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ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Violation of principles of natural justice - proper service of SCN or not - no proper SCN attached to the Summary of the SCN - SCN were issued prior to passing the Impugned Order under Section 73 (9) or not - impugned orders under Section 73 (9) of the State Act is in conformity with Section 75(4) of the State Act and is in consonance with the principles of natural justice or not.
HELD THAT:- The Proper Officer is mandated to issue a SCN only under specific circumstances as outlined in Section 73. Therefore, the SCN must clearly state the reasons and circumstances justifying its issuance under this section. Only then can the recipient effectively respond, particularly if they wish to challenge the applicability of Section 73. Section 73(9) requires the Proper Officer to determine the tax, interest, and penalty after considering the representation. Section 73(2) and 73(10) are interconnected, while Section 73(10) allows passing the order within three years from the due date of the annual return, Section 73(2) mandates that the SCN must be issued at least three months before the deadline. Furthermore, a combined reading of subsections (1) to (4) of Section 73 shows that the legislature has made a clear distinction between a Show Cause Notice and a Statement. Even if a Statement is issued under Section 73(3), a separate and proper SCN is still required.
In addition to the Show Cause Notice to be issued under Section 73 (1) and the Statement of determination of tax under Section 73 (3), there is an additional requirement of issuance of a Summary of the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02. The natural corollary from the above analysis is that the issuance of the Show Cause Notice and the Statement of determination of tax by the Proper Officer are mandatory requirement in addition to the Summary of Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02.
The Division Bench of the Hon’ble Jharkhand High Court in Nkas Services Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (2) TMI 1157 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] held that a summary in GST DRC-01 cannot replace a proper SCN. Similarly, in LC Infra Projects Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (8) TMI 84 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court emphasized that issuing a proper SCN is essential before the recovery of interest or penalty under the Act.
The Court holds that merely attaching a tax determination order to the summary in DRC-01 does not amount to valid initiation under Section 73. The summary is only supplementary to a full SCN. Thus, the impugned orders, having been passed without a proper SCN, are in violation of Section 73 and Rule 142(1)(a).
Whether the determination of tax as well as the order attached to the Summary to the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Order in GST DRC-07 can be said to be the Show Case Notice and Order respectively? - HELD THAT:- Section 73 mandates that the Proper Officer must issue the SCN, the Statement under Section 73(3), and the final Order under Section 73(9). As per Section 2(91), a Proper Officer is the Commissioner or someone entrusted by him. Therefore, unless these documents are duly authenticated by the Proper Officer, they fail to meet the statutory requirements and are rendered invalid and unenforceable. Section 73 of the Act requires that notices and order be issued by the Proper Officer but it does not prescribe the mode of authentication outside Chapter III of the Rules. Since no specific rule under Chapter XVIII (relating to Demand and Recovery) governs authentication, a regulatory gap exists. Given the critical importance of authentication by the Proper Officer, the Court held that, until proper rules or notifications are issued by the Board to address this gap, Rule 26(3), which requires digital or e-signature, must be applied by default. This ensures that any notice, statement or order issued under the Act maintains its legal validity and enforceability.
Whether the impugned orders under Section 73(9) conform to Section 75(4) of the State Act and is according to the principles of natural justice? - HELD THAT:- The Court observed that the Summary of the Show Cause Notice did not mention any date of hearing, leaving the relevant column blank. The petitioner was merely asked to submit a reply, without being offered a cleared opportunity for personal hearing.
Section 75(4) of both the Central and State GST Acts mandates that an opportunity of hearing must be granted when a written request is made by the person chargeable with tax or penalty, or when any adverse decision is contemplated against such person - Failing to provide a hearing renders the second part of Section 75(4) meaningless, and thus, passing an adverse order without a hearing in such circumstances violated both the statutory mandate and the principles of natural justice.
This Court, upon detailed analysis, hold that the Summary of the SCN issued in FORM GST DRC-01 does not substitute the proper SCN required under Section 73(1) of both the Central and State GST Acts. A formal and duly authenticated SCN is mandatorily required to initiate proceedings under Section 73. The Statement of tax determination under Section 73(3), which is attached to the summary in the present case cannot be treated as a valid SCN. Therefore, initiating proceedings solely based on such a statement is not in conformity with law.
The impugned order dated 29.04.2024 is interfered with and set aside. However, as it appears that the respondents have proceeded under the mistaken impression that attaching the determination of tax to the summary constitutes a valid Show Cause Notice, the Court grants them liberty to initiate de novo proceedings under Section 73, if considered appropriate - Petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Violation of principles of natural justice - proper service of SCN or not - no proper SCN attached to the Summary of the SCN - SCN were issued prior to passing the Impugned Order under Section 73 (9) or not - impugned orders under Section 73 (9) of the State Act is in conformity with Section 75(4) of the State Act and is in consonance with the principles of natural justice or not.
HELD THAT:- The Proper Officer is mandated to issue a SCN only under specific circumstances as outlined in Section 73. Therefore, the SCN must clearly state the reasons and circumstances justifying its issuance under this section. Only then can the recipient effectively respond, particularly if they wish to challenge the applicability of Section 73. Section 73(9) requires the Proper Officer to determine the tax, interest, and penalty after considering the representation. Section 73(2) and 73(10) are interconnected, while Section 73(10) allows passing the order within three years from the due date of the annual return, Section 73(2) mandates that the SCN must be issued at least three months before the deadline. Furthermore, a combined reading of subsections (1) to (4) of Section 73 shows that the legislature has made a clear distinction between a Show Cause Notice and a Statement. Even if a Statement is issued under Section 73(3), a separate and proper SCN is still required.
In addition to the Show Cause Notice to be issued under Section 73 (1) and the Statement of determination of tax under Section 73 (3), there is an additional requirement of issuance of a Summary of the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02. The natural corollary from the above analysis is that the issuance of the Show Cause Notice and the Statement of determination of tax by the Proper Officer are mandatory requirement in addition to the Summary of Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and Summary of the Statement in GST DRC-02.
The Division Bench of the Hon’ble Jharkhand High Court in Nkas Services Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (2) TMI 1157 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] held that a summary in GST DRC-01 cannot replace a proper SCN. Similarly, in LC Infra Projects Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (8) TMI 84 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court emphasized that issuing a proper SCN is essential before the recovery of interest or penalty under the Act.
The Court holds that merely attaching a tax determination order to the summary in DRC-01 does not amount to valid initiation under Section 73. The summary is only supplementary to a full SCN. Thus, the impugned orders, having been passed without a proper SCN, are in violation of Section 73 and Rule 142(1)(a).
Whether the determination of tax as well as the order attached to the Summary to the Show Cause Notice in GST DRC-01 and the Summary of the Order in GST DRC-07 can be said to be the Show Case Notice and Order respectively? - HELD THAT:- Section 73 mandates that the Proper Officer must issue the SCN, the Statement under Section 73(3), and the final Order under Section 73(9). As per Section 2(91), a Proper Officer is the Commissioner or someone entrusted by him. Therefore, unless these documents are duly authenticated by the Proper Officer, they fail to meet the statutory requirements and are rendered invalid and unenforceable. Section 73 of the Act requires that notices and order be issued by the Proper Officer but it does not prescribe the mode of authentication outside Chapter III of the Rules. Since no specific rule under Chapter XVIII (relating to Demand and Recovery) governs authentication, a regulatory gap exists. Given the critical importance of authentication by the Proper Officer, the Court held that, until proper rules or notifications are issued by the Board to address this gap, Rule 26(3), which requires digital or e-signature, must be applied by default. This ensures that any notice, statement or order issued under the Act maintains its legal validity and enforceability.
Whether the impugned orders under Section 73(9) conform to Section 75(4) of the State Act and is according to the principles of natural justice? - HELD THAT:- The Court observed that the Summary of the Show Cause Notice did not mention any date of hearing, leaving the relevant column blank. The petitioner was merely asked to submit a reply, without being offered a cleared opportunity for personal hearing.
Section 75(4) of both the Central and State GST Acts mandates that an opportunity of hearing must be granted when a written request is made by the person chargeable with tax or penalty, or when any adverse decision is contemplated against such person - Failing to provide a hearing renders the second part of Section 75(4) meaningless, and thus, passing an adverse order without a hearing in such circumstances violated both the statutory mandate and the principles of natural justice.
This Court, upon detailed analysis, hold that the Summary of the SCN issued in FORM GST DRC-01 does not substitute the proper SCN required under Section 73(1) of both the Central and State GST Acts. A formal and duly authenticated SCN is mandatorily required to initiate proceedings under Section 73. The Statement of tax determination under Section 73(3), which is attached to the summary in the present case cannot be treated as a valid SCN. Therefore, initiating proceedings solely based on such a statement is not in conformity with law.
The impugned order dated 28.12.2023 is interfered with and set aside. However, as it appears that the respondents have proceeded under the mistaken impression that attaching the determination of tax to the summary constitutes a valid Show Cause Notice, the Court grants them liberty to initiate de novo proceedings under Section 73, if considered appropriate - Petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Erroneous availment of input tax credit after the due date of filing of returns in form GSTR-3B for the tax periods in the financial year 2018-19 - Form GSTR-3B could not be filed within specified date under the statute - rejection of claim of ITC - HELD THAT:- Perusal of record shows that the petitioner has submitted an application for rectification of order-in-original dated 23.04.2024 (Annexure-1) on 14.02.2025 before the Superintendent, Central GST & Excise, Jajpur Range III. It appears that since the demand in order-in-original rests on the disallowance of input tax credit and the application for rectification, therefore, is required consideration taking cognizance of the above notification, circular coupled with the amendment of the GST Act. However, the same is subject to other conditions as is spelt out in such notification and circular.
Under such premises, it is felt expedient to indicate that the claim of the petitioner in the returns and denied in the order-in-original requires fresh consideration by the adjudicating authority in connection with the application for rectification subject to compliance of formalities/conditions stipulated contained in the provisions as inserted by virtue of the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 and Notification dated 08.10.2024 read with Circular dated 15.10.2024 - Since it is borne on record that the application for rectification is pending before the Superintendent, Central GST & Central Excise, Jajpur Range-III, this Court does not deem it fit and proper to delve into the merit of the matter and, therefore, directs the Authority concerned (opposite party No.2) to dispose of the application for rectification, stated to have been received on 14.02.2025, within a period of three weeks from the date of production of copy of this order in accordance with law by taking into consideration the decisions as cited by the learned counsel for the petitioner. Needless to say, the petitioner shall be given opportunity of personal hearing before taking decision on such application for rectification.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Disallowance of ITC - supplier did not discharge its tax liability by filing GSTR-3B returns - discrepancy in Form GSTR-3B vis-à-vis claim of ITC - HELD THAT:- It is manifest from perusal of order dated 25.02.2025 under Section 74 of the GST Act that on account of non- discharge of tax liability by the supplier for the supplies made to the petitioner-recipient during the months of August, September, October and November of 2019 by furnishing returns in GSTR-3B, the Assessing Authority has examined the documents produced before him and disallowed the claim of ITC and raised the impugned demand.
In the case of Bikash Panigrahi Vrs. The Commissioner Commercial Tax CT and Goods and Service Tax and others, [2025 (7) TMI 1248 - ORISSA HIGH COURT], this Court declined to entertain the writ petition, which was filed beyond the outer-limit specified under sub-section (4) of Section 107 of the GST Act - In the present matter, it is perceived that the petitioner has not approached this Court within the period specified under sub-section (1) of Section 107 of the GST Act; as a consequence of which, exercise of discretion to entertain the writ petition is not deemed warranted.
So far as disallowance of ITC on the premise that the supplier having not discharged its liability by furnishing statutory returns, the availment of ITC by the recipient whether is in conformity with statutory requirement could be subject-matter of examination and determination by the appellate authority on merits. To have clear-cut finding on this aspect the appellate authority is vested with the power to reappreciate evidence already adduced during the course of proceeding under Section 74 and/or to be adduced before him - In the instant case since the supplier is alleged not to have discharged its tax liability by furnishing returns with respect to transactions effected with the petitioner during August, September, October and November of 2019, the Assessing Authority having perused the books of accounts vis-à-vis documents furnished before him raised the demand on appreciation of evidence. Thus, to question the legality and propriety of such demand, proper course to challenge the order of demand is before the appellate forum subject to compliance, of course, inter alia provisions of sub-section (6).
In the present case, since the disputed questions of fact are involved, this Court is of the considered view that the appellate authority is the competent authority to deal with the facts as well as the law. The issues raised in the present case can very well be addressed to in appeal under Section 107 of the GST Act - This Court is, therefore, not inclined to exercise its discretionary extraordinary jurisdiction under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India. Accordingly, the writ petition stands dismissed. However, the petitioner is at liberty to avail the alternative remedy as available under the GST Act. It is made clear that for the purpose of writ petition, the facts are discussed and such facts as narrated above may not be treated as expression of opinion touching the merit of the matter.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Initiation of proceedings u/s 130 of the UPGST Act on finding ecess stock during survey - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that survey was conducted at the business premises of the petitioner on 28.1.2021. It is also not in dispute that excess stock was found, which triggered the initiation of the present proceedings against the petitioner. On various occasions, this Court has held that if excess stock is found, then proceedings under sections 73/74 of the GST Act should be pressed in service and not proceedings under section 130 of the SGST Act, read with rule 120 of the Rules framed under the Act.
This Court in S/s Dinesh Kumar Pradeep Kumar [2024 (8) TMI 71 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] has held that 'even if excess stock is found, the proceedings under section 130 of the UPGST Act cannot be initiated.'
The law is clear on the subject that the proceedings under section 130 of the GST Act cannot be put to service if excess stock is found at the time of survey.
The impugned order cannot be sustained in the eyes of law - petition allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of penalty u/s 129(3) of WBGST/CGST Act, 2017 - failure of the petitioners to re-validate the e-way bill within the period of 8 hrs - case of petitioner is that breakdown of the vehicle was caused and that the petitioner had no intention to commit any tax fraud - HELD THAT:- It is found that having regard to the Judgment delivered in the case of Asian Switchgear Private Limited (supra) and the Judgment delivered by this Court in the case of M/s. Maa Amba Builders & Anr. [2024 (5) TMI 363 - CALCUTTA HIGH COURT] ordinarily, when a defence is set up the concerned authorities are required to take note of such defence. Although in the instant case, the petitioner did not set on a defence at the time of seeking release, the petitioner did prefer an appeal from the order passed under Section 129(3) and had categorically pleaded that there had been breakdown of the vehicle in paragraph 6 of the statement of facts filed in connection with the appeal.
The appellate authority has brushed aside such contention by recording that the petitioners has failed to file any supporting documents. Having regard to the case made out by the petitioners in relation to breakdown and attempts made to repair the same enroute, by a mechanic ordinary, documents may not be available. Further taking note of the fact that there had been only 15 hrs. delay, having regard to the peculiar facts, considering the petitioners’ case that its vehicle had suffered a break down and there being no allegation or material on record to show that the petitioners were involved in wilful misconduct while transporting the goods, the penalty ought not to have been imposed. It is thus, proposed to and do hereby set aside the orders dated 27th December, 2023 passed under Section 129(3) of the said Act as also the appellate order dated 29th August, 2024 including the demand raised in GST APL 04. The petitioners having paid the penalty will be at liberty to apply for refund, which shall be considered by the authorities within two weeks from filing such application.
Petition disposed off.
The Supreme Court, through Hon'ble Justices B. V. Nagarathna and K.V. Viswanathan, dismissed the Special Leave Petition filed with a delay of 1130 days. Relying on the precedent set in the order dated 03.03.2025 in SLP (C) D.No.31561/2024 (Principal Commissioner Of Income Tax 2 Thane Vs. Zahira R. Khatun), the Court dismissed the petition "both on the ground of delay as well as on merits." All pending applications were disposed of accordingly.
Bogus purchases - bogus accommodation bills - hawala transactions from certain parties who were only providing accommodation sale bills - as decided by HC [2022 (2) TMI 1482 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] purchases cannot be rejected without disturbing the sales in case of a trader and additions limited to the extent of bringing the G.P. rate on purchases at the same rate of other genuine purchases - Delayed filling of SLP - HELD THAT:- There is a delay of 1130 days in filing the Special Leave Petition.
Following the order passed in Zahira R. Khatun [2025 (3) TMI 309 - SC ORDER] we dismiss this special leave petition both on the ground of delay as well as on merits.
Pending application(s) shall stand disposed o
The Supreme Court, through Hon'ble Justices Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha and Atul S. Chandurkar, dismissed the Special Leave Petition (SLP) relying on the precedent set in SLP (C) No. 26525 of 2018, "Pr. Commissioner of Income Tax Vadodara 1 vs. Petrofils Cooperative Limited through Director." The Court held that the issue in the present case is conclusively covered by that decision. Consequently, the SLP is dismissed, and all pending applications are disposed of.
Carry forward of unabsorbed depreciation - HELD THAT:- Issue involved in this case is covered by the decision of Petrofils Cooperative Limited through Director [2021 (3) TMI 1092 - SC ORDER]
The Special Leave Petition is, therefore, dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 -notice was issued u/s 143(2) - effect of wrong quoting of the provision - As per assessee no issue had escaped assessment for invoking Section 147 - Case was taken up for regular scrutiny. Accordingly, a notice was issued under Section 143(2) of the Act on 03.09.2004.
HELD THAT:- We find that in the assessment order, the provision of law is stated as, “143(3) / 147”. In the assessment order, the assessing officer had inadvertently not stated about the withdrawal of the notice issued under Section 148 and had proceeded to finalise the assessment.
CIT(A) erroneously proceeded on the basis that the assessment order was made u/s 147 of the Act and held that the power u/s 147 of the Act was wide enough to cover items, which had come to the knowledge of the assessing officer during the course of the assessment.
ITAT held that the parties proceeded on the basis that the assessment order was made u/s 143(3) of the Act and not u/s 147 of the Act and wrong quoting of the provision is curable under Section 292B of the Act.
From letter it is evident that the notice under Section 148 of the Act was withdrawn and the case was taken up for regular scrutiny. In fact, a notice was issued under Section 143(2) of the Act, on the very same day. It is not in dispute that the assessing officer had at the relevant point of time was empowered to take up the case for regular scrutiny as it was not beyond the time stipulated. The assessment order though had referred to Section 147 of the Act, the reading of it as a whole would indicate that it was an order under Section 143(3) of the Act.
Though the CIT(A) had erred in construing the order as one under Section 147/148 of the Act, the ITAT had rightly observed that the parties i.e., the assessee and the revenue had proceeded that it was an order under Section 143(3) of the Act.
It is well settled that wrong quoting of a provision or quoting a provision in addition to the right provision under which the order was passed would not invalidate any proceeding, if from an order of proceeding it is clear that it has been done in exercise of a power conferred under a particular provision.
In this case, we are convinced that the order was actually passed u/s 143(3) of the Act and the wrong quoting of Section 147 of the Act in the assessment order would not render the order as nullity. Section 292(b) of the Act, would certainly cover the mistakes of this kind.
Scope of the proceedings under Section 143(3) and Section 147 of the Act are not one and the same and the finding of the ITAT to the contra, cannot be justified. However, in the facts and circumstances, since we have found that it is an order under Section 143(3) of the Act, that would hardly make any difference in view of the final conclusion made by us. Accordingly, we answer the first two substantial questions of law, in favour of the revenue.
Computation of deduction available u/s 80-IA - treating the interest income under the head 'income from other sources' - HELD THAT:- No occasion to artificially bifurcate and dissect the interest income earned by the assessee in the present case in its ordinary course of business, so as to take it out of the ambit of deduction available to it under section 80-IA - The efforts on the part of the Revenue authorities to create such artificial compartments in the "business income" of the assessee, merely to reduce the quantum of deduction available to the assessee u/s 80-IA of which the eligibility of the assessee is not even in doubt, is nothing but a whimsical and the arbitrary view of the Revenue authorities and the same is opposed to common sense and business prudence of a common businessman - Decided in favour of the assessee.
Tribunal upholding that the interest income cannot be netted off against interest paid when in fact the interest income arises from the business of the assessee - Both assessee and the revenue submitted that this question of law also has to be answered in favour of the assessee, in view of the judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Shital Fibers Ltd. [2025 (5) TMI 1599 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] as held that deduction u/s 80HHC had to be given without reducing the deduction u/s 80IB.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Disallowance u/s 14A r/w Rule 8D - corresponding disallowance while computing book profit u/s 115JB -AO noted that the assessee had invested in instruments yielding exempt income - assessee had made a suo moto disallowance - CIT(A) deleted addition
HELD THAT:- Out of the total investment Rs. 13.08 crore shares were acquired from EBPL, which had recorded these shares at a nominal value of Rs. 27, having received them at nil consideration. The assessee, in turn, recorded these shares at a fair value of Rs. 1,466.60 crores post-amalgamation. It is not in dispute that neither EBPL nor the assessee incurred any interest-bearing expenditure for acquiring these shares.
Further, 9.62 crore shares were received by the assessee as gifts from various group concerns, which again involved no cost or borrowing. The remaining 1.42 crore shares were purchased by the assessee for Rs. 176.47 crores, financed entirely through interest-free loans received from Edison Continental Laboratories Pvt. Ltd. The ledger account of Edison, confirmations, and bank statements were duly placed on record in preceding years, substantiating that no interest-bearing funds were utilized for these acquisitions.
As from the financials of the assessee, it is evident that as on 31st March 2013, the assessee was in possession of substantial own funds, comprising share capital and reserves amounting to Rs. 95,100.08 lakhs, which far exceeded the value of investments at Rs. 17,647.78 lakhs. Therefore, it would be a fallacy to presume that any part of the investment in tax-free instruments was funded through interest-bearing borrowings.
CIT(A) has rightly relied upon the binding decisions of the Tribunal in the assessee’s own case for A.Ys. 2014–15 and 2015–16 [2023 (7) TMI 855 - ITAT MUMBAI] where the identical issue had arisen and was adjudicated in favour of the assessee.
ISSUES:
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RATIONALE:
Addition u/s 68/69A - additions to dissolved firm - credit transactions in bank account unexplained - HELD THAT:- The active operation of bank account post the purported dissolution proves continued existence of the firm for all intent and purpose. If business is carried on under the same PAN/bank account, the entity is liable to explain credits, even if it claims to have been dissolved. In the instant case, assessee failed to discharge the burden of proof by furnishing satisfactory explanation for credits.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of CIT vs. P. Mohankala [2007 (5) TMI 192 - SUPREME COURT] has held that if assessee fails to provide satisfactory explanation and supporting evidence for credits, addition u/s 68 of the Act is justified. Decided against assessee.
ISSUES:
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RATIONALE:
Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) - TDS u/s 195 - payments made by the appellant to its AE(s) for purchase of online advertisement on third party platforms after deeming them Fees for Technical services - HELD THAT:- These 15C as and 15CBs were filed for all transactions, be it from Japan or Singapore. No penal action was taken under TDS sections against the Assessee nor were any steps taken by the department to tax the amounts received by Microad Singapore entity.
The fact that online advertisements brought from abroad are not taxable under the provisions of the Income Tax act read with the relevant Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements is corroborated by introduction of Equalization Levy (popularly known as Google Tax) from April 1, 2016 as laid u/s 165 of the Finance Act 2016 (and not Income Tax Act) to tax such transactions explicitly.
Thus we find that the addition pertains to an amount on which there was a difference of opinion, and attributing concealment or inaccurate furnishing of facts, is not justified. The fact that the CIT(A) allowed a quantum of transactions itself proves that there is a difference of opinion between the AO, Assessee and the CIT(A) towards how to the aforesaid transactions ought to be treated from TDS perspective. The grounds are sustained and appeals is allowed.
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TP Adjustment - addition of notional interest in respect of the loans advanced by the assessee to its AE - HELD THAT:- Assessee had made substantial sales to Non- AE’s also from which the assessee has not charged any interest on receivables. It is settled position of law that if no interest has been charged from Non AEs then no adjustment qua outstanding receivables with AE can be made. Therefore, on this ground also no adjustment is called for.
International interest on outstanding receivables - TPO as well as CIT(A) are not justified in sustaining the addition of notional interest vis-à-vis outstanding receivables with AEs. There are so many judgments on this aspect wherein it has been held that when no interest has been charged from the non AEs on delayed payments then the Department cannot attribute any notional addition towards the outstanding with its AEs. This ground of appeal of the assessee for all the three years is allowed
Notional commission on corporate guarantee -Respectfully following the verdict in assessee’s own case i [2015 (7) TMI 147 - ITAT DELHI] we direct the AO to apply the rate of 1% vis-à-vis transaction of guarantee commission.
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Allowability of revenue expenditure - capitalization of project-related costs - Percentage of Completion Method (POCM) - Accounting Standards and Guidance Notes issued by ICAI - deduction under section 37 of the Income-tax Act - arbitrariness of adhoc disallowance
Allowability of revenue expenditure - capitalization of project-related costs - Percentage of Completion Method (POCM) - Accounting Standards and Guidance Notes issued by ICAI - arbitrariness of adhoc disallowance - Assessee entitled to deduction of revenue expenditures debited to profit and loss account and not allocated to project cost despite no revenue recognition under POCM; adhoc 90% disallowance set aside. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found that the assessee, a real estate developer, consistently applied the Percentage of Completion Method and the Guidance Note/AS7 in its accounting, segregating project costs (transferred to inventory) from other revenue expenditures charged to profit and loss. The genuineness and business nexus of the expenditures were not disputed by the revenue. The Assessing Officer made an arbitrary adhoc disallowance of 90% despite allowing 10%, treating all unrecognized project-related expenditure as required to be capitalized; the Tribunal held this approach unreasonable. Reliance on the Guidance Note and AS7, and the Supreme Court's recognition of accounting standards, supports treating costs in accordance with accounting treatment where books are not rejected under section 145(3). The assessee's consistent accounting practice, acceptance of similar treatment in other assessment years and completed assessments accepting the claim, further reinforced that the expenditures were wholly and exclusively for business and thus allowable. For these reasons the adhoc disallowance was held arbitrary and the claimed deduction allowed for AY 2012-13. [Paras 2, 5, 6, 7, 8]
Adhoc disallowance of 90% quashed; the revenue expenditures debited to profit and loss are allowable deduction for the year under appeal.
Final Conclusion: Appeal allowed; the adhoc disallowance is set aside and the claimed revenue expenditure is allowed as deduction for AY 2012-13.
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Disallowance u/s 36(1)(iii) - interest paid on loans advanced to subsidiary companies - Whether investments were made from interest free funds available with the assessee? - HELD THAT:- It is a case where the assessee was having own sufficient funds, more than the sum advanced by the assessee to its subsidiary. Further no material has been brought on record by the AO to show that the loans were not advanced on account of commercial expediency. Therefore, we are of the view that no disallowance u/s 36(1)(iii) can be made in this case.
Further our view is fortified by the judgment of Reliance Industries [2019 (1) TMI 757 - SUPREME COURT] wherein as held that where the assessee is having sufficient interest free funds then it can be presumed that investments were made from interest free funds available with the assessee.
So far as the reliance on the order of Abhishek Industires[2006 (8) TMI 123 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] we observe that in the case of Munjal Sales [2006 (10) TMI 89 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] has already reversed this judgment, and hence the contention of the Ld. DR is of no use.
Disallowance u/s 14A r.w. Rule 8D - whether 14A provisions can be invoked in a case where there is no exempt income? - HELD THAT:- As decided in Cheminvest Limited [2015 (9) TMI 238 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and GVK Project and Technical Services Ltd.[2019 (5) TMI 725 - SUPREME COURT] has held that 14A provisions cannot be applied in those case where there is no exempt income. Therefore, we direct the AO to decide this issue after verifying this fact as to whether there is any exempt income earned by the assessee in this year. We direct the AO not to make any disallowance u/s 14A in case the assessee is not having any exempt income. With these observations, this ground of appeal is allowed.
TP Adjustment - Addition of AMP expenses - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) has followed the observations of APA authority and then adopted a mid-way path. It is not a case where no addition has been sustained by the CIT(A) qua AMP expenses rather a case where the disallowance has been restricted to such figure which is arrived after applying the methodology propounded by APA authorities In this back drop we do not find any infirmity in the approach of the Ld. CIT(A) and, hence, this ground of the Revenue’s appeal is decided against the Revenue.
Payment of excess remuneration to the Directors - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- We observe that in this case, the Directors have been remunerated on the basis of approval granted by the Government of India, Ministry of Corporate Affairs vide its letter dated 16th March, 2010, this much before the culmination of the financial year, therefore, we do not find any reason to interfere with the findings of the CIT(A). CIT(A) is correct in deleting the addition.
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RATIONALE:
Disallowance of deduction made u/s 80IB - income derived from the excess provisions written back and late payment surcharges received having no direct nexus with the assessee's business activities of power generation - HELD THAT:- Respectfully, following the decisions of assessee’s own cases for AYs 2008-09 to 2015-16 [2015 (6) TMI 385 - ITAT DELHI] we hereby do not find any infirmity in the finding of the CIT(A) on the core issue of the claim of deduction u/s 80IA of the Act on the income derived from the excess provisions written back and the late payment surcharges on debtors. Hence, we decline to interfere with the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) on this score. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the assessee was entitled to additional depreciation under section 32(1)(iia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, where the claim was omitted from the return and the plant and machinery had been used for less than 180 days.
Analysis: The assessee had claimed depreciation at 15% on new plant and machinery used for less than 180 days, whereas only 7.5% was allowable for the period of use. The omission to claim additional depreciation was found to be a bona fide mistake, and there was no ineligibility attached to the claim. In this setting, the provision for depreciation was treated as admissible despite the omission in the return.
Conclusion: The assessee's claim for additional depreciation was accepted and the disallowance was deleted.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded and the assessee obtained full relief on the depreciation issue.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the assessee is otherwise eligible, additional depreciation under section 32(1)(iia) may be allowed notwithstanding its omission in the return, and a bona fide mistake in the depreciation claim does not by itself defeat the allowance.
Difference in income under the head business and profession as against shown in the return of income filed primary reason for the variation was disallowance of excess depreciation - assessee had claimed depreciation at 15% on plant and machinery put to use for less than 180 days during the previous year - HELD THAT:-We find that the assessee claimed depreciation at 15% on new plant and machinery that was used for less than 180 days. As per the law, only 7.5% depreciation is allowed in such cases. The assessee admitted this as a bonafide mistake. Hence, keeping in view the fact that there is no ineligibility to the assessee, we hold that additional depreciation shall be allowed.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
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Validity of reassessment order u/s 147 - no valid notice u/s 143(2) was served before finalization of the reassessment order - HELD THAT:- We find that, in the present case, the Revenue has failed to produce any evidence to establish that notice u/s 143(2) dated 11.07.2018 was served upon the assessee. It is also a fact on record that no such notice is available either on the ITBA or the e-filing portal, and even the requests made by the assessee in this regard remained unanswered.
Therefore, in view of the binding precedents of SUKHINI P. MODI [2014 (11) TMI 50 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] and M/S. HOTEL BLUE MOON [2010 (2) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT] held non-issuance and non-service of notice u/s 143(2) renders the reassessment order null and void - Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
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Reassessment u/s 147 by applying the old provisions of the Act i.e as it stood upto 31.3.2021 - HELD THAT:- Notice u/s 148 of the Act dated 31-3-2021 was despatched to the assessee by email on 1-4-2021 at 7.20 AM and the reassessment was framed under the old provisions of Section 147 and 148 of the Act by AO. T
As in the case of Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] had clearly clarified that once a notice under Section 148 of the Act is issued on or after 1-4-2021, the only recourse available to the AO is to frame the re-assessment in accordance with the amended provisions and procedures laid down in Section 148A of the Act.
In the instant case, the reassessment has been framed under the old provisions of the Act by AO on 28-3-2022.
Respectively following the aforesaid decision of Rajeev Chopra[2025 (6) TMI 83 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] we have no hesitation to quash the reassessment order dated 28-3-2022 as bad in law and void ab initio. Appeals of the assessee are allowed.
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Addition u/s. 68 - unsecured loan received treated as unexplained cash credit - CIT(A) deleted addition - HELD THAT:- We note that the said loan was repaid by the assessee partly in the financial year 2015-2016 and partly in the financial year 2016-2017. We also note that the said loan was advanced by the lender out of the maturity from the FDRs as apparent from the copy of the bank statements filed before us in the paper book, which is also extracted by the CIT(A) in the appellate order. Therefore, we do not find any anomaly or infirmity in the order of the ld.CIT(A).
The argument presented by the ld. CIT-DR is devoid of merit that the loan was received from shell company which is not having any purchase and sales or the fixed assets. We have examined the audited accounts filed before us of M/s Juhi Advisory Pvt. Ltd. and find that the assessee is an operational company and having fixed assets including land.
Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in the case of Ambe Tradecorp (P.) Ltd., [2022 (7) TMI 902 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] has held that where the loan was repaid in the current or subsequent years no addition could be made u/s. 68 - Assessee appeal allowed.
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Denial of FTC - delay in filing Form-67 - HELD THAT:-Claim of FTC cannot be denied merely on the ground of delay in filing Form-67 without considering the fact that the assessee has filed the revised return declaring the salary earned in US and along with the revised return also claimed the FTC as paid in the US on the salary income. Further, to remove this anomaly, Rule 128(9) of I.T Rules has been amended w.e.f 1/4/2022 whereby the statement in Form 67 is allowed to be furnished on or before the end of the A.Y relevant to the previous year in which such foreign income has been offered to tax and the return of income has been furnished within the specified time provided u/s 139(1) or (4) of the Act - Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
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Anticipatory bail - concurrent territorial jurisdiction - compounding under Section 137(3) of the Customs Act, 1962 - effect of pending compounding application - conditional anticipatory bail - safeguards during interrogation (advocate visible but not audible; videography) - no tampering / non-interference with evidence or witnesses
Anticipatory bail - concurrent territorial jurisdiction - forum convenience - High Court maintainability to entertain anticipatory bail despite availability of Sessions Court remedies - HELD THAT: - The Court held that, given the peculiar and complex territorial facts - declarations mainly at Nhava-Sheva (District Raigad) with related proceedings in Mumbai and questions as to the proper Sessions Court - it was not mandatory for the applicants to first approach the Sessions Court. The High Court, having concurrent territorial jurisdiction over the districts concerned, was competent to be approached in the circumstances without the applicants being required to risk their liberty by litigating territorial competence before a Sessions Court. The Court rejected the preliminary contention that the petition was not maintainable on that ground and treated the plea as properly before it. [Paras 9]
High Court entertained the anticipatory bail application notwithstanding the availability of Sessions Court fora.
Compounding under Section 137(3) of the Customs Act, 1962 - effect of pending compounding application - Legal significance of the applicants' pending compounding application filed during the investigation - HELD THAT: - The Court recognised that a compounding application under the statutory scheme may be filed at any stage, including during investigation, and that pendency of such an application is relevant though not automatically determinative for grant of bail. Noting that an ex parte rejection of the compounding application had been set aside by the Tribunal and the application restored, and having regard to precedent recognising the admissibility of compounding during investigation, the Court found the applicants' willingness to compound and their affidavits undertaking compliance to be a material consideration in the overall balance of convenience and liberty. [Paras 12, 16, 17]
The pendency and restoration of the compounding application was held to be a material factor favouring relief, though not an absolute ground for bail.
Conditional anticipatory bail - safeguards during interrogation (advocate visible but not audible; videography) - no tampering / non-interference with evidence or witnesses - Grant of anticipatory bail on specified conditions including bond, deposit, cooperation, counsel presence and prohibitions - HELD THAT: - Weighing the totality of circumstances - documentary nature of evidence, completion of search and seizure, absence of prior convictions, the applicants' undertaking to compound and cooperate, and concern to protect investigation integrity - the Court found it appropriate to grant protection against arrest subject to conditions. The conditions include execution of PR bonds with sureties, reporting and cooperation with investigation, presence of advocate at a visible but not audible distance during recording of statements with videography, a prohibition against tampering or influencing witnesses, and a directed joint deposit as an interim measure to allay revenue recovery concerns. These measures were imposed as reasonable safeguards balancing liberty and investigatory interests. [Paras 14, 15, 18]
Anticipatory bail granted on conditions: PR bonds and sureties, cooperation and reporting, advocate visible but not audible with videography, prohibition on tampering, and joint deposit within specified time.
Final Conclusion: The High Court allowed the anticipatory bail application, holding the High Court maintainable to hear the petition, treating the pending and restored compounding application as a relevant factor, and granting protection subject to specified conditions including bonds, cooperation, safeguards during interrogation, prohibition on tampering, and an interim deposit.
Issues: (i) Whether the dispute arising from the sub-lease arrangement within the Special Economic Zone was non-arbitrable and outside the scope of arbitration; (ii) Whether the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, by virtue of its overriding provisions, excluded the operation of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965; (iii) Whether the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 provided the applicable eviction framework.
Issue (i): Whether the dispute arising from the sub-lease arrangement within the Special Economic Zone was non-arbitrable and outside the scope of arbitration.
Analysis: The dispute was not treated as a pure landlord-tenant dispute divorced from the statutory SEZ framework. The tenancy was held to be incidental to the petitioner's status as an entrepreneur under the SEZ regime, and the rent dispute was linked to the larger statutory relationship between developer and entrepreneur. In that setting, the statutory arbitration mechanism under the SEZ Act governed the dispute and the rent control forum was not the proper forum for its adjudication.
Conclusion: The dispute was held to be arbitrable under the SEZ framework and not exclusively triable under rent control law.
Issue (ii): Whether the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, by virtue of its overriding provisions, excluded the operation of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965.
Analysis: The SEZ Act and the KBLR Act were found to operate in different fields. The SEZ enactment was treated as governing the developer-entrepreneur relationship within the zone, while the rent control statute governed landlord-tenant rights in ordinary cases. Since the tenancy in question was incidental to the SEZ relationship and the SEZ framework did not contain a rent-control style eviction scheme, the Court held that the SEZ Act prevailed in the facts of the case and the rent control remedy was unavailable.
Conclusion: The KBLR Act was held not to govern the dispute, and the rent control petition was not maintainable.
Issue (iii): Whether the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 provided the applicable eviction framework.
Analysis: The premises were held not to answer the statutory description of public premises on the facts placed before the Court. The record showed a private SEZ structure with the Government holding only a minority share, and the occupation had not yet become unauthorised in the manner required by the Public Premises Act. The Court therefore rejected the contention that eviction had to proceed under that enactment at the present stage.
Conclusion: The Public Premises Act was held inapplicable on the facts as pleaded and proved.
Final Conclusion: The rent control order was set aside and the eviction petition was held not maintainable in the form in which it was brought, leaving the parties to the statutory route applicable to the SEZ framework.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a tenancy is merely incidental to a statutory developer-entrepreneur relationship within a Special Economic Zone, and the governing statute prescribes a separate dispute-resolution structure, the rent control jurisdiction does not survive to the extent inconsistent with that special statutory scheme.
Seeking to evict the petitioner firm under Section 11 (2) (a) and (b) of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965 - interplay between the provisions of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and the provisions of the KBLR Act - remedy of eviction of a defaulter tenant, available to a landlord under the KBLR Act - Arbitrability of the dispute - overriding provisions of the SEZ Act, and the dispute resolution mechanisms over the provisions of the KBLR Act or not.
Arbitrability of the dispute - whether the dispute between the parties is one that is inherently non-arbitrable? - HELD THAT:- Under Section 42 of the SEZ Act, in the absence of any designated court under Section 23 to try the dispute, the dispute between an entrepreneur and a developer in the SEZ has to be referred to arbitration and decided by the arbitrator to be appointed by the Central Government. In other words, for an entrepreneur and developer, whose activities are regulated by the SEZ Act, arbitration is not an optional alternative to a statutorily prescribed adjudication mechanism; it is the sole adjudication mechanism mandated by the statute. It is against the backdrop of the said statutory scheme, therefore, it is required to examine whether the dispute between the entrepreneur and the developer in the instant case is inherently non-arbitrable for any other reason.
The landlord-tenant disputes covered and governed by rent control legislations would not be arbitrable because a specific court or forum has been given exclusive jurisdiction to apply and decide special rights and obligations. However, the observations have to be read in the context in which they were made. Not all tenancies are covered and governed by rent control legislations and it is only those ‘pure tenancy’ agreements, wherein the creation of the tenancy is the sole purpose of the agreement and brings into existence the landlord-tenant relationship between the parties, that can be seen as covered and governed by rent control legislations and therefore non-arbitrable. There may be myriad circumstances where a notional landlord-tenant relationship comes into existence as incidental to the main relationship between the parties, as in the instant case where it was only because the petitioner firm qualified to be an entrepreneur that it had to, and could, enter into a lease agreement with the developer for the premises in question. In such cases, there is no creation of special rights and obligations in respect of the tenancy. There were only special rights and privileges made available to the petitioner firm when it satisfied the eligibility conditions for qualifying as an entrepreneur under the SEZ Act - the permission given to the petitioner to occupy the premises was only a privilege accorded to the petitioner for so long as it continued to be an ‘entrepreneur’, which privilege could be withdrawn at any time if it committed a breach of any statutory condition or obligation under the SEZ Act and Rules. The ‘tenancy’ that came into being was thus not covered and governed by any rent control legislation but was rather one that arose as incidental to the petitioner’s status as an entrepreneur and governed by the provisions of the SEZ Act and Rules. Axiomatically, the dispute regarding payment of rent and other charges, had also to be seen as stemming from the relationship of entrepreneur and developer, and hence, to be adjudicated through the statutory arbitration as mandated by Section 42 of the SEZ Act.
Interplay between the SEZ Act and the KBLR Act - whether the provisions of the SEZ Act, and the dispute resolution mechanisms envisaged thereunder, would override and exclude the provisions of the KBLR Act? - HELD THAT:- As for the interplay between the provisions of the SEZ Act and the KBLR Act, the former is a central legislation traceable to Entry 41 of List I of the VIIth Schedule to the Constitution of India whereas the latter is a State legislation traceable to Entry 18 of List II therein. There can therefore be no repugnancy as envisaged under the Constitution of India between the provisions of the two statutes unless they cover the same field. In that context, it is trite that if the dominant intention of the two statutes is different and they cover different subject matters, then merely because the two statutes refer to some allied or cognate subjects, they cannot be seen as covering the same field - The doctrine of pith and substance mandates that, if on a scrutiny of the statute in question, it is found that the statute is in substance on a matter assigned to the legislature enacting the statute, then that statute as a whole must be held to be valid notwithstanding any incidental encroachment upon matters beyond its competence. On the facts of the instant case, we would think that since the tenancy in question was merely incidental to the primary relationship of the parties as developer and entrepreneur under the SEZ Act, an adjudication of rent arrear disputes between the parties that fall within the scope of that Act, would have to be in accordance with the provisions of that Act. This is because even if one statute partially covers an area occupied by another statute, albeit in a different context and to achieve a different purpose, it cannot be seen as a repugnancy, and the attempt of a Court must be to see whether there is room or possibility for both enactments to apply. In fact, it is only if there is no such room or possibility that a repugnancy will arise.
The Smart City Kochi Masterplan, as available in the respondent’s website, and an extract of which is produced by the appellants as Ext.P28, describes the SEZ as an Industrial Township and this description also finds mention in Ext.P11 sub-lease deed entered into between the appellant and the respondent, where the latter is referred to as the “Township authority”. The above aspects assume significance because Section 17 of the 1999 Act clearly states that the KBLR Act, 1965 shall not apply to any premises belonging to the Industrial Township authority under Section 15 of the 1999 Act. It is clear therefore that under the scheme of SEZ’s as regulated by the SEZ Act and the allied State legislations, leased premises within the SEZ are not covered or governed by the KBLR Act, 1965.
The remedy chosen by the respondent to evict the petitioner firm was not one that was available to it in law. As per the scheme of the SEZ Act, the dispute regarding non-payment of arrears of rent and other charges has to be seen as integral to the larger issue of whether the petitioner firm is entitled to continue in the SEZ as an ‘entrepreneur.’ Accordingly, its entering into a tenancy agreement with the developer has to be seen as one of the conditions for the grant of the letter of approval to the petitioner firm, a breach of the terms of which agreement would have a bearing on the approval granted to the petitioner firm, and could possibly entail a cancellation thereof. On such cancellation, the petitioner firm would be considered as an ‘unauthorised occupant’ of the premises within the SEZ, which would answer the description of public premises under the PPEUO Act owing to the lands in question being vested in the Central Government for administrative purposes, and the developer could then proceed to evict it in accordance with the provisions of the PPEUO Act.
The impugned order is set aside - petition allowed.
Outcome: The appeals were disposed of on the basis of the monetary limit prescribed in the CBIC instructions dated 2 November 2023, and the questions of law were left open.
Maintainability of appeal - monetary limit involved in the appeal - reliance placed on Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs instructions dated 2 November 2023 - HELD THAT:- Clause 2 of the instructions dated 2 November 2023 states that adverse judgments related to amounts, aside from classification and refund issues, which are of a legal and/or recurring nature, should be challenged. However, in the current appeals, there are no refund issues as contemplated under the instructions dated 2 November 2023. The instructions refer to typical refund issues or those arising from the resolution of classification issues in any assessment. Such issues could have broad implications, far beyond the individual assessee’s case. But the instruction would not include cases or situations where the penalty imposed on an individual assessee is quashed, with or without specific directions for refunding the quashed penalty amount.
Therefore, these appeals are impacted by instructions dated 2 November 2023 and will have to be disposed of on the grounds of the monetary benefits coupled with a policy of the appellants not to pursue such appeals.
Appeal disposed off.
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Condonation of delay in filing appeal - Dismissal of Petitioner’s appeal on the grounds that it was filed after the 60-day limitation period - no sufficient cause was demonstrated - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the Order-in-Original was communicated to the Petitioner on 29 December 2022. After excluding this date, the appeal filed on 29 March 2023 could be said to have been filed on the 90th day, i.e. within the delay condonable period of 30 days from the expiry of the first 60 days.
The Petitioner should have filed a formal application for condonation of delay showing sufficient cause. However, the Petitioner has explained in the petition that his Advocate was not keeping good health and, therefore, had instructed the junior advocate to file the appeal before the Appellate Authority. The junior advocate failed to file the application for condonation of delay. Paragraph 18 of the petition also states that no correspondence or notice was sent to the Petitioner about the defective filing due to the non-filing of the application for condonation of delay.
Thus, it is not correct to say that even in this petition, there was no explanation offered for the 30-day delay in filing the appeal. Such an explanation should have been offered before the Appellate Authority. However, the Petitioner has explained the circumstances in which no such application was filed before the Appellate Authority. There is no reason to doubt the statement about the ill-health of the Petitioner’s Advocate or that the matter was entrusted to a junior lawyer to file the appeal. The Petitioner has gained nothing by not filing the formal application after having entrusted the case papers to his advocate.
It is recorded that this order has been made in exceptional circumstances. Normally, even after setting aside the order, Petitioner is granted an opportunity to file an application for condonation of delay and then directed the Appellate Authority to dispose of the same. However, in this case, considering that the delay was 30 days and the explanation offered was sufficient, this order is made to expedite the proceedings and avoid duplication.
Petition disposed off.
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Smuggling of Gold - no reason to suspect or even prima facie conclude that the Petitioner was attempting to or intending to smuggle this gold into India - applicability of Customs Notification dated 30 June 2017 - HELD THAT:- It is not willing to broaden the scope of this petition by granting any permission to challenge the show-cause notice issued. However, even if such permission were granted, there would be no question of interfering with the show-cause notice, which is mainly based on factual allegations that require adjudication.
The customs authorities raised some suspicion based on the Petitioner’s conduct. The affidavit refers to the earlier three instances and the fact that the Petitioner was carrying a commercial quantity of gold, i.e. 3.696 kilograms. The Petitioner’s conduct of always coming to India with gold and seeking leave to reexport some, coupled with the fact that the quantity of gold was also not small, raised such suspicion. The customs authorities have also relied on the Notification of 30 June 2017. The precise scope of such Notification is a matter which can be investigated in the show-cause notice proceedings. However, based on the circumstances outlined in the affidavit-in-reply, it cannot be agreed that this was not a case where any suspicion could have been raised against the Petitioner, warranting further investigation. The gold was seized pending such investigations.
The show cause notice will have to be adjudicated and disposed of on its own merits and after considering the cause shown by the Petitioner on merits. None of the observations in this judgment and order need to influence the decision on the show cause notice. The observations are only prima facie and in the context of deciding whether discretionary jurisdiction to be exercised in this matter and interdict any further proceedings. The observations are not a reflection of the merits or demerits of the rival contentions on behalf of the parties to these proceedings.
Petition disposed off.
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Levy of interest on the MEIS scrips surrendered by the petitioner - Section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962 - HELD THAT:- Section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962 makes it clear that only in cases, where the person, who is labile to pay duty in accordance with the provisions of Section 28, shall in addition to such duty, be liable to pay interest, if any. The case of the petitioner will not fall under Section 28 or Section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962. In the case on hand, the petitioner has surrendered the MEIS scrips with the respondents and it is not a case involving duties not levied, or not paid or short levied or short paid or erroneously refunded. Only in those cases, Section 28AA of the Customs Act gets attracted.
As seen from the provisions of the Customs Act, the levy of interest on account of surrendering the un-utilized MEIS scrips is not specifically provided. Though the petitioner may have paid interest earlier for certain shipments on account of surrendering the MEIS scrips, the learned counsel for the petitioner has clarified to this Court that the said interest was paid since the amounts were negligible. But the petitioner has never agreed that they are liable to pay interest, on account of surrender of un-utilized MEIS scrips.
By total non-application of mind to the fact that Section 28AA does not get attracted for the cases where an eligible exporter has surrendered the un-utilized MEIS scrips, the impugned demand has been issued, calling upon the petitioner to pay interest on account of the surrender of the MEIS scrips. The public notice dated 03.07.2018, based on which the impugned demand has been made also does not stipulate payment of interest for surrendering of the un-utilized MEIS scrips - it is clear that the respondents cannot claim interest on the petitioner for the un-utilized MEIS scrips surrendered by the petitioner.
The impugned letters of demand issued by the 6th respondent dated 27.11.2019 and 12.03.2021 are hereby quashed and this Writ Petition is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether refusal of cross-examination of co-noticees vitiated the adjudication on the ground of breach of natural justice. (ii) Whether liability under Section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained without a clear finding that the petitioner knowingly participated in or abetted the misdeclaration of goods.
Issue (i): Whether refusal of cross-examination of co-noticees vitiated the adjudication on the ground of breach of natural justice.
Analysis: The petitioner sought cross-examination long after filing a response to the show cause notice and gave no reason why such cross-examination was necessary. Multiple opportunities of personal hearing were granted, but the petitioner did not participate in the adjudication. On these facts, the refusal to permit cross-examination did not cause any failure of justice and did not amount to violation of natural justice.
Conclusion: The issue was decided against the petitioner.
Issue (ii): Whether liability under Section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained without a clear finding that the petitioner knowingly participated in or abetted the misdeclaration of goods.
Analysis: Penalty under Section 112(a) requires an act or omission rendering the goods liable to confiscation, or abetment with the requisite knowledge or intentional involvement. Mere use of expressions such as abetment or instrumental role is insufficient unless the adjudicating authority records a clear finding that the person was involved with knowledge of the misdeclaration. As no such clear finding was made against the petitioner, the penalty order could not stand.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the petitioner.
Final Conclusion: The challenge failed on the natural justice point, but the penalty finding was set aside for want of a proper basis on knowledge and abetment, and the matter was sent back for fresh adjudication against the petitioner on the existing record.
Ratio Decidendi: A penalty for abetment of customs misdeclaration cannot be sustained unless the adjudicating authority records a clear finding of knowing and intentional involvement; mere reference to abetment without such a finding is insufficient.
Violation of principles of natural justice - procedural irregularity - failure on the part of the adjudicating authority to afford the petitioner with an opportunity to cross-examine the co-noticees and the failure on the part of the adjudicating authority to make out a case within the meaning of Section 112(a) of the said Act against the petitioner - HELD THAT:- It is found that the petitioner had duly responded to the show cause notice by response letter dated 2nd May, 2024. The request for cross-examination was made 5 months thereafter, by a communication in writing dated 21st October, 2024. No reason as to why the petitioner intended to cross-examine the co-noticees had been disclosed. The petitioner had not participated in the proceeding apart from filing the response and issuing the letters. Having regard thereto, it is found that the authorities did not commit any irregularity in refusing the petitioner to cross-examine the co-noticees. In fact, the adjudicating authority vide its order dated 29th/30th May 2024 had categorically noted that the petitioner had made a request for cross-examination without giving any suitable reason as to why he required such cross-examination, and had accordingly refused the same.
It is also noticed that repeated opportunity of personal hearing was afforded to the petitioner. First of such opportunity of personal hearing was afforded on 29th October 2024, second opportunity of personal hearing was afforded on 19th November 2024, third opportunity was afforded on 20th January 2025 and the fourth opportunity of personal hearing was afforded on 19th May 2025. But on none of the aforesaid occasions the petitioner chose to appear. In fact, the petitioner did not participate in the proceeding. Having regard thereto, there has been no failure of justice on the ground of violation of principle of natural justice.
Admittedly, in this case it is found that although, diverse materials have been considered, there appears to be no finding by the adjudicating officer so as to implicate the petitioner of having involved with the notice and knowledge that the goods in question had been mis-declared. It is true that the adjudicating authority had returned the finding that the petitioner played an instrumental role in abetting smuggling. However, mere use of the word abetment or abetting smuggling, would not suffice unless a clear finding implicating the petitioner to have committed the act of omission or commission with the knowledge of the goods being mis-declared is rendered. Unless the petitioner is implicated as having knowledge of the misdeclaration, the above section cannot apply.
The direction of holding the petitioner liable under section 112(a) of the said Act is perverse and is not sustainable. Accordingly the order to that extent is interfered with - Petition dipsosed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
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Admissibility of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act - mandatory procedure under section 138B of the Customs Act - requirement of examination as witness and opportunity of crossexamination before adjudicating authority - use of statements as substantive evidence - penalty under section 114 of the Customs Act read with section 13 of FEMA
Admissibility of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act - mandatory procedure under section 138B of the Customs Act - requirement of examination as witness and opportunity of crossexamination before adjudicating authority - use of statements as substantive evidence - Statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act could not be relied upon by the Commissioner in imposing penalty because the procedure under section 138B was not complied with. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the statutory scheme and authorities treating section 108 statements and section 138B together and held that statements recorded during inquiry are relevant to prove the facts contained therein only after the person who made the statement is examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms the opinion that the statement should be admitted in evidence. An opportunity of crossexamination must then be afforded. The safeguard in section 138B is mandatory because statements recorded during inquiry may have been made under compulsion; failure to follow the procedure precludes reliance on such statements as substantive evidence. The impugned order rested solely on the statements of third parties recorded under section 108, without complying with the section 138B procedure; reliance on those statements was therefore impermissible. [Paras 4, 8, 11]
The Commissioner could not lawfully rely on the section 108 statements in the absence of compliance with section 138B, and the penalty imposed on the appellant cannot be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The penalty of Rs. 1 crore imposed on the appellant under section 114 of the Customs Act read with section 13 of FEMA is set aside because the impugned order relied solely on statements recorded under section 108 without complying with the mandatory procedure in section 138B; the appeal is allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Valuation of imported goods - determination on the basis of a value appearing in an unsigned contract by rejecting the declared value - rejection of declared value - whether the declared invoice value should be accepted as the transaction value under Customs Valuation (Determination of value of imported goods) Rules, 2007? - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- It is found that a copy of the draft contract which was reportedly retrieved from the Appellant’s computer on the date of search i.e., 21.04.2011 and which was signed by the Appellant on 14 pages. The Authority has relied upon this unsigned draft contract copy for redetermination of the value. Though the Appellant has repeatedly pleaded for supply of a copy of the contract, this was not given to submit his defense. Events in this appeal further indicate that the Bill of Entry No. 3174066 dated 11.04.2011 was filed by the Appellant and his office-cum-residential premises was searched on 21.04.2011 where his statement was also recorded. After the search, the Appellant came forward to pay the differential duty as computed by SIIB officers vide his Letter dated 25.01.2011 and asked for adjudication without issuance of Show Cause Notice and waived even personal hearing.
Finally, the Show Cause Notice was issued on 01.06.2011 which was adjudicated on 10.09.2011. We find that the Appellant was not supplied with the unsigned contract copy on which redetermination of value was based, and the Original Adjudicating Authority has travelled beyond the Show Cause Notice issued by relying on Bill of Entry No. 796051 dated 03.03.2011 for similar goods but no detailed examination was done as to how this can be adopted as contemporaneous value. The procedure mandated for redetermination of transaction value under the Customs Valuation (Determination of value of imported goods) Rules, 2007 was not adhered to. Due to non-observance of the principles of natural justice it is adequate enough to set aside the impugned Order-in-Appeal C.Cus.II No. 346/2015 dated 30.03.2015.
Further, as the Adjudicating Authority has travelled beyond the show cause notice by referring to a contemporaneous import, the rejection of declared value based on such contemporaneous import is set aside. Therefore, it is not deemed necessary to discuss the rival contentions regarding the identical / comparable nature of the contemporaneous import relied upon by the adjudicating authority to reject the declared value. As there was no ground found for enhancement of the transaction value of imported goods, confiscation and imposition of penalties cannot be sustained and so, ordered to be set aside.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the declared value of the imported PVC flex sheets could be rejected on the basis of the department's evidence and the retracted letter of admission, and whether the allegation of undervaluation was sustainable.
Analysis: The department relied on a letter dated 15.02.2008 said to contain an admission of undervaluation, but that letter was retracted within a few days on the ground of pressure and duress. Such a retracted statement could not, by itself, sustain the charge of undervaluation. The department also relied on test results and on import data obtained from searches at the premises of other importers. However, the evidence did not establish that the supplier was the same, that the goods were identical or similar, or that the comparative imports were contemporaneous and commercially comparable. The valuation exercise was therefore based on assumptions rather than proven comparables, and the burden of proving undervaluation, which lay on the revenue, was not discharged.
Conclusion: The rejection of the declared value was unsustainable, the charge of undervaluation failed, and the consequential confiscation, differential duty, interest, and penalties could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded, and the impugned findings on valuation and consequential duty and penal liability were set aside in favour of the appellant.
Ratio Decidendi: Declared import value cannot be rejected unless the revenue proves, with reliable and comparable evidence, that the apparent transaction value is not the real value; a retracted statement under duress and unverified third-party import data are insufficient to discharge that burden.
Mis-declaration of value of PVC Flex Sheets imported - under-valuation of imported goods - amissible evidences or not - extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The department however has come up with a proposition that PVC flex sheets are to be valued on per sqm basis. This is based on the evidences recovered by the DRI officers during search of the premises of other importers. They also relied on the CRCL test report dated 21.11.2007 in respect of 10 samples drawn on 12.09.2007 from the premises of the appellant. In this test report, it is found that GSM of all 10 samples are different ranging from 306 to 629.8. The appellant had questioned the sampling process saying that only 10 samples have been taken out of 540 rolls and, therefore, the test report does not give any idea about GSM wise quantity of PVC flex sheets/ rolls. In addition, it is found that no such data of GSM wise import is available for the earlier consignments. On the basis of various evidences, the department has tabulated actual rates of PVC flex sheets of different GSM imported from China. Except for a quantity of 2.519 MT imported under bill of entry No. 197326 dated 25.06.2007, which is taken of 600 GSM with value @ 0.70 USD per sqm, the rest quantity under this bill of entry as well as of earlier consignments imported by the appellant has been assumed to be of 320 GSM and rate of 0.40 USD per sqm has been applied.
The evidences relied upon by the department in this case for alleging undervaluation by the appellant are not admissible as neither supplier of the goods is same nor similarity or identical nature of the goods has been established by the department. Reliance on the party’s letter dated 15.02.2008 which later on, was retracted on 20.02.2008 is also not sustainable as the same has been obtained under duress - the department has not been able to sustain its charges of undervaluation against the appellant.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Refund claim - furnishing of bank guarantee for provisional release of goods and encashed during the pendency of appeal - Applicability of limitation as prescribed u/s 27 of the Customs Act, 1962 for the refund of bank guarantee furnished by the appellant - section 27 (1B) of Customs Act, 1962 - HELD THAT:- Hon’ble Nine Judges’ Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, in the matter of Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India [1996 (12) TMI 50 - SUPREME COURT] while interpreting Section 27 of the Customs Act, 1962 and also few other provisions, has laid down that Section 27 ibid cannot be construed as a device enabling the state to unjustly retain amount not legally due.
In a similar matter where the revenue encashed the bank guarantee during the pendency of the appeal, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Oswal Agro Mills Ltd. v. Asstt. Collector of Central Excise, Division Ludhiana [1993 (11) TMI 66 - SUPREME COURT] found the behaviour of the department highly improper and held that bank guarantees were furnished to secure the interest of the parties till determination of matters pending before the Court and it could not be encashed till the decision of the Court. It further held that the Revenue had no power to get the bank guarantee encashed by using its executive fiat. Therefore while allowing the appeal, the Hon’ble Supreme Court directed the revenue to refund the money, collected by encashing the bank guarantee, forthwith.
The bank guarantee is security for the Revenue that in the event the Revenue succeeds or dismissal of assessee’s appeal, department’s dues will be recoverable, being backed by bank guarantee. In the present matter, the disputed amount which was secured by a bank guarantee cannot constitute as duty because it was furnished prior to determination of duty. Despite knowing that the appellant had filed appeal before this Tribunal, during its pendency, the Revenue had encashed the bank guarantee without even taking leave of the Tribunal, which is not proper. Challenging the order before the higher appellate forum itself shows that the dispute hasn’t attained finality. The department ought to have waited for the final outcome of the appeal. The amount of bank guarantee involved herein cannot constitute payment of duty and the invocation of Section 27 ibid is misplaced.
The impugned order is hereby set aside. The respondent is directed to refund the amount, furnished as bank guarantee, to the appellant forthwith - Appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Absolute Confiscation - levy of redemption fine and penalty - areca nuts loaded in the detained trucks had been illegally procured from Myanmar and Indonesia without following the established norms and procedures - detention on the suspicion plying without valid documents which was clubbed vide GDE No. 697 dated 21.08.2019 - onus to prove - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, the areca nuts / betel nuts, which have been seized, are neither prohibited goods nor notified goods u/s 123 of the Customs Act, 1962. Therefore, it is found that the onus lies on the Revenue to establish that the goods in question have been smuggled into the country by the appellants. However, it is seen that the Revenue has failed to discharge its onus of proving that the goods in question are smuggled in nature. In these circumstances, no penalty can be imposed on the appellants.
Thus, no penalty is imposable on the appellants and consequently, the penalties imposed on the appellants are set aside.
The impugned orders, qua imposing penalties on the appellants hereinabove, are set aside - Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Recovery of additional customs duty - extra duty deposited of 1% collected as per Board circular while undertaking valuation by SVB is held to be security by Central Board of Excise and Customs through circular No. 5/2016-Cus. dated 09.02.2016 - Rejection of refund on the ground of time limitation - HELD THAT:- The amount sought to be refunded was the amount collected by Revenue in the form of extra duty deposit after the goods were finally cleared on payment of duty. Therefore, by no stretch of imagination the said deposit can be called as customs duty. Further it is found that Hon’ble Delhi High Court has dealt with the same issue in their ruling in the case of Sentec India Company Pvt. Ltd. [2025 (3) TMI 75 - DELHI HIGH COURT].
It is clear from the ruling by Hon’ble Delhi High Court that in respect of amount collected by Revenue in the form of EDD, period of limitation under Section 27 of Customs Act is not applicable. The impugned order is set aside and Revenue is directed to refund Rs.6,81,839/- within a period of one month from the date of issue of this order, along with applicable interest on the same.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the entries in the balance sheet of financial year 2019-20 constituted a valid acknowledgment of debt under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963. (ii) Whether the limitation period for the Section 7 application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was saved by the COVID-related exclusion order and was therefore within time.
Issue (i): Whether the entries in the balance sheet of financial year 2019-20 constituted a valid acknowledgment of debt under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
Analysis: Section 18 applies to proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 by virtue of Section 238A, and limitation for a Section 7 application is governed by Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963. Acknowledgment must relate to a subsisting liability and indicate the jural relationship of debtor and creditor, though the exact nature of the debt need not be specified. The Court held that a balance sheet must be examined case by case, in its surrounding context, and may constitute acknowledgment where its tenor shows an admission of continuing liability. Reading the financial statements of 2015-16, 2016-17, 2017-18 and 2019-20 together, the Court found that the 2019-20 balance sheet reflected the same borrowing, showed no repayment in the cash flow statement, and therefore evidenced that the debt remained unpaid.
Conclusion: Yes. The balance sheet of financial year 2019-20 constituted a valid acknowledgment of debt and admitted the subsisting jural relationship.
Issue (ii): Whether the limitation period for the Section 7 application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was saved by the COVID-related exclusion order and was therefore within time.
Analysis: The acknowledgment in the balance sheet was signed on 12.08.2020, when limitation was still running. On that basis, the fresh period of limitation would ordinarily have extended till 11.08.2023. The Court held that paragraph 5(I) of the order dated 10.01.2022 excluded the period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 for all judicial and quasi-judicial proceedings, and that this exclusion governed the case. Paragraph 5(III) did not apply because limitation did not expire during the excluded period.
Conclusion: Yes. The application was within limitation, and paragraph 5(I), not paragraph 5(III), applied.
Final Conclusion: The orders of the NCLT and NCLAT were set aside, the Section 7 application was treated as filed within limitation, and the matter was sent back for consideration on merits.
Ratio Decidendi: An entry in a balance sheet can amount to acknowledgment under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 if, read in its surrounding context, it evidences a subsisting liability and the jural relationship of debtor and creditor; where such acknowledgment falls within the COVID exclusion period, the limitation computation must give effect to paragraph 5(I) of the Supreme Court's extension order.
Acknowledgment in writing under Section 18 of the Limitation Act - entries in balance sheets as constituting acknowledgment of debt - application of the Limitation Act to proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Section 238A) - computation of limitation period under Article 137 of the First Schedule to the Limitation Act - exclusion and extension of limitation by this Court's order dated 10.01.2022 (Para 5)
Application of the Limitation Act to proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Section 238A) - computation of limitation period under Article 137 of the First Schedule to the Limitation Act - whether the Section 7 application was barred by limitation - The dismissal of the Section 7 application as barred by limitation was not justified. - HELD THAT: - The Court examined the commencement and computation of limitation in light of Section 238A of the IBC and Article 137 of the First Schedule to the Limitation Act, noting that the account was declared NPA on 01.03.2018 but an acknowledgment arose on 12.08.2020 when the Balance Sheet of F.Y. 2019-20 was signed. That acknowledgment, when taken with the exclusion of the period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 under the Supreme Court's order of 10.01.2022 (Para 5(I)), meant limitation would run from 01.03.2022 and continue for the fresh period computed from the 12.08.2020 acknowledgment. Consequently, the Section 7 application filed on 15.01.2024 fell within the available period. [Paras 41, 44, 46, 47]
The orders of the NCLAT and NCLT dismissing the Section 7 application as time-barred were set aside and the appeal allowed.
Acknowledgment in writing under Section 18 of the Limitation Act - entries in balance sheets as constituting acknowledgment of debt - use of surrounding circumstances and prior financial statements in construing acknowledgment - The entry in the Balance Sheet of F.Y. 2019-20 constituted a valid acknowledgment of subsisting liability under Section 18 of the Limitation Act. - HELD THAT: - Applying established principles (including that surrounding circumstances and the general tenor of documents may be considered), the Court held that the 2019-20 Balance Sheet, read in the background of earlier audited financial statements (2015-16 to 2017-18) and the appended cash-flow statement (showing proceeds from borrowings and no repayment of existing borrowings), amounted to an admission of a continuing jural relationship and subsisting liability. The Court rejected the contention that absence of the creditor's name or specific loan reference in the Balance Sheet precluded acknowledgment, observing that entries in balance sheets must be examined case-by-case and may, on the facts, amount to acknowledgment. [Paras 33, 39, 41, 43]
The Balance Sheet of F.Y. 2019-20 is a valid written acknowledgment under Section 18, extending limitation from the date it was signed (12.08.2020).
Exclusion and extension of limitation by this Court's order dated 10.01.2022 (Para 5) - application of Para 5(I) versus Para 5(III) of the 10.01.2022 order - Para 5(I) of the order dated 10.01.2022 applies; Para 5(III) has no application on the facts of this case. - HELD THAT: - Because the acknowledgment occurred on 12.08.2020, within the operative period, the Court held that the entire period from 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 is to be excluded under Para 5(I), thereby making the fresh limitation period computed from the acknowledged date run from 01.03.2022. The alternative provision in Para 5(III), which grants 90 days from 01.03.2022 where limitation would have expired during the excluded period, was therefore not applicable. [Paras 45, 46]
Para 5(I) governs the computation of limitation here; limitation is extended accordingly and the petition is within time.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed; the judgments of the NCLAT and NCLT setting aside the Section 7 petition as time-barred are set aside. The matter is remitted to the adjudicating authority to proceed and decide the Section 7 application on its merits, treating it as filed within limitation.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Violation of principles of natural justice - denial of an opportunity to get an application, filed after the main matter has been reserved for orders, heard, caused any serious miscarriage of justice to the petitioner or not - HELD THAT:- When once the final hearing starts, if the same cannot be concluded on that date, the hearing is adjourned to a future date. The next stage is that the hearing is completed. Upon conclusion of hearing it is only for the convenience of the Tribunal that Rule 150(1) permits making and pronouncement of order after an interval after the conclusion of hearing.
Three Hon’ble Judges of the Supreme Court of India in Arjun Singh [1963 (12) TMI 27 - SUPREME COURT] observed that once the hearing starts the Civil Procedure Code contemplates only two stages in the trial of the suit: (1) where the hearing is adjourned or (2) where the hearing is completed.
The issue that fell for consideration in K.K. Velusamy [2011 (3) TMI 1803 - SUPREME COURT] was whether once the arguments are commenced, there could be reopening of evidence or recalling of any witness - While deciding such issue the Hon’ble Supreme Court after noticing that the provision in Order 18 Rule 17A stood deleted with effect from 01.07.2002 held that if there is a time gap between completion of evidence and hearing of arguments and if in the interregnum, a party comes across some evidence which he could not lay his hands on earlier or some evidence in regard to the conduct or action of the other party comes into existence, the Court may in exercise of its inherent power under Section 151 of the Code, permit the production of such evidence if it is relevant and necessary in the interest of justice, subject to such terms as the Court may deem fit to impose.
This Court, therefore, holds that the petitioner cannot claim any right to have the application for bringing on record the letter dated June 30, 2025, filed after the matter was reserved for orders, heard prior to making and pronouncing the order by NCLT. To the mind of this Court no miscarriage of justice can be said to have been caused to the petitioner.
The High Courts should be slow in interfering with the proceeding under IBC, 2016 and only in exceptional cases the High Courts can interfere. The petitioner herein failed to make out any case that interference is necessary for meeting the ends of justice.
This Court is not inclined to grant any relief to the petitioner - Application dismissed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Recovery of service tax with interest and penalty - appellant was collecting Affiliation Fee/Recognition Fees on which they had not discharged service tax - HELD THAT:- The issue is no longer res-integra and has been decided by this Tribunal in GOA UNIVERSITY, THROUGH ITS REGISTRAR, MR. VISHNU SAKHARAM NADKARNI, VERSUS JOINT COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL GOODS AND SERVICE TAX, GOA COMMISSIONERATE, CENTRAL BOARD OF INDIRECT TAXES & CUSTOMS, GOODS AND SERVICES TAX COUNCIL, GST COUNCIL, DELHI. [2025 (4) TMI 1056 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and M/S JIWAJI VISHWAVIDHYALAYA VERSUS COMMISSIONER, CENTRAL GOODS & SERVICE TAX, & CENTRAL EXCISE, BHOPAL [2025 (5) TMI 153 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] where it was held that the activities of the petitioner University not being commercial in nature, are not amenable to GST. There is a complete absence of jurisdictional facts to issue the impugned show cause notice.
There are no merit in the impugned order - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES:
1.1 Whether the appellant is required to pay service tax on the entire amount collected as entry fee from non-resident guests or only on the share of the entry fee retained by the appellant after remitting the balance to the other party providing accommodation and restaurant services.
1.2 Whether the sharing of the entry fee between the appellant and the other party constitutes "consideration" for a "service" under Section 67 of the Finance Act, 1994.
1.3 Whether the appellant's act of collecting the entry fee on behalf of the other party amounts to providing a taxable service to that party.
2. RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
2.1 The appellant is liable to pay service tax only on the share of the entry fee retained by it and not on the entire amount collected, as the other party pays service tax on the accommodation and restaurant services provided to the non-resident guests.
2.2 The sharing of the profit under the agreement does not amount to "consideration" for the provisions of service between the appellant and the other party, as both act on a principal-to-principal basis and neither provides a service to the other.
2.3 The appellant's collection of the entry fee on behalf of the other party cannot be considered a "service" provided to the other party, and hence, no service tax liability arises on the entire amount collected by the appellant.
3. RATIONALE:
3.1 The Court examined the Revenue Sharing Agreement clauses which clearly delineate the rights and obligations of both parties, including the adjustment of entry fee against accommodation or restaurant services and the sharing of the entry fee accordingly.
3.2 The Court noted that the other party pays service tax on accommodation and restaurant services enjoyed by the non-resident guests, while the appellant pays service tax only on the amount retained by it, consistent with the agreed terms.
3.3 The Court emphasized that the Revenue cannot add terms to the agreement contrary to the parties' intention and that the contractual arrangement reflects a joint venture with mutual interests rather than a provider-recipient service relationship between the appellant and the other party.
3.4 The Court relied on the principle that "no consideration has been provisioned in favour of the appellant for collecting entry fee," negating the characterization of the appellant's collection activity as a taxable service to the other party.
3.5 The Court referred to a subsequent Commissioner (Appeals) decision upholding the same interpretation, which was not challenged by the Revenue, thereby reinforcing the settled position on the merits.
Levy of service tax on the entire amount collected or the liability to pay service tax is limited to the share from the entry fee retained by the appellant - revenue sharing agreement - HELD THAT:- There is no manner of doubt that the agreement entered between the parties was being followed by them in letter and spirit and consequently, the liability towards service tax was discharged both by the appellant as well as by NHPL to the extent of their share. The net effect is that the Revenue has received the service tax on the entire amount of “entry fee” though the liability was stipulated between the appellant and NHPL. The Revenue is not, in any manner, prejudiced by the modus operandi adopted.
The issue on merits stands settled, in favour of the appellant and, therefore, it is not necessary to go into the question of applicability of the extended period of limitation, interest and penalty.
The impugned order is set aside. The appeal is, accordingly, allowed.
Issues: Whether service tax could be levied on ocean freight in respect of imported goods and fastened on the importer under the impugned notifications and reverse charge mechanism.
Analysis: The levy on ocean freight had already been held unconstitutional in the cited High Court decision and had been consistently followed by the Tribunal. The reasoning accepted that transportation by sea up to the Indian port is an event beyond the land mass of India, and that the charging and delegated provisions of the Finance Act, 1994 did not authorise collection of service tax on such extraterritorial services. The impugned notifications and the reverse charge arrangement were therefore treated as beyond the statutory power conferred by the Act.
Conclusion: Service tax was not payable on ocean freight, and no liability could be fastened on the importer.
Short payment of service tax on Ocean freight, which is liable to be paid by the importer in terms of N/N.15/2017-ST and 16/2017-ST, both dated 13.04.2017 w.e.f. 23.04.2017 - HELD THAT:- Reliance was placed on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of [2019 (9) TMI 1315 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] whereby the taxability of ocean freight was held ultra vires.
The law has been well settled in terms of the decision of the Gujarat High Court and consistently followed by the Tribunal, the ocean freight is not liable to service tax and hence, no liability can be fastened on the appellant. The impugned order is, therefore, set aside.
Appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Refund of accumulated / unutilized CENVAT Credit availed of service tax paid on input services for the financial years, 2008-09 to 2013-14 lying as on 31st March, 2014 - rejection on the ground that appellant have not taken registration and the CENVAT Credit taken by them for the period 1st November, 2008 to October, 2009 - HELD THAT:- It is settled position that CENVAT Credit and refund thereof cannot be denied merely because the claimant has not taken registration of Service Tax / Central Excise.
Whether refund of input duty / input service tax is admissible when appellant’s goods, which were exported are exempted from Central Excise duty and Service Tax and the export of the goods was made without bond / LUT? - HELD THAT:- Since, the appellant is availing full exemption and not even registered and the exempted goods were not exported under bond, refund has been denied. This issue was considered by Hon’ble High Court of Himachal Pradesh in the case of CCE vs. Drish Shoes Ltd. [2010 (5) TMI 334 - HIMACHAL PRADESH HIGH COURT]. Hon’ble High Court has held that refund of input credit is admissible when exempted goods are exported without execution of bond. Similar view was taken by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Retro India Ltd vs. Union of India [2007 (12) TMI 209 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. Therefore, the conclusion in the impugned order that the appellant is not eligible for exemption since the goods have not been exported under bond or LUT cannot be sustained. The Tribunal has also observed that execution of bond is only a procedure and its violation should not disentitled the appellant from taking of credit and claiming refund thereof.
The impugned order passed by the Commissioner and the Order-in-Original passed by the Adjudicating Authority be set aside and the matter may be remanded to the Adjudicating Authority for processing the refund claim and for passing suitable order - appeal allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Refund of accumulated / unutilized CENVAT Credit availed of service tax paid on input services for the financial years, 2008-09 to 2013-14 lying as on 31st March, 2014 - rejection on the ground that appellant have not taken registration and the CENVAT Credit taken by them for the period 1st November, 2008 to October, 2009 - HELD THAT:- It is settled position that CENVAT Credit and refund thereof cannot be denied merely because the claimant has not taken registration of Service Tax / Central Excise.
Whether refund of input duty / input service tax is admissible when appellant’s goods, which were exported are exempted from Central Excise duty and Service Tax and the export of the goods was made without bond / LUT? - HELD THAT:- Since, the appellant is availing full exemption and not even registered and the exempted goods were not exported under bond, refund has been denied. This issue was considered by Hon’ble High Court of Himachal Pradesh in the case of CCE vs. Drish Shoes Ltd. [2010 (5) TMI 334 - HIMACHAL PRADESH HIGH COURT]. Hon’ble High Court has held that refund of input credit is admissible when exempted goods are exported without execution of bond. Similar view was taken by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Retro India Ltd vs. Union of India [2007 (12) TMI 209 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. Therefore, the conclusion in the impugned order that the appellant is not eligible for exemption since the goods have not been exported under bond or LUT cannot be sustained. The Tribunal has also observed that execution of bond is only a procedure and its violation should not disentitled the appellant from taking of credit and claiming refund thereof.
The impugned order passed by the Commissioner and the Order-in-Original passed by the Adjudicating Authority be set aside and the matter may be remanded to the Adjudicating Authority for processing the refund claim and for passing suitable order - appeal allowed by way of remand.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax - difference in the income reflected by the appellant in their annual returns filed under Income Tax Act for the FY 2016-17 and the amount declared in their ST3 Return filed for the same period - applicability of benefit under S.No.14(c) of notification 25/2012-ST in terms of insertion of Clause (ca) w.e.f. 01.04.2016 -Extended period of limitation.
HELD THAT:- There is clear force in the submission that the entire demand is based on ITR & 26AS. This is apparent from the SCN as well as pre-notice consultation dt.24.09.2021, where it was specifically mentioned that an SCN demanding service tax on gross value on sale of service during the period April, 2016 to June, 2017 as reported in the ITRs or as reported in the 26AS is being proposed under proviso to section 73(1), section 75 and section 78 of the Finance Act. Further, as per the table the service tax payable was indicated as Rs.8,48,58,681/-. Thus, we find that the entire SCN has been issued based on difference noticed by the department between ST3 returns and ITRs/26AS. We also find that in the SCN, there is nothing on record to suggest that any independent detailed investigation was carried out to work out as to the nature of services, value of services, etc. The adjudicating authority has mentioned that the appellants did not furnish the information being one of the grounds for considering that there was deliberate suppression or withholding of information - there is no additional investigation or ground on the basis of which SCNs have been issued. We find that this issue is no longer res integra in view of the decisions of Coordinate Benches with regard to non-maintainability of demand where the demand is based solely on the ITRs/26AS, etc.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- In this case, the SCN was served on 20.10.2021, whereas, the due date for filing ST3 return for the subject period is 15.08.2017 and therefore, the date of issuance is clearly beyond the normal time period allowed for serving notice, where the department is unable to substantiate any grounds for invoking extended period. Therefore, in view of the same, demand for the period 2016-17 and 2017-18 (up to June, 2017) is clearly beyond 30 months. There are force in the reliance placed by the appellant on the judgment of Continental Foundation Jt. Venture Vs CCE [2007 (8) TMI 11 - SUPREME COURT, wherein, inter alia, it was held that suppression means failure to disclose full information with the intent to evade payment of duty. The reliance placed by the appellant in support that mere non-payment of tax itself does not mean that appellants had suppressed information - in the facts of the case, deliberate suppression with intent to evade service tax payment has not been duly established by the department. Therefore, extended period could not be invoked for demand of service tax.
The demand to the extent where demand as well as payment thereof, has not been contested, the impugned order is upheld. The other demands will not sustain in view of the discussions in the foregoing paras. The penalty will also not sustain in respect of non-contested demand.
Appeal allowed in part.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Territorial jurisdiction - void ab initio of show cause notice issued without jurisdiction - invocation of extended period of limitation - non-invocation of extended period where no suppression or fraud and basis is public/Income Tax data - limitation - ordinary limitation period for service tax demands
Territorial jurisdiction - void ab initio of show cause notice issued without jurisdiction - Validity of the show cause notice issued by Bolpur Commissionerate in view of territorial jurisdiction and separate registration at Kolkata - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found on the record that the appellant held two service tax registrations, one within Kolkata (AEAPK6185QSD005) where returns were filed and another at Jamuria (AEAPK6185QSD001) falling purportedly under Bolpur. The appellant's authorised representative had stated that no services were rendered within Bolpur jurisdiction and no returns were filed under the Jamuria registration. The Tribunal observed that the territorial jurisdiction of the Principal Commissioner, Bolpur does not extend to the city of Kolkata and that jurisdiction is conferred by law and cannot be presumed. Consequently, the issuance of the show cause notice by Bolpur Commissionerate was held to be without jurisdiction and therefore void ab initio; demands founded on such notice could not be sustained. [Paras 8]
The show cause notice issued by Bolpur Commissionerate was void ab initio for want of territorial jurisdiction and demands based thereon are unsustainable.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - non-invocation of extended period where no suppression or fraud and basis is public/Income Tax data - limitation - ordinary limitation period for service tax demands - Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked to demand service tax based on figures in balance sheets/Profit & Loss and Form 26AS supplied by Income Tax Department - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal held that the appellant had been filing ST-3 returns from the Kolkata office and had furnished documents (audited financial statements, agreements/work orders, payment certificates, Form 26AS, ledgers) to show that services rendered to government entities were exempt under the Exemption Notification. The demand was founded on data available in publicly accessible balance sheets and Form 26AS received from Income Tax authorities; the Department did not bring forward any new evidence to establish suppression or fraudulent intent. Citing consistent tribunal and judicial views that the extended period cannot be invoked merely on the basis of figures reported by the Income Tax portal or public documents in absence of suppression or fraud, the Tribunal found no ingredient justifying invocation of extended limitation. It further observed that the normal limitation (30 months from filing) had expired for the earliest part of the period and the SCN was issued beyond that normal period. [Paras 9]
Extended period of limitation could not be invoked; the demands for the period in question are timebarred and liable to be set aside.
Consequential relief - interest and penalty - Consequences for interest and penalties following setting aside of the demand - HELD THAT: - Because the Tribunal set aside the substantive demand as barred by limitation and/or founded on a void notice, it held that interest and penalties founded upon the unsustainable demand could not survive. The Tribunal therefore set aside interest and penalty imposed by the adjudicating authority, and granted consequential relief in accordance with law. [Paras 9, 10]
Interest and penalties confirmed in the impugned order are set aside as consequential relief; the appeal is allowed.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed: the show cause notice issued by Bolpur Commissionerate was void for want of territorial jurisdiction and the invocation of extended limitation based on Income Tax/balancesheet data is unsustainable; the servicetax demands, together with interest and penalties confirmed in the impugned order for the period 01.04.2015 to 30.06.2017, are set aside with consequential relief.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax - demand of Service Tax raised twice on the same consolidated financial data by two different commissionerates - extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is observed that another Show Cause Notice dated 21.12.2010 was issued by the Bhubaneswar-II Commissionerate of the Department, demanding Service Tax of Rs.3,75,34,624/-, (inclusive of cess) on the basis of the same data available in their balance sheet / Profit & Loss Account. As a Show Cause Notice has already been issued demanding Service Tax on the basis of this data available in their consolidated balance sheet, a demand cannot be raised for the other unit on the basis of the same data, by invoking extended period of limitation. Accordingly, the demand raised by way of the Show Cause Notice dated 21.12.2010 is a duplication of the demand, which has already been raised in the Show Cause Notice dated 03.09.2009. Thus, the demand raised in the Show Cause Notice dated 21.12.2010 is not legally sustainable.
It is also found that the appellant has paid Rs.1,86,11,176/-, including cesses, for the Financial Years 2005-06 to 2008-09 (up to December, 2008), which has not been taken into cognizance while issuing the Show Cause Notice dated 21.12.2010 and confirming the demand in the impugned order.
There is no effort made by the departmental officers to ascertain the actual receipt of the amount by the appellant towards rendering taxable services during the impugned period. The appellant has submitted to have rendered civil works along with materials, which is a taxable service classifiable under the category of “works contract service”. However, no demand has been raised in the impugned order under the category of “works contract service”. When the services have been rendered along with materials, demand has to be raised only under the category of “works Contract service” and not under “management, maintenance or repair service”. Consequently, the entire demand confirmed under the category of “management, maintenance or repair service” is not sustainable.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- If the Department entertained any doubt about the liability to Service Tax in respect of the other services rendered by them, then the Departmental officers ought to have raised an objection when the appellant filed the said Returns - It is seen that the Department was aware of the activities undertaken by the appellant since 05.07.2007, when the first communication had been received from the Preventive Commissionerate, Bhubaneswar-II. It is also found that the entire demand has been raised on the basis of the data received from the income tax returns and other records submitted by the appellant. Therefore, considering the facts and circumstances of the case, it is agreed with the submission of the appellant that they have not suppressed any facts from the Department.
Since, the demand of service tax against the appellant is not sustainable, the question of demanding interest or imposing penalties does not arise.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Determination of service tax liability under Section 73 - Adjustment and appropriation of payments made by challans against confirmed service tax demand - Penalty for suppression under Section 78 and mutual exclusivity with penalty under Section 76 - Remand for factual verification and quantification of tax and adjustment by the original authority/Range Superintendent - Taxability distinction between security services and manpower supply services
Determination of service tax liability under Section 73 - Taxability distinction between security services and manpower supply services - Service tax demand confirmed as leviable for the period specified - HELD THAT: - The adjudicating authority, after carrying out the verificatory exercise directed by the Tribunal, re-quantified taxable value by segregating bills which pertained to manpower supply (not taxable for relevant earlier periods) from security services and re-examined bills found cancelled/duplicate or wrongly taken. On that basis the authority confirmed the service tax demand of Rs.27,92,927/- as leviable for the period Oct 2001 to March 2006. The Tribunal found that the original authority had complied with the remand directions by examining documents and challans and did not find error in confirming the demand.
Demand of service tax for the period Oct 2001 to March 2006 confirmed
Adjustment and appropriation of payments made by challans against confirmed service tax demand - Remand for factual verification and quantification of tax and adjustment by the original authority/Range Superintendent - Benefit of payments evidenced by challans to be verified and allowed only after factual co-relation with the period of demand - HELD THAT: - While the fact of deposit by challans was not disputed, the adjudicating authority did not allow full adjustment because the challans were not correlated with ST-3 returns for the demand period. The Commissioner (Appeals) examined produced challans, computed an aggregate amount claimed to have been paid and reduced the confirmed liability subject to verification (treating certain earlier-deposited amounts as not pertaining to the demand). The Tribunal found no infirmity in remanding the question of co-relation and verification to the original authority/Range Superintendent for satisfaction that the payments shown by challans relate to the confirmed demand; the benefit, if established on verification, is to be allowed.
Matter remanded for verification of challans and co-relation with the demand; adjustment to be allowed only if verification establishes applicability to the demand period
Penalty for suppression under Section 78 and mutual exclusivity with penalty under Section 76 - Penalty under Section 78 upheld; penalty under Section 76 set aside as not imposable once Section 78 penalty is imposed - HELD THAT: - The adjudicating authority had imposed penalties under Sections 76 and 78. The appellate authority (and the Tribunal) applied the amended penalty regime and held that where penalty under Section 78 (suppression) is imposable, separate penalty under Section 76 (failure to pay) is not imposable because the provisions are mutually exclusive. The Tribunal upheld the imposition of penalty under Section 78 and set aside the separate penalty under Section 76, further noting that if on re-verification payments are found to cover the demand, the Section 78 penalty will be reduced by the established paid amount.
Penalty under Section 78 upheld; penalty under Section 76 set aside; Section 78 penalty to be reduced if verification shows payments covering the demand
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal affirmed the original authority's confirmation of the service tax demand (Oct 2001 to March 2006), upheld penalty under Section 78 while setting aside penalty under Section 76, and endorsed remand/verification for co-relation of challans and allowance of payments - adjustment to be made only after the original authority/Range Superintendent satisfactorily verifies that the challans relate to the confirmed demand.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax - works contract services of construction rendered to education institutions can be treated as construction of a new building or civil structure or a part thereof, primarily for the purposes of commerce or industry during the relevant period - service tax on the works contract service rendered by the appellant as a sub contractor - time limitation - Levy of penalties.
Whether the demand made on works contract services of construction rendered to education institutions can be treated as construction of a new building or civil structure or a part thereof, primarily for the purposes of commerce or industry during the relevant period and the demand so made is tenable? - HELD THAT:- In the instant case while the appellant has discharged its burden of proof as regards its contention of non-taxability, the Revenue has not been able to adduce an iota of evidence that the buildings the construction of which the appellant has undertaken for these educational institutions are primarily for the purposes of commerce or industry, which burden was on it so to discharge. Thus, the confirmation of demand on the works contract of construction services rendered by the appellant with respect to educational institutions for the period upto 01-07-2012 cannot sustain and is liable to be set aside.
The demand of service tax on the works contract services rendered by the appellant to educational institutions upto 01-07-2012, which is part of the demand on works contract services rendered by the appellant that has been upheld in the impugned OIO, cannot sustain - the exemption given in the Mega Exemption Notification 25/2012-ST dated 20-06-2012, was also confined only to, inter-alia, construction of a structure meant predominantly for use as an educational establishment only for services provided to the Government, a local authority or a governmental authority, at Sl.No.12 of the notification ibid; which too remained only upto 01-04-2015.
For the period after 01-07-2012, in as much as the definition of “works contract” itself has been recast and does not hinge on whether the construction is primarily for commerce or industry, the appellant is exigible to tax under the said category of “works contract service” and demand made on the appellant for the period post 01-07-2012 for the services of “works contract” provided with respect to educational institutions on this count will sustain, subject to our findings on applicability of extended period.
Whether the demand of service tax on the works contract service rendered by the appellant as a sub contractor is tenable? - HELD THAT:- In the decision in Jay Yushin Ltd v CCE, New Delhi, [2000 (7) TMI 105 - CEGAT, COURT NO. I, NEW DELHI-LB], the Larger Bench of this Tribunal has held that it has to be shown that the revenue neutral situation comes about in relation to the credit available to the assessee himself, which is not the situation in the instant case. Therefore, respectfully, following the said decision in Melange Developers [2019 (6) TMI 518 - CESTAT NEW DELHI-LB], it is held that the demand of service tax on the works contract service rendered by the appellant as a sub-contractor is tenable and the demand on this count will sustain, subject to our findings on applicability of extended period.
Whether the demand is barred by limitation? - HELD THAT:- The show cause notice too while alleging that the appellant has not registered with the department, not discharged the service tax liability and not filed the ST-3 returns and that but for the action initiated by the Department the irregularities would not have come to light; has not alleged any deliberate act of wilful suppression or misstatement of facts with intent to evade payment of duty. It is also held that the appellant’s belief as to the non exigibility to tax of the services rendered stemming from the Department’s Circular is plausible. In such circumstances, the Department is not justified in invoking the extended period of limitation. Only the demand on the services rendered by the appellant that would come within the normal period, as per the demands upheld, would sustain.
Levy of penalties - HELD THAT:- The penalties imposed on the appellant under Section 78 and Section 77(2) of the Finance Act, 1994 are unsustainable and set aside the same.
Appeal allowed in part.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Valid SCN or not - demand based on the Statement u/s 73(1A) dated 20.04.2015 (deemed SCN) as no separate SCN was issued to the appellants - impugned order passed without application of mind and also in violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- It is found that in the present case, the entire proceeding emanated from the Statement under Section 73(1A) dated 20.04.2015 on the same grounds on which earlier SCN dated 15.06.2012 and Statement under Section 73(1A) dated 16.07.2013 were issued.
It is found that it is clearly stated in the impugned order that the present demand is being raised on the same grounds as discussed in the earlier SCN dated 15.06.2012 and Statement under Section 73(1A) dated 16.07.2013. Further, it is found that the SCN dated 15.06.2012 and the Statement under Section 73(1A) dated 16.07.2013 were decided by a common order-inoriginal dated 18.06.2014 by the Commissioner of Central Excise, Chandigarh-I and against the said order-in-original, two appeals were filed, one appeal bearing no. ST/55070/2014 by the assessees/appellants and another appeal bearing no. ST/55329/2014 by the department. I
It is also found that this Tribunal, vide Final Order dated 26.10.2018 [2018 (12) TMI 25 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH], allowed the appeal of the assessees/appellants and dismissed the appeal of the department. It is also found that againt the Tribunal’s order dated 26.10.2018, the department filed an appeal before the Hon’ble Apex Court and the Hon’ble Apex Court vide its order dated 28.08.2023 [2023 (9) TMI 138 - SC ORDER] dismissed the appeal of the department on limitation. When the earlier appeals were pending before the Tribunal, the another Statement dated 20.04.2015 under Section 73(1A) of the Finance Act was issued, on the basis of which, the impugned order has been passed confirming the demand along with interest and imposing the penalties.
Further, once the earlier SCN dated 15.06.2012 has attained finality then the present deemed SCN dated 20.04.2015 under Section 73(1A) being issued on the same grounds as stated in the earlier SCN, should have been dropped by following the judicial discipline by the adjudicating authority.
The impugned order is not sustainable in law - appeal allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Levy of service tax - receipt of ocean freight and profit earned thereon in relation to trading of cargo space, collected from the foreign clients/Indian exporters for export of goods from in India - HELD THAT:- The said issue has been examined by this Tribunal in the appellant's/assessee's own case [2024 (3) TMI 285 - CESTAT ALLAHABAD], which has been affirmed by the Hon'ble Apex Court [2025 (1) TMI 1041 - SC ORDER] wherein this Tribunal has observed that 'neither the transaction is amenable to Service Tax under the category of "Business Auxiliary Service BAS' nor under 'Business Support Service' and thus, the demand of service tax confirmed vide the impugned Order is not sustainable and is liable to be set aside.'
Thus, mere purchase and sale of cargo space is not a 'service' and surplus income receipt earned by the appellant/assessee is not a 'consideration' towards rendition of any business support service or a service in the Negative List regime. Accordingly, no Service Tax is payable by the appellant/assessee.
The ld. adjudicating authority has rightly dropped the demand, and no demand is sustainable against the appellant/assessee - the appeal filed by the Revenue deserves no merit and accordingly the same is dismissed - Appeal of assessee allowed.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Maintainability of appeal - appropriate forum - question raised in the context of the NCLT’s order dated 09 August 2024 - substantial questions of law or not - HELD THAT:- Given the provisions of the IBC and the law laid down in Ghanashyam Mishra [2021 (4) TMI 613 - SUPREME COURT], this subsequent development in the form of NCLT’s order dated 09 August 2024 cannot be ignored. An opportunity to place this subsequent development before the Tribunal will serve the interest of justice because even the Respondent will have ample opportunity to make their submissions and deal with this subsequent development.
If the Appellant’s arguments based on such subsequent developments are accepted, then the matter, at least in relation to the Appellant, might perhaps be concluded before the Tribunal. However, if the Tribunal does not accept the Appellant’s arguments, then the Appellant will undoubtedly be able to challenge the Tribunal’s order, including on grounds related to this subsequent development. At that point, the effect of this subsequent development would be a question legitimately involved in the appeal the Appellant may decide to pursue. Likewise, the Respondent will also have the opportunity to appeal the Tribunal’s order if they are dissatisfied with it.
It would not be appropriate to decide this Appeal based on the subsequent development by shutting out an opportunity to the Respondent to deal with this subsequent development, if necessary, by placing any additional but relevant facts concerning this issue.
The Tribunal is requested to decide the remanded Appeal as expeditiously as possible and in any event by 31 December 2025 - Appeal disposed off.
Issues: Whether penalty could be sustained on reversed CENVAT credit availed on services used for foundation, structures and allied civil works, and whether interest remained payable on the reversed amount.
Analysis: The credit was reversed by the assessee before issuance of the show-cause notice after the audit pointed out the inadmissibility. In such circumstances, the record did not establish deliberate suppression or mala fide intent to evade tax so as to justify invocation of the extended period for penalty. The Tribunal also noted that audit detection by itself does not establish suppression of facts. At the same time, interest on the amount for the period of utilization remained payable as a compensatory consequence until actual reversal/payment.
Conclusion: Penalty was not sustainable and was set aside, while interest on the reversed credit was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The assessee obtained relief from penal consequences, but the monetary liability to pay interest on the utilized credit was maintained.
Ratio Decidendi: Where inadmissible credit is voluntarily reversed before the show-cause notice after being pointed out in audit, penalty based on suppression and extended limitation is not justified, though interest remains payable for the period of utilization.
Reversal of CENVAT Credit - foundation and structures raised for maintenance of effluent water treatment plants and electrical works etc - levy of penalty u/s 15(2) of the CENVAT Credit Rules 2004 read with Section 78 of Finance Act, 1994, by the Commissioner alongwith interest under Rule 14 of the CENVAT Credit Rules read with Section 11 AA of the Central Excise Act, 1944 - suppression of facts or not - HELD THAT:- Recovery proceedings on inadmissible credit are also initiated u/s73 like recovery of tax dues, in which event, even Section 73 sub-clause 3 would have come to the rescue of appellant in prohibiting the Respondent Department to serve Show Cause Notice when either on its own ascertainment or on the basis of being informed by the Central Excise Officer (through Audit), such reversal was made before issue of show cause. Otherwise also, it is to be reiterated that when matter was pointed out by the audit, appellant is not supposed to be awarded with penalty by invoking extended period. It would be worthwhile to reproduce the decision passed by this Tribunal in Graphite India Limited, [2019 (2) TMI 594 - CESTAT MUMBAI] that would bring more clarity to the issue that under no circumstances, suppression of fact or malafied intention to evade payment of duty would be established only because Audit party had found some credit availed as inadmissible.
The appeal is allowed in part and the order passed by the Commissioner in imposing equal penalty on the reversed credit amount of Rs. 13,06,662/- is hereby set aside, while confirming interest on the reversed amount from the date of its utilisation till its actual re-payment is made, to be paid and deposited by the Appellant within two months of receipt of this order.
ISSUES:
RULINGS / HOLDINGS:
RATIONALE:
Reversal of CENVAT Credit when the value of capital goods is written off in the books of accounts of the manufacturer - Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 - levy of interest and penalty as well - HELD THAT:- The appellant has reversed Cenvat credit as provided under Rule 3(5B) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, when the value of capital goods is written off in their books of accounts. However, they have not reversed any interest at the time of reversal.
It is observed that there was no recovery mechanism under Rule 3(5) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. Only by virtue of Notification No. 3/2013- CE(NT) dated 01.03.2013 w.e.f. 01.03.2013, the recovery provision has been inserted through an Explanation to Rule 3(5B) - the said Explanation was introduced only w.e.f. 01.03.2013 and it cannot have retrospective effect. Therefore, in the absence of recovery provision, demand of interest for the period 2011-12 to February 2013 is not sustainable.
In respect of the credit reversed after 01.03.2013, we observe that in terms of Rule 14 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 read with Section 11AA of the Central Excise Act, 1944, interest is liable to be paid on reversal only when CENVAT Credit is wrongly taken and utilized. In this regard, it is observed that for period March 2013 to 2013-14, the Appellant had sufficient CENVAT credit balance in their Cenvat credit account to discharge the liability. Accordingly, the demand of interest is not sustainable.
The appellant is not liable to pay interest for the reversal of Cenvat credit under Rule 3(5B) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 - As the appellant has reversed the cenvat credit and there is no liability of interest payable by them, the penalty imposed on the appellant is not sustainable, the same is set aside.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the ex parte assessment order disallowing input tax credit and levying purchase tax warranted interference and remand for fresh consideration; (ii) whether the assessee was entitled to an opportunity to contest the purchase tax levy under Section 17 of the Act.
Issue (i): Whether the ex parte assessment order disallowing input tax credit and levying purchase tax warranted interference and remand for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The assessment was made ex parte, notices were stated to have been sent only by e-mail, and the material indicated that the assessee had not been afforded a full opportunity to place books of accounts, documents, and explanations. A part of the input tax credit had already been allowed, while the balance was rejected, and the matter called for reconsideration by the assessing officer after hearing the assessee. The tribunal's direction to pursue the appellate remedy did not cure the need for a fresh assessment on the disputed components.
Conclusion: The ex parte assessment was interfered with to the extent of the disallowed input tax credit and the purchase tax levy, and the matter was remanded for fresh adjudication in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the assessee was entitled to an opportunity to contest the purchase tax levy under Section 17 of the Act.
Analysis: The assessee was permitted to raise all objections on the levy of purchase tax in the remanded proceedings. The Court directed that a personal hearing be granted and that written submissions and supporting records be considered before a fresh order is passed.
Conclusion: The assessee was held entitled to contest the purchase tax levy under Section 17 of the Act before the assessing officer.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition succeeded to the extent that the disputed assessment was set aside in part and sent back for fresh consideration, while the already-allowed input tax credit was left undisturbed and coercive recovery was restrained in the meantime.
Ratio Decidendi: An ex parte tax assessment that has not afforded a meaningful opportunity of hearing may be set aside and remanded for fresh decision where the disputed levy and credit claim require reconsideration on the assessee's materials.
Service of notice - no notice was issued to the writ petitioner - draft assessment order was not communicated and an ex-parte assessment order was passed and the ex-parte assessment order was also not served on the writ petitioner - ex-parte order - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- As could be seen from the materials, which were placed before the learned tribunal, the notices were sent to the writ petitioner through E-mail and no physical copies were served. However, the assessing officer records in the assessment order that the writ petitioner is not in existence at the place of business and therefore, the department sent the notices through E-mail.
In any event, part of the ITC claim has been allowed and it is not clear as to how the authority was convinced to do so. However, with a view to afford one more opportunity to the writ petitioner, we are of the view that the matter should be remanded back to the assessing officer to consider the claim of ITC, which was rejected and the ITC claim, which was allowed shall remain intact.
The order passed by the learned tribunal is set aside and the assessment order dated 27th May, 2019 to the extent where ITC claim was disallowed as well as the purchase tax, which was levied is set aside and the matter stands remanded to the assessing officer - petition allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the summoning order in a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act could be quashed qua independent, non-executive, and nominee directors in the absence of specific averments showing that they were in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business. (ii) Whether the pendency and approval of insolvency resolution proceedings of the company barred continuation of proceedings against the directors.
Issue (i): Whether the summoning order in a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act could be quashed qua independent, non-executive, and nominee directors in the absence of specific averments showing that they were in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the company's business.
Analysis: Liability under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act arises only where the complaint contains the necessary foundation that the accused director was in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company at the relevant time. The statutory scheme under Section 149 of the Companies Act, 2013 also recognises that independent and non-executive directors ordinarily do not participate in day-to-day management, and their liability is limited. On the pleadings, no specific role was attributed to the independent directors, the non-executive directors, or the nominee director beyond general assertions of participation in meetings and correspondence. Those general averments were insufficient to fasten vicarious criminal liability.
Conclusion: The summoning order was rightly quashed qua the independent directors, the non-executive directors, and the nominee director, and the issue is decided in favour of those petitioners.
Issue (ii): Whether the pendency and approval of insolvency resolution proceedings of the company barred continuation of proceedings against the directors.
Analysis: The bar arising from Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 operates against the corporate debtor and not against natural persons covered by Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act. Since the dishonoured cheques and the complaint related to a period prior to the commencement of corporate insolvency resolution proceedings, the proceedings against the director who was not otherwise entitled to discharge could continue. The insolvency of the company did not furnish a ground for quashing the proceedings against such director.
Conclusion: The proceedings were maintainable against the remaining director, and the issue is decided against that petitioner.
Final Conclusion: The complaint could proceed only against the director against whom sufficient role was alleged, while the summoning order could not survive against the independent, non-executive, and nominee directors.
Ratio Decidendi: In prosecutions under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, criminal liability of directors cannot be presumed from designation alone; specific averments showing that the accused was in charge of and responsible for the company's business are necessary, and insolvency proceedings bar the complaint only against the corporate debtor, not against natural persons.
Dishonour of Cheque - vicarious liability of Non-Executive, Independent, and Nominee Directors - section 141 of NI Act - who is an Independent Director and under what circumstances can a Director be liable for the acts of an Accused Company? - HELD THAT:- Section 149(6) Companies Act, 2013 thus, defines that an ‘Independent Director’ is a Director who is not a Managing Director, Whole-Time Director, or Nominee Director, and who meets specific criteria related to integrity, expertise, who has / had no pecuniary relationship, other than remuneration as such Director, and independence from the Company’s promoters and Management. An independent director does not hold any security or interest in the Company or its subsidiary or associate company - Furthermore, Section 149(12) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides a protective framework for Independent Directors and Non-Executive Directors (not being promoter or key managerial personnel), by limiting their liability. It holds them accountable only for acts of omission or commission by the Company that occurred with their knowledge gained through Board processes and with their consent, connivance, or due to their failure to act diligently.
Thus, it is clear that Non-Executive Directors, including Independent Directors, are typically not involved in the day-to-day operations of the Company, which further limits the scope of their potential liability.
In view of Section 141 NI Act and Section 149 of Companies Act, 2013, Petitioners could have been held vicariously liable only if it was shown that they were in charge of and were responsible for the conduct of the business of the Company at the time of commission of Offence, and not otherwise - They are therefore, entitled to be discharged.
Nominee Director - HELD THAT:- The role of the Nominee Director has to be determined from the specific facts and circumstances - Further support in this regard is offered by the Classification prescribed in the Listing Agreement prescribed by the SEBI which provides that the Nominee Directors “are also treated as independent Directors.” - Thus, the Petitioner No. 6, being a nominee of LIC, cannot be summoned as he had no role in the day-to-day affairs of the Company, and is entitled to be discharged.
The Summoning Order dated 09.08.2017 is set aside qua Petitioner no. 1/Mr. Amarjit Singh Dulat (Accused no. 10), Petitioner no. 2/Mr. Sanjay Mohan Labroo (Accused No. 5) & Petitioner no. 3/Mr. Amaarendra Pratap Singh (Accused no. 11) who are independent Directors, in the Company. Also, the Summoning Order dated 09.08.2017 is set aside against Petitioner No. 4/Mr. Rajeev Ranjan Vederah (Accused no. 6) & Petitioner no. 5/Mr. Gautam Thapar (Accused no. 7) who are the non-executive Directors, and Petitioner no. 6/Mr. Bhaskaran Nayar Venugopal (Accused no. 12), the LIC’s nominee director - the Summoning Order dated 09.08.2017 for Petitioner/Accused No. 8 is not liable to be quashed.
Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether leave to appeal should be granted against the acquittal of the accused in a corruption prosecution where demand and acceptance of illegal gratification were not proved.
Analysis: The prosecution case rested on alleged demand and acceptance of bribe for issuance of a registration certificate. The evidence showed material inconsistencies between the complainant and the shadow witness on the alleged demand, the meeting with the accused, and the alleged acceptance. The shadow witness did not corroborate the alleged acceptance by the principal accused and admitted that he was outside during the crucial interaction. There was also no CDR evidence of the alleged telephonic conversation, and the required certificate had already been issued before the trap, weakening the prosecution version. On this material, no patent perversity in the trial court's appreciation of evidence was shown.
Conclusion: Leave to appeal was rightly refused and no interference was warranted with the acquittal.
Illegal gratification - acquitttal of both accused (present respondents) from charge under Sections 7, 13(2) r/w 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act and under Section 120-B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) - HELD THAT:- PW1 Prabhakar Kashinath Sagar has been examined at exh.44, and according to him, accused no. 2 Madhukar demanded papers, which were submitted while making application for online registration and further told to come to Nanded alongwith bribe of Rs. 18,000/-, out of which Rs. 10,000/- were alleged to be of accused no. 1 and remaining was for him. Apparently, thus complainant had no conversation with accused no. 1. His evidence further shows that during visit on 01-12-2010 to the office of accused, PW1 complainant accompanied by PW3 shadow pancha, had only met accused no. 2. He further deposed that accused no. 2 made a phone call to accused no. 1 that bribe of Rs. 10,000/- had been received and to inform suitable time to handover it. He further deposed that accused no. 1 asked him to come to his office at 04:00 p.m - In cross-examination, PW3 has admitted that when accused no. 2 entered the office of accused no. 1 for handing over bribe, accused no. 2 had asked PW3 shadow pancha to stay outside as accused no. 1 would not accept the amount in his presence. He also admitted of not hearing the conversation as he was waiting at the staircase. Thus, it is clearly emerging that accused no. 1 was never seen accepting bribe by PW3 shadow pancha.
Revenue admitted that there is no CDR of the alleged conversations between accused no. 2 and accused no. 1 regarding bribe amount to have arrived and further asking him when to come to hand it over. Therefore, with above quality of evidence, learned Special Judge refused to accept the prosecution story. Thus, here prosecution has failed to prove factum of demand as well as acceptance and rather there is admission that procuring of required certificate is an online process and there is clear admission about receipt of required certificate earlier to the alleged trap of demand and acceptance.
With such quality of evidence, in the considered opinion of this Court, no purpose would be served by according any leave to file appeal. No patent perversity in the appreciation of evidence at the hands of Special Court is pointed out so as to grant leave.
Application is rejected.
TaxTMI