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Section 4 of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 - Amendment Acts
Definitions are expanded to cover communication devices, interconnected computer networks, cyber cafes, cyber security, electronic signatures and Electronic Signature Certificates. Cyber security includes protection against unauthorised access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction. Electronic records include messages, and intermediaries include persons handling electronic records for others or providing related services, including telecom, internet, hosting, search, payment, auction, marketplace and cyber cafe services.
Section 3 of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 - Amendment Acts
Section 1 excludes documents and transactions listed in the First Schedule from the application of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The Central Government may add or delete Schedule entries through notification in the Official Gazette, and each notification must be laid before both Houses of Parliament.
Section 2 of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 - Amendment Acts
Section 2 replaces "digital signature" with "electronic signature" in identified provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The substitution applies to specified clauses, sections, sub-sections, marginal headings, and chapter headings, including definition clauses, sections 5, 6, 10, 18, 19, 21, 25, 30, 34, 35, 64, 71, 73 and 74, Chapters V and VII, and specified clauses in section 87.
Section 1 of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 - Amendment Acts
Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 further amends the Information Technology Act, 2000. Commencement depends on a Central Government notification in the Official Gazette, and different provisions may take effect on different dates. References to commencement within a provision operate by reference to the effective date of that particular provision. Commencement was appointed from 27 October 2009.
Notification No. G.S.R. 902(E) Dated:- 21-11-2003 Information Technology
Information Technology (Certifying Authorities) (Amendment) Rules, 2003 require a performance bond in the form of a banker's guarantee, replacing references that treated a performance bond and banker's guarantee as alternatives. The amendments reduce the prescribed security amounts under rule 8(2) and its proviso, revise rule 14(2) and Schedule I terminology, and take effect upon publication in the Official Gazette.
Notification No. The Negotiable Instruments (Amendment and Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 2002 (Act...
Electronic cheques and truncated cheques are recognised within the meaning of cheque, subject to secure generation, digital signing, image accuracy and clearing safeguards. Drawee, collecting and transmitting banks must verify electronic images and apparent genuineness, while discrepancies between an image and the physical cheque amount to material alteration. Cheque-dishonour proceedings provide for summary trials, postal or courier service of summons, affidavit evidence, a rebuttable presumption from dishonour memos, and compounding of offences. Electronic banking records and certified printouts are recognised as bankers' books evidence.
Notification No. G.S.R. 245(E) Dated:- 21-4-2005 Information Technology
Information Technology rulemaking was amended through additions made under delegated power in section 87 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The additions concerned the regulatory framework previously amended by G.S.R. 902(E). As the substantive terms of the additions are not reproduced, no specific compliance duties, technical standards, procedures, entitlements, or enforcement consequences can be identified.
VAT reimbursement under industrial incentives excludes Central Sales Tax and Entry Tax despite passbook disclosure requirements.
Clause 2(vi) of the Industrial Incentive Policy, 2006 confines the 80% reimbursement to admitted VAT actually deposited with the Government under the Bihar VAT regime. Entry Tax remains a separate statutory levy; its set-off against later VAT liability reduces VAT payable but does not treat Entry Tax as VAT paid. Requirements to disclose Central Sales Tax and Entry Tax in the passbook restrict reimbursement to VAT declared through self-assessment and exclude assessment additions. Central Sales Tax and Entry Tax therefore do not qualify for the incentive.
Notification No. G.S.R. 32(E) Dated:- 18-1-2006 Information Technology
Certifying Authorities must conduct half-yearly internal audits covering their security policy, physical security, operational planning and repository. The recurring obligation requires periodic internal scrutiny of policy controls, physical safeguards, planning processes and repository-related arrangements. The revised requirement takes effect on publication in the Official Gazette under the rule-making power of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Circular No. Public Notice No. 133 / 2026 Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Not...
Customs-area designation under section 8(b) of the Customs Act, 1962 applies to M/s. Chennai Container Terminal Pvt Ltd (O Yard CFS) for handling imported Full Container Load and Less than Container Load cargo, including unaccompanied baggage, arriving from M/s. Kamarajar Port, and for handling export cargo. Cargo handling must follow the Handling of Cargo in Customs Areas Regulations, 2009 and applicable customs-house procedures.
Circular No. Public Notice No. 134/2026 Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notic...
M/s. Chennai Container Terminal Pvt. Ltd. (O Yard CFS) is appointed custodian of imported goods landed at Kamarajar Port, Ennore and received at its premises until clearance for home consumption, warehousing, or transhipment. It is also custodian of export cargo brought into its premises until export. Custodial handling must comply with section 45 of the Customs Act, 1962, the Handling of Cargo in Customs Areas Regulations, 2009, and applicable rules, regulations and instructions.
Circular No. PUBLIC NOTICE NO. 136/2026 Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notic...
M/s. Viking Warehousing CFS is appointed custodian for imported goods landed at Kamarajar Port, Ennore, in addition to Chennai Port, and received at its CFS. Custody continues until clearance for home consumption, warehousing, or transhipment. Cargo brought into the CFS for export remains in custody until export, subject to compliance with the Customs Act, the Handling of Cargo in Customs Areas Regulations, 2009, and applicable instructions.
Circular No. PUBLIC NOTICE NO. 121/2026 Dated:- 1-10-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 1-10-2026 Trade Notic...
Interim facilitation for export clearance of drugs and pharmaceuticals is extended until 31 December 2026, subject to the prescribed conditions and existing procedural and documentation requirements. From 1 January 2027, export clearance must strictly comply with the CDSCO Office Order dated 30 April 2024. All other applicable terms and conditions remain unchanged, and the extension takes immediate effect.
Immediate necessity for Customs Broker licence suspension limits delayed action pending regulatory enquiry under licensing regulations.
Suspension of a Customs Broker licence under Regulation 16 is confined to appropriate cases requiring immediate action while an enquiry is pending or contemplated. Where the shipping bill, examinations, statements and customs show-cause proceedings substantially predate the suspension, that chronology is inconsistent with the required immediacy. The immediate-necessity condition was therefore not established for suspension. Separate disciplinary proceedings under Regulation 17 may nevertheless continue, as suspension under Regulation 16 does not preclude those proceedings.
Circular No. Public Notice No. 120/2026 Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notic...
The framework requires each Container Freight Station under JNCH to operate integrated digital controls for cargo custody. Every vehicle, person, container and cargo movement must be tied to authenticated identity, an eligible transaction and a system-generated task. Regulatory Holds must apply across all systems and cannot be overridden locally. Gate-out must independently verify identity, release status, seal, completed tasks and alerts. CFSs must maintain real-time monitoring, audit trails, controlled exceptions, acceptance testing and continuing assurance; outsourced functions do not dilute custodian responsibility.
Foreign award enforcement permits narrow public-policy review but bars fraud-based liability imposed on minors through guardians.
Foreign-award enforcement under Section 48 is confined to specified grounds: public policy does not permit merits review, including factual findings or damages quantification. Compensatory or restitutionary fraud damages and contractual interest may remain enforceable where they do not breach fundamental Indian law; "consequential damages", construed with punitive, exemplary and multiple damages, does not necessarily exclude such relief. Fraud limitation runs from discovery or reasonable discoverability and ordinarily depends on arbitral factual findings. Protection of minors bars enforcement of fraud-based liability against minors for acts of natural guardians or purported agents, while enforcement may continue against non-minor respondents.
Interest deductions for let-out property and inter-corporate deposits depend on verified borrowing use and direct funding nexus.
Interest on borrowings used to acquire or construct a let-out property may be deducted under Section 24(b), subject to verification of loan terms and computation of the interest component attributable to the property. Interest expenditure connected with an inter-corporate deposit may be deducted under Section 57 only where verification establishes a direct nexus between the borrowings and the deposit. The prescribed verification and consequential computation govern the claimed interest deductions for both assessment years.
Notification No. G.S.R. 791(E) Dated:- 17-10-2000 Information Technology
Procedure requires applications to be filed in Form 1 by the applicant, an authorised agent, or a legal practitioner, with prescribed paper-books, supporting records, and the filing fee. The Registrar records presentation, scrutinises applications, allows correction of defects, and may decline registration for uncorrected defects, subject to appeal to the Tribunal. Applications must generally arise from a single cause of action, while interim directions may be sought in the principal application or later. Notice is ordinarily served by hand delivery or registered post, and respondents file replies with supporting documents and proof of service.
Circular No. PUBLIC NOTICE NO.119 /2026-INCH Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 30-9-2026 Trade ...
Applicants must ensure that every communicated deficiency is fully rectified before online re-filing. Re-filed applications without proper compliance may be liable to rejection. No manual refund application will be entertained in relation to an application previously returned by the Refund Section, making ICEGATE the required filing route for corrected claims.
Circular No. Public Notice No. 118/2026 Dated:- 28-9-2026 Trade Notice Dated:- 28-9-2026 Trade Notic...
Import clearance for cosmetics, drugs, medical devices, in-vitro diagnostic kits and device raw materials/components requires category-specific documentary verification. Cosmetics require registration, product and origin records, compliant labels, batch quality certification, storage evidence and specified declarations. Drugs require registration and import-licence records, matching labels, batch certificates, licensed storage and prescribed residual shelf life; bulk drugs also require QR-code information. Medical devices require applicable licence or registration evidence, matching labels, quality records and residual shelf life where applicable. Special-purpose and personal-use imports require the relevant permission and quantity matching.