Registration of an Insurance Office in an IFSC requires eligibility based on the applicant's legal form and jurisdiction. Indian insurers and re-insurers require domestic registration, a no-objection certificate, regulatory compliance records, prescribed reporting structures, and board undertakings for IIO liabilities, capital and solvency requirements. Foreign applicants additionally require home-jurisdiction licensing and approval, satisfactory cross-jurisdictional compliance, treaty-partner regulatory status, prescribed credit quality, and applicable financial requirements. Registration also depends on fit-and-proper assessment, FATF-compliant jurisdictional status, and anti-money-laundering and counter-terrorist-financing compliance.

Registration is mandatory before any person may commence insurance or re-insurance business in an International Financial Services Centre. Applicants, including Lloyd's, must apply in prescribed First Schedule forms and in the manner specified by the Authority. Separate schedules govern Lloyd's, Lloyd's IFSC and service-company registration, as well as managing general agents, relevant foreign insurers or foreign re-insurers, and their registration.

Eligible applicants for insurance business registration in an International Financial Services Centre include Indian insurers, foreign insurers or reinsurers, Lloyd's, specified India-registered entities, qualifying companies and co-operative societies, eligible foreign body corporates, and Managing General Agents operating under valid binding agreements. A binding agreement authorises an MGA to act for a foreign insurer or reinsurer and enter insurance contracts on its behalf. An International Financial Services Centre Insurance Office is a registered financial institution undertaking permissible insurance activities.

Insurance business registration and operations in an International Financial Services Centre are subject to a regulatory process for insurers and reinsurers. The framework governs their registration and operational activities within the regulatory purview established for International Financial Services Centres.

Registration of insurance business in International Financial Services Centres is addressed through the International Financial Services Centres Authority (Registration of Insurance Business) Regulations, 2021. The Authority exercises regulation-making power under section 28(1), read with sections 12 and 13 of the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019. The framework takes effect upon publication in the Official Gazette.

Warrants in summons cases may issue in lieu of or in addition to summons only where recorded reasons establish that the accused has absconded, is unlikely to obey summons, or has failed to appear after due service without reasonable excuse. An exemption from personal appearance must be assessed independently and cannot be refused based on assumptions concerning a co-accused. In complaints for cheque dishonour, applications seeking recall of the summoning order or dropping of proceedings should be decided promptly. Until determination, courts should not compel personal appearance or issue coercive process; if the application fails, attendance must first be sought through summons, with any warrant complying with the statutory safeguards.

Authorized Economic Operator status provides compliant importers and exporters with Direct Port Delivery and Direct Port Entry, deferred duty payment, expedited drawback, refunds and adjudications, and paperless customs declarations. Benefits also include self-certified clearance certificates, request-based examination, mutual-recognition facilitation, and recognition by partner agencies. Eligible AEO exporters may seek Advance Authorisation through self-declaration and self-ratification where applicable norms are unavailable or additional inputs are required. Existing certified entities retain AEO-T2 or AEO-LO status subject to prescribed standards and guidelines.

Registered persons may electronically seek rectification of unappealed demand orders concerning input tax credit previously denied for breach of the time-limit condition, where the credit has become available under the extended eligibility provisions. The application, with prescribed demand details and declarations, must be filed within six months. The issuing authority decides the application and, as far as possible, issues the rectified order within three months. Rectification is limited to the now-eligible credit demand, and principles of natural justice apply where the rectification adversely affects the applicant.

Recognition of NSE Clearing Limited as a clearing corporation is renewed for three years under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) framework. Renewal is based on satisfaction that it serves the interests of trade, the securities market and the public. Continued recognition is subject to applicable conditions, and NSE Clearing Limited must comply with conditions specified from time to time, including conditions subsequently prescribed or imposed.

Classification of agricultural land as a capital asset depends on whether it was held as an investment or acquired and dealt with for trading. The resulting receipts may be assessed as capital gains or business income based on the overall facts and circumstances. The Supreme Court found no ground to interfere with the High Court's determination and dismissed the special leave petition.

Direct Port Delivery (DPD) guidelines for Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) status holders are modified by omitting paragraph 11(i) of the earlier framework. All remaining conditions governing DPD for AEO status holders continue unchanged. Implementation difficulties may be raised with the Commissioner of Customs (Port), Kolkata.

Recognition under section 4 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 is renewed for Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India Limited in respect of contracts in securities for one year, from 16 September 2026 to 15 September 2027. The Exchange must comply with conditions prescribed or subsequently imposed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.

GST tax-deduction-at-source obligations are extended to any registered person receiving supplies of metal scrap, classified under Chapters 72 to 81 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, from another registered person. The exclusion for supplies between specified persons does not apply to the newly inserted metal-scrap recipient category. The amendment takes effect immediately.

Section 107 of the Madhya Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, read with Rule 109A, authorises designated State Tax officers to act as Appellate Authorities for GST appeals. Territorial jurisdiction is allocated across Bhopal, Jabalpur, Gwalior, Indore, Ujjain, Khandwa, Satna, Sagar and Chhindwara divisions, including specified Anti-Evasion Bureaux. Indore assignments are divided among its divisions, designated circles, the Pithampur Circle and Anti-Evasion Bureau Indore-A and Indore-B. Earlier departmental authorisations for these appellate assignments are superseded.

Customs tariff values are revised for specified edible oils, brass scrap, gold and silver through substituted valuation tables. The revised framework covers designated palm oils, palmolein, crude soybean oil and brass scrap, while prescribing values for eligible gold imports, specified gold bars and coins, gold findings, and specified forms of silver. Gold and silver entries remain subject to stated purity, form and import-mode exclusions. Areca nut tariff value remains unchanged. The substituted tariff-value tables take effect from 16 September 2026.

Goa has inserted a proviso under the statutory framework issued pursuant to section 23(2) of the Goa Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. Persons engaged in supplying metal scrap classified under Chapters 72 to 81 of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, are excluded from its scope. The amendment takes effect immediately.

Money-laundering proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act concern alleged land grabbing through forged board resolutions, forged-sale agreements, fabricated deeds, and falsified property records. The alleged conduct includes manipulation of land records, civil proceedings based on false claims, denial of landowners' lawful entitlements, and threats or physical force against persons asserting legitimate rights. The investigation is linked to multiple police FIRs concerning the individual and associated entities.

Goa appoints 1 April 2025 as the date from which the Authority under section 171 of the Goa Goods and Services Tax framework will cease accepting requests to examine anti-profiteering concerns. The discontinued mechanism concerns whether input tax credits availed by a registered person, or a tax-rate reduction, have resulted in commensurate price reductions for goods or services. The appointment is deemed effective from 30 September 2024.

External trade estimates for April-August 2026-27 show combined merchandise and services exports of US$399.27 billion and imports of US$459.65 billion, with a trade deficit of US$60.38 billion. Merchandise exports reached US$215.91 billion, while services exports were estimated at US$183.36 billion. Non-petroleum exports increased to US$180.61 billion. Growth in August merchandise exports was driven by electronic goods, petroleum products, engineering goods, chemicals, and cotton yarn, fabrics, made-ups and handloom products. Services-sector figures for August were estimated using data available through July.

Anti-profiteering jurisdiction is vested in the Principal Bench of the Appellate Tribunal to examine whether a registered person has passed on the benefit of input tax credits or tax-rate reductions through a commensurate reduction in the prices of goods or services supplied. The empowerment operates under the Goa goods and services tax framework, read with the Central Goods and Services Tax Act.