The Secretary, ITE&C, Government of Andhra Pradesh is specified under section 258(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for receiving information regarding income-tax payers. The authorised information sharing is limited to identifying eligible beneficiaries under welfare schemes implemented by the Government of Andhra Pradesh.

Existing officers must continue handling all registration, refund, scrutiny, audit, enforcement, adjudication, appeal and related tasks allocated to them before the jurisdictional order of 17 August 2026. This temporary direction applies despite changes to an officer's office nomenclature or territorial jurisdiction, until the Boweb Portal is updated to reflect amended jurisdiction mappings. It is issued to ensure uniform implementation of the Rajasthan GST framework and remove administrative ambiguity arising from the creation of new offices and reassignment of jurisdictions.

Territorial jurisdiction under the Rajasthan Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 is assigned to corresponding levels of proper officers, aligning GST jurisdiction with territorial assignments made under the Rajasthan VAT Rules, 2025 and specified provisions of the Rajasthan VAT Act, 2003. The order supersedes the earlier territorial-jurisdiction notification issued in 2023 and takes effect from 15 August 2026.

Jurisdiction under the RGST Act is determined on the date a statutory power is exercised. Actions validly undertaken by the officer having jurisdiction before a taxable person migrates to another jurisdiction remain valid and are not retrospectively invalidated. After migration, the former jurisdictional officer cannot initiate or continue action and must refer any new matter to the current jurisdictional officer. The current officer must take over pending proceedings from their existing stage, implement earlier actions, pursue consequential proceedings, and represent or conduct related appellate proceedings as though the earlier action had been initiated by that officer.

Importers of plastic packaging, commodities packaged in plastic, plastic raw materials, and intermediate materials for manufacturing plastic packaging must register on the Common EPR Portal before conducting business. Registration applications are scrutinised by the CPCB or SPCB, and certificates are issued after verification of application details. Customs officers must verify EPR registration certificates when clearing relevant import consignments. Certificates displaying one-year validity must be treated as one-time registration certificates that do not require renewal under the amended Plastic Waste Management Rules, and accepted as valid proof of EPR registration for import clearance.

Commodity derivatives client position-limit rules now cap daily monetary penalties for open-interest breaches, with lower caps for breaches up to 2% of prescribed limits and higher caps for larger breaches. Members must reduce excess positions by the next trading day; exchanges may square off continuing excess positions, impose one-day square-off mode for repeated same-commodity breaches, and levy an additional penalty after repeated monthly violations, except where violations arise exclusively from position clubbing. Agricultural commodities qualify as broad commodities if non-sensitive and meeting the revised five-year deliverable-supply threshold. Client open-position limits remain linked to deliverable supply: 2% for broad, 1% for narrow, and 0.5% for sensitive commodities, subject to transitional treatment for newly reclassified broad commodities.

Shimla, Sep 11 (PTI) The United Forum of Bank Unions (UFBU) 's call for a nationwide bank strike received widespread support in the state capital and other parts of Himachal Pradesh, with over 300 bank employees and officers participating in a protest demonstration near the DC Office in Shimla. Banking services were affected in several parts of the state on Friday as employees resorted to a one-day strike, expressing their resentment over the delay in implementing a five-day banking system. ... ... ...

MUMBAI, India, Sept. 11, 2026 /PRNewswire/ -- Phi Commerce, a payment technology company, today announced a set of new platforms and strategic initiatives at Global Fintech Fest 2026 spanning UPI-native credit, bank issuer infrastructure, net-banking connectivity and open-commerce financing. The announcements reflect Phi Commerce's expanding focus from enabling digital payments to building technology infrastructure through which banks, payment aggregators and digital-commerce platforms can de... ... ...

The last date for appeals before the Appellate Tribunal against orders communicated before 1 May 2026, and for applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026, is fixed as 31 July 2026. Appeals involving later communicated orders remain subject to a three-month period from communication, while applications involving later orders remain subject to a six-month period from the date of the order. The revised framework operates from 30 June 2026 and preserves prior actions and omissions.

Appellate Tribunal filing timelines under section 112 are revised, while preserving acts done or omitted before supersession. Appeals against orders communicated before 1 May 2026 may be filed up to 31 July 2026; appeals against later communications must be filed within three months. Applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026 may be filed up to 31 July 2026; applications concerning later orders must be filed within six months from the order date.

Tax treatment of salary arrears attributable to a deceased employee's prior service is in issue where a State University declares arrears after her death for years in which she was alive and employed. Consideration is sought on whether the declared arrears retain the character of taxable salary income, may be included or clubbed with the husband's salary income, or qualify for exemption because the employee has died.

Powers under Section 83 of the Delhi Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 are delegated to Assistant Commissioners and Goods and Services Tax Officers. Each Proper Officer must obtain case-to-case approval from the concerned Zonal Incharge, Special Commissioner, Additional Commissioner, or Joint Commissioner before exercising the delegated powers.

Third-party fund management services are excluded from Regulation 107M where an FME's parent entity or any associate provides fund-management-related support or advice to that FME. The relevant regulatory part is inapplicable to schemes of an FME affected by such parent-entity or associate involvement.

All other relevant provisions of the International Financial Services Centres Authority (Fund Management) Regulations, 2025, including circulars or guidelines issued under them, apply mutatis mutandis to FMEs authorised under the third-party fund management services framework. The application covers schemes managed under a third-party fund management arrangement, unless an express contrary specification applies.

Fund Management Entities using third-party fund management services must verify third-party eligibility, competence, and careful onboarding. Schemes established under these arrangements remain schemes of the FME, whose liability towards Restricted Schemes and investors continues unaffected. FMEs must monitor and review third-party services, report to fiduciaries, retain termination rights in investors' interests or on regulatory directions, ensure indemnity protection, pay prescribed fees, and remain responsible for all third-party acts, omissions, and commissions.

Fund Management Entities undertaking third-party fund management must maintain a comprehensive internal risk-management framework addressing arrangement-specific risks and conflicts. They must ensure segregation of funds and operational independence of all schemes, extend investor complaint and dispute mechanisms to third-party managed schemes, and conduct periodic internal audits and compliance reviews. Audit and review reports must be submitted to fiduciaries, alongside any further measures specified by the Authority.

Regulation 107I requires a Fund Management Entity managing Restricted Schemes through third-party fund management services to make additional prominent disclosures in the placement memorandum, apart from disclosures under regulation 36. These include the identity of the third party and persons conducting its business, segregated responsibilities of the Fund Management Entity and third party, potential conflicts of interest, and measures to avoid, resolve and mitigate those conflicts. Further disclosures specified by the Authority must also be made.

Third-party fund management services may be provided only to a third-party fund manager incorporated in India, an International Financial Services Centre, or a foreign jurisdiction, with adequate resources and experienced responsible persons. The third-party and its officers, directors, partners, designated partners, key managerial personnel and controlling shareholders must be fit and proper persons. Eligibility is not affected merely because its ultimate or interim parent entity is not engaged in fund management activities.

Third-party fund management arrangements require a Fund Management Entity to manage Restricted Schemes under Part B of Chapter III. Each scheme must remain within a corpus limit of USD 50 million, unless another value is specified by the Authority. The third party is treated as an associate of the Fund Management Entity for compliance with specified associate-related governance and transaction requirements.

Scheme of Amalgamation received the required shareholder and creditor approvals, with meetings dispensed with, and complied with statutory notice and publication requirements. The Official Liquidator found no complaint or prejudice to members, creditors or public interest, while the Central Government raised no objection. Continuity of service for employees of the transferor companies was preserved. The scheme was sanctioned under the Companies Act, 1956, and took effect from the appointed date, dissolving the transferor companies without winding up.