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August 25, 2026
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Sugar import authorisation and anti-hoarding controls aim to moderate ex-mill prices amid adequate domestic stocks.
Raw sugar imports were permitted, while stock limits were imposed on bulk consumers. States were directed to strengthen inspections, and nationwide flying squads were deployed to identify hoarding and speculative conduct. These measures target sugar availability and distribution across wholesale and retail channels. Ex-mill prices declined following the measures, although wholesale and retail prices had not yet reflected the reduction.
August 25, 2026
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Foreign-currency swap window closure focuses non-resident deposit mobilisation, while ECB hedging support continues for public-sector borrowers.
RBI's concessional Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank deposit swap window closes on August 31, replacing the previous September 30 cut-off. Separately, the special US dollar-rupee foreign-exchange swap window remains available until December 31, 2026, providing concessional currency-hedging support to public sector undertakings raising external commercial borrowings. SBI expects to mobilise predominantly through deposits from non-resident Indians and foreign investors, with external commercial borrowings also visible.
August 25, 2026
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Industrial power tariff revision applies only within the shared distribution area, while steel producers seek rollback and fuel supply support.
Industrial electricity tariff revision is proposed from 1 September for 33 KV and 11 KV consumers within the Damodar Valley Corporation command area. The increase is confined to the shared distribution-licence area, while a separate and higher tariff structure applies outside it. Steel and sponge-iron industry associations oppose the revision on the basis that it will raise energy costs and affect investment conditions. They seek withdrawal of the increase and request continuing supplies of high-grade coal and iron ore for sponge-iron production.
August 25, 2026
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Institutional capital facilitation prioritises repatriation, market access, regulatory predictability, and cross-border partnerships supporting technology-led long-term investment.
India-Japan investment engagement focuses on increasing long-term Japanese institutional capital flows through an enabling business environment, intellectual property protection, policy reforms and integration with global value chains. Facilitation measures include simpler profit repatriation processes, improved access to Indian capital markets, greater regulatory predictability and a seamless cross-border investment environment. GIFT City is explored as a gateway for international capital and Japan-India investment flows.
August 25, 2026
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Strategic investment partnership prioritises semiconductor manufacturing, resilient supply chains and advanced industrial collaboration between Indian and Japanese businesses.
India-Japan economic cooperation is directed toward deeper trade, investment, technology and business-to-business linkages, including economic security, supply-chain resilience, clean energy and innovation. Collaboration is focused on capital goods, machinery, automotive and advanced manufacturing, with stronger connections between Japanese enterprises and India's Tier-II and Tier-III suppliers, including Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. Semiconductor manufacturing is identified as a significant investment area. The India-Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership supports expanded engagement with manufacturing ecosystems, global value chains and resilient supply chains.
August 25, 2026
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Bilateral trade and investment cooperation advances through customs alignment, digital payment integration, market access discussions and investment treaty completion.
India-Cambodia trade and investment cooperation addressed trade diversification, market access, customs alignment, digital payments and investment facilitation. Discussions covered traditional medicine, e-governance, recognition of the Indian pharmacopeia, trade statistics, agricultural cooperation, banking and insurance. The parties agreed on an MoU on Customs Cooperation to promote uniform customs procedures and considered early completion and signature of the Bilateral Investment Treaty. UPI-KHQR payment integration, investment promotion, priority-sector cooperation and a private-sector feedback mechanism were also discussed.
August 25, 2026
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Voluntary pharmaceutical export compliance framework promotes legitimate trade while safeguarding controlled substances through information sharing and coordinated capacity building.
The Memorandum of Understanding creates a cooperative framework for legitimate pharmaceutical exports and safeguards against diversion of narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances and controlled precursors. A voluntary, non-binding code of conduct will recommend industry practices without imposing obligations beyond applicable law. Cooperation includes identifying export bottlenecks, streamlining procedures for compliant exporters, capacity-building programmes, lawful and confidential information sharing, and nomination of company contact persons to coordinate voluntary compliance measures.
August 25, 2026
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USD-INR forex swap facility accelerates foreign-currency mobilisation through non-resident deposits and institutional borrowing, strengthening India's external buffers.
USD-INR forex swap facility for FCNR(B) deposits, overseas foreign-currency borrowings and external commercial borrowings enabled banks to access foreign-currency funding through a special swap window. FCNR(B) deposits formed the principal component of the reported foreign-exchange inflows, reflecting participation by non-resident Indians. The FCNR(B) window was scheduled for early closure after the stated mobilisation objective was achieved ahead of schedule, and the inflows were presented as strengthening external buffers through long-term non-resident deposits and institutional funding.
August 25, 2026
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Foreign-exchange intervention moderated rupee depreciation as crude prices, importer dollar demand and geopolitical uncertainty sustained currency-market pressure.
Foreign-exchange conditions reflected a marginal weakening of the rupee against the US dollar, influenced by elevated crude-oil prices, importer demand for dollars, weaker Asian equities and geopolitical uncertainty. The currency remained within a narrow trading band, with RBI dollar sales described as moderating sharper depreciation. The RBI's special USD-INR forex swap facility for FCNR(B) deposits, Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowings and External Commercial Borrowings mobilised substantial foreign-exchange inflows, indicating support from non-resident Indian participants.
August 24, 2026
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Prior government sanction for public servants is contested as essential before money-laundering proceedings may validly proceed for official-duty acts.
Prior prosecution sanction is asserted to be a jurisdictional precondition for money-laundering proceedings against a public servant for acts connected with official duty. A former police officer challenges cognizance and process for want of sanction under the criminal procedure framework and the Maharashtra Police Act, relying on sanctions subsequently granted for co-accused public servants. The allegations concern collection of funds through the officer and their alleged laundering through an educational trust.
August 24, 2026
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Rupee exchange-rate movement gained marginal support from foreign equity inflows despite crude oil, importer demand and geopolitical pressures.
Rupee exchange-rate movement against the US dollar reflected a marginal appreciation, supported by foreign fund inflows into domestic equities. Trading remained within a narrow range amid pressures from higher crude oil prices, continuing importer demand, and geopolitical concerns. Market conditions also included a stronger dollar index, lower Brent crude futures, domestic equity declines, and net foreign institutional investment. Elevated oil prices and geopolitical uncertainty indicated a slight negative bias, while possible US dollar weakness could support the rupee.
August 24, 2026
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Retaliatory trade measures may target electricity, critical minerals and integrated automotive supply chains amid escalating cross-border tariff disputes.
Canada-United States trade relations involve escalating tariffs and contemplated reciprocal restrictions affecting goods, automotive production, electricity exports and critical-mineral supplies. Potential Canadian countermeasures include limiting or increasing the price of Ontario electricity exports and restricting supplies of critical minerals, with oil and potash also identified as possible leverage. The automotive sector faces particular exposure because Ontario production and supply chains are integrated with United States manufacturing. Negotiations also raised concern over limits on Canada's ability to conclude trade agreements with other countries without United States approval.
August 24, 2026
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Mandatory biometric updates for students support continued Aadhaar authentication and access to education, scholarship and benefit-related services.
Mandatory Biometric Update camps have been launched in schools across Tamulpur district, Assam, for eligible students aged 5 to 17 years to update Aadhaar biometrics. Aadhaar biometrics require updating on attaining five years of age and again on attaining fifteen years. Timely updating supports continued Aadhaar authentication and helps avoid difficulties in accessing services where authentication is applicable, including school admissions, entrance-examination registration, scholarships and Direct Benefit Transfer schemes.
August 24, 2026
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Electricity tariff affordability requires immediate review, withdrawal of higher consumer charges, and relief measures for economically weaker households.
Electricity tariff increase in Jammu and Kashmir has been opposed as imposing an unjustified and unaffordable financial burden on domestic consumers amid rising household costs. Immediate review and withdrawal of the increase are sought, together with measures to reduce electricity costs for domestic consumers, particularly economically weaker sections, and ensure affordable, reliable power supply.
August 24, 2026
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Wheat export liberalisation replaces prohibitions to support farm prices while domestic stocks are expected to protect consumer supply.
Wheat and wheat-product exports are liberalised with immediate effect by revising their export policy from prohibited to free. The change covers wheat, wheat flour, maida, semolina and wholemeal atta, replacing the earlier export-ban framework and simplifying exports previously permitted through licences. The measure aims to support farmers amid depressed domestic prices, while adequate domestic availability and buffer stocks are expected to meet demand and moderate consumer prices.
August 24, 2026
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Food safety compliance failures trigger licence suspensions for deficient hygiene, storage, refrigeration, sanitation and valid licensing practices.
Food safety enforcement measures resulted in suspension of food licences or registrations where establishments failed hygiene, food handling, storage, refrigeration, sanitation and licensing requirements. Deficiencies included unsafe temperature control, unclean refrigeration equipment, improper food storage and thawing, inadequate sanitisation, deteriorated or expired materials, deficient oil-quality checks, artificial colouring, pest infestation, cross-contamination risks and inadequate drainage. One outlet was also found to be operating under the name of an establishment without a valid food licence, resulting in suspension of its registration certificate.
August 24, 2026
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Central Board Governance expands through appointments of part-time non-official directors for defined terms, alongside central bank and government representatives.
Appointments to the Reserve Bank of India's Central Board expand its part-time, non-official director membership. Syed Akbaruddin, Annie George Mathew and Janmejaya Kumar Sinha have been appointed for four years from 24 August 2026, or until further orders, whichever occurs earlier. The Central Board also includes the Governor, deputy governors, the economic affairs secretary and the financial services secretary.
August 24, 2026
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Electricity tariff adjustment is linked to inflation and transmission losses, while free household units remain separately implemented.
Electricity tariff increase of 6.83 per cent after four years is presented as necessary in light of inflation and rising costs. Reducing transmission and distribution losses is identified as a means of limiting future tariff increases. Provision of 200 units of free electricity for poor and needy households through solar panels under the Muft Bijli Yojana is treated as distinct from tariff revisions.
August 24, 2026
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Sugar supply management measures target speculative stockpiling through imports, stockholding limits and earlier crushing to moderate prices.
Sugar supply is characterised as adequate, and higher prices are attributed principally to speculative buying and advance stockpiling, alongside lower output, seasonal demand and global price pressures rather than an actual shortage. Duty-free raw sugar imports and stockholding limits are intended to augment availability, curb speculative accumulation and stabilise market sentiment. Imports, existing stocks, special crushing and an earlier crushing season are expected to moderate prices and improve festive-period supply. Ethanol diversion is not identified as a cause of the price movement.
August 24, 2026
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Wheat export policy shifts to free trade, lifting restrictions on wheat flour, maida, semolina and wholemeal atta exports.
Wheat export policy has been revised from prohibited to free with immediate effect, lifting the export ban on wheat and related wheat products. The liberalised export treatment extends to wheat flour, maida, semolina and wholemeal atta. The restriction had been imposed to address rising domestic prices, and its removal is expected to improve international wheat availability.

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Customs, DGFT & SEZ

SABKA VISHWAS (LEGACY DISPUTE RESOLUTION) SCHEME, 2019 - FAQs

August 30, 2019

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Q 1. Who is eligible to file declaration under the SABKA VISHWAS (LEGACY DISPUTE RESOLUTION) SCHEME, 2019?

Ans. Any person falling under the following categories is eligible, subject to other conditions under the Scheme, to file a declaration:

(a) Who has a show cause notice for duty or one or more appeals arising out of such notice pending and where the final hearing has not taken place as on 30.06.2019.

(b) Who has been issued show cause notice for penalty and late fee only and where the final hearing has not taken place as on 30.06.2019.

(c) Who has recoverable arrears pending.

(d) Who has cases under investigation and audit where the duty involved has been quantified and communicated to party or admitted by him in a statement on or before 30th June, 2019.

(e) Who want to make a voluntary disclosure.

Q 2. What are the acts covered under the Scheme?

Ans. This Scheme is applicable to the following enactments, namely:-

(a) The Central Excise Act, 1944 or the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 or Chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994 and the rules made thereunder;

(b) The following Acts, namely:-

(i) The Agricultural Produce Cess Act,1940;

(ii) The Coffee Act, 1942;

(iii) The Mica Mines Labour Welfare Fund Act, 1946;

(iv) The Rubber Act, 1947;

(v) The Salt Cess Act, 1953;

(vi) The Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955;

(vii) The Additional Duties of Excise (Goods of Special Importance) Act, 1957;

(viii) The Mineral Products (Additional Duties of Excise and Customs) Act, 1958;

(ix) The Sugar (Special Excise Duty) Act, 1959;

(x) The Textiles Committee Act, 1963;

(xi) The Produce Cess Act, 1966;

(xii) The Limestone and Dolomite Mines Labour Welfare Fund Act, 1972;

(xiii) The Coal Mines (Conservation and Development) Act, 1974;

(xiv) The Oil Industry (Development) Act, 1974;

(xv) The Tobacco Cess Act, 1975;

(xvi) The Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome Ore Mines Labour Welfare Cess Act, 1976;

(xvii) The Bidi Workers Welfare Cess Act, 1976;

(xviii) The Additional Duties of Excise (Textiles and Textile Articles) Act, 1978;

(xix) The Sugar Cess Act, 1982;

(xx) The Jute Manufacturers Cess Act, 1983;

(xxi) The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Cess Act, 1985;

(xxii) The Spices Cess Act, 1986;

(xxiii) The Finance Act, 2004;

(xxiv) The Finance Act, 2007;

(xxv) The Finance Act, 2015;

(xxvi) The Finance Act, 2016;

(c) Any other Act, as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify.

Q 3. If an enquiry or investigation or audit has started but the tax dues have not been quantified whether the person is eligible to opt for the scheme?

Ans. No. If an audit, enquiry or investigation has started, and the amount of duty payable has not been quantified on or before 30th June, 2019, the person shall not be eligible to opt for the scheme.

Q 4. If a SCN covers multiple issues, whether the person can file an application under the scheme for only few issues covered in the SCN?

Ans. No. A person has to file declaration for entire amount of tax dues as per the SCN.

Q 5. What is the scope of tax relief covered under section 124(1) (b) with respect to SCN for late fee and penalty only where the amount of duty in the said notice has been paid or is nil?

Ans. The tax relief shall be the entire amount of late fee or penalty.

Q 6. I have filed an appeal before the appellate forum (Commissioner (Appeals) /CESTAT) and such appeal has been heard finally on or before the 30th day of June, 2019. Am I eligible for the scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible in view of section 125(1) (a) of the said Scheme.

Q 7. What is the scope under the scheme when adjudication order determining the duty/tax liability is passed and received prior to 30.06.2019, but the appeal is filed on or after 01.07.2019?

Ans. No, such a person shall not be eligible to file a declaration under the Scheme.

Q 8. I have been convicted for an offence punishable under a provision of the indirect tax enactment. Am I eligible for the Scheme?

Ans. A person who has been convicted for any offence punishable under any provision of the indirect tax enactment for the matter for which he intends to file a Declaration shall not be eligible to avail the benefits under the Scheme.

Q 9. I have been issued a SCN, under indirect tax enactment and the final hearing has taken place on or before the 30th day of June, 2019. Am I eligible for the Scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible as per section 125(1) (c) of the Scheme.

Q 10. I have been issued a SCN under indirect tax enactment for an erroneous refund or refund. Am I eligible for the scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible as per section 125(1)(d) of the Scheme.

Q 11. I have been subjected to an enquiry or investigation or audit under indirect tax enactment and the amount of duty involved in the said enquiry or investigation or audit has not been quantified on or before the 30th day of June, 2019. Am I eligible for the Scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible as per section 125(1) (e) of the Scheme.

Q 12. I have been subjected to an enquiry or investigation or audit under indirect tax enactment and I want to make a voluntary disclosure regarding the same. Am I eligible for the Scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible as per section 125(1) (f) (i) of the Scheme.

Q 13. I want to make a voluntary disclosure after having filed a return under the indirect tax enactment, wherein I have indicated an amount of duty as payable but the same has not been paid. Am I eligible for the Scheme?

Ans. You cannot make a voluntary disclosure in such a case. However, you can still file a Declaration under Section 125(1) (f)(ii).

Q 14. I have filed an application in the Settlement Commission for settlement of the case. Am I eligible for the Scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible to file a Declaration for a case for which you have filed an application in the Settlement Commission.

Q 15. I deal with the goods which are presently under Central Excise and is mentioned in the Fourth Schedule to the Central Excise Act, 1944. I want to make declarations with respect to those excisable goods. Am I eligible for the scheme?

Ans. No, you are not eligible to avail the benefits under the Scheme.

Q 16. How will I apply for the said scheme?

Ans. All such persons who are eligible under the Scheme will be required to file an electronic declaration at the portal https://cbic-gst.gov.in

Q 17 Will I get an acknowledgement for filing a declaration electronically?

Ans. Yes, on receipt of declaration, an auto acknowledgement bearing a unique reference number will be generated by the system. This unique number will be useful for all future references. The declaration will automatically be routed to the designated committee that will finalize your case.

Q 18. How will I come to know about the final decision taken by the designated committee on my declaration?

Ans. Within sixty days of filing of a declaration, you will be informed electronically about the final decision taken in the matter.

Q 19. What is the difference between ‘Tax Dues’ and ‘Tax Relief’?

Ans. ‘Tax Dues’ is the total outstanding duty demand. ‘Tax Relief’ is the concession the Scheme offers from the total outstanding duty demand.

Q 20. A SCN has been issued to me for an amount of duty of 1000 and an amount of penalty of 100. In the Order in Original (OIO) the duty confirmed is of 1000 and an amount of 100 has been imposed as penalty. I have filed an appeal against this order before the Appellate Authority. What will be the tax dues for me?

Ans. The amount of duty which is being disputed is 1000 and hence the tax dues will be 1000.

Q 21. A SCN has been issued to me for an amount of duty of .1000 and an amount of penalty of 100. In the OIO the duty confirmed is of 900 and penalty imposed is 90. I have filed an appeal against this order. The department has not filed any appeal in the matter. What would be the tax dues?

Ans. The amount of duty which is being disputed is 900 and hence the tax dues are 900.

Q 22. A SCN has been issued for an amount of duty of 1000 and an amount of penalty of 100. In the OIO the duty confirmed is of 900 and penalty imposed is 90. I have filed an appeal against this order before the Appellate Authority. Further, Department has also filed an appeal before the Appellate Authority for an amount of duty of 100 and penalty of 10. What would be the tax dues?

Ans. The amount of duty which is being disputed is 900 plus 100 i.e. 1000 and hence tax dues are 1000.

Q 23. A SCN has been issued for an amount of duty of 1000. The Adjudicating Authority confirmed the duty of 1000. I have filed an appeal against this order. The first appellate authority Commissioner Appeals/CESTAT reduced the amount of duty to 900. I have filed a second appeal (before CESTAT/High Court. The department has not filed any appeal. What will be the tax dues for me?

Ans. The amount of duty which is being disputed is 900 and hence the tax dues are 900.

Q 24. I have been issued a SCN under any of the indirect tax enactment on or before the 30th June, 2019, what will be the tax dues?

Ans. As per section 123(b), the tax dues will be the amount of duty/tax/cess stated to be payable in the SCN.

Q 25. I have been issued a SCN, wherein other persons apart from me are jointly and severally liable for an amount, then, what would be the tax dues?

Ans. As per section 123(b), the amount indicated in the SCN as jointly and severally payable shall be taken to be the tax dues payable by you.

Q 26. What is the coverage of SCNs under the Scheme with respect to main noticee vis-à-vis co-noticee particularly when the tax amount is paid?

Ans. In case of a SCN issued to an assesse demanding duty and also proposing penal action against him as well as separate penal action against the co-noticee/s specified therein, if the main noticee has settled the tax dues, the co-noticee/s can opt for the scheme for the waiver of penalty.

Q 27. What is the scope of coverage of periodical SCNs under the scheme?

Ans. Any SCN whether main or periodical, issued and where the final hearing has not taken place on or before 30.06.2019 is eligible under the Scheme.

Q 28. What are the benefits available under the Scheme?

Ans. The various benefits available under the Scheme are:

  • Total waiver of interest, penalty and fine in all cases
  • Immunity from prosecution
  • In cases pending in adjudication or appeal, a relief of 70% from the duty demand if it is 50 Lakh or less and 50%, if it is more  than 50 Lakh.The same relief is available for cases under investigation and audit where the duty involved is quantified on or before 30th June, 2019.
  • In case of an amount in arrears, the relief is 60% of the confirmed duty amount if the same is 50 Lakh or less and it is 40% in other cases.
  • In cases of voluntary disclosure, the declarant will have to pay full amount of disclosed duty.

Q 29. Shall the pre deposit paid at any stage of appellate proceedings and deposit paid during enquiry, investigation or audit be taken into account for calculating relief under the scheme?

Ans. Any amount paid as pre-deposit at any stage of appellate proceedings under the indirect tax enactment or as deposit during enquiry, investigation or audit, shall be deducted while issuing the statement indicating the amount payable by the declarant.

Q 30. How the declaration made by the declarant under the Scheme would be verified?

Ans. The declaration made under section 125 except when it relates to a case of voluntary disclosure of an amount of duty shall be verified by the Designated Committee based on the particulars furnished by the declarant as well as the records available with the department.

Q 31. Whether the declarant will be given an opportunity of being heard or not?

Ans. Yes, as per section 127(3), after the issue of the estimate under sub-section (2), the Designated Committee shall give an opportunity of being heard to the declarant, if he so desires, in case of a disagreement.

Q 32. What will be procedure and time period of payment to be made by the declarant?

Ans. The declarant shall pay electronically withina period of 30 days ofthe statement issued by the Designated Committee, the amount payable as indicated therein.

Q 33. What procedure will be followed for withdrawal of appeals where the person has filed a declaration under the Scheme?

Ans. Where the declarant has filed an appeal or reference or a reply to the SCN against any order or notice giving rise to the tax dues, before the appellate forum, other than the Supreme Court or the High Court, then, such appeal or reference or reply shall be deemed to have been withdrawn. In case of a writ petition or appeal or reference before any High Court or the Supreme Court, the declarant shall file an application before such High Court or the Supreme Court for withdrawing such writ petition, appeal or reference and after withdrawal of such writ petition, appeal or reference with the leave of the Court, he shall furnish proof of such withdrawal to the Designated Committee.

Q 34. Whether any certificate will be provided to declarant as proof to payment of dues?

Ans. Yes, on payment of the amount indicated in the statement and production of proof of withdrawal of appeal, wherever applicable, the Designated Committee shall issue a discharge certificate in electronic form, within 30 days of the said payment and production of proof, whichever is later.

Q 35. Whether a calculation error in statement may be rectified or not?

Ans. Yes, within 30 days of the date of issue of a statement indicating the amount payable by the declarant, the Designated Committee may modify its order only to correct an arithmetical error or clerical error, which is apparent on the face of record, on such error being pointed out by the declarant or suo-motu.

Q 36. What will be the benefits of discharge certificate issued under the scheme?

Ans. Every discharge certificate issued under section 127 with respect to the amount payable under this Scheme shall be conclusive as to the matter and time period stated therein, and (a) the declarant shall not be liable to pay any further duty, interest, or penalty with respect to the matter and time period covered in the declaration; (b) the declarant shall not be liable to be prosecuted under the indirect tax enact­ment with respect to the matter and time period covered in the declaration; and (c) no matter and time period covered by such declaration shall be reopened in any other proceeding under the indirect tax enactment.

Q 37. Can I take input tax credit for any amount paid under the Scheme.

Ans. No.

Q 38. Can I pay any amount under the Scheme through the input tax credit account under the indirect tax enactment or any other Act?

Ans. No.

Q 39. Can I take a refund of an amount deposited under the Scheme?

Ans. No.

Q 40. In cases where pre-deposit or other deposit already paid exceeds the amount payable as indicated in the statement of the desig­nated committee, the difference shall be refunded or not?

Ans. No, it shall not be refunded.

Q 41. Is there any benefit, concession or immunity on the declarant in any proceedings other than those in relation to the matter and time period to which the declaration has been made?

Ans. No, as per section 131, nothing contained in this Scheme shall be construed as conferring any benefit, concession or immunity on the declarant in any proceedings other than those in relation to the matter and time period to which the declaration has been made.

Q 42. Whether the discharge certificate under the scheme would serve as immunity against issuance of any further SCN (i) for the same matter for a subsequent time period; or (ii) for a different matter for the same time period?

Ans. No, as per section 129 (2)(b), the issue of the discharge certificate with respect to a matter for a time period shall not preclude the issue of a SCN,(i) for the same matter for a subsequent time period; or (ii) for a different matter for the same time period.

Q 43. What action would be taken against a declarant who makes false voluntary disclosure under the scheme?

Ans. As per section 129(c), in such cases of voluntary disclosure, where any material particular furnished in the declaration is subsequently found to be false, within a period of one year of issue of the discharge certificate, it shall be presumed as if the declaration was never made and proceedings under the applicable indirect tax enactment shall be instituted.

[Note: The ‘sections’ referred above are those of the Finance (No.2) Act, 2019.]

Topics

Acts Income Tax