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Issues: (i) Whether an appeal filed without payment of the statutory 10% pre-deposit (required under the GST law) can be taken on record where the demand relates solely to Fish Meal and similar matters are pending before the Supreme Court; (ii) Whether payment of the statutory pre-deposit can be dispensed with on account of pending Special Leave Petitions in similar matters.
Issue (i): Whether the appeal filed without payment of 10% statutory pre-deposit can be taken on record and kept pending.
Analysis: The appeal was filed physically following a prior direction in a similar matter but without payment of the statutory 10% pre-deposit because the demand related only to Fish Meal; the respondents rejected the appeal for non-payment. The position under GST law requires payment of the prescribed pre-deposit for an appeal to be ordinarily entertained; however, the appeal may be kept pending subject to compliance with that statutory requirement and subject to any interim direction connected to higher court proceedings.
Conclusion: The appeal shall be taken on record only after payment of 10% statutory pre-deposit; upon such filing the appeal must be kept pending until the Supreme Court delivers its verdict in the related SLPs.
Issue (ii): Whether payment of the statutory pre-deposit can be dispensed with because similar matters are pending before the Supreme Court.
Analysis: The pendency of similar Special Leave Petitions does not, by itself, displace the statutory requirement of pre-deposit under the GST law. Where the statute mandates a pre-deposit for filing an appeal, compliance cannot be waived merely due to parallel proceedings before a higher forum; interim treatment may be accorded after compliance.
Conclusion: Payment of the 10% statutory pre-deposit cannot be dispensed with; the petitioner is directed to make the payment and re-present the appeal, after which the appeal shall be taken on record and kept pending until the outcome of the Supreme Court proceedings.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is disposed of by directing compliance with the statutory pre-deposit requirement and permitting re-presentation of the appeal, which shall be admitted and kept pending pending the result of the related Supreme Court SLPs.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the GST statute prescribes a statutory pre-deposit for filing an appeal, that requirement must be complied with and cannot be dispensed with solely because similar matters are pending before a higher court; upon compliance the appeal may be admitted and kept pending until the higher court decides the related issues.
Statutory pre-deposit - maintenance of appeal pending decision of a higher court - classification dispute relating to levy of GST on Fish Meal - exemption from the payment of tax - HELD THAT:- Normally, an appeal has to be preferred after payment of 10% of statutory pre-deposit in terms of the provisions of GST Law. Further, it was submitted by the petitioner that the issue, with regard to the levy tax on the supply of Fish Meal, has not attained its finality since a similar set of matters is still pending before the Hon'ble Apex Court. When such being the case, the payment of statutory pre-deposit cannot be dispensed with.
In view of the above, this Court directs the petitioner to make payment of 10% of statutory pre-deposit as mandated in the GST Act and thereafter, re-present the appeal before the 2nd respondent by way of uploading it in the portal. If there is any difficulties in uploading the appeal, the same shall be filed physically after the payment of 10% of statutory pre-deposit. Upon filing of such appeal, the respondent shall take the said appeal on record and keep it pending until the verdict of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the aforesaid SLPs, which were filed for similar relief.
Writ petition is disposed of.
Issues: Whether the writ petition is maintainable when an efficacious statutory alternative remedy in the form of appeal to the GST Appellate Tribunal is available.
Analysis: The Court considered the facts that the Central Government has constituted the GST Appellate Tribunal and issued rules under Section 111 of the GST Act regulating its procedure and functioning, creating an efficacious alternative statutory forum for redressal. The Court applied established principles regarding availability of alternative remedies and precedent authority that a writ petition should be dismissed where a specific statutory appeal mechanism is available and efficacious.
Conclusion: The writ petition is not maintainable and is dismissed on the ground that an efficacious statutory alternative remedy by way of appeal to the GST Appellate Tribunal is available; decision is therefore in favour of the Revenue.
Availability of efficacious alternative remedy - maintainability of writ petition - preferability of statutory appellate forum over writ jurisdiction - constitution of GST Appellate Tribunal and statutory appeal mechanism - dismissal on ground of alternative remedy - HELD THAT:- The Central Government, in exercise of powers conferred u/s 111 of the GST Act, issued notification dated 24.04.2025 making rules for regulating the procedure and functioning of the GST Appellate Tribunal and therefore, against the impugned order, the petitioner has equally, efficacious alternative remedy of preferring an appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal.
In view of the above as well as the judgements of the Apex Court in United Bank of India Vs. Satyawati Tondon & Others [2010 (7) TMI 829 - SUPREME COURT], Radha Krishan Industries Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh & Others [2021 (4) TMI 837 - SUPREME COURT] and Varimadugu Obi Reddy Vs. B. Sreenivasulu & Others [2022 (11) TMI 921 - SUPREME COURT], the writ petition is dismissed on the ground of alternative remedy.
Issues: Whether a General Penalty under Section 125 of the respective GST enactments can be imposed when a Late Fee under Section 47(2) has been imposed for the same tax period; and whether the General Penalty imposed on the petitioner should be dropped while confirming the Late Fee.
Analysis: The petition challenges an assessment order imposing both Late Fee under Section 47(2) and a General Penalty under Section 125 for the same tax period, and another assessment for the same period is the subject of an appeal. The Court noted authoritative precedent holding that where a taxpayer is liable to pay a Late Fee, imposition of a General Penalty under Section 125 cannot be sustained because Section 125 applies only in the absence of any other penalty; treating the two as co-existent would amount to arbitrary and discriminatory treatment contrary to Article 14. The respondent conceded that the cited decision has not been appealed and governs the field. Taking into account that two assessment orders exist for the same period, the Court applied the principle that General Penalty cannot be levied in presence of the Late Fee and considered appropriate equitable disposal by conditioning relief on payment of the Late Fee.
Conclusion: The General Penalty of Rs.50,000 imposed under Section 125 is dropped and the Late Fee of Rs.1,67,200 under Section 47(2) is confirmed; the impugned order dated 15.04.2025 shall stand quashed subject to deposit of the Late Fee within 30 days and other procedural directions in the order. (Decision in favour of the assessee on the issue of penalty.)
Late fee - General Penalty - Imposition of general penalty only in absence of any other penalty - arbitrariness and equal treatment - Doctrine against double punishment - HELD THAT:- The fact that two Assessment Orders have been passed on 13.05.2025 and 15.04.2025 for the same tax period, this Writ Petition is disposed of by dropping the General Penalty of Rs.50,000/- imposed on the petitioner under Section 125 of respective GST Enactments. The petitioner shall pay a Late Fee of Rs.1,67,200/- confirmed by the impugned order within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
In case the Petitioner complies with the above stipulations, the impugned order dated 15.04.2025 passed by the Respondent shall stand quashed and also recovery proceedings shall also be dropped.
In case the Petitioner fails to comply with any of the stipulations, the Respondent is at liberty to proceed against the Petitioner to recover the late fee in accordance with law as if this Writ Petition was dismissed in limine today.
Writ Petition stands disposed of.
Issues: Whether the writ petition challenging the order dated 01.12.2025 passed under Section 74 of HGST/CGST/IGST Act, 2017 should be entertained on the ground of violation of principles of natural justice, or whether the petitioner must be relegated to the statutory remedy of appeal under Section 107.
Analysis: The Court examined the timeline of notices, adjournments sought, and absence of substantive response by the petitioner, noting that the petitioner did not respond to ASMT-10 nor to show cause notice DRC-01 and sought an adjournment only shortly before the impugned order. The Court applied established principles that writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is to be exercised sparingly where an efficacious statutory remedy exists, and intervention is justified only in exceptional and extraordinary circumstances. The Court found no such exceptional circumstances or substantiated breach of natural justice on the record that would warrant overriding the availability of the statutory appeal under Section 107.
Conclusion: Writ petition dismissed; petitioner relegated to statutory remedy of appeal under Section 107 and no interference is warranted on merits at this stage.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an efficacious alternative statutory remedy exists, courts will decline to exercise writ jurisdiction under Article 226 except in exceptional and extraordinary circumstances; mere procedural grievances or requests for adjournment do not displace the availability of the statutory appeal absent shown violation of natural justice.
Violation of principles of natural justice - GST DRC-01 on account of mismatch -Efficacy of alternative statutory remedy - Maintainability of writ under Article 226 - Minimal judicial interference where statutory appeal is available - Appeal u/s 107 of HGST Act - HELD THAT:- It is a settled position that interference in such like matters has to be minimal and actuated only in exceptional and extraordinary circumstances. Gainful reference in this regard can be made to judgments of Hon’ble the Supreme Court in Union Bank of India v. Satyawati Tandon and others [2010 (7) TMI 829 - SUPREME COURT] and Kakinada and ors. Vs. M/s Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health Care [2020 (5) TMI 149 - SUPREME COURT]
Though learned counsel for petitioner was at pains to submit that there has been a violation of principal of natural justice, thus, justifying intervention by this Court, we do not find this argument to be substantiated from the file and facts on record. In the given facts and circumstances and timelines as have been detailed in foregoing paras, we do not find existence of any such exceptional and extraordinary circumstance, which calls for interference by this Court in present proceedings at this stage.
Writ petition is dismissed with liberty to petitioner to avail statutory remedy available to it in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether the impugned GST recovery order dated 25.02.2025 should be quashed and the matter remitted for fresh consideration on merits subject to a pre-deposit by the petitioner.
Analysis: The writ petition challenges the impugned order confirming tax demand and records that the limitation for statutory appeal has expired. The petitioner contends that excess ITC was reversed in subsequent returns and portions of the disputed tax were already recovered/paid. The Court notes precedents permitting quashment and remand where statutory remedies are time-barred, subject to safeguards to protect revenue interests. Balancing the competing interests, the Court examines the adequacy of a conditional pre-deposit and requirement to permit fresh, de novo consideration of the show cause notice on merits within a specified timeframe.
Conclusion: The impugned order is quashed and the matter is remitted for fresh consideration on merits subject to the petitioner depositing 25% of the disputed tax from the Electronic Cash Register within thirty days and filing a reply with supporting documents; bank attachment shall be vacated upon compliance and amounts already recovered shall be set off against the pre-deposit. This outcome is in favour of the Assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an appeal period has lapsed and the court exercises writ jurisdiction, the appropriate remedy is to quash the impugned order and remit the matter for fresh consideration on merits subject to a reasonable pre-deposit as a condition to protect revenue, with set-off of amounts already recovered.
Quash and remit for fresh adjudication on merits - pre-deposit as condition for de novo proceedings - bank attachment to be vacated subject to compliance - set-off of amounts already recovered towards pre-deposit - exercise of discretionary relief despite expiry of appeal limitation u/s 107 - HELD THAT:- It is noticed that the limitation for filing an appeal under Section 107 of the respective GST enactments, 2017 against the impugned Order has already expired. The present Writ Petition has been filed only on 12.12.2025.
It is made clear that bank attachment of the petitioner shall be lifted subject to the petitioner depositing 25% of the disputed tax as ordered above and the Petitioner not being in arrears of any other amount barring the amount demanded under the impugned Order.
In case the Petitioner fails to comply with any of the stipulations, the Respondents is at liberty to proceed against the Petitioner to recover the tax in accordance with law as if this Writ Petition was dismissed in limine today.
Needless to state, any tax amount already recovered / paid by the petitioner against the tax liability confirmed by the impugned order shall be set off and adjusted towards the pre-deposit of 25% as ordered above subject to verification. If the said amount is over and above the 25% of disputed tax, no further amount is required to be paid by the petitioner as condition for de novo proceedings.
Writ Petition stands disposed of with the above observations.
Issues: Whether the impugned order dated 20.08.2024 confirming demand for the tax period April 2019 - March 2020 is barred by limitation and whether the notifications extending time limits under Section 73(10) (Notification No.9/2023-C.T. dated 31.03.2023 and Notification No.56/2023-C.T. dated 28.12.2023) apply so as to validate the issuance of the order.
Analysis: The Court examined the temporal effect of the statutory limitation under Section 73 and the scope of the executive notifications issued under Section 168A of the CGST Act, 2017 which extend the time limit specified under subsection (10) of Section 73 for issuance of order under subsection (9) of Section 73 for recovery of tax not paid or short paid or of input tax credit wrongly availed or utilised. The Court noted that the relevant notifications extend the operative deadline for the financial year 2019-20 to 31.08.2024 and observed that the impugned order (dated 20.08.2024) falls within the extended period. The Court also considered that the impugned order was passed ex parte due to the petitioner's failure to file a reply to the Show Cause Notice and followed its established practice in similar situations by requiring partial pre-deposit and remitting the matter for fresh adjudication on merits.
Conclusion: The challenge to the impugned order on limitation grounds is rejected and the petition is not allowed on that basis; the Writ Petition is disposed of by remitting the matter to the respondent for fresh adjudication on merits subject to the petitioner depositing 50% of the disputed tax within 30 days and filing a reply to the Show Cause Notice, with adjustments of any amounts already paid and vacatur of bank attachment upon compliance.
Limitation for issuance and passing of order u/s 73 - extension of limitation by notification under Section 168A - effect of notification extending time limit for recovery of tax - exparte order and right to be heard - remand for fresh adjudication subject to predeposit - predeposit as condition for proceeding and vacating bank attachment - HELD THAT:- Considering the fact that the impugned order is an ex-parte order, as the petitioner has failed to file a reply to the Show Cause Notice in DRC-01 dated 22.05.2024, and following the consistent view taken by this Court under similar circumstances, the case is remitted back to the respondent to pass fresh orders on merits subject to the petitioner deposits 50% of the disputed tax amount in cash or from the Petitioner’s Electronic Cash Ledger, within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.
It is made clear that bank attachment shall be lifted subject to the deposit of 50% of the disputed tax as ordered above and the Petitioner not being in arrears of any other amount demanded for any other tax period barring the amount demanded under the impugned Order.
In case the Petitioner fails to comply with any of the stipulations, the Respondent is at liberty to proceed against the Petitioner to recover the tax in accordance with law as if this Writ Petition was dismissed in limine today.
Needless to state, before passing any such order, the Respondent shall give due notice to the Petitioner.
Writ Petition stands disposed of.
Issues: Whether the impugned order confirming tax, interest and penalty should be remitted to the adjudicating authority for fresh consideration subject to the petitioner making a pre-deposit and filing a reply, and whether the bank attachment should be vacated on compliance.
Analysis: The petition challenges the order confirming demands of tax, interest and penalty. The petitioner asserts that the disputed amounts including tax, interest and penalty have already been recovered from its bank account; the respondent could not confirm recovery. The Court, following its consistent approach in similar matters, conditions interim relief on a protective pre-deposit and filing of a substantive reply to the show cause notice, directs adjustment of amounts already recovered towards the pre-deposit requirement, and requires the adjudicating authority to pass a fresh order on merits after verification and hearing. The Court further provides that on compliance the bank attachment shall stand vacated and that failure to comply will permit the authority to proceed as if the petition were dismissed.
Conclusion: The matter is remitted to the adjudicating authority for fresh decision on merits subject to the petitioner depositing 50% of the disputed tax (adjusted by amounts already recovered) and filing a reply within the stipulated time; on such compliance the bank attachment shall be vacated. This disposition is partly in favour of the assessee.
Remand for fresh consideration - pre-deposit for reopening proceedings - adjustment of recovered amounts against pre-deposit - filing of reply to show cause notice as condition for re-adjudication - lifting of bank attachment subject to compliance - power to proceed if stipulations not complied with - final order on merits -HELD THAT:- The case is remitted back to the 2nd respondent to pass a fresh order on merits, subject to the Petitioner depositing 50% of the disputed tax in cash from the Petitioner's Electronic Cash Register within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. After due verification, any amount already recovered from the petitioner’s bank account shall be adjusted towards the said 50% of disputed tax. In case the amount already recovered, as stated above, exceeds or satisfies the 50% pre-deposit requirement, no further amount shall be required to be deposited for the purpose of redoing the proceedings.
In case the Petitioner complies with the above stipulations, the 2nd Respondent shall proceed to pass a final order on merits and in accordance with law as expeditiously as possible, preferably, within a period of three (3) months of such reply/pre-deposit. Subject to the Petitioner complying with the above stipulations, the attachment of the bank account of the Petitioner shall also stand automatically raised/vacated.
It is made clear that bank attachment shall be lifted subject to the deposit of 50% of the disputed tax as ordered above and the Petitioner is not in arrears of any amount barring the amount demanded under the impugned Order.
In case the Petitioner fails to comply with any of the stipulations, the 2nd Respondent is at liberty to proceed against the Petitioner to recover the tax in accordance with law as if this Writ Petition was dismissed in limine today.
Writ Petition stands disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether the Respondent denied the benefit of GST rate reduction from 18% to 12% to recipients by not effecting a commensurate reduction in prices and, if so, the quantum of profiteering; (ii) Whether interest and penalty can be imposed on the profiteered amount for the period 15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018.
Issue (i): Whether the Respondent denied the benefit of GST rate reduction and the determination of the amount of profiteering.
Analysis: DGAP compared invoice-wise base prices in the pre-rate-reduction period (01.11.2017 to 14.11.2017) with invoice-wise base prices in the post-rate-reduction period (15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018). Where direct sales in the reference pre-period were absent, sequential earlier months were used. Documentary material, including price-revision circulars and invoices, and DGAP calculations (Annex-11) were considered alongside the respondent's submissions on input cost increases and market conditions. The presumption under Section 171 that tax reduction must be passed on is rebuttable by cogent contemporaneous evidence of cost increases; the respondent's evidence was examined against the specific timing and quantum of price and cost changes and found not to justify the increase in base prices contemporaneous with the tax reduction.
Conclusion: The Respondent denied the benefit of GST rate reduction; profiteering of Rs. 90,90,310/- for the period 15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018 is confirmed in favour of the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether interest and penalty are payable on the profiteered amount for the relevant period.
Analysis: Rule 133(3)(c) (as amended) making interest payable at 18% became effective from 28.06.2019. Section 171(3A) prescribing penalty came into force w.e.f. 01.01.2020. The temporal applicability of these fiscal provisions was assessed in light of the period of alleged profiteering (15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018) and the principle that fiscal liabilities imposing additional burdens cannot be applied retrospectively unless expressly provided.
Conclusion: Interest and penalty are not imposed on the profiteered amount for the period 15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018.
Final Conclusion: The DGAP's report is accepted to the extent that the Respondent profiteered Rs. 90,90,310/-; the respondent is directed to deposit this amount in the Consumer Welfare Fund (Centre and States equally); interest and penalty are not directed due to non-retrospective application of the relevant fiscal provisions.
Ratio Decidendi: A supplier who increases base prices contemporaneously with a statutory reduction in tax must justify the increase by cogent, contemporaneous evidence of cost escalation; absent such justification, the presumption under Section 171 that the benefit of tax reduction be passed on leads to a finding of profiteering, and fiscal penalties or interest enacted after the profiteering period cannot be imposed retroactively unless expressly made retrospective.
Passing on benefit of tax reduction -rebuttable presumption of profiteering - determination of profiteering by invoice-wise base price comparison - imposition of interest on profiteered amount and non-retroactivity of fiscal liability - penalty u/s 171(3A) and temporal operation of penal provision - deposit of profiteered amount in Consumer Welfare Fund - HELD THAT:-It is undisputed that the GST rate on instant noodles falling under HSN 1902 was reduced from 18% to 12% with effect from 15.11.2017 vide Notification No. 41/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 14.11.2017. The Respondent revised its prices with effect from 16.11.2017. However, the DGAP’s invoice-wise analysis reveals that the Respondent increased the base prices of several affected SKUs in the post-rate-reduction period as compared to the pre-rate-reduction period of 01.11.2017 to 14.11.2017.
As per Rule 133 (3) (c) of the CGST Rules, the provision for imposition of interest at the rate of 18% on the profiteered amount became operative only upon the coming into force of the CGST (Amendment) (Fourth) Rules, 2019, i.e., with effect from 28.06.2019. In the present case, the alleged profiteering occurred much prior to the said date. In view of the settled legal position laid down by the Constitution Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in M/s. Vatika Township Pvt. Ltd. [2014 (9) TMI 576 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] which categorically holds that fiscal provisions imposing additional liability cannot be applied retrospectively unless expressly provided, we are of the considered opinion that this is not a fit case for directing the Respondent to pay any interest on the profiteered amount.
It is evident from the facts that Respondent has denied the benefit of tax reduction to the customers in contravention of the provisions of Section 171 (1) of the CGST Act, 2017 and he has thus committed an offence under Section 171 (3A) of the above Act and therefore, he is liable for imposition of penalty under the provisions of the above Section. However, since the provisions of Section 171 (3A) have come into force w.e.f. 01.01.2020 whereas the period during which violation has occurred is w.e.f. 15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018, hence the penalty prescribed under the above Section cannot be imposed on Respondent retrospectively.
Thus, the Report submitted by the DGAP is accepted to the extent that respondent has profiteered an amount of Rs. 90,90,310/- only for the period of 15.11.2017 to 31.12.2018. However, I am refraining from imposing any interest or penalty on this amount as explained above in Para 17 & 18. Further, the Respondent is directed to deposit the profiteered amount as aforesaid in Consumer Welfare fund created by Centre and States equally as per the table ‘B’ supra. Accordingly, the case is Disposed of.
A report in compliance of this order shall be submitted to DGAP and the concerned CGST/SGST Commissioner/s within a period of 4 months from the date of receipt of this order.
Outcome: Delay condoned. The special leave petitions filed by the Revenue were disposed of by applying the law laid down in the earlier judgment referred to in the order, and the assessing officers were directed to act in accordance with that law.
Validity of reopening of assessment u/s 147 - improper sanction accorded u/s 151 - scope of notices issued u/s 148 of the new regime - Application of TOLA to the Income Tax Act
HELD THAT:- These Special Leave Petitions are squarely covered by the Judgment of this Court in “Union of India & Ors. vs. Rajeev Bansal” [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
Petitions filed by the Revenue are disposed of. The assessee will be governed by reasons discussed in the said Judgment.
AO will dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by this Court. Thereafter, the assessee who are aggrieved will be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, save and except for the issues which have been concluded in the Judgment.
Issues: Whether the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was justified in upholding additions under Section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by reversing deletions made by the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals) where the assessee failed to satisfactorily explain the nature and source of cash credits and share application monies and the appellate order of the Commissioner lacked adequate recorded reasons.
Analysis: The statutory framework requires the assessee to satisfactorily explain the nature and source of amounts appearing as cash credits in the books. The appellate authority must record reasoned conclusions in its order after analysing inquiry reports, confirmations and documentary material, and indicate its assessment of genuineness, credit-worthiness and source of funds. Where the appellate order does not narrate or analyse the basis for deletions, reversal by a higher tribunal is permissible if the material and reasoning on record fail to discharge the statutory burden. The distinction between share application money and loans does not exempt receipts from scrutiny under Section 68; equity receipts still require explanation of genuineness and source. Proportionate interest disallowance arising from unexplained credits is a permissible consequence when explanations are inadequate. The absence of documented analysis in the appellate order and the assessee's failure to establish credit-worthiness and source justify treating certain transactions as unexplained credits.
Conclusion: The ITAT's dismissal of the assessee's appeals and upholding of the Assessing Officer's additions under Section 68 is upheld; the deletions made by the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals) are unsustainable for lack of recorded reasoning and inadequate satisfaction of the statutory burden by the assessee.
Addition u/s 68 - additions relating to share application moneys - as alleged appellant failed to satisfactorily explain the nature and source of the unexplained unsecured loans and also failed to justify the proportionate interest disallowance - ITAT’s blanket reversal of the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals)
HELD THAT:- CIT (Appeals), in its appellate order, had specifically adverted to the fact that the appellant could not adequately explain the genuineness of unexplained unsecured loans and had rightly sustained the proportionate interest disallowance on such unexplained credits.
ITAT's decision to uphold the entire addition, while reversing the deletions made by the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals) is founded on sound legal principles and is supported by the material on record. The appellant's contention that the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals) had conducted independent inquiries and obtained confirmations from creditors and banks, while factually correct to some extent, does not alter the fundamental reality that these inquiries and the resultant findings were never properly documented, analyzed or discussed in the appellate order itself, rendering the deletions legally untenable and unsustainable.
This Bench finds that the approach of the ITAT in dismissing the appellant's appeal is consistent with the well-established principles of appellate adjudication and the proper application of Section 68 of the Act.
ITAT's observation that the deletions made by the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals) appeared to be a “made to believe arrangement” may seem harsh at first blush, but when examined in the context of the complete absence of reasoning in the appellate order and the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Appeals) own findings regarding unexplained unsecured loans and interest disallowance on a portion of credits, this observation cannot be characterized as perverse or unreasonable. The responsibility of an appellate authority is not merely to conduct inquiries or obtain documents, but to analyze the evidence, weigh the probabilities, address the concerns raised by the assessing authority, and arrive at reasoned conclusions that are reflected in the appellate order itself.
CIT (Appeals) failure to discharge this fundamental responsibility, coupled with the appellant's inability to satisfactorily establish the genuineness, creditworthiness and capacity aspects required under Section 68 of the Act is fully justified.
Issues: (i) Whether the writ petition under Article 226 is maintainable when an alternative statutory remedy by way of appeal under Section 260A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was available and whether the delay in approaching the High Court is adequately explained; (ii) Whether the ITAT erred in declining to treat loans to M/s. Prathima Estates Ltd., M/s. Elgen (India) Ltd. and M/s. Netxcell Ltd. as Non-Performing Assets on the ground that fresh advances were made during the relevant year; (iii) Whether the petitioner's conduct of making fresh advances to the same borrowers during 2002-03 is relevant to NPA classification under RBI Prudential Norms and AS-9; (iv) Whether the principle that income tax is leviable only on real income (notional income exception) applies when the assessee voluntarily extends fresh credit to the borrower.
Issue (i): Whether the writ petition is maintainable given availability of appeal under Section 260A and adequacy of explanation for delay.
Analysis: An effective statutory appeal remedy under Section 260A existed with a 120-day limitation. The petitioner failed to file within the statutory period and offered an explanation of misplacement of records due to office relocation. The explanation was evaluated against established principles limiting exercise of writ jurisdiction where alternative efficacious remedies exist and where delay arises from lack of due diligence. Relevant authorities emphasize restraint in exercise of Article 226 when statutory remedies are available and the delay is not shown to result from exceptional circumstances that would justify bypassing the statutory appellate mechanism.
Conclusion: Issue (i) decided against the petitioner and in favour of the Revenue; the writ petition is not maintainable on the ground of unexplained/negligent delay in availing the statutory remedy.
Issue (ii): Whether ITAT erred in not treating specified loans as NPAs because fresh advances were made.
Analysis: RBI prudential norms and AS-9 set objective criteria for NPA classification, but determinations of taxable income require consideration of commercial reality. The pattern and magnitude of fresh advances and payments during the same financial year were examined to assess whether earlier advances were truly doubtful of recovery. The continuance of substantial fresh credit and receipt of interest in the case of one borrower were relevant indicia undermining the claim that earlier loans were non-performing.
Conclusion: Issue (ii) decided against the petitioner and in favour of the Revenue; ITAT's distinction based on subsequent advances and commercial conduct is upheld.
Issue (iii): Whether the petitioner's conduct in making fresh advances is relevant and material to NPA classification for tax purposes.
Analysis: The overall conduct, including repeated fresh advances and interest receipt, bears on the substance of transactions and the likelihood of realization. Regulatory prudential classification for banking/regulatory purposes does not automatically determine taxable income; factual commercial conduct may rebut a claim that interest was unrealizable.
Conclusion: Issue (iii) decided against the petitioner and in favour of the Revenue; the petitioner's conduct is material and justifies the differential treatment of loans.
Issue (iv): Whether the principle that tax is leviable only on real income (notional income exception) applies where assessee voluntarily continues commercial relations by extending fresh credit.
Analysis: While taxing only real income is a recognized principle, its application is fact-sensitive. Voluntary extension of substantial fresh credit and receipt of interest indicate expectation of recovery and convert accrued interest into real income for tax purposes. Prudential non-recognition for regulatory capital purposes does not automatically convert the accrued interest into notional income for tax assessment where commercial reality indicates recoverability.
Conclusion: Issue (iv) decided against the petitioner and in favour of the Revenue; the notional-income argument fails on the facts due to petitioner's conduct.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is dismissed on grounds of maintainability and on merits; the impugned orders of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal dated 16.11.2007 and 06.06.2008 are upheld and confirmed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an efficacious statutory appeal remedy exists and delay is not shown to be due to exceptional circumstances, writ jurisdiction should not be invoked; further, for determination of taxable income, commercial reality and conduct (including subsequent advances) may be relied upon to assess whether accrued interest on loans represents real and taxable income despite regulatory prudential non-recognition for banking/regulatory purposes.
Interest income on NPA - underlying loan had qualified as an NPA due to interest remaining outstanding for more than six months - statutory remedy of appeal u/s 260A - NPA classification - accrual of income - petitioner sought to write-off interest amounts that had been accrued in earlier assessment years and had been duly offered to tax on the grounds that these amounts had remained outstanding and unpaid for a period exceeding six months, thereby rendering them uncollectible and justifying their treatment as written-off amounts in accordance with the established norms for recognition of income from NPAs.
ITAT distinguishing the loans advanced to two parties as fresh advances were made to these borrowers - petitioner contended that this distinction has no basis in the RBI circular or Accounting Standard-9 issued by the ICAI both of which do not recognize subsequent advances as a disqualifying factor for NPA classification.
Maintainability of Writ Petition under Article 226 of the Constitution - Bench is of considered opinion that the petitioner has admitted that an alternative remedy of appeal u/s 260A of the Act was available, which provided for an appeal to the High Court against the order of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal on any substantial question of law within a period of 120 days from the date of receipt of the order.
Petitioner failed to avail this statutory remedy within the prescribed time limit and has now sought to invoke writ jurisdiction as a substitute for the appellate remedy that has been allowed to lapse. The explanation offered by the petitioner that important legal documents were misplaced during office relocation and could not be traced for nearly a year until the preparation of returns for assessment year 2009-2010, is wholly unsatisfactory and reflects serious administrative lapses and also lack of due diligence on the part of a petitioner engaged in financial services. To permit such an approach would undermine the carefully structured appellate framework under the Income Tax Act and encourage litigants to ignore statutory timelines. In the absence of exceptional circumstances such as lack of jurisdiction, violation of principles of natural justice or manifest arbitrariness, this Court is not inclined to entertain the present Writ Petition merely because the petitioner has allowed the statutory limitation period to expire due to its own negligence.
Thus, as relying on Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health Care Private Limited [2020 (5) TMI 149 - SUPREME COURT] the first question of law stands decided in favour of the Revenue and against the petitioner.
Interest income on NPA -NPA classification - ITAT has not committed any error of law in distinguishing between different categories of loans based on the actual conduct of the petitioner. The petitioner's primary contention is that all loans where interest remained overdue for six months or more must be classified as Non-Performing Assets under the RBI's Prudential Norms and that the RBI guidelines do not recognize subsequent advances as a disqualifying factor. However, this Court is of the view that while the RBI guidelines prescribe objective criteria for NPA classification, the determination of taxable income under the Income Tax Act must necessarily take into account the commercial reality and the actual conduct of the parties.
ITAT has rightly observed that no prudent businessman would advance fresh loans to a borrower if there were genuine concerns about the recovery of principal or interest from earlier advances. The material on record clearly establishes that the petitioner made substantial fresh advances during the financial year 2002-2003.
The petitioner's conduct in extending significant additional credit to these very same borrowers during the same financial year in which it claimed that earlier loans had become non-performing clearly demonstrates that the petitioner itself had confidence in the creditworthiness and financial soundness of these borrowers. The ITAT's approach of examining the totality of facts and the substance of the transaction, rather than merely applying the RBI guidelines in a mechanical manner is legally sound and ensures that the determination of taxable income is based on economic reality rather than accounting formalism. Accordingly, the second and third questions of law also stands decided in favour of the Revenue and against the petitioner.
Principle of taxing real income - Petitioner has strongly relied upon the principle that income tax can only be levied on real income and not on notional income and has contended that interest income accruing on Non-Performing Assets is merely a book entry that does not represent real income unless actually realized. While this Bench acknowledges that the principle of taxing real income is indeed a fundamental tenet of income tax law, the application of this principle must be contextual and fact-specific.
In the present case, the conduct of the petitioner in making fresh advances to the very same borrowers whom it claims were unable to service their existing debt completely undermines the assertion that the interest income was merely notional and wholly unrealizable. If the petitioner genuinely believed that these borrowers were in financial distress and unable to pay interest on existing loans, thereby rendering the accrued interest notional and uncollectible then the petitioner would not have exposed itself to further credit risk by extending substantial additional loans to the same borrowers. The fact that the petitioner chose to make fresh advances and in the case of M/s. Prathima Estates Limited, even received interest payment within five days clearly establishes that the petitioner expected to recover not only the fresh advances but also the earlier dues including the accrued interest.
Issues: Whether notices, show-cause notices, assessment order and consequential demand and penalty notices for Assessment Year 2020-21 issued and passed in the name of an amalgamating/erstwhile company which ceased to exist on amalgamation are void for want of jurisdiction and not curable under Section 292B of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The petitioner's amalgamation of the transferor company into the petitioner with effect from 01.04.2017 was placed on record and communicated to the revenue in earlier assessment proceedings. For AY 2020-21, notwithstanding the petitioner filing return and participating in assessment proceedings, notices, show-cause notice, the order under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B, demand under Section 156 and penalty notices were issued in the name of the erstwhile company which had ceased to exist post-amalgamation. The legal framework includes the doctrine that an amalgamating/transferor company ceases to exist on sanction of scheme of amalgamation, Section 170 on succession to business, and Section 292B which preserves proceedings affected only by mere mistakes where they are in substance and effect in conformity with the Act. Precedents establish that issuance of jurisdictional notice in the name of a non-existent entity is a substantive illegality and not a curable procedural defect under Section 292B where the basis of jurisdiction is fundamentally at odds with the legal effect of amalgamation. The facts show no contemporaneous record or corrigendum by the assessing authority acknowledging a clerical/technical error; the revenue's reliance on a post-facto explanation of a technical glitch and the correctness of PAN does not cure the fundamental jurisdictional defect.
Conclusion: The notices, show-cause notice, assessment order dated 29.09.2022 under Section 143(3) r/w Section 144B, the consequential demand under Section 156 and the penalty notices issued in the name of the non-existent entity are void and are quashed. The writ petition is allowed in favour of the petitioner (assessee).
Proceedings in the name of a non-existent entity - procedural error - Whether curable defect u/s 292B? - order as issued against the amalgamating company
HELD THAT:- We are not inclined to hold that issuing notices and passing of the Assessment Order in the name of a non-existent entity is a procedural error which can be cured by taking recourse to the provisions of Section 292B. This is a case where Respondent No. 1 has conducted assessment for the period (i.e. Assessment Year 2020-21) which falls post the date of amalgamation. In such a case it is certainly expected from Respondent No. 1 to be mindful as to which entity is he assessing. Issuing notice and passing of the Assessment Order in the name of Concept, for an Assessment year which falls subsequent to its cessation, certainly cannot be pardoned as a curable defect.
The argument of the revenue that issuance of notice/order in the name of a non-existent entity is a curable defect pursuant to the provision of Section 292B, has already been negated in the case of Maruti Suzuki India Ltd [2019 (7) TMI 1449 - SUPREME COURT]
In this case, the notice u/s 143(2) under which jurisdiction was assumed by the assessing officer was issued to a non-existent company. The assessment order was issued against the amalgamating company. This is a substantive illegality and not a procedural violation of the nature adverted to in Section 292B. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the assessment order dated 30.09.2021 passed under Section 153A read with Section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is sustainable where notice under Section 142(1) was not served and no opportunity of hearing was afforded to the petitioner.
Analysis: The Court examined the factual record regarding seizure of cash, the District Level Grievance Redressal Committee's order accepting the petitioner's 'J' Form and finding the transaction genuine, and the sequence of notices and orders issued by the Income Tax authorities. The Court noted absence of any record showing service of notice dated 29.09.2021 under Section 142(1) on the petitioner and observed that the assessment order was passed ex parte on 30.09.2021 without evidence of service or of affording the petitioner an opportunity to be heard. The legal framework considered includes the requirements of service of notice and the principles of natural justice applicable to assessments under Section 153A read with Section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Conclusion: The assessment order dated 30.09.2021 under Section 153A read with Section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is unsustainable for want of service of notice and denial of opportunity to the petitioner; the order is set aside and the matter is remanded to the Assessing Authority to decide afresh after affording the petitioner a hearing.
Validity of assessment order passed u/s 153A r/w Section 144 -. Seizure of amount from the vehicle of petitioner - petitioner vehemently argues that no notice u/s 142 (1) was ever served upon petitioner before passing of assessment order - notice was never received and in an absolutely illegal and arbitrary manner on the very next day i.e., on 30.09.2021, ex parte order under Section 153 A read with Section 144 of Act 1961 was passed - non adherence to letter of the law and principles of natural justice,
HELD THAT:- Respondents was unable to point out anything on record which would indicate that notice dated 29.09.2021, under Section 142(1) of Act 1961, had ever been served upon the petitioner. Admittedly, assessment order was passed on the very next day i.e., 30.09.2021. Despite opportunity and pointed question, respondents was unable to bring on record anything to substantiate that this notice was ever served upon petitioner or that assessment order was also ever served upon petitioner.
It is opposed to all probability and commonsense that once petitioner had produced the relevant ‘J’ Form before the Committee, he did/would not produce this form before the Income Tax Authorities, if called upon and given an opportunity. It is to be reiterated that the Committee had duly accepted the said ‘J’ form.
Assessment order u/s 153A r/w Section 144 of Act 1961 is unsustainable, hence set aside. Matter is remanded to the Assessing Authority to consider the same afresh and decide the same in accordance with law.
Issues: Whether the notice dated 28 March 2021 under Section 148 read with Section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (and the order dated 9 February 2022 disposing of objections) was validly issued/assumed where reopening was predicated on absence of a certificate under the third proviso to Section 24(b), more than four years after the assessment; and whether Explanation 1 to Section 147 or an audit objection supplied the requisite post-assessment tangible material or established a failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts.
Analysis: Applicable legal framework includes the requirements for reopening under Section 147 (and the proviso applicable where original assessment under Section 143(3) was completed more than four years earlier), the need for a reason to believe that income has escaped assessment, the proviso that such escapement must result from failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts, the test that the belief must have a rational nexus to the material relied upon (not a mere change of opinion), the role of Explanation 1 to Section 147 regarding discovery of primary facts with due diligence, and the requirement of tangible material coming into the Assessing Officer's possession after completion of the original assessment. The recorded reasons relied solely on the absence of a certificate under the third proviso to Section 24(b) despite undisputed primary facts showing the property was let out and the annual value was not taken to be nil under Section 23(2). The third proviso's certificate requirement applies only where the second proviso (special capped deduction for certain self-occupied situations) is attracted; it was not attracted here. The reasons thus lacked a legally relevant link between the material and the belief of escapement; no fresh tangible material post-assessment was shown in the reasons; disclosures in the return and documents filed with it and in specific replies during assessment could not be equated to a failure to disclose within the proviso to Section 147 or to fall within Explanation 1 so as to sustain reopening.
Conclusion: The notice under Section 148 dated 28 March 2021 and the order disposing of objections dated 9 February 2022 are quashed and set aside; the assumption of jurisdiction to initiate reassessment proceedings is not valid.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - “reason to believe” OR “reason to suspect” - only reason on the basis of which the impugned notice has been issued is that the claim for deduction of interest was allowed without a certificate [as contemplated in Section 24(b) of the IT Act] being on record.
HELD THAT:- The only material which is not adverted to in the reasons, but is referred to in the Affidavit in Reply, is that there was an audit objection raised subsequent to the completion of the original assessment proceedings.
We are of the view that it is now well settled by several judgments of this Court that the validity of the reopening has to be tested on the basis of the reasons recorded.
We may refer only to the judgment in Hindustan Lever Limited [2004 (2) TMI 41 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] that the validity of the reasons has to be adjudicated on the basis of what is stated therein and not by relying on something stated in the affidavit.
As held by the Supreme Court in the case of Indian and Eastern Express Newspaper Limited [1979 (8) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] the factual material that was pointed out by the audit department viz., the absence of a certificate, cannot give Respondent No. 1 a valid basis to exercise the re-assessment proceedings.
The judgment in Honda Siel Power Products Limited [2011 (2) TMI 1184 - DELHI HIGH COURT] relied upon by the Revenue is wholly in apposite.
In the present case the sole allegation is the failure on the part of the Petitioner to furnish a certificate as mandated by the third proviso to Section 24(b). As we have stated hereinbefore, there is no statutory requirement to file any such certificate as the Petitioner’s case did not fall within the second proviso. The Delhi High Court was concerned with a case where admittedly the expenditure incurred to earn tax free income had to be disallowed. Merely because the provisions were introduced after the return of income was filed does not mean that there was no failure on the part of the Assessee to make a full and true disclosure in the course of the assessment proceedings, and hence, this judgment would not come to the assistance of the Revenue to validate the assumption of jurisdiction to make a re-assessment. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether notices issued after 01.04.2022 under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO), instead of a Faceless/automated faceless Assessing Officer under the E-Assessment Scheme, 2022 (and connected faceless provisions), are without jurisdiction and liable to be quashed.
Analysis: The Court analysed the statutory scheme including Section 151A (power to notify a faceless scheme), the E-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022 (notification dated 29-3-2022), and Section 144B (faceless assessment) as amended effective 01.04.2022. Paragraph 3 of the Scheme separates (a) assessment/reassessment/recomputation under section 147 and (b) issuance of notice under section 148, requiring automated allocation for issuance of notice in accordance with the Board's risk management strategy and qualifying the faceless procedure by the phrase "to the extent provided in Section 144B" with reference to making assessment or reassessment. Section 144B prescribes the faceless procedure for assessments and reassessments and does not itself prescribe the full procedure for issuance of a notice under section 148 or the separate inquiry stages under section 148A. The Court observed that section 148 is subject to the procedural pre-conditions in section 148A (opportunity to be heard, inquiry and order determining fitness to issue notice) and that those inquiry stages are not detailed in the Scheme. Reading the Scheme and statutes together, and construing the comma-separated structure and qualifying phrase literally and purposively, the Court held that the Scheme mandates automated allocation of cases for issuance of notice but does not oust the statutorily prescribed role of the Assessing Officer in conducting the 148A inquiry and issuing notices under section 148; applying the faceless assessment procedure under Section 144B is limited to assessment/reassessment steps "to the extent provided". The Court therefore rejected the view that issuance of section 148 notices must be exclusively in the faceless manner by an FAO to the exclusion of the Jurisdictional AO, and held that notices issued by JAOs after 01.04.2022 are not per se without jurisdiction where the statutory procedure (including section 148A requirements) is followed.
Conclusion: The challenge to the assumption of jurisdiction by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to issue notices under section 148 after 01.04.2022 fails. The notices issued by Jurisdictional Assessing Officers under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after 01.04.2022 are held valid and legal.
Faceless assessment - Assumption of jurisdiction by AO to issue notice u/s 148 - such notice was issued by Jurisdictional Assessing Officer and not by Faceless Assessing Officer - scope of provisions of Section 151A of TOLA, 2020’with effect from 01.11.2020 and E-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022 - automated allocation in accordance with the risk management strategy formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 - scope of the words “and in faceless manner” as appears in the Scheme, 2022 - two views on the subject
Whether the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer has jurisdiction to issue notice under Section 148 of the Act in view of the Scheme, 2022 or not? - HELD THAT:- It appears that if the procedure prescribed under Section 144B of the Act for assessment is to be applied also for the notice to be issued under Section 148 of the Act, then it would also lead that the provisions of Section 148A of the Act which provide for inquiry by the AO and passing of order by the Assessing Officer to come to a prima-facie conclusion that whether it is a fit case to reopen is not available in the Scheme, 2022.
If we read the Scheme literally as canvassed before us by learned advocates for both the sides, as it is unambiguous and plain in language, no further interpretation is required to be made by reading the provisions of Section 148A of Act in the Scheme, 2022. If the Scheme is also applied to the procedure prescribed u/s 148A of the Act, the same shall be altered by adding the procedure of discarding which is not intended by the legislature. Therefore, we are of the opinion that the decision of Kairos Properties (P.) Ltd. [2024 (10) TMI 1282 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] wherein, the Scheme, 2022 is also extended to the procedure prescribed in Section 148A of the Act, would amount to alter the Scheme, 2022 itself.
Hon’ble Bombay High Court while considering the provisions of Section 148A of the Act has held that the scope of scheme as defined in paragraph No. 3 by excluding the applicability of Section 148A of Act from the scope of the scheme would lead to an absolute absurdity and would amount to alter the Scheme. In such circumstances, we are with due respect not in agreement with the Bombay High Court to insert the provisions of Section 148A of the Act to be read in the scope of the scheme.
Therefore, the logical conclusion which comes that if Section 148A of the Act is not part of the Scheme, 2022, then issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act by the Faceless Assessing Officer would be an empty formality because issuance of notice under Section 148 of Act is consequence of the order which is passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act.
As held by the this Court in case of Talati and Talati LLP [2024 (10) TMI 1282 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] the notice issued under Section 148 of the Act by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer in search cases is held to be a valid notice and would also justify our view that the notice under Section 148 of the Act has to be issued by the Assessing Officer who has passed the order under Section 148A(d) of the Act. If the notice is issued by the Faceless Assessing Officer under Section 148 of the Act on the basis of the order which has been passed by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer under Section 148A(d) of the Act, the same would result into absurdity.
Therefore, the logical conclusion which can be deduced from reading of the provisions of the Act together with the intention of the legislature and the Scheme, 2022, we are of the opinion that so far as issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act is concerned, the contention raised on behalf of the Revenue based upon the Office Memorandum of the Central Board of Direct Taxes dated 20th February, 2023 which is even considered by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court would be in line of the legislative intent so as to operate the two aspects separately, one by issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act by automated allocation and other by conducting assessment or reassessment proceedings under Section 147 of the Act in a faceless manner to the extent as provided under Section 144B of the Act.
In view of the foregoing reasons, so far as the issue, with regard to the challenge to the assumption of jurisdiction to issue the notice under Section 148 of the Act by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer, fails and the notices issued by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer under Section 148 of the Act after 01.04.2022 are held to be valid and legal.
Issues: Whether the penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, levied in respect of addition under section 69A for AY 2015-16 is sustainable where the assessee contends that the cash deposits are from members (supported by documentation) and the assessment computation shows nil tax liability due to an apparent arithmetical mistake.
Analysis: The appeal arises from confirmation of penalty by the Commissioner (Appeals) against the assessee where an addition of Rs. 60,07,700/- was made under section 69A. The assessing officer treated the addition as income and initiated penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(c). The assessment record includes a computation sheet showing no tax liability, which the Tribunal found to be an arithmetical/mathematical error rather than a substantive finding of nil tax by the AO. It is a settled proposition that quantum and penalty proceedings are separate and the assessee may place explanations and supporting material in penalty proceedings even if no appeal was filed against the quantum order. The assessee consistently explained that the cash deposits were collections from members and furnished detailed supporting documentation which neither the AO nor the Commissioner (Appeals) recorded specific findings upon. Given the absence of a considered finding on the assessee's explanation and documentary evidence in the penalty proceedings, the matter required re-examination by the assessing officer with an opportunity to the assessee.
Conclusion: The appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee and the penalty order is set aside and remitted to the assessing officer for fresh consideration of the explanation and supporting documents regarding the cash deposits and levy of penalty under section 271(1)(c), after affording the assessee a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
Levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) - assessment in this case was completed u/s. 147 r.w.s. 144 - Addition u/s. 69A for the reason that the assessee has failed to explain the source of money deposited into its bank account - HELD THAT:- It is a settled legal proposition that the quantum and penalty proceedings are separate and independent proceedings and even though the assessee has not filed any appeal against the addition in the quantum proceedings, the assessee can still come forward with the necessary explanation in support of its claim for non-levy of penalty which can be examined during the course of penalty proceedings.
In the instant case, we find that the assessee has been consistent in its explanation that the cash deposits are from its members and necessary documentation in support thereof has been placed on record.
Neither the AO nor the CIT(A) have recorded any specific finding in this regard. We, therefore, deem it appropriate to set aside the matter to the file of the AO to examine the explanation so furnished by the assessee along with the supporting documentation and decide the matter relating to levy of penalty u/s 271(1)(c) afresh as per law. Appeal of assessee allowed.
Issues: Whether the entire bank deposits of Rs. 10,27,541/- can be treated as unexplained income, or whether the income should be estimated by applying a net profit rate (presumptive taxation) on the gross receipts shown in the bank account.
Analysis: The assessment was completed ex-parte by treating the aggregate cash deposits as unexplained income. The assessee later furnished the complete bank statement with entry-wise explanations showing small and moderate deposits throughout the year accompanied by frequent withdrawals and negligible running balances. The factual pattern indicates linkage of the deposits with petty electrical contracting business activity rather than undisclosed sources. Where deposits are linked to business activity, the entire deposits are not taxable as income; only the income element in the gross receipts can be brought to tax. Considering the nature of the business and the transaction pattern, estimation of income by applying a presumptive/net profit rate is appropriate. Both parties' pleadings on the appropriate net profit rate were considered and a 12% net profit rate on the gross receipts of Rs. 10,27,541/- was applied as a balanced estimate.
Conclusion: The addition treating the entire cash deposits of Rs. 10,27,541/- as unexplained income is set aside; income is to be recomputed by applying net profit @ 12% on gross receipts of Rs. 10,27,541/-, with consequential relief to the assessee. The appeal is partly allowed in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Where bank deposits are shown to be linked with business activity, only the income element of gross receipts is taxable and the assessing authority may estimate income by applying an appropriate net profit/presumptive rate rather than treating gross receipts as unexplained income.
Cash deposits in bank account - business receipts v/s unexplained income - claim of the assessee that the deposits represent business receipts from petty electrical contracting work rather than unexplained income from undisclosed sources - application of presumptive taxation provisions of section 44AD - claim of the assessee that the deposits represent business receipts from petty electrical contracting work rather than unexplained income from undisclosed sources - HELD THAT:- It is a settled principle that where deposits in a bank account are found to be linked with business activity, the entire deposits cannot be treated as income of the assessee. In such circumstances, only the income element embedded in the gross receipts can be brought to tax. Therefore, the approach adopted by the AO in taxing the entire deposits is not sustainable.
The submission of the Ld. AR to apply presumptive taxation provisions of section 44AD is reasonable and justified. At the same time, the suggestion of the DR for application of a slightly higher net profit rate also deserves consideration to balance the equities. Therefore, in the facts and circumstances and after due consideration of the pleadings made by both sides, we deem it fit and proper to estimate the income of the assessee by applying a net profit rate of 12% on the gross receipts - Appeal of assessee is allowed partly.
Issues: Whether the payment of Rs. 25,00,000 made by the company by debiting the assessee's deposit account and claimed as deduction u/s 80GGC of the Income-tax Act, 1961, amounts to deemed dividend under Section 2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The assessee, a 57% shareholder and managing director, had a substantial credit balance in his deposit account with the company prior to payments totalling Rs. 25,00,000 being made on his instructions and debited to that account. The payments did not create any fresh liability of the company to the assessee and at no time did the deposit account show a debit balance; the payments reduced the assessee's existing deposit balance. The statutory language of Section 2(22)(e) covers any payment by a closely held company on behalf of, or for the individual benefit of, a qualifying shareholder to the extent the company possesses accumulated profits; however, where the payment represents withdrawal or repayment of the shareholder's own deposit (and no fresh loan or advance is made by the company), the element of benefit flowing from the company to the shareholder is absent. Applying these principles to the facts, the transaction here was a repayment/withdrawal from the assessee's deposit account and did not constitute a payment by the company conferring a benefit under Section 2(22)(e).
Conclusion: The payment of Rs. 25,00,000 by debiting the assessee's deposit account does not fall within Section 2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act, 1961; the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The legal effect is that the addition made by the Assessing Officer treating the payment as deemed dividend under Section 2(22)(e) is set aside, and the assessment stands corrected accordingly.
Ratio Decidendi: A payment by a closely held company that merely withdraws or repays a shareholder's existing deposit (without constituting a fresh loan or an accruing benefit from the company) does not amount to deemed dividend under Section 2(22)(e) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Deemed dividend u/s. 2(22)(e) - transaction being repayment of deposit - HELD THAT:- In this case, the assessee who is the Managing Director of M/s Crystal Quinone Pvt. Ltd., holds 57% shareholding in the said company. During the relevant assessment year, the assessee was maintaining a deposit account with the company.
As on 19.03.2015, the assessee had a credit balance of Rs. 4,04,73,030/- in his deposit account. On the instructions of the assessee, the company made payments by debiting the assessee’s deposit account, which facts are not in dispute. Even after such payments, the assessee continued to have a substantial credit balance with the company and there was no point of time during the year when the account showed a debit balance.
Since the company has not given any money in any form to the assessee, the provision of Section 2(22)(e) of the Act are not attracted. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether the protective additions made under Section 68 and Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the hands of an assessee alleged to be an accommodation entry provider can be sustained where substantive additions have been made and confirmed in the hands of beneficiary entities.
Analysis: Applicable legal framework requires the assessee in whose books a credit appears to discharge the primary onus under Section 68 by establishing (i) identity of the creditor, (ii) creditworthiness of the creditor, and (iii) genuineness of the transaction. Search-derived material and sworn statements indicating that the assessee operated as a conduit for accommodation entries are relevant to the assessment of whether the statutory onus was discharged. Protective additions under Section 68 and consequential protective addition under Section 69C are not negated merely because substantive additions against beneficiaries have been made; the liability under Section 68 attaches independently to the assessee if the statutory onus is not met. Where discrepancies in quantum are raised, verification of correct figures is appropriate but does not preclude restoration of additions if onus is not established.
Conclusion: Protective additions under Section 68 and the consequential addition under Section 69C are restored and sustained; the order deleting those protective additions is set aside and the Revenue's appeal is allowed.
Protective additions u/s 68 and 69C made in the hands of the assessee as an accommodation entry provider - substantive and protective addition - initial onus to prove - as per DR accommodation entry provider cannot escape assessment merely on the ground that substantive additions have been made in the hands of the beneficiaries - reasoning adopted by the CIT(A) in deleting addition as protective additions cannot survive merely because substantive additions have been confirmed in the hands of beneficiaries
HELD THAT:- It is a settled position of law that the burden under section 68 rests upon the assessee in whose books the credit appears, to satisfactorily explain the nature and source thereof.
As decided in PCIT v. NRA Iron & Steel Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (3) TMI 323 - SUPREME COURT] has unequivocally held that the assessee must establish (i) identity of the creditor, (ii) creditworthiness of the creditor, and (iii) genuineness of the transaction.
In the present case, the assessee has been found, on the basis of search material and sworn statements, to be a conduit entity used for routing accommodation entries. Mere reflection of transactions in the books does not, by itself, discharge the statutory onus under section 68.
The reasoning adopted by the CIT(A), that protective additions cannot survive merely because substantive additions have been confirmed in the hands of beneficiaries, does not accord in view of the decision of Sumit Global Pvt. Ltd. [2024 (7) TMI 226 - CHHATTISGARH HIGH COURT] The liability under section 68 is independent and attaches to the assessee in whose books the unexplained credits are found.
Additions made by the AO u/s 68 of the Act are restored and sustained. Consequentially, the addition under section 69C is also upheld. Decided in favour of revenue,.
Issues: Whether the Assessing Officer validly assumed jurisdiction to reopen the assessment for AY 2017-18 under Section 147 read with Section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by recording a "reason to believe" that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment.
Analysis: The statutory requirement for reopening under Section 147 is the recording of a bona fide "reason to believe" that income has escaped assessment; such reasons must be contained in the reasons recorded and examined on a stand-alone basis. Reasons that merely disclose suspicion or indicate the need for inquiry are insufficient. The recorded reasons must show tangible material and a rational nexus between the material and the belief of escapement of income. Here, the reasons recorded only noted receipt of Rs. 7.15 crores from a client and a general statement that the client made suspicious transactions, and compared that receipt with the assessee's reported turnover of Rs. 4.01 crores. The material recorded did not identify documents or facts establishing that the amounts received were proprietary receipts of the assessee or that they had any effect on the assessee's taxable income. The assessee is a registered stock-broker who held client funds in a fiduciary capacity and earned brokerage only; the client-level transaction value cannot be equated with the broker's turnover. The reasons recorded therefore were vague, lacked specific tangible material, and failed to disclose the necessary link between the material and alleged escapement of income.
Conclusion: The recorded reasons do not meet the legal standard of "reason to believe" under Section 147 and the reopening is invalid; the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: For valid reopening under Section 147, the assessing authority must record, on the basis of tangible material, a clear reason to believe showing a rational nexus between that material and alleged escapement of income; mere suspicion or comparison of client transaction values with a broker's turnover, without material demonstrating proprietary receipt, is insufficient to constitute a reason to believe.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - reasons to believe - condition precedent as stipulated u/s.147 - "belief based on reason” - AO should record the ‘reason to believe escapement of income’ - “tangible material” to come to the conclusion that there is escapement of income from assessment
HELD THAT:- From the reasons already set out above, it emerges that, the AO had taken note of receipt of funds of Rs. 7.15 crores by the assessee from M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd during the year. According to AO, M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd was not involved in genuine business activities and that it had made suspicious transactions with various parties including the assessee. After purported analysis of the return of income, 3CD etc. of the assessee and taking note of the admitted turnover of Rs. 4.01 crores, the AO formed his belief that income had escaped assessment and, hence required to be reopened u/s.147 of the Act and consequently issued the impugned notice u/s 148 of the Act.
We find that the aforesaid reasons do not satisfy the requirements of Section 147 of the Act. The reasons and the information referred to is extremely scanty and vague. There is no reference to any document or statement, or any tangible material or evidence that prima facie shows or establishes nexus or link which discloses escapement of income. Rather, it appears that the reasons were recorded by the AO on his own subjective notions and opinion.
AO has not adduced any material basis which he suspected that M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd was involved in nongenuine business transactions or that its transactions with M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd was suspicious.
AO has mechanically averred that the assessee had received funds from M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd which he suspected to be involved in non-genuine activities and thus straightaway concluded that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. There is no reason or basis whatsoever stated for arriving at such a belief. The AO has also not examined the nature of receipt of funds from M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd by the assessee and only because there was a receipt from M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd he suspected that it may represent income escaping assessment, an action we are unable to countenance.
It has to be kept in mind that in Ganga Saran & Sons P. Ltd. [1981 (4) TMI 5 - SUPREME COURT] held that the expression "reason to believe" occurring in sec. 147 "is stronger" than the expression "if satisfied" and such requirement has to be met by the AO in the reasons recorded before usurping the jurisdiction u/s. 147 of the Act. It must be kept in mind that information adverse against the assessee may trigger "reason to suspect" then the AO is duty bound to make reasonable enquiry to collect material which would make him belief that there is in fact an escapement of income which requirement of law has not been fulfilled in this case by the AO.
How the AO formed his opinion that M/s Orange Mist Productions Pvt Ltd was involved in suspicious transactions with the assessee. Apparently there appears to be no basis for this conclusion arrived at by the AO in the reasons recorded.
AO, based on the reasons recorded as set out above, had initiated a roving enquiry to examine the veracity of his own subjective notions, in as much as, there was no tangible material or evidence in possession demonstrated through his recorded reasons which could have validly led him to believe that income of the assessee had escaped assessment. The reasons recorded were scant and vague. Decided in favour of assessee.
Issues: Whether the capital gains arising on transfer of the assessee's equity shares and compulsorily convertible debentures in the Indian investee company were taxable in India, and whether treaty benefits under the India-Singapore DTAA were available despite the assessee's claim of Singapore residence and Tax Residency Certificate.
Analysis: The assessee was incorporated in Singapore and held a Tax Residency Certificate, but the surrounding facts showed that it was a wholly owned step-down subsidiary of a Hong Kong company ultimately owned by a Chinese parent. The investment route was interposed between the Chinese business group and the Indian project company, while the assessee had no employees, no conventional office, and no meaningful operating beyond professional fees. The Board and bank-account control was found to rest largely with persons based outside Singapore, and the record did not substantiate real and continuous business activity in Singapore. On these facts, the arrangement was held to fall within the limitation of benefits clause in Article 24A of the treaty and to lack sufficient commercial substance. Mere possession of a TRC was treated as not conclusive where the factual matrix showed that the entity functioned as a shell or conduit for treaty advantage.
Conclusion: The capital gains were held taxable in India under the source rule, and the assessee was denied the benefit of the India-Singapore DTAA.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a foreign holding vehicle is interposed without real commercial substance or genuine business operations, treaty relief under a capital gains article subject to a limitation of benefits clause can be denied notwithstanding the existence of a Tax Residency Certificate.
Limitation of Benefits clause - treaty shopping - place of effective management - substance over form - tax residency certificate - shell or conduit company - source rule
Limitation of Benefits clause - treaty shopping - place of effective management - substance over form - tax residency certificate - shell or conduit company - source rule - Entitlement to India-Singapore DTAA benefits for capital gains on sale of shares/CCDs held by the assessee and consequent taxability in India - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined whether the assessee, a Singapore-incorporated wholly-owned subsidiary of a Hong Kong company (ultimately owned by a Chinese parent), was entitled to Article 13(4A)/(5) benefits of the India-Singapore DTAA for capital gains arising on sale of Indian shares/CCDs. The Tribunal found that the assessee was interposed as an investment vehicle with no independent sources of funds, minimal tangible assets and operating expenditure, no employees, no dedicated office and bank-signatories/decision-makers resident outside Singapore. The TRC issued by Singapore was held not conclusive; surrounding facts had to be examined and, on the material, showed lack of effective management and commercial substance in Singapore. The arrangement was held to have been adopted principally to obtain treaty benefit (treaty shopping) and thus fell within Article 24A (LOB): the assessee was a shell/conduit company lacking real and continuous business activities and did not meet the substance/expenditure tests. Applying the doctrine of substance over form and the source rule, the Tribunal held that the capital gains were taxable in India and treaty protection under Article 13 was denied. The Tribunal rejected reliance on a contrary Mumbai ITAT decision as factually distinguishable and noted that prior grant of treaty benefit for interest on CCDs would not estop the Revenue from denying treaty benefits for capital gains where eligibility criteria were not satisfied. [Paras 9]
The assessee is not entitled to DTAA benefits for the capital gains; Article 24A (LOB) is attracted, the assessee lacks substance and effective management in Singapore, and the capital gains are taxable in India under the source rule.
Final Conclusion: Appeal dismissed; assessment upheld for AY 2020-21 as the Tribunal found the assessee to be an interposed shell/conduit entity lacking requisite substance and effective management in Singapore, thereby attracting the LOB clause and rendering the capital gains taxable in India.
Issues: Whether the addition of Rs. 19,15,358/- by the Assessing Officer for rejecting income computed under the percentage/project completion method (AS 9) was justified.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the assessee's accounting treatment and found that the assessee had consistently followed the project/percentage completion method since inception and that this method is recognised under Accounting Standard AS 9. The Tribunal noted that advances received from buyers were shown as liabilities in the balance sheet for assessment year 2014-15 and the income was offered to tax in subsequent years upon execution of sale deeds and realization of full consideration. The Tribunal observed that the Assessing Officer and the CIT(A) failed to take these facts into account and that the revenue had previously accepted the accounting method.
Conclusion: The addition is not justified; the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Addition made by rejecting the income offered under percentage completion method as per AS 9 by your appellant - assessee is engaged in the business of construction/development of residential complex and sale of flat on completion of construction - AO disallowed the expenditure in respect of penalty paid to Silvasa Municipal Corporation for deviation in plan.
HELD THAT:- It is pertinent to note that since the assessment year 2014-15, the assessee was following the project completion method which is since inception of the firm.
Revenue has accepted this accounting method which is recognized by the Institute of Chartered Accountant and is in accordance of Accounting Standard AS-9. This fact was not disputed by the Assessing Officer as well as by the CIT(A).
In assessee’s case, the ownership of the flat was transferred only after execution of the sale deed on realization of full consideration but in fact the advance receipt from the buyers were shown as liability in the balance sheet of assessment year 2014-15 which was offered to tax in the later years as and when the sale deeds were executed.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the deletion by the appellate authority of the addition made under Section 69B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is sustainable; (ii) Whether the appellate authority erred in not obtaining a remand report under Rule 46A(3) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 in respect of additional evidence.
Issue (i): Whether the addition of Rs. 2,67,22,210/- made under Section 69B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is justified.
Analysis: The appellate decision examined accounting records, debtor ledgers, portions of audited financial statements and reconciliations establishing that interest receipts arose from agency transactions where the assessee paid principals and recovered delayed payments from debtors, charging interest. The notional computation by applying a 10% interest rate to infer undisclosed loans was evaluated against documentary material demonstrating the agency model and separate recording of commission and interest income in the assessee's books. The appellate authority's treatment addressed the basis of the interest receipts and the absence of requirement to show principal sales and related debtors in the agent's balance sheet.
Conclusion: The deletion of the addition under Section 69B is affirmed in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether failure to call a remand report under Rule 46A(3) warranted interference with the appellate decision.
Analysis: The material before the assessing officer showed that the alleged additional documents and debtor details had been previously considered and referenced in the assessment record. The tribunal found that the contested material was not newly filed so as to require a remand report under the rule; the assessing officer had already dealt with the relevant chart and ledger extracts.
Conclusion: The contention that a remand report should have been called is rejected and the challenge is dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The appellate findings that the interest income represented agency-related receipts and that the notional addition under Section 69B was not warranted are upheld; the revenue appeal is dismissed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where documentary evidence and accounting records establish that interest receipts arise from agency transactions and are properly recorded as commission/interest in the agent's books, a notional addition under Section 69B based solely on applying an assumed interest rate to infer undisclosed loans is not sustainable.
Addition u/s 69B -unexplained loans and advances - AO has calculated the notional figure of loans and advance based on the interest income declared in the audited financial statements and duly offered to tax - Only because there were no loans and advances appearing in the balance sheet, AO has applied 10% interest rate and assumed that the assessee had given loans and advances - CIT(A) deleted addition
HELD THAT:- CIT(A)/NFAC has examined the said transaction and has observed AO has disregarded the agency and also not taken note that the sales and debtors are reflected in the principal’s books and along with the commission income the assessee also earns the interest income on delayed payments of debtors. DR failed to controvert the contention of Ld. counsel of the assessee. We therefore find no inconsistency in the finding of CIT(A) deleting the impugned addition u/s 69B - Decided against revenue.
Issues: Whether the confiscation of imported marble slabs and the concomitant redemption fine and penalty could be sustained where the departmental authority enhanced the declared value to the DGFT-prescribed minimum import price and the importer did not contest the enhanced value.
Analysis: The Tribunal analysed the interaction between Customs valuation under the Customs Act and Valuation Rules and the value-based restriction imposed by the DGFT notification (minimum import price). It observed that Customs assessable value for duty must be determined by the Customs Valuation Rules based on transaction value and that the DGFT floor price regulates permissibility of import. The Adjudicating Authority had enhanced the declared value to align with DGFT policy conditions without applying the Customs Valuation Rules or making findings of misdeclaration under the Customs Act. Once the departmental enhancement of value to the DGFT floor price is accepted and not contested by the importer, the goods become compliant with the DGFT notification for import permissibility; consequently, penal consequences premised on the goods being below the floor price fall away. The Tribunal therefore treated the accepted enhanced value as rendering the goods freely importable subject to payment of duty at that enhanced value and considered confiscation, redemption fine and the penalty under Section 112(a) in that factual context.
Conclusion: Confiscation of the goods, the redemption fine and the penalty are set aside; the goods shall be released on payment of duty as per the enhanced value and the appellant is entitled to consequential relief as per law.
Customs valuation and transaction value - Minimum import price (MIP) and import permissibility - seeking clearance of goods declared as Engineered Marble imported from China and classified under CTH 6802 9990 - Use of DGFT notifications for regulating importability, not for fixing assessable value - Confiscation and redemption in consequence of breach of import policy - Setting aside confiscation, fine and penalty where enhanced value accepted - HELD THAT:- While the Tribunal is presumed to know the law, it is not presumed to know the facts. Complete disclosure is therefore indispensable, especially since the Tribunal ordinarily accepts the submissions and averments of parties at face value, assuming they are made candidly, in good faith and with clean hands.
We find that the contravention of DGFT Notification No. 18(RE)/2008 is not contested by the appellant. It was however submitted by them that the adjudicating authority wrongly imposed fine and penalty instead of merely assessing duty on the DGFT-fixed value and further that Section 17 of the FTDR Act bars confiscation of goods intended for personal use.
The valuation rules under the Customs Act and the value-based restrictions prescribed in the DGFT notification operate in distinct domains. Under the Customs Act and the Rules framed thereunder, the assessable value is determined on the basis of the declared transaction value for the purpose of applying the ad valorem duty.
In contrast, the value mentioned in the DGFT notification is meant to regulate the permissibility of importing the goods in question. Accordingly, it was incumbent upon the Proper Officer to first evaluate the declared transaction value strictly in terms of the Customs Act and the Valuation Rules. If the transaction value was correctly declared and happened to be lower than the minimum value permitted for free import as per the DGFT notification, the officer, after accepting the declared value, could have imposed penalties and taken action for violation of the DGFT notification, as provided by law.
However, in the present case, the Adjudicating Authority without taking recourse to the Customs Valuation Rules has by ‘ORDER’ enhanced the declared value not on the basis of any findings on any misdeclaration of value or irregularity under the Customs Act, but solely to align the goods with the “policy conditions” under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
We hence find force in the Ld. Counsel’s submission. In the circumstances, once the value is enhanced and aligned to USD 60 for import purposes, the goods are purged of the taint and are to be treated as compliant with DGFT Notification No. 18(RE)/2008, irrespective of the fact that such enhancement of value stems from departmental action. Hence if the importer does not contest the enhanced value, as in this case, the goods become freely importable and are no longer liable to penal consequences. This being so all other issues raised by the appellant looses relevance.
Issues: Whether the appeal filed against the Assistant Commissioner's order dated 18.03.2024 is maintainable before the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal in view of Section 129A of the Customs Act, 1962 and Regulation 14 of the Sea Cargo Manifest and Transhipment (Amendment) Regulations, 2020.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined Section 129A of the Customs Act, 1962 which prescribes the classes of orders that may be appealed to the Appellate Tribunal and specifies that orders passed by an Assistant Commissioner/Deputy Commissioner are to be appealed to the Commissioner (Appeals). Regulation 14 of the Sea Cargo Manifest and Transhipment (Amendment) Regulations, 2020 permitting appeals to the Tribunal was considered but found incapable of overriding the statutory scheme under Section 129A which governs the forum for appeals against orders of the Assistant Commissioner.
Conclusion: The appeal is not maintainable before the Appellate Tribunal; the appeal is rejected on the ground of maintainability and the decision is in favour of the Revenue.
Maintainability of appeal before the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal - Appeals to the Appellate Tribunal under Section 129A of the Customs Act - Appeal against orders of Assistant Commissioner/Deputy Commissioner lies to Commissioner (Appeals) - Regulations cannot override statutory provisions - Condonation of delay application contingent on maintainability of the appeal - HELD THAT:- Perusal of the statutory provision as prescribed under Section 129A of the Customs Act 1962 clearly shows that if the order is passed by the Assistant Commissioner/Deputy Commissioner, appeal against the same would lie to the Commissioner (Appeals) and not to this Tribunal.
Further, we find that though the Regulation 14 provides that any person aggrieved by the regulation will file appeal before this Tribunal but these regulations cannot over-ride the statutory provision as prescribed under the Customs Act, 1962 which bars the entertaining of the appeal against the order passed by the Assistant Commissioner/Deputy Commissioner.
In view of this statutory bar, as prescribed under Section 129A of the Customs Act, 1962, we are of the considered opinion that the present appeal is not maintainable before this Tribunal and the same is rejected on the ground of maintainability at this stage.
Issues: Whether boronated calcium nitrate (Yaraliva Nitrabor) imported and classified under CTH 3102 6000 qualifies as a "water soluble calcium nitrate" within Sl. No.202(I)(b) of Notification No.12/2012-Cus dated 17.03.2012 and is therefore eligible for the exemption under that notification.
Analysis: The question turns on whether the imported product falls within the description and specifications of water-soluble calcium nitrate in Part-A of Schedule-1 of the Fertilizer Control Order, 1985 and the entries in Notification No.12/2012-Cus. The product contains boron and shows specified values for water insoluble matter and other parameters that correspond to the category of fortified fertilizers under the FCO. The notification grants exemption specifically to listed water-soluble fertilizers meeting the FCO specifications. Exemption notifications are to be interpreted strictly, and eligibility depends on the product matching the description and specifications set out in the FCO and the notification entry. The presence of boron and the matching of specifications to the fortified fertilizer entry indicate a different category from plain calcium nitrate listed for exemption.
Conclusion: The boronated calcium nitrate (Yaraliva Nitrabor) does not qualify as the water-soluble calcium nitrate covered by Sl. No.202(I)(b) of Notification No.12/2012-Cus dated 17.03.2012; the exemption is not available.
Water-soluble fertilizer - imported ‘Calcium Nitrate with Boron’- duty exemption under Notification No.12/2012-Cus - Fertilizer Control Order specifications - classification as fortified fertilizer - strict interpretation of exemption notification - HELD THAT:- As seen from the above Notification, the water-soluble fertilizers included in schedule-1 Part-A of the FCO are eligible for the benefit of 5% Basic Customs Duty. Admittedly, the item imported is boronated calcium nitrate, the only question that arises is this a water-soluble fertilizer and even if a negligible percentage of boron is added to it, whether it still remains to be calcium nitrate to enjoy the benefit of the Notification.
We find that the Fertilizer Control Order, 1985 under the category of Fortified Fertilizers at Sl.No.9 Calcium Nitrate with Boron is mentioned wherein under the specifications column water soluble calcium is 17.1% and Boron by weight is 0.250. In the instant case, the Boron content in the product imported by the appellant is to the extent of 0.3% and as claimed by the Revenue it appears that the product is rightly classifiable under the category of Fortified Fertilizers. We also find that I(h) under the FCO under the category of 100% water-soluble complex fertilizers calcium nitrate is included under which water insoluble is 1.5%. Since, calcium nitrate with boron under Sl.No.9 under the category of Fortified Fertilizers matches to the specifications given by the appellant for the product imported by them, the benefit of the Notification meant for water-soluble fertilizers cannot be extended. Accordingly, we find justification of the Revenue in denying the benefit of the Notification. It is also on record that ‘Yaraliva Nitrabor’ imported by the appellant with the addition of boron to calcium nitrate increases elasticity of tissues to prevent cracking of tissues which clearly acknowledges the fact that calcium nitrate is different from boronated calcium nitrate. The Notification is for calcium nitrate and not for boronated calcium nitrate, therefore, as observed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of Customs (Import), Mumbai vs. Dilip Kumar & Company [2018 (7) TMI 1826 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] words cannot be included into the Notification since an exemption Notification has to be strictly interpreted.
Therefore, the benefit of the Notification cannot be extended wherein the Notification clearly mentions only the calcium nitrate and even in the FCO, 1985 only calcium nitrate is mentioned under the category of water-soluble fertilizers, the fact that it is water-soluble as claimed by the appellant will not change the fact that calcium nitrate is different from boronated calcium nitrate. In view of the above, we are in the agreement with the Revenue that the benefit of the Notification No.12/2012-Cus. dated 17.03.2012 cannot be extended.
Thus, the impugned order is upheld and appeals are dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the imported monitors (M80281FQ AW MVCD-1619 Barco Monitor for MRI) are classifiable as computer monitors under heading 8528 such that IGST at 18% (serial no. 384/383C of Notification No.1/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate)) applies instead of 28% charged under serial no.154; (ii) Whether the orders rejecting amendment applications and sustaining assessment at 28% IGST should be set aside and assessments restored to the proper officer under section 17(5) of the Customs Act, 1962 for consequential determination.
Issue (i): Classification and applicable IGST rate for the imported monitors.
Analysis: The Tribunal applied TARiff classification principles including GIR 1 and HS explanatory notes to distinguish monitors capable of connecting to and designed for use with ADP machines from other monitors; relied on technical criteria (connectors, absence of TV tuner, viewable size, display pitch, ergonomic and connectivity features) and CBIC guidance (Circular No.33/2007) as authoritative field guidance. The Tribunal found the goods were 19 inch LCD monitors, met the ADP-monitor technical specifications, and fell within heading 8528; notification serial entries for IGST are keyed to the heading (8528) and size/technical capability, leading to 18% rate for monitors not exceeding 32 inches or computer monitors per Notification No.1/2017.
Conclusion: The imported monitors are classifiable as computer monitors under heading 8528 and attract IGST at 18% (favouring the assessee).
Issue (ii): Validity of impugned orders rejecting amendment requests and sustaining assessment at 28% and appropriate remedial direction.
Analysis: The Tribunal held that the adjudicating authority failed to apply proper classification analysis, erred in treating the notification entry as limited to a specific tariff item (8528 5200) rather than the heading (8528), and did not discharge the burden of proof for re-classification; reliance on established authorities on burden and on CBIC circulars was invoked. Given absence of prejudice to revenue and correctness of declared classification, the Tribunal found the rejection of amendment and revision to 28% to be unsustainable.
Conclusion: The orders rejecting amendment and sustaining assessment at 28% are set aside; the assessments are restored to the proper officer under section 17(5) of the Customs Act, 1962 for consequential determination (outcome favourable to the assessee).
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allowed the appeals to the extent of quashing the impugned orders on IGST rate and classification, directing reconsideration by the proper officer consistent with the Tribunal's findings that the monitors qualify as computer monitors attracting IGST at 18%.
Ratio Decidendi: Monitors that satisfy the technical criteria of being capable of directly connecting to and designed for use with ADP machines fall under heading 8528 and, if of display size not exceeding 32 inches, attract IGST at the 18% rate specified in the notifications; reclassification by revenue requires discharge of the burden of proof and cannot substitute a tariff item beyond the notification's heading-based entries.
Classification of goods - computer monitors - integrated tax rate - distinction between monitors for ADP machines and TV/video monitors - CBIC circular guidance for classification - residuary entry in IGST rate notification - self-assessment and scope of revision - discharge under protest and assessment u/s 17(5) of Customs Act, 1962 - jurisdiction to determine IGST rate - HELD THAT:- According to the appellant, the impugned goods are ‘computers’ of the appropriate size and was not amenable to the assigned description in schedule IV of the notification. It was further contended that, while designed for use with computers and capable of being connected to computers, that these were not solely or principally so precluded taking of the ambit of serial no. in the rate notification, as declared.
In any case, had the appellant discharged the liability at 18% for integrated tax, it was not open to customs authorities to revise it to 28% as set out in re Ortho Clinical Diagnostics India Pvt Ltd. [2022 (9) TMI 1109 - CESTAT MUMBAI]
Consequently, we set aside the orders rejecting the applications for amending the respective bills of entry and restore the assessments to the ‘proper officer’ in section 17(5) of Customs Act, 1962 to determine the consequential duty liability. In view of this direction, the impugned orders sustaining the assessment at 28% for integrated tax are set aside.
Issues: Whether the imported PS mouldings, PS wall panels, 3D PVC panels, PVC panels, PVC sheets, PVC accessories, PU wall panels, PU panels, PU corners, PU mouldings and WPC panels are classifiable under Heading 3921 as plates, sheets, film, foil and strip of plastics, or under Heading 3925 as builders' ware of plastics.
Analysis: The decisive inquiry was whether the goods retained the character of plastic sheets/panels covered by Chapter Note 10 of Chapter 39, or whether their profile, interlocking edges and decorative use brought them within Heading 3925. The classification was examined under Rule 1 of the General Rules for the Interpretation of the Import Tariff by reading the competing headings with the relevant chapter notes and explanatory notes. Plain PVC sheets supplied in rectangular form, even with surface printing or embossing, were found to retain the character of plates or sheets. For the profiled wall panels and mouldings, the Authority found that the interlocking tongue-and-groove features were integral to the extrusion process and did not amount to further working of the kind that would take the goods out of Heading 3921. The goods were also found to lack structural function, load-bearing capacity or permanent integration into the building framework, and their use as decorative wall coverings did not make them builders' ware or ornamental architectural features under Heading 3925.
Conclusion: The goods were held classifiable under Heading 3921 of the Customs Tariff, with the applicable subheadings depending on their composition, including polymers of styrene, vinyl chloride and polyurethanes, subject to verification of actual composition and structure.
Final Conclusion: The ruling accepted the applicant's classification claim in substance and rejected the department's classification under Heading 3925.
Ratio Decidendi: Goods that retain the essential character of plastic plates or sheets, and are not further worked into structural building articles, remain classifiable under Heading 3921 rather than the residual builders' ware heading under Heading 3925.
Classification under Heading 3921 as plates, sheets, film, foil and strip of plastics - Builders' ware under Heading 3925 - Chapter Note 10 to Chapter 39 (scope of plates, sheets and exclusion for "further worked" articles) - Chapter Note 11(b) and 11(h) to Chapter 39 (builders' ware; structural elements and ornamental architectural features) - General Rules for Interpretation - Rule 1 and Rule 3(a) - Essential character test for tariff classification
Classification under Heading 3921 as plates, sheets, film, foil and strip of plastics - Chapter Note 10 to Chapter 39 (scope of plates, sheets and exclusion for "further worked" articles) - Essential character test for tariff classification - PS mouldings, PS wall panels, 3D PVC panels, PVC panels/sheets/accessories, PU wall panels/panels/corners/mouldings and WPC panels are classifiable as plates/sheets of plastics under Heading 3921, subject to verification of composition and structural characteristics. - HELD THAT: - Applying Rule 1 of the General Rules for Interpretation and the Chapter and explanatory notes to Chapter 39, the Authority found that a substantial portion of the goods retain the essential character of plates/sheets of plastics within the meaning of Chapter Note 10. The Authority accepted the applicant's evidence that many varieties are presented in rectangular form, exhibit cellular structure or are reinforced/laminated, and that surface features (printing, embossing, UV coating) and edge profiles are formed in-line during extrusion rather than by post-formation "further working." On the material on record the panels therefore fall within the specific description of heading 3921 (including subheadings for polymers of styrene, vinyl chloride and polyurethanes), and the specific heading must be preferred to the residual builders' ware heading in accordance with GRI 3(a) and the essential-character principle. The Authority examined and rejected the revenue's contention that interlocking profiles, installation, incidental utility (moisture resistance, insulation) or commercial marketing as wall/ceiling panels necessarily change the essential character from a sheet to a constructional article, noting that removability, preservation of rectangular geometry and the nature of manufacture support classification as sheets. [Paras 5, 6]
Goods claimed in the application are classifiable under Heading 3921 (with appropriate subheadings for polymers of styrene, vinyl chloride, polyurethanes and other plastics), subject to field verification of composition and structure.
Builders' ware under Heading 3925 - Chapter Note 11(b) and 11(h) to Chapter 39 (structural elements and ornamental architectural features) - General Rules for Interpretation - Rule 1 and Rule 3(a) - Whether certain profiled/interlocking panels properly qualify as builders' ware under Heading 3925 was considered and rejected on the material before the Authority, but aspects relating to actual composition/structure were left for verification. - HELD THAT: - The Authority considered the Commissioner's submissions that profiled panels with interlocking edges, permanence of installation and incidental functional attributes bring the products within Note 11(b)/(h) and heading 3925. It held that the descriptive lists in Note 11 are exhaustive and that mere use on walls or presence of decorative/functional incidental properties does not automatically render a sheet a "structural element" or an "ornamental architectural feature" of the kind listed. On the record, the panels examined were lightweight, retained rectangular form, were removable, and had edge profiles formed during extrusion; accordingly, the departmental contention for classification under 3925 was not accepted in respect of the products before the Authority. However, because classification between 3921 and 3925 depends in part on actual composition and whether a particular item is cellular/reinforced or has been "further worked," the Authority directed that field formation verify the composition and structural characteristics where necessary. [Paras 5, 6]
Revenue's contention for classification under Heading 3925 is not sustained on the material before the Authority; limited verification by field formation is required where composition/structure must be ascertained.
Final Conclusion: The Customs Authority for Advance Rulings allows the application and rules that the goods specified are classifiable under Heading 3921 (with the indicated subheadings for polymers of styrene, vinyl chloride, polyurethanes and other plastics), while directing field verification of actual composition/structure where necessary before final implementation.
Issues: Whether interference was warranted with the order declining interim relief in the company petition, especially where the requested injunction would conflict with the civil court's order and the challenged relief did not yet encompass the subsequent removal from directorship.
Analysis: The interim relief sought in the company petition was to restrain removal from directorship and termination from the hospital role. The subsequent EGM removing the appellant from directorship was not part of the principal challenge when the petition was filed, and no injunction could be granted for continuance as director without impeaching that EGM. The pending civil suit and the earlier order vacating interim injunction also meant that granting similar relief in the company appeal would create a contradictory order. The existence of allegations of forum shopping and the pending character of the company petition further weighed against appellate interference at the interim stage.
Conclusion: Interference was not warranted and the refusal of interim relief was upheld.
Interim relief- injunction - forum shopping - contradictory interim orders - entertainment of company petition - challenge to EGM decision under Section 242(4) - oppression and mismanagement - maintainability of relief while parallel civil proceedings are pending - HELD THAT:- It is seen that contradictory statements have been made during the proceedings of this Company Appeal by the Appellant. First, he states that, the Suit has been withdrawn, the suit has been withdrawn, which has been strongly refuted by the Respondent contending thereof that, in fact, the suit has not been withdrawn and it is still pending consideration and his application under Order VII Rule 11 of C.P.C. is pending consideration.
It come to our notice that, the Appellant was removed from the Directorship of the Company by the EGM, held on 03.10.2025, but, the decision of EGM itself has not been made as a subject matter of challenge in the principal Company Petition, as it was filed much prior to it on 18.09.2025. However, the said relief has been attempted to be introduced by the Appellant. Later on, filing a Company Application CA No. 186 / 2025 under Section 242(4) of the Companies Act in CP No. 125 / BB / 2025, wherein he has made the prayer to hold the EGM dated 03.10.2025 to be null and void.
We make it clear at this juncture itself that until and unless the decision of the said EGM dated 03.10.2025, removing him from the Directorship of the Respondent No. 1 Company to challenge in the principal Company Petition, there cannot any injunction granted in favour of the Appellant for his continuance as a Director.
Since, the Company Petition itself is pending consideration, there cannot be a contradictory Interim Stay Order, as it was solicited by the Applicant in his Company Petition in the relief sought therein, in context of his removal from the Directorship of the Company.
In that eventuality, considering the reason, which has been assigned in the impugned order and also considering the surrounding facts and circumstances, which we have already dealt with herein above, we do not think that, it is a fit case to interfere with the impugned order. Accordingly, the Company Appeal, lacks merit and the same is accordingly dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Section 7 application was barred by limitation despite invocation of the corporate guarantee and subsequent acknowledgments in the balance sheets. (ii) Whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in considering amounts realised in liquidation and another insolvency proceeding while determining debt and default.
Issue (i): Whether the Section 7 application was barred by limitation despite invocation of the corporate guarantee and subsequent acknowledgments in the balance sheets.
Analysis: The guarantee was invoked on 12.02.2020 and the limitation period therefore commenced from that date. The balance sheets for the relevant financial years contained acknowledgments of the outstanding liability. An acknowledgment in the balance sheet constitutes acknowledgment within the meaning of Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963. The exclusion of the Covid period also operated in the creditor's favour. On this basis, the filing of the application on 14.04.2025 remained within time.
Conclusion: The application was not barred by limitation.
Issue (ii): Whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in considering amounts realised in liquidation and another insolvency proceeding while determining debt and default.
Analysis: The consideration of amounts already received from the liquidation of the principal borrower and the resolution of another corporate guarantor was undertaken only to ascertain the surviving debt and default for the purpose of the Section 7 proceeding. The financial creditor had already disclosed the essential particulars of debt and default in the application, and the record showed that a substantial unpaid balance still remained. No suppression or jurisdictional error was established in the manner in which the outstanding liability was assessed.
Conclusion: No error was shown in the finding on debt and default.
Final Conclusion: The order admitting the Section 7 application was upheld and the appeal was dismissed.
Limitation and extension by acknowledgement - acknowledgement u/s 18 of the Limitation Act - invocation of corporate guarantee as triggering fresh cause of action - admission of Section 7 application under the IBC - debt and default for initiation of CIRP - consideration of amounts realized in liquidation/CIRP to ascertain outstanding debt.
Limitation and extension by acknowledgement - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, the guarantee was invoked on 12.02.2020, hence, three years’ period shall commence from the said date. The Adjudicating Authority has returned a finding that in Balance Sheet of the year 2021-22 and 2023- 24, there is acknowledgment, which is acknowledgment within the meaning of Section 18 of the Limitation Act, therefore, limitation period stood extended and Application filed on 14.04.2025 is well within time. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the matter of “Asset Reconstruction Co. (India) Ltd. Vs. Bishal Jaiswal [2021 (4) TMI 753 - SUPREME COURT]”, held that acknowledgment in the balance sheet is acknowledgement within the meaning of Section 18 of the Limitation Act. We, thus, are of the view that the Adjudicating Authority has rightly come to the conclusion that application filed on 14.04.2025 is not barred by time and by virtue of Section 18 the limitation shall extend and the application is well within time.
Debt and default for initiation of CIRP - HELD THAT:- The Form-1 which is filed by the Financial Creditor is part of the record and has been filed by the Appellant as annexure to the appeal. In Part IV of the Form-1 the details of debt and date of default has been pleaded. Appellant has taken exception to the amounts which have been recorded with regard to liquidation of the Principal Borrower and resolution process of the another Corporate Guarantor. In so far as filing of Form-1, the necessary ingredients for proving debt and default are mentioned in Form-1. When the Form-1 and application was found complete, the Adjudicating Authority could have proceeded to admit the application.
As far as amount of liquidation and CIRP of the Corporate Guarantor is concerned, those are resolution made by the Adjudicating Authority itself and matter of public knowledge, hence, there cannot be said to be any suppression on the part of the Applicant.
We, thus, are of the view that there is no an error on which this Tribunal may interfere with the order admitting Section 7 application. We, thus, are of the view that there are no good grounds to entertain this appeal. Appeal is dismissed.
Issues: Whether the class of homebuyers (allottees) who filed CP (IB) No.196/2023 satisfied the threshold under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 for initiating CIRP against Earth Towne Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd., and whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in rejecting the Section 7 petition by excluding claimants admitted in the CIRP of the related holding/developer company.
Analysis: The threshold in Section 7 requires either one hundred allottees under the same real estate project or ten per cent. of such allottees, whichever is less, to file jointly. The threshold is to be assessed at the time of filing of the Section 7 application. The corporate structure and development agreement show that the Corporate Debtor was the landholding SPV with an 18% share of the project; calculating the Corporate Debtor's share yields a lower numerical threshold (including on the basis of units actually sold by the Corporate Debtor). Admission of claims in the CIRP of a related developer (holding) does not, by itself, negate the independent threshold or the right of the allottees to proceed against the Corporate Debtor where the Corporate Debtor has separate liability and the allottees have contractual recourse against it. The Adjudicating Authority's approach of subtracting claimants admitted in the developer's CIRP and then applying the 100-applicants benchmark was legally erroneous because it did not apply the threshold as at the time of filing against the Corporate Debtor's attributable allottees.
Conclusion: The appeal is allowed. The Impugned Order dated 21.10.2024 is set aside and the matter is remanded to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh adjudication on maintainability and other issues, with parties directed to appear on the specified date. This conclusion is in favour of the Appellant.
Ratio Decidendi: For Section 7 applications by allottees in a real estate project, the statutory threshold (one hundred allottees or ten per cent.) must be determined with reference to the corporate debtor's attributable allottees and as of the time of filing; claimants' admission in a separate CIRP of a related developer does not automatically defeat an independent Section 7 filing against the landowner/SPV.
Threshold for initiation u/s 7(1) for allottees under a real estate project - application of admitted claims in a separate CIRP to the eligibility threshold - maintainability of Section 7 proceedings against landowner and developer forming part of same real estate project - exparte proceeding against nonappearing corporate debtor - Whether the Appellant as a class of creditors (Homebuyers) were eligible to initiate Section 7 application against the Corporate Debtor before the Adjudicating Authority based on the threshold. - HELD THAT:- From the development agreement dated 09.09.2010, it becomes very clear that there was a clear understanding between the Corporate Debtor and the EIL, who were declared as first party and second party, respectively. The first party was authorised to develop construct, market and sale/ sub-lease of project. We further note that second party i.e., EIL approached first party/ Corporate Debtor and signed MoU dated 22.07.2010. We also note that the rights and obligations including financial arrangements between the Corporate Debtor and EIL were elaborated in development agreement. There was a clear agreement for sharing consideration between both the parties i.e., Corporate Debtor getting 18% and EIL getting 82% of consideration based on developed super area of the said project.
We find that taking into consideration the above development agreement, if total unit of project “Earth Towne” which is stated to be 3400 as per the Appellants, the 18% share of the Corporate Debtor works out to 612 units/ apartments. The Adjudicating Authority has recorded that number of allottees are 1800 and taking 18% share of Corporate Debtor, this work out 324 units/apartments.
It has been brought out that the Corporate Debtor sold 220 units to the allotees including the Appellants herein and if 220 units are taken into consideration, the 10 % of the same shall be only 22 allotees in terms of Section 7(1) of the Code, as noted earlier. Even if the Corporate Debtor’s entitlement based on 18% shares of total 3400 units is considered, the threshold is 62 being wherein the present appeal has been filed by 115 Appellants, which is clearly above the required threshold in terms of Section 7 the Code.
Thus, the threshold criteria is applicable at the time of filing Section 7 application and not subsequently. We find clear error in the Impugned Order on this ground.
Exparte proceeding against nonappearing corporate debtor - The non-appearance of the Corporate Debtor before this Appellate Tribunal as well before the Tribunal (and at both courts the Corporate Debtor was proceeded ex-parte) would also indicate that the Corporate Debtor had scant respect for the judicial process. We also find that the Appellants have clear case in their favour to initiate Section 7 application before the Adjudicating Authority.
At this stage, we will like to record that we are not expressing anything on the merit of the case and we have restricted only on issue of the threshold, based on which the Adjudicating Authority dismissed Section 7 petition filed by the Appellants.
Thus, looking from any angle, the present appeal has been found meritorious and the decision of the Adjudicating Authority to be erroneous, hence the present appeal is hereby allowed and the Impugned order is set aside and remanded back to the Adjudicating Authority. Both the parties are directed to appear before the Adjudicating Authority on 26.09.2025.
Issues: Whether the appellant was entitled to exemption from service tax under Notification No. 25/2012-ST for construction of roads, and whether the matter required remand for fresh examination of the nature of the work order and the use of the roads.
Analysis: The claim turned on whether the roads constructed under the work order were meant for use by the general public, since the exemption for road construction applies only where the utility is public and not private or confined to residents of a complex. The record showed that the appellant had not participated before the adjudicating authority and had not produced material accepted below to establish that the internal roads were for general public use. At the same time, the work order and surrounding documents were relied upon to contend that the construction was undertaken for a government development authority, making the factual nature of the project relevant to eligibility under the notification. In these circumstances, the issue of exemption could not be finally determined on the existing record and required reconsideration by the original authority.
Conclusion: The matter was remanded to the adjudicating authority to decide afresh whether the road construction qualified for exemption under the notification.
Exemption for construction of roads for use by general public - extended period of limitation - onus on claimant to prove entitlement to exemption - remand to Adjudicating Authority for fresh decision on applicability of exemption - clarification that roads not meant for general public use are taxable - HELD THAT:- We find it appropriate to remand the matter to the Adjudicating Authority to decide the issue of applicability of the exemption notification. However, at the same time, we would like to refer to the decision of this Bench in the case of Warsi Buildcon Versus Principal Commissioner, Customs, Central Excise & Service Tax, Indore [2024 (3) TMI 286 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], where the work orders were awarded to the appellant by various developers or builders of the township and the issue whether construction of roads for the period July 2012 to 2013–14 was eligible for exemption under Notification No.25/2012 was considered.
In the circumstances, the Bench had also upheld the invocation of the extended period of limitation. With reference to the above decision, the learned Counsel tried to distinguish the facts of the present case as in the case of Warsi Buildcon the Work Orders were awarded by private builders or colonisers, whereas in the present case, the Work Order has been issued by Jaipur Development Authority, which is a Government Authority. Since the exemption has been sought under Entry No.13(a) and 29(h), the relevant issue to be decided is whether the construction of road is for use by general public. We therefore, remand the matter to the Adjudicating Authority to consider the documents so as to ascertain the nature of the Work Order and the eligibility to the exemption notification.
Consequently, the impugned order is set aside and the matter is remanded to the Original Authority to decide the issue afresh in all respects. The appeal is, accordingly allowed by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether CENVAT credit is admissible on inputs, input services and capital goods used in construction of immovable property that is subsequently let out and taxed under Renting of Immovable Property Service; (ii) Whether the demand is time-barred by limitation/extended period.
Issue (i): Admissibility of CENVAT credit on inputs, input services and capital goods used in construction of immovable property let out and taxed as Renting of Immovable Property Service.
Analysis: The rules define "input service" by a means-clause covering services used by a provider of taxable service for providing an output service and by an inclusive clause listing services used in relation to setting up premises of a provider of output service. Rule 3 permits CENVAT credit on input services and utilization for payment of service tax on output services. The Tribunal examined prior decisions of Tribunals and High Courts holding that services used for construction of premises used to provide a taxable renting service fall within the definition of input service where received prior to the 2011 exclusion. The 2011 amendment excluded certain construction services prospectively w.e.f. 01.04.2011; services received before that date remain covered. Departmental circulars cannot override statutory provisions.
Conclusion: CENVAT credit is admissible in favour of the appellant for inputs, input services and capital goods used in construction of immovable property let out and taxed as Renting of Immovable Property Service for the period prior to 01.04.2011.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand raised by the department is barred by limitation or requires invocation of extended period.
Analysis: The record shows filing of ST-3 returns and regular audits by the department. No evidence was produced to show suppression or collusion or willful misstatement by the appellant to evade tax. Precedent limits invocation of extended period absent such suppression.
Conclusion: The demand is barred by limitation and the extended period is not invocable; conclusion is in favour of the appellant.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order is set aside and the appeal is allowed, with consequential reliefs as per law, because the appellant was entitled to CENVAT credit for the relevant pre-1.4.2011 period and the demand is time-barred.
Ratio Decidendi: Where services are used by a provider of a taxable output service for providing that output, including services used in relation to setting up premises, they qualify as "input service" under Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 and CENVAT credit is admissible for periods prior to the prospective exclusion effective 01.04.2011; departmental circulars cannot override the statutory definition and extended period requires proof of suppression or collusion.
CENVAT credit on inputs, input services and capital goods used in construction of immovable property - services in the categories of “Transportation of Goods by Road”, “Advertisement Services” and “Renting of Immovable Property” -definition of input service (means clause and includes clause) - availability of credit for output service by provider of taxable service - amendment excluding construction services from input service w.e.f. 01.04.2011 - administrative circulars cannot override statutory provisions - limitation and extended period - requirement of suppression or collusion - HELD THAT:- Rule 3 of CCR, 2004 deals with CENVAT credit and the relevant portion for the purpose of the appeal provides that a provider of taxable service shall be allowed to take credit to be called CENVAT credit on any input service by the provider of output service. Sub Rule (4) of Rule 3 provides that the CENVAT credit may be utilized for payment of service tax of any input service.
We hold that the appellant is eligible to take credit of the service tax paid on input services received by the appellant. We also find that in the case of Regency Park Property Management Services Pvt. Ltd [2020 (4) TMI 275 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] wherein in Para 20, the Tribunal, relying on various decisions of High Courts, held that there is no manner of doubt that CENVAT credit availed by the appellant on inputs, input services and capital goods service used for construction of the Mall, which was ultimately let out could not have been denied to the appellant. The findings to the contrary recorded by the Commissioner cannot be sustained and are, accordingly, set aside.
We find that construction services used for construction of building are specifically excluded from the definition of ‘Input Service’ only w.e.f 01.04.2011 and that prior to this date, the said services were very much covered in the definition of ‘Input Service’ and for that the appellant is entitled to avail CENVAT credit of service tax paid on such input services as the period involved in the present case is prior to 01.04.2011. Further, we find that the Department vide Circular No.943/04/2011-CE dated 29.04.2011 in Sl. No.12 clarified that CENVAT credit of services excluded in the definition of input service w.e.f. 01.04.2011 will be available if such services were received prior to 01.04.2011. We also find that the Circular No. 98/1/08-ST dated 04.01.2008, which has been relied upon by the learned Commissioner to deny the benefit of CENVAT credit is contrary to the statutory provision as well as contrary to the various decisions decided by the Tribunals and the High Courts cited supra. It is a settled law that a circular issued by the Department cannot override the provision of the law as held in the case of Kerala Finance Corporation Vs Commissioner of Income Tax [1994 (5) TMI 2 - SUPREME COURT]
As regards the invocation of extended period, we find that the appellant has been filing ST-3 Returns and the books of accounts have been regularly audited by the Department and the Department has not been able to bring any evidence on record to show that the appellant has suppressed the material facts from the Department with intention to evade payment of service tax. In this regard, we may refer to the judgment of Uniworth Textiles Ltd. Vs CCE, Raipur [2013 (1) TMI 616 - SUPREME COURT] wherein it has been held that mere nonpayment of duties is not equivalent to collusion or willful misstatement or suppression of facts, otherwise there would be no situation for which ordinary limitation period would apply. Therefore, we find that substantial demand is also barred by limitation.
Thus, we are of the considered view that the impugned order is not sustainable in law and the same is liable to be set aside and we do so by allowing the appeal of the appellant with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: Whether the services rendered to foreign universities for commission amounted to intermediary services taxable to service tax, or whether they constituted export of service and were therefore not liable to service tax.
Analysis: The dispute turned on the nature of the appellant's activity under the Place of Provision of Services Rules, 2012. The Tribunal noted that the issue was already settled in several prior decisions involving identical or similar activities, where services rendered to overseas educational institutions for commission were held not to fall within the definition of intermediary service under Rule 2(f). The appellant was found to be providing services on its own account to foreign clients, and the activity was treated as export of service rather than an arrangement or facilitation between two persons. In view of the settled position on merits, the Tribunal did not go into the other issues.
Conclusion: The services were not intermediary services and were classifiable as export of service; the service tax demand, interest, and penalty were unsustainable.
Ratio Decidendi: A person providing services on its own account to an overseas client does not become an intermediary merely because commission is earned for those services, and such services may constitute export of service rather than taxable intermediary service.
Liablility to pay service tax under intermediary service - foreign universities and getting the commission from the foreign universities -export of services - Place of Provision of Services Rules, 2012 - definition of intermediary under Rule 2(f) - export of service under Rule 3 - extended period of limitation u/s 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 - HELD THAT:- Since the issue involved in the present case is stand settled by various decisions, wherein it has been held that the services provided by the appellant is in fact not intermediary service but it amounts to export of service and demand has been set aside in all the cases.
Following the ratio of the said decision, we are of the considered view that the impugned order is not sustainable in law and therefore, the same is set aside by allowing the appeals of the appellant. Since, the demand is set aside on merits, we are not inclined to give the findings on other issues. Accordingly, both the appeals are allowed with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: (i) Whether the adda-fees collected by the concessionaire are taxable as "Business Support Service" under Sections 65(104c) and 65(105)(zzzq) of the Finance Act, 1994; (ii) Whether the service tax demand in respect of the period October 2006 to September 2011 is time-barred by limitation.
Issue (i): Whether the adda-fees collected by the concessionaire from bus operators constitute a taxable "Business Support Service".
Analysis: The agreement between the concessionaire and the Authority (governed by the Punjab Infrastructure (Development & Regulation) Act, 2002) shows that the concessionaire constructed, financed, operated and was to transfer the terminal; the Authority retained title and the exclusive right to fix adda-fees; the concessionaire was permitted to collect adda-fees in lieu of consideration for construction and development. The statutory definition of "support services of business or commerce" covers outsourced services provided to a business recipient. The facts show no contract or privity between the concessionaire and the bus operators for provision of support services; the concessionaire was not engaged by bus operators to perform outsourced business functions but was permitted to collect fees as consideration from the Authority under a BOT-type concession. The impugned demand was limited to adda-fees and the concession agreement and surrounding scheme indicate the service, if any, was rendered to the Authority and the fees were in lieu of consideration for construction/investment. The Tribunal also considered guidance in Board circulars expanding the scope of business support services but found those do not convert the public infrastructure concession into outsourced business support services to individual bus operators.
Conclusion: The adda-fees are not taxable as "Business Support Service" under the Finance Act, 1994; the service tax demand on adda-fees is set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand of service tax for October 2006 to September 2011 (SCN dated 11.04.2012) is barred by limitation.
Analysis: The concessionaire furnished all relevant information to the department on 06.04.2009 and complied with departmental directions thereafter. The statutory limitation period of one year would commence from 06.04.2009 and the department was required to issue notice by 05.04.2010. The SCN was issued on 11.04.2012, beyond the one-year period. The department did not produce evidence of suppression, fraud or wilful mis-statement to invoke extended limitation.
Conclusion: The service tax demand in appeal ST/55340/2013 (period October 2006 to September 2011) is time-barred and therefore not sustainable; conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned orders confirming service tax, interest and penalties on adda-fees under the category of business support services are set aside and all appeals are allowed with consequential relief as per law.
Ratio Decidendi: Service tax liability under the business support service category must be determined by reference to the contractual rights and obligations between provider and recipient; where a concessionaire collects user/parking charges under a BOT-type concession from an Authority and there is no privity of contract with individual users, such collections do not constitute outsourced "business support services" to those users, and limitation runs from disclosure of relevant information to the department unless suppression or fraud is shown.
Support services of business or commerce - taxable as "Business Support Service" under Sections 65(104c) and 65(105)(zzzq) of the Finance Act, 1994 - contract based levy - concession agreement / Build Operate and Transfer - extended period of limitation - renting of immovable property services - Renting of immovable property services (exemption) - HELD THAT:- Appellant had entered into an agreement with PIDB vide which the Appellant was allowed to raise construction of bus-terminal at Amritsar and charge adda-fees as mentioned in Schedule-II.
We find that it is an admitted fact that the Appellant had a contract with State of Punjab and liability to service tax has to be determined based on the contract with State of Punjab; there exists no contract with the bus operators for providing any services; further, at the time of entering into contract with State of Punjab, the Appellant could not have agreed to provide support services to unknown bus operators; further, the entire bus-terminal constructed by the Appellant could not have been constructed to support the business of the bus operators, in fact, bus-terminals are created as a public utility service and not as support services for bus operators and hence, the service tax is not leviable under the business support services.
It is pertinent to note that Schedule-X to agreement is “project site lease deed” by which the Appellant is being granted leasehold rights in the project site i.e. land, on which bus-terminal is required to be developed and in consideration, the Appellant is required to pay lease rental of Rs.50,000/- per month to PIDB for the concession period. The agreement between the Appellant and PIDB proves that the services provided, if at all, are to be PIDB and not to be users of the bus-terminal.
In the present case, instead of paying the costs of construction of new bus-terminal, the Appellant was allowed to collect adda-fees mentioned in Schedule-II and other charges mentioned in Schedule-III; the concession agreement was governed by PIDR Act and adda-fee was fixed by the State Government; and the Appellant had no choice but to collect adda-fee as the prescribed rate. Therefore, in view of completely different contractual terms in the present case and in the case of Prem Kumar Maini [2024 (10) TMI 11 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH], the decision of the Tribunal in the said case is distinguishable on the facts and is not applicable in the facts of the present case.
As regards the invocation of extended period of limitation, we find that in the present case, the Appellant, for the first time, had submitted all the relevant information to the department on 06.04.2009 and had obeyed all the directions of the department i.e. appeared before the department, submitted the information as required, therefore, the limitation of one year would start from 06.04.2009 and the department should have issued the SCN on or before 05.04.2010 whereas the SCN was issued on 11.04.2012, which is beyond the period of one year as prescribed by law. Further, we also find that the department has not been able to bring any evidence regarding the suppression, fraud, mis-statement etc on the part of the Appellant with intent to evade payment of tax, therefore, substantial demand in the first appeal (ST/55340/2013) is barred by limitation.
Thus, we hold that the demand of service tax on adda-fees in the present case under the category of ‘business support services’ is not sustainable in law and is liable to be set aside. In result, impugned orders are set aside and all the appeals of the Appellant are allowed with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: (i) Whether, after the retrospective amendment by Notification No. 1/2016-ST, services used at the head office or corporate office beyond the factory or place of manufacture qualify as "specified services" for refund under Notification No. 41/2012-ST. (ii) Whether the rejection of refund claims on the grounds of limitation and quarter-wise mismatch was sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether, after the retrospective amendment by Notification No. 1/2016-ST, services used at the head office or corporate office beyond the factory or place of manufacture qualify as "specified services" for refund under Notification No. 41/2012-ST.
Analysis: Notification No. 1/2016-ST substituted the expression governing "specified services" and gave the amendment retrospective effect from 01.07.2012. The governing test is whether the taxable service was used beyond the factory or other place or premises of production or manufacture for export of goods. On that basis, services such as renting, telephony, security, professional or IT services, repair and maintenance, and C&F support, when used at the head office for export-related functions, cannot be rejected merely because they were not used at the factory or place of removal. The earlier restrictive interpretation was held to be untenable.
Conclusion: The claim to refund in respect of eligible head-office or corporate-office services is in principle sustainable in favour of the assessee, subject to verification of nexus and supporting documents.
Issue (ii): Whether the rejection of refund claims on the grounds of limitation and quarter-wise mismatch was sustainable.
Analysis: Notification No. 41/2012-ST prescribes filing within one year from the date of export and does not incorporate any quarter-wise bar akin to the earlier notification invoked by the department. A claim cannot be denied merely because an invoice belongs to a different quarter if the claim is otherwise within time and the export nexus is established. At the same time, invoice authenticity, export nexus, and filing within the prescribed period require factual verification, which had not been completed on the record.
Conclusion: The findings rejecting the claims on limitation and quarter mismatch were unsustainable, but the matter required limited remand for verification.
Final Conclusion: The appeals succeeded to the extent that the restrictive interpretation and quarter-wise/time-bar rejections were set aside, and the refund claims were restored for fresh verification and consequential sanction in accordance with the amended notification.
Ratio Decidendi: For refund under Notification No. 41/2012-ST, as retrospectively amended, the decisive test is whether the service was used beyond the factory or place of production or manufacture for export of goods, and not whether it was used pre-export or post-export; limitation cannot be expanded by importing a quarter-wise restriction not found in the notification.
Specified services - retrospective amendment of notification - nexus with export - time-bar - one year from date of export - no quarter-wise restriction under Notification No.41/2012-ST - remand for limited verification of invoices - principles of natural justice
Specified services - retrospective amendment of notification - nexus with export - Whether services used at the head office/corporate office qualify as "specified services" refundable under Notification No.41/2012-ST as amended by Notification No.1/2016-ST. - HELD THAT: - Notification No.1/2016-ST substituted the definition of "specified services" to mean taxable services used beyond the factory or place of manufacture and was given retrospective effect from 01.07.2012. This clarificatory amendment applies to the period in dispute. The Tribunal adopts the ratio of the Principal Bench in Bharat Mines & Minerals, which rejects a pre-/post-export segregation and applies the test of use beyond the place of manufacture for export. Applying that principle, services used at the Head Office/corporate office (such as renting of premises, telephony, security, professional/IT, repair & maintenance, C&F services) qualify as "specified services" for refund, subject to documentary demonstration of authenticity and nexus with exports. The legal eligibility is therefore established, but individual invoice authenticity and nexus require verification on remand. [Paras 12, 14, 15, 18, 21]
Services used at head office/corporate office for export qualify as "specified services" under Notification No.41/2012-ST as amended by Notification No.1/2016-ST; eligibility subject to invoice-level verification of nexus with exports.
Time-bar - one year from date of export - no quarter-wise restriction under Notification No.41/2012-ST - remand for limited verification of invoices - Whether portions of the refund claim could be rejected as time-barred or because invoiced amounts belonged to quarters other than the quarter for which refund was sought. - HELD THAT: - Notification No.41/2012-ST requires only that refund claims be filed within one year from the date of export and does not impose the quarter-wise filing restrictions that apply under Notification No.27/2012-CE. The Lower Adjudicating Authority impermissibly imported the procedural framework of Notification No.27/2012-CE and rejected heads on quarter/mismatch grounds. Absent specific invoice/shipping-bill-wise reasons and given the one-year rule, quarter mismatch by itself is not a ground for rejection; however, the LAA must verify that each invoice was claimed within one year of the relevant export and that nexus with export is established. As invoice-level verification was not carried out, those determinations are remanded for limited verification. [Paras 15, 16, 17, 18, 20]
Rejections based on quarter-wise mismatch or time-bar are legally unsustainable without invoice-level verification; remand directed to verify filing within one year of export and nexus before sanctioning or rejecting refund heads.
Final Conclusion: Impugned appellate orders insofar as they rejected refunds by applying the pre-2016 interpretation of Notification No.41/2012-ST or by relying on quarter-wise/time-bar grounds are set aside. The matters are remanded to the LAA/RSA for limited invoice-level verification of authenticity, nexus with export and filing within one year; on satisfaction refunds shall be sanctioned under Notification No.41/2012-ST as amended, with interest, after observing natural justice.
Issues: Whether CENVAT credit availed in June 2008 on capital goods (transit mixers and chassis) purchased earlier is admissible where the capital goods became operational only after mounting and commissioning after 16.05.2008 (i.e., whether eligibility for credit is to be determined on date of receipt or date of commencement/use/commissioning).
Analysis: The Tribunal examined evidence showing that chassis and mixers, though purchased separately earlier, had no independent or standalone utility until mounted, balanced, aligned, calibrated, and finally commissioned as assembled vehicles. Commissioning records and job-work bills demonstrate that the completed machines came into existence and were capable of providing the taxable service only after 16.05.2008, the date from which 'supply of tangible goods for use' became taxable. The Tribunal reviewed applicable CENVAT Credit Rules including provisions governing availment of credit on capital goods and distinguished authorities that determine eligibility solely by date of receipt where capital goods were usable on receipt or were used for exempted output prior to becoming dutiable.
Conclusion: The appellant was entitled to avail CENVAT credit of Rs.41,87,562/- in June 2008 because the capital goods became operational and were put to use only after 16.05.2008; the impugned orders denying the credit and imposing interest and penalty are set aside and the appeal is allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: For capital goods that are not functional or commercially usable on receipt, eligibility for CENVAT credit is determined by the date of commencement of use/commissioning (date when the capital goods become operational for providing the output service), not by the date of receipt.
CENVAT credit on capital goods - eligibility date for CENVAT credit -- date of commissioning/start of use versus date of receipt - application of Rule 3 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 regarding availment of credit - distinguishing precedents that determine eligibility at date of receipt (Surya Roshni and similar decisions) - HELD THAT:- It is on record that the appellant has supplied these tangible goods, for use, after the same were fully commissioned by the appropriate authority. Therefore, the CENVAT Credit on capital goods was availed by the appellant only after ‘supply of tangible goods for use’ came into existence as a taxable service. In view of the above, we do not find any infirmity in the availment of the above credit on capital goods by the appellant after 16.05.2008, when ‘supply of tangible goods for use’ became a taxable service.
In the present case, the chassis and concrete transit mixers, purchased separately, had no independent or standalone utility for the appellant. By their very nature, the chassis and the mixers are incapable of being used for any service unless the mixers are duly mounted on the chassis, balanced, calibrated, and certified by the vendor. Until such mounting and certification, the capital goods remained incomplete, non-functional, and commercially unusable. Thereafter, engineers carried out mounting of the mixers on the chassis, followed by balancing, alignment, calibration, and installation of ancillary components such as hoppers, ladders, and safety fixtures. The assembled equipment was checked by the engineers, where they conducted final commissioning and issued commissioning / commencement reports. Unless and until such commissioning reports were issued, the machines had no operational value and could not be deployed for providing any service. The machines were admittedly commissioned and became operational only after 16.05.2008. Accordingly, in the present case, the appellant has availed the CENVAT Credit only after the taxable service of ‘supply of tangible goods for use’ came into effect from 16.05.2008. Thus, we observe that the case-law cited by the Ld. Authorized Representative of the Revenue are distinguishable on facts.
Thus, we hold that the appellant has rightly availed the CENVAT Credit on capital goods in the month of June, 2008 and therefore, the impugned order denying the CENVAT Credit on capital goods as availed by the appellant is legally unsustainable.
Since the demand for recovery of credit raised against the appellant does not survive, the question of demanding interest or imposing penalty thereon does not arise. Accordingly, the said demands are also set aside.
In the result, we set aside the impugned order and allow the appeal, with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: (i) Whether the disallowance of Cenvat credit could be sustained when the adjudicating authority did not properly comply with the remand directions and travelled beyond the scope of the show cause notice; (ii) whether the extended period of limitation and penalty were invokable on the facts of the case.
Issue (i): Whether the disallowance of Cenvat credit could be sustained when the adjudicating authority did not properly comply with the remand directions and travelled beyond the scope of the show cause notice.
Analysis: The dispute after remand was confined to the alleged excess availment of Cenvat credit arising from the difference between the closing balance for September 2009 and the opening balance for October 2009. The appellant had placed the relevant invoices and credit register entries on record to explain the figures, but the impugned order did not deal with those documents in a reasoned manner. On the material examined, the opening balance for October 2009 matched the credit register and the closing balance shown for September 2009 was found to be erroneous. The adjudicating authority also proceeded on a new allegation regarding 100% credit on capital goods, which was not part of the original show cause notice.
Conclusion: The disallowance could not be sustained. The order was beyond the scope of the show cause notice and did not properly comply with the remand directions.
Issue (ii): Whether the extended period of limitation and penalty were invokable on the facts of the case.
Analysis: The demand was founded on the appellant's own records and the department did not establish any positive act of suppression, misdeclaration, or deliberate withholding of information. The record did not show mala fide intent, and the discrepancy was treated as an inadvertent accounting error. In the absence of evidence of suppression with intent to evade, the conditions for invoking the extended period were not satisfied, and penalty could not survive.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not invokable and the penalty was unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the appellant succeeded on both the merits of the credit dispute and the limitation objection.
Ratio Decidendi: A demand cannot be sustained where the adjudicating authority exceeds the scope of the show cause notice or fails to give effect to remand directions, and the extended period of limitation requires proof of positive suppression or deliberate withholding of information with intent to evade.
Excess availment of Cenvat credit - Compliance with remand directions - Scope of show cause notice - Extended period of limitation - Penalty for suppression or mis-declaration -Non-payment of service tax on the value of material supplied free of cost by the service recipient - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the allegation was solely based upon the noticed difference of Rs.30,05,484/- between the closing balance and credit for the month of September 2009 and the opening balance of credit for the month of October 2009 in the appellant’s ST-3 returns. It is observed that since beginning i.e. from the stage of reply to the audit memo dated 13.09.2023 and even in the reply dated 13.09.2023, the appellant had pleaded the inadvertent error while recording the correct figures of Cenvat credit availed and utilized during the period from April 2009 to September 2009 in the ST-3 returns due to which the closing balance of credit for the month of September 2009 stood at Rs.64,97,643/- whereas the opening balance of credit for October 2009 was correctly recorded as Rs.95,03,124/-. It is the amount which is also appearing in the Cenvat credit register.
The plea of the inadvertent error while recording the closing balance of September 2009 has not been discussed properly despite availability of all the relevant documents. The Commissioner is rather observed to have gone to additional findings based on new allegation of availment of 100% credit on capital goods which was not the allegation in the show cause notice. The findings are therefore held to be beyond the scope of show cause notice and are thus liable to be set aside. I draw my support from the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ballarpur Industries Ltd. [2007 (8) TMI 10 - SUPREME COURT] and the decision of this Tribunal in the case of Delhi Duty Free Services Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (8) TMI 1489 - CESTAT NEW DELHI]
Invokability of extended period of limitation. - It is observed that there is no iota of evidence produced by the department about any positive act of alleged suppression or mis-declaration of fact on part of the appellant. The show cause notice was issued based on appellant’s own records. There is no evidence that the pleaded inadvertent error had any mala fide intent. It is accordingly held that the extended period has wrongly been invoked. Penalty is also has wrongly been imposed.
The decisions relied upon by the appellant are referred. I draw my support from the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Collector of Central Excise Vs. Chemphar Drugs and Liniments [1989 (2) TMI 116 - SUPREME COURT], wherein it is held that extended period is applicable only when something positive other than mere in action or failure on the part of the manufacture is proved. Conscious and deliberate withholding of the information by manufacturer is necessary for invoking the extended period. If the department had full knowledge or the manufacturer had reasonable belief that he is not required to give a particular information, only normal period of limitation i.e. one year is applicable.
Thus, the order under challenge is set aside and the appeal is allowed.
Issues: Whether the impugned adjudication order can be sustained where the adjudicating authority declined to permit examination/cross-examination of witnesses whose statements recorded during search/investigation were relied upon, and whether the matter requires remand for fresh adjudication.
Analysis: The case hinges on reliance upon statements recorded during search/investigation and the denial of the assessee's request for examination/cross-examination of those witnesses and departmental officers who typed the statements. Statutory procedure under Section 9D(1) was considered regarding the sequence for admitting such statements in evidence and the necessity to examine the person whose statement is relied upon before permitting cross-examination. The record shows requests for cross-examination and for supply of non-relied-upon documents were made but were not granted and no adequate reasons for denial were recorded. Discrepancies in the relied-upon statements and the fact that statements were typed by departmental officers in English without explanation to the declarants were found to justify cross-examination. Established authorities require that reliance on such statements without offering cross-examination violates principles of natural justice and renders those statements not admissible for proving their content.
Conclusion: The impugned order is set aside on the ground of violation of natural justice for denial of examination/cross-examination; the matter is remanded to the adjudicating authority with a direction to provide opportunity for cross-examination of relevant witnesses and officials whose statements were relied upon and to decide the matter afresh within three months from receipt of certified copy of this order.
Principles of natural justice - right to cross-examination - admissibility of statements u/s 9D(1) of the Central Excise Act - reliance on statements recorded during investigation - clubbing of clearances - remand for fresh consideration - Mutuality of interest - HELD THAT:- As regards the clubbing of the sale among the units, the learned Counsel submits that each of the unit is independent with separate premises, manpower, registration numbers with department of Industries & Commerce Punjab, VAT/Sales Tax and Income Tax PAN numbers; also, each of the three units has separate brand names, bank accounts, balance sheets, ledger accounts of purchase/sale, electricity meters and bill payment records; also, their returns are assessed to taxes independently. He further submits that there are no financial flow backs, no loans or advances and there was no mutuality of interest; in fact, there was a competition among these units; but the Adjudicating Authority has misinterpreted and overlooked all the aspects with intent to confirm the demand and impose penalty.
We find that the entire case is built on the basis of search made by the Preventive Officers of the department on 14.12.2012 at the premises of the Appellants, as well as on the statements of Sh. Avtar Singh, Sh. Gurjeet Singh, Sh. Jatinder Singh and other employees of the firms. On the basis of the statements made by the above persons, the show cause notice was issued. We also find that the Appellants filed their replies to the show cause notice and strongly contested the allegations made against them.
Since, in this case, the Appellants right to cross-examination has been seriously affected by not granting them the cross-examination, therefore, we are of the considered view that the impugned order is liable to be set aside.
We are of the considered opinion that the impugned order is liable to be set aside only on violation of principle of natural justice for non-grating the examination/cross-examination; accordingly, without going into the other issues, we set aside the impugned order and remand the matter back to the learned Adjudicating Authority with the direction to provide the opportunity of cross-examination of the relevant witnesses and officials whose statements have been relied upon to make a case against the Appellants, and then decide the matter within a period of three months from the date of receipt of certified copy of this order.
In result, the appeals are disposed of by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether CENVAT credit on fuel used for generation of electricity was admissible when the electricity was transferred to the State Electricity Board grid and equivalent power was received back under a wheeling arrangement. (ii) Whether the demand was barred by limitation and whether penalties were sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether CENVAT credit on fuel used for generation of electricity was admissible when the electricity was transferred to the State Electricity Board grid and equivalent power was received back under a wheeling arrangement.
Analysis: The applicable credit provisions required the input to be used in or in relation to manufacture of final products within the factory of production. The arrangement with the electricity board showed that the electricity generated in the captive plant was injected into the grid and the electricity used in the factory was received separately from the grid. On the facts found, the electricity generated was not used within the factory for manufacture, and the transfer to the grid amounted to a transfer for consideration in the nature of sale or exchange. The settled principle applied was that credit is available only to the extent inputs are used for electricity actually consumed in the factory, and not for electricity wheeled out or supplied to the grid.
Conclusion: CENVAT credit was not admissible to the extent of fuel used for electricity transferred to the grid, and the denial of credit on that portion was upheld.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand was barred by limitation and whether penalties were sustainable.
Analysis: The dispute was one of interpretation of the credit scheme, and the record showed the department was aware of the captive power arrangement. The assessee had a bona fide basis for its understanding of the law, and no reliable material established suppression, fraud, wilful misstatement, or collusion with intent to evade duty. In that setting, the extended period could not be invoked and the penal consequences did not survive.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not invocable and penalties were not sustainable.
Final Conclusion: The demand and penalties were set aside only to the extent they rested on the extended period and penal action, while the credit denial on electricity wheeled out to the grid was sustained, resulting in a partial allowance of the appeal.
Ratio Decidendi: CENVAT credit on fuel used to generate electricity is allowable only to the extent the electricity is actually used within the factory of production for manufacture of final products, and not for electricity transferred or wheeled out to the grid; where the dispute is interpretational and departmental knowledge is established, the extended period and penalties are not sustainable absent suppression or fraud.
Entitlement to credit on the eligible inputs utilized in the generation of electricity - used in or in relation to manufacture of final products within the factory of production - Res judicata in tax matters -reversal of CENVAT credit for electricity wheeled out/cleared to the grid - sale/supply/barter as transfer of possession for valuable consideration - extended period of limitation and penalty for suppression/fraud -HELD THAT:- A reading of the provisions of the Electricity Act and the correspondence entered in to by the appellants with the HSEB/DHBVNL, gives to understand that the appellants were forbidden to sell the electricity to others. It does not in any way conclude that the supply to grid does not amount to sale under any other Act. We are of the considered opinion that the term ‘sale’ is to be understood in the context of the Central Excise Act or Sale Tax Act, GST Act etc. as applicable to goods. It is not denied that Electricity is goods. As per our discussion as above, transfer of goods for a consideration constitutes a sale.
Having found that the supply of the entire electricity generated by the appellant to the grid of HSEB/DHBVNL constitutes a sale, we now turn our attention to the admissibility of Cenvat Credit. We find that the legal position as far as the definition of inputs is concerned, the same was as follows over the years.
We find that though the appellants contend that the appellant that the credit has been availed on the goods “used as fuel” “within the factory of production”, there is no denying that the same are not “used in the manufacture of final products”.
It is a settled proposition of the scheme of Modvat/Cenvat that the credit is always associated with the goods which suffered duty. Having concluded that the appellants have sold the entire electricity produced by them to the grid and that the electricity produced/ generated by them using inputs on which credit was availed was not utilised by them in the factory for production of excisable goods, we conclude that the appellants are not entitled to the Cenvat credit on the fuel used in the generation of such electricity which was entirely exported/ supplied/ fed to the grid of State Electricity Board, notwithstanding the averment that similar or more quantity of stable power was obtained from the Grid of HSEB/DHBVNL.
We are of the considered opinion that the underlying principle enunciated by the Hon’ble Apex Court, in the case of Maruti Suzuki & ors [2009 (8) TMI 14 - SUPREME COURT], is that the inputs should be used in the factory of production. We find that otherwise, Hon’ble Supreme Court could not have held that the appellants therein, are not eligible to avail CENVAT credit, on the inputs contained in the amount of electricity that was transferred/sold to other units, colony or to the grid. Therefore, the only logical conclusion that one can arrive, in view of the judgments mentioned above, is that credit on inputs is available only to the extent the electricity produced and utilized in the factory of production and not on the portion of electricity transferred/sold to the grid.
Limitation - HELD THAT:- We find that the appellants submit that the demand in respect of the Show Cause Notice dated 30.12.2003 is time-barred as all the relevant facts were known to the department, and the assessee acted under a bona fide interpretation of the law, the extended limitation cannot be invoked.
We are of the considered opinion that there were reasons for the appellants to entertain a bona fide belief. Moreover, we find that no reliable evidence of suppression of facts, willful misstatement, fraud, or collusion with an intent to evade duty, is present in the case. We find that in similar set of circumstances, Hon’ble apex Court, deciding the case of Gujarat Narmada Fertilizers [2009 (8) TMI 15 - SUPREME COURT] remanded the case back to the tribunal holding that litigation on interpretation of CENVAT Credit Rules has arisen on account of various conflicting decisions given by the various Benches of CESTAT, the reason being that the Rules have not been properly drafted. In the circumstances, we are of the view that in this batch of cases no penalty is leviable. Therefore, we conclude that in the present case, the invocation of the extended period of limitation period is not sustainable.
Thus, demand raised by Show Cause Notice is set aside; all penalties are also set aside; Rest of the order is upheld. Thus, the appeal is partly allowed.
Issues: Whether interest is payable on the refunded deposit retained by the Department during investigation under Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or otherwise, and at what rate and period such interest should be awarded.
Analysis: The deposit in question was not a duty payment or a pre-deposit under Section 35F but an amount deposited during investigation and later ordered refunded on quashing of demands. Section 11BB governs interest on refund of duty under Section 11B and is therefore inapplicable to amounts that are not duty. Section 35FF (as amended) and judicial precedents (including Sandvik Asia Ltd., ITC, and subsequent High Court and Tribunal decisions) establish that where the Department has retained amounts not constituting duty or lawful pre-deposit, interest/compensation for unjustified retention is awardable. Notifications fixing varying statutory interest rates have been considered, and Tribunal authority supports awarding interest at 12% per annum as an appropriate compensatory rate for sums unjustifiably retained from date of deposit until date of refund.
Conclusion: Interest is not payable under Section 11BB for the refunded deposit; instead, the claimant is entitled to interest as compensation at the rate of 12% per annum on the refunded amount from the date of deposit until the date of refund, in favour of the assessee.
Interest on refund - Refund of amounts deposited during investigation - Interest u/s 11BB - Pre-deposit u/s 35F - Unlawful retention of revenue deposits - Compensation by way of interest at 12% per annum - Article 300A - protection of property - Whether interest is liable to be paid on the sanctioned amount of refund in accordance with provisions of Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or otherwise - HELD THAT:- In the present case, it is beyond doubt that amount was deposited without any self-assessment or without any order of the proper officer. The amount deposited during investigation is of course not a deposit towards any duty but only an amount deposited by the assessee to avoid harassment by the investigating officers. When amount deposited by the Appellant is not duty, there is no legitimacy to apply provisions of Section 11BB for payment of interest. So, the deposit made by the Appellant is to be treated as an amount illegally retained by the Department.
Already held that amount deposited was neither duty nor any pre-deposit for filing of appeal. The amount was deposited during the investigation and its refund became due when SCNs issued for demand were quashed by the Hon’ble Court. So, the issue regarding payment of interest would not be covered under Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act, 1944 as held by the Commissioner (Appeals).
In the case of M/s Jai Bhawani Concast Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (9) TMI 1281 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] the Tribunal in its decision while holding that the refund of amount deposited during investigation and payment of interest thereon, the Appellant is entitled to interest on the full amount of deposit from the date of deposit till the date of refund @12%. In view of the ratio of above judgments, interest is required to be paid on the amount of refund sanctioned with effect from date of deposit of the amount till date of sanction @12%.
Thus, modify the impugned Order-in-Appeal and the Adjudicating Authority is directed to pay interest @12% on the sanctioned amount for the period as provided under Section 11BB of the Central Excise Act.
Appeal filed by the Appellant is allowed with consequential relief.
Issues: Whether Cenvat credit of service tax paid on GTA services for outward transportation of finished goods up to the customer's premises is admissible where sales are on FOR destination basis.
Analysis: Where the sale is on FOR destination basis and contractual terms, invoices and related documents show freight borne by the seller and assessable value inclusive of freight, ownership and risk in the goods remain with the seller until delivery at buyer's premises. Rule 2(l) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 defines 'input service' and requires assessment of the 'place of removal' to determine admissibility of credit up to that place. Relevant authority and administrative guidance, including tribunal and High Court decisions applying the Supreme Court's guidance in Ultratech Cement Ltd. and subsequent CBEC circulars, direct that in FOR destination contracts the buyer's premises can constitute the place of removal. On these facts, GTA services used to transport goods up to the buyer's premises fall within 'input service' under Rule 2(l) and qualify for Cenvat credit.
Conclusion: Cenvat credit of service tax paid on GTA services for outward transportation up to the customer's premises is admissible where sales are on FOR destination basis and freight is borne by the seller; the appeals are allowed and the impugned orders setting aside such credit are set aside.
Place of removal - input service - Cenvat credit on GTA service for outward transportation - FOR destination basis - transfer of ownership and risk during transit - admissibility of Cenvat credit where freight is included in assessable value - Whether the appellant is entitled to avail Cenvat credit of service tax paid on GTA service used for outward transportation of finished goods from the factory gate up to the customer’s premises when the sale is on FOR destination basis. - HELD THAT:- It is not disputed by Revenue that the sales were on FOR destination basis. As per the invoices produced it is clear that the freight element was included in the sale value and the excise duty was discharged on the value inclusive of freight. The freight charges borne by the appellant has also not been disputed.
Recently the same issue was examined by this Tribunal in the matter of U.B. Stainless Ltd. vs. Commr. CGST & CE; [2025 (1) TMI 1319 - CESTAT MUMBAI] wherein after analyzing the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Ultratech Cement Ltd. [2018 (2) TMI 117 - SUPREME COURT] and the circulars issued by CBEC from time to time upto 2018, it was held where the sale is on FOR destination basis and ownership and risk remain with the seller till delivery, the buyer’s premises constitutes the ‘place of removal’ and not the factory gate. Consequently, the credit of service tax paid on GTA service for outward transportation upto such place of removal was held to be admissible.
It is also pertinent to note that none of the aforesaid decisions (supra) have been stayed or set aside by any higher judicial forum.
Thus, the customer’s premises constitutes the ‘place of removal’. Accordingly, the GTA service availed for outward transportation of finished goods up to the customer’s premises qualifies as ‘input service’ under Rule 2(l) ibid. The appellant has therefore rightly availed Cenvat credit of service tax paid on GTA services.
Accordingly the impugned orders are set aside by allowing the appeals with consequential relief if any, in accordance with law.
Issues: (i) Whether a show cause notice under Section 11A can be issued to recover duty where an order granting refund under Section 11B has attained finality; (ii) Whether the appellant is entitled to refund of excise duty paid on cash discounts and credit notes (i.e., whether the bar of unjust enrichment is attracted), including the evidentiary value of Chartered Accountant certificates and dealers' affidavits.
Issue (i): Whether a show cause notice under Section 11A can be issued to recover duty after a refund order under Section 11B has attained finality.
Analysis: The Tribunal's prior decisions held that once refund orders under Section 11B attain finality (no departmental appeal under Section 35), such amounts cannot be treated as 'duty erroneously refunded' for purposes of initiating recovery under Section 11A. The impugned appeals involve refund orders that were finally adjudicated in the appellant's favour by earlier Tribunal decisions; those decisions had attained finality.
Conclusion: A show cause notice under Section 11A for recovery of amounts already finally refunded under Section 11B could not lawfully be issued; the appellant is entitled to relief on this ground.
Issue (ii): Whether the bar of unjust enrichment prevents refund of duty on cash discounts and credit notes and whether the Chartered Accountant certificates and dealers' affidavits suffice to rebut the presumption of passage of duty.
Analysis: The Commissioner (Appeals) rejected the CA certificates and affidavits for lack of supporting material, relying on precedent applying the unjust enrichment principle. Subsequent authority, including Tribunal decisions relied on by the appellant and appellate precedent, establish that where no contrary evidence is produced by the department, certified financial records and CA certificates (and supporting ledger documents/affidavits) may discharge the appellant's burden to show that the incidence of duty was not passed on. The impugned order failed to examine the Tribunal decisions and erred in rejecting the certificates without evidence to the contrary from the department.
Conclusion: The bar of unjust enrichment is not established on the record before the Tribunal; the appellant is entitled to refund of duty on cash discounts and credit notes, and the CA certificates and affidavits should have been accepted in the absence of contrary evidence.
Final Conclusion: The appeals are allowed and the appellant is entitled to refunds and reliefs as determined by the Tribunal, reversing the impugned order and granting consequential reliefs.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an order granting refund under Section 11B has attained finality, the department cannot invoke Section 11A to recover the refunded amount as 'erroneously refunded'; further, certified financial evidence (such as a Chartered Accountant's certificate with supporting documents) must be accepted to rebut the presumption of passage of duty unless the department produces contrary evidence.
Unjust enrichment - show cause notice u/s 11A - finality of tribunal order - chartered accountant's certificate as evidence - refund of duty on discounts and credit notes -Whether the bar of unjust enrichment is satisfied in the present cases or not. -HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the appellant had reduced the price by credit note or cash discount to its dealers.
A perusal of the decision rendered by the Tribunal on 04.06.2015 [2018 (10) TMI 388 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], in the matter of the appellant shows that the period of dispute involved was from October 2011 to June 2012. The Commissioner (Appeals) had allowed cash discount to the appellant but had rejected the discount towards quantity. Both the appellant and the department filed appeals before the Tribunal. The appeal filed by the appellant was allowed while the appeal filed by the department was rejected. In view of the said decision of the Tribunal, the appellant would be entitled to refund of the cash discount. It is seen that though the Commissioner (Appeals), by order dated 17.07.2014, had allowed the appeal filed by the appellant for refund of cash discount but still the show cause notice was issued under section 11A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 [the Central Excise Act] for recovery of the amount. It is also seen that ultimately, the Tribunal by its decision dated 04.06.2015 dismissed the appeal filed by the department.
The issue, therefore, that would arise for consideration is whether a show cause notice could be issued under section 11A treating the amount paid to the appellant as erroneously refunded.
This issue was examined by this Tribunal in Excise Appeal Bridgestone India Pvt Ltd vs. CGST & CE, Ujjain [2019 (3) TMI 849 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] and Excise Appeal M/s. Bridgestone India Private Limited vs. Commissioner, CGST & Central Excise, Ujjain [2022 (9) TMI 675 - CESTAT NEW DELHI].
In the present case also, the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) granting refund to the appellant on the cash discount attained finality upon dismissal of the appeal by the Tribunal. It is pointed out by learned authorized representative appearing for the department that the department has filed appeals before the High Court of Madhya Pradesh against the aforesaid two orders passed by the Tribunal but stay has not been granted by the High Court.
In any view of the matter, the decision date 04.06.2015 passed by the Tribunal has attained finality and, therefore, the appellant would clearly be entitled to refund of the cash discount and the quantity discount.
The issue involved in Excise Appeal filed by the appellant would also have to be decided in favour of the appellant as the appellant would clearly be entitled to refund of the amount in terms of the decisions dated 04.06.2015 and 30.07.2018 of the Tribunal.
As noticed above, has already been decided by the Tribunal in the aforesaid two decisions dated 04.06.2015 and 30.07.2018. Though these two decisions were placed before the Commissioner (Appeals) in the Written Submissions filed by the appellant but they have not been examined by the Commissioner (Appeals). The Commissioner (Appeals) has also rejected the Certificates of the Chartered Accountant filed by the appellant to show that the incidence of duty had not been passed on to the customers and also affidavits of the dealers to show that the incidence of duty had not been passed on to the customers but these two documents have been rejected by the Commissioner (Appeals).
The Commissioner (Appeals), therefore, committed an error in rejecting the Certificates issued by the Chartered Accountant to show that the incidence of duty had not been passed on to the customers as no evidence to the contrary was produced by the department.
The appellant would, therefore, clearly be entitled to refund in these six appeals.
Issues: Whether, for clearances to a related/another unit where valuation is determined under Rule 8 based on CAS-4 annual costing, the duty liability for the year must be quantified by considering duty already paid during the year and whether excess duty paid in some months can be adjusted against short payment in other months.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the scheme of valuation under Rule 8 of the Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000 and the CAS-4 methodology which computes cost on an annual basis reconciled with audited accounts. Authorities and precedent (including Essar Steel, Jindal Steel, Suzlon, Bajaj Tempo and Godrej-related decisions) were applied to the facts: where annual CAS-4 costing forms the basis for valuation, the overall duty liability for the year must be determined on that annual basis. The Tribunal noted that when annual costing is used to arrive at the assessable value, some months may show excess payment and others short payment; quantification of differential duty must therefore account for duty already discharged during the relevant period. Section 11B and unjust enrichment principles were considered and held not to preclude such adjustment when the demand is based on annual costing; provisional assessment under Rule 7 is an alternative where appropriate but was not relied upon by the appellant in the facts of this case.
Conclusion: The appeal is allowed. The adjudicating authority is directed to adjust excess duty paid in certain months against short payments in other months when valuation is determined on annual CAS-4 basis and to recover only the net differential, if any, with consequential reliefs as per law.
Adjustment of excess duty against short payment - valuation under Rule 8 based on CAS-4 - annual CAS-4 costing as basis for interunit transfer valuation - provisional assessment and subsequent reconciliation - quantification of differential duty on overall annual basis - HELD THAT:- While paying duty on the basis of actual CAS-4 certificate, they adjusted the excess paid duty towards short paid amount and then, paid the balance duty amount. We find that the issue of adjustment of excess paid duty in certain months with short payment of excise duty in some other months in the case of appellant has already been decided by this Tribunal vide Final Order [2025 (12) TMI 363 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD]. Therefore, the issue is no more res Integra.
Thus, we allow the appeal filed by the appellant and set aside the impugned order with consequential relief, if any.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the writ court should direct the appellate authority to entertain the petitioner's VAT appeal without insisting on the statutory pre-deposit or security requirement on the ground of financial hardship.
Analysis: The statutory scheme under Section 33(5) of the Haryana Value Added Tax Act, 2003 requires an appeal to be entertained only after payment of admitted tax and interest and furnishing of a bank guarantee or adequate security to the satisfaction of the assessing authority. The Court relied on the governing principle that such a pre-deposit condition is a valid legislative requirement and that the appellate authority has no discretion to waive it. The petitioner's plea of financial hardship was examined on the facts placed before the Court, including the material relating to turnover and tax payments, but the Court found it unsafe to conclude that the petitioner was incapable of furnishing the requisite security. The authorities cited by the petitioner were held to be fact-specific and not sufficient to displace the statutory mandate on the record presented.
Conclusion: The request to bypass the statutory pre-deposit and security requirement was rejected. The writ petition failed, and the petitioner was left to avail remedies only in accordance with Section 33(5) of the Haryana Value Added Tax Act, 2003 and the relevant Rules.
Final Conclusion: The statutory pre-deposit regime under the VAT law was upheld on the facts, and no writ relief was granted to exempt the petitioner from compliance.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the statute makes furnishing of tax payment and security a condition precedent for entertainment of an appeal, writ jurisdiction will not ordinarily be used to waive that condition absent a clear factual basis establishing inability to comply.
Statutory pre-deposit requirement u/s 33(5) of the Haryana Value Added Tax Act, 2003 - no inherent discretion in the appellate authority to waive pre-deposit - bank guarantee or adequate security as alternative to cash pre-deposit - financial hardship as ground for waiver of pre-deposit - reliance on precedent subject to facts and circumstances of each case - HELD THAT:- It is pertinent to note that in terms of Section 33(5) of Act 2003, it is open to the assessee to submit even a bank guarantee or adequate security to the satisfaction of assessing Authority in the manner prescribed for the amount in dispute. Petitioner had earlier deposited security before First Appellate Authority but the same could not be verified.
In the given factual matrix, it is not possible to conclusively hold in present proceedings that financial status of the petitioner is not sound to the extent that it is even unable to furnish requisite security in terms of Section 33(5) of Act 2003. Reliance by petitioner on judgments of Hon’ble the Supreme Court in Indu Nissan Oxo Chemicals Ind. Ltd. [2007 (12) TMI 220 - SUPREME COURT] is of no avail as it is specifically held therein that there has to be due consideration of facts and circumstances of each individual case.
It is recorded in order dated 01.11.2020, that petitioner was then ready to deposit 10% of total demand in terms of order of appellate Authority. Accordingly, writ petition was disposed of while giving liberty to petitioner to file an appeal within a period of two weeks with deposit of 10% of total demand. In the present case, as has been noted in the foregoing paras, we are unable to record a satisfaction in respect to undue financial hardship being faced by petitioner in the given factual matrix. We also do not find any merit in the argument raised by learned counsel for petitioner that merits of the matters should be considered which indicate that pre-deposit in this matter is uncalled for.
No other argument has been addressed.
Issues: (i) whether the employer was entitled to reasonable compensation by way of liquidated damages for delay in commissioning a public utility project without proving actual loss; (ii) whether the Division Bench, in exercise of jurisdiction under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, was justified in reworking and reducing the amount of compensation awarded under Section 34.
Issue (i): whether the employer was entitled to reasonable compensation by way of liquidated damages for delay in commissioning a public utility project without proving actual loss.
Analysis: The contractual schedule for commissioning was admitted to have been breached, and the agreed clause provided consequences for delayed commissioning. In a project undertaken to advance the objectives of the solar mission and promote green energy, the delay was treated as a matter affecting public interest and environmental welfare. Applying Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the Court held that in such cases the stipulated sum operates as a basis for reasonable compensation, and the burden lay on the defaulting party to show that no loss was caused or that the stipulation was penal in nature.
Conclusion: Yes. The employer was entitled to reasonable compensation notwithstanding the absence of proof of exact actual loss.
Issue (ii): whether the Division Bench, in exercise of jurisdiction under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, was justified in reworking and reducing the amount of compensation awarded under Section 34.
Analysis: The learned Single Judge had determined compensation by applying the contractual clause and exercising a limited discretion on the quantum. The Court held that the Division Bench went beyond the permissible scope of Section 37 by substituting its own assessment for a plausible determination already made under Section 34, without showing that the earlier determination was arbitrary, perverse, or outside the contractual framework. The Court also held that the limited power of modification recognized in arbitration jurisprudence could not justify the appellate re-calculation undertaken in this case.
Conclusion: No. The Division Bench was not justified in reworking or reducing the compensation.
Final Conclusion: The judgment of the Division Bench was set aside to the extent it altered the compensation, the Single Judge's order was restored, and the employer's claim to the amount determined under the contractual clause stood upheld.
Ratio Decidendi: In a public utility or public interest project, delay can justify reasonable compensation under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 without strict proof of exact loss, and an appellate court under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 cannot re-assess or reduce a plausible compensation determination made within the contractual framework by the Section 34 court.
Liquidated damages for delay - public utility exception to Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 - burden on breaching party to prove absence of loss where public interest project is involved - limited power of modification under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 - scope of appellate interference under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 - HELD THAT:- The modification of the award so as to enhance the amount of reasonable compensation by the Section 34 Court was a permissible exercise when viewed in the context of the law laid down in Gayatri Balasamy [2025 (5) TMI 566 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] The modification is in exercise of jurisdiction under Section 34 of the Act of 1996 without undertaking any examination of the merits of the dispute. To put it plainly, the modification is only with a view to apply Clause 4.6.2 of the PPA to the facts of the case which exercise has also been approved by the Section 37 Court. We, therefore, do not find that on this count, the judgment of the Section 34 Court suffers from any jurisdictional error.
Having agreed to incorporate Clause 4.6 in the PPA, it is clear that the rights of the parties ought to be determined bearing in mind the terms agreed and SEL would not be justified in contending that NVVNL had failed to indicate the exact loss suffered by it due to the delay in commissioning of the project. The learned Single Judge as well as the Division Bench have in our view rightly approached this aspect of the matter and have held that NVVNL in terms of Clause 4.6 of the PPA is entitled to reasonable compensation. We, therefore, do not find any reason whatsoever to take a different view of the matter in this regard.
Determination of the amount of reasonable compensation - In our view, the Division Bench exceeded its jurisdiction under Section 37 of the Act of 1996 when it proceeded to re-work and re-calculate the amount of reasonable compensation to which NVVNL was entitled. The learned Single Judge having determined the amount of reasonable compensation by relying upon Clause 4.6 of the PPA and thereafter awarding 50% of the amount so determined, in the absence of this determination being shown to be beyond the terms of Clause 4.6 of the PPA or arbitrary or perverse, no interference with such determination was called for in exercise of jurisdiction under Section 37 of the Act of 1996.
In fact, the Division Bench has not recorded any finding that such determination of reasonable compensation by the learned Single Judge suffered from arbitrariness or that it travelled beyond what was provided by Clause 4.6 of the PPA. Having held in paragraph 28 of the impugned judgment that it was in agreement with the view of the learned Single Judge of the need to balance equities and compute a fair and reasonable amount of compensation coupled with the fact that the majority award granting a paltry amount of ₹1.2 crores was held to be contrary to the fundamental policy of Indian law thus requiring interference, the further exercise undertaken by it in modifying the amount of reasonable compensation was not justified in the facts of the case.
The modification in the amount of reasonable compensation by the Division Bench is merely a substitution of its view in place of the plausible view taken by the learned Single Judge. Such course of taking a different view of the same matter from the one taken under Section 34 of the Act of 1996 would be beyond the scope of Section 37 of the Act of 1996. As held in AC Chokshi Share Broker Private Limited vs. Jatin Pratap Desai and another [2025 (2) TMI 414 - SUPREME COURT] to which one of us (P.S. Narasimha J) was a party, the Court under Section 37 must only determine whether the Section 34 Court had exercised its jurisdiction properly and rightly, without exceeding its scope. To that extent, we find that the Division Bench of the High Court erred in interfering with the judgment of the learned Single Judge.
Thus, we are of the view that the determination of the amount of reasonable compensation by the learned Single Judge having been undertaken in terms of Clause 4.6 of the PPA and further discretion having been exercised by awarding 50% of such amount as liquidated damages, the Division Bench was not justified in modifying the said decision. Accordingly, the judgment of the Division Bench to that extent stands set aside. The judgment of the learned Single Judge in OMP stands restored. Civil Appeal preferred by NVVNL, thus, stands allowed and Civil Appeal preferred by SEL stands dismissed.
TaxTMI