Project importers must submit a complete statement of goods imported under a registered contract, supported by documents including chartered engineer, installation and reconciliation certificates, within three months of home-consumption clearance of the last consignment or any permitted extension. Non-compliance may trigger enforcement of bonds, undertakings or securities, duty demands and penalties. Provisionally assessed bills of entry filed on or before 29 March 2025 must be finalised before 29 March 2027. A one-time special drive permits pending project import finalisation documents to be submitted within one month of 7 October 2026; a dedicated help desk operates during that period.

Export policy for natural barium sulphate (Baryte) classifiable under ITC(HS) 25111010, 25111020 and 25111090 now restricts Grade A (specific gravity at least 4.2) and Grade B (specific gravity 4.10-4.20), making their export subject to applicable authorisation or licensing. Grade CDW with specific gravity below 4.00 remains freely exportable. Consignments declared as Grade CDW, or as Baryte without a stated grade in the Shipping Bill, require mandatory specific-gravity testing before export; the test result determines grade for export-policy purposes. Exporters and Customs Brokers must accurately declare the goods' description, grade, specific gravity and ITC(HS) code, supported by relevant documents.

RoDTEP rebates remain unavailable for exports under the Duty-Free Import Authorization (DFIA) Scheme. Although RoDTEP eligibility was extended from 11 March 2024 to products manufactured by Advance Authorization holders, export-oriented units and special economic zone units, DFIA exports were not included. Exporters must neither claim nor avail RoDTEP for DFIA exports. Exporters that received inadmissible benefits must repay or reverse them with applicable interest and provide payment details to the Drawback section within 30 days; non-compliance may prompt customs proceedings and recovery alerts. The instruction applies immediately.

Inter-CFS transfer of export cargo after grant of a Let Export Order may proceed without Customs escort if the cargo moves directly from the forwarding CFS to the receiving CFS in closed-body trucks or domestic containers under a Customs Bottle Seal. The receiving CFS must verify the seal before de-stuffing, re-stuffing, or further consolidation, as applicable. All other requirements governing inter-CFS transfer of export cargo remain unchanged. The amended procedure takes effect immediately.

MINISTRY OF ELECTRONICS AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY NOTIFICATION New Delhi, the 22nd October, 2024 S.O. 4622(E).- In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-sections (1) and (2) of section 70 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000) (hereinafter referred to as the said Act), the Central Government hereby declares the computer resources relating to the Core Banking Solution (CBS), Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), Unified Payments Interface (UPI) Switch, being Critical Inform... ... ...

SHRI R.C.SHARMA, ACCOUNTANT MEMBER AND SHRI PAWAN SINGH, JUDICIAL MEMBER For the Assessee : Shri R. Murlidhar For the Revenue : Shri B.S. Bist (DR) ORDER PER PAWAN SINGH, JM: 1. This appeal is filed by the assessee against the order of CIT(A)-40, Mumbai dated 02.11.2012 in respect of Assessment Year (AY) 2009-10 on the following grounds of appeal: 1. The learned A.O has erred in law and facts in making addition of Rs.33, 78,666/- to the total income of the appellant by di... ... ...

THE HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE GOPINATH P. FOR THE PETITIONER : BY ADVS. RAHUL A. S.ANIL KUMAR (TRIVANDRUM) SABU C.J M.RAJAGOPAL APARNA ANIL FOR THE RESPONDENTS : BY ADVS. S.MANU SREEJITH P. R OTHER PRESENT: ADV. THUSHARA JAMES (SR GP) JUDGMENT The petitioner is a registered dealer under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (in short 'CGST') and the Kerala State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (in short 'SGST'). The petitioner was issued with Ext.P3 notice as ... ... ...

Every Vault Manager must appoint a compliance officer to monitor compliance with the Act and applicable rules, regulations, notifications, guidelines, circulars and directions, and to redress investors' grievances. The compliance officer must immediately and independently report observed non-compliance to the Board and submit quarterly reports, in the Board-specified manner, on compliance failures and investor-grievance redressal.

The Central Government designates Cyber Forensics & Digital Evidence Examiners Laboratory (CF&DEEL), Kolkata, West Bengal, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Its authority is limited to computer-media forensics, excluding floppy disk drives, and mobile-device forensics. No additional examination categories are included.

Registration as a portfolio manager requires a fit and proper body corporate with adequate infrastructure, designated personnel, minimum net worth of five crore rupees and specified unencumbered liquid assets. Registered managers must maintain client agreements and prescribed disclosures, act in a fiduciary capacity, segregate client funds and securities, observe prudential investment controls, appoint custodians where required, preserve records, provide periodic client reports and maintain independent compliance oversight. Special regimes apply to eligible fund managers, co-investment portfolio managers and the PRIM mutual fund investment route.

Withdrawal of property-attachment orders followed acceptance of the Tribunal's order in the underlying income-tax proceedings. The Tax Recovery Officer withdrew the attachments with immediate effect, complying with the earlier direction to consider release of the property from attachment. As the attachment issue had thereby been resolved, the related writ appeals no longer required adjudication, and the connected miscellaneous petitions were closed.

Section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 is exercised by the Central Government to designate Regional Forensic Science Laboratory, Kannur, Kerala, as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India. The laboratory is authorised to undertake electronic-evidence examination only within its expressly specified forensic scope. That scope comprises computer (media) forensics and mobile devices forensics.

Regulatory applicability extends to every Vault Manager undertaking, or intending to undertake, storage of bullion underlying bullion-related instruments. Existing and proposed bullion-storage activity within that framework falls within the regulatory scope. Regulation 2A takes effect on the ninetieth day from publication.

Low tax effect resulted in the Supreme Court declining to entertain the appeal. The question of law, if any, remained open for adjudication in an appropriate case. The disposition rests solely on the low tax effect and does not determine the underlying legal issue on its merits, preserving that issue for future consideration.

The power bank exclusion from concessional Basic Customs Duty applies only to lithium-ion battery devices with charging and discharging ports designed to externally charge cellular mobile phones or portable electronic devices. Stationary, grid-scale and industrial lithium-ion Battery Energy Storage Systems under the relevant tariff item are not power banks and remain outside that exclusion.

Computer resources supporting Core Banking Solution, RTGS, NEFT, IMPS switch, UPI switch, ATM switch and SWIFT systems, with associated dependencies, are declared protected systems as Critical Information Infrastructure. Access is confined to bank employees authorised in writing, managed-service-provider personnel and vendors with written need-based authorisation, and consultants, regulators, Government officials, auditors and stakeholders authorised in writing on a case-to-case basis.

Certification requirements now use the term "specified person" in place of "associated person" and define the persons covered, including relevant employees of foreign portfolio investors and foreign venture capital investors working in India. Certification may be obtained through a NISM-specified course or programme, alongside existing routes. Certificate validity and renewal may extend beyond three years where specified by the Board. Related terminology is updated for debenture trustees and self-regulatory organisations.

State Forensic Science Laboratory, Police Line Campus, Tikarapara, Raipur, Chhattisgarh, is designated as an Examiner of Electronic Evidence within India under section 79A of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Its authorised scope comprises Computer (Media) Forensics and Mobile Devices Forensics, covering computer-media and mobile-device forensic work.

Karnataka Bank Limited's computer resources relating to its Core Banking Solution, Real Time Gross Settlement and Unified Payments Interface Switch, including associated dependencies, are declared protected systems as Critical Information Infrastructure. Access is authorised for designated employees, authorised managed-service-provider personnel and third-party vendors on a need-based basis, and consultants, regulators, government officials, auditors and stakeholders authorised in writing on a case-to-case basis. The designation takes effect upon publication in the Official Gazette.

Vault Managers must implement procedures for deposit, storage and withdrawal; maintain security policies addressing operational and cyber threats; and periodically reconcile physical bullion against their own records and records maintained by depositories, clearing corporations, asset management companies or custodians. Bullion underlying bullion related instruments must remain within the vaulting system and be segregated instrument-wise and entity-wise. Every Vault Manager must appoint a compliance officer, indemnify beneficial owners for losses caused during vaulting services, and cannot create bullion related instruments or deposit stored bullion in its own name.