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Voidable asset transfers: transfers during tax proceedings can be voided against tax claims, with exceptions for bona fide transferees.
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Summons case classification: minor tax offences must be tried by Special Courts under the new criminal procedure framework.
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Exclusive jurisdiction of Special Courts centralises tax prosecutions, with cognizance only on authorised complaints.
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Clause 495 empowers the Central Government, after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, to notify one or more courts of Judicial Magistrate of the first class as Special Courts for specified areas, cases or classes of cases to try offences under the Income Tax Bill, 2025; it permits these Special Courts to try related offences joined at the same trial under the applicable criminal procedure and updates procedural references to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, while preserving the core scheme of Section 280A.
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Unauthorized disclosure by public servants criminalised; prosecution requires Central Government sanction and carries imprisonment and fine.
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Admissibility of official tax records: certified copies allowed as evidence, easing prosecution while preserving challenge rights.
Clause 493 mandates that entries in records or documents in the custody of an income-tax authority "shall be admitted in evidence" in prosecution proceedings under the chapter and permits proof either by production of the original records or by production of a certified copy signed by the custodian stating it is a true copy and that the originals are in its custody. The clause covers varied formats of records, limits application to criminal proceedings under the chapter, and preserves courts' power to test genuineness and require originals where fairness demands.
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Non-cognizable classification of specified tax offences requires magistrate sanction before arrest or investigation, limiting summary enforcement.
Clause 492 of the Income Tax Bill, 2025 designates specified income tax offences as non-cognizable for purposes of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 by means of a non-obstante provision. As a result, arrest cannot be effected without a magistrate-issued warrant and investigations into those offences require prior magistrate authorization, imposing judicial gatekeeping at the threshold of criminal proceedings and constraining unilateral police action in tax enforcement.
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Prior sanction for tax prosecution centralises oversight, enables compounding, and restricts arbitrary criminal initiation against taxpayers.
Clause 491 makes prior sanction by designated senior officers a precondition to prosecution for specified tax offences, authorises senior regional heads and the Board to issue directions, permits compounding of offences at any stage by senior officials, bars prosecution where specified penalties have been reduced or waived, and affirms that statements or documents given to tax authorities remain admissible notwithstanding an expectation of penalty reduction or compounding.
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Clause 490 mandates that once the prosecution establishes the actus reus, the court shall presume the existence of a culpable mental state-broadly defined to include intention, motive, knowledge, belief and reason to believe-and permits the accused to rebut that presumption only by proving absence of such mental state beyond reasonable doubt.
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Presumption regarding assets and documents found in searches shifts evidentiary burden, now including virtual digital assets.
Clause 489 creates a rebuttable presumption that assets (including virtual digital assets) and books or documents found in a person's possession during an authorised search, or received via requisition, are presumed to belong to that person and that documents' contents are true when tendered in prosecution, applied "so far as may be" by reference to the Bill's presumption provision and extending to other persons identified by the Bill's connected-person provision.
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Presumption of karta guilt shifts evidential burden, requiring demonstration of due diligence to avoid prosecution.
Clause 488 places primary criminal responsibility on the karta of a Hindu Undivided Family by deeming the karta guilty of an offence by the HUF, subject to statutory defences of lack of knowledge or proof of having exercised all due diligence. It further deems any member guilty where the offence is proved to have been committed with that member's consent or connivance or is attributable to their neglect, creating independent member liability while preserving the karta's available exculpatory defences.
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Corporate officer liability: deeming provision shifts initial burden to accused, with due diligence defence for tax offences.
Where a company commits an income-tax offence, the company and every person who was in charge of, and responsible to, the company for the conduct of the business at the time are statutorily deemed guilty and liable to prosecution, subject to a defence that the individual lacked knowledge or exercised all due diligence to prevent the offence; separate liability arises where the offence occurred with the consent, connivance, or neglect of officers, companies are punishable by fine while individuals may face full penal consequences, and definitions explicitly include firms and associations of persons.
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Reasonable cause defence limits criminal liability for certain tax compliance failures, protecting bona fide taxpayers from prosecution.
Clause 486 creates a non obstante statutory reasonable cause defence prohibiting punishment for failures under the specified sections of the Income Tax Bill, 2025 when the accused proves reasonable cause. The provision places the burden of proof on the accused, preserves judicial fact specific assessment of reasonable cause, and operates to limit prosecutions for bona fide or uncontrollable lapses while directing enforcement attention to willful or egregious defaults.
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Enhanced penalties for repeat tax offences impose mandatory imprisonment and fine upon subsequent convictions under specified tax provisions.
A prior judicial conviction under any specified income tax offence triggers enhanced punishment: a person again convicted under any of those listed offences is subject to mandatory rigorous imprisonment and a mandatory fine, regardless of whether the subsequent conviction is for the same or a different listed offence; judicial discretion governs the precise sentence within the prescribed range, and the provision applies only after a prior conviction, not mere charge or prosecution.
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Abetment of false returns: broadened criminal exposure for facilitators with mandatory imprisonment and fines for culpable conduct.
Clause 484 criminalises abetment or inducement in making or delivering false tax-related statements, requiring that the abettor know the falsity or not believe the statement to be true. Punishment is tiered by the quantum sought to be evaded, with mandatory minimum imprisonment terms and fines, while procedural details and definitions such as "induce" are not specified, raising interpretive and evidentiary challenges. The clause mirrors prior law's structure but broad wording could implicate advisors and intermediaries absent judicial or legislative clarification.
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Falsification of accounting records: criminal liability for wilful false entries intended to enable another person to evade tax.
Clause 483 makes it an offence to wilfully make or cause false entries in books of account or other documents with intent to enable another person to evade tax, interest, or penalty; it requires proof of wilful conduct and intent but not proof that the beneficiary actually evaded liability, covers physical and electronic records relevant to tax proceedings, and prescribes rigorous imprisonment and a fine.
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False verification offences: criminal liability requires proved knowledge or recklessness, with graded imprisonment and mandatory fines.
The provision criminalises making false statements in any statutory verification or delivering false accounts where the person knows or believes the statement to be false or does not believe it to be true. Prosecution must prove this mental element beyond reasonable doubt. A graded penalty applies according to the financial impact of the falsity: substantial evasion attracts a higher term of rigorous imprisonment while other cases attract a lower term, and a fine is mandatorily imposed in addition to imprisonment.
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Willful failure to produce accounts triggers criminal liability including imprisonment and mandatory fine under the new tax provision.
Clause 481 establishes a penal offence for willful failure to produce accounts and documents called for by a notice under section 268(1), or willful non compliance with a direction under section 268(5), punishable by rigorous imprisonment for up to one year and liability to fine, with criminal prosecution requiring proof of willfulness beyond reasonable doubt and adherence to procedural safeguards; the clause mirrors prior law while leaving the fine quantum unspecified and raising interpretative issues regarding the threshold for willfulness and potential overlap with other provisions.
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Wilful failure to furnish return in search cases creates criminal liability, exposing taxpayers to imprisonment and fines.
Clause 480 penalises a person who, following a search and pursuant to a notice under section 294(1)(a), wilfully fails to furnish a return of income within the prescribed time. The provision requires proof of deliberate non compliance, treats the offence as criminal, and prescribes imprisonment along with a court levied fine, while prosecutions remain subject to ordinary criminal procedure and due process safeguards.

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Taxation of certain income of the trusts or institutions under both the regimes at special rate

1 February, 2022

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5.2 Taxation of certain income of the trusts or institutions under both the regimes at special rate

Following incomes of the trusts or institutions are chargeable to tax, under different provisions of the Act:-

(a) The trusts or institutions under the first or second regime are required not to pass on any unreasonable benefit to the trustee or any other specified person. For the trusts or institutions under the second regime, clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act provides that the entire exemption shall be denied to the trust irrespective of the amount of benefit passed on. For trusts or institutions under the first regime similar provisions is proposed by way of insertion of twentieth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act.

(b) It is mandatory for any trust or institution under the first regime, to keep their funds in the specified modes. Third proviso of clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act specifically provides that the funds of such trusts or institutions shall be maintained in these specified modes. For the trusts or institutions under the second regime, clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act provides that the exemption shall be denied to the trust irrespective of the amount of investment in non-specified modes.

(c) Further, the trusts or institutions under both the regimes are required to apply at least 85% of their income during the year. Where the trust is not able to apply 85% of the income, it may accumulate such income for maximum 5 years. Sub-section (3) of section 11 of the Act specifically provides for the trusts or institutions under the second regime that such accumulated income, which could not be applied within the period of accumulation (maximum 5 years), shall be deemed to be the income of the trust. Similarly, for the trusts or institutions under the second regime, there is a specific provision under clause (2) of Explanation 1 to sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act providing for the accumulation of income for a period of one year. Sub99 section (1B) of section 11 of the Act provides that if the income accumulated under clause (2) of Explanation 1 to sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act could not be applied within the time allowed; it shall be deemed to be the income of the trust.

(d) The trusts or institutions under thefirst regime are also required to apply at least 85% of their income during the year. Where such trust is not able to apply 85% of its income during the year and does not accumulate such income, entire income of such trust shall be subjected to tax where the trust is approved under the second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act since third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act mandates minimum 85% application of income unless such income is accumulated.

Denying exemption to the trust, for small amount of income applied in violation to the provisions referred in clause (a) and (b) above creates difficulties to the trusts or institutions under both the regimes as there is ambiguity about the manner of taxation of such income. Further, there is need for special provision to ensure that the income applied in violation is taxed at special rate without deduction. Accordingly, in order to rationalise the provisions, the following amendments are proposed:-

(a) It is proposed to amend clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act to provide that only that part of income which has been applied in violation to the provisions of the said clause shall be liable to be included in total income.

(b) It is also proposed to insert twenty first proviso in clause (23C) of section 10 to specifically provide that where the income of any trust under the first regime, or any part of the such income or property, has been applied directly or indirectly for the benefit of any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13, such income or part of income or property shall be deemed to be income of such person of the previous year in which it is so applied. The provisions of sub-section (2), (4) and (6) of section 13 of the Act shall also apply to it.

(c) It is proposed to amend clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act to provide that only the that part of income which has been invested in violation to the provisions of the said clause shall be liable to be included in total income.

(d) It is proposed to insert Explanation 4 in third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to specifically provide that income accumulated which is not utilised for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set apart shall be deemed to be the income of such person of the previous year being the last previous year of the period, for which the income is accumulated or set apart.

(e) All the above income are also required to be taxed at special rate. Hence, it is proposed to insert new section 115BBI in the Act providing that where the total income of any assessee being a trust under the first or second regime, includes any income by way of any specified income, the income-tax payable shall be the aggregate of-

(i) the amount of income-tax calculated at the rate of thirty per cent on the aggregate of specified income; and

(ii) the amount of income-tax with which the assessee would have been chargeable had the total income of the assessee been reduced by the aggregate of specified income referred to in clause (i).

(f) The sub-section (2) of this new section seeks to provide that no deduction in respect of any expenditure or allowance or set off of any loss shall be allowed to the assessee under any provision of the Act in computing specified income.

(g) Explanation to the proposed section defines "specified income" to mean:-

(i) income accumulated or set apart in excess of fifteen percent of the income where such accumulation is not allowed under any specific provisions of the Act; or

(ii) deemed income referred to in Explanation 4 to third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or sub-section (3) of section 11 or sub-section (1B) of section 11;or

(iii) any income which is not exempt under clause (23C) of section 10 on account of violation of the provisions of clause (b) of third proviso of clause (23C) of section 10 or not to be excluded from total income under the provisions of clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13; or

(iv) any income which is deemed to be income under the twenty first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or which is not excluded from total income under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13; or

(v) any income which is not excluded from total income under clause (c) of subsection (1) of section 11.

These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment years.

[Clauses 4 , 8 and 28 ]

Topics

Acts Income Tax