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Employees' State Insurance contributions become payable from 1 October 2026 for employers and employees of establishments across Niwari and the entire areas of the partially implemented districts of Agar Malwa, Alirajpur, Anuppur, Ashoknagar, Balaghat, Barwani, Betul, Chhatarpur, Damoh, Datia, Harda, Jhabua, Mandla, Narsinghpur, Panna, Rajgarh, Seoni, Sheopur, Shivpuri, Sidhi, Tikamgarh, Umaria, Vidisha and Dindori in Madhya Pradesh. Employees of those establishments become eligible for Employees' State Insurance Corporation benefits under Chapter IV, while contribution obligations apply under section 29.

Liquidation Process Regulations now permit a liquidator to modify an entry in the list of stakeholders when additional information warrants modification. The liquidator must intimate the Adjudicating Authority within thirty days after modifying the entry. The amendment takes effect on its publication in the Official Gazette, replacing the previous provisions governing modification of the stakeholder list.

Anti-dumping duty on decor paper originating in or exported from China PR will remain in force through 26 March 2027. The amendment inserts an overriding duration provision into the existing duty notification, extending its operation beyond paragraph 2 while preserving the possibility of earlier revocation, supersession, or amendment. The duty therefore continues to apply to the specified goods unless changed earlier.

Circular No. PUBLIC NOTICE NO. 29 /2020 Dated:- 28-2-2020 Trade Notice Dated:- 28-2-2020 Trade Notic...
Temporary external laboratory testing is facilitated for specified import samples that the DYCC Laboratory cannot presently test. For four months, samples concerning MEK in inks and pigments and animal feeds may be sent to Geo Chem Laboratories Pvt. Ltd., Mumbai. Importers or owners must bear the testing cost under section 145 of the Customs Act, 1962. Implementation difficulties may be placed before the Additional Commissioner in charge of DYCC, and the prescribed action operates as a standing order for officers and staff.

Notification No. 4/2022 -State Tax (Rate) Dated:- 13-7-2022 Arunachal Pradesh SGST
GST exemption treatment is revised from 18 July 2022. Residential-dwelling renting exemption excludes dwellings rented to registered persons, while economy-class passenger air transport exemption is confined to journeys involving listed airports. Storage and warehousing exemption applies only to cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables, and basic Department of Posts services receive a separate nil-rated entry. Tour operator services supplied to foreign tourists qualify for exemption of the qualifying outside-India portion, subject to day-based apportionment and an overall cap. Clinical-establishment room services exceeding prescribed daily charges, other than critical-care units, are excluded.

Circular No. PUBLIC NOTICE .44 /2020 Dated:- 8-4-2020 Trade Notice Dated:- 8-4-2020 Trade Notice
COVID-19 facilitation measures temporarily defer hard-copy submission by shipping lines and steamer agents for documents emailed to obtain permission for container movement from the port. Online document submission continues to support grant of such permission during the lockdown. Hard copies remain mandatory and must be submitted within five days after removal of the lockdown. Implementation difficulties may be referred to the officer in charge of the Container Cell, and the directions operate as a standing order.

Omitted
Act Rules Indian Laws
Schedule 04 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Schedule 04 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 stands omitted. No operative provisions, substituted text, transitional arrangements, or continuing obligations are specified. No substantive rights, duties, procedures, penalties, or compliance requirements connected with the omitted Schedule are identified.

Notification No. 40/2021 Dated:- 29-12-2021 Arunachal Pradesh SGST
Input tax credit under the Arunachal Pradesh GST framework, from 1 January 2022, may be availed on invoices or debit notes requiring outward-supply reporting only where the supplier has furnished their details in FORM GSTR-1 or through the invoice furnishing facility and those details have been communicated to the recipient in FORM GSTR-2B. For financial year 2020-21, the annual return and the self-certified reconciliation statement accompanying it must be furnished by 28 February 2022. Refund on an invoice that omits the applicant's Unique Identity Number is available only when a copy of the invoice, attested by the applicant's authorised representative, accompanies the application in FORM GST RFD-10; this requirement applies from 1 April 2021.

Omitted
Act Rules Indian Laws
Schedule 03 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Schedule 03 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 stands omitted. The schedule contains no remaining operative provisions, classifications, obligations, procedures, or legal conditions. Its recorded status is omission from the statutory schedules, without substantive text establishing a regulatory mechanism or legal consequence. Accordingly, no independent rights or duties are set out within this schedule for the purposes of the schedule itself.

Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC
Dated:- 24-9-2026
PTI
An FIR concerns alleged cheating, forgery, criminal conspiracy, corporate-document misuse, and unauthorised financial liabilities arising from participation in a corporate insolvency resolution process. Allegations include entering a consortium arrangement without the Parekh Group's knowledge or authorisation, reliance on a fabricated and unapproved board resolution, and unauthorised transfer of shares to a group-controlled entity. Investigation covers disputed-record authenticity, alleged digital-signature misuse, and financial transaction trails.

Schedule 02 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Electronic authentication using Aadhaar or other e-KYC services uses e-authentication, hash functions and asymmetric cryptographic systems to support Digital Signature Certificate issuance. Verified identity information, prescribed applicant particulars and electronic consent underpin issuance. A trusted third party made available by the certifying authority can generate and store the subscriber's key pair, create the digital signature and transmit certificate materials. Controller-issued guidelines govern authentication, key security and related e-KYC services.

Circular No. CORRIGENDUM TO PUBLIC NOTICE NO. 45/2020 Dated:- 9-4-2020 Trade Notice Dated:- 9-4-2020...
Importers or customs brokers seeking in-bonding of cargo covered by Warehouse Bills of Entry must submit a request letter or undertaking signed by the IEC holder on the business letterhead, in the prescribed form. The submission must be sent from the importer's or customs broker's registered email address to a designated official email address. Other requirements governing the in-bonding procedure remain unchanged.

Schedule 01 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Application of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is excluded for specified negotiable instruments, powers of attorney, trusts, and wills or other testamentary dispositions. The negotiable-instrument exclusion does not extend to cheques, demand promissory notes, or bills of exchange issued in favour of or endorsed by listed regulated entities. Powers of attorney authorising such entities to act for the executing person are also outside the exclusion.

Circular No. PUBLIC NOTICE NO. 45/2020 Dated:- 7-4-2020 Trade Notice Dated:- 7-4-2020 Trade Notice
In-bonding of imported cargo under warehouse Bills of Entry may proceed through electronic submission where physical filing is impracticable during the COVID-19 lockdown. Importers or authorised customs brokers must submit an undertaking, warehouse space certificate, warehouse Bill of Entry details, IEC registration, identity proof and, where required, transit insurance. An into-bond or job number is generated electronically and recorded against the relevant Bill of Entry. Importers availing this facility must replace the undertaking with a proper bond by 7 May 2020.

Section 94 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Section 94 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, concerning amendment of Act 2 of 1934, is omitted and contains no surviving operative text. It sets out no amendment mechanism, substantive legal rule, compliance obligation, procedural requirement, entitlement, or legal consequence. No further operative detail concerning the referenced amendment is specified.

Section 93 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Section 93 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, concerning amendment of Act 18 of 1891, stands omitted. The provision contains no extant amendment mechanism, substantive obligation, compliance requirement, or operative legal consequence.

Section 92 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Section 92 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, concerning amendment of Act 1 of 1872, is omitted. It contains no remaining operative statutory language and establishes no independent legal rule, obligation, procedure, entitlement, or regulatory mechanism. No substantive requirement or legal consequence is set out under this provision.

Section 91 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Section 91, within the miscellaneous provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000, is designated as omitted. Although its heading identifies an amendment of Act 45 of 1860, it contains no extant operative text, amendment mechanism, substantive obligation, procedural requirement, or legal consequence. Its legal effect is limited to recording the omission.

Section 90 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
State Government rulemaking power, exercised through Official Gazette notification, covers electronic forms for filing, issuance, grant, receipt and payment, as well as matters specified under section 6. Rules made under this power must be laid, as soon as practicable after they are made, before each House of the State Legislature or before the sole House of a unicameral Legislature.

Section 89 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Section 89 authorises the Controller to make regulations, after advisory consultation, prior Central Government approval, Gazette publication, and consistency with the Act and rules. The regulatory power covers Certifying Authority disclosure records, foreign recognition, licence conditions, standards, disclosures, application statements, and private-key compromise communication. Regulations must be laid before both Houses of Parliament, which may modify or annul them without affecting earlier actions taken under them.

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