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Non-interference with High Court order - recording of counsel's statement - undertaking to be given - deposit to remain unaltered - disposal of Special Leave Petition - disposal of pending interlocutory applications
Non-interference with High Court order - The Special Leave Petition seeking interference with the High Court's order was not entertained. - HELD THAT: - The Court stated that it was not inclined to interfere with the order passed by the High Court and, on that basis, declined to disturb the impugned order. No substantive alternative relief or alteration of the High Court's decision was granted by this Court.
The petition for interference with the High Court order is refused and the High Court order is left undisturbed.
Recording of counsel's statement - undertaking to be given - deposit to remain unaltered - disposal of Special Leave Petition - disposal of pending interlocutory applications - The Court recorded the respondent's counsel's statement regarding giving an undertaking and preservation of the deposited amount, and disposed of the petition and any pending interlocutory applications. - HELD THAT: - The Court recorded the statement made by senior counsel that the undertaking indicated in the High Court order will be given and that the amount deposited in the bank shall remain unaltered. Relying on this statement and without altering the deposit, the Court disposed of the Special Leave Petition. Pending interlocutory applications, if any, were also disposed of accordingly.
The counsel's statement is recorded, the undertaking will be given and the deposited amount shall remain unaltered; the Special Leave Petition and any pending interlocutory applications are disposed of.
Final Conclusion: The Supreme Court refused to interfere with the High Court order, recorded the respondent's counsel's statement that the required undertaking will be given and that the deposited amount will remain unaltered, and disposed of the Special Leave Petition along with any pending interlocutory applications.
Availment of fraudulent Input Tax Credit - adequate opportunity of personal hearing provided or not - relied upon documents (RUDs) which were given were not clear - Violation of principles of natural justice - it was held by High Court that 'This Court is not inclined to entertain the present writ petition. However, the Petitioners are granted the liberty to file an appeal.' - HELD THAT:- The delay of 29 days in refiling the present petition is condoned.
It is not satisfied that it is a fit case to exercise our discretionary jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.
The present petition is, accordingly, dismissed with liberty to the petitioner to avail the alternative statutory remedies.
Issues: Whether the applicant was entitled to be released on bail in the pending criminal case.
Analysis: The application was considered on the basis of the custody period, the filing of the charge-sheet, the nature of the allegations, the amount involved, and the material available on record regarding the applicant's role. The Court found that these factors justified release on bail. Conditions were imposed for appearance before the trial court and compliance with the statutory bail conditions.
Conclusion: Bail was granted to the applicant.
Availment of input tax credit after showing fake sale and purchase of coal - E-Way Bills/invoices etc. pertaining to applicant’s Firms i.e. Anam Traders and Amber Coal Depot are fake and forged or not - HELD THAT:- Having regard to the total amount Rs. 1,36,620/- (Rs. 55680+80940) involved in the instant case with respect to the present applicant as well as nature of evidence available on record with respect to applicant's involvement in the instant offence, it is inclined to release the applicant on bail. Consequently, first bail application under Section 483 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 for grant of bail filed on behalf of applicant, stands allowed.
It is directed that applicant be released on bail on his furnishing a personal bond in the sum of Rs. 15,000/- with one solvent surety in the like amount to the satisfaction of the trial Court, for his regular appearance before the trial Court during trial with a condition that he shall remain present before the concerned Court on all the dates fixed by it during trial. He shall abide by all the conditions enumerated under Section 480(3) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Application allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a writ petition under Articles 226/227 is maintainable when filed by or on behalf of an unregistered partnership firm and/or a partner of such firm seeking enforcement of statutory rights under the CGST/indirect tax regime.
2. Whether the impugned Show Cause Notice and subsequent order (financial year 2020-21) are vitiated by the fact that no reply was filed by the petitioner and no hearing was afforded, where non-filing is attributed to the Chartered Accountant's oversight.
3. Whether the petitioner should be permitted to file an appeal before the appellate authority with directions regarding pre-deposit, limitation, and pendency of challenges to Notifications impugned before the Court in a lead matter.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Maintainability of Writ by/for Unregistered Partnership Firm
Legal framework: Section 69 (Effect of non-registration) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 places an embargo on suits by or on behalf of an unregistered firm to enforce rights arising from a contract; specifically subsections (1) and (2) restrict institution of suits unless the firm and partners are shown in the Register of Firms.
Precedent treatment: Reliance is placed on authoritative decisions (noted in the judgment) that qualify Section 69(2): the Supreme Court in earlier decisions has held that Section 69(2) does not bar suits by unregistered firms where a statutory right or a common law right is sought to be enforced; subsequent case law reiterates that the bar applies only where the cause of action arises from a contract entered into by the firm in the course of its business with the defendant.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court interprets Section 69 as not operating to deny enforcement proceedings where the relief claimed is in respect of statutory rights (for example, rights under the CGST Act) rather than merely contractual rights of the firm. The reasoning is that a firm which is registered under the tax statute and is paying statutory dues cannot be non-suited from enforcing statutory rights merely because it is an unregistered partnership under the Partnership Act. The presence of an individual partner as a party (impleaded) reinforces maintainability.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 69 does not bar enforcement of statutory or common law rights by an unregistered firm; the bar applies only to suits enforcing contractual rights of the firm in the course of its business against third parties without registration. Obiter - Observations about the policy rationale for allowing statutory-right enforcement by unregistered firms, though consistent with precedent, serve explanatory purposes.
Conclusion: The writ petition is held maintainable since it seeks enforcement of statutory rights under the CGST Act, the firm has a registration for tax purposes, and a partner has been impleaded as a petitioner.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Validity of Impugned SCN and Order Where No Reply Was Filed / No Hearing Given
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice and statutory adjudicatory procedure under tax law require that a show cause notice provide an opportunity to reply/hear before final adjudication; proper compliance with procedural fairness is a sine qua non of valid orders.
Precedent treatment: The judgment cites established law (generally reflected in the authorities relied upon) that administrative or adjudicatory orders passed without giving an opportunity of hearing or despite a bona fide reason for non-filing may be susceptible to challenge; however, the Court's discussion is framed by the specific facts before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner admits that no reply to the SCN was filed, attributing non-filing to the Chartered Accountant's oversight, and contends that the impugned order was passed without hearing. The Court records this factual stance but does not, in the operative directions, quash the impugned order on grounds of failure to afford hearing; rather, the Court provides a remedial course (appeal with pre-deposit and protection from dismissal on limitation) to permit adjudication on merits before the appellate authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - The Court's acceptance of the petitioner's explanation (CA oversight) and acknowledgement that the order was passed without hearing is factual and not the primary legal basis for disposal. Ratio - The directing of an appellate remedy (see Issue 3) instead of outright quashing indicates the Court's approach that procedural lapse in the adjudicating authority can be addressed by appellate recourse where appropriate.
Conclusion: While the petition alleges absence of hearing and non-filing of reply due to oversight, the Court does not annul the impugned order on that ground; instead, it directs appellate recourse (subject to specified conditions) to enable merits adjudication.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Directions on Filing Appeal, Pre-deposit, Limitation and Effect of Pending Challenge to Notifications
Legal framework: Statutory appellate remedy under the tax statutes permits filing of appeals with prescribed pre-deposit; limitation rules govern the maintainability of appeals. Courts may grant relief from strict application of limitation or pre-deposit requirements in appropriate cases, and may stay or make appellate proceedings subject to outcome of connected constitutional challenges to central/state notifications.
Precedent treatment: The Court relies on its power under Articles 226/227 and supervisory jurisdiction to issue directions protecting substantive rights pending adjudication of broader questions (e.g., validity of Notifications) that are sub judice in lead matters.
Interpretation and reasoning: Considering the fact-specific posture (challenge to Notifications pending in a lead case), the Court directs the petitioner to file an appeal by a specified date with the requisite pre-deposit on the tax amount. The Court orders that if the appeal is filed within the stipulated period, it shall not be dismissed on the ground of limitation and shall be adjudicated on merits. Further, the appellate proceedings are expressly made subject to the outcome of the pending lead matter challenging the impugned Notifications.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Court's grant of conditional relief (extension/protection against dismissal on limitation, direction to file appeal with pre-deposit, and subjection of appellate adjudication to outcome of the lead challenge to notifications) constitutes the operative relief and establishes the procedure to be followed in similar fact-situations. Obiter - General observations regarding the interplay between firm-registration under the Partnership Act and tax registration are ancillary to these operative directions.
Conclusion: The petitioner is permitted to file an appeal by the specified date with pre-deposit; such appeal, if filed within time, will not be dismissed for limitation and shall be heard on merits, with appellate proceedings remaining subject to the decision in the pending lead challenge to the impugned Notifications.
CROSS-REFERENCES AND RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN ISSUES
1. Issue 1 is determinative of locus/maintainability and underpins the Court's authority to grant Directions in Issue 3; the Court's conclusion on maintainability enables the remedial direction permitting appeal.
2. Issue 2 (procedural lapse in non-filing of reply/hearing) informs the Court's remedial choice in Issue 3 - rather than quashing the impugned order outright, the Court channels the dispute to the appellate forum to secure merits adjudication and preserve the interplay with the broader constitutional challenge to Notifications.
3. The directions on limitation and subjection to the outcome of the lead matter create an integrated remedial framework addressing both the petitioner's statutory grievance and the systemic question regarding the impugned Notifications.
Maintainability of writ petition under Articles 226/227 - unregistered partnership firms can file a writ petition through a partner or not - submission of the Petitioner is that no reply has been filed to the impugned SCN - HELD THAT:- Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 has an embargo on an un-registered firm from filing a suit or any proceeding for enforcement of a right.
Section 69(2) of the Partnership Act, 1932 cannot place a bar to a suit filed by an unregistered firm, if a statutory or common law right is being sought to be enforced. In the present case, the writ petition seeks reliefs under the CGST Act, under which the Petitioner No. 2 has a registration - despite being an unregistered Partnership firm. Such a firm, which is paying taxes and has any grievances against the Department cannot be non-suited from enforcing statutory rights. Moreover, since the Partner has also been impleaded, it cannot be held that the writ petition is maintainable. In view of the above, since the partner has been made a party to the writ petition and has filed the present writ petition as Petitioner No. 1, the writ petition is held to be maintainable.
Thus, it is directed that the Petitioner may file an appeal by 30th November 2025 along with the requisite pre-deposit on the tax amount. If the same is filed by 30th November 2025, the same shall not be dismissed on the ground of limitation and shall be adjudicated on merits.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether, on the facts of the case, the penalty for movement of goods without the e-way bill was to be determined under Section 129(1)(a) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, instead of Section 129(1)(b) of that Act.
Analysis: The goods were accompanied by a tax invoice showing the particulars of the owner, who was a registered dealer. On that factual premise, the alleged infraction was confined to the absence of the e-way bill accompanying the goods. The proper statutory consequence, therefore, was to compute penalty under Section 129(1)(a) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The order adopting Section 129(1)(b) was not sustainable and required interference.
Conclusion: The penalty was required to be recomputed under Section 129(1)(a) of the Uttar Pradesh Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, and the impugned order was set aside to that extent, in favour of the assessee.
Levy of penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the U.P. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - e-way bill not accompanying the goods - goods were found accompanying with the tax invoice clearly disclosing full particulars of the owner of the goods, a registered dealer - HELD THAT:- Whatever infringement may have been alleged for reason of e-way bill not accompanying the goods, it may have resulted in penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the U.P. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (hereinafter referred to as the 'Act'), only. However, the Adjudicating Authority has erroneously computed the penalty in terms of Section 129(1)(b) of the Act. On that issue, reliance has been placed on Halder Enterprises vs State of U.P. [2023 (12) TMI 514 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] where it was held that 'the order passed by the authorities dated October 19, 2023 is quashed and set aside. The authorities are directed to carry out the exercise in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the CGST Act within a period of three weeks from today.'
For reason of similar facts and there have been no other dispute, no useful purpose would be served in keeping the present petition pending or calling for counter affidavit at this state, let the writ petition be decided with the consent of the parties at the fresh stage.
The impugned order dated 26.08.2025 is set aside with the direction upon the authorities to determine the quantum of penalty in accordance with Section 129(1)(a) of the Act within a period of three weeks from today - Subject to the petitioner depositing the penalty amount in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the Act on the value of the goods as mentioned in the tax invoice, the goods may be released forthwith.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: Whether, in the circumstances of cancellation of GST registration and a belated appeal, the petitioner should be permitted to approach the competent authority for revocation of cancellation under the statutory scheme.
Analysis: The registration stood cancelled for non-furnishing of returns. Instead of pursuing the remedy of revocation before the proper officer or the next higher authority within the period prescribed by the GST Rules, the petitioner filed a delayed appeal. The order notes that the appeal was belated and that the period for approaching the Commissioner of Taxes also appeared to have expired. Since the petitioner expressed an intention to pursue the statutory remedy for revocation, the Court granted liberty to do so within a short time and directed the competent authority to consider such request in accordance with law, including the requirement of payment of any outstanding tax dues.
Conclusion: The petitioner was permitted to pursue revocation of cancellation before the competent authority, and the writ petition was disposed of.
Cancellation of petitioner’s GST registration - petitioner had failed to furnish the returns for the prescribed period in contravention of the provisions of Section 29(2)(c) of the Telangana Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - belated appeal filed - HELD THAT:- It appears that the petitioner, instead of approaching the proper officer or the next higher officer in terms of Rule 23(1) of the Rules, preferred an appeal which was belated. The time limit for approaching the Commissioner of Taxes also appears to have crossed.
Be that as it may, since the petitioner is inclined to approach the competent authority in terms of Rule 23(1) of the Rules, liberty is granted to the petitioner to do so for revocation of cancellation of its registration within a period of two weeks from today. In case such an application is filed, the competent authority in terms of Rule 23(2) of the Rules would consider the petitioner’s request in accordance with law. Needless to say that the petitioner would be required to pay any outstanding tax dues which are due against it.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an assessment order challenged long after its passing can be quashed where the petitioner did not reply to statutory notices and delay/laches exists.
2. Whether a notification issued under Section 168A of the Goods and Services Tax enactments (specifically Notification Nos. 9 and 56 of 2023) is legally sustainable in light of the Supreme Court order under Article 142 and the principle of exclusion of the period 15.03.2020 to 28.02.2022 while reckoning limitation under Section 73.
3. Whether the impugned notification(s) suffer from vices of arbitrariness, extinguishment of vested rights, erroneous assumption of law, failure to comply with statutory mandate regarding recommendations, or improper reliance on bodies other than the GST Council.
4. Whether, in view of the Principal Bench decision quashing the impugned notification(s), the High Court should quash a specific assessment order and remit the matter for fresh decision on merits.
5. Whether interim relief in the form of lifting an attachment of the petitioner's bank account is appropriate to prevent irreparable hardship (here, blocking disbursement of an educational loan) pending fresh proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Effect of Delay/Laches in Challenging an Assessment Order
Legal framework: Principles of writ jurisdiction and discretionary relief where statutory remedies and limitation are relevant; obligation to respond to statutory notices preceding assessment.
Precedent Treatment: The Court acknowledged the consistent view of requiring parties to be put to terms where petitions are filed late and where the petitioner has not replied to notices.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that ordinarily delay and failure to respond would justify non-intervention; however, the existence of binding coordinates from a recent Principal Bench decision altered the approach. The Court treated delay as relevant but not dispositive where broader precedent intervenes.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The treatment of laches and failure to reply is obiter in the sense that the Court did not dismiss on that ground but noted it as ordinarily determinative; the operative relief rested on separate legal grounds (see Issue 2-4).
Conclusion: Delay and non-response were noted but did not preclude relief because of controlling precedent; the Court exercised discretion to examine and apply the Principal Bench decision.
Issue 2 - Validity of Notification(s) under Section 168A vis-à-vis Exclusion Period and Article 142 Order
Legal framework: Section 168A of the CGST/SGST enactments (vesting power to notify limitation-related matters); Section 73 limitation for recovery of tax; effect of Supreme Court order under Article 142 directing exclusion of 15.03.2020-28.02.2022 for reckoning limitation.
Precedent Treatment: The Court followed a recent Principal Bench ruling which quashed the impugned notification(s) and interpreted the Article 142 order as entitling authorities to exclude the specified pandemic period when computing limitation under Section 73.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Principal Bench found that Notification Nos. 9 and 56 of 2023 curtailed limitation made available by the Supreme Court's Article 142 remedy, proceeded on an erroneous assumption as to the scope/effect of that order, and thus was contrary to the object of Section 168A. The impugned notifications were held to be arbitrary because they diminished vested rights of action and were issued without adequate examination of relevant material; one notification was issued before GST Council recommendations and another relied on a body (GIC) that cannot substitute the GST Council.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that the notifications are vitiated for the stated reasons is ratio in the Principal Bench's decision and is followed as binding by the Court here.
Conclusion: The notifications under Section 168A that attempted to modify limitation contrary to the Article 142 exclusion period are legally unsustainable for being arbitrary, based on erroneous legal assumptions, extinguishing vested rights, and for procedural infirmities in the recommendation/issuance process.
Issue 3 - Consequences for the Specific Assessment Order and Remittal for Fresh Decision
Legal framework: When a foundational notification or legal premise underlying an assessment is quashed, affected assessments may be set aside and remitted for fresh consideration on merits; powers to remit and to direct fresh adjudication.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on the Principal Bench's dispositive ruling to invalidate the legal footing of the assessment based on the impugned notification(s).
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the impugned notification(s) that informed limitation computations were held invalid, the assessment order founded on those provisions could not stand. The Court therefore quashed the impugned assessment order and remitted the matter to the respondents to pass a fresh order on merits, permitting respondents to proceed subject to any interim orders passed by the Supreme Court in related proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The quashing of the assessment and remittal is ratio for the present writ petition as it flows directly from the invalidation of the notification(s).
Conclusion: The impugned assessment order is quashed and the matter remitted for fresh adjudication on merits, with liberty to authorities to proceed in light of any applicable interim Supreme Court directions.
Issue 4 - Procedural and Substantive Vices in Issuance of Notification(s)
Legal framework: Requirement of proper exercise of delegated legislative power, compliance with statutory mandate regarding recommendations (GST Council), and non-arbitrariness in administrative action.
Precedent Treatment: The Principal Bench found multiple infirmities-failure to examine relevant materials, issuance prior to required recommendations, and reliance on an improper recommending body-rendering the notification(s) illegal.
Interpretation and reasoning: A notification that materially diminishes limitation and hence extinguishes vested enforcement rights engages the vice of arbitrariness if based on erroneous assumptions or inadequate procedural compliance. Issuance before requisite recommendations and reliance on a non-statutory recommending body compound the invalidity.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination of procedural and substantive infirmities is ratio in the Principal Bench ruling and adopted by the Court to invalidate the notifications.
Conclusion: The impugned notifications are vitiated for procedural non-compliance and substantive arbitrariness; therefore, actions premised on them cannot be sustained without fresh lawful basis.
Issue 5 - Interim Relief: Lifting of Bank Attachment to Prevent Irreparable Hardship
Legal framework: Power to grant interim relief to prevent irreparable injury and to balance equities pending final decision; remedial discretion of the Court in writ jurisdiction.
Precedent Treatment: The Court exercised equitable jurisdiction to provide immediate relief given specific hardship (prevention of educational loan disbursement) caused by attachment.
Interpretation and reasoning: Considering that the assessment order was quashed and remitted and given the specific and immediate hardship resulting from attachment of the petitioner's bank account, the Court directed immediate lifting of the attachment to avoid irreparable prejudice. This direction is linked to the substantive quashing and the Court's duty to prevent disproportionate collateral harm.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The directive to lift the attachment is ratio in the present order as it constitutes operative relief granted to address specific hardship pending fresh proceedings.
Conclusion: The attachment on the petitioner's bank account is to be lifted forthwith to permit disbursement of the educational loan; no costs were imposed.
Challenge to notification issued u/s 168A of the Goods and Services Tax Enactments, 2017 - petitioner has not replied to the notices that proceeded the impugned order - HELD THAT:- It is noticed that a detailed order has recently been passed by the Principal Bench of this Court in a batch of cases in M/s.Tata Play Limited vs. Union of India and others [2025 (7) TMI 772 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] wherein impugned notification issued under Section 168 A of the Act has been quashed with certain directions.
This writ petition is disposed of by quashing the impugned assessment order and the case is remitted back to the respondents to pass fresh order on merits.
Issues: Whether regular bail should be granted to an accused of offences under the CGST Act after completion of investigation and filing of the complaint.
Analysis: The application was considered on the settled approach that bail in CGST offences must be assessed with reference to the nature of allegations, the stage of investigation, the character of evidence and the likelihood of tampering or influencing witnesses. The Court noted that the complaint had already been filed, the evidence was primarily documentary, the applicant had no criminal antecedents, and the witnesses were official witnesses. In the absence of extraordinary circumstances, continued custody was found unnecessary.
Conclusion: Regular bail was granted to the applicant.
Ratio Decidendi: Where investigation is complete, the complaint has been filed, the evidence is predominantly documentary, and there is no real apprehension of tampering or witness influence, regular bail should ordinarily be granted absent extraordinary circumstances.
Seeking grant of regular bail - Applicant was arrested from his residence without any prior service of Summons or Notice under Section 41A Cr.P.C. or Section 35 BNSS, to join the investigation - violation of principles of natural justice - Respondent has opposed the Bail on the ground that the investigation is ongoing qua one absconding person, but that cannot be a ground to deny bail to the Applicant against whom the investigations have been completed and the Complaint filed in the Court - HELD THAT:- The fundamental principles for consideration in a Bail for the offences under Clauses (c), (f) and (h) of Section 132(1) of the CGST Act were explained by the Apex Court in Vineet Jain v. Union of India [2025 (5) TMI 925 - SC ORDER] where it was held that 'The offences alleged against the appellant are under Clauses (c), (f) and (h) of Section 132(1) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. The maximum sentence is of 5 years with fine. A charge-sheet has been filed. The appellant is in custody for a period of almost 7 months. The case is triable by a Court of a Judicial Magistrate. The sentence is limited and in any case, the prosecution is based on documentary evidence. There are no antecedents.'
Applying the aforesaid principles to the present case, the Applicant has been judicial custody since 04.06.2025 The Complaint has already been filed in the Court. The entire evidence has already been collected and is primarily be documentary. He has no criminal antecedents. There is little likelihood of tampering with the evidence or of influencing the witnesses, who are all official witnesses. Further, as observed in the aforesaid decisions of the Apex Court, there exist no extraordinary circumstances to deny the bail to the Applicant.
It is therefore, considered fit to grant regular Bail to the Applicant on fulfilment of conditions imposed - bail application allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the accused is entitled to grant of bail in offences alleged under Sections 132(1)(b), 132(1)(c) and 132(1)(i) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, where the alleged tax evasion exceeds Rs. Twenty Crores.
2. Whether the completion of investigation and filing of complaint/charge-sheet affects the necessity of continued custodial detention and the entitlement to bail.
3. Whether the statutory maximum punishment (imprisonment up to five years) and triability by a Magistrate materially weigh against grant of bail in such revenue/economic offences.
4. Whether the documentary/electronic nature of evidence and absence of antecedents justify grant of bail and what conditions are appropriate to safeguard the prosecution during trial.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Bail entitlement under Sections 132(1)(b), (c) & (i) of the CGST Act for alleged large-scale tax evasion
Legal framework: The questioned provisions attract penal consequences for tax evasion; maximum prescribed sentence for the offences charged is up to five years and fine.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied upon controlling Supreme Court authority(s) which have held that where the sentence is limited and prosecution is documentary in nature, ordinarily bail should not be denied at all stages unless extraordinary circumstances exist. Those authorities were applied and not distinguished or overruled.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the gravity of alleged tax evasion (numerical magnitude) is a relevant factor but is not decisive where statutory maximum imprisonment is limited, investigation is complete and evidence is documentary/electronic. The Court balanced the magnitude of alleged evasion against statutory sentencing limits and the nature of evidence, concluding that magnitude alone does not preclude bail.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where (a) investigation is complete and complaint/charge-sheet is filed, (b) maximum punishment is limited (five years), and (c) evidence is documentary/electronic, accused may ordinarily be granted bail unless extraordinary circumstances exist. Observations about the moral opprobrium of large-scale tax fraud are obiter to the extent they do not negate the above ratio.
Conclusion: The accused is entitled to bail notwithstanding allegations of evasion exceeding Rs. Twenty Crores, subject to appropriate conditions and absence of extraordinary circumstances to the contrary.
Issue 2 - Effect of completion of investigation and filing of complaint/charge-sheet on necessity of custody
Legal framework: Custodial detention post-investigation is justified only if further custodial interrogation is necessary for investigation; otherwise, presence in custody is not necessary for investigation.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed precedents that considered completed investigation and filing of charge-sheet as strong factors militating in favor of bail, particularly in economic/documentary cases.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted the investigation was complete and complaint filed, reducing the need for continued custody to secure further investigation. That factor was weighed heavily in favor of bail because custodial detention was no longer necessary for investigative purposes.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - completion of investigation and filing of charge-sheet materially supports grant of bail where continued custody is not needed for investigation. Observations about timing and trial duration are explanatory/illustrative.
Conclusion: Completion of investigation and filing of complaint/charge-sheet justify release on bail absent other compelling reasons for continued custody.
Issue 3 - Relevance of statutory maximum punishment and triability by Magistrate in bail consideration
Legal framework: Sentencing provisions and forum of trial are relevant to bail assessment; limited maximum sentence and triability by a Magistrate are factors to consider.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied authority(s) holding that limited statutory maximum punishment and trial before a Magistrate weigh in favor of bail in economic offences unless there are exceptional circumstances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that where the maximum imprisonment is five years and offences are triable by a Magistrate, the risk of remand being necessary for investigation or for ensuring presence at trial is diminished; hence these aspects favor bail. The Court expressly noted these features in concluding bail entitlement.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - limited statutory maximum punishment and triability by Magistrate are relevant factors favoring bail in appropriate cases. Any general statements about sentencing policy are obiter to the extent they extend beyond the case facts.
Conclusion: The limited maximum sentence and magistrate-triability favor grant of bail in the present circumstances.
Issue 4 - Documentary/electronic nature of evidence, absence of antecedents and conditions to secure trial integrity
Legal framework: Bail may be granted subject to conditions sufficient to allay prosecution's apprehensions of tampering, tampering with witnesses, or absconding; nature of evidence (documentary/electronic) affects risk assessment regarding tampering/intimidation.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed precedents recognizing that where evidence is primarily documentary/electronic and ocular evidence consists of official witnesses, the risk of tampering or influencing testimony is low and therefore lessens resistance to bail, subject to suitable conditions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the prosecution's evidence is essentially documentary and electronic, ocular testimony would be by official witnesses, and the accused had no prior criminal history. Combining these factors, the Court found no substantial apprehension of tampering or influencing and accordingly imposed stringent conditional bail to protect the trial process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - documentary/electronic character of prosecution evidence and absence of antecedents are material to the grant of bail and support conditional release where appropriate conditions can adequately protect the prosecution's case. Remarks on the anticipated duration of trial and types of evidence anticipated are explanatory.
Conclusion: Documentary/electronic evidence and lack of antecedents justify bail on conditions that (inter alia) require appearance at trial, prohibition on inducement/threat/promise to witnesses, and restraint from criminal/anti-social activity; breach will permit cancellation application by prosecution.
Cross-reference on Conditions and Enforcement
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court explicitly limited its relief to bail subject to a personal bond and two sureties, and specific conditions to ensure attendance and prevent tampering; it retained jurisdiction to cancel bail on breach. The Court clarified that its observations are confined to bail disposal and bear no on merits at trial.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - imposition of enumerated protective conditions is integral to grant of bail in such cases; clarification limiting observations to bail proceedings is procedural and binding on interpretation of the order, not on merits of the substantive case.
Conclusion: Bail is granted on stated conditions with liberty to prosecution to seek cancellation upon breach; judicial observations are confined to bail context and do not influence trial merits.
Seeking release on bail - it is alleged that applicant through input tax credit committed the tax evasion of more than Rs. Twenty Crores - for offences maximum punishment of five years have been provided - HELD THAT:- The Apex Court in the case of Vineet Jain Vs. Union of India [2025 (5) TMI 925 - SC ORDER] held that 'The maximum sentence is of 5 years with fine. A charge-sheet has been filed. The appellant is in custody for a period of almost 7 months. The case is triable by a Court of a Judicial Magistrate. The sentence is limited and in any case, the prosecution is based on documentary evidence. There are no antecedents We are surprised to note that in a case like this, the appellant has been denied the benefit of bail at all levels, including the High Court and ultimately, he was forced to approach this Court.'
Further considering the fact that entire case of GST is based on documentary evidence, therefore, considerable period of time will be consumed in deciding the trial, Apex Court in the case of Ratnambar Kaushik Vs. Union of India [2022 (12) TMI 263 - SUPREME COURT] held that 'Needless to mention that the petitioner if released on bail, is required to adhere to the conditions to be imposed and diligently participate in the trial. Further, in a case of the present nature, the evidence to be tendered by the respondent would essentially be documentary and electronic. The ocular evidence will be through official witnesses, due to which there can be no apprehension of tampering, intimidating or influencing. Therefore, keeping all these aspects in perspective, in the facts and circumstances of the present case, we find it proper to grant the prayer made by the petitioner.'
Therefore, considering the facts and circumstances of the case and the law laid down by the Apex Court in the above noted cases, in view of this Court, applicant is entitled to be released on bail - Accordingly, without expressing any opinion on the merits of the case, the instant bail application is allowed.
The applicant is allowed to be released on bail subject to fulfilment of conditions imposed - bail application allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a rectified refund application filed after issuance of a deficiency memo under Rule 90(3) of the CGST Rules constitutes a fresh application for the purpose of computing the two-year limitation under Section 54(1) of the CGST Act, or is a continuation of the original application such that limitation is reckoned from the date of the original filing.
2. Whether the period from the date of filing of the refund claim in FORM GST RFD-01 until the date of communication of deficiencies in FORM GST RFD-03 by the proper officer must be excluded from the two-year limitation under Section 54(1) when a rectified/fresh refund application is filed after rectification.
3. Whether reliance on administrative Circular No.125/44/2019-GST (para 12) to reject a refund on limitation grounds is tenable where the proviso to Rule 90(3) (Notification No.15/2021) and the statutory scheme indicate otherwise.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Continuation vs. Fresh Application for Limitation
Legal framework: Section 54(1) CGST Act prescribes refund application within two years from the relevant date; Rule 90(3) CGST Rules provides that upon communication of deficiencies the proper officer may require filing of a fresh refund application after rectification; Rule 89(2) prescribes documentary requirements making an application complete.
Precedent treatment: Decisions of higher and coordinate courts (e.g., National Internet Exchange of India and subsequent High Court rulings) hold that where an application is complete in terms of Rule 89(2) the limitation period stops on original filing and a mere deficiency memo seeking further documents does not render the original application non est for limitation purposes.
Interpretation and reasoning: A contextual reading of Rule 90(3) with Rule 89 indicates deficiencies that render an application incomplete are distinct from further verifications or demands for additional documents. If the original filing satisfied the documentary requirements of Rule 89(2), the application cannot be ignored for limitation purposes merely because the officer later seeks clarifications. Treating every rectified filing as a wholly fresh cause would frustrate the objective of Section 54(1) and deny taxpayers the protection of the original filing date where the filing was in "form and manner" prescribed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an original refund application meets Rule 89(2) requirements, subsequent rectifications do not reset limitation and the time stops running on the date of original filing. Obiter - observations on hypothetical categories of deficiencies not falling within Rule 89(2) where fresh filing might be necessary.
Conclusion: Rectified refund applications filed in continuity of an original application that was complete within Rule 89(2) are to be treated as continuation for limitation purposes; they do not attract a fresh two-year limitation period counted from the rectified filing.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Exclusion of Period Between Filing and Deficiency Communication
Legal framework: Proviso inserted to Rule 90(3) by Notification No.15/2021 expressly provides that the period from filing FORM GST RFD-01 till communication of deficiencies in FORM GST RFD-03 shall be excluded from the two-year period for any fresh refund claim filed after rectification.
Precedent treatment: High Court and Delhi/Bombay decisions interpret the proviso as clarificatory, aligning Rule 90(3) with Section 54(1) so that the running of limitation is suspended while the application remains under deficiency notice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The proviso is clarificatory and effectuates the legislative intent of Section 54(1). Excluding the interval between initial filing and deficiency communication prevents penalizing taxpayers for time consumed in official processing and aligns procedural rule with statutory limitation. Calculation of excluded days must be factual and applied to the two-year limitation to determine whether rectified filing falls within time.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the period from initial filing to deficiency communication must be excluded from the two-year limitation when a rectified/fresh claim is filed after rectification; application of the proviso is mandatory where facts fit. Obiter - numerical examples and calculation methods for exclusion.
Conclusion: Notification No.15/2021's proviso to Rule 90(3) applies and the exclusion of the period between original filing and deficiency communication must be applied in computing the two-year period; where so computed the rectified filing falls within limitation, the claim cannot be rejected on limitation grounds.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Applicability of Administrative Circular (Para 12) and Compatibility with Statutory Scheme
Legal framework: Administrative circulars/guidelines must operate consistent with statutory provisions and rules; Section 54(1) and Rule 90(3) (with proviso) govern limitation and treatment of rectified applications.
Precedent treatment: Courts have held that administrative instructions cannot be applied in a manner contrary to clear statutory provisions or rules interpreted by courts - reliance on circulars to deny substantive statutory rights is impermissible.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where the statutory scheme and Rule 90(3) (as clarified by Notification No.15/2021) indicate that initial filing and the excluded period protect the taxpayer's right to claim refund, administrative circular clauses cannot be invoked to bypass that protection. If the circular would preclude allowance of a refund by compelling the appellate authority to reject on limitation even where exclusion applies, such reliance is unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - administrative circular cannot override or be applied inconsistent with the statutory exclusion under Rule 90(3) proviso and Section 54(1). Obiter - remarks on the non-pressing of challenge to the circular by the petitioner and on administrative practice.
Conclusion: Clause relied upon in the administrative circular is not applicable to deny a refund where statutory rules and their proviso (Notification No.15/2021) demonstrate that the rectified filing is within the prescribed limitation; circular cannot be used to defeat such statutory protection.
DISPOSITION AND RELIEF - COURT'S CONCLUSIONS
1. The impugned order rejecting the refund on the ground of limitation is quashed and set aside.
2. The rectified refund application is restored for fresh consideration on merits by the proper officer.
3. The proper officer is directed to consider the refund claim in accordance with law, applying the exclusion under the proviso to Rule 90(3)/Notification No.15/2021 and the principles stated, and to complete adjudication within 12 weeks from receipt of the order.
4. Rule made absolute to the stated extent; no order as to costs.
Rectified refund application filed after issuance of a deficiency memo under Rule 90(3) of the CGST Rules - subsequent to the refund application triggered with deficiency memo issued in Form RFD-03 is merely continuation of proceedings or fresh cause - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, the first deficiency memo was issued on 09.01.2020. It is therefore clear that time period from the date of filing of the refund claim in Form GST RFD-01 till the date of communication of the deficiency in the Form of GST RFD-03 by the proper officer is required to be excluded from the period of two years, as specified in respect of any such fresh refund claim filed by the applicant after rectification of the deficiency. However the issue is no more res integra with the decision of this Court in case of M/s. La-Gajjar Machineries Private Limited v. Union of India & Ors. [2023 (9) TMI 1518 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] where it was held that 'The impugned order dated 9th November 2020 passed by the respondent No. 4 – The Joint Commissioner (Appeals) confirming the order dated 11th March 2020 passed by the Deputy Commissioner, Central GST, Division-I, Ahmedabad-South rejecting the application for refund filed by the petitioner on the ground of limitation is hereby quashed and set aside.'
In view of the decision rendered by this Court in M/s. La-Gajjar Machineries Pvt. Ltd., the petition succeeds. The impugned order dated 24.11.2023 passed by the respondent rejecting the application of refund in Form RFD-06 filed by the petitioner on the ground of limitation is hereby quashed and set aside. The third rectified refund application dated 16.08.2023 is restored for consideration of the proper officer afresh on merits.
Petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether seized electronic devices, documents, records and books which were produced by a taxable person are liable to be returned under Section 67(3) of the CGST Act where they have not been relied upon for issuance of notice.
2. Whether the person from whose custody documents or electronic devices are seized is entitled to make copies or take extracts of seized material under Section 67(5) of the CGST Act, and the scope of the proviso permitting denial where such copying would be "prejudicial to the investigation".
3. Whether the GST authority may require personal appearance of the person from whom material is seized for recording statements and confronting him with seized material, and whether refusal to cooperate can justify withholding copies or return.
4. Whether forensic downloading/cloning of data at the time of seizure affects the entitlement to copies or return of the original devices.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Return of seized documents/electronic devices under Section 67(3) CGST Act
Legal framework: Section 67(3) provides that documents, books or things produced by a taxable person and not relied upon for issue of notice must be returned within thirty days of the issue of such notice.
Precedent Treatment: No prior judicial authorities were cited or relied upon in the judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court interprets Section 67(3) as a statutory entitlement in favour of the taxed person where seized material has not formed the basis for any notice under the Act. The provision sets a clear timeline (thirty days) for return where the material is not relied upon for initiating proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the statutory mandate under Section 67(3) obliges the authority to return non-relied-upon material within the prescribed period.
Conclusion: Where material seized is not relied upon for issuance of notice, it ought to be returned in accordance with Section 67(3). The Court directed compliance with statutory obligations in line with this interpretation (applied to the facts by ordering the provision of copies and cooperation; return was not ordered where investigation required retention).
Issue 2: Entitlement to copies under Section 67(5) and the "prejudicial to the investigation" caveat
Legal framework: Section 67(5) entitles the person from whose custody documents are seized to make copies or take extracts in the presence of an authorised officer, except where making copies may, in the opinion of the proper officer, prejudicially affect the investigation.
Precedent Treatment: No authorities were cited; statutory language was the sole basis.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reads Section 67(5) as a clear statutory right to obtain copies or extracts of seized material, subject only to a written, reasoned exception where the proper officer records that providing copies would prejudice the investigation. The Court emphasizes the procedural requirement that copies be made in the presence of the authorised officer and that any denial must be recorded in writing stating prejudice to the investigation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - statutory right to copies exists and may be curtailed only where the proper officer records in writing that providing copies would be prejudicial to the investigation.
Conclusion: Copies of seized data cannot be denied as a matter of course; the authority must either provide copies in the presence of an authorised officer or record a written reason that disclosure would prejudice the investigation. On the facts, since forensic downloading and cloning had been undertaken, the Court directed that copies of the entire set of documents and data be provided in the authorised officer's presence, subject to cooperation.
Issue 3: Requirement of personal appearance and cooperation with investigation
Legal framework: While Section 67 confers powers of search and seizure, investigative process requires the authority to confront persons and record statements; cooperation is part of the investigatory framework.
Precedent Treatment: No precedents referenced.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recognises the respondent authority's procedural need to have the person from whose custody material was seized appear for recording of statements and confrontation with seized documents. The entitlement to copies is not absolute of necessity in isolation from investigatory needs; the person must cooperate with the investigation when required by the authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Part-ratio - the Court balanced the statutory entitlement to copies with the authority's investigative prerogative by directing appearance and cooperation as a precondition for provision of copies on the facts.
Conclusion: The person from whose custody material was seized is duty bound to cooperate with the investigation, including personal appearance for recording statement and confrontation; non-cooperation may justify procedural measures by the authority within the statutory scheme. The Court ordered personal appearance and provision of copies in the authorised officer's presence, and mandated cooperation.
Issue 4: Effect of forensic downloading/cloning on entitlement to copies/return
Legal framework: Section 67 authorises seizure and, indirectly, permits forensic examination consistent with investigative needs; Section 67(5) governs copying rights.
Precedent Treatment: None cited.
Interpretation and reasoning: The panchnama recorded that forensic experts had downloaded and cloned data and created master and working copies for investigation. The Court treats the fact of cloning/downloading as relevant to the respondent's ability to continue the investigation without retaining the originals, and as a factual basis to permit provision of copies to the person from whom items were seized, subject to cooperative compliance with investigatory procedures.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter/Applied-fact - the observation that cloning/downloading supports provision of copies is applied to the facts rather than laying a broad precedent about forensic evidence handling.
Conclusion: Forensic downloading and cloning of seized electronic data does not defeat the statutory right to copies; rather, where cloning has been conducted and the investigation can proceed, the authority should provide copies in the presence of an authorised officer. On the facts, the Court directed that copies (entire set of documents and data) be provided in the authorised officer's presence after the person appears and cooperates.
Cross-references and Practical Directions
1. Section 67(3) and Section 67(5) read together create a dual obligation: return (where not relied upon) within thirty days and an express right to make copies subject to recorded prejudice exception.
2. Any denial of copies must be recorded in writing by the proper officer stating that provision would be prejudicial to the investigation; absent such recording, copies must be provided in the presence of the authorised officer.
3. Cooperation (including personal appearance for recording statement and confrontation with seized material) is an implied procedural requirement; failure to cooperate may affect the manner and timing of return or copying.
Overall Conclusion
The Court construed Sections 67(3) and 67(5) of the CGST Act to establish (i) a statutory right to return of non-relied-upon seized material within thirty days; (ii) a statutory right to make copies of seized material in the presence of an authorised officer unless the proper officer records in writing that providing copies would prejudice the investigation; and (iii) the authority to require personal appearance and cooperation for investigatory purposes. Applying these principles to the facts, the Court directed personal appearance before the GST authority and provision of copies of the entire set of documents and data in the presence of an authorised officer, while noting the petitioner's duty to cooperate.
Seeking return of the electronic devices, documents, records, books, etc., seized from the Petitioner - Petitioner submits that since the GST Department has already made copies of all the records, including the electronic gadgets, the devices should be returned - HELD THAT:- Section 67 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 vests the power of inspection, search, seizure and arrest with the GST Department - In terms of Section 67(3) of the CGST Act, the documents or other gadgets etc., produced by a taxable person, if not relied upon by the GST Department, are to be returned within a period of 30 days.
A perusal of Section 67(5) of the CGST Act clearly shows that copies of the seized data cannot be denied to the Petitioner. However, such copies can be made in the presence of an Authorised Officer, unless it is recorded in writing, that providing copies would be prejudicial to the investigation.
Thus, it is evident from the foregoing that the GST Department has downloaded the data and cloning has also been completed, although some part of it may still be outstanding - Be that as it may, in order to resolve this issue, it is directed that the proprietor of the Petitioner, shall appear in person before the GST Department and in the presence of an Authorised Officer, copies of the entire set of documents and data shall be provided to him.
The present petition is disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether an officer below the rank of Joint Commissioner can inspect the premises of a taxable person without authorisation from the Joint Commissioner. (ii) Whether the authorisation issued by the Joint Commissioner under section 67 has to be furnished to the taxable person.
Issue (i): Whether an officer below the rank of Joint Commissioner can inspect the premises of a taxable person without authorisation from the Joint Commissioner.
Analysis: Under section 67(1), the power to form the requisite reasons to believe vests in the proper officer not below the rank of Joint Commissioner, and only thereafter may another officer be authorised in writing to inspect the place of business. The inspection power is therefore not exercisable independently by an officer below that rank. On the facts, the authorisation issued by the Joint Commissioner showed compliance with the statutory scheme.
Conclusion: An officer below the rank of Joint Commissioner cannot inspect the premises of a taxable person without authorisation from the Joint Commissioner.
Issue (ii): Whether the authorisation issued by the Joint Commissioner under section 67 has to be furnished to the taxable person.
Analysis: The information leading to the formation of reasons to believe may be confidential and need not be disclosed to the taxable person. However, the inspecting officer should inform the taxable person that authorisation has been received from the Joint Commissioner. A copy of the authorisation and the underlying reasons are not required to be supplied to the taxable person.
Conclusion: The authorisation and the details of the Joint Commissioner's order need not be provided to the taxable person, though the fact of authorisation must be intimated during inspection.
Final Conclusion: The challenge to the inspection proceedings failed because the statutory precondition of authorisation was satisfied and no legal infirmity was shown in the respondents' action.
Ratio Decidendi: Under section 67, inspection by a subordinate officer is valid only when preceded by reasons to believe recorded by the Joint Commissioner and authorisation in writing, while the underlying confidential material need not be disclosed to the taxable person.
Power of inspection, search and seizure - authorisation under Section 67(1) - requirement of application of mind by the Joint Commissioner - confidentiality of information relied upon for authorisation - duty to inform the taxable person of the authorisation
Power of inspection, search and seizure - authorisation under Section 67(1) - requirement of application of mind by the Joint Commissioner - Any officer below the rank of Joint Commissioner cannot inspect the premises of a taxable person without authorisation from the Joint Commissioner. - HELD THAT: - The Court examined Sub-sections (1) and (2) of Section 67 and held that the statutory scheme contemplates that it is the proper officer not below the rank of Joint Commissioner who must have reasons to believe as specified in clause (a) or (b) of sub-section (1) and who may authorise in writing any other officer to inspect. Sub-section (2) permits the authorised officer to search, seize or confiscate pursuant to such authorisation. On the facts, the Joint Commissioner received information and issued a written authorisation to the Commercial Tax Officer; therefore the inspection carried out by the Commercial Tax Officer was pursuant to proper authorisation and compliant with Section 67. [Paras 10]
Held that an officer below the rank of Joint Commissioner cannot by himself inspect premises without authorisation from the Joint Commissioner; inspection is permissible only when authorised by the Joint Commissioner under Section 67(1).
Authorisation under Section 67(1) - confidentiality of information relied upon for authorisation - duty to inform the taxable person of the authorisation - Whether the written authorisation issued by the Joint Commissioner must be provided to the taxable person. - HELD THAT: - The Court recognised that the information on which the Joint Commissioner forms reasons to believe may be confidential and need not be disclosed to the taxable person. However, the Court mandated procedural fairness by requiring that the officer who carries out the inspection must at least inform the taxable person that authorisation has been received from the Joint Commissioner. The Court directed the relevant authority to instruct delegates to inform taxable persons of the existence of the authorisation, while holding that disclosure of the confidential information or the detailed contents of the Joint Commissioner's order is not required. [Paras 11]
Held that a copy of the authorisation and the confidential reasons need not be furnished to the taxable person, but the inspecting delegate must inform the taxable person that authorisation has been issued by the Joint Commissioner and provide details of the authorisation as required by the Court's directions.
Authorisation under Section 67(1) - Power of inspection, search and seizure - Whether the inspection and consequent actions taken in the present case were infirm and whether the writ relief should be granted. - HELD THAT: - Applying the conclusions on authorisation and the duty to inform, the Court found no infirmity in the actions of respondent No.1 since the Commercial Tax Officer acted pursuant to the written authorisation issued by the Joint Commissioner. The petitioner failed to establish any legal defect in the issuance or execution of the authorisation which would warrant quashing of the inspection or other reliefs sought. Consequently, the writ petitions did not merit interference. [Paras 12]
No relief granted; the petition is dismissed as the inspection carried out pursuant to the Joint Commissioner's authorisation is valid.
Final Conclusion: The High Court held that only a proper officer not below the rank of Joint Commissioner may form reasons to believe and authorise inspections under Section 67(1); confidential material relied upon for that satisfaction need not be disclosed to the taxable person, but the inspecting delegate must inform the taxable person that authorisation has been received. Applying these principles, the inspection in question was valid and the writ petition was dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the High Court should exercise writ jurisdiction under Article 226 to interfere with multiple Orders-in-Original raising demands arising out of alleged fraudulent availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC), where statutory appellate remedy under the CGST framework exists.
2. Whether the three distinct Orders-in-Original, arising from separate investigations and affecting numerous recipients, can be challenged jointly in a single writ petition as opposed to separate statutory appeals.
3. Whether any of the recognized exceptions to non-interference with alternative statutory remedies (breach of fundamental rights; violation of principles of natural justice; excess of jurisdiction; challenge to vires of statute or delegated legislation) are made out from the record to justify exercise of extraordinary writ jurisdiction.
4. Whether pre-deposit already made by the petitioner requires adjustment if separate appeals are filed against the Orders-in-Original.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Writ jurisdiction v. statutory remedy under CGST Act
Legal framework: The CGST scheme provides an alternate statutory remedy of appeal (Section 107 and related provisions) for challenging assessment/demand orders. Article 226 is an extraordinary jurisdiction to be exercised sparingly where statutory remedies are inadequate or exceptional circumstances exist.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows and applies the principle reiterated by the Supreme Court that existence of an alternate remedy is not an absolute bar but writ jurisdiction is permissible only in exceptional circumstances - specifically where one of the recognised exceptions (breach of fundamental rights; violation of natural justice; excess of jurisdiction; or challenge to vires) is established.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court analysed the three impugned orders in the context of large-scale, fact-intensive investigations into fraudulent ITC and concluded that such disputes involve complex factual inquiries unsuitable for adjudication in writ proceedings. The Court relied on prior authority holding that matters involving detailed factual assessment under the CGST scheme are to be resolved through the statutory appellate forum rather than through writ jurisdiction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where statutory appellate remedy exists and the dispute involves fact-intensive adjudication of fraudulent ITC claims, writ jurisdiction will not ordinarily be exercised; parties must be relegated to statutory appeal unless exceptional circumstances are shown. Obiter - Observations on the general unsuitability of writs for fact-heavy GST investigations reinforce but do not expand the legal exceptions.
Conclusions: The Court refused to entertain the writ petition and directed the petitioner to pursue the statutory appellate remedy; this refusal forms the operative ratio on non-exercise of Article 226 in fact-intensive GST ITC disputes.
Issue 2 - Challenge to multiple distinct Orders-in-Original in one writ
Legal framework: Principles of joinder and subject-matter specificity apply; appealability and distinct factual matrices favour separate proceedings where orders arise from independent investigations affecting numerous third parties.
Precedent treatment: The Court treated prior decisions emphasising availability of alternate statutory remedies and the need to address distinct factual situations through appropriate appeals as authoritative guidance.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found each Order-in-Original to arise from separate investigations, involve different groups of alleged bogus suppliers and recipients, and to raise distinct demands. The mere presence of the same petitioner in multiple lists did not render the orders common or fungible for a single writ challenge. Joint adjudication in writ would be inappropriate given separate factual matrices and statutory appealability.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Distinct Orders-in-Original emerging from separate investigations and raising independent demands should be challenged separately through the statutory appellate mechanism rather than collectively by a single writ petition. Obiter - Remarks on practical inconvenience of fragmented litigation and on administrative efficiency are ancillary.
Conclusions: The Court directed the petitioner to file separate appeals against each Order-in-Original and declined to permit a consolidated writ challenge to supplant the statutory appeal process.
Issue 3 - Applicability of exceptions to deferment to statutory remedy (natural justice, service of notice, short notice period)
Legal framework: Exceptional interference under Article 226 requires demonstrable breach of fundamental rights or principles of natural justice, excess of jurisdiction, or vires challenge to the statute.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied precedent holding that mere grievance about service or brief notice without proof of denial of opportunity or substantive procedural injustice does not justify bypassing statutory remedies.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner alleged non-service of one Order-in-Original, non-consideration of a reply to an SCN, and an alleged inadequate seven-day gap between SCN and final order in another instance. The Court found no sufficient demonstration of systemic breach of natural justice or jurisdictional excess in the material before it; factual contentions of procedural lapse are matters to be examined in appeal where evidence and appellate fact-finding can be undertaken.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Allegations of procedural infirmity (non-service, non-consideration of reply, short gap) absent clear proof of denial of opportunity or jurisdictional excess do not constitute exceptional circumstances to oust the statutory appeal route. Obiter - The Court's comments on the need for appellants to raise such points in the appellate forum are illustrative guidance.
Conclusions: No exceptional circumstances were found to justify writ interference; procedural grievances must be raised and adjudicated in the appellate proceedings.
Issue 4 - Treatment of pre-deposit and directions on filing of appeals
Legal framework: The CGST appellate mechanism permits adjustment of pre-deposits and imposes timelines for filing appeals; courts routinely direct filing of appeals with appropriate directions for adjustment of any amounts already deposited.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed established practice of permitting appellate adjudication and directing adjustment of any antecedent pre-deposits in favour of the appellant.
Interpretation and reasoning: Recognising that a pre-deposit had been made, the Court directed that such deposit be adjusted against the appeals to be filed. To avoid prejudice, the Court granted a limited period for filing appeals and required appellate authorities to decide on merits with reasoned orders.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a writ is declined and a pre-deposit has been made, the appellate authority must give adjustment/credit for such deposit in the appeals; the appellate authority must decide the appeals on merits and pass reasoned orders. Obiter - Timelines prescribed by the Court for filing are case-management directions.
Conclusions: The petitioner was permitted to file separate appeals by a specified date and any pre-deposit already made to be adjusted; the appellate authority was directed to adjudicate the appeals on merits with reasoned orders.
Cross-References and Administrative Directions
1. The Court repeatedly cross-referenced the principal principle that Article 226 is discretionary and to be exercised only in exceptional situations; this underpins the refusal to entertain the writs in all three distinct ITC demand orders.
2. Administrative direction: appeals to be filed within the time allowed by the Court and to be adjudicated on merits with reasoned orders; observations in the order are not intended to influence final adjudication on merits.
Violation of principles of natural justice - Service of SCN - original order was passed without any Show Cause Notice being served to the Petitioner, neither on his registered address, nor uploaded on the GST portal of the Petitioner - Demands arising out of Input Tax Credit (ITC) that has been availed by the Petitioner - HELD THAT:- In cases involving availment of fraudulent ITC, there are several factual issues, which would need to be looked into, which cannot be adjudicated in a writ petition. This view has already been taken by this Court in various decisions. Further, the Supreme Court in the context of CGST Act, has, in The Assistant Commissioner of State Tax & Ors. v. M/s Commercial Steel Limited [2021 (9) TMI 480 - SUPREME COURT], held that 'There was, in fact, no violation of the principles of natural justice since a notice was served on the person in charge of the conveyance. In this backdrop, it was not appropriate for the High Court to entertain a writ petition. The assessment of facts would have to be carried out by the appellate authority.'
The said legal position has also been reiterated by this Court in M/s Sheetal and Sons & Ors. v. Union of India & Anr. [2025 (5) TMI 1609 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and by the Allahabad High Court in Elesh Aggarwal v. Union of India [2023 (6) TMI 362 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] wherein the Allahabad High Court has held that no ground is made for interference on merits in exercise of extra ordinary jurisdiction.
Under these circumstances, in cases involving fraudulent availment of ITC, writ jurisdiction usually ought not to be exercised. Thus, the Court is not inclined to entertain the present writ petition - The Petitioner is permitted to file separate appeals challenging each of the three Orders-in-Original. If any amount has already been deposited, adjustment thereof be given to the Petitioner in respect of the pre-deposits.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a notice under Section 148 and an order under Section 148A(d) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 initiating reassessment proceedings for an assessment year prior to 01 April 2021 is barred by the Proviso to Section 149 read with the time-limits as they stood immediately prior to the Finance Act, 2021 amendments.
2. Whether, in light of binding higher-court authority on the temporal operation of Section 149, the Revenue may proceed with reassessment for an assessment year whose pre-amendment limitation period has expired.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of Proviso to Section 149 and pre-amendment limitation periods
Legal framework: The Proviso to Section 149 restricts issuance of a notice under Section 148 in respect of an assessment year prior to 01 April 2021 if the period within which such notice could have been issued "as they stood immediately prior to the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021" had expired. Prior to Finance Act, 2021, Section 149(1)(b) operated with a four-to-six year window such that reassessment beyond six years from the end of the relevant assessment year was impermissible.
Precedent treatment: The Court applies the doctrine that Proviso to Section 149 requires retrospective reference to the earlier statutory time-limits and treats pre-amendment limitation as the controlling constraint for AYs before 01 April 2021. The Court relies on higher-court authority confirming that reassessment for a year prior to 01 April 2021 must satisfy pre-amendment limitation periods.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Proviso embodies a negative command preventing issuance of a Section 148 notice where the earlier time-bar had already expired. Interpreting the phrase "as they stood immediately prior to the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021" obliges the authority to test the validity of reassessment initiation against the earlier statutory scheme. Hence, where six years from the end of the assessment year had elapsed before the notice was issued, the reassessment cannot be sustained. The Court finds that for the relevant assessment year the six-year terminal point had passed prior to issuance of the impugned notice, rendering the initiation impermissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that the Proviso to Section 149 requires reference to pre-amendment limitation periods and thereby bars notices issued after the earlier six-year terminal point is ratio decidendi for the decision on validity of the impugned notice and order.
Conclusions: The impugned order under Section 148A(d) and the consequential Section 148 notice are invalid because they were issued after the pre-amendment limitation period had expired; therefore reassessment could not lawfully be initiated.
Issue 2 - Effect of binding precedent and permissibility of continuing proceedings pending departmental review
Legal framework: Where higher-court decisions have construed the temporal operation of statutory amendments and limitation provisions, administrative action must conform to those judicial pronouncements. The administrative decision to continue proceedings despite a directly relevant High Court pronouncement raises questions of jurisdiction and finality.
Precedent treatment: The Court treats the relevant higher-court decision as controlling and notes the absence of any successful challenge to that decision. The Court rejects the departmental rationale that proceedings should be continued pending internal consideration of whether to file further appeals, when the judicial pronouncement clearly prohibits issuance of the notice in the circumstances.
Interpretation and reasoning: The departmental note which justified continuation of proceedings on the ground that the decision was "very recent" and under departmental consideration was considered legally insufficient to override the negative command of Section 149's Proviso as interpreted by binding judicial authority. Allowing reopening on the premise of administrative reassessment of judicial precedent would render the statutory protection nugatory. The Court emphasizes that if a legal bar operates (i.e., the limitation had already expired), administrative convenience or the department's intention to consider appeals cannot validate initiation of reassessment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The conclusion that administrative inaction or internal review cannot justify continuation of proceedings contrary to an applicable judicial interpretation of statutory time-bars is a ratio applied to invalidate the impugned action. Any observations about departmental practice are ancillary but necessary to the decision.
Conclusions: Reliance on internal departmental review or potential filing of leave petitions does not cure jurisdictional infirmity where reassessment is barred by the Proviso to Section 149 as read with pre-amendment time-limits. The proceedings and notice issued in such circumstances must be set aside.
Cross-reference and application
Where a binding judicial construction establishes that pre-amendment limitation periods govern reassessment for years before 01 April 2021, similarly situated reassessment actions falling beyond the earlier six-year terminal point must be quashed. The Court applies that principle to the present facts and sets aside the order under Section 148A(d) and the Section 148 notice issued thereafter.
Reopening of assessment - Assessment barred by limitation in terms of first proviso Section 149 - period of six years - HELD THAT:- As in view of the judgment of Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and of this court in Manju Somani [2024 (8) TMI 129 - DELHI HIGH COURT] the present petition needs to be allowed, we order so as held undisputedly, Section 149(1)(b) as it stood prior to the introduction of the amendments by way of Finance Act, 2021 prescribed that no notice under Section 148 shall be issued if four years “but not more than six years” have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. Thus the period of six years stood erected as the terminal point which when crossed would have rendered the initiation of reassessment impermissible in law.
Additionally, we note that the issue in Manju Somani (supra) was relatable to the AY 2016-17. If that be so, the present petition being of the earlier AY 2015-16 it should naturally follow the same course. Consequently, the impugned order passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act and the notice issued under Section 148 of the Act are set aside. Decided in favour of assessee.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the notice issued under Section 148A(1) of the Income Tax Act and the order under Section 148A(3) authorising issuance of a notice under Section 148 are legally sustainable insofar as they proceed from information of a financial transaction (share sale) in respect of which no return was filed.
2. Whether, before issuing a notice under Section 148A(1) or proceeding under Section 148A(3), the Assessing Officer is required to record that the amount of income likely to have escaped assessment exceeds Rs. 50 lakhs (i.e., express finding that threshold in Section 149(1)(b) is met).
3. Whether an Assessing Officer, in issuing or sustaining reassessment proceedings based on a detected transaction, must consider and deal with documentary/material replies (e.g., computation of capital gains/losses, share-purchase agreement, TRC, bank statements, forex reconciliation and cost records) filed by the assessee before passing the Section 148A(3) order.
4. Whether the appropriate remedy when the Assessing Officer has not considered the assessee's detailed replies and supporting documents is judicial quashal of the notices/orders or remand for de novo consideration with directions to consider materials and pass a reasoned order within a time limit.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of Section 148A(1) notice and Section 148A(3) order issued on information of a single financial transaction where no return was filed
Legal framework: Section 148A(1) permits issuance of a notice where the Assessing Officer has information that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; Section 148A(3) requires consideration of the assessee's reply and, if satisfied, issuance of notice under Section 148 for reassessment.
Precedent treatment: The petitioner relied on authorities addressing the requirement of specificity in the officer's satisfaction and threshold findings (earlier decisions cited before the Court). The Court did not adjudicate on those precedents because the petitioner expressly refrained from pressing the legality plea in relation to the Section 148A(1) notice and waived the limitation plea.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the Assessing Officer proceeded on information of a Rs. 7,43,27,348 share transaction and issued Section 148A(1) notice because the taxpayer had not filed a return for the year. The Assessing Officer's Section 148A(3) order did not appear to engage with the detailed replies and computations submitted by the taxpayer. Given the lapse in considering the material put forth, the Court concluded that remand for fresh consideration was the appropriate course rather than quashal on substantive validity grounds which the petitioner did not press.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the Assessing Officer has not considered or dealt with the assessee's detailed replies and supporting documents in issuing a Section 148A(3) order, remedial direction for fresh consideration is appropriate. Obiter - no determination was made on whether a solitary transaction alone suffices for initiation of reassessment when a return is not filed, because the petitioner did not press that challenge.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the impugned order and notice dated 30.06.2025 and remanded the matter for fresh consideration; it did not decide the substantive legality of the Section 148A(1) notice.
Issue 2 - Requirement to record that escaped income exceeds Rs. 50 lakhs before initiating reassessment under Section 149(1)(b)
Legal framework: Section 149(1)(b) prescribes conditions for situations where reassessment is permissible; the argument raised related to whether the Assessing Officer must first express satisfaction that the amount escaping assessment exceeds the statutory monetary threshold before invoking reassessment machinery.
Precedent treatment: Counsel relied on multiple authorities holding that thresholds and requisite expressions of satisfaction must be indicated; however, the Court expressly did not decide the controversy because the petitioner withdrew that legal challenge in the course of proceedings.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded the contention that the Assessing Officer ought to have expressed that the escaped income exceeded Rs. 50 lakhs. But since the petitioner declined to press that ground and undertook not to urge a limitation objection, the Court refrained from adjudicating the threshold requirement issue and instead directed fresh consideration of the materials.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - no judicial determination on the need for a pre-expressed finding that escaped income exceeds Rs. 50 lakhs was made.
Conclusion: The issue remained undecided; the remand preserves the assessee's opportunity to place documents and for the Assessing Officer to form and record views (including if relevant, on any threshold under Section 149(1)(b)).
Issue 3 - Obligation to consider documentary evidence and the assessee's computation before passing an order under Section 148A(3)
Legal framework: Section 148A(3) requires the Assessing Officer to consider the assessee's reply to the Section 148A(1) notice before forming a view on issuance of a notice under Section 148; administrative fairness and statutory mandate demand that material relied upon by the assessee be considered and reasons recorded when proceeding to reassessment.
Precedent treatment: Authorities on statutory requirement to consider replies and produce reasoned orders were referred to in submissions; the Court's directions align with settled administrative-law principles that a assessing officer must give reasons and deal with material placed before it.
Interpretation and reasoning: The taxpayer submitted detailed computations showing capital loss and gain components, and offered to produce share purchase agreement (if any), TRC, bank statements and full reconciliation of forex and cost. The Assessing Officer's order, as challenged, did not expressly deal with those materials. The Court concluded that the Assessing Officer must be given an opportunity to consider the materials and pass a reasoned, speaking order after giving prior notice with sufficient time for compliance.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an order under Section 148A(3) that does not consider or address the assessee's detailed replies and supporting documents is susceptible to being set aside and remanded for fresh, reasoned consideration. The direction that the AO consider all documents, give prior notice, and pass a speaking order within a fixed period is a binding remedial direction in the particular case.
Conclusion: The matter was remitted to the Assessing Officer to consider the documents proffered and any other documents he deems appropriate, to give prior notice and sufficient time, and to pass a reasoned and speaking order within 12 weeks.
Issue 4 - Appropriate remedy: quash vs. remand when AO fails to consider material - and limits on adjudication by the Court
Legal framework: Judicial review empowers courts to quash administrative action where illegal or tainted by failure to follow statutory procedure; but when the primary defect is failure to consider material, remand for fresh decision is a recognized and appropriate remedy, subject to waiver by parties of certain pleas.
Precedent treatment: While earlier cases were cited concerning requirements of satisfaction and recording reasons, the Court emphasized that the petitioner had chosen not to press certain legal objections and had offered to supply additional material, making remand an equitable and efficient remedy.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court balanced the issues: the petitioner tendered to supply documents and explicitly did not press the legality and limitation pleas; the Assessing Officer had not considered the submitted computations. Given those circumstances, the Court determined that remand with clear directions for reasoned decision-making and a strict outer time limit was preferable to outright quashal or immediate adjudication on contested legal points which the petitioner had waived.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the assessee both offers to supply necessary supporting documents and refrains from pressing certain legal objections, the Court may set aside the impugned order and remand for fresh consideration rather than decide raised legal questions; the Tribunal must consider the new material and pass a reasoned order within a specified timeframe. Obiter - no ruling on substantive merits of the reassessment is undertaken.
Conclusion: The Court set aside the impugned order and notice dated 30.06.2025 and remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer with directions to consider the documents (including TRC, bank statements, forex reconciliation and cost records), to give prior notice with sufficient time, and to pass a reasoned and speaking order within 12 weeks; other pending applications were rendered infructuous.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 -invocation of provisions of Section 149(1) (b) - HELD THAT:- We by taking on record the submission made by Mr. Sawhney that the petitioner shall not plead that the passing of the order u/s 148A (3) of the Act is beyond the period of limitation, and also his plea that he is not pressing the plea of legality of the notice u/s 148A (1) of the Act, set aside the order and notice dated 30.06.2025 and remand the matter back to the AO for a fresh consideration.
AO shall consider the documents as stated above and also considering any other document and reply (if any) which he deem it appropriate to call from the petitioner after giving a prior notice to the petitioner with sufficient time, pass a reasoned and speaking order.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an order passed under Section 148A(d) and a notice issued under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of Assessment Year 2015-16 after 1 April 2021 are barred by limitation as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 read with the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA/TOLA-related provisions).
2. Whether the concession made on behalf of the Revenue in the Supreme Court decision concerning the effect of TOLA on limitation (as applied to AY 2015-16) is binding for quashing notices/orders issued post 1 April 2021.
3. Whether earlier High Court decisions applying the Rajeev Bansal concession (including decisions of this Court) are applicable to set aside impugned orders/notices in the present facts.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework
* The relevant statutory provisions are Section 148 (notice for reopening), Section 148A(d) (order following issue of notice under Section 148A), Section 149 (limitation for reassessment) as amended by the Finance Act, 2021, and the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA), which provides temporal relief/extension applicable to limitation periods.
* TOLA contains transitional application provisions (TOLA read with Section 3) that affect the computation of limitation for notices issued in the period affected by pandemic-related relaxations.
Issue 1 - Precedent treatment (followed)
* The Court follows the concession recorded in the Supreme Court decision (Rajeev Bansal) that, insofar as AY 2015-16 is concerned, notices issued on or after 1 April 2021 do not fall for completion during the period prescribed under TOLA and therefore must be dropped.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
* The Court accepts the legal proposition that, when Section 149(1)(b) is read with TOLA, the effect is that the extended/computed limitation period renders notices issued on or after 1 April 2021 in relation to AY 2015-16 time-barred.
* The Court relies on tabular reasoning in the Rajeev Bansal discussion showing that for AY 2015-16 the six-year limitation period as extended by TOLA does not subsist for notices issued on or after 1 April 2021; consequently such notices cannot be validly sustained.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
* Ratio: The binding ratio adopted is that TOLA, when applied to Section 149 as construed in Rajeev Bansal, results in notices under Section 148 and orders under Section 148A(d) issued on or after 1 April 2021 in respect of AY 2015-16 being time-barred and liable to be quashed.
* Obiter: Ancillary observations on other assessment years and tabular comparisons in the cited decisions are explanatory and not necessary to the specific holding for AY 2015-16 in this judgment.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
* The impugned order under Section 148A(d) and notice under Section 148 dated after 1 April 2021 in respect of AY 2015-16 are quashed as barred by limitation when Section 149 is read with TOLA.
Issue 2 - Legal framework
* Authority and effect of concessions made by the Revenue before the Supreme Court; principles of judicial acceptance of concessions and their binding effect on subsequent proceedings.
Issue 2 - Precedent treatment (followed)
* The Court treats the Revenue's concession recorded in Rajeev Bansal as determinative for the factual and legal position relating to AY 2015-16; subsequent Supreme Court allowance of appeals (e.g., Deepak Steel and Power Ltd.) that noted the same concession reinforces its binding effect.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
* Where the Revenue concedes that notices issued on or after 1 April 2021 for AY 2015-16 must be dropped, courts may give effect to that concession and set aside the impugned notices/orders without further contested adjudication.
* The Court observes that the concession has been followed and applied in multiple High Court decisions of coordinate and superior authority, supporting immediate quashing of the notices in like cases.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
* Ratio: A recorded concession before the Supreme Court that a class of notices is time-barred under TOLA for AY 2015-16 is binding on subsequent consideration of identical legal and factual issues and compels quashing of such notices.
* Obiter: Discussion of concessions as a general procedural phenomenon is explanatory.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
* The Revenue's concession, as recorded in the Supreme Court decisions relied upon, is applied to hold the impugned notices/orders invalid and to quash them.
Issue 3 - Legal framework
* Principles of precedent within High Courts and reliance on coordinate bench decisions; treatment of earlier decisions applying Rajeev Bansal concerning notices for AY 2015-16.
Issue 3 - Precedent treatment (followed/distinguished)
* The Court follows prior decisions of this Court (including Mectech Knitfabs and Lombard Portfolio) that applied the Rajeev Bansal concession and quashed notices/orders issued post-1 April 2021 for AY 2015-16.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
* Given identical statutory provisions and the dispositive concession, there is no room for distinguishing earlier High Court decisions on the point; the reasoning of those decisions is reiterated and applied to the present impugned order and notice.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
* Ratio: High Court precedents applying the Supreme Court concession are binding in similar factual contexts and justify setting aside of later notices/orders for AY 2015-16 issued on or after 1 April 2021.
* Obiter: Any broader commentary in those decisions concerning other assessment years is not necessary to the present holding.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
* The Court applies its earlier decisions that followed Rajeev Bansal to quash the present impugned order under Section 148A(d) and Section 148 notice and to set aside proceedings initiated pursuant thereto.
OVERALL CONCLUSIONS
* The Court, applying the statutory scheme (Section 149 as amended by the Finance Act, 2021, read with TOLA), the concession recorded in the Supreme Court decision, and consistent High Court authority, holds that notices and orders issued on or after 1 April 2021 in respect of AY 2015-16 are time-barred and must be quashed.
* The impugned order under Section 148A(d) and the notice under Section 148 in the present proceedings are set aside and all proceedings initiated pursuant thereto are annulled.
Validity of reopening of assessment -Extended Period of Limitation as per IT Act read with TOLA - Time limit for notice - period of limitation to issue notice - scope of Taxation and proceedings relating to the Assessment Year (AY) 2015-16, shall be barred by time in view of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Union of India and Ors. v. Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
HELD THAT:- As the issue being covered by the judgment of Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and Mectech knitfabs Pvt. Ltd [2025 (5) TMI 1967 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and Lombard Portfolio Pvt. Ltd. [2025 (8) TMI 385 - DELHI HIGH COURT] the impugned order and notice are set aside as held that impugned notice was issued on 27.07.2022, which was admittedly beyond the period of limitation as prescribed u/s 149 (1). Since TOLA was not applicable in respect of the said notices u/s 148 of the Act for AY 2015-16 as conceded by the Revenue in the case of Union of India v. Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], thus the impugned notice is liable to be set aside.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
Whether the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (Tribunal) was obliged to admit and act upon additional documentary and affidavit evidence produced by the assessees at the stage of the second appeal under Rule 29 of the Income Tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1963 when such evidence was not offered (or was incomplete) before the assessing authority and the first appellate authority.
Whether acceptance of the additional evidence would impermissibly permit revision of voluntary returns filed by the assessees (declaring seized cash as income from other sources) and thereby circumvent statutory restrictions against revision, in the context of unexplained cash seized and assessment under Section 69A and tax under Section 115BBE.
Whether the Tribunal's refusal to admit and act upon the belated affidavits and documentary material amounted to a legal infirmity warranting interference by the High Court.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Admissibility of additional evidence under Rule 29 ITAT Rules: Legal framework
Rule 29 permits the Tribunal to allow production of additional oral or documentary evidence only where the Tribunal requires it to enable it to pass orders, for any other substantial cause, or where income-tax authorities decided the case without giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee to adduce evidence; any allowance must be for reasons to be recorded.
Precedent treatment
The Court treated Rule 29 as a restrictive gateway: the Tribunal may admit additional evidence, but only on specified grounds (necessity for decision, substantial cause, or denial of opportunity by revenue authorities). The judgment follows the settled understanding that Rule 29 is not a roving permission to permit revisionary evidence at the appellate stage.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Court analysed the factual matrix: the assessees had declared the seized cash as income from other sources in returns; material explaining alternate sources (affidavits alleging monies from third parties, bank statements, third-party affidavits) was not placed before the assessing authority or the first appellate authority (one assessee remained ex parte). The belated affidavits and documents were produced only at the Tribunal stage. The Court reasoned that Rule 29's purpose is to permit evidence where the assessing authority prevented adducing it or where it is necessary for the Tribunal to decide; it does not license acceptance of afterthought material that attempts effectively to revise voluntarily filed returns.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: The Tribunal properly applied Rule 29 in refusing to admit belated affidavits and documents which were neither prevented from being produced earlier nor necessary for the Tribunal to decide in the sense contemplated by Rule 29; such refusal is permissible where the material is an afterthought and would amount to revising voluntary returns.
Conclusions
The Tribunal did not err in declining to act upon the additional evidence; Rule 29 authorises admission only in limited circumstances not present here.
Issue 2 - Effect of admitting additional evidence on voluntary returns and statutory revision limitations (Section 69A / Section 115BBE context)
Legal framework
Assessees had filed returns declaring the seized cash as income from other sources; assessments proceeded treating the amounts as unexplained cash under Section 69A and applying tax under Section 115BBE. Statutory scheme does not permit revision of voluntarily filed returns in a manner that would undermine the statutory assessment process by presenting new sources at a belated stage.
Precedent treatment
The Court treated the principle that voluntary returns cannot be unilaterally revised at appellate stages by adducing new evidence unless permitted by law or Rule 29 conditions; it followed established constraints on post hoc attempts to recast the basis of declared income.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Court observed that acceptance of the Tribunal-stage affidavits would effectively revise the returns by converting amounts declared as income into sums belonging to third parties or loans/gifts, thereby nullifying the statutory characterisation adopted in the returns and assessments. One assessee's allegation that cash belonged to an unparticipating third party who never asserted ownership at the original stage was treated as suspect and an afterthought. The Court emphasised that the Tribunal's discretion under Rule 29 cannot be exercised so as to enable revision of returns outside the statutory mechanism.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Admission of late evidence that would amount to revision of voluntary returns is impermissible unless Rule 29's conditions (prevention by assessing authority, necessity for decision, or substantial cause) are satisfied; where not satisfied, the Tribunal rightly refuses admission to prevent circumvention of statutory safeguards.
Conclusions
Admission of the belated evidence would have impermissibly allowed revision of voluntary returns; the Tribunal's refusal to act on that basis was justified.
Issue 3 - Whether the Tribunal's factual conclusions warranted interference
Legal framework
Appellate courts interfere with Tribunal factual findings only on demonstrable illegality, perversity, or failure to consider relevant material; discretionary refusals to admit evidence under Rule 29 are reviewable for patent absence of grounds or misapplication of rule.
Precedent treatment
The Court treated the Tribunal's conclusions as primarily factual and discretionary and applied the standard that absent a clear legal error or jurisdictional misapplication, such discretionary factual determinations should not be disturbed.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal recorded that the affidavits and documents were afterthoughts and that the assessees had opportunities earlier; one assessee had been ex parte earlier, and neither had made the same claims during earlier proceedings. Given these factual findings and the statutory constraints, the Court found no infirmity. The reasoning emphasised the temporal sequence of declarations, lack of prevention by revenue authorities, and the potential to revise returns.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Discretionary factual findings by the Tribunal refusing belated evidence founded on absence of Rule 29 grounds and characterization of the evidence as afterthought are not to be disturbed where supported by records.
Conclusions
The Tribunal's orders were sustainable on facts and law; there was no jurisdictional or legal error warranting interference, and the appeals were dismissed.
Cross-references
Issue 1 and Issue 2 are interlinked: the restrictive scope of Rule 29 (Issue 1) is determinative of whether admitting evidence would impermissibly revise returns (Issue 2); Issue 3 addresses appellate restraint in revisiting the Tribunal's exercise of that discretion.
Admission ofadditional evidence before the Tribunal - Scope of Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules - unexplained income u/s 69A - as contented additional evidence could be produced before the Tribunal under Rule 29 of the Income Tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1963
HELD THAT:- Tribunal requires to accept such additional evidence only in a situation where the assessee was prevented from adducing such evidence by the assessing authority.
In the case at hand, as noticed earlier, though Uma Maheshwara Rao Chinni claimed that the cash actually belonged to one Ramesh, no evidence was produced. Sravan Kumar Neela did not raise any such contention. He took up a stand that he was travelling to Kerala to set up a retail store for gold jewellery.
Uma Maheshwara Rao Chinni contended that he was planning to invest in a new petroleum business in Kerala. Before the first appellate authority, the afore affidavits were not produced.
Sravan Kumar Neela only relied on certain financial/bank statements of certain partnership businesses and income tax returns of some family members.
As already noticed, Uma Maheshwara Rao Chinni was set ex parte before the first appellate authority. It is thereafter that the respective appellants produced affidavits explaining the source before the Tribunal.
We are of the opinion that since returns have been presented by the respective appellants, declaring the respective figures as income from other sources, at the belated stage of the second appeal to the Tribunal, if the venture of the appellants is accepted, that would lead to the revision of the returns voluntarily filed, which is not possible under the statute.
This is all the more so when one of the appellants claims that the cash actually belonged to one Ramesh, who has never ventured to claim it at the original stage.
Additional evidence in the form of affidavits produced before the Tribunal is the result of an afterthought alone. The Tribunal is justified in refusing to act on the afore basis.
The orders of the Tribunal are virtually based on the factual situations noticed earlier, and no infirmity can be attached to those orders.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an addition under Section 69A can be sustained on the basis of entries in an undated loose paper seized from a third party's possession when no cash was seized from the assessee and no corroborative material links the entry to the assessee.
2. Whether the Assessing Officer's reliance on shorthand notations (e.g., "HR", "YOG") and an audio recording of conversations between third parties suffices to attribute unexplained cash receipts to the assessee for the purpose of Section 69A.
3. Whether interest under Sections 234A and 234B is tenable where the primary addition under Section 69A is deleted (i.e., whether such interest is consequential).
4. Whether penalty proceedings under the relevant penalty provision arising from the assessment are prematurely initiated or otherwise sustainabl? where the substantive addition is deleted.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of addition under Section 69A based on undated loose paper found in third party's possession
Legal framework: Section 69A permits deeming of unrecorded money as income where the assessee is the owner of money not recorded in books and the explanation as to source/acquisition is not satisfactory.
Precedent Treatment: No specific precedents were cited by lower authorities or by the parties in the material before the Tribunal; hence no precedent was followed, distinguished or overruled by the Court in this judgment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined whether the statutory precondition - that the assessee be the owner of the money - was satisfied by the material. The seized loose paper bearing an entry of Rs. 62,00,000/- was found in the possession of a third party (Surender Gupta), not in the possession or books of the assessee. The paper contained no date. In the absence of date, entries are presumed to relate to the year of search (financial year 2020-21), but the assessment year under challenge was for 2019-20 (AY 2020-21), creating a temporal mismatch. The AO did not produce corroborative material (no cash seized from the assessee, no entries in the assessee's books, no documentary link tying the note to the assessee) nor did the AO make enquiries about running bills referenced in the paper that might connect the entry to the assessee's transactions. Consequently, the statutory requirement of proving ownership or unrecorded possession by the assessee was unmet.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An addition under Section 69A cannot be sustained on the sole basis of an undated entry in a loose paper seized from a third party when (a) the entry is undated and therefore presumed to relate to the year of search not the year assessed, (b) no cash or corroborative material is found with the assessee, and (c) there is no satisfactory nexus established between the seized paper and the assessee. Obiter - the general statement regarding the presumption that undated entries relate to the year of search (applied in facts).
Conclusions: Addition of Rs. 62,00,000 under Section 69A was unjustified and deleted as the AO failed to establish that the money belonged to or was received by the assessee and the temporal nexus to the assessment year was absent.
Issue 2: Sufficiency of shorthand notations and audio recording to attribute cash receipts to the assessee
Legal framework: Attribution under Section 69A requires ownership/possession or an unsatisfactorily explained source; evidentiary links must connect seized material to the assessee.
Precedent Treatment: No authorities were relied upon to validate attribution based on shorthand or audio recordings; not applicable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal scrutinised the AO's reliance on shorthand notations ("CASH ANTH HR", "CASH ANTH YOG" or initials "HR", "YOG") to infer receipt by the assessee. The Tribunal found no independent proof that these notations referenced the assessee or that the initials denoted named persons acting on behalf of the assessee. The audio recording of conversations between two third parties lacked any mention of the assessee or direct linkage to the seized paper. The Tribunal held that such indirect or speculative inferences are insufficient to satisfy the requirements of Section 69A where no corroborative documentary or material evidence connects the entries and conversations to the assessee.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Shorthand notations and unrelated audio recordings, without corroborative evidence linking them to the assessee, cannot constitute sufficient proof to attribute unexplained cash receipts to the assessee under Section 69A. Obiter - cautionary remarks on the need for concrete linkage when inferring ownership from seized third-party material.
Conclusions: The AO's reliance on initials/shorthand and an unlinked audio recording did not establish that the assessee received the cash; such evidence was insufficient to sustain the Section 69A addition.
Issue 3: Consequential interest under Sections 234A and 234B
Legal framework: Interest under Sections 234A and 234B is consequential on the existence of tax liability determined in assessment; deletion of the substantive addition typically negates the basis for such interest.
Precedent Treatment: Not cited; treated as a legal consequence flowing from substantive relief.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal treated interest claims as consequential to the deleted addition. Since the addition under Section 69A was deleted, the tax liability giving rise to interest under Sections 234A and 234B did not stand.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Interest under Sections 234A and 234B is consequential and cannot survive once the substantive addition on which such interest was calculated is deleted. Obiter - none.
Conclusions: Interest under Sections 234A and 234B to the extent based on the deleted addition stands vacated as consequential relief.
Issue 4: Prematurity of penalty proceedings
Legal framework: Penalty proceedings under the specified penalty provision proceed subject to establishment of the underlying tax liability or misreporting; initiation may be premature if the assessment itself is unsustainable.
Precedent Treatment: Not cited.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that penalty proceedings initiated under the relevant penalty provision are premature when based upon assessment additions that are subsequently deleted. Given deletion of the substantive addition, initiating or sustaining penalty proceedings on the same foundation would be inappropriate at that stage.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Penalty proceedings premised on an assessment addition that is deleted are premature and cannot be sustained absent fresh basis. Obiter - procedural sequencing and fairness considerations implied.
Conclusions: Penalty proceedings based on the deleted addition are premature; consequential relief in relation to penalty initiation follows the deletion of the substantive addition.
Addition u/s 69A - unexplained and undisclosed receipts - document pertains to the assessee based solely on the unsubstantiated presumption that "HR" indicates Harsh Gupta and "YOG" - Loose paper found from third party -HELD THAT:- Section 69A could be invoked where the assessee is found to be the owner of any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article which were not recorded in the books of account, if any, maintained by him for which the source of acquisition was not satisfactorily explained.
In the instant case, it is not the allegation of the Revenue that there was cash of Rs. 62,00,000/- found from the possession of the assessee during the course of search carried out nor there is any statement of the any person brought on record stating that the said cash was received by him on behalf of the assessee company. It is further seen that the said paper does not contain any date nor has any reference of any entry which suggests that the transactions noted therein pertained to Financial Year 2019-20 relevant to AY 2021-22 i.e. the assessment year before us.
It is settled law that when during the course of search any document or loose paper is found containing certain entries and if no date is mentioned on the same, it is presumed that the entries contained therein relates to the year of search.
In the present case, the first search was carried on 26.10.2020 and second search was carried on 11.02.2021. It is not stated in the assessment year whether the Sanjay Jain from whose possession the said paper was found was searched on first occasion or in second occasion. Nonetheless, both the dates are fallen in Financial Year 2020-21 relevant to Assessment Year 2021-22.
The said paper does not contain any date, thus, entries contained therein are related to Financial Year 2020-21 relevant to Assessment Year 2021-22. However, addition is made for the entries found noted in the said paper in AY 2020-21 which is not correct and no addition could be made in the assessment year before us based on the entries found recorded in the said paper.
AO has failed to bring any corroborative material to hold that these entries pertained to assessee company and the cash was received by assessee company more particularly when no document whatsoever was found or seized from the possession of assessee company during the course of search carried in its own case. It is further seen that the AO has also failed to make any enquiry with regard to the regard to the running bills mentioned in the said paper to support his allegation that the assessee has received this amount of 62.00 lacs in cash during the year under appeal.
Regarding audio recording of conversation between Yogesh Jangra and Harsh Gupta as reproduced we find that this conversation has no mentioned of the assessee nor has any link with the seized document, therefore, it cannot be held that assessee has received any cash as stated in the said conversations between Sh. Yogesh Jangra and Harsh Gupta and the assessee cannot be held liable for the same. In view of these facts, in our considered opinion, no addition could be made on the basis of entries found noted in the said seized paper page No.46 of Annexure A-7 from FCB-1 found from the residence of Sh. Surender Gupta. Accordingly, we hereby directed to delete the addition and the ground No.1 to 3 are thus allowed.
Issues: (i) whether the delay in filing the appeal before the Tribunal deserved condonation; (ii) whether the appellate order dismissing the assessee's appeal for non-prosecution could stand, and whether the matter required remand for disposal on merits.
Issue (i): whether the delay in filing the appeal before the Tribunal deserved condonation.
Analysis: The explanation for delay was supported by an affidavit stating that the assessee became aware of the appellate order only later and promptly acted thereafter. In the absence of material to discredit that explanation, the delay was treated as satisfactorily explained.
Conclusion: The delay of 169 days was condoned in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): whether the appellate order dismissing the assessee's appeal for non-prosecution could stand, and whether the matter required remand for disposal on merits.
Analysis: An appellate authority is required to pass a reasoned order framing points for determination under section 250(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and even an ex parte disposal must be on merits. A dismissal in limine for non-prosecution without adjudication on merits was therefore unsustainable.
Conclusion: The appellate order was set aside and the matter was remanded to the first appellate authority for fresh adjudication on merits after granting reasonable opportunity of hearing.
Final Conclusion: The assessee obtained relief by way of condonation of delay and restoration of the appeal for fresh decision on merits before the first appellate authority.
Ratio Decidendi: An appellate authority cannot dispose of an appeal for non-prosecution without a reasoned decision on merits, and an ex parte appellate order must satisfy the statutory duty to determine the issues and afford a fair hearing.
Dismissal of appeal in limine for non-prosecution by CIT(A) - HELD THAT:- As contemplated u/s. 250(6) CIT(A), is required to frame points of determination followed by a detailed discussion thereupon before passing the order. It is the settled position of law that the CIT(A), even while disposing of the appeal exparte, is duty bound to dispose of the appeal on merits.
Reliance in this regard can be placed on the decision of Premkumar Arjundas Luthra [2016 (5) TMI 290 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] - Therefore, matter requires to be remanded to the file of the CIT(A) with the direction to dispose of the appeal de novo on merits after affording reasonable opportunity of hearing to the assessee. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether payments made under a development agreement with a person holding leasehold rights (perpetual lease) fall within the ambit of "specified agreement" for purposes of deduction of tax under section 194IC.
2. Whether the payer (deductor) can be deemed an assessee in default under section 201(1) / (1A) for failing to deduct tax at 10% under section 194IC where tax on the same receipts is alleged to have been offered and paid to tax by the payee in a subsequent assessment year, and what evidentiary standard and procedure applies to claim the protection of the proviso to section 201.
3. Relief and procedural consequences where the deductor produces evidence after assessment/appeal that the payee has included the impugned receipts in his return and paid tax - whether remand to the assessing officer for verification and recomputation of interest is appropriate.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Applicability of section 194IC: definition of "specified agreement" and scope vis-à-vis leasehold transferees
Legal framework: The term "specified agreement" is defined by reference to section 45(5A) as a registered agreement where a person owning land or building allows another to develop a real estate project in consideration of a share in the project (with or without monetary consideration). Section 194IC prescribes deduction of tax at 10% where monetary consideration is payable under a "specified agreement". The legislative memorandum introducing subsection (5A) and section 194IC states the policy objective of deferring capital gains taxation to the year of issue of completion certificate to alleviate hardship where execution of a joint development agreement (JDA) otherwise triggers immediate capital gains tax liability.
Precedent treatment: No judicial precedents were cited or relied upon by the authorities or parties in the text; the Court proceeded by statutory interpretation informed by legislative intent.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal interprets the statutory definition and legislative intent purposively. A narrow interpretation accepting that "owning land" excludes a perpetual leaseholder would produce an anomaly: leasehold transferors who enter JDAs could escape the special regime and its protective timing of taxability, contrary to the remedial purpose of subsection (5A) and its companion provision, section 194IC. The Tribunal therefore reads the definition in light of the memorandum and facts, concluding that where the transferor (here a perpetual leaseholder) holds rights sufficient to give land for development and is entitled to monetary and non-monetary consideration, the arrangement falls within the scope of a "specified agreement" and hence section 194IC applies. The factual matrix (perpetual lease granted in 1938; transferee entitled to give land for development and receive consideration) supports applicability.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that a perpetual leaseholder who, under the JDA, has the right to put the land to development and receive consideration falls within the statutory scheme of "specified agreement" for s.194IC is ratio decidendi for the dispute before the Court. Observations about the potential anomaly of a narrow construction and the purposive approach are integral to the ratio.
Conclusion: Section 194IC is applicable to payments made under the development agreement in the facts before the Tribunal; the payer should have deducted tax at 10% under section 194IC rather than at 1% under section 194IA.
Issue 2 - Liability as assessee in default under section 201(1)/(1A) and the proviso where payee has offered income to tax
Legal framework: Section 201(1) renders the person required to deduct tax liable as an assessee in default where tax is not deducted; section 201(1A) deals with interest for defaults. The proviso to section 201(1) relieves the deductor from being treated as an assessee in default if the payee has offered the relevant sum to tax and paid the tax thereon, subject to satisfaction of conditions and supporting evidence (e.g., inclusion in return and tax paid). Form 26A is a typical evidentiary form used to show inclusion of such amounts in the payee's return.
Precedent treatment: No authorities were cited; the Tribunal evaluated compliance with statutory proviso and evidentiary proof on record.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal emphasises that the statutory proviso requires proper proof that the payee has offered the impugned receipts to tax and paid the tax. The assessing officer and appellate authority rejected the deductor's alternate plea because the deductor did not produce supporting evidence (Form 26A, computations, certificates) before them. The Tribunal notes that the payee filed an ITR for the subsequent assessment year allegedly including capital gains (completion certificate year), but that no substantiating material was placed before the Tribunal to demonstrate that the impugned payments were indeed offered and taxed in that return. The Tribunal therefore cannot grant protection under the proviso without verification of the payee's return and supporting computations.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The principle that the proviso to section 201(1) can relieve the deductor from default only upon verifiable proof that the payee included and paid tax on the receipts is ratio. Observations on the typical role of Form 26A and procedural expectations are explanatory.
Conclusion: Absent verifiable evidence before the Tribunal demonstrating that the payee offered and paid tax on the impugned receipts, the deductor remains prima facie liable as assessee in default for failure to deduct at the higher rate; however the deductor may substantiate the proviso through proper evidence subject to verification (see Issue 3 remedy below).
Issue 3 - Remedial procedure: remand to AO for verification, acceptance of evidence and recomputation of interest
Legal framework: The assessing officer has the fact-finding and verification role to ascertain whether the payee's return indeed includes the impugned receipts and tax has been paid; interest under section 201(1A) is to be recomputed as per proviso if the proviso applies.
Precedent treatment: Not cited; Tribunal relied on procedural fairness and statutory verification mechanism.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given that material (payee's ITR for a later AY and assertion of inclusion of capital gains) surfaced but was not placed before the AO at the initial stage, and recognizing the factual nature of the enquiry, the Tribunal finds that the proper course is to remit the matter to the AO. The AO is directed to verify the payee's claim (including the ITR, computation showing inclusion of impugned receipts, proof of tax payment, completion certificate or other documentary proof) and to allow the deductor's claim under the proviso if supported by evidence. The Tribunal further directs that the AO should not rigidly deny relief solely because Form 26A was not filed for the assessment years under dispute, given the peculiar facts of the case and the timing of completion certificate and subsequent tax filing. If the proviso is satisfied on verification, the AO must recompute interest under section 201(1A) accordingly for the relevant assessment years.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Directing remand for verification and instructing the AO to accept substantiating evidence (even if Form 26A is not filed) in appropriate circumstances is part of the operative decision and forms part of the ratio as it disposes of the remedies available to the deductor.
Conclusion: The appeals are partly allowed by (a) upholding that section 194IC applies to the arrangement with the perpetual leaseholder; and (b) remitting the matter to the AO to verify whether the payee has offered and paid tax on the impugned receipts and, if so, to allow relief under the proviso to section 201(1) and recompute interest under section 201(1A). The deductor is directed to submit relevant supporting evidence and cooperate with assessment proceedings.
Short deduction of TDS u/s 194IC v/s 194IA - levy of tax and interest u/s 201(1) / (1A) - payment is made as per "Specified Agreement" - revenue's contention is that the TDS should have deducted at 10% u/s 194IC since the payments are made under specified agreement by the assessee
HELD THAT:- If the narrower interpretation as contented by the assessee is to be accepted then it would lead to anomaly that transfer by the lease hold right owner under JDA would go out of the tax net as the transferor is not the owner as mentioned in the definition of specified agreement.
Therefore in our considered view as argued by the ld AR cannot be accepted since the legislative intent behind introduction of subsection (5A) is to ease the tax burden on the assessee and such beneficial provision if interpreted as not applicable to transferor holding leasehold rights who has transferred under the JDA would go against the legislative intent.
From the perusal of the JDA entered into by the assessee with Shri Premal Dayalal Doshi, we notice that the land has been given on perpetual lease in the year 1938 since then the land has been held by various persons and Shri Premal Dayalal Doshi has acquired the land along with the conditions as prescribed for the perpetual lease. We also notice that Shri Premal Dayalal Doshi is holding the right to give the land for development and is entitled to receive consideration in monetary as well non-monetary form. We are unable to agree with the submission that in the present case, the provisions of section 194IC is not applicable.
Alternate contention of the assessee, it is the claim of the assessee that Shri Premal Dayalal Doshi has paid capital gains on the transfer under the JDA - We notice that since the assessee could not produce the evidences and Form 26A that the FAA did not accept the submissions of the assessee.
Whether assessee cannot be treated as assessee in default on this ground? - AR submitted that the income includes the capital gains since the completion certificate was obtained during the said AY. However before us no new material is brought on record to substantiate that the income offered in AY 2024-25 includes capital gains. We notice in this regard that the FAA has upheld the order of the AO for the same reason that the assessee did not submit any details in this regard. Therefore we are remitting the appeal back to AO with a direction to verify the claim of the assessee that Shri Premal Dayalal Doshi has offered the impugned payments to tax in AY 2024-25.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether delay in filing the appeal of 323 days is sufficiently explained so as to justify condonation of delay.
2. Whether the Assessing Officer/Central Processing Centre (CPC) and the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) could refuse the benefit of application of income under section 11 (and alternatively exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiad)) solely on the ground that audit report in Form No.10B was not filed within the prescribed time.
3. Whether filing/uploading Form No.10B after the statutory due date but before or during appellate proceedings (or prior to conclusion of assessment action) is directory rather than mandatory, and therefore whether belated filing ought to be considered for allowing benefits under sections 11/12.
4. Whether the CPC's failure to consider the audit report uploaded in response to its own communication vitiates the disallowance made in the intimation under section 143(1).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation of 323-day delay in filing the appeal
Legal framework: Procedural law concerning condonation of delay in filing appeals requires demonstration of sufficient cause for the delay; judicial precedents guide permissible grounds.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed the established tests in leading decisions recognizing reliance on agents/consultants and non-communication as sufficient cause where delay is not intentional.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee showed that the impugned order was received by the earlier tax consultant by e-mail and there was non-communication to the assessee; the assessee depends on tax consultants for filing appeals. On hearing and perusal of records the Tribunal found the cause sufficient and the delay not intentional.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - delay condoned where non-communication by tax consultant and genuine reliance established; this forms the operative principle applied.
Conclusion: Delay of 323 days is condoned and the appeal admitted for adjudication.
Issue 2 - Denial of benefit under section 11 for non-furnishing Form No.10B within prescribed time
Legal framework: Sections 11 and 12 provide exemption/application of income for charitable purposes subject to prescribed conditions; Form No.10B is the audit report used to evidence application of income.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal applied and relied upon coordinate and higher judicial decisions holding that filing of Form No.10B is procedural/directory and benefit under section 11 should not be denied merely because of delay in furnishing Form No.10B, particularly where the assessee holds valid registration under section 12A and the report is filed before conclusion of appellate proceedings or assessment action.
Interpretation and reasoning: Facts show the assessee is a registered charitable trust, claimed application of income totaling Rs.39,95,991 (administrative expenses Rs.35,20,913 and capital expenditure Rs.4,75,078), returned nil income, and uploaded Form No.10B on 31.12.2019 in response to CPC communication dated 04.12.2019. The CPC nevertheless passed the intimation under section 143(1)(a) dated 04.03.2020 without considering the uploaded audit report. The Tribunal noted established authority that where Form No.10B is uploaded belatedly but during appellate or assessment proceedings, the report should be considered and benefits under sections 11/12 allowed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a registered charitable trust files Form No.10B belatedly but before conclusion of appellate proceedings (or where the report is uploaded in response to CPC defects before intimation is finalized), the filing is directory and benefits under sections 11/12 ought not to be denied solely on timing. Obiter - discussion of specific technical portal errors in other cases is persuasive but ancillary.
Conclusion: The CPC and Ld. CIT(A) erred in denying the benefit under section 11 solely for delay in uploading Form No.10B; the audit report uploaded on 31.12.2019 ought to have been considered and the claim allowed.
Issue 3 - Nature of Form No.10B filing: directory versus mandatory and effect of belated filing
Legal framework: Distinction between mandatory substantive requirements and procedural/directory requirements governs whether non-compliance results in loss of substantive benefit.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal followed decisions (including coordinate benches and High Court precedents) that have held filing of Form No.10B to be procedural/directory; technical portal issues or belated filing do not automatically extinguish entitlement to section 11/12 benefits where registration under section 12A exists and report is ultimately filed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal applied those precedents to the facts: the assessee had valid registration, incurred qualifying expenditures, and uploaded the audit report prior to the CPC intimation; therefore the requirement was directory and could not be used as the sole basis to deny exemption/application of income.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Form No.10B requirement is directory in nature for purposes of securing benefit under sections 11/12 where the assessee is otherwise registered and files the report before final adjudication; denial solely for belated filing is impermissible. Obiter - comparative references to technical failures on the portal are supportive but not essential to the holding.
Conclusion: Filing of Form No.10B is directory in the circumstances; belated uploading in response to CPC communication warranted consideration and allowance of the claim.
Issue 4 - CPC's failure to consider audit report uploaded in response to its communication and remedial direction
Legal framework: Administrative fairness and requirement that orders be passed after considering materials on record, particularly documents uploaded in response to defect communications.
Precedent treatment: Consistent with authority that appellate or assessing authorities should consider belatedly filed but relevant audit reports when deciding entitlement to exemption.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found CPC erred by not considering the audit report uploaded on 31.12.2019 despite having given the assessee 30 days to remove defects; the non-consideration led to a denial in the section 143(1) intimation. Given the report was uploaded prior to the impugned order and that authorities have co-terminus powers to consider such material during appellate review, the denial was unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an assessing authority/CPC must consider an audit report uploaded in response to its defect notice before passing an intimation; failure to do so vitiates denial based solely on non-furnishing of Form No.10B.
Conclusion and direction: The Tribunal reversed the finding of the Ld. CIT(A), allowed the assessee's grounds, and directed the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to allow application of income for charitable purposes of Rs.35,20,913 and capital expenditure of Rs.4,75,078 (total Rs.39,95,991) in accordance with sections 11/12 as claimed.
Denial of application of income incurred for charitable purposes - non furnishing of audit report on Form 10B within the prescribed time limit - HELD THAT:- Since the Audit Report for A.Y. 2019-20 already stands uploaded on 31.12.2019 which is much prior to the passing of the impugned order as well as the passing of the intimation u/s 143(1)(a) of the Act by CPC, Ld. CIT(A) erred in not considering the Audit Report and not allowing the claim of assessee of application incurred for charitable purpose.
Accordingly finding of the CIT(A) is reversed and grounds of appeal raised by assessee are allowed and Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) is directed to allow the claim of the assessee for application of income and Capital expenditure for charitable purposes.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an order passed under section 263 of the Income Tax Act in the name of a deceased assessee, without bringing the legal representative on record and issuing notices to the legal representative, is valid.
2. Whether proceedings under section 263 may be continued or concluded against a deceased assessee where the legal heir/legal representative had been registered and had participated in assessment proceedings as legal representative prior to the passing of the section 263 order.
3. Whether impugned remaining grounds challenging the merits of the section 263 order require adjudication after the fundamental jurisdictional defect (order in name of deceased) is established.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of section 263 order passed in the name of a deceased person
Legal framework: Section 159 provides that on death of a person, proceedings pending against the deceased shall be deemed to have been taken against the legal representative and may be continued from the stage at which they stood; the legal representative is to be treated as the assessee for purposes of the Act. No order can be validly passed against a dead person; departmental action must comply with Section 159 before passing orders.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on controlling judicial precedent from superior courts which have consistently held that notices or orders issued in the name of a deceased person are void and that proceedings must be continued against the legal representative. The judgment follows and applies these precedents to quash orders passed in the name of a deceased assessee.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the record and found the assessee had died before the impugned order was passed. Although the fact of death was recorded in the impugned order, the authority failed to bring the legal heir on record or issue notices to the legal representative yet proceeded to pass the section 263 order in the deceased's name. This undermines the statutory scheme under section 159 which mandates continuation of proceedings against legal representatives and precludes passing enforceable orders in the name of a dead person.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An order under section 263 passed in the name of a deceased person without issuing notices to or bringing on record the legal representative is invalid; the statutory scheme of section 159 must be complied with. Observations applying precedents are part of the operative reasoning endorsing quashing of such orders.
Conclusion: The section 263 order passed in the name of the deceased is quashed for want of jurisdiction and non-compliance with Section 159; the authority could not validly pass the order without the legal representative being on record and served.
Issue 2: Effect of prior registration/participation of legal heir on validity of proceedings
Legal framework: Section 159 deems proceedings against the deceased as proceedings against the legal representative and contemplates continuance before passing any further orders. Administrative steps such as registration of legal heir and participation in assessment proceedings are relevant to identify the correct party and to satisfy procedural requisites.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities have held that mere knowledge by revenue of the death or subsequent filings in the deceased's name do not cure the defect of issuing notices/orders in the name of a dead person; where the legal representative has been brought to the notice of the Department, proceedings must be directed at the legal representative.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the legal heir had been registered on the income-tax portal and had participated in assessment proceedings as legal representative. Despite that, the revisional order under section 263 was issued and passed in the name of the deceased without issuing notices to the legal representative. The Tribunal found this fatal to the validity of the order because statutory protection and procedural fairness under section 159 were not observed.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Registration of a legal heir and participation in proceedings do not validate an order that is formally issued and passed in the name of the deceased; the Department must issue notices and bring the legal representative formally on record before passing orders.
Conclusion: Prior registration and participation of the legal heir reinforce the requirement to proceed against the legal representative; absence of such formal action renders the section 263 order void.
Issue 3: Necessity of adjudicating remaining merits where fundamental jurisdictional defect exists
Legal framework: When a decision is vitiated by a fundamental jurisdictional defect (such as being passed in the name of a dead person), further adjudication on merits may be rendered academic unless and until valid proceedings are initiated against the proper party.
Precedent Treatment: Courts and tribunals have declined to enter into merits where the primary defect relates to jurisdiction or invalidity of proceedings for non-compliance with procedural requirements concerning legal representatives.
Interpretation and reasoning: Having quashed the impugned order on jurisdictional grounds, the Tribunal held that addressing the substantive grounds of revision would be academic and infructuous in the absence of valid proceedings against the legal representative.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Once an order is set aside for being passed in the name of a deceased person, adjudication on the substantive merits of that order is unnecessary at that stage; such adjudication awaits valid proceedings against the legal representative.
Conclusion: The Tribunal declined to adjudicate the remaining grounds of challenge on merits as academic after quashing the section 263 order for jurisdictional infirmity.
Overall Conclusion
The impugned order under section 263 passed in the name of a deceased assessee without bringing the legal representative on record and issuing requisite notices is invalid and is quashed. Consequent adjudication of the substantive issues raised in the remaining grounds is held to be academic and therefore not undertaken.
Revision u/s 263 - order passed against a dead person - HELD THAT:- Since the impugned order is passed in the name of deceased assessee, we quash the order of the PCIT allowing the legal issue raised vide Grounds of appeal.
Issues: (i) Whether the addition towards alleged renovation investment in the ancestral property could be sustained in the hands of the assessee alone when the property was jointly owned by the assessee and his brothers. (ii) Whether the valuation adopted by the Assessing Officer, without reference to the District Valuation Officer, could support the addition.
Issue (i): Whether the addition towards alleged renovation investment in the ancestral property could be sustained in the hands of the assessee alone when the property was jointly owned by the assessee and his brothers.
Analysis: The property was accepted to be ancestral and jointly owned by the assessee and his brothers. The responses to notice under section 133(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 also indicated that the brothers had contributed towards the renovation. On these facts, any investment in the property could not be attributed to the assessee alone.
Conclusion: The addition in the assessee's individual hands was not sustainable and was deleted.
Issue (ii): Whether the valuation adopted by the Assessing Officer, without reference to the District Valuation Officer, could support the addition.
Analysis: The estimated cost of renovation was determined by the Assessing Officer himself. Where valuation of property was in doubt, the proper course was to refer the matter to the District Valuation Officer. As no such reference was made, the valuation lacked support.
Conclusion: The valuation-based addition was unsustainable and was deleted.
Final Conclusion: The additions for both assessment years were deleted and the assessee succeeded in both appeals.
Ratio Decidendi: An addition for investment in jointly owned ancestral property cannot be fastened solely on one co-owner without evidence of exclusive investment, and a property valuation adopted without competent valuation support cannot sustain the addition.
Estimation of cost of construction/cost of renovation - assessee along with his four brothers jointly owned the ancestral property - property is belonged to the late father of the assessee - HELD THAT:- As admitted fact that the assessee along with his three brothers jointly owned the property. This is evident from the fact that the notice u/s.133(6) have been issued to the brothers of the assessee. It is also accepted that the brothers of the assessee have responded saying that they have also invested in the property for renovation.
This being so, admittedly, the investment, if any, in the house property would have been considered in all the four hands and not that of the assessee alone. On this ground alone, the addition made by the AO and confirmed by the CIT(A) for both the years under consideration should be deleted and we do so.
Even otherwise, the AO is not competent authority for valuation of a property. If the AO doubted the valuation or wanted the property to be valued, he ought to have referred the valuation to the DVO. This, admittedly, has not been done.
Consequently, as the valuation itself is erroneous and is unsubstantiated and made by a person not competent to do the valuation, on this ground also, the addition made by the AO and confirmed by the CIT(A) for both the years under consideration is liable to be deleted and we do so. Appeals of the assessee are allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Principal Commissioner invoking revisional jurisdiction under section 263 could set aside an assessment passed under section 147 r.w.s.144B on the ground that the Assessing Officer erred in accepting claimed exempt Long Term Capital Gain (LTCG) arising from trading in a penny scrip as genuine when the AO had made enquiries and recorded satisfaction that the transactions were genuine.
2. Whether Explanation 2 to section 263 (attracting revision where there was no/inadequate inquiry) applied where the AO had issued show cause, called for documents, examined contract notes, broker ledger, bank payments, STT payment and returned an explicit finding that no evidence was available to connect the assessee with the alleged fraud.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of exercise of revisionary power under section 263 where the AO made enquiries and accepted LTCG as genuine
Legal framework: Section 263 permits revision where the order of the AO is found to be erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of revenue. The power is to be exercised only when the AO's order is vitiated by lack of inquiry, jurisdictional error, or a conclusion no reasonable AO could have reached on the material available.
Precedent Treatment: No specific precedents are relied upon or overruled in the judgment; the Court applies settled principles regarding the limited scope of section 263 and the requirement that the revisional authority identify material infirmity in the AO's inquiry or reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the assessment record and found that the AO reopened the case solely to examine the penny-scrip transactions, issued a show-cause notice, and elicited extensive documentary evidence from the assessee: contract notes, broker ledger, bank payment receipts, STT proof, demat entries, broker's registration, and explanation linking source of funds. The AO expressly recorded that no specific document from the Investigation Wing established nexus between the assessee and the alleged operators, and on the basis of the evidence and lack of incriminating material the AO took a considered view accepting the LTCG exemption. The revisional order did not point to any new material or identify any specific infirmity in the AO's inquiries or findings; it merely disagreed with the AO's conclusion without demonstrating that the AO's conclusion was perverse or lacked any evidentiary basis.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where the AO has made relevant and adequate enquiries, considered documentary evidence and recorded a plausible conclusion that no nexus or fraud was established, the revisional authority cannot set aside the assessment under section 263 merely by substituting its opinion; such exercise requires demonstrable error or lack of inquiry. Obiter - observations about the assessee being a regular trader and that the transactions were not isolated bolster the principal reasoning but are ancillary.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that the AO had conducted adequate inquiry and taken a plausible view on the facts; the revisional order under section 263 was not sustainable and must be set aside. The exercise of revision was improper in absence of any identified material demonstrating that the AO's conclusion was erroneous and prejudicial to revenue.
Issue 2: Applicability of Explanation 2 to section 263 (no/inadequate inquiry) in the facts
Legal framework: Explanation 2 to section 263 contemplates invocation of revision where the AO's order is founded on no inquiry or an inadequate inquiry; the revisional authority must show that the AO failed to make necessary inquiries or ignored relevant material.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not cite prior decisions applying or distinguishing Explanation 2, but applies the settled criterion that mere disagreement with a concluded, documented inquiry does not transform the AO's exercise into an inadequate inquiry.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found that the AO had undertaken specific, material inquiries: issuance of a show-cause notice, request for explanation regarding identified LTCG, and assessment-stage consideration of contract notes, bank payments, broker correspondence, STT payment evidence and demat records. The AO explicitly stated that evidence from the Investigation Wing was not received and therefore nexus could not be established. The revisional authority did not identify any failure of the AO to ask for or consider any relevant document that was in the AO's power to collect, nor did it show that the AO ignored material on record. The PCIT's invocation of Explanation 2 was therefore not supported by the assessment record.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Explanation 2 cannot be invoked where the record demonstrates that the AO made specific, adequate inquiries and recorded reasons for accepting the assessee's documentary evidence; absent demonstrable absence or inadequacy of inquiry, revision under section 263 is impermissible. Obiter - suggestions that further evidence from investigation wing could have altered the outcome are speculative and do not justify revision without such evidence being available and shown to the AO.
Conclusion: Explanation 2 to section 263 was not attracted. The revisional order failed to establish either no inquiry or inadequate inquiry by the AO; consequently, the direction to reopen or pass a fresh assessment was unsustainable and was set aside.
Cross-reference and overall conclusion
The two issues are interrelated: the validity of exercising section 263 depends on whether the AO's inquiry was adequate (Explanation 2). Because the AO conducted detailed enquiries, considered material documentary evidence, and recorded a reasoned conclusion that no nexus with the penny-scrip operators was shown by the available material, the revisional authority's contrary conclusion, unsupported by additional evidence or identification of a legal infirmity in the AO's process, amounted to impermissible substitution of opinion. The Tribunal therefore allowed the appeal and set aside the revision under section 263.
Revision u/s 263 - accommodation entry receipts - as per CIT AO erred in accepting claimed exempt Long Term Capital Gain (LTCG) arising from trading in a penny scrip - as argued case was reopened was to examine the share transactions - HELD THAT:- AO did enquire from the assessee regarding trading in the shares of M/s. Kushal Tradelink Ltd and it was not a case of no or inadequate enquiry.
From the materials brought on record, it is evident that the assessee had duly explained the genuineness of the transactions, as the purchase and sale transactions were made through registered broker and all the transactions were duly reflected in the de-mat account of the assessee.
As further found that the assessee was a regular trader in shares and the trading in the shares of M/s. Kushal Tradelink Ltd. was not an isolated one-off transaction.
Therefore, the finding of PCIT that the AO did not make proper enquiries in the matter cannot be held as correct. The Ld. PCIT did not point out any infirmity in the explanation of the assessee and the conclusion derived by the AO thereon. A.O. had categorically recorded that he had no evidence on record to establish that the transactions undertaken by the assessee were fraudulent and in the nature of accommodation entries.
In the proceedings u/s 263 as well, the Ld. PCIT has not referred to any such information or evidence which could establish that the transactions of the assessee were ingenuine.
In the absence of any such evidence, the conclusion as drawn by the A.O. cannot be held as incorrect. A.O. had taken a plausible view in the matter after considering the explanation of the assessee and going through the evidences brought on record in support of the transactions. The finding of the PCIT that the order of the A.O. was erroneous is not found sustainable. Accordingly, the order passed u/s 263 of the Act is set-aside. Appeal of the Assessee is allowed
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether Maxim SMT Technologies Pvt. Ltd. was a valid comparable for determination of Arm's Length Price where it failed the TPO's trading-turnover filter (75%) and DRP directed reduction of that filter to 50% for re-evaluation.
2. Whether the margin of Debak Enterprise Pvt. Ltd. as used in the TPO's comparable set is correctly computed and, if not, the consequence for the weighted average Profit Level Indicator (PLI) applied to the assessee.
3. Whether directions by the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) to reduce a specific filter (trading turnover threshold) for the purpose of retaining a particular comparable, without replacing or otherwise applying the filter uniformly, comport with the statutory scheme for transfer-pricing comparability analysis.
4. Miscellaneous/ancillary: Treatment of other grounds raised by the assessee (transfer pricing adjustments, operating/non-operating classification, risk adjustments, omission of TPO's order giving effect to DRP) which the authorised representative did not press and which the Tribunal treated as unadjudicated.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of Maxim SMT Technologies Pvt. Ltd. as a comparable where it failed TPO's 75% trading-turnover filter and DRP directed reduction to 50%
Legal framework: Determination of Arm's Length Price under section 92CA of the Act requires selection of comparables based on functional and transactional comparability and application of appropriate filters (e.g., trading turnover threshold) in the Transfer Pricing Officer's comparability analysis. DRP may give directions under section 144C but must act within the statutory framework and principles of comparability.
Precedent treatment: No specific judicial precedents were cited or relied upon in the record. The Tribunal applied statutory and methodological principles intrinsic to transfer pricing comparability (filters, functional similarity, and reliance on statutory records such as ROC filings).
Interpretation and reasoning: The TPO originally applied a trading-turnover filter of 75% (trading turnover as percentage of total sales) when selecting comparables for a taxpayer engaged principally in trading activity. The assessee demonstrated that Maxim SMT failed the 75% filter for three years; DRP recorded that fact but directed the TPO to reduce the trading-turnover threshold to 50% and re-evaluate the comparable. The Tribunal found that (a) the TPO applied the 75% filter as part of a uniform selection methodology; (b) DRP's acceptance that Maxim SMT failed the 75% threshold implied that the comparable ought to be excluded; (c) DRP's direction to reduce the threshold to 50% solely to accommodate the particular comparable was procedurally and substantively impermissible because a reduction of the filter would enlarge the universe of comparables and change the selection framework, which cannot be done selectively for one company; and (d) ROC/annual return evidence indicated that Maxim SMT's operations were manufacturing, not trading, supporting functional non-comparability with a trading enterprise importing programmable logic controllers.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The Tribunal held as a binding determination that a comparable that fails a uniformly applied trading-turnover filter must be excluded and that DRP cannot direct a selective dilution of that filter to retain a particular comparable. Obiter - Observations on the broader propriety of DRP altering filters generally (beyond these facts) are incidental but consistent with the ratio.
Conclusion: Maxim SMT Technologies Pvt. Ltd. is not a comparable; it is to be deleted from the TPO/AO's comparable set. The Tribunal allowed the relevant ground of appeal accordingly.
Issue 2 - Correctness of Debak Enterprise Pvt. Ltd.'s margin and effect on the average PLI
Legal framework: In TNMM, the PLI of comparables (here Operating Profit/Operating Revenue) must be correctly computed from the companies' audited/ROC-filed financials; errors in individual comparables' PLIs affect the arm's-length range/average and consequent adjustment under section 92CA.
Precedent treatment: None cited; the Tribunal accepted party-filed computations when agreed between parties or on record demonstration of error.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee's authorised representative produced working showing Debak's margin as 2.92%, whereas the TPO had used 15.80%. The departmental representative accepted the corrected margin of 2.92%. Given mutual acceptance and record evidence, the Tribunal directed the AO/TPO to recompute the weighted average PLI by using Debak's margin at 2.92%.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A comparable's PLI must be corrected to reflect the correct margin where demonstrable arithmetic/record errors exist; the AO/TPO is directed to rework the average PLI accordingly. Obiter - None significant beyond the corrective principle.
Conclusion: Debak Enterprise Pvt. Ltd.'s margin is 2.92% for the purpose of averaging; the AO/TPO must recalculate the average PLI incorporating this corrected figure.
Issue 3 - Legality of DRP's selective modification of comparability filters
Legal framework: DRP's role under the dispute resolution scheme is to examine objections and issue directions consistent with transfer-pricing law; DRP's directions must respect the methodological integrity of the comparability exercise and cannot selectively alter criteria to favor inclusion of a challenged comparable without considering the wider consequences.
Precedent treatment: No authorities cited. The Tribunal relied on statutory principles of comparability and consistency.
Interpretation and reasoning: The DRP accepted that the comparable failed the 75% trading filter but nonetheless directed reduction to 50% for re-evaluation. The Tribunal reasoned that a reduction of the trading turnover threshold is not a cosmetic, company-specific adjustment; it affects the universe of comparables and must be applied as a change in methodology with consequential reassessment of all candidates. Selective reduction to retain a particular company circumvents the objectivity of filters and is not permissible in the facts of this case. Accordingly, DRP should have excluded the comparable once it conceded failure of the original filter, rather than mandate a selective relaxation of criteria.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - DRP cannot direct a selective relaxation of a uniformly applied comparability filter to retain a particular comparable that otherwise fails the filter; where DRP accepts that a comparable fails a filter, DRP must exclude it unless a holistic and uniformly applied methodological change is justified and recorded. Obiter - General commentary that DRP can direct methodological changes only if done transparently and applied uniformly.
Conclusion: DRP's direction to reduce the trading turnover filter solely to accommodate Maxim SMT was not proper; the comparable must be excluded as per the original filter applied by the TPO.
Issue 4 - Other grounds raised but not argued (operating/non-operating classification, CSR treatment, risk adjustments, failure to give effect to TPO order, etc.)
Legal framework: All transfer-pricing/contention grounds raised before assessing authorities are subject to adjudication; however, an appellant may refrain from pressing certain grounds before the Tribunal, which may result in those grounds remaining unadjudicated.
Precedent treatment: Not applicable in the record; parties agreed that only selected grounds would be argued.
Interpretation and reasoning: The authorised representative expressly limited argument to ground relating to Maxim SMT and the computation error for Debak. Consequently, the Tribunal did not adjudicate other grounds and dismissed them as unadjudicated.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where a party elects not to press certain grounds, the Tribunal may decline to adjudicate them and treat them as unadjudicated. Obiter - None.
Conclusion: All other grounds not argued were dismissed as unadjudicated; the appeal was allowed in part on the two specific issues addressed.
Disposition
The Tribunal directed deletion of Maxim SMT Technologies Pvt. Ltd. from the comparable set and directed the AO/TPO to recompute the average PLI using Debak Enterprise Pvt. Ltd.'s margin at 2.92%; all other grounds were left unadjudicated and dismissed accordingly. The appeal was partly allowed.
TP Adjustment - comparable selection - contention of the Assessee that Maxim SMT Technologies Private Limited is not comparable with assessee - HELD THAT:- Maxim SMT Technologies Private Limited has admitted before ROC that it is into manufacturing only.
As per Assessing Officer, Assessee is into manufacturing and trading. The filter applied by TPO of trading turnover was 75% and Maxim SMT Technologies Private Limited does not qualify the said filter. In these facts and circumstances of the case, we are of the considered opinion that Maxim SMT Technologies Private Limited is not comparable to the Assessee. Accordingly, we direct the Assessing Officer/TPO to delete Maxim SMT Technologies Private Limited from the list of selected comparables. Accordingly, Ground No.2 raised by the Assessee is allowed.
Assessee and ld.DR for the Revenue has accepted the fact that the margin of Debak Enterprises Private Limited is 2.92%. In these facts and circumstances of the case, ld.AO/TPO is directed to rework the Average by considering the Debak Enterprises Private Limited’s margin at 2.92%.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether transfer-pricing adjustments can be made separately in respect of distinct international transactions (in particular: infrastructure service fees and reimbursements of personnel costs) notwithstanding that those costs form part of the same financial statements and were considered when benchmarking a separate declared international transaction (provision of basic market research and testing services).
2. Whether the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO) was obliged to benchmark the infrastructure service fees and reimbursements as independent international transactions and verify allocation/supporting documents for amounts charged by the Associated Enterprise (AE).
3. Whether additional evidence filed before the appellate tribunal (not earlier placed before the TPO/AO) can be admitted and remitted to the file of the AO/TPO for verification and re-study of TP issues.
4. Ancillary issues raised in grounds (time-bar, interest under sections 234A/234B, penalty under section 270A) were placed on record but not separately adjudicated because the appellant confined its primary grievance to the TP benchmarking ground and the Tribunal proceeded on that basis.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Separate TP adjustments for distinct international transactions despite common inclusion in financial statements
Legal framework: Transfer pricing regime requires international transactions between AEs to be identified and benchmarked under section 92C (and related provisions) with arm's length principle applied separately to relevant international transactions; benchmarking and ALP determination are fact-specific exercises based on comparability and transactional characterization.
Precedent Treatment: No prior judicial precedent was cited or applied in the reasoning of the Tribunal; the Tribunal relied on statutory scheme and record-based reasoning. (Followed: statutory requirement to evaluate international transactions individually.)
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the assessee declared multiple international transactions in Form 3CEB and TP documentation. The fact that the TPO accepted benchmarking for "provision of basic market research and testing services" using financial statements which included infrastructure fees and reimbursements does not preclude a separate examination of those latter transactions. The Tribunal reasoned that each international transaction must be evaluated on its own facts and merits under TP provisions; inclusion of costs in the financial statement for one benchmarked transaction does not automatically validate the pricing or ALP of other declared transactions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the Tribunal's holding that each declared international transaction must be separately evaluated for arm's length pricing, even if costs overlap in financial statements, is central to the decision. Obiter - general observations about the composition of profit & loss may be explanatory.
Conclusions: The Tribunal rejected the contention that separate benchmarking was unnecessary and directed that infrastructure service fees and reimbursements be treated as separate international transactions for TP verification and benchmarking.
Issue 2 - Obligation on TPO to verify allocations/supporting documents and to re-benchmark infrastructure fees and reimbursements
Legal framework: TPO's role includes examining transactional characterization, allocation of costs by AE to the taxpayer, verifying third-party documentary support, and applying the most appropriate TP method with necessary comparability adjustments under section 92C and relevant rules.
Precedent Treatment: No reported authorities were relied upon; the Tribunal applied the statutory mandate and principles of verification and comparability in practice. (Followed: requirement of verification and reasonableness assessment by TPO.)
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found it necessary that the TPO verify whether allocations by the AE for infrastructure and personnel reimbursements were in accordance with norms and whether third-party documents justified allocations. The Tribunal accepted the Revenue's position that these are independent international transactions requiring separate benchmarking and rejected the assessee's argument that the TPO's acceptance of one benchmarked transaction precludes scrutiny of others.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - TPO must verify allocation methodology and supporting documents for separately declared international transactions and perform independent benchmarking as required by TP law. Obiter - statements on what constitutes adequate allocation evidence are explanatory.
Conclusions: The Tribunal directed remittance to AO/TPO to verify the additional material and redo the TP study for infrastructure service fees and reimbursements, ensuring the assessee is heard.
Issue 3 - Admissibility of additional evidence before the Tribunal and remand for verification
Legal framework: Appellate authority has discretion to admit additional evidence and remand matters to the assessing authority for verification where such evidence is material and was not previously available or considered, subject to fair opportunity to the other side.
Precedent Treatment: No judicial precedents were invoked; the Tribunal applied its discretionary power to admit evidence and remit for fresh verification.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal accepted additional evidence submitted by the assessee (auditor certificates and supporting documents) that were not placed before the AO/TPO, finding such material relevant to the verification of allocations and benchmarking. The Tribunal considered it appropriate to remit those materials to the AO/TPO with directions to verify and redo the TP work, giving the assessee a proper opportunity to be heard.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - appellate authority may admit additional evidence and remit to the fact-finding authority for verification where relevant; such remand is an appropriate remedy when TP matters require further factual inquiry. Obiter - none material beyond the remand principle.
Conclusions: Additional evidence was admitted and the matter was remitted to AO/TPO for re-examination and re-benchmarking; appeal allowed for statistical purposes (i.e., the Tribunal did not decide substance of adjustments but directed fresh fact-finding).
Issue 4 - Other grounds (time-bar, interest, penalty) not separately decided
Legal framework: Ancillary fiscal issues (limitations, interest, penalty) depend on finality of assessment and substantive adjustments; tribunals may decline to decide ancillary grounds where primary substantive matter is remitted.
Precedent Treatment: Not applicable; the Tribunal limited its decision to the primary TP issue and remand remedy.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee confined primary grievance to the TP benchmarking issue. The Tribunal therefore proceeded to adjudicate that ground and remit for fresh verification. Given the remand, it did not adjudicate ancillary grounds separately in the present order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Obiter - procedural posture that ancillary grounds await final outcome of reassessment/verification. Ratio - where substantive matter is remitted for fresh enquiry, ancillary claims flowing from that matter are not ripe for final adjudication.
Conclusions: Ancillary grounds were noted but left open; the Tribunal's remand renders those issues for consideration by AO/TPO after verification and any consequent revisions in assessment.
Transfer pricing adjustment - Arm's length price - Benchmarking of international transactions - Remand for verification and fresh transfer pricing study - Acceptance of additional evidence - Dispute Resolution Panel directions
Benchmarking of international transactions - Transfer pricing adjustment - Acceptance of additional evidence - Remand for verification and fresh transfer pricing study - Whether the transfer pricing adjustments relating to infrastructure service fees and reimbursement of personnel costs require separate benchmarking and verification and whether the additional evidence submitted before the Tribunal should be accepted and remitted for fresh consideration. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal noted that the assessee had declared multiple international transactions, including provision of basic market research and testing services, infrastructure service fees and reimbursement of personnel costs, and that the TPO had accepted the benchmarking for basic market research and testing services without proposing adjustment. The assessee's contention that the expenditures forming part of the financials used for benchmarking made separate verification of infrastructure fees and reimbursements unnecessary was rejected. The Tribunal observed that infrastructure service fees and reimbursements are distinct international transactions which require independent evaluation under transfer pricing provisions, including verification of allocation norms, reasonableness and supporting thirdparty documentation. The Tribunal accepted additional evidence produced before it (which was not before the lower authorities) and directed that such evidence be remitted to the file of the AO/TPO. The AO/TPO was directed to verify the additional material, afford the assessee an opportunity of being heard and to redo the transfer pricing study based on the material on record and in accordance with law. For these reasons Ground No.3 was allowed for statistical purposes and the matter was remitted for fresh consideration limited to verification and rebenchmarking as directed. [Paras 2, 3, 4, 6, 7]
Additional evidence accepted; the claim that separate benchmarking was unnecessary rejected; matter remitted to AO/TPO to verify the submitted material and redo the transfer pricing study with opportunity to the assessee; Ground No.3 allowed for statistical purposes.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed for statistical purposes: the Tribunal accepted additional evidence and remitted the issues relating to benchmarking of infrastructure service fees and reimbursements to the AO/TPO for verification and a fresh transfer pricing study, with liberty to the assessee to be heard.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT) can exercise revisionary jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Income Tax Act in respect of an order of the Assessing Officer that contains a mistake apparent from record which could alternatively be rectified under Section 154.
2. Whether an assessment order is "erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the revenue" within the meaning of Section 263 where the Assessing Officer disallowed depreciation on goodwill in principle but, by error in computation, made a lesser addition in the assessment computation than the amount actually disallowed.
3. Whether the correctness on merits of allowing depreciation on goodwill (relying on judicial precedents permitting amortisation/depreciation) can be examined in proceedings under Section 263 or must be left to the appeal against quantum.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Jurisdiction under Section 263 vis-à-vis errors rectifiable under Section 154
Legal framework: Section 263 empowers the Commissioner to revise any order if it is "erroneous" and "prejudicial to the interests of the revenue." Section 154 provides for rectification of mistakes apparent from record.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal distinguished a coordinate-bench decision where the mistake was limited to tax calculation and no error was pointed out in the assessment order itself; that decision held rectification under Section 154 appropriate. The Court noted authorities permitting exercise of Section 263 even where the error might also be susceptible to correction under other provisions, if the order is otherwise erroneous and prejudicial.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the statutory jurisdiction under Section 263 is not ousted merely because the identified error could be corrected under Section 154 (or other provisions). When the PCIT, on calling for the record, notices an error in the assessment order itself that is prejudicial to revenue, the PCIT may exercise revisionary powers and issue directions to the AO. The critical inquiry is whether the AO's order is erroneous and prejudicial to revenue, not whether an alternative rectification mechanism exists.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 263 jurisdiction is available even where the error is apparent and could be rectified under Section 154; availability of alternative remedy does not oust revisionary power. Obiter - commentary distinguishing factual matrix of the cited coordinate-bench decision on calculation errors.
Conclusion: PCIT was entitled to exercise jurisdiction under Section 263 despite the existence of Section 154 as an alternative remedy, where the error affected the assessment order itself and was prejudicial to revenue.
Issue 2: Whether the AO's order was erroneous and prejudicial where addition in computation differed from the disallowance recorded
Legal framework: The threshold for invoking Section 263 requires the impugned order to be both erroneous and prejudicial to the revenue. A discrepancy between the AO's recorded conclusion and the computation in the assessment can constitute an error apparent from record.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on the principle that factual misstatements or computational discrepancies in the assessment order which result in lesser addition than warranted can render the order prejudicial; prior Tribunal authority dealing with mere calculation errors (where no error in the assessment order was pointed out) was found distinguishable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found undisputed facts that the assessee claimed a certain amount of depreciation on goodwill, the AO recorded disallowance of depreciation but the computation in the assessment reflected only a part of that disallowance by mistake. This mismatch constituted an error in the assessment order itself. Since the error led to a lower addition than appropriate, it was prejudicial to revenue. The PCIT's detection of that mistake on calling for records and consequent exercise of revisionary power was therefore proper.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A mismatch between an AO's express disallowance and the computation which results in a lesser addition is an error apparent from record and, if prejudicial, justifies revision under Section 263. Obiter - observations on factual distinctness from cases where only tax computation (and not the assessment order) contained errors.
Conclusion: The AO's order was erroneous and prejudicial because of the discrepancy between the stated disallowance and the computation; the PCIT rightly set aside the assessment order under Section 263 and directed a fresh/rectified assessment.
Issue 3: Whether merits of depreciation on goodwill should be adjudicated in Section 263 proceedings
Legal framework: Section 263 proceedings are supervisory and directed to correctness of the order; adjudication of disputed facts/merits is generally the domain of assessment proceedings and appeals therefrom. Appellate remedy lies against quantum additions before the Commissioner (Appeals) and onward to the Tribunal.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal referred to Supreme Court authority and Tribunal practice that merits of additions should not ordinarily be decided in revisionary proceedings when an appeal against quantum is pending.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal declined to entertain the assessee's contention on the admissibility of goodwill depreciation (including reliance on higher court precedent allowing depreciation) within the Section 263 appeal, because doing so would pre-empt the appellate forum (CIT(A)) which already had the quantum appeal pending. The Tribunal emphasised that Section 263 is concerned with whether the AO's order was erroneous and prejudicial, not with re-adjudicating substantive controversies that are pending on appeal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Merits of disputed additions should be adjudicated in the appeal against quantum and not in revision proceedings under Section 263; revision should not pre-empt appellate adjudication on merits. Obiter - reference to the specific precedent relied upon by the assessee to contest disallowance; the Tribunal indicated that such merits can be examined in the pending quantum appeal.
Conclusion: The Tribunal will not decide the substantive correctness of allowing depreciation on goodwill in the Section 263 appeal; that issue remains for determination in the appeal against quantum additions.
Overall Disposition
Because the assessment order contained an apparent error in respect of the quantum of addition (AO's disallowance inconsistent with the computation) that was prejudicial to revenue, and because the PCIT is not precluded from exercising revisionary jurisdiction where an error could also be rectified under Section 154, the revision under Section 263 was valid. The Tribunal upheld the PCIT's order setting aside the assessment and directing the AO to pass a fresh order; the merits of the goodwill-depreciation claim are to be decided in the pending appeal on quantum.
Revision u/s 263 - Disallowance of depreciation on goodwill - PCIT jurisdiction in respect of an error which is apparent from record - HELD THAT:- The provision of Section 263 of the Act does not preclude the PCIT to exercise his jurisdiction in respect of an error which is apparent from record and could also be subject to rectification under the provisions of Section 154 of the Act. When the case record is called for and examined by the PCIT, any error in the order noticed by him which is prejudicial to the interest of revenue, is subject matter of his revisionary jurisdiction u/s 263 of the Act.
Merely because such an error can also be rectified under other provisions viz. u/s 147 or u/s 154 of the Act, does not take away the inherent jurisdiction of the PCIT. Once having noticed the mistake, it is incumbent upon the PCIT to pass order u/s 263 of the Act and issue necessary direction to the AO. Therefore, the plea of the assessee that the Ld. PCIT could not have passed order u/s 263 of the Act in respect of a mistake apparent from record which could be rectified u/s 154 of the Act, cannot be accepted.
We cannot preclude the Ld. PCIT from exercising his jurisdiction u/s 263 of the Act, given as per the statute.
Whether the order of the AO was erroneous and prejudicial to the internet of the revenue? - In the present case the AO had wrongly disallowed the depreciation on goodwill of Rs. 10,89,82,058/-; as against the claim of Rs. 27,63,20,888/- made by the assessee. Therefore, the order of the AO was not only erroneous but also prejudicial to the interests of the revenue and the Ld. PCIT had rightly exercised his jurisdiction u/s 263 of the Act.
As regarding the contention of the assessee that no disallowance in respect of the depreciation on goodwill was called for in view of the judgement of Smifs Securities Limited [2012 (8) TMI 713 - SUPREME COURT] this aspect can be examined in the course of regular appeal against the quantum addition made by the AO.
Assessee has already filed an appeal against the addition as made by the AO, which is pending before the ld. CIT(A). If we adjudicate the merit of addition in the present appeal filed by the assessee against the order under Section 263 of the Act, we will be pre-empting the Ld. CIT(A) from taking a decision on this issue in the quantum appeal, which is not desirable. The merit of addition is required to be decided only in the appeal against quantum addition and not in the present appeal. Appeal of the assessee is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether reassessment proceedings initiated beyond four years under section 147/148 are valid where the original assessment under section 143(3) had considered the same primary facts - i.e., whether the Assessing Officer had "reason to believe" that income had escaped assessment by reason of failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts, or whether reopening amounted to impermissible change of opinion/borrowed satisfaction.
2. Whether information/reports from the investigation wing (DDIT/ITO (Inv.)) and statements recorded during search proceedings can constitute independent "reason to believe" for reopening when the Assessing Officer did not make independent inquiries, did not place such material in the reasons, or mechanically relied on that information.
3. Whether sanction/approval under section 151 (or the statutory sanction procedure) was validly and meaningfully recorded (i.e., whether higher authority applied independent mind or merely rubber-stamped), and whether absence/non-production of sanction record vitiates reopening.
4. Whether credit entries shown as share capital and share premium can be treated as unexplained income (cash credit under section 68) where the assessee produced share applications, bank evidences, ITRs and audited financials of subscribers establishing identity, genuineness and creditworthiness; and whether the department must prove source-of-source or can add the amounts in the assessee's hands.
5. Whether reliance on statements/evidence gathered behind the assessee's back (e.g. statement of a third party recorded under section 132) without furnishing the statement to the assessee or affording opportunity for confrontation/cross-examination violates principles of natural justice and renders additions unsustainable.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Validity of reopening under section 147/148 (change of opinion vs. fresh material)
Legal framework: Reopening beyond four years requires the AO to have "reason to believe" that income has escaped assessment and that such escapement arose by reason of failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts; this is a jurisdictional precondition and not a mere formality.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on settled Supreme Court and High Court authorities holding that mere change of opinion, re-appreciation of facts, or error in original assessment does not justify reopening beyond four years (e.g., precedents explaining that once primary facts are disclosed the onus ends and AO cannot review his earlier conclusion).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the original 143(3) assessment record and found that the same primary facts concerning share subscriptions had been placed before and considered by the original AO (share application forms, bank entries, ITRs, audited accounts). The reasons recorded for reopening did not identify any new primary facts withheld by the assessee; rather, reopening flowed from information received from investigation units and amounted to a re-examination of the same material. The reasons lacked any rational nexus showing that the assessee had failed to disclose material facts - they instead reflected suspicion and re-interpretation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Reopening in these circumstances amounted to impermissible change of opinion/borrowed satisfaction and was jurisdictionally invalid. Obiter - Observations on the need for self-explanatory reasons and the limits of reassessment power.
Conclusion: The Court held the reopening under section 147/148 to be invalid insofar as it was predicated on a mere change of opinion without fresh tangible material or failure of disclosure by the assessee; the proceedings were quashed on that ground.
Issue 2 - Reliance on investigation reports/borrowed satisfaction without independent inquiry
Legal framework: "Reason to believe" must be the AO's own reasoned belief based on material in his possession; information from investigation wing, by itself, does not suffice unless the AO independently applies his mind, conducts inquiries as necessary, and records an intelligible nexus between the material and the belief.
Precedent treatment: Cited authorities establish that the AO cannot act on "borrowed satisfaction" of the investigation wing, that reasons must show application of mind and a rational link to objective material, and that mere suspicion or direction from another officer is insufficient.
Interpretation and reasoning: The recorded reasons repeatedly stated that enquiries were already made by the investigation unit and "no further enquiry is required." The AO neither described the investigative material nor annexed it to the reasons; the AO did not perform independent verification (for example, by comparing the investigation inputs to the assessee's balance sheet or bank records). The reasons therefore amounted to a mechanical adoption of reports and failed the statutory test of being the AO's own reasons to believe.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Reliance solely on investigation reports without independent application of mind renders the reasons and reopening invalid. Obiter - Practical guidance that referenced investigation reports should be paraphrased or annexed and that AO must make independent enquiries where necessary.
Conclusion: The Court found the AO's reliance on third-party investigation material without independent examination to be unlawful; the reopening was invalidated for lack of AO's own(reasoned) satisfaction.
Issue 3 - Validity of sanction/approval under section 151 (rubber-stamp vs. considered sanction)
Legal framework: Statutory sanction (section 151) is a mandatory condition for reopening in specified cases; the sanctioning authority must form an independent satisfaction and the sanction record should be meaningful (not a mere stamp or 'yes').
Precedent treatment: Authorities require that the sanctioning officer apply independent mind and record reasons; mechanical or rubber-stamp approvals are invalid.
Interpretation and reasoning: The sanction/approval documents were not placed before the assessee; the reasons recorded indicated that sanction would be "obtained separately" and there was no evidence that the sanctioning authority examined the assessment record or applied independent mind. The Court treated non-production and absence of a reasoned sanction as further evidence of a mechanical process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where sanction is not shown to be meaningfully recorded or is not produced, that vitiates the reopening process. Obiter - Emphasis that sanction should contain discernible application of mind.
Conclusion: The Court held the sanctioning step deficient and corroborative of the invalidity of the reopening, thereby supporting quashing of the reassessment.
Issue 4 - Treatment of share capital and share premium as unexplained income under section 68 (onus of assessee; source-of-source)
Legal framework: Under section 68 the assessee must explain the nature and source of credited amounts; where identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of the subscriber are established by appropriate documents (share application forms, bank evidences, ITRs, audited accounts), the assessee discharges initial onus and the AO must rebut that explanation by independent material.
Precedent treatment: High Court/Tribunal authorities hold that if subscribers are identifiable, assessed to tax, and payments are through banking channels and corroborated in their books/returns, such amounts cannot be treated as the assessee's unexplained income; the department must, if necessary, proceed against the subscribers themselves.
Interpretation and reasoning: The assessee produced share application forms, bank statements corroborating payments, ITRs and audited reports of the subscriber companies. The AO did not produce any direct evidence contradicting those documents and relied instead on generalized investigative claims and an alleged statement of a third party (which was retracted). The AO blurred the form/nature of alleged accommodation entries and made additions without specifying the legal basis or establishing that the share applicants' transactions were benami or conduits of the assessee's own funds. The Court reiterated that AO cannot require the assessee to prove the source-of-source where the immediate source and identity are satisfactorily explained.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of shareholders are proved by documentary evidence and not disproved by AO with specific material, addition under section 68 is not sustainable; the remedy of the revenue is to investigate and reopen assessments of the purported subscribers. Obiter - Observations on the irrelevance of assessing source-of-source at the stage where the immediate source is satisfactorily explained.
Conclusion: The Court held the addition of share capital and premium as undisclosed income unsustainable on merits, and that the assessee had discharged its onus under section 68; thus additions were deleted in any event.
Issue 5 - Natural justice: non-production of investigation material/third-party statements and denial of opportunity for confrontation/cross-examination
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice require that material relied upon by the AO (including statements or summaries gathered behind the assessee's back) be communicated so that the assessee can rebut and cross-examine; failure to disclose such material may vitiate the assessment.
Precedent treatment: Courts have held that where material is relied upon but not furnished, or where additions rest primarily on statements recorded in search/survey without providing copies or opportunity for cross-examination, the assessment is vulnerable.
Interpretation and reasoning: The AO referred to a statement of an alleged entry operator but did not furnish the statement to the assessee; the assessee obtained a retraction affidavit from that person. The AO did not provide the substance of investigative material in reasons or show that the assessee had an opportunity to test that evidence. The Court found violation of natural justice principles and that the AO's reliance on undisclosed material was impermissible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Reliance on undisclosed investigative statements without providing them to the assessee and affording opportunity of confrontation vitiates the assessment. Obiter - Courts' expectation that investigative materials underpinning reasons should be made available or paraphrased in reasons.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that reliance on undisclosed/unanalyzed investigative material, coupled with denial of opportunity to confront witnesses, rendered the additions and proceedings unsustainable.
Overall Conclusion
The Court concluded that (i) reopening under section 147/148 was invalid because it amounted to a change of opinion and was based on borrowed satisfaction from investigation units without independent application of mind; (ii) sanction under section 151 was not shown to be meaningfully recorded; (iii) material relied upon by the AO (investigation reports and third-party statements) was not placed before the assessee and opportunity for confrontation was not afforded, breaching natural justice; and (iv) on merits, the assessee had discharged its onus under section 68 by producing documentary evidence of identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of share subscribers - therefore the addition of share capital and share premium as undisclosed income was unsustainable. The reassessment and consequential additions were accordingly quashed/deleted.
Validity of reopening of assessment - reassessment proceedings was initiated solely on the basis of report of DDIT (Inv.) Unit 1(3), Kolkata - allegation of non independent application of mind - Addition u/s 68 - addition by treating share capital and premium thereon received from the various parties as bogus - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the reassessment proceedings was initiated solely on the basis of report of DDIT (Inv.) Unit 1(3), Kolkata and without making the independent inquiry by the AO at his own hands or even without applying his own mind on the information so received. There is catena of judicial pronouncements on this issue which clearly supports the assessee’s case on the lack of jurisdiction with the AO who had merely adopted reasons to believe on the basis of the report of other authorities and that there is total non-application of mind in recording the reasons for assumption of jurisdiction.
Reassessment proceedings initiated are hereby quashed on account of non application of independent mind by AO, formation of belief on borrowed satisfaction of other Wing of the department and change of opinion. Accordingly the proceedings u/s 148 are held to be void ab initio and consequentially the notice u/s 148 as well as assessment and appeal orders of lower authorities are quashed. Thus Ground no. 2 is allowed.
Addition of share application money / share capital - Assessee provided all the documentary evidences so as to prove the identity, credit worthiness and genuineness of the transaction by placing all the records such as PAN, Application made for Shares, Financial Statements and Bank statements of the investor companies which were not at all doubted by ld. AO. But all such vital evidence has been ignored solely on the basis of statements of third party recorded by some other officials during the course of search operation conducted and that too that statement was retracted.
Thus, even otherwise the Bench noted that so far as merits of the case of the assessee, the revenue emphasized on the statement of Shri Mukesh Banka recorded in the search. That statement was retracted by him vide retraction statement filed on 04.09.2019 before the ld. DDIT, Kolkata.
Therefore, even if we consider the merits of the dispute, the same has already been verified in the first round in an order passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act and based on the search of Banka Group the reliance was placed on the statement of Shri Mukesh Banka who has retracted the statement. Thus, even on these merits, in the case of PCIT Vs. M/s. Esspal International P. Ltd. [2024 (9) TMI 652 - RAJASTHAN HIGH COURT] held that merely based on the retracted statement no addition can be made.
Respectfully following the finding of Apex Court in the case of CIT vs. Lovely Export Pvt. Ltd. [2008 (1) TMI 575 - SC ORDER] and M/s. Esspal International P. Ltd. [2024 (9) TMI 652 - RAJASTHAN HIGH COURT] even on merits addition cannot be sustained.
Assessee appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an amount of currency deposited in a bank account and thereafter transferred by RTGS constitutes "property" capable of being the subject-matter of a benami transaction under the PBPT Act, 1988 (as amended 2016).
2. Whether a bipartite transaction (beneficial owner handing over cash directly to an alleged benamidar who deposits and returns it) falls within the scope of "benami transaction" under section 2(9)(A) of the PBPT Act, or whether the definition is restricted to tripartite transactions.
3. Whether a deposit of cash made by a purported beneficial owner with instructions to deposit and return (during the demonetisation period) is excluded from the definition of benami transaction by reason of a fiduciary relationship or by operation of section 2(9)(A)(ii).
4. Whether statements recorded under section 131 of the Income-tax Act and subsidiary documentary evidence (invoice) can be relied upon to sustain a finding of a benami transaction and to justify provisional attachment under section 24(3)/(4) of the PBPT Act.
5. Whether the setting aside/remand of an income-tax assessment order by the ITAT undermines or negatived the findings/evidence relied upon by the Initiating Officer and Adjudicating Authority under the PBPT Act.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Cash as "Property" under PBPT Act
Legal framework: Section 2(26) defines "property" in expansive terms to include movable assets; the PBPT Act contemplates property of every kind as capable of being benami.
Precedent treatment: The Court refers to authoritative interpretation in the context of the 2016 amendment which treats cash within the wide ambit of property under the Act.
Interpretation and reasoning: Cash is a highly valuable and liquid asset, universally acceptable and convertible; therefore, currency notes fall within the statutory definition of property. The currency transfer and bank deposit are treated as transfer/holding of property for purposes of the Act.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - cash can be subject-matter of benami transaction under the PBPT Act.
Conclusion: Cash deposited and transferred in bank accounts may constitute "property" capable of being benami property.
Issue 2 - Bipartite Transactions within Section 2(9)(A)
Legal framework: Section 2(9)(A) describes a benami transaction where a property is transferred to/held by one person and consideration provided by another, and the property is held for the immediate or future benefit of the person providing consideration.
Precedent treatment: Consideration of the Supreme Court's analysis of the 2016 amendment shows explicit expansion from only tripartite to include bipartite transactions; earlier narrower constructions are distinguishable on amendments.
Interpretation and reasoning: The statutory text contemplates both scenarios by using language "transferred to, or is held by" a person and by including instances where property is transferred and held even for a short period. Here, the cash was transferred to and held by the alleged benamidar (in his account) for the benefit of the person who provided it, satisfying the twin conditions of section 2(9)(A).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - post-amendment, bipartite transactions can fall within the definition of benami transaction; the present facts satisfy the statutory conditions.
Conclusion: The PBPT Act covers bipartite transactions; the placed facts meet the statutory requirements for a benami transaction.
Issue 3 - Fiduciary Relationship Exception (Section 2(9)(A)(ii))
Legal framework: Section 2(9)(A)(ii) excludes certain relationships (e.g., trustee, agent, fiduciary) where property is held on account of such bona fide relationships from being benami.
Precedent treatment: Tribunal decisions accepting fiduciary exceptions are fact-specific and not binding if facts differ materially; fiduciary claims cannot be invoked where the nature of the relationship and conduct are inconsistent with a bona fide fiduciary role.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined factual matrix: the alleged benamidar ran an independent business, the timing amid demonetisation, lack of contemporaneous record of handing over cash prior to demonetisation, inconsistent accounts of purpose, and existence of a suspect invoice. These factors undermined the claim of a bona fide fiduciary transfer. The arrangement was not established as a genuine agency/ fiduciary relationship but as a short-term holding to integrate demonetised notes into banking channels for the benefit of the provider.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - fiduciary exception not attracted on these facts where independent business status, timing, inconsistent statements, and documentary evidence point to an ulterior motive rather than bona fide fiduciary holding.
Conclusion: Section 2(9)(A)(ii) exception does not apply; the cash was not held in a bona fide fiduciary capacity.
Issue 4 - Reliance on Statements under Section 131 and Documentary Evidence (Invoice) to Sustain Benami Finding and Provisional Attachment
Legal framework: Statements recorded under oath and contemporaneous documentary evidence can constitute admissible material forming basis for administrative action (provisional attachment under sections 24(3)/(4)); the PBPT Act permits provisional measures on satisfaction of the Initiating Officer.
Precedent treatment: Statements made under oath and corroborated by independent statements/documentary evidence are of high evidentiary value; courts will require formal retraction with cogent reasons before discarding such statements as being under duress.
Interpretation and reasoning: The alleged benamidar's sworn statement admitted receipt, deposit and transfer back with instructions. That statement was corroborated by a sworn statement of a director of the provider. The appellants' later inconsistent explanations (vague dates, shifting rationales) and admission that the invoice was a scrap document undermined their defence. The Court held that a bare allegation of duress without formal retraction or cogent explanation does not nullify sworn admissions. The invoice suggesting simulated sale reinforced an intention to conceal source/character of funds.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - sworn statements and corroborative documentary evidence support the finding of benami transaction and justify provisional attachment; mere later inconsistency or ITAT remand does not automatically negate such evidence.
Conclusion: The Initiating Officer and Adjudicating Authority were justified in relying on statements and documentary material to confirm provisional attachment.
Issue 5 - Effect of ITAT Setting Aside/Remand of Income-Tax Assessment on PBPT Proceedings
Legal framework: Findings and orders under the Income-tax Act, including remand/setting-aside by appellate authorities, are not determinative of independent statutory proceedings under PBPT; differing statutory schemes govern separate remedies.
Precedent treatment: Remand by tax appellate forum to examine factual claims does not amount to an affirmance of the assessee's defence; it is a direction for further inquiry and does not preclude action under other statutes when independent evidence supports such action.
Interpretation and reasoning: The ITAT remitted the tax issue for factual verification and did not accept the appellants' version as a conclusive finding in their favour. The Court noted inconsistent positions taken before different fora and treated the ITAT order as not contravening the evidence relied upon in PBPT proceedings. The PBPT proceedings stand on their own facts and statutory criteria for benami and attachment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an appellate tax order remitting or setting aside assessments does not nullify independent findings under the PBPT Act where the PBPT record contains admissible, corroborated admissions and documentary material.
Conclusion: The ITAT order did not vitiate the Initiating Officer's or Adjudicating Authority's findings; it did not preclude confirmation of provisional attachment under the PBPT Act.
Final Conclusion
On the facts - sworn admissions, corroborative director's statement, suspicious invoice, timing during demonetisation, inconsistent later explanations, and statutory construction - the attributes necessary for a benami transaction under section 2(9)(A) (transfer/holding by one person, consideration provided by another, held for benefit of person providing consideration) are satisfied. The fiduciary exception is not attracted. Cash is within the definition of property. Reliance on sworn statements and documentary material to confirm provisional attachment was permissible. Accordingly, the appeal is without merit and the confirmation of provisional attachment is sustained.
Benami transaction - cash deposited in the bank account of the beneficiary company - effect of demonetization to flush out black money by showing unexplained cash in old currency to be legitimate business receipts - search and survey proceedings under section 132/133A of the Income Tax Act - existence of a fiduciary relationship between the alleged Benamidar and the alleged Beneficial Owner - Cash as "Property" under PBPT Act - definition of property as provided under Section 2(26) of the PBPT Act, 1988 - HELD THAT:- It is claimed by the appellants that the cash was handed over to Sh. M.C. Jain by M/s BGJPL in order to capture the business opportunity on account of huge demand of gold ornaments in the festive and marriage season in the last week of October/first week of November, 2016 and the cash was out of the duly accounted sale proceeds of the company. The respondent Department, however, has held that in view of demonetization of old currency notes of denominations of Rs. 1000/- and Rs. 500/-, Sh. M.C. Jain had allowed his bank account to be used to deposit old notes of these denominations belonging BGJPL and the sum so deposited was later transferred to account of BGJPL.
The argument of the ld. Counsel of the respondent that M/s BGJPL itself being in the jewellery business, what expertise was Shri M.C Jain expected to bring in purchasing gold on their behalf, is also not without merit. In light of all these facts, we have no hesitation in coming to the conclusion that the true version of the facts was what had originally been stated by Shri M.C Jain in his statement, namely, that the entire exercise was intended to defeat the effect of demonetization to flush out black money by showing unexplained cash in old currency to be legitimate business receipts.
The differing versions of facts claimed before the ITAT and this Appellate Tribunal gives credence to the submission of the Ld. Counsel for the respondent that the appellant is blowing hot and cold. Thirdly, it is evident that as per the appellant’s own submission before the ITAT, the amount of Rs. 92,00,000/- had previously not been declared and was only declared after the search operation conducted by the I-T Department. Considering all these facts, we see absolutely no merit in the claim that the ITAT has given any finding in the appellant’s favour as regards the cash of Rs. 92,00,000/-. On the contrary, the order of the ITAT clearly goes against the claims made by the appellant before us.
Fiduciary capacity - None of the alleged Benamidars claimed right or ownership over the cash, rather it was stated by them that it belongs to the alleged Beneficial Owners. In the statement of alleged Beneficial Owners, they also did not disown the cash, rather it was stated by them cash belonged to them and was kept in the safe custody of their employees. In that case, the appellants’ claim of exception from the definition of benami property on account of existence of a fiduciary relationship between the alleged Benamidar and the alleged Beneficial Owner was upheld while at the same time, holding that fiduciary capacity cannot be used as an exception in all the circumstances which may include transfer of property for or is held for illegal purpose.
The appellant is not an employee of M/s BGJPL but is admittedly running an independent jewellery business of his own. Secondly, the transaction occurred during the demonetization period which offers a much simpler explanation for the same, which was also duly admitted by Shri M.C Jain in his statement on oath. The fake invoice discussed in the preceding paragraphs also reveals the mental state and the deliberate intention of the appellants to cook-up facts with an ulterior motive.
Cash as "Property" under PBPT Act - We are also wholly in agreement with the submission of the Ld. Counsel for the respondent that cash is squarely covered in the definition of property as provided under Section 2(26) of the PBPT Act, 1988 wherein the word has been defined in widest terms to include assets of every kind, movable and immovable, tangible or intangible, corporeal or non-corporeal. Thus cash, being a highly valuable and highly liquid asset which finds ready and universal acceptability within the country, and is even convertible into currencies of other countries, clearly falls within the definition of property as provided under the Act and can be the subject matter of a Benami Transaction.
A transaction could be benami if it is either “transferred to” or “held by” a person and the other conditions specified in the section are also met. In the present case an amount of Rs. 92,00,000/- in cash was “transferred to” Shri M.C Jain in cash and it was “held by” him in his account, even though only for a short period, before it was transferred to M/s BGJPL by RTGS. It is also not denied, rather it is expressly admitted, that the property was transferred to and held by Sh. M.C. Jain for the benefit of M/s BGJPL which was, therefore, the ‘beneficial owner’ of the property within the meaning of the Act. Accordingly, all the attributes required to constitute the deposit a benami property were clearly present. We have already held that the property was not held by Shri M.C Jain in the fiduciary capacity, and therefore, the exception under section 2(9)(A)(ii) is not attracted.
We find no merit in the instant appeal and therefore, dismiss the same.
Issues: Whether the writ petition under Articles 226 and 227 challenging continued detention and seeking release of seized goods is maintainable where an Order-in-Original has been passed by the Customs Authority, a copy of which was received by the petitioner's authorised advocate and records a waiver of show cause notice and personal hearing.
Analysis: The Court examined the Order-in-Original dated 26th February, 2024, which records denial of free allowance, declaration of the passenger as ineligible under Notification No. 50/2017-Cus and Baggage Rules, 2016, absolute confiscation of the seized jewellery under Sections 111(d), 111(j) and 111(m) of the Customs Act, 1962, and imposition of penalty under Sections 112(a) and 112(b). The Order-in-Original bears an acknowledgement signed by the petitioner's counsel acting as authorised representative. Section 153(1)(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 permits service of orders on an authorised representative including an advocate. The Court found that once the advocate received the Order-in-Original the communication was served on the petitioner and that the Order-in-Original records a waiver of issuance of show cause notice and personal hearing. The petitioner did not disclose these facts in the writ petition and did not challenge the Order-in-Original in the petition before the Court. The Court therefore treated the petition as not approaching with clean hands and observed that the appropriate remedy for the petitioner is to challenge the Order-in-Original in accordance with law, including any application for condonation of delay.
Conclusion: The writ petition is not maintainable and is dismissed; costs of Rs. 10,000 are to be deposited with the Customs Department.
Service by authorised representative - waiver of show cause notice - maintainability of writ petition in presence of an Order in Original - service under Section 153(1)(a) of the Customs Act, 1962
Service by authorised representative - service under Section 153(1)(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 - A copy of the Order in Original received by the petitioner's advocate/authorised representative constituted valid service on the petitioner. - HELD THAT: - The Court recorded that the Order in Original bore the signature of the petitioner's advocate who had received the order as authorised representative and that the advocate's bar card showed registration with the Bar Council. Applying Section 153(1)(a) of the Customs Act, 1962, which permits service by delivery to an authorised representative including an advocate, the Court held that receipt by the advocate amounted to service on the petitioner. The petitioner's subsequent claim that the advocate did not inform him of the order was found not to be believable in the circumstances and did not negate the effect of valid service on the petitioner through his authorised representative. [Paras 11, 12]
Receipt of the order by the petitioner's advocate constituted valid service on the petitioner.
Waiver of show cause notice - maintainability of writ petition in presence of an Order in Original - The petition was not maintainable because material facts - namely, that the authorised advocate had submitted a representation waiving the show cause notice and had received the Order in Original - were not disclosed; the proper remedy is to challenge the Order in Original. - HELD THAT: - The Order in Original recorded that the same advocate had appeared on behalf of the petitioner and had submitted a representation which included a waiver of the show cause notice and personal hearing. Those facts were omitted from the writ petition. The Court found that the petitioner had not approached the Court with clean hands. Given that the administrative Order in Original had been passed and served on the authorised representative, the Court concluded that the petition could not be maintained and that the petitioner's recourse was to challenge the Order in Original through appropriate proceedings, including any application for condonation of delay if necessary. [Paras 13, 14, 15, 16]
Petition dismissed as not maintainable for non disclosure of material facts; petitioner may challenge the Order in Original.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition challenging continued detention of the seized goods is dismissed as not maintainable because the Order in Original was validly served on the petitioner's authorised advocate and material facts including a waiver of show cause notice were not disclosed; the petitioner remains free to challenge the Order in Original in accordance with law.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether non-issuance of a show-cause notice within the time prescribed by Section 110(2) of the Customs Act results in statutory dissolution of the seizure and mandates release of seized goods.
2. Whether provisional release under Section 110A operates to negate the consequence of non-issuance of notice under Section 110(2).
3. Scope and effect of the first proviso to Section 110(2) permitting extension of time by the Principal Commissioner/Commissioner and the conditions attached to such extension.
4. Relationship between the time period in Section 110(2) and issuance of a show-cause notice under Section 124; whether the time period for notice in Section 110(2) governs the validity of a later show-cause notice.
5. Mechanical relief and incidental directions upon a finding of breach of the statutory time limit (e.g., release subject to warehousing charges, re-export, identity verification, and appraisement at release).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Effect of non-issuance of show-cause notice within Section 110(2)
Legal framework: Section 110(2) prescribes a statutory time period (six months) within which steps contemplated for detained/seized goods must be taken; failure to comply has statutory consequences. Section 124 provides for issuance of show-cause notice in relation to seized goods.
Precedent Treatment: The Court follows and applies the Supreme Court's ruling in the referred Jatin Ahuja decision (supra) and the Division Bench decision of this Court that was upheld by the Supreme Court, treating them as authoritative on the consequence of non-issuance.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepts the plain-text and purposive reading that if no show-cause notice (as required by clause (a) of Section 124) is issued within the statutory period fixed by Section 110(2), and no valid extension under the proviso has been recorded and communicated, the statutory consequence is dissolution of the seizure and release of the goods to the person from whose possession they were seized.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - non-issuance within prescribed/extended period leads to mandatory release; the Court adopts this as binding in the present factual matrix. (Observations in the precedent distinguishing other High Court views are treated as explanatory ratio rather than obiter.)
Conclusion: Where, as in the present case, no show-cause notice was issued within the period under Section 110(2) and no valid extension was made, the seized gold chain must be released to the passenger.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Interaction between Section 110A provisional release and Section 110(2)
Legal framework: Section 110A allows provisional release of goods (interim orders), while Section 110(2) prescribes the time limit for prosecutorial/administrative action following seizure.
Precedent Treatment: The Court follows the Supreme Court's analysis that Section 110A's interim release power does not immunize the Revenue against the consequences of failing to comply with Section 110(2).
Interpretation and reasoning: Section 110A is characterized as an interim, enabling provision for release of certain classes of goods; it does not operate to extinguish statutory consequences of inaction under Section 110(2). The Court rejects any construction that release under Section 110A would negate the mandatory operation of Section 110(2)'s consequence of release where timelines are breached.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - provisional release under Section 110A does not override the time-bar consequence under Section 110(2).
Conclusion: A prior or possible provisional release under Section 110A is not a valid basis to deny unconditional release where Section 110(2) timelines and extension formalities remain unfulfilled.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Scope and conditions of the first proviso to Section 110(2)
Legal framework: The first proviso permits the Principal Commissioner/Commissioner to extend the six-month period by not more than six months for reasons recorded in writing and requires informing the person from whom goods were seized before expiry of the original period.
Precedent Treatment: The Court follows the precedent's construction that the proviso is the only statutory mechanism to lawfully extend the period; its conditions (reasons in writing and prior communication to the affected person) are mandatory preconditions to the validity of any extension.
Interpretation and reasoning: The proviso's wording contemplates contemporaneous recording of reasons and a requirement to inform the person before the original six months expire. Absence of such recorded reasons and communication means the extended period never validly arises; consequently, statutory relief follows.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - extension under the proviso must comply strictly with its conditions; non-compliance renders any purported extension ineffective.
Conclusion: No release of statutory consequences can be avoided unless the extension was validly recorded and communicated as mandated by the proviso.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 4: Relationship between Section 110(2)'s time period and issuance of show-cause notice under Section 124
Legal framework: Section 110(2) prescribes temporal limits related to seized/detained goods; Section 124 governs show-cause notices in respect of seized goods.
Precedent Treatment: The Court adopts the Supreme Court's clarification that the time period in Section 110(2) is the statutory yardstick for the consequence of inaction; while issuance of a show-cause notice under Section 124 is a distinct statutory step, its operability is constrained by the time limits of Section 110(2).
Interpretation and reasoning: The provisions operate in different fields but are interrelated: the statutory time limit in Section 110(2) determines whether the seizure sustains; if the period lapses without required action or valid extension, the right to issue a later show-cause notice cannot revive the seizure. The Court reiterates that the time prescribed in Section 110(2) is not an auxiliary detail but a substantive limit affecting Section 124's operation.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the time period in Section 110(2) controls the consequence of non-action and cannot be circumvented by issuing a show-cause notice after the statutory/extended period has expired.
Conclusion: A show-cause notice issued after the expiry of the statutory/validly extended period cannot prevent release mandated by Section 110(2)'s operation.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 5: Relief and incidental directions upon finding of statutory breach
Legal framework: Courts may grant equitable/mechanical directions consistent with statutory consequences to effectuate release, subject to lawful conditions such as payment of warehousing charges, identity verification, and re-export obligations.
Precedent Treatment: The Court follows the approach in the controlling precedents that mandate release while permitting reasonable administrative steps to be undertaken at the time of release (e.g., appraisement, verification).
Interpretation and reasoning: While the statutory consequence is unconditional release, the Court permits compliance with practical safeguards: payment of warehousing charges as applicable, appearance of the person (including by video conferencing), authorized representative collection after verification, and completion of appraisement if not already done. These are procedural conditions ancillary to the substantive right of release and do not derogate from it.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - release can be directed subject only to reasonable administrative formalities; such directions are necessary to give effect to the mandate of release without impeding statutory rights.
Conclusion: The seized item is to be released within a specified period for re-export, subject to payment of warehousing charges, identity verification (including VC attendance), authorized representative collection upon confirmation, and completion of appraisement if pending.
Seeking unconditional release of the Petitioner’s gold chain seized by the Customs Department - no show cause notice has been issued till date and no personal hearing has been granted - Violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- It is setteled position of law that where the show cause notice has not been issued within the period of six months, extendable by another six months, and the seized goods have not been provisionally released, the said goods would be liable to be released to the passenger.
In view of the fact that no show cause notice has been issued within the prescribed period under Section 110 of the Act, the necessary consequence of the same, in light of Jatin Ahuja - I, would be to direct the Petitioner’s gold chain to be released - The Petitioner is a resident of Iran and he is willing to re-export the gold item. Accordingly, let the Customs Department release the gold chain to the Petitioner for re-export subject to payment of warehousing charges as applicable on the date of detention, within a month.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
Whether a statutory mandatory pre-deposit requirement under Section 129E (as amended by the Finance Act No.2 of 2014) - imposing 7.5%/10% pre-deposit for appeals - can be waived or reduced solely on the ground that the appellant's bank account has been frozen by the department, preventing access to funds.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue: Whether freezing of the bank account of an appellant constitutes a permissible ground for discretionary waiver or relaxation of the mandatory pre-deposit requirement under the statutory scheme.
Legal framework: The Finance Act introduced a uniform mandatory regime of pre-deposit (7.5%/10% of duty or penalty) for all appeals filed on or after 06.08.2014. Section 129E prescribes the pre-deposit condition for prosecuting appeals; the right of appeal is statutory and subject to the conditions imposed by the legislature. The duty drawback was originally availed under Section 75(1) of the Customs Act and the Drawback Rules, but the appeal regime is governed by the mandatory pre-deposit rules.
Precedent Treatment: The Court treated prior authority from this High Court as directly applicable and binding on the issue, and noted consistent views from other High Courts and tribunals which hold that the mandatory pre-deposit regime cannot be relaxed merely because a bank account is frozen. The earlier judgment of this Court was followed; similar positions of the Bombay High Court and CESTAT, Delhi were cited as supporting authorities. A contrary view from another High Court was referenced by counsel but not followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that the right of appeal is a statutory right and therefore may be made subject to conditions enacted by the legislature. The mandatory pre-deposit regime is not an unfettered discretion of the adjudicatory authority to be relaxed on equitable grounds; permitting an exception solely because an appellant's account is frozen would effectively nullify the legislative compulsion. The Court held that exclusion or prevention of access to funds due to freezing by the department does not create a legal basis to disregard the statutory pre-deposit requirement. Binding precedent requires adherence to the legislative mandate unless overruled by a higher authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The statutory mandatory pre-deposit requirement under Section 129E cannot be waived or relaxed solely on the ground that the appellant's bank account has been frozen by the department; the right of appeal is subject to legislative conditions and the mandatory pre-deposit must be complied with. Obiter - References to alternative or equitable considerations (e.g., hardships caused by freezing) were mentioned but not accepted as legal grounds to impinge the mandatory statutory requirement.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the mandatory pre-deposit regime cannot be waived merely because the appellant's bank account is frozen. The proper course is compliance with the statutory pre-deposit condition. However, where the appellant offers to make the pre-deposit, the appellate authority must revive and decide the appeal on merits after compliance and hearing. The Court, while refusing to recognize freezing as a standalone ground for waiver, permitted the appellant to make the statutory pre-deposit (7.5%) within a specified period and directed revival of the appeal upon such compliance; failure to comply would result in confirmation of the impugned order.
Cross-references: The Court expressly relied on and followed its earlier decision on identical legal proposition and noted consonant decisions of other High Courts and tribunals; a contrary High Court decision cited by the petitioner was considered but not followed.
Mandatory pre-deposit- Recovery of duty drawback availed - non-submission of proof of export realisation as is required under the relevant rules - seeking waiver of the mandatory pre-deposit exigency under Section 129E of the Customs Act, on the ground that the petitioner's bank account has been frozen by the department - HELD THAT:- The issue involved in the present case is squarely covered by the earlier judgment of this Court in Dream Castle Vs. Union of India [2016 (5) TMI 672 - MADRAS HIGH COURT]. Similar view has been taken even by the Bombay High Court in Nimbus Communications Ltd. Vs. Union of India [2016 (8) TMI 451 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and also the CESTAT, Delhi. It has been categorically held that the right of appeal is only a statutory right and it is not an unfettered or absolute right and therefore, it is subject to conditions imposed by the legislature, where there is mandatory regime of pre-deposit. It was further held that this mandatory requirement cannot be relaxed only on the ground that the bank account has been frozen by the department.
When this Court expressed its mind to the learned counsel for the petitioner, the learned counsel submitted that the petitioner may be permitted to make the pre-deposit and contest the appeal on merits.
Petition disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Corrigendum Notification increasing the anti-dumping duty from 27.86% to 30.16% was validly issued by the designated authority in the absence of express review or correction powers.
2. Whether the impugned Corrigendum Notification amounted to a mere arithmetical correction (obvious error) or an exercise of review/reassessment requiring jurisdictional power.
3. Whether principles of natural justice and fair play required at least minimal procedural opportunity (notice and hearing) to be afforded to the affected party before issuance of the Corrigendum Notification that imposes civil/pecuniary consequences.
4. Consequential issue: validity of the Customs Notification issued on the basis of the Corrigendum Notification insofar as it raised demands at the enhanced rate.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Authority to issue Corrigendum: legal framework
Legal framework: Administrative actions that alter statutory burdens (here, anti-dumping duty) must be taken only by competent authority; powers to review or correct statutory orders must exist in law or be clearly incidental to power conferred.
Precedent treatment: No specific precedents were invoked in the judgment; the Court proceeded on statutory and constitutional principles of administrative competence and fairness.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petition challenged the jurisdiction of the designated authority to initiate review/correction proceedings, asserting no express power to do so. The Court did not decide on the ultimate legality of that contention at this stage but acknowledged it as a live and substantial question because the Corrigendum produced a materially different financial burden.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court's view that jurisdictional competence is a relevant and open issue is obiter in respect of a final determination on competence, but it forms part of the reasoning that the procedural defect (lack of natural justice) suffices to set aside the Corrigendum.
Conclusion: The question of whether the designated authority had express power to amend the order was left open for determination by the authority or a future adjudicator; the Court did not uphold the Corrigendum on the basis of valid exercise of review powers.
Issue 2 - Nature of the corrigendum: arithmetical correction vs substantive reassessment
Legal framework: Corrections limited to obvious arithmetical errors or clerical mistakes may be permissible without extended procedure; substantive changes of method or assessment ordinarily amount to reconsideration requiring fuller power and possibly procedural safeguards.
Precedent treatment: The Court did not rely on or discuss specific precedent distinctions; it evaluated the parties' submissions and the record (reference to paragraphs in original order) to ascertain the character of the correction.
Interpretation and reasoning: Respondents characterized the change as a correction of an obvious arithmetical error (wrong method - landed value used instead of CIF). The Court observed that, even accepting that the correction was prompted by use of an incorrect method, the correction prima facie involved more than a mere clerical arithmetic slip and produced material pecuniary consequences. Thus the purported simplicity of the correction was not decisive to justify dispensing with procedural safeguards.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that the correction was not demonstrably limited to an obvious arithmetical error such as to dispense with procedural safeguards is a ratio underlying the Court's order to quash; any final characterization (arithmetical error v. substantive review) is remitted to the designated authority to determine after hearing.
Conclusion: The Court did not accept that the Corrigendum could be treated as an unquestionable arithmetical correction and held that at least minimal procedural safeguards were required before effecting such change.
Issue 3 - Requirement of natural justice and minimum procedural compliance
Legal framework: Administrative decisions affecting civil or pecuniary rights attract principles of natural justice/fair play; where consequences are material, minimum opportunity to be heard is required before adverse modification is made.
Precedent treatment: No precedents cited; Court applied settled principles of natural justice as a constitutional and administrative norm.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Corrigendum increased the anti-dumping duty and thereby caused pecuniary consequences to the petitioner. The Court held that at least minimum compliance with principles of natural justice (notice to the affected party, opportunity to reply and be heard) was warranted prior to issuing the Corrigendum. The admitted absence of such compliance justified quashing the Corrigendum as it stood vis-à-vis the petitioner.
Ratio vs. Obiter: This is ratio - the Court's principal ground for quashing the Corrigendum was procedural inadequacy (failure to afford minimum natural justice), irrespective of the merits of the correction.
Conclusion: The Corrigendum Notification was quashed insofar as it affected the petitioner because it was issued without the required minimum procedural fairness; the authority is permitted to re-issue a corrigendum only after giving notice, considering replies and hearing the parties.
Issue 4 - Consequential validity of Customs Notification raising demands at the enhanced rate
Legal framework: A subordinate or consequential administrative action that is based on and derives effect from an earlier order is invalid to the extent the foundational order is invalidated.
Precedent treatment: No specific cases cited; Court applied the logical consequence principle that an invalid source order cannot support valid derivative demands.
Interpretation and reasoning: Because the Corrigendum (basis for enhanced duty) was quashed vis-à-vis the petitioner, the Customs Notification raising demands at 30.16% (which proceeded from the Corrigendum) had to be quashed to the same extent. The Customs Notification insofar as it continued to demand the original rate (27.86%) was left undisturbed, subject to any orders in the pending appeal against the original order.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the Court directly set aside the customs demand founded on the quashed Corrigendum; this follows as a necessary consequence of quashing the corrigendum.
Conclusion: The Customs Notification raising demands at 30.16% is quashed insofar as it concerns the petitioner; demands at the prior rate are not disturbed by this order.
Relief and procedural direction
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court quashed the Corrigendum Notification (and consequential Customs Notification to the extent indicated) without costs and expressly left all substantive contentions on the merits of any correction open for determination by the designated authority in the first instance after affording the petitioner notice and opportunity to be heard.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The direction to remit the matter to the designated authority for fresh consideration after affording procedural opportunities is ratio - it defines the remedial outcome and the route for future decision-making.
Conclusion: Rule made absolute to the extent described - Corrigendum and consequential customs demands at enhanced rate quashed vis-à-vis petitioner; designated authority may re-consider after giving notice, hearing and deciding on merits; original rate-based demands left intact subject to any appellate orders.
Challenge to Corrigendum Notification dated 6 December 2023 in terms of which the Anti-Dumping Duty imposed upon the Petitioner, was enhanced from 27.86% to 30.16% - challenge to Customs Notification dated 22 December 2023, consequent to the issuance of the Corrigendum Notification dated 6 December 2023 - challenge in personem - principles of natural justice and fair play - HELD THAT:- The impugned Corrigendum Notification undoubtedly visits the Petitioner with civil or rather pecuniary consequences arising out of the enhancement of Anti- Dumping Duty from 27.86% to 30.16%. As such, a decision of this nature should have been preceded by at least a minimum compliance with the principles of natural justice and fair play.
The Petitioner has contested the jurisdiction of the designated authority to initiate review proceedings by contending that no such powers have been vested in the designated authority. The Petitioner has also urged that this is not a case of simple arithmetical correction, as projected, but rather a case of exercising review powers, even though such powers have not been specifically vested in the designated authority. The petitioner has also contested the imposition of duty and the methodology for its determination - At this stage, it is not proposed to go into the legality or validity of the above contentions. Even from the submissions made on behalf of the Respondents, it appears that the correction was prima facie made because an incorrect method of determination was employed.
It is satisfied that at least minimum compliance with principles of natural justice and fair play was warranted before the impugned Corrigendum Notification was issued. Admittedly, there was no such compliance. On this sole ground, the impugned Corrigendum Notification dated 6 December 2023 set aside, leaving it open to the designated authority to issue notice to the Petitioner, consider the Petitioner’s reply, hear the parties and decide on the issue of Corrigendum to the original order dated 27 September 2023.
The impugned Corrigendum Notification dated 6 December 2023 is quashed to the extent it concerns the Petitioner and enhances the Anti- Dumping Duty from 27.86% to 30.16%.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether officers of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) constitute "proper officer(s)" for the purposes of Section 28 of the Customs Act, 1962 and thereby have jurisdiction to issue show cause notices and initiate recovery under Section 28(4).
2. Whether earlier High Court rulings denying retrospective or retrospective-and-prospective effect to statutory or executive instruments empowering DRI officers (and similar officers) to act as proper officers remain good law in light of subsequent Supreme Court decisions and legislative validation.
3. Consequential question: How pending matters and orders founded on the view that DRI officers lacked jurisdiction should be treated following the authoritative pronouncement affirming such officers as proper officers.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: DRI Officers as "proper officer(s)" under Section 28 - Legal framework
Legal framework: Section 28 of the Customs Act, 1962 confers power to determine duties not levied or not paid and to recover duties that have escaped assessment; the concept of "proper officer" in Section 2(34) and the scheme of Sections 5, 6 and 17 govern allocation of functions. Administrative instruments (notifications and circulars) and statutory amendments (including insertion of sub-section (11) in Section 28 and later validating provisions) also bear on the assignment of functions to officers.
Precedent treatment: Earlier Supreme Court authority held that only the officer who made the original assessment (or his successor/assigned officer) could exercise the re-assessment/recovery power under Section 28(4), leading to a conclusion that certain officers (e.g., some DRI officers) were not proper officers for that purpose. High Courts reached conflicting conclusions thereafter, with some denying retrospective effect to later statutory assignments and others upholding departmental notifications.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court (following the Supreme Court's subsequent review) reasoned that departmental notifications and circulars (dating back to 1990/1999 and 2002/2011) and the statutory scheme must be taken into account when assessing which officers are "proper officers." Administrative practice since 1999, coupled with Notification No.44/2011 and earlier notifications, demonstrate assignment of functions to DRI officers. The re-examination of Canon-I in the review proceeding established that the earlier omission of such instruments from the record materially affected the correctness of the initial conclusion that DRI officers lacked jurisdiction. The Court held that the power under Section 28(4) is one of administrative review properly exercisable by officers who are charged by statute or valid administrative instrument with the functions of a proper officer, which includes DRI officers and similarly situated officials where so assigned.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - DRI officers, Commissionerates of Customs (Preventive), DGCEI and similarly situated officers are proper officers for purposes of Section 28 and competent to issue show cause notices under Section 28 where functions were validly assigned by notification/circular or by statutory amendment. Obiter - observations in the earlier judgment concerning limitation were expressly not reviewed and remain binding as to limitation issues.
Conclusion: DRI officers are proper officers for purposes of Section 28 (to the extent functions were validly assigned) and possess jurisdiction to issue show cause notices and initiate recovery under Section 28(4), subject to the limitation law remaining unaffected by this holding.
Issue 2: Effect of conflicting High Court decisions and retrospective operation of assignments/statutory provisions - Legal framework
Legal framework: Interaction of Explanation 2 to Section 28, the retrospective insertion of Section 28(11) (by the Customs (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2011) and subsequent legislative validation (Finance Act, 2022, Section 97) of show cause notices; doctrine of harmonious construction; role of administrative policy and prior departmental practice; scope of judicial review where conflicting High Court decisions exist.
Precedent treatment: Some High Courts (e.g., Delhi in Mangali Impex) declined to give retrospective effect to assignments and held DRI officers not empowered for periods prior to amendment; other High Courts reached contrary conclusions; the Supreme Court in Canon-I initially favored a restrictive view but, on review, found that key administrative instruments were not placed before it and that earlier reasoning failed adequately to consider the statutory scheme and persistent departmental practice.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court explained that (a) departmental policy and long standing administrative practice which carved out jurisdictional exclusivity once a show cause notice was issued by a given proper officer provides safeguards against multiplicity of notices; (b) Section 28(11) and Explanation 2 operate in distinct fields and do not necessarily conflict such that harmonious construction is unavailable; and (c) prior High Court decisions denying retrospective effect overlooked these factors. The review proceeding concluded that Mangali Impex's harmonisation approach was misplaced where no inherent contradiction exists between the statutory provisions and the administrative assignment of functions.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The view in Mangali Impex that Section 28(11) could not cure defects for the period prior to 08.04.2011 is set aside insofar as it conflicts with the corrected understanding of administrative assignments and statutory scheme; legislative validation by Section 97 of the Finance Act, 2022 is not manifestly arbitrary or overbroad as far as the specific questions raised in the review were concerned. Obiter - broader challenges to the Finance Act, 2022 not arising in the review remain open for adjudication elsewhere.
Conclusion: Conflicting High Court authorities that denied jurisdiction to DRI officers for relevant periods are no longer good law to the extent they conflict with the clarified position that administrative notifications and statutory assignments empower DRI officers; legislative validation further supports restoration of such notices, subject to other legal challenges not considered in the review.
Issue 3: Treatment of pending proceedings and consequential directions - Legal framework
Legal framework: Principles governing restoration of proceedings, remand, and directions for disposal where jurisdictional defect findings have been overruled; supervisory powers to give timelines and preserve rights of parties; distinction between jurisdictional and limitation grounds.
Precedent treatment: The Supreme Court, in its review, laid out a structured scheme for disposing of pending writ petitions, appeals, CESTAT matters and orders-in-original affected by earlier rulings on jurisdiction - directing restoration of show cause notices to appropriate fora, granting time to file appeals where necessary, and specifying treatment depending on the forum and stage.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that restoration and remand are appropriate remedies to cure earlier procedural consequences of a now-overruled jurisdictional view, while preserving parties' rights (including the right to be heard) and leaving untouched any separate findings on limitation from earlier rulings. The decision emphasises that where matters were stayed or set aside on jurisdictional grounds, they should be restored to the adjudicatory process in accordance with the clarified law and the statutory validation, with specified procedural directions (e.g., time for filing appeals before CESTAT, restoration to adjudicating authorities or appellate forums as appropriate).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Pending matters and orders premised solely on the view that DRI officers lacked jurisdiction shall be processed consistent with the corrected legal position; procedural directions issued by the Supreme Court for handling various categories of pending matters are binding remedial rules. Obiter - the Court expressly did not disturb earlier findings on limitation and left open other challenges to legislative validation not raised in the review.
Conclusion: Proceedings and orders that were set aside or stayed on the ground that DRI officers were not proper officers must be restored or remanded for adjudication by the proper officer or appellate forum in accordance with the clarified law; parties are to be afforded opportunities (including filing appeals where time was earlier lost) as directed, while limitation issues remain unaffected by the present ruling.
Final Court Conclusion Relevant to Present Appeal
The Court concluded that the DRI officers are proper officers for purposes of Section 28 and that earlier contrary High Court authority no longer represents good law. Accordingly, matters remanded or set aside on the basis of lack of jurisdiction of DRI officers should be restored to their original position and decided in accordance with this legal position, subject to preservation of limitation-based findings and other challenges not considered in the review.
Jurisdiction - proper officer to issue SCN - Directorate Of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) Officers are proper officers or not - HELD THAT:- The question that was raised in Mangali Impex Ltd. Vs. Union of India [2016 (5) TMI 225 - DELHI HIGH COURT] finally came to be decided by the Supreme Court in Canon India Pvt. Ltd. v. Commissioner of Customs, [2021 (3) TMI 384 - SUPREME COURT], initially, where the Supreme Court held that 'It is, therefore, clear to us that the Additional Director General of DRI was not "the" proper officer to exercise the power under Section 28(4) and the initiation of the recovery proceedings in the present case is without any jurisdiction and liable to be set aside.'
The question therefore, as to whether the DRI Officers are proper officers or not, stands decided in the decision in Canon-II and the decision in Mangali Impex Ltd. would no longer be good law.
The present appeal deserves to be allowed and is accordingly allowed. The appeal before CESTAT is restored to its original position - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether, for imports by air, the date of shipment under Notification No. 34/2015-20 dated 18.10.2017 is the date of the Airway Bill or the date on which the goods actually left the last airport in the country of export; (ii) Whether the Tribunal was right in holding that the notification dated 18.10.2017 was not applicable to the import in question; (iii) Whether the Tribunal's finding on the availability of free import of gold prior to 18.12.2019 was sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether, for imports by air, the date of shipment under Notification No. 34/2015-20 dated 18.10.2017 is the date of the Airway Bill or the date on which the goods actually left the last airport in the country of export.
Analysis: Paragraph 9.11 of the Handbook of Procedure 2015-20 treats the date of the relevant Airway Bill as the date of shipment in case of air transport, while other modes similarly tie the shipment date to documentary proof such as the Bill of Lading, postal dispatch date, courier receipt, or combined transport document. The structure of the provision indicates that the relevant date is the documentary date reflected in the transport document, not the later date of physical departure from the foreign airport.
Conclusion: The date of the Airway Bill is the relevant date of shipment, and this issue is answered against the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether the Tribunal was right in holding that the notification dated 18.10.2017 was not applicable to the import in question.
Analysis: Since the Airway Bill was dated 17.10.2017 and the notification imposing the utilisation condition came into effect on 18.10.2017, the Tribunal correctly applied the shipment-date rule under Paragraph 9.11 and held the notification inapplicable to the import. The High Court found the Tribunal's interpretation consistent with the governing text and saw no basis to interfere on this point.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's view on non-applicability of the notification is upheld, and this issue is decided against the Revenue.
Issue (iii): Whether the Tribunal's finding on the availability of free import of gold prior to 18.12.2019 was sustainable.
Analysis: The question whether gold was freely importable before 18.12.2019 did not arise from the orders under challenge before the Tribunal and was not a matter that required determination on the appeal before it. The Tribunal's observation on that topic was therefore unnecessary and beyond the scope of the dispute.
Conclusion: The finding on this issue is set aside, and this issue is decided in favour of the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The substantive ruling on shipment date and applicability of the notification is maintained, while the extraneous finding on free importability is deleted, leaving the appeal only partly successful.
Ratio Decidendi: For air imports, the shipment date under the relevant policy provision is the date reflected in the Airway Bill, not the later date of physical departure from the foreign airport, and only issues arising from the impugned orders can be adjudicated.
Date of shipment for the purpose of applying the Notification dated 18.10.2017 - gold was freely importable by the normal importer in terms of RBI Guidelines by ignoring the Notification No.34/2017 or not - applicability of provisions of Paragraph 2.17 and 9.11 of the Handbook of Procedure - import of gold is regulated and subject to conditions laid down under Paragraph 4.41 of the Foreign Trade Police 2015-20 or not - HELD THAT:-In the present case, the mode of transportation is by air. Where the transportation is by air, the relevant provision states that the date of the Airway Bill shall represent the date on which the goods left the last airport in the country from which the import is effected. Learned counsel for the Revenue reads this to mean that the date of shipment is the date on which the goods actually departed from the last airport in the country of export, i.e., 19.10.2017. According to the respondent-Assessee, however, the date of the Airway Bill itself is to be reckoned as the date of shipment, irrespective of the date on which the goods physically left the country of export. A comparison with other modes of transportation supports this interpretation - A combined reading of all modes of transport thus indicates that the relevant date of shipment/dispatch is tied to the documentary evidence issued, and not necessarily to the actual date of physical departure of the goods from the country of export.
The finding recorded by the Tribunal is agreed upon. The finding recorded by the Tribunal is based on a correct interpretation of the expression 'date of shipment' as provided in Notification No. 34/2015-20, dated 18.10.2017. It is not inclined to interfere with the finding of the Tribunal on the issues. Accordingly, no substantial question of law arises for consideration before this Court.
It was never an issue before the Tribunal as to whether gold was freely importable prior to the Notification dated 18.10.2017. On a reading of the order-in-original passed by the Adjudicating Authority as well as the order of the Appellate Authority, it is evident that issue did not arise from the orders impugned before the Tribunal. The finding recorded by the Tribunal on that issue is, therefore, unnecessary and avoidable.
The appeal is allowed in-part.
Issues: (i) Whether the Customs Broker could be held liable for the alleged export misdeclaration after the consignments had been examined and cleared by customs. (ii) Whether the revocation order was sustainable when the licence had already been revoked by an earlier order. (iii) Whether the department had independently established contravention of the licensing regulations so as to justify revocation and forfeiture.
Issue (i): Whether the Customs Broker could be held liable for the alleged export misdeclaration after the consignments had been examined and cleared by customs.
Analysis: The record showed that the exports were examined by customs officials and cleared, and there was no material showing that the Customs Broker had colluded with the exporters or customs staff. The reasoning accepted that, on these facts, the broker's role ended once the goods were cleared and removed from customs control, and the absence of evidence linking the broker to the alleged fraud entitled it to relief.
Conclusion: The issue was answered in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the revocation order was sustainable when the licence had already been revoked by an earlier order.
Analysis: The impugned order purported to revoke a licence that had already been revoked earlier. The reasoning accepted that there can be only one effective revocation of the same licence, and a second revocation order in respect of an already revoked licence is not legally sustainable.
Conclusion: The issue was answered in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the department had independently established contravention of the licensing regulations so as to justify revocation and forfeiture of the security deposit.
Analysis: The findings against the Customs Broker were not supported by independent proof of the alleged violations. Prior adverse findings in another case could not by themselves establish guilt in the present proceedings, and the department was required to prove the alleged breach on the evidence in this matter, which it failed to do.
Conclusion: The issue was answered in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The revocation and forfeiture order could not be sustained, and the appeal succeeded with consequential relief according to law.
Ratio Decidendi: A Customs Broker cannot be visited with revocation or forfeiture in the absence of independent evidence of its complicity, and a second revocation order cannot validly operate on a licence already revoked by an earlier order.
Revocation of CHA License of the appellant - forfeiture of the security amount deposited in terms of regulation 20(1) read with regulation 22 of Customs House Agents Licensing Regulations, 2004 - some exporters were attempting to export fertilizer items by declaring them as ‘Cephalexin Monohydrate’ to avail undue drawback benefits - involvement of CHA/CB or not - contravention of Regulation 13(a), 13(b), 13(d), 13(n), 13(o), 17(2), 19(5) and 19(8) of CBLR, 2013 - HELD THAT:- The learned Counsel has argued that the exporters have not turned up despite summons were issued twice and also there were directions to search the premises of the exporters. There was no action initiated against the exporters. It is also argued that duty or responsibility of CHA ends once the goods are cleared and are out of premises. The appellants have relied on the order of Coordinate Bench of this Tribunal at Chennai in the case of OTA Falloons Forwarders Pvt Ltd Vs CC, Ludhiana [2021 (6) TMI 61 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH], wherein, it was held that no investigation was done from transporter who had transported goods during transit. The role of Customs Broker ended when examination was conducted by customs officials at CFS and the consignment was allowed to be transported to port or export. In the absence of any evidence of involvement, benefit of doubt given to Customs Broker and the impugned order imposing penalty is set aside. The facts of the instant appeal are quite similar and therefore, the findings in the above case are applicable in the present appeal also.
The adjudicating authority has revoked the license by OIO dt.08.11.2013, which was already revoked by OIO dt.09.09.2013. Therefore, the order passed by the adjudicating authority is not sustainable and is liable to be dismissed.
Learned AR has submitted that the appellant has previously been found guilty in a similar case i.e., SK International Vs CC (Import), Mumbai [2006 (2) TMI 551 - CESTAT, MUMBAI] and is accustomed to engage in such activities. It is true that appellant was found guilty in that matter, however, merely being found guilty in any other case, cannot be the basis for holding him guilty in the present case. The department must prove the case against the individual independently in each case, which they failed to do so in the present appeal.
The appeal is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether imposition of penalty under Section 114A of the Customs Act, 1962 is sustainable where differential duty and interest were voluntarily paid after an apparent bona fide mis-application of a customs exemption notification.
2. Whether personal penalty under Section 112(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 on a corporate officer is sustainable for the same conduct.
3. Whether the goods are liable to confiscation or extended period of limitation under Section 28(4) can be invoked given the factual matrix (voluntary payment and disclosure prior to show-cause notice).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Penalty under Section 114A: Legal framework
Section 114A permits imposition of penalty for wrongful claims/acts in relation to customs, where there is mis-statement, mis-declaration or suppression attracting penal consequences. Relief from penalty is considered where there is no deliberate suppression or wilful mis-statement and where factual circumstances show bona fide error and corrective action.
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment
The Court considered precedents (as relied on by the appellants) that distinguish bona fide errors in classification/exemption claims from deliberate evasion, recognising that mere interpretation disputes or inadvertent mis-claims do not automatically attract penal consequences if corrective steps are timely taken. Precedents cited were treated as supportive of the principle that voluntary payment and absence of suppression militate against penalty.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court found undisputed facts: (a) appellants wrongly claimed exemption under an earlier serial entry of the notification though their imports fell under a different serial entry after amendment; (b) differential duty and substantial interest were paid voluntarily and notified to the department before issuance of the show-cause notice; and (c) only a small balance of interest resulted from a calculation mistake which appellants agreed to discharge. Given those facts, the Court reasoned that the claim of exemption was a bona fide mistake arising soon after the notification amendment and amounted to an interpretative error rather than deliberate suppression or mis-statement in the bill of entry. The voluntary payment and prior disclosure were decisive indicia against imposition of penal consequences under Section 114A.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where a claimant, in good faith, misapplies an exemption immediately after an amendment, promptly discloses the mistake to the department and voluntarily pays the differential duty and interest prior to issuance of a show-cause notice, imposition of penalty under Section 114A is not warranted for lack of mis-statement, mis-declaration or suppression. Obiter: References to other decisions concerning extended limitation or confiscation were considered illustrative but not essential to the penalty holding.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The Court set aside the penalty under Section 114A, concluding that the factual combination of bona fide error, voluntary payment with prior intimation, and absence of suppression precluded penal liability under Section 114A.
Issue 2 - Personal penalty under Section 112(b) on a corporate officer: Legal framework
Section 112(b) permits imposition of penalty on an officer or agent of a corporate importer where the act attracting penalty is attributable to that person and is of a nature warranting penalty (e.g., mis-statement, suppression, or wilful contravention).
Issue 2 - Precedent Treatment
Precedents distinguish cases where officer-level penalties are imposed for deliberate or culpable acts from those where corporate errors stem from bona fide misinterpretation corrected promptly. The Court treated cited authorities as supporting the proposition that personal penalties cannot be sustained where the underlying act lacks culpability.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
Applying the same factual findings as for Section 114A, the Court concluded there was no evidence of wilful mis-statement or suppression by the corporate officer. The voluntariness of payment and prior disclosure negated culpability. Therefore, the basis for imposing Section 112(b) penalty on the Vice President was absent.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Personal penalty under Section 112(b) cannot be sustained where the impugned conduct is a bona fide interpretative error, promptly disclosed and corrected by voluntary payment, so that mens rea or culpable conduct is not established. No separate penalty provision was otherwise invoked to support personal liability.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
The Court set aside the penalty under Section 112(b) imposed on the corporate officer for the same reasons the Section 114A penalty was vacated.
Issue 3 - Confiscation and extended limitation under Section 28(4): Legal framework
Confiscation and invocation of extended limitation require specific legal thresholds (e.g., deliberate evasion, concealment) and procedural triggers. Section 28(4) extends limitation where prescribed circumstances (such as suppression or mis-declaration involving fraud or collusion) are proved.
Issue 3 - Precedent Treatment
Authorities relied upon by the appellants indicate that where there is voluntary disclosure and payment before issuance of enforcement action, the extended period or confiscation is not invokable absent evidence of fraud/suppression. The Court treated these decisions as persuasive on the narrow facts.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court observed that appellants did not contest the differential duty or interest and had disclosed and paid prior to show-cause notice. On these facts, there was no basis to treat the imports as confiscable or to extend limitation under Section 28(4), because the requisite elements of deliberate concealment or fraud were not established.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Obiter/Ratio: While the Court did not need to make an expansive ruling on confiscation or limitation, it indicated that absent suppression or fraud, voluntary correction precludes invocation of confiscation or extended limitation. This functions as a guiding principle rather than an expansive precedent on all contexts.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
No confiscation order was warranted and extended limitation under Section 28(4) was not invoked; the factual matrix negated those penal remedies.
Cross-references and Interrelation
The conclusions on Section 114A and Section 112(b) are interrelated and flow from the same primary findings: (a) the exemption claim was a bona fide interpretative mistake occurring soon after a notification amendment; (b) the appellants promptly disclosed and voluntarily paid differential duty and interest before issuance of a show-cause notice; and (c) there was no evidence of mis-statement, suppression, fraud or wilful conduct. These factors collectively precluded imposition of penalties and confiscation/extended limitation.
Levy of penalty u/s 114A and 112(b) of CA, 1962 - Wrongful availment of benefit of N/N.36/1996-Cus. dated 23.07.1996 as amended - goods imported by claiming exemption from payment of additional customs duty under Section 3 of Customs Tariff Act, 1975 - Payment of differential duty was willful or not - HELD THAT:- Undisputedly the appellant had wrongly claimed benefit under Sl. No.10 of the N/N. 36/1996-Cus. dated 23.7.1996 which has been amended by N/N. 29/2015-Cus. Dated 30.04.2015 even though they are not eligible to the benefit of the said Notification being a contractor who supply material to the Government departments.
The bill of Entry relates to period soon after the amendment has been brought into force, therefore, there is merit in the contention of the learned advocate for the appellant that the availment of benefit of Notification No. 36/1996-Cus. dated 23.7.1996 under Sl. No.10, even though their case falls under Sl. No.10A inserted in the said Notification with effect from April 2015, was bona fide mistake on their part. On realisation, the differential duty was paid with interest, the balance amount of interest of Rs.1,099/- was a calculation mistake which they agreed to discharge. In these circumstances, we do not find that the appellant had misstated or mis-declared in the Bill of Entry to the department or suppressed any fact in claiming the benefit of the said Notification. Hence, imposition of penalty under Section 114A is not warranted. Since no other penal provision has been invoked proposing imposition of penalty, the penalty under Section 114A cannot be sustained, accordingly, penalty is set aside.
The imposition of penalty under Section 112(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 on Vice President is also unwarranted.
The impugned order is modified and the appeal filed by the appellant-company is partly allowed to the extent of setting aside penalty under Section 114A and appeal filed by Vice President is allowed - Appeal disposed off.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the arrest complied with the requirements of Section 19(1) of the PMLA - specifically formation of "reasons to believe" based on material in possession, written recording thereof, communication of grounds of arrest to the arrestee, and validity of the arresting officer's authority.
2. Whether statements recorded under Section 50 of the PMLA, including those of co-accused and summoned witnesses, are admissible and can be relied upon to implicate the petitioner.
3. Whether the material on record discloses a prima facie case under Section 3 (and punishment under Section 4) of the PMLA - i.e., involvement in processes/activities connected with "proceeds of crime" - and whether prosecution has met foundational facts necessary to invoke statutory presumptions under Section 24.
4. Whether the stringent bail regime in Section 45(1) PMLA (twin conditions: reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty; not likely to commit an offence while on bail) bars grant of regular bail in the present case, including interaction with CrPC powers and relevant precedents.
5. Ancillary issues: (a) whether Section 41 CrPC requirements apply to PMLA arrests; (b) whether delay in investigation/custody alone warrants bail; (c) whether reliance on predicate-agency material or ECIR non-supply vitiates PMLA action.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legality of Arrest under Section 19(1) PMLA
Legal framework: Section 19(1) permits arrest by authorised officers "on the basis of material in his possession, reason to believe (recorded in writing) that any person has been guilty of an offence", and mandates informing the arrestee of grounds of arrest; Section 19(2) requires forwarding arrest order and material to the adjudicating authority; Article 22(1) supplies constitutional backdrop.
Precedent treatment: The Court canvassed and applied the principles in binding authorities that (a) reasons must be recorded in writing and communicated (three-Judge Bench decisions), (b) supply of ECIR is not mandatory but informing grounds is sufficient, (c) subsequent case law required furnishing written grounds "henceforth" and clarified temporal scope. The Court distinguished instances where written grounds were not furnished in compliance with later pronouncements but recognized prospective effect of some refinements.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the arrest record and annexures and found: written "Reasons to Believe" and separate "Grounds of Arrest" were recorded and furnished; contemporaneous acknowledgement by the arrestee; seizure and Section 50 summons preceded arrest; arresting officer was a designated authorised officer; material in possession (financial, digital, nexus evidence) supported the reasoned belief. The Court rejected arguments requiring the arresting officer to have personally gathered all material and rejected application of Section 41 CrPC to PMLA arrests, noting the PMLA's special-law regime.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where written reasons are recorded based on material in possession and grounds are communicated to the arrestee, the arrest complies with Section 19(1) and Article 22(1). Obiter - discussion on practical realities of multi-officer investigations and non-necessity of personal presence at searches by the arresting officer.
Conclusion: Arrest held valid procedurally and substantively; statutory safeguards under Section 19 complied with and remand lawful.
Issue 2 - Admissibility and Reliance on Section 50 Statements
Legal framework: Section 50 empowers authorised officers to summon and record statements; Section 50(4) deems such proceedings judicial for purposes of IPC offences of false evidence; Sections 65 and 71 make PMLA provisions override inconsistent CrPC rules.
Precedent treatment: The Court reiterated that Section 50 statements are admissible and distinguishable from police statements under CrPC; higher courts have upheld Section 50's evidentiary value and its non-application of Article 20(3) where the person was not an accused at the time of summons. The Court relied on authorities confirming admissibility and utility of Section 50 material for establishing involvement.
Interpretation and reasoning: The petitioner's contention that confessional statements of co-accused recorded in custody cannot be used was rejected because prosecution relied also on statements of independent witnesses, documentary, financial and digital material recovered during searches, and Section 50 statements were recorded in inquiry context that retains evidentiary status under PMLA. The Court noted established jurisprudence that confessional statements of co-accused are not sole substantive proof, but Section 50 statements collectively can make "a formidable case."
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 50 statements are admissible and may be relied upon along with corroborative material; reliance solely on confessional co-accused statements demands caution but is permissible where other material corroborates. Obiter - commentary on distinctions vis-à-vis CrPC statements.
Conclusion: Section 50 statements and corroborative evidence legitimately inform the prima facie case against the petitioner and are admissible for pre-trial assessment.
Issue 3 - Prima Facie Culpability under Section 3 PMLA and Section 24 Presumption
Legal framework: Section 3 defines money-laundering as involvement in processes/activities connected with proceeds of crime (concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projecting/claiming as untainted); Section 2(1)(u) defines "proceeds of crime"; Section 24 creates a rebuttable presumption that proceeds are involved in money-laundering where a person is charged under Section 3.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied authoritative interpretations that (a) Section 3 is broad and captures partial involvement in listed activities; (b) existence of predicate scheduled offence is necessary to classify property as proceeds of crime; (c) once foundational facts are established, Section 24 shifts burden to accused to rebut.
Interpretation and reasoning: The prosecution complaint, bank transaction analysis, recovery from searches, nexus with shell entities, alleged control of multiple firms, and Section 50 statements collectively constituted material demonstrating generation, acquisition, layering and use of illicit funds and operational/financial linkages with the wider syndicate. The Court emphasized that at the bail stage it must take a prima facie view based on available material and need not undertake trial-level scrutiny.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where material shows involvement in activities connected to proceeds of crime and foundational facts are established, Section 24 presumption applies and a prima facie case under Section 3 is made out for purposes of bail assessment. Obiter - detailed factual findings were limited to prima facie observations without prejudice to trial.
Conclusion: Sufficient prima facie material exists to implicate the petitioner under Section 3; statutory presumption under Section 24 operates unless rebutted by the petitioner.
Issue 4 - Application of Section 45(1) Bail Regime and Grant of Regular Bail
Legal framework: Section 45(1) makes offences under PMLA cognizable and non-bailable and prescribes twin conditions for bail when Public Prosecutor opposes: (i) court satisfied there are reasonable grounds for believing accused is not guilty; (ii) accused is not likely to commit an offence while on bail. Section 45(2), Section 65 and Section 71 reinforce PMLA's overriding scheme; CrPC powers apply only to the extent not inconsistent.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied binding precedents that the twin conditions are mandatory, courts must take a prima facie view from investigation material (not weigh evidence), and the presumption under Section 24 aids prosecution at bail stage; authorities also caution that where investigation is complete and cooperation is full, bail may be considered, but PMLA offences are treated stringently.
Interpretation and reasoning: Examining the prosecution material and judicial precedents, the Court concluded the petitioner failed to satisfy the first limb (reasonable grounds to believe not guilty) given the weight of financial/digital/statement evidence and failed to dispel statutory presumption. The second limb (risk of reoffending/witness tampering) was not rebutted in light of alleged role and control over shell entities and evidence of non-cooperation. Delay in custody alone was held insufficient to discharge Section 45 burden.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 45 twin conditions were not met; therefore bail not warranted. Obiter - discussion on public interest, economic offence gravity, and balancing liberty with societal impact.
Conclusion: Bail refused - petitioner failed to establish reasonable grounds for believing he is not guilty and to show he would not commit offences on bail; PMLA rigours prevail.
Issue 5 - Ancillary Matters: CrPC applicability, ECIR supply, arresting officer's authority, custody delay
Legal framework & precedent treatment: PMLA is a special law; Section 19 procedure and Section 50 regime diverge from CrPC norms where inconsistent; ECIR is internal and not required to be supplied though grounds must be communicated; recent authorities refined communication practice prospectively.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected application of Section 41 CrPC requirements to PMLA arrests and found that the arresting officer was authorised and entitled to rely on assembled material (including subordinate officers' inputs). Non-supply of ECIR did not invalidate arrest where grounds were communicated; limited custody delay did not justify bail given offence gravity.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - PMLA procedures operate independently of Section 41 CrPC; written communication of grounds of arrest and authorised officer's recorded reasons suffice; delay alone not a ground for bail in grave economic offences. Obiter - practical observations on multi-agency investigations and record forwarding to adjudicating authority.
Conclusion: Ancillary objections (CrPC applicability, ECIR non-supply, officer's participation) did not vitiate arrest or preclude reliance on the material; custody duration did not warrant bail under the circumstances.
Money Laundering - seeking grant of regular bail - proceeds of crime - fraud committed of availing ITC on the strength of bogus invoices, by way of creation of multiple companies/firms in the name of innocent persons - reasons to believe - statements recorded under Section 50 of the PMLA are admissible or not - HELD THAT:- The objective of the PMLA is to prevent money laundering which has posed a serious threat not only to the financial systems of the country but also to its integrity and sovereignty. The offence of money laundering is a very serious offence which is committed by an individual with a deliberate desire and the motive to enhance his gains, disregarding the interest of the nation and the society as a whole, and such offence by no stretch of imagination can be regarded as an offence of trivial nature. The stringent provisions have been made in the Act to combat the menace of money laundering.
The reason for giving explanation under Section 2(1)(u) is by way of clarification to the effect that whether as per the substantive provision of Section 2(1)(u), the property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence or the value of any such property or where such property is taken or held outside the country then the property equivalent in value held within the country but by way of explanation the proceeds of crime has been given broader implication by including property not only derived or obtained from the scheduled offence but also any property which may directly or indirectly be derived or obtained as a result of any criminal activity relatable to the scheduled offence.
The purposes and objects of the 2002 Act, for which, it has been enacted, is not limited to punishment for offence of money-laundering, but also to provide measures for prevention of money-laundering. It is also to provide for attachment of proceeds of crime, which are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceeding relating to confiscation of such proceeds under the 2002 Act. This Act is also to compel the banking companies, financial institutions and intermediaries to maintain records of the transactions, to furnish information of such transactions within the prescribed time in terms of Chapter IV of the 2002 Act.
The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Tarun Kumar vs. Assistant Director Directorate of Enforcement [2023 (11) TMI 904 - SUPREME COURT] by taking into consideration the law laid down by the Larger Bench of the Hon’ble Apex Court in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary and Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors. [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)], it has been laid down that since the conditions specified under Section 45 are mandatory, they need to be complied with. The Court is required to be satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not guilty of such offence and he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
The conditions enumerated in Section 45 of PMLA will have to be complied with even in respect of an application for bail made under Section 439 CrPC. That coupled with the provisions of Section 24 provides that unless the contrary is proved, the authority or the Court shall presume that proceeds of crime are involved in money-laundering and the burden to prove that the proceeds of crime are not involved, lies on the petitioner.
It is the considered view of this Court that herein the arrest of the Petitioner is valid both procedurally and substantively and the officer effecting arrest was authorised, possessed material in his custody, formed a reasoned belief based on that material, recorded the same in writing, informed the Petitioner of the grounds of arrest, and forwarded all material to the Adjudicating Authority, thereby satisfying all legal requirements under the PMLA and the binding judgments of the Hon'ble Supreme Court, therefore, the contention of the learned counsel for the petitioner about legality of the arrest, is hereby negated.
It is evident that the allegation against the petitioner that he is part of organized syndicate operating through 135 shell companies for issuance of bogus GST invoices involving ITC exceeding Rs. 750 crores. These invoices were used to illegally avail and pass on Input Tax Credit (ITC) to various entities causing wrongful loss to the government exchequer. The proceeds of crime were layered through several accounts to project them as legitimate - From investigation, it is evident that the petitioner Amit Agarwal @ Vicky Bhalotia was a key mastermind in the criminal conspiracy, operating as the head of the syndicate's fraudulent activities in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand. He was directly involved in creating and managing his own network of shell entities, generating substantial proceeds of crime, and laundering these funds in close coordination with the other masterminds.
The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Vijay Madanlal Choudhary and Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors. [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] has reiterated the same view and has observed that the Court while dealing with the application for grant of bail need not to delve deep into the merits of the case and only a view of the court based on available material on record is required - prima-facie on the basis of the material available in prosecution complaint the role of the present petitioner in the alleged money laundering cannot be negated.
The involvement of the Petitioner in directing dummy persons, creating forged documents, and misusing control over shell firms is not only substantiated but has been corroborated by statements under Section 50 of the PMLA and materials recovered during search - Further, the grant of bail to the Petitioner in BA No. 569 of 2024 by this Court in connection with a predicate offence has no bearing on the present bail application under PMLA. It is a settled principle that the offence of money laundering is a standalone and continuing offence, as recognized in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary (supra), and grant of bail in the predicate offence does not create any presumption in favour of bail.
In the present case, the investigating agency has relied not only on the statement of co-accused under Section 50 of the PML Act, 2002 but also other evidences which indicate the applicant's active role in the alleged money laundering activities - By virtue of Section 24 of the PML Act, 2002, the respondent-ED is not required to conclusively establish the applicant's guilt at the pre-trial stage, rather, the applicant must demonstrate that the proceeds of crime attributed to him are not linked to money laundering. In the absence of any rebuttal by the applicant, the presumption under Section 24 of the PML Act, 2002 stands in favor of the respondent, thereby, justifying his continued detention.
On the basis of the aforesaid discussions and taking into consideration the grave nature of the allegations, the sophisticated modus operandi employed to project tainted property as untainted, and the strict statutory framework governing bail under the PML Act, 2002, it is the considered view of this Court that no ground exists for the petitioner to claim the benefit of bail on merits. The gravity of the offence, and the serious allegations of facilitating the laundering of proceeds of crime continue to justify the petitioner's custody under the strict rigours of Section 45 of the Act 2002 - This Court is conscious of this fact that while deciding the issue of granting bail in grave economic offences it is the utmost duty of the Court that the nature and gravity of the alleged offence should have been kept in mind because corruption poses a serious threat to our society should be dealt with by iron hand.
Since the petitioner has failed to make out a special case to exercise the power to grant bail and considering the facts and parameters, necessary to be considered for adjudication of bail, this Court does not find any exceptional ground to exercise its discretionary jurisdiction to grant bail - it is the considered view of this Court that granting bail to the Petitioner would send a wrong signal to society and embolden economic offenders, thereby, undermining public confidence in the justice delivery system. The offence in question is not a mere fiscal offence but a crime against the economic health of the nation, with a cascading effect on honest taxpayers, market integrity, and state revenue, therefore, this Court is of the view that it is not a case where the prayer for bail is to be granted.
The instant bail application stands dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether HR plates, HR sheets and similar steel items fall within the definition of "input" under Rule 2(k) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 when used in relation to storage tanks at a refinery.
2. Whether such steel items can be treated as capital goods under Rule 2(a) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 when used in fabrication, repair or maintenance of storage tanks.
3. Whether goods used for repair, maintenance, upkeep or fabrication of storage tanks constitute "used in or in relation to manufacture" so as to entitle the assessee to Cenvat credit.
4. Whether the fact that storage tanks are embedded in earth (or otherwise affixed) excludes them from being regarded as capital goods for the purposes of Cenvat credit.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 1: Characterisation as "Input" under Rule 2(k)
Legal framework: Rule 2(k) of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 defines "input" to include goods used as parts or components in the manufacture of final products or otherwise used in relation to manufacture.
Precedent treatment: Coordinate Bench and earlier orders of the same Tribunal have treated similar steel items used for fabrication, repair and maintenance of storage tanks as inputs eligible for credit under Rule 2(k).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined whether the steel items were used as parts/components in the manufacture of a capital good (storage tank) or otherwise used in relation to manufacture. The Tribunal accepted the view that items used in fabrication, repair and maintenance of storage tanks are used "in or in relation to manufacture" because maintenance and repair of plant/machinery are integrally connected with the manufacturing process.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The finding that items used for repair and maintenance of storage tanks qualify as "inputs" under Rule 2(k) is treated as ratio insofar as it determinatively resolves eligibility for credit in the appeal.
Conclusion: HR plates, HR sheets and similar steel items used for fabrication, repair or maintenance of storage tanks are covered by the definition of "input" under Rule 2(k) and are eligible for Cenvat credit.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 2: Characterisation as Capital Goods under Rule 2(a)
Legal framework: Rule 2(a) defines "capital goods" to include goods used in the manufacture of other goods but excludes certain items; capital goods are distinct from inputs but both may attract credit under relevant rules.
Precedent treatment: Earlier decisions of the Tribunal and coordinate benches have recognised storage tanks as capital goods for purposes of credit entitlement, permitting credit for items used in their fabrication or substantial repair.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that whether goods are inputs or capital goods depends on their use. Items used for fabrication or substantial assembly of a storage tank can be treated as used in the manufacture of a capital good. Even where the storage tank is integrated with site (embedded), its character as a capital good remains, and inputs used in its fabrication/repair support entitlement to credit.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The determination that storage tanks qualify as capital goods and that items used in their fabrication/repair can be treated as used in manufacture of capital goods forms part of the operative ratio affecting credit eligibility.
Conclusion: Steel items used in fabrication or substantial repair of storage tanks may be characterised in relation to capital goods under Rule 2(a), supporting credit entitlement; storage tanks are to be regarded as capital goods for Cenvat credit purposes.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 3: Repair and Maintenance as "Used in or in relation to manufacture"
Legal framework: The statutory phrase "used in or in relation to manufacture" has been interpreted broadly to include items that are used directly or indirectly in the manufacture process, including maintenance, repair and upkeep of plant and machinery.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on a recent apex court pronouncement holding that items used for maintenance, repair and upkeep of plant and machinery are eligible for credit as they fall within the wide interpretation of "used in or in relation to manufacture." Coordinate and Bench decisions have applied the same principle to welding electrodes, plates and jointing materials used for tank maintenance.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasoned that repair and maintenance of storage tanks support the manufacturing process by ensuring plant operability and storage capacity; therefore, consumables and components employed in such activities are used "in or in relation to manufacture." The adjudicating authority's narrow view-that repair cannot be equated to manufacture-was rejected as inconsistent with the wider statutory interpretation and precedent.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The acceptance that repair and maintenance activities bring consumables within the scope of "used in or in relation to manufacture" is central to the decision and thus ratio.
Conclusion: Goods used for repair, maintenance, upkeep or fabrication of storage tanks qualify as items used "in or in relation to manufacture" and attract Cenvat credit entitlement.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Issue 4: Effect of Tanks Being Embedded in Earth on Capital-Goods Characterisation
Legal framework: Determination of what constitutes a "capital good" does not hinge solely on physical mobility but on the functional role and nature of the asset in the manufacturing process.
Precedent treatment: Prior Tribunal and judicial decisions have recognised fixed or embedded plant/equipment as capital goods where they perform a manufacturing function; appellate and higher courts have not disallowed credit on that ground where the factual matrix supports capital-goods character.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that the fact the storage tank is embedded in earth does not preclude its classification as a capital good. The functional consideration-storage tanks being integral to the manufacturing/storage process-outweighs the technicality of being affixed to site. Therefore, inputs used in their fabrication or repair remain eligible.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The rejection of the embeddedness argument as a disqualification for capital-goods status is part of the operative ratio resolving entitlement to credit in the appeal.
Conclusion: Embeddedness of storage tanks does not exclude them from being capital goods; inputs used in their fabrication, repair or maintenance remain eligible for Cenvat credit.
CONSOLIDATED CONCLUSION
The Tribunal, following its earlier orders, co-ordinate bench decisions and the Supreme Court's authoritative interpretation that items used for maintenance, repair and upkeep of plant and machinery are "used in or in relation to manufacture," concluded that HR plates, sheets and similar steel items used in fabrication, repair or maintenance of storage tanks are eligible for Cenvat credit as inputs (and in relation to capital goods). The impugned demand based on disallowance of such credit was set aside.
CENVAT Credit - inputs or capital goods - HR Plates, HR Sheets and HR Plates falling under the heading 7208 3710, 7208 3730 and 7208 5210 of the Central Excise Tariff - HELD THAT:- It is found that as per Rule 2(k), certain goods can be treated as input, when used as parts or components in the manufacture of final products. Therefore, whether the said goods have been used for the manufacture of capital goods or otherwise has to be examined. The Commissioner has not agreed to this claim on the grounds that said inputs were used for maintenance and repairs of capital goods and such activity of repair and maintenance cannot be considered as manufacturing process for manufacture of storage tanks and hence it can not be said goods used for repair and maintenance are used in manufacture of capital goods.
It is found that in their own case in order THE COMMISSIONER C&C. E, VISAKHAPATNAM VERSUS M/S HINDUSTAN PETROLEUM CORPN. LTD. VISAKHAPATNAM [2016 (6) TMI 606 - CESTAT HYDERABAD], the said decision was taken to the jurisdictional High Court by the Revenue, where after going through the order of the Tribunal, the Hon’ble High Court considered the findings of the Commissioner that input credit on steel items used for repairs and maintenance of the storage tank was admissible and thereafter opined that the said decision of the Tribunal is based on the facts and there being no question of law, dismissed the appeal of the Revenue.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of The Kisan Cooperative Sugar Factory Ltd., Vs Commissioner of Central Excise, Meerut-1 [2023 (12) TMI 1303 - SUPREME COURT], wherein, interalia, a bunch of appeals involving similar issues i.e. whether various products including MS Plates used within the factory of the assessee for repair and maintenance, fabrication and up-keep of capital goods would be eligible for credit or otherwise, were decided by Hon’ble Supreme Court after going through the statutory provisions as well as submissions from both the sides. Hon’ble Supreme Court, interaila, held that the credit on the items used for maintenance, repair and up-keep of plant and machinery are admissible.
It is also noted that the storage tanks are also otherwise clearly covered within the scope of capital goods and therefore irrespective of their being embedded to earth or otherwise, they would still be considered as capital goods.
Thus, the appellants are entitled for taking credit in respect of items used for repair and maintenance of storage tank. In view of the same, the order of the Commissioner is not sustainable and therefore set aside - appeal allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether, on finalisation of provisional assessment under Rule 7 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002, excess duty paid in one period may be netted off against duty short-paid in another period to arrive at the net duty payable or refundable.
2. Whether a claim for refund of excess duty emerging from finalisation of provisional assessment is barred by the doctrine of unjust enrichment unless the claimant establishes that the incidence of duty was not passed on to "any other person" as contemplated by Section 11B (and related provisions) of the Central Excise Act, 1944.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Netting off duty on finalisation of provisional assessment
Legal framework: Rule 7 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 governs provisional assessment and its finalisation; the statute and rules together determine assessable value and duty payable on finalisation. Section 11B (and proviso) and related provisions (Sections 12B-12D) deal with refund, consumer welfare fund and the conditions for direct refund versus credit to the Fund.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal followed the principle laid down by the jurisdictional High Court in the case concerning finalisation of provisional assessments which accepted netting off excess and short-paid duty; the Tribunal also cited and followed an earlier Tribunal decision aligning with that High Court view. The Revenue relied on a decision of a High Court which, following the Supreme Court's decision in the leading refund/unjust-enrichment case, applied unjust-enrichment scrutiny to refund claims arising from provisional assessment.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal reasons that the very purpose of provisional assessment under Rule 7 is to permit payment of duty based on provisional valuation where final elements (conditional discounts, abatements, reimbursements) are ascertainable only later; on finalisation the assessable value and duty are redetermined month-by-month and differences (excess/short-paid) necessarily arise. The Tribunal accepts that when finalisation shows both excess and short-paid duty across the relevant periods, the natural, statutory-consistent exercise is to net off those amounts to determine the net refund or net demand. The Tribunal distinguishes the leading Supreme Court decision as dealing with ordinary refund claims (non-provisional) and emphasises that Rule 7(6) context and finalisation process make the adjustment/netting a legitimate part of the provisional-assessment scheme. The Tribunal further relies on the binding authority of the jurisdictional High Court decision (which the Revenue accepted) that supports netting off, and notes doctrine of judicial precedent binding the Tribunal to the High Court's principle.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - netting off excess and short-paid duty arising on finalisation of provisional assessment under Rule 7 is permissible; the rule-based process contemplates arriving at net duty by adjustment. Obiter - observations comparing approaches in other High Court/Supreme Court decisions where factual matrices differed (normal refunds vs provisional-finalisation) provide context but are not the basis for permitting netting.
Conclusions: Netting off excess and short-paid duties on finalisation of provisional assessment is permissible. Revenue appeals challenging netting off were rejected; assessee appeals on the netting-off issue were allowed.
Issue 2 - Unjust enrichment test for refund of excess duty arising from provisional assessment
Legal framework: Section 11B (and proviso), Section 12C and Section 12D of the Central Excise Act, 1944, together with the principles established by higher courts, require that a claimant seeking refund must establish that the excess duty was paid by him and that the incidence of such duty was not passed on to any other person; if it cannot be established, refundable amounts may be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund.
Precedent treatment: The Supreme Court's leading decision on refund/unjust enrichment (dealing with ordinary refunds) held that claimant must establish non-passage of incidence and, if not, amounts may be appropriated to the Fund. Some High Courts (and a Tribunal) have applied that strict test to provisional-assessment refunds; the jurisdictional High Court decision considered by the Tribunal, however, treated the provisional-assessment context differently and afforded acceptance of refund where the assessee demonstrated the incidence remained with the assessee and where Rule 7 context was material. The Tribunal relied on the jurisdictional High Court decision and earlier Tribunal precedent supporting grant/adjustment subject to evidence, and distinguished the Supreme Court decision as inapplicable in key respects to pure provisional-finalisation adjustments.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal recognises the statutory presumption under Section 12B and the Supreme Court's articulation that a claimant must satisfy the "not passed on" test. It nevertheless emphasises the difference between ordinary refunds and finalisation of provisional assessments where the provisional-payment mechanism contemplates later re-determination and balancing across periods. On unjust enrichment, the Tribunal does not finally decide entitlement but remands the issue for fact-finding: the Commissioner(Appeals) is directed to examine evidence already produced (CA certificates, credit notes, correlation of free-service coupons, depot invoices, reimbursement trails, freight payment records, etc.) to determine whether the incidence of duty was passed to "any other person." The Tribunal notes prior acceptance by the Department of refund for certain years (an unchallenged refund order) and treats that as persuasive; it also notes the Revenue's partial acceptance of the jurisdictional High Court principle and the binding nature of that High Court decision on the Tribunal.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the unjust-enrichment enquiry remains applicable to refund claims arising on finalisation of provisional assessment, but the Tribunal will not categorically apply the strict approach of the normal-refund precedents without factual examination; instead the matter must be remitted for assessment of evidentiary proof. Obiter - observations on policy considerations (consumer fund mechanics, practicalities of buyer claims, and criticisms of rules) echo higher court dicta but do not resolve the factual question here.
Conclusions: The question whether claimed refunds are barred by unjust enrichment is not finally decided; the matter is remanded to the Commissioner(Appeals) to examine evidence (including CA certificates, credit notes, depot invoices, free service coupon trails and other documents) and determine whether the incidence of excess duty was passed on to any other person. If incidence is shown not to have been passed on, refund (after netting) should be allowed; otherwise, amounts should be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund in accordance with statutory provisions.
Cross-references and ancillary conclusions
- The Tribunal applied and followed the binding principle of the jurisdictional High Court concerning provisional-assessment netting; the Revenue's acceptance of that High Court principle was noted.
- The Tribunal distinguished the Supreme Court's leading unjust-enrichment decision as addressing normal refund claims and not the specific mechanics of Rule 7 provisional-finalisation adjustments; however, the substantive unjust-enrichment requirement (non-passage of incidence) remains relevant and must be tested on evidence.
- Where prior refund orders on identical issues and periods have attained finality (no challenge by Revenue), those orders are persuasive and relevant to the examination of similar refund claims for other periods.
Disposition
- Netting off excess and short-paid duty on finalisation of provisional assessment is permissible; Revenue appeals on this point rejected; assessee appeals on netting allowed.
- The question of unjust enrichment for refunds remitted to the Commissioner(Appeals) for determination on evidentiary record; refund to be granted only if incidence of duty is found not to have been passed on; otherwise amounts to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund in accordance with statutory provisions.
Netting off of duty - finalization of provisional assessment - amount claimed as refund during the relevant period is hit by bar of unjust enrichment - determination of amount of duty excess paid and short-paid during the relevant period.
Netting off of duty - HELD THAT:- This Tribunal in the case of JK Tyres & Industries Ltd. Vs. CCE, Mysore [2023 (12) TMI 899 - CESTAT BANGALORE], following the judgment of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of Principal Commissioner of Central Tax, Mysore Vs. Vikrant Tyres Ltd. [2021 (10) TMI 586 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], held that 'Consequently, the difference between the duty paid and the duty payable is calculated and the assessment is finalized. The result of the said exercise may end up with recovery of differential duty short paid or refund of excess paid.'
Principles of unjust enrichment - HELD THAT:- In majority of the orders of the learned Commissioner(Appeals), relying on hypothetical examples, it is inferred that the FSC, Discounts and freight charges on which duty was paid while resorting to provisional assessment, the appellant could not demonstrate that the burden of excess duty paid on the elements of abatement/discounts, now claimed as refund, have not been passed on to any other person. Only in one of the impugned Order pertaining to appeal No. E/20387/2021, the learned Commissioner (Appeals), verifying certain invoices, held that the appellant could not establish that the burden of duty has been borne by them and the same has not been passed on to any other person.
It is prudent to remand the matter to the learned Commissioner(Appeals) to analyze the evidences on record including the CA certificate and other evidence, if any, that would be produced before him to examine whether the burden of duty has been passed on to any other person or otherwise.
The appeals filed by the Revenue on the issue of netting off of duty are rejected; the appeals filed by the assessee-appellant to the extent of challenging the rejection of netting off are allowed. To determine the issue of unjust enrichment, it is remanded to the learned Commissioner (Appeals) to ascertain whether the burden of duty has been passed on to ‘any other person’ - Appeal disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the value of goods manufactured by independent job workers or on loan-license basis was includable in the assessee's turnover for the purpose of Small Scale Exemption under Notification No. 8/2003-CE dated 01.03.2003. (ii) Whether such manufacturers were to be treated as the assessee's manufacturers so as to deny exemption and club their clearances with the assessee's own clearances.
Issue (i): Whether the value of goods manufactured by independent job workers or on loan-license basis was includable in the assessee's turnover for the purpose of Small Scale Exemption under Notification No. 8/2003-CE dated 01.03.2003.
Analysis: The decisive question was whether the goods manufactured outside the assessee's own factory were manufactured on behalf of the assessee or were cleared by independent manufacturers on their own account. The Tribunal applied the ratio that where the other units were independently registered, were clearing goods on payment of duty, and the assessee itself was not the manufacturer of those goods, their clearances could not be added to the assessee's aggregate value merely because the assessee's brand name was involved. The exemption notification denied benefit only where the specified goods bore the brand name or trade name of another person in the manner contemplated by the notification, and not where the assessee's turnover was sought to be inflated by clubbing independent manufacturers' clearances.
Conclusion: The value of clearances from the independent manufacturers was not includable in the assessee's turnover, and the assessee remained entitled to SSI exemption.
Issue (ii): Whether such manufacturers were to be treated as the assessee's manufacturers so as to deny exemption and club their clearances with the assessee's own clearances.
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted the view that the independent manufacturers and loan-license/job workers were the actual manufacturers for the goods produced by them, and that the assessee was not the manufacturer of those goods merely because the goods were marketed under the assessee's brand name. The majority followed the binding effect of the Supreme Court's ruling in the analogous Cosme Farma line of cases and held that the factual and legal position did not justify treating the assessee as the manufacturer of the goods produced by others. The contrary view, based on distinguishable authorities and on the later insertion of Rule 10A of the Central Excise Rules, 2002, did not prevail.
Conclusion: The independent manufacturers were not to be treated as the assessee's manufacturers, and clubbing of their clearances with the assessee's clearances was impermissible.
Final Conclusion: The majority held that the assessee was entitled to succeed, the Revenue's challenge failed, and the impugned order dropping the demand was sustained while the assessee's connected appeals were also allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where goods are manufactured by independent registered units on their own account and not as agents or alter egos of the assessee, their clearances cannot be clubbed with the assessee's turnover for SSI exemption, even if the assessee's brand name is used.
Entitlement to SSI exemption - clubbing of turnover of the units manufacturing on Loan License Basis - manufacturer who are manufacturing the branded goods of the Respondents are actual manufacturer and paying central excise duty - Respondents are manufacturer in respect of the medicines manufactured at their factory at Allahabad, acting as trader for the medicines got manufactured from other manufacturers - Department is of the view that the units manufacturing on loan license basis are to be taken as manufactured by the Appellants - difference of opinion - matter referred to Third member.
Whether the appeals of the assessee are liable be allowed and the appeal of the Revenue is liable be dismissed on the basis of judgment of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of CCE, Goa vs. Cosme Farma Laboratories Ltd [2015 (4) TMI 355 - SUPREME COURT] as held by the learned Member (Judicial) or the appeals of the assessee should be dismissed and the appeal of the Revenue should to be allowed as held by the learned Member (Technical)?
HELD THAT:- In the present case, there is no dispute that the assessee are manufacturing their products and are availing the benefit under Notification No. 8/2003-CE dated 01.03.2003 and paying the duty after crossing full exemption limit. It is also not in dispute that the assessee are also getting the goods manufactured from the other manufacturers. As per the Revenue, the goods manufactured from the other manufacturers who are job workers on loan-license basis or principal-to-principal basis, should also be included in the turnover of the assessee for the purpose of SSI Exemption. Whereas, as per the N/N. 8/2003-CE dated 01.03.2003, the exemption can only be denied if the assessee is manufacturing the goods by using brand name of other manufacturer; but in the present case, the assessee is manufacturing the goods by using its own brand name and those are the other manufacturers-job workers, who are manufacturing the goods by using the brand name of the assessee-M/s Optho Remedies Pvt Ltd. The department cannot deny the SSI Exemption to the assessee rather it should be denied to the manufacturers-job workers who are using the brand name of the assessee.
It is found that clause (4) of the N/N. 8/2003-CE dated 01.03.2003, clearly states that if the assessee is manufacturing the goods under brand name of another person then to that extent the value of goods will not be included for the purpose of counting the turnover SSI; whereas in the present case, the assessee M/s Optho Remedies Pvt Ltd are getting the goods manufactured from the other manufacturers and the goods so manufactured are also not brought in the premises of the assessee and are cleared from their premises on payment of duty and therefore, including the value of those goods in the goods manufactured by the assessee in their unit, will amount to double taxation, which is not permitted under law.
Further, it is found that the turnover of the manufacturers under loan-license and also the turnover of the manufacturers on principal-to-principal basis, cannot be clubbed with the turnover of the assessee dying SSI benefit because the N/N. 8/2003-CE states that clearances bearing the brand name/trade name of another person - the decisions relied upon by the learned Member (Technical), are on the footing that SSI benefit will not be available if any manufacturer clears the goods bearing the brand name/trade name of another person. Therefore, those decisions are not applicable in the present case.
It is a settled law that the value of goods manufactured on behalf of loan-licensee, not to be added in computing aggregate value of clearances of goods manufactured by the assessee on their own account, for the purpose of exemption under notifications - reliance can be placed in Omega Pharmaceuticals vs. CCE, Surat [2005 (10) TMI 156 - CESTAT, MUMBAI].
Further, it is found that in the case of Cosme Remedies Ltd vs. CCE, Goa [2006 (3) TMI 564 - CESTAT, MUMBAI] decided by the Tribunal, there was a difference of opinions between the Members, and by a majority view, it was held by the Tribunal that the principal manufacturer would be the job worker who has manufactured the goods on loan-license basis and not the assesse who is getting the goods manufactured from the job worker. Not satisfied with the majority order of the Tribunal, the Revenue filed the appeal before the Hon’ble Apex Court, reported CCE, Goa vs. Cosme Farma Laboratories [2015 (4) TMI 355 - SUPREME COURT] and the Hon’ble Apex Court, after examining all the facts of the case and agreements between the parties, has upheld the majority order of the Tribunal and rejected the appeal of the Revenue. Further, the Hon’ble Apex Court has held that the job workers were the manufacturers and the respondent-the loan licensee was not the manufacturer.
Thus, the judgment of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of CCE, Goa vs. Cosme Farma Laboratories [2015 (4) TMI 355 - SUPREME COURT] is squarely applicable in the present case, therefore, the view expressed by the learned Member (Judicial) is legally correct, accordingly, the findings recorded by the learned Member (Judicial) affimed - Since, the original Division Bench in the Interim Order, has not discussed the issue of valuation and there is no difference of opinions on the issue of valuation as well as limitation, therefore, it is not proper to give any findings on valuation and limitation because primarily the difference opinion was only with regard to the application of the judgment of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of CCE, Goa vs. Cosme Farma Laboratories [2015 (4) TMI 355 - SUPREME COURT] in the facts of the present case; therefore, limiting to the difference of opinions, it is held that the view taken by the learned Member (Judicial) is legally correct.
Now, let the matter be placed before the original Division Bench for drawing majority view.
Issues: Whether assessment and penalty proceedings could be continued against a deceased dealer, and whether such proceedings could be pursued against the legal representatives under Section 23 of the A.P. VAT Act.
Analysis: The dealer had died before the assessment and penalty orders were passed. As a matter of law, proceedings cannot be initiated or continued against a dead person. Section 23 of the A.P. VAT Act, however, expressly provides that where a dealer is dead, the executor, administrator, successor in title, or other legal representative is liable to submit returns, face assessment under Section 21, and discharge the tax, interest, and penalty from the estate of the deceased dealer. The provision also makes the appellate and revisional process applicable to such assessment as if the legal representative were the dealer.
Conclusion: The assessment and penalty orders against the deceased dealer could not stand, but the proceedings were capable of being continued against the petitioner as a legal representative and other class-I heirs.
Final Conclusion: The impugned assessment and penalty orders were set aside and the matter was remitted to the assessing authority to proceed afresh in accordance with law after notice to the legal representatives.
Ratio Decidendi: Tax proceedings cannot be maintained against a dead person, but where the statute so provides, they may validly continue against the legal representatives of the deceased dealer.
Recovery of tax amounts, from the late husband of the petitioner - the late husband of the petitioner had passed away in the year 2017 much prior to the initiation of the assessment or penalty proceedings - willful default or willful suppression of fact which is the basis for revoking Section 24(5) of the A.P VAT Act, present or not - HELD THAT:- Section 21(5) of A.P VAT Act extends the period of four years for passing assessment orders to a period of six years. In the event of Section 21(5) being applied, the order of assessment and penalty would be within limitation. However, Section 21(5) stipulates that the said provision would be available where there is a willful evasion of tax committed by the dealer. The question that would arise is whether such a provision can be invoked without specifically mentioning the fact that there was willful evasion of tax by a dealer. The further question is whether the aid of such a provision can be taken without any mention being made either in the assessment order or in the show cause notice that the extended period of limitation was being applied.
This issue had come up before a Division Bench of the erstwhile High Court of Andhra Pradesh in the case of K.G.F. Cottons (P.) Ltd. Vs. Asst. Commissioner (CT) LTU [2015 (5) TMI 804 - ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT]. A Division Bench of the erstwhile High Court of Andhra Pradesh after an extensive review of the facts and law had summarized their conclusions in paragraph-111 of the said judgment. The Division Bench had held that 'As the fact of commission of willful evasion is a jurisdictional fact, the dealer is entitled to satisfy the prescribed authority, on being given the opportunity to show cause, that such jurisdictional facts are nonexistent, and jurisdiction under Section 21(5) of the Act should not be exercised. It is necessary, therefore, for the prescribed authority to detail these jurisdictional facts in the show-cause notice proposing to assess the dealer to tax under Section 21(5) of the Act.'
It is not proposed to go into the question of whether the said provision would be applicable inasmuch as these writ petitions are being disposed of on another ground and any finding by this Court, on this issue, could affect the disposal of the assessment proceedings before the assessing authority.
In view of the fact that the proceedings could not have been initiated or continued against a dead person, both the order of assessment as well as the order of penalty would have to be set aside. However, by virtue of Section 23 of the A.P VAT Act, the said proceedings can be continued against the petitioner herein and such other legal representatives who would be class-I heirs of the deceased husband of the petitioner, under the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
These Writ Petitions are allowed setting aside the order of assessment, dated 26.03.2020, and order of penalty, dated 18.11.2020, and the matters are remanded back to the assessing authority for completing the assessment and penalty proceedings, if any, in accordance with law - Petition allowed by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether the criminal proceedings and charge-sheet against the petitioner deserved to be quashed for want of a prima facie case and on the ground that the CBI lacked jurisdiction to investigate; (ii) Whether the petitioner was entitled to copies of the seized documents sought in the connected criminal miscellaneous petition.
Issue (i): Whether the criminal proceedings and charge-sheet against the petitioner deserved to be quashed for want of a prima facie case and on the ground that the CBI lacked jurisdiction to investigate.
Analysis: The material on record, including the statements of bank officials, the locker records, the applications regarding transfer of locker ownership, the locker attendance register, the death of the original co-renter, and the forensic and other investigation materials, was found sufficient to show a prima facie case of criminal conspiracy, cheating by impersonation, forgery of records and falsification of accounts. The plea that the CBI lacked jurisdiction was rejected as the issue had already been settled against the petitioner on the basis of consent under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. The Court found no extraordinary reason to interfere with the pending trial at the quashing stage.
Conclusion: The plea for quashing was rejected and the criminal proceedings were sustained.
Issue (ii): Whether the petitioner was entitled to copies of the seized documents sought in the connected criminal miscellaneous petition.
Analysis: The documents sought were not shown to form part of the charge-sheet, and no prejudice was demonstrated from non-supply. The rejection orders passed by the trial court and revisional court were found to be reasoned and not warranting interference.
Conclusion: The prayer for supply of documents was rejected.
Final Conclusion: Both petitions were found devoid of merit and the challenge to the prosecution as well as the request for additional documents failed.
Ratio Decidendi: At the quashing stage, criminal proceedings will not be interfered with where the record discloses a prima facie case, and a challenge to CBI jurisdiction or to non-supply of documents will not succeed absent demonstrated illegality or prejudice.
Seeking to quash charge sheet filed by the respondents against the petitioner and the criminal proceedings initiated against him - seeking copies of certain documents which were allegedly seized by the respondent/CBI - HELD THAT:- The allegations against the petitioner are basically that he, in connivance with other accused persons including the Bank officials, got his name recorded against the owner of the locker in question which was owned by B.L. Agrawal, an IAS officer, posted in the State of Chhattisgarh. The detailed reply filed by the respondent/CBI speaks volumes. The documentary evidence as well as the statement of the bank officials makes it amply clear that firstly, the demise of the co-owner R.D. Goel was not informed by B.L. Agrawal to the Bank authorities and the name of the petitioner was got added in place of B.L. Agrawal antedating the applications in a fraudulent manner and further, the petitioner also could not establish that the cash of Rs. 15 Lakhs found in the locker in question belonged to Mamta Agrawal, though in the IT proceedings, she has been exonerated. As per the return filed by the CBI, it is amply clear that the said amount of Rs. 15 Lakhs for which B.L. Agrawal did not had any explanation, the entire conspiracy was hatched and the said amount was tried to be shown to be belonging to Mamta Agrawal, when in fact, the said amount prima facie belonged to B.L. Agrawal himself. The plea taken by the petitioner is not tenable and acceptable as the bundles of currency notes bear the slips of State Bank of India and Dena Bank instead of Union Bank of India as claimed by the petitioner.
From perusal of the materials available on record, it transpires that prima facie there is sufficient materials available on record to prosecute the petitioner as he connived with other accused persons and in order to provide a shield to his brother B.L. Agrawal, the petitioner has tried to show that the locker in question belonged to him and the money belonged to Mamta Agrawal, and his brother B.L. Agrawal, had nothing to do either with the locker or the cash found in the locker. The charge sheet has already been filed by the respondent/CBI before the learned Special Judge (CBI) and at this stage, there are no extraordinary reason so as to interfere with the trial proceedings. Prima facie, the conduct of the petitioner clearly falls under the offences punishable under Sections 120-B, 419, 466 and 477-A of the Indian Penal Code.
A perusal of the charge sheet goes to show that the FIR was lodged against B.L. Agrawal, the petitioner and Antony Samy for the offences under Sections 120-B read with Section 419, 420, 467, 468, 471 and 477(A) of the Indian Penal Code as well as Section 13(2) read with Section 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. However, the charge-sheet filed by the CBI reveals that the petitioner alongwith two other co-accused i.e. B.L. Agrawal and Antony Samy, they are alleged to have committed the offence punishable under Sections 120-B, 419, 466 and 477-A of the IPC. There is prima facie ample evidence collected by the CBI that the B.L. Agrawal conspired with the petitioner and Antony Samy, the then incharge of Locker Department of the Bank as ante-dated application was prepared by the petitioner and B.L. Agrawal and was taken on record by Antony Samy - the offence of cheating by impersonation appears to be prima facie made out. The statement of co-accused Antony Samy clearly indicates that there has been manipulations in the Bank records to show that the petitioner is the renter of the locker in question and not B.L. Agrawal.
Both these petitions viz. WPCr. No. 201/2017 as well as Cr.M.P. No. 587/2013, are dismissed being devoid of merit.
TaxTMI