Electronic delivery of public services may be provided through electronically enabled kiosks or other electronic mechanisms for applications, licences, permits, certificates, approvals and payments. The appropriate Government may prescribe delivery procedures, encryption requirements, service charges and service-level norms. Issuing authorities must maintain timestamped online repositories of electronically signed records and follow prescribed security procedures. Service providers and authorised agents may be required to maintain transaction accounts, undergo audits, protect citizen data, assist audit agencies and rectify identified deficiencies.

The interim facilitation measure for export clearance of drugs and pharmaceutical consignments is extended until 31 December 2026, subject to the previously prescribed conditions. After that date, export clearance must strictly comply with the applicable CDSCO Office Order. All other procedural requirements and conditions governing such export consignments remain unchanged. The extension takes effect immediately.

Integrated technology-enabled cargo safety and security controls are mandatory for every Container Freight Station under JNCH, establishing connected digital controls over port transit, entry, cargo handling, Customs holds, surveillance and exit. Vehicles, personnel and cargo must be authenticated, digitally linked to valid system-generated tasks, and subject to real-time validation; oral instructions and paper records cannot override system blocks or active regulatory holds. Gate-out must independently reconcile identity, seals, releases, tasks and alerts. CFSs must operate a 24x7 control room, tamper-resistant audit trails, 180-day CCTV retention, transit tracking, escalation processes and cybersecurity safeguards. Compliance is phased ov.....

Importers and exporters whose Customs refund applications were returned may re-file them online through ICEGATE after rectifying all communicated deficiencies. The online re-filing facility applies to applications returned under the Customs Refund Application (Form) Regulations, 1995. Manual filing requests for returned refund applications will not be entertained. Applicants must fully cure the identified deficiencies before re-filing, as applications submitted without proper compliance may be rejected.

Imports of cosmetics, drugs, medical devices, and medical-device raw materials or components must meet category-specific checklist requirements under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and applicable rules before out-of-charge clearance. Customs verification requires, as applicable, registration certificates, import licences or permissions, invoices, packing lists, country-of-origin certificates, storage-premises licences, batch quality certificates, and labels matching approved particulars. Cosmetics require declarations regarding hexachlorophene and animal testing, while drugs require residual shelf life exceeding 60%; consignments below that level require port-office referral. Medical devices with applicable shelf life must meet prescribe.....

Taxability of a non-resident's offshore equipment supply turns on FOB contractual terms, the location of design and engineering activities, and the existence of a permanent establishment in India. Relevant considerations include evidence of foreign technicians' visits to India and whether site-related activities continued beyond six months. The issues also address whether withholding under section 195 covers the entire tax liability and whether any shortfall requires advance-tax payment, resulting in interest under section 234B.

Each cyber cafe must register with a designated registration agency and obtain a unique registration number. Access to computer resources requires prior user identification, retention of authenticated identity records, and logging of user, terminal, and session details. Logs, website-access history, and proxy-server records must be securely retained, protected against alteration, and backed up for at least one year; monthly usage reports are required. Operators must maintain specified physical-layout, time-synchronisation, anti-tampering, content-control, staff-record, and illegal-activity prevention measures, cooperate with inspections, and report reasonable suspicion concerning users to police.

Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure does not list initiation of proclamation and attachment proceedings under Sections 82 and 83 as a statutory exclusion from anticipatory bail. Although anticipatory bail is ordinarily unavailable to a proclaimed offender, a proclamation initiated after an application is filed does not itself prevent consideration on merits. Relevant factors for interim protection pending investigation include unexplained delay in the FIR, substantially similar prior allegations against others, and the applicant's undertaking to cooperate. Protection may operate until the charge-sheet, subject to appearance before the investigating officer, cooperation, and safeguards against misuse.

Reassessment under the statutory framework for an eligible assessee became the operative remedy after the petitioner opted to pursue reassessment. The pending writ challenges required no further adjudication because a related order had already addressed the available course of action. The petitioner retained liberty to pursue the remedy in accordance with that related order, and the connected miscellaneous petitions were also closed.

Documented opening cash balances, supported by prior withdrawals from multiple bank accounts and a cash-flow statement, explained subsequent cash deposits. Where the cash-flow statement and bank records establish the source and no defect is identified, an addition cannot rest solely on assumptions about normal human behaviour or preponderance of probabilities. The cash deposits were treated as explained, and the addition was deleted.

Body corporates handling sensitive personal data or information must publish a privacy policy, obtain written consent before collection, collect data only for a lawful and necessary purpose, provide collection notices, limit retention and use, and permit review and feasible correction. Third-party disclosure generally requires prior permission, subject to contractual, legal, government-agency, and lawful-order exceptions. Transfers require equivalent data protection and contractual necessity or consent. Reasonable security practices require documented information-security controls, with regular independent certification or audit.

Intermediaries had to publish user-facing policies prohibiting unlawful, harmful, infringing, deceptive, malicious and security-threatening content. They could not knowingly host, publish, transmit or modify prohibited information. On acquiring knowledge or receiving qualifying written notice from an affected person, an intermediary had to disable the information within thirty-six hours and preserve associated records for at least ninety days. Further obligations included reasonable security practices, cyber-security incident reporting, lawful assistance to authorised agencies, restrictions on technical circumvention, and grievance redressal within one month.

Goodwill arising from an amalgamation, representing consideration paid above the net value of acquired assets, falls within depreciable intangible assets. Business or commercial rights of a similar nature are included within the statutory category of eligible intangible assets for depreciation. Depreciation may therefore be claimed on amalgamation goodwill, subject to appropriate quantification. Where entitlement to depreciation on the same goodwill has already been recognised for an earlier assessment year, the relevant-year depreciation is to be computed consistently with the earlier directions.

Intermediaries must remove or disable access to specified unlawful information within thirty-six hours of receiving actual knowledge under section 79(3)(b). Actual knowledge can arise only from an order of a competent court or a reasoned written intimation issued by an appropriately authorised government officer. Such intimations require monthly review for necessity, proportionality and statutory consistency, and must state the legal basis, nature of the unlawful act, and the precise electronic location of the targeted information or link.

Transfer-pricing benchmarking of a captive, low-risk investment-advisory provider operating on a cost-plus basis must apply Rule 10B(2) functional comparability, including functions performed, assets employed and risks assumed. Companies engaged in stock-market operations, debt syndication, merchant banking, corporate finance, or fund-based/NBFC activities are unsuitable where they are functionally dissimilar, lack reliable segmental information, or fail consistently applied service-revenue and export-turnover filters. ICRA Management Consulting Services Pvt. Ltd. remains includible where functionally comparable; its margin falls within the statutory tolerance range, leaving no adverse arm's length price adjustment.

Intermediaries enabling synthetic-content functions must deploy reasonable and appropriate technical measures, including automated tools, to prevent unlawful synthetic material. Permissible synthetic content must carry a prominent visual or audio disclosure and, where technically feasible, permanent provenance metadata or another technical mechanism, including a unique identifier. Significant social media intermediaries must obtain user declarations before publication, verify them through proportionate technical measures, and clearly label content confirmed as synthetically generated. Knowingly permitting, promoting, or failing to act upon non-compliant synthetic content constitutes a failure to exercise due diligence.

Corrigendum to G.S.R. 32(E) corrects the year appearing in line 13 of the notification dated 18 January 2006. The reference to "2005" is substituted with "2006".

Digital signature hash standards under rule 6 of the Information Technology (Certifying Authorities) Rules, 2000 are amended by replacing the reference to MD 5 and SHA-1 with SHA-1 and SHA-2. The amendment takes effect upon publication in the Official Gazette.

The amendment substitutes the requirement to execute an agreement with the Controller in rule 16(2)(b) with a requirement to give an undertaking to the Controller. It recasts the prescribed obligation from an agreement-based arrangement to an undertaking-based commitment and takes effect upon publication in the Official Gazette.

Digital Signature Certificate applications in the Individual category require Form A for Government and Banking Sector subscribers and Form B for other subscribers; other applicant categories remain unchanged. Form A requires applicant, certificate, identification and, where applicable, device details, together with organisational certification and authorisation. Form B requires applicant, certificate, address, device details where relevant, and identity and residence proof as required by the Certifying Authority. Both forms require personal completion, in-person submission, and supporting documents prescribed in the Certificate Practice Statement; incomplete or inconsistent applications may be rejected.