Extension of algorithmic trading implementation timeline shifts effective date, requiring exchanges to ensure compliance and amend bye laws.
The SEBI circular on safer participation of retail investors in algorithmic trading, previously to take effect from August 1, 2025, is deferred to October 1, 2025. Recognized stock exchanges must notify their members, publish the circular online, implement appropriate systems and procedures for compliance, and amend relevant bye-laws, rules and regulations to give effect to the decision. The circular is issued under Section 11(1) of the SEBI Act, 1992, read with Section 30 of the Stock Brokers Regulations, 1992.

Minimum Investment Threshold enforcement: breach leads to unit freeze, 30 day notice to cure, then automatic redemption at NAV.
Daily monitoring by the Asset Management Company is required to prevent an investor's aggregate SIF holdings falling below the Minimum Investment Threshold. An Active Breach-a decline in aggregate SIF investment value below the threshold due to investor initiated transactions-will cause all units across SIF strategies to be frozen and a 30 calendar day notice to rebalance. If not remedied within 30 days, the frozen units will be automatically redeemed by the AMC at the applicable Net Asset Value on the next business day. AMCs, RTAs and Depositories must establish systems to implement this mechanism.

Voluntary payment via ICEGATE enables electronic self-initiated challans, replacing manual over-the-counter payments and streamlining compliance.
Enables electronic collection of Voluntary/Self-Initiated Payments on ICEGATE, allowing registered users to generate self-initiated challans and remit payments without further customs approval. Facility is not for live-consignment clearance; payments must select prescribed purpose codes and proof submitted to concerned sections. Payments may be debited from the Electronic Cash Ledger or made challan-wise via specified banks, NEFT/RTGS, or Payment Aggregator, with additional banks to be enabled after testing. Manual TR-6 payments are disallowed except with prior written approval.

Stamp duty on share certificates in NCT of Delhi requires companies to seek adjudication for issuance of shares.
Article 19 of Schedule I-A of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 requires payment of stamp duty on issuance of share certificates by companies with registered offices in the NCT of Delhi; companies must apply for adjudication of stamp duty for physical and DEMAT/digital share documents and comply with statutory timeframes, with penalties for noncompliance.

Standard Input-Output Norms notified for three chemical export products, fixing input-output ratios under SION A-3690-A-3692.
Notification under paragraph 1.03 of the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 fixes three new SIONs (A 3690, A 3691, A 3692) for Chemical and Allied Products, specifying input output ratios: 1 kg Betamethasone Valerate against 0.915 kg Betamethasone; 1 kg Ferrous Fumarate against 0.725 kg Fumaric Acid 99%; and 1 kg Ferrous Fumarate against 0.65 kg Maleic Anhydride.

Deemed export online filing mandatory; manual applications at RAs and SEZs disallowed, follow the prescribed online procedure.
Applications for claiming benefits under Deemed Exports must be filed exclusively through the DGFT online Deemed Export Application Module; manual applications shall not be accepted at any Regional Authority or Special Economic Zone, and RA/SEZ offices must ensure strict adherence to the prescribed online procedure and the guidelines issued in the prior trade notice.

Sea Departure Manifest requirement: SDM/SDN mandatory at Chennai Port, EGM filing discontinued and incentives tied to filing.
Chennai Port will require mandatory filing of Sea Departure Manifest (SDM) and Sea Departure Notification (SDN) for exports, with Export General Manifest (EGM) filing discontinued; export incentives will be directly linked to successful SDM/SDN submission, and stakeholders are advised to migrate to SCMTR messaging and report issues to the SCMTR Cell.

Exporters: post EGM amendments permit claiming RODTEP for shipping bills filed on or after 01.05.2025.
The notice directs that shipping bills filed on or after 01.05.2025, for which RODTEP rates were notified retrospectively, may be amended via the Post EGM Amendment module to change the RODTEP claim from "N" to "Y", and that such amendment requests will be processed; exporters facing difficulties should notify the Assistant Commissioner of Customs (Drawback) at Mangaluru Customs Commissionerate by email.

Use of ICETABs for export examination enables electronic reporting and image uploads, streamlining export clearance procedures.
Examining officers are required to use ICETAB to view Shipping Bill details, examination orders, RMS instructions and supporting documents, to promptly enter examination reports, and to upload up to four images of the cargo which will be stored in the e-sanchit repository; advisory guidance governs filing in the EXAM_INS role and exigencies necessitating non-use of ICETAB require prior Assistant Commissioner permission and recording of the same in the report.

GST office order amendment revises table entries by inserting 74A after 74 in specified serial numbers.
Amendment is made to the table in Office Order No. 278 dated 01.07.2017 under Section 2(91) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act. Against Serial Numbers 1 and 3 in Column 3, the words and figures "74A" are to be inserted after "74", thereby revising the specified table entries.

Time-limit relaxation for processing electronically filed returns allows validation, intimation to taxpayers, and refund actions.
The Board has directed a time-limit relaxation to validate and process electronically filed returns erroneously invalidated by CPC: returns filed up to 31.03.2024 shall be processed and intimations issued by 31.03.2026. Consequential actions, including refunds with interest, will follow, subject to the condition that refunds will not be paid where PAN-Aadhaar linkage is absent.

Denatured Ethyl Alcohol imports allowed into Public Bonded Warehouses; clearance conditional on testing and supervised denaturing.
Import of Denatured Ethyl Alcohol may be warehoused in Public Bonded Warehouses under Section 57 with provisional assessment pending laboratory test. Samples are drawn and sent to a government-approved laboratory; goods are stored after sampling. Addition of denaturing chemicals post-deposit requires permission of the assessing group and Customs supervision with presence of importer/representative, warehouse keeper and technical expert; the expert must submit a survey report. Representative sealed samples after compliance are retested, a Bond Officer maintains a register, and ex-bond clearance and finalisation of the provisional Bill of Entry require the second chemical test report.

EGM-related errors delay drawback and IGST refunds; exporters must coordinate with shipping lines to file or revalidate EGMs.
Drawback and IGST refunds are delayed by EGM defects: SB002 (EGM not filed) and SB006 (gateway EGM missing) require exporters to get shipping lines/agents to file or supplement EGMs or seek revalidation from Exports/Drawback/IGST; SB005 (invoice number mismatch) often arises from data entry or dual invoice practices and may only be corrected by amending GSTR 1 where applicable, otherwise exporters must furnish assessed shipping bill, customs invoice, GST/tax invoice, GSTR 1, GSTR 3B and a transaction statement to the DBK & IGST section; stakeholders should monitor ICEGATE and act on Annexures listing affected shipping bills.

Bengaluru airport custodianship extended to 15-11-2028 under Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulation, subject to conditions.
Extension of Custodianship granted to M/s. Bangalore International Airport Limited as the Customs Cargo Service Provider and custodian of the Air Cargo Terminal at Kempegowda International Airport is renewed under Regulation 13 of the Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulation, 2009 up to 15-11-2028, subject to conditions in the Handling of Cargo in Customs Area Regulation, 2009 and Section 45(2) of the Customs Act, 1962 and all applicable rules, regulations and instructions.

Correlation of technical characteristics required only for specified inputs; other DFIA imports require only input name and quantity declared.
Correlation of technical characteristics, quality and specification with the export product under the DFIA Scheme is required only for inputs listed in paragraph 4.29 of the Foreign Trade Policy; exporters must declare in the Shipping Bill that DFIA materials are of the same quality, technical characteristics and specification as materials used in the resultant product. For inputs under paragraph 4.12 and 4.28(iv), only the specific input name/description and quantity actually used need be declared in the Shipping Bill.

Research analyst regulation: certification and disclosure requirements clarified, easing compliance for institutional clients and NISM timelines.
SEBI clarifies that research entities must register under the RA Regulations while employed individuals must meet qualification and obtain specified NISM certification within one year. The circular details scope exclusions for research reports, reiterates that methodology does not exempt research services, prescribes registration procedures, fees, RAASB deposit requirements based on client counts, and sets out disclosure, recordkeeping and trading restrictions. Institutional investors/QIBs require disclosure of terms including MITC but not signed consent; distribution activities must be segregated or carried out at arm's length where research is provided on the same products, and proxy advisers must register and comply with specified disclosure and record obligations.

Self sealing permission for electronic container sealing requires approved premises, documentation, pre intimation and photographic evidence uploads.
Procedure prescribes a standardized regime for granting Self Sealing Permission (SSP) for electronic sealing of containerized exports at approved premises. Exporters must file prescribed annexures with GST, IEC, premises and authorized person documentation; jurisdictional officers will inspect and report promptly; approvals are issued by the Commissioner and validated in EDI. SSPs are premise specific, require pre intimation of stuffing, mandatory upload of stuffing and seal photographs to e Sanchit, remain subject to risk based examination, and may be withdrawn for non compliance.

Security Manual for Licensed Defence Industries requires licence holders to implement graded physical, personnel and cyber safeguards before production.
The SMLDI 2025 mandates that all companies holding Industrial Licences must comply with the Security Manual's provisions before commencing production; it designates CEO/Head as overall responsible and requires appointment and vetting of a CCSO and CISO, prescribes graded security controls by product category, detailed physical, personnel, material and information security measures, cyber security requirements (aligned with ISO 27001), reporting and audit obligations, and enforcement including actions under relevant statutes and possible licence suspension.

Continuation of MOOWR online applications on Invest India portal allows Customs Act submissions and jurisdictional processing to continue
The Invest India portal for the MOOWR Scheme remains authorised for submission of applications under the Customs Act; such applications shall be processed by jurisdictional Principal Commissioners/Commissioners of Customs in accordance with existing law. An alternative digital submission model is being developed and the application process will be transitioned to the new system with separate instructions. Circular No. 18/2025-Customs is withdrawn and field formations must notify trade associations and provide guidance to ensure smooth facilitation.

Export authorisation deadline for pharma grade sugar extended, allowing applications until the revised final cut off date.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade extends the last date for submission of applications for Export Authorisation for Pharma Grade Sugar to July 31, 2025; this amendment continues Trade Notice No. 06/2025-26 dated June 18, 2025 and affirms that all other contents of the earlier notice remain unchanged, the extension issued with competent authority approval.