Interest earned by a co-operative housing society on corpus-fund deposits with a co-operative bank falls within the deduction available for income from investments with another co-operative society under Section 80P(2)(d). Section 80P(1) applies to co-operative societies, and a housing society is not excluded merely because of its nature. A co-operative bank registered under the Karnataka Co-operative Societies Act is treated as a co-operative society for this purpose. Accordingly, such deposit interest is eligible for deduction under Section 80P(2)(d).

The Revenue withdrew its Income Tax appeal because the tax effect was below the CBDT monetary limit for filing appeals before the ITAT and the matter did not fall within the specified exceptions. The assessee's cross-objection raised issues stated to be independent of the departmental appeal; it was therefore retained for a separate merits hearing, subject to condonation of delay. The Revenue appeal was dismissed as withdrawn, while the cross-objection was scheduled for further hearing.

For A.Y. 2016-17, approved in-house R&D expenditure could not be limited to the amount quantified in DSIR Form 3CL because the applicable provisions required facility approval, not item-wise or quantum certification. The balance additional depreciation on eligible assets used for less than 180 days could be claimed in the succeeding year. Under Rule 8D, average total assets must use gross balance-sheet figures rather than written down fixed-asset values and net current assets. From 1 July 2016, DSIR quantification governs weighted deduction under section 35(2AB), while claims under other scientific-research provisions require separate examination.

Interim bilateral trade agreement negotiations between India and the United States are continuing. Both sides have undertaken substantial work, while certain issues remain to be finalised before completion of the proposed interim trade arrangement. A United States Trade Representative delegation visited India to advance discussions. The text records the status of negotiations and identifies no concluded agreement or operative customs measure.

Fuel-price volatility is to be mitigated through fiscal and administrative measures that protect consumers while maintaining fiscal sustainability. The approach includes monitoring revenue and expenditure, reprioritising spending, and using fiscal measures when economic conditions require. Reduced central excise duty on petrol and diesel moderated the impact of elevated international crude prices and partly offset under-recoveries of public-sector oil marketing companies. Longer-term measures include revenue mobilisation, import diversification, Strategic Petroleum Reserves, cleaner fuels and energy efficiency.

The Supreme Court declined to interfere with the High Court's common judgment and order after considering the parties' submissions and the record. The civil appeals were dismissed, and pending applications were disposed of. The text provides no substantive income-tax issue, reasoning, or legal principle underlying the High Court judgment; accordingly, no further legal proposition can be stated.

CGST Zones must coordinate with State Mining Authorities to obtain and analyse information on illegal mining, mineral transportation, seizures, mining-lease action, excess extraction and related violations for potential GST implications. Each Zone must appoint a Nodal Officer, establish periodic information sharing, initiate action where warranted, disseminate intelligence to relevant formations, and hold periodic review meetings to address operational issues.

Applications are invited for tariff rate quota allocations under the India-Oman CEPA for FY 2026-27 for specified imports, including dates, marble, petrochemicals, plastics and aluminium products. Applications may be submitted from 4 August to 19 August 2026 and imports will be governed by the TRQ procedure in Annexure-VIII of Appendix 2A of the Foreign Trade Policy 2023. Marble-block applicants must provide a Chartered Engineer certificate confirming processing capacity, machinery installation and production for the preceding three financial years. Marble-slab applicants must submit a pre-purchase agreement with an Oman supplier, while PET-flake applicants require an MoEF&CC no-objection certificate.

Seven new Standard Input Output Norms under the Chemical and Allied Products group prescribe permitted import inputs and quantities for specified export products, including theophylline, liraglutide injection, lumefantrine, meropenem formulations and ophthalmic solutions. The norms specify relevant bulk drugs, chemicals and sterile bulk materials as allowable inputs; for ophthalmic solutions, bulk-drug content must conform to the Drug Manufacturing Licence. The new entries enable Regional Authorities to issue Advance Authorisations directly in eligible cases without individual referral to the Norms Committee, promoting faster processing and uniform norm fixation.

Sea Cargo Manifest and Transhipment Regulations filing becomes the sole channel for manifest and transhipment filings at New Mangalore and Karwar Ports after the supplementary IGM/EGM process is disabled from 16 June 2026. Shipping lines, agents, custodians, terminal operators, customs brokers and other stakeholders must transition to the SCMTR module. Legacy-format and manual or automated filings for SCMTR-covered modules will not be accepted, except where an exceptional system failure is verified by the local Systems Manager. The change is intended to support fully digital cargo processing, visibility and risk management.

Arunachal Pradesh GST rate provisions permit a landowner-promoter to use input tax credit charged by a developer-promoter for tax payable on apartments supplied in the relevant project. Maintenance, repair or overhaul services for ships and other vessels, including engines, components and parts, are inserted as a specified service category taxable at 2.5 per cent, with the related entry expanded accordingly. The amendments take effect from 2 June 2021.

The Arunachal Pradesh State GST rate notification amends Schedule I by substituting tariff heading 9503 against serial number 259A in the 2.5% Schedule. It also inserts Diethylcarbamazine at serial number 231 in List 1 after Schedule I. These amendments take effect from 2 June 2021.

Form-D requires a separate daily register for each Schedule-A controlled substance. It records opening balance, quantities received or imported, quantities distributed, sold, exported or consumed, handling loss and closing balance, with supplier or recipient particulars and supporting transaction references. Quantities must be shown in kilograms. Entries must be completed each working day, including days with no transactions, before close of business, and initialled by the authorised person. Import or export entries must state the relevant No Objection Certificate number and date instead of a registration number.

E-invoicing applicability threshold under the Arunachal Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 is reduced through an amendment to Notification No. 12/2020-State Tax. Under rule 48(4), the aggregate turnover threshold is substituted from five hundred crore rupees to one hundred crore rupees with effect from 1 January 2021, expanding the category of registered persons subject to the specified invoicing mechanism.

The State Government notified the commencement of sections 16 and 132 and the amendment to Schedule II of the Arunachal Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2021. These provisions were appointed to come into force on 30 June 2020 under the Government's statutory power to fix their commencement date.

Manufacturers of Schedule-A controlled substances must maintain a separate daily register for each substance. The register must record opening stock, quantity manufactured, quantities sent out, handling losses and closing stock, with recipient registration, identity and premises details for each outward movement. Quantities must be stated in kilograms. Entries are required for every working day, including days without transactions, must be completed before close of day, and must be initialled by the authorised person. Each page must carry a running serial number.

Telangana GST registration applicants within specified jurisdiction circles must complete biometric Aadhaar authentication, photograph capture, and verification of original uploaded documents at designated Goods and Services Tax Suvidha Kendras. The centres are assigned to applicants across identified jurisdiction divisions and circles. The arrangement is issued under rule 8(4A) of the Telangana Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, for the registration-authentication process and is deemed effective from 4 October 2024.

An unadjudicated contention that a cash-credit addition overlapped with income estimated after rejection of an expense claim requires reasoned appellate determination following an opportunity of hearing. The quantum issue was remitted for disposal by a speaking order. Penalty for concealment is not leviable where the underlying income addition arises solely from estimation of income as a percentage of turnover due to unsubstantiated expenses. Accordingly, the penalty under section 271(1)(c) was deleted, while the quantum controversy requires fresh appellate adjudication.

Registration for Schedule-A controlled-substance activities requires identification of the substances and the proposed activity, including manufacture, distribution, sale, purchase, possession, storage, or consumption. Applicants must provide identity, contact, tax-status, business-constitution, premises, boundary, and property-right details. Authorised persons require identification, authority documentation, and disclosures of relevant convictions or pending narcotics-related cases. Existing governmental registrations and licences must be disclosed. The applicant must certify that information is true, correct, and complete, sign each page, and supply unavailable information when obtained.

Appellate Tribunal filing timelines under the Meghalaya Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 fix 31 July 2026 as the final date for appeals against orders communicated before 1 May 2026 and applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026. Appeals for later-communicated orders must be filed within three months of communication. Applications relating to later-passed orders must be filed within six months from the date of the order.