Central Government amends SEZ Authority membership under Sections 31(1) and 31(5), replacing two director entries
The Central Government amends Notification S.O. 3143(E) dated 10 July 2023 under Sections 31(1) and 31(5) of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 to substitute entries 5 and 6 for inclusion of new members in the Visakhapatnam Special Economic Zone Authority: the entry previously listing the Director of Worldwide Diamond Jewellery Manufacturers Pvt Ltd and the Director of Kusalva International Limited is replaced by the Managing Director of Oil Field Warehouse & Services Limited and the Managing Director of Hilton Tobaccos Private Limited.

Regulator renews stock exchange recognition under Section 4 of Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 for 16 Sep 2025-15 Sep 2026
The regulator has renewed recognition of a stock exchange under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 for the period 16 September 2025 to 15 September 2026 for contracts in securities, finding renewal to be in the interest of trade and the public. The renewal is granted under the regulator's powers in section 4 of the Act and is subject to the conditions set out in the notification and any further conditions that the regulator may prescribe or impose.

Regulation tightens AIF rules: defines co-investment schemes, limits investors to accredited, aligns exit terms, revises angel fund limits
The regulation amends the Alternative Investment Funds rules to define and regulate co-investment and co-investment schemes for Category I and II AIFs, require filing of a shelf placement memorandum, mandate separate schemes per co-investment, limit participation to accredited investors, and align exit and investment terms with the main AIF; it also revises angel fund provisions by classifying them as Category I AIFs, restricting fundraising to accredited investors, setting minimum investor counts and investment ticket sizes (?10 lakh-?25 crore), prohibiting certain related-party contributions, prescribing disclosure, allocation and approval processes, adjusting fees and exemptions, and excluding angel funds from launching schemes.

Regulator updates capital and disclosure rules introducing accredited angel investors, expanding dematerialisation, widening promoter definitions, updating social exchange norms
The regulator issued amendments to the Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements Regulations, 2018, introducing accredited investors for angel funds, expanding categories whose specified securities must be dematerialised before filing a draft offer, and clarifying resale treatment for shares acquired under court/tribunal/Government schemes. It broadens entities treated as promoters/related parties, updates Social Stock Exchange norms (definitions, social impact assessor qualifications, social enterprise targeting and For-Profit wording, limits on not-for-profit registration/use of listed projects), and revises placement document requirements (definitions, risk factors, capitalization, financial disclosures, litigation materiality and numbering). Most amendments are effective on Gazette publication; certain clauses commence 30 days thereafter.

Regulator revises senior posts: adds Executive Director (Law/Litigation) and Executive Director (Information Technology); changes appointment, eligibility, deputation rules
The regulator amended its Employees' Service Regulations, effective 18 June 2025, to revise senior-post entries and eligibility criteria: the title Executive Director (Law) is expanded to Executive Director (Law/Litigation), and Executive Director (Information Technology) is added. Appointment rules are changed so up to three posts may be filled by deputation/contract and remaining posts by internal promotion from relevant streams. Age limits of 40-55 years and an LLB requirement apply to the law post; the IT post requires a bachelor's in engineering or a bachelor's plus a two-year postgraduate IT qualification, and at least 20 years' post-qualification IT experience, with deputation eligibility from government, RBI, banks and financial institutions.

Regulator allows employees named as promoters in IPO drafts to keep and exercise pre-IPO options and SARs
The securities regulator amended the share-based employee benefits regulations to add a new provision permitting an employee who is identified as a promoter or part of the promoter group in an IPO draft and who received options, SARs or other scheme benefits at least one year before filing the draft to continue to hold and/or exercise those instruments, subject to the scheme terms and applicable laws. The amendment was made under statutory powers and takes effect on publication in the Official Gazette.

Regulator mandates demat-only securities issuance, new SSE disclosure timelines, revised terminology and impact reporting rules
The regulator amends listing and disclosure rules to require issuance of securities under schemes, splits or consolidations only in dematerialised form with a separate demat account for investors lacking one; imposes specified annual financial and non-financial disclosure timelines for not-for-profit entities on Social Stock Exchanges; replaces "Firm" with "Organization" and clarifies Social Impact Assessor obligations, requiring annual impact reports to cover at least 67% of prior year programme expenditure and allowing self-certification for certain non-listed projects; permits social enterprises registered without fund-raising to submit self-certified impact reports and allows NPOs up to two years without raising funds but mandates at least one listed project thereafter; and omits specified provisos in Schedule VII, clause B.

Central Government rescinds 5 July 2017 notification de-notifying 4.05 hectares of IT/ITES SEZ, preserving prior actions
The Central Government rescinds its prior notification of 5 July 2017 that had notified 4.05 hectares as an IT/ITES Special Economic Zone. The developer requested de-notification of the entire area, the State Government issued a No Objection Certificate, and the Development Commissioner recommended de-notification; thereafter the Central Government, exercising its rule-making powers, rescinded the earlier notification, except insofar as actions already done or omitted prior to rescission.

Central Government de-notifies 8.717 hectares of IT/ITES SEZ, reducing area to 21.693 ha under Section 4(1) proviso and Rule 8
By notification dated 8 September 2025 (S.O. 4091(E)), the Central Government de-notified 8.717 hectares from an Information Technology/ITES Special Economic Zone located at Plot No. 6, Sector-Techzone, Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh, reducing the notified SEZ area from 30.41 hectares to 21.693 hectares. The de-notification was made under section 4(1) (second proviso) of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and rule 8 of the SEZ Rules, 2006, following a proposal by the developer, recommendation by the Development Commissioner, and approval by the State Government, with statutory requirements having been satisfied.

Central Government rescinds 2009 SEZ notification for 10-hectare solar PV zone in Thrikkakara North; rescission under SEZ Act, 2005
The Central Government has rescinded its 2009 notification designating a 10-hectare Special Economic Zone for the solar photovoltaic sector in Thrikkakara North, Ernakulam, Kerala, following the developer's proposal to de-notify the entire area. The State Government granted a no-objection certificate and confirmed post-de-notification conformity with state land-use guidelines, and the Development Commissioner recommended de-notification. The rescission is made under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and its rules, and operates prospectively, except insofar as it affects actions already taken or omissions already made before the rescission.

Customs amends tariff value notification under Section 14(2) of Customs Act 1962, updates tables for edible oils, metals, areca nut
The customs authority, exercising powers under section 14(2) of the Customs Act, 1962, amends the existing notification fixing tariff values by substituting Tables 1-3 to specify tariff values for various edible oils (including crude and RBD palm oil and palmolein, crude soybean oil), brass scrap, areca nut, and specified categories of gold and silver; the listed tariff figures remain unchanged. The amendment updates the prior Notification No. 36/2001-Customs (N.T.) and takes effect from 9 September 2025.

Government tightens pet-food raw material export rules (HS 23091000, 23099010, 23099020): APEDA abattoirs, post-mortem inspection, state vet certificate
Central Government amends export policy for specified animal-byproduct HS codes by inserting a new condition requiring that meat and organs used as raw material for pet food be sourced from APEDA-registered integrated abattoirs or municipal slaughterhouses that have undergone post-mortem inspection and segregation; a certificate must be issued by the state-designated veterinary authority based on inspections by veterinarians registered under the Indian Veterinary Council Act and employed by the slaughtering unit under state/UT supervision. HS codes 23091000, 23099010 and 23099020 are now subject to both Policy Conditions 1 and 2; change aligns exports with certain EU regulations.

Central Government appoints Assistant Legal Advisor as Special Public Prosecutor to represent Enforcement Directorate in PMLA proceedings nationwide
The Central Government appoints an Assistant Legal Advisor as Special Public Prosecutor to conduct cases for the Directorate of Enforcement before Special Courts under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act across India, by notification dated 4 September 2025, exercising its statutory powers; the appointment authorizes nationwide representation of the enforcement agency in PMLA proceedings.

Central Government appoints advocates as Special Public Prosecutors for Directorate of Enforcement under PMLA 2002 with specified tenures
The Central Government appoints the listed advocates as Special Public Prosecutors to conduct prosecutions on behalf of the Directorate of Enforcement before Special Courts under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, with appointments effective from their respective dates of appointment and ending on the varying tenure end-dates specified; the appointees are assigned to particular States, Union Territories, zones or sub-zones as indicated, and tenures expire on specified dates between December 2025 and August 2027.

Amendment to Rule 25: Revised Forms CAA-9 to CAA-12, new intra-group and unlisted merger categories and filing timelines
The notification amends the Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Rules, 2016, revising rule 25 and substituting Forms CAA-9 to CAA-12. Notices of proposed schemes must follow Form CAA-9 and, for companies regulated by sectoral regulators or listed entities, be served on the relevant regulator and stock exchanges. New sub-categories expand eligible intra-group and unlisted mergers (subject to aggregate borrowings and no defaults) and include holding-subsidiary and specified foreign holding/Indian wholly-owned subsidiary combinations, with auditor certification in Form CAA-10A. Filing and format changes require transferee companies to file Form CAA-11 within 15 days of meetings, and rule provisions apply mutatis mutandis to divisions/transfers.

Corrigendum fixes typographical and drafting errors in Income-tax Act, 2025 and Bills of Lading Act, 2025
Corrigendum issued 3 September 2025 amends typographical and drafting errors in the Income-tax Act, 2025 and a single correction in the Bills of Lading Act, 2025 as published in the Gazette. Corrections include word substitutions (e.g., "assesse" to "assessee," "previous" to "tax" where context demands), punctuation and plurality fixes, corrected section and statute references, marginal heading adjustment, and minor wording changes (e.g., "as prescribed" to "as may be prescribed," "or taken" to "done or taken"). The notice is published by the relevant government legislative department.

Central government educational board notified eligible for tax exemption under s.10(46) and s.139(4C)(g) for 2025-26 to 2029-30
A central government-constituted educational board is notified as eligible for tax exemption under section 10(46) for specified receipts - examination fees; affiliation fees; registration, sports, training and other academic receipts; project/programme receipts; interest on bank deposits/securities/loans and income tax refunds; and interest attributable to those receipts - for financial years 2025-26 to 2029-30 (assessment years 2026-27 to 2030-31), subject to conditions that it shall not undertake commercial activities, its activities and specified income remain unchanged, and it files returns as required under clause (g) of section 139(4C).

Central government exempts state pharmacy council from tax on fees, subscriptions, interest under Section 10(46); return rules Section 139(4C)(g)
The Central Government, exercising clause (46) of section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, notifies that a state statutory pharmacy council is exempt from tax on specified income-fees and subscriptions and interest-subject to conditions: it must not undertake commercial activity, its activities and the nature of the specified income must remain unchanged during the relevant years, and it must file returns as required by section 139(4C)(g). The notification applies retrospectively to financial years 2018-19 through 2022-23 (assessment years 2019-20 to 2023-24) and is certified as not adversely affecting any person.

Central Government exempts Howrah Bridge body from tax on specified income under Section 10(46), subject to Section 139(4C)(g) compliance
The Central Government, exercising powers under section 10(46) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, notifies a body established under the Howrah Bridge (Amendment) Act, 1965 as exempt from tax on specified income comprising municipal/railway tax proceeds, certain miscellaneous receipts (rental, maintenance charges, optical-fibre laying fees, way-leave rent, damage recoveries) and bank deposit interest, for assessment years 2024-25 to 2028-29, subject to conditions that the body shall not undertake commercial activities, the nature of activities and specified income remains unchanged during the years, and income-tax returns are filed as required by section 139(4C)(g).

Central Government grants income-tax exemption to urban development authority from AY 2024-25 subject to public-purpose activities
The Central Government has granted income-tax exemption to an urban development authority constituted under the relevant state urban planning law, effective from assessment year 2024-25, subject to the authority continuing to perform one or more specified public-purpose activities required by the Income-tax Act. The notification exercises statutory power to treat the entity as an exempt authority for the stated period and includes a certification that no person will be adversely affected by the retrospective effect of the notification.