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Issues: Whether the petitioner, who has been in judicial custody as an under-trial for over eight months and whose trial has not commenced, should be granted regular bail in offences triable by Magistrate under provisions of the GST statutes.
Analysis: The Court examined the period of judicial custody (over eight months), the fact that the Trial Court has not yet framed charge and the trial is unlikely to conclude within the next year. The offences are triable by a Magistrate and attract a maximum punishment that may extend up to five years. The Court balanced the gravity of the alleged offence against prolonged pre-trial detention, noting that these factors permit the exercise of judicial discretion to grant bail. The Court also allowed that the Trial Court may impose suitable terms and conditions and that the department may request specific protective conditions which the Trial Court shall consider in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The petitioner is ordered to be released on bail subject to such terms and conditions as the Trial Court may deem fit; this decision is in favour of the petitioner/assessee.
Denial of Regular bail - offence punishable under Section 132(l)(b) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, Section 132(l)(i) of the Goods & Services Tax Act. 2017 and Section 20 (xv) of the IGST Act, 2017 respectively - HELD THAT:- The gravity of the alleged offence is not undermined. However, at the same time, the fact that the petitioner is in judicial custody as an under-trial prisoner past 8 months, should not be overlooked. The Trial Court is yet to commence. Charge is yet to be framed. Even if the trial commences in near future, it would not conclude within next one year. The offences are triable by Magistrate. The maximum punishment that the trial court may be in a position to impose upon the petitioner if held guilty would be upto 5 years.
The petitioner is ordered to be released on bail, subject to terms and conditions that the Trial Court may deem fit to impose - SLP disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the refund of a statutory pre-deposit made for maintaining an appeal is governed by Section 107(6) read with Section 115 of the Jharkhand Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 or by Section 54 of the Act; (ii) Whether the High Court erred in interpreting and granting relief under Section 54 in that context.
Issue (i): Whether refund of statutory pre-deposit for maintaining an appeal is governed by Section 107(6) read with Section 115 of the Jharkhand GST Act, 2017 or by Section 54 of the Act.
Analysis: The question requires identification of the statutory provision that prescribes the remedy for refund of amounts deposited in connection with appellate proceedings. The analysis distinguishes the mechanism applicable to refunds arising from maintenance and outcome of appeals from the general refund provisions, and considers the correct statutory source that governs refund of a pre-deposit made for prosecuting an appeal.
Conclusion: The refund of the statutory pre-deposit is governed by Section 107(6) read with Section 115 of the Jharkhand GST Act, 2017 and not by Section 54 of the Act. This conclusion is in favour of Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether the High Court erred in interpreting and granting relief under Section 54 in relation to the refund of the pre-deposit.
Analysis: Having determined the appropriate statutory provision governing the refund, the exercise of interpreting and granting relief under Section 54 in that context is examined for necessity and correctness. The prior exercise by the High Court under Section 54 is assessed as unnecessary because the refund remedy arises from the appellate provisions identified above.
Conclusion: The High Court's interpretation and exercise under Section 54 in this context is unnecessary and is set aside. This conclusion is in favour of Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed to the extent of clarifying that the refund of the statutory pre-deposit is to be treated under Section 107(6) read with Section 115 of the Jharkhand GST Act, 2017; the High Court's exercise under Section 54 is set aside, and the amount shall be refunded with interest in accordance with law within the specified period.
Ratio Decidendi: Refund of a statutory pre-deposit made for maintaining an appeal is governed by the appellate refund provisions (Section 107(6) read with Section 115 of the Jharkhand GST Act, 2017) and not by the general refund provision in Section 54.
Requirement of refund to be made to the respondent in relation to the statutory pre-deposit made by it for maintaining the appeal - HELD THAT:- The Apex Court is agreed with the submission made by the learned senior counsel that the subject refund was relatable to Section 107(6) read with Section 115 of the Jharkhand GST Act, and to that extent, the exercise undertaken by the High Court with regard to Section 54 thereof was unnecessary.
Making that position clear and setting aside the exercise of interpretation of Section 54 of the Act undertaken in that context, the appeal is disposed of.
Issues: Whether the component of the High Court's order imposing costs of Rs. 5,000 on the Principal Secretary, State Tax, Lucknow should be set aside.
Analysis: The petition challenged only the portion of the High Court order that imposed monetary costs while granting time to file a further affidavit with better particulars. The Supreme Court examined the record of filings and the High Court's exercise of discretion in imposing costs alongside granting extension for filing further material. Having considered the factual matrix and the relief sought, the Supreme Court construed the appropriate corrective measure as limited to removing the cost imposition while permitting the High Court proceedings to continue and directing further progress in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The component of the High Court order imposing costs of Rs. 5,000 is set aside and the petitioner's challenge to that imposition is upheld, in favour of the Appellant.
Defreezing of bank accounts - no supporting materials have been brought on record - it was held by High Court that 'As prayed list on 8.12.2025 as fresh in order to enable the learned Additional Advocate General to file a better personal affidavit of the Principal Secretary, State Tax, Lucknow.' - HELD THAT:- The High Court was not satisfied with the reply filed by the petitioner herein.
In the facts and circumstances of the case, the part of the impugned order by which costs of Rs. 5000/- has been imposed set aside - Let the matter now proceed further before the High Court in accordance with law.
SLP disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the petitioners are permitted to prefer an appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal under section 112 of the GST Act in view of constitution and functioning of the Tribunal; (ii) Whether the limitation for preferring such appeal is extended and, if so, up to what date; (iii) Whether deposit made pursuant to the interim order before this Court satisfies the requirement of sub-section (8) of section 112 of the GST Act; (iv) What procedural directions should govern lodging and verification of the appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal.
Issue (i): Whether the petitioners are permitted to prefer an appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal under section 112 of the GST Act in view of constitution and functioning of the Tribunal.
Analysis: The Central Government has constituted the GST Appellate Tribunal and framed rules for its procedure; the Tribunal's constitution and appointment of Members indicate the tribunal is functioning and appeals under section 112 are now maintainable before it. The Court declined to decide validity of the impugned orders and instead addressed the appropriate forum and availability of statutory appeal.
Conclusion: The petitioners are permitted to prefer an appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal; conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the limitation for preferring such appeal is extended and, if so, up to what date.
Analysis: The Court, noting the recent constitution of the Tribunal and the notification extending relevant timelines, allowed a specific extended period for filing appeals to avoid loss of remedy due to earlier non-availability of the Tribunal.
Conclusion: The period for preferring the appeal is extended up to June 30, 2026; conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether deposit made pursuant to the interim order before this Court satisfies the requirement of sub-section (8) of section 112 of the GST Act.
Analysis: The Court recorded that an amount was directed to be deposited while entertaining the writ petition and provided that if such amount was deposited, it would be treated as compliance with the deposit requirement under section 112(8), subject to production of certified interim order and proof of deposit when preferring the appeal.
Conclusion: Deposit made in compliance with this Court's interim order shall be treated as satisfying section 112(8); conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iv): What procedural directions should govern lodging and verification of the appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal.
Analysis: The Court directed that the Registrar or verifying officer shall notify petitioners of defects within three weeks of filing and allowed 30 days for curing defects, and clarified that appeals will be entertained despite limitation objections and decided on merits in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The Tribunal shall allow the appeal without limitation objection if filed by June 30, 2026; defects may be intimated within three weeks and cured within 30 days; conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is disposed of by permitting the petitioners to prefer appeals before the constitutionally notified GST Appellate Tribunal subject to the specified timelines and procedural directions, preserving the petitioners' statutory remedy without adjudicating the merits of the impugned orders.
Constitution of GST Appellate Tribunal - entertainment of writ as substitute forum - extension of limitation for preferring appeal - compliance with deposit condition under section 112(8) of the GST Act - curing of defects in appeal filing - adjudication of appeal on merits
Constitution of GST Appellate Tribunal - entertainment of writ as substitute forum - Whether the writ petition should continue before the High Court once the GST Appellate Tribunal has been constituted and its Members appointed. - HELD THAT: - The Court recorded that the writ petition had been entertained earlier because the GST Appellate Tribunal under section 112 of the GST Act was not constituted. The Central Government subsequently constituted the Tribunal and appointed its Members, and rules regulating its procedure were notified. Given that the Tribunal's constitution and procedural framework are now in place and its Benches are being brought into function, the Court concluded that no useful purpose would be served by keeping the matter pending before the High Court and disposed of the writ petition to enable the statutory appellate forum to decide the matter. [Paras 2, 3, 4, 5, 7]
Writ petition disposed of and parties permitted to prefer appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal now that it is constituted.
Extension of limitation for preferring appeal - Whether the petitioner(s) may prefer an appeal to the GST Appellate Tribunal notwithstanding limitation and, if so, the period allowed. - HELD THAT: - The Court permitted the petitioner(s) to prefer an appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal as contemplated under section 112 of the GST Act and the relevant Central Government notification, and explicitly allowed such appeal to be filed up to the period of June 30, 2026. The Court further directed that if the appeal is preferred within that period it shall be entertained without raising any objection with regard to limitation. [Paras 7]
Appeal may be preferred to the Tribunal up to June 30, 2026 and will be entertained without objection as to limitation.
Compliance with deposit condition under section 112(8) of the GST Act - Whether amounts deposited earlier while entertaining the writ petition can be treated as compliance with the deposit condition prescribed for entertaining an appeal under section 112(8) of the GST Act. - HELD THAT: - The Court noted that while entertaining the writ petition it had directed deposit of certain amounts in addition to amounts paid under sub-section (6) of section 107. It directed that if such amount was deposited by the petitioner(s), the same shall be treated as compliance with sub-section (8) of section 112 of the GST Act, subject to the petitioner(s) furnishing a certified copy of the interim order together with proof of deposit of such amount when preferring the appeal. [Paras 6, 7]
Prior deposit made pursuant to the interim directions shall be treated as compliance with section 112(8) on production of certified interim order and proof of deposit.
Curing of defects in appeal filing - What procedure and timeline should apply for intimating and curing defects in the appeal when filed before the GST Appellate Tribunal. - HELD THAT: - The Court directed that the Registrar of the GST Appellate Tribunal or the Officer appointed for verification shall intimate the petitioner(s) of any defects within three weeks from the date of preferring the appeal, and that the petitioner(s) shall cure or remove such defects within 30 days from the date of intimation. This establishes a fixed timeline for defect-notification and rectification in the initial filing process before the Tribunal. [Paras 7]
Registrar/officer to intimate defects within three weeks; petitioner(s) to cure defects within 30 days of intimation.
Adjudication of appeal on merits - Whether the appeal admitted pursuant to these directions is to be decided on its merits or otherwise. - HELD THAT: - The Court made it clear that the appeal, if preferred in accordance with the directions, shall be decided in accordance with law on its own merits. The order does not express any view on the validity or legality of the impugned orders and leaves substantive adjudication to the Tribunal. [Paras 7]
Appeal to be decided on merits by the GST Appellate Tribunal.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is disposed of to enable the newly constituted GST Appellate Tribunal to entertain appeals; petitioners are permitted to file appeal up to June 30, 2026 without limitation objection, prior deposits ordered by the Court will be treated as compliance with section 112(8) on production of proof, defects in filing shall be intimated and cured within prescribed timelines, and the appeal shall be decided on its merits.
Issues: Whether the appellate authority validly rejected the statutory appeal as time-barred when the appeal had been filed within the 45-day window granted by the High Court but the memorandum did not mention or enclose the Court's order granting that window.
Analysis: The petitioner filed a statutory appeal under Section 107 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 within the 45-day period of liberty granted by this Court in earlier batch proceedings. The appellate authority rejected the appeal on the ground of delay and communicated the rejection in FORM GST APL 02, while the procedure for rejecting an appeal for delay contemplates use of FORM GST APL 04. The petitioner's memorandum did not refer to or enclose the prior judgment that created the 45-day window. Having regard to the Court's earlier direction permitting appeals within 45 days to be considered on merits and the facts that the appeal was filed within that window and the omission to enclose the judgment was inadvertent, the matter requires reconsideration on merits rather than summary rejection for delay. The appellate authority should be given an opportunity to consider an application enclosing the Court's order and to decide the question of delay and admissibility in accordance with law.
Conclusion: The impugned rejection order dated 31.07.2025 is set aside and the matter is remanded to the appellate authority to consider the appeal on merits after permitting the petitioner to file an application enclosing the Court's judgment; outcome is in favour of the assessee.
Dismissal of appeal on the ground of delay - petitioner had preferred the appeal within the period of 45 days as per the liberty granted by this Court - HELD THAT:- Since the appeal was preferred within the window period of 45 days granted by this Court in M/S. BRUNDA INFRA PVT. LIMITED; HCC-SEW-MEIL-AAG JV AND OTHERS VERSUS THE ADDITIONAL COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL TAX, THE PRINCIPAL COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL TAX, HYDERABAD GST COMMISSIONERATE, HYDERABAD AND OTHERS. [2025 (1) TMI 299 - TELANGANA HIGH COURT], the appeal did not deserve to be rejected on delay. The petitioner may not be allowed to suffer for the inadvertence in not referring to the judgment of this Court in M/S. BRUNDA INFRA PVT. LIMITED, as such, the High Court is inclined to set aside the impugned rejection order dated 31.07.2025 which has been communicated in FORM GST APL 02.
Therefore, the impugned rejection order is set aside and the matter is remanded to the appellate authority to consider it in accordance with law - petition disposed off by way of remand.
Issues: Whether the impugned assessment orders dated 29.09.2025 require interference on the ground of violation of principles of natural justice and inadequate consideration of the petitioner’s reply, and whether the petitioner should be granted liberty to file an appeal against the assessment orders.
Analysis: The Court examined the procedural history showing issuance of show cause notices and filing of replies by the petitioner, followed by multiple notices affording opportunities for personal hearing. The Court found that the petitioner failed to appear despite repeated opportunities and that the replies filed were not proper or effective. The Court noted that where an assessee has not availed the afforded opportunities and the reply is insufficient, the principles of natural justice are not infringed. The Court also considered the availability of alternative remedy before the Appellate Authority, which possesses the power to adjudicate afresh and afford hearing, and observed that time remains available for filing an appeal.
Conclusion: The impugned assessment orders do not warrant interference and the petitions are dismissed; however, the petitioner is granted liberty to file an appeal before the Appellate Authority within two weeks, who shall consider the appeal on merits and in accordance with law by providing sufficient opportunity to the petitioner.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an assessee, after filing replies, fails to avail repeated opportunities of personal hearing and the replies are found insufficient, a court will not interfere with the assessment order and the appropriate remedy is to seek adjudication before the Appellate Authority which must be allowed to consider the matter on merits.
Violation of principles of natural justice - reply filed by the petitioner was rejected by the respondent - petitioner is willing to file an appeal against the said impugned assessment order - HELD THAT:- The reply filed by the petitioner is neither proper not effective and hence, the same was rejected by the respondent while passing the impugned assessment order. Therefore, it is clear that though the respondent had provided sufficient opportunities, due to the inaction on the part of the petitioner, they had given up their rights for personal hearing and filing of reply in these cases. In such case, this Court is of the considered view that the impugned assessment orders passed by the respondent need no interference of this Court.
Normally, an Assessee will have two opportunities to present their case. One is before the Assessing Officer and another is before the Appellate Authority. The Appellate Authority will also have similar power of the Assessing Officer to adjudicate the petitioner’s case. In such case, as rightly suggested by the learned Additional Government Pleader, now, the recourse available to the petitioner is to file an appeal against the impugned assessment order - Further, since the time limit is very well available for filing the appeal, the learned counsel for the petitioner also seeks leave of this Court to file an appeal against the impugned assessment orders dated 29.09.2025 passed by the respondent and he has restricted his relief and requested this Court to grant liberty to the petitioner to file an appeal against the impugned assessment order since it will be sufficient to meet out the case of the petitioner.
Petition dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the show cause notice dated 19.09.2025 issued by the Central Tax Authorities should be kept in abeyance pending disposal of the appeal against penalty proceedings concluded by the State Tax Authority; (ii) Whether the Appellate Authority of the State Tax should be directed to conclude the appeal within a specified timeframe.
Issue (i): Whether the Central Tax Authorities' show cause notice dated 19.09.2025 should be kept in abeyance until the State Tax appellate proceedings are concluded.
Analysis: The Court examined that penalty proceedings under Section 121(1)/Section 122 of the TGST/CGST Act have concluded at the State level and an appeal is pending before the State appellate authority, while proceedings by the Central Tax Authorities on the show cause notice are yet to be decided. Having regard to potential overlap between the matters and to avoid conflicting determinations, the Court balanced the parties' submissions and afforded interim protection by maintaining abeyance of the Central show cause notice until the State appeal is decided. The Court further required the Central Authorities to take into account the findings of the State appellate authority when proceeding.
Conclusion: The show cause notice dated 19.09.2025 shall remain in abeyance and the Central Tax Authorities may proceed on the show cause notice only after the Appellate Authority of the State Tax concludes the pending appeal. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the Appellate Authority of the State Tax should be directed to conclude the petitioner's appeal within a specified period.
Analysis: The Court noted delay in the State appellate proceedings and observed that final resolution of the State appeal is necessary before the Central Authorities proceed. To ensure timely disposal and to give effect to the protective abeyance, the Court directed the State Appellate Authority to conclude the appeal within a short specified period and permitted the petitioner to cooperate and file necessary replies.
Conclusion: The Appellate Authority of the State Tax is directed to conclude the appeal within three weeks from the date of the order (subject to receipt of the copy), and this direction is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The writ petition is disposed of by directing that the Central Tax Authorities shall not proceed on the show cause notice until the State Tax appellate proceedings are concluded, and the State Appellate Authority is directed to conclude the pending appeal within the timeframe ordered; the petitioner retains the right to file replies and to challenge any subsequent orders by appropriate proceedings.
Validity of the proceedings when Appellate Authority of the State Tax has not concluded the appeal proceedings against the penalty imposed under Section 121(1) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017/Telangana Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 - overlap of proceedings or not - HELD THAT:- The petitioner has made strenuous efforts to convince the High Court that since a question of overlap of proceedings, be it under Section 73 or 74 of the CGST/TGST and Section 122 of the CGST/TGST Act, is involved, the matter may be decided by this Court itself - However, at this stage, it is refrained from expressing any final opinion in the matter. Taking into account the submission of the parties, this Court had kept the show cause notice dated 19.09.2025 issued by Central Tax Authorities in abeyance while directing the Appellate Authority of the State Tax to conclude the appeal proceedings, in accordance with law, within a period of four weeks from the date of receipt of copy of the order, which, however, has not yet been concluded.
The Central Tax Authorities should proceed with the show cause notice dated 19.09.2025 but only after conclusion of the appeal proceedings pending before the Appellate Authority of the State Tax. Meanwhile, Petitioner may file reply after disposal of the appeal and take all available points in law and fact including the question of overlap and reference to CBIC circular dated 06.07.2022 in its reply before the Central Tax Authorities - Needless to say, if the petitioner is aggrieved by the order of the Central Tax Authorities or the Appellate Authority of the State Tax, it would be open for it to assail it in an appropriate proceeding on all grounds of law and fact available to it. The Appellate Authority of the State Tax is directed to conclude the proceedings, if not yet concluded within a further period of three weeks from today.
Petition disposed off.
Issues: (i) Whether the impugned appellate orders dated 12.12.2023 holding the petitioner to be an "intermediary" and denying export status, and the refund sanctioning authority's rejection dated 09.07.2024 founded on those orders, are sustainable; (ii) Whether the matter requires fresh consideration by the authorities in view of absence of findings on existence of a third party and other prerequisites for intermediary services.
Issue (i): Whether the impugned orders concluding that the petitioner's supplies are intermediary services and not exports are sustainable.
Analysis: The Court examined the appellate and sanctioning authorities' reliance on clause (C) of the agreement to characterise the petitioner as an intermediary and noted that the authorities did not record any finding establishing the existence of a third party, did not identify two distinct supplies (main and ancillary), nor did they determine that the petitioner merely arranged/facilitated a main supply rather than supplying on its own account. The authorities also failed to grapple with documentary material already filed by the petitioner and the requirements under Section 2(13), Section 2(6) and Section 13 of the IGST Act and the CBIC guidance on primary requirements for intermediary services.
Conclusion: The Court held that the impugned orders concluding intermediary status are cryptic, suffer from non-application of mind, and are not sustainable in their present form (in favour of the Appellant).
Issue (ii): Whether the matters should be remitted for fresh decision by the appellate authority and refund sanctioning authority.
Analysis: Given the absence of explicit findings on the essential prerequisites for intermediary classification (minimum of three parties, two distinct supplies, subsidiary/agent character) and the reliance of the sanctioning authority on earlier appellate observations without independent reasoning, the Court determined that a fresh evaluation is necessary. The Court directed the authorities to decide the appeals/applications after proper consideration of the record and documents, within a reasonable time frame (preferably within 12 weeks).
Conclusion: The Court set aside the impugned orders and remanded the matters to the appropriate authorities for fresh consideration (in favour of the Appellant).
Final Conclusion: The impugned appellate orders dated 12.12.2023 and the refund rejection dated 09.07.2024 are set aside for lack of adequate findings on whether the services rendered were intermediary in nature; the matters are remitted to the authorities for fresh decision after examining the record and documents, and the writ petitions are allowed.
Rejection of refund claim - export of service under Section 2(6) of the IGST Act or not - intermediary services - place of removal - HELD THAT:- A perusal of the impugned orders two by the appellate authority and the rejection order of the refund sanctioning authority, which relies upon the findings of the appellate authority for earlier periods show that the impugned orders rely upon clause (C) of the agreement, wherein it was provided that the petitioner would enter into contract with third parties, customers of M/s. eTouch System Corporation, USA. The appellate authority and the refund sanctioning authority while rejecting the claim have gone to hold that the petitioner provides intermediary services to M/s. eTouch System Corporation, USA, and its place of provision of services as per Section 13(8)(b) is in India, which do not qualify its export of services in terms of Section 2(6) of the IGST Act.
A mere perusal of the findings rendered by the appellate authority and the refund rejection order in W.P. No. 28201 of 2024, it is apparent that the authorities have failed to record any finding as to existence of a third party in between the transaction undertaken or supply of services made by the petitioner to M/s. eTouch System Corporation, USA. The authorities have also not rendered any finding as to how the supplies made by the petitioner were not between two principals or by the petitioner on its own account despite submission of all relevant documents by the petitioner at the time of filing the refund application. The authorities also failed to record that the petitioner arranged or facilitated some other supplies other than the main supply, which is the role of an intermediary. Therefore, the findings of the authorities recorded in the impugned orders are cryptic, not adhering to the requirements under Section 13(2) defining “intermediary”, Section 2(6) defining “export of services” and Section 13 which provides for “place of supplier services” as are relevant for determination on the claim of refund made by the petitioner. The impugned orders of the appellate authority therefore suffer from non-application of mind to the materials on record.
This Court is of the view that the matter requires to be remanded to the appellate authority and to the refund sanctioning authority. The impugned orders dated 09.07.2024, 12.12.2023 and 12.12.2023 in W.P.Nos.28201, 5621 and 5622 of 2024 are accordingly set aside.
Petition allowed.
Issues: Whether the adjudication order and the appellate order under the GST law were liable to be set aside for want of adequate opportunity, and whether the matter deserved remand for fresh consideration.
Analysis: The material showed that the assessee had not replied to the show-cause notice and the adjudication proceeded to confirm tax, interest, and penalty, followed by dismissal of the statutory appeal. The Court accepted the assertion that the failure to respond and contest the proceedings was attributable to bona fide reasons and sufficient cause. In view of the need to afford a fair opportunity before finalising the demand, a justice-oriented approach was adopted and the impugned orders were interfered with.
Conclusion: The impugned adjudication and appellate orders were set aside and the matter was remitted for reconsideration from the stage of reply to the show-cause notice.
Final Conclusion: The assessee secured reopening of the GST proceedings for fresh adjudication, with liberty to file replies and documents and for the authority to decide the matter afresh in accordance with law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a tax demand is confirmed without affording a meaningful opportunity to respond, the resulting order may be set aside and the matter remitted for fresh adjudication to secure procedural fairness.
Violation of principles of natural justice - Attachment of petitioner's bank without providing adequate opportunity to the petitioner - HELD THAT:- Having regard to the specific assertion on the part of the petitioner that his inability and omission to submit replies and contest the proceedings was due to bona fide reasons, unavoidable circumstances and sufficient cause, it is deemed just and appropriate to adopt a justice oriented approach and provide one more opportunity to the petitioner by setting aside the impugned adjudication order dated 30.12.2023 passed by the 2nd respondent and remitting the matter back to the 2nd respondent for reconsideration of the matter afresh in accordance with law from the stage of petitioner submitting reply to the impugned show cause notice dated 08.05.2023.
The impugned adjudication order dated 30.12.2023 passed by the 2nd respondent under Section 73 (9) of the KGST Act, 2017 at Annexure – E as well as impugned order dated 16.07.2025 passed by the 3rd respondent under Section 107(1) of the SGST/CGST Act, 2017 are hereby set aside - the matter is remitted back to the 2nd respondent for reconsideration afresh in accordance with law - petition allowed by way of remand.
Issues: Whether revisional powers under Section 108 of the GST law can be invoked to revise an audit observation or audit report without first initiating proceedings under Sections 73 or 74, and whether a writ petition is maintainable against such notice on the ground of lack of jurisdiction.
Analysis: The audit process had culminated in an audit report, and no proceedings under Sections 73 or 74 had been initiated when the revisional notice was issued. Section 65(7) contemplates that when an audit reveals unpaid tax, short payment, erroneous refund, or wrongful availment or utilisation of input tax credit, the proper course is action under Sections 73 or 74. On that footing, invoking Section 108 to revise an audit report or audit observation was held to be impermissible and without authority of law. The availability of a reply to the show cause notice did not bar exercise of writ jurisdiction where the notice itself was issued without jurisdiction.
Conclusion: The revisional notice was quashed as being without jurisdiction, and the petition was allowed, with liberty reserved to the respondent to proceed in accordance with law.
Ratio Decidendi: A revisional power cannot be used to revise an audit report where the statute requires the revenue to proceed, if at all, under the specific recovery provisions triggered by audit findings; a notice issued in breach of that statutory sequence is liable to be struck down in writ jurisdiction notwithstanding alternate remedy.
Issuance of SCN to initiate revision proceedings under Section 108 of KGST/CGST Act, 2017 to revise the Audit report - revisional powers u/s 108 of the KGST/CGST Act - HELD THAT:- A plain reading of Section 65(7) of the KGST Act will clearly indicate that upon coming to know about issuance of the Audit Report, it is incumbent upon the respondent to initiate proceedings action under Section 73 or Section 74 of the KGST Act and without doing so, it is impermissible in law for the respondent to initiate revisional proceedings, which is contrary not only to the aforesaid provision but also the other material on record especially having regard to the fact that no proceedings have been initiated under Section 73 or Section 74 of the KGST Act even till today.
The impugned proceedings including the impugned order are illegal, arbitrary and without authority of law and the same deserves to be quashed - Petition allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Order-In-Original confirming demand for short payment of GST, interest and penalty under Section 73(9) and Section 50(1) of the CGST Act for mismatch between GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B is justified; (ii) Whether the Order-In-Original confirming demand for wrongful availment of ITC, interest and penalty under Section 73(9), Section 50(3) and Section 122(2)(a) of the CGST Act (and Section 20 of the IGST Act) is justified.
Issue (i): Whether the demand for short payment of GST, interest and penalty on account of mismatch between GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B is sustainable.
Analysis: The decision examines statutory obligations to reconcile and, if necessary, rectify returns within the prescribed period and manner under the CGST framework. The record shows short payment was susceptible to rectification within the prescribed period but no rectification was undertaken in the prescribed manner and time. The Assessing Officer applied Rule 61 and relevant provisions governing filing and rectification to determine tax, interest and penalty liability for the period in question.
Conclusion: The challenge to the demand for short payment, interest and penalty is rejected and the ruling is against the assessee (in favour of Revenue).
Issue (ii): Whether the demand for wrongful availment of ITC, with interest and penalty, is sustainable.
Analysis: The Assessing Officer compared ITC claimed in GSTR-3B with ITC reflected in GSTR-2A and found excess ITC availed. The statutory scheme requires reversal where ITC exceeds admissible credit and permits imposition of interest and penalty where excess availment is established and not remedied. The excess ITC was found to have been deposited by the taxpayer and penalty provisions were applied under the cited sections.
Conclusion: The challenge to the demand for wrongful availment of ITC, interest and penalty is rejected and the ruling is against the assessee (in favour of Revenue).
Final Conclusion: Both substantive tax demands including interest and penalties and the challenge thereto are dismissed; the proceedings confirming tax and ITC demands stand upheld.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a registered supplier fails to rectify discrepancies between returns in the prescribed manner and within the statutory time limits, confirmed liability for short payment of tax and for wrongful availment of ITC together with applicable interest and penalties may be upheld by the authority and sustained on judicial review.
Recovery of short payment of GST, comprising CGST and SGST, under the provisions of Section 73(9) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 with interest and penalty - wrongful availment of Input Tax Credit - HELD THAT:- The error in short payment of GST compared to the GSTR-1 against the taxes received by the petitioner as supplier itself was open for rectification in the prescribed format within a time limit up to 20.10.2020 which the petitioner failed to undertake. Therefore, the impugned proceedings were initiated against the petitioner.
The learned Assessing Officer, after taking note of the relevant provisions of the CGST Act for filing of returns and its rectification and the fact that the petitioner made short payment of GST without undertaking any rectification within the time prescribed and in the manner prescribed, has rightly proceeded to hold that the petitioner is liable to pay tax of Rs. 4,38,566/- along with interest and penalty. Moreover, since there was an excess availment of ITC to the tune of Rs. 11,374/- beyond the ITC reflected in petitioner’s own GSTR-2A, the learned Assessing Officer rightly proceeded to impose penalty thereupon, since by that time, the excess availed ITC was already deposited by the petitioner.
The Writ Petition has been filed beyond the period of limitation and extended period for condonation of delay in terms of Section 107(4) of the CGST Act. On that count also, the Writ Petition should not be entertained.
Petition dismissed.
Validity of Revision u/s 263 -excess claim of exemption of dividend income and that of unsecured loans - delay of 281 days in filing the present petition.
HC held [2024 (12) TMI 865 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] once the Tribunal on thorough scrutiny of the record has come to the conclusion that the reasons recorded by the PCIT based on Explanation 2 to Section 263 pertaining to failure of the AO in making inquiries or verification was without any basis and contrary to the record and has allowed the appeal on finding that the order passed by the PCIT was without jurisdiction, in relation to which appellants failed to point out any perversity, we do not find that the facts of the present case give rise to any substantial question of law as suggested by the appellants.
HELD THAT:- After hearing the petitioner, we do not find any case is made out for condoning delay of 281 days in filing the present petition. Even on merits we do not find any case is made out for interference. The application for condonation of delay as well as Special Leave Petitions are dismissed.
Issues: Whether the additions made by the Assessing Officer/CPC for non-deduction of TDS should stand where the assessee had suo motu disallowed 30% of the payments under section 40(a)(ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (and whether the further addition results in double disallowance).
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the statutory scheme under section 40(a)(ia) which prescribes a 30% disallowance on payments where TDS is not deducted. The assessee had declared the payments in question and had itself disallowed 30% of those payments as suo motu disallowance in its tax audit. The assessing authority/CPC had made further additions, treating the matter under section 40(a)(i) due to an apparent recording error, and the Commissioner (Appeals) had allowed only 30% and sustained the balance. The Tribunal considered the tax audit record, the details of payments showing the payees were Indian residents, and the fact that the assessee had already taken the 30% disallowance contemplated by section 40(a)(ia), concluding that the additional additions by the lower authorities amounted to a double disallowance inconsistent with the statutory 30% rule.
Conclusion: The addition made by the lower authorities is not justified; the assessee's grounds are allowed and the appeal is allowed in respect of the impugned additions arising from non-deduction of TDS under section 40(a)(ia).
Disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) - 30% rule for failure to deduct TDS on payments to residents - double disallowance - condonation of delay for filing appeal - typographical error in tax audit report leading to incorrect section application by CPC
Condonation of delay for filing appeal - Delay in filing appeal of 21 days was condoned. - HELD THAT: - The assessee explained that the intimation of the appellate order reached the registered email in the outlook junk folder and that the assessee did not regularly check the income tax portal, becoming aware of the order on 14.05.2025 and filing the appeal at the earliest thereafter. The Tribunal found this to be a reasonable cause for the delay and exercised its discretion to condone the 21-day delay in filing the appeal. [Paras 4]
Delay condoned and the appeal admitted for adjudication on merits.
Disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) - 30% rule for failure to deduct TDS on payments to residents - double disallowance - typographical error in tax audit report leading to incorrect section application by CPC - Additions beyond the 30% disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) were unjustified where the assessee had itself disallowed 30% of the payments to resident parties. - HELD THAT: - The assessee had created provisions for professional and other expenses and, although actual invoices were to follow, the assessee disclosed the details and suo motu disallowed 30% of the payments under section 40(a)(ia). The tax auditor mistakenly recorded the disallowance under a different column (40(a)(i)), which led CPC/AO to propose a further disallowance. The Tribunal observed that section 40(a)(ia) contemplates disallowance of 30% for payments on which TDS is not deducted and that the assessee had already made that 30% disallowance. Having regard to the statutory 30% treatment and the assessee's own disallowance, the additional additions confirmed by the lower authorities amounted to double disallowance and were therefore unwarranted. The Tribunal accordingly allowed the assessee's grounds and deleted the excess additions. [Paras 9]
Additions in excess of the 30% disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) deleted; appeal allowed on merits.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal condoned the delay in filing the appeal and allowed the appeal on merits by holding that the assessee's suo motu 30% disallowance under section 40(a)(ia) for payments to resident parties precluded further additions, resulting in deletion of the excess disallowance.
Issues: Whether the new 10-year limitation period under Section 149(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 applies where the income which has escaped assessment is less than Rs.50 lakh.
Analysis: The Court considered the threshold condition in Section 149(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prescribing the new 10-year time limit and applied that statutory criterion to the facts before it. The Court observed that where the income escaping assessment is below Rs.50 lakh the statutory requirement for invocation of the extended 10-year period is not satisfied, and therefore the extended limitation cannot be applied.
Conclusion: The new 10-year limitation period under Section 149(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 does not apply where the income which has escaped assessment is less than Rs.50 lakh; conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Validity of reopening of assessment - period of limitation - benefit of the new tax time - HELD THAT:- Although there is a point involved in the matter to be argued by the revenue, however, having regard to the fact that under Section 149(1)(b) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, the income which has escaped assessment is less than Rs.50 lakh, and in such circumstances, the benefit of the new tax time limit of 10 years prescribed under Section 149(1)(b) of the new regime would not apply.
On this short point, we dismiss the Special Leave Petition, keeping the larger issue pending.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the reassessment initiation was without jurisdiction because the notice under Section 148A(1) did not disclose information suggesting escapement of income with a rational nexus or "live link" to such escapement, on the material supplied.
(ii) Whether the order under Section 148A(3) and the consequential notice under Section 148 were vitiated because the Assessing Officer changed the basis of reopening from the transaction identified in the Section 148A(1) notice to a different transaction not put to the assessee, thereby travelling beyond the show-cause notice and violating natural justice.
(iii) Whether the Explanation to Section 147 permits the Assessing Officer, at the pre-notice stage, to found reopening on a new issue not covered by the Section 148A(1) notice, on the footing that additions on "subsequently noticed" issues can be made without compliance with Section 148A.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Requirement of "information" suggesting escapement and nexus to escapement
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court held that issuance of notices under Sections 148 and 148A is predicated on the existence of information with the Assessing Officer suggesting that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. A meaningful reading of Section 148A(1) requires that the notice must indicate/specify the information which, according to the Assessing Officer, suggests such escapement.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the record supplied with the notice, the Court found that the dissemination note did not name the assessee, and the statements recorded during the relevant search and seizure also did not refer to the assessee. The Court held that, on the material presently on record, there was no suggestion of escapement of income, and the information relied on was insufficient to meet the requirement of a direct nexus/live link between the information and the opinion that income escaped assessment.
Conclusion: The Court concluded that the material furnished did not constitute information suggesting escapement of income so as to validly trigger reassessment action.
Issue (ii): Order travelling beyond the Section 148A(1) notice; change of ground; natural justice
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court applied the settled principle that an order cannot travel beyond the confines of the show-cause notice. It also treated reopening as a serious action requiring strict adherence to law and observance of natural justice, including a fair opportunity to meet the precise ground relied upon.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the Section 148A(1) notice specifically put only the transaction with one identified entity under scrutiny and quantified it, thereby setting the "specific perspective" for the assessee's response. However, the Section 148A(3) order shifted the foundation of reopening to a different alleged receipt routed through an intermediary, and treated the absence of details about that intermediary-related receipt as the reason to reopen, even though that ground was not the basis communicated in the show-cause notice. The Court held that the assessee could not reasonably be expected to defend against a ground that was never put to it, and that this change of track rendered the decision arbitrary and violative of natural justice. The Court also reasoned that proceeding on a different ground indirectly accepted the assessee's explanation to the original allegation, and such acceptance could not be bypassed by introducing a new, un-noticed basis in the final order.
Conclusion: The Court held the Section 148A(3) order and the consequential Section 148 notice unsustainable because the Assessing Officer travelled beyond the show-cause notice, changed the ground of reopening, and thereby violated principles of natural justice.
Issue (iii): Whether Explanation to Section 147 permits shifting grounds before reassessment begins
Legal framework (as discussed by the Court): The Court considered Section 147 and its Explanation, focusing on the clause permitting assessment/reassessment of "any issue" that comes to the Assessing Officer's notice "subsequently in the course of the proceedings under this section," irrespective of Section 148A compliance.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the revenue's contention that this provision allowed reopening on a new ground different from the Section 148A(1) notice. It interpreted Section 147 as becoming operational only after completing the drill under Sections 148 and 148A (where applicable) and not before. The Court held that the power to assess/reassess subsequently noticed issues can be exercised only after reassessment proceedings have commenced, and therefore could not justify changing the basis at the Section 148A stage.
Conclusion: The Court held that Section 147's Explanation does not authorise the Assessing Officer, at the pre-reopening stage, to substitute a new ground not put in the Section 148A(1) notice to justify issuance of a Section 148 notice.
Final determination (material to outcome): The Court set aside the order under Section 148A(3) and the consequential notice under Section 148 for lack of valid "information" suggesting escapement on the supplied material, and for illegality arising from changing the ground beyond the show-cause notice with resultant violation of natural justice, while clarifying that fresh proceedings could be initiated in accordance with law if requisite conditions are fulfilled.
Validity of reopening of assessment - Issuance of notices u/s 148 as well as u/s 148A - reason to believe - “tangible material” to come to the conclusion that there is escapement of income from assessment.”
HELD THAT:- The legal principles established by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of Lakhmani Mewal Das [1976 (3) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT] still remain foundational to the income tax jurisprudence. The requirement of “rational connection” which in terms of the said judgment “postulates that there must be a direct nexus or live link between the material coming to the notice of the Income Tax Officer” cannot be given a go-by. Thus direct nexus or live link between the information and the Income Tax Officer’s opinion that income has escaped assessment will have to be established.
Reopening of assessment is a serious action and it must be done strictly in accordance with law. In the case at hand at least two conditions justifying invocation of writ powers stand satisfied – arbitrariness in changing the ground of reopening indicated in the show cause notice and consequential violation of principles of natural justice in passing an order against the petitioner based on a ground which the petitioner had no opportunity to deal with.
In view of the aforesaid, the submission a Writ Court should keep its hands off the matter cannot be accepted. The judgment in the case of Akshat Pramodkumar Chaudhary [2023 (5) TMI 846 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] cannot come to the rescue of the revenue inasmuch as the same was delivered in the peculiar facts of the case where the Court was satisfied that there was enough material to justify issuance of notice under Section 148 of the said Act of 1961.
A meaningful reading of the provisions of Section 147 of the said Act of 1961 would make it clear that the same would get activated only after completing the drill in Section 148 and 148A (where applicable) and not before that. The power of the Assessing Officer to assess or reassess income in respect of issues which come to his notice subsequently can be exercised only after the assessment or reassessment proceedings have commenced. The emboldened and underscored portion of the Explanation to Section 147 of the said Act of 1961 makes the said aspect very clear.
Renu Singh [2024 (4) TMI 54 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] relied on by the revenue was delivered in the context of a challenge thrown to an assessment order where there was an appellate remedy available. The case at hand is clearly not so. Further, as already discussed hereinabove, this case has been found fit for interference under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
For all the reasons aforesaid, the order impugned passed under Section 148A(3) and the consequential reopening notice issued under Section 148 of the said Act of 1961 in respect of Assessment Year 2019-20 fail to withstand judicial scrutiny. The same are set aside.
Issues: (i) Whether applicability of Section 80HHC(3) in favour of exporters with export turnover above Rs.10 crores is settled; (ii) Whether the appellant can be denied deduction under Section 80HHC for DEPB value for lack of a consolidated Bank Realization Certificate (BRC).
Issue (i): Whether applicability of Section 80HHC(3) in favour of exporters with turnover above Rs.10 crores has been settled.
Analysis: The Court noted that the question regarding applicability of Section 80HHC(3) to exporters with export turnover exceeding Rs.10 crores has been resolved by the Supreme Court decision referred to in the judgment and treated that legal position as settled in favour of the assessee.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the absence of a consolidated BRC disentitles the appellant from deduction under Section 80HHC for DEPB-related export value.
Analysis: The Court examined the factual and documentary practice that banks issue BRCs consignment-wise and that consolidated BRCs are not issued. The Court recognised that consignment-wise BRCs may have been submitted to DGFT and tax authorities and directed factual verification by the Assessing Officer rather than denying deduction solely for lack of a consolidated BRC. The Court ordered re-examination of the record, permitted the Assessing Officer to requisition consignment-wise BRCs, allowed the appellant a time window to produce them, and required the Assessing Officer to pass an appropriate order thereafter.
Conclusion: In favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is disposed by directing factual verification of consignment-wise BRCs and by providing the assessee an opportunity to produce such documents; the matter is remitted to the Assessing Officer for determination in accordance with these directions.
Ratio Decidendi: Consignment-wise Bank Realization Certificates, being the customary bank-issued evidence of export realization, suffice for claiming deduction under Section 80HHC and absence of a consolidated BRC alone cannot justify denial of the deduction; the assessing authority must verify and permit submission of consignment-wise BRCs before denying relief.
Applicability of Section 80HHC(3) - dispute is confined to submission of Bank Realization Certificate (for short ‘BRC’) with respect to export - HELD THAT:- It is factually correct that BRC is issued by Banks consignment wise. Consolidated BRC is not issued by Bank. There are all possibilities of submission of BRC by appellant with DGFT as well as Customs Authorities. The appellant cannot be denied benefit of deduction on the ground that it has not submitted consolidated BRC.
The appeal stands disposed of with a direction to Assessing Authority to re-examine its record and if it is found that consignment-wise BRC are available, demand would be dropped. If consignment-wise BRC are not available on record, the appellant may be asked to submit the same. The appellant shall submit BRC within two months from the date of requisition and Assessing Officer shall pass an appropriate order within one month thereafter.
Issues: Whether the leave application against acquittal was to be treated as an appeal under the proviso to Section 372 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and transferred to the Sessions Court for consideration on merits.
Analysis: The right of a victim to appeal was treated as an independent and unconditional right under the proviso to Section 372 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, distinct from the leave requirement under Section 378(4). The Court relied on the later Supreme Court pronouncements to hold that the legal position declared therein applied retrospectively, and that a complainant in a private complaint of the present nature fell within the concept of victim for purposes of the proviso to Section 372. In that view, the pending request for leave was not to be dealt with as a leave application but as an appeal to be placed before the appropriate appellate forum.
Conclusion: The leave application was directed to be treated as an appeal under Section 372 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and sent to the Sessions Judge for disposal on merits.
Final Conclusion: The proceeding before the High Court was concluded by routing the challenge to the acquittal to the Sessions Court under the victim-appeal framework rather than under the leave mechanism.
Ratio Decidendi: A victim in a private complaint is entitled to pursue the statutory appeal under the proviso to Section 372 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and a later declaration of law on that right applies retrospectively.
Victim right to file an appeal u/s 372 of Cr.P.C. before the Court of Sessions - Right of Revenue to file Appeal against acquittal - trial Court has acquitted the respondent-accused in a complaint u/s 276-B read with Section 278-B of Income Tax Act, 1961 for financial year 2008-09 - HELD THAT:- Hon’ble Supreme Court in M/s. Celestium Financial vs. A. Gnanasekaran Etc., [2025 (4) TMI 1703 - SUPREME COURT] after considerable discussion and comparative interpretation of Sections 372 and 378(4) of Cr.P.C., concluded that the victim has a right to file an appeal under Section 372 of Cr.P.C. before the Court of Sessions.
Further, applying the doctrine of prospective overruling, Hon’ble Supreme Court in Directorate of Revenue Intelligence vs. Raj Kumar Arora [2025 (4) TMI 1179 - SUPREME COURT] held that operation of a newly enacted statute or rule must not be confused with the effect of a judgment. A judgment or decision which interprets a statute or provision thereof declares the meaning of the statute as it should be construed from the date of its enactment. In other words, the judgment declares what the legislature had said at the time when the law was promulgated and therefore, it has retrospective effect. On the contrary, it is the statute or the rule which is presumed to be prospective unless expressly made retrospective. What follows from the same, is that a decision or judgment enunciating a principle of law is applicable to all cases irrespective of the stage of pendency before different forums since what has been enunciated is the meaning of the law which existed from the inception of the concerned statute or provision. What has been declared to be the law of the land must be held to have always been the law of the land.
Thus, learned Sessions Judge, concerned, is directed to treat the present leave to appeal as an appeal filed under Section 372 of Cr.P.C. and entrust the same to the appropriate Court for its disposal on merits.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the prior approval forming the basis for directing a special audit under Section 142(2A) was invalid for want of a Document Identification Number (DIN) and non-compliance with the CBDT Circular No. 19/2019, thereby rendering the special audit direction without jurisdiction.
(ii) Whether the absence of a DIN on the prior approval could be treated as immaterial on the ground that (a) the approval was an "internal document", or (b) the subsequent special-audit direction itself carried a valid DIN.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of prior approval for special audit in the absence of DIN under CBDT Circular No. 19/2019
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court applied CBDT Circular No. 19/2019 (issued under Section 119), which mandates that no "communication" (expressly including an "approval") shall be issued on or after 01.10.2019 unless a computer-generated DIN is allotted and quoted. The Circular permits manual issuance only in specified exceptional circumstances with written reasons, prior approval, and a declaration in the document; and provides that non-conforming communications "shall be treated as invalid and shall be deemed to have never been issued."
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the approval required for Section 142(2A) as a formal, jurisdictional document. It found as an undisputed fact that the approval relied upon did not bear a DIN. The Court further found that the approval also did not record any exceptional circumstances nor contain the declaration and safeguards required for a permissible manual communication under the Circular. On these facts, the approval was held to be in clear breach of the Circular. The Court affirmed that the Circular is binding and that non-compliance attracts the Circular's stated consequence of invalidity and "deemed never issued."
Conclusions: The approval was held invalid and non-est in law. Since valid prior approval is a mandatory condition for directing a special audit under Section 142(2A), the special-audit direction founded on an invalid approval was held to be without jurisdiction.
Issue (ii): Whether "internal document" character or a valid DIN on the consequential order cures the lack of DIN on the approval
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court applied the same Circular's express inclusion of "approval" within the communications requiring a DIN and relied on the settled position (as accepted by the Court) that failure to quote a DIN is not a mere procedural irregularity capable of being ignored.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the submission that an approval is outside the Circular because it is internal, noting that the Circular itself treats "approval" as covered and that internal communications have been held to fall within its ambit. The Court also rejected the argument that a valid DIN on the special-audit direction suffices, holding that the foundational jurisdictional approval itself must be valid; if the underlying approval is invalid, the consequential special-audit direction cannot survive. The Court further declined to treat the defect as curable or merely procedural, emphasizing that breach of the DIN mandate has the fatal consequence specified in the Circular.
Conclusions: Neither the "internal document" characterization nor the presence of a DIN on the consequential special-audit direction cured the absence of DIN (and the absence of compliant manual-issuance safeguards) on the prior approval. The invalid approval vitiated the special-audit direction.
Final determination and relief consequential to the decided issues: The Court quashed and set aside the order directing special audit under Section 142(2A) and the consequential special audit report. It clarified that only these were quashed and that the authorities could take steps in accordance with law, noting the statutory exclusion of time for completion of assessment as referred to by the Court.
Validity of the special audit u/s 142(2A) - one of the primary submissions of the Petitioner is that the entire proceeding for a special audit is void ab initio as the jurisdictional pre-condition of obtaining a valid approval from the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (Central)-3, Mumbai, has not been met - Petitioner contends that the copy of the approval does not bear a Document Identification Number (DIN).
HELD THAT:- In the present case, the approval dated 06.02.2025, which forms the very basis of the impugned Order directing a special audit, does not have a DIN quoted on its face. It also does not contain any reference to exceptional circumstances or the prior approval required for manual issuance as mandated by Paragraph 3 of the Circular. As a result, the approval is clearly in violation of Circular No. 19 of 2019.
The binding nature of this Circular has been repeatedly affirmed by this Court. In Ashok Commercial Enterprises [2023 (9) TMI 335 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] this Court held that even a satisfaction note, which is an internal document, falls within the scope of the Circular and is invalid if issued without a DIN. An “approval” under Section 142(2A) is a formal jurisdictional document and stands on a much higher footing, more so when Circular No. 19/2019 itself specifies “approval” as one of the specified communications.
Similarly, in Hardik Deepak Salot [2024 (2) TMI 1537 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] this Court quashed an order because the underlying sanction letter lacked a DIN, holding that if the sanction is not valid, the consequential order cannot survive. The “approval” in the present case is analogous to a “sanction” as it is a jurisdictional prerequisite.
Applying the clear mandate of the Circular and the settled judicial position, the approval dated 06.02.2025 is invalid and non-est in law. Since, a valid prior approval is a mandatory condition for directing a special audit under Section 142(2A), the impugned Order dated 10.02.2025, which is based on this invalid approval, is without jurisdiction. Decided in favour of assessee.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the competent income-tax authority, exercising delegated power under Section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was empowered to condone delay in filing Form No. 10-IC for claiming the concessional tax regime under Section 115BAA for Assessment Year 2020-21.
(ii) Whether, on the facts found and not disputed, refusal to condone an 11-day delay solely because Form No. 10-IC was not filed electronically and on the ground of absence of "genuine hardship" was sustainable in law.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Power to condone delay in filing Form No. 10-IC under Section 119(2)(b)
Legal framework (as considered by the Court): The Court examined Section 119(2)(b), which enables the Board, to avoid "genuine hardship", to authorise an income-tax authority to admit an application/claim for exemption, deduction, refund, or "any other relief" after expiry of the statutory period and to deal with it on merits in accordance with law. The Court also considered that, by a circular, the Board delegated the power to condone delay in filing Form No. 10-IC to the concerned authority.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the statutory text of Section 119(2)(b) clearly covers condonation in appropriate cases and that, by virtue of the delegation, the concerned authority was competent to consider and grant condonation for delayed filing of Form No. 10-IC. The Court treated the condonation power as available to prevent hardship where relief is otherwise allowable on merits.
Conclusion: The Court conclusively decided that the authority had the legal power (by delegation under Section 119(2)(b)) to condone the delay in filing Form No. 10-IC.
Issue (ii): Sustainability of refusal to condone 11-day delay and finding on "genuine hardship"
Legal framework (as applied by the Court): The Court applied the "genuine hardship" standard embedded in Section 119(2)(b) and assessed whether the impugned refusal aligned with the purpose of that provision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the material facts asserted for the delay were not doubted or denied, including the brief duration of delay (11 days), the circumstances described as technical and inadvertent, and that the relevant assessment year was the first year in which filing Form No. 10-IC was required to claim the benefit under Section 115BAA. The Court found "genuine hardship" established because a substantial demand was raised due to denial of the beneficial regime, whereas on application of Section 115BAA no tax would be payable. The Court further held that denying the benefit for such inadvertent delay, particularly in the first year of the requirement and in the context of administrative mechanisms created to condone delay in genuine cases, was not justified. On this reasoning, the Court rejected the respondent's submissions and held the impugned order unsustainable.
Conclusion: The Court quashed the refusal order and itself condoned the delay in filing Form No. 10-IC, directing that the claim for assessment under Section 115BAA be allowed for the relevant year and that assessment not be made under Section 115JB for that year, in consequence of granting the Section 115BAA option.
Denial of benefit of Section 115BAA -Rejection of Petitioners application for condonation of delay in filing Form No. 10-IC on the sole ground that the Petitioner has not filed the form electronically and that the Petitioner had not made out a case of genuine hardship - HELD THAT:- Section 119(2)(b) clearly empowers the CBDT (and the 1st Respondent by virtue of Circular No. 17 of 2024 dated 18th November 2024) to condone the delay in filing Form No. 10-IC. We are fortified in our view by the decision of V M Procon Pvt. Ltd [2024 (9) TMI 216 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] and in the case of Axe BPO Services (P.) Ltd. [2024 (11) TMI 1434 - MADRAS HIGH COURT]
Petitioner has been subjected to genuine hardship by virtue of the fact that an amount has been levied / demanded from it when on application of the provisions of Section 115BAA of the Act, no tax would be payable by it.
Admittedly, Assessment Year 2020-2021 was the first year where filing of Form No. 10-IC was required in order to avail of the beneficial treatment under Section 115BAA of the I.T. Act [by the amendment made by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019]. Hence, the possibility of the Petitioner having inadvertently and / or for the various reasons aforementioned, failed to file the same within time cannot be ruled out and the Assessee ought not to be denied the benefit of the provisions for such inadvertent delay. Precisely for this reason, the Board had issued various Circulars empowering Respondent No.1 to condone the delay in filing of Form 10-IC in genuine cases.
We are unable to accept the submissions of the learned counsel for the Respondents and are of the opinion that the impugned order cannot be sustained.
We quash and set aside the impugned order passed by Respondent No. 1 under Section 119(2)(b) of the I.T. Act and condone the delay in filing Form No. 10-IC by the Petitioner.
Issues: Whether the addition made for Assessment Year 2012-13 in a search-related assessment could be sustained in the absence of incriminating material found during the search.
Analysis: The addition had been deleted by the appellate authorities on the finding that no incriminating material was unearthed during the search and that the adverse view on creditworthiness arose only during assessment. The Court noted that the issue turned essentially on facts and that the settled law bars the Assessing Officer from making such addition for the relevant assessment year when no incriminating material is found.
Conclusion: The addition could not be sustained and the challenge to its deletion failed.
Ratio Decidendi: In a search-related assessment, addition for a relevant assessment year cannot be made in the absence of incriminating material found during the search.
Assessment u/s 153A - Addition u/s 68 - whether any incriminating material unearthed during the search proceedings? - HELD THAT:- Since there was no incriminating material with the AO during the search and hence, therefore, addition for the AY 2012-13 was impermissible in law as the proceedings emanated from search.
Having heard learned counsel for the appellant and upon perusal of the orders under consideration, we are of the firm view that the issue is essentially that of facts and does not involve question of law. That apart, it is a settled position of law that in case no incriminating material is found for the relevant assessment year, the AO cannot make addition as has been held in Kabul Chawla [2015 (9) TMI 80 - DELHI HIGH COURT]
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the revisional authority, while deciding an application under Section 264 of the Income Tax Act, could refuse to follow a jurisdictional Special Bench decision of the Tribunal on the ground that the decision is "not acceptable" to the Revenue, is dissented from, or is under challenge before the High Court.
(ii) What relief and directions should follow where the revisional authority has ignored binding Tribunal precedent, including whether the matter should be remanded with a mandate to decide afresh by following the Tribunal decision, and whether the revisional authority can revisit condonation of delay already granted.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Refusal to follow jurisdictional Tribunal/Special Bench precedent by the revisional authority
Legal framework: The Court treated adherence to decisions of higher appellate authorities within the hierarchy as a requirement of judicial discipline in tax administration, and applied the principle that a binding precedent must be followed unless its operation is suspended by a competent court.
Interpretation and reasoning: The revisional authority gave reasons for not following the Special Bench decision, including that the Revenue had not accepted it and was contesting it before the High Court, that there were conflicting views and the Special Bench was not a "Full Bench", and that the Special Bench (in the authority's view) incorrectly interpreted the statute and required reconsideration. The Court held this approach to be a misdirection: it was not for the revisional authority to sit in judgment over the correctness of a binding Tribunal decision. The Court emphasized that permitting lower authorities to disregard binding decisions on personal views of incorrectness would cause chaos in tax administration and undermine judicial discipline. The Court also rejected the premise that pendency of an appeal or departmental non-acceptance provides a ground to disregard binding precedent, absent any suspension/stay of its operation.
Conclusions: The impugned revisional order was unsustainable because it refused to follow a binding jurisdictional Tribunal decision on grounds that were impermissible (departmental challenge/non-acceptance, dissent, or perceived incorrectness). The Court clarified that it was not deciding the substantive correctness of the Special Bench view on tax rate; it decided only that the decision had to be followed as binding precedent.
Issue (ii): Appropriate relief; remand directions; bar on revisiting condonation of delay
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the revisional order was vitiated by failure to maintain judicial discipline, the Court found it appropriate to quash it and remand the matter for a fresh decision on merits with a direction to follow the Special Bench decision. The Court further noted that condonation of delay had already been decided in favour of the assessee and was not challenged before the Court; therefore, the revisional authority was directed not to reopen that question on remand.
Conclusions: The Court quashed the impugned order and remanded the matter to the revisional authority to pass a fresh order on merits by following the Tribunal Special Bench decision, without revisiting condonation of delay, and within a stipulated time frame of 30 days from uploading of the order.
Revision u/s 264 - Seeking direction from PCIT to levy of tax on capital gains, in respect of a Long Term Capital Assets, computed under Section 50, at the rate mentioned u/s 112 - main grievance of the Petitioner is that the impugned order refuses to follow the decision of SKF India Ltd. [2024 (10) TMI 477 - ITAT MUMBAI] - Doctrine of binding precedent - Judicial discipline
HELD THAT:- First reason for not following the decision of SKF India (supra) is that the department has not accepted the decision of the Special Bench and the issue is being contested before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court. According to the 1st Respondent, thus, there is no finality on the issue of tax at the rate under Section 112 of the Act for capital gains under Section 50 thereof, and the decision of the Special Bench cannot be equated in the nature of a declaration of the law by the Hon’ble Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India.
Second ground is that even prior to the Special Bench decision of the ITAT, there were conflicting views of various higher judicial authorities regarding the applicable tax rate on capital gains deemed to have arisen out of the transfer of short term capital assets and even the Special Bench decision of the ITAT is not a Full Bench decision - We fail to understand how the decision of the Special Bench cannot be termed as a ‘Full Bench decision’ when it was rendered by three members of the ITAT. The 1st Respondent has probably come to this erroneous conclusion because one member of the bench dissented from the majority. This apart, in paragraph 3.2.5, the Commissioner sets out various reasons, why according to him, the Special Bench of the ITAT has gone wrong in its decision. It is on this basis that the 1st Respondent comes to the conclusion that there is a need to review the findings given by the Hon’ble ITAT, Mumbai Special Bench, and since the decision of the Special Bench in the case of SKF India (supra) is being contested before this Court, he has refused to follow the said decision.
Thus, 1st Respondent completely misdirected himself by not following the binding decision of the ITAT in the case of SKF India (supra). It is not for the Commissioner to decide whether the ITAT was correct in its decision or otherwise. Even though in his personal opinion, he may be of the view that the decision has wrongly decided the law, he is bound to follow the same. If the lower authorities are permitted not to follow binding decisions because in their personal view they feel that the decision is wrong, the same would lead to complete chaos in the administration of tax laws.
We are supported by several decisions, not only of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, but also of this Court. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India and Others Vs. Kamlakshi Finance Corporation Ltd. [1991 (9) TMI 72 - SUPREME COURT] has criticized this kind of conduct by the Revenue Authorities.
We accordingly deem it fit to allow the Writ Petition and hereby quash and set aside the impugned order dated 4th September 2025 passed under Section 264 of the IT Act. The matter is now remanded to the 1st Respondent to pass a fresh order on the application filed by the Petitioner by following the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT in the case of SKF India (supra).
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether a reassessment notice issued under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which is neither digitally nor manually signed by the Assessing Officer, is invalid and incapable of conferring jurisdiction to proceed with reassessment.
(ii) Whether the absence of signature on such Section 148 notice is a defect curable under Sections 292B or 292BB of the Income Tax Act, 1961, particularly where the notice bears a DIN and was served/received.
(iii) Consequentially, whether reassessment, penalty orders, and demand notices passed/issued pursuant to an invalid unsigned Section 148 notice are liable to be quashed.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of an unsigned notice under Section 148 and effect on jurisdiction
Legal framework: The Court examined the statutory requirement under Section 282A that where the Act requires a notice or other document to be issued by an income-tax authority, such notice/document shall be signed and issued/communicated in the prescribed manner.
Interpretation and reasoning: It was undisputed that the Section 148 notice was unsigned-neither digitally signed nor manually signed. The Court applied its earlier decision holding that a Section 148 notice without an affixed signature is invalid and does not vest the Assessing Officer with jurisdiction to reassess. The Revenue's explanation of bulk issuance, limitation pressure, technical glitch, and the presence of a DIN did not alter the foundational requirement that the notice must be authenticated by signature as mandated.
Conclusions: An unsigned Section 148 notice is invalid at inception and does not confer jurisdiction to proceed with reassessment.
Issue (ii): Whether the defect is curable under Sections 292B or 292BB; effect of service/receipt and DIN
Legal framework: The Court considered Sections 292B and 292BB in relation to the signature mandate under Section 282A, and the limited deeming effect of Section 292BB concerning service-related objections.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the lack of signature is not a mere mistake/omission curable under Section 292B because the notice is invalid at its very inception. Section 292BB was held inapplicable because it addresses deemed proper service (and bars objections regarding non-service, late service, or improper service), but it does not validate a notice that is substantively invalid due to absence of signature. Construing Section 292BB to "revive" an unsigned notice would run contrary to the statutory mandate of Section 282A requiring signature. The Court also rejected the Revenue's reliance on the Delhi High Court decision cited, finding it factually inapposite because it was not a case of a notice lacking any signature.
Conclusions: The absence of signature on a Section 148 notice is not curable under Section 292B, and Section 292BB cannot validate an unsigned notice even if it was served/received or bears a DIN.
Issue (iii): Consequences for reassessment, penalties, and demands founded on an invalid notice
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the foundational Section 148 notice was held invalid and jurisdictionally ineffective, all proceedings and actions taken pursuant to it lacked jurisdictional basis.
Conclusions: The Court quashed the unsigned Section 148 notice and, consequentially, the reassessment order, penalty orders, and demand notices issued pursuant to that notice; no order as to costs was made.
Validity of Notice issued u/s 148 as an unsigned document - validity of reassessment proceedings - whether a curable defect u/s 292B ?- HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute before us that the Notice issued u/s 148 is unsigned. It is neither digitally signed nor manually signed by the concerned Assessing Officer. Once this is the case, we find that the issue in the present Petition is squarely covered by the decision of this Court in the case of Prakash Krishnavtar Bhardwaj [2023 (1) TMI 428 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] as clearly opined that the Notice issued under Section 148, having no signature affixed to it, either digitally or manually, is invalid and would not invest in the AO any further jurisdiction to proceed to re-assess the income of the Petitioner.
We find that Section 282A of the I.T. Act itself stipulates that where the I.T. Act requires the Notice or other document to be issued by the Income Tax Authority, such Notice or other document shall be signed and issued in paper form or communicated in electronic form by that authority in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed. In other words, there is a statutory mandate that a Notice issued under Section 148 has to be signed by the concerned Authority. Failure to do so, would render the Notice invalid.
We are also unable to agree with Revenue that this is a defect that can be cured under Section 292B or 292BB. The Notice being unsigned, makes it invalid at its very inception and is not a curable defect.
As far as the reliance on Section 292BB is concerned, we find that the said Section is also wholly inapplicable to the facts of the present case.This Section does not in any way bring to life a Notice which is invalid because it is unsigned. In fact, if one were to construe Section 292BB in a way that the Revenue wants us to do, it would run counter to Section 282A which, as mentioned earlier, requires that when a Notice is to be issued by any Income Tax Authority under the IT Act, such Notice has to be signed. We, therefore, find that the reliance placed on Section 292BB is also of no assistance to the Revenue. Decided against revenue.
Issues: Whether the notice issued under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dated 26.07.2022 for assessment year 2015-16 was barred by limitation and whether the reassessment completed on its basis was liable to be set aside.
Analysis: The notice was issued after the expiry of the normal limitation period applicable to assessment year 2015-16. In the light of the Supreme Court decision on the applicability of the substituted reassessment provisions and the exclusion of TOLA for such notices in this assessment year, the later notice could not be sustained. The Tribunal also followed the Delhi High Court decisions on identical facts, which had treated a notice of the same date for the same assessment year as time-barred.
Conclusion: The notice under section 148 dated 26.07.2022 was barred by limitation, and the reassessment order passed on its basis was liable to be set aside in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: A reassessment notice issued after the expiry of the permissible limitation period, where TOLA does not extend time for that assessment year, is void and any assessment founded on it cannot survive.
Validity of reassessment proceedings - period of limitation - assessment completed based on second notice issued u/s. 148 - in case when alleged escapement of income was more than Rs. 50 lacs - TOLA provisions applicability - HELD THAT:- As decided in the case of Sarthak Gupta [2025 (10) TMI 589 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and IBIBO Group Pvt. Ltd. [2024 (12) TMI 1269 - DELHI HIGH COURT] wherein, exactly on identical facts, even the same date of notice was issued u/s. 148 of the Act on 26.07.2022 for the assessment year 2015-16 was held as barred by limitation.
Thus as relying on UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and also decision of Sarthak Gupta vs. ITO and IBIBO Group Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (Supra). We hold that the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act dated 26.07.2022 is barred by limitation. Accordingly, assessment completed on 25.05.2023 based on second notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act dated 22.07.2022 is barred by limitation and accordingly, the same is set aside. Hence, the appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the prerequisites for revision under section 263 were satisfied, i.e., whether the assessment order was both erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue, on the allegation that the Assessing Officer did not apply section 69A (and consequential higher-rate taxation) to the amount treated as income from other sources.
(ii) Whether, on the facts recorded, the Assessing Officer's decision to tax the amount as income from other sources under regular provisions (instead of treating it as income falling under section 69A with higher-rate taxation) was a plausible view such that revision under section 263 could not be invoked.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Validity of revision under section 263 (twin conditions-"erroneous" and "prejudicial")
Legal framework (as discussed by the Tribunal): The Tribunal held that for assumption of jurisdiction under section 263, the authority must satisfy the twin conditions: (a) the assessment order must be erroneous, and (b) it must be prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. Failure of either condition vitiates the revision.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined whether any actual "error" was demonstrated in the assessment order. It noted that the assessee had agricultural land reflected in land records and had filed documentary material such as land records and evidence of agricultural operations/sales, and that these documents were already on the assessment record. The Tribunal found that the revisional authority did not point out a concrete error in the assessment, but rather sought to substitute the assessment's tax treatment with a different provision and tax rate.
Conclusions: The Tribunal concluded that the revisional authority failed to establish the "erroneous" limb of section 263 on the facts found, and therefore the revision could not stand; once one of the twin conditions fails, the section 263 order fails.
Issue (ii): Whether non-application of section 69A (and higher-rate taxation) justified section 263 revision, or whether the assessment reflected a plausible view on a debatable matter
Legal framework (as applied by the Tribunal): The Tribunal treated the question whether the amount (declared as agricultural income but assessed as income from other sources) should instead be brought under section 69A with a higher rate as a matter involving legal characterization and application of provisions, and held that section 263 cannot be used where the Assessing Officer has taken one of the plausible views in law on a highly debatable issue.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the assessee's supporting materials included landholding evidence (including owned and leased land) and documents relating to agricultural inputs and sale proceeds. It further noted that these documents were filed before the Assessing Officer and were reflected in the assessment record. After considering the material, the Assessing Officer chose to tax the amount as income from other sources under regular provisions, rather than invoking section 69A with higher-rate consequences. The Tribunal held that this represented a legally plausible approach and that revisional powers could not be used merely to impose a different tax treatment where the matter is debatable and a plausible view has been taken.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the assessment order reflected a plausible view and could not be revised under section 263 on the basis that section 69A should have been applied. Accordingly, the revision order was quashed and the appeal was allowed.
Revision u/s 263 - agricultural income declared by the assessee and assessed by the AO as income from other sources and taxed at normal rates - whether it attracts the provisions of section 69A and is liable to tax at higher rate of tax @60% or not? - HELD THAT:- We noted that the assessee is able to file all the documentary evidences before the PCIT and whether the assessee’s agricultural income can be treated as income from other sources or not, this is a highly debatable issue and for this the revision proceedings u/s. 263 of the Act cannot be resorted to.
Even otherwise, the assessee has preferred the appeal against the addition on the very same issue which is pending before the Ld. CIT(A) as stated by the Ld. Counsel for the assessee at Bar.
PCIT while assuming jurisdiction u/s. 263 of the Act has to satisfy the twin conditions i.e. the order passed by the AO is erroneous as well as pre judicial to the interest of revenue. But Ld. PCIT could not point out any error so far as to hold the assessment order as erroneous. Once out of the twin conditions, one condition fails, the revision order also fails.
AO has taken one of the plausible view as per law, hence, we do not want to interfere with the view taken by the AO and accordingly, we quash the revision order passed by the Ld. PCIT u/s. 263 of the Act. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the addition as unexplained investment in property under Section 69 could be sustained when the assessee asserted that the investment was funded through a disclosed bank overdraft facility, and whether the evidentiary reconciliation required further verification.
(ii) Whether the addition as unexplained improvement expenditure under Section 69C could be sustained where the assessee produced an invoice but the record contained inconsistent explanations and inadequate evidence of actual payment/source, warranting remand for verification.
(iii) Whether the disallowance/addition of website services expenditure under Section 69C could be sustained where the Tribunal found absence of proof of the existence/output of the alleged intangible asset/service and drew adverse inference from the vendor's banking pattern and lack of demonstrated service capability.
(iv) Whether the addition of cash deposit as unexplained under Section 68/Section 69A could be sustained where the assessee offered only a general business-cash explanation without corroborative particulars of services/customers to establish cash generation.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Addition for unexplained investment in property (Section 69)
Legal framework: The Court treated Section 69 as applicable only where an investment is not recorded and the assessee fails to explain its source.
Interpretation and reasoning: The investment was reflected in the assessee's assets, and the assessee claimed the source was a bank overdraft/loan. However, the Tribunal held that it still required factual examination whether the overdraft funds were actually utilized for the impugned property investment through a verifiable fund-flow (credit/debit) linkage.
Conclusion: The addition was not finally affirmed or deleted; the matter was restored to the assessing authority for proper enquiry after granting opportunity to reconcile the overdraft facility with the investment. The ground was allowed for statistical purposes.
Issue (ii): Addition for unexplained improvement expenditure (Section 69C)
Interpretation and reasoning: Although an invoice was produced, the Tribunal noted key evidentiary deficiencies and inconsistency: the materials did not show the contractor's bank statement or banking debits evidencing payment, and the assessee had earlier claimed before the first appellate authority that the work was done on credit with assurance of payment from sale consideration. The contractor ledger also did not reflect banking transactions supporting the asserted payments. Given these gaps, the Tribunal found the claim required further verification and reconciliation of how the expenditure was actually funded and paid.
Conclusion: The issue was restored to the assessing authority for enquiry with opportunity to the assessee to reconcile the alleged banking-channel payments. The ground was allowed for statistical purposes.
Issue (iii): Website services expenditure treated as bogus/unexplained (Section 69C)
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held the disallowance was not based on mere suspicion because the assessing authority had drawn reasonable inferences from the vendor's bank-account pattern and surrounding circumstances. The Tribunal further emphasized that for an expenditure resulting in an intangible asset, mere invoice and payment are insufficient without proof of existence/output and user. The assessee failed to show the process of website development/maintenance or demonstrate existence/functional accessibility of the website at any stage, and the vendor's business profile was found inconsistent with providing such services.
Conclusion: The Tribunal sustained the addition/disallowance of the claimed website services expenditure under Section 69C and rejected the ground.
Issue (iv): Cash deposit treated as unexplained (Section 68/Section 69A)
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal held that assessing whether business cash could explain the deposit depends on the nature and capacity of the business to generate cash. The assessee offered only a bald assertion of cash generation from business and opening cash, without placing on record supporting particulars such as details of services rendered, plausible explanation of transactions, or customer-related particulars. The Tribunal treated such uncorroborated explanation as insufficient to displace the inference of unexplained money/cash credit.
Conclusion: The addition on account of cash deposit was upheld and the ground was rejected.
Unexplained Investment in Property u/s 69 - onus to prove - AO observed that the assessee purchased a property or made an addition to property without satisfactorily explaining the source of investment - CIT(A) upheld the addition, noting that apart from the sale deed, no bank statement or evidence of source was furnished thus the investment remained unexplained and the onus to prove explained sources was not discharged - HELD THAT:- What is relevant is that Section 69 can be invoked only if an investment is not recorded in books and the assessee fails to explain its source. Here, the investment was recorded in assets and the source is a bank/OD loan but same needs to be examined to show if OD facility funds ultimately landed with investment in property only and the fund flow by way of credit and debit to bank indicated OD being invested in property. Thus the matter deserves to be restored to the files of ld. AO to make appropriate enquiry in the issue by giving assessee an opportunity of reconciling the OD facility availed with the impugned investment in property. Ground is allowed for statistical purposes.
Unexplained Improvement Expenditure made u/s 69C - cost of improvement of a property which was sold by the assessee was disallowed and treated as unexplained expenditure u/s 69C - CIT(A) confirmed the addition, observing that merely providing the contractor’s bill was insufficient and no proof of actual payment or source was produced - HELD THAT:- Assessee’s evidences in paper book not show any bank statement of M/s Unity Builders. Rather if we go through the submission dated 11/09/2023, we find that before ld. CIT(A) assessee had claimed that the work was on credit with assurance to pay out of sale consideration. The ledger of Unity builders at page 23 also does not show any banking transaction to debit the payments. We are of considered view that mater deserves to be restored to the files of ld. AO to make appropriate enquiry of the issue by giving assessee an opportunity of reconciling the payments as claimed to be made by banking channel. Ground is allowed for statistical purposes.
Disallowance for Website Services paid alleged to be bogus expenditure under Section 69C - AO treated this as a bogus expenditure on the premise that Gopal I.T. International was found by the Investigation Wing to be an accommodation-entry provider - AO noted that Mr. Gopal Kumar, proprietor, did not file an ROI for AY 2011-12 and could not be found at his address and that the assessee failed to demonstrate that he actually had a functional website or that Gopal I.T. had the capability to deliver such services, and that no TDS was deducted on the payment - HELD THAT:- It not a case of mere suspicion but the ld. AO has brought on record reasonable inferences from the nature of bank account activity of Shri Gopal and his concerns. The nature of his business activity also do not justify potential to give services of hosting a website. Assessee also has not led evidence as to what was the process of getting a website developed as development of website and maintenance of same can be conveniently be shown by several accessibility checks in real time but assessee seems to have failed to show the same at any stage. Thus mere payment and invoice are not evidence of an expenditure which creates an intangible asset unless its existence is proved by some out put and user. Same is not the case here, so the addition is not based on suspicion but a reasonable belief, which need not be disturbed. The ground deserves to be rejected.
Unexplained Cash Deposit made u/s 68/69 - AO treated this sum as unexplained cash credit, income from undisclosed sources u/s 68 or as unexplained money under Section 69A on the ground that the assessee did not satisfactorily explain the source - HELD THAT:- What immediately strikes us is that the nature of business in terms of its capacity to churn out cash is of vital significance to see if the cash generated from business was only deposited in bank. However, mere assertion was made and no details services rendered to individuals have been brought on record at any stage. Bald assertion of cash sales being reflected in cash book is not sufficient and some plausible explanation about nature of sales, services, customer’s details etc. needed to be brought on record, which assessee has failed to do, so the conclusion drawn by the ld. Tax authorities need no interference. The ground is rejected.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether an additional jurisdictional ground alleging invalidity of the draft assessment order, on the basis that it was issued in the name of a non-existent (amalgamated/dissolved) entity, could be admitted at the appellate stage along with additional documentary evidence.
(ii) Whether issuance of a draft assessment order under section 144C read with section 143(3) in the name of an entity that had ceased to exist renders the draft order non est and consequently vitiates the DRP directions and the final assessment order, even if the final order is passed in the name of the successor entity.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Admission of additional jurisdictional ground and additional evidence
Legal framework: The Tribunal considered that a pure question of law going to the root of jurisdiction can be raised at any stage, and examined the request for additional documentary evidence under Rule 29 of the Income-tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1963.
Interpretation and reasoning: The additional ground challenged the very jurisdiction to frame the assessment because the draft order-the initiating step under the special procedure-was alleged to have been issued to a non-existent person. The proposed additional evidence (court approval of amalgamation, intimations to the Assessing Officer, regulatory approval, and statutory filings) was documentary, sourced from statutory/judicial records, and directly relevant to the jurisdictional objection. The Tribunal found these documents corroborative of facts borne out from record and necessary for effective adjudication.
Conclusion: The additional ground and the additional evidence were admitted as they were central to determining jurisdiction and did not require fresh factual investigation beyond undisputed documentary material.
Issue (ii): Effect of draft assessment order issued in the name of a non-existent entity under section 144C
Legal framework: The Court examined the nature of section 144C as a special, distinct, self-contained assessment code for eligible assessees, where a legally valid draft assessment order is the jurisdictional trigger enabling objections before the DRP and empowering binding directions.
Interpretation and reasoning: On admitted facts, the amalgamation had an appointed date prior to issuance of the draft assessment order; the amalgamating entity stood dissolved without winding up; and the Assessing Officer had been specifically intimated before the draft order was issued. The Tribunal held that the draft assessment order is not merely tentative; it is a substantive statutory act forming the foundation of the DRP process and the final order. Jurisdiction under section 144C must be validly assumed at inception by issuing the draft order to a juridically existing and identifiable eligible assessee. If the named entity does not exist in law on that date, the draft order is non est and the defect is jurisdictional, not procedural. The Tribunal further held that such a foundational defect cannot be cured by subsequent participation, by DRP directions, or by issuance of the final order in the successor's name; the DRP directions and final order are derivative and consequential upon a valid draft order.
Conclusion: Since the draft assessment order was issued in the name of an entity that had ceased to exist, it was a nullity and void ab initio. The absence of a valid draft order vitiated the entire chain of proceedings; therefore, the DRP directions and final assessment order were held unsustainable and the assessment was quashed in its entirety. All other merits grounds were left open as academic.
Draft assessment order passed u/s 144C in the name of a non-existent entity - scope and operation of section 144C - HELD THAT:- The admitted factual position, and the settled judicial principles governing the scope and operation of section 144C of the Act, we hold that the draft assessment order having been passed in the name of an entity which had ceased to exist in law on the date of its issuance is a nullity and void ab initio.
Since the draft assessment order constitutes the jurisdictional foundation for assumption of authority under the special procedure prescribed in section 144C, the absence of a valid draft order vitiates the entire chain of proceedings. Consequently, the directions issued by the Dispute Resolution Panel and the final assessment order passed pursuant thereto, being derivative and consequential, cannot stand independently and are equally unsustainable in law. The jurisdictional defect goes to the very root of the matter and is incapable of being cured by subsequent proceedings, participation of the assessee, or by passing the final order in the name of the successor entity.
Issues: Whether the imported goods were liable to be withheld or seized on a prima facie allegation of misclassification, and whether clearance could be directed in the face of a binding advance ruling, supporting test reports, and a pending show cause notice.
Analysis: The classification of the goods had already been determined by the advance ruling authority, and that ruling was binding on the customs authorities. The earlier challenge to that ruling had already failed, and the later order of the High Court in the petitioner's own matter had permitted release of similar goods on the same tariff classification. The food safety and customs laboratory reports also supported the petitioner's case that the goods were menthol scented supari fit for human consumption and conforming to the applicable food standards. In these circumstances, the seizure and continued non-clearance on the allegation of misclassification were found to be unjustified at the prima facie stage. At the same time, the pending show cause notice was left open for adjudication in accordance with law, and the Court directed clearance against payment of duty and furnishing of bond.
Conclusion: Clearance of the imported goods was directed on payment of duty or IGST, if any, applicable under the declared classification and on furnishing a bond towards the duty demanded in the show cause notice, while the customs authorities were permitted to proceed with adjudication on merits.
Challenged the legality and validity of the Seizure - mis-classification of imported goods - clearance of “Betel Nut product known as Supari (Menthol Scented Sweet Supari) (mouth freshener)” imported -seeking clearance thereof for home consumption on payment of duty applicable under the Chapter heading 21069030 of the Customs Tariff - examine the imported goods from the perspective of its human consumption - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that prior to the import of the goods in question, the Petitioner had made an application to CAAR regarding classification of the imported goods. Such ruling was rendered on 22.02.2023 holding that the goods be classified under CTH 21069030 of the Customs Tariff Act. The said decision of CAAR was binding upon the Respondents in terms of Section 28J of the Act.
As noted, the FSSAI had rendered its opinion, on the basis of the samples which were drawn by the Department, that the imported goods conform to the standard laid down under Regulation 2.3.55 of FSSAI Regulations. It is thus clear that the FSSAI, following the statutory mandate under the said Regulations, had no objection to the imported goods being cleared for home consumption.
This Court in almost identical circumstances had allowed the Writ Petition filed by the Petitioner, and CAAR by its ruling, having decided the issue of classification in favor of the Petitioner, and the Respondents have duly examined and tested the imported goods, in our opinion, prima facie, there was no justification on part of the Respondents in seizing the imported goods and not allowing clearance thereof alleging mis-classification of imported goods to avail country of origin benefit.
Further, we are of the prima facie view that the goods imported by the Petitioner are Menthol Scented Sweet Supari and appears to be covered by the ruling of CAAR dated 24.02.2023 based on the test reports dated 12.09.2025 of CRCL.
Thus, we are not inclined to accept the submission of the learned Counsel for the Respondents that the goods be allowed to be released against a bond and a bank guarantee for the differential duty amount.
It would be open for the Respondents to adjudicate the said issue of alleged mis-classification of imported goods and pass appropriate orders in accordance with law, and no prejudice would be caused to the Respondents if the imported goods are permitted for clearance on Petitioner's furnishing a bond towards the duty demanded under the show cause notice.
Issues: (i) Whether the declared transaction value could be rejected and the value re-determined under Rule 12 and Rule 4 of the Customs Valuation Rules due to mis-declaration and whether the correct contemporaneous value was applied; (ii) Whether confiscation of the goods under section 111(m) and the redemption fine under section 125 were justified; (iii) Whether the penalty on the director under section 112(a) and penalty on the appellant under section 114A were maintainable.
Issue (i): Whether the declared value could be rejected and the value re-determined under Rule 12 and Rule 4, and whether the correct contemporaneous transaction value was applied.
Analysis: The imported fabric was declared as 0.62 mm but found to be 0.74–0.81 mm, giving proper officer reasonable doubt under Rule 12. Once transaction value was rejected, valuation proceeds sequentially under Rules 4–9. Rule 4 requires using the transaction value of identical goods imported at or about the same time and, if multiple such values exist, the lowest shall be used; it also specifies that the transaction value used should be the transaction value and not a value provisionally assessed by an officer.
Conclusion: The rejection under Rule 12 was justified. However, the Joint Commissioner erred in applying an enhanced assessed value of U.S. $2.04 per metre instead of the lowest contemporaneous transaction value of U.S. $1.80 per metre. The assessable value, duty and penalty under section 114A must be re-determined using U.S. $1.80 per metre in accordance with Rule 4 (in favour of the assessee on this point).
Issue (ii): Whether confiscation under section 111(m) and the redemption fine under section 125 were justified.
Analysis: The goods did not correspond with the particulars declared in the Bill of Entry because of the material mis-declaration of thickness; such mis-declaration falls within the scope of section 111(m). The redemption fine imposed was modest relative to the declared value.
Conclusion: Confiscation under section 111(m) and the redemption on payment of Rs. 25,000 are upheld (against the assessee on this point).
Issue (iii): Whether penalties under section 114A on the appellant and section 112(a) on the director were maintainable.
Analysis: Given the admitted mis-declaration and waiver of the show cause notice by the director, imposition of penalties under section 114A and personal penalty under section 112(a) fall within the statutory scheme; no appeal was instituted by the director against his personal penalty.
Conclusion: The penalty on the director under section 112(a) is sustained; the penalty under section 114A on the appellant is to be re-determined proportionately after re-computation of assessable value (partly against the assessee).
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed by modifying the valuation to apply the lowest contemporaneous transaction value of U.S. $1.80 per metre under Rule 4 and directing re-computation of duty and the equivalent penalty under section 114A; confiscation, redemption fine and personal penalty under section 112(a) are upheld.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the proper officer has reasonable doubt about the truth or accuracy of declared value due to material mis-declaration, the declared value may be rejected under Rule 12 and valuation must proceed sequentially under Rules 4–9; under Rule 4, the transaction value of identical contemporaneous imports is to be used and, if multiple values exist, the lowest such transaction value must determine the assessable value.
Transaction value - re-determining the value under Valuation Rule 4 - contemporaneous imports of identical goods - mis-declaration - redemption fine u/s 125 - Penalty of equal amount u/s 114A - Clearance of goods described as Plain PU Coated Fabric (0.62 mm thickness) - HELD THAT:- Undisputedly, the fabric was declared to be of 0.62 mm thickness and was found to be of 0.74 mm to 0.81 mm thickness. Therefore, there was a clear mis-declaration of the goods. The actual thickness was between 19% to 30% more than the declared thickness.
The fact that the invoices were for fabric of 0.62 mm thickness, whereas the actual fabric which was imported was of 0.74 mm to 0.81 mm thickness i.e., 19% to 30% more thick gave the proper officer reason to doubt the declared value. He did ask the Director of the appellant to explain who accepted that the goods were mis-declared. Under these circumstances we find that the proper officer also had a reasonable doubt about the truth and accuracy of the declared value for the reason that the declared value was for fabric of 0.62 mm thickness, whereas the actual fabric which was imported was much thicker.
As may be seen as per Rule 4, the transaction value of identical goods shall be the assessable value and not the value re-determined by the officer for the contemporaneous Bills of Entry. Learned counsel was correct in his submission that in the contemporaneous imports, the transaction values were $ 1.8 per metre and 1.85 per metre in two Bills of Entry. The lower of the two was U.S. $ 1.8 per metre which should have been applied by the Joint Commissioner in assessment instead of U.S. $ 2.04 per metre which was the enhanced value. To this extent, the re-determination of value is not correct. The assessable value and the differential customs duty and the equivalent amount of penalty under section 114A on the appellant need to be re-determined accordingly.
Clearly, in this case, the appellant had mis-declared the nature of the goods and the goods which were imported were different from what was declared in the Bill of Entry. They are squarely covered by section 111 (m). The confiscation therefore needs to be upheld. After confiscation, the goods were allowed to be redeemed on payment of a fine, which is very modest being only about 1% of the declared value of the goods. We do not find any reason to interfere with either the confiscation or quantum of redemption fine.
Penalty imposed on Director of the appellant under section 112 (a) of the Act which is also appears to be fair.
Thus, we partly allow the appeal and modify the impugned order to the extent of re-determining the assessable value reckoning U.S. $ 1.8 per metre as the contemporaneous value under Rule 4 instead of U.S $ 2.04 per metre. The duty payable shall be re-determined accordingly. The penalty imposed on the appellant under section 114A also needs to be re-determined accordingly.
Appeal is partly allowed and the impugned order is modified to the extent indicated above.
Issues: Whether the product "CO2 Sustain 2501" (aqueous dispersion of Polysorbate 65) is classifiable as a non-ionic organic surface-active agent under Heading 3402 and specifically under CTH 3402 42 00.
Analysis: The Authority examined the product description, manufacturer's certificate, technical and safety data sheets, and an independent test report measuring surface tension and stability at 0.5% concentration held at 206C for one hour. Chapter Note 3 to Chapter 34 and the HSN Explanatory Notes require that an "organic surface-active agent" when mixed with water at 0.5% at 206C and left for one hour must (a) give a transparent or translucent liquid or stable emulsion without visible separation and (b) reduce the surface tension of water to 4.5 x 10^-2 N/m (45 dyne/cm) or less. The submitted test report showed a mean surface tension of 4.36 x 10^-2 N/m (43.6 mN/m) at 0.5% and that the sample remained a translucent liquid without separation after one hour, satisfying both conditions of Note 3. The Authority considered alternative headings (residuary Heading 3824 and Heading 3907 for polymers) and, applying the rule that a specific tariff description governs over a residuary entry, found those headings inapplicable. The Authority also noted that classification relies on information available and remains contingent on testing at actual import and compliance with applicable FSSAI requirements.
Conclusion: The product CO2 Sustain 2501 satisfies the requirements of Chapter Note 3 and is classifiable as a non-ionic organic surface-active agent under Heading 3402, specifically under CTH 3402 42 00. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Classification under Heading 3402 as Organic Surface-Active Agents - Chapter Note 3 to Chapter 34 (0.5% test / surface tension and stability criteria) - Non-ionic surface-active agent - General Rules for the Interpretation (GRI) - Rule 1 - Residuary heading exclusion where specific tariff description applies
Classification under Heading 3402 as Organic Surface-Active Agents - Chapter Note 3 to Chapter 34 (0.5% test / surface tension and stability criteria) - Non-ionic surface-active agent - General Rules for the Interpretation (GRI) - Rule 1 - Classification of the product 'CO2 Sustain 2501' (dispersion of Polysorbate 65 in water) for customs purposes. - HELD THAT: - The Authority examined the product description, manufacturer's literature, technical and safety data sheets and an independent test report measuring surface tension and stability at 0.5% concentration and 20C. Chapter Note 3 to Chapter 34 requires that an 'organic surface-active agent' when mixed with water at 0.5% at 20C and left for one hour (a) give a transparent or translucent liquid or stable emulsion without visible separation and (b) reduce the surface tension of water to 4.5 x 10^-2 N/m or less. The submitted test report showed that at 0.5% the product remained a translucent liquid after one hour at 20C and reduced surface tension to approximately 4.36 x 10^-2 N/m, satisfying both criteria of Note 3. Polysorbates are a family of non-ionic surfactants (polyoxyethylene sorbitan esters) functioning as emulsifiers/processing aids; the product is described and used as a pasteurised non-ionic surfactant/processing aid for carbonated beverages. Applying GRI Rule 1, the specific heading text and chapter/section notes are determinative. As CO2 Sustain meets the Note 3 tests and is functionally a non-ionic surfactant, it falls within the Organic Surface-Active Agents category of Heading 3402 and specifically under subheading 3402 42 00 (non-ionic). The Authority rejected alternative classifications under residuary Heading 3824 and Chapter 39 (3907) because a specific tariff description (Heading 3402) covers the goods and HSN notes exclude organic surface-active agents from Chapter 39. The ruling is based on the information and tests furnished and therefore is contingent upon verification/testing at actual importation. [Paras 7, 8]
CO2 Sustain 2501 is classifiable under Heading 3402 and specifically under subheading 3402 42 00 as a non-ionic organic surface-active agent, subject to verification at import.
Final Conclusion: Advance ruling: CO2 Sustain 2501 (dispersion of Polysorbate 65 in water) is classifiable as a non-ionic organic surface-active agent under Heading 3402, subheading 3402 42 00; the conclusion is drawn from the product description and test results supplied and is contingent upon testing/verification at the time of actual import, and compliance with applicable FSSAI requirements where relevant.
Issues: (i) Whether air-conditioners imported in CKD/SKD sets (except capacitors) and presented together for clearance are classifiable as complete air-conditioners under Tariff Heading 8415; (ii) Whether CKD/SKD parts of air-conditioners imported and presented separately under different bills of entry are classifiable as parts of air-conditioners under sub-heading 84159000; (iii) Whether parts of Heat Exchange Units (HEX) imported together in CKD/SKD form are classifiable as parts of HEX under 84199090 or as parts of air-conditioners under 84159000; and (iv) Whether the earlier Advance Ruling No. CAAR/Delhi/Mitsubishi/10/2022 dated 30.08.2022 should be continued for a further period.
Issue (i): Whether CKD/SKD sets of air-conditioners (excluding capacitors) presented together are classifiable as complete air-conditioners under Tariff Heading 8415.
Analysis: Application of Rule 2(a) of the General Rules of Interpretation requires that an incomplete or unassembled article that, as presented, has the essential character of the finished article is to be treated as the complete article. Chapter and Section notes to Tariff Heading 8415 define the scope of air-conditioning machines and their parts. The factual position is that CKD/SKD sets (other than non-essential capacitors) contain the parts necessary to impart the essential character of the finished air-conditioner and are presented together for assessment and clearance.
Conclusion: CKD/SKD sets of air-conditioners (excluding capacitors) presented together for clearance are classifiable as complete air-conditioners under Tariff Heading 8415.
Issue (ii): Whether CKD/SKD parts imported and presented separately under different bills of entry are classifiable as parts of air-conditioners under sub-heading 84159000.
Analysis: Section/Chapter Note 2(b) to Section XVI provides that parts suitable for use solely or principally with a particular kind of machine are to be classified with that machine. Where parts are separately identifiable under other tariff sub-headings, those sub-headings apply. The goods described (mock-up units, HEX parts, fans, motors, compressors etc.) are, in substance, either specifically covered by separate tariff sub-headings or are solely/principally designed for use with air-conditioners. The classification therefore follows the suitability-for-use test and applicable chapter notes.
Conclusion: CKD/SKD parts presented separately are classifiable as parts of air-conditioners under sub-heading 84159000 where not otherwise separately classifiable; items covered by other specific sub-headings retain those classifications.
Issue (iii): Whether parts of Heat Exchange Units (HEX) imported together in CKD/SKD form are classifiable under 84199090 (parts of HEX) or under 84159000 (parts of air-conditioners).
Analysis: Where HEX or its parts are specifically identifiable under a separate tariff sub-heading, that sub-heading applies for standalone import. However, parts of HEX that are solely or principally designed for use in air-conditioners and not separately classifiable shall be treated as parts of air-conditioners under Note 2(b) to Section XVI and sub-heading 84159000. Prior rulings and applicable explanatory notes support treating HEX parts as parts of air-conditioners when presented as such.
Conclusion: Parts of HEX imported in CKD/SKD form are classifiable under their specific heading if available; otherwise they are classifiable as parts of air-conditioners under 84159000 when solely or principally used with air-conditioners.
Issue (iv): Whether the prior Advance Ruling No. CAAR/Delhi/Mitsubishi/10/2022 dated 30.08.2022 remains operative and should be continued for a further period.
Analysis: The present application raises questions pari materia to those decided in Ruling No. CAAR/Delhi/Mitsubishi/10/2022 and there is no change in the product description or relevant facts. Re-examination on merits is therefore unnecessary where the earlier ruling remains applicable to the same questions and facts.
Conclusion: The earlier Advance Ruling No. CAAR/Delhi/Mitsubishi/10/2022 dated 30.08.2022 shall continue to be valid and operative for a further period of three years from the date of the present order.
Final Conclusion: The Advance Ruling Authority confirms the classifications as per the established application of GRI Rule 2(a) and Section Note 2(b) to Section XVI: CKD/SKD sets presented together are classifiable as finished air-conditioners under Tariff Heading 8415; separately presented parts are classifiable as parts of air-conditioners under 84159000 unless separately classifiable; HEX parts follow their specific heading if available otherwise 84159000. The prior ruling is extended for three years.
Ratio Decidendi: Where CKD/SKD parts, as presented, exhibit the essential character of the finished article they are to be classified as that article under GRI Rule 2(a); parts suitable solely or principally for use with a machine are to be classified with that machine under Note 2(b) to Section XVI.
Classification of imported goods -application for advance ruling to extend its validity for another three-year term or passing fresh rulings - Classification Of Air conditioners to be imported in CKD/SKD condition under CTSH 84151010 Or other CTSHs - classification of finished Condenser or evaporator i.e. Heat Exchange Unit (HEX) - imported separately or in CKD/unassembled form under a separate invoice/bill of entry -availing the FTA benefits provided under India-Thailand FTA(ITFTA) and ASEAN-Indian FTA(AIFTA) - Interpretation of Law - HELD THAT:- As per the GRI 2(a) to the Customs Tariff Act 1975, the CKD/SKD parts proposed to be imported by MEI are all classifiable under CTSH 84151010 (or) 84158110/90 (or) 84148210/90 as the case may be depending upon whether the installation is ductable or non- ductable. Because, as per the HSN explanatory notes, the classification of the Air conditioning machines under various sub-headings of tariff heading 8415 is mainly based on its design for fitting in wall, floor, ceiling or window and whether or not a 'duct' is required for installation of the subject Air conditioners. It is a well settled law that when an article (complete or finished) is classifiable under a particular tariff heading or sub-heading, then the CKD/SKD parts of that article even in incomplete or unfinished condition are also required to be classified under the same heading/sub- heading. The only conditions to be satisfied are that it should have the essential character of the finished article and all the parts are to be presented together before customs for clearance.
Applicant submitted that they have been importing the mentioned goods based on the rulings of the CAAR and would continue to do so for few more years till their factory, being established in India, is fully operational. Since, the validity of the rulings have expired, they filed the instant application for advance ruling to extend its validity for further period or passing fresh rulings.
The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in its circular No.55/95-Cus dated 30.5.1995 (F. No.528/42/95-Cus.(TU) had reiterated the fact that the field officers should consider the provisions of GIR 2(a) while classifying the goods imported in CKD/SKD form. There is plethora of case laws in support of the classification of the goods in CKD/SKD under the tariff heading relevant to the complete or finished goods. It is therefore prayed that the honourable Advance ruling authority may be pleased to pass orders classifying the CKD/SKD parts of the Air conditioners under the relevant tariff sub-headings as demonstrated
Application for advance ruling to extend its validity for further period or passing fresh rulings - The issue of classification in respect of which the applicant has approached this authority through the present application already stands adjudicated and disposed by the then competent Authority vide Advance Ruling [2023 (4) TMI 16 - CUSTOMS AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULINGS, NEW DELHI] As there is no change in the product, it unnecessary and redundant to re- examine or deliberate upon the questions raised in this application on merits, as the issue has already been conclusively decided by the then competent Authority. Accordingly, hold that the Advance Ruling pronounced by this Authority vide Ruling [2023 (4) TMI 16 - CUSTOMS AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULINGS, NEW DELHI] shall continue to be valid, and operative for a further period of three years from the date of this order.
Issues: (i) Whether the claims covered by the approved resolution plan stood extinguished so as to bar continuation of the arbitral proceedings; (ii) whether the arbitral tribunal's refusal to terminate the proceedings suffered from patent lack of jurisdiction warranting interference under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India.
Issue (i): Whether the claims covered by the approved resolution plan stood extinguished so as to bar continuation of the arbitral proceedings?
Analysis: The resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is a collective proceeding in rem, and once a resolution plan is approved under Section 31(1), it binds the corporate debtor and all stakeholders. Claims not forming part of the resolution plan stand extinguished, and a successful resolution applicant cannot be confronted with undecided or residual claims after approval. The plan in the present case specifically dealt with contingent and sub judice claims, including the respondent's claim, and treated such claims as operational debt payable at nil value. The claim was therefore not left outside the resolution framework merely because it was described as contingent or pending adjudication.
Conclusion: Yes. The respondent's claim stood governed by the approved resolution plan and could not survive independently to support continuation of the arbitration.
Issue (ii): Whether the arbitral tribunal's refusal to terminate the proceedings suffered from patent lack of jurisdiction warranting interference under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India?
Analysis: While writ interference in arbitral matters is ordinarily circumspect, it remains available where the impugned order is patently perverse or suffers from inherent lack of jurisdiction. Once the resolution plan had attained finality and extinguished the claim, the arbitral tribunal had no jurisdiction to proceed as if the claim survived dehors the plan. The tribunal's approach treated the contingent status of the claim as a reason to disregard the binding effect of the resolution plan, which was inconsistent with the statutory scheme and the approved plan's terms. The challenge was therefore not a mere dispute on merits but one going to jurisdiction.
Conclusion: Yes. The impugned order was vulnerable for patent lack of inherent jurisdiction and was liable to be set aside.
Final Conclusion: The approved resolution plan prevailed over the pending arbitral claims, and the arbitral proceedings could not be allowed to continue in respect of claims already dealt with and extinguished under the insolvency resolution process.
Ratio Decidendi: Once a resolution plan is approved under Section 31(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, all claims not surviving within the plan stand extinguished, and any adjudicatory forum lacking insolvency jurisdiction cannot continue proceedings on such extinguished claims.
Maintainability of the present petition - patent lack of inherent jurisdiction - Scope of interference under Article 226/227 in challenges to orders by an arbitral tribunal - CIRP - contravention to the fundamental principles and the legislative intent of the IBC - Binding effects of an approved Resolution Plan under Section 31(1) - pending arbitral claims - Liability of the corporate debtor stands frozen upon the approval of the Resolution Plan - Commercial wisdom - sub-judice claim - HELD THAT:- While passing the impugned order, the learned Arbitral Tribunal after examining the contentions of both the parties, held that the claim of the Respondent No. 2 was kept as “contingent” by the IRP in terms of the Resolution Plan, therefore, the same did not form part of the Information Memorandum in terms of the Section 29 of the IBC.
The Resolution Plan in Clause no. 8.6.2, has duly considered the sub-judice claim of Respondent No. 2, and has duly noted that the sub-judice claim is a “claim” and “debt”, as defined in the IBC, and would consequently qualify as “operational debt.” This, as per record, was duly approved by the CoC, and subsequent approval was granted by the Adjudicating Authority. It is also pertinent to note that TSL had submitted its Resolution Plan to the RP on 11.06.2018, and on 01.09.2018 an amended and restated Resolution Plan was submitted based upon negotiations and consultation with CoC and RP. It is only thereafter on 30.07.2018, a letter was sent by RP as noted hereinbefore, wherein it was stated that the claim of Respondent No. 2 cannot be treated as a crystallised liability and can only be treated as a “contingent liability”. In the said letter, it was clearly stated and informed to Respondent No. 2 that the treatment of contingent liability in the Resolution Plan will be entirely up to the said resolution applicant and subject to the decision of CoC while considering the Resolution Plan in accordance with law. Thus, in these circumstances there was a full disclosure, and Respondent No. 2 was put to notice of the same.
The Petitioner had contended that subsequent to the approval of the Resolution Plan by the Adjudicating Authority, Respondent No. 2 had preferred an appeal against the same before the learned NCLAT, under the provisions of the IBC, however, in the Counter Affidavit filed by Respondent No. 2 the same is denied and it is averred that no appeal is pending before the learned NCLAT. Thus, the Resolution Plan had attained finality and would be binding in terms of Section 31(1) of the IBC.
Insofar as the objection with regard to the maintainability of the present petition is concerned, useful reference can be made to the decisions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Deep Industries [2019 (11) TMI 1632 - SUPREME COURT] Punjab State Power Corporation [2020 (9) TMI 1276 - SUPREME COURT] and decision of this Court in Surender Kumar Singal [2021 (3) TMI 1391 - DELHI HIGH COURT], wherein it has been held that the Court can exercise jurisdiction under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India, 1950, against an order passed by an Arbitral Tribunal, if such order is completely perverse, or is patently lacking in inherent jurisdiction.
In view of the Resolution Plan being approved by the Adjudicating Authority, the claim of Respondent No. 2 stood extinguished, and therefore, in terms of the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Electro steel [2025 (4) TMI 1246 - SUPREME COURT], the learned Arbitral Tribunal did not have the jurisdiction to proceed further with the adjudication of the said claim.
Thus, the impugned order dated 07.10.2020 is hereby set aside. The arbitral proceedings before the learned Arbitral Tribunal stands terminated.
The present petition is allowed in the aforesaid terms.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether, within the limited scope of judicial review under Article 226, interference was warranted with the disciplinary order suspending an insolvency professional's registration, in the absence of jurisdictional error, perversity, arbitrariness, or violation of law.
(ii) Whether the earlier concluded show-cause proceedings barred issuance of a subsequent show-cause notice on the principle of res judicata, when the later notice proceeded on a different foundation/cause of action.
(iii) Whether factual submissions on merits, not urged before the writ court, could be entertained for the first time in an intra-court appeal against dismissal of the writ petition (and after rejection of review), particularly where the appeal did not assail the writ court's determination on res judicata.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Scope of interference under Article 226 with disciplinary findings of an administrative authority
Legal framework: The Court treated Article 226 jurisdiction as supervisory and not appellate. It reiterated that the writ court does not reweigh evidence or reopen factual findings, and interference lies only where the administrative decision suffers from jurisdictional error, patent error of law apparent on the face of record, unreasonableness, irrationality, arbitrariness, or perversity.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the writ court's role was confined to examining the decision-making process rather than reassessing the correctness of factual conclusions. Since the writ court had found the disciplinary order to be passed after due consideration of relevant material and found no jurisdictional error or perversity, the appellate court found no basis to disturb that conclusion. The Court further observed that, given these constraints, the writ court "could not have" undertaken a fact-finding exercise to reappreciate the disciplinary authority's conclusions.
Conclusion: No interference was warranted because the impugned disciplinary order, as upheld by the writ court, was not shown to be vitiated by jurisdictional error, perversity, arbitrariness, or a legally impermissible decision-making process.
Issue (ii): Res judicata effect of earlier show-cause proceedings on a subsequent show-cause notice
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court affirmed the writ court's determination that the subsequent show-cause notice was founded on a different issue and not on the same cause of action as the earlier notice. On that basis, the principle of res judicata was held inapplicable.
Conclusion: The earlier concluded show-cause proceedings did not bar the later show-cause notice; res judicata did not apply because the later notice was not issued on the same cause of action.
Issue (iii): Maintainability of new factual/merits submissions raised for the first time in appeal
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court recorded that the appellant had not argued factual merits before the writ court and sought to introduce them for the first time in appeal, which the Court held to be impermissible. It also noted that the review had been rejected because the grounds were either already considered or were never raised at the writ stage. Additionally, the Court held it significant that the appeal did not challenge the writ court's finding on res judicata (the only ground addressed in the writ), and instead attempted to pivot to factual merits that were not previously urged.
Conclusion: New factual arguments on merits, not raised before the writ court, were not entertainable in appeal; coupled with the unchallenged res judicata determination and the limited writ standard of review, the appeal failed and was dismissed.
Scope of interference in the writ jurisdiction of High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India - exercise of powers conferred u/s 220(2) of the Code and the Regulations made thereunder - Resolution Plan vis-à-vis the Corporate Debtor - Cancellation of the MSME certificate - registration to practice as Insolvency Professional has been suspended for a period of two years - HELD THAT:- It is trite law that the scope of interference in the writ jurisdiction of Article 226 of the Constitution of India is extremely narrow and does not justify the exercise of the power to sit in appeal over the decision being challenged.
The High Court does not review or reweigh the evidence upon which the determination is based in the order under challenge. InSyed Yakub v. K.S. Radhakrishnan & Ors. [1963 (10) TMI 26 - SUPREME COURT], it is held that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is supervisory rather than appellate and the finding of fact reached as a result of appreciation of evidence cannot be reopened or questioned in writ proceedings. While the High Court may correct an error of law apparent on the face of record, it cannot correct the errors of facts, however grave. It cannot also review the adequacy or sufficiency of the evidence led on a point as these are matters within the exclusive jurisdiction of the administrative authority.
It is clear that the scope of interference by way of a judicial review is limited under Article 226 of the Constitution of India and can only be exercised if it is found that the decision by the administrative authority was unreasonable, irrational, arbitrary or perverse.
As regards the cancellation of the MSME certificate of the Corporate Debtor, the argument of the Appellant before the learned Single Judge that the Appellant was not aware of such cancellation was not accepted in the Impugned Judgment on the ground that the Appellant cannot be exonerated of his statutory obligation under Section 30(2) of the Code read with the Regulations made thereunder and the Code of Conduct for the Insolvency Professionals.
In view of the statutory scheme of the Code and the Code of Conduct for Insolvency Professionals, the Appellant was under obligation to ensure the compliance with the provisions of the Code and the Regulations made thereunder, including Section 29A and Section 30(2) of the Code, and the Code of Conduct as held in the Impugned Judgment.
Admittedly, the Appellant did not argue the factual aspects on merits before the learned Single Judge in the Writ Petition, which is sought to be argued for the first time in this Appeal, which is not permissible.
The Appellant has not assailed the finding in the Impugned Judgment on the aspect of the decision of the First SCN being a res judicata for the Second SCN in this Appeal. Instead, the Appellant has sought to challenge the Impugned Judgment on the factual aspects on merits, which were never argued before the learned Single Judge and being canvassed for the first time in Appeal, which cannot be permitted.
Thus, the observations and conclusions in the Impugned Judgment are justified and do not require any interference in this Appeal.
Accordingly, the present Appeal is dismissed as being devoid of any merit.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the unpaid amounts under the six invoices constituted an operational debt due and payable by the Corporate Debtor, and whether default was established for admission under Section 9.
(ii) Whether the defences raised by the Corporate Debtor disclosed any genuine pre-existing dispute so as to bar admission of the Section 9 application.
(iii) Whether the alleged disputes based on (a) proposed buy-back of unsold goods, (b) alleged exclusivity under a separate agreement, (c) a commercial suit filed after the demand notice, and (d) foreign injunction proceedings involving a different entity, could be treated as pre-existing disputes connected to the invoice debt.
(iv) Whether, upon dismissal of the appeal, directions were required regarding continuation/completion of the insolvency process and payment of outstanding CIRP costs.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Existence of operational debt and default based on invoices
Legal framework (as discussed): The Court examined whether the claim fell within "operational debt" arising from supply of goods and whether the debt had become due and payable, with default, for admission under Section 9.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court treated the six invoices as primary evidence of the transaction and found they were raised in the Corporate Debtor's name, reflecting a seller-buyer relationship. The Corporate Debtor did not dispute receipt of 346 ovens, did not dispute quality/quantity/price, and had made only part-payments, leaving an outstanding principal amount. The Court rejected the plea that payment was contingent on resale by dealers, holding this to be contrary to the invoices' stipulated 180-day payment term and interest clause, and unsupported by documentary proof. The Court also noted the Corporate Debtor's admission that sale proceeds were received from dealers and payments were thereafter made to the Operational Creditor (after certain deductions), reinforcing that the Corporate Debtor received and dealt with the goods as buyer.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the finding that an operational debt was established and that default occurred, as the outstanding invoice amount had become due and payable and remained unpaid.
Issue (ii) & (iii): Whether any genuine pre-existing dispute existed barring Section 9 admission
Legal framework (as applied): The Court applied the principle that admission under Section 9 is barred where there is a real and bona fide pre-existing dispute; illusory or "moonshine" disputes do not suffice.
Interpretation and reasoning: On the alleged buy-back of 25 unsold ovens, the Court held that even assuming non-buyback, it represented a small fraction of total supplied goods and did not negate the large outstanding amount. The Court found the Corporate Debtor's stance internally inconsistent: asserting it was merely a facilitator and not purchaser, yet claiming the Operational Creditor agreed to "buy back" goods, which presupposes a prior sale to the Corporate Debtor. This defence was held to be lacking substance and characterised as a moonshine dispute.
On alleged breach of exclusivity due to the Operational Creditor's steps to establish presence in India, the Court held that the exclusivity claim was founded on an agreement executed with a different entity and not with the Corporate Debtor. As the Corporate Debtor was not a signatory/executant, it could not selectively rely on that agreement to assert exclusivity. The Court therefore found this dispute frivolous and not a tenable pre-existing dispute.
On the commercial suit filed in India, the Court agreed that it was instituted after receipt of the Section 8 demand notice and therefore could not qualify as a pre-existing dispute for purposes of Section 9.
On the foreign injunction proceedings, the Court held that the proceedings were between the Operational Creditor and a different legal entity, and the Corporate Debtor was not a party. The Court emphasised the distinct corporate identities and held that litigation involving one entity could not be treated as a dispute with another. It further noted absence of reference to those proceedings in the reply to the demand notice and found the reliance on them to be an afterthought. Additionally, the subject matter of those proceedings was held not to pertain to the unpaid invoices, and therefore not connected to the invoice default.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that none of the asserted disputes were genuine, bona fide, and pre-existing in relation to the invoice debt; accordingly, admission of the Section 9 application was not vitiated on the ground of dispute.
Issue (iv): Consequential directions upon dismissal of the appeal
Interpretation and reasoning: After affirming admission and dismissing the appeal, the Court considered the request concerning continuation of the insolvency process and noted that no resolution plan had been put to vote and that the process timeline had expired, while the resolution professional had continued managing the Corporate Debtor as a going concern.
Conclusions: The Court dismissed the appeal, vacated the interim stay, granted an additional 60 days to complete the process, and directed payment of outstanding CIRP costs to the resolution professional subject to approval of the committee of creditors and in accordance with law.
Maintainability of application under Section 9 - recovery of debt -Default in the payment of operational debt - pre-existing disputes between the two parties - Whether payment to the Operational Creditor is triggered in the present case giving rise to an operational debt, and if so, whether a default has been committed by the Corporate Debtor in respect of payment of such operational debt having already become due and payable and whether the said operational debt is an undisputed debt which exceeds the threshold limit. - HELD THAT:- It is an undisputed fact that the Operational Creditor during the period 11.12.2017 to 29.04.2019 had raised six different invoices for 346 ovens. The Corporate Debtor has not disputed or denied the receipt of 346 ovens to the tune of Euro 2,13,584.50. Material on record shows that against these six invoices, only part payment amounting Euro 85,379.80 was received by the Operational Creditor in tranches and an outstanding balance amount of Euro 1,28,204.70 remained unpaid. We also notice that while releasing the part-payments, no disputes were raised by the Corporate Debtor either on the quality or quantity of goods received or on the pricing of the goods.
Neither was the quantum of outstanding debt disputed. It is also noticed that the last invoice was raised by the Operational Creditor in 2019 and until 2020 when the Operational Creditor had sent the Demand Notice, there is no evidence of any dispute which had been raised by the Corporate Debtor.
Hence, we do not find any error in the finding returned by the Adjudicating Authority that debt and default stood established.
Whether the operational debt was encumbered in disputes which were pre-existing in nature. - We are inclined to agree with the Operational Creditor that their Agreement of 20.02.2017 was with Ambro Asia S.r.L and not with Ambro Asia Pvt. Ltd. Though both were sister concerns, however, they were independent legal entities. The terms of the said Agreement of 20.02.2017 cannot be selectively used by the Corporate Debtor to suit their convenience as they were not a signatory or executant of the said Agreement. The plea of exclusivity taken up by the Corporate Debtor basis the 2017 Agreement therefore to our mind lacks credence. In such circumstances, the bogey of violation of the Agreement with respect to exclusivity rights as a ground of pre-existing dispute appears to be frivolous and cannot be a tenable ground to establish pre-existing dispute.
It is no less significant to note that there is no mention of the injunction suit proceedings by the Corporate Debtor while replying to the Section 8 Demand Notice. Quite clearly the Appellant has chosen to project this as a ground of dispute only as an afterthought. The subject matter of the aforementioned suit also did not pertain to adjudication of the six unpaid invoices and hence cannot be viewed as a pre-existing dispute.
The two subject matters in the injunction suit and the present Section 9 application being different and distinct from each other, the proceedings before the Italian Court have been rightly held by the Adjudicating Authority not to be a pre-existing dispute.
Thus, we are not convinced that any of the disputes raised are genuine or pre-existing. In the absence of any discernible and bonafide pre- existing dispute, admission of the Section 9 application was in no manner violative of the Mobilox judgement [2017 (9) TMI 1270 - SUPREME COURT]
Thus, we are of the view that the Corporate Debtor has defaulted in the payment of operational debt, which amount had clearly become due and payable, and further in the absence of any pre-existing dispute, we find that no error has been committed by the Adjudicating Authority in admitting the application under Section 9 of IBC and initiating CIRP. We find no merit in this Appeal. Appeal is dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the demands of service tax confirmed on construction of girls hostel at SVIMS, construction of 2nd floor of SV Ayurvedic Hospital and SMC cottage improvement works for Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams (TTD) are leviable under Works Contract Service or Commercial/Industrial Construction Service; (ii) Whether the demand confirmed under 'Site Formation and Clearance, excavation and earthmoving and demolition' for land development for agricultural purposes is leviable and whether confirming a different service category than that stated in the Show Cause Notice is sustainable; (iii) Whether penalties under Sections 76 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 can be sustained where the demand itself is not sustainable and where a bona fide interpretation was taken by the assessee.
Issue (i): Whether construction works for SVIMS hostel, SV Ayurvedic Hospital second floor, and SMC cottage improvement for TTD are taxable services under Works Contract Service or Commercial/Industrial Construction Service.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined whether the constructions were for commerce or industry or were for institutions established solely for educational, charitable, religious or health purposes. It considered applicable circulars and precedents recognizing that constructions for non-commercial educational, charitable and health institutions, used or intended to be used not for profit, fall outside the levy of service tax. The Tribunal also noted facts such as nominal or no charges for use of the hostels, cottages and hospital services, and absence of commercial intent or profit-making use.
Conclusion: The construction demands for the SVIMS girls hostel, the second floor of SV Ayurvedic Hospital, and SMC cottage improvement are not leviable. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether demand for land development/excavation works for agricultural purposes is leviable as 'Site Formation and Clearance, excavation and earthmoving and demolition' and whether confirming a different service category than in the Show Cause Notice is permissible.
Analysis: The Tribunal analysed the definition of site formation and related exclusion for services provided in relation to agriculture, irrigation and watershed development under Section 65(97a) of the Finance Act, 1994. It also addressed the procedural principle that confirming a demand under a service category different from that specified in the Show Cause Notice breaches principles of natural justice, relying on consistent precedents. The factual scope of the appellant's work (land improvement for agricultural purpose, removal of overburden) falls within the excluded agricultural activities.
Conclusion: The demand for land development/excavation for agricultural purposes is excluded from levy and the confirmation of a different service category beyond the Show Cause Notice is unsustainable. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether penalties under Sections 76 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 are sustainable given the Tribunal's findings on levy and the appellant's bona fide interpretation.
Analysis: The Tribunal held that where the underlying demand is not sustainable on merits and where the appellant acted under a bona fide interpretation that the activities were not taxable, penalties cannot be sustained. It noted the settled legal position that penalties are not imposable when there is a bona fide interpretation of law and the demand fails on merits.
Conclusion: Penalties confirmed by the Adjudicating Authority cannot be sustained. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the impugned order in its entirety, holding that the confirmed tax demands and penalties were unsustainable because the constructions and agricultural land-development activities fell outside the levy of service tax and because the change in service-category confirmation exceeded the scope of the Show Cause Notice, resulting in the appeal being allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: Construction services provided to institutions established solely for educational, charitable, religious or health purposes and services in relation to agricultural land development are excluded from service tax levy; confirmation of a demand under a service category not specified in the Show Cause Notice violates principles of natural justice.
Liability for payment of Service Tax - religious and charitable organizations - activity carried, solely for non-commercial educational, charitable or health purposes - benefit of under Section 80 of the Finance Act -cum tax benefit under Section 67(2) - works in the capacity of contractor for construction/laying of new roads and certain other construction related works - eligibility for the benefit of composition scheme by virtue of Notification No.32/2007-ST - HELD THAT:- As far as, construction of girls hostel at the Sree Venkateswara Institute of Medical Sciences, Tirupati (SVIMS) are concerned, the hostels are provided at free of cost and without any intend to carry any business. The hostel are constructed for the benefit of the students in the Shree Venkateswara Institute of Medical Sciences, Tirupati (SVIMS). As per CBEC Circular F.No. 13/21/2006 – CX.4 dated 01.11.2006. It has been clarified that educational institutions are not commercial concerns and no Service Tax can be levied on it.
It is a settled legal position that for the construction activity other than ‘Commercial or Industrial Construction Service’ is not leviable. In the present case, since, the construction or making the girls hostel of the medical college, thus, the activities outside the levy of Service tax.
Construction related to second floor over SV Ayurvedic Hospital for TTD. The hospital building is not constructed for any commercial purpose, and no consultant fee is charged from the patients. In the case of Shapoorji pallonji & Co Ltd. [2018 (5) TMI 487 - CESTAT MUMBAI], wherein, held that construction of a building for use as hospital by a charitable organization cannot be considered as a ‘Commercial’ activity.
Therefore, Health institution which is not for commercial purpose would not be taxable. Therefore, the demand regarding construction of second floor over SV Ayurvedic Hospital for TTD also not sustainable.
As far as SMC Cottage Improvement Work undertaken by the appellant for TTD. These cottages are provided to various devotees visiting Tirumala Tirupati for the darshan, charges are collected only for maintenance expenses. Thus, these cottages are constructed for non-commercial purpose, therefore, construction of cottages are not taxable as per above mention circular.
In view of the above no any tax liability regarding SMC Cottage Improvement Work. Therefore, demand under ‘works contract service’ is not sustainable.
There is another demand in the activity under taken by the appellant for agriculture purposes under ‘Site Formation and Clearance, excavation and earth moving and demolition’ as defined under Section 65(97a) of the Finance Act, 1994.
As per the Section 65(97a) of the Finance Act, 1994, services, in relation to agriculture purposes clearly excluded from levy of Service Tax. Therefore, the activities undertaken by the appellant for the agriculture purposes is excluded from levy of the Service Tax also.
Since, the demand is not sustainable on merit, the imposition of penalty will also not sustain. Thus, there is no need to consider the matter on any other grounds.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether refund orders sanctioned under Rule 5 / Notification No.27/2012 attain finality such that Revenue cannot reopen the same in a collateral proceeding; (ii) Whether the services rendered by the appellant qualify as intermediary services; (iii) Whether invocation of the extended period of limitation for demand is justified.
Issue (i): Whether refund orders sanctioned under Rule 5 / Notification No.27/2012 attain finality and preclude the Department from later treating the refunded amounts as erroneous and recovering them in a collateral proceeding.
Analysis: The refund orders were issued on the applications filed under the refund provisions and were neither reviewed nor appealed against by the Department. Authorities relied upon establish that an order of refund passed after adjudication under the relevant statutory provision attains finality and cannot be recharacterised as an 'erroneous refund' by another authority in a collateral proceeding absent specific grounds such as proven fraud, suppression or misrepresentation.
Conclusion: In favour of the Assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the services rendered are intermediary services within the statutory definition and thus not eligible for export refund treatment.
Analysis: The statutory/administrative test for intermediary services requires (inter alia) existence of a minimum of three parties, two distinct supplies and an agent/ intermediary character. The contractual arrangement and the nature of activities (marketing, promotion, payment collection, invoicing, business support) show principal-to-principal supplies rather than an agent/intermediary relationship. Administrative clarifications also indicate that advertising/agency services to foreign principals are not intermediary services in the facts presented.
Conclusion: In favour of the Assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the extended period for invoking demand can be invoked by the Department in the absence of established suppression, misstatement, fraud or collusion.
Analysis: The Department was aware of the nature of services and the availment of CENVAT credit when refund orders were granted. No cogent evidence of suppression, misrepresentation, fraud or collusion has been shown to justify invoking the extended limitation period. Established authorities require such positive material before extended period can be invoked.
Conclusion: In favour of the Assessee.
Final Conclusion: The legal effect is that the impugned demands and orders cannot be sustained on the grounds of reopening sanctioned refund orders, characterising the supplies as intermediary services, or invoking the extended period; the appeals are allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: Refund orders passed after adjudication under the statutory refund provisions attain finality and cannot be reopened as 'erroneous refund' under the law by another authority in a collateral proceeding unless there is independent, cogent proof of suppression, misrepresentation, fraud or collusion.
Correctness on the side of Revenue to question the CENVAT credit availed without challenging the orders sanctioning refund - suppression of facts or not - invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is found that similar was the decision by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of ITC Ltd. [2019 (9) TMI 802 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] and the decision of Hon’ble High Court of Delhi in the case of B.T. India Ltd. [2024 (12) TMI 1578 - SC ORDER] - It is further found that Department cannot take one stand while sanctioning refund and a different stand for disallowing the CENVAT credit. Therefore, the appellants have a strong case on this issue in their favour.
Further, it is found that the show cause notice has been issued invoking the extended period. The Revenue has been aware of the nature of the services rendered by the appellants and the fact of availment of CENVAT credit by them. Moreover, no suppression, misstatement, mis-representation, fraud, collusion etc. has been established with cogent evidence. In view of the same, Revenue has not made out any case for invocation of extended period.
The impugned orders cannot be sustained - Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether service tax under reverse charge mechanism was leviable on reimbursements made by the appellant to its overseas representative office for alleged import of Business Support Services.
Analysis: The appeal turned on whether the appellant and its overseas representative office could be treated as two separate persons for the purpose of taxing the internal arrangement. The Tribunal held that the overseas office was only an extended arm of the appellant and not a distinct legal person. In the absence of two separate persons, the arrangement amounted to service to self, and the essential ingredients for levy of service tax, including a service provider and recipient relationship and consideration, were absent. The Tribunal also noted that the amounts paid were reimbursements of expenses and not agreed consideration for taxable services, and therefore could not be included in the value of any service. Reliance was placed on the settled line of decisions taking the same view.
Conclusion: Service tax was not leviable on the reimbursements to the overseas representative office, and the demand could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The impugned demand was set aside and the appeal succeeded in full.
Ratio Decidendi: A transaction between a business entity and its own overseas representative office cannot be taxed as a service where the office is not a distinct legal person and the payment is only reimbursement of expenses without independent consideration.
Levy of service tax under Reverse Charge Mechanism - Business Support Services - amount of expenses reimbursed to the foreign representative office by the appellant from foreign representative office - HELD THAT:- Considering the nature of the functioning between the two, it is apparent that the representative office is nothing but a back-end office of the appellant running under the identity of the appellant itself and it was the appellant, who incurred all the expenses of the representative office. Since the expenditure incurred by the representative office are reimbursed by the appellant, the same cannot be considered to be the value of services rendered by the representative office. The learned Counsel has drawn a distinction to say that there is no agreed consideration charged by the representative office for carrying out their alleged activities and it is only claiming the reimbursement of various expenses incurred by it. Thus, there is no separate specified ‘consideration’ charged for providing the services in question.
The decision of the Delhi High Court in Intercontinental Consultants & Technocrats Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Union of India [2012 (12) TMI 150 - DELHI HIGH COURT] struck down the provisions of Rule 5(1) of Service Tax Valuation Rules, 2006, which provided for inclusion of expenditures or costs incurred by the service provider in the course of providing taxable services, in the value of such taxable services as ultra vires Section 66 and 67 of the Act.
On the factual aspect, it has been categorically noticed in the case of Kusum Healthcare Pvt. Ltd. Vs. CCE, Alwar [2023 (3) TMI 173 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] that the amount was directly paid by the appellant and even the invoices were raised upon the appellant and not the representative offices, does not amount to be taxable.
There are no reason to sustain the impugned order, which is hereby set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the demand and recovery of service tax of Rs. 3,72,168/- on excess receipts, together with interest under Section 75 and penalties under Sections 78, 77(1)(a), 77(1)(c) and 77(2) (Finance Act, 1994) invoked by applying the proviso to Section 73(1) (Finance Act, 1994) is legally sustainable, having regard to limitation and the evidence regarding exemption or supply characterization.
Analysis: The question centrally concerns invocation of the extended five-year limitation under the proviso to Section 73(1) which requires specific and serious allegations such as fraud, collusion, willful misstatement or suppression of facts with intent to evade tax and places the burden of proving mala fide on the revenue. The impugned appellate order failed to record any finding on limitation despite the appellant raising it. Documentary materials produced did not conclusively disprove the appellant's contention that the excess receipts related to supplies on which VAT was paid and that there was a bona fide belief that the receipts were not taxable services; lower authorities likewise did not identify the particular taxable service corresponding to the excess receipts. The show-cause notice and subsequent findings did not meet the requirement of specific averments necessary to invoke the proviso, and the record did not establish suppression or mala fide to the high standard required for extending the limitation period.
Conclusion: The demand, interest and penalties confirmed by the lower authorities by invoking the proviso to Section 73(1) are not maintainable; the appeal is allowed in favour of the appellant.
Demand of service tax - invoking the extended period of limitation as per proviso to Section 73 (1) of the Finance Act, 1994 - work contract to services to various contractors who were providing services to various government authorities -payment received in connection of repair, alteration of Road, bridge etc. for use by general public - Whether the service income earned by them for the corresponding period is attributable to any negative list services contained in Section 66D of the erstwhile Finance Act, 1994 or is, - HELD THAT:- As the appellant did not provide the mandatory documents like copies of Agreements with various contractors Government department, details of receipt of payments, copy of bank statements etc., the services provided by the appellant were taxable under Section 65(B) of the Act and the appellant was liable to pay service tax.
It is quite evident that appellant was engaged in providing taxable services under the category of work contract to services to various contractors who were providing services to various government authorities, which have been held to be exempt from payment of service tax by the adjudicating authority. During financial year 2016-17, it is observed that appellant had provided services to one such contractor namely M/s Iqbal Construction Company.
Appellant has claimed that the excess receipt shown in 26AS towards provision of services was not in respect of any services provided by the appellant but was towards the supply of material. They have also produced certificates from M/s Iqbal Construction Company, invoices etc., to support their claim. In the certificate M/s Iqbal Construction Company has specifically stated that these payments were towards the supply of material, and on account of clerical mistake, TDS was deducted on these payments treating them to be towards services. The error committed was subsequently rectified and impugned order records about a negative entry of the same amount in the 26AS return of the appellant.
Appellant had reasonable and bonafide belief that even if this amount was towards any service provided by them to M/s Iqbal Construction Company then the same was exempt from payment of service tax, as order in original itself holds that the services provided by the appellant in terms of the two contracts is exempt from payment of service tax. As appellant entertained a bonafide belief that they were not required to pay any service tax in respect of the services provided by them to M/s Iqbal Construction Company, No merits in confirmation of this demand by invoking the extended period of limitation as per proviso to Section 73 (1) of the Finance Act, 1994.
Issues: Whether service tax, interest and penalty were sustainable on the amounts paid to the State Police Department for security services, on vendor registration charges, tender cost and inspection charges, and on amounts recovered as penalty for non-fulfilment of tender conditions.
Analysis: The demand was covered by the same issues already decided in the appellant's earlier appeal, where the Tribunal had held that the police charges were collected for discharge of a statutory function and were not taxable as business support or security agency services in the hands of the service recipient. It had also held that meter inspection charges were linked to the distribution activity and not separately taxable, while vendor registration charges and tender cost were part of the bidding process and not consideration for any service. As regards amounts recovered for pre-term resignation and breach of tender conditions, the earlier order held that such receipts were compensatory in nature and not consideration for tolerating an act or situation. Following that decision for the subsequent period, no different view was called for.
Conclusion: The entire demand of service tax, interest and penalty was not sustainable and was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded and the impugned order could not be sustained, with consequential relief to the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Amounts recovered for discharge of statutory functions, for activities integral to the assessee's own operations, or as compensation for breach or non-fulfilment of contractual conditions do not constitute taxable consideration for service, and a demand contrary to a binding departmental circular and settled precedent is unsustainable.
Liability of appellant to pay service tax - reverse charge mechanism - amounts which the appellant had paid to the State Police Department for the security services provided by the police - vendor registration charges, tender cost, inspection charges and Board of Director Settlement fee - amounts recovered as penalty on non-fulfilment of the conditions of the tender.
HELD THAT:- It is found that for demands on these three issues for an earlier period were confirmed by the Commissioner and on appeal, this Tribunal in M/S AJMER VIDYUT VITARAN NIGAM LIMITED VERSUS PRINCIPAL COMMISSIONER OF CGST & CENTRAL EXCISE, JAIPUR [2024 (11) TMI 1445 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], set aside the demands.
There are no reason to take a different view for this demand pertaining to a subsequent period in respect of the same appellant on the same issues - the demand of service tax, interest and penalty set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether Cenvat credit on insurance services, outdoor catering, health and fitness, housekeeping, and event management services for the period prior to April 2011 was admissible.
Analysis: The dispute related to denial of Cenvat credit on specified services used during the period prior to April 2011. The same appellant had already succeeded on identical issues for earlier periods before the Tribunal. The reasoning in those earlier orders, along with other coordinate bench decisions cited on similar services, was applied to the present demand.
Conclusion: The credit was held to be admissible for the period in dispute, and the impugned demand could not be sustained.
Irregular Cenvat Credit - Insurance Services - Outdoor Catering services - Health and Fitness services - House Keeping and Event Management Services - period October, 2008 to March, 2011 - HELD THAT:- The issue involved is denial of Cenvat Credit in respect of certain services for the period prior to April, 2011. It is found that in respect of the same appellant, for the earlier period, the same issue has travelled up to Tribunal, wherein the Tribunal, in SATYAM COMPUTER SERVICES LIMITED VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE & SERVICE TAX, HYDERABAD- II [2022 (9) TMI 1578 - CESTAT HYDERABAD], allowed the appeals filed by the appellant.
It is also noted that the subject issue has also been examined and decided by the Coordinate Benches in the various cases, as relied upon by the appellant in support that these services were eligible input services for the purpose of taking credit for the period prior to April, 2011.
The impugned order cannot sustain and is accordingly, set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the extended period of limitation (proviso to Section 73(1)) could be invoked on the ground of suppression. (ii) Whether the demand and penalties confirmed for denial of exemption under Notification No.25/2012-ST and applicability of RCM can be sustained in absence of consignment notes, or whether the matter requires further factual examination.
Issue (i): Whether the extended period of limitation is invokable on account of suppression.
Analysis: The question required determination whether omission amounted to deliberate and wilful non-disclosure of correct information such that suppression, in its strict legal sense, is established. The Tribunal examined the ST-3 returns and audited accounts as presented, noting that the amounts on which exemption was claimed were reflected in returns and accounted in the Profit & Loss Account. The Tribunal applied the strict construction of 'suppression' as requiring deliberate concealment of correct information to evade tax, and found that mere inability to produce some consignment notes during audit did not, by itself, establish deliberate suppression.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation under the proviso to Section 73(1) cannot be invoked; conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand and penalties confirming denial of exemption and applicability of RCM can be sustained without documentary proof, or whether further examination of returns and accounts is required.
Analysis: Rule 4B imposes issuance of consignment notes for GTA services except where the service is wholly exempt under Section 93. The Tribunal recognised that consignment notes are the primary documentary proof for exemption claims but also noted that the appellant had consistently declared the exemption in statutory returns and accounted for it in audited financials. Given these factual filings, the Tribunal found that a conclusive finding on entitlement to exemption and on penalties could not be made without a detailed re-examination of ST-3 returns, audited accounts and other relevant documents to determine whether transactions were chargeable under RCM or exempt under Notification No.25/2012-ST.
Conclusion: The matter is remitted for factual verification; this conclusion is in favour of the assessee to the extent that the impugned confirmation is set aside and requires fresh consideration.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal set aside the impugned order and remanded the matter to the Commissioner (Appeals) for examination of the statutory returns, audited accounts and other relevant documents to determine entitlement to exemption and the applicability of extended limitation and penalties; the appellate remedy is accordingly allowed by way of remand.
Ratio Decidendi: Where statutory returns and audited accounts disclose the amounts on which an exemption is claimed, invocation of the extended period for 'suppression' requires strict proof of deliberate non-disclosure; absent such proof, demands and penalties based solely on non-production of consignment notes must be re-examined by the adjudicating authority on factual records.
Benefit of exemption under entry 21 (a) and (c) of N/N. 25/2012-ST and benefit of RCM under N/N. 30/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 - denial of benefit on the ground that the claims were not substantiated by any documentary evidence i.e., consignment notes/invoices - Requirement of issuing consignment note under Rule 4B of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 - invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- From Rule 4B and the proviso, it is evident that any GTA providing the taxable service of transportation of goods by road must issue a consignment note. An exemption from this rule applies if the entire service is wholly exempted under section 93 of the Finance Act, 1994. In the instant case, the appellant would be exempted from issuing any consignment note if the GTA Service involved was exempted under Section 93 of the Act. It has been consistently submitted by the appellant that transportation of all goods for a single consignee was less that Rs. 750/- and there are GRs to substantiate it.
The appellant had not suppressed the value of services provided by them. Hence, the invocation of extended period cannot be substantiated - support drawn from the decision of the Supreme Court in Anand Nishikawa Company Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Excise [2005 (9) TMI 331 - SUPREME COURT] wherein the Apex Court held that the term ‘suppression’ must be construed strictly. It does not mean any omission and the act must be deliberate and wilful to evade payment of duty. In taxation, suppression can only have one meaning that the correct information was not disclosed deliberately to escape payment of duty. In the instant case, it is evident that the ST-3 returns reflected the amount on which the appellant had availed exemption. It has also been submitted before us that the transportation charges upto Rs. 750/- was duly accounted for in their Profit & Loss Account. Hence, the extended period cannot be invoked against the appellant.
The impugned order is set aside - matter remanded back to the Commissioner (Appeals) to examine the relevant ST-3 returns, the audited accounts and any other relevant documents submitted by the appellant to substantiate their claim for exemption.
The appeal is allowed by way of remand.
Issues: (i) Whether the demand of service tax was barred by time and whether the proviso to Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 (extended period of limitation) was correctly invoked; (ii) Whether the consideration received under two development-agreements for transfer of development rights is exigible to service tax; (iii) Whether the amounts shown as income under Section 194J of the Income Tax Act are leviable to service tax.
Issue (i): Whether the demand was barred by time and whether the extended period under the proviso to Section 73(1) of the Finance Act could be invoked.
Analysis: The payments were received and recorded in the appellant's books in financial years 2011-12 and 2012-13 and, under the Point of Taxation Rules, 2011, point of taxation for advance receipts is the date of receipt. The show cause notice was issued beyond five years from those receipt dates. Invocation of the proviso requires deliberate and wilful suppression of facts with intent to evade service tax; mere nondisclosure or a debatable view on liability is insufficient. The record showed disclosure in balance sheets and the appellant had bona fide grounds for its view; the show cause notice contained only bare allegations without material demonstrating willful suppression.
Conclusion: The demand is barred by time and the proviso to Section 73(1) (extended period) could not be invoked. Conclusion is in favour of the Assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the consideration received under the two agreements for transfer of development rights is liable to service tax.
Analysis: Examination of the agreement terms shows developers obtained rights to develop and to sell developed units with transfer of undivided interest to buyers; the initial consideration to the land owner was in substance for transfer of ownership/undivided interest in land. The contractual rights and obligations, taken together with relevant authorities, support the view that the transactions effect transfer of immovable property rather than a mere transfer of development rights as a taxable service.
Conclusion: The consideration received under the two agreements is not exigible to service tax. Conclusion is in favour of the Assessee.
Issue (iii): Whether the amounts shown as income under Section 194J of the Income Tax Act (Rs. 91,177 and Rs. 2,19,099) are liable to service tax.
Analysis: The Commissioner confirmed demand solely because the appellant did not explain the head under which amounts were received. Not all incomes are taxable as services; even if leviable, the Notification dated 20.06.2012 exempts aggregate taxable services not exceeding Rs. 10,00,000 in a financial year from service tax. The amounts in question fall within that yearly threshold.
Conclusion: The amounts shown under Section 194J are not leviable to service tax. Conclusion is in favour of the Assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order confirming demand, penalty and interest is unsustainable on limitation and merits; the order is set aside and the appeal is allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: The extended period under the proviso to Section 73(1) is invokable only upon proof of deliberate, wilful suppression of facts with intent to evade tax; amounts recorded in books and disclosed in financial statements, or where a bona fide and debatable legal view exists on liability, do not justify invoking the extended period and preclude a demand beyond the statutory limitation.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - suppression of facts or not - whether suppression of facts under section 73(1) of the Finance Act has to be willful and with an intent to evade payment of service tax? - Levy of service tax on consideration received under the two agreements - Levy of service tax - Miscellaneous receipts - Income shown under section 194(J) of the Income Tax Act.
Invocation of extended period of limitation - suppression of facts or not - whether suppression of facts under section 73(1) of the Finance Act has to be willful and with an intent to evade payment of service tax? - HELD THAT:- The Supreme Court and the Delhi High Court have held that suppression of facts has to be “wilful‟ and there should also be an intent to evade payment of service tax.
In Pushpam Pharmaceutical Co. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Bombay [1995 (3) TMI 100 - SUPREME COURT] the Supreme Court examined whether the department was justified in initiating proceedings for short levy after the expiry of the normal period of six months by invoking the proviso to section 11A of the Central Excise Act. The proviso to section 11A of the Excise Act carved out an exception to the provisions that permitted the department to reopen proceedings if the levy was short within six months of the relevant date and permitted the Authority to exercise this power within five years from the relevant date under the circumstances mentioned in the proviso, one of which was suppression of facts. It is in this context that the Supreme Court observed that since “suppression of facts‟ has been used in the company of strong words such as fraud, collusion, or wilful default, suppression of facts must be deliberate and with an intent to escape payment of duty.
It would also be appropriate to refer the decision of the Delhi High Court in Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. vs. Union of India and others [2023 (4) TMI 216 - DELHI HIGH COURT]. The Delhi High Court observed that merely because MTNL had not declared the receipt of compensation as payment for taxable service, does not establish that it had wilfully suppressed any material fact. The Delhi High Court further observed that the contention of MTNL that receipt was not taxable under the Act is a substantial one and no intent to evade tax can be inferred by non-disclosure of the receipt in the service tax return.
In The Commissioner of Central Tax, Bangalore North Commissionerate vs. M/s. ABB Limited, Maneja Works [2022 (6) TMI 1212 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], the Karnataka High Court held that when the amount was recorded in the balance sheet it is not possible to accept the contention of the department that the trading activity was not known to the department and that it was learnt on the basis of intelligence report.
It is, therefore, clear from the aforesaid discussion that the extended period of limitation could have been invoked only if there was suppression of facts with intent to evade payment of service tax.
In the present case, the appellant had disclosed the receipt of consideration in the balance sheet for the Financial Years 2011-12 and 2012-13. There is only a mere allegation in the show cause notice that suppression was with an intent to evade payment of service tax without elaborating the allegation. A mere allegation is not sufficient for invoking the extended period of limitation. It cannot, therefore, be urged that the appellant had any intention of avoiding payment of service tax. The extended period of limitation, therefore, could not have been invoked in the facts and circumstances of the present case.
The show cause notice also alleged that in an era of self-assessment an assessee in required to correctly discharge the duty liability, but the appellant still did not include the compensation amount - It is the duty of the officers scrutinizing the returns to examine the information disclosed by an assessee and the department cannot be permitted to take a plea that it is the duty of the assessee to disclose correct information and it is not the duty of the officers to scrutinize the returns.
The Tribunal in Sunshine Steel Industries vs. Commissioner of CGST, Customs & Central Excise, Jodhpur [2023 (1) TMI 638 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] observed that the department cannot be permitted to invoke the extended period of limitation by merely stating that it is a case of self-assessment.
Thus, the extended period of limitation could not have been invoked in the facts and circumstances of the case.
Whether the consideration received under the two agreements is leviable to service tax? - HELD THAT:- The appellant, as owner of the land, transferred the land development rights to the developers for a consideration and it was also under an obligation to transfer the undivided interest on the land in favour of the buyers to whom the developers may ultimately sell, for which no separate consideration was required to be paid to the appellant. This would mean that such transfer of un-divided interest in the land by the appellant is in return for the initial consideration paid by the developers and, therefore, in effect it is the ownership of land which is transferred in return for the consideration payable by the developer - The consideration received by the appellant under the two agreements, would, therefore, not be leviable to service tax.
Levy of service tax - Miscellaneous receipts - Income shown under section 194(J) of the Income Tax Act - HELD THAT:- The only reason assigned by the Commissioner for confirming the demand of service tax on these two amounts is that the appellant could not explain under which head the amount was received. This amount was picked up for levy of service tax because it was shown as income under section 194(J) of the Income Tax Act. All incomes may not be leviable to service tax, unless they are subject to levy of service tax under the Finance Act. This apart, even if it is assumed that the said amount was leviable to service tax, then too the amount was within the yearly threshold limit of Rs. 10 lakhs provided for in the Notification dated 20.06.2012. The two amounts would, therefore, not be leviable to service tax.
The impugned order dated 30.11.2023 passed by the Commissioner cannot be sustained - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the demand for central excise duty, interest and penalty based on alleged clandestine manufacture and clandestine removal of Pan Masala and Zafrani Zarda can be sustained where the department primarily relies on diaries and registers seized from third parties and statements recorded during investigation.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the essential ingredients required to establish clandestine removal, namely procurement of raw materials, manufacture of finished products, clandestine removal, and receipt of consideration. It reviewed the evidence relied upon by the Principal Commissioner — diaries/registers seized from transporters and distributors, statements recorded under section 14 of the Central Excise Act (including statements later retracted), and material seized from various third parties. The Tribunal applied established legal principles that private/internal records or third-party loose sheets cannot be the sole basis for a demand without independent corroboration such as discovery of finished goods outside the factory, parallel records at the manufacturer's premises, evidence of procurement of requisite raw materials, proof of receipt of sale proceeds, or demonstration of manufacturing capacity (including electricity consumption). The Tribunal considered cross-examination answers that undermined the reliability of many prosecution witnesses and noted absence of incriminating or parallel records at the appellant's premises, lack of proof of receipt of consideration, inconsistencies within seized diaries, failure to record statements of purported diary authors, and absence of consignment notes/bilties naming the appellant. On these facts, the Tribunal found the four essential ingredients were not satisfied and that the departmental material lacked the required corroboration.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that the department failed to establish clandestine manufacture and clandestine removal against the appellant; the impugned order confirming duty, interest and penalty is set aside and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Demand of central excise duty u/s 11A with interest u/s 11AA and penalty - documents show illicit clearance of the goods manufactured by the appellant and cleared clandestinely - Relevance of statements recorded during investigation under section 14 - cross-examination of the witnesses - burden of proof - essential ingredients that required to be established for establishing clandestine removal of goods - Evidentiary value - third party documents and statements in the absence of any tangible or corroborative evidence - HELD THAT:- It is seen that the four essential ingredients that required to be established for establishing clandestine removal of goods are:
(a) Procurement of raw materials;
(b) Manufacture of final products;
(c) Clandestine removal of goods; and
(d) Receipt of consideration against such removal.
In the present case, findings have been recorded against the appellant on the basis of Diaries recovered from the premises of the third parties and the oral statements of the witnesses. The demand cannot be sustained merely on the basis of third-party documents and statements, in the absence of any tangible or corroborative evidence.
There is nothing on the record which may establish procurement of raw materials for the manufacture of goods in the factory of the appellant. There is also no proof of receipt of consideration against the alleged illicit clearance by the appellant. Even in respect of transportation, no incriminating evidence was found in the premises of the appellant. The documents recovered from transporters do not establish any case of clandestine removal of goods by the appellant. Thus, neither of the four conditions enumerated above are satisfied.
It would be pertinent to state that the appellant cross-examined persons whose statements were recorded under section 14D of the Central Excise Act. Such persons, in their cross-examination, stated that their statements were recorded under duress and coercion.
It needs to be noted that none of the alleged dealers or buyers were questioned regarding receipt of goods from Data Goods Carrier or Sarco Roadlines nor were they shown any of the Diaries allegedly recovered from the premises of the transporters. The names of the alleged dealers or buyers also do not appear in any of the said Diaries. The Diaries and the entries therein do not pertain to the appellant.
Thus, the statements made under section 14D of the Central Excise Act cannot be considered as reliable.
Neither consignment notes/bilties mentioning the names of the alleged buyers/dealers as consignees were recovered either from the premises of the appellant or from the alleged premises of the transporters. The name of the appellant or that of any of the alleged buyers/dealers does not appear in any of the entries of the Diaries recovered from the premises of the transporters, which form the sole basis of the impugned demand. Parallel invoices, vouchers, or challans for purchase of raw materials were not found, nor has the department explained the alleged source of procurement of raw materials necessary for such voluminous production.
There is, therefore, substance in the submission advanced by the learned counsel for the appellant that the allegations levelled in the show cause notice and the findings recorded in the impugned order are factually incorrect.
The demand has been confirmed on the basis that the appellant supplied total 17,346 green jhal of Zafrani Zarda and 61,234 white jhal of Pan Masala during the period from September, 2019 to November, 2020. The average of the above comes to around 200 jhals per day during the disputed period. If stock of at least 4-5 days is to be kept, there would be a requirement of around 800-1000 jhals but there was no stock of such empty jhals at the premises of the appellant. The entries in the Diaries recovered from the premises of the transporters have been incorrectly attributed to the appellant.
Neither any cash was found or recovered nor has any trail been established by the department. The impugned order has failed to appreciate this vital fact and has merely brushed it aside by observing that it is an “ongoing process”.
It was for the department to have ascertained how the goods were transported to the particular place as mentioned in the Diaries and recorded statements of the consignees to whom the goods were transported as per the entries. There is also no evidence of transfer of funds to the appellant against the said clandestine removal of goods. It needs to be noted that during the search of the premises of the appellant, no incriminating material was found.
The search at the premises of sub-distributors does not show that any incriminating material against the appellant was recovered. The Principal Commissioner relied upon statements recorded under section 14 of the Central Excise Act but correct facts were stated in the cross-examination.
According to the appellant, the machines installed in the factory as recorded in the Panchnama, lacked the capacity to manufacture the quantities, more particularly when they are compared with the actual electricity consumption. No evidence has been adduced regarding use of generators, additional premises or other machines that may have been used to achieve the excess production. In the absence of proof of manufacturing capacity, the unaccounted production cannot be established and, therefore, the allegation of clandestine approval cannot be sustained.
It, therefore, clearly transpires from the aforesaid discussion that the charge of clandestine removal of goods by the appellant has not been substantiated by the department. The Principal Commissioner, therefore, committed an error in holding that the charge of clandestine removal of goods by the appellant stood proved.
The inevitable conclusion, therefore, that follow is that the impugned order dated 28.06.2024 passed by the Principal Commissioner in so far as it concerns the appellant deserves to be set aside and is set aside. The appeal is, accordingly, allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the demand of excise duty and interest for clandestine manufacture and removal is sustainable; (ii) Whether penalty under Rule 25(b) on the firm and penalty under Rule 26 on the partner are sustainable; (iii) Whether the seized red diary and the partner's confessional statements are admissible and constitute sufficient/corroborative evidence; (iv) Whether prior orders arising from the same search (confiscation set aside by Tribunal) operate to invalidate the present demands or proceedings.
Issue (i): Whether the demand of excise duty and interest on clandestine manufacture and removal is sustainable.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the evidentiary material including the recovered diary, admissions by the partner recorded under Section 14, part deposits by the party by GAR-7 challans, and applicable provisions of Section 11A read with Sections 11AB and 11AA. The Tribunal applied principles relating to burden of proof in clandestine/white-collar contraventions and noted that material facts were within the special knowledge of the appellants; it also considered precedents on sufficiency of confessional statements together with corroborative material.
Conclusion: The demand of excise duty and interest is upheld in favour of the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether penalty under Rule 25(b) on the firm and penalty under Rule 26 on the partner are sustainable.
Analysis: The Tribunal reviewed rule provisions and relevant authorities addressing imposition of penalties on firms and on partners. It considered that penalty under Rule 25(b) against the firm is warranted on the established clandestine manufacture and removal. Regarding personal penalty under Rule 26 on the partner, the Tribunal addressed earlier appellate action (which had set aside the personal penalty) and applied precedents concerning imposition of separate penalties on partners when a penalty has been imposed on the firm.
Conclusion: Penalty on the firm under Rule 25(b) is sustained (in favour of Revenue). The Tribunal's overall decision results in maintenance of the adjudication on penalty as reflected in the impugned order sequence (outcome overall not favourable to the appellant firm).
Issue (iii): Whether the seized red diary and the partner's confessional statements are admissible and sufficient/corroborative evidence.
Analysis: The Tribunal applied Section 36A presumption as to documents seized and considered legal principles on confessional statements and retractions (including requirement of voluntariness and possibility of corroboration). It found the diary recovery admitted by the partner in statements recorded under Section 14, part duty deposits corroborative, and that the confessional statements were voluntary and supported by independent evidence (seized stocks, entries, and deposits), making the documentary and testimonial material admissible and probative.
Conclusion: The red diary and the partner's confessional statements are admissible and constitute sufficient/corroborative evidence for upholding the demand and penalties (in favour of Revenue).
Issue (iv): Whether prior Tribunal order setting aside confiscation (arising from the same search) nullifies or bars the present proceedings.
Analysis: The Tribunal distinguished the earlier order that set aside confiscation on specific factual and evidentiary grounds, noting that that decision did not address or disallow the clearances and admissions recorded in the red diary or the confessional statements. The Tribunal further applied principles of res judicata and constructive res judicata, observing that the appellant had not raised the present factual/contention at the earliest opportunities and that the earlier decision did not cover the same matters in identical circumstances.
Conclusion: The prior order does not operate to invalidate the present demands; the plea based on that earlier decision is rejected (in favour of Revenue).
Final Conclusion: On the consolidated factual and legal analysis the Tribunal dismissed the appeal, upholding the departmental demand and evidentiary reliance on the seized diary and confessional statements; the adjudication as to duty, interest and penalties stands against the appellant, resulting in dismissal of the appeal.
Demand duty with interest - clandestine manufacture and clearance of the excisable goods to various persons - seizure of private diary and statements recorded under Section 14 of Central Excise Act, 1944 - without making proper entry in the statutory records and without payment of excise duty - principles of Res-judicata -Evidential value of the confessional statement -presumption in respect of the correctness of the facts stated in the document recovered or tendered during the investigation proceedings - HELD THAT:- The appellant who had never disputed the recovery of “Red Diary titled Laxmi Book” from his premises and his connection with the said diary, all of sudden by the advent of new counsel started disowning the diary and denying his connection with the same. No merits in the said submissions as the affidavit claiming so has been filed for first time in 20.01.2017 in respect of the recovery made from the premises of the appellant on 11.01.2010 i.e. more than seven years after the search. The said affidavit was never filed at the time of investigation or in proceedings before the lower authority and not even at the time of filing this appeal or at the time of argument of stay application.
It is settled principle that the question sought to be agitated by way of this affidavit is a question of fact and should have been agitated at the first available opportunity. Such belated of submission of this affidavit on 20.01.2017 is contrary to settled principles of law and the affidavit filed needs to be rejected on this ground.
As per Section 36A of Central Excise Act, 1944, presumption is in respect of the correctness of the facts stated in the document recovered or tendered during the investigation proceedings. In this case not only the “Red Diary titled Laxmi Book” is admissible in evidence, in view of the presumption cast by the above section but also for the reason that recovery and correctness of the facts/ entries have been admitted by the Partner of the appellant in his statements recorded under Section 14 of Central Excise Act, 1944. I do not find anything contrary to the above presumption being stated in the appeal.
The question of clandestine clearance is purely a question of fact and needs to be determined on the basis of the evidences recovered and marshalled in a particular proceedings. There cannot be any precedence without showing that the cases relied by the appellant were rendered in the similar or identical circumstances. It is settled principle that one addition fact/ evidence makes the case completely different from relied upon by the appellant.
It is evident from the facts as stated, that the partner of the appellant firm has admitted to the recovery of the said “Red Diary titled Laxmi Book” and to the contents of the said diary. The admission of the contents is also evident from the fact that the appellant has deposited the part duty against the admitted clandestine clearances vide GAR-7 Challan No 19.01.2010 for Rs 25,000/- and GAR-7 Challan No 20 dated 09.02.2010 for Rs 25,000/-. The fact of clandestine clearance was as per the said “Red Diary titled Laxmi Book” was again admitted by the appellant in his statement recorded on 25.03.2011. It is settled principle in law that the facts admitted in the proceedings need not be proved by the other party.
The arguments being advanced by the appellant in the present appeal were foreclosed in terms of the submissions made by the appellant before the Adjudicating authority. Acting on the submissions made by the appellant adjudicating authority has not imposed any penalty. Raising these arguments for the first time in subsequent proceedings will be hit by the principles of Res-judicata.
Thus in view of the discussions as above I do not find any merits in this appeal.
Appeal is dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether the Tribunal was justified in affirming the excise demand when the show-cause notice did not specify the classification (chapter/heading/sub-heading) forming the basis for the demand; (ii) Whether initiation and continuation of proceedings based on a show-cause notice that omits the nature of goods and their classification under the Act is opposed to the respondent's statutory obligation and vitiates the proceedings.
Issue (i): Whether the Tribunal was justified in affirming the excise demand when the show-cause notice did not specify the classification (chapter/heading/sub-heading) forming the basis for the demand.
Analysis: The levy under the Act depends on identification of excisable goods and the rate determined by classification under the Fourth Schedule. The absence of any specific chapter/heading/sub-heading in the show-cause notice means the jurisdictional fact underpinning the demand is not pleaded. Reliance on Section 3 and the Fourth Schedule shows that classification is determinative of the rate and chargeability and therefore is a prerequisite for assuming jurisdiction to levy duty.
Conclusion: The omission of the classification in the show-cause notice renders the notice defective and the Tribunal was not justified in affirming the demand. The conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether initiation and continuation of proceedings based on a show-cause notice that omits the nature of goods and their classification under the Act is opposed to the respondent's statutory obligation and vitiates the proceedings.
Analysis: The statutory framework requires that the grounds for levy include identification of the goods and applicable rate, which depends on classification. A defective notice that does not specify classification prevents the authority from discharging the statutory obligation to inform the assessee of the precise basis of the demand, thereby affecting the validity of subsequent orders. The absence of classification in both the notice and the original order indicates the proceedings proceeded without the requisite jurisdictional fact.
Conclusion: Proceedings initiated and continued on a show-cause notice omitting classification are vitiated. The conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The defective omission of classification in the show-cause notice vitiates the entire chain of proceedings and results in quashing of the notice and subsequent orders, thereby relieving the assessee of the demand.
Ratio Decidendi: A show-cause notice initiating excise demand must state the classification (chapter/heading/sub-heading) or equivalent identification of the excisable goods as this is a jurisdictional fact necessary for valid levy of duty.
Scope of SCN - Validity of demand from the appellant when the SCN does not propose the classification that forms the basis for demanding the excise duty - proceeding initiated with such show cause notice which has culminated with the Tribunal's order is grossly opposed to the respondent’s statutory obligation to provide for the nature of goods and its classification under the Act to justify a demand or not - HELD THAT:-This Court must observe that there is liability to pay the prescribed duty of excise at the rates set forth in the Fourth Schedule as contemplated under Section 3 of the Act on all excisable goods manufactured or produced. It flows from this requirement that every levy and the demand must begin with the identification of excisable goods manufactured/produced in India and the rate at which the duty must be levied and that the rate will depend on the classification under the Fourth Schedule to the Act. The reference to the classification of the goods upon which a demand is raised therefore becomes a jurisdictional fact and unless that fact is stated in the Show-cause notice, the Central Excise authorities cannot assume jurisdiction to levy demand. The controversy over the classification and the rate and even whether the goods are manufactured or produced in India could be facts in issue but an assertion that the goods are manufactured/produced in India and are subject to duty of excise at a particular rate based on certain classification would be a jurisdictional fact, and in the absence of this jurisdictional fact, the authority cannot assume jurisdiction.
This Court may refer to the decision of the Apex Court in Arun Kumar and Others v. Union of India and Others [2006 (9) TMI 115 - SUPREME COURT]. As is obvious from the extracted portion of the Show-cause notice, there is no reference to the classification and the only reference is to what the law contemplates under Section 3 of the Act viz., the duty of excise would be leviable at a rate specified under the Fourth Schedule depending on the classification under the Heading/Sub-heading without mentioning the classification. Therefore, this Court is of the considered view that the Show-cause notice is defective and all proceedings subsequent thereto will have to fail.
The impugned show cause notice, the Order-in-Original passed by the Commissioner and the Tribunal's Order are quashed - Appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether CENVAT credit is admissible under Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 on service tax paid for maintenance and repair of windmills located outside the factory premises, where the electricity generated is wheeled through the State grid and equivalent units are consumed in manufacture.
(ii) Whether suo motu re-credit taken in January 2017 of CENVAT credit earlier reversed under protest is legally sustainable when the substantive dispute on eligibility of such credit has been decided in favour of the assessee and there was no stay of the appellate order.
(iii) Whether, in view of binding precedent settling the credit entitlement, the adjudicating authority was justified in dropping the demand, and consequently whether interest and penalty proposals could survive.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Admissibility of credit on maintenance/repair services for off-site windmills
Legal framework: The Court examined Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 defining "input service", which includes services used "directly or indirectly, in or in relation to manufacture".
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court rejected the Department's objection based on geographical distance of the windmills and the fact that electricity is first fed into the grid. It accepted that Rule 2(l) does not impose a condition that the input service must be received within factory premises. The Court applied the principle that inputs/services need not be used within the factory so long as they are integrally connected with manufacturing activity. It also held that wheeling through the electricity board grid does not sever nexus when equivalent electricity is drawn and used in the manufacture, and the fact of such equivalent consumption was undisputed.
Conclusions: Credit of service tax paid on maintenance and repair of windmills located outside the factory premises is admissible as "input service" under Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004, notwithstanding grid wheeling of the generated electricity.
Issue (ii): Validity of suo motu re-credit of amounts earlier reversed under protest
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the assessee had reversed the credit under protest during pendency of litigation, and that once the Tribunal decided the eligibility issue in favour of the assessee, the right to restoration/re-credit accrued as a natural consequence. It held that restoration follows when reversal was under protest and the assessee succeeds on merits, and that pendency of departmental appeal does not dilute the binding nature of the Tribunal's order in the absence of any stay.
Conclusions: The suo motu re-credit taken in January 2017 of credit earlier reversed under protest was held lawful and sustainable on merits.
Issue (iii): Propriety of dropping the demand; effect on interest and penalty
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that the adjudicating authority was justified in relying on binding decisions to drop proceedings, and that quasi-judicial authorities are bound by appellate decisions and cannot insist on "independent findings" to take a contrary view once the legal issue is settled. Applying the settled position that such windmill-related maintenance services qualify as input services where the electricity forms part of the manufacturing unit's energy requirement and grid wheeling does not break nexus, the Court found continuation of the recovery proceedings to be futile.
Conclusions: Dropping of the demand was upheld. Since the credit itself was found admissible, recovery did not arise; consequently, interest under Rule 14 and penalty under Rule 15 read with Section 11AC also failed and were held unsustainable.
CENVAT credit of service tax paid on maintenance and repair services of windmills located outside the factory premises - re-credit taken in January 2017 pursuant to the Tribunal’s Final Order dated 25.02.2015 is legally sustainable or not - correctness in dropping the proceedings initiated by the Show Cause Notice dated 05.02.2019.
Eligibility of CENVAT Credit on Windmill related Services - HELD THAT:- The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Vikram Cement v. CCE [2006 (1) TMI 130 - SUPREME COURT] has clearly held that inputs or services need not be used within the factory premises so long as they are integrally connected with the manufacturing activity - The Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Endurance Technology Pvt. Ltd. [2015 (6) TMI 82 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] and the Hon’ble Madras High Court in Ashok Leyland Ltd. [2019 (1) TMI 430 - MADRAS HIGH COURT] have affirmed the Larger Bench view, holding that denial of credit merely on the ground of geographical distance would defeat the objective of the CENVAT scheme and renewable energy policy.
The Department’s argument that electricity is routed through the grid does not dilute the nexus, since the fact of equivalent electricity being consumed in the factory is undispute - CENVAT credit of service tax paid on maintenance and repair of windmills located outside the factory premises is admissible under Rule 2(l) of CCR, 2004.
Validity of Re-credit Taken in January 2017 - HELD THAT:- It appears that the respondent reversed the credit under protest during the pendency of litigation. Once the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the respondent, the right to re-credit accrued - It is a settled legal position that when duty or credit is reversed under protest and the assessee succeeds on merits, restoration of credit follows automatically - The Substantial questions of law were answered in favour of the taxpayer affirming that maintenance services for windmills are eligible as input services.
Legality of Dropping SCN Proceedings - HELD THAT:- The identical issue, earlier relied upon by the Department as pending, has now been conclusively decided by the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in Ajanta Transistors Clock Mfg. Co. [2025 (11) TMI 1936 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT]. In paragraph 21 of the said judgment, the Hon’ble High Court has categorically held that services availed for installation, operation and maintenance of windmills located away from the factory premises qualify as input services, once the electricity generated therefrom forms part of the energy requirement of the manufacturing unit. The Court has further held that wheeling of electricity through the State Electricity Board does not sever the nexus with the manufacture.
Therefore, once the legal issue itself stands settled in favour of the assessee, continuation of proceedings would be futile.
The adjudicating authority was fully justified in dropping the proceedings. The impugned Order-in-Original does not suffer from any legal infirmity and warrants no interference - Since the credit itself is held admissible on merits, the question of recovery does not arise - Consequently, interest under Rule 14 of CCR and penalty under Rule 15 read with Section 11AC automatically fails. The demand of CENVAT credit, interest and penalty is unsustainable in law.
All questions framed are answered on merits in favour of the respondent and against the Department - Appeal of Revenue dismissed.
Issues: Whether filling gas into smaller cylinders supplied by customers amounted to manufacture or deemed manufacture under the relevant chapter note, so as to attract duty and penalty.
Analysis: The activity was found to be contingent on customer-driven preference and not a continuous or autonomous repacking activity of the assessee. The containers were supplied by customers and bore no marking of the assessee. The Tribunal held that the cited precedents did not match the facts of the present dispute. It further held that the refilling of gas into customer-provided containers was comparable to a post-production mode of removal and did not constitute the kind of independent treatment contemplated by the deeming provision.
Conclusion: The activity did not amount to manufacture or deemed manufacture, and the demand as well as the penalty were held unsustainable.
Final Conclusion: The duty demand and penalty confirmed by the lower authorities were set aside, and the appeal was allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: A customer-directed filling of gas into customer-owned containers, undertaken after production and not as an autonomous repacking activity of the assessee, does not by itself constitute manufacture or deemed manufacture under the tariff note.
Process amounting to manufacture or not - filling/refilling of gas from bulk cylinders into customer-supplied smaller cylinders (bottling in smaller packs) - deemed manufacture - HELD THAT:- The appellant manufactures ‘gas’ of different kinds and discharges applicable duty liability on the same. It also appears that these ‘gas’ are stored in appropriate containers in the factory of manufacture and that the products are sold to customers by measure which, while being taken delivery of, are filled in containers supplied by the customers. It is that activity which has been deemed to be manufacture in terms of the impugned chapter note and, on facts, contested by the appellant - The definition of manufacture, and consequent excisability was broadened, in relation to specific chapters of Schedule to Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 and in conformity with the deeming portion to include certain activities rendered in the product that, without changing the characteristics of the product, altered it to such extent as to enable levy of tax yet again. It should be noted that, in the scheme of credit coupled with the scheme of non-taxability of the product emanating at the previous stage subject to liability of the final product, there is essential neutrality insofar as all these activities are undertaken in the same factory. It would appear that the intent of ‘deemed manufacture’ sought to levy duty on the specified activity being undertaken independently and autonomously.
The bottling of the product in containers provided by the customers is akin to providing transport for removal of goods; that ‘gas’ could not be carried on the normal modes of transport without being contained in appropriate container renders the refilling to be beyond the activities undertaken by the appellant even if the means by which ‘gas’ are filled in the containers so provided belong to the appellant. In a broader sense, it would appear that this activity occurs after production of excisable goods.
The conclusions render the demand confirmed by the original authority, and upheld by the first appellate authority, to be without authority of law and, therefore, to set aside - Appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the order of Commissioner of Central Excise confirming recovery and imposing penalty should be set aside as an impermissible overlapping and redundant proceeding; (ii) Whether the impugned order of the first appellate authority rejecting refund claims under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 should be set aside and the refund applications restored to the original authority for fresh consideration in accordance with law and procedure.
Issue (i): Whether the order of Commissioner of Central Excise confirming recovery and imposing penalty should be set aside as an impermissible overlapping and redundant proceeding.
Analysis: The order under challenge mirrored findings of the first appellate authority and did not contain original findings. The penalty imposed under Rule 15 was without authority insofar as it attended to recovery under Rule 14. The existence of two separately enforceable recoveries arising from identical circumstances created risk of duplicative enforcement and undermined hierarchical appellate comity. Applying the principle that a subordinate adjudication should not re-duplicate an appellate determination where there is no independent application of mind, the impugned Commissioner order was examined for prejudice to the revenue and for presence of reasoned adjudication.
Conclusion: In favour of the Assessee. The order of the Commissioner of Central Excise confirming recovery and imposing penalty is set aside.
Issue (ii): Whether the impugned order of the first appellate authority rejecting refund claims under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 should be set aside and the refund applications restored to the original authority for fresh consideration in accordance with law and procedure.
Analysis: The earlier Tribunal remand restored claims to the original authority for fresh adjudication under Rule 5. The first appellate order rejecting the refund failed to record reasons and did not provide the appellant with a proper opportunity to meet essential factual grounds—specifically, evidence as to non-utilisability of accumulated credit and the basis for rejection. The procedural requirements for issuance of a show cause or reasoned rejection under Rule 5 and the related notification were not satisfied. Consequently, the appellate order did not conform to the remand direction and required setting aside to enable a fresh, reasoned decision by the original authority.
Conclusion: In favour of the Assessee. The impugned first appellate order is set aside and the refund applications are restored to the original authority for fresh processing in accordance with law and procedure.
Final Conclusion: The redundant and non-reasoned adjudication by the Commissioner of Central Excise is extinguished and the appellate order rejecting the refund is set aside to permit fresh, procedurally compliant determination by the original authority; this disposition preserves appellate hierarchy and ensures the claims are re-adjudicated on recorded reasons and with opportunity to the assessee to meet factual deficits.
Ratio Decidendi: Where an appellate determination or remand requires fresh adjudication under the prescribed rule, subordinate or subsequent adjudication that merely duplicates appellate findings without independent, reasoned application of mind and that creates duplicative enforceable recoveries must be set aside; refunds under Rule 5 require reasoned communication of grounds and opportunity to the claimant before rejection.
Levy of penalty u/r 15 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 1994 - Recovery of refund accumulated CENVAT Credit, granted erroeously - overlapping jurisdiction - principle of comity of courts - HELD THAT:- The principle of ‘first strike’ in overlap of jurisdictions excludes further life support for the order of Commissioner of Central Excise in the outlined circumstances. There is nothing original in the findings therein. It militates against the principle of uninfluenced outcome in adjudicatory proceedings as well as inappropriateness of ‘poaching’ upon facts that were before any other authority at the same time. Most importantly, it is the lack of prejudice to the interests of the public exchequer in setting aside the order of Commissioner of Central Excise -– an undertaking bereft of application of mind – that weighs uppermost with us. Having done so, we proceed, uncluttered and unhandicapped, to consider the order of first appellate authority on the correctness of having upheld the ineligibility of the appellant for refund under rule 5 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004.
The Tribunal had not given any indication that the claims had been properly sanctioned by the original authority in the earlier round. The Tribunal had not given any indication that the claims deserved to be rejected either. Both were outcomes available to the authority under rule 5 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 to venture upon and in accordance with law and procedure governing such refunds. Having considered rejection on the ground supra, it was incumbent on that official to communicate the reasons for such intendment to the applicant.
Insofar as the ground of rejection itself is concerned, it is noted that a mechanism for ascertainment of potential use of such accumulated credit, if not monetized, has not been designed. This would be tantamount to vesting the device of tool for determining eligibility in the hands of officials and on case-to-case basis. The lower authorities have rendered a finding that the evidence of lack of wherewithal to utilise was not furnished. That is the detail which should have found a place in the show cause notice for effective opportunity of furnishing, or disclaiming availability, and, thus, paving the way for reasoned conclusion of proceedings. There was nothing on record for the appellant herein to respond upon and to be heard about.
The impugned order of first appellate authority set aside - the applications before the original authority restored for fresh processing in accordance with law and procedure as prescribed - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the notice initiating suo motu revision under Section 64(1) of the Karnataka Value Added Tax Act, 2003, issued nearly ten years after the appellate order and after substantial unexplained delay, was sustainable in law.
Analysis: The dispute concerned an old tax period, and the authority itself had called for records long before the notice was issued. The delay between calling for records, receipt of the file, and issuance of notice was not explained. Even if the proceedings were said to fall within the outer period contemplated under Section 64(3)(c), the Court held that the unexplained lapse of time made the exercise of suo motu power unreasonable and arbitrary in the circumstances of the case.
Conclusion: The notice and the resulting revision could not be sustained. The issue was answered in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned suo motu revision order was set aside and the appeal succeeded.
Ratio Decidendi: An otherwise permissible suo motu revision may still be invalid where the authority acts after substantial unexplained delay, because such delay can render the exercise of revisional power arbitrary and unreasonable.
Issuance of SCN u/s 64(1) of the Karnataka Value Added Tax Act 2003 nearly ten years after the Appellate order - revision of Order passed by the First Adjudicating Authority is beyond the limitation period as prescribed under Section 64 of the KVAT Act, 2003 or not - tax period between April 2011 and March 2012 - HELD THAT:- The assessment for this period is concluded with the reassessment order dated 05.02.2015, and the order-in-appeal in favour of the appellant is on 16.05.2015. The appellant is issued with the notice under Section 64[1] of the KVAT Act on 03.01.2025. The suo motu revision is because of the rate of tax for the relevant period, the alleged erroneous allowance of input tax credit and the prejudice to the Revenue. The appellant has responded to this notice underscoring the question of limitation as also the delay.
The dispute relates to the tax period between April 2011 and March 2012. The assessment for this period is concluded with the reassessment order dated 05.02.2015, and the order-in-appeal in favour of the appellant is on 16.05.2015. The appellant is issued with the notice under Section 64[1] of the KVAT Act on 03.01.2025. The suo motu revision is because of the rate of tax for the relevant period, the alleged erroneous allowance of input tax credit and the prejudice to the Revenue. The appellant has responded to this notice underscoring the question of limitation as also the delay - Revenue is unable to bring on record any circumstance that would justify the first delay i.e., the delay between the date the letter is issued calling for records and the date on which the file is received [02.01.2018 and 09.07.2021 respectively] nor the second delay between 09.07.2021 and 03.01.2025 [the date of notice under Section 64[1] of the KVAT Act]. This failure to offer an explanation, in this Court's opinion, would be material to assess whether there is a reasonable exercise of the suo motu power.
This Court must opine that when the delay is considered in the light of the fact that the dispute relates to the tax period between April 2011 and March 2012, the delay assumes greater significance rendering the continuance of the proceedings with issuance of notice on 03.01.2025 unreasonable, and therefore, the interference is justified. Though the ACCT is perhaps justified in opining that the proceedings are initiated within the time contemplated under Section 64[3][c] of the KVAT Act, it is not justified in overlooking the delay in this case as it renders the entire exercise arbitrary.
The impugned order set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the writ petition was maintainable in view of the availability of an effective statutory appeal, and whether the petitioner should be relegated to the appellate remedy.
Analysis: The petitioner challenged a revised tax order in writ jurisdiction, but the record showed that the authorities had considered the representations and had granted substantial relief by reducing the tax liability. The dispute did not disclose any circumstance justifying bypass of the statutory appellate mechanism. In tax matters, where an appeal lies under the statute, the writ court ordinarily declines interference and leaves the parties to pursue the alternative remedy.
Conclusion: The writ petition was not entertained and the petitioner was relegated to the statutory appeal remedy.
Challenge to order of the Revisional Authority on the ground that the petitioner’s rectification application and repeated representation are all pending consideration - contention of the petitioner is that as regards the issue of high sea sales, the Revisional Authority has not dealt with the same and have thus violated the earlier order of this Court in the earlier writ petition - HELD THAT:- The impugned order specifically reflects of the authority having taken up that issue but after refusing to interfere with the same on the ground that the said aspect already stood concluded earlier and, therefore, was beyond the purview of the revisional authority. Moreover, what is also apparently evident from the bare perusal of the proceedings is that pursuant to the earlier order this High court in M/S. PENNAR INDUSTRIES LIMITED [2025 (6) TMI 2091 - TELANGANA HIGH COURT], the respondent authorities did take up the matter of the petitioner and have duly scrutinized the same and the petitioners have in fact been provided with substantial relief of reducing the tax liability that was earlier assessed of Rs. 5,39,38,137/- and have reduced it to Rs. 2,98,94,898/-.
Thus, it cannot be said that the respondent authorities have decided the matter with a closed mind or with a pre-determined approach. In view of the same, the matter is not one which needs to be taken up invoking the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, rather since there is already a statutory remedy of appeal available, it would be open for the petitioner to, if he so wants, assail the impugned order by way of statutory appeal.
The High Court is not inclined to entertain the writ petition at this juncture, reserving the right of the petitioner to prefer an appeal, if he so wants - petition dismissed.
Issues: (i) Whether quashing of Complaint Case No. 3298 of 2019 on the ground that it related to the same underlying liability as an earlier complaint, and therefore amounted to parallel prosecution, was justified under the inherent jurisdiction; (ii) Whether the refusal to quash the remaining complaints arising from later dishonoured cheques was justified.
Issue (i): Whether quashing of Complaint Case No. 3298 of 2019 on the ground that it related to the same underlying liability as an earlier complaint, and therefore amounted to parallel prosecution, was justified under the inherent jurisdiction.
Analysis: The power under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is to be used sparingly and cannot be employed to resolve disputed questions of fact or to conduct a mini trial. In proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, each dishonour that satisfies the statutory sequence of presentation, dishonour, notice, and failure to pay gives rise to a distinct cause of action. The cheques in the two complaints were separate instruments drawn on different accounts, presented on different dates, and dishonoured independently. Whether they were alternative or substitutionary securities was a matter for evidence and not for summary adjudication.
Conclusion: The quashing of Complaint Case No. 3298 of 2019 was not justified and the complaint had to be restored for trial.
Issue (ii): Whether the refusal to quash the remaining complaints arising from later dishonoured cheques was justified.
Analysis: The later complaints were based on distinct cheques issued and dishonoured on separate dates, each followed by statutory notice. The ingredients of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 were prima facie satisfied. The statutory presumption under Section 139 operated in favour of the complainant, and the respondents' defence that no liability subsisted raised questions requiring trial. Such defences could not justify quashing at the threshold.
Conclusion: The refusal to quash the remaining complaints was justified.
Final Conclusion: The complaint quashed by the High Court was restored, while the challenge to the other complaints failed, leaving the matters to be decided on evidence before the trial court.
Ratio Decidendi: In prosecutions under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, separate dishonoured cheques can generate separate causes of action, and disputed questions concerning the nature of the cheques or the existence of liability cannot be decided in quashing proceedings under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Dishonour of Cheque - insufficient funds - correctness in quashing the case and the summoning order - complaint related to the same underlying liability for which another complaint had already been instituted - conduct of mini trial which is clearly prohibited under the scheme of Section 482 of the Cr.PC or not - HELD THAT:- This Court in catena of judgments has emphasised that the High Court must avoid usurping the function of a Trial Court or conducting a mini trial when disputed factual questions attend the maintainability of a complaint.
In a much recent decision of this Court in Neeharika Infrastructure Private Limited vs. State of Maharashtra and Others [2021 (4) TMI 1244 - SUPREME COURT], a three-Judge Bench had held that the power to quash criminal proceedings must be exercised sparingly, and only where the complaint, even if accepted in full, discloses no offence or continuation would amount to abuse of process of law.
Thus, even though the powers under Section 482 of the Cr.PC are very wide, its conferment requires the High Court to be more cautious and diligent. While examining any complaint or FIR, the High Court exercising its power under this provision cannot go embarking upon the genuineness of the allegations made. The Court must only consider whether there exists any sufficient material to proceed against the accused or not.
Complainant case - HELD THAT:- Whether those cheques were issued as alternative or supplementary instruments, or represented fresh undertakings, is a disputed question of fact requiring evidence at the time of trial and cannot be resolved at the threshold. Questions such as whether the firm’s cheques were issued in substitution of the personal cheques, whether the parties treated them as alternative securities, and whether both were intended to be simultaneously enforceable, are all mixed questions of fact. The inherent jurisdiction of the High Court under Section 482 of the Cr.PC cannot be used to decide such disputed issues - the High Court exceeded its jurisdiction and was not justified in quashing Complaint Case No. 3298 of 2019 and the summoning order dated 06.03.2019. The complaint on its face discloses the ingredients of offence under Section 138 of the NI Act and must proceed to trial.
Case preferred by Respondent No. 2 - HELD THAT:- On a careful reading of the ingredients required for commission of offence under Section 138 of the NI Act, it is found that the record before us clearly indicates that the cheques, as provided above, were dishonoured, statutory notices were served, cheques were returned, and the summons were thereafter issued. On such material, the complaint prima facie stands. Any disputed question of fact qua the offence under Section 138 of the NI Act or any defence that Respondent No. 2 wants to raise against the offence alleged must be done during the trial - the burden of proving whether there exists any debt or liability is something which must be discharged in trial. A bare perusal of Section 139 of the NI Act would indicate that once a cheque is issued in discharge of liability and dishonoured, a presumption of liability in favour of the complainant arises. The accused person is then required to rebut the presumption by raising facts that either there was no debt or liability when the cheque was drawn, or the cheque was not drawn in discharge of liability, or notice was not served in time.
The statutory presumption attached to the issuance of a cheque, being one made in discharge of a legally enforceable debt or liability, is required to be accorded due weight. Therefore, in circumstances where the accused approaches the Court seeking quashing of proceedings even before the commencement of trial, the Court must exercise circumspection and refrain from prematurely stifling the prosecution at the threshold, particularly by overlooking the legal presumption that operates in favour of the complainant.
The High Court was justified in not quashing Complaint Case No. 2823 of 2019, Complaint Case No.13508 of 2019 and Complaint Case No. 743 of 2020 registered against Respondent No. 2 herein. The foregoing complaints prima facie discloses the ingredients of offence under Section 138 of the NI Act and must proceed to trial.
The judgment of the High Court quashing Complaint Case and the summoning order is set aside. The complaint case shall stand restored for trial before the concerned Trial Court - appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the writ petitioners established a valid title capable of supporting protection against dispossession on the basis of a validated but unregistered agreement of sale and subsequent conveyances; (ii) Whether actual and physical possession of the subject land was proved so as to justify relief under Article 226 of the Constitution of India; (iii) Whether, in the backdrop of prior statutory vesting and earlier proceedings under land ceiling laws, the impugned writ relief could be sustained.
Issue (i): Whether the writ petitioners established a valid title capable of supporting protection against dispossession on the basis of a validated but unregistered agreement of sale and subsequent conveyances.
Analysis: A valid transfer of immovable property requires a registered deed of conveyance. An agreement of sale, even if later validated, does not by itself convey title. The materials also disclosed inconsistencies between the two versions of the agreement relied upon, including differences in the extent of land and the recital regarding consideration, which undermined the reliability of the claimed transaction. The title asserted by the writ petitioners was therefore viewed with serious suspicion.
Conclusion: The writ petitioners did not establish a valid title; the claim to title was found to be suspect.
Issue (ii): Whether actual and physical possession of the subject land was proved so as to justify relief under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
Analysis: Mere reference to interim orders in earlier proceedings was not enough to prove possession. In a claim resisting dispossession, the person seeking writ protection must show actual and physical possession. On the materials before the Court, possession of the disputed extent was not satisfactorily established by the writ petitioners, and the reliance on interim orders did not amount to proof of possession.
Conclusion: Actual and physical possession was not proved, and the writ petitioners were not entitled to protection on that basis.
Issue (iii): Whether, in the backdrop of prior statutory vesting and earlier proceedings under land ceiling laws, the impugned writ relief could be sustained.
Analysis: The land had a long and disputed history under the land reforms and urban land ceiling regimes, and a substantial extent had already attained finality through statutory vesting and earlier judicial proceedings. The Court treated the title and possession claims as at least prima facie doubtful, which made the grant of extraordinary writ relief inappropriate. Since the petitioners had not shown a clear legal right to retain possession against the State's asserted statutory powers, the injunction against dispossession could not stand.
Conclusion: The writ relief granted by the Division Bench was unsustainable and the order of the Single Judge was restored in favour of the appellants.
Final Conclusion: The appeals succeeded, and the writ petitioners were denied protection against dispossession on the materials placed before the Court, leaving them to work out their remedies in appropriate proceedings.
Ratio Decidendi: An unregistered agreement of sale does not convey title, and a claim for writ protection against dispossession requires proof of actual and physical possession, especially where the land is subject to prior statutory vesting and the asserted title is prima facie doubtful.
Seeking an order against dispossession and demolition - failure to establish actual and physical possession of the land - restraining the Telangana State Industrial Infrastructure Corporation Limited (TSIICL), the first respondent, from attempting to enter into the land of the writ petitioners - HELD THAT:- The agreement of sale executed by the GPA holder of the original declarants, in favour of M/s. Bhavana Society is produced as Annexure P33. The agreement is dated 19.03.1982 and the extent of the property agreed to be sold is 125-35 acres. Clause (2) of the agreement clearly indicates only a payment of Rs.50,000/- by cheque towards part of sale consideration, the balance sale consideration to be paid within six months from the date of obtaining permission under the provisions of the Land Ceiling Act. The original declarants represented through the GPA, termed as the vendors in the agreement, also spoke of the delivery of vacant possession of the land to the intending purchaser - The petition filed under Order IX Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 was rejected on 23.02.2004 as seen from Annexure P-36. After this, the revalidation was done on the agreement of sale, as is produced at Annexure P-37, a copy of which also has been produced by respondents Nos.1 to 7 as Annexure 2 in IA No. 83765 of 2025; but without registration, which in any event is not possible at this distance of time.
An instrument of conveyance is compulsorily registrable as required under the Registration Act. Section 23 prescribes four-months’ time for presenting a document for registration from the date of its execution. Section 24 provides that if there are several persons executing a document at different times, such document may be presented for registration or re-registration within four months from the date of such execution. In the instant case, all the executants, parties to the agreement, have signed on the day shown in the agreement. The proviso to Section 34 also enables the Registrar to condone the delay, if the document is presented within a further period of four months, on payment of a fine. The validation of the sale agreement, which clearly is shown to be not one executed by the declarants, by reason of it materially differing from that produced as Annexure P-33, on the strength of which a suit for specific performance was filed by the vendor, the Bhavana Society, which is also the intended purchaser in the sale agreement of 1982, it smacks of fraud. The agreement of 1982, the original one and the revalidated one, cannot result in a valid title, merely for reason that the subsequent instrument had been registered - the learned Single Judge did not decide the title but only raised valid suspicion insofar as the title of the vendor in the deed of conveyance. Even according to the writ petitioners, their claim stems from a sale agreement, which is not a proper deed of conveyance, especially since it is not a registered document.
When dispossession by the State is alleged on the strength of possession, mere reliance on interim orders passed in writ petitions earlier filed cannot establish such actual and physical possession - The power of absolute right over lands is on the State and the person in occupation, is only there, by virtue of the grants, which can be brought to an end by the State which has the power of eminent domain. Here there is a statutory vesting of property and prima facie, guile employed in making conflicting claims before the authorities under the Land Reforms Act and the Land Ceiling Act as also entering into multiple transactions to defeat the statutory vesting with successive litigations, all in vain, which travelled up to this Court twice earlier.
The cloud on title and the doubts raised on possession by the learned Single Judge, as affirmed by us are merely prima facie observations to deny discretion to invoke the extra ordinary power under Article 226. So are the misgivings expressed on the claim of repossession by the original declarants through their GPA and the skepticism regarding their very right to obtain repossession of property already vested in the State, under a Statute, which Statute also does not provide for any review of the notification issued under the Act; the notification having merely affirmed the statutory vesting - It goes without saying; then, the parties would be entitled to agitate their respective causes, in the appropriate civil forum or if statutorily prohibited, avail of the remedies made available under the statute which proceedings will not be governed by the findings in our judgment, we having only prima facie declined invocation of the discretionary, extraordinary jurisdiction.
The judgment of the learned Single Judge is restored, and the appeals stand disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether the petitioner could be treated as a promoter of the borrower-company for the purpose of wilful defaulter classification; (ii) Whether the petitioner, as a non-whole time director, could be brought within Clause 3(d) of the RBI Master Circular on Wilful Defaulters and whether the Review Committee's declaration could stand without consideration of the jurisdictional objection and supporting material.
Issue (i): Whether the petitioner could be treated as a promoter of the borrower-company for the purpose of wilful defaulter classification.
Analysis: The materials relied upon did not establish that the petitioner was an original subscriber or promoter of the company. The references in the reply and in the subsequent communication were read in context and were not treated as admissions of promoter status. The record instead showed the petitioner as a non-executive director, and the bank failed to produce any independent document showing that he was a promoter.
Conclusion: The petitioner was not proved to be a promoter and had to be assessed as a non-executive director.
Issue (ii): Whether the petitioner, as a non-whole time director, could be brought within Clause 3(d) of the RBI Master Circular on Wilful Defaulters and whether the Review Committee's declaration could stand without consideration of the jurisdictional objection and supporting material.
Analysis: Clause 3(d) required a rare case showing awareness of wilful default from board minutes, non-recording of objection, or consent or connivance. No board or committee minutes, no material of awareness, and no proof of consent or connivance were shown. The Review Committee also failed to deal with the petitioner's jurisdictional objection and gave no meaningful reasons or incriminating material to sustain the declaration. The petitioner was not shown to be on the audit committee, and the parity issue reinforced the absence of any differentiated basis for the adverse finding.
Conclusion: The declaration of the petitioner as a wilful defaulter could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The impugned wilful defaulter declaration was set aside and the petitioner's name was directed to be removed from the CIC list, with consequential steps for reversal of the adverse action.
Ratio Decidendi: A non-whole time director cannot be branded a wilful defaulter unless the exceptional conditions in Clause 3(d) of the RBI Master Circular are affirmatively established on the record by reasoned consideration and supporting material.
Petitioner declared as Wilful Defaulters under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Master Circular on Wilful Defaulters dated July 1, 2015 - petitioner claims to fall outside the ambit of the Master Circular - Whether the petitioner could be classified as a Promoter of the Company? - HELD THAT:- This Court do not find any admission on the part of the petitioner that he was a Promoter of the defaulter Company. In paragraph no. 35 of the self-same reply, it was stated on behalf of the petitioner that the Interim Resolution Professional accordingly took charge of the company on and from 5th March 2020 and Mr. G. P. Goenka and Srivardhan Goenka, who are members of the Board of said Company, stood suspended and ceased to have any control over the affairs of the Company from that date onwards and the bank accounts of the said Company were under the control of and operated by the said Interim Resolution Professional. As such, they had no means to settle the dues of the SBI. Isolated excerpts cannot be culled out from the rest of the reply out of context. The reply nowhere admits the petitioner to be a Promoter or Director of the borrower-Company. In any event, we find from the Prospectus of the Company that the petitioner's name does not feature in the list of the original subscribers/Promoters of the Company.
The letter issued on behalf of the petitioner to the bank dated May 23, 2022 does not contain any admission as such that the petitioner was a Promoter, particularly in the absence of any document being produced by the bank to substantiate such allegation. In fact, there are no document on record to indicate that the petitioner was ever a Promoter of the borrower-Company, nor does the impugned decision of the RC refer to any such document to substantiate such allegation - the case of the petitioner is required to be considered on the premise that he was a Non-Executive Director of the Company.
The mere fact of the petitioner being a Non-Whole Time Director in the borrower-Company during the relevant period does not satisfy the parameters of Clause 3(d) insofar as such Directors are concerned. This Court finds abject failure on the part of the bank to substantiate any of the parameters laid down in the said provision of the Master Circular to indict the petitioner for wilful default or any complicity on the part of the petitioner in the wilful default allegedly committed by the borrower-Company - there are no reference in the impugned decision of the RC to the jurisdictional objection taken by the petitioner, nor any material to bring the petitioner, who was a Non-Whole Time Director, within the fold of the exception clause of Clause 3(d) of the Master Circular.
The impugned decision of the Review Committee dated April 18, 2023 set aside to the extent that the petitioner was held to be a Wilful Defaulter - since the decision of the Wilful Defaulter Identification Committee attains finality only upon the Review Committee affirming the same, the declaration of the petitioner as a Wilful Defaulter by the Identification Committee is also nipped in the bud and is hereby held to have no effect in law whatsoever.
The respondent-Bank is directed to take immediate steps to give effect to the present judgment by taking down the name of the petitioner from the CIC list of Wilful Defaulters and reversing any step, if taken in furtherance of the declaration of the petitioner as a Wilful Defaulter, at the earliest, positively within a month from date - petition allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
(i) Whether the petitioners/accused rebutted the statutory presumption attaching to the cheques so as to negate the existence of a legally enforceable debt in favour of the complainant, particularly where the defence case was that the cheques were given as blank security in a surety/guarantor arrangement.
(ii) Whether, on the evidence on record, the complainant proved that a legally enforceable debt existed between the complainant and the petitioners on the date of issuance/presentation of the cheques, so as to sustain conviction under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue (i): Rebuttal of presumption and probability of defence that cheques were security/surety cheques
Legal framework: The Court proceeded on the basis that while a presumption arises in favour of the complainant upon proof/admission of execution of the cheque, such presumption is rebuttable and can be displaced by a probable defence, after which the burden shifts back to the complainant to establish a legally enforceable debt.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted that the defence evidence through D.W.1 probabilised a different underlying transaction, namely that D.W.1 had borrowed a loan and that seven persons, including the petitioners, were required to stand as sureties, for which blank cheques and documents were taken as security. The Court treated the FIR allegations and the surrounding circumstances as supporting the defence version and undermining the complainant's theory of voluntary issuance of cheques by the petitioners towards their personal loans. The Court found it highly improbable that the petitioners would have voluntarily issued the cheques in July 2018 when the record indicated that disputes and threats had already arisen between the parties from July 2018 onwards. The Court also noted the absence of a specific date of issuance of cheques in the complainant's case, which added to the probability of misuse of security cheques.
Conclusions: The Court held that the petitioners successfully rebutted the statutory presumption by placing on record probable defence evidence, shifting the burden back to the complainant.
Issue (ii): Proof of legally enforceable debt between complainant and petitioners at the time of cheque presentation
Legal framework: The Court applied the requirement that, to attract Section 138, the dishonoured cheque must represent a legally enforceable debt subsisting at the relevant time, and once the presumption is rebutted, the complainant must prove such debt by acceptable evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that the complainant failed to adduce independent evidence to disprove the defence narrative that the petitioners were only sureties and that the cheques were security instruments. The Court relied on admissions elicited in cross-examination that supported the probability of a loan transaction involving D.W.1's family and security arrangements, including execution of a mortgage deed, and repayment assertions. The Court further noted that the complainant's income statements relied upon by the petitioners did not disclose possession of such huge cash amounts, while the complainant relied mainly on a self-maintained ledger and claimed to be a financier without proof of being registered "as required under law." These circumstances, along with pre-existing disputes reflected in the police complaint material and the complainant's failure to state a specific date of cheque issuance, created serious doubt about the complainant's assertion of personal loans to the petitioners and about any subsisting enforceable liability of the petitioners when the cheques were presented.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the complainant failed to establish that a legally enforceable debt existed between himself and the petitioners on the date of presentation of the cheques. Consequently, the concurrent findings of conviction were set aside, the petitioners were acquitted, and withdrawal of any deposited amounts was permitted.
Dishonour of Cheque - respondent/complainant failed to prove the existence of a legally enforceable debt at the time of drawing and presentation of the cheques - petitioners failed to discharge the burden cast upon him to probabilise his defence - HELD THAT:- The evidence of D.W.1 probabilises the loan transaction between Jeeva and the defacto complainant. The FIR allegations lodged by Jeeva disclose that seven persons were required to stand as guarantors for the loan availed by her. However, the defacto complainant failed to adduce any independent evidence to disprove or rebut the said defence. Further, the income tax statements relied upon by the petitioners do not reflect any transaction of alleged loan amounts with the petitioners for the assessment years 2016–2017. Admittedly, the complainant is an unregistered financier and had allegedly advanced money at an exorbitant rate of interest. These facts cast serious doubt on the existence of a legally enforceable debts.
The complaint lodged by D.W.1 before the police, along with other rebuttal evidence, clearly establishes that there was no legally enforceable debts subsisting on the date of issuance or presentation of the cheques. On the contrary, the defacto complainant failed to state the specific date on which the cheques were allegedly issued by the petitioners. Further, the evidence on record establishes that there was no cordial relationship between the petitioners and the defacto complainant at the time of the alleged presentation of the cheques, as D.W.1 had already lodged complaints against the defacto complainant alleging threats and misuse of blank cheques obtained from the guarantors.
In such circumstances, the averment in the complaints that the petitioners voluntarily approached the complainant and requested representation of the cheques for a second time in August 2018 appears to be highly improbable. The courts below failed to appreciate the rebuttal evidence adduced on the side of the petitioners and erroneously recorded a conviction.
The complainant failed to establish that a legally enforceable debt existed between himself and the petitioners on the date of presentation of the cheques. Therefore, the findings rendered by the courts below are liable to be set aside. The authorities relied upon by the respondent are not applicable to the facts of the present cases. All petitioner / accused are acquitted. Any amount deposited by them permitted to withdraw - the Criminal Revision cases are allowed.
TaxTMI