Anticipatory bail in an alleged wrongful input tax credit matter was refused because the petitioner's position was not comparable to that of a co-accused who had obtained bail. The co-accused's circumstances were distinguishable, as proceedings against that person involved a quashed case and challenged assessment orders. The application for anticipatory bail was therefore rejected.

Central bank digital currency development was urged to be advanced through wholesale and retail pilots, with stronger digital rupee capabilities supporting tokenisation. A tokenised corporate bond pilot showed that the digital rupee can enable simultaneous transfer of asset and payment legs, permitting settlement on the payment date. Tokenisation may reduce intermediaries and accelerate transfers, but requires systemic-risk and cybersecurity safeguards because errors, fraud and market shocks may spread faster. AI can improve fraud detection while also enabling sophisticated automated cyberattacks.

The Secretary, ITE&C, Government of Andhra Pradesh is specified under section 258(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 for receiving information regarding income-tax payers. The authorised information sharing is limited to identifying eligible beneficiaries under welfare schemes implemented by the Government of Andhra Pradesh.

Existing officers must continue handling all registration, refund, scrutiny, audit, enforcement, adjudication, appeal and related tasks allocated to them before the jurisdictional order of 17 August 2026. This temporary direction applies despite changes to an officer's office nomenclature or territorial jurisdiction, until the Boweb Portal is updated to reflect amended jurisdiction mappings. It is issued to ensure uniform implementation of the Rajasthan GST framework and remove administrative ambiguity arising from the creation of new offices and reassignment of jurisdictions.

Territorial jurisdiction under the Rajasthan Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 is assigned to corresponding levels of proper officers, aligning GST jurisdiction with territorial assignments made under the Rajasthan VAT Rules, 2025 and specified provisions of the Rajasthan VAT Act, 2003. The order supersedes the earlier territorial-jurisdiction notification issued in 2023 and takes effect from 15 August 2026.

Jurisdiction under the RGST Act is determined on the date a statutory power is exercised. Actions validly undertaken by the officer having jurisdiction before a taxable person migrates to another jurisdiction remain valid and are not retrospectively invalidated. After migration, the former jurisdictional officer cannot initiate or continue action and must refer any new matter to the current jurisdictional officer. The current officer must take over pending proceedings from their existing stage, implement earlier actions, pursue consequential proceedings, and represent or conduct related appellate proceedings as though the earlier action had been initiated by that officer.

Importers of plastic packaging, commodities packaged in plastic, plastic raw materials, and intermediate materials for manufacturing plastic packaging must register on the Common EPR Portal before conducting business. Registration applications are scrutinised by the CPCB or SPCB, and certificates are issued after verification of application details. Customs officers must verify EPR registration certificates when clearing relevant import consignments. Certificates displaying one-year validity must be treated as one-time registration certificates that do not require renewal under the amended Plastic Waste Management Rules, and accepted as valid proof of EPR registration for import clearance.

Commodity derivatives client position-limit rules now cap daily monetary penalties for open-interest breaches, with lower caps for breaches up to 2% of prescribed limits and higher caps for larger breaches. Members must reduce excess positions by the next trading day; exchanges may square off continuing excess positions, impose one-day square-off mode for repeated same-commodity breaches, and levy an additional penalty after repeated monthly violations, except where violations arise exclusively from position clubbing. Agricultural commodities qualify as broad commodities if non-sensitive and meeting the revised five-year deliverable-supply threshold. Client open-position limits remain linked to deliverable supply: 2% for broad, 1% for narrow, and 0.5% for sensitive commodities, subject to transitional treatment for newly reclassified broad commodities.

Bank employees and officers supported a nationwide strike seeking implementation of a five-day banking system following delay in acting on an agreement between banking unions and the Indian Banks' Association. The proposed arrangement contemplated Saturday holidays with increased daily working hours to preserve customer-facing banking hours. Union representatives also objected to a unilateral and discriminatory Performance Linked Incentive scheme and sought bilateral discussions to resolve pending workweek, incentive, and other banking-sector issues.

Credit Line on UPI (CLOU) enables banks to offer pre-approved, risk-graded credit facilities directly through a customer's UPI ID for merchant transactions. The platform consolidates customer eligibility assessment, credit-line creation, digital consent and activation, transaction processing, risk controls, billing, payments and collections. PhiAMS supports the credit lifecycle from origination and product configuration to limit management, authorisation, billing, collections, risk management and customer servicing.

The last date for appeals before the Appellate Tribunal against orders communicated before 1 May 2026, and for applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026, is fixed as 31 July 2026. Appeals involving later communicated orders remain subject to a three-month period from communication, while applications involving later orders remain subject to a six-month period from the date of the order. The revised framework operates from 30 June 2026 and preserves prior actions and omissions.

Appellate Tribunal filing timelines under section 112 are revised, while preserving acts done or omitted before supersession. Appeals against orders communicated before 1 May 2026 may be filed up to 31 July 2026; appeals against later communications must be filed within three months. Applications concerning orders passed before 1 February 2026 may be filed up to 31 July 2026; applications concerning later orders must be filed within six months from the order date.

Tax treatment of salary arrears attributable to a deceased employee's prior service is in issue where a State University declares arrears after her death for years in which she was alive and employed. Consideration is sought on whether the declared arrears retain the character of taxable salary income, may be included or clubbed with the husband's salary income, or qualify for exemption because the employee has died.

Powers under Section 83 of the Delhi Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 are delegated to Assistant Commissioners and Goods and Services Tax Officers. Each Proper Officer must obtain case-to-case approval from the concerned Zonal Incharge, Special Commissioner, Additional Commissioner, or Joint Commissioner before exercising the delegated powers.

Third-party fund management services are excluded from Regulation 107M where an FME's parent entity or any associate provides fund-management-related support or advice to that FME. The relevant regulatory part is inapplicable to schemes of an FME affected by such parent-entity or associate involvement.

All other relevant provisions of the International Financial Services Centres Authority (Fund Management) Regulations, 2025, including circulars or guidelines issued under them, apply mutatis mutandis to FMEs authorised under the third-party fund management services framework. The application covers schemes managed under a third-party fund management arrangement, unless an express contrary specification applies.

Fund Management Entities using third-party fund management services must verify third-party eligibility, competence, and careful onboarding. Schemes established under these arrangements remain schemes of the FME, whose liability towards Restricted Schemes and investors continues unaffected. FMEs must monitor and review third-party services, report to fiduciaries, retain termination rights in investors' interests or on regulatory directions, ensure indemnity protection, pay prescribed fees, and remain responsible for all third-party acts, omissions, and commissions.

Fund Management Entities undertaking third-party fund management must maintain a comprehensive internal risk-management framework addressing arrangement-specific risks and conflicts. They must ensure segregation of funds and operational independence of all schemes, extend investor complaint and dispute mechanisms to third-party managed schemes, and conduct periodic internal audits and compliance reviews. Audit and review reports must be submitted to fiduciaries, alongside any further measures specified by the Authority.

Regulation 107I requires a Fund Management Entity managing Restricted Schemes through third-party fund management services to make additional prominent disclosures in the placement memorandum, apart from disclosures under regulation 36. These include the identity of the third party and persons conducting its business, segregated responsibilities of the Fund Management Entity and third party, potential conflicts of interest, and measures to avoid, resolve and mitigate those conflicts. Further disclosures specified by the Authority must also be made.

Third-party fund management services may be provided only to a third-party fund manager incorporated in India, an International Financial Services Centre, or a foreign jurisdiction, with adequate resources and experienced responsible persons. The third-party and its officers, directors, partners, designated partners, key managerial personnel and controlling shareholders must be fit and proper persons. Eligibility is not affected merely because its ultimate or interim parent entity is not engaged in fund management activities.