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Issues: Whether dismissal of the statutory appeal as time-barred was sustainable where the show-cause notice was uploaded under an incorrect portal tab and the delay was explained.
Analysis: Uploading the show-cause notice only under the 'Additional notice and orders' tab prevented an effective response and resulted in a violation of principles of natural justice. The discrepancy between the financial year covered by the appellate order and that stated in the recovery and garnishee proceedings was material. The explanation for delayed filing of the appeal was sufficient and required consideration while adjudicating the appeal on merits. As the required pre-deposit had already been made, no additional deposit was necessary for expeditious hearing.
Conclusion: The appellate order dismissing the appeal on limitation was quashed, and the appeal was directed to be entertained and decided on merits in accordance with law.
Violation of principles of natural justice in GST adjudication - Condonation of delay in GST appeal - Sufficient Cause for Delay - Pre-deposit - Stay of Recovery Proceedings
Validity of dismissal of the GST appeal as time-barred where the show-cause notice had been uploaded only under the 'Additional notice and orders' tab and the recovery proceedings related to periods different from that covered by the appellate order - HELD THAT: - The Court found that uploading the show-cause notice only under the specified portal tab prevented the petitioner from replying and constituted a violation of the principles of natural justice. It also noted the material discrepancy between the Financial Year covered by the appellate order and those mentioned in the recovery/garnishee proceedings, warranting interference and a further opportunity. [Paras 6, 7]
The appellate order was quashed and the appeal was directed to be entertained and decided on merits; all merits were left open.
Condonation of delay in GST appeal - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the reasons stated in the writ petition sufficiently explained the delay and were required to be considered by the appellate authority while deciding the appeal on merits. [Paras 8]
The appeal was directed to be entertained without requiring any further pre-deposit.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was disposed of by setting aside the time-bar dismissal and directing adjudication of the GST appeal on merits within the stipulated period.
Issues: Whether non-compliance with the standard operating procedure for reminders before return filing relieves a registered person from statutory late fee for delayed filing of returns.
Analysis: The obligation to furnish returns within the prescribed time is statutory. The standard operating procedure for system-generated reminders is only a facilitative measure and does not displace the taxpayer's statutory obligation. Notice had also been served, while the returns remained unfiled within the stipulated period.
Conclusion: Failure to follow the reminder procedure does not exempt the assessee from late fee for delayed filing of returns; the issue is decided against the assessee.
Non-compliance with the standard operating procedure (SOP) - Statutory Liability for Late Fee - HELD THAT:- The writ appeal was dismissed, with liberty to the appellant to pursue the statutory appeal within the period granted.
Issues: Whether an advance-ruling application concerning amounts already received under an arbitral award, and whose tax treatment had already been adopted in returns, was maintainable under the statutory advance-ruling framework.
Analysis: An advance ruling under Section 95(a) is confined to supplies being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken. Section 97 identifies permissible subjects for a ruling but does not enlarge this jurisdictional requirement. The contractual work was completed before GST, the arbitral award had been made, the settlement amount received, and the applicant had filed returns treating the receipts as non-taxable. The application therefore sought confirmation of an already adopted tax position rather than advance certainty. Characterisation of the individual award components would require detailed scrutiny of contracts, arbitral proceedings, accounts, returns and evidence, which lies within the statutory adjudicatory jurisdiction of the proper officer. Section 142(2)(a) applies only where there is a genuine upward revision of the price of pre-GST supplies; an arbitral award cannot automatically be equated with such revision. Further, the test under Section 142(11)(a) is whether tax was leviable under the earlier law, not whether it was actually paid.
Conclusion: The advance-ruling application was not maintainable and ought not to have been entertained; no final determination was made on the GST taxability of the arbitral-award amounts.
Maintainability of advance ruling on completed transactions - Scope of advance ruling jurisdiction - Transitional Taxation - Double Taxation - Prospective or Ongoing Supply - Maintainability of an advance-ruling application concerning amounts received under an arbitral award after completion of the underlying pre-GST contractual works and adoption of a tax position in statutory returns. - HELD THAT: - The institution of Advance Ruling under Chapter XVII is a distinct statutory mechanism conceived to provide certainty regarding the tax implications of transactions before disputes arise. It is intended to facilitate voluntary compliance by enabling an applicant to obtain clarity regarding the GST implications of a proposed transaction or a transaction in the course of being undertaken.
The facts of the present case reveal that the contractual work stood completed prior to 01.07.2017. The disputes arising out of the contract were subsequently referred to arbitration and culminated in an arbitral award passed in the year 2023. Pursuant to the award, the applicant received the awarded amounts and thereafter furnished the relevant return in Form GSTR-3B, consciously treating the receipts as non-taxable on the ground that they represented compensation and not consideration for a supply.
An advance ruling under Chapter XVII is confined to supplies being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken and is intended to provide advance certainty. The categories of questions specified in section 97 do not enlarge that jurisdictional condition. Where the applicant had completed the contractual work, received the awarded amounts, formed and implemented its view of non-taxability by filing its return, the application sought affirmation of an already adopted tax position rather than advance certainty. Further, characterisation of the individual award components required detailed examination of contractual terms, arbitral pleadings and award, accounts, returns and supporting evidence, which lies within the scrutiny and adjudicatory jurisdiction of the proper officer, not the advance-ruling mechanism. The appellate authority could examine this foundational question notwithstanding admission of the application by the original authority. [Paras 24, 25, 26, 28, 29]
The application ought not to have been entertained; the advance ruling was therefore unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The impugned advance ruling was set aside because the application concerning completed transactions and receipts already treated by the applicant as non-taxable was not maintainable under the advance-ruling scheme. No opinion was expressed on the taxability of the arbitral-award amounts, which may be independently examined by the jurisdictional proper officer in accordance with law.
Validity of reopening of assessment - reasons given for proposed reopening - excessive share premium - delay in filling SLP
As decided by HC reasons given for proposed reopening u/s 148 in these petitions are almost similar to the reasons recorded in [2024 (2) TMI 166 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], therefore, all notices and orders impugned in these petitions are quashed and set aside.
HELD THAT:- Though there is delay of 217 days in filing this Special Leave Petition, we nevertheless have heard learned counsel for the petitioners on the merits of the case also.
No merit in the Special Leave Petition. Hence, the Special Leave Petition is dismissed both on the ground of delay as well as on merits.
Period of limitation to issue notice for reopening of assessment - whether notice is issued beyond the period of limitation provided for in Section 149? - applicability of Section 3 of TOLA - exclusion of Covid period - HC [2024 (3) TMI 1496 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] set aside orders passed u/s 148A(d) and the notices issued u/s 148
HELD THAT:- The Special Leave Petition was dismissed on the ground of unexplained delay as well as on merits.
Time-barred reassessment notices under the pre 2021 and post 2021 regimes - Section 3(1) of TOLA - executive extension of limitation - repeal and substitution of reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021 without savings - proviso to the substituted Section 149(1) not operating as a savings clause - ultra vires notifications issued under TOLA (Notification No. 20/2021 and No. 38/2021) - treatment/conversion of old Section 148 notices as notices under newly inserted Section 148A(b) -
Inordinate delay in filing the Special Leave Petitions - HELD THAT:- Special Leave Petitions were dismissed on the ground of unexplained delay.
Issues: Whether the Principal Commissioner could invoke revisionary jurisdiction over an assessment completed pursuant to search for an unabated assessment year when no addition, other than one based on incriminating material, was made by the Assessing Officer.
Analysis: In search cases, pending assessment or reassessment proceedings abate, permitting assessment of total income for the relevant block period. A completed or unabated assessment may be disturbed only where incriminating material relating to that assessment year reveals undisclosed income. As the Assessing Officer had adopted the legally correct view, revision could not be initiated merely on a different view of the Principal Commissioner.
Conclusion: The revisionary power could not be exercised against the completed assessment in the absence of incriminating material establishing undisclosed income; the issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Revision of search assessment u/s 263 - Principal Commissioner's revisionary jurisdiction over an assessment completed pursuant to search for an unabated assessment year
Exercise of revisional jurisdiction u/s 263 over a search assessment for an unabated assessment year where the AO made no addition beyond income arising from incriminating material - HELD THAT: - The Court applied Abhisar Buildwell (P) Ltd. [2023 (4) TMI 1056 - SUPREME COURT] under which completed or unabated assessments cannot be reopened in a search assessment unless incriminating material concerning the relevant assessment year is found. Since the Assessing Officer had adopted the correct view, the Principal Commissioner could not invoke section 263 to disturb the assessment. [Paras 8, 9]
No substantial question of law arose; the Revenue's appeals were dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were dismissed, the Court holding that the completed unabated search assessments, correctly confined to incriminating material, could not be revised under section 263.
Issues: Whether interim protection should be granted against vessel-wise assessments and consequential demand where the assessee had exercised the option for annual assessment and its consolidated return resulted in a final refund.
Analysis: The coexistence of assessment demands under the shipping-income provision and a final return-processing intimation granting refund disclosed an arguable controversy requiring deeper consideration. The competing assessments and refund established a prima facie case for protection pending adjudication.
Outcome: Rule issued; operation and enforcement of the impugned assessment orders, demand notices, and consequential recovery proceedings stayed pending final disposal of the writ petition.
Assessment Orders passed u/s 172(4) assessments were done in relation to four vessels, namely, “Maersk Kate”, “Maersk Kara”, “Maersk Kiera” and “Maersk Adriatic” - as argued once the Petitioner had opted for being assessed on its total income on an annual basis by invoking the option available to it under Section 172(7), AO could not have proceeded with assessments of the four different vessels mentioned above u/s 172(4) and pass separate Assessment Orders.
HELD THAT:- We find that arguable questions are raised which require a further and deeper consideration. In these circumstances, we issue Rule. Revenue, waives service.
As far as interim relief is concerned, at-least prima facie, we find substance in the arguments canvassed on behalf of the Petitioner-Assessee.On the one hand, you have the Assessment Orders passed under Section 172(4), whereas on the other, you have a return which is processed under Section 143(1) which has resulted in a refund to the Petitioner and which has now become final.
Rule was issued and recovery pursuant to the assessments under Section 172(4) was stayed pending final disposal of the writ petition.
Issues: Whether the assessee, as owner of vehicles given on operating lease, was entitled to depreciation notwithstanding that the vehicles were registered in the names of the users.
Analysis: The master lease agreements established that ownership, rights and interest in the leased vehicles remained with the assessee, while customers received only a right to use them. Registration of the vehicles in the users' names in the R.C. books for convenience under the motor-vehicle regime did not displace the assessee's ownership. The governing principle in relation to depreciation on leased assets applied to these facts.
Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to depreciation on the vehicles given on operating lease; the Revenue's questions concerning that disallowance did not give rise to a substantial question of law.
Depreciation on vehicles under operating lease - Ownership of leased vehicles notwithstanding registration in lessee's name - Failure to decide a ground of appeal
Depreciation on vehicles under operating lease - Ownership of leased vehicles notwithstanding registration in lessee's name - Entitlement to depreciation on vehicles given on operating lease where the registration certificate stood in the name of the customer using the vehicles - HELD THAT: - The Master Lease Agreements established that the assessee was the absolute owner of the leased vehicles and that the customers had only a right of use.
Applying I.C.D.S. Ltd V/S Commissioner of Income Tax & Anr.[2013 (1) TMI 344 - SUPREME COURT] the Court held that registration of the vehicles in the lessees' names did not displace the lessor's ownership; nor did use by the lessees disentitle the lessor to depreciation. [Paras 9, 10]
The Revenue's proposed questions concerning depreciation did not give rise to any substantial question of law and were not entertained.
Failure to decide a ground of appeal - Deferred maintenance charges - Revenue's ground concerning disallowance of deferred maintenance charges, which had been raised before the Tribunal but remained undecided - HELD THAT: - The Court found that, although the Revenue had specifically raised the ground before the Tribunal, the Tribunal had not rendered any finding on it and had decided only the depreciation issue. The omission required fresh determination of that limited ground, without adjudication by the Court on its merits. [Paras 11, 12]
The matter was remanded to the Tribunal solely to determine the additional question relating to deferred maintenance charges.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was disposed of - the challenge to allowance of depreciation on vehicles under operating lease was not entertained, while the undecided ground concerning deferred maintenance charges was remanded to the Tribunal for limited consideration.
Issues: Whether the Revenue's delayed challenge to the Settlement Commission's orders warranted interference under writ jurisdiction.
Analysis: The Revenue was present when the settlement order was made and therefore had knowledge of it. Its rectification application was made after five years and rejected; the writ petition was filed seven years after the settlement order and two years after the rectification order. The delay was not properly explained, and no ground for interference with the impugned orders was made out.
Conclusion: The delayed writ challenge to the Settlement Commission's orders was not maintainable for interference and was decided in favour of the assessee.
Delay challenging to the Settlement Commission's orders - writ petition was filed seven years after the settlement order and two years after the rectification order - HELD THAT:- Pertinently, the order was passed in presence of both the parties therefore it cannot be presumed that petitioners were not aware of the outcome of the applications moved by the respondents No. 2 to 6 before the Settlement Commission. They took five years to move application for rectification and ultimately, said application was also rejected.
In para-7, it is stated that there is no delay in approaching this Court but the order dated 31.10.2012 has been challenged after seven years whereas the order dated 3.2.2017 has been challenged after two years. Thus, in opinion of this Court, petitioners herein failed to explain the delay properly.
The writ petition challenging the Settlement Commission's orders was dismissed for unexplained delay and absence of grounds for interference.
Issues: Delay in giving effect to appellate orders for assessment years 2014-15 to 2016-17 and pendency of rectification and appellate proceedings for assessment year 2009-10.
Analysis: The appellate orders for assessment years 2014-15 to 2016-17 had remained unimplemented for almost a year. The appeal and rectification application concerning assessment year 2009-10 had also been pending for a substantial period.
Outcome: Directions issued to give effect to the appellate orders within three weeks and to decide the pending appeal for assessment year 2009-10 preferably within eight weeks; the petition was listed for further directions.
Delay in giving effect to appellate orders and pendency of rectification and appellate proceedings
HELD THAT:- We note that Orders have been passed by the CIT(A) in July / August 2025 for the Assessment Years 2014-15 to 2016-17 and almost a year has passed but effect has not been given to these Orders.
Appeal of the Petitioner before the CIT(A) for Assessment Year 2009-10 filed on 18th March 2023 and the Application dated 10th March 2023 before Respondent No. 1 are also pending for a long time.
Accordingly, we direct Respondent No. 1 to pass Orders giving effect to the CIT(A)’s Orders for Assessment Years 2014-15 to 2016-17 within a period of three weeks from the date of this Order being uploaded on the High Court website. Respondent No. 1 will take the Applications dated 26th June 2026 into account when passing Orders giving effect to the CIT(A)’s Orders for Assessment Years 2014-15 to 2016-17.
For Assessment Year 2009-10 we are informed that CIT(A) / NFAC (National Faceless Assessment Centre) is not a party to the present Petition. Notwithstanding the aforesaid, we direct the CIT(A)/NFAC to decide the Appeal of the Petitioner, filed on 18th March 2023, as expeditiously as possible and preferably within a period of eight weeks from the date of this Order being uploaded on the High Court website.
Issues: (i) Whether the assessee was entitled to the outstanding statutory interest on refund already accepted as correctly claimable in rectification proceedings; (ii) Whether interest or compensation was payable for delayed payment of that outstanding interest.
Issue (i): Whether the assessee was entitled to the outstanding statutory interest on refund already accepted as correctly claimable in rectification proceedings.
Analysis: The Revenue did not dispute that the assessee's claim regarding short computation of refund interest was correct and had been accepted in the rectification order. The non-payment resulted from a system failure, although the amount remained due.
Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to rectification and payment of the outstanding interest of Rs. 3,25,83,819 under Section 244A of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Issue (ii): Whether interest or compensation was payable for delayed payment of that outstanding interest.
Analysis: The accepted interest remained unpaid for over four years, without any delay attributable to the assessee. A refund due from the Revenue, including its interest component, is a debt owed to the assessee; delayed payment warrants recompense for the Revenue's retention and use of the money. Such recompense is not impermissible merely because it may be described as interest on interest.
Conclusion: The assessee was entitled to interest or compensation at 6% per annum on Rs. 3,25,83,819 from 19 April 2022 until payment.
Final Conclusion: The Revenue must correct the computation, pay the accepted outstanding refund interest, and compensate the assessee for its delayed payment.
Ratio Decidendi: Where refund interest admittedly due under the statutory scheme remains unpaid without fault of the assessee, the Revenue must compensate the assessee for the period of wrongful retention, notwithstanding the absence of an express provision for interest on such unpaid interest.
Interest on delayed payment of statutory refund interest - Rectification of short-granted refund interest
Rectification of short-granted refund interest - Entitlement to the outstanding interest under Section 244A after acceptance of the rectification application - HELD THAT: - The Revenue did not dispute that the assessee's grievance regarding short computation of interest under Section 244A was correct; the failure to give effect to the accepted rectification was attributed to the system. The computation in the second rectification application was therefore required to be accepted. [Paras 7]
The Revenue was directed to rectify the computation and pay the outstanding statutory interest.
Interest on delayed payment of statutory refund interest - Entitlement to interest or compensation for delayed payment of the admitted interest under Section 244A - HELD THAT: - A refund due, comprising tax and accrued statutory interest, is a debt owed by the Revenue. Delayed payment of the admitted interest, where the delay was not attributable to the assessee, warrants interest or compensation; this does not amount to impermissible compounding of interest but compensates for undue retention of the amount payable. [Paras 8, 9]
Interest or compensation at 6% per annum was directed on the unpaid Section 244A interest from 19th April 2022 until payment.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was allowed. The Revenue was directed to pay the admitted outstanding interest under Section 244A together with interest or compensation at 6% per annum for the period of delayed payment.
Issues: Whether a refund determined for one assessment year could be adjusted against an earlier tax demand that stood stayed by an unchallenged interim stay order.
Analysis: The demand for the earlier assessment year was stayed upon specified deposits, and the stay order had attained finality. The jurisdictional assessing officer had also placed the stay order on the departmental portal before the refund adjustment was made. Adjustment of the refund against the stayed demand was therefore inconsistent with the subsisting stay order.
Conclusion: The refund adjustment was invalid and could not be sustained; the refunded amount was required to be restored with applicable interest in accordance with law.
Adjustment of refund against stayed tax demand - Binding effect of unchallenged stay order
Whether refund determined for one assessment year could be adjusted against an earlier tax demand that stood stayed by an unchallenged interim stay order? - HELD THAT: - The demand for assessment year 2022-23 had been stayed, subject to specified instalment deposits, by an order which the Revenue neither challenged nor displaced. The stay order had also been uploaded on the ITBA Portal by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer. Consequently, adjustment of the refund under Section 245 against the stayed demand was contrary to the subsisting stay order and could not be sustained. [Paras 6, 7, 8, 9]
The adjustment was quashed, and the adjusted refund was directed to be refunded forthwith with applicable interest in accordance with law.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was allowed to the extent that the refund adjustment against the stayed demand was held unsustainable. The Revenue was directed to restore the refund with applicable interest.
Issues: Whether receipts from ancillary services connected with software licensing were taxable as fees for technical services under the applicable tax treaty, and whether any substantial question of law arose from the Tribunal's decision.
Analysis: The Tribunal's treatment of the ancillary-service receipts was governed by the precedent concerning software licence transactions. The identical issue for the preceding assessment year had already been disposed of on the basis of that precedent, whose review had also been dismissed. No distinguishing basis warranting reconsideration was shown.
Conclusion: No substantial question of law arose; the Tribunal's treatment of the receipts was sustained, in favour of the assessee.
Receipts from ancillary services connected with software licensing - taxable as fees for technical services -income deemed to accrue in India under section 9(1)(vi) - HELD THAT:-The order impugned herein was followed by the Tribunal in the case of respondent itself and the said order passed by the Tribunal for the Assessment Year 2015-16 was the subject matter [2025 (10) TMI 1439 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT]. The said ITA was disposed of placing reliance on the decision of Hon'ble Apex Court in Engineering Analysis Centre for Excellence Private Limited [2021 (3) TMI 138 - SUPREME COURT]. Further, it is brought to our notice that the review filed against the Engineering Analysis Centre for Excellence Private Limited (supra) was also dismissed by the Hon'ble Apex Court [2026 (5) TMI 1076 - SC ORDER] vide order dated 11.05.2026.
No substantial question of law arises.
Issues: Whether interest earned on bank fixed deposits made from motor accident compensation retains the exemption from tax deduction at source applicable to interest on compensation awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal.
Analysis: Section 194A(3)(ix) and (ixa) exempts interest credited or paid on compensation awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal. The deposits placed with the bank comprised the compensation, including the interest awarded by the Tribunal; interest subsequently accrued on those deposits was distinct deposit income. Upon deposit with the bank, the amount ceased to have the character of interest on Tribunal-awarded compensation and became other income. The deduction was made at 20% in the absence of the requisite Form 15G particulars, and the deducted sum had already been remitted to the income-tax authorities.
Conclusion: Interest accrued on the bank deposits is not exempt from tax deduction at source under Section 194A(3)(ix) or (ixa); the issue is decided against the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: The tax-deduction exemption for interest on Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal compensation does not extend to interest subsequently earned by depositing the awarded amount with a bank.
Tax deduction at source on interest earned from compensation deposits - TDS u/s 194A - Interest on Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal compensation
Applicability of the exemption from tax deduction at source to interest accrued on bank fixed deposits made from compensation, including interest, awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal - HELD THAT: - What is contemplated under Section 194A(3)(ix) and (ixa) is the amount credited as interest on the compensation amount awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal. As far as the interest accrued on the deposit made with the respondent Bank is concerned, the same would not come within the category of the income of interest referred to in Sub-clause(ix) and (ixa) of Section 194A(3) of the Act, as it is an income on the deposit and as it is not an interest on the amount awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal.
The exemption applies only to interest credited on the compensation amount awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal. Once the compensation amount, inclusive of the interest awarded by the Tribunal, is deposited with the bank, interest subsequently accruing on that deposit is income from the deposit and constitutes other income; it does not retain the character of interest on compensation awarded by the Tribunal.
The tax deduction at source on interest accrued on the bank deposits was not covered by the claimed exemption. The petitioners may pursue statutory remedies for refund, if available, after complying with the requisite requirements.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was dismissed, without prejudice to the petitioners' right to seek refund through the appropriate statutory remedy.
Issues: Whether penalty for failure to obtain a tax audit report was sustainable where a members' sports and recreation club bona fide believed that liquor supplies to its members were governed by the principle of mutuality and did not constitute business activity.
Analysis: The penalty rested solely on treating receipts from liquor supplied to members as business receipts attracting the tax-audit requirement. Supply of beverages and liquor as an incidental recreational facility exclusively to members, in circumstances governed by mutuality, supported the club's bona fide belief that no business was carried on. That belief constituted reasonable cause for the failure to obtain and furnish the audit report.
Conclusion: The penalty under section 271B was unsustainable and was directed to be deleted, in favour of the assessee.
Penalty u/s 271B - failure to obtain tax audit - reasonable cause based on bona fide belief of mutuality
Levy of penalty for failure to obtain tax audit in respect of liquor supplied by a members' sports and recreation club to its members - HELD THAT: - Where the penalty rested solely on treating receipts from supply of liquor to members as business receipts, the assessee's bona fide belief that its mutual activities did not attract the tax-audit requirement constituted reasonable cause. Following Koramangala Club [2016 (3) TMI 286 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] the Tribunal held that such bona fide belief attracted the protection of section 273B. [Paras 7, 8]
The penalty under section 271B was held unsustainable and was directed to be deleted.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was allowed and the penalty for failure to obtain the tax-audit report was deleted.
Issues: Whether refund of a part of CSR funds to a substantial donor, for transfer to another charitable organisation, constituted a prohibited benefit to a specified person under section 13(1)(c)(ii).
Analysis: No evidence established that the donor derived any benefit from the refund. The refunded amount was immediately channelled to another charitable organisation conducting rural education programmes; the transaction therefore did not confer a direct or indirect benefit on the donor.
Conclusion: The refund did not violate section 13(1)(c)(ii); the assessee remained entitled to exemption under section 11.
Charitable exemption - benefit to specified person - Refund of charitable donation - violation of Section 13(1)(c)(ii) of the Act, r.w.s. 13(3)(b) - Return of a part of CSR funds by a charitable trust to its donor - whether it constituted application of income or property for the benefit of a specified person so as to deny charitable exemption? -
HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found no evidence that the donor derived any benefit from the refund. The amount was immediately passed on to another charitable organisation conducting rural education programmes; consequently, the refund did not attract the prohibition against benefit to a specified person. [Paras 3]
The finding allowing the claimed charitable exemption was upheld and the Revenue's appeal was dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The refund to the donor, without evidence of any benefit to it and where the amount was immediately applied through another charitable organisation, did not warrant denial of charitable exemption.
Issues: Whether cash of Rs. 33,50,000 seized upon interception could be assessed as unexplained money when it formed part of the disclosed consideration from sale of immovable property.
Analysis: The returned income already included the cash receipt, while the same amount was separately added as unexplained money, resulting in double addition. The cash was intercepted on the date of sale of the property, and the registered sale deed recorded total consideration of Rs. 64 lakhs. The banking records substantiated receipt of Rs. 30.50 lakhs through banking channels; the balance cash of Rs. 33.50 lakhs was consistent with the disclosed sale consideration. The explanation for possession of the cash was therefore plausible and supported by contemporaneous material.
Conclusion: The cash receipt could not be treated as unexplained money under Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961; the addition was deleted in favour of the assessee.
Unexplained money u/s 69A - cash forming part of disclosed property sale consideration - Double addition of disclosed income
Addition as unexplained money in respect of cash intercepted while the assessee was returning after sale of immovable property - HELD THAT: - The returned income already included the cash component of the sale consideration, and its separate addition resulted in double addition. The sale deed, registered on the date of interception, and the banking receipt of the balance consideration supported the explanation that the intercepted cash represented the remaining part of the disclosed sale consideration. The explanation was plausible and no part of the cash could be treated as unexplained money. [Paras 7]
The addition u/s 69A was deleted.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was allowed and the addition for unexplained money was deleted.
Review Jurisdiction - error apparent on the face of the record or any other ground - impugned order in [2025 (5) TMI 1051 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] held that, Review jurisdiction is confined to correcting an error apparent on the face of the record and cannot be used to rehear issues already decided or to reargue the merits as an appeal in disguise. The review applications merely sought reconsideration of questions previously examined and rejected, and no manifest error in the earlier judgment was shown. - HELD THAT:- The Special Leave Petitions were dismissed, the Court declining to interfere with the impugned order(s) [2025 (5) TMI 1051 - MADRAS HIGH COURT]; [2024 (12) TMI 479 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.
Whether the Authority for Advance Rulings, Mumbai was right in ruling that Tello Drone merits classification under subheading 95030010 of the first schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and would attract basic Customs duty @ 60% adv. and IGST @ 18% ? - HELD THAT:- The Advance Ruling Order was passed on 10th May 2022 and three years from the said date expired on 9th May 2025 [as per Section 28J as it stood then]. Considering the statement of the Respondent that it has not taken any advantage of the Order passed by the CAAR, coupled with the fact that now the said Ruling is no longer in force.
The appeal was disposed of as infructuous because the advance ruling had ceased to be in force; the question of law on classification was kept open.
Issues: Whether a writ petition challenging the Tribunal's refusal to condone delay in filing a customs appeal was maintainable despite the statutory appellate remedy, and whether interference with that refusal was warranted.
Analysis: A statutory appeal against the Tribunal's order was available under Section 130 of the Customs Act, 1962. Writ jurisdiction despite an alternative remedy is exceptional, including cases of lack of jurisdiction, breach of natural justice, or challenge to vires. None of those exceptions was established. The petitioner consciously pursued separate writ proceedings concerning release and classification of the imported goods rather than filing the statutory appeal within time. The explanation for the delayed appeal did not constitute sufficient cause, and condonation of delay was a factual matter in which the Tribunal's decision disclosed no breach of fundamental rights or natural justice.
Conclusion: The writ petition was not maintainable and no ground existed to interfere with the Tribunal's refusal to condone delay; the issue was decided against the assessee.
Alternative statutory remedy in customs appeals - Condonation of delay-sufficient cause - Violation of Natural Justice - Lack of Jurisdiction
Maintainability of a writ petition challenging the Tribunal's refusal to condone delay where a statutory appeal is available under the Customs Act - HELD THAT: - It is well settled by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in catena of judgments that alternate statutory remedy is not an absolute bar to invoke writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. In exceptional case, writ can be issued, if there is breach of fundamental right, violation of natural justice principle, challenge to the vires of the provisions of the statute or delegated legislation or excess of jurisdiction.
The existence of an alternative statutory remedy does not absolutely bar writ jurisdiction, but its exercise is confined to exceptional cases involving breach of fundamental rights, violation of natural justice, challenge to vires, or excess of jurisdiction. None of those exceptions was established from the impugned order; the statutory appellate machinery could not be bypassed. [Paras 16, 17, 19]
The writ petition was held not maintainable in the absence of any exceptional ground warranting exercise of writ jurisdiction.
Validity of the Tribunal's refusal to condone delay in filing the customs appeal against the classification of imported herbal tea cigarettes - HELD THAT: - Condonation of delay is a question of fact and cannot be granted casually in fiscal matters. Having consciously pursued a writ petition for release of the goods rather than filing the statutory appeal in time, the petitioner was required to establish sufficient cause for the delayed appeal; the explanation furnished was not satisfactory. [Paras 17, 19]
The refusal to condone delay was sustained.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was dismissed, as no exceptional circumstance justified bypassing the statutory appellate remedy and no sufficient cause was shown for the delayed appeal.
Issues: Whether interim release of perishable imported goods should be directed pursuant to an unchallenged detention-cum-waiver certificate.
Analysis: The detention-cum-waiver certificate prima facie bound the concerned cargo stakeholders, including the shipping line and custodian. The Customs Department acknowledged that the certificate bound the shipping line for the entire period during which the goods were held. The applicable regulations and the precedent relied upon supported the position that retention of goods and levy of detention charges after a valid certificate would be unlawful. As the goods were perishable and continued detention could cause escalating charges and prejudice, release was warranted upon security being furnished. The underlying claims and counterclaims were reserved for final adjudication.
Outcome: Interim release of the goods was directed upon each petitioner depositing Rs.30 lakhs with the Registrar within one week; the petitions were retained for final hearing.
Binding effect of detention-cum-waiver certificate - Waiver of detention charges on release of imported perishable goods - Interim release of imported in-shell walnuts after issuance of an unchallenged detention-cum-waiver certificate binding upon the shipping line and cargo stakeholders. - HELD THAT: - The certificate expressly made its directions binding on the concerned cargo stakeholders, including shipping lines and custodians, and its validity was not challenged. The Customs Authorities also accepted that it bound the shipping line for the entire period for which the goods were held. Following Supreme Industries Ltd. [2021 (3) TMI 443 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], the Court held prima facie that a validly issued certificate under the 2018 Regulations must be complied with; retention of goods and levy of detention charges after its issuance would be illegal. The perishable nature of the goods and the resulting escalation of charges warranted conditional interim release, without examining the parties' underlying claims or counterclaims. [Paras 19, 20, 21, 22, 23]
Subject to each petitioner furnishing the directed security deposit, the respondents were directed to release the subject goods; all claims, recoveries, rights and contentions were kept open for final adjudication, and no equities were created by the interim release.
Final Conclusion: The petitions were admitted and interim release of the perishable imported goods was directed upon the stipulated security deposits. The order was expressly prima facie and confined to interim relief.
Issues: (i) Whether the writ petition was maintainable despite an alternative remedy under the food-import regulations; (ii) Whether the FSSAI Authorised Officer was exclusively competent to draw samples for determining the food safety and fitness for human consumption of imported roasted areca nuts; (iii) Whether the Customs officer's power to take samples under the Customs Act could displace the FSSAI's authority under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
Issue (i): Whether the writ petition was maintainable despite an alternative remedy under the food-import regulations.
Analysis: The challenge concerned the statutory competence of the officer who initiated sampling and the resulting validity of the laboratory reports, rather than merely the correctness of the reports. The alternative-remedy rule is discretionary and does not bar writ jurisdiction where proceedings are alleged to be without jurisdiction or contrary to statutory procedure.
Conclusion: The writ petition was maintainable.
Issue (ii): Whether the FSSAI Authorised Officer was exclusively competent to draw samples for determining the food safety and fitness for human consumption of imported roasted areca nuts.
Analysis: Sections 25 and 47(5) of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, read with Regulation 13(1) of the Food Safety and Standards (Import) Regulations, 2017 and the notified port-authority list, designated the FSSAI Authorised Officer for Kolkata Port. Sampling for food safety by an officer lacking that statutory authority rendered the sampling process unlawful; a laboratory report founded on such sampling could not sustain adverse consequences.
Conclusion: The FSSAI Authorised Officer alone was competent to draw samples for food-safety testing and human-consumption clearance; sampling and test reports based on samples drawn by any other officer were void. This issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the Customs officer's power to take samples under the Customs Act could displace the FSSAI's authority under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
Analysis: The Food Safety and Standards Act has overriding operation in matters of food safety, standards and edibility. The Customs power under Section 144 of the Customs Act, 1962 remains available independently for revenue-related purposes, including classification, valuation, duty liability, misdeclaration and trade-policy compliance, but cannot substitute for or override FSSAI food-safety certification.
Conclusion: Customs sampling powers survive for revenue purposes but cannot displace the FSSAI's exclusive authority over food-safety testing and certification. This issue was decided in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: Fresh sampling was directed through the FSSAI Authorised Officer and referral-laboratory testing, with protection against coercive action pending service of the report; conforming goods were directed to be released without demurrage or detention charges for the specified period.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a specialised statute designates an authority to conduct food-safety sampling of imported food, sampling by another authority for that purpose is jurisdictionally invalid; Customs powers to investigate revenue matters remain distinct and cannot override food-safety certification.
Maintainability of writ petition despite alternative remedy where sampling authority is challenged - Statutory competence for sampling imported food articles - Concurrent sampling powers of FSSAI and Customs for distinct statutory purposes - Food Safety Compliance - Overriding Effect - Whether the sampling of the imported consignment of “roasted areca nuts” at Kolkata Port by any Officer other than Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) Authorized Officer is illegal and without jurisdiction ?
Maintainability of the writ petition challenging the statutory competence of the authority that sampled imported roasted areca nuts - HELD THAT: - The challenge concerned the jurisdiction and statutory authority of the officer who initiated sampling, and not merely the correctness of the laboratory findings. The availability of review under the Food Safety and Standards (Import) Regulations, 2017 could not bar writ jurisdiction where the proceedings were alleged to be without jurisdiction. Applying Whirlpool Corporation [1998 (10) TMI 510 - SUPREME COURT] and Harbanslal Sahnia [2002 (12) TMI 564 - SUPREME COURT], the Court held that the dispute raised a pure question of law concerning the interplay of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and the Customs Act, 1962. [Paras 38, 39, 41, 42]
The preliminary objection based on alternative remedy was rejected and the writ petition was entertained on merits.
Statutory competence for sampling imported food articles - Validity of laboratory report founded on unauthorised sampling - HELD THAT: - There is a conflict regarding the authority to draw samples of imported food articles like roasted Areca Nuts, between the Food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 (FSS Act) and the Customs Act, 1962. Both the Act operates in distinct legal fair meaning in as much as both authorities are the authorized to act within their respective statutory mandates.
Section 25 read with section 47(5) of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and regulation 13(1) of the Food Safety and Standards (Import) Regulations, 2017 vested the notified FSSAI Authorised Officer with exclusive authority for food-safety sampling at Kolkata Port. The notified materials established that FSSAI was the authorised officer for that port. A laboratory report founded upon sampling undertaken by an officer lacking statutory competence or contrary to the prescribed procedure could not sustain adverse civil consequences against the importer. [Paras 45, 56, 57, 58, 59]
Sampling by an officer other than the FSSAI Authorised Officer for food-safety purposes was held illegal, without jurisdiction and void; the test report founded on those samples was quashed, with fresh sampling directed through the FSSAI Authorised Officer.
Concurrent sampling powers of FSSAI and Customs for distinct statutory purposes - Overriding effect of food-safety regulation over customs action on food safety - HELD THAT: - The Court held that the overriding operation of section 89 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 is confined to food safety, standards and adulteration, without displacing the Customs statutory machinery for revenue protection and enforcement of import restrictions. Customs may draw separate samples under section 144 of the Customs Act for classification, valuation, duty liability, misdeclaration or trade-policy compliance, but cannot displace the FSSAI's statutory role in determining whether imported food is safe and edible. The Court referred to M/s Unik Traders Rep.[2025 (10) TMI 833 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] and NBG International Private Ltd.[2026 (3) TMI 1212 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT]. [Paras 47, 49, 52, 53, 57]
FSSAI retained exclusive authority over food-safety sampling and certification, while Customs retained independent sampling power solely for its revenue and classification functions.
Final Conclusion: The writ petitions were disposed of by quashing the test report based on unauthorised food-safety sampling and directing fresh sampling by the FSSAI Authorised Officer. Customs may independently sample the goods only for revenue, classification, valuation, misdeclaration or trade-policy purposes.
Issues: Whether, while allowing restoration of an appeal dismissed in the absence of the appellant, the Tribunal could decide the appeal's maintainability.
Analysis: Restoration was warranted to afford an opportunity of hearing because the original dismissal followed an unrepresented hearing. Restoration merely returns the appeal to the stage at which it stood dismissed and does not determine its maintainability. A finding that the appeal was maintainable before the Tribunal, rather than by revision before the Central Government, could not be rendered in a restoration proceeding, since that would effectively recall and replace the earlier dismissal through review.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's direction restoring the appeal for rehearing was sustained, but its finding that the appeal was maintainable before the Tribunal was set aside. Maintainability remains open for determination by the Tribunal through a speaking order at the admission stage.
Restoration of appeal dismissed in default - Maintainability not determinable in restoration proceedings - Definition of “currency”
Scope of restoration proceedings - Recall of ex parte dismissal - HELD THAT: - In the instant case, learned counsel for the appellant-Department, though argued that the definition of “currency” includes foreign currency and therefore the initial order passed by the Tribunal dismissing the appeal holding it to be not maintainable was proper, legal and justified, in the opinion of this Bench, this aspect is yet to be considered by the Tribunal. This objection raised by the appellant-Department also would give room for the Tribunal to take a decision after hearing both the parties.
The restoration is only so far as giving an opportunity to the respondent before the Tribunal to argue his case on admission which includes “maintainability” part.
A restoration petition is confined to considering the genuine cause for a party's non-appearance when the appeal was dismissed in absentia. On recall of such dismissal, the appeal reverts to the stage at which it stood dismissed and must thereafter be heard and determined afresh. Restoration merely afforded the respondent an opportunity to address the appeal, including its maintainability, and caused no prejudice to the Department. [Paras 12, 13, 14]
The restoration of the appeal for rehearing was maintained.
Maintainability of appeal versus revision - Limits of restoration jurisdiction -HELD THAT: - The question whether the statutory remedy was an appeal or revision, including the contention concerning the treatment of foreign currency, required consideration after hearing both parties. The Tribunal could not decide that question while allowing restoration, since doing so would effectively review and replace its earlier dismissal order. Maintainability must first be decided in the restored appeal by a speaking order. [Paras 12, 13, 14, 15]
The finding that the appeal was maintainable before the Tribunal and not by revision was set aside; the question was left open for fresh determination by the Tribunal.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was disposed of by sustaining restoration of the respondent's appeal for rehearing, while setting aside the Tribunal's finding on maintainability. The Tribunal was directed to determine maintainability first by a speaking order, without any expression of opinion on the merits.
Issues: Whether the Special Court under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 must afford an accused a hearing under the first proviso to Section 223(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 before taking cognizance on a complaint by SEBI.
Analysis: Section 4(2) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 applies its procedural framework to offences under special enactments unless the special enactment prescribes a contrary procedure. Section 26 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 restricts cognizance to a complaint by the Board, but does not prescribe the manner in which cognizance is to be taken. Section 26-D applies the criminal procedure law to proceedings before the Special Court, subject only to a contrary provision in the Act. The deeming of the Special Court as a Court of Session does not exclude the mandatory pre-cognizance hearing under the first proviso to Section 223(1). The proviso confers a substantive right integral to fair trial, and cognizance taken without complying with it is void.
Conclusion: The Special Court must give the accused an opportunity of hearing under the first proviso to Section 223(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 before taking cognizance of an offence under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. The issue is decided in favour of the petitioner.
Pre-cognizance hearing on complaint - Applicability of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita to SEBI prosecutions - Special statute and general criminal procedure - Taking cognizance of an offence under the SEBI Act on the Board's complaint without affording the proposed accused an opportunity of hearing under the first proviso to Section 223(1) of the BNSS, 2023 - HELD THAT: - The decision in the case of State of W.B. Vs. Bejoy Kumar Bose [1977 (12) TMI 153 - SUPREME COURT], which held that, no valid objection could be taken against the Special court taking cognizance on the written complaint without complying with the provisions of Section 200 CrPC, also turned upon the special provisions contained in the said statute.
In the case of Ashok [2025 (4) TMI 1841 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], the Supreme Court observed that, it was in agreement with the view of the Karnataka High Court that, the Act, 1881 is a special enactment, and there is no need for the Magistrate to issue summons to the accused before taking cognizance of the complaint. Thus, there was no requirement to issue summons to the accused in terms of Section 223 of the BNSS, 2023 i.e. at a pre-cognizance stage.
Section 46 of the PML Act, 2002 makes the provisions of the Code, 1973 applicable to the proceedings before the Special Court, save as otherwise provided in that Act. Section 65 of the PML Act, 2002 makes the provisions of the Code, 1973 applicable to the proceedings under the PML Act, 2002 in so far as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of the PML Act, 2002.
The BNSS applies to offences under a special enactment unless that enactment prescribes a special or inconsistent procedure. Section 26 of the SEBI Act restricts the mode of initiation to a complaint by the Board but does not regulate the manner of taking cognizance. Sections 26-A and 26-D likewise do not exclude the BNSS procedure; deeming the Special Court to be a Court of Session does not displace the mandatory pre-cognizance hearing. In the absence of a contrary provision in the SEBI Act, the first proviso to Section 223(1), which confers a substantive and mandatory right of hearing before cognizance on a complaint, applies. The contrary authorities concerning special statutes having distinct overriding provisions and cognizance procedures were held inapplicable. [Paras 32, 33, 35, 51, 52]
The cognizance order and consequential process were quashed for non-compliance with the mandatory pre-cognizance hearing requirement, and the Special Court was directed to hear the accused and pass a fresh order in accordance with law; the merits were left open.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition was allowed. The cognizance and process order was quashed solely for failure to afford the accused the mandatory hearing under the first proviso to Section 223(1) of the BNSS, 2023, with fresh consideration directed after such hearing.
Issues: Whether pending civil and arbitral proceedings concerning operational-credit claims, which had not crystallised into determinable and quantifiable claims before approval of the resolution plan, survived the approved resolution plan.
Analysis: The final list of operational creditors quantified the disputed claims at a notional value of Re.1 and did not preserve them subject to the outcome of pending proceedings. The resolution plan, which had attained finality, provided that the settlement corpus available to relevant operational creditors was payable pro rata only for crystallised and approved claims within the stipulated period. Its provisions, read harmoniously, discharged and extinguished pre-effective-date liabilities and required pending proceedings by operational creditors to be withdrawn, abated, settled or extinguished. The clean slate and fresh start principles preclude indeterminate claims from resurfacing after plan approval. There was no ambiguity warranting application of contra proferentem or adoption of a face-value reservation mechanism.
Conclusion: Pending civil and arbitral claims that had not crystallised by approval of the resolution plan stood abated, waived, withdrawn and extinguished; the operational creditors were entitled to no amount beyond their quantified Re.1 claims. The issue is decided in favour of the appellant.
Binding effect of approved resolution plan - Extinguishment of uncrystallised sub-judice operational claims - Clean slate principle in corporate insolvency resolution
Finality of approved resolution plan - Challenge to resolution plan on allegations of fraud - The approved Resolution Plan could not be reopened on allegations that the treatment of the operational creditor's claim was vitiated by manipulation or fraud. - HELD THAT: - The Final List of Operational Creditors was never challenged by the operational creditor. The intervenor's challenge to the treatment of its claim under the Plan had been dismissed as withdrawn and that order attained finality. The allegation of fraud was held baseless, since the treatment prescribed by the approved Plan was determinative and binding; moreover, no proceedings seeking recall of the approval order had been instituted. [Paras 52, 53]
The Resolution Plan remained final and binding upon all parties.
Extinguishment of sub-judice operational claims - Notional admission of disputed claims - Clean slate principle - Pending civil and arbitral claims of operational creditors, admitted at a notional value in the Final List of Creditors, survived approval of the Resolution Plan. - HELD THAT: - The Final List quantified the disputed claims at a notional value of one and did not retain the earlier stipulation that liability would abide by adjudication. Read as a whole, the Plan confined pro-rata payment from the operational creditors' settlement amount to crystallised and approved claims, while its provisions expressly required pending proceedings and pre-effective-date liabilities of operational creditors to stand withdrawn, abated, settled or extinguished. Regulation 12(2), as applicable, required operational liabilities to be crystallised and quantified by approval of the Plan by the Committee of Creditors. There was no ambiguity warranting contra proferentem or any reservation mechanism for unquantified claims; permitting such claims to revive would defeat the clean slate and fresh start underlying the Code. [Paras 57, 58, 59, 60, 61]
Only crystallised claims were payable on a pro-rata basis; the pending civil suit and arbitral proceedings stood abated, waived, extinguished or withdrawn.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were allowed. The orders permitting continuation of the recovery suit were set aside, and the pending civil suit and arbitral proceedings concerning the uncrystallised operational claims were dismissed.
Outcome: The civil appeal was dismissed and the accompanying interlocutory application(s) were disposed of.
Summary order. Civil appeal dismissed; accompanying interlocutory application(s) disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether a suspended director who is also a personal guarantor has locus standi to challenge the CIRP orders; (ii) Whether dismissal of the belated application seeking re-valuation and nullification of CIRP was valid; (iii) Whether the alleged CIRP violations and conduct of the Resolution Professional warranted interference; (iv) Whether the valuation process warranted fresh valuation; (v) Whether the appellant was unlawfully denied an opportunity to submit a competing resolution plan; (vi) Whether approval of the resolution plan disclosed non-compliance with statutory requirements or grounds for appellate interference.
Issue (i): Whether a suspended director who is also a personal guarantor has locus standi to challenge the CIRP orders.
Analysis: Although management powers stand suspended on commencement of CIRP, a personal guarantor remains directly exposed to enforcement of the corporate debtor's financial debt. That direct financial stake renders the suspended director a person aggrieved for purposes of the appellate remedy.
Conclusion: The appellant had locus standi to maintain the appeals.
Issue (ii): Whether dismissal of the belated application seeking re-valuation and nullification of CIRP was valid.
Analysis: The appellant had notice of the CoC process, its meetings and consideration of resolution plans, but did not attend the relevant meetings or pursue timely objections. He sought to challenge the process only after the CoC had approved the plan, the plan-approval application had been heard and orders reserved. The statutory scheme requires objections to be raised promptly at the appropriate CIRP stage and does not permit a participant with knowledge of the process to unravel it at the final stage.
Conclusion: The dismissal of the belated application was valid and this challenge failed against the appellant.
Issue (iii): Whether the alleged CIRP violations and conduct of the Resolution Professional warranted interference.
Analysis: The allegation regarding non-supply of the seventh CoC minutes was found by the insolvency regulator to be a procedural lapse, not a material irregularity; that finding was not challenged. The appellant did not establish inflated claims, misconduct, denial of relevant participation rights, or other alleged violations through specific contemporaneous and cogent evidence. The appellant had not complied with relevant CIRP requirements and had remained absent from CoC meetings after the first meeting.
Conclusion: No material irregularity or established CIRP violation justified setting aside the resolution process or plan; this issue was decided against the appellant.
Issue (iv): Whether the valuation process warranted fresh valuation.
Analysis: The Resolution Professional appointed two registered valuers in accordance with the CIRP Regulations, and the CoC accepted their valuations. Earlier valuations obtained before CIRP were immaterial to the statutory valuation process. Valuation is expert-driven guidance for the CoC, whose commercial decision cannot be revisited merely because an erstwhile promoter asserts a higher value; the plan consideration was also above liquidation value.
Conclusion: Fresh valuation could not be directed, and the valuation challenge failed against the appellant.
Issue (v): Whether the appellant was unlawfully denied an opportunity to submit a competing resolution plan.
Analysis: The appellant neither submitted an expression of interest nor furnished a resolution plan within the prescribed CIRP process. An investor commitment letter or informal willingness to offer a higher amount is not a resolution plan and cannot replace compliance with statutory eligibility, form and timeline requirements.
Conclusion: The appellant was not unlawfully denied an opportunity to submit a competing resolution plan; this issue was decided against the appellant.
Issue (vi): Whether approval of the resolution plan disclosed non-compliance with statutory requirements or grounds for appellate interference.
Analysis: Appellate review of plan approval is confined to the grounds under the Code, including contravention of law, material irregularity, or non-compliant treatment of operational creditors. The appellant established no breach of the mandatory requirements for plan approval. Objections to adequacy of plan consideration and valuation concern the CoC's non-justiciable commercial wisdom. The approved plan had also been fully implemented.
Conclusion: The approved resolution plan complied with mandatory requirements, and no permissible ground for appellate interference was made out; this issue was decided against the appellant.
Final Conclusion: The CIRP process, valuation exercise and CoC-approved resolution plan remain legally effective, with no basis to reopen the completed resolution process.
Ratio Decidendi: A personal guarantor who is a suspended director may challenge CIRP orders, but appellate review cannot displace a CoC-approved resolution plan absent a proved statutory contravention or material irregularity; a valuation conducted by registered valuers under the CIRP framework and accepted by the CoC cannot be reopened on assertions of greater commercial value.
Locus standi of suspended director-personal guarantor - Belated challenge to corporate insolvency resolution process - Valuation by registered valuers - Commercial wisdom of committee of creditors - Seeking re-valuation and nullification of CIRP - non-compliance with statutory requirements or grounds for appellate interference - Denial of opportunities to the Appellant to submit Resolution Plan -Delay and Laches - Time-Bound Insolvency Resolution - Limited Judicial Review - Material Irregularity - Resolution Plan Compliance - Registered Valuation
Person aggrieved under insolvency appeal - Whether the Appellant as the Suspended Director of the Corporate Debtor, constitutes a "person aggrieved" within the meaning of Section 61(1) of the Code and thereby has the locus standi to file these Appeals ? - HELD THAT: - A personal guarantor retains a direct legal and financial stake in the CIRP outcome because personal assets remain exposed to enforcement by the financial creditor. Such suspended Director is consequently a person aggrieved for purposes of an appeal under the Code. The Tribunal followed Vijay Kumar Jain v. Standard Chartered Bank & nr. [2019 (2) TMI 97 - SUPREME COURT]. [Paras 94, 95, 96]
The appeals were maintainable at the instance of the Appellant.
Delay and laches in challenging resolution process - Time-bound insolvency resolution - HELD THAT: - The Appellant had notice of the CoC proceedings, knew that resolution plans were under consideration, and remained inactive despite knowledge that the plan-approval application was pending and orders had been reserved. The Code requires objections to be raised promptly at the appropriate CIRP stage; a belated challenge seeking to unravel the entire process defeats its time-bound framework. The Tribunal applied the continuum between reserving and pronouncing judgment stated in Loramitra Rath (Suspended director of Maa Durga Commotrade Private Limited) versus JM Financial Asset Reconstruction Co. Limited and Anr. [2023 (11) TMI 107 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI - LB], and the time-bound CIRP principle in Committee of Creditors of Essar Steel India Ltd. [2019 (11) TMI 731 - SUPREME COURT] has emphasised that the IBC is a time-bound framework and that every participant in the CIRP process including the promoters and directors of the corporate debtor are bound to raise objections at the appropriate stage. Belated challenges that seek to unravel an entire CIRP at an advanced stage cannot ordinarily be entertained, as they fundamentally undermine the integrity and object of the Code.
The rejection of the belated application was upheld and the first appeal failed on this ground.
Material irregularity by resolution professional - Procedural lapse in circulation of committee of creditors minutes - HELD THAT: - The Appellant produced no specific, contemporaneous and cogent evidence supporting the allegations. Non-supply of the seventh CoC minutes, though a lapse and despite the Appellant's entitlement to receive them, had been treated by IBBI as procedural rather than material and that determination had attained finality. The Appellant was not a CoC member, did not attend meetings after the first meeting, and had not complied with the CIRP requirements relevant to receiving confidential valuation material. The limited appellate jurisdiction does not permit a roving enquiry into unsupported allegations. [Paras 111, 112, 113, 115, 116]
No contravention of the Code or material irregularity by the Resolution Professional was established.
Revaluation of corporate debtor's assets - Post-commencement valuation by registered valuers - HELD THAT: - Only valuations undertaken after CIRP commencement by IBBI-registered valuers in accordance with the CIRP Regulations are relevant to the CoC's decision. Valuation is an expert exercise which guides, but does not bind, the CoC; the CoC may approve a plan even below liquidation value. Two registered valuers had been appointed in accordance with the statutory framework, their valuations were accepted by the CoC, and no procedural defect in that process was shown. Earlier valuations and the Appellant's own valuation could not displace the accepted CIRP valuations. The Tribunal followed Madhukar Shetty vs Bank of Baroda & Anr.[2024 (7) TMI 196 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL, PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI - LB], Praful Satra versus Vaishali Patrikar & Anr. [2025 (9) TMI 484 - NATIONAL COMPANY LAW APPELLATE TRIBUNAL PRINCIPAL BENCH, NEW DELHI (LB)], Maharashtra Seamless Limited [2020 (1) TMI 903 - SUPREME COURT], Ramkrishna Forgings Limited[2023 (11) TMI 910 - SUPREME COURT], and M.K. Rajagopalan vs. Dr. Periasamy Palani Gounder & Anr. [2023 (5) TMI 344 - SUPREME COURT]. [Paras 127, 128, 130, 131, 132]
The request for revaluation was rejected.
Submission of resolution plan under prescribed process - Informal investor commitment letter - HELD THAT: - It is noted that the Appellant never submitted any Expression of Interest despite claiming benefits available to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (“MSMEs”). It is contended that if the Appellant genuinely intended to revive the Corporate Debtor, the Appellant could have participated in the CIRP by submitting an EOI and thereafter filing a Resolution Plan. However, the Appellant deliberately abstained from the process and chose to challenge the same only after approval of the Resolution Plan by the CoC with 100% voting share.
The scheme of the Code with respect to submission of resolution plans is governed by Section 25(2)(h) of the Code read with Regulation 36A and Form G of the CIRP Regulations. On the facts, the Appellant has not established that he or any investor connected to him submitted any resolution plan. Further, even if an eligible investor was in the background, a mere commitment letter from an investor does not constitute a resolution plan in the prescribed form. An investor commitment letter however genuine cannot substitute for compliance with the statutory requirements of the Code. The RP and the CoC were under no legal obligation to entertain informal expressions of willingness as resolution plans. The Code requires that a resolution plan be in the prescribed form be submitted within the timelines prescribed in Form G, and comply with all requirements of Section 30(1) and (2) of the code.
An investor's commitment letter or informal willingness to offer a higher amount is not a resolution plan and cannot substitute compliance with the Code and CIRP Regulations. The Resolution Professional and the CoC were under no obligation to entertain such an informal proposal. The Tribunal applied Ebix Singapore Pvt. Ltd.[2021 (9) TMI 672 - SUPREME COURT]. [Paras 135, 136, 137, 138, 139]
The challenge based on alleged denial of an opportunity to submit a plan failed.
Judicial review of approved resolution plan - Commercial wisdom of committee of creditors - HELD THAT: - Section 61(3) of the Code specifically provides that an Appeal under Section 61(1) shall not lie except on the grounds that the order of the Adjudicating Authority is against the provisions of the Code or any law for the time being in force or there has been a material irregularity in exercise of the powers by the Resolution Professional; or the debt owed to operational creditors has not been provided for in accordance with the provisions of the Code.
The Adjudicating Authority's role is confined to verifying compliance with the statutory requirements for plan approval, while appellate review is restricted to the grounds specified under the Code. Allegations that the plan consideration was below fair value concern the CoC's commercial assessment and do not furnish an independent ground for interference. The Tribunal held that neither it nor the Adjudicating Authority could substitute its judgment for the collective commercial decision of the financial creditors. The Tribunal applied K. Sashidhar v. Indian Overseas Bank [2019 (2) TMI 1043 - SUPREME COURT], Committee of Creditors of Essar Steel India Ltd. [2019 (11) TMI 731 - SUPREME COURT], and Torrent Power Ltd. [2026 (3) TMI 42 - SUPREME COURT] [Paras 141, 143, 144, 145, 147]
The approved resolution plan was sustained.
Final Conclusion: Both appeals were dismissed. The Appellant's belated objections, valuation challenge, alleged procedural violations, and challenge to the CoC's commercial decision disclosed no permissible ground for appellate interference with the approved resolution plan.
Outcome: Delay condoned; the Special Leave Petitions seeking bail were dismissed, and pending applications were disposed of.
Summary order. Delay condoned; the Special Leave Petitions seeking bail were dismissed, and pending applications were disposed of.
Issues: Whether the extended limitation period for recovery of service tax for 2016-17 was validly invoked, and whether the penalty for suppression was sustainable.
Analysis: The appellant, though registered, neither filed ST-3 returns nor disclosed gross receipts, taxable receipts, exempt receipts, abatements, or its service-tax liability for the relevant period. Statutory returns required disclosure of gross receipts before deductions or exemptions could be claimed. The failure to respond to departmental requests for records further prevented verification. The prescribed statutory manner for disclosure could not be replaced by an undisclosed claim of abatements, and a party could not derive advantage from its own default. These circumstances established deliberate suppression of taxable receipts with intent to evade service tax, warranting invocation of the extended period. Since suppression justifying the extended period stood established, the penalty was consequentially justified.
Conclusion: The extended period under the proviso to Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 was validly invoked, and the penalty under Section 78 of that Act was sustainable; the issue was decided against the assessee.
Extended limitation for suppression of taxable receipts - Penalty for suppression of service tax liability - Work contract services for which the registered service provider did not file ST-3 returns or disclose gross receipts, and consequential penalty for suppression - HELD THAT: - It is a settled position in law that no person can claim the benefit of his own wrongs in any proceedings (Commodum ex injuria sua nemo habere debet or Nullus commodum capere potest de injuria sua propria, it dictates that no party can gain an advantage from a breach of their own obligation).
The appellant neither disputed provision of the work contract services nor their taxability. A registered assessee was statutorily required to file ST-3 returns disclosing gross receipts and to claim any exemption, abatement or deduction in the prescribed manner. Failure to file any return, disclose taxable and exempt receipts, or furnish documents sought by the Department constituted deliberate suppression of the gross amounts received with intent to evade service tax. The demand was not founded solely on information from the Income Tax Department, since the appellant did not respond to departmental requests for records. The extended period was therefore rightly invoked; penalty under Section 78 consequently stood justified. [Paras 4]
The demand for 2016-17, as modified by the impugned order, and the corresponding penalty under Section 78 were upheld.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was dismissed. The modified service tax demand for 2016-17 and the penalty under Section 78 were sustained.
Issues: (i) Whether the composite layout-development activities involving supply of goods and infrastructure works were classifiable as Site Formation and Clearance, Excavation, Earth Moving and Demolition Service or as Works Contract Service; (ii) Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked; (iii) Whether the value of goods and materials used in the activity was excludible from the taxable value.
Issue (i): Whether the composite layout-development activities involving supply of goods and infrastructure works were classifiable as Site Formation and Clearance, Excavation, Earth Moving and Demolition Service or as Works Contract Service.
Analysis: The agreements required conversion of land use and provision of roads, drains, sewerage lines, borewells, reservoirs, water connections and other infrastructure. Property in goods used for these works was transferred and VAT was discharged under the composition scheme. The statutory definition and the Board clarification treated contracts subjected to VAT as works contracts for service-tax purposes. A composite contract involving goods and services could not be artificially classified under Site Formation Service where its essential character was execution of works involving construction and infrastructure development.
Conclusion: The activities are classifiable as Works Contract Service, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked.
Analysis: Mere failure to disclose taxable activity or non-payment of tax does not establish wilful suppression. Invocation of the extended period required evidence of deliberate misstatement or suppression with intent to evade tax, which was absent.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not invocable, in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the value of goods and materials used in the activity was excludible from the taxable value.
Analysis: Documentary material, including the Chartered Accountant's certification and VAT discharge, established use of goods and materials in executing the infrastructure works. The exemption for goods and materials sold by the service provider applied on production of documentary proof, and service tax was chargeable only on the service component.
Conclusion: The material-cost exclusion was allowable, in favour of the assessee.
Dissenting Opinion: The Member (Technical) considered the activity specifically classifiable as Site Formation Service, though the demand was confined to the normal period and the Revenue appeals on valuation were dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The composite layout-development contracts, involving taxable transfer of goods and infrastructure works, fall within the works-contract regime; the contrary classification and the resulting demands could not stand.
Ratio Decidendi: A composite contract involving transfer of property in goods on which VAT is paid and execution of infrastructure works must be classified as Works Contract Service and cannot be artificially vivisected for classification as Site Formation Service.
Classification of Taxable Service - composite layout-development activities involving supply of goods and infrastructure works - Extended limitation-wilful suppression - Exclusion of goods and materials sold from taxable value - Classifiable as Site Formation and Clearance, Excavation, Earth Moving and Demolition Service Or as Works Contract Service - Transfer of Property in Goods - Service Component - Exclusion of Material Value - Differences of opinion between learned Member - Third Member Opinion
Classification of composite land-development contracts as works contract service - HELD THAT: - From the Board Circular B1/16/2007-TRU dated 22.05.2007, it gets clarified that if VAT has been paid under State Act as works contract (on composition basis), the same shall be treated as ‘Works Contract’ under Service Tax provisions also.
From the Para 37 of OIO reproduced above, it can be seen that the appellant also has taken the Service Tax Registration under ‘works contract’ and has discharged part of the service tax payable by them. From para 39 of the OIO reproduced above, it can be seen that the works involved require construction services wherein the total value of the goods used is about 70% as has been certified by the Chartered Accountant.
The Third Member held that the contracts involved transfer of property in goods, on which VAT had been paid under the composition scheme, together with construction and infrastructure activities. In light of the Board clarification and the decisions treating composite contracts involving supply of goods and services as works contracts, the activities could be classified only as works contract service, and not as site formation service. This view prevailed over the Technical Member's view that the activities were specifically classifiable as site formation service. [Paras 29, 30, 32, 33, 36]
By majority, the activities were classified as works contract service; the impugned orders were set aside and the assessees' appeals were allowed with consequential relief.
Extended limitation-wilful suppression - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal found no allegation supported by evidence of wilful misrepresentation or suppression with intent to evade tax. Mere failure to intimate the Department of taxable activity could not justify the extended period; the Members were in agreement that the demand was time-barred. [Paras 7, 16]
The extended period was held inapplicable and the demand was set aside as time-barred.
Exclusion of VAT-paid materials used in layout-development activities from the gross value for service-tax assessment - HELD THAT: - The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Larsen & Turbo Ltd. [2015 (8) TMI 749 - SUPREME COURT] and GD Builders [2013 (11) TMI 1004 - DELHI HIGH COURT] extended the benefit of Notification No. 12/2003-ST dated 20.06.2003 on the value of goods, on which VAT has been discharged. Though the above judgment is in relation to works contract services, the principle that was laid down was that service tax can be levied only on the service element contained in the contracts and not on the goods.
Notification No. 12/2003-ST exempted the value of goods and materials sold by the service provider where documentary proof of their value existed. Since the materials used in the pre-construction activities were supported by the Chartered Accountant's certificate and VAT had been discharged, their value was rightly excluded; service tax could be levied only on the service component. [Paras 8, 36]
The Revenue's challenge to exclusion of material cost was rejected and its valuation appeals were dismissed.
Final Conclusion: By majority, the layout-development activities were held classifiable as works contract service. The assessees' appeals were allowed with consequential relief, while the Revenue's valuation appeals were rejected.
Issues: Whether the extended period of limitation for recovery of service tax could be invoked.
Analysis: Invocation of the extended period under the proviso to Section 73(1) required findings and supporting material establishing fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts, or deliberate contravention with intent to evade tax. The impugned order contained no finding that the non-payment was deliberate or attributable to suppression with such intent. Since a substantial part of the original demand had been dropped, the assessee's belief that service tax was not payable was bona fide. Mere non-payment, negligence, or failure to take registration does not by itself establish the positive and deliberate conduct necessary for the extended limitation period.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation was not invocable; the demand founded on that period was unsustainable.
Extended period of limitation for service tax demand - Wilful suppression and intent to evade tax - Intent to evade tax - Bona fide belief - Burden of proving mala fides - HELD THAT: - The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Uniworth Textiles Ltd.[2013 (1) TMI 616 - SUPREME COURT], held that mere non-payment of customs duty on furnace oil imports does not constitute collusion, willful misstatement, or suppression of facts warranting extended limitation period under the proviso.
The appellate order contained no finding that the non-payment resulted from deliberate suppression or any other prescribed ingredient accompanied by intent to evade tax. Since the substantial part of the original demand had itself been found unsustainable, the assessee's bona fide belief regarding non-liability was sufficiently established; the demand founded on a presumption of extended limitation was therefore unsustainable. [Paras 4]
The demand raised by invoking the extended period of limitation was held to be bad in law and could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was allowed. The service-tax demand, being founded solely on an unsustainable invocation of the extended period of limitation, was set aside.
Issues: (i) Whether invocation of the extended limitation period under the proviso to Section 11A(1) was valid; (ii) Whether personal penalties on the Director and Financial Advisor under Rule 26 were sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether invocation of the extended limitation period under the proviso to Section 11A(1) was valid.
Analysis: The extended period applies where non-levy or short levy results from fraud, collusion, wilful misstatement, suppression of facts, or contravention with intent to evade duty. The show-cause notice, read as a whole, set out the material facts demonstrating deliberate non-registration after crossing the exemption threshold, non-filing of declarations, absence of production, stock and sales records, relabelling and repacking of imported goods, and clearance of excisable goods without duty. These facts were detected only through departmental investigation. The absence of verbatim statutory language in the notice caused no prejudice because the factual foundation for deliberate suppression and evasion was clearly disclosed and answered.
Conclusion: The extended period under the proviso to Section 11A(1) was validly invoked against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether personal penalties on the Director and Financial Advisor under Rule 26 were sustainable.
Analysis: The factual findings established that the Director specifically directed removal and replacement of price stickers and clearance of excisable goods without payment of duty. The Financial Advisor was also found to have been involved in and responsible for the duty evasion. No perversity was shown in the concurrent factual findings regarding their respective roles.
Conclusion: The personal penalties under Rule 26 were sustainable against the Director and Financial Advisor.
Final Conclusion: The demand was enforceable using the extended limitation period, and the individual liabilities for participation in the evasion remained intact.
Ratio Decidendi: A show-cause notice validly supports invocation of the extended limitation period when its pleaded facts clearly establish conscious suppression and intent to evade duty, even without reproducing the precise statutory phraseology.
Extended limitation for wilful suppression of excise duty liability - Personal penalty for deliberate clearance of excisable goods without payment of duty -Penalties on the Director and Financial Advisor under Rule 26 - Effect of non-mention of the specific words used in the statute
Extended limitation for wilful suppression of excise duty liability - Invocation of the extended period for recovery of excise duty on telephone instruments cleared without compliance with registration, declaration and record-maintenance requirements. - HELD THAT: - It is no doubt true that the show cause notice does not quote in Haec Verba (Formal latin word for “in these exact words”) the proviso to Section 11A(1). However upon holistic reading of the entire show cause notice, it is seen that there is a narration of the entire facts, data collected, the statements of the highest officials of the assessee company and the conduct of the assessee which explicitly manifest clear evidence of fraud, suppression, wilful conscious and deliberate intention to evade excise duty.
Once the material facts constituting the ingredients of the provisions of Section 11A[1] of the Act are specifically pleaded, the mere omission to employ the precise statutory phraseology of the proviso, does not render the show cause notice invalid or legally unsustainable. Further, pursuant to the show cause notice, the assessee has also actively defended itself against those facts during the hearings before the authorities below. Therefore, by mere non-mention of the specific words used in the statute, the assessee cannot be said to have suffered any prejudice. The assessing officer on the basis of the admission of the Director, Financial Advisor and other top officials of the company, concluded that the non maintenance of records for production, stock and sale of finished goods was clearly a conscious and deliberate suppression of the fact of manufacture and clearance of excisable goods with an intent to evade payment of duty. The assessing officer therefore found that he was justified in invoking the proviso to Sub-section 1 of Section 11A of the Act.
The admissions of the company's officials established conscious and deliberate suppression with intent to evade duty, distinguishing the authorities relied upon by the appellants. [Paras 12, 13, 14, 15, 16]
The extended period under the proviso to Section 11A(1) was validly invoked.
Personal penalty for deliberate clearance of excisable goods without payment of duty - HELD THAT: - The factual findings established that the Director gave specific instructions for removal and replacement of price stickers and clearance of excisable goods without payment of duty, while the Financial Advisor was equally involved in the duty evasion. As those findings, affirmed by the Tribunal, disclosed their respective roles and suffered from no perversity, no interference was warranted. [Paras 17, 18]
The personal penalties on the Director and Financial Advisor were sustained.
Final Conclusion: The appeals were dismissed. The extended limitation for demand of duty and the personal penalties imposed on the Director and Financial Advisor were upheld.
Issues: (i) Whether goods partly sold to independent buyers and partly transferred to a sister unit for captive consumption were to be valued under Rule 8 on cost-plus basis or with reference to the independent-buyer price; (ii) Whether the extended limitation period was validly invoked for the differential excise-duty demand.
Issue (i): Whether goods partly sold to independent buyers and partly transferred to a sister unit for captive consumption were to be valued under Rule 8 on cost-plus basis or with reference to the independent-buyer price.
Analysis: During the material period, Rule 8 applied where excisable goods were not sold and were used captively. Since substantial quantities were sold to independent buyers, Rule 8 did not govern the sister-unit clearances. The available normal price for independent sales could be adopted through the residuary mechanism under Rule 11, consistently with Section 4(1)(a). The subsequent amendment of Rule 8 did not alter the applicable valuation method for the disputed period.
Conclusion: The independent-buyer sale price was the proper basis for valuation of the clearances to the sister unit; the differential duty demand was sustainable. The finding is against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the extended limitation period was validly invoked for the differential excise-duty demand.
Analysis: The excise returns disclosed only aggregate clearance quantity and value, without separately disclosing the quantity and value of sister-unit clearances. This withheld material particulars concerning the lower valuation adopted for related-party transfers and constituted suppression of full and correct facts with intent to evade duty.
Conclusion: Invocation of the extended period of limitation was valid. The finding is against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The valuation of sister-unit clearances was required to reflect the available independent-sale price, and the demand for the larger period, with consequential liabilities upheld in the impugned order, remained sustainable.
Ratio Decidendi: Where excisable goods are partly sold to independent buyers and partly cleared to a related unit for captive use, the readily available independent-sale price may determine the assessable value of related-party clearances under the residuary valuation mechanism; non-disclosure of separate related-party clearance details can justify extended limitation.
Valuation of goods partly cleared to related captive unit - Extended limitation for suppression in excise returns
Assessable value of Bromine cleared to sister unit - Rule 4 valuation where independent sales are available - HELD THAT: - The Hon’ble Supreme Court examined similar facts in the case of Merino Panel Product Ltd. [2022 (12) TMI 453 - SUPREME COURT]. The duty demand in this case pertained to Financial Year 2009-2010 and 2010-2011 and the goods were partly sold to independent buyers at higher price and partly at lower price to related parties. It was held that the price charged from independent parties under Section 4(1)(a) of the central Excise Act, 1944 being readily available, can be transposed onto related party purchases as well, to arrive at assessable value. It also upheld invocation of extended period as undervaluation of sales made to related parties was suppressed facts and assessee failed to provide accurate information to revenue regarding its sales.
Rules 9 and 10 did not govern a case of partial sales to independent buyers and related buyers, and the residuary mechanism under Rule 11 had to be applied consistently with Section 4. Since a substantial part of the Bromine was sold to independent buyers, the pre-amendment Rule 8 cost-based method was inapplicable to the quantity transferred to the sister unit. The readily available normal price charged to independent buyers could be adopted for determining the assessable value of related-party clearances, subject to due consideration of relevant material. [Paras 5]
The differential duty demand based on the price charged to independent buyers was upheld.
Suppression of related-party clearance particulars - Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT: - The returns did not disclose the quantity and value of related-party clearances separately, despite the lower per-unit value adopted for such clearances. This was held to be suppression of full and correct material particulars with intent to evade duty, warranting invocation of the extended period. [Paras 5]
The extended period was validly invoked, and the demand, interest and penalty confirmed by the Commissioner were sustained.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was rejected. The demand based on valuation of sister-unit clearances at the normal price available from independent buyers, together with interest and penalty, was sustained.
Issues: Whether interest was payable on refund of a pre-deposit made before 06.08.2014, and whether denial and recovery of the interest already refunded were legally sustainable.
Analysis: The proviso to the substituted Section 35FF preserves the pre-amendment regime for deposits made before 06.08.2014. Under that regime, interest becomes payable only where the refundable deposit is not returned within three months from communication of the appellate order. Since the deposit was made on 21.04.2014 and refunded within the stipulated three-month period after the appellate order, no statutory entitlement to interest arose.
Conclusion: Interest on the refunded pre-deposit was not payable; denial and recovery of the interest amount were valid, against the assessee.
Scope of Amendment to Section 35FF - Interest on refund of pre-deposit - Prospective application of amended Section 35FF - Entitlement to interest on refund of a pre-deposit made before the amendment of Section 35FF - HELD THAT: - The substituted provision, effective from 06.08.2014, marks a significant departure by providing for interest from the very date of deposit until the date of refund. Thus, this legislative change was introduced because, for the first time under the Central Excise Act, a mandatory pre-deposit of a prescribed percentage of the duty demanded or, where only penalty was in dispute, of the penalty imposed, was made a statutory precondition for entertaining an appeal before the appellate forum.
In other words, with effect from 06.08.2014, every aggrieved person seeking to file an appeal was mandatorily required by law to make the prescribed pre-deposit before the appeal could be entertained. Prior to this amendment, however, the Commissioner (Appeals) or the Appellate Tribunal, as the case may be, had the discretion to dispense with the requirement of pre-deposit if they were satisfied that insisting upon the deposit of the duty demanded or penalty levied would cause undue hardship to the appellant. Such waiver could be granted subject to such conditions as the appellate authority considered appropriate to safeguard the interests of the Revenue.
The proviso to amended Section 35FF preserves the erstwhile provision for deposits made before the amendment came into force. Since the pre-deposit was made before that date, interest was payable only if the refund was not made within three months from communication of the appellate order. The refund having been sanctioned within that period, no interest accrued. [Paras 8]
The denial and recovery of the interest earlier sanctioned on refund of the pre-deposit were upheld.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was sustained and the appeal was dismissed, as no interest was payable on the refunded pre-deposit under the applicable erstwhile Section 35FF.
Issues: (i) Whether tax was leviable under the Tamil Nadu General Sales Tax Act, 1959 on imported cars claimed to have been sold in the course of high seas sales; (ii) Whether the Tribunal could restore the assessment of tax for breach of conditions under G.O.Ms.No.381 despite no departmental appeal against the first appellate order.
Issue (i): Whether tax was leviable under the Tamil Nadu General Sales Tax Act, 1959 on imported cars claimed to have been sold in the course of high seas sales.
Analysis: The import and sale records showed that the dealer's sale invoices were raised after the cars entered Indian territory and from its Tamil Nadu factory address. The dealer paid customs duty, while no reliable evidence established that title passed while the cars were on the high seas. Transport documents did not prove that the sales occurred before entry into the customs frontier or outside Tamil Nadu. The place of transfer, in the absence of contrary evidence, was determinable from the sale invoices.
Conclusion: The sales were not high seas sales and were taxable under the Tamil Nadu General Sales Tax Act, 1959. This issue was decided against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the Tribunal could restore the assessment of tax for breach of conditions under G.O.Ms.No.381 despite no departmental appeal against the first appellate order.
Analysis: The exemption granted under G.O.Ms.No.381, issued under Section 17 of the Tamil Nadu General Sales Tax Act, 1959, required the purchased goods to be used for the declared manufacturing purpose; its third proviso imposed tax where the goods were otherwise disposed of. The dealer failed to establish that the goods purchased against declarations were used in manufacture or correlate them with exports. The exemption under Section 5(3) of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 was unavailable to a dealer that had obtained the State exemption by declaration and breached its conditions. The Tribunal was entitled, in the dealer's appeal, to correct the apparent legal error in substituting compounding fees for the tax consequence expressly prescribed by the exemption notification.
Conclusion: The Tribunal rightly restored the assessment of tax for violation of the conditions of G.O.Ms.No.381. This issue was decided against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The claimed import-sale exemption and the conditional exemption for locally purchased goods were unavailable on the established facts, and the tax liability under the State regime remained enforceable.
Ratio Decidendi: A dealer that avails a conditional State tax exemption on a declaration must satisfy its stipulated use condition; upon breach, the prescribed tax consequence applies and cannot be displaced by an alternative export-sale claim or compounding mechanism.
High seas sales of imported cars - Conditional sales-tax exemption-breach of declaration - Appellate power to correct misapplication of exemption notification
High seas sales of imported cars - Situs of sale - Levy of tax on imported cars claimed to have been sold on high seas. - HELD THAT: - The claim of high seas sales was not established. The sale invoices were raised after the vehicles had entered Indian territory and showed the dealer's factory address in Tamil Nadu; customs duty was also paid by the dealer, not by the dealers named in the foreign supplier's invoices. Transport documents did not conclusively establish that the sales had occurred before entry into the customs frontier or outside Tamil Nadu. In the absence of contrary proof, the place of transfer was determinable from the sale invoices. [Paras 28, 29, 30, 31]
The sales were taxable under the TNGST Act and were not high seas sales.
Conditional sales-tax exemption-breach of declaration - Appellate power to correct misapplication of exemption notification - Restoration of tax liability where goods purchased under G.O.Ms.No.381 exemption declarations were not shown to have been used for the declared manufacturing purpose. - HELD THAT: - The exemption under G.O.Ms.No.381 was conditional upon use of the goods for the specified manufacturing purpose. The dealer failed to correlate the purchases with exports or produce proof that the goods were used in manufacture as declared. The notification itself required payment of tax where goods purchased against declaration were disposed of otherwise. The benefit under Section 5(3) of the CST Act was unavailable to a dealer that had availed the State exemption on such declaration. Though the Department had not appealed, the Tribunal was entitled, in the dealer's appeal, to correct the Appellate Authority's apparent misapplication of law; compounding fees could not substitute the tax consequence expressly provided by the notification. [Paras 38, 40, 42, 43, 44]
The Tribunal rightly restored the assessment order levying tax for violation of the conditions of G.O.Ms.No.381.
Final Conclusion: The Tax Case was dismissed. The Tribunal's order was upheld on both the taxability of the imported-car sales and the tax consequence of breach of the conditional exemption declaration.
Issues: (i) Whether surrender of a transit pass precludes penalty proceedings for contravention during transit; (ii) Whether direct proof of unloading or sale within the State is necessary before initiating proceedings based on suspected diversion of goods; (iii) Whether revisional jurisdiction could be exercised to reverse the appellate order that had annulled the penalty; (iv) Whether the restoration of penalty was legally sustainable on the facts.
Issue (i): Whether surrender of a transit pass precludes penalty proceedings for contravention during transit.
Analysis: A transit pass evidences the declared movement of goods through the State but is not conclusive evidence that goods reached their declared destination. Discrepancies in transport records, shortages in goods, and surrounding circumstances capable of supporting an inference of attempted evasion remain relevant despite surrender of the pass.
Conclusion: Surrender of a transit pass does not bar penalty proceedings where material indicates attempted tax evasion. The issue is decided against the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether direct proof of unloading or sale within the State is necessary before initiating proceedings based on suspected diversion of goods.
Analysis: Contravention may be established from verification of goods in transit, accompanying records, and attendant circumstances. Documentary discrepancies, missing supporting records, and circumstances indicating possible diversion permit appropriate inferences; direct evidence of actual unloading within the State is not indispensable.
Conclusion: Direct proof of intrastate unloading or sale is not a condition precedent to proceedings for contravention. The issue is decided against the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether revisional jurisdiction could be exercised to reverse the appellate order that had annulled the penalty.
Analysis: The appellate order treated surrender of transit passes as sufficient to negate evasion while overlooking discrepancies in documents, shortages in goods, and the vehicle's movement towards Bengaluru after surrender. Those omissions constituted infirmities justifying revisional scrutiny of the legality and propriety of that order.
Conclusion: Exercise of revisional jurisdiction to reverse the appellate order was lawful. The issue is decided against the assessee.
Issue (iv): Whether the restoration of penalty was legally sustainable on the facts.
Analysis: The finding of intent to evade tax rested on cumulative factual circumstances and the explanation for the vehicle's return was found not credible. Such factual findings, supported by relevant material and free from perversity, arbitrariness, or legal infirmity, did not warrant appellate interference.
Conclusion: Restoration of the penalty was legally sustainable. The issue is decided against the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The penalty for the transit-related contravention remains enforceable, and the revisional correction of the appellate order stands on a valid legal and factual basis.
Ratio Decidendi: A transit pass is evidentiary but not conclusive of genuine interstate transit; penalty proceedings and revisional intervention may be sustained on cumulative circumstantial material demonstrating attempted diversion and tax evasion.
Transit pass and tax-evasion penalty - Inference of diversion of goods in transit - Revisional jurisdiction over appellate order
Transit pass and tax-evasion penalty - Levy of penalty for attempted evasion in respect of goods declared to be in interstate transit despite surrender of transit passes at the exit check-post. - HELD THAT: - The issuance and surrender of a transit pass is relevant evidence of the declared movement of goods, but is not conclusive proof that the goods reached the declared destination. Discrepancies in accompanying documents, shortage of goods and the vehicle's movement back towards Bengaluru after surrender of the passes furnished a reasonable basis to infer attempted diversion and tax evasion. [Paras 16, 17, 18, 22]
The jurisdiction to invoke penalty was not excluded merely because the transit passes had been surrendered.
Inference of diversion of goods in transit - Requirement of proof of actual unloading, sale or other dealing with transit goods within the State before initiation of proceedings for contravention. - HELD THAT: - Proceedings concerning goods in transit may be founded on verification of the goods, transport records and attendant circumstances. Direct proof of actual unloading within the State is not the sole means of establishing contravention; discrepancies in goods and documents, absence of supporting transport records and circumstances indicative of diversion permit appropriate inferences. [Paras 23]
The authorities were not required to establish actual unloading within the State by direct evidence before initiating proceedings.
Revisional jurisdiction over appellate order - Validity of revision restoring penalty where the appellate authority treated surrender of transit passes as sufficient to negate evasion. - HELD THAT: - The revisional authority was competent to examine the legality and propriety of the appellate order. Since the appellate authority overlooked material circumstances, including documentary discrepancies, shortage of goods and the vehicle's return towards Bengaluru, revision to correct that infirmity was justified. The resultant findings were factual findings supported by relevant material and disclosed no perversity, arbitrariness or legal infirmity warranting appellate interference. [Paras 19, 20, 24, 25, 26]
The exercise of revisional jurisdiction and restoration of the penalty were upheld.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was dismissed. The revisional order was affirmed and the penalty for attempted tax evasion was restored.
Issues: Whether the Tribunal, as the final fact-finding authority, could reject the dealer's claim for deduction on inter-State purchases used in works contracts without examining the records asserted to have been filed before the lower authorities or affording an opportunity to produce them.
Analysis: The orders of the assessing authority, first appellate authority and Tribunal contained no discussion of the works-contract terms or the foundational documents bearing on whether movement of the goods from outside the State was occasioned by the contracts. Despite the dealer's specific assertion that supporting material had been produced before the assessing authority, the Tribunal rejected the claim without verifying the records. As final fact-finding authority, the Tribunal was required either to summon and examine the available records or permit the dealer to produce the material.
Conclusion: The questions concerning non-consideration of evidence and denial of opportunity were answered in favour of the assessee; the Tribunal's order was set aside for fresh consideration of the evidence and, if necessary, further material.
Final fact-finding authority's duty to examine material evidence - Opportunity to produce evidence in support of inter-State purchases for works contracts
Final fact-finding authority's duty to examine material evidence - Opportunity to produce evidence in support of inter-State purchases for works contracts - The Tribunal's rejection of the dealer's claim for deduction in respect of inter-State purchases used in works contracts without verifying the asserted record evidence or affording an opportunity to produce it. - HELD THAT: - The orders at all stages contained no discussion of the works contracts or their terms. Despite the dealer's specific assertion that evidence showing that the inter-State movement was pursuant to the works contracts had been produced before the assessing and first appellate authorities, the Tribunal held that no evidence was available without verifying the records. As the final fact-finding authority, the Tribunal was required either to summon and examine the records or to permit the dealer to place the material before it. In the absence of such material before the High Court, the merits of the deduction claim could not be determined. [Paras 10, 11]
The questions concerning consideration of evidence and opportunity to produce it were answered in favour of the dealer; the Tribunal's order was set aside and the matter remanded for fresh consideration of the evidence, with liberty to the dealer to adduce further material if the existing record was insufficient.
Final Conclusion: The revisions were disposed of by remanding the matter to the Tribunal for a fresh evidentiary determination. The remaining questions concerning the merits of deduction under Section 3-B[2][a] were left unconsidered.
Issues: (i) Whether sand, gravel and jelly purchased by works contractors from unregistered dealers and used in construction works are liable to purchase tax; (ii) Whether levy of tax on the deemed sale component of a works contract excludes purchase-tax liability on goods procured from unregistered dealers.
Issue (i): Whether sand, gravel and jelly purchased by works contractors from unregistered dealers and used in construction works are liable to purchase tax.
Analysis: Purchase-tax provisions are independent charging and remedial provisions intended to prevent goods from escaping tax where no tax was paid at the seller's point. The binding interpretation of the expression "or otherwise" covers goods consumed in construction, since such goods cease to exist in their original form and are no longer available for sale or purchase. The admitted procurement from unregistered dealers and use in works contracts therefore satisfies the statutory conditions for purchase tax under both regimes.
Conclusion: Goods purchased from unregistered dealers and consumed in execution of works contracts are exigible to purchase tax. The issue is decided against the assessee and in favour of the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether levy of tax on the deemed sale component of a works contract excludes purchase-tax liability on goods procured from unregistered dealers.
Analysis: The levy on transfer of property in goods involved in a works contract and purchase tax arise from distinct taxable events and operate in separate fields. The works-contract provision permits deduction in respect of specified goods purchased from registered dealers that have suffered tax; it does not protect purchases from unregistered dealers on which tax was not paid at the earlier stage. Consequently, the deemed-sale levy does not result in impermissible double taxation or displace purchase tax.
Conclusion: The deemed-sale provision does not exclude purchase-tax liability for materials purchased from unregistered dealers. The issue is decided against the assessee and in favour of the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The appellate and Tribunal orders exonerating the assessee were legally unsustainable, and the assessments imposing purchase tax and consequential penalty were within jurisdiction.
Ratio Decidendi: A works contractor's consumption of taxable goods purchased from unregistered dealers in construction is consumption "otherwise" attracting purchase tax, and a separate deemed-sale levy on the works contract does not negate that liability.
Purchase tax on construction materials purchased from unregistered dealers - Independent operation of purchase tax and works-contract deemed-sale provisions - Penalty for incorrect and incomplete returns
Purchase tax on construction materials purchased from unregistered dealers - Consumption of goods otherwise than in manufacture for sale - Liability of a works contractor to purchase tax on sand, gravel and jelly purchased from unregistered dealers and used in execution of works contracts. - HELD THAT: - Purchase tax is an independent charging and remedial levy intended to prevent revenue leakage where taxable goods have not suffered tax at the seller's point. Goods purchased from unregistered dealers and utilised in construction cease to be available in their original form for sale or purchase; their consumption in execution of works contracts falls within consumption or use "otherwise" under the purchase-tax provisions. The contrary view adopted by the appellate authority and the Tribunal was inconsistent with the binding constitutional-bench interpretation. [Paras 11]
The purchases were exigible to purchase tax under Section 7-A of the TNGST Act and the corresponding provision of the TNVAT Act.
Independent operation of purchase tax and works-contract deemed-sale provisions - Effect of levy on transfer of property in goods involved in works contracts upon purchase-tax liability for materials purchased from unregistered dealers. - HELD THAT: - The works-contract provision concerns taxable turnover arising from transfer of property in goods and permits deduction in respect of specified goods purchased from registered dealers and used in the same form. Purchase tax, in contrast, applies to purchases from unregistered dealers where tax was not paid at the seller's point. The provisions operate in distinct fields; consequently, the deemed-sale provision did not exclude purchase-tax liability or establish prior tax sufferance on the goods in question. [Paras 11]
The assessee could not resist purchase tax by invoking the deemed-sale provision applicable to works contracts.
Penalty for incorrect and incomplete returns - Validity of penalty accompanying purchase-tax liability arising from incorrect and incomplete returns. - HELD THAT: - Having held that the assessing authority validly invoked the purchase-tax provision, the Court found that the case involved incorrect and incomplete returns and that imposition of tax and penalty was justified. The same conclusion applied to assessments under the TNVAT Act because of the corresponding purchase-tax provisions. [Paras 11]
The levy of penalty was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The impugned appellate and Tribunal orders were held perverse and were quashed in the allowed revisions. The assessing authority was directed to proceed in accordance with law for recovery of the tax and penalty.
Issues: Whether the complainant proved the loan transactions and execution of the dishonoured cheque so as to attract liability for cheque dishonour.
Analysis: The evidence established the complainant's financial capacity, the transactions, execution of the cheque and dishonour. A cheque returned with the endorsement "Drawer's signature differs" attracts liability where the drawer's account also lacked sufficient funds and the statutory requirements are met. The fact that a further loan was advanced to a relative while an earlier loan remained unpaid did not make the transaction inherently improbable, particularly given the short interval between them. Nor did the typewritten nature of the cheque invalidate or discredit its execution. The accused's inconsistent case concerning an earlier loan and blank cheque did not rebut the evidence establishing the cheque liability; the presumptions of consideration and legally enforceable liability were therefore available to the complainant.
Conclusion: The acquittal was unsustainable; the accused was liable for the offence of cheque dishonour.
Dishonour of cheque for drawer's signature mismatch - Presumptions as to consideration and legally enforceable debt
Dishonour of cheque for drawer's signature mismatch - Dishonour of the cheque with the endorsement "Drawer's signature differs" in circumstances where the drawer's account lacked sufficient funds. - HELD THAT: - Dishonour on the ground of a differing drawer's signature attracts the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act where the other statutory requirements are satisfied. The bank evidence established that there were insufficient funds in the drawer's account when the cheque was presented. [Paras 17]
The dishonour of the cheque was held to fall within Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
Presumptions as to consideration and legally enforceable debt - Proof of execution of typewritten cheque - Proof of the loan transaction and execution of a typewritten cheque towards discharge of the accused's liability. - HELD THAT: - The advancement of a further loan to a relative while an earlier loan remained unpaid did not, by itself, render the complainant's evidence improbable. Nor was a typewritten cheque legally impermissible or a ground to reject the transaction once its execution was established. The evidence supported the complainant's case, while the accused had not suggested to the complainant that the cheque was not executed and had advanced an inconsistent defence concerning an earlier transaction. The complainant was therefore entitled to invoke the presumptions under Sections 118 and 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act. [Paras 20, 21, 22, 23]
The acquittal was set aside and the accused was convicted for the offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
Final Conclusion: The appeal against acquittal was allowed. The accused was convicted under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act and sentenced to imprisonment till rising of the court, with fine and consequential compensation.
TaxTMI