The Digital Personal Data Protection (Removal of Difficulties) Order, 2026 corrects the child and disability consent provision to require verifiable consent before processing personal data of a child or of a person with disability who has a lawful guardian. It also replaces "audit" with "data audit" in the periodic-audit obligation applicable to Significant Data Fiduciaries, aligning that obligation with the requirement to appoint an independent data auditor. These textual corrections apply from 6 October 2026, the date of Gazette publication.

Screen Protectors for smartphones are added to the Schedule of the Electronics and Information Technology Goods (Requirement for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2021. They must conform to Indian Standard IS 19348:2025, Glass Screen Protector - Specification, under the compulsory registration framework from 1 April 2027. Customs field formations must take the amendment into account for necessary implementation action.

SEBI has revised ISIN limits for privately placed debt securities with immediate effect. Issuers may have up to seventeen ISINs maturing in a financial year, plus six additional ISINs for eligible capital gains tax debt securities. Of the seventeen, up to twelve may be plain vanilla debt securities, with additional ISINs permitted for prescribed incremental issuances after outstanding maturities exceed the specified threshold; up to five may cover structured, market-linked, floating-rate, zero-coupon and Tier II debt instruments. Legacy ISINs in the latter category are grandfathered subject to restrictions on further issuances. GoI-serviced/EBR bonds and ESG debt securities are excluded from ISIN-limit calculations.

Credit Risk-o-Meter disclosure becomes mandatory for listed and proposed issuances of non-convertible securities, commercial paper, securitised debt instruments, security receipts, and structured or market-linked debentures. Issuers and online bond platform providers must display the colour-coded meter in offer materials, private placement memoranda, advertisements, and relevant web and mobile interfaces. The meter maps credit ratings to six risk levels, must show the CRA, actual rating and unsecured status, and must use the lowest rating where multiple ratings apply. OBPPs must source ratings only from registered CRAs, update changes within 24 hours of depository intimation, prohibit manual overrides, and retain audit trails. These requirements take effect 45 days after issuance.

Protected-system status applies to City Union Bank computer resources supporting its Core Banking Solution and Unified Payments Interface Switch, including associated dependencies. Access is limited to employees, service-provider and vendor team members, and specified consultants, regulators, officials, auditors and stakeholders, each authorised in writing under the applicable designation. The status takes effect upon Official Gazette publication.

Monetisation of a 5.119-acre freehold industrial land parcel owned by HIL (India) Limited at Najafgarh Industrial Area, New Delhi, is facilitated through an E-Tender followed by E-Auction. Eligible bidders must complete registration, submit technical bids, and furnish the required Earnest Money Deposit or Bank Guarantee by the stipulated deadline. Sale is subject to "as is where is", "as is what is", "whatever there is" and no-recourse or no-complaint conditions. The exact land extent is to be determined through a joint survey with the successful bidder.

Computer resources supporting Karur Vysya Bank's Core Banking Solution, Real Time Gross Settlement and Unified Payments Interface Switch, including associated dependencies, are declared protected systems under the Information Technology Act, 2000. Access is authorised for designated employees, need-based managed service-provider personnel or third-party vendors, and specified consultants, regulators, Government officials, auditors and stakeholders, subject to written authorisation.

SEZ-related notification benefits and revised S.T.-3 returns must be examined where they may affect a service-tax demand. The claimed benefits had apparently not been considered, and verification was required to establish whether revised returns supporting the claim were filed. The impugned demand order was set aside, with the matter remanded for fresh adjudication after that examination.

Central Government designates the Directorate of Forensic Science Laboratories, Mumbai, Maharashtra, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The authorised scope comprises computer-media forensics and mobile-device forensics.

Section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 designates the Cyber Forensic Division of the State Forensic Science Laboratory, Jaipur, Rajasthan, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India. Its authorised scope covers Computer (Media) Forensics, excluding floppy disks, and Mobile Devices Forensics. Examination authority is confined to those specified electronic-evidence categories.

Cyber Forensic Laboratory, Navy Cyber Group, Naval Headquarters, is notified as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Its authorised scope covers computer media forensics, excluding floppy disk drives, and mobile device forensics. The earlier 2024 Gazette designation is rescinded.

Interest awarded for delayed payment or withholding of compulsory-acquisition compensation under Sections 28 and 34 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is distinct from the compensation or consideration for acquiring land and is treated as a taxable revenue receipt. Section 194LA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 excludes agricultural land from tax deduction at source on acquisition compensation, but that exclusion does not extend to such interest. Tax may therefore be deducted at source from interest awarded in relation to compulsorily acquired agricultural land.

Designation of the Special Instruments Wing, Border Security Force, Central Drone Forensic Lab as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence is made under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The designation applies within India, with its authorised scope limited to drone forensics.

National Forensic Science University, Goa, is designated as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, with effect throughout India. Its authorised scope is confined to Computer (Media) Forensics and Mobile Devices Forensics. The designation identifies two distinct forensic domains for electronic-evidence examination.

Temporary supplementary filing for console cargo at Kolkata Customs is permitted from 9 October 2026 until midnight on 10 October 2026 where the requisite CSN has not been filed and cargo details must be added. The permission is confined to the stated purpose and period; it does not reinstate general supplementary filing for import cargo. Where a CSN/SAM has already been successfully filed, an amendment must follow the prescribed SCMTR amendment procedure.

Money-laundering accused consciously not arrested during investigation and remanded only after filing of the prosecution complaint and cognizance need not satisfy the twin bail conditions where custodial interrogation is not required. Section 170 of the Code of Criminal Procedure does not require arrest or judicial custody merely upon filing of a complaint; it requires production before the court. The court may instead secure appearance through bonds under Section 88. Continued remand, delayed commencement of trial, and no near prospect of conclusion supported release on bail.

Applications for confidentiality must identify the applicant, known participants, the alleged arrangement and default, associated persons, related proceedings, and supporting evidence. They must include any material information directed by the Board. The applicant or authorised representative must verify on oath that the information is true, no material facts are suppressed, and relevant later information will be promptly disclosed. Applications must be signed, sealed where the applicant is a body corporate, and accompanied by the prescribed undertaking and waiver.

Settlement notices must identify prima facie securities-law violations, relevant legal and penalty provisions, and brief findings, without creating any right to settlement or limiting modification of proceedings. A standard settlement application may be filed within sixty days, without assurance of settlement. Violation-based fast-track settlement requires a timely application, remittance of the specified settlement amount, and compliance with remedial and regulatory terms; failure or withdrawal may lead to initiation of proceedings and later-stage settlement application.

Settlement applicants must provide complete identity, proceeding, charge and financial-disclosure particulars, including investor loss, profit made, loss avoided and proposed settlement terms. The application must include undertakings, waivers, authority documentation and supporting notices. Applicants accept jurisdiction, limitation-time exclusion during settlement, payment obligations, enforcement for breach, and specified waivers of procedures and challenges, while third-party remedies remain unaffected. The settlement amount is calculated from the base amount and applicable stage, regulatory action, gravity, aggravating and mitigating factors, with legal costs and applicable disgorgement added to the total payable amount.

Regulation 45 repeals the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 while preserving continuity for specified prior actions and references. Summary-settlement notices under the 2018 framework are treated as issued and governed under the 2026 regulations. Earlier settlement orders, and the Internal Committee and High Powered Advisory Committee constituted under the 2018 regulations, are deemed made or constituted under the current framework. References to the 2018 regulations in other regulations are read as references to the 2026 regulations.