MINISTRY OF COMMUNICATIONS AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (Department of Information Technology) ORDER New Delhi, the 27th February, 2003 G.S.R. 181(E).-- In exercise of the provisions of Section 67 and Section 88 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000), the Central Government, after consultation with the Cyber Regulations Advisory Committee, hereby prescribes the following procedure for blocking of websites:- 1. Computer Emergency Response Team- India (CERT-IND) shall be... ... ...

MINISTRY OF COMMUNICATION AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (Department of Information Technology) ORDER New Delhi, the 25th March, 2003 G.S.R. 240(E).-- In exercise of the powers conferred by Sub-section (I) of Section 46 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000), the Central Government hereby makes the following order/appointments viz.- 1. Whereas Sub-section (1) of the Section 46 makes provision for appointment of one or more Adjudicating Officers not below the rank o... ... ...

Central Government brought the Information Technology (Removal of Difficulties) Order, 2002 into immediate force to correct specified provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The changes revise the failure to maintain prescribed procedures and standards, correct wording concerning a key, remove a limitation in the digital-signature disclosure provision, replace "Chapter" with "Act" in an offence provision, and correct an internal cross-reference in the rule-making provision.

Item (g) in column (3) of the Second Schedule to the Information Technology Act, 2000 is substituted to revise the prescribed manner of digital-signature authentication. Authentication must comply with the manner and standards in rules 3 to 12 of the Digital Signature (End entity) Rules, 2015, insofar as they govern the creation, storage, and verification of digital signatures.

Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, column (3), item (b), of the Second Schedule is amended by omitting the words "on hardware security module". The amendment affects the stated electronic signature or electronic authentication technique and procedure, removes that wording from the specified entry, and takes effect upon publication in the Official Gazette as an operative textual change.

Electronic authentication of electronic records through Aadhaar e-KYC is incorporated as an electronic-signature technique supporting Digital Signature Certificate issuance. Certificate issuance requires e-authentication, prescribed applicant particulars, digitally signed verified Aadhaar e-KYC information, and electronic consent. Trusted third-party services may generate and store subscriber key pairs on hardware security modules and create digital signatures, subject to prescribed application procedures, Controller-issued guidelines, and applicable certification standards.

Import of scheduled insecticides for non-insecticidal purposes requires an import permit, including where the imported substance is acrylonitrile. Applications must be filed in Form IA with the prescribed fee and may be verified through enquiry. Permits ordinarily remain valid for one year, or three years when the importer holds a registration certificate for the pesticide for which the goods are raw material. Form IA requires applicant, premises, proposed import, manufacturing-use, licence, pollution-control, consumption-history and self-certification details. Imports must be for the applicant's own stated requirements and not for sale; incomplete applications may be rejected and incorrect information may lead to cancellation.

Central Government amended the Second Schedule to the Information Technology Act, 2000 under section 3A(4). The amendment inserts "or other" after "Aadhaar" in column (2) and in item (c) of column (3). Item (e) of column (3) is also expanded by adding "and other e-KYC services" after the reference to a subscriber's key pair.

Advance Authorisation replenishment and redemption are questioned where goods covered by a duty-free authorisation were instead procured under a temporary basic customs duty exemption, used for manufacture, and exported with the authorisation number declared. After withdrawal of the temporary exemption, the issue is whether replenishment imports may proceed under the Advance Authorisation and whether it may be redeemed against those exports. No express replenishment restriction is identified under the temporary exemption, Foreign Trade Policy or Handbook of Procedures.

The Sub-Committee on Trade Finance under the Niryat Protsahan sub-scheme of the Export Promotion Mission is reconstituted with a uniform composition for all trade-finance interventions. It has two Co-Chairs, designated members and invitees from relevant trade-finance and credit-guarantee institutions, and the Joint DGFT of the EPM Section acts as Convenor. Additional participants, domain experts and industry representatives may be associated where required for technical appraisal or other purposes.

Banks maintaining non-resident deposit accounts are to file the monthly NRD-CSR return, code R012, through the CIMS Sankalan portal using rationalised bank-wise consolidated reporting formats. Filing may occur through system-to-system integration, XML file upload, or a screen-based web form, with screen-based submission limited to 2,000 records. RBI manages reporting access and channels, while bank admin-users manage user access. The nodal office must submit the return on or before the tenth day of the following month.

Online or physical submission of Form A2 for outward foreign-exchange remittances must be regulated through internal guidelines approved by an Authorised Dealer's Board or by a Board Committee or Management Committee acting under delegated Board powers. Existing requirements governing remittances based on Form A2 and related documents remain unchanged. The directions operate under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and remain subject to permissions or approvals required under other applicable laws.

Global trade distortions should be addressed through WTO-consistent, evidence-based anti-dumping and countervailing measures, without restricting developing countries' policy space for industrialisation. Most-Favoured-Nation treatment, consensus decision-making, special and differential treatment, and a two-tier dispute-settlement system remain central to multilateral trade governance. Imports produced using forced labour are prohibited, while border measures must rely on specific, verifiable evidence, observe due process and WTO rules, and avoid presumptions concerning entire countries, regions or sectors.

Export-oriented market access for Bihar's Makhana is being expanded through a facilitated shipment of popped Makhana from Purnea to Greece. APEDA's support connects producers and exporters with international buyers and strengthens the export value chain. Higher price realisation than domestic selling prices indicates scope for improved producer returns, wider farmer and producer-group participation, and diversification into European markets. Export promotion is linked to a proposed Agri Export Policy and packhouse development.

APEDA facilitated an FPO-led export of frozen food products to Canada by Aterna Foods Producer Company Limited, with support under its Financial Assistance Scheme. The export included frozen vegetables, sweet corn, samosa and other processed food products. Market-linkage initiatives connect Farmer Producer Organisations and Farmer Producer Companies with exporters and global buyers, promoting export-oriented value chains and integrating agricultural produce with processing and international markets.

Component II of the RELIEF intervention extends operational timelines for exporters affected by West Asia maritime-logistics disruptions. It encourages eligible exporters to obtain ECGC cover for upcoming shipments to specified regions with 95% risk coverage. Benefits apply to qualifying Stand Alone Policies and Whole Turnover Policies, covering full container load, less than container load, and reefer containers, but excluding energy shipments. Eligible exporters' insurance premium cannot increase beyond the pre-disruption level during the relevant period.

RoDTEP Scheme continuation is extended until 31 December 2026 for exports made by Domestic Tariff Area units, Advance Authorisation holders, Special Economic Zone units and Export Oriented Units. The scheme remits embedded, un-rebated Central, State and local duties, taxes and levies borne on exported products. Existing RoDTEP rates and value caps remain unchanged throughout the extension.

Illegal wildlife trafficking operations addressed alleged possession, transportation, and attempted sale of elephant ivory, leopard skin, live pangolins, and tiger parts. Possession without licence and trade in elephant ivory or ivory articles are prohibited under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Leopards, pangolins, tigers, and their body parts receive Schedule I protection, while pangolins are also listed in CITES Appendix I, prohibiting international trade. Recovered wildlife articles, live animals, and vehicles were transferred or seized for action by forest and specialised wildlife enforcement agencies.

An alleged two-way smuggling arrangement involved airport staff receiving foreign-origin gold dust in wax capsules from transit passengers for clandestine removal into India and transferring diamonds to an outbound passenger for illicit export to Dubai. Seizure included 23 capsules of 24-carat foreign-origin gold dust in wax form and natural and lab-grown diamonds. The modus operandi used the same airport employee to facilitate import-side gold smuggling and export-side diamond smuggling.

Authorised disposal of seized narcotic drugs under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 involved destruction of 10,842.150 kg of contraband through an approved process supervised by the Drug Disposal Committee and attended by a pollution-control representative. Seized opium was separately deposited with the Government Opium and Alkaloid Works as part of the disposal process, aimed at preventing contraband from returning to illicit drug trafficking and ensuring environmentally safe incineration.