursable expenses - HELD THAT:- The impugned order clearly notes that the sample invoices separately indicate the statutory charges viz., Customs duty IAAI charges, Airlines, Air Console agent charges for air freight & delivery order, Municipal Government levies such as Octroi, Toll tax, Service Tax etc. It has also been clearly noted that Rule 5 (2) of Service Tax Rules 1994 lays down certain conditions on "Pure Agent" services and it has been held that the respondent had satisfied all the conditions. We note that the Department has not led any evidence contrary to this finding. Hence, the Commissioner (Appeals) has rightly dropped the demand in this regard.
Service provided to Indian Army for transportation of stores to UN Peace Mission - HELD THAT:- The appellant was providing services to UN Peace Keeping mission. The Security Council is one of the primary organs of the United Nations Organization. One of the roles and responsibilities of the Security Council is to execute peace keeping operations and political missions. The role of the Security Council is to place for the political, military, operational and support (i.e. logistics and administration) aspects of the peace operation. The service provided by them is to the United Nations and not International Organization and therefore the same is also exempted under Notification No.16/2002 dated 02.08.2002 and is not liable to service tax at all in its entirety - It is a fact that such Peace Keeping missions are under the aegis of the Security Council, which is an integral part of the U.N. Consequently, supply of all services to the UN Peacekeeping Mission by the respondent is eligible for the exemption under Notification No.16/2002-ST dated 02.08.2002. Further, it is also held that the said exemption was also available under Notification No.25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012.
There are no infirmity with the impugned order - appeal dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the examination-related receipts collected by the appellant from candidates and connected entities constituted taxable consideration for manpower recruitment or supply services. (ii) Whether the receipts under the heads of miscellaneous recoveries and rent from immovable property were liable to service tax, with consequential interest and penalties, and whether penalty under Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994 was sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether the examination-related receipts collected by the appellant from candidates and connected entities constituted taxable consideration for manpower recruitment or supply services.
Analysis: Liability to service tax required a service, a discernible service recipient, and consideration paid for that service. The record showed that the examination fees were collected from candidates appearing for recruitment examinations, while no consideration was received from the State Government departments said to be the recipients of recruitment-related services. The examination fee was used to meet the cost of conducting the examinations, and it could not be treated as consideration flowing from the departments for manpower recruitment or supply. In the absence of consideration from the alleged recipient, the essential ingredients of taxability under the service tax regime were not satisfied.
Conclusion: The demand of service tax on examination-related receipts as manpower recruitment or supply services was not sustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the receipts under the heads of miscellaneous recoveries and rent from immovable property were liable to service tax, with consequential interest and penalties, and whether penalty under Section 76 of the Finance Act, 1994 was sustainable.
Analysis: The appellant did not contest the levy on the receipts attributable to miscellaneous recoveries and renting of immovable property. Those receipts were found taxable, and the demand of service tax, interest, and penalty under Section 78 was upheld. The findings also supported invocation of the extended period on the ground of suppression and non-disclosure. However, once the extended period was upheld for the demand, penalty under Section 76 was held to be unwarranted.
Conclusion: The tax demand, interest, and penalty under Section 78 were upheld for the miscellaneous recovery and rent receipts, while penalty under Section 76 was set aside, in part favouring both sides.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded only to the extent of deleting the demand on examination-related receipts and the penalty under Section 76, while the remaining tax demand and connected consequences were sustained.
Ratio Decidendi: Service tax can be levied only where there is identifiable service, recipient, and consideration; examination fees collected from candidates cannot be treated as consideration received from the alleged service recipient, but other taxable receipts may still be charged if liability and suppression are established.
Levy of service tax - Manpower recruitment or supply agency service - amount charged from, organizations as well as from the candidates as examination fees against the service so provided - Section 66B of the Finance Act, 1994 - Misc. Receipts/Recoveries - Rent from Residential Quarters/Post Office & Bank - invocation of extended period of limitation - penalties.
Levy of service tax - Manpower recruitment or supply agency service - amount charged from, organizations as well as from the candidates as examination fees against the service so provided - Section 66B of the Finance Act, 1994 - HELD THAT:- The law in respect of the levy of the service tax is well settled. There are certain essential ingredient that need to examined and fulfilled before the service tax could have been levied on these activities. Undisputedly appellant has taken the stand before the original authority as evident from the letter of “Financial Controller” reproduced in the impugned order that they have not received any amounts from the state government departments top wards any services provided by them towards the recruitment of the manpower.
Hon’ble Madras High Court has in the case of Wunderbar Films Private Limited [2024 (3) TMI 17 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] observed that 'The question as to whether a particular transaction would attract the levy of Service Tax as constituting a taxable service within the meaning of 65 (105) (zzzzt) prior to 01.07.2012 or Section 66B read with Section 65B(44) and Section 66E(c) w.e.f. 01.07.2012 ought to be determined on the basis of the contracts entered into between the service provider and the recipient. One cannot generalize the transactions nor determine the liability without examining the contracts individually for the rights/ obligations flowing therefrom may vary from contract to contract.'
In absence of any identification of the contract for the provision of service for a consideration between the appellant and the service recipient, departments of the state government against a consideration we are unable to understand how can it be said that the ingredients as spelt out by Section 65 B (44) of the Finance Act, 1994 can be satisfied. Appellant have claimed that the Examination Fees have been collected from the students/ persons who intended to the take the examination conducted by them for recruitment towards various vacancies to be filed by those departments of the state government.
The appellant had not collected any amounts from the state government departments for provision of any service to but have only collected the fees from candidates which in no terms can be considered as “consideration‟ for providing the service. All the expenses incurred by the appellant for conduct of examination and listed in the impugned order are recovered by the appellant while fixing the examination fees recovered from the candidates. Hence there are no consideration has been recovered by the appellant from the state government departments for rendering these services.
Impugned order records that services provided by the appellant are in nature of manpower recruitment services to the state government departments. Even if it is held that the findings recorded in the impugned order are too accepted, then also the service tax could not have been demanded from the appellant as the consideration received against the provision of these services from the service recipient is nil. The examination fees collected from the candidates appearing for the examination being conducted by the appellant cannot be considered as consideration for supply of manpower recruitment and supply services to the state government departments - there are no merits in the demand made on this account under this category and set aside the same.
Levy of service tax - Misc. Receipts/Recoveries - Rent from Residential Quarters/Post Office & Bank - HELD THAT:- The appellant have not contested the demand, either before the adjudicating authority or in the submissions made before us. Impugned order records the findings in this respect and also the reasons for invoking the extended period of limitation for making the demand. Thus the demand of service tax (inclusive of cess) along with the interest and penalties (Section 78) imposed in respect of these categories of receipt upheld.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - penalties - HELD THAT:- Since impugned order itself concludes in the favour of invocation of extended period of limitation for making the demand the penalties under Section 76 cannot be justified.
The penalties have been imposed under Section 77 (1) and 77 (2) for not obtaining the registration and for not filing the ST3 returns. It is found that enough justification in the penalties imposed under these two sections in view of decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of Gujarat Travancore Agency [1989 (5) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT] wherein it was held that 'A penalty imposed for a tax delinquency is a civil obligation, remedial and coercive in its nature, and is far different from the penalty for a crime or a fine or forfeiture provided as punishment for the violation of criminal or penal laws.'
Appeal allowed in part.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether statements recorded under section 14 during investigation, which were not tested before the adjudicating authority in terms of Section 9D(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act, 1944, are admissible and can be relied upon to impose penalty under Rule 26 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002.
2. Whether there is admissible evidence on record to sustain the conclusion that the appellant issued fake invoices or passed on irregular CENVAT credit to the buyer, such as to attract penalty under Rule 26.
3. Whether reliance solely on investigation statements (without compliance with Section 9D) and on generalized investigative findings (e.g., list of fictitious transportations or non-existent suppliers) suffices to establish mens rea or culpability required for imposition of Rule 26 penalty on a supplier alleged to have issued fake invoices.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Admissibility and evidentiary value of statements recorded under section 14 without compliance with Section 9D(1)(b)
Legal framework: Section 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944 prescribes when statements recorded under section 14 (before a gazetted officer during inquiry/investigation) are relevant in adjudication or prosecution: (a) specific circumstances in s.9D(1)(a), or (b) if (a) is not applicable, only after the person who gave the statement is examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statement should be admitted in evidence in the interests of justice (s.9D(1)(b)); s.9D(2) mandates application of s.9D(1).
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on multiple authorities treating s.9D as mandatory: Tribunal, Chennai (Geetham Steels), Principal Bench CESTAT (Surya Wires), Punjab & Haryana High Court (Ambika International, Jindal Drugs), Chhattisgarh High Court (Hi Tech Abrasives), Delhi High Court (Its My Name / Additional Director General), and Tribunal decisions (Drolia Electrosteel). These decisions consistently hold that statements recorded during investigation acquire relevance in adjudication only after the procedure of s.9D(1)(b) is complied with, unless s.9D(1)(a) applies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the impugned findings and noted that the department's case rested on statements recorded from investigative witnesses (including the director and an intermediary). No evidence existed that any s.9D(1)(a) circumstance applied, and the adjudicating authority did not examine the deponents as witnesses nor record an opinion admitting those statements under s.9D(1)(b). The Tribunal explained the legislative rationale: statements recorded during inquiry/investigation may be coerced; s.9D(1)(b) is a safeguard requiring in-court/adjudicatory testing (examination and possible cross-examination) before those statements can be treated as substantive evidence.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Non-compliance with Section 9D(1)(b) renders statements recorded under section 14 inadmissible for proving the truth of their contents in adjudication (absent s.9D(1)(a)). Obiter - Explanatory remarks on the potential for coercion and the sequential procedure of examination, cross-examination, and re-examination in evidence law supporting the mandatory nature of s.9D.
Conclusion: The statements relied upon by the Department, not tested in terms of Section 9D, are irrelevant and inadmissible for proving the alleged facts; they cannot sustain findings against the appellant.
Issue 2: Sufficiency of evidence to establish issuance of fake invoices or passing of irregular CENVAT credit attracting Rule 26 penalty
Legal framework: Penalty under Rule 26 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 can be imposed for acts/omissions such as issuance of fake invoices or abetting irregular availment/utilization of CENVAT credit; imposition requires admissible evidence establishing the wrongdoing and culpability.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on earlier decisions holding that findings based solely on untested investigation statements or generalized investigative material (e.g., lists of fictitious transportations) are inadequate to establish issuance of fake invoices or taint inputs without documentary identification of the tainted invoices.
Interpretation and reasoning: The adjudicating authority's order alleged issuance of fake invoices and procurement of forged invoices from named dealers. On analysis, the Tribunal found no specific invoice or document identified and relied upon to prove that the appellant issued fake invoices or that inputs taken by the appellant were tainted. The list of fictitious transportations did not include vehicles used by the appellant; there was no dispute regarding actual receipt by the buyer of goods from the appellant (entry gate logs/time stamps existed). The Department's case was founded on investigative statements not admitted under s.9D and on generalized investigative findings; hence the causal chain to establish irregular credit passed by the appellant was missing.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Absent admissible evidence identifying specific tainted invoices or proving non-supply/non-receipt, a finding that a supplier issued fake invoices and thereby passed on irregular credit cannot be sustained. Obiter - Observations that logs of vehicle entries and absence of the appellant's vehicles from the list of fictitious transportations weaken allegations of bogus supply.
Conclusion: There is no admissible evidence on record to prove that the appellant issued fake invoices or passed on irregular CENVAT credit to the buyer; the Rule 26 penalty cannot be sustained on the material placed.
Issue 3: Reliance on investigatory inferences (non-existent suppliers, fictitious transport) and confessional or implicatory statements for establishing culpability
Legal framework: Adjudicatory reliance on investigative inferences and confessional statements is circumscribed by admissibility rules (Section 9D) and by the requirement that documentary or corroborative material be identified to substantiate allegations; mere investigative suspicion or generalized findings are insufficient.
Precedent treatment: Authorities cited (Ambika International, Its My Name, Hi Tech Abrasives, Drolia Electrosteel, Surya Wires) emphasize that investigative statements require procedural testing before admission and that reliance on such statements in absence of s.9D compliance is impermissible; courts/tribunals have repeatedly held that failure to comply with s.9D is fatal to reliance on those statements.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the Department's narrative linking the appellant to a network of fictitious suppliers and transportations was built on statements that were not admitted under s.9D and on a generalized investigatory matrix. The adjudicating authority did not point to any document or invoice specifically proved to be fake or any instance where the appellant's supplies were shown to be non-existent. The director's recorded admission was not tested before the adjudicating authority in the manner mandated by s.9D.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Investigatory inferences and confessional/implicatory statements, unless admitted according to statutory procedure and corroborated by identifiable documentary evidence, cannot form the basis for penalty under Rule 26. Obiter - Discussion of the investigatory rationale for s.9D and analogies to the sequential testing of evidence under the Evidence Act.
Conclusion: The Department's reliance on untested investigative statements and generalized investigatory findings was legally impermissible; such material cannot establish the culpability necessary for Rule 26 penalty.
Final Conclusion and Disposition (Court's operative finding)
The Court held that (i) statements recorded during investigation were not admitted in evidence in accordance with Section 9D and hence were inadmissible; (ii) there was no admissible/documentary evidence identifying any fake invoices or proving that the appellant passed on irregular CENVAT credit; and (iii) consequently the penalty under Rule 26 was unsustainable and was set aside. (Ratio: mandatory compliance with Section 9D is a precondition to reliance on investigative statements in adjudication; absence of admissible evidence disproves imposition of Rule 26 penalty.)
Levy of penalty u/r 26 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 - wrongfully passing on the CENVAT credit - SCN was issued on the basis of statements recorded from some of the co-noticees/co-accused - admissible evidences or not - HELD THAT:- It was alleged in the Show Cause Notice that GSAPL has availed CENVAT Credit on the basis of fake invoices. The impugned order has purportedly held that the appellant has passed on irregular credit, on the basis of the information gathered by the Department that certain transportation of the goods by the vehicles said to have been used by certain named suppliers showing delivery of the goods to GSAPL were fictitious. In this regard, it is found that the appellant was also one of the suppliers to GSAPL but no vehicle used by the appellant for transportation of goods were part of the list of bogus transportation listed by the investigation. The list of vehicles found to be fictitious are mentioned in paragraph 7.0 of the Adjudication Order (internal page 40) and not a single vehicle used by the appellant has been mentioned therein.
It is further found that the entire case of the Department has been built on the basis of statements recorded from the Director of the appellant company. The fact that is noted the statements recorded in this case have not been tested as mandated under section 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944. Thus, we are of the opinion that the statements relied upon in this case are irrelevant pieces of materials due to non-compliance of Section 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and hence the same cannot be relied upon to implicate the appellant in the alleged offence.
A similar issue has been examined by the Tribunal, Chennai in the decision rendered in the case of M/s. Geetham Steels Pvt Ltd Vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise Salem [2025 (3) TMI 1098 - CESTAT CHENNAI], wherein it has been observed that 'Section 9D(2) not only legislatively mandates the adjudicating authority to apply the provisions of S.9D(1), depending on the facts and circumstances of the case, to the extent possible, but also when read along with Section 9D(1)(b), leads to the inexorable conclusion that the adjudicating authority necessarily has to conduct an examination in chief of the deponent of the statement so as to determine not only the voluntary nature as well as truthfulness of the facts the statement given under Section 14 before the Gazetted Officer contains, but also to determine whether or not the witness is hostile, and to decide whether or not to place reliance on the statement as per the mandate of Section 9(1)(b) in the circumstances of the case.'
Thus, the statements relied upon in this case have not been tested as mandated under Section 9D of the Central Excise Act, 1944 and therefore, these statements cannot be treated as admissible evidence in these proceedings.
There is no evidence on record that the appellant has passed on irregular credit to GSAPL. Accordingly, the penalty imposed on the appellant u/r 26 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 vide the impugned order is not sustainable and hence, the same is set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 applies to inputs, sub-assemblies or semi-finished goods that were scrapped after having been put to use in the manufacturing process (work-in-progress/assembly/sub-assembly stages) as distinct from inputs written off prior to being put to use.
2. Whether the recovery mechanism introduced by Explanation to Rule 3(5B) w.e.f. 01.03.2013 can be applied retrospectively to permit recovery, interest and penalty for credits disallowed for periods prior to the amendment.
3. The evidentiary weight of a Chartered Accountant's certificate and other production records in determining whether items scrapped were inputs written off or constituted work-in-progress/finished goods.
4. Whether the demand for differential CENVAT credit for earlier years was barred by limitation or required invocation of extended period on account of suppression/fraud, and relatedly whether interest and penalties were sustainable; and whether duplicate penalties (under statutory provision and rule) were correctly imposed for the same alleged default.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Applicability of Rule 3(5B) to scrapping at WIP/assembly/sub-assembly stages
Legal framework: Rule 3(5B) provides for reversal of CENVAT credit where inputs are written off; Circular dated 07.12.2009 explains intent to treat credits taken on inputs not intended to be used and written off; distinction exists between inputs written off before use and losses occurring during manufacturing (WIP, sub-assembly, finished goods).
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal and various Benches have considered whether Rule 3(5B) applies to WIP and finished goods; some decisions have held that Rule 3(5B) targets credits on inputs not intended to be used (i.e., written off before use), while others differentiated scrapping occurring after inputs have been put to use.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal finds force in the submission that items scrapped at sub-assembly/assembly/packing stages were already put to use in manufacturing and thus constitute work-in-progress or stages of manufacture rather than raw inputs written off pre-use. The Tribunal emphasizes that the functional nature of the loss (loss in manufacturing process) and the professional certificate showing stages of manufacture must be considered; where materials have been used in production, the rigorous reversal envisaged for unused inputs is not applicable. The Tribunal criticizes the adjudicating authority's disregard of the CA certificate without counter-evidence or reasoning.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Rule 3(5B) does not apply to inputs already put to use and scrapped as part of manufacturing (WIP/assembly/sub-assembly/finished goods) absent clear evidence that inputs were written off prior to use. Obiter - Observations on misapplication of the Circular where not reconciled with facts.
Conclusion: Rule 3(5B) was not attracted to the facts where scrapped items were part of manufacturing process; demand under that provision could not be sustained on merits where the CA certificate and subsequent favorable adjudication for later period support that position.
Issue 2: Prospectivity of recovery mechanism introduced by Explanation to Rule 3(5B) w.e.f. 01.03.2013
Legal framework: Explanation inserted w.e.f. 01.03.2013 provides a recovery mechanism (Rule 14) for amounts payable under sub-rules including 3(5B).
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal decisions have held that the recovery mechanism introduced from 01.03.2013 is prospective and cannot be applied retrospectively to create a new recovery right for periods prior to the insertion.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal agrees that where no recovery mechanism existed prior to 01.03.2013, the department cannot retrospectively invoke the post-amendment recovery provisions to recover amounts, interest and penalties for earlier periods. The change of legal position by introduction of a recovery mode does not retrospectively render past conduct reversible under the new procedure, particularly where there was no statutory requirement to reverse credit at the relevant earlier time.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Explanation/Recovery mechanism effective from 01.03.2013 cannot be applied retrospectively to validate recovery proceedings for periods prior to that date; such application would be impermissible absent explicit retrospective provision. Obiter - Observations on policy rationale for non-retrospectivity.
Conclusion: Recovery, interest and penalty under the Explanation to Rule 3(5B) could not be validly invoked for periods prior to 01.03.2013; demands predicated solely on the post-amendment recovery route for earlier years must be dropped.
Issue 3: Evidentiary value of Chartered Accountant's certificate and related records
Legal framework: Administrative adjudication must consider documentary evidence and professional certificates; certificate of a professional enjoys probative value unless convincingly contradicted by evidence.
Precedent Treatment: A line of decisions holds that professional certificates cannot be lightly discarded in absence of countervailing evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal finds that the adjudicating authority disregarded the CA certificate without analysing or countering its findings and that no contemporaneous evidence was produced to show that the scrapped items were raw inputs not put to use. Given that the subsequent appellate order for a later period accepted the same factual matrix, the CA certificate's findings that the items were at stages of manufacture must be given weight.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A professional certificate establishing that scrapped items were part of the manufacturing process and not raw inputs written off should be given due weight; rejection requires reasoned counter-evidence. Obiter - Comments on adequacy of field visits versus account verification in certificates.
Conclusion: The CA certificate and attendant records were sufficient to undermine the show cause notice where no contrary material was produced; the adjudication's failure to engage with the certificate vitiated the demand on merits.
Issue 4: Limitation/extended period, interest and penalties including duplicate penalties
Legal framework: Extended period of limitation (for invoking larger period) requires suppression, fraud or wilful misstatement; imposition of interest and penalties follows only on sustainable demand; statutory provisions for penalty and rule-based penalty must not result in impermissible duplication for same default.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities require positive evidence of suppression/fraud to invoke extended period; duplicate penalties for same act have been questioned where two penalties are imposed for identical default.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal notes that the department was conducting regular audits and had knowledge of filing pattern; no positive act of suppression or fraud by the assessee was established to justify invocation of extended limitation. Where demand is unsustainable on legal and factual matrix (Issues 1-3 and prospectivity), interest and penalties based on that demand cannot stand. Additionally, the Tribunal observes that penalty imposition under two different provisions for same default (statute and rule) was erroneous in the circumstances presented.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Extended period cannot be invoked without evidence of suppression/fraud; interest and penalties cannot be sustained where principal demand fails; duplicative penalties for same offence are improper. Obiter - Remarks on departmental burden to establish knowledge and active concealment.
Conclusion: Proceedings for earlier periods were not maintainable under extended limitation; consequential interest and penalties could not be sustained; duplicate penalty imposition was erroneous. Having found the demand unsustainable on merits and law (including prospectivity and evidentiary considerations), the impugned demand, interest and penalties were set aside.
Additional cross-reference and outcome
Cross-reference: The Tribunal relied upon its prior reasoning on prospectivity and evidentiary treatment, and took into account that the same issue was decided in favour of the assessee for a subsequent period by the Appellate Authority, which the revenue did not challenge; this consistency militated against changing the departmental stand for earlier years.
Outcome: On the combined legal and factual analysis the Tribunal set aside the impugned order and allowed the appeal, holding that Rule 3(5B) and the post-2013 recovery mechanism did not sustain the demand for earlier periods, that the CA certificate was improperly ignored, and that limitation/penalty contentions favoured the respondent on the material before the Tribunal.
Recovery of CENVAT Credit alongwith interest and penalty - applicability of Rule 3(5B) of CCR, 2004 to the inputs scrapped, at the stage of work in progress, assembly/ sub-assembly, after being put to use - Appellant had written off the rejection of raw material, sub-assembly and finished goods and showed the same under the head 'scrapping of inventory' - HELD THAT:- This Bench in the case of GKN Driveline (India) Ltd. [2023 (9) TMI 1131 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH] held that 'during the relevant period, there was no recovery mechanism under Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules and the explanation which was introduced vide Notification No. 3/2013 dated 01.03.2013 was from 01.03.2013 vide which it was provided that if the manufacturer of goods or the provider of output service fails to pay the amount payable under sub-rules (5), (5A), and (5B), it shall be recovered, in the manner as provided in rule 14, for recovery of CENVAT credit wrongly taken. This recovery mechanism introduced from 01.03.2013 cannot be made applicable from the retrospective date and it can be only prospective.'
The appellants further submit that Rule 3(5B) and the Circular bearing No.907/27/2009 dated 07.12.2009 are not applicable as the appellants have not written off the inputs as such; what has been written off were the inputs after they have undergone various stages of manufacturing like sub-assembly level, assembly level and packing level; the appellant may have, by mistake, referred to the same in their books of accounts under the Heading “Loss from Scrapping of Inventory – Raw Materials”; however, they are not raw materials as they are understood; the nature of material scrapped and written off is evident from the Chartered Engineer certificate - there is force in the arguments of the appellants - it has been held in a catena of cases that a certificate given by a professional cannot be disregarded, more so, in the absence of any evidence to the contrary.
It is further found that Commissioner (Appeals) adjudicating the appellant’s case, on the same issue, for the subsequent period i.e. 2015-16, in favour of the appellants dropping the demand of Rs.13,66,789/-. Revenue has not filed any appeal against such order. Therefore, Revenue cannot change their stand for an earlier period, which is impugned in the present case. In view of the same, the Revenue’s reliance on different cases is of no avail. The issue stands settled in favour of the appellants on merits as well as on legal issues.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the matter should be remanded to the Tribunal for fresh consideration on account of the petitioner not having effectively availed the opportunity before the Tribunal.
Analysis: The Tribunal had recorded that sufficient opportunities were granted, but the order did not specify the number of opportunities afforded to the petitioner. The Court treated the matter as one where the opportunity was not availed rather than one of complete denial of hearing. In the interest of substantial justice, and since remand would not prejudice the State, the Court considered it appropriate to restore the appeals to the Tribunal for fresh adjudication. The petitioner's default in appearance was taken into account by directing payment of costs.
Conclusion: The matter was remanded to the Tribunal for fresh consideration, with costs imposed on the petitioner.
Denial of claim of the input tax after Six months - denial of opportunity of hearing - the judgment in State of Karnataka V/s. K. Bond polymers Pvt. Ltd. [2012 (3) TMI 373 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] ignored - denial of credit as per section 10 and 11 of the KVAT act - disallowing the qualified and brought forward excess tax against the claimed - non-grant of sufficient opportunity to petitioner to argue the case in main appeal and failure to grant reasonable time considering that the matter was only of the year 2022 - failure to observe that petitioner was not represented in cross appeal preferred by State - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- The appeal before the Tribunal was preferred by the petitioner, whereas the cross appeal was filed by the State. The Tribunal, in paragraph 6 of the impugned order, recorded that sufficient opportunities were granted. However, it has not specified the number of opportunities afforded to the petitioner to present its case. Be that as it may, we are inclined to grant the petitioner one further opportunity in the interest of substantial justice. Denial of such opportunity may result in financial hardship to the petitioner. In any event, if the matter is remanded to the Tribunal for fresh consideration, no prejudice is likely to be caused to the State.
Further, it is noted that this is not a case of denial of opportunity, but of non-availing the same. Although the default in appearance is attributable to the petitioner, in the interest of substantial justice, while remanding the matter, the petitioner is to be directed to pay costs.
The appeals are restored and remanded to the file of the Karnataka Appellate Tribunal, Bengaluru, subject to payment of cost of Rs. 10,000/- to be deposited before the High Court Legal Services Authority - appeal allowed in part.
Issues: (i) Whether proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could continue when stop-payment instructions had been issued before the alleged issuance and presentation of the cheque. (ii) Whether the complaint was premature for want of proof of service of statutory notice and accrual of cause of action.
Issue (i): Whether proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 could continue when stop-payment instructions had been issued before the alleged issuance and presentation of the cheque.
Analysis: The cheque stood reported lost, and stop-payment instructions had been given to the bank much before the alleged date of issuance. The bank record confirmed that the instructions were acted upon and the cheque was rendered incapable of encashment. In that situation, the later presentation of the cheque and its dishonour on the ground of insufficient funds did not satisfy the essential ingredients of Section 138. The presumption under Section 139 could not override the admitted factual foundation showing that the cheque was already disabled for encashment.
Conclusion: The prosecution under Section 138 was not maintainable on these facts and continuation of the proceedings was unwarranted.
Issue (ii): Whether the complaint was premature for want of proof of service of statutory notice and accrual of cause of action.
Analysis: The record did not disclose proof of actual service of the statutory demand notice by acknowledgment or equivalent material. The complaint had been filed before expiry of the statutory period for payment after notice, so no cause of action had accrued on the date of institution. A complaint filed before the expiry of the statutory period is premature and the court cannot take cognizance of it.
Conclusion: The complaint was premature and legally unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The complaint and consequential proceedings were held to be an abuse of process and were quashed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a cheque has been rendered incapable of encashment by prior stop-payment instructions and the complaint under Section 138 is instituted before the statutory notice period has expired, no offence is made out and cognizance cannot be sustained.
Dishonour of Cheque - insufficient funds - gross abuse of the process of law - misuse of cheque which was already the subject of stop-payment instructions - pre-mature complaint - respondent no.2/complainant has failed to prove the date of service of the statutory notice - invocation of presumption under Section 139 of NI Act - HELD THAT:- Upon perusal of the material on record, this Court finds that the continuation of proceedings against the applicant would be wholly unwarranted in law. It stands admitted on record that the applicant had lodged a stop- payment request with his banker on 12.07.2016 in respect of the cheques in question, much prior to the alleged date of issuance i.e. 05.12.2016. The bank’s contemporaneous report dated 15.07.2016 confirms that the stop-payment instructions had been acted upon and charges debited. In such circumstances, the subsequent presentation of the cheque in December 2016, resulting in dishonour on the ground of “insufficient funds,” cannot be treated as valid dishonour attracting the penal consequences of Section 138 NI Act.
This Court is of the considered opinion that allowing the proceedings to continue would amount to abuse of process of law. The complaint is suffers both on account of absence of a valid cause of action and failure to satisfy the essential ingredients of Section 138 NI Act - the criminal miscellaneous application under Section 482 Cr.P.C. deserves to be allowed.
The ratio of Raj Kumar Khurana v. State (NCT of Delhi), [2009 (5) TMI 533 - SUPREME COURT], squarely applies. Once the cheque had been rendered incapable of encashment before the alleged date of issue, there is in the eye of law no “issuance,” and therefore no offence under Section 138 can be said to be made out.
This Court also finds merit in the contention that the complaint is premature and not maintainable. The respondent alleged dispatch of statutory notice dated 20.12.2016, but no proof of service such as acknowledgment due card or postal receipt showing actual delivery has been brought on record. Even if the date of dispatch is accepted, the 15-day statutory period for making payment would have expired only after 03.02.2017, and cause of action would have arisen thereafter. However, the complaint was instituted on 16.01.2017, much prior to accrual of cause of action. The law laid down in Yogendra Pratap Singh v. Savitri Pandey, [2014 (9) TMI 1129 - SUPREME COURT], clearly holds that a complaint filed prior to expiry of the 15-day period is premature and liable to be dismissed. The present complaint, having been instituted before accrual of cause of action, is thus legally unsustainable.
The reliance placed by the respondent on presumptions under Section 139 NI Act is misconceived. The presumption arises only when a cheque is shown to have been issued in discharge of a legally enforceable debt or liability. In the present case, the admitted and undisputed fact of stop-payment prior to the alleged date of issuance, coupled with the absence of proof regarding service of statutory notice, negates the foundational requirements of Section 138. Consequently, the presumption under Section 139 cannot be invoked to the prejudice of the applicant.
The criminal miscellaneous application under Section 482 Cr.P.C. deserves to be allowed - Application allowed.
TaxTMI