Cross-border digital payment integration between Favara and UPI enables individuals in the Maldives to make real-time person-to-person transfers to UPI-enabled bank accounts in India through mobile banking applications. Transfers are initiated in Maldivian Rufiyaa and credited in Indian Rupees. The initial service is available through participating Maldivian banks. Permitted remittances include family-maintenance transfers under foreign inward and outward remittance categories, and gift-related transfers under foreign outward remittance. Future phases are intended to introduce QR-based merchant payments and other digital payment services.

Section 128A provides conditional waiver of interest or penalty or both for eligible tax demands for specified financial years, subject to full payment of tax and electronic application in the prescribed SPL forms. The taxpayer must withdraw pending challenges before applying. Full payment includes demands for excluded periods and erroneous refunds within the same order, although waiver is limited to eligible-period demands other than erroneous refunds. Residual liabilities or additional tax determined in departmental proceedings must be paid within the stipulated period, failing which the waiver becomes void.

Registration of a charitable or religious institution cannot be refused solely because its trust deed is not registered with the Registrar of Societies or Registrar of Documents; non-registration alone does not establish that the institution is not genuine. The competent authority may nevertheless require and verify the original trust deed and copies evidencing creation of the trust before deciding the registration application. Registration claims should therefore be reconsidered after verification of the creating instruments, without treating an unregistered trust deed as a disqualifying ground.

Registration under Section 12AA cannot be denied merely because a trade association lacks registration with the Charity Commissioner, serves a specified trade, or collects admission and annual membership fees. An institution not created through a formal instrument may establish its existence through documents evidencing its creation. Promotion and protection of trade and commerce may amount to advancement of general public utility, while fees for training and seminars do not negate charitable character if the dominant object remains charitable and activities are incidental rather than commercial. The registration application was restored for fresh consideration on merits after an opportunity to submit supporting material.

Kerala Real Estate Regulatory Authority is notified for exemption under section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for registration fees from projects, agents and plots, fees for compensation and complaint filings, and government grants. The notification operates through the saving provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025 and applies retrospectively to the specified assessment years. Exemption is conditional on the Authority not undertaking commercial activity, maintaining unchanged activities and specified income, and filing its income-tax return as required. Non-compliance may trigger penal action and withdrawal of the exemption.

Dedicated Tax Recovery Cells are established in five Mumbai Customs Zone-II Commissionerates to centrally identify, record, monitor and recover confirmed customs arrears, replacing the earlier standing order. Confirmed demands remain tracked during the appeal period and become recoverable where no appeal is filed; unconfirmed, remanded and investigation-stage demands are excluded. The TRCs must follow prescribed recovery timelines, including payment verification, bank guarantee encashment, garnishee action, account freezing, detention, property identification, attachment and sale procedures. Monthly arrears reporting, coordinated data-sharing, periodic reviews, litigation monitoring and a write-off process for irrecoverable arrears are prescribed, subject to the Customs Act, applicable rules and Board circulars.

Valid test reports from NABL-accredited laboratories, Export Promotion Council-recognised accredited laboratories, or other recognised agencies must be considered for export consignments where they demonstrate compliance with importing-country requirements. In the absence of risk-based intervention or specific intelligence, the Proper Officer need not mandatorily refer samples to the Central Revenue Control Laboratory, reducing duplicative testing and facilitating export clearance. Where risk-based intervention, specific intelligence, or other verification concerns arise, existing procedures for drawing and testing samples, including referral to CRCL or other accredited laboratories, continue to apply. Procedures for testing samples of imported goods remain unchanged.

Self-sealing permission granted to eligible exporters or merchant exporters has no prescribed validity period and remains effective unless the jurisdictional Customs authority withdraws, suspends or cancels it for non-compliance, misuse or another valid reason. Because EDI registration requires effective and expiry dates, fresh and existing registrations are extended until 31 March 2027; pending system enhancement, the FSP Cell will extend them annually without fresh approval unless otherwise directed. Where the underlying permission expressly has a validity period, renewal must be obtained from the jurisdictional Commissionerate. Changes to premises, authorised signatories or registration particulars require competent-authority approval and intimation to the FSP Cell.

Express Cargo Clearance System (ECCS) is implemented for import and export courier shipments at the Courier Terminal, Navi Mumbai International Airport, effective from the date the Public Notice is signed. NMIA is notified as a customs port and international courier terminal, with the airport operator appointed as custodian and ECCS port code NMI allocated. Users must follow DG Systems' ECCS registration instructions on ICEGATE and applicable CBIC directions governing courier clearances. ECCS helpdesk support is available, and the Assistant/Deputy Commissioner at the NMIA Courier Terminal may address clearance-related issues.

The GARUDA mechanism permits Regular AIF schemes to launch 10 working days after filing their placement memorandum (PPM), unless otherwise advised; first schemes may launch only after both registration and the filing period requirements are met. Regular-scheme PPMs require merchant banker due diligence, prescribed declarations and disclosures, with the manager and merchant banker responsible for accuracy and compliance. AI-only funds and LVFs may launch immediately upon PPM filing, while Angel Funds may circulate PPMs from registration; these categories file CEO and compliance officer undertakings instead of merchant banker certification. Their PPM changes are filed directly with SEBI. PPM submission does not constitute SEBI approval, and specified scheme names must identify AI-only funds or LVFs.

Challenges to liquidation-sale steps, including the effect of an earlier interim order, sale of assets in parts, and title to certain land blocks, require consideration. The scheduled auction may proceed while the appeals remain pending, but no sale may be confirmed without leave. Notice was issued and the appeals were listed for further hearing.

Retrospective section 16(5) and section 16(6) relief permits eligible input tax credit previously denied under section 16(4) to be considered in pending proceedings and specified rectification cases. Orders confirming such denial may be rectified through the special procedure where no appeal has been filed, subject to electronic application, prescribed supporting details, and consideration of other denial grounds. The procedure is limited to credit now available under the retrospective provisions. Tax already paid or credit already reversed is not refundable solely due to the retrospective amendments, except for eligible appeal pre-deposits.

CENVAT credit is admissible on MS channels, angles and sheets used for repair, maintenance and fabrication of plant, machinery and capital goods within the factory. The earlier Larger Bench approach denying credit solely because structural steel items fell under Chapter 72 had been expressly overruled. Structural steel used for repairing and maintaining plant and machinery has a sufficient nexus with the manufacture of final products, making the disputed steel items eligible for credit.

A defined right of way acquired by grant continues according to its terms and cannot be displaced merely because an alternative route becomes available. The requirement under the Indian Easements Act, 1882 to exercise an easement in the least onerous manner for the servient owner does not authorise substitution of the granted route. Extinction on cessation of necessity applies only to easements of necessity, not easements created by grant. Dominant owners therefore remain entitled to use the established route through the servient land despite alternative access.

Section 5(1)(c)(ii) of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act is described as restricting only transfers of part of an agricultural holding, not transfer of the holding as a whole. The distinction is based on the provision's language and anti-fragmentation purpose: a whole-holding transfer changes ownership without fragmenting the holding, so prior written permission is not required. The text further states that, where Hindi and English versions of a State enactment conflict, Article 348 gives controlling effect to the authoritative English text; adoption of Hindi for official purposes does not displace that rule.

Illegal gratification sought in the name of Customs Officers for facilitating goods clearance is prohibited. Trade participants must not pay Customs Brokers or intermediaries amounts attributed to officer demands or customs handling charges, as such payments may perpetuate corruption and entail penal consequences. Only applicable statutory duties, cess, fine, penalty and interest are collectible online through the Icegate portal. Demands, harassment or undue delay in clearance or official functions may be promptly reported with available evidence, and complaints are to be handled confidentially and examined or referred for action.

Biometric-based Aadhaar authentication for GST registration applicants is to be undertaken through designated Facilitation Centers under the proviso to sub-rule (4A) of Rule 8 of the Rajasthan Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017. The notification maps specified State Tax circles, AC/CTO wards and ward headquarters across the notified zones to corresponding Facilitation Centers and their office locations. The designated network covers jurisdictional areas throughout Rajasthan, including Bikaner, Jaipur, Pali, Ajmer, Udaipur, Bhiwadi, Jodhpur, Alwar, SriGanganagar, Bhilwara, Bharatpur and Kota zones. It takes effect from 7 January 2025.

Competition law procedure requires the Competition Commission to notify and hear an opposite party when departing from the Director General's findings. The penalty order concerning alleged abuse of dominance in viscose staple fibre supply was set aside because Grasim Industries was not given an opportunity to respond to the Commission's disagreement with the investigative findings. The matter was remanded for fresh, time-bound consideration without a finding on the merits.

Execution of a sale deed pursuant to the Supreme Court's direction completed the conveyance and entitled the purchaser to possession of the property covered by that deed. The Karnataka HC's analysis states that this entitlement extended to vacant possession of the five-acre parcel forming part of the purchased land. Respondent No. 2 was directed to deliver vacant possession by 28 February 2019.

Committees have been constituted to review or revise refund, rectification, and reduced-demand orders under the Rajasthan GST framework for financial years 2022-23 to 2024-25. They must verify the legality or propriety of such orders to safeguard revenue interests. Two committees comprising tax, audit, enforcement, compliance and accounts officers have been allocated specified tax zones, business audit wings and enforcement wings. They are required to commence work immediately and submit regular findings and reports to the Special Commissioner (GST).