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      TaxTMI Updates e-Newsletter
      Mar 30,2026

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      41 Highlights Toggle
      5 Articles Toggle
      By: Bimal jain
      Summary: Bona fide clerical errors in Form GSTR-1, including misreporting B2C supplies as B2B, cannot by themselves justify a show cause notice where the correction reflects the true nature of supplies and causes no revenue loss. The discussion emphasizes that rectification of genuine mistakes in GST returns should be permitted, and that proceedings founded solely on the alleged ineligibility to amend such errors are inconsistent with the settled approach recognising correction of inadvertent mistakes.
      By: Raj Jaggi
      Summary: Wrongly availed transitional Input Tax Credit under GST may attract interest where the credit is retained for a prolonged period and non-utilisation is not proved by documentary evidence. The article explains that prolonged retention of inadmissible credit can create a liquidity benefit and justify compensatory interest, even where the taxpayer cites technical glitches or eventual reversal. It further states that GST interest is statutory and automatic, recovery may proceed without a separate show-cause notice, and interest must be paid in cash because ITC cannot be used for such dues.
      By: YAGAY andSUN
      Summary: E-commerce pricing and packaging in India require tax-inclusive pricing, mandatory product and importer disclosures, and full compliance with legal metrology, consumer protection, and GST obligations. Non-disclosure of inclusive pricing or missing packaging declarations may constitute strict liability non-compliance, unfair trade practice, misleading advertisement, and tax irregularity, exposing sellers and platforms to parallel civil, criminal, and regulatory consequences, including fines, seizure, consumer complaints, tax demands, and compliance action.
      By: Dr. Sanjiv Agarwal
      Summary: Goods and Services Tax developments include the fiscal and economic context of geopolitical disruption, the revised GDP series with FY 2022-23 as base year, CBIC's allocation of duties, simplified procedures for returning export cargo, extension of deferred duty payment, and portal-based compliance advisories. The article also covers SOPs for Health Security se National Security Cess registration and payment, GSTAT appeal filing requirements, pre-deposit linkage through DRC-03A, confirmation of the tax liability breakup in GSTR-3B, and February 2026 GST collection trends.
      By: YAGAY andSUN
      Summary: India's energy security strategy is shaped by the combined disruption of the Russia-Ukraine war and continuing instability in the Middle East, which have altered global oil and gas flows, intensified price volatility, and exposed the risks faced by energy-importing economies. A key feature of the response is diversification of energy imports, with India expanding procurement from multiple suppliers to reduce dependence on any single source and improve bargaining position in global markets. The article further describes a layered strategy built around Strategic Petroleum Reserves, renewable energy expansion, energy diplomacy, and domestic energy reform to reconcile growth with sustainability.
      15 News Toggle
      Summary: Government policy on aviation, infrastructure and energy is presented as part of a broader strategy to advance economic development, improve citizen convenience and strengthen national resilience amid global disruption. The address emphasised safeguarding the interests of families and farmers, reducing costs and saving time, while maintaining calm and unity during external crises. It also highlighted the inauguration of Noida International Airport as a transport and logistics hub, the expansion of the UDAN scheme, development of domestic maintenance, repair and overhaul capacity, and ethanol blending as a measure to reduce crude oil imports and foreign exchange outgo.
      Summary: Trade transparency under the WTO Technical Barriers to Trade framework requires members to share information on trade policies, subsidies and regulatory measures, but India has cautioned that transparency must not be weaponised to justify trade retaliation or challenge legitimate domestic policies. It stressed that disclosure obligations should be backed by sustained capacity-building support so all members, especially developing countries, can meet them fairly and effectively. India also supported time-bound WTO reform with milestones, robust evidentiary analysis and a member-driven consensus process.
      Summary: IBEX India 2026 is presented as a dual-track BFSI platform combining a trade exhibition and a leadership conference to showcase and strategise innovation in banking and financial services. The exhibition brings together technology providers, fintech participants and BFSI solution specialists to present banking technologies, cybersecurity tools, AI-driven solutions, IT infrastructure services, KYC and onboarding solutions, surveillance systems and payment services intended to improve operational efficiency. The conference discusses digital transformation, cybersecurity resilience, the interaction between traditional banking and fintech, and the evolving regulatory landscape, including the growing role of AI.
      Summary: Amid the West Asia conflict, the Odisha Chief Minister urged people to avoid panic buying and unnecessary purchasing so that supply chains remain stable and essential commodities continue to be available without disruption. The state government stated that accurate information would reach citizens and that hoarding and black marketing would be strictly prevented. He also welcomed the Central government's excise duty cut on petrol and diesel as a timely measure to shield consumers from rising global oil prices and support economic stability, energy security, and essential supplies.
      Summary: Nucleus Software marked 30 years of listing on the Bombay Stock Exchange, describing the milestone as evidence of strong governance, disciplined execution and sustained value creation. The company said its growth has been driven by customer-centricity and domain-led innovation, with digital lending and transaction banking platforms supporting financial institutions across multiple countries. It stated that FinnOne Neo and FinnAxia are designed to improve operations through scalable, cloud-ready and API-driven architecture, with AI-led capabilities central to its strategy.
      Summary: Interim protection was declined in a fraud-linked FIR arising from a corporate insolvency process, as the investigation was at a nascent stage and the court was not inclined to stay the probe without hearing both sides. The request for a no-coercive-step order was also refused, while the investigating agency was directed to file a status report. The FIR concerns allegations of manipulation of the resolution process, acquisition of valuable land at a fraction of its market value, and structured financial flows through related entities.
      Summary: Form 75 is the statement of income paid or credited by a Venture Capital Company or Venture Capital Fund to a person liable to tax under section 222. It is a child form of Form 74, not filed separately, and is automatically generated from Form 74 data through the e-filing portal with no separate documents or attachments. The form must be furnished to each investor by 30 June of the following financial year and is a mandatory compliance requirement.
      Summary: Form 74 is the annual statement required from a Venture Capital Company or Venture Capital Fund registered with SEBI when income is paid or credited to investors from investments in Venture Capital Undertakings. The form records fund details, compliance declarations, income classification, proportions of income heads, and investor-wise particulars. It is filed electronically under digital signature by 15 June of the following financial year, after verification by a qualified accountant, and is supported by the SEBI registration certificate, fund deed where applicable, audited accounts, and certified income distribution records.
      Summary: Indicative issuance calendar for Government of India dated securities, including Sovereign Green Bonds, is released for the first half of the fiscal year 2026-27. The auctions include a non-competitive bidding facility reserving five per cent of the notified amount for specified retail investors, and the Government of India may modify the calendar, issue different types of instruments, exercise the greenshoe option, and conduct switch or buyback auctions subject to the applicable general notification.
      Summary: Government borrowing for the first half of FY 2026-27 has been finalised in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, through dated securities, sovereign green bonds and treasury bills. The plan distributes borrowing across weekly auctions and multiple maturities, provides for switching and buyback of securities to smoothen the redemption profile, reserves a greenshoe option, and sets the Ways and Mean Advances limit to address temporary mismatches in government accounts.
      Summary: Treasury bill issuance calendar for the quarter ending June 2026 fixes the proposed auction and issue schedule for 91-day, 182-day and 364-day Treasury Bills through weekly auctions in April, May and June 2026. The Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, retains flexibility to modify the indicated auction amounts and timing depending on requirements, evolving market conditions and other relevant factors, after due notice to the market. The calendar is subject to change where circumstances so warrant, and auctions remain subject to the governing notification and its amendments.
      Summary: Oriental Insurance Company Limited has crossed a gross premium milestone for FY 2025-2026, reflecting growing trust in public sector insurance institutions and alignment with the Government's objective of expanding financial inclusion under the vision of Insurance for All by 2047. Growth is attributed to strong contributions from Group Personal Accident, Health, Fire and Motor insurance portfolios, together with innovative offerings and planned new products addressing evolving risk needs.
      Summary: Investor facilitation camps under the Investor Education and Protection Fund framework provide single-window support for claim redressal, unclaimed dividends, unclaimed shares and pending IEPFA claims. The Bhubaneswar "Niveshak Shivir" offered on-the-spot KYC and nomination updates, direct interaction with company representatives and RTAs, and assistance through a Search Facility Help Desk for identifying unclaimed investments transferred to the IEPF. Participants were guided on locating potential claims and proceeding through Form IEPF-5.
      Summary: Structured support for startups in fuel-tech, manufacturing, deep-tech and allied sectors is to be advanced through a memorandum of understanding. The collaboration covers innovation challenges and hackathons, investor connect programmes, skill development initiatives, pilot opportunities and market access for early-stage innovators. It also seeks to support startups from ideation through prototyping, use the Startup India platform for wider outreach, and strengthen industry-startup linkages for technology-driven solutions and indigenous innovation.
      Summary: Form 74 is a statement to be furnished by a Venture Capital Fund or Venture Capital Company in relation to income paid or credited to investors for section 222. It is filed online by the specified fund or company by 15 June of the following financial year, with supporting registration, deed, audited accounts, and certified income distribution records kept in possession. The form supports pass-through taxation, so the income is reported in the hands of investors according to its character.
      8 Notifications Toggle

      Central Excise

      1.
      G.S.R. 219(E) - dated - 27-3-2026 - CE
      Corrigendum - Notification No. 11/2026-Central Excise, dated the 26th March, 2026
      Summary: A corrigendum to the Central Excise exemption notification corrects an entry in the tariff schedule. In the relevant column, the originally printed figure is substituted with the revised figure, thereby amending the notification as published.
      2.
      G.S.R. 217(E) - dated - 27-3-2026 - CE
      Corrigendum - Notification No. 06/2026-Central Excise, dated the 26th March, 2026
      Summary: A corrigendum to Notification No. 06/2026-Central Excise corrects an entry in column (4) of the notification issued by the Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue. The amendment substitutes the figure '18.5' with '12' in line 17, thereby revising the applicable value stated in the notification.

      Income Tax

      3.
      38/2026 - dated - 27-3-2026 - Inc.Tax Act 1961
      Tax Exemption on Specified Income of "Odisha PVTG Empowerment and Livelihoods Improvement Programme (OPELIP)" U/s 10(46) of Income-tax Act, 1961
      Summary: Income-tax exemption under section 10(46) is notified for Odisha PVTG Empowerment and Livelihoods Improvement Programme (OPELIP), a State Government authority, for specified income consisting of State Government grants, interest on fixed deposits and savings accounts refundable to the Government of Odisha, and non-refundable tender fees. The exemption is subject to conditions that OPELIP shall not undertake commercial activity, its activities and specified income shall remain unchanged, and returns shall be filed under section 139(4C)(g). Non-compliance may lead to penal action and withdrawal of the exemption.
      4.
      37/2026 - dated - 27-3-2026 - Inc.Tax Act 1961
      Tax Exemption on Specified Income of "District Legal Services Authority, Panipat" U/s 10(46) of Income-tax Act, 1961
      Summary: Exemption from income tax is notified for District Legal Services Authority, Panipat under clause (46) of section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of specified income, including grants from legal aid authorities, government grants or donations, amounts received under court order or from other sources, recruitment application fees, and interest on bank deposits. The notification is subject to conditions that the Authority must not engage in commercial activity, must keep its activities and income profile unchanged, and must file returns in the prescribed manner.
      5.
      36/2026 - dated - 27-3-2026 - Inc.Tax Act 1961
      Tax Exemption on Specified Income of "Andhra Pradesh Pollution Control Board" U/s 10(46A) of Income-tax Act, 1961
      Summary: The Central Government notifies the Andhra Pradesh Pollution Control Board as an eligible assessee under clause (46A) of section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for exemption of specified income. The notification is effective from assessment year 2027-28, subject to the Board continuing as a State Government-established Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, with one or more of the prescribed purposes.
      6.
      35/2026 - dated - 27-3-2026 - Inc.Tax Act 1961
      Tax Exemption on Specified Income of "Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education, Goa" U/s 10(46) of Income-tax Act, 1961
      Summary: Tax exemption under section 10(46) is notified for Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education, Goa in respect of specified income comprising government grants, fees and moneys received under the governing Act and Rules, and interest on bank deposits and investments. The exemption is subject to conditions that the Board shall not engage in commercial activity, its activities and specified income shall remain unchanged during the financial year, and it shall file its return of income under section 139(4C)(g). The notification applies for assessment years 2024-25 to 2028-29.
      7.
      34/2026 - dated - 27-3-2026 - Inc.Tax Act 1961
      Tax Exemption on Specified Income of "Improvement Trust, Sangrur" U/s 10(46A) of Income-tax Act, 1961
      Summary: Tax exemption is notified for Improvement Trust, Sangrur under clause (46A) of section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The notification applies from assessment year 2025-26, subject to the trust continuing under the Punjab Town Improvement Act, 1922 and retaining one or more of the purposes specified in sub-clause (a) of clause (46A). The explanatory memorandum states that retrospective effect is certified as not adversely affecting any person.
      8.
      33/2026 - dated - 27-3-2026 - Inc.Tax Act 1961
      Tax Exemption on Specified Income of "Uttarakhand Avas and Nagar Vikas Pradhikaran" U/s 10(46A) of Income-tax Act, 1961
      Summary: Tax exemption is notified for Uttarakhand Avas and Nagar Vikas Pradhikaran under clause (46A) of section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by recognising it as an authority constituted under the Uttarakhand Urban and Country Planning and Development (Amendment) Act, 2013. The notification applies from assessment year 2025-26, subject to the authority continuing to satisfy the statutory purposes specified in the exemption provision and remaining constituted under the 2013 Amending Act.
      3 Circulars Toggle

      FEMA

      1.
      24 - dated 27-3-2026
      NOP-INR position of Authorised Dealers
      Summary: Authorised Dealers must maintain their NOP-INR positions in the onshore deliverable market within US$ 100 million at the end of each business day, with compliance required at the earliest and no later than April 10, 2026. The measure is issued as an exchange rate management direction under the Reserve Bank's power to prescribe limits for open Rupee positions and is without prejudice to permissions or approvals under other applicable law.

      Customs

      2.
      14/2026 - dated 27-3-2026
      Clarification regarding validity period for self-sealing permission to exporters under Circular No. 26/2017-Customs and Circular No.36/2017
      Summary: Self-sealing permission granted to an eligible exporter or merchant exporter under the customs circulars does not carry any prescribed validity period. Once granted, the permission remains effective unless it is specifically withdrawn, suspended, or cancelled by the jurisdictional Customs authority for non-compliance, misuse of the facility, or any other valid reason. Field formations are directed to administer the facility in a facilitative manner while maintaining necessary checks and to deal with misuse in accordance with law.
      3.
      15/2026 - dated 27-3-2026
      International Transhipment of FCL/LCL cargo from all Ports/Airports, in view of disruption in maritime routes due to closure of the Strait of Hormuz- Section 143AA of the Customs Act, 1962
      Summary: International transhipment of FCL and LCL cargo is permitted from all seaports and international airports, including through other Customs stations, subject to the Customs Act, 1962 and the prescribed procedure. Customs Zones must appoint a Nodal Officer for prompt processing, and where multiple Customs stations are involved, prior email consent, verification of storage and logistics readiness, and Customs-controlled movement are required. Export cargo lying at gateway ports may be cleared through cancellation of LEO or Shipping Bill by the originating ICD, with electronic processing preferred.
      49 Case Laws Toggle
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