Drawback claim for exported goods requires certification of non-use and no separate rebate, submitted to customs.
Form D sets the claim procedure for drawback on goods exported by parcel post under Rule 11, requiring detailed consignment particulars (consignee, parcel dates, weights, quantity, FOB value, rate and amount) and presentation to the Assistant/Deputy Commissioner of Customs (Drawback). It mandates certifications that the goods were not used after manufacture and that no separate rebate claim has been or will be made, and that duty on raw materials has been paid, with the manufacturer's/exporter's seal, signature, name, designation, place and date.

Statement regarding deposits existing on commencement of the Act requires companies to disclose deposit totals, breakdowns, and repayment arrangements.
Form DPT-4 requires companies to disclose total deposits outstanding on commencement, number of depositors, and a categorical breakdown (deposits due but unpaid; interest due but unpaid; deposits due but unclaimed; interest due but unclaimed; deposits not yet due). Companies must report deposits due in the next three months, describe arrangements for repayment, attach an auditor's certificate and list of depositors, and provide a board-authorised, digitally signed declaration acknowledging compliance and penal consequences for false statements.

Return of deposits: companies must disclose outstanding deposits, liquid assets, and loans not considered deposits annually.
Form DPT-3 requires companies to report deposits and specified receipts not treated as deposits under the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, including company identification, audited net worth and maximum deposit limit, detailed movements of secured and unsecured deposits, maturities, and liquid assets; tabulated disclosure of loans and receipts excluded from deposit treatment with ageing; particulars of trust deeds and charges; credit rating and prior filing references; and mandatory auditor certificate and authorised declarant signature with statutory penalties for false statements.

Deposit trust deed obligations require security, trustee oversight and remedies to protect deposit holders on default.
The Deposit Trust Deed requires a detailed description of the deposit scheme and company undertakings to pay interest and principal; records the nature, rank and assets subject to any security, minimum cover, valuation and prohibition on further encumbrances without trustee approval; sets trustee appointment, remuneration and powers; imposes reporting covenants to protect depositors and restrict dividend payments until deposits are secured; and defines events of default and trustee remedies including possession, realisation, insurance claims and distribution of sale proceeds.

Company deposit circulars must disclose deposit scheme particulars, financials, defaults, credit rating and directors' declarations.
Form DPT-1 mandates that a circular inviting deposits disclose company identity and management, particulars of the deposit scheme (authorisations, type, amounts, terms, schedule, purpose, credit rating and security), details of outstanding deposits and defaults, audited financials for the preceding three years, and a directors' declaration confirming compliance, remediation of prior defaults, the company's one year solvency assessment, permitted use of deposits, pari passu treatment of unsecured deposits and withdrawal rights on adverse credit rating.

Withdrawal from composition scheme: dealers must intimate using Form DM 02 and disclose input tax credit on opening stock.
Form DM 02 requires a withdrawing drugs and medicine dealer to provide TIN, name, address, ward, effective withdrawal year, preceding-year turnover, reasons for withdrawal and a schedule of input tax credit on opening stock with invoice details; the form must be signed by the applicant or authorised signatory and include a verification declaration with name, designation, place and date.

Composition scheme opt in requires declaration of turnover, opening stock valuation and proof of tax deposit by dealers.
Application to opt into the composition scheme via Form DM 01 requires TIN, dealer name and address, target year, preceding and estimated turnover, valuation of opening stock (fair market or purchase value whichever is higher), calculation and payment of tax on opening stock with deposit particulars and original challan/proof, plus signature, designation and verification by the applicant or authorised signatory.

Director KYC requires DIR-3-KYC-WEB filings for identity, contact and address updates and DIN reactivation with verified documents.
Form DIR-3-KYC-WEB requires DIN holders to file for KYC compliance, contact and address updates, or DIN reactivation; provide authenticated identity and residence details (PAN, Aadhaar, passport, voter ID, mobile, email with OTP); attach residential proof and proof of changes; digitally sign a declaration confirming accuracy and timeliness; and, if certified by a practicing professional, have that professional verify originals and accept liability under Section 448 for wrongful certification.

Appointments and changes of company directors and KMP require filing Form DIR-12 with prescribed particulars and declarations.
Form DIR-12 notifies appointment, cessation and changes of directors and KMP under the Companies Act and requires particulars (DIN/PAN, name, address, designation, category, appointment/cessation date), statement of interests, and alternate/nominee details. Filings must include prescribed attachments (appointment letters, consent, resignation, evidence of cessation, court orders), be digitally signed by an authorised officer using DIN/PAN or membership number, and include a practising professional's certification who accepts statutory liability for verification.

Director resignation form DIR-11 files DIN, company details, effective date, attachments, declaration and digital signature.
Form DIR-11 files a director's resignation with the Registrar by recording DIN and company identifiers, appointment and filing dates, the effective date of resignation if specified, designation and category, reasons for resignation, and any alternate-director links; it requires attachments (resignation notice, proof of dispatch, company acknowledgement), a declaration of correctness, digital signature, and a statement whether confirmation from the company was received.

Removal of director disqualification requires filing a prescribed application with specified grounds, evidence, and digital declaration.
The form prescribes an application process to remove a director's disqualification by providing director identification, company details, the statutory basis and specific grounds of disqualification, the date of disqualification, particulars and proof of violations or defaults that have been compounded or remedied, and a digitally signed declaration; it also records office processing information and notes penalties for false statements and false evidence.

Report by company for director disqualification requires specified director details, statutory grounds, attachments and authorised digital signature.
The company must report to the Registrar via the prescribed electronic form when a director becomes subject to Director Disqualification, specifying the director's identification and addresses, the statutory ground(s) for disqualification, effective date, offices held in the prior five years, corporate details, and attach supporting documents; filing must be authorised by board resolution, digitally signed by a prescribed officer, and includes a declaration subject to penalties for false statements.

Director intimation requires disclosure of past directorships and confirmation of any disqualification under section 164.
Form DIR-8 requires a director to notify the board of past and present directorships during the last three years with dates of appointment and cessation, and to confirm either absence of disqualification under section 164(1) or 164(2) in the previous financial year and at present, or to identify the company(ies) and grounds on which disqualification under section 164(1) or 164(2) arose; the form requires the director's identification details and dated signature under Rule 14(1).

Director identification number change affidavits require verified identity, certified documents and declaration of non disqualification and liability for false statements.
Form DIR-7 requires an applicant seeking change of DIN particulars to verify that Form DIR-6 particulars are true and match attached certified identity and address documents, to attach Gazette notification for name or date-of-birth changes where applicable, and to declare absence of director disqualification, non-status as a proclaimed offender, non-possession of another DIN, and acceptance of criminal and statutory liability for false statements or omissions.

Director particulars update: DIR-6 mandates notifying specified identity and address changes with mandatory PAN and documentary proof.
Form DIR-6 requires notification to the Central Government of changes to a director's or designated partner's particulars, specifying amendable fields (name, parentage, DOB, gender, nationality, addresses, PAN, Aadhaar, passport, voter ID, driving licence, contact details, photograph and residential status), mandatory PAN for Indian nationals, documentary proof for changes, applicant verification and digital signature, practitioner certification obligations, and exposure to penal liability for false statements or incorrect certification.

Director Identification Number surrender: form DIR-5 sets grounds, required particulars, and supporting-document obligations.
Form DIR-5 provides the procedure to surrender Director Identification Numbers on enumerated grounds, requires particulars of surrendered and retained DINs, identity particulars and PAN, and permits attachment of supporting documents including photograph; it also enables designation of a retained DIN to replace other surrendered DINs.

Director Identification Number verification: affidavit confirms identity, absence of disqualification and proclaimed offender status, and accepts penal liability for falsehoods.
Affidavit verification for Director Identification Number application requires the applicant to confirm that the particulars and attached, government-certified identity documents and photograph are true and belong to them; to declare absence of disqualification to serve as director and of any proclamation as an offender; to confirm no prior DIN allocation; and to acknowledge penal liability for false statements or omissions.

KYC of Directors requires DIN, PAN, identity and address verification with mandatory attachments and professional certification.
Form DIR-3-KYC requires directors to submit DIN, full personal particulars, PAN (mandatory for Indian nationals), identity and address details (Aadhaar, passport, voter ID, driving licence), OTP verification of contact details, and specified attachments. Directors must declare ownership of attached documents, absence of status as a proclaimed offender, and lack of any other DIN or DPIN; they must digitally sign and acknowledge liability for false statements. A practising professional must certify verification from originals (or attested foreign documents), confirm attachments, and sign, with criminal penalties indicated for false certification.

Companies must file DIR-3C with detailed director and officer personal and appointment information and required declarations.
Form DIR-3C (and DIR-3CC) requires companies to file prescribed personal and appointment information for directors, managing directors, managers and secretaries under Section 157 and Rule 10A(2), including DIN, name, parentage, residential address, dates (birth, DIN approval, receipt of DIN-2/DIR-3B), designation, category, PAN for managers/secretaries, contact details, appointment date and full-/part-time status; attachment of DIN-2/DIR-3B where applicable; digital signing by an authorised officer; optional certification by a company secretary verifying records; board resolution authorisation; declarations of non-disqualification and no proclamation as offender; and notice of penalties under Section 448 and Section 449.

Director Identification Number allotment: notify company with prescribed particulars and attachments promptly for corporate record.
Form DIR-3B requires a director to notify the company of the allotted Director Identification Number (DIN) by providing prescribed particulars: DIN, personal and contact details, designation and director type, chairmanship/executive status, category, nominee institution (if any), appointment date, details of other directorships/KMP positions, and specimen signature. A copy of the DIN allotment letter must be enclosed. The director must declare the basis and effective date of appointment, attach the relevant resolution and file copy of Form 32 evidencing the appointment.

DIN application name requirement: use father's or grandfather's surname when applicant has a single name, with signed declaration.
Where an applicant's identity proof shows a single name, the mandatory last name field for a DIN application must be filled by using the father's surname; if the father's proof also lacks a surname, the grandfather's surname may be used. The applicant must provide a signed declaration stating name, parentage, address, the surname adopted for the application, solemnly affirm the truth of the statements, and confirm understanding of the cited Companies Act provisions.

Director Identification Number application requires PAN/passport, identity and residence proofs, verification and company certification.
Form DIR-3 prescribes the procedure for allotment of a Director Identification Number before appointment, requiring PAN for Indian nationals (passport for foreigners), identity and residence proofs, a verification declaration and digital signature by the applicant, and certification by the appointing company/LLP; false statements and wrong certification attract statutory liability.

Consent to act as director requires statutory declaration of non-disqualification and prescribed personal particulars and attachments.
Form DIR-2 records statutory consent to act as a director and requires specified personal particulars including Director Identification Number, contact, PAN, occupation, date of birth, nationality and existing directorships and professional memberships. The consenting individual must declare absence of disqualification, no conviction or fraud or breach of duty in company or LLP management in the prescribed recent period, commitment to statutory limits on directorships, and state whether Ministry of Home Affairs security clearance is required or attached; signature and proof of identity and residence are required as attachments.

Independent director databank application requires personal, educational, professional, and board information and updates, with signature and date.
Form DIR-1 is the prescribed application to include a person in the Independent Directors databank. It requires personal particulars, educational qualifications and training, a professional re sume with current and past positions and duties, total years of experience, disclosure of directorships held in the past five years, current directorship and committee membership counts, and provision for subsequent updates; the application is completed with a dated signature and printed name.

Small-service provider exemption requires turnover eligibility, input-credit rules, lapse of unused credit and compliance undertakings.
Declaration for persons seeking exemption under notification no. 33/2012 requires identifying details and an attestation that aggregate taxable services did not exceed the prescribed small-provider threshold in the preceding year and are not likely to exceed it in the current year; disclosure of no pending show-cause or liabilities; confirmation that input service credit was not utilised for the exempted services or an equivalent amount has been deposited; prohibition on availing credit on capital goods during the exemption; lapse of unutilised credit upon claiming exemption; and undertaking to meet any future service tax liabilities.

Service tax declaration: standardized authorized-assessee form requiring registration details, contact information and authorized signature for submission.
Declaration form for existing assessees requires Service Tax Registration details and contact information for ACES submission, including STC/registration code, division and range, email confirmation, firm constitution, contact person and number. The form is addressed to the Assistant Commissioner of Service Tax/Central Excise and includes a declaration clause whereby the authorized signatory affirms authority and attests that the contents are true and correct, with signature, name, designation and date.

Exemption from central excise registration requires a declaration, recordkeeping and application for registration once thresholds are met.
Declaration form requires a signed statement that notification- or tariff-based conditions for exemption from registration have been met, an undertaking to apply for Central Excise registration when the value of clearances reaches the exemption limit or goods become dutiable, and an obligation to maintain prescribed records and notify changes. The Schedule mandates factory and business identification, tax registration numbers, electricity connection details, and a tabulated disclosure of excisable goods with tariff classification, clearance value and the notification relied upon.

Exemption from excise duty requires biris manufacturers to file a declaration listing identity, manufacturing processes, job worker details and clearances.
Manufacturers of biris claiming exemption from excise duty under Sl. No. 46 of Notification No. 12/2012 must submit a declaration stating the manufacturer's name, address and PAN; addresses and descriptions of manufacturing processes; whether job workers are used and, if so, their names, addresses, processes performed and quantities handled in the previous financial year; and the total quantity of biris manufactured and cleared in the previous financial year, signed and dated by the assessee or authorized signatory.

Wealth-tax declaration: assent to apply final High Court or Supreme Court decision on identical legal question.
Form DB under section 18C(1) requires an assessee to declare that an identical question of law is pending before a High Court or the Supreme Court, identify the referenced case and assessment year, enclose the statement of the case and relevant judgments or grounds of appeal, agree to apply the final decision in that referenced case to the assessee's case, and undertake not to raise the same question in further appeals; the declaration must be signed, verified, state the declarant's capacity and address, and be filed in duplicate or triplicate as required.

Wealth tax settlement applications require full disclosure of undisclosed wealth, derivation details, computation of additional tax, and annexures.
Form DA requires the applicant to disclose identity, PAN, status, jurisdiction, assessment years, proceedings and authorities, and to provide a full and true disclosure of wealth not previously disclosed, the manner of its derivation, and the additional amount of wealth tax payable. The application must be filed in quintuplicate with a prescribed bank challan fee, signed and verified, and accompanied by an Annexure showing net wealth computation and a detailed statement of assets and debts as on the valuation date.

Customs Broker security bond safeguards Government dues arising from broker or employee negligence, including liabilities discovered after cessation.
Form D requires a Customs Broker to execute a bond and maintain a security deposit for faithful compliance with the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018. The security may be applied towards Government dues arising from the broker's or employees' misfeasance or negligence, including unpaid short-collected duty or other charges. The bond and security remain effective for twelve calendar months after the broker ceases to act, covering liabilities discovered after cessation.

Controlled substance recordkeeping requires daily stock, transaction, consumption and loss entries, with separate registers for each Schedule-A substance.
Schedule-A controlled substances must be entered in a daily Form-D register recording opening stock, receipts or imports, sales, distribution, exports, consumption, handling loss and closing stock. Entries must identify relevant counterparties and supporting transport or customs documents, with consumption purpose recorded where applicable. Quantities must be stated in kilograms. The register must be completed and initialled each working day, including days with no transactions, and separate registers are required for each controlled substance. Import and export entries require No Objection Certificate details instead of registration details.

Wealth tax notice demands provisional tax payment within 35 days, with 12% interest, penalty risk, and recovery measures.
Notice under section 30 requires payment of tax provisionally assessed under section 15C at an authorised bank within 35 days (or a shorter approved period); a challan is enclosed. Nonpayment incurs simple interest at 12% per annum from after the due period, possible penalty up to the amount of tax after a reasonable opportunity of being heard, and recovery proceedings under the income tax recovery provisions read with the Wealth tax Act. Cheque payment must be drawn in favour of the authorised bank.

Courier Bill of Entry-XIII mandates electronic shipment details, valuation disclosures, supporting uploads, and courier declarations for low-value dutiable imports.
Courier Bill of Entry-XIII is an electronic declaration for non-document, low-value dutiable courier shipments. It requires courier, transport, consignment, consignor, consignee, importer, e-commerce and item-level information, including classification, origin, description, quantity, invoice value, assessable value, valuation charges and applicable notifications. The authorised courier must hold clearance authority, certify the declaration's accuracy, disclose conflicting information to Customs, and submit supporting airway bills and invoices. Images of house airway bills and invoices must be uploaded with the filing.

Certificate for removal of excisable goods under bond confirms licence, bond security, and authorisation for removal to undertaking.
Certificate for removal of excisable goods under bond permits a licensed holder, identified by licence number and validity, to remove specified quantities and descriptions of excisable goods to a designated undertaking where the holder has executed a bond in Form B-17 held by the appropriate Central Excise or Customs officer; the certificate records the authorised agent and attested specimen signatures with attestation by the Central Excise Officer of the relevant EHTP/STP or export-oriented unit.

Procurement of excisable goods under export warehousing: registered users may obtain goods at nil or concessional duty subject to bond.
Certificate CT-2 authorises a Rule 9 registered person, subject to a prescribed bond accepted by the proper officer, to procure specified excisable goods under the Export Warehousing procedure at nil or concessional duty under an enabling notification for manufacture or use. The end user must record supplier factory/warehouse registration, goods details and declare a provisional debit in the Bond Account with the post debit balance, signing and sealing the declaration.

Duty free procurement from EOU allowed for registered DTA exporters subject to bond or undertaking and six month certificate.
A DTA exporter registered under rule 9 may obtain specified goods from an EOU without payment of duty on furnishing an accepted bond or specified undertaking; Form CT 1, issued by the Superintendent of Central Excise, permits procurement for manufacture or processing for export and is valid for six months. The form requires EOU and exporter details, goods description and duty particulars, and evidence of a provisional debit in the bond account or an attested copy of the accepted bond/undertaking.

Procurement of excisable goods for export permitted under Rule 19 upon acceptance of prescribed bond or undertaking by the officer.
Certificate CT-1 authorises procurement of excisable goods for export without payment of duty under Rule 19 read with Notification No. 42/2001-C.E. (N.T.) where the exporter has furnished a prescribed bond or, if registered, an accepted undertaking; the bond/undertaking must be recorded by the Assistant or Deputy Commissioner. The certificate permits obtaining goods for export, is valid for one year, and requires supplier details, goods particulars, and a declaration of provisional debit in the Bond Account or attachment of the attested bond/undertaking.

Corporate Social Responsibility reporting form requires disclosure of CSR committee, computation of 2% obligation, and project spending details.
Form CSR-2 requires company identification, financial year, triggers of CSR applicability, and CSR Committee disclosures; it mandates computation of CSR obligation (including 2% of average net profit, set offs and surplus) and detailed reporting of CSR expenditure by project (ongoing and other), mode of implementation, impact assessment, administrative overheads, unspent amounts, and transfers to Unspent CSR Account or Schedule VII funds, with required board authorization and statutory declarations.

Registration for CSR activities requires completing e form CSR 1 with entity details, documents, authorised signature and professional certification.
Registration for CSR activities is effected via e form CSR 1 pursuant to section 135 and rule 4(1) and (2) of the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, 2014. The form specifies eligible entity types (section 8 companies, registered trusts, societies, government entities, entities under statute), requires disclosure of incorporation and contact details, PAN, authorised representatives, mandatory attachments (registration certificate and PAN), an internal authorising resolution, digital signature by an authorised officer, and certification by a practising professional who accepts liability under the Companies Act for false certification.

Courier Shipping Bill-I requires authorised couriers to certify document-only consignments and exclude dutiable, prohibited or restricted export goods.
Courier Shipping Bill-I (CSB-I) is prescribed for courier export consignments containing documents. It captures courier, flight, Customs and consignment details, including airway bill numbers, bags and weight. The authorised courier must declare authority from each consignor to act as clearance agent and certify that consignments contain only documents of no commercial value, excluding dutiable, prohibited or restricted export goods. Signatures of the courier company, authorised courier and proper Customs officer are required.

Return regarding number of layers requires companies to disclose subsidiary layer counts, details, and a board authorised digital declaration.
Return regarding number of layers requires companies to report the number and layer wise details of subsidiary companies, including identification and percentage shareholding, and to provide a board authorised, digitally signed declaration that the information is true, complete and compliant with applicable rules; the eForm is filed electronically and recorded by the registrar on the company's statement of correctness.

Cost Audit Report filing requires CRA-4 with XBRL attachments and prescribed company and auditor details.
Form CRA-4 mandates electronic filing of the Cost Audit Report and company explanations under section 148(6)/rule 6(6). It requires company identification, financial year details, SRN of cost auditor appointment, Board resolution date, classification of regulated/non regulated activities, full cost auditor/firm particulars, and disclosure of qualifications, reservations or adverse remarks. Filing must include an XBRL converted copy of the signed cost audit report with explanations for every qualification/reservation and a digitally signed declaration by an authorised representative, with notice of penalties for false statement or evidence.

Cost Audit Report (Form CRA-3) requires audited cost records, annexed cost statements, and auditor observations on compliance.
Form CRA-3 is the prescribed Cost Audit Report format under section 148 and rule 6(4) requiring the cost auditor to report whether necessary information was obtained; whether proper cost records and branch returns were maintained; whether records comply with the Act; whether an adequate internal audit system for cost records exists; and whether annexed cost statements present a true and fair view of cost of production, cost of sales and margin. The auditor must state if detailed unit and product/service wise cost statements are maintained and provide observations and suggestions; material deficiencies or qualifications must be indicated against relevant report paragraphs and based on verified data.

Intimation of cost auditor appointment: companies must notify Central Government with auditor identity, scope, and financial year details.
Companies must notify the Central Government of cost auditor appointments using the CRA-2 form, specifying company identity and contact details, nature of filing (original, amalgamation, demerger, casual vacancy, new products or other), financial year, products/services covered, and the full particulars and scope of each cost auditor or firm. The form requires disclosure of changes from the prior year, SRNs of prior filings where applicable, attachment of the board resolution, and a declaration digitally signed by an authorised company representative.

Cost record maintenance: detailed rules require itemised cost measurement, assignment principles and exclusion of abnormal costs.
Form CRA 1 mandates detailed cost record maintenance and measurement rules for all major cost elements - materials, labour, utilities, direct expenses, overheads, repairs, fixed assets and finance costs - requiring records of receipts, issues and balances; valuation conventions for purchased, imported and self manufactured items; exclusion of imputed, finance and abnormal costs; treatment of subsidies and recoveries as reductions of cost; objective bases for assignment or apportionment to cost objects (cause and effect, benefits received, usage measures); amortisation where appropriate; and periodic cost statements reconciled with financial accounts.

Compounding applications under FEMA require a specific form, Rs.5,000 fee, ECS mandate, PAN, and annexures by contravention type.
Compounding applications under the foreign exchange framework require a duplicate Form (Rule 4 or 5) with certified Memorandum, payment of Rs.5,000 by demand draft to the Reserve Bank of India, a signed ECS mandate and bank particulars, PAN copy and cancelled cheque. Applicants must complete annexures specific to the contravention type (FDI, ECB, ODI, LO/BO) with supporting documents quantifying contravention amounts in foreign currency and Indian rupees, and submit an undertaking regarding any enforcement investigations.

Registration of debenture charges requires filing form CHG-9 with prescribed particulars, attachments and certification by a practising professional.
Form CHG-9 prescribes filing for registration, modification or rectification of charges on debentures, requiring company identifiers, SRNs and charge ID, detailed classification and particulars of charged assets, principal terms of the debenture and charge (including amount secured, rate, repayment and extent of charge), particulars of charge holder or trustee, and attachments of the charge instrument and authorising resolution. It mandates declarations by authorised officers and certification by a practising professional, with digital signature requirements and notice of applicable penal provisions for false statements.

Application for extension to file charge particulars and rectification of omissions or misstatements affecting registered charges.
Form CHG-8 enables condonation of delay or rectification of omissions/misstatements in registration particulars concerning creation, modification or satisfaction of charges. It requires company identity and charge particulars, the SRN/form reference, reasons for delay or error, and specified attachments (instrument, affidavit, charge-holder confirmation, board resolution, financials where applicable). Applicants must declare absence of prejudice to stakeholders, no subsequent charges on the same assets, and no pending winding-up or striking-off; the form must be digitally signed with required identification details.

Register of charges requirement mandates recording creation, modification and satisfaction of corporate charges with prescribed particulars.
Form CHG-7 establishes a mandatory register for charges requiring entries for charge identifier, creation and registration dates, property description, period and amount secured, charge holder details, terms and instrument descriptions, and separate fields to record modifications, satisfactions and reasons or facts for any filing delays.

Notice of appointment or cessation of a receiver or manager: mandatory filing of Form CHG-6 with company, receiver, charge and attachment details.
Form CHG-6 prescribes statutory reporting for appointment or cessation of a receiver or manager, collecting company identifiers, filer role, particulars of the receiver/manager (PAN, name, address), dates of appointment/cessation, and whether the action is pursuant to a court order or an instrument. It requires disclosure of related charges, descriptions of affected property or income, and mandatory attachments (instrument and court order). The filing must be digitally signed by the appointing person and the receiver/manager, includes registry administrative fields, and highlights penal provisions for fraud and false statements.

Satisfaction of charge under Companies Act certified, confirming that a registered charge has been fully discharged.
Memorandum provides the prescribed mechanism for certifying satisfaction of a registered charge under Chapter VI of the Companies Act, requiring company identifiers, the company name and Charge Identification Number and a statement that the specified charge has been satisfied in full on a stated date, given under hand and seal at the stated place and date and signed by the Registrar of Companies.

Satisfaction of charge requires Form CHG-4 filing with charge details, chargeholder confirmation, declarations and professional certification.
Form CHG-4 records company identification, charge particulars (creation/ modification dates, final secured amount and currency), date of satisfaction, and chargeholder/assignee details; requires a chargeholder's letter confirming satisfaction and optional attachments; prescribes late-filing rules (30-300 days with reasons; beyond 300 days requires Central Government application) and declarant confirmations regarding prejudice, subsequent charges, company status and pending litigation; mandates digital signature by authorised officers and certification by a practicing professional, and highlights penalties for fraud and false statements.

Modification of charge registered confirming particulars and assignment of Charge Identification under Companies Act registration procedures.
Form CHG 3 certifies that a previously created charge has been modified as described in the filed particulars, and that the modification has been registered in the Register of Charges and assigned a Charge Identification Number in accordance with Chapter VI procedures of the Companies Act; the certificate identifies the company, the charge, and records the place, date and the signature of the registering official.

Registration of charge confirms statutory recording of company security interests and allocation of Charge Identification Number.
Certificate confirms registration of a company's charge under Chapter VI of the Companies Act, 2013, recording company identity, charge particulars and date of creation, and stating the charge has been entered in the Register of Charges and assigned a Charge Identification Number in accordance with the statutory registration regime and rules.

Registration procedure for creation or modification of security charges, including ARC assignments under SARFAESI, via Form CHG 1.
Form CHG 1 prescribes registration procedures and required particulars for the creation or modification of charge (excluding debentures), including modifications by an ARC or assignee under SARFAESI, requiring company identification, charge instrument details, type and description of charged property, maximum amount secured, particulars of charge holders, mandatory attachments of instruments, authorised declarations addressing compliance and delay, digital signatures by company and charge parties, and certification by a practising professional to enable statutory registration of charges.

TAN data change form requires specified identity, address and contact details, proof of TANs, fee payment and acknowledgement for tracking.
The prescribed form for changes or correction in TAN data under Section 203A requires a legible English submission with the 10 digit TAN, selection of the deductor category, mandatory name, address and contact details, and the designation of the person responsible for payment where applicable. Applicants must provide proof of the TAN being changed and any TANs to be surrendered or cancelled; if the new address falls in a different RCC a new TAN application is required. A processing fee is payable and a 14 digit acknowledgement is issued for tracking.

PAN data correction framework sets out form requirements, supporting documents, Aadhaar linkage, and reprint procedures for individuals and entities.
Request for changes or correction in PAN data and reprint of PAN card is provided through separate PAN CR-01 and PAN CR-02 forms for individuals and non-individuals. The forms require the existing PAN, the relevant corrected particulars, declaration by the applicant, and specified supporting documents. The instructions prescribe how names, addresses, contact details, photographs, signature or thumb impression, Aadhaar details, and entity particulars are to be completed, together with the documentary requirements for identity, address, date of birth, incorporation, and PAN proof. The framework also covers reprint without changes, acknowledgment tracking, fees, and multiple PAN surrender requirements.

Income Declaration Scheme challan requires PAN, payment classification, amount breakdown, and bank acknowledgement with BSR, date, serial.
The prescribed challan for the Income Declaration Scheme records taxpayer identity (PAN required), payment classification (company or non-company), and itemises tax, surcharge (Krishi Kalyan Cess) and penalty to produce a total amount. It requires payment mode and bank particulars, provides a taxpayer counterfoil and bank seal space, and obliges banks to provide an acknowledgement containing the branch BSR code, date of deposit and challan serial number to be quoted in subsequent scheme filings.

Equalisation levy challan requires deductor PAN, payment details, bank acknowledgement and compliance with levy deduction rules.
The equalisation levy challan requires the deductor's PAN, identification and payment details, selection of payment type, amount with words, mode and bank particulars, and bank acknowledgement showing BSR code, deposit date and challan serial number; it specifies that a deductor is a resident or non-resident with a permanent establishment required to deduct the levy on payments for specified services and warns that quoting a false PAN may attract a penalty.

Undisclosed foreign income and assets challan requires PAN, correct payment category, and bank acknowledgement details.
Undisclosed foreign income and assets payments must be made using Challan ITNS 284 with mandatory PAN quoting, correct selection of company or non company payment boxes, and specification of payment type (income tax, interest, penalty or other). Separate challans are required for different payment types; payers must provide identification, amount breakdown, bank instrument details and signature. Receiving banks must acknowledge deposits with branch BSR code, date of deposit and challan serial number and affix a seal.

Banking Cash Transaction Tax payment requires a designated challan with mandatory PAN and specified bank acknowledgment elements.
Challan 283 is the prescribed payment instrument for Banking Cash Transaction Tax and Fringe Benefits Tax, specifying payer details, selectable tax and payment-type codes, and separate line-items for tax components. It mandates quoting the Permanent Account Number, uses separate challans for different payments, and requires bank acknowledgements to include branch BSR code, deposit date and challan serial number. Quoting a false PAN may attract penalty under section 272B.

Challan 282 for securities and other specified taxes requires PAN, separate challans, itemised payment details and bank acknowledgement.
Challan 282 sets out the payment process for specified taxes, requiring mandatory PAN, payer identification, assessment year, payment type, and an itemised amount breakdown. A separate challan is required for each tax type; the form must not be used for TDS deposits. Banking acknowledgements must include the seven-digit BSR code, deposit date and challan serial number. The challan contains procedural instructions for cheque/DD payments, guidance for securities market participants, and a penalty warning for quoting a false PAN.

TDS/TCS payment challan requires TAN, payment code selection, amounts, and bank acknowledgement with BSR code and date.
Challan 281 is the prescribed form for payment of TDS/TCS by company and non-company deductees; it requires quoting the Tax Deduction Account Number (TAN), selecting the deductee category and payment code, and entering amounts for tax, surcharge, cess, interest and penalty. The bank must record its 7 digit BSR code, deposit date and challan serial number and affix a seal; taxpayers must use separate challans by payment nature and ensure accurate TAN to avoid a penalty.

Payment of income tax via Challan 280 requires PAN, itemised tax amounts, and bank BSR/date/serial acknowledgement.
Challan 280 prescribes the process for depositing corporate and non corporate income taxes, requiring PAN, taxpayer name and address, selection of tax head and payment type, and itemised amounts (income tax, surcharge, education cess, interest, penalty, others). Banks must record payment details and issue an acknowledgement with the branch BSR code, deposit date and challan serial number for use in the return. Separate challans must be used for each payment type, PAN is mandatory, and the challan is not for TDS deposits.

CENVAT credit entitlement: declaration and challan requirements for excise-paid inputs used in fabric clearances.
Challan form for exempted weavers sets out required particulars of supplier invoices, descriptions, quantities and assessable values of yarns received, quantities and values attributable to fabrics cleared, and excise duty paid and attributable to inputs used in the cleared fabrics; it also records process details, consignee and dispatch particulars and includes a declaration certifying payment of duty and correctness of inputs used, with the attributable duty noted as available to the buyer as CENVAT credit under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2002.

Composition scheme declaration: contractor must report subcontract details and undertake deposit of tax on payments to subcontractors.
Certificate by a contractor under the composition scheme requiring identification of contractor and subcontractor by TIN, a table of subcontract particulars (works description, allocation date, contract value, payments made during the period, balance value, completion date), and an undertaking that tax due on payments to the subcontractor has been or will be deposited to the government treasury, with signature and authorized signatory attestation.

Export certificate requirements govern declaration, verification and certification of passengers' personal valuables carried abroad without duty drawback claims.
The Export Certificate records personal valuable articles carried by a passenger departing India under regulation 4 of the Customs Baggage (Declaration and Processing) Regulations, 2026. It requires passenger, travel and item-specific details, including identifying particulars, value and photographs. The passenger declares truthful particulars, personal non-commercial use, and that no duty drawback is claimed. Customs verifies the articles and certifies the particulars. Certificate details may be generated electronically or otherwise, while manually generated certificates require a complete official stamp.

Customs baggage detention receipts document passenger declarations, seized article particulars, appraisement, reasons, and procedural communication with passengers.
The customs detention receipt records passenger and baggage declaration particulars, ownership confirmation, and a declaration that the information furnished is true and correct. The customs endorsement captures the detention or seizure, appraisement, article descriptions and identifiers, weight, value, duty, photographs, and reasons. It also certifies that relevant travel-document copies were collected, the applicable process and tentative completion time were explained, and images of the detained or seized articles were shared with the passenger.

Temporary baggage import certification requires personal-use declarations, item verification, and re-export undertakings for valuable articles brought into India.
The Temporary Baggage Import Certificate requires passengers temporarily importing personal valuable articles to provide personal, travel and item-wise article details. Passengers must declare that the articles are for non-commercial personal use and undertake to re-export them on departure, except articles consumed during their stay. The declaration is subject to compliance with the Customs Act, 1962, including contemplated liability for duty and applicable interest. Customs verification, certification and official authentication are required, with a complete official stamp for manually generated certificates.

Unaccompanied baggage declarations require travel, shipment and article disclosures to support transfer of residence allowance eligibility and customs compliance.
Unaccompanied baggage import declarations require passenger, travel, shipment, transport, container and article-level details. Transfer of residence claims additionally require disclosure of prior availment and short visits to India. The declarant must certify that the information is correct, confirm eligibility for transfer of residence allowances based on the applicable stay, report any relevant shortfall in stay in India, and comply with customs requirements, including liability for duty and applicable interest.

Customs baggage declaration requires disclosure of dutiable goods, restricted articles, excess jewellery and reportable foreign exchange on arrival.
Arriving passengers must declare baggage particulars, dutiable goods, specified articles, pets, excess jewellery, and currency or foreign exchange requiring disclosure. An affirmative response to specified disclosures requires reporting through the Red Channel, followed by certification that the information is true, correct and complete. Duty-free baggage allowances vary by passenger category and mode of arrival, and customs duty applies to dutiable goods exceeding the applicable allowance. The Currency Declaration Form records aggregate foreign exchange and may be used for conversion, reconversion and departure-related Customs verification.

Appeal to Advance Ruling Authority requires prescribed particulars, grounds, supporting documents, verification, and requests for modification or hearing.
Appeal to the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling under regulation 10(2) is made in Form CAAR-3 by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Customs. It must identify the impugned advance ruling or order, provide party and representative particulars, and state the facts, grounds of appeal, and attached documents. The appeal may request setting aside or modification of the ruling or order, a personal hearing, and further appropriate orders. The prescribed verification confirms the accuracy of the information and the signatory's competence to make and verify the appeal.

Advance ruling appeals require prescribed appellant details, grounds, supporting documents, fee particulars, prayer, signature and verification in Form CAAR-2.
Appeal to the Appellate Authority for Advance Rulings under regulation 10(1) of the Customs Authority for Advance Rulings Regulations, 2021 is filed in Form CAAR-2. The form requires details of the impugned ruling or order, appellant and authorised representative, facts, grounds of appeal, jurisdictional customs commissioner, supporting documents, and fee payment. The appellant may request modification or setting aside of the ruling, a personal hearing, and further appropriate orders. The appeal requires signature and verification confirming the accuracy of supplied information and the signatory's competence.

Advance ruling applications require eligibility, specified customs questions, factual submissions, jurisdictional details, and verification of no pending proceedings.
Advance ruling applications in customs matters must be filed in Form CAAR-1 under regulation 6(1). Applicants must provide identity, eligibility, activity, jurisdictional, document and fee particulars, and specify questions concerning classification, duty notifications, valuation, origin, or related customs matters. The form requires relevant facts, the applicant's legal or factual interpretation, and disclosure of pending or previously decided similar matters. It must identify one jurisdictional customs commissioner and include a signed verification of the accuracy of information, signatory competence, and absence of pending proceedings on the questions raised.

Foreign investment approval requirement declared in merger petitions, stating whether FEMA NDI prior approval is required and obtained.
Declaration under Rule 25A requires an authorised representative in a merger/amalgamation petition to state whether the company is not required to obtain prior approval under the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, or is required to obtain such approval and has obtained and enclosed it; the form identifies merger parties and requires signature, date, place and the approval as an enclosure when applicable.

Auditor certification for company scheme filing confirms compliance with Companies Act conditions and provides required financial particulars.
Auditor's certificate confirming that a company filing a copy of a scheme under Section 233(2) meets the conditions of Rule 25(1A)(iii) of the Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Rules, 2016, with disclosure of paid-up share capital, free reserves, outstanding loans, outstanding debentures and outstanding deposits, signed by the auditor with name and membership number.

Disclosure requirements for share transfer schemes between companies, including shareholdings, consideration and valuation details.
The form requires detailed disclosures for schemes transferring shares: corporate identifiers, company type, listing status, objects, capital and debt structure, promoters, directors and KMP, material interests and effects on those interests, and shareholdings in both companies with numbers and per share values. It mandates description of relations between companies, scheme terms, reasons for recommendation, form and total consideration, and where non cash consideration is involved, the share exchange ratio, valuation basis and particulars of shares; cash consideration requires stated sources of funds, and specified enclosures and a director declaration are required.

Compulsory acquisition of minority shares permitted after supermajority approval; dissenting shareholders may apply to the Tribunal within one month.
Where a transferee company's offer has been approved by holders of not less than nine-tenths in value of the shares, the transferee intends to acquire the specified shares held by the addressee at the price paid to the approving shareholders. The notice states that a dissenting shareholder may apply to the Tribunal within one month; absent such an application or a contrary Tribunal order, the transferee is entitled and bound to acquire those shares on the stated terms.

Central Government reference procedure to tribunal initiating company law proceedings with notice and documentary requirements.
Form template for a Central Government reference to the National Company Law Tribunal requiring the applicant's name and address, identification of persons entitled to notice and an opportunity to be heard, a concise statement of facts, the applicant's submissions, and a list of annexed supporting documents, together with signature, place and date to initiate the tribunal reference process.

Confirmation order under section 233 makes an approved merger or demerger scheme effective after member and creditor approval.
Form CAA.12 records confirmation that a proposed scheme of merger, amalgamation, transfer or division of undertaking, having been approved by members and creditors in accordance with the requirements of section 233, is confirmed and shall become effective from the stated effective date; the approved scheme must be attached and the order authenticated by signature and seal.

Notice of approval of merger scheme requires filing and declarations confirming statutory approvals and compliance.
Form CAA.11 requires the transferee/resultant company to file a notice of approval of the scheme of merger with identification details of both companies, the relationship between parties, scheme particulars, and records of member and creditor approvals including dates and prescribed majorities. A director must declare that required notices were sent, objections addressed, requisite approvals obtained, legal proceedings will continue in the transferee, and that all section 233 requirements and rules have been complied with; the approved scheme and notices are to be attached.

Declaration of solvency: directors confirm the company can meet liabilities for one year and attach audited assets statement.
Directors must solemnly declare, after a full enquiry, that the company can meet its liabilities as they fall due and will not be rendered insolvent for one year from the declaration date; this declaration must be accompanied by an audited statement of assets and liabilities and confirmation that audited annual accounts and the balance sheet have been filed with the Registrar. The form requires company identification, board resolution date, signatures of the managing director and directors, verification before a commissioner of oaths or notary public, and attachments including the board resolution, the assets and liabilities statement, and the auditor's report.

Objections to merger schemes invited; stakeholders must submit objections to the government and authorised company representative promptly.
Notice invites objections or suggestions to a proposed scheme of merger, amalgamation, division or transfer of undertaking under Section 233(1)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013. The company must enclose a copy of the scheme and call for objections from the Registrar, the Official Liquidator and any person whose interest is likely to be affected. Objections or suggestions must be sent to the Central Government and to the authorised representative of the transferor company within thirty days from the date of the notice.

Compromise and Arrangement filing: declaration of compliance and submission of the scheme to regulatory records after approval.
Form CAA.8 requires a company to file a statement for a compromise or arrangement containing corporate identifiers (CIN, GLN), company name and contact details, the dates of board approval and of the approving order, and details of completed and pending actions under that order. The form requires a declaration of compliance by a Director or Company Secretary, certification by a practicing accountant or company secretary, and submission of the scheme plus supporting compliance attachments.

Scheme of arrangement transfers assets and liabilities to transferee company, preserves proceedings and requires registrar filing.
Order under section 232 transfers the transferor company's property, rights and powers to the transferee company without further act or deed, subjects transfers to existing charges unless discharged by the scheme, transfers liabilities and duties to the transferee, preserves continuation of pending proceedings by or against the transferee, directs allotment of shares to non-dissenting members, requires delivery of a certified copy of the order to the Registrar within thirty days leading to dissolution of the transferor and consolidation of files, and includes a Schedule for freehold, leasehold and securities.

Sanction of compromise or arrangement confers binding effect on approved class and requires certified filing with registrar.
Order form CAA.6 sanctions a proposed compromise or arrangement upon evidence of notice publication and chairperson reports showing the required approval, declares the scheme binding on the specified class of creditors or members and the company (or liquidator), permits Tribunal directions or modifications for implementation, and requires filing a certified copy of the sanction order with the Registrar of Companies within thirty days.

Compromise or arrangement applications seek sanction to bind specified classes of members or creditors under statutory procedure.
Petition seeks Tribunal sanction of a proposed compromise or arrangement, specifying its terms, the company's incorporation and capital details, business and financial circumstances necessitating the proposal, and benefits expected. It must record tribunal-directed procedures: notice and advertisement, circulation of the statutory statement, convening of the class meeting, chairperson appointment and report, meeting attendance and voting particulars, and any modifications. Supporting affidavits must verify the proceedings and exhibit the chairperson's report. If relevant, the petition must state winding-up status and pray that the sanctioned arrangement be declared binding on the specified class and the company.

Scheme of Compromise or Arrangement - chairperson must report meeting attendance and voting outcome for approval.
Form CAA.4 requires the chairperson to report attendance (personal or by proxy), the aggregate entitlements represented, that the scheme of compromise or arrangement was read and explained, and that the question of approval by the relevant class was put to the meeting. The report must record the voting outcome listing persons voting for and against with the value of debt or number of shares and votes cast. If the scheme is approved with modifications, those modifications and the particulars of voting on them must be stated.

Scheme of compromise notice: regulators may submit representations to Tribunal within prescribed period; absence deemed no objection.
Form CAA.3 requires sending notice and a copy of the proposed scheme of compromise or arrangement to specified central government and regulatory authorities when the Tribunal orders a meeting under section 230; recipients may make representations to the Tribunal within the prescribed period and should copy any representation to the company, and absence of representation within that period will be presumed to indicate no objection.

Compromise or arrangement: Tribunal-ordered class meetings may be convened with proxy voting and documents available at company office.
A Tribunal order directs convening class meetings of creditors or members to consider a proposed compromise or arrangement. The notice must identify classes, set time, date and place, and state that copies of the proposal and accompanying statement are available free at the registered office or authorised representative. Entitled persons may vote in person or by proxy; proxies in prescribed form must be deposited at the registered office not later than forty eight hours before the meeting. The Tribunal appoints a chairperson, and any class approval is subject to Tribunal confirmation.

Creditor Responsibility Statement confirms informed concurrence with corporate debt restructuring scheme and absence of fraudulent preference.
A Creditor's Responsibility Statement requires a creditor to declare they have read and understood a proposed corporate debt restructuring scheme, believe it is in their best interest to concur, that the debt was created in good faith and in the ordinary course of business, and that the scheme does not give them a fraudulent preference at the cost of other secured or unsecured creditors; the creditor must sign, date, and record the place of signing.

Revision applications require prescribed form, concise grounds, duplicate order copies, fee proof, verification and representative authorisation.
Revision applications to the Central Government under the Customs Act must be filed in Form C.A.-8 with applicant and order particulars, reliefs, statement of facts, grounds, signatures and verification. The application is to be filed in duplicate with copies of the impugned and underlying orders, concise separately headed numbered grounds, proof of the prescribed revision fee, and authority for an authorised representative where applicable.

Cross-objections in customs High Court applications require stated questions of law, verified particulars, supporting documents and quadruplicate filing.
Cross-objections in a High Court application concerning questions of law under the Customs Act are to be filed in Form C.A.-7. The memorandum must identify the parties and connected application, provide service details, state necessary admitted or Tribunal-found facts, and specify questions of law arising from the Appellate Tribunal's order. It requests a Tribunal statement of the case, requires supporting documents and translations where necessary, signatures and verification, and must be filed in quadruplicate.

High Court reference of customs law questions requires a verified application, stated Tribunal facts, annexures, and prescribed filing formalities.
An application under Section 130A of the Customs Act, 1962 seeks a High Court direction requiring the Appellate Tribunal to refer questions of law arising from its order. Form C.A.-6 requires appeal and party details, Tribunal decision and service particulars, necessary admitted or found facts, stated questions of law, and supporting documents with English translations where needed. The application must be verified and duly signed, filed in quadruplicate, and accompanied by the prescribed fee through a crossed bank draft payable to the Registrar of the High Court.

Appellate Tribunal applications require Form C.A.-5 particulars, stated grounds, supporting orders, authorisation documents, and quadruplicate filing.
Form C.A.-5 prescribes the particulars and filing requirements for appeals or applications before the Appellate Tribunal under the Customs Act. It requires party identification, challenged-order details, jurisdiction, review authorisation or committee order, dispute classification, relevant duty, valuation, refund, fine, penalty, and goods particulars, priority subject matter, connected appeals, hearing preference, reliefs, facts, and grounds. The filing must be signed and submitted in quadruplicate with copies of the impugned order, including a certified copy, and the applicable authorisation or committee order.

Customs cross-objections require prescribed tribunal particulars, concise numbered grounds, verification, and quadruplicate filing with appealed-order copies.
Cross-objections before the Appellate Tribunal under section 129A(4) of the Customs Act, 1962 are filed in Form C.A.-4. The form requires appeal and party particulars, service addresses, challenged-order details, goods classification, dispute period and the nature of the customs issue. It requires different monetary and procedural disclosures for non-departmental and departmental filers, selection of priority dispute subjects, reliefs, numbered grounds, signatures and verification. Filing must be in quadruplicate with copies of the appealed order, including a certified copy, and grounds must be concise and without argument or narrative.

Appellate Tribunal Appeals require prescribed particulars, concise grounds, verification, supporting order copies, deposit disclosures and prescribed fee payment.
An appeal to the Appellate Tribunal under section 129A of the Customs Act, 1962 is filed in Form C.A.-3, stating the challenged order, parties' details, disputed goods, period, issues, amounts involved, deposits, reliefs, facts and grounds. The appellant must identify priority subject categories and disclose related proceedings and hearing preference. The appeal and supporting materials must be filed in quadruplicate with copies of the challenged order, including a certified copy. Grounds must be concise, separately headed and consecutively numbered, and the appeal must be signed, verified and accompanied by the prescribed fee.

Customs review applications require prescribed particulars, grounds, supporting orders and authorisation where filed by a non-adjudicating applicant.
Applications to the Commissioner (Appeals) under section 129D(4) of the Customs Act, 1962 are made in Form C.A.-2. The application must identify the parties, impugned order, relevant review order and its communication, and state the relief, facts and grounds. It must be signed and filed in duplicate with two copies of the adjudicating authority's order, including one certified copy, and a copy of the review order. An applicant other than the adjudicating authority must enclose the required authorisation.

Customs appeal filing requires prescribed particulars, deposit disclosure, verified grounds, duplicate submission, and the challenged order copy.
Appeal to the Commissioner (Appeals) under the Customs Act is to be made in Form C.A.-1, stating the appellant's particulars, the challenged order, its communication date, service address, deposit status for duty or penalty, personal-hearing preference, and relief claimed. The appeal must contain a statement of facts, grounds of appeal, and appellant verification. The grounds and verification require signature in accordance with the Customs (Appeals) Rules. The form, statement of facts, and grounds must be filed in duplicate with a copy of the challenged decision or order.

Notice of demand under Wealth-tax: payment due within thirty days, default attracts interest, penalty and recovery provisions.
A notice of demand under section 30 requires payment of a determined sum to an authorised bank within thirty days (or a shorter period with Deputy Commissioner approval) with an enclosed challan; default triggers simple interest per section 31(2), possible penalty after hearing, recovery proceedings under Income-tax Act provisions read with section 32 of the Wealth-tax Act, and designated appeal routes to the Deputy Commissioner (Appeals)/Commissioner of Wealth-tax (Appeals) within thirty days and to the Appellate Tribunal against penalties within sixty days.

Customs Broker intimation enables work at another Customs Station through prescribed identity, licence, personnel disclosure and compliance affirmation.
Form C provides for a Customs Broker's intimation to work at another Customs Station under regulation 7(3) of the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018. It requires identification, address and licence particulars of the Customs Broker. Firms and companies must disclose their partners or directors, identify persons actually engaged in Customs Broker work, and provide their educational qualifications. The applicant must affirm compliance with the Regulations and sign and date the intimation.

Controlled substance manufacturing records require daily stock, production, dispatch, loss and closing-balance entries in separate substance-wise registers.
Manufacturers of Schedule-A controlled substances must maintain Form-C as a daily register recording opening stock, quantity manufactured, factory dispatches, handling losses and closing stock. Dispatch details must identify the quantity and recipient, including registration number, name, address and premises location. Quantities must be entered in kilograms for every working day, including days without transactions, before close of day and authenticated by the authorised person. Separate registers are required for each controlled substance handled.

Courier import declarations for samples and gifts require detailed electronic particulars, authorised clearance, and certification of permissible consignments.
Courier Bill of Entry-XII enables electronic declaration of courier imports comprising samples and gifts. It requires courier, transport, consignment, consignor, consignee, and item-wise valuation and notification particulars. The authorised courier must confirm authority to clear the goods and certify that the consignments consist of bona fide commercial samples, prototypes, or permissible personal-use gifts, with declarations accurate to the supporting airway bills, invoices, and attached documents. Uploading images of house airway bills and invoices is optional.

Bullion traders: Intimation of withdrawal from the Composition Scheme requires Form BU 02 with opening stock and input tax details.
Intimation of withdrawal from the Composition Scheme for bullion traders must be made on Form BU 02, providing TIN, dealer details, effective date of withdrawal or cessation, preceding year turnover, reason for withdrawal, and aggregated input tax on opening stock split between trading stock and packaging material. Part B requires itemised tax invoice details for opening stock and packaging material (invoice date/number, supplier registration/TIN, purchase price, input tax) with annexures if necessary, and signature with a verification declaration.

Composition scheme for bullion traders: application requires opening stock valuation, tax deposit proof and authorised verification.
Form BU 01 collects dealer identification, the year of composition, prior and estimated turnover, and requires computation of tax payable on opening stock held when the scheme is to commence. Opening stock is detailed in Part B into Trading Stock (bullion) and Packaging Material with purchase value, fair market value at opening, applicable tax rates and tax payable. Applicants must attach proof of tax deposit and complete a verification declaring exclusive bullion trading and correctness of information.

Reporting requirement: Authorized banks must monthly report openings and closures of BO/LO/PO to the central bank.
AD Category I banks consider applications from foreign entities for establishing BO/LO/PO under RBI guidelines issued under FEMA, 1999, and must compile a consolidated monthly list (Annex II) of BOs/LOs/POs opened and closed, recording entity name, country of incorporation, status of opening/closure, UIN, approval/closure date and Indian office address, and send this return to the General Manager, Reserve Bank of India, Central Office Cell, Foreign Exchange Department, by the fifth of the succeeding month.

Extract of Board Report detailing statutory disclosures, governance, CSR, Section 186 transactions, audits and compliance under Companies Act 2013.
Extract of Board Report sets out required statutory disclosures under the Companies Act, 2013 and the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014, including board and committee meetings attendance, directors' responsibility statement, independent director declarations, auditor and secretarial auditor qualifications and responses, reporting of frauds under section 143(12), detailed disclosures of loans/guarantees/investments under Section 186 with thresholds and resolutions, material changes affecting financial position, deposits compliance, insolvency proceedings, CSR applicability and spend, internal financial controls, and prescribed attachments and authorising declaration.

Significant beneficial ownership: notice requires targeted persons to provide specified ownership details within thirty days or face action.
Notice requiring disclosure from persons the company reasonably believes to be significant beneficial owners or who possess knowledge of such owners, listing required particulars - name and address of beneficial owner, PAN, name in which shares are registered, date of acquisition, supporting documents and reason for non filing of the prescribed declaration - and directing submission in writing to the company's registered address within thirty days, with a warning that non compliance permits the company to proceed without further notice.

Beneficial ownership register requirement mandates recording significant beneficial interests and specified owner particulars and filing dates.
Form BEN-3 prescribes a Register of beneficial owners holding significant beneficial interest under section 90(2) and rule 5(1), listing for each beneficial owner: name, contact, date of birth/age, parent/spouse name, occupation, nationality, PAN/UIN, passport for foreign nationals, status, and dates for declaration, cessation, register entry, and BEN-2 filing, together with any other interests and member instructions.

Significant Beneficial Ownership reporting requires Form BEN 2: declarations, member and SBO particulars, attachments, digital signature and professional certification.
Form No. BEN-2 is the statutory return under Section 90 for declaring and updating Significant Beneficial Owner status, requiring identification of the reporting company, particulars of SBOs and members, modes of beneficial interest (shares, voting rights, distributions, control, influence), supporting agreements where control/influence is claimed or ceases, dates of acquisition and declaration, and attachments including a Section 90 declaration; it must be digitally signed by an authorised officer and certified by a practicing professional, with statutory warnings for false statements.