Section 14A disallowance under Rule 8D requires the Assessing Officer to record objective satisfaction, having regard to the accounts, that the taxpayer's own computation of expenditure relating to exempt income is incorrect. Disallowance must also be confined to investments that actually yielded exempt income, resulting in deletion of the related disallowance and corresponding book-profit adjustment. Lease rentals for motor vehicles used in the ordinary course of business are deductible by the lessee. As ownership of leased assets remains with the lessor for depreciation purposes, lease-rental deductions are allowable to the lessee.

The information technology and information technology enabled services Special Economic Zone at Manikonda Village, Telangana, is bifurcated into SEZ-A and SEZ-B, and 8.98 hectares are partially de-notified from the previously notified zone. Following the bifurcation, SEZ-A comprises 0.66 hectares and SEZ-B comprises 2.79 hectares, as delineated by the notified survey details and boundary coordinates. The notification gives effect to the bifurcation and partial de-notification after the relevant statutory requirements, State Government approval, Development Commissioner recommendation, and Board of Approval recommendation were met.

Definitive anti-dumping duty is imposed on Low Ash Metallurgical Coke, defined as metallurgical coke with ash content below 18%, imported into India when originating in or exported from Australia, China PR, Colombia, Indonesia, Japan or Russia. The duty applies at country-specific rates and remains effective for five years from imposition of the provisional duty, subject to earlier revocation, amendment or supersession; no duty applies during the specified gap after lapse of the provisional duty and before publication. Exclusions cover specified ultra-low phosphorous coke for ferroalloy manufacture, semi-coke or soft coke, and specified coke for eligible small blast furnaces, subject to actual-user undertakings and, where required, pollution-control certification.

Specified income of the Chhattisgarh Real Estate Regulatory Authority is notified for exemption purposes under Schedule III read with section 11 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. Covered income comprises government grants, loans or advances; fees and penalties received from real-estate stakeholders under the real-estate regulatory law; and interest earned on those receipts. The notification applies for tax years 2026-27 and 2027-28, subject to the Authority not undertaking commercial activity, filing its income-tax return as prescribed, and maintaining unchanged activities and income nature. Non-compliance results in withdrawal of the exemption and initiation of proceedings under the Act.

Income arising to the Chhattisgarh Real Estate Regulatory Authority from government grants, loans or advances, regulatory fees and penalties, and interest on those receipts is notified for exemption under section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The exemption applies subject to the authority not undertaking commercial activity, maintaining unchanged activities and income character, and filing its income-tax return as required. Non-compliance may trigger penal action and withdrawal of the exemption. The notification is deemed applicable for assessment years 2024-25 through 2026-27, under the savings provisions governing the repeal of the 1961 Act.

Specified income of the Fees Regulating Authority, Maharashtra, is exempt under section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, including processing fees, interest, penalties and other charges from private professional educational institutions, State Government reimbursements or grants, and interest on deposits and investments. The exemption operates under the savings provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025 despite repeal of the 1961 Act, and applies retrospectively for assessment years 2022-23 to 2026-27. It remains conditional on no commercial activity, unchanged activities and income nature, and filing of returns under section 139(4C)(g); breach may lead to penalties and withdrawal of exemption.

GST notices and orders uploaded only in the Additional Notices and Orders tab may not constitute sufficient communication for proceedings under Section 73. The notes state that, where adverse adjudication is contemplated, Section 75(4) requires a personal hearing and the hearing notice must specify its date, time and venue. Failure to provide these particulars results in non-compliance with the statutory hearing requirements and principles of natural justice. The discussed ex parte adjudication order was set aside, allowing a reply to the show-cause notice and requiring fresh reasoned adjudication after a personal hearing.

Condonation of delay in GST appeals is discussed where circumstances beyond the taxpayer's control prevented timely filing. The notes state that, despite the statutory limitation governing appellate condonation, denying merits review in such circumstances may cause grave injury and prejudice. The delay was condoned and the appellate authority was directed to entertain and decide the appeal on merits if filed within the stipulated period, restoring access to the statutory appellate remedy. The challenge to the validity of the statutory condonation limit was not pressed and remained open.

Expenditure disallowance relating to exempt income under Section 14A read with Rule 8D was described as unsustainable because earlier orders in the taxpayer's own case, including one approved by the jurisdictional High Court, supported its deletion. Mark-to-market loss on shares acquired through underwriting was deductible where the shares were consistently treated as stock-in-trade, valued at lower of cost or market value, and prior revaluation gains had been taxed. The source of acquisition did not change their trading character. As no Section 14A disallowance arose under normal provisions, no corresponding adjustment could be made to book profit under Section 115JB.

Withholding the password for a temporary GST ID prevented electronic filing of a statutory appeal and effectively frustrated the appellate remedy. The High Court noted that the department had not provided portal access despite repeated requests, including by email. It disposed of the writ petition expecting the Competent Authority to decide the application for a temporary GST ID in accordance with law within 30 days.

Input tax credit remains a statutory benefit subject to the conditions in Sections 16(2)(c) and 16(4), including supplier tax-payment requirements and prescribed claim time limits. The Kerala High Court's earlier ruling, adopted for these writ petitions, found those conditions constitutionally sustainable and not violative of Articles 14 or 19 because they protect revenue and support workable GST administration. Recipients with bona fide inward supplies may seek consideration of eligible credit under the applicable GST circulars upon establishing that suppliers paid the tax. The retrospectively applicable 30 November deadline applies to relevant claims, and the constitutional challenge was rejected.

Condonation of delay in a GST appeal is discussed in the context of High Court decisions permitting consideration of a writ petition despite an objection that no statutory provision allowed condonation. The appellate order was set aside, the delayed appeal for the relevant tax period was restored, and the delay was condoned so that the appeal could be adjudicated on its merits. All substantive contentions were left open for determination in accordance with law.

Additional input tax credit benefits in construction services must be passed to pre-GST homebuyers through commensurate price reductions under section 171(1) of the CGST Act. Applying the revised computation, including the pre-GST goods component, the determined benefit was quantified; however, documentary evidence accepted in the revised DGAP report showed that the supplier had passed on benefits exceeding that requirement to eligible homebuyers. The revised methodology therefore did not support a profiteering allegation because the full benefit had already been passed on in excess. The proceedings were disposed of with no contravention of section 171 established.

For penalty proceedings under section 270A, a show cause notice alleging misreporting must disclose the specific factual basis and category of misreporting so the taxpayer can respond meaningfully. Misreporting is treated as under-reporting involving bad faith, attracts a higher penalty, and precludes immunity; therefore, a bare allegation is insufficient. The notes state that notices and the penalty order merely asserted misreporting without particulars or reasons, and that the tax sought to be evaded required reconsideration. The High Court set aside the penalty order as unsustainable, while permitting fresh proceedings in accordance with law and leaving all contentions open.

Reassessment founded on seized material requires a live and direct nexus between the material and the assessee. An inquiry-register entry held by a real-estate broker, which predated the land purchase, reflected land offered for sale and an asking rate rather than a completed transaction. As the entry neither identified nor linked the assessee or co-purchasers, and the named person was not examined, a survey-number match alone could not establish unrecorded consideration. The notice reopening assessment was therefore quashed as based on conjecture and surmise rather than material linked to the assessee.

Genuine hardship in seeking condonation for delayed filing of Form No. 10 must receive meaningful, justice-oriented consideration where denial would defeat an accumulation claim despite investment of surplus in prescribed modes. CBDT Circular No. 7/2018 permits Commissioners to admit belated applications for the relevant assessment year if reasonable cause is established and accumulated funds satisfy the prescribed investment condition. The notes state that the condonation power under section 119(2)(b) advances substantial justice, while allowing consideration of unexplained or deliberate delay. On the stated facts, rejection of condonation was quashed and the delay was directed to be condoned, enabling the section 11 exemption claim.

Issuing bogus donation receipts and returning purported donations to contributors supported assessment of commission income, with 6% of the purported donations treated as income rather than the full amount. The factual finding that false receipts enabled contributors to claim deductions was not open to interference in appeal. Deletion of a cash-credit addition did not establish entitlement to political-party tax exemption: exemption was unavailable where accounts failed to show genuine contributions and the prescribed reporting obligation to the Election Commission was improperly met or not met. The appeals were dismissed.

Under the statutory scheme for draft assessments, filing objections before the Dispute Resolution Panel requires the Faceless Assessing Officer to keep assessment proceedings in abeyance until the Panel issues directions. A final assessment cannot be made after objections have been filed and the Transfer Pricing Officer has been informed, but before those objections are decided. The final assessment order and consequential demand notice were quashed, while the pending Dispute Resolution Panel proceedings remained unaffected and may be followed by further action in accordance with law.

Reassessment beyond four years following an assessment under section 143(3) requires failure by the taxpayer to make a full and true disclosure of material facts. The notes state that where the subsidy was disclosed in the financial statements and considered originally, reopening without fresh material constitutes a change of opinion and is invalid. For transfer-pricing benchmarking, an associated enterprise subsidy that routinely compensates unabsorbed distribution costs and is directly linked to distribution operations is treated as operating income. Such subsidy must be included when benchmarking closely linked distribution transactions, rather than excluded in making a transfer-pricing adjustment.

Express Cargo Clearance System (ECCS) is implemented for electronic clearance of import and export courier shipments at the Courier Terminal, Navi Mumbai International Airport, following successful pre-production trials. NMIA is notified as a Customs port and international courier terminal, and its premises are approved as a Customs area. Authorized couriers and other stakeholders must comply with ECCS registration requirements on ICEGATE and applicable courier-clearance instructions. Clearance-related issues may be raised with the designated customs officers at the terminal.