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    Reasonable cause defense protects taxpayers from penalties for bona fide, non culpable defaults and encourages documented compliance.
    Clause 470 creates an exception to specified penalty provisions: no penalty shall be imposed if the assessee proves there was reasonable cause for the failure. It functions as a non obstante provision covering enumerated sections, shifts the burden of proof to the taxpayer, and is aimed primarily at bona fide procedural or technical lapses rather than deliberate violations.
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    Voluntary disclosure and penalty waiver enable administrative relief when pre detection disclosure, cooperation and payment conditions are met.
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    Penalty for failure to quote TDCAN/TAN: discretionary fixed sanctions apply for non compliance and knowingly false quoting.
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    PAN/Aadhaar compliance: new per-default penalty regime distinguishes intentional false quoting from strict liability omissions and extends responsible person liability.
    Clause 467 establishes a per-default penalty regime for non-compliance with section 262, differentiating intentional false PAN/Aadhaar quoting-which requires proof of knowledge or belief-from omissions treated as strict liability, and extends liability to persons responsible for ensuring correct quoting/authentication; it emphasizes authentication and digital e KYC integration while remaining silent on express procedural safeguards such as the opportunity to be heard, creating potential due process and transitional issues.
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    Penalty for non cooperation: new provision allows senior tax officers to impose a moderate monetary penalty without explicit hearing safeguards.
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    Penalty for procedural defaults: fixed and daily fines, capped to tax collectible, with delegated authority to impose them.
    Clause 465 creates a penalty regime for procedural non compliance under the Income Tax Bill, 2025: a fixed penalty for discrete defaults, a daily penalty for continuing defaults, a cap tying certain penalties to the amount of tax deductible or collectible, and specified authorities empowered to impose penalties; it broadens the definition of income tax authority and updates cross references to the restructured Bill, while notably omitting an explicit provision requiring an opportunity to be heard before penalty imposition.
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    Penalty regime for failure to furnish prescribed statements strengthens compliance under tax exempt reporting obligations.
    A statutory penalty regime targets failure by specified research institutions and charitable funds to furnish prescribed documents, statements, or certificates within prescribed timeframes; penalties fall within a prescribed band and are imposed at the discretion of the Assessing Officer, operating as a civil compliance measure alongside general procedural safeguards and requiring stakeholders to update compliance processes to align with re referenced substantive sections.
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    Professional accountability: penalty for furnishing incorrect information in professional reports or certificates under the new income tax bill.
    Clause 463 imposes a strict-liability penalty regime on accountants, merchant bankers and registered valuers for furnishing incorrect information in any report or certificate under the Act or rules. It prescribes a fixed per-instance monetary penalty and empowers the Assessing Officer, Joint Commissioner (Appeals) or Commissioner (Appeals) to impose the penalty upon satisfaction that incorrect information was furnished. The clause updates definitional references for valuers, omits an explicit definition of "accountant," and operates without prejudice to other civil or criminal consequences.
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    Penalty for failure to furnish information: fixed sanction for inaccurate or missing cross-border disclosure, raising proportionality concerns.
    Clause 462 penalises any person required to furnish information under section 397(3)(d) who fails to supply such information or furnishes inaccurate information; the Assessing Officer may impose a fixed monetary penalty, the provision mirrors Section 271I in structure and intent, lacks an express reasonable-cause defence or gradation of penalty, and raises interpretative issues as to the scope of "inaccurate information," procedural safeguards, and proportionality in enforcement.
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    Penalty for failure to furnish statements: discretionary fines with short grace period where tax is paid and statement filed promptly.
    Clause 461 creates a penalty for failure to deliver statements under section 397(3)(b) or for furnishing incorrect information, authorising the Assessing Officer to impose a discretionary monetary penalty equivalent in range to the existing Section 271H. Clause 461(2) exempts penalty where tax, fee and interest are paid to the Central Government and the statement is filed within a short grace period, thereby balancing deterrence with relief for prompt substantive compliance while leaving procedural safeguards and definitions, such as "incorrect information," unclearly specified.
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    Penalty for failure to submit statements may be imposed by the assessing officer as a daily or capped sanction, discretion preserved.
    Clause 460 permits the Assessing Officer to impose discretionary monetary penalties on any person required to furnish a statement under section 505 for failure to file within the prescribed period, using a two-tier structure of a daily sanction for short-term delay and a capped penalty for longer default, with applicability dependent on the scope of the parent reporting obligation and subject to the general procedural and appellate framework of the tax law.
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    Reporting penalties: new clause preserves escalating daily fines and a large fixed penalty for inaccurate international tax reports.
    Clause 459 establishes a tiered penalty regime under section 511 for reporting entities: daily penalties for failure to furnish reports, daily penalties for failure to produce information after the allowed period, an escalated daily penalty if default continues after service of a penalty order, and a substantial fixed penalty for furnishing inaccurate information or failing to correct known or discovered inaccuracies. The prescribed authority under section 511 is empowered to impose these penalties, and the clause mirrors Section 271GB in quantum and triggers while raising issues about reasonable cause relief and procedural safeguards.
    Act RulesBills
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    Penalty for failure to report transfers of management or control triggers significant compliance and enforcement consequences.
    Clause 458 creates a penalty for failure by an Indian concern to furnish information or documents under section 506, authorising the prescribed income-tax authority to impose either a transaction-value-based penalty where a transaction effects a direct or indirect transfer of management or control, or a fixed monetary penalty otherwise, and otherwise mirrors the substantive framework and enforcement objectives of Section 271GA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
    Act RulesBills
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    Transfer pricing documentation penalty: failure to furnish documents leads to transaction value based penalties and enforcement by tax authorities.
    Failure to furnish prescribed transfer pricing information or documentation for international or specified domestic transactions triggers a transaction value based penalty under Clause 457, enforceable by the Assessing Officer, authorised Transfer Pricing Officer and the Commissioner (Appeals); the clause ties this enforcement directly to the obligations in section 171(2) and raises interpretive issues concerning the meaning of failure, computation of transaction value, overlap with other penalties, and the availability of a reasonable cause defence.
    Act RulesBills
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    Penalty for failure to furnish statements: eligible investment funds face a fixed sanction under the bill; authority may impose it.
    Clause 456 imposes a fixed penalty where an eligible investment fund fails to furnish required statements or information within the prescribed time; the prescribed income-tax authority may direct payment of the fixed sanction. The reporting deadline is set by the substantive eligibility reporting provision; the penalty is discretionary rather than automatic, lacks a graded scale, and does not expressly specify procedural safeguards such as criteria for discretion or an opportunity to be heard.
    Act RulesBills
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    Penalty for inaccurate financial reporting imposes institutional and account-holder liability while enabling recovery of penalties from account holders.
    Clause 455 mandates penalties for persons required to furnish statements of financial transactions or reportable accounts for providing inaccurate information or failing to meet due diligence obligations, and imposes an additional per-account penalty on reporting financial institutions where inaccuracies stem from account-holder-supplied false information; reporting institutions may recover such additional penalties from the responsible account holders by direct recovery or retention of funds, with imposition directed by the prescribed income-tax authority and substantive continuity with the former Section 271FAA.
    Act RulesBills
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    Penalty for failure to furnish financial transaction statements - escalating daily sanctions for continued non-compliance after notice.
    Clause 454 creates a statutory penalty regime for failure to furnish a statement of financial transaction or reportable account, prescribing a daily penalty accruing from the date the filing deadline lapses, with an escalated daily rate where default continues after a formal notice, and vesting discretionary imposition authority in the income-tax authority subject to procedural safeguards and rights to challenge.
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    Penalty for non-compliant loan repayments: Assessing Officer may impose a penalty equal to the amount repaid for procedural breaches.
    Clause 453 permits the Assessing Officer to impose a penalty equal to any loan, deposit or specified advance repaid in contravention of section 188, applying to all persons and covering repayments made by non-transparent modes. The provision creates strict liability based on procedural breach rather than mens rea, centralizes enforcement with the Assessing Officer, and omits an explicit reasonable-cause defence, raising potential interpretative and transitional issues regarding the scope of specified advances and procedural safeguards.
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    Electronic payment mandate triggers daily penalties for non compliance unless a taxpayer proves good and sufficient reason.
    Clause 452 empowers the Assessing Officer to impose a fixed per day monetary penalty for failure to provide prescribed electronic modes of payment under section 187, subject to a saving where the person proves good and sufficient reason for the failure; the provision mirrors the former section 271DB framework but streamlines authority and lacks detailed procedural guidance.
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    Monetary transaction penalty: discretion to impose a penalty equal to prohibited receipt unless good and sufficient reasons are proved.
    Clause 451 empowers the Assessing Officer to impose a penalty equal to the sum received in contravention of section 186 unless the recipient proves good and sufficient reasons; the provision emphasises proportionality, vests discretion in enforcement, omits explicit procedural safeguards and mens rea, and mirrors the substantive penalty quantum and defence in the earlier statutory regime while differing in statutory tone and procedural concision.

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      Tax incentives for units located in International Financial Services Centre (IFSC)

      1 February, 2021

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      Budget 2021-22 + FINANCE Bill, 2021

      Tax incentives for units located in International Financial Services Centre (IFSC)

      Government has establishment a world class financial services centre. Units located in IFSC enjoy some concession. In order to make location in IFSC more attractive, it is proposed to provide the following additional incentives:

      (i) It is proposed to amend section 9A of the Act to provide that the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify that any one or more of the conditions specified in clauses(a) to (m) of sub-section(3) or clauses (a) to (d) of sub-section (4) of section 9A of the Act shall not apply (or apply with modification) to an eligible investment fund or its eligible fund manager, if the fund manager is located in an International Financial Services Centre and has commenced operations on or before the 31st day of March, 2024.

      (ii) It is also proposed to amend clause (4D) of section 10 of the Act so as to provide that the exemption under this clause shall also be available in case of any income accrued or arisen to, or received to the investment division of offshore banking unit to the extent attributable to it and computed in the prescribed manner.

      (iii) It is also proposed to amend the expression “specified fund” to include under the purview the investment division of offshore banking unit which has been granted a category III AIF registration and fulfils other conditions to be prescribed including the condition of maintaining separate books for its investment division. The investment division of offshore banking unit is proposed to be defined as an investment division of a banking unit of a non- resident located in an International Financial Services Centre and which has commenced operation on or before the 31st day of March, 2024.

      (iv) It is also proposed to insert new clause (4E) in of section 10 of the Act so as to exempt any income accrued or arisen to, or received by a non-resident as a result of transfer of non-deliverable forward contracts entered into with an offshore banking unit of International Financial Services Centre which commenced operations on or before the 31st day of Mach, 2024 and fulfils prescribed conditions.

      (v) It is also proposed to insert new clause (4F) in of section 10 of the Act so as to exempt any income of a non-resident by way of royalty on account of lease of an aircraft in a previous year paid by a unit of an International Financial Services Centre, if the unit is eligible for deduction under section 80LA for that previous year and has commenced operation on or before the 31st day of the March, 2024.

      (vi) It is also proposed to insert new clause (23FF) in of section 10 of the Act so as to exempt any income of the nature of capital gains, arising or received by a non-resident, which is on account of transfer of share of a company resident in India by the resultant fund and such shares were transferred from the original fund to the resultant fund in relocation, if capital gains on such shares were not chargeable to tax had that relocation not taken place.

      “Original Fund” is proposed to be defined as a fund established or incorporated or registered outside India, which collects funds from its members for investing it for their benefit and fulfils the following conditions, namely:-

      (a) the fund is not a person resident in India;

      (b) the fund is a resident of a country or a specified territory with which an agreement referred to in sub-section (1) of section 90 or sub-section (1) of section 90A has been entered into; or is established or incorporated or registered in a country or a specified territory notified by the Central Government in this behalf;

      (c) the fund and its activities are subject to applicable investor protection regulations in the country or specified territory where it is established or incorporated or is a resident; and

      (d) fulfils such other conditions as prescribed;

      “Relocation” is proposed to be defined as transfer of assets of the original fund to a resultant fund on or before the 31st day of March, 2023, where consideration for such transfer is discharged in the form of share or unit or interest in the resulting fund to the shareholder or unit holder or interest holder of the original fund in the same proportion in which the share or unit or interest was held by such shareholder or unit holder or interest holder in such original fund.

      “Resultant fund” is proposed to be defined as a fund established or incorporated in India in the form of a trust or a company or a limited liability partnership, which-

      (a) has been granted a certificate of registration as a Category I or Category II or Category III Alternative Investment Fund, and is regulated under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Alternative Investment Fund) Regulations, 2012, made under the Securities and exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992); and

      (b) is located in any International Financial Services Centre as referred to in sub-section (1A) of section 80LA.

      (vii) It is also proposed to amend section 47 of the Act to insert new clauses in the said section so as to provide that any transfer, in relocation, of a capital asset by the original fund to the resultant fund shall not be considered as transfer for capital gain tax purpose. It is also proposed to provide another clause to provide that any transfer by a shareholder or unit holder or interest holder, in a relocation, of a capital asset being a share or unit or interest held by him in the original fund in consideration for the share or unit or interest in the resultant fund shall not be treated as transfer for the purpose of capital gains. The definition of “Original Fund”, “Relocation” and Resultant Fund shall be as already described above.

      (vii) Consequential amendments shall be proposed in section 49, 56 and 79 of the Act on account of such relocation.

      (ix) It is also proposed to amend the section 80LA of the Act to:

      • provide that deduction under said section is also available to a unit of International Financial Services Centre if it is registered under the International Financial Services Centre Authority Act, 2019 and thereby removing the earlier requirement of obtaining permission under any other relevant law.

      • provide that the income arising from transfer of an asset, being an aircraft or aircraft engine which was leased by a unit referred to in clause (c) of sub-section (2) of said section to a domestic company engaged in the business of operation of aircraft before such transfer shall also be eligible for 100% deduction subject to condition that the unit has commenced operation on or before the 31st March 2024.

      • to provide that in case the unit is registered under the International Financial Services Centre Authority Act, 2019 then the copy of permission shall mean a copy of the registration obtained under the International Financial Services Centre Authority Act, 2019.

      (x) It is proposed to amend section 115AD to make the provision of this section applicable to investment division of an offshore banking unit in the same manner as it applies to specified fund. However, the provisions of this section shall apply to the extent of income that is attributable to the investment division of such banking unit as a Category-III portfolio investor under the Securities and exchange Board of India (Foreign Portfolio investors) Regulations, 2019 made under the Securities And Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992), calculated in the prescribed manner.

      The expression “investment division of offshore banking unit” is also proposed to have the meaning as defined in Para (iii).

      These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2022 and will accordingly apply to the assessment year 2022-23 and subsequent assessment years.

      [Clauses 4,5,15, 17, 21, 23 and 30]

       


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      Budget 2021-22 + FINANCE Bill, 2021

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      ActsIncome Tax