Identity theft arises where a person fraudulently or dishonestly uses another person's electronic signature, password, or other unique identification feature. Criminal liability covers any such unique identifier belonging to another person where the fraudulent or dishonest mental element is present. Punishment may include imprisonment of either description for up to three years and a fine up to one lakh rupees.

Section 66B criminalises dishonest receipt or retention of a stolen computer resource or communication device where the person knows or has reason to believe that it is stolen. Liability requires dishonest receipt or retention and awareness, or reason to believe, that the resource or device is stolen. The offence may result in imprisonment, fine, or both.

Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, concerning punishment for sending offensive messages through a communication service or related electronic means, is omitted. No surviving operative text remains under the provision, whose former subject matter concerned an offence relating to offensive communications.

AEO certificate validity is extended until 30 September 2020 for certificates that expired or were due to expire from 1 March 2020 through 30 September 2020, addressing renewal difficulties caused by COVID-19 lockdowns. The extension excludes entities against which a negative report is received during the relevant period. Ordinary validity remains three years for AEO-T1 and AEO-T2 certificates and five years for AEO-T3 and AEO-LO certificates.

Members of a two-Member Appellate Tribunal Bench who differ on any point must formulate the points of disagreement and refer them to the Chairperson. The disputed points are resolved according to the opinion supported by the majority of all Members hearing the case, including those who initially heard it.

Section 52C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, was omitted with effect from 26 May 2017, removing the Chairperson's statutory authority to transfer pending cases between Cyber Appellate Tribunal Benches. Before omission, transfer could be made upon a party's application after notice and an appropriate hearing, or suo motu without notice.

Section 52B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, on distribution of business among Benches of the Appellate Tribunal, is omitted. The provision therefore contains no operative terms governing allocation of the Tribunal's business among Benches and lays down no applicable criteria, procedures, or mechanisms for inter-Bench assignment of matters under section 52B.

Section 52A, formerly identified with powers of superintendence, direction, and related matters concerning the Appellate Tribunal, is omitted. The provision contains no surviving operative terms setting out those powers, their scope, conditions, procedures, or consequences. Accordingly, no substantive mechanism is specified under section 52A for superintendence or direction in relation to the Appellate Tribunal.

Compulsory registration of Muslim marriages will operate under the Assam Muslim Marriage Registration (Compulsory) Rules, 2026, framed under the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriage and Divorces Act, 2024. Registration will be undertaken by registrars, with panchayat-level officials potentially authorised where application volumes require additional capacity. The framework addresses the registration forum after kazis were barred from registering Muslim marriages.

Valid bonds declared while filing a Bill of Entry will be automatically debited after assessment, reducing the need for physical interaction. Officer intervention is required only where no bond was declared or the available balance is insufficient. First check Bills of Entry will automatically reach the assessing officer after completed examination, without a separate activation step. Incomplete examination reports may be returned to the examiner, and assessment is complete only upon the AC's confirmation. SUP-queue Bills of Entry will use the "NOCFS" routing code before CFS details are entered.

Pain balms containing synthetic pharmacopoeial ingredients do not qualify as Ayurvedic medicines for central excise classification unless manufactured exclusively according to formulae in authoritative Ayurvedic books listed in the First Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. An Ayurvedic drug licence, Ayurvedic labelling, or certificates based on labels do not establish Ayurvedic character where no authoritative text or formulary supports the formula or preparation method. Trade names, trade marks, and distinctive packaging may support classification as patent or proprietary medicines. Such products fall outside the Ayurvedic-medicine tariff entry and are classifiable as patent or proprietary medicines.

Exporters may submit online requests through ICEGATE to register or modify Authorised Dealer Codes and bank accounts, with supporting passbook copies or bank authorisation letters filed through e-Sanchit. They can track approval and PFMS acceptance through a dashboard, while EDI officers must process complete applications on the same working day or communicate deficiencies electronically. ICES automatically debits a declared bond after assessment and reflects the debit on the first copy of the Bill of Entry.

Policy management emphasises clear communication, policy certainty, macroeconomic and financial-sector stability, efficient use of buffers, and sustained structural reform. Fiscal prudence is treated as necessary to avoid unsustainable stimulus and preserve long-term stability. External-sector resilience rests on services exports and remittances, while oil and gold shocks and weaker capital inflows have created temporary balance-of-payments pressure. Further improvement is linked to lower oil dependence, export diversification, trade agreements, capital inflows and orderly foreign-exchange market management.

Negligent failure by a body corporate to maintain reasonable security practices for sensitive personal data or information in a computer resource may require compensation where wrongful loss or wrongful gain results. Reasonable security measures must protect information against unauthorised access, damage, use, modification, disclosure or impairment. Such measures may arise from party agreement or applicable law, and otherwise may be prescribed by the Central Government. Sensitive personal data or information consists of prescribed personal information.

Section 40A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 imposes duties on subscribers in respect of Electronic Signature Certificates. Subscribers must perform the duties prescribed for them, establishing compliance with prescribed requirements as the operative obligation associated with an Electronic Signature Certificate within the statutory framework. The provision was inserted through the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008, with effect from 27 October 2009.

Software export revenue generated by Technopark reached Rs 17,092 crore in FY 2025-26, reflecting year-on-year growth of approximately 17.3 per cent. Growth is attributed to IT infrastructure, a skilled talent base, and company performance. Technopark also operates as an IT and ITeS hub and startup ecosystem centre, with ongoing campus development intended to expand its position among major IT hubs.

Personal hearing under Section 27 is mandatory where the governing assessment provision requires it. Assessment orders passed without affording that hearing violate the statutory requirement and principles of natural justice, including where the assessee has filed no reply or objections. Where an earlier remand required a reasonable opportunity and objections were filed, failure to provide a personal hearing renders the assessment unsustainable. A fresh hearing is required before a lawful assessment determination can be made.

Custodian and Customs Cargo Services Provider status for M/s. Central Warehousing Corporation, D' Node Container Freight Station is renewed for five years from 15 March 2020. The custodianship covers imported goods until clearance for home consumption, warehousing or transhipment, and export cargo until exportation after examination and stuffing. The provider must comply with the Customs Act and cargo-area regulations. Approval remains subject to review before expiry for regulatory non-compliance or Government directions.

Special leave petitions were dismissed after similar petitions filed against an interim order had already been dismissed. No substantive GST issue, statutory interpretation, or merits-based determination is identified. Pending applications were disposed of consequentially, leaving the challenge without further consideration before the Court at this stage in the special leave proceedings.

SCMTR registration is mandatory for authorised custodians, carriers, sea agents, terminal operators, e-seal authorisees and transhippers before their Sea Cargo Manifest and Transshipment obligations commence. Unregistered stakeholders must complete onboarding immediately. A dedicated SCMTR Cell facilitates registration, and stakeholders required to furnish a bond or bank guarantee must submit the relevant security to the Cell for system registration and approval by the concerned officer.