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March 26, 2026
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Additional employee cost deduction through Form 34 depends on audit, eligibility conditions, and prescribed payment modes.
Deduction for additional employee cost is claimed through Form 34, which audited assessees must file with the return of income and have verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form applies to business or professional assessees liable to audit and supports a deduction of 30% of additional employee cost for three consecutive tax years. Additional employees are subject to eligibility conditions, and emoluments exclude employer pension or provident fund contributions and terminal lump-sum payments.
March 26, 2026
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SEZ deduction claim documentation requires Form 33, reserve account details and plant acquisition particulars for verification.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for an assessee claiming deduction in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZ under section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. It is to be furnished along with the return of income and verified by the proprietor, partner or director. The form captures particulars of the assessee, the unit, the SEZ Reinvestment Allowance Reserve Account, withdrawals from the reserve, and details of plant or machinery purchased from withdrawn amounts, together with verification and e-verification requirements.
March 26, 2026
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SEZ reinvestment reserve reporting: Form 33 supports deduction claims for new plant and machinery purchases under section 144.
Form 33 is the prescribed statement for assessees claiming deduction under section 144 in respect of profits and gains derived by newly established units in SEZs. It is filed where amounts are withdrawn from the SEZ Reinvestment Reserve Account for purchase of new plant or machinery, and it must be verified by the proprietor, partner, or director. The form is to be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is based on the particulars reported in the form.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report form requirements govern deduction claims under specified income-tax provisions, with section-wise disclosures and chartered accountant verification.
Form 32 is the prescribed audit-report form for assessees claiming deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and it must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. The form is filed by the due date applicable to the audit report and requires basic particulars, section-specific disclosure fields, supporting documents such as agreements, SEZ notifications, start-up certification, turnover and profit details, and capital expenditure details where relevant. Filing is completed by entering the applicable deduction particulars and electronic verification through the Chartered Accountant's DSC.
March 26, 2026
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Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code misuse allegations surface over creditor voting control and resolution process conduct in a fraud FIR.
Fraud allegations arose from an FIR filed on the basis of an Enforcement Directorate complaint linked to a money laundering probe. The complaint stated that Experion entities were examined in relation to the insolvency proceedings of Dignity Buildcon Private Limited and were said to have misused the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. It further alleged acquisition of debt and debentures to increase voting rights in the Committee of Creditors and pressure on the authorised representative of Alchemist Asset Reconstruction Company to vote for a resolution plan.
March 26, 2026
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Audit report requirements govern deductions for specified business, start-ups, SEZ units, and North-Eastern eligible businesses.
Form 32 is the audit report required for deductions under the specified provisions of the Income-tax Act, 2025, and must be verified by a Chartered Accountant. It applies to claims for specified business capital expenditure, industrial and infrastructure undertakings, SEZ development, eligible start-ups, housing projects, North-Eastern business units, and newly established SEZ units, and must be filed by the audit-report due date. The document also states the conditions for specified business capital expenditure, start-up eligibility and duration, and the qualifying North-Eastern businesses.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration requires Form 31, with landlord details, rent evidence, and e-verification alongside the return.
Form 31 is the declaration to be furnished by an assessee claiming deduction under section 134 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 in respect of rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who pays rent for furnished or unfurnished accommodation, does not receive house rent allowance, and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form is to be filed along with the return of income and requires rent details, landlord particulars, supporting documents, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Rent deduction declaration under section 134 requires Form 31 for eligible resident individuals without house rent allowance.
Form 31 is the declaration required for claiming deduction under section 134 for rent paid for residential accommodation. It applies to a resident individual who does not receive house rent allowance and does not own residential property at the place of employment or residence. The form must be filed along with the return of income, and the deduction is available on the basis of details furnished in the form, subject to the annual ceiling of Rs. 60,000.
March 26, 2026
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Deduction for dependant with disability requires Form 30, supported by medical certification, filing details, and electronic verification.
Deduction for maintenance, medical treatment, training and rehabilitation of a dependant with disability is supported by Form 30, which must be filed by a resident individual claiming expenditure for a dependant with disability or payments under an approved scheme. The form is filed with the return of income, supported by the medical authority certificate, and requires completion of assessee details, patient and disability particulars, upload of the signed verification, and e-verification through DSC or Aadhaar.
March 26, 2026
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Disability-related tax deduction requires Form 30, medical certification, and timely filing with the return of income.
Deduction is available for maintenance, including medical treatment, training and rehabilitation, of a dependant who is a person with disability, and for payments made under a qualifying insurance or specified scheme. Form 30 is the prescribed statement for claiming the deduction and must be filed by a resident individual along with the return of income. The medical authority certificate must be uploaded online, and a fresh certificate is required when a temporary disability certificate expires.
March 26, 2026
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Carry forward and set-off of amalgamated losses depends on Form 29 production certification and verified compliance.
Form 29 is the prescribed certificate for an amalgamated company to evidence achievement and maintenance of the prescribed level of production in an undertaking received through amalgamation. It is filed with the return of income to support compliance with the conditions for carry forward and set-off of accumulated loss and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company. The form must be certified by the principal officer and verified by an accountant, and it requires confirmation that the prescribed production threshold has been achieved and maintained within the specified period.
March 26, 2026
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Freight disruption and export relief measures shape India's response to West Asia-linked logistics stress and production shortages.
West Asia-related disruption in shipping and logistics has led to steep increases in freight charges, container shortages, stranded cargo and shipment cancellations affecting exporters in eastern India. Perishable goods, engineering products, textiles and medicines are among the sectors most affected, while the LPG supply crunch has added to production difficulties and air cargo costs have risen because of route changes and cancellations. The text also refers to relief measures, including waiver-based port concessions, the RELIEF scheme for conflict-linked losses and reimbursement support for eligible MSME exporters.
March 26, 2026
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Production compliance certificate governs carry forward and set-off benefits for amalgamated companies under the income tax rules.
Form 29 is the mandatory certificate under Rule 60 for an amalgamated company claiming carry forward and set-off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation under Section 116(4)(b)(iii). It certifies achievement and maintenance of the prescribed production level in acquired industrial undertakings, requires electronic filing with the return of income, and may cover multiple amalgamating companies. The production condition is 50% of installed capacity within four years of amalgamation and maintenance up to five years, with possible governmental relaxation in suitable cases.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting requires accountant certification of net worth and capital gains through online Form 28 filing.
Accountant's report in Form No. 28 (Form No. 3CEA) is required for an assessee undertaking a slump sale to certify the computation of net worth and capital gains under the Income Tax Act, 2025. The form applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for a lump-sum consideration without assigning individual values to assets and liabilities. It must be furnished online on the income tax e-filing portal on or before the due date for filing the assessee's income tax return.
March 26, 2026
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Slump sale reporting under income tax law requires mandatory accountant certification, online filing, and timely submission through Form 28.
Form No. 28 is the accountant's report required under section 77(4) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for computation of capital gains in a slump sale. It applies where an undertaking or division is transferred as a going concern for lump-sum consideration without assigning separate values to assets and liabilities, and it is mandatory for certifying net worth and capital gains. The form must be filed once in a year on or before the due date for the income-tax return, only online, and cannot be edited after submission. A valid PAN is required.
March 26, 2026
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Capital gains attribution framework for specified entities filing Form 27 with valuation support and electronic certification.
Form 27 is filed by every specified entity to furnish details of the amount attributed to capital assets remaining with the entity where a specified person receives capital asset or stock-in-trade on dissolution or reconstitution. It supports computation under Rule 50 and must be certified on the basis of a registered valuer's report. The form is filed electronically with the return of income and includes particulars of the amount taxable, its attribution to remaining assets, and the valuer's details.
March 26, 2026
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Form No. 27 reporting requirement governs valuation-based attribution of income on dissolution or reconstitution of a specified entity.
Form No. 27 is a mandatory income-tax reporting form prescribed under Rule 50 for a specified entity where income becomes taxable under section 67(10) on dissolution or reconstitution and a specified person receives capital asset, stock-in-trade, or both. It operationalises the attribution of such taxable income to the capital assets remaining with the specified entity and must be furnished for each tax year in which the relevant event occurs. The form requires electronic filing with the return of income and valuation-based attribution supported by a registered valuer's report.
March 26, 2026
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Tax audit Form No. 26 standardises disclosures, audit reporting, and filing requirements under the new income tax framework.
Prescribed Form No. 26 is the audit report and statement of particulars under section 63 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 read with rule 47 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Parts A and B contain the substantive disclosures for tax audit compliance, including books of account, method of accounting, income, expenses, losses, depreciation, deductions, international taxation, TDS/TCS, indirect taxation and quantitative details. Part C applies where accounts are audited under another law, while Part D applies where they are not. The form is required for specified business and professional thresholds and certain presumptive taxation cases, and is furnished through a structured online filing process.
March 26, 2026
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Mandatory audit reporting under Form No. 26 introduces clause-wise disclosures, UDIN compliance, and schedule-based tax audit filing.
Form No. 26 is the mandatory audit report and statement of particulars for persons carrying on business or profession whose accounts are required to be audited under section 63. It applies from tax years commencing on or after 1 April 2026, is due one month before the return filing deadline, and must be signed by an Accountant with UDIN, and FRN where applicable. The form uses Part B clause-wise Yes/No reporting with trigger-based schedules, and Parts C and D for audit reporting depending on whether accounts are audited under another law.
March 26, 2026
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Daily case register requirements for medical professionals under tax rules, including maintenance, exceptions, and non-filing status.
Form No. 25 prescribes a daily case register for medical professionals under Rule 46 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026. It records the patient's name, nature of service, fees charged, and date of receipt of fees. The form is mandatory for persons engaged in the medical profession, subject to the stated gross-receipts exceptions, and is maintained in addition to books of account. It is not furnished to the Department and has no due date.

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Corp. Laws / SEBI / IBC

Close proceedings against Sandesara brothers or we will pass orders: SC to SEBI

April 2, 2026

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New Delhi, Apr 2 (PTI) The Supreme Court told market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on Thursday to close proceedings against Sterling Biotech Limited (SBL) and its promoters, Chetan and Nitin Sandesara, or else it will be compelled to take a serious view of the matter.

A bench of Justices J K Maheshwari and A S Chandurkar told the SEBI's counsel that its order of November last year was very clear that all proceedings against the Sandesara brothers will be quashed if they deposit Rs 5,100 crore in the apex court registry.

"We have said all proceedings, including that of SEBI, need to be quashed upon deposit of the money. If you are doing it, then it is alright, or we will be compelled to pass a detailed order on the issue," the bench told the counsel.

The SEBI's counsel said Solicitor General Tushar Mehta is deliberating with the market regulator and sought a week's time to apprise the court of the developments.

Senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi, appearing in the court for the Sandesara brothers, said the SEBI has till now refused to close the proceedings and that it has to take a call on the issue of quashing the proceedings in compliance with the apex court's order.

The bench posted the matter for further hearing on April 10 and noted that Mehta, who is in deliberation with the SEBI on the issue, will apprise the court of the developments on the next day of hearing.

The SEBI is probing allegations that the promoters of SBL had secured loans from foreign banks and routed funds into the company as purported investments that could mislead investors and distort the true financial position of the company.

On November 19 last year, the top court accepted a settlement proposal under which the Sandesara brothers agreed to deposit Rs 5,100 crore as a full-and-final settlement of claims arising from these proceedings.

The amount was deposited in the court registry in December 2025, following which the court gave effect to its earlier order for quashing of proceedings.

Last month, a consortium of secured lenders, including banks of the SBL of promoters Chetan and Nitin Sandesara, moved the top court for the disbursal of their claim amounts from the Rs 5,100 crore deposited in the apex court registry, while highlighting that their total outstanding against the business group's companies was Rs 19,283.77 crore.

The banks, which are 20 in number of the 26 secured creditors of the SBL, placed on record a consolidated computation of claims across multiple group entities and setting out the methodology adopted for the distribution of the amount.

The application of the consortium, however, stated that a few lenders are yet to formally confirm their acceptance, although their dues have been computed on the same basis.

On March 25, the bench noted that the total lender banks are 26 in number and out of the said list of banks, serial numbers one to 20 have submitted their claims and all relevant documents proportionate to their respective shares that have been specified in the chart.

It noted that six banks have not submitted the formal affidavit and required documents, including Krung Thai Bank Public Company Limited (Singapore), Hua Nan Commercial Bank (Singapore), Taiwan Co-operative Bank, The Shanghai Commercial and Savings Bank Limited, HDFC Bank and Aviral Maritime Infra.

"Thus, retaining the share with respect to their claims, the amount of the banks at Serial Nos. 1 to 20 be released immediately in terms of column 5 of Annexure A-4," the bench had said, adding that the interest accrued on the deposit lying with the bank with respect to the sum of the lender banks at serial numbers one to 20 be also proportionately distributed to them in accordance with the share of their claims.

It had further said that the amount with respect to the banks at serial numbers 21 to 26, which is retained, shall be kept in fixed deposit on an auto-renewal basis separately and distributed on the submission of their claims.

"The interest accrued on the sum of the remaining six banks be also kept in fixed deposit, in addition to the amount of their proportionate share," it had said.

On the SEBI's proceedings against the Sandesara brothers, the top court on March 23 said the solicitor general may seek instructions on the issue and also on the closing of every other issue.

The banks had earlier told the court that the lenders had decided to aggregate all domestic and foreign currency exposures, convert foreign loans into rupees at a fixed exchange rate of Rs 63 per US dollar -- reflecting the average rate in 2015, when most accounts turned non-performing -- and apply a uniform interest rate of 9 per cent per annum from the date of NPA, with annual rests.

The banks had further told the court that after applying this methodology, the total admitted dues across all accounts were computed at Rs 19,283.77 crore and the amount of Rs 5,100 crore deposited pursuant to the court's earlier order was proposed to be distributed proportionately based on each lender's share in the total dues.

The legal dispute arose from a batch of petitions filed by the Sandesara brothers seeking the quashing of multiple proceedings, including FIRs registered by the CBI, ED, and cases registered under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, Companies Act and Black Money Act. PTI MNL RC

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Acts Income Tax