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    Deduction under Section 80CCD extended to NPS Vatsalya contributions, with withdrawal taxation and partial withdrawal exemption.
    Parents or guardians may claim a statutory deduction for amounts paid into a minor's NPS Vatsalya account up to a prescribed ceiling. Amounts for which a deduction is allowed, including any accretions, will be taxed on withdrawal when deposits were made to a minor's account, whereas sums received on account closure due to the minor's death will not be treated as the parent's or guardian's income. Partial withdrawals for defined contingencies are excluded from the parent's or guardian's income to the extent they do not exceed a prescribed percentage of contributions and subject to regulatory conditions.
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    Annual value of self-occupied property simplified, nil deemed where owner occupies or cannot occupy for any reason.
    The annual value of a property used as the owner's residence shall be taken as nil if the owner occupies it for residence or cannot actually occupy it for any reason; the existing restriction limiting this benefit to a specified limited number of houses remains unchanged and the amendment applies prospectively under the Finance Bill.
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    Faceless schemes notification: Government may issue ongoing directions allowing notifications beyond the prior cutoff to operationalise schemes.
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    Processing period for immunity applications extended to a longer disposal timeframe for Assessing Officers, effective from April.
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    Updated return time-limit extended to encourage voluntary compliance, with higher additional tax rates for later filings.
    Extension of the filing window for updated returns from two years to four years with a graded schedule of higher additional income-tax rates for filings after two, three, and up to four years; filing barred where a show-cause notice has been issued after thirty-six months, subject to an exception if a later determination finds the notice unwarranted. Effective 1 April 2025.
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    Tax exemption for SUUTI extended to March 31, 2027, barring income and related taxes on its receipts.
    An amendment to sub section (1) of section 13 of the UTI Repeal Act, 2002 will provide that, notwithstanding the Income tax Act or any other enactment, no income tax or any other tax shall be payable by the Administrator in relation to the Specified Undertaking of Unit Trust of India for the period beginning on the appointed day and ending on the 31st day of March, 2027; the amendment takes effect from 1st April, 2025.
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    Provisional assessment time-limit set with limited extension; voluntary post-clearance revision permitted; Interim Board to exercise Settlement Commission powers.
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    Tariff rationalisation compresses rate slabs and reclassifies goods to improve identification and align with international nomenclature.
    Amendments compress and lower multiple tariff slabs into streamlined rate bands and tariffise effective rates, and introduce new tariff lines and supplementary notes to improve goods identification and align classifications with WCO HS 2022; new lines include distinctions by process and variety for rice, makhana product categories, PCB/PCT/PBB concentration levels in waste oils, separate precious metal purity bands, and entries for dual-use chemicals and technical-grade pesticides, with changes effective from a designated future date.
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    Customs duty rate changes alter import tariffs across sectors, including immediate provisional increases and notified decreases.
    Amendments to the First Schedule revise import duty rates by specifying targeted tariff increases (immediately by provisional declaration for selected textile and electronics items), extensive tariff decreases across diverse commodities (with later effective dates subject to notification), and numerical rate adjustments for raw materials, ores, metals and industrial inputs, including reductions to nil for specified waste, scrap and ores; provisions are structured by tariff item and rely on finance measure clauses and a provisional collection mechanism for implementation.
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    Customs duty adjustments recalibrate import and export tariffs to incentivise specific sectors and inputs, changing duty rates broadly.
    Proposed notifications adjust Basic Customs Duty and Export Duty effective 2 February 2025, reducing or nil rating duties on specified aquafarming inputs, wet blue leather, metal waste and lithium ion battery scrap, and numerous electronics inputs and parts; add exempted capital goods for lithium ion battery manufacture for EVs and mobile phones; and amend duty rates for motor vehicles, motorcycles and toy components to recalibrate import protection and incentivise manufacturing and exports.
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    Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess revised to impose differentiated import cess rates on specified goods, altering tariff-stage duties.
    Notification No. 11/2021 - Customs is amended to revise the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) rates on specified imported goods effective 02.02.2025, introducing differentiated cess where previously nil across categories including stone, footwear, motor vehicles (with special entries for concessional imports and used vehicles), solar cells and modules, PVC flex materials, electronics and parts, furniture, lighting, smart meters, yachts, bicycles, candles, platinum findings and certain laboratory chemicals.
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    Social Welfare Surcharge exemptions expanded: specified imported goods excluded from SWS levy under amended customs notification.
    Amendment to Notification No. 11/2018 exempts specified imported goods from levy of the Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) with effect from 02.02.2025. Exempted categories include solar cells and modules, specified motor vehicles (including used vehicles and vehicles for transport of goods or ten or more persons and certain high-CIF value cars), various footwear classifications, furniture and bedding articles, lighting fittings, parts of electronic toys, candles, PVC flex films, smart electricity meters, yachts and pleasure vessels, articles of gold/silver under specified entries, dutiable personal-use imports, passenger baggage articles, and certain laboratory chemicals.
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    Customs duty exemptions review extends and modifies conditional exemptions, adds entries for drugs and satellite goods, and lapses one entry.
    Review of customs duty exemptions renews and recalibrates conditional BCD exemptions under Notification No. 50/2017 Customs: twenty four entries are extended with modifications and one entry lapses. Extensions and modifications preserve duty relief across sectors-ships and ship manufacture, bulk drugs and life saving medicines, testing imports, telecom optical fibre inputs, textile machinery, wind energy components and seeds for lab grown diamonds-while creating separate entries and refining lists for drugs, diagnostics and satellite and launch vehicle related imports.
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    Import compliance timeframe extended; end use period lengthened and reporting shifted to quarterly filings under IGCR amendment.
    Amendments to the IGCR Rules extend the period to fulfil the specified end use under Rules 6 and 7 and change the compliance reporting requirement so importers submit a quarterly statement instead of a monthly statement, thereby adjusting both the end use timeframe and the frequency of filings for imports at concessional duty for manufacture of excisable goods.

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      Upholding Equality: HC Strikes Down Discriminatory Circular on Charitable Trust Approvals

      13 August, 2024

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      Deciphering Legal Judgments: A Comprehensive Analysis of Case Law

      Reported as:

      2024 (4) TMI 499 - MADRAS HIGH COURT

      Introduction

      This article provides a comprehensive analysis of a recent judgement delivered by the High Court (HC) regarding the denial of regular approval u/s 80G(5) of the Income-Tax Act, 1961 (the Act) to newly established charitable trusts. The case revolves around the classification made by the respondents (tax authorities) in granting an extension of time for filing applications for approval u/s 80G(5) between existing and new trusts.

      Arguments Presented

      Petitioners' Arguments

      The petitioners, representing various charitable trusts, argued that the impugned circular issued by the respondents, which failed to extend the due date for making applications for approval u/s 80G(5) for new trusts, was arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution (right to equality). They contended that:

      • The classification made by the respondents between existing and new trusts in granting the extension of time was unreasonable and lacked any intelligible differentia.
      • The denial of approval u/s 80G(5) would discourage potential donors from contributing to the trusts, jeopardizing their very existence.
      • Once the respondents decided to extend the time, the petitioners acquired a vested right, and the exclusion of new trusts from the extension was discriminatory.

      Respondents' Arguments

      The respondents, represented by the Additional Solicitor General of India, contended that:

      • The petitioner trusts did not have any vested right to claim an extension of time, as the grant of extension was an act of benevolence by the respondents.
      • The classification made between existing and new trusts was reasonable, and such differentiation was permissible.
      • The reasons for the distinction were provided in the counter-affidavit, which highlighted the differences between existing and new trusts in terms of their eligibility for deduction and the amendments made to Section 115TD of the Act.

      Discussions and Findings of the Court

      The court made the following observations and findings:

      1. The petitioner trusts did not have any vested right to claim an extension of time, and the respondents had the power to grant extensions u/s 119(2)(b) of the Act.
      2. Initially, no discrimination was made between existing and new trusts when the first circular (Circular No. 8 of 2022) was issued, granting an extension of time.
      3. In the impugned Circular No. 6 of 2023, the stated reason for the extension was to mitigate genuine hardship faced by the trusts in filing applications on time. However, no reason was provided for omitting the clause related to Section 80G(5) for new trusts.
      4. The respondents failed to provide any rationale or reasoning for the classification made between existing and new trusts regarding the approval u/s 80G(5).
      5. The differential treatment was not based on any substantial distinction pertinent to the object of the circular, and the discrimination was artificial.
      6. The impugned clause (ii) of Circular No. 6 of 2023, which excluded new trusts from the extension for approval u/s 80G(5), was arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution, and therefore, ultra vires the Constitution.

      Analysis and Decision by the Court

      The court held that the classification made by the respondents in granting the extension of time for filing applications for approval u/s 80G(5) between existing and new trusts was unreasonable. The court found no intelligible differentia or rational nexus between the classification and the object sought to be achieved by the circular, which was to mitigate the genuine hardship faced by the trusts in filing applications on time.

      Consequently, the court declared clause 5(ii) of Circular No. 6 of 2023 as illegitimate, arbitrary, and ultra vires the Constitution of India. The court directed the respondents to consider the applications submitted by the petitioners for recognition/approval u/s 80G(5) as within time and to pass orders on the merits within six months from the date of receipt of the order.

      Doctrine or Principle Discussed

      The court's decision was based on the principle of reasonable classification enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. The court reiterated the well-established tests for determining the reasonableness of a classification, as laid down by the Supreme Court in various judgments, such as:

      • The classification must be based on an intelligible differentia that distinguishes persons or things grouped from those left out.
      • The differentia must have a rational relationship to the object sought to be achieved by the statute or legislation.

      Relied Upon or Followed Judgements

      The court relied upon the following judgments of the Supreme Court:

      Comprehensive Summary

      The High Court, in this judgement, struck down clause 5(ii) of Circular No. 6 of 2023 issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) as arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution. The impugned clause failed to extend the due date for making applications for approval u/s 80G(5) of the Income-Tax Act, 1961, for newly established charitable trusts, while granting such an extension to existing trusts.

      The court found that the classification made by the respondents (tax authorities) between existing and new trusts in granting the extension of time lacked any intelligible differentia or rational nexus with the object of mitigating the genuine hardship faced by the trusts in filing applications on time. The respondents could not provide any reasonable justification or rationale for the differential treatment.

      Consequently, the court declared the impugned clause as ultra vires the Constitution and directed the respondents to consider the applications submitted by the petitioner trusts for approval u/s 80G(5) as within time and pass orders on the merits within six months.

      The judgement reinforced the principle of reasonable classification enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution and the tests laid down by the Supreme Court for determining the reasonableness of a classification.

       

       


      Full Text:

      2024 (4) TMI 499 - MADRAS HIGH COURT

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      ActsIncome Tax