69B. .- (1) The Central Government may, to enhance cyber security and for identification, analysis and prevention of intrusion or spread of computer contaminant in the country, by notification in the Official Gazette, authorise any agency of the Government to monitor and collect traffic data or information generated, transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource. (2) The intermediary or any person in-charge or the computer resource shall, when called upon by the agency which has be... ... ...

69A. .- (1) Where the Central Government or any of its officers specially authorised by it in this behalf is satisfied that it is necessary or expedient so to do, in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offence relating to above, it may subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), for reasons to be recorded in writing, by... ... ...

67C. .- (1) Intermediary shall preserve and retain such information as may be specified for such duration and in such manner and format as the Central Government may prescribe. (2) any intermediary who intentionally or knowingly contravenes the provisions of sub-section (1) shall be liable to penalty which may extend to twenty-five lakh rupees. =============... ... ...

OFFICE OF THE COMMISSIONER OF CUSTOMS (NS-I) MUMBAI ZONE-II, JAWAHARLAL NEHRU CUSTOM HOUSE, NHAVA SHEVA, TALUKA: URAN, DISTRICT RAIGAD, MAHARASHTRA-400707. F. No. S/22-Gen-402/2017-18/AM(I)Part-III Dated :01.06.2020 PUBLIC NOTICE NO. 72/2020 DIN-20200678NW00001M87A8 Subject: Review of Circular No. 17/2020 dated 03.04.2020 namely, 'Measure to facilitate trade during the lockdown period-Section 143AA of the Customs Act, 1962' - reg. Attention of the Importers, Exporters, Cu... ... ...

67B. .- Whoever,- (a) publishes or transmits or causes to be published or transmitted material in any electronic form which depicts children engaged in sexually explicit act or conduct; or (b) creates text or digital images, collects, seeks, browses, downloads, advertises, promotes, exchanges or distributes material in any electronic form depicting children in obscene or indecent or sexually explicit manner; or (c) cultivates, entices or induces children to online rela... ... ...

.- Whoever publishes or transmits or causes to be published or transmitted in the electronic form any material which contains sexually explicit act or conduct shall be punished on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years and with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees and in the event of second or subsequent conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and also with fine which may extend ... ... ...

66F. .- (1) Whoever,- (A) with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India or to strike terror in the people or any section of the people by- (i) denying or cause the denial of access to any person authorised to access computer resource; or (ii) attempting to penetrate or access a computer resource without authorisation or exceeding authorised access; or (iii) introducing or causing to introduce any computer contaminant, and by me... ... ...

HONOURABLE THE ACTING CHIEF JUSTICE AND HONOURABLE JUSTICE SMT. ANJANA MISHRA AND HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE SUDHIR SINGH For the Petitioner/s : Mr. Kamal Nayan Choubey Sr. Advocate, Mr. Ashok Kumar Garg Advocate, Mr. Animesh Kumar Advocate, Mr. Dineshwar Pandey Advocate, Mr. Noma Yunus, Advocate, Mr. Yogendra Dwivedi Advocate For the State : Mr. A.K. Dubey, A.C. to AAG-11 ORAL JUDGMENT (Per: HONOURABLE THE ACTING CHIEF JUSTICE) Heard learned counsel for the parties. 2. The present... ... ...

66E. .- Whoever, intentionally or knowingly captures, publishes or transmits the image of a private area of any person without his or her consent, under circumstances violating the privacy of that person, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees, or with both. Explanation.- For the purposes of this section- (a) "transmit" means to electronically send a visual image with the intent that it be viewed by a person or p... ... ...

Cheating by personation through a communication device or computer resource is criminalised under Section 66D. The offence concerns using technological means to deceive another by assuming or presenting a false identity, and is punishable with imprisonment of either description for up to three years and a fine up to one lakh rupees.

Identity theft arises where a person fraudulently or dishonestly uses another person's electronic signature, password, or other unique identification feature. Criminal liability covers any such unique identifier belonging to another person where the fraudulent or dishonest mental element is present. Punishment may include imprisonment of either description for up to three years and a fine up to one lakh rupees.

Section 66B criminalises dishonest receipt or retention of a stolen computer resource or communication device where the person knows or has reason to believe that it is stolen. Liability requires dishonest receipt or retention and awareness, or reason to believe, that the resource or device is stolen. The offence may result in imprisonment, fine, or both.

66A. [****] =============... ... ...

AEO certificate validity is extended until 30 September 2020 for certificates that expired or were due to expire between 1 March and 30 September 2020, owing to lockdown-related renewal difficulties. Entities against which a negative report is received during the relevant period remain excluded. The extension replaces the earlier, narrower temporary extension while preserving the existing certificate-validity structure.

Members of a two-Member Appellate Tribunal Bench who differ on any point must formulate the points of disagreement and refer them to the Chairperson. The disputed points are resolved according to the opinion supported by the majority of all Members hearing the case, including those who initially heard it.

Section 52C, concerning the Chairperson's power to transfer cases within the Appellate Tribunal framework, is omitted. No operative text remains to confer, regulate, or qualify authority to transfer cases, and no procedure, conditions, scope, or independent case-transfer mechanism is retained under the provision.

Section 52B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, on distribution of business among Benches of the Appellate Tribunal, is omitted. The provision therefore contains no operative terms governing allocation of the Tribunal's business among Benches and lays down no applicable criteria, procedures, or mechanisms for inter-Bench assignment of matters under section 52B.

Section 52A, formerly identified with powers of superintendence, direction, and related matters concerning the Appellate Tribunal, is omitted. The provision contains no surviving operative terms setting out those powers, their scope, conditions, procedures, or consequences. Accordingly, no substantive mechanism is specified under section 52A for superintendence or direction in relation to the Appellate Tribunal.

Compulsory registration of Muslim marriages will operate under the Assam Muslim Marriage Registration (Compulsory) Rules, 2026, framed under the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriage and Divorces Act, 2024. Registration will be undertaken by registrars, with panchayat-level officials potentially authorised where application volumes require additional capacity. The framework addresses the registration forum after kazis were barred from registering Muslim marriages.

Valid bonds declared while filing a Bill of Entry will be automatically debited after assessment, reducing the need for physical interaction. Officer intervention is required only where no bond was declared or the available balance is insufficient. First check Bills of Entry will automatically reach the assessing officer after completed examination, without a separate activation step. Incomplete examination reports may be returned to the examiner, and assessment is complete only upon the AC's confirmation. SUP-queue Bills of Entry will use the "NOCFS" routing code before CFS details are entered.