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ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a consolidated show cause notice and adjudication/order can be issued in respect of input tax credit (ITC) wrongly availed or utilized "for any period" spanning multiple financial years under the Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) Act.
2. Whether the institution of parallel or prior proceedings by a State GST authority, including dropping of proceedings by a State authority on the same subject-matter, precludes the Central GST authority from issuing a show cause notice or passing an adjudicatory order in respect of the same facts.
3. Whether an adjudication order can be impugned on the ground that the order was passed without considering the reply filed by the person to whom the show cause notice was issued.
4. Relief-related issue: Whether the petitioner should be permitted to file an appeal notwithstanding limitation, and on what terms the Court should deal with requirement of pre-deposit and preservation of other contentions.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of consolidated show cause notice / order for multiple financial years
Legal framework: Sections 73 and 74 of the CGST Act permit determination of tax not paid or input tax credit wrongly availed or utilised. Sections 73(3), 73(4), 74(3) and 74(4) refer to notices/statements "for any period" or "for such periods"; Sections 73(10) and 74(10) prescribe limitation periods referring to "financial year". "Tax period" is defined as the period for which the return is required to be furnished.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows prior treatment holding that the statutory language permitting issuance of notices "for any period" contemplates periods beyond a single financial year; consolidated notices for multiple years are permissible where grounds are the same and where fraud/wilful-misstatement/suppression of facts are alleged.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasons that the distinct use of the terms "period/periods" in subsections (3) and (4), contrasted with explicit "financial year" in subsections (10), demonstrates legislative intent that an enquiry or notice may legitimately span multiple tax periods or financial years. The nature of fraudulent availment or utilisation of ITC often requires connecting transactions across financial years (e.g., purchases recorded in one year and supplies in another), and a solitary year's transactions may not reveal a pattern of fraud. Therefore a consolidated notice and order are not only permissible but, in large-scale fraudulent schemes, necessary to establish the modality of illegality. The Court notes that consolidated notices that set out year-wise amounts and particulars in the order permit decipherability and do not violate statutory language. The economic and policy context of ITC (as an incentive for compliant inter se transactions) and documented large-scale misuse of ITC reinforce the necessity of a read of the statute that allows consolidation for investigative efficacy.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that consolidated notices/orders for multiple financial years are permissible under Sections 73 and 74 (given the statutory language and circumstances of fraud) is ratio decidendi. Observations on practical reasons (nature of ITC, parliamentary disclosures of large-scale bogus supplies) support the ratio and are consequential to the decision.
Conclusion: Consolidated show cause notices and orders spanning multiple financial years are lawful under the CGST Act where the statutory conditions are met and the grounds relied upon for the additional periods are the same; such consolidation is often necessary in cases of fraudulent availment/utilisation of ITC.
Issue 2: Effect of State GST dropping proceedings on Central GST action
Legal framework: The judgment recognizes competing administrative/departmental actions by different GST authorities (Central and State) but does not state a categorical statutory bar on the Central authority reopening or pursuing proceedings where a State authority has taken a different view or dropped proceedings.
Precedent treatment: The Court refers to the factual contention (that the Delhi GST Department had dropped proceedings) but does not accept this as a bar to Central proceedings. The opinion follows the principle that adjudicatory competence and investigatory outcomes by one authority do not ipso facto preclude another authority from pursuing a separate statutory mandate, particularly where the Central authority (DG-GST Intelligence) conducted an independent investigation and alleges large-scale fraud.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes that a contrary position taken by the Central GST Department cannot be foreclosed merely because the State authority had earlier dropped proceedings, absent specific legal doctrine or statutory provision creating finality in favour of the taxpayer. The Court did not decide the merits of any estoppel or res judicata argument and left all contentions open for adjudication in the appellate forum.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The disposition that the petitioner should pursue appellate remedy and that prior State dropping of proceedings does not automatically preclude Central action (as applied here) is part of the operative conclusion; however detailed doctrinal limits of bar/estoppel were not authoritatively decided and are therefore largely obiter on broader principles.
Conclusion: Dropping of proceedings by a State GST authority does not, without more, preclude the Central GST authority from issuing or pursuing show cause notices based on its investigation; taxpayer's remedies lie in appeal where such contentions can be examined on merits.
Issue 3: Allegation that adjudication order ignored the petitioner's reply
Legal framework: Principles of natural justice require that replies/representations filed by an affected person be considered by the authority before passing adverse orders. The CGST statutory scheme contemplates issuance of SCN and consideration of replies in adjudication.
Precedent treatment: The Court records the petitioner's contention that its reply was not considered but does not make a definitive factual finding on non-consideration in this judgment; rather, the Court leaves this and other contentions to be adjudicated on merits in the appeal.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the complexity and volume of allegations (large-scale alleged bogus ITC across multiple years), the Court directs that the petitioner avail its appellate remedy rather than grant interlocutory relief on the ground of alleged non-consideration. The appellate forum is the appropriate forum to adjudicate whether the replies were in fact considered and whether natural justice was complied with.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The Court does not decide whether the authority failed to consider the reply; the instruction to proceed by appeal and to keep contentions open is dispositive of relief but is not a ratio determination on the natural justice issue.
Conclusion: Allegation of non-consideration of reply is left open for adjudication on appeal; no interim relief was granted on this basis in the present proceedings.
Issue 4: Relief - permission to file appeal and limitation/pre-deposit directions
Legal framework: Statutory appellate remedy is available against adjudication orders under the CGST Act; limitation rules and pre-deposit requirements apply to appeals but courts possess equitable power in appropriate cases to permit belated filing or to specify conditions for adjudication on merits.
Interpretation and reasoning: Considering that the impugned order is appealable and the petitioner has raised substantial grounds (including consolidated notice argument and claims of prior administrative conduct by State authority and non-consideration of reply), the Court permits the petitioner to file the appeal and the DRC-07 summary before the Appellate Authority by a stipulated date with requisite pre-deposit. The Court directs that if the appeal is filed by the specified date, it shall not be dismissed as barred by limitation and shall be adjudicated on merits; all contentions are kept open for the appellate authority to decide.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The procedural direction to permit filing of appeal notwithstanding limitation, subject to pre-deposit by a specified date, is an operative order and forms the remedy granted by the Court in these proceedings.
Conclusion: The petitioner is permitted to file the appeal and statutory summary before the Appellate Authority by the stipulated date with requisite pre-deposit; such appeal shall not be dismissed as time-barred and shall be adjudicated on merits; all substantive contentions remain open.
Disallowance of Input Tax Credit - levy of penalty - main ground for challenge raised by the Petitioner is that the impugned show cause notice has been issued for multiple financial years in contravention of the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Act, 2017 - HELD THAT:- The challenge to the impugned show cause notice has been raised on the ground that the same has been issued for the multiple financial years. This issue is no longer res integra and has been decided by this Court in Ambika Traders Through Proprietor Gaurav Gupta V. Additional Commissioner, Adjudication DGGSTI, CGST Delhi North, [2025 (8) TMI 315 - DELHI HIGH COURT] it is held that 'in the case of fraudulent availment of ITC or utilization of ITC such consolidated notice and order would not just be in fact, be required to show the wilful misstatement or suppression or the fraudulent availment/utilization.'
Thus, in the opinion of the Court the Petitioner ought to avail of its appellate remedy. The Petitioner is permitted to file an appeal in respect of the impugned order and the summary in DRC-07 before the Appellate Authority by 31st October, 2025 along with requisite pre-deposit. If the same is filed by 31st October, 2025, it shall not be dismissed being barred by limitation and shall be adjudicated on merits.
Petition disposed off.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
Whether proceedings and show cause notice under Section 74 of the UPGST/CGST framework can be validly initiated against a recipient who claimed input tax credit (ITC) where (a) the recipient produced evidence of actual receipt/movement of goods, payment through banking channels and filing of GSTR-3B reflecting tax payment, and (b) the supplier's GST registration was subsequently cancelled or supplier's antecedent transactions were questioned by a tax intelligence unit.
Whether invocation of Section 74 requires specific findings of fraud, wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts with intent to evade tax before initiating criminal/extended scrutiny proceedings, and if failure to verify intelligence reports or to record such findings renders the proceedings unsustainable.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue A: Validity of initiating proceedings under Section 74 where recipient produces documentation of genuine supply, movement of goods, banking payments and filed returns
Legal framework: Section 74 (analogous to Section 74 of CGST Act and compared to Section 11A of Central Excise Act) permits invocation only where tax has not been paid "by reason of fraud, or any wilful-misstatement or suppression of facts to evade tax." Section 16(2)(c) (noted by authorities) concerns claim of ITC subject to supplier's deposit of tax as per returns.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on a contemporaneous administrative circular (13.12.2023) interpreting Section 74 to require fraud/wilful mis-statement/suppression as precondition for initiating such proceedings; earlier High Court rulings applying the circular and the Apex Court authority on analogous provisions (Continental Foundation line) were followed. Prior decisions holding that where the supplier was registered and had uploaded returns, adverse action against recipient was improper were cited and applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the record and found the petitioner produced purchase invoices, e-way bills, transport bilty, banking evidence of payment, and GSTR-3B entries for both purchaser and supplier; these materials demonstrated actual movement of goods and tax payment. The authorities initiated proceedings on an intelligence report alleging irregularity in supplier's antecedent purchases, but failed to verify the intelligence, failed to produce or make part of the record the material underlying the intelligence, and recorded no finding of fraud, wilful mis-statement or suppression against the supplier in relation to the sales to the petitioner. The Court held that where the recipient establishes genuine supply and tax payment and no cogent rebuttal or findings of fraud exist, invoking Section 74 is not justified.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Proceedings under Section 74 cannot be sustained where recipient proves genuine supply, tax payment and filing of returns and no finding of fraud/wilful mis-statement/suppression is recorded; an intelligence report must be verified and its material disclosed before using it to initiate Section 74 proceedings. Obiter - observations on the policy aim of GST ("ease of business") and revenue officers acting contrary to that aim.
Conclusion: The initiation and continuance of proceedings under Section 74 were unsustainable on the record and the orders based thereon could not stand.
Issue B: Requirement of specific findings of fraud, wilful mis-statement or suppression (mens rea) before invoking Section 74; standard of proof and burden on revenue
Legal framework: Textual reading of Section 74 (and analogous Section 11A of Central Excise Act) shows that words like "fraud", "wilful mis-statement" and "suppression" import mens rea; suppression requires deliberate omission to evade tax; mis-statement must be wilful. Administrative circular 13.12.2023 reiterates that Section 74 is invocable only where investigation indicates material evidence of fraud/wilful mis-statement/suppression and such evidence should form part of the show cause notice.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed the Apex Court's interpretation of analogous provisions that mere incorrect statements are not equivalent to wilful mis-statement and that the revenue bears the burden to prove suppression; earlier High Court pronouncements applying these principles and requiring strict compliance with the circular were followed.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the mens rea requirement strictly: absent a recorded finding of fraud, wilful mis-statement, or suppression with intent to evade tax, extended/criminal-type proceedings under Section 74 are inappropriate. The record lacked any such findings; the intelligence report relied upon was not verified and its underlying material was not disclosed to the taxpayer; therefore the threshold to trigger Section 74 was not met. The Court emphasized that when facts at the time of transaction show the supplier was registered and returns/tax deposits were uploaded, adverse action against recipient is not warranted unless further material establishes mens rea.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 74 requires evidence of fraud/wilful mis-statement/suppression (mens rea) before issuance of notices; the revenue must verify intelligence and include material evidence in the show cause notice. Obiter - references comparing policy aims of GST and administrative tendencies of revenue officers.
Conclusion: The absence of any recorded finding or supporting material showing fraud, wilful mis-statement or suppression meant the proceedings under Section 74 were legally improper and liable to be quashed.
Issue C: Legitimacy of relying solely on intelligence reports from a central intelligence unit without verification or disclosure to the affected registered person
Legal framework: Administrative fairness and natural justice require that material relied upon to initiate punitive or extended proceedings be verified and disclosed to the affected party, particularly where invocation of Section 74 carries severe consequences.
Precedent treatment: The Court followed prior decisions and the administrative circular emphasizing that intelligence must be verified and evidence made part of proceedings; CEGAT/Apex Court jurisprudence on burden and proof under analogous provisions was applied.
Interpretation and reasoning: The impugned orders were based predominantly on an intelligence communication from a central intelligence unit; the authorities failed to verify the information before acting and did not provide the underlying report or material to the recipient. The Court held that reliance on unverified intelligence without affording the taxpayer an opportunity to meet the material is impermissible. Use of such information "with closed eyes" cannot justify initiation of Section 74 proceedings.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Intelligence reports must be verified and their material disclosed/placed on record before being used as a basis for Section 74 actions. Obiter - emphasis that failure to verify is particularly egregious where the supplier had filed returns showing tax payment.
Conclusion: The appellate authority erred in treating the intelligence communication as conclusive without verification or disclosure; hence the orders made on that basis were unsustainable.
Final Conclusion
Because the record established actual movement of goods, payment through banking channels, and filed GSTR-3B entries for both parties, and because no findings of fraud, wilful mis-statement or suppression were recorded and the intelligence report relied on was neither verified nor disclosed, the initiation of proceedings under Section 74 and the resulting orders were quashed.
Issuance of SCN u/s 74 of the UPGST Act on the ground that the petitioner has claimed ITC through GSTR-3B for the tax period April, 2021 - claim of forged ITC - purchases from different firms who did not deposit the tax -wilful suppression of facts or not - HED THAT:- Once actual movement of goods as well as payment of tax by the respondent authorities have been proved by the petitioner to which no rebuttal has been brought on record at any stage, proceedings under section 74 of the Act cannot be justified - Record shows that neither any finding with regard to fraud has been noticed nor mis-statement nor suppression of fact has been recorded at any stage.
Section 11-A of the of the Central Excise Act, 1944 is having analogous provision to Section 74 of the UPGST Act. The Apex Court in the case of Continental Foundation Joint Venture Holding, Nathpa, H.P. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Chandigarh-I [2007 (8) TMI 11 - SUPREME COURT] had an occasion to consider the expression 'suppression', 'wilful misstatement' and has held that incorrect statement, unless made with the knowledge that it was not correct, would will not be a ground of wilful misstatement or suppression and no inference can be drawn if full information has been disclosed without intent to evade payment of tax.
In the case in hand the authorities have neither recorded any findings of fraud nor wilful misstatement nor suppression of fact to evade payment of tax, therefore, the proceedings under section 74 of the Act out not to have been initiated against the petitioner.
The impugned order dated 20.12.2022 passed by the Additional Commissioner, Grade-2 (Appeal)- II State Tax, Agra, respondent no.1 as well as the order dated 12.1.2022 passed by the Deputy Commissioner, Commercial Tax, Agra, respondent no.2 cannot be sustained and are hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether GST is leviable on export of pre-packaged and labelled rice of up to 25 kg where the exporter elects to export on payment of IGST.
2. Whether GST is leviable on supply of pre-packaged and labelled rice of up to 25 kg to an exporter on "bill to - ship to" basis (bill to exporter; ship to customs port) where the exporter ultimately effects export.
3. Whether GST is leviable on supply of pre-packaged and labelled rice of up to 25 kg when supplied to the factory of an exporter who will effect export.
4. Whether a supplier who procured pre-packaged and labelled rice of up to 25 kg at concessional GST rates available under notifications permitting supply at 0.1% (0.05% CGST + 0.05% SGST / 0.1% IGST) is precluded from exporting the same on payment of IGST @ 5% (and claiming refund) or otherwise liable to pay GST @ 5% on export.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: GST on export of pre-packaged and labelled rice up to 25 kg when exporter elects to pay IGST
Legal framework: Section 16 (definition of "zero rated supply" and options for exports) of the IGST Act; Notification prescribing rates, including entry for "Rice [pre-packaged and labelled]" at 5% in Schedule (Notification No. 1/2017-Rate as amended); Explanation defining "pre-packaged & labelled" with reference to Legal Metrology Act.
Precedent treatment: No judicial precedents were cited or relied upon in the reasoning.
Interpretation and reasoning: Exports are zero-rated under section 16, which provides two alternatives - export under bond/LUT without payment of IGST and claim of refund of unutilised ITC, or export on payment of IGST and claim refund of IGST. Notification classifying pre-packaged and labelled rice at 5% applies if the exported packages fall within the statutory Explanation (i.e., commodities intended for retail sale, pre-packed as defined, and requiring Legal Metrology declarations). If the supplier opts for export on payment of IGST, the specified rate (5%) applies to such pre-packaged & labelled rice.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - export on payment of IGST is taxable at the rate specified in the notification if the goods satisfy the notification's definition. Obiter - none beyond statutory interpretation.
Conclusion: If the exporter elects to export on payment of IGST, GST @ 5% is leviable on export of pre-packaged and labelled rice up to 25 kg, subject to the package meeting the notification's definition.
Issue 2: GST on supply to exporter on "bill to - ship to" basis
Legal framework: Notification No. 1/2017-Rate (Schedule entry for pre-packaged & labelled rice at 5%); Notifications No. 40/2017 (intra-State concessional supply to exporter at 0.05% CGST) and No. 41/2017 (inter-State concessional supply to exporter at 0.1% IGST) with conditions; section 16 (zero-rated supplies).
Precedent treatment: No precedents cited.
Interpretation and reasoning: Supply on bill to-ship to basis to an exporter who ultimately exports falls within the statutory zero-rated regime. Such supply may be taxed at 5% under the rate notification if the supplier or the supplier elects to treat the supply as taxable at the notification rate. Alternatively, subject to strict compliance with the terms and conditions of Notifications No. 40/2017 / 41/2017 (e.g., tax invoice, export within 90 days, GSTIN disclosure in shipping bill, registration with recognised export body, movement directly to port or registered warehouse, documentary proof), the concessional rate of 0.1% (aggregate) is available for supplies destined for export.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - both the 5% rate (when supply is treated/taxed under rate notification) and concessional 0.1% benefit (subject to conditions of notifications) are available for bill to-ship to supplies that ultimately get exported; applicability depends on fulfillment of notification conditions and the supplier's choice.
Conclusion: GST @ 5% applies where the supplier exports on payment of IGST; alternatively, concessional IGST/GST @ 0.1% is available for inter-state/intra-state supplies to an exporter on bill to-ship to basis provided all conditions of Notifications No. 41/2017 / 40/2017 are complied with.
Issue 3: GST on supply to the factory of an exporter who will export
Legal framework: Same as Issue 2 (rate notification and zero-rated/export regime; definition of "pre-packaged & labelled").
Precedent treatment: No precedents cited.
Interpretation and reasoning: Supply of pre-packaged and labelled rice up to 25 kg to the exporter's factory, where the exporter effects export, is captured by the export/zero-rated regime. If the supplier elects to export on payment of IGST, the applicable rate for such goods is 5% under the rate notification (subject to the goods meeting the "pre-packaged & labelled" definition). The concessional notifications may also be available depending on supply circumstances and adherence to their terms.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - exportable supplies to the exporter's factory are taxable at 5% on payment of IGST if the goods meet the notification definition; concessional route remains subject to notification conditions.
Conclusion: GST @ 5% applies on supply to the exporter's factory if export is effected on payment of IGST and the goods fall within the notification's definition.
Issue 4: Effect of prior procurement at concessional rate (0.1%) on ability to export on payment of IGST @ 5%
Legal framework: Notifications No. 40/2017 and 41/2017 providing concessional intra/inter-state supply to exporters; Rule 89(4A)/(4B) and Rule 96(10) of the CGST/IGST Rules as amended/omitted by Notification No. 20/2024 (omission of sub-rules and restriction); Section 16 (zero-rated supplies); CBIC Circular No. 45/19/2018-GST (interpretative guidance on then-existing restriction).
Precedent treatment: No judicial precedents cited; administrative circular referenced for historical position.
Interpretation and reasoning: Historically, Rule 96(10) and related administrative guidance sought to prevent exporters who procured goods at concessional or nil tax under specified notifications from exporting the same on payment of IGST (to claim refund) - i.e., a restriction on exporting under payment of IGST after availing specified concessions. However, Notification No. 20/2024 omitted sub-rule 4A, 4B of Rule 89 and sub-rule 10 of Rule 96, thereby removing that restriction. In the absence of the restriction, a supplier who procured goods at concessional rates under Notifications No. 40/41/other specified notifications is not precluded from subsequently exporting the goods on payment of IGST @ 5% and claiming refund, provided the goods meet the rate-notification definition and applicable conditions. The applicant's commercial rationale (availability of higher-rate input services and preference for IGST route because of quicker automatic refunds) is noted as a practical consideration but the ruling is grounded on the removal of the statutory/administrative restriction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - omission of the restrictive sub-rules means suppliers who procured goods at concessional rates under specified notifications may export on payment of IGST @ 5% (and claim refund) provided notification conditions and definitions are met. Obiter - commentary on exporters' commercial considerations and refund timelines.
Conclusion: The prior procurement availing Notifications No. 40/2017 or 41/2017 does not bar the supplier from exporting the same pre-packaged & labelled rice on payment of IGST @ 5% following the omission of the restrictive sub-rules; compliance with notification conditions and the "pre-packaged & labelled" definition remains necessary. Alternatively, the supplier may export under bond/LUT without payment of IGST as provided by section 16.
Cross-reference and overarching point
All conclusions in Issues 1-4 are qualified by the consistent requirement that the packages of rice must fall within the Explanation to the rate notification defining "pre-packaged & labelled" (i.e., intended for retail sale, not more than 25 kg, pre-packed as per Legal Metrology Act, and bearing required declarations); applicability of concessional notifications depends on strict adherence to their enumerated conditions.
Levy of GST - export of pre-packaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs to foreign buyer - supply of pre-packaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs to exporter on ‘bill to ship to” basis - supply of prepackaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs, to the factory of exporter - goods procured from other party at concessional rate of 0.1% (0.05% + 0.05%) as per N/N. 40/2017 or N/N. 41/2017?
Whether GST would be leviable on the export of pre-packaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs to a foreign buyer? - HELD THAT:- As the applicant has on record said that they are engaged in supplying rice in pre-packaged & labelled packages having quantity of upto 25 kgs, in terms of section 5 of the IGST Act, 2017, if the applicant opts for other option, he is liable to pay IGST @ 5% in terms of N/N. 1/2017-IT (R) dtd. 28.06.2017, as amended. It may be noted that this is subject to the condition that the pre-packaged & labelled packages of rice exported by the applicant, fall within the expression ‘pre-packaged & labelled’ defined under the explanation to the notification.
Whether GST would be applicable on supply of pre-packaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs to exporter on ‘bill to ship to’ basis ie bill to exporter and ship to customs port, wherein the exporter ultimately exports the rice to a foreign buyer? - HELD THAT:- The applicant is liable to pay GST @ 5% in terms of N/N. 1/2017-CT (R) dtd. 28.06.2017, as amended or IGST @ 5% in terms of N/N. 1/2017-IT (R) dtd. 28.06.2017, as amended. Further, for inter-state/intra-state supply of pre-packaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs to exporter on ‘bill to ship to’ basis ie bill to exporter and ship to customs port, wherein the exporter ultimately exports the rice to foreign buyer, the benefit of N/N. 41/2017-IT (R) dated 23.10.2017 /N/N. 40/2017-CT(R) dated 23.10.2017, which provides for IGST @ 0.1% or GST @ 0.1%, is also available to the applicant, subject however, to adherence of the terms and conditions of the notification, as mentioned therein.
Whether GST would be applicable on supply of prepackaged and labelled rice upto 25 kgs, to the factory of exporter, who will export the rice? - HELD THAT:- The applicant is liable to pay GST @ 5% in terms of N/N. 1/2017-CT (R) dtd. 28.06.2017, as amended or IGST @ 5% in terms of N/N. 1/2017-IT (R) dtd. 28.06.2017, as amended, subject to the condition that the pre-packaged & labelled packages of rice exported by the applicant, fall within the expression ‘pre-packaged & labelled’ defined under the explanation to the notification.
Whether GST would be applicable on goods procured from other party at concessional rate of 0.1% (0.05%+0.05%) as per N/N. 40/2017-CT(R) or 41/2017-IT(R) both dtd. 23.10.2017 & export the goods directly to foreign buyers for prepackaged and labelled rice upto 25 Kgs at 5%? - HELD THAT:- There was a restriction in claiming refund of IGST paid on goods exported under the erstwhile Rule 96(10) ibid, if the benefit of Nos. 48/2017-CT dated the 18.10.2017, 40/2017-CT (R) dated 23.10.2017, 41/2017-IT(R) dated 23.10.2017, 78/2017-Customs dated 13.10.2017 or 79/2017-Customs dated 13.10.2017 have been availed.
It is found that in Circular No. 45/19/2018-GST dtd. 30.05.2018, CBIC while clarifying the scope of the restriction imposed by Rule 96(10), has stated that Rule 96(10) seeks to prevent an exporter, who is receiving goods from suppliers availing the benefit of certain specified notifications, under which they supply goods without payment of tax or at reduced rate of tax, from exporting goods under payment of integrated tax. However, it is found that this sub-rule 10 has been omitted vide N/N. 20/2024-CT dtd. 08.10.2024 and therefore, the restriction now no longer exists. Therefore, the applicant is not precluded from exporting the goods under payment of integrated tax and is liable to pay IGST @ 5% in terms of N/N. 1/2017-IT (R) dtd. 28.06.2017, as amended, even if they have availed the benefit of N/N. 40/2017-CT(Rate) or notification No. 41/2017-IT(Rate), both dated 23-10-2017.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a purchaser who failed to deduct tax at source on payment for purchase of immovable property to a non-resident can be relieved from being an "assessee in default" under section 201(1) of the Income Tax Act by furnishing Form 26A and evidence that the payee has discharged tax liability.
2. Whether the proviso to section 201(1) - as amended w.e.f. 01.09.2019 to expressly include payments to non-residents - is clarificatory and therefore applicable retrospectively to an assessment year prior to the amendment, for purposes of granting relief to the purchaser who furnished Form 26A.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Relief under section 201(1) upon furnishing Form 26A where tax was not deducted on payment to a non-resident
Legal framework: Section 201(1) treats a person required to deduct tax at source as an "assessee in default" if tax is not deducted or not paid; the proviso to section 201(1) conditions relief where the deductor obtains a certificate (Form 26A) from the payee's tax return and evidence the payee has discharged tax liability.
Precedent treatment: The judgment relies on the settled principle that relief under a statutory proviso is available where the formal conditions of the proviso are met; it also cites the Supreme Court principle (Vatika Township Pvt. Ltd.) that clarificatory statutory provisions not imposing new liabilities may be applied retrospectively.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found as an admitted fact that the purchaser failed to deduct tax under sections 195/194IA and that the purchaser produced a Form 26A certified by a Chartered Accountant showing the seller's return, computation of capital gains and discharge of tax liability. The Tribunal reasoned that once the seller has in fact disclosed the transaction and paid the tax, there is no revenue leakage and the purchaser should not be treated as an assessee in default. The Tribunal treated the furnishing of Form 26A and verification of the payee's return and tax payment as satisfying the proviso's protective conditions, entitling the purchaser to relief subject to verification by the assessing officer.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A purchaser who did not deduct tax at source can be relieved from being an assessee in default under section 201(1) if he furnishes Form 26A evidencing that the payee filed a return and discharged the tax liability, thereby eliminating revenue leakage; relief can be granted subject to verification by the assessing officer. Obiter - Observations about the equitable character of the proviso and the general proposition that the same income cannot be taxed twice (supporting the absence of revenue leakage) are ancillary but reinforce the ratio.
Conclusions: The Court upheld the administrative appellate authority's directions to remit the matter to the assessing officer to verify Form 26A and related documents and to grant relief if verification supports the claim; relief is proper where the seller has paid tax and no revenue loss is found.
Issue 2 - Retrospective application of the 01.09.2019 amendment to the proviso to section 201(1) extending benefit to payments made to non-residents
Legal framework: The proviso to section 201(1) originally applied to certain categories of payees; the proviso was amended w.e.f. 01.09.2019 to extend the benefit to payments made to non-residents by rectifying an anomaly. The Court considered principles of retrospective application for clarificatory/amending provisions that do not impose new liabilities.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal relied on the Supreme Court's holding in Vatika Township Pvt. Ltd. that clarificatory statutory amendments may be applied retrospectively where they do not impose new burdens on taxpayers and merely clarify legislative intent.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined the Finance Memorandum (No.2) of 2019 accompanying the amendment and concluded the amendment was intended to remove an anomaly (i.e., to make relief impartial across payees including non-residents) rather than to create a new liability. The Tribunal characterized the amendment as clarificatory in nature. Because the amendment merely extended the existing protective mechanism and did not increase tax liability, the Tribunal held it permissible to apply the amendment retrospectively to the assessment year in question. The Tribunal further reasoned that since Form 26A and evidence of tax discharge were furnished, applying the clarificatory amendment to include non-resident payees avoids arbitrary denial of relief and prevents double taxation of the same income.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The amendment to the proviso to section 201(1) that extends relief to payments made to non-residents can be treated as clarificatory and applied retrospectively when it merely removes an anomaly and does not impose new tax burdens. Obiter - Policy observations about impartiality of the proviso and the legislative intent reflected in the Memorandum are supportive but secondary.
Conclusions: The Tribunal held that the proviso (as amended w.e.f. 01.09.2019) is clarificatory and may be applied retrospectively for the impugned assessment year; consequently, where Form 26A and evidence of the payee's tax discharge are produced, the purchaser is entitled to relief from being treated as an assessee in default, subject to verification by the assessing officer.
Cross-issue - Verification and scope of appellate direction
Legal framework: The appellate authority may direct remand to the assessing officer for verification of factual documents supporting statutory conditions for relief under the proviso.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal endorsed the appellate authority's exercise of power under section 251(1)(c) to remit the matter for verification of Form 26A and supporting evidence, emphasizing that relief was to be granted only after such verification confirmed that the payee had filed returns and paid tax.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An appellate direction to remit for verification of documentary proof required by the proviso is appropriate and non-interfering when the appellate authority finds prima facie compliance; such verification is a condition precedent to final relief. Obiter - The Tribunal's statement that there is "no infirmity" in the appellate order is declaratory of its satisfaction with the procedure adopted.
Conclusions: The Tribunal declined to interfere with the appellate authority's remand order; it dismissed the revenue's appeal and the assessee's cross-objection (supportive of the appellate order) as infructuous after dismissal of the appeal, thus affirming the requirement that verification by the assessing officer precede final relief under the proviso.
Applicability of provisions of section 201(1) to “Residents” v/s “Non-resident" - HELD THAT:- As gone through the Memorandum of Finance (No.2) of 2019 wherein the proviso to section 201(1) was amended w.e.f. 01.09.2019 which clearly states that this amendment was made with respect to clear the anomaly of the benefit of providing relief to “residents” and not to other payees, which is impartial.
We consider that this amendment of extending the benefit to “Non-resident” to remove the anomaly of providing the benefit only to certain categories of payees shall be considered as clarificatory in nature without imposing any new liability.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Vatika Township Private Limited [2014 (9) TMI 576 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] establishes the fact that the clarificatory provisions can be applied retrospectively, if they do not impose any new burdens on the assessee.
Memorandum of Finance (No.2) of 2019 states that relief is available to deductor on payments made to “non-resident” shall be available which was considered as anomaly in the existing provisions.
It was also established by filing of Form 26A duly certified by Chartered Accountant that the seller has also discharged the tax liability. It is trite law that the same income cannot be taxed twice.
There is no infirmity in the findings of the CIT(A) in remitting the matter back to the file of AO to verify the documents filed along with Form 26A and to grant the relief to the assessee and hence we are inclined not to interfere with the order of the CIT(A). Accordingly, grounds raised by the revenue are dismissed.
Issues: Whether the rejection of the application for registration under section 12AB and the cancellation of provisional registration should be set aside and the matter remanded for fresh consideration after granting reasonable opportunity of hearing.
Analysis: The assessee had complied with the notices issued during the registration proceedings, but the application was rejected without granting any further opportunity when the authority remained dissatisfied with the explanation and supporting material. The matter was not examined on merits by the Tribunal; instead, the Tribunal considered the grievance that further opportunity ought to have been afforded before adverse action was taken. In the interest of justice, the impugned order was set aside and the application was directed to be reconsidered afresh after providing reasonable opportunity of hearing and allowing the assessee to furnish the requisite documents and information.
Conclusion: The rejection and cancellation orders were set aside and the matter was remanded for fresh decision after reasonable opportunity of hearing. The appeal was thus partly allowed.
Rejection of application for registration u/s 12AB - CIT, Exemption was not satisfied with the explanation furnished by the assessee trust and rejected the application for registration and also cancelled the provisional registration granted to the assessee - sole contention of the assessee in the grounds of appeal that if Ld. CIT, Exemption, Pune was not satisfied with the compliance made by the assessee trust he should have had provided at-least one further opportunity to the assessee to explain his case
HELD THAT:- Considering the totality of the facts of the case and in the interest of justice without going into the merits of the case, we set-aside the order passed by Ld. CIT, Exemption, Pune and remand the matter back to him with a direction to decide the application for registration afresh as per fact and law after providing reasonable opportunity of hearing to the assessee. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a return of income filed after the time specified in notice issued under section 142(1) and after the limitation under section 139(1) can be treated as a valid return for the purposes of issuing notice under section 143(2) and conducting regular assessment.
2. Whether, in the absence of a valid return, the Assessing Officer (AO) was legally entitled to frame a best judgment assessment under section 144 rather than invoking reassessment proceedings under sections 147/148.
3. Whether failure to issue notice under section 143(2) when a return was filed late (after the date specified in the 142(1) notice) renders the assessment invalid or without jurisdiction.
4. Whether directions under section 144A (if issued) were required to be communicated and an opportunity afforded to the assessee before framing assessment under section 144.
5. Whether additions under section 69A (unexplained money) made in the best judgment assessment are sustainable on the record, or require the matter to be remanded for fresh determination of facts and admissible evidence.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Validity of return filed after time specified in section 142(1) notice and after section 139(1) limitation
Legal framework: Section 139(1) prescribes time for filing return. Section 142(1) empowers AO to call for return/information; section 143(2) permits scrutiny assessment where a valid return exists. Section 144 permits best judgment assessment where return is not filed or statutory requirements are not met.
Precedent Treatment: No specific judicial precedents are relied on in the judgment; the Court grounds its conclusion on statutory scheme and interplay of stated sections.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court interprets the statutory scheme to mean that a return filed beyond the time prescribed under section 139(1) and after the date fixed in the section 142(1) notice cannot be treated as a valid return for purposes of initiating regular scrutiny under section 143(2). The AO's treatment of the belated return as invalid is consistent with the statutory mandate that frames section 144 as the remedy when returns are not filed or notices under section 142(1) are not complied with.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - A return filed after the time specified in the AO's section 142(1) notice (and beyond the section 139(1) deadline) may be treated as not constituting a valid return for triggering section 143(2) scrutiny; the statutory scheme permits AO to treat such a return as invalid and proceed under section 144.
Conclusions: The Court upholds the AO's characterization of the return filed on 19.06.2019 as invalid because it was filed after the date specified in the section 142(1) notice and after the limitation under section 139(1).
Issue 2: Legitimacy of framing best judgment assessment under section 144 instead of initiating sections 147/148 proceedings
Legal framework: Section 144 authorizes best judgment assessment where a person fails to make a return required under section 139(1) or does not comply with a section 142(1) notice. Sections 147/148 govern reassessment where income has escaped assessment.
Precedent Treatment: The judgment does not overrule or distinguish any authority; it applies the statutory scheme to the facts.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reasons that sections 147/148 are inapplicable where there is no valid return and where the AO is exercising power to assess in absence of a return. The AO was entitled to frame a best judgment assessment under section 144 because the assessee failed to file a timely return and did not comply with the section 142(1) time requirement; therefore invoking reassessment procedure was not required.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The AO may validly proceed under section 144 where there is no valid return; initiation of sections 147/148 is not mandatory in such circumstances.
Conclusions: The Court finds no illegality in the AO framing assessment under section 144 rather than initiating reassessment under sections 147/148.
Issue 3: Necessity of issuing notice under section 143(2) and impact on jurisdiction if not issued
Legal framework: Section 143(2) requires notice for scrutiny assessment where a valid return is available; absence of a valid return precludes issuance of a notice under section 143(2) for regular scrutiny.
Precedent Treatment: Not applicable in the judgment; reasoning is statutory.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the Court's conclusion that the return was invalid, a notice under section 143(2) could not validly be issued. The assessment under section 144 in the absence of a section 143(2) notice is therefore not vitiated by that omission because the statutory condition for section 143(2) did not exist.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Failure to issue a section 143(2) notice does not render a section 144 assessment invalid when there is no valid return to trigger section 143(2).
Conclusions: The objection that assessment is invalid for want of a section 143(2) notice is rejected.
Issue 4: Requirement of directions under section 144A and opportunity of hearing
Legal framework: Section 144A pertains to directions and procedure in best judgment assessments; principles of natural justice require opportunity to be heard where applicable.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal notes the Ld. CIT(A)'s observation; no binding precedent is applied or distinguished.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observes that no directions under section 144A were in fact issued in this case. Consequently, the assessee's objection predicated on non-issuance of section 144A directions and lack of opportunity thereunder is without merit.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where no section 144A directions are issued, an objection premised on absence of such directions cannot succeed.
Conclusions: The Court upholds the Ld. CIT(A)'s finding that the section 144A objection lacks merit.
Issue 5: Sustainability of additions under section 69A and remand for fresh factual determination
Legal framework: Section 69A permits taxation of unexplained money where cash credits or unexplained sums are not satisfactorily explained. Best judgment assessment under section 144 permits AO to rely on material on record to estimate income.
Precedent Treatment: No precedent was cited; the Tribunal applies principles of equity and fairness.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the Tribunal accepted the AO's authority to make a section 144 assessment and to make additions under section 69A based on material on record, it also noted that the assessee had made partial compliances and was not grossly non-compliant. Guided by principles of objectivity, equity, fairness and justice, the Tribunal considered it appropriate to remit the issue of additions under section 69A to the file of the AO for fresh determination on facts, allowing the assessee to adduce evidence and explanations and to be given proper opportunity to defend the case.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where additions under section 69A in a best judgment assessment are based on material on record but the assessee has made partial compliance and can reasonably be heard, the Tribunal may remit the matter to the AO for fresh factual determination and to afford opportunity to adduce evidence.
Conclusions: The Tribunal upheld the validity of framing assessment under section 144, but directed that the substantive additions under section 69A (INR 52,34,050) be restored to the AO for fresh consideration on facts, with liberty to the assessee to furnish evidence and explanations and to be given proper opportunity to be heard.
Best judgement assessment u/s 144 - income returned as per ITR was ignored and addition was made u/s 69A of the Act towards unexplained money - assessee submitted that the action of AO holding the return of income as invalid filed in pursuance of notice issued u/s 142(1) of the Act and thereby, framing the assessment u/s 144 is without legal foundation
HELD THAT:- The scheme of the Act clearly empowers the AO to frame best judgement assessment where the assessee has failed to file return of income or where the information called for u/s 142(1) has not been met. In the facts of the present case, we see no difficulty in accepting the plea of the Revenue.
The objections raised by way of grounds of appeal do not hold any water. CIT(A) has dealt with the legal objections of the assessee in right perspective and does not call for any interference.
CIT(A) also has observed that no directions were issued u/s 144A and therefore, the objection of the assessee towards opportunity u/s 144A is without merit. We thus agree with the averment made by the Ld.CIT(A) in all respects. The legal objections raised thus fails.
Additions made u/s 69A towards unexplained money is based on material available on record. It is observed that the assessee has made compliances to some extent. It is not a case where the assessee has been grossly non-compliant assessee. Hence guided by the principles of objectivity, equity, fairness and justice, we consider it expedient to restore the issue of additions under s. 69A for determination of issue on facts afresh to the file of AO.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed for statistical purposes.
Validity of reassessment notices/ proceedings - scope of notices issued u/s 148 of the new regime between July and September 2022 -Application of TOLA to the Income Tax Act after 1 April 2021 - TOLA enacted in the backdrop of the COVID-19 pandemicby extending time limits for completion or compliance of actions under specified Acts -Interpretation of expression “any” in Section 3(1)of TOLA - nonobstante clause
HELD THAT:- These Special Leave Petitions are squarely covered by the Judgment of this Court rendered in “Union of India & Ors. vs. Rajeev Bansal” [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)]
Petitions filed by the Revenue are disposed of. The assessees will be governed by reasons discussed in the said Judgment.
AO will dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by this Court. Thereafter, the assessees who are aggrieved will be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, save and except for the issues which have been concluded in the Judgment.
Proceedings u/s 153C - issuance of the notice was preceded by the drawl of a Satisfaction Note by the jurisdictional AO - incriminating material found during search or not? - delayed filling of SLP
As decided by HC [2024 (5) TMI 1617 - DELHI HIGH COURT] AO fails to record any reasons which may have indicated how the said material could “have a bearing on the determination of the total income of such other person” for the year in question. Respondents have erroneously proceeded on the assumption that the moment any material is recovered in the course of a search or on the basis of a requisition made, they become empowered in law to assess or reassess all the six AYs’ years immediately preceding the assessment correlatable to the search year or the “relevant assessment year” as defined in terms of Explanation 1 of Section 153A. The said approach is clearly unsustainable and contrary to the consistent line struck by the precedents noticed above.
HELD THAT:- There is an inordinate delay in filing the Special Leave Petitions which has not been satisfactorily explained by the petitioner.
Even otherwise, we see no good ground to interfere with the impugned order passed by the High Court. The Special Leave Petitions are, therefore, dismissed on the ground of delay as well as merits.
Denial of registration u/s 12AA - charitable activity or not? - one of the objects spelt out that the trust was to construct houses for Tsunami victims who have been rendered homeless.
HC [2012 (11) TMI 1346 - DELHI HIGH COURT] decided ITAT correctly held that activities of the trust are genuine on a prima basis. The question of grant of exemption under sections 11 and 12 can only be decided in the course of assessment. The same cannot be a subject matter of consideration at the time of grant of registration.
Since the twin conditions mentioned in Section 12AA are satisfied, we are of the view that the ld. Director of Income-tax (Exemptions) should have granted registration to the assessee
HELD THAT:- The issue in the present appeal is covered by an order rendered by a three Judge Bench of this Court in ANANDA SOCIAL AND EDUCATIONAL TRUST [2020 (2) TMI 1293 - SUPREME COURT] and other connected appeals, dated 19th February, 2020.
We find that the view taken by the High Court and the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Delhi Bench, is in consonance with the law laid down by this Court in the captioned appeals.
Outcome: The special leave petition was dismissed, with the application for condonation of delay also dismissed.
Accrual of income in India or not? - royalty income - interconnect service charges - gross delay of 227 days in filing this special leave petition - HELD THAT:- The reasons assigned for seeking condonation of delay are neither satisfactory nor sufficient in law so as to condone the same. Hence, the application seeking condonation of delay is dismissed.
Further, following the order of M/s M.I. Limited [2025 (9) TMI 117 - SC ORDER] this special leave petition is dismissed on merits also.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Commissioner erred in rejecting an application under section 119(2)(b) for condonation of delay in uploading/e-filing audit report in Form 10B where the delay was caused by circumstances beyond the assessee's control (staff accident at the CA firm) and there was no allegation of mala fide.
2. Whether a charitable trust which filed its return and audit report physically but failed to upload Form 10B within the prescribed time can be denied exemption under sections 11 and 12 of the Income Tax Act solely on account of such delay, when the assessee otherwise satisfies conditions for exemption.
3. The extent to which principles of liberal, justice-oriented approach to "sufficient cause" in condonation applications (as articulated by higher courts) apply to revenue authorities when exercising discretion under section 119(2)(b).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Condonation under section 119(2)(b) for delay in uploading Form 10B
Legal framework: Section 119(2)(b) confers power on the Commissioner to condone delay in compliance with statutory or procedural requirements; Rule 12(2) of the Income Tax Rules prescribes e-filing/updating timelines for Form 10B; non-compliance can attract disallowance of exemption in assessment proceedings (as reflected in CPC adjudication under section 143(1)).
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on the Apex Court's guidance in Esha Bhattacharjee (liberal, pragmatic, justice-oriented approach; "sufficient cause" is elastic and context-sensitive) and on coordinate high-court authorities that have applied equitable, balancing and judicious standards when revenue rejects condonation applications for inadvertent omissions by professional advisors.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found no allegation of mala fide against the assessee and accepted the factual explanation (uncontroverted affidavit) that the delay arose because the auditor's assistant met with an accident and did not handover the pending e-filing task. The Commissioner's order was characterized as perfunctory and lacking consideration of these circumstances. The Court applied the principle that technical rules should not be given undue emphasis where substantial justice and bona fide conduct are shown. The Court further observed that an assessee should not suffer for bona fide inaction of an engaged professional where circumstances were beyond control.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where delay in statutorily prescribed electronic filing is caused by circumstances beyond the assessee's control and there is no mala fide, the Commissioner should consider condoning the delay under section 119(2)(b) applying a liberal, justice-oriented standard. Obiter - general reflections on why an assessee would not intentionally delay and broader policy comments on statutes of repose and discretionary relief in exceptional hardship.
Conclusion: The Court held that the condonation application ought to have been allowed; proceeded to condone the delay and quash the impugned rejection under section 119(2)(b).
Issue 2 - Denial of exemption under sections 11 & 12 due to late upload of Form 10B
Legal framework: Exemptions under sections 11 and 12 are contingent on compliance with statutory and rule-based conditions including audit/reporting obligations (Form 10B). Failure to comply within time can lead to denial of exemption, but statutory discretion to condone delays may restore entitlement where sufficient cause is shown.
Precedent treatment: The Court relied on decisions holding that denial of exemption purely on limitation grounds, where the assessee otherwise qualifies and delay is bona fide, is to be viewed equitably (citations invoked in reasoning endorse this approach). The Court referenced coordinate bench and Bombay High Court authorities that refused to deny exemption to longstanding charitable trusts for inadvertent professional errors.
Interpretation and reasoning: Applying the condonation finding under section 119(2)(b), the Court reasoned that the assessee's substantive entitlement to exemption should not be defeated by a technical lapse when the legislature has given discretionary relief. The Court emphasized absence of mala fide and consistent charitable activity as relevant contextual factors supporting allowance of exemption.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where condonation is properly granted for delayed compliance, consequent denial of exemption solely on limitation/technical grounds is inappropriate if the assessee otherwise satisfies statutory conditions. Obiter - comments on public charitable trusts and policy reasons for an equitable approach.
Conclusion: The Court directed the revenue to allow the benefit of sections 11 and 12 to the trust, setting aside the assessment adjustment that flowed from non-upload of Form 10B.
Issue 3 - Role of uncontroverted affidavit and standard of inquiry by revenue authority
Legal framework: Courts treat uncontroverted affidavits as evidence of fact where not challenged; revenue authorities are required to record reasons when exercising discretion and to consider bona fide explanations rather than rejecting applications perfunctorily.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied M. Kalappa Sethi (uncontroverted affidavit to be accepted) and cited decisions directing a reasoned and non-technical approach by revenue when discretionary relief is invoked.
Interpretation and reasoning: The affidavit explaining the delay was uncontroverted and the Court held the Commissioner erred in failing to engage with the factual explanation. The Court emphasized that perfunctory rejection without addressing bona fide grounds is legally unsustainable.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an uncontroverted affidavit explaining sufficient cause must be taken as true for purposes of adjudicating a condonation application; the revenue authority must record considered reasons when exercising discretion under section 119(2)(b). Obiter - broader admonition against mechanical rejections by revenue.
Conclusion: The Court accepted the uncontroverted affidavit, found the Commissioner's rejection legally deficient for want of reasoned consideration, and held that the condonation should have been allowed.
Disposition
The Court quashed the impugned order refusing condonation, condoned the delay in uploading Form 10B, and directed the revenue to allow the benefits of sections 11 and 12 to the trust. The writ petition was disposed accordingly.
Denial of Benefit of Section 11 & 12 - delay caused in uploading/e-filing of Form 10B - HELD THAT:- There is no lack of bona fide imputable to petitioner. That apart, in the present case, the delay was caused due to the fact that staff of CA Firm met with an accident which is beyond control. Therefore, the delay was not deliberate and cannot be attributed to petitioner. Thus, we are of the considered opinion that the application for condonation of delay ought to have been allowed. Due to bona fide inaction on part of the professional engaged (CA Firm), petitioner cannot be made to suffer.
It is also pertinent to mention that an affidavit explaining the reasons for delay in uploading/e-filing of Form 10B was filed along with the writ petition as Annexure-P/5, which was not controverted by respondent. In M. Kalappa Sethi v. M. V. Laxmi Narain Rao [1972 (5) TMI 79 - SUPREME COURT] it was held that an uncontroverted affidavit shall be taken as an affidavit on fact. Therefore, this Court is left with no option but to accept the averments of the affidavit (Annexure-P/5) to be true.
The fact that there was any mala fide intention in uploading/e-filing Form 10B belatedly is not alleged in impugned order. The fact that petitioner is a charitable trust, is also not denied.
Looking at the charitable activities itself, in our view, delay condonation application should have been allowed. Courts have repeatedly held that such approach in the cases of present type should be equitious, balancing and judicious.
Even though technically and strictly and liberally speaking, respondent might be justified in rejecting application but the assessee, a public charitable trust, with so many years of charitable activities, which otherwise satisfies the condition for availing such exemption should not be denied the same merely due on the bar of limitation especially when the legislature has conferred wide discretionary powers to condone such delay on the authorities concerned.
It does not appear that assessee petitioner was lethargic or lacked bona fide in making claim beyond the period of limitation. In fact, we do not understand why would any party, who is entitled to claim, would intentionally delay in uploading the required documents.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the authority under Section 119(2)(b) of the Income Tax Act erred in rejecting an application to condone delay in filing Form 10B for an assessee claiming exemption as a public charitable trust.
2. Whether absence/illness of the trust's President, resulting in disruption of day-to-day affairs and delayed audit/uploading of Form 10B, can constitute a bona fide ground for condonation of delay.
3. The proper approach to exercise of discretion under Section 119(2)(b) in cases where no mala fide is alleged and the assesseee otherwise satisfies conditions for exemption - namely, whether discretion ought to be exercised equitably, balancing hardship and statutory repose.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Correctness of rejecting condonation under Section 119(2)(b)
Legal framework: Section 119(2)(b) confers power on the competent authority to condone delay in filing documents/claims where the authority sees fit; statutory periods of limitation operate as statutes of repose but the legislature has conferred discretionary power to relieve hardship in appropriate cases.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on established judicial approach that, in absence of mala fide, authorities should adopt an equitous, balancing and judicious approach when exercising discretion to condone delays impacting exemptions for public charitable trusts. Prior decisions applying that approach (referred to and followed) hold that technical rejection of condonation where bona fide is shown may be inappropriate.
Interpretation and reasoning: The impugned order rejected condonation essentially on a technical basis without alleging mala fide. The Court observed no allegation or material demonstrating lack of bona fide or intentional delay. Given the statutory discretion and the character of the applicant as a public charitable trust which otherwise satisfies exemption conditions, the authority's rejection was held to be an unjustified denial of relief. The Court emphasized that finality afforded by limitation must yield to equitable exercise of discretion where hardship would otherwise defeat substantive entitlement.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where no mala fide is pleaded or proved and the assessee is otherwise entitled to exemption, discretion under Section 119(2)(b) should be exercised in an equitous, balancing and judicious manner to condone delay if supported by bona fide reasons. Obiter - observations on the inherent difficulty of adducing documentary proof of an auditor's inadvertence and broader policy observations about statutes of repose versus legislative conferral of discretionary relief.
Conclusion: The authority erred in rejecting the condonation application; the Court quashed the impugned order and condoned the delay in filing Form 10B for the assessment year in question.
Issue 2 - Whether illness/absence of trust President is a bona fide ground for condonation
Legal framework: Assessment of bona fide requires consideration of facts and circumstances; bona fide may be inferred where there is no allegation of mala fide and where causal events (such as serious illness of an office-bearer) plausibly explain delay.
Precedent Treatment: Courts have recognized that inadvertence, human error or disruption in management can constitute sufficient grounds for condonation when not accompanied by mala fide. The Court referred to prior decisions adopting this position and applied the same principle.
Interpretation and reasoning: The factual matrix - prolonged hospitalization and subsequent death of the President leading to grinding halt in day-to-day affairs, delayed audit and belated uploading of Form 10B - was held to be a bona fide explanation. The absence of any allegation of mala fide, together with verifiable charitable activities and historic compliance, supported the inference of bona fide conduct. The Court rejected the respondent's contention that the Vice-President or other officers would automatically be responsible in such events as a basis to deny relief, finding that the statutory discretion must account for real operational difficulties faced by a charitable trust.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - serious illness and incapacitation of a key office-bearer that causes operational paralysis can be a bona fide ground supporting condonation of delay where no mala fide is shown. Obiter - the precise evidentiary threshold in other fact patterns where illness may be less severe.
Conclusion: The illness and incapacitation of the trust's President, and the resultant disruption, constituted a bona fide ground justifying condonation of the delay in filing Form 10B.
Issue 3 - Proper exercise of discretion under Section 119(2)(b) in favour of public charitable trusts
Legal framework: Section 119(2)(b) vests broad discretionary power to condone delay; such discretion must be exercised consistently with principles of equity and in a manner that prevents loss of substantive rights where the assessee is otherwise eligible.
Precedent Treatment: The Court followed prior authorities holding that refusal to condone delay in similar circumstances - particularly where an assessee stands to lose exemption and no mala fide is shown - is contrary to the equitable exercise of discretion. Those authorities emphasize balancing technical strictness of limitation against the purpose of the legislative power to relieve hardship.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court articulated that while the revenue authority may be technically justified in some cases to refuse condonation, doing so mechanistically in respect of a bona fide charitable trust with established history and verifiable activities would be inequitable. The legislature's conferral of wide discretion mandates a flexible, humane approach. The Court also acknowledged practical realities - that an assessee has limited means to independently prove an auditor's inadvertence beyond the factual context presented.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - discretion under Section 119(2)(b) should be exercised equitably and not in a technical or rigid manner when substantial injustice would result and bona fide conduct is shown. Obiter - remarks on the general incapacity of parties to produce independent proof of an auditor's negligence in every case.
Conclusion: The discretion vested in the authority under Section 119(2)(b) ought to have been exercised to condone delay given the established bona fide, the charitable nature of activities, and absence of mala fide; accordingly, the Court exercised supervisory jurisdiction to quash the impugned order and condone the delay.
Cross-References
The conclusions on Issues 1-3 are interrelated: the absence of mala fide and the demonstrable bona fide cause (illness of office-bearer and operational paralysis) inform the required equitable exercise of discretion under Section 119(2)(b), which in turn renders the rejection of condonation unsustainable.
Order passed u/s 119(2)(b) - filing Form 10B belatedly -- assessment of trust - Petitioner/trust eligible explanation on the cause for delay - Petitioner is a public charitable trust registered under Rajasthan Public Charitable Trusts Act,
HELD THAT:- The fact that there was any mala fide intention in filing Form 10B belatedly is not alleged in impugned order. The fact that petitioner is a charitable trust is also not denied.
Looking at the charitable activities itself, in our view, delay condonation application should have been allowed. Courts have repeatedly held that such approach in the cases of present type should be equitious, balancing and judicious. Even though technically and strictly and liberally speaking, respondent might be justified in rejecting application but the assessee, a public charitable trust, with so many years of charitable activities, which otherwise satisfies the condition for availing such exemption should not be denied the same merely due on the bar of limitation especially when the legislature has conferred wide discretionary powers to condone such delay on the authorities concerned.
As Al Jamia Mohammediyah Education Society [2024 (4) TMI 939 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] held revenue might be justified in denying the exemption under section 12 of the Act by rejecting such condonation application, but an assessee, a public charitable trust past 30 years who substantially satisfies the condition for availing such exemption, should not be denied the same merely on the bar of limitation especially when the legislature has conferred wide discretionary powers to condone such delay on the authorities concerned.
In our view also, it does not appear that assessee petitioner was lethargic or lacked bona fide in making claim beyond the period of limitation. In fact, we do not understand why would any party, who is entitled to claim, would intentionally delay in uploading the required documents.
In our view, therefore, petition has to be allowed. We hereby condone delay.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the Assessment Officer correctly disallowed deduction claimed under Section 80P(2)(d) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 by preferring the Supreme Court decision in Totagar over binding decisions of the jurisdictional High Court and ITAT.
2. Whether a subordinate/revenue officer is permitted to disregard or refuse to follow a binding decision of a higher appellate authority within the same jurisdiction when that decision is squarely applicable to the assessee's facts.
3. Whether reliance on a Supreme Court decision alleged to be binding is appropriate when that decision is not factually/applicably analogous to the present case and jurisdictional High Court precedent is available.
4. Whether departmental practice of ignoring appellate or jurisdictional precedents warrants judicial scrutiny and corrective action to ensure judicial discipline.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Correctness of disallowance under Section 80P(2)(d)
Legal framework: Section 80P(2)(d) permits specified deductions; assessment under Section 147 read with Section 144B permits reassessment/variation and disallowances where appropriate.
Precedent Treatment: The Assessment Order noted and expressly preferred the Supreme Court decision in Totagar; the assessee placed binding decisions of the jurisdictional High Court and ITAT before the AO which were not accepted.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the AO made a disallowance despite the petitioner citing jurisdictional High Court decisions directly covering the issue. The AO's reasoning was framed as regard for "binding" Supreme Court precedent and a contention that many cited decisions pre-dated Totagar.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The critical feature is the legal requirement that subordinate revenue authorities give effect to binding decisions of higher appellate authorities operative within their jurisdiction. The point that Totagar may not be factually applicable is central and treated as a ratio concerning applicability of binding precedent.
Conclusions: The Court treats the AO's disallowance as contestable where the jurisdictional High Court/ITAT precedent squarely applies; the AO should have followed such binding local appellate authority decisions and, if disagreeing, pursued appeal rather than refuse to follow them.
Issue 2 - Obligation of subordinate authorities to follow binding appellate/jurisdictional decisions
Legal framework: Principles of judicial discipline require subordinate/quasi-judicial revenue officers to follow orders of authorities higher in the appellate hierarchy unless such orders are stayed or set aside by a competent court.
Precedent Treatment: The Court relied on established principle (as quoted) that orders of appellate authorities are binding on subordinate officers and that failing to give effect to such orders causes harassment and undermines administration of tax laws.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasized that mere non-acceptance by the department of an appellate order is not permissible; the correct course is to follow the higher authority's order and, if dissatisfied, challenge it by appeal. The AO's selective adherence to precedent undermines judicial discipline.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The pronouncement that subordinate officers are bound to follow appellate orders is ratio, establishing normative obedience within the revenue hierarchy. Observations on harassment and administrative chaos are concomitant but reinforce the binding principle (ratio).
Conclusions: The Court confirms that the AO was bound to follow the jurisdictional appellate decisions and should not have brushed them aside on the basis of departmental displeasure; proper recourse is appellate challenge, not non-compliance.
Issue 3 - Applicability of Supreme Court precedent (Totagar) versus jurisdictional High Court decisions
Legal framework: While Supreme Court decisions are binding on all courts, applicability depends on factual and legal congruence; conflicting decisions of a jurisdictional High Court that are squarely on point create a need for careful analysis of relevance and applicability.
Precedent Treatment: The AO asserted Totagar as binding and superior to earlier tribunal/High Court decisions. The assessee contended that Totagar is not applicable on facts and that the jurisdictional High Court precedent governs.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that an AO cannot ignore a jurisdictional High Court decision that is directly applicable by simply invoking a Supreme Court decision which may not be factually on all fours. The AO must assess applicability; where the jurisdictional decision is binding and applicable, it must be followed unless and until set aside by a competent authority.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The distinction between binding force and factual applicability of Supreme Court authority versus applicable jurisdictional precedent constitutes the operative ratio-binding status does not automatically displace directly applicable higher-appellate local precedent without proper legal analysis.
Conclusions: The Court indicates that preference for a Supreme Court decision is not a licence to disregard binding local precedent where Totagar is not factually applicable; the AO erred in blanket reliance on Totagar without considering applicability and judicial discipline obligations.
Issue 4 - Need for corrective action and judicial oversight of departmental practice
Legal framework: Courts may issue directions or seek affidavits to ensure adherence to judicial discipline and to prevent recurrence of orders contrary to binding appellate decisions.
Precedent Treatment: The Court referenced established jurisprudence criticizing revenue officers who bypass appellate orders and causing harassment, stressing administrative orderliness and adherence to appellate decisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given the AO's conduct in not considering jurisdictional precedents, the Court directed service and issued an issue notice and ordered respondents to file affidavits regarding proposed corrective actions so that such orders are not passed in future.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The directive to file affidavits and oversee departmental conduct is a consequential, remedial ratio aimed at ensuring compliance; observations on systemic implications are persuasive but also form part of the operative decision-making.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that judicial oversight is warranted; respondent officers were instructed to examine and take steps to prevent recurrence of orders that fail to follow applicable appellate precedents, with the matter listed further for consideration.
Cross-References
See Issue 2 and Issue 3: The obligations of subordinate officers (Issue 2) are directly engaged where a Supreme Court decision is invoked to displace a jurisdictional High Court decision (Issue 3); the Court treats the obligations as requiring adherence to binding local appellate decisions unless legitimately displaced by higher authority or stayed.
Deduction u/s 80P(2)(d) - Judicial Precedents Cited by the Assessee - Legal Precedents vs. Judicial Discipline - adjudicating authority inclined to accept the decision of the jurisdictional High Court - HELD THAT:- As decided in Union of India and others v. Kamlakshi Finance Corporation Ltd. [1991 (9) TMI 72 - SUPREME COURT] order of the Appellate Collector is binding on the Assistant Collectors working within his jurisdiction and the order of the Tribunal is binding upon the Assistant Collectors and the Appellate Collectors who function under the jurisdiction of the Tribunal.
The principles of judicial discipline require that the orders of the higher appellate authorities should be followed unreservedly by the subordinate authorities. The mere fact that the order of the appellate authority is not "acceptable" to the department in itself an objectionable phrase and is the subject matter of an appeal can furnish no ground for not following it unless its operation has been suspended by a competent court. It this healthy rule is not followed, the result will only be undue harassment to assessees and chaos in administration of tax laws.
Considering the above submissions, Issue Notice, returnable on 2.9.2025. Direct Service through email is permitted.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a notice issued under section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 between 01.04.2021 and 30.06.2021 pursuant to the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation of Certain Provisions) Ordinance/Act (TOLA) must be treated as a notice under section 148A(b) with effect from 01.04.2021 and, if so, whether a subsequent notice under section 148 issued after supply of information to the assessee complies with the time limits preserved as "surviving time."
2. Whether an assessment notice under the new regime (post-Ashish Agarwal directions) issued beyond the period of "surviving time" (computed having regard to issuance-date under TOLA up to 30.06.2021, supply of information and two-week response period) is time-barred and therefore invalid.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal character of notices issued between 01.04.2021 and 30.06.2021 under TOLA and applicability of section 148A(b)
Legal framework: The provisions of section 148 and the newly enacted section 148A(b) (effective 01.04.2021) govern issuance of reassessment notices; TOLA relaxed limitation periods for matters falling within 01.04.2021-30.06.2021. The Apex Court's decision in Ashish Agarwal treated notices issued in the TOLA window as required to be read with section 148A(b) and mandated supply of relevant information to the assessee before further steps.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows the principle in Ashish Agarwal that a notice issued under TOLA in the specified window is to be treated as a notice under section 148A(b). The subsequent Rajeev Bansal decision delineates the concept of "surviving time" and requires reassessment notices under the new regime to be issued within the time left after accounting for the TOLA period and the stay period until supply of information and the assessees' response period.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applies the two-tiered approach from Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal: first, notices issued during the TOLA window are to be treated under the regime of section 148A(b); second, any reassessment notice issued after supply of information must be within the residual limitation period ("surviving time") computed from the original TOLA notice date up to 30.06.2021. The assessment of validity thus requires calculation of days of surviving time and comparison with the date on which the reassessment notice under the new regime was issued.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Notices issued under TOLA (01.04.2021-30.06.2021) are to be treated as notices under section 148A(b) and further reassessment notices must respect the surviving limitation as clarified by Rajeev Bansal. Obiter - Explanatory remarks about categorisation of various assessment years and illustrative computations in precedent judgments are ancillary.
Conclusions: The Court holds that a TOLA-period notice is to be treated as a section 148A(b) notice and that the subsequent reassessment notice must be tested against the surviving time doctrine laid down in Rajeev Bansal.
Issue 2 - Computation of surviving time and effect of issuance beyond surviving time
Legal framework: Limitation for issuance of reassessment notices under the Income-tax Act read with TOLA; the Apex Court's directions that show-cause notices were deemed stayed until the supply of information and a two-week response period; requirement that reassessment notices under the new regime be issued within the surviving limitation period.
Precedent treatment: The Court adheres to Rajeev Bansal which held (inter alia) that the stay period runs from the date of issuance of the deemed notice in the TOLA window until supply of information and two weeks allowed to assessee to respond, and any notice issued beyond the surviving period is time barred.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applies the methodology prescribed by the precedent: (a) determine original date of TOLA notice and calculate number of days remaining in limitation as at 30.06.2021 (surviving time), (b) determine date of supply of information to the assessee and add two weeks to ascertain last permissible date for issuance of reassessment notice, and (c) compare the actual date of the subsequent section 148 notice with that permissible last date. Where the subsequent notice is dated after the permitted last date (i.e., after surviving time expires), the notice is invalid. The Court exemplifies this method with tabulated facts showing specific surviving-time calculations and demonstrates that in multiple matters the reassessment notices were issued beyond the surviving-time cutoff.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Notices issued under the new regime after supply of information and beyond the computed surviving time are time barred and invalid. Obiter - Specific numeric examples and categorisation of assessment years (e.g., effect of three-year and six-year limitation expiry timings) are explanatory of application but not novel legal propositions beyond the Apex Court rulings followed.
Conclusions: Applying the above computation, the Court concludes that the impugned reassessment notice was issued after the surviving-time cutoff and is therefore invalid. Consequently, the order passed under section 148A(d) and all consequential proceedings are quashed and set aside as they cannot survive an invalid notice.
Ancillary findings and remedies
Legal framework and reasoning: Where a reassessment notice is invalid as time barred, any consequential order under section 148A(d) and further proceedings predicated on the invalid notice also fall. The Court verifies dates supplied by Revenue and notes no contrary claim affecting the computation.
Conclusion: The notice under section 148 issued after the surviving-time period is quashed; the order under section 148A(d) and all consequential and subsequent proceedings arising from that notice are quashed and set aside. No costs were imposed.
Validity of reopening of assessment - issuance of notices u/s 148 under TOLA by the Revenue - period of limitation - scope of new regime - notice issued beyond the ‘surviving time’ - HELD THAT:- The impugned notice issued under section 148 of the Act would be invalid notice as the said notice is issued after 13.06.2022 as per the decision of Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] Therefore, the impugned notice having been issued beyond the ‘surviving time’ would be invalid notice as held by the Hon’ble Apex Court in case of Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)].
Impugned notice is hereby quashed and set aside - Assessee appeal allowed.
Outcome: The petition was disposed of with a direction to the concerned authority to decide the petitioner's rectification application expeditiously and preferably within eight weeks.
Refund of amount along with up-to-date statutory interest u/s 244A - petitioner has already filed a rectification application seeking appropriate relief regarding quantum of refund/ (and interest) payable to the petitioner.
Revenue states that there is no objection to the petitioner’s prayer for expediting the adjudication of the rectification application.
HELD THAT:- We consider it apposite to dispose of the present petition by directing the concerned authority to decide the petitioner’s rectification application dated 13.10.2022 as expeditiously as possible, and preferably within a period of eight weeks from date.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an addition under section 69 (unexplained investments) can be sustained on the basis of an excel-sheet recovered during search under section 132 when there is no independent direct evidence of payment or allotment to the assessee.
2. Whether a document recovered from premises of a third party during a search attracts the statutory presumption under section 292C and shifts the onus to the assessee where the document lacks the assessee's signature and there is no corroborative direct evidence of payment.
3. Whether jurisdictional objections to proceedings under section 153C require separate adjudication where incriminating material pertaining to the assessee is found during search of a third party (group search context).
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Sustainment of addition under section 69 on basis of seized excel-sheet without direct evidence of payment or allotment.
Legal framework: Section 69 allows addition for unexplained investments where the assessee is unable to satisfactorily account for investments; fact of investment must be established on admissible evidence. Evidence seized under section 132 may be used, subject to admissibility and sufficiency.
Precedent Treatment: No specific judicial precedents were relied upon or distinguished in the decision; the Tribunal applied established evidentiary and assessment principles concerning unexplained investments and the requirement of proof.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal found as undisputed that the assessee was offered a flat but never made the 25% initial payment; there was no allotment documentary evidence, no registration, no agreement, and no direct evidence of any cash/cheque payment by the assessee. The excel-sheet recovered from a third party's premises was the sole basis for the addition. The Tribunal held that an addition based only on presumption, surmise or conjecture is impermissible. Absent direct or corroborative evidence proving that the assessee actually made the payment or acquired the flat, the statutory requirement for treating money as unexplained investment under section 69 was not met.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - An addition under section 69 cannot be sustained solely on a seized record from a third party when there is no direct/corroborative evidence that the assessee made the alleged payment or acquired the asset; conjectural inferences are insufficient.
Conclusion: The Tribunal affirmed the appellate authority's deletion of the addition of Rs. 80,00,000/- under section 69 as lacking evidentiary foundation.
Issue 2: Applicability of statutory presumption under section 292C to a seized excel-sheet lacking signature and independent corroboration.
Legal framework: Section 292C creates a statutory presumption in certain cases as to ownership or possession of incriminating material found during search; however, the presumption is rebuttable and must be applied only where legal conditions are satisfied and the material is sufficiently specific and attributable to the accused/assessee.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal did not cite or adopt any specific precedent overruling or distinguishing previous treatments; it applied principles of admissibility and sufficiency of evidentiary connection between seized material and assessee's conduct.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal observed that the excel-sheet, though recovered in a valid search, did not carry the assessee's signature and there was no direct evidence of cash payment. The record did not demonstrate a clear nexus showing that the entry in the excel-sheet corresponded to an actual transaction by the assessee. Consequently, the Tribunal treated the seized excel-sheet as not amounting to decisive proof; it rejected the revenue's contention that mere recovery of the document automatically invoked the presumption under section 292C to shift the onus onto the assessee. The Tribunal emphasized that the statutory presumption cannot be mechanically applied where the document's entries are not specific, decipherable, or corroborated by other evidence establishing the transaction.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - The statutory presumption under section 292C cannot substitute for independent proof of payment or allotment where the seized document lacks attribution (e.g., signature) and is not corroborated by direct evidence; absent such connection, reliance on section 292C to sustain additions is impermissible. Obiter - Observations regarding the characterisation of the excel-sheet as a "dumb document" and the necessity of corroboration for entries recovered from third-party premises.
Conclusion: The Tribunal held that the excel-sheet did not attract the statutory presumption in a manner sufficient to uphold the addition, and therefore the onus was not shifted so as to validate the section 69 addition.
Issue 3: Necessity of separate adjudication of jurisdictional grounds challenging assumption of jurisdiction under section 153C when incriminating material is found on a third party.
Legal framework: Section 153C permits assessment proceedings in respect of a person where incriminating material is found during search of another person, provided jurisdictional conditions are satisfied. Jurisdictional challenges can be raised where the legal requirements for assuming jurisdiction are disputed.
Precedent Treatment: No separate precedential analysis was set out; the Tribunal noted the revenue's ground challenging appellate treatment but proceeded on the substantive insufficiency of evidence.
Interpretation and reasoning: Although the revenue contended that the appellate authority failed to adjudicate jurisdictional grounds, the Tribunal's reasoning focused on the absence of evidence to prove the alleged transaction/substance of incriminating material. The Tribunal effectively determined that, even assuming jurisdiction under section 153C, the material on record did not establish the essential fact of payment/allotment to the assessee. Because the substantive evidentiary deficiency was dispositive, the Tribunal found no error in the appellate outcome. The decision implies that where the foundational evidentiary connection between seized material and the assessee is absent, adjudication on jurisdictional technicalities becomes academic to the result.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where incriminating material recovered from a third party does not substantiate the alleged transaction against the assessee, the question of jurisdiction under section 153C does not rescue an otherwise unsustainable addition; substantive proof is a precondition to any effective exercise of jurisdiction. Obiter - The Tribunal did not expressly elaborate a general rule on mandatory separate adjudication of jurisdictional pleas but addressed the matter by resolving the substantive insufficiency.
Conclusion: The Tribunal found no reversible error in the appellate authority's decision despite the suggested omission to separately adjudicate jurisdictional grounds, because absence of direct/corroborative evidence rendered the addition unsustainable irrespective of section 153C jurisdictional contentions.
Overall Conclusion
The Tribunal dismissed the revenue appeal, upholding deletion of the addition under section 69 on the grounds that the seized excel-sheet recovered from a third party, unsupported by direct evidence of payment, allotment, registration or agreement, amounted to conjecture insufficient to sustain an addition; statutory presumptions under section 292C and procedural jurisdiction under section 153C could not compensate for the lack of substantive evidentiary foundation.
Unexplained investment u/s 69 - excel-sheet recovered during search u/s 132 - CIT(A) deleted addition treating a seized Excel sheet as a 'dumb document' - Counsel reiterated that no payment whatsoever was ever made by the assessee and no flat was allotted or purchased by the assessee in the said society - HELD THAT:- The undisputed fact is that though the assessee was offered a flat in the said society but the assessee never made any initial payment of 25% as asked by the Society. It is not in dispute that no such flat was allotted to the assessee nor there is any evidence brought on record by the AO to suggest that the assessee has actually made any payment, whether in cash or cheque, to the said Society. The entire basis of the addition is the excel-sheet found from the premises of some third persons who was merely a building contractor and had relations with the said Society.
But the fact of the matter is that no direct evidence has been brought on record to show that the assessee has ever made any payment to the said society for the allotment of the flat. No evidence of any registration of the said flat has been brought on record nor there is any agreement to suggest that the assessee has been actually allotted a flat in the said society. The entire addition has been made on the basis of presumption, surmises and conjectures, which cannot be accepted. Considering the facts of the case in totality, we do not find any error or infirmity in the findings of the ld. CIT(A). Appeal of the revenue is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a provision for project-related completion expenses recorded in the profit and loss account is deductible where the liability is estimated at year-end under the accrual (mercantile) system and the expenditure is subsequently incurred.
2. Whether a provision for anticipated liability arising from an ongoing tenant-related civil dispute is deductible when the liability depends on the outcome of pending litigation and no final adjudication has occurred by the balance sheet date.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Provision for project-related completion expenses
Legal framework: Under the accrual (mercantile) system, a business deduction is allowable where a business liability has definitely arisen during the accounting year and can be estimated with reasonable certainty, even if the quantum or timing of payment is to occur in a future period. A liability that is merely contingent upon the occurrence or non-occurrence of a future event is not deductible until it crystallises or is actually paid.
Precedent treatment: The Court applied the established principle that liabilities which have in praesenti arisen and are capable of reasonable estimation are not contingent and are deductible when charged against profit, even if discharge occurs later. The decision followed the settled position that certainty of liability (not necessarily certainty of payment date) and reasonable estimability are determinative.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal examined documentary evidence furnished at assessment and on appeal, including a summary of the estimated expenses, ledger entries, vouchers and bank statements showing that substantial expenditure (INR 1,08,21,977 and INR 18,78,023) was incurred in subsequent years on specified items (carpentry, plumbing, electrical work, garden fencing, CCTV installations). The assessee's obligation to complete common amenities and provide clear title under sale contracts constituted an existing contractual liability at the balance sheet date. The Tribunal found no contradictory material from the Revenue challenging either the existence of the obligation or the fact that expenditure was actually incurred shortly after the balance sheet date, which validated the original estimate and demonstrated reasonable certainty in quantification.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where a contractual obligation to perform work exists at the accounting date and the amount can be estimated with reasonable certainty (corroborated by subsequent discharge), a provision recorded in the profit and loss account is not a contingent liability and is deductible in the year in which the liability arose.
Conclusion: The disallowance of the provision for project-related completion expenses was not justified. The provision was an ascertained business liability, reasonably estimated and subsequently incurred, and therefore the Tribunal deleted the disallowance.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS - Provision for anticipated liability in ongoing tenant civil dispute
Legal framework: A provision for liabilities is deductible where the liability has crystallised or has arisen in praesenti and is reasonably estimable. By contrast, obligations contingent on the outcome of pending litigation (i.e., dependent on future adjudication) remain contingent liabilities until the liability crystallises by final adjudication or payment; in such cases, deduction is allowable in the year of payment or when liability becomes certain.
Precedent treatment: The Tribunal adhered to the principle distinguishing ascertained liabilities from contingent obligations dependent on judicial outcomes, treating the latter as non-deductible until crystallisation or payment. This approach follows established tax law principles regarding deductibility of provisions related to litigation.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal noted that the provision was made prior to the civil court's direction and that, at the time of making the provision, the liability had not crystallised. Though a civil court later directed reconstruction and compensation and the assessee deposited a part sum, the assessee had not accepted that decision and had appealed to the High Court, leaving the dispute unresolved at the relevant assessment date and demonstrating lack of finality. Consequently, the liability remained dependent on the outcome of ongoing litigation and could not be treated as an ascertained liability in the relevant year. The Tribunal observed that the appropriate treatment is to allow deduction in the year of payment or when the liability becomes final.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a provision for an anticipated liability arising solely from pending litigation is contingent and not deductible in the year the provision is made if the liability's existence or quantum depends on future judicial determination; deduction should be claimed when payment is made or liability crystallises.
Conclusion: The disallowance of the provision made for the tenant dispute was upheld. The provision was contingent at the balance sheet date because the liability was dependent on unresolved litigation; thus the Tribunal sustained the addition and directed that deduction may be claimed in the year of payment or upon crystallisation of liability.
Cross-reference
The two issues are distinguished on the basis of the objective existence of the liability and its reasonable estimability at the balance sheet date: contractual, presently-existing obligations supported by subsequent payments qualify as deductible provisions; obligations contingent on unresolved judicial outcomes do not.
Allowability of provision for business liability arising in the accounting year - contingent liability versus ascertained liability - accrual (mercantile) system of accounting and matching principle - estimation with reasonable certainty - deduction in the year of payment where liability not crystallised
Allowability of provision for business liability arising in the accounting year - estimation with reasonable certainty - accrual (mercantile) system of accounting and matching principle - Deductibility of the provision for project-related construction expenses debited in the profit and loss account. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal applied the settled test that a business liability incurred in the accounting year is deductible if the incurring of liability is certain and it can be estimated with reasonable certainty although quantification may occur later. The assessee had recorded a provision for completion-related construction costs on an accrual basis, produced supporting ledger entries, vouchers and bank statements, and evidence showed substantial actual expenditure incurred in subsequent years towards the same items (carpentry, plumbing, electrical, garden fencing, CCTV, etc.). The Revenue produced no material contradicting the assessee's evidence or the accuracy of the original estimate. Applying the legal principle from Bharat Earth Movers, the Tribunal found the liability to be in praesenti and capable of reasonable estimation and therefore deleted the disallowance of the provision for construction cost. [Paras 6, 7, 8]
Provision for project-related construction expenses allowed; disallowance deleted.
Contingent liability versus ascertained liability - deduction in the year of payment where liability not crystallised - Treatability as deductible expense of the provision made for a tenant's civil claim pending adjudication. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal examined the nature of the provision made in respect of an ongoing civil dispute. At the time the provision was created the liability had not been finally determined and remained dependent on the outcome of judicial proceedings; the assessee had subsequently been directed by the Civil Court to make certain payments and reconstruct the house, but that order was under appeal before the High Court and not accepted by the assessee. Given lack of finality and that the obligation was contingent on litigation outcome, the Tribunal held the liability had not crystallised in the relevant year and therefore did not qualify as an ascertained business liability. The appropriate remedy is to allow deduction in the year of actual payment to the claimant. [Paras 5, 9]
Provision for tenant dispute held to be contingent and disallowance upheld; deduction to be claimed in year of payment.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed: the disallowance of the provision for construction completion is deleted, while the disallowance in respect of the provision for the tenant dispute is upheld because the liability had not crystallised in the relevant year.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the reassessment proceedings under section 147 could lawfully be sustained where reassessment/addition on merits is ultimately decided in favour of the assessee (consequentiality of merits to legality of initiation addressed as academic).
2. Whether an addition under section 69A (unexplained money) is sustainable where a cash deposit was shortly thereafter transferred as an unsecured loan to a person related to the assessee's employer, and the assessee asserts the deposit was from declared salary and trading savings.
3. Whether the appellate authority (vested with powers under section 250 clauses (4) and (6)) may summarily uphold an assessing officer's addition on suspicion without conducting independent inquiry, making a speaking order and correlating declared income with claimed savings and expenses.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Reassessment initiation under section 147: Legal framework
Section 147 permits reopening where the AO has "reason to believe" that income has escaped assessment; the validity of reassessment depends on existence of such belief based on tangible material. Where appellate decision disposes merits in favour of assessee, challenges to initiation may become academic if merits decide dispute.
Precedent Treatment
No prior decisions or authorities were relied upon or discussed by the Tribunal in the text; therefore no precedential reliance, distinction, or overruling was made.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal observed that since the merit issue (addition under section 69A) was answered in favour of the assessee, the legal grounds concerning initiation of reassessment (section 147) become academic. The Court therefore proceeded to decide the substantive correctness of the addition and set aside the appellate order sustaining the addition.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where the substantive addition is reversed on merits, ancillary challenges to the initiation of reassessment may be rendered academic and need not be separately adjudicated.
Conclusion
Legal challenge to initiation under section 147 was not adjudicated as a primary standalone issue because the Tribunal resolved the substantive contention in favour of the assessee, making the initiation issue academic.
Issue 2 - Validity of addition under section 69A (unexplained money): Legal framework
Section 69A permits treating money as unexplained where cash credits/ deposits are not satisfactorily explained by the assessee as being from legitimate sources; the department must establish inadequacy of declared income or absence of credible sources and the assessee must discharge onus by reliable evidence.
Precedent Treatment
No judicial precedents were cited in the record; the Tribunal applied statutory principles and evidentiary standards but did not follow, distinguish or overrule case law in its reasons.
Interpretation and reasoning
The AO and CIT(A) treated a single cash deposit of Rs. 3.5 lakhs, followed next day by transfer as an unsecured loan to an individual who was partner of the assessee's employer, as indicia of routing unaccounted money. The Tribunal found that both AO and CIT(A) failed to conduct or record any independent enquiry into the genuineness of the loan, sources of the cash deposit, or to correlate declared income, business receipts, savings and reasonable expenses with the alleged deposit. The assessee had placed a trading licence and asserted that the deposit derived from salary and trading savings; the department did not dispute the existence of salary or the trading licence. The CIT(A) sustained the addition largely on suspicion and numeric disparity (deposit greater than declared income/profit) without a speaking, reasoned analysis or independent fact-finding. The Tribunal emphasized that suspicion alone cannot sustain a tax imposition and that the quasi-judicial appellate authority has a duty to examine evidence afresh under section 250(4) & (6).
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: An addition under section 69A cannot be upheld solely on suspicion and arithmetic disparity; the AO/CIT(A) must examine and record findings on the genuineness of transactions, source of cash, earning capacity, reasonable living expenses and available documentary evidence. Where the appellate authority has powers co-terminus with the AO under section 250(4) & (6), it must make an independent, speaking inquiry before sustaining unexplained money additions.
Conclusion
The Tribunal set aside the CIT(A)'s order and directed deletion of the Rs. 3,50,000 addition because the department failed to dismantle the documents on record or to make independent enquiries and findings; therefore the addition under section 69A was arbitrary and unsustainable.
Issue 3 - Duty of appellate authority under section 250(4) & (6) to make independent enquiry and speaking order
Legal framework
Section 250(4) & (6) empower the appellate authority to exercise co-terminus powers with the AO, including making independent enquiries and recording reasoned findings.
Precedent Treatment
No case law cited; the Tribunal applied statutory mandate and principles of administrative fairness.
Interpretation and reasoning
The Tribunal found that the CIT(A) merely echoed AO's suspicions without conducting necessary factual inquiries (e.g., verifying source documents, quantifying reasonable living expenses, probing the loan's genuineness) or producing a speaking order evaluating the documentary evidence already on record (trade licence, bank statements, etc.). The Tribunal held that shifting the entire onus onto the assessee, without displacing or creditably rebutting the assessees' evidence, is improper. The appellate authority is required to independently examine and either accept or rebut the assessee's evidence with reasons.
Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: An appellate authority with statutory investigatory powers must independently apply mind and record reasoned findings; failure to do so renders a sustaining order vitiated for being arbitrary and perverse.
Conclusion
The CIT(A)'s failure to conduct an independent, speaking inquiry and to correlate the available evidence with the contested addition rendered its decision unsustainable; the Tribunal set aside the appellate order and deleted the addition, directing the AO accordingly.
Cross-references
Findings on Issue 2 are interlinked with Issue 3: the unsustainability of the section 69A addition stems both from lack of evidentiary proof by the revenue and from the appellate authority's failure to exercise independent fact-finding powers as mandated under section 250(4) & (6).
Unexplained money u/s 69A - onus to prove - amount was deposited by the assessee on one day in his bank account and on the very next day, the said amount was transferred as un-secured loan - HELD THAT:- Assessee had submitted all the details and evidences before the department including trade license. The revenue has not disputed the salary income earned nor has disputed the business of trading conducted by the assessee.
There is no question raised by the revenue doubting the genuinity of the trade license validity placed on record by the assessee.
CIT(A)/NFAC should have co-related the total income and enquired upon the possible expenses that could have been incurred by the assessee keeping in mind his life style etc., in such way, the reasonableness of sustaining the addition could have been understood.
But, in this case, inspite of the documentary evidences placed on record, there has been no reasoning and analysis made by the department and, hence, the nature of addition takes the character of being arbitrary and perverse addition without any factual and legal basis. The revenue has also not brought on record any other un-disclosed source of income, if any, regarding the assessee. Therefore, without dismantling the evidences already placed on record and without providing any finding as to the submissions made by the assessee on the record and source of income and his savings, it is inappropriate to simply sustain the addition.
CIT(A)/NFAC has fully shifted the onus of submitting the documentary evidences on the shoulders of the assessee, whereas, the fact is that the department has not given any finding with regard to the documents/evidences already on record nor AO nor CIT(A)/NFAC has conducted necessary examination regarding total income earned, the family expenses, co-relating with the savings that have been done by the assessee.
CIT(A)/NFAC, power being co-terminus with that of the AO and having the mandate as per section 250 clauses (4) and (6) of the Act should have independently conducted necessary enquiry bringing forth a speaking order. Such exercise is absolutely missing in the findings of the Ld. CIT(A)/NFAC. The addition u/s 69A is therefore misplaced in case of the assessee.
We direct the AO to delete the additions made from the hands of the assessee - Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Classification of “hCG Pregnancy Rapid Test Strip” and “hCG Pregnancy Rapid Test Cassette”- Exemption from duty of customs provided to “diagnostics test kits specified in List 4” - it was held by CESTAT that 'The Commissioner, in the impugned order, has dropped the demands proposed in the show cause notices for the reason that the disputed goods are classifiable under CTH 3002 and so basic customs duty would have to be paid at Nil rate of duty.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good reason to interfere with the impugned order dated 19.11.2024 passed by the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal, Principal Bench, New Delhi.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the offer of redemption under Section 125 of the Customs Act lapsed for goods confiscated by the Customs, resulting in absolute confiscation and vesting of goods (and proceeds) in the Central Government.
2. Whether Section 150 of the Customs Act (refund of sale proceeds) applies to goods that have been confiscated and redeemed/not redeemed, and whether a refund claim filed after the redemption period is maintainable.
3. Whether the Customs authorities lawfully disposed of the seized gold jewellery and whether disposal without recording and without payment/settlement of sale proceeds to the affected persons is permissible.
4. Whether the administrative/departmental handling (failure to record disposal, delay, and refusal to refund) warrants judicial directions for explanation, accountability, and institutional remedial measures.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Legal framework: The Court construed Section 125 of the Customs Act which permits redemption of confiscated goods on payment of a redemption fine within a statutory period (120 days as provided in the Order-in-Original). The statutory effect of non-acceptance of the offer of redemption within the prescribed time is that confiscation becomes absolute and the goods vest in the Central Government.
Issue 1 - Precedent Treatment: No prior authority was cited or followed in the judgment; the Court applied the statutory provision directly to the facts.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined the chronology - OIO dated 28.04.2023 (operative 01.05.2023), the 120 day redemption window, and the fact that the Petitioners sought re-export/refund after the 120 day period. The Court accepted the administrative construction that Section 125 affords a time-bound option; failure to exercise it converts the confiscation into an absolute vesting in the Government.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where redemption under Section 125 is not availed within the stipulated period, confiscation becomes absolute and the goods (and sale proceeds on disposal) vest in the Central Government. This principle is applied to dismiss contentions based on belated redemption requests.
Issue 1 - Conclusion: The Court endorsed that the offer of redemption had lapsed and that, in law, the goods had become vested with the Government pursuant to Section 125.
Issue 2 - Legal framework: Section 150 (refund provisions) applies to goods which are not confiscated; the legal distinction between non-confiscated goods (refund under Section 150) and confiscated goods (redemption under Section 125) is determinative of entitlements to sale proceeds.
Issue 2 - Precedent Treatment: No specific precedents were relied upon; the Court applied the statutory delineation between Sections 125 and 150.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning: The Court accepted the Assistant Commissioner (Refund)'s reasoning that Section 150 does not apply to confiscated goods. Since the redemption offer under Section 125 had lapsed, the Petitioners could not claim refund under Section 150; upon absolute confiscation the sale proceeds vest with the Government.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Refund claims under Section 150 are not available for goods that have been confiscated and for which the redemption option has lapsed under Section 125; sale proceeds of disposed confiscated goods vest with the Central Government.
Issue 2 - Conclusion: The refund claim based on Section 150 was rightly rejected to the extent it sought recovery for confiscated goods after the lapse of the statutory redemption period.
Issue 3 - Legal framework: Administrative obligations of Customs authorities include maintaining records of seizure, adjudication orders, offers of redemption, acceptance/receipt of redemption fines, and lawful disposal procedures; transparency as to disposal and accounting of sale proceeds is integral to lawful exercise of custodial and disposal powers.
Issue 3 - Precedent Treatment: The Court did not cite precedent but treated Directorate/Commissionerate record-keeping and accounting obligations as essential statutory-administrative functions.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found factual deficiencies: (a) the OIO did not record that goods were disposed of or redemption permitted; (b) the refund order did not indicate amounts actually recovered from disposal (only appraised values were discussed); and (c) Petitioners repeatedly represented for re-export/redemption and produced documents (e.g., cancelled cheques) yet were informed that goods had been disposed of. The Court characterized disposal without appropriate recording and failure to account for sale proceeds as inexplicable and indicative of deprivation of property without authority of law.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Administrative disposal of seized articles must be recorded and accompanied by proper accounting of sale proceeds; absent such record, disposal that deprives affected persons of their entitlement is impermissible. Obiter - The Court's strong disapproval of the departmental conduct and characterisation of the situation as "extremely disturbing" serves as admonition but is not a rule of law.
Issue 3 - Conclusion: While the statutory scheme could render confiscation absolute on lapse of redemption, the departmental practice of disposing goods without recording and without informing/accounting to the affected persons is unlawful/irregular and requires explanation and corrective action.
Issue 4 - Legal framework: The Court has power under Articles 226/227 (constitutional supervisory jurisdiction) to call for explanations, issue directions for accountability, and direct institutional measures to prevent recurrence of maladministration.
Issue 4 - Precedent Treatment: No specific judicial authorities were relied upon; the Court exercised its supervisory jurisdiction based on the established duty to ensure lawful administration and protection of property rights.
Issue 4 - Interpretation and reasoning: Given the non-recording of disposal, absence of disclosure of sale proceeds, and repeated unaddressed representations, the Court directed personal attendance of the Assistant Commissioner (Refund) and ordered that senior executive authorities (Secretary, Department of Revenue; Chairman, CBIC) be informed and hold a meeting with Customs authorities to prevent recurrence. The direction to notify higher officials and to require departmental explanation stems from the need for institutional oversight and remedial action.
Issue 4 - Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where administrative action discloses potential arbitrary deprivation or systemic lapse in record-keeping/accounting, the Court may require personal appearance of responsible officers and direct communication to supervisory authorities for remedial measures. Obiter - Specific mail ids and meeting directives are administrative implementation measures tailored to the facts.
Issue 4 - Conclusion: The Court ordered departmental accountability and institutional intervention: the concerned Assistant Commissioner to appear, and the Secretary (Dept. of Revenue) and Chairman (CBIC) to be informed and to hold a meeting with Customs authorities to take appropriate measures to prevent recurrence.
Functioning of the Customs Department at I.G.I. Airport - seeking release of the gold jewellery seized by the Customs Department, I.G.I. Airport - denial of free allowance as admissible to the to the Pax(s) on account of various omission and commission - confiscation - redemption fine - penalty - HELD THAT:- The total weight of the gold items, which were seized, was to the tune of more than 400 grams. The refund order does not mention as to what was the amount recovered from the disposal of the gold jewellery. It is pertinent to note that only the appraised value is discussed in the refund order. Additionally, the OIO also did not record that the goods were disposed of and redemption was permitted - Under these circumstances, despite repeated representations, it is inexplicable as to why the seized gold jewellery was disposed of in this manner.
The Customs Department has, in fact, seized the gold jewellery, and disposed of the same, and refused to pay any amounts to the Petitioners, despite the OIO having attained finality. Such conduct on behalf of the Customs Department reveals an extremely disturbing situation where passengers are being deprived of their property without authority of law - List on 22nd September 2025 in Supplementary List.
Issues: Whether the imported aluminium bushes, flanges, fittings, bolts, grommets and similar goods were classifiable as parts and accessories of aircraft under CTH 8803 or as general articles of base metal under Chapters 73, 76, 81 and 82, and whether the penalty and demand could survive if the classification under CTH 8803 was upheld.
Analysis: The governing scheme under Note 2 of Section XVII excludes from the expression "parts and accessories" articles of general use of base metal, while Note 3 of Section XVII applies the sole or principal use test to parts or accessories suitable for use solely or principally with articles of Chapters 86 to 88. The goods in question were not disputed to be used in aircraft, and the record showed that they were described and cleared as aircraft parts. On that basis, they fell within the aircraft-heading classification and could not be diverted to the general-use headings merely because they were made of aluminium or other base metal. The reliance placed on contrary authorities was found distinguishable on their facts, while the principle recognised in the cited Supreme Court decision supported classification according to principal use.
Conclusion: The goods were correctly classifiable under CTH 8803 as parts and accessories of aircraft, and the demand, reclassification and penalty could not stand.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded and the impugned order was set aside, with consequential relief according to law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where goods are suitable solely or principally for use with aircraft, Note 3 of Section XVII requires classification under the aircraft heading, and they cannot be shifted to general-use base-metal headings covered by the exclusion in Note 2.
Classification of imported goods - Aluminium Bushes Flanges, Aluminium Fitting, Bolts, Grommet and various other products - to be classified under CTH 8803 9000 of the Customs Tariff or under CTH 7616 9990, 7318 1500, 7320 9090, 8108 9090 and 8207 9090? - Revenue relies on Note 2 of Section XVII of the Customs Tariff to classify the impugned products under CTH 73, 76, 81 and 82 while the appellant relies on Note 3 of Section XVII to classify the same under CTH 8803.
HELD THAT:- A part suitable for solely or principally with the articles of CTH 88 (aircraft) which is not disputed cannot be classified under CTH 73, 76 or 82 as parts of general use. Therefore, it is found that the impugned products are rightly classifiable under CTH 8803. We also find that the Bills of Entry placed on record show that the appellant had described the products as tools, bolts, washers, aluminium tube assembly, aluminium bushes, flanges etc. and classified them under CTH 8803. Since, the appellant had correctly described the products and the classification is also upheld, the question of penalty does not arise.
The classification of relays was held to be rightly classified under CTH 8608. In the instance case, as it is already observed that since there is no dispute that the product in questions was used in the aircraft, they are rightly classifiable under CTH 8803. The decisions relied upon by the Revenue are distinguishable since in the case of Shiroki Auto components India Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Commissioner of C.Ex. & S.T. (Ahm.) [2020 (7) TMI 706 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD] seats for motor vehicle were specifically classified under CTH 9401/02. In the case of Pragati Silicons Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Commissioner of C.Ex. Delhi [2007 (4) TMI 263 - SUPREME COURT], it is found that the Apex Court has categorically held that since the name plates of vehicles are rightly classifiable under CTH 8708 as parts/accessories of motor vehicles which is also the case in the present proceedings.
The impugned products are rightly classifiable under CTH 8803 as parts and accessories of aircraft. Consequently, the impugned order is set aside and Appeal is allowed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the applicants who entered into buy-back / investment-style Memoranda of Understanding for residential units qualify as "speculative investors" and are thereby disentitled from initiating proceedings under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
2. Whether the Ordinance / Amendment Act that introduced a threshold requirement (joint filing by not less than 100 allottees or 10% of allottees) for initiation of CIRP by allottees in a real estate project was applicable to pending Section 7 proceedings where orders had been reserved prior to promulgation, and if non-compliance could be cured subsequently in appellate proceedings.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Classification as "Speculative Investors"
Legal framework: The IBC and the definition of "financial creditor" (including allottees under Section 5(8)(f) as amended) must be read with the object of the Code - revival and restructuring, not a recovery mechanism for speculative investment contracts. RERA and consumer fora remain parallel remedies for individual grievances.
Precedent treatment: The Court follows and applies the distinction drawn in Pioneer Urban Land & Infrastructure Ltd v. Union of India between genuine homebuyers and speculative investors, and reiterates that speculative investors cannot misuse the Code to trigger CIRP. The reasoning in Pioneer Urban (para 56) shifting burden after prima facie default is adopted.
Interpretation and reasoning: The determination is fact-sensitive and contextual. Indicative factors include nature and terms of the contract, number of units, presence of assured returns or buy-back clauses, stage of project completion, and existence of alternative arrangements in lieu of possession. Possession is treated as the sine qua non of genuine homebuyer intent. Contracts that substitute possession with assured returns, buyback/refund options, unrealistic guaranteed yields, preferential contractual rights, or significant deviations from RERA model agreement point strongly to speculation. The Court draws on commercial notions of "speculation" (expectation of unusually large profits; business/trade activity) and analogies from older precedents requiring actual delivery to avoid classification as speculative.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The formulation of non-exhaustive indicators and the holding that possession is essential to genuine homebuyer status constitute ratio as applied to admissions under Section 7; discussion on sectoral harms and policy forms part of ratio guiding interpretation. Historical/cautionary references to broader social policy and housing as a right are obiterate contextual reinforcement but align with statutory objectives.
Conclusions: On the facts examined, where agreements were structured as buyback/investment contracts (e.g., modest upfront payment coupled with guaranteed/high returns or compulsory buyback and absence of intention or steps to take possession), the applicants were found to be speculative investors. Such applicants are disentitled to initiate CIRP under Section 7; their claims are characterized as recovery claims amenable to other fora. The Court affirms appellate findings that the subject applicants were speculative investors and upholds setting aside of NCLT admission orders. Liberty is preserved to pursue alternative remedies and limitation is held not to bar such claims in appropriate proceedings.
Issue 2 - Applicability of the Ordinance / Amendment Act to Pending Proceedings
Legal framework: The Ordinance / Amendment Act inserted a proviso to Section 7(1) requiring joint filing by a threshold number of allottees (100 or 10%) for initiation of CIRP against a real estate project, and contained a transitional provision dealing with pending filings not admitted before commencement.
Precedent treatment: The Court examines coordinate Bench decisions and interim orders in related proceedings but distinguishes their factual matrix. It accepts Manish Kumar (constitutional validity upheld) but clarifies that applicability depends on the stage of proceedings when the legislative change occurred. The Court invokes established doctrines concerning judicial acts producing prejudice (Actus Curiae Neminem Gravabit) and equitable principles (lex non cogit ad impossibilia).
Interpretation and reasoning: Application of the amendment to pending matters depends on feasibility of compliance and the stage of proceedings at the time of promulgation. Where arguments were heard and orders reserved prior to promulgation, parties could not reasonably be expected to comply with a subsequently introduced procedural requirement before admission. The adjudicating authority has a duty to take judicial notice of intervening legislative changes and, where necessary, afford opportunity to comply before admission. The Court reasons that failure of a Tribunal to account for a legislative change in reserved judgment should not prejudice a litigant; subsequent compliance during appellate proceedings can cure the defect if no substantive prejudice arises to the other side. The doctrine that the act of the Court should not injure suitors is applied to neutralize prejudice caused by reserving orders prior to legislative amendment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: The holding that the Amendment applies generally and its constitutional validity is upheld is ratio; the rule that where orders were reserved before promulgation, retrospective enforcement of the threshold to defeat vested rights is impermissible and that subsequent compliance in appellate proceedings may cure the defect is ratio in the present facts. Broader policy directions and administrative prescriptions are obiterate insofar as they suggest systemic reforms beyond adjudication of the specific appeals, though some measures are framed as directions in exercise of jurisdiction.
Conclusions: The Ordinance / Amendment Act is applicable to Section 7 applications generally. However, where proceedings were at a reserved-order stage prior to promulgation, the threshold requirement cannot be retroactively enforced to prejudice a party; appellate cure of compliance is permissible where no substantive prejudice results. Accordingly, the Court sets aside the portion of the first impugned order that held the Ordinance inapplicable and recognizes that subsequent satisfaction of the threshold in appellate proceedings can validate the petition, applying the doctrine that an act of the Court shall prejudice no one.
Ancillary Doctrinal and Practical Conclusions
The IBC's objectives (revival, maximisation of value, protection of employment and stakeholders) guide restrictive application against speculative misuse. RERA remains the primary forum for homebuyer grievances; IBC is last resort. At admission stage, Tribunals must record a prima facie finding whether an applicant is a genuine homebuyer or a speculative investor to prevent needless CIRP admissions. Speculative investors are not barred from claiming principal amounts in other fora.
Final Disposition as to Issues
Both determinations stand: (i) the subject applicants are speculative investors and hence incompetent to initiate CIRP under Section 7 - admission orders are rightly set aside; (ii) the Ordinance / Amendment Act applies, but where orders were reserved prior to promulgation, the requirement cannot be retrospectively enforced to the prejudice of a party and may be cured by subsequent compliance in appellate proceedings - the NCLAT's contrary conclusion on applicability is set aside to that extent.
Entitlement of speculative investors from initiating proceedings under Section 7 of the IBC - applicability of Ordinance / Amendment Act introducing threshold requirements for filing of Section 7 IBC applications by allottees.
Speculation in real estate and Pioneer Urban - HELD THAT:- This Court in Pioneer Urban Land and Infrastructure Ltd v. Union of India [2019 (8) TMI 532 - SUPREME COURT], while upholding the constitutional validity of the 2018 amendment recognising allottees as financial creditors, drew a crucial distinction between genuine homebuyers and speculative investors. It clarified that speculative investors cannot be permitted to misuse the Code as a debt recovery mechanism. The judgment struck a balance: ensuring representation of genuine homebuyers in the CoC, while shielding developers and projects from being derailed by investors who never intended to take possession - Pioneer Urban held that once a prima facie default is established under Section 7 of the Code, the burden shifts onto the developer to demonstrate that the applicant is a defaulter, or that the process has been invoked fraudulently, with malicious intent, or by a speculative investor. These safeguards were intended to prevent “trigger-happy” investors from destabilising projects or prematurely driving developers into insolvency.
Criteria to identify speculative investors - HELD THAT:- In Jute Investment Co. Ltd v. CIT [1979 (10) TMI 4 - SUPREME COURT], this Court held that for a transaction to fall outside the ambit of “speculative” under the Income-tax Act, 1961, actual delivery of the commodity is essential. By analogy, where an allottee has no intention to take delivery of the unit, the arrangement assumes the character of a speculative transaction.
Thus, the determination of whether an allottee is a speculative investor, must be holistic, having regard to the terms of the agreement, the allotment letter, the payment terms, and the overall conduct of the allottee - it must be clarified that the distinction between speculative investors and genuine homebuyers is relevant only at the stage of initiation of CIRP. Such allottees are not barred from filing claims for the principal amount invested, or from pursuing remedies before other fora in accordance with law.
The findings of the NCLAT treating the appellants as speculative investors warrant no interference. Both impugned orders, setting aside admission of the Section 7 applications, stand affirmed. However, liberty is reserved to the appellants to pursue their remedies before appropriate fora in accordance with law. In such proceedings, the bar of limitation shall not apply, in line with settled jurisprudence of this Court.
Applicability of Ordinance / Amendment Act to the facts of the present case - HELD THAT:- Section 7 IBC, as amended by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019, enforced with effect from 28.12.2019, added a proviso to sub-section (1) before the explanation, providing a threshold limit for initiation of CIRP at the instance of allottees under a real estate project. It mandated that an application shall be filed jointly by not less than 100 allottees or not less than 10% of the total number of such allottees under the same real estate project, whichever is less. It further provided that where an application for initiating the CIRP against a corporate debtor had been filed by such financial creditors and had not been admitted by the adjudicating authority before.
In the present case, the appellant filed a Section 7 application against the corporate debtor on 18.03.2019. On 28.12.2019, when the Ordinance was promulgated, the application was still pending before the Adjudicating Authority. However, arguments had already been heard and the matter reserved for orders on 04.12.2019. The order came to be passed on 02.01.2020, admitting the application without reference to the Ordinance. At that stage, the requirement introduced by the Ordinance had not been complied with by the appellant. Nevertheless, she subsequently complied with the said requirement in the appellate proceedings.
In the present case, limitation was due to expire on 27.01.2020. Even if computation is reckoned from 02.01.2020 (the date of reopening of the NCLT after the winter recess), the limitation period would have run its course by 31.01.2020. Although the affidavits bear the date 27.01.2020, the undisputed position is that they were actually filed before the NCLAT only on 01.02.2020, by which time the limitation period had already lapsed. Consequently, the appellant had no option but to comply with the requirements of the Ordinance which had come into effect on 28.12.2019. However, it was incumbent upon the NCLT to take cognizance of the Ordinance and afford an opportunity to the appellant to meet its stipulations. Since no such opportunity was granted, the appellant had no occasion to comply before the NCLT.
The outcome on grounds of equity should be determined as on the date the order was reserved, and no subsequent legislative or administrative change should prejudice the parties - Where orders were already reserved prior to the promulgation of the Ordinance, the requirement cannot be retrospectively enforced so as to defeat vested rights. The subsequent compliance by the appellant during appellate proceedings sufficiently cures the defect, and the act of the Court must not prejudice the litigant. Therefore, the finding of the NCLAT in respect of the inapplicability of the Ordinance / Amendment Act to the facts of the present case requires interference, and the first impugned order deserves to be set aside to that effect.
Right to shelter as a fundamental right - constitutional obligation of the state to protect homebuyers - HELD THAT:- While recent amendments and regulatory measures are welcome – and the Government merits commendation for undertaking proactive structural reforms – much remains to be done. It is imperative that RERA authorities are not reduced to toothless tigers. They must be equipped with adequate infrastructure, empowered tribunals, and effective enforcement mechanisms so that their orders are implemented swiftly, in letter and spirit. Only then can the constitutional promise of the Right to Shelter under Article 21 be meaningfully realized for homebuyers.
The findings of the NCLAT holding the appellants (Mansi Brar Fernandes and Sunita Agarwal) to be speculative investors are affirmed. Consequently, both the impugned orders setting aside the admission of the Section 7 applications by the NCLT, also stand affirmed. However, the appellants are at liberty to pursue their remedies before the appropriate forum in accordance with law, and in such event, the bar of limitation shall not apply - Ordinance / Amendment Act is squarely applicable to the facts of the present case and to that extent, the first impugned order stands set aside.
Appeal disposed off.
Issues: Whether the order admitting the Section 7 application was liable to be interfered with on the ground that debt and default were not proved, the account statements were unreliable, and the pending DRT proceedings and counterclaim barred the insolvency application.
Analysis: The record showed disbursement of credit facilities, classification of the account as NPA, issuance of demand and recall notices, and filing of the bank's statement of account reflecting outstanding dues. The Tribunal found that the statement of account produced pursuant to the earlier direction, together with the NeSL record and the balance confirmation issued by the corporate debtor, sufficiently established debt and default. The objections regarding theft of records, alleged discrepancies in the bank statement, and claimed receivables were not supported by reliable material. The pendency of an OA before the DRT and any counterclaim did not preclude consideration of a Section 7 application, since insolvency is a special proceeding available to a financial creditor independently of such parallel proceedings.
Conclusion: The admission of the Section 7 application was upheld and the challenge to the finding of debt and default failed.
Ratio Decidendi: A Section 7 application can be admitted where the record, including bank statements, default reporting and admissions by the debtor, establishes debt and default, and the pendency of civil or DRT proceedings does not bar insolvency proceedings.
Admission of section 7 application - commission of debt and default and dues of more than Rs. 100 Crores - HELD THAT:- The statement of the Appellant is that Appellant endeavours to enter into settlement and try to liquidate the debt itself indicate that understanding of the Appellant that Corporate Debtor was in debt and default for which Appellant was endeavouring to settle the matter. Appellant having failed to obtain any OTS, the interim order subsequently vacated by this Tribunal on 01.09.2023, but the fact remains that Appellant made a statement that it is entering into OTS with the Bank to liquidate the debt. The above is also clear indication that debt and default does exists. The debt and default on the part of the Corporate Debtor was not proved only from NeSL Report dated 04.10.2021 but from the statement of account and other materials brought on the record by the State Bank of India.
The factum of any counter claim filed by the Corporate Debtor in the OA in no manner preclude consideration of Section 7 application. Insolvency process is a special proceeding and a right conferred on the Financial Creditor to initiate proceedings under Section 7 which proceeding can proceed unhampered by any proceeding pending before the DRT.
Thus, it is clear that the Adjudicating Authority after considering all relevant materials on the record has rightly come to the conclusion that Corporate Debtor is in default of more than Rs. 100 Crore. The Adjudicating Authority has thus, rightly admitted Section 7 application. There are no error in the order impugned admitting Section 7 application. There is no merit in the Appeal.
The Appeal is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an approved resolution plan under Section 31(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) supersedes and/or extinguishes the rights and concessions granted under a prior sanctioned scheme under the erstwhile SICA/BIFR regime.
2. Whether financial claims arising prior to commencement of CIRP (including differential interest credited/debited by a creditor) that are not included in or crystallised under the approved resolution plan survive approval of the plan or stand extinguished by the "clean slate" principle.
3. Whether a creditor who held dominant voting share in the Committee of Creditors and had opportunity to file/quantify its claim during CIRP can resurrect a pre-CIRP financial claim after approval of the resolution plan.
4. Proper interpretation of expressions in the approved resolution plan such as specific term sheets for a creditor (dated from admission) and provisions under the heading "Contingent Liabilities" - whether they incorporate and preserve all unimplemented provisions of the earlier BIFR scheme or only certain statutory/unsecured liabilities.
5. Whether the adjudicating authority erred in partially allowing refund/adjustment of differential interest for a specified pre- and peri-CIRP period where the approved resolution plan expressly fixed interest rate and effective date for the concerned creditor.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Supremacy of an approved resolution plan over a prior BIFR/SICA-sanctioned scheme
Legal framework: Section 31(1) IBC makes an approved resolution plan binding on the corporate debtor and all stakeholders; Section 238 IBC provides for overriding effect over inconsistent laws; transitional provisions deal with migration from SICA/BIFR regimes.
Precedent treatment: Followed and applied - principles in Ghanashyam Mishra & Sons (finality and clean slate), CoC of Essar Steel (binding nature and commercial wisdom of CoC), Ebix Singapore (extinguishment of omitted/uncrystallised claims), Swiss Ribbons (IBC's objective replaces SICA), and related Appellate Tribunal jurisprudence (Jet Airways).
Interpretation and reasoning: The approved resolution plan expressly set out terms qua the creditor with an operative date from admission (25.05.2017), distinct from the effective date in the BIFR scheme; absence of an explicit provision in the resolution plan adopting BIFR terms indicates the CoC did not intend to carry forward the BIFR scheme in toto. Allowing the continued application of BIFR concessions in addition to the resolution-plan obligations would permit selective acceptance of benefits without corresponding obligations, defeating the negotiated trade-offs and the plan's finality.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - an approved resolution plan supersedes a prior BIFR scheme to the extent it addresses the same rights/obligations and is binding under Section 31(1); Obiter - observations on policy reasons for not allowing selective retention of BIFR concessions without reciprocal compliance.
Conclusion: The resolution plan approved under IBC supersedes the prior BIFR scheme insofar as the plan contains explicit and separate terms for the creditor; unadopted BIFR concessions do not continue automatically post-approval.
Issue 2 - Extinguishment of pre-CIRP claims not included in the approved resolution plan (Clean Slate Principle)
Legal framework: Section 31(1) IBC; regulations governing claims submission during CIRP; clean slate principle underlying IBC's objective to provide the resolution applicant a CD free from undisclosed/unaddressed liabilities.
Precedent treatment: Followed - Ghanashyam Mishra (claims not part of approved plan stand extinguished), Ebix (no post-approval modifications/withdrawals), Essar (binding nature of plan), Jet Airways (contingent/undecided claims barred if not incorporated).
Interpretation and reasoning: Financial claims existing prior to CIRP, including differential interest, are within the ambit of "claims" under IBC and must be lodged/quantified during CIRP. The creditor having dominant CoC share had the opportunity to include such claims; approval without inclusion thereby freezes claims and extinguishes omitted pre-CIRP claims to preserve finality and viability of plan. Treating failed prior-scheme claims as independent post-approval causes of action would undermine the code's objectives and the "clean slate" principle.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - pre-CIRP claims not incorporated in an approved resolution plan are extinguished and cannot be resurrected post-approval; Obiter - references to the transitional interplay between SICA repeal and IBC are explanatory.
Conclusion: The differential interest claim arising from the prior BIFR scheme, which was not part of the approved resolution plan, stood extinguished upon approval of the plan and cannot be revived thereafter.
Issue 3 - Resurrecting claims by a creditor who had opportunity to participate in CIRP/CoC
Legal framework: Claim filing/verification regime during CIRP and Regulation 12 (proof of claim); voting and decision-making powers of CoC; Section 31(1) binding effect.
Precedent treatment: Applied - courts emphasise that claims must be tabled in CIRP and cannot be belatedly raised after plan approval; Ghanashyam Mishra reasoning that omission is fatal post-approval.
Interpretation and reasoning: Where a creditor holding significant voting share in CoC had both knowledge and opportunity to marshal/quantify its claim in the CIRP and did not ensure its inclusion in the approved plan, it cannot be permitted later to reclaim that claim. Permitting resurrection would negate the negotiated allocations and commercial assessments underpinning the approved plan.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - a creditor who had opportunity in CIRP to include a claim and did not do so cannot later resurrect it after plan approval.
Conclusion: The creditor's demand for refund/recovery of amounts credited pre-CIRP was barred because the creditor had opportunity during CIRP/CoC to include the claim in the resolution process and the approved plan did not incorporate it.
Issue 4 - Construction of resolution-plan clauses: specific creditor terms v. "Contingent Liabilities" clause
Legal framework: Principles of contractual and commercial interpretation of resolution plans; requirement that plan terms be explicit to be binding; distinction between specific operative clauses and general contingent-liability provisions.
Precedent treatment: Consistent with Tribunal and Supreme Court emphasis on the specific terms of approved plans governing obligations; not departed from.
Interpretation and reasoning: Clauses in the resolution plan that explicitly stipulate the creditor's interest rate and effective date (from admission) demonstrate the intended regime governing that creditor. The "Contingent Liabilities" heading, by its language and placement, pertains to statutory liabilities and unsecured creditors; it cannot be read to re-import all concessions of the prior BIFR scheme in the absence of express incorporation. A contrary reading would permit selective appropriation of BIFR benefits without compliance with reciprocal conditions, which the plan's separate treatment of creditor terms rebuts.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - resolution-plan terms must be read as a whole; specific operative terms supersede prior inconsistent concessions; contingent-liabilities clause construed narrowly as addressing statutory/unsecured claims unless expressly broader.
Conclusion: The resolution plan's specific terms govern the creditor relationship and do not incorporate the BIFR scheme's concessions in full; contingent-liabilities language is confined to statutory/unsecured liabilities and does not preserve all unimplemented BIFR concessions vis-à-vis the creditor.
Issue 5 - Liability for differential interest for specific periods despite plan terms
Legal framework: Binding terms of approved resolution plan (interest rate, effective date), and the obligation to refund interest charged contrary to the plan for dates post-admission if deviation occurred.
Precedent treatment: Applied - plan terms are binding and deviations must be remedied to conform to the plan; yet pre-plan deviations that were not claimed remain extinguished.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal correctly held that overcharging of interest in deviation from the approved plan for the period from admission to a specified date (25.05.2017 to 28.08.2018 as found) warranted refund/adjustment to the extent inconsistent with the plan's express terms. However, amounts credited pre-CIRP (earlier differential credited prior to admission) which were not incorporated in the approved plan could not be reclaimed or re-characterised post-approval by either party. Thus, partial allowance for peri-CIRP deviations (where plan governs) and rejection for pre-CIRP omitted claims align with IBC's finality principle.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where an approved resolution plan prescribes interest and effective date, deviations from those terms during the plan-applicable period are remediable; pre-CIRP claims omitted from plan are extinguished.
Conclusion: The Tribunal's partial direction to refund differential interest for the plan-applicable period is tenable; claims for differential interest arising prior to admission and not included in the plan could not be sustained and were properly held extinguished.
Overall Conclusion
The Court affirmed that an approved resolution plan under Section 31(1) IBC supersedes prior BIFR/SICA-sanctioned schemes with respect to rights and obligations expressly dealt with in the plan; the clean slate principle extinguishes pre-CIRP claims not incorporated into the approved plan; a creditor with the opportunity to include claims in CIRP cannot resurrect them post-approval; resolution-plan clauses must be read as a whole and contingent-liability language construed in context; and remediation is limited to deviations within the plan-applicable period, while omitted pre-admission claims stand extinguished. The appellate court dismissed the challenge to the Tribunal's order subject to the limited refund direction for peri-plan overcharging as recorded by the Tribunal.
Approved resolution plan under Section 31(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) supersedes and/or extinguishes the rights and concessions granted under a prior sanctioned scheme under the erstwhile SICA/BIFR regime - alleged failure of the BIFR scheme, pertaining to which allegations and counter allegations are being labelled by the parties against each other - HELD THAT:- It appears to be admitted to the parties that after approval of the BIFR scheme the same could not be acted upon by the parties and due to the pressure on the appellant, he was compelled to move an application under Section 10 of the IBC.
Section 31(1) of the IBC stipulates that an approved resolution plan is binding on all the stakeholders including creditors. The clean slate principle ensures that the SRA, which assumes control of the CD, free from undisclosed or unaddressed liabilities should receive the CD without any further encumbrance and it is on the principle of value maximisation and revival of the CD and also on the principle that SRA must not come across a situation which was not contemplated by it, any past claim could not be claimed.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Ghanashyam Mishra and Sons Pvt. Ltd. vs. Edelweiss Assets Reconstruction Company Ltd. & Ors. [2021 (4) TMI 613 - SUPREME COURT] categorically held that all claims not forming part of the approved resolution plan stand extinguished upon approval of the same.
In CoC of Essar Steel India Ltd. vs. Satish Kumar Gupta & Ors., [2019 (11) TMI 731 - SUPREME COURT], Hon’ble Supreme Court again highlighted the binding nature of the resolution plan so far as all stakeholders are concerned, affirming that the CoC’s commercial wisdom in approving the plan is paramount and not subject to judicial interference unless seems violative of Section 30(2) of the Code.
In Ebix Singapore Pvt. Ltd. vs. CoC of Educomp Solutions Ltd., [2021 (9) TMI 672 - SUPREME COURT], the Hon’ble Supreme Court reinforced the finality of approved resolution plans holding that modifications or withdrawals therein after its approval is impermissible extending the principle of clean slate to the extinguishment of uncrystallised or omitted claims, also.
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Vaibhav Goyal & Anr. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income tax, [2025 (3) TMI 1052 - SUPREME COURT] again reaffirm the clean slate principle by holding that even uncrystallised statutory dues are extinguished, if the same have not been claimed during the course of CIRP. The BIFR originated claim, have merged into the IBC framework and should have been claimed during the CIRP and when these claims/dues have not been claimed by either side they stand extinguished, by the approval of resolution plan and could not be claimed now.
Now after the approval of the resolution plan, can only claim their rights under the resolution plan and not otherwise. In view of above no error appears to have been made by Ld. Tribunal in holding that the resolution plan approved by it has surpasses and supersedes the BIFR scheme and the terms in the resolution plan, qua the Respondent Bank shall be binding on it. However, we extend this proposition by adding that appellant would also be bound by the terms of the resolution plan which has been approved by none other than the appellant itself, having more than 96% of voting share in the CoC and subsequently by the adjudicating authority.
There are no merit in the appeal. In result the appeal is dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether there existed a debt and default by the Corporate Debtor sufficient to oblige admission of a Section 7 petition under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
2. Whether the Corporate Debtor's contention that a concession agreement termination and a substitution agreement transferred liability to the Government (thereby absolving the Corporate Debtor) precluded admission of the Section 7 petition.
3. Whether pending arbitration proceedings (and an alleged Government offer/termination payment) operate as a bar to admission of a Section 7 petition, or render authority of precedents such as Vidarbha Industries distinguishable.
4. Whether the National Company Law Tribunal erred in admitting the Section 7 petition without deciding ancillary/pending applications relating to arbitration/settlement offers.
5. Whether reliance on Innoventive Industries and E.S. Krishnamurthy (and related principles) to admit a Section 7 petition was appropriate.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Existence of debt and default (pre-requisite for Section 7 admission)
Legal framework: Admission under Section 7 requires proof of a "debt" and a "default" as defined under the Code; the threshold is minimal and factual (see Section 4 and Section 7 jurisprudence).
Precedent Treatment: The Court applied the principles in Innoventive Industries Ltd. v. ICICI Bank & Ors. and E.S. Krishnamurthy v. Bharath Hi-Tech (P) Ltd., which establish that when debt and default are established or admitted, the Tribunal ordinarily must admit the Section 7 petition.
Interpretation and reasoning: The record showed undisputed disbursal of multiple loan facilities and security documents; the Corporate Debtor's account was classified NPA in November 2016; the Corporate Debtor executed a revival letter dated 22.01.2018 acknowledging the debt; the balance sheet for FY 2016-17 reflected the liability. These materials demonstrated both debt and default on the Corporate Debtor's part.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where debt and default are proved or admitted (including by revival letters and NPA classification), admission under Section 7 is required; reliance on Innoventive (ratio) is applied.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that debt and default existed and therefore admission under Section 7 was mandated.
Issue 2 - Effect of concession agreement termination and alleged transfer of liability to Government
Legal framework: Contractual arrangements (concession agreement, substitution agreement) may allocate termination payments or obligations; however, Section 7 analysis focuses on existence of debt and default vis-à-vis the Financial Creditor at the relevant time.
Precedent Treatment: The appellant sought to invoke Vidarbha Industries to treat third-party entitlement/award as displacing CIRP initiation; the Court distinguished that precedent on factual grounds.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Corporate Debtor's argument that termination of the concession agreement and substitution agreement shifted liability to the Government did not negate the Corporate Debtor's contemporaneous acknowledgment of debt and its obligations to pay the Financial Creditor. The Court held that contractual allocation to a third party (Government) did not, by itself, absolve the Corporate Debtor from being liable to the Financial Creditor at the point of admission, especially where the Corporate Debtor had admitted the debt and the loan account was NPA.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - mere contractual provisions between concessionaire and Government do not defeat a Section 7 petition where the debtor has acknowledged the debt and default to the creditor; distinguishing observations as to applicability of substitution agreements are ratio to the facts.
Conclusions: The Court rejected the contention that termination/SA shifted liability so as to preclude admission; the Tribunal correctly admitted the petition.
Issue 3 - Impact of pending arbitration proceedings and alleged Government offer (Vidarbha Industries reliance)
Legal framework: Where a debtor has a clear and realizable contingency (e.g., an enforceable award or a crystallized entitlement) that would demonstrably extinguish the debt, courts have in some cases declined CIRP initiation; but pending claims or unsettled negotiations do not automatically preclude admission.
Precedent Treatment: The Court considered Vidarbha Industries (where an enforceable award/realizable right existed and the Supreme Court declined CIRP) and distinguished it because Vidarbha involved an award/established entitlement effectively sufficient to discharge the debt.
Interpretation and reasoning: In the present case, arbitration proceedings were pending and no award existed. The alleged Government offer of Rs. 174 crore was not supported by documentary proof on record; even if assumed, the offer was insufficient to discharge the overall debt (total debt far exceeding the alleged offer and the Financial Creditor's claim alone exceeding Rs. 200 crore). A pending arbitration without a determinative award/realization does not negate debt/default for Section 7 admission.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - pending arbitration and unproven/insufficient settlement offers are not a bar to admission where debt/default is otherwise established; the distinction from Vidarbha is a binding approach applicable to similar fact patterns. Observations about the insufficiency of an unproved offer are ratio tailored to the case, not obiter.
Conclusions: Vidarbha was distinguished and did not apply; arbitration pendency and unproven Government offers did not preclude admission of the Section 7 petition.
Issue 4 - Admission without deciding ancillary pending application regarding arbitration/offer
Legal framework: Tribunals may admit Section 7 petitions where threshold conditions are met; ancillary applications may be considered but do not automatically stay or prevent admission unless they address the core questions of debt/default with conclusive material.
Precedent Treatment: Not specifically overruled; the Court noted procedural steps and timing of filings but emphasized substantive requirements for admission.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Tribunal had reserved the main petition but had earlier recorded facts indicating debt/default; a subsequent application apprising the Tribunal of pending arbitration/offer was placed on record but produced no conclusive proof or award. The Court found no prejudice arising from admission given the absence of materials demonstrating that the pending application would conclusively extinguish the debt.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where ancillary applications do not produce conclusive evidence negating debt/default, admission under Section 7 may proceed notwithstanding pending ancillary matters. Comments on procedural sequencing are consequential to the decision (ratio) rather than mere obiter.
Conclusions: The Tribunal's admission without first disposing of the ancillary application did not amount to error given lack of conclusive proof in that application; the ancillary applications were closed as infructuous.
Issue 5 - Appropriateness of reliance on Innoventive and E.S. Krishnamurthy for admission
Legal framework: Innoventive sets the test for admission under Section 7 (existence of debt and default); E.S. Krishnamurthy addresses threshold and interpretation aspects of insolvency petitions.
Precedent Treatment: The Court endorsed and applied these precedents as correctly stating the law for admittance of Section 7 petitions where debt/default is established or admitted.
Interpretation and reasoning: Given documentary proof of loan facilities, NPA classification, revival letter, and balance sheet entries, application of Innoventive and E.S. Krishnamurthy was appropriate. The Court affirmed that the presence of other disputes (contractual, arbitration) does not displace the statutory requirement to admit where debt/default exists.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the precedents were followed as binding authority for admitting Section 7 petitions upon proof or admission of debt/default.
Conclusions: Reliance on Innoventive and E.S. Krishnamurthy was proper; the Tribunal's admission conformed to established legal principles.
Final Disposition (as to issues collectively)
1. Debt and default were established by documentary record and admission; admission under Section 7 was warranted.
2. Contractual claims as to termination and alleged transfer of liability to the Government did not negate the Corporate Debtor's admitted liability vis-à-vis the Financial Creditor.
3. Pending arbitration and unproven/insufficient settlement offers did not operate to bar admission; Vidarbha Industries was distinguished on factual grounds.
4. The Tribunal did not err in admitting the Section 7 petition before disposal of ancillary applications that lacked conclusive proof; ancillary applications were closed as infructuous.
5. The appeal against the admission was without merit and was dismissed; ancillary claims for costs/expenses were addressed as per record (expenses incurred by the IRP noted).
Admission of section 7 application - initiation of CIRP - existence of debt and default which is pre-requisite for admitting the application filed under Section 7 of IBC or not - HELD THAT:- The CD has acknowledged the debt which is evident from the revival letter dated 22.01.2018 which was addressed not only to the FC (Lender) but to all the lenders. The default is also proved because the account of the CD was declared as NPA in November, 2016 itself. The debt has also been proved from the balance sheet of the CD in the FY 2016-17. Once, the debt and default has been duly proved, the Tribunal has to admit the petition as has been held by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Innoventive Industries [2017 (9) TMI 58 - SUPREME COURT].
The argument of the Appellant that the termination of CA has resulted into shifting of liability upon the GoM, the same cannot be made the basis for dismissing the application because the liability was enjoined upon the CD to make the payment to the FC.
The last argument of the Appellant is based upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Vidharbha Industries [2022 (7) TMI 581 - SUPREME COURT] which is also not applicable to the facts and circumstances of this case because in the said case the award was already there but in the present case there is no such award and the amount which has been allegedly offered by GoM of Rs. 174 Cr. is neither here nor there because of non-production of any proof. Even if, it is presumed, for the sake of argument, that offer was made of Rs. 174 Cr. yet it will not discharge the entire debt of the CD which is more than 824 Cr. and even the debt of the FC is more than 200 Cr. whereas the application under Section 7 can be admitted if the debt crosses the threshold of Rs. 1 Cr. as provided under Section 4 of the Code.
There is hardly any merit in the present appeal for the purpose of interference and hence, the appeal is found without any merit and the same is hereby dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether an Adjudicating Authority can confirm retention of property under Section 8(3) of the PMLA without prior compliance with Section 20 (order of retention and forwarding of reasons and material) read with Section 17(2) and 17(4).
2. The correct statutory interplay and sequence between Sections 17, 20 and 8 of the PMLA in relation to seizure, order for retention (up to 180 days), forwarding of material, adjudication and confirmation of retention (beyond 180 days).
3. Whether the requirements of Section 20 are directory or mandatory, and whether non-compliance renders retention void ab initio or is capable of subsequent cure by confirmation under Section 8.
4. Whether the Appellate Tribunal erred in setting aside the Adjudicating Authority's retention order on the ground of absence of reasoning, and if instead a remand ought to have been ordered.
5. Whether delay in re-filing an appeal after curing defects (143 days) barred the present appeal and whether condonation principles applicable to re-filing justify adjudication on merits.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Adjudicating Authority's ability to confirm retention absent Section 20 compliance
Legal framework: Sections 17 (search and seizure, forwarding reasons and material, filing application under 17(4)), Section 20 (order of retention by authorised officer for up to 180 days, forwarding retention order and material to Adjudicating Authority), and Section 8 (adjudication and confirmation of retention beyond 180 days up to 365 days) together regulate seizure, retention and confirmation.
Precedent treatment: Reliance placed on State of Orissa v. Mamta Mohanty and Ritesh Tewari (orders bad in inception cannot be validated), OPTO Circuits (strictness of procedure under PMLA), and other authorities on procedural compliance and protection of property rights under Article 300A.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court reads Sections 17, 20 and 8 as a cohesive, sequential scheme. Section 17 authorises seizure/freezing and requires forwarding of reasons and material to the Adjudicating Authority. Section 20 is the statutory mechanism that authorises retention/continued freezing for up to 180 days by an authorised officer on recorded reasons and mandates immediate forwarding of that retention order and material to the Adjudicating Authority. Section 8(3) is confined to confirmation of retention beyond the 180-day period. The Court reasons that Section 8(3) cannot be read as conferring the initial power to retain for 180 days; that function is vested in Section 20(1). Allowing resort to Section 17(4) and immediate confirmation under Section 8(3) would circumvent the statutory safeguards in Section 20 and render them nugatory.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 20 must be invoked and complied with before the Adjudicating Authority can confirm retention under Section 8(3); Section 8(3) is limited to confirmation beyond the 180-day retention allowed under Section 20. Obiter - observations on the non-interchangeability of officers under Sections 17 and 20 and on practical administration.
Conclusions: The Adjudicating Authority cannot validly confirm retention absent prior compliance with Section 20; retention without Section 20 is contrary to the statutory scheme and void.
Issue 2 - Statutory sequence and interplay between Sections 17, 20 and 8
Legal framework: Text of Sections 17, 20 and 8 and the Adjudicating Authority (Procedure) Regulations, 2013 governing adjudicatory process under Section 8.
Precedent treatment: OPTO Circuits emphasises that procedures under PMLA must be followed; Supreme Court authorities on mandatory statutory modes were invoked.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court sets out the sequence: (a) seizure/freezing under Section 17(1)/(1A) with reasons recorded; (b) immediate forwarding of reasons and material under Section 17(2); (c) authorised officer forms a separate reason to believe and passes retention order under Section 20(1); (d) immediate forwarding of retention order and material to Adjudicating Authority under Section 20(2); (e) ED files application under Section 17(4) within 30 days seeking adjudication; (f) Adjudicating Authority conducts adjudication under Section 8(1)-(3), issuing notices, hearing parties and, if satisfied (prima facie involved in money-laundering and required for adjudication), confirms retention beyond 180 days under Section 8(3). The Court explains that Section 20(3) requires return of property on expiry of 180 days unless AA permits continuation; Section 20(4) sets the AA's threshold for permitting continuation beyond 180 days.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - the statutory scheme requires the staged invocation and communication under Sections 17(2), 20(1)/(2) prior to adjudication and confirmation under Section 8; Section 20 is the source of the 180-day retention power.
Conclusions: The Court holds that the statutory sequence is mandatory; an application under Section 17(4) does not itself create retention rights unless Section 20 requirements have been complied with.
Issue 3 - Mandatory vs. directory nature of Section 20 and cure by subsequent confirmation
Legal framework: Text of amended Section 20 and legislative history (2012 amendment) demonstrating substantive change; constitutional protection of property under Article 300A.
Precedent treatment: Cited authorities (State of Orissa v. Mamta Mohanty; Ritesh Tewari; OPTO Circuits; Laxman Lal; Sukh Dutt Ratra) establishing that orders bad in inception cannot be validated, that statutory modes must be followed and that PMLA procedures are to be strictly complied with.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court emphasises that Section 20, particularly post-amendment, establishes a substantive, mandatory mechanism: formation and recording of reasons by an authorised officer, passing of a retention order for up to 180 days, and immediate forwarding of the order and material to the AA. Given the draconian consequence of deprivation of property, and Article 300A protections, these requirements are not mere directory formalities. Confirmation under Section 8 cannot retrospectively validate an initial retention made without any order under Section 20; an order void ab initio cannot be cured by later steps.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 20 is mandatory; non-compliance renders retention void ab initio and not amenable to subsequent cure by confirmation under Section 8. Obiter - commentary on legislative intent evidenced by amendments and the balance between enforcement and individual rights.
Conclusions: Section 20's procedural steps are mandatory. Failure to comply invalidates retention and cannot be remedied by later confirmation; hence retention without Section 20 is legally unsustainable.
Issue 4 - Whether Tribunal should have remanded instead of setting aside for lack of reasons
Legal framework: Sections 26 and 42 (appeal provisions) and principles governing remand powers; statutory timeline implications (Section 20(3) and functus officio concerns).
Precedent treatment: Authorities cited by parties do not provide a statutory mandate to remand in this context; the respondent argued remand not permissible once 180 days lapsed as AA becomes functus officio under Section 20(3).
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court considers that remand would be ineffective where the initial retention was void for non-compliance with Section 20 and where statutory timelines (180 days) limit the AA's powers; remanding could lead to an exercise of a power the AA no longer possesses (functus officio), thereby frustrating statutory safeguards. Additionally, confirmation by the AA cannot cure a void inception. The Tribunal's decision to set aside the AA order for absence of reasoning and procedural non-compliance is consistent with statutory scheme.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where retention is void due to Section 20 non-compliance and the AA's order lacks requisite reasoning, setting aside is appropriate; remand is not mandatorily required and may be ineffectual given statutory limits. Obiter - remarks on situations where remand may be appropriate are not elaborated.
Conclusions: The Tribunal did not err in setting aside the AA order rather than remanding; remand would not cure the foundational illegality and may be precluded by statutory timelines.
Issue 5 - Delay/limitation in re-filing and condonation
Legal framework: Section 42 (appeal timelines) and principles governing condonation of delay in refiling after rectification of defects (Perumon Bhagvathy Devaswom; Northern Railway v. Pioneer Publicity).
Precedent treatment: Supreme Court authorities support greater leniency for delay in re-filing versus initial filing; requirement to show sufficient cause for condonation remains.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court notes initial filing was within limitation; delay addressed related to re-filing after curing defects (143 days). The Court observed established principles permit leniency for re-filing delays and that the appeal had remained pending for years with condonation earlier granted; at a belated stage it was not necessary to undertake detailed scrutiny of the 143-day delay and the Court proceeded to decide on merits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where initial filing was within period and condonation of re-filing delay has been allowed, court may examine merits rather than dismiss on technical delay; assessment of re-filing delay requires lesser rigour. Obiter - the Court's decision to proceed was discretionary given the circumstances.
Conclusions: The preliminary limitation objection did not preclude adjudication on merits in the present case; the Court exercised discretion to decide the substantive issues.
Money Laundering - seeking retention of seized properties of the Respondent - applicability of time limitation - delay of 143 days beyond the period prescribed under Section 42 of the PMLA - delay in re-filing the appeal after curing defects - sufficient cause for delay or not - applicability of Section 20 of the PMLA - HELD THAT:- It is well settled in law that the standards for condonation of delay in initial filing of an appeal and those applicable to delay in re-filing after curing defects are distinct. The rigour applicable to condonation of delay in the initial institution of an appeal is not to be applied with equal strictness to delay in re-filing. However, even in the case of re-filing, the party seeking condonation has to show sufficient cause for the delay.
In Northern Railway v. Pioneer Publicity Corpn. (P) Ltd [2016 (10) TMI 1366 - SUPREME COURT], although in the context of Section 34(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Hon’ble Supreme Court reiterated the principle that delays in re-filing should be assessed with greater leniency, considering overall circumstances.
In the present case, the Appellant, in the application seeking condonation of delay in re-filing (which was allowed vide order dated 30.08.2019), had attributed the delay primarily to administrative difficulties. Taking into account that the Appeal has remained pending for almost six years and that notice was already issued vide order dated 30.08.2019 after considering the application seeking condonation of delay in re-filing, this Court is of the considered opinion that, at this belated stage, it may not be necessary to undertake the exercise of a detailed scrutiny into the alleged 143-day delay in re-filing.
The Hon’ble Supreme Court in State of Orissa v. Mamata Mohanty [2011 (2) TMI 1371 - SUPREME COURT] held that an order which is void ab initio cannot be salvaged or legitimised by any subsequent action or development. Thus, confirmation by the learned AA cannot cure initial procedural violations or validate unlawful retention carried out without adherence to statutory requirements.
The order does not reveal any reason being accorded for the decision to confirm the retention of the property. In our opinion, the same does not satisfy the statutory mandate and suffers from a mechanical and superficial approach, devoid of the mandatory inquiry envisaged under Sections 8(2) and 8(3). The absence of a response from the Respondent cannot absolve the learned AA of its statutory duty to independently assess the materials placed before it and determine whether the property is indeed involved in money laundering. The legislative scheme does not permit automatic confirmation or passive endorsement; it mandates active, reasoned adjudication - the Order dated 21.08.2017 passed by the learned AA is legally unsustainable. Consequently, the present appeal does not merit any interference with the Impugned Order dated 06.02.2019 passed by the learned AT, which merits affirmation.
Appeal dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether the petitioner is entitled to regular bail under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act (PMLA) having regard to the mandatory twin conditions in Section 45(1) read with Section 45(2) of the Act.
2. Whether the presumption under Section 24 of PMLA (that proceeds of crime are involved in money-laundering) is attracted on the material collected during investigation and, if so, whether the petitioner has rebutted that presumption.
3. Whether the proceeds/assets alleged to be in petitioner's possession are "proceeds of crime" as defined in Section 2(1)(u) of PMLA and therefore can sustain a prima facie charge under Section 3 of PMLA.
4. Whether non-inclusion of the petitioner's name in the predicate FIR precludes prosecution under PMLA or entitlement to bail under PMLA.
5. Whether the nature of the allegations, evidence seized and the risk of tampering/abscondence justify continued custodial detention pending trial.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Bail under Section 45(1)/(2) PMLA
Legal framework: Section 45(1) PMLA (non-obstante provision) makes offences under PMLA non-bailable unless (i) Public Prosecutor had opportunity to oppose and (ii) the court is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the accused is not guilty and not likely to commit an offence while on bail; subsection (2) curtails bail further. Section 65 and Section 71 give PMLA overriding effect over Cr.P.C.
Precedent treatment: Supreme Court decisions interpret Section 45 as imposing mandatory twin conditions and requiring a prima facie satisfaction from available materials; conditions must be complied with even where bail is sought under general criminal provisions.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court applied the statutory test by taking a prima facie view of materials collected during investigation (CDR analysis, bank account deposits, recovered documents, search recoveries, MEA show-cause). The phrase "reasonable grounds for believing" was read to require that the court, on available material, conclude there are not reasonable grounds to believe the accused is not guilty and/or is likely to commit an offence on bail unless satisfied otherwise.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 45's twin conditions are mandatory and require prima facie satisfaction from investigative material before bail may be granted. Observations on analogies with other stringent non-bailable statutes are explanatory.
Conclusion: On the prima facie material, the Court was not satisfied that the petitioner met the twin conditions; therefore bail cannot be granted under Section 45.
Issue 2 - Applicability of Section 24 presumption and burden of rebuttal
Legal framework: Section 24 permits the court/authority to presume, unless contrary proved, that proceeds of crime are involved in money-laundering where a person is charged under Section 3; evidential burden to rebut shifts to accused under Section 106 Evidence Act principles.
Precedent treatment: Apex Court authorities hold that once foundational facts (existence of scheduled offence and involvement in processes connected with proceeds) are established prima facie, Section 24 presumption arises and accused must produce evidence within personal knowledge to rebut.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found foundational facts established prima facie by (i) registration of a predicate FIR alleging scheduled offences, (ii) CDR links showing frequent contact with Bangladeshi numbers, (iii) large unexplained bank deposits, and (iv) incriminating documents and recoveries. Consequently, the statutory presumption under Section 24 operated and the burden lay on the petitioner to rebut; no adequate rebuttal was furnished.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Where foundational facts are prima facie established, Section 24 creates a rebuttable presumption that supports continued detention unless accused discharges onus. Observations on manner of rebuttal (Section 313/leading evidence) are explanatory.
Conclusion: Section 24 presumption applied on the available material and was not successfully rebutted by the petitioner; this weighed against bail.
Issue 3 - Whether seized assets qualify as "proceeds of crime" under Section 2(1)(u)
Legal framework: Section 2(1)(u) defines "proceeds of crime" as any property derived/obtained, directly or indirectly, by a person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence; Explanation expands scope to property directly or indirectly derived as result of criminal activity relatable to scheduled offence.
Precedent treatment: Authorities recognize that proceeds may be traced to scheduled offences and that the PMLA targets processes/activities connected with such proceeds; the Court must be satisfied prima facie of the link at bail stage without weighing evidence minutely.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court examined investigative material: cash recoveries (including fresh Rs.500 notes), gold jewellery, multiple bank account deposits totalling several crores, forged/fake identity documents, MEA show-cause confirming foreign nationality, incriminating digital evidence, and admission statements. The Court held these materials furnish prima facie foundation to treat the seized assets and deposits as proceeds of crime for the purposes of invoking Section 3.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - On prima facie view, where incriminating recoveries, disproportionate deposits and documentary/digital materials exist, they can constitute sufficient foundation to treat assets as proceeds of crime for pre-trial purposes under PMLA. Remarks about detailed proof at trial are obiter as qualification.
Conclusion: The Court concluded prima facie that the alleged assets and deposits are proceeds of crime in relation to scheduled offences and thus sustain a money-laundering charge.
Issue 4 - Effect of non-inclusion in predicate FIR
Legal framework: PMLA treats money-laundering as an independent offence; Section 3 can apply to persons not named in predicate FIR if they are involved in processes connected with proceeds of crime derived from a scheduled offence.
Precedent treatment: Apex Court rulings confirm that a person need not be an accused in the scheduled offence to be proceeded against under PMLA, provided proceeds of crime and involvement in laundering processes are established.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court relied on settled law that non-inclusion in the FIR does not absolve a person from PMLA liability. Given the investigative material linking the petitioner to the syndicate, documents and financial trail, absence of name in the predicate FIR was not determinative against continued prosecution or bail denial.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Non-inclusion in predicate FIR is not a bar to prosecution under PMLA nor to refusing bail where prima facie involvement in laundering is established.
Conclusion: The petitioner's omission from the predicate FIR did not preclude invocation of PMLA or entitlement to bail relief.
Issue 5 - Custodial risk, tampering and societal impact
Legal framework: Courts consider risk of abscondence, tampering with evidence, influencing witnesses and gravity of alleged offence in bail decisions; under PMLA statutory scheme, these considerations are heightened.
Precedent treatment: Authorities permit denial of bail in serious, organised, cross-border offences where release could hamper investigation or public interest.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted cross-border implications, alleged syndicate operation across States, potential for influencing witnesses, and material indicating deliberate concealment (forged documents, layered bank transactions). These factors, combined with statutory presumption and magnitude of unexplained deposits, justified denial of bail to prevent prejudice to investigation and trial.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Grave allegations of organized cross-border human trafficking, large unexplained financial transactions, and documentary/digital recoveries constitute material risk factors supporting continued custody under PMLA. Observations on delay in trial and custody length are explanatory.
Conclusion: Custodial detention was justified on grounds of risk to investigation, gravity of allegations and statutory framework; bail was refused.
OVERALL CONCLUSION
On a prima facie assessment of investigative materials (seizures, bank deposits, forged documents, CDR/digital links, MEA show-cause and confessional statements), the foundational facts for invoking Section 24 presumption and for attracting Section 3 PMLA were satisfied. The mandatory twin conditions in Section 45(1) were not met on the material available and the petitioner failed to rebut the presumption. Considering the statutory scheme, precedent and the risk of tampering/abscondence, the Court declined to exercise discretion to grant bail; application dismissed. (Findings limited to bail stage and without prejudice to trial merits.)
Seeking grant of regular bail - Money Laundering - proceeds of crime - scheduled/predicate offence - twin conditions enumerated in Section 45 of PMLA complied with or not - illegal activities pertaining to facilitating illegal infiltration of Bangladeshi nationals in India and use, acquisition, and possession of proceeds of crime generated therefrom - HELD THAT:- The Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Gautam Kundu vs. Directorate of Enforcement (Prevention of Money-Laundering Act), Government of India through Manoj Kumar, Assistant Director, Eastern Region, [2015 (12) TMI 1133 - SUPREME COURT] has been pleased to hold at paragraph - 30 that the conditions specified under Section 45 of PMLA are mandatory and need to be complied with, which is further strengthened by the provisions of Section 65 and also Section 71 of PMLA. Section 65 requires that the provisions of Cr.P.C shall apply insofar as they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act and Section 71 provides that the provisions of PMLA shall have overriding effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force. PMLA has an overriding effect and the provisions of CrPC would apply only if they are not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act.
Therefore, the conditions enumerated in Section 45 of PMLA will have to be complied with even in respect of an application for bail made under Section 439 CrPC. That coupled with the provisions of Section 24 provides that unless the contrary is proved, the authority or the Court shall presume that proceeds of crime are involved in money-laundering and the burden to prove that the proceeds of crime are not involved, lies on the accused.
Hon'ble Apex Court recently in the case of Gurwinder Singh vs. State of Punjab and Anr. [2024 (3) TMI 175 - SUPREME COURT], in the matter of UAP Act 1967 has observed that the conventional idea in bail jurisprudence vis-à-vis ordinary penal offences that the discretion of Courts must tilt in favour of the oft- quoted phrase - ‘bail is the rule, jail is the exception’ - unless circumstances justify otherwise - does not find any place while dealing with bail applications under UAP Act and the ‘exercise’ of the general power to grant bail under the UAP Act is severely restrictive in scope.
This Court is of the view that various paragraphs of prosecution complaint upon which the reliance has been placed on behalf of both the parties, needs to be referred herein so as to come to the conclusion as to whether the parameter as fixed under Section 45(ii) of the Act 2002, is being fulfilled in order to reach to the conclusion that it is a fit case where regular bail is to be granted or not.
From the record it is established that the said Rony Mondal is a Bangladeshi national, who acquired Indian citizenship fraudulently on the basis of false documentation and indulged in illegal activities pertaining to illegally acquiring Indian citizenship as well as aiding several other Bangladeshi in illegal infiltration in India. Further in his statement dated 20.11.2024, the petitioner had confirmed that the documents-PAN cards, voter cards, Aadhaar cards, and ration cards-recovered during the search on 12.11.2024 belonged to his family members. He acknowledged that, while opening bank accounts in India, he declared himself an Indian citizen, using his PAN card as proof of identity. Furthermore, he stated that he had an Indian passport, while his family members held Bangladeshi passports - Further from perusal of the material available on record it is revealed that the total cash deposits in the accounts held and used by the present petitioner is Rs. 7,21,19,030/- in the bank accounts identified as on the day of investigation.
Hon'ble Apex Court in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary and Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors. [2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] that the condition precedent for the existence of proceeds of crime is the existence of a scheduled offence. At paragraph-15 the finding has been given therein that on plain reading of Section 3 of the Act, 2002, an offence under Section 3 can be committed after a scheduled offence is committed. By giving an example, it has been clarified that if a person who is unconnected with the scheduled offence, knowingly assists the concealment of the proceeds of crime or knowingly assists the use of proceeds of crime, in that case, he can be held guilty of committing an offence under Section 3 of the PMLA. Therefore, it is not necessary that a person against whom the offence under Section 3 of the PMLA is alleged must have been shown as the accused in the scheduled offence.
The power of the Court to grant bail is further conditioned upon the satisfaction of the twin conditions prescribed under Section 45(1) (i) and (ii) PMLA. While undertaking this exercise, the Court is required to take a prima facie view on the basis of materials collected during investigation. The expression used in Section 45 of PMLA are “reasonable grounds for believing” which means that the Court has to find, from a prima facie view of the materials collected during investigation that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the accused has not committed the offence and that there is no likelihood of him committing an offence while on bail - there is sufficient material to prima-facie show that the petitioner has committed the offence of money laundering as defined u/s 3 of PMLA, 2002 and is liable to be punished u/s 4 of PMLA, 2002.
Thus, taking into consideration the grave nature of the allegations, the sophisticated modus operandi and the strict statutory framework governing bail under the PMLA particularly under Section 45 of the Act 2002, no ground exists for the petitioner to claim the benefit of bail on merits and the serious allegations of laundering of proceeds of crime continue to justify the petitioner's custody under the strict rigours of Section 45 of the Act 2002.
This Court is of the view that the applicant has failed to make out a case for exercise of power to grant bail and considering the facts and parameters, necessary to be considered for adjudication of bail, without commenting on the merits of the case, this Court does not find any exceptional ground to exercise its discretionary jurisdiction to grant bail. Therefore, this Court is of the view that the bail application is liable to be rejected.
The instant application stands dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a service tax demand based solely on Income Tax/ CBDT data (e.g., Form 26AS / ITR) without independent corroborative evidence from service records is sustainable.
2. Whether arranging transportation of goods by road is exigible to service tax as Goods Transport Agency (GTA) service where the service provider did not issue consignment notes.
3. Whether interest and penalty can be imposed where the foundational service tax demand is unsupported by corroborative evidence or where the demand itself is unsustainable.
4. Whether the extended period of limitation can be invoked when the departmental demand is based on CBDT data that were available to the department and no suppression with intent to evade tax is established.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1: Reliance on Income Tax / CBDT data (Form 26AS / ITR) as basis for service tax demand
Legal framework: Service tax exigibility requires identification of the service provider, service rendered, service recipient and consideration; proof must be derived from service tax records or other corroborative material demonstrating taxable service.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal decisions (cited) have held that Form 26AS / ITR entries or other income tax data are not, by themselves, a statutory basis to determine taxable turnover for service tax purposes and cannot sustain demands without corroboration.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found that mechanical reliance on CBDT data, without verification of the nature of receipts or evidence that taxable services were rendered, is impermissible. Form 26AS is maintained for income tax/TDS purposes on a receipt basis and does not establish mercantile/accrual-based service turnover. The element-by-element connection (service provider, service, recipient, consideration) was not demonstrated by independent records.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - demands based solely on CBDT/Income Tax data without corroborative evidence are unsustainable; extended period invocability tied to such data cannot be presumed. Citations relied upon were followed as binding on the issue within the Tribunal's jurisdiction.
Conclusion: Demand confirmed solely on CBDT/Income Tax data, absent corroborative service records, is unsustainable and must be set aside.
Issue 2: Exigibility of GTA service where no consignment note was issued
Legal framework: Under the Finance Act regime, GTA (arranging transport of goods by road) is exigible to service tax when the provider issues a consignment note; absence of consignment note may place the service within the negative list exclusion.
Precedent Treatment: The Tribunal relied on a recent apex-court ratio establishing that issuance of consignment note is a determinative factor for treating road-transport arranging services as GTA service for service tax purposes; decisions cited support exclusion where no consignment note issued.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed the appellant arranged transportation but did not issue consignment notes. Applying the precedent, the presence of consignment note issuance is a statutory/functional trigger for GTA classification; without it, the services fall within the negative-list exclusion and are not exigible to service tax under Section 66D(P)(i)(A) (Finance Act, 1994).
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - absence of consignment note negates classification as taxable GTA service; reliance on apex-court ratio is treated as determinative.
Conclusion: Services rendered without issuance of consignment notes are not exigible to service tax as GTA; the confirmed demand on merits is unsustainable.
Issue 3: Liability for interest and penalty where primary demand is unsustainable
Legal framework: Interest and penalty attach to an assessable tax demand; if the principal tax demand is set aside for want of legal foundation, consequential interest/penalty claims generally do not survive.
Precedent Treatment: Tribunal practice supports that if tax demand is unsustainable, corresponding interest and penalty obligations do not arise.
Interpretation and reasoning: Since the service tax demand was set aside both for lack of corroborative evidence (Issue 1) and on merits due to non-issuance of consignment notes (Issue 2), there is no legally sustainable taxable liability to which interest or penalty can attach.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - where tax liability is negated, imposition of interest and penalty is not sustainable.
Conclusion: Interest and penalty confirmed in reliance on the invalidated tax demand are set aside.
Issue 4: Invoking extended period of limitation where departmental data (CBDT) were available and no suppression established
Legal framework: Extended period of limitation for demand requires establishment of suppression of facts with intent to evade tax; availability of third-party data to the department and absence of deliberate suppression weigh against extended period invocation.
Precedent Treatment: Authorities relied upon hold that when departmental demands are based on third-party data that were available and no concealment with intent to evade is shown, extended limitation cannot be invoked.
Interpretation and reasoning: The Court found the demand was raised on CBDT data which were always available to the department; there was no evidence of suppression or evasion by the taxpayer. Consequently, the legal threshold for invoking the extended period was not met.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - extended period cannot be invoked solely because the department used CBDT data that were available; suppression with intent must be established.
Conclusion: Invocation of extended limitation period to sustain the demand is unsustainable; the demand is set aside on limitation grounds as well.
Cross-references and Consequential Findings
1. The findings on lack of corroborative evidence (Issue 1) and non-issuance of consignment notes (Issue 2) are independent and cumulative bases for setting aside the tax demand; either ground suffices to invalidate the demand.
2. The unsustainability of the tax demand logically negates the imposition of interest and penalty (Issue 3) and removes any foundation for invoking extended limitation (Issue 4).
3. Result: The impugned demand, interest and penalty, and invocation of extended limitation are set aside; consequential reliefs to follow as per law.
Levy of Service Tax - demand raised and confirmed on the basis of data provided by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) - corroborative evidences for rendition of services or not - GTA Service - arranging transportation of goods by road - interest and penalty - extended period of limitation.
Levy of GST - demand raised and confirmed on the basis of data provided by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) - corroborative evidences for rendition of services or not - HELD THAT:- It is observed that the said demand has been confirmed without the support of any independent or corroborative evidence from the Service Tax records. Such mechanical reliance on Income Tax data, without verification of the nature of receipts or proof of taxable services rendered, is impermissible in law. It is a settled legal position that mere entries in income tax returns or Form 26AS cannot, by themselves, establish liability under the Finance Act, 1994, unless corroborated by evidence demonstrating rendition of taxable service.
The demand of service tax confirmed in the impugned order, solely relying the data received from CBDT, without adducing corroborative evidence in support, cannot be sustained. Thus, it is observed that the demand confirmed in the impugned order is liable to be set aside on this ground itself.
GTA Service - arranging transportation of goods by road - HELD THAT:- The appellant were rendering the service of arranging transportation of goods. They did not issue any consignment note. I observe that the service of transportation of goods by road is liable to service tax under the category of GTA service, only when the service provider issues 'consignment notes'. As the appellant have not issued any 'consignment note, it is held that' the service rendered by them were clearly excluded, as the said services were covered in the 'Negative List' Entry under Section 66D(P)(i)(A) of Finance Act, 1994.
Interest and penalty - HELD THAT:- The demand confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable. As the demand of service tax is not sustainable, the demand of interest or imposition of penalty does not arise and hence I set aside the same.
Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- The entire demand was raised and confirmed in the impugned order on the basis of data received from CBDT which were always available with the department. Therefore, it is found that suppression of the facts with intention to evade the tax has not been established in this case. Accordingly, the extended period cannot be invoked in this case to demand service tax.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
1. ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether service tax can be demanded from the recipient under reverse charge mechanism (RCM) where the service provider has already collected and deposited service tax on manpower supply services, or would such a demand amount to double taxation.
2. Whether remuneration/salary paid to directors (including managing/whole-time directors) is chargeable to service tax under RCM as management/consultancy or other taxable service, or falls outside the definition of "service" by reason of employment.
3. Whether CENVAT credit claimed on invoices for services (manpower supply) is admissible where the service provider has paid service tax (even if recipient would be liable under RCM), or whether credit must be reversed.
4. Consequential questions: whether interest and penalties can be sustained where the underlying demands are held unsustainable.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Demand under RCM when service provider has paid service tax (manpower supply) - Legal framework
Sectional scheme: reverse charge mechanism (RCM) places liability on service recipient for specified services; ordinarily service tax liability arises on recipient under statutory provision governing RCM. Administrative practice and circulars address avoidance of double taxation.
Issue 1 - Precedent treatment
The Tribunal relied on earlier decisions (including the Tribunal's own earlier order in the appellant's case) and other Tribunal precedents holding that where the service provider has collected and deposited service tax evidenced by invoices/certificates, confirming demand again against the recipient results in double taxation and is unsustainable. Administrative circulars (e.g., CBEC Circular referenced) and prior Tribunal rulings were followed.
Issue 1 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court examined documentary evidence showing the service provider had charged and paid service tax. It held that enforcing the recipient's RCM liability in such circumstances would amount to charging the same tax twice on the same transaction. The Court applied the principle that tax already discharged by one party should not be re-demanded from another for the same taxable event and noted tribunals have required the revenue to verify provider's payment rather than reject certificates without inquiry.
Issue 1 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Where a service provider has demonstrably collected and deposited service tax (with supporting invoices/certificates), a subsequent demand against the recipient under RCM for the same taxable amount is not sustainable and constitutes double taxation. This is treated as the operative ratio followed by the Court.
Issue 1 - Conclusion
The demand of service tax on manpower supply services under RCM, where the provider had already paid service tax, is set aside as unsustainable; double taxation is avoided.
Issue 2 - Chargeability of directors' remuneration to service tax - Legal framework
Statutory exclusion: Section 65B(44) of the Finance Act excludes "provision of any service by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment" from the definition of "service." Board/CBEC clarifications address payments to directors.
Issue 2 - Precedent treatment
The Court applied Board clarification (CBEC Circular No. 115/9/2009-ST) and prior authorities interpreting the statutory exclusion, treating remuneration paid to directors in their capacity as employees/office bearers as outside service tax levy, while distinguishing payments that are genuine consultancy/advisory fees paid separately.
Issue 2 - Interpretation and reasoning
Fact-based analysis established the amounts were remunerations treated as salary (TDS under section 192, issuance of Form 16). The Court concluded those payments were made in the course of employment/office and thus excluded from "service." The Board's clarification that payments to managing/whole-time/independent directors for performance as directors are not chargeable was held binding on departmental authorities and applicable.
Issue 2 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: Remuneration paid to directors, forming salary and taxed under the income tax provisions (with Form 16 issued), constitutes service rendered in the course of employment and is outside the taxable ambit under the Finance Act; such amounts are not leviable to service tax. Observations distinguishing separately remunerated consultancy/advisory services are explanatory but directly relevant to application of the exclusion.
Issue 2 - Conclusion
The demand of service tax on directors' remuneration under RCM is unsustainable and is set aside; payments characterized and taxed as salary are outside service tax liability per statutory exclusion and Board clarification.
Issue 3 - Admissibility of CENVAT credit where provider paid service tax - Legal framework
CENVAT credit admissibility depends on receipt of proper invoice and payment of service tax; principles of input credit entitlement apply irrespective of whether tax was discharged by provider or recipient, subject to documentary compliance.
Issue 3 - Precedent treatment
The Tribunal relied on prior orders holding that where a taxable service has been paid for and proper invoices evidencing tax payment are produced, CENVAT credit to the recipient is available; denial on the ground that recipient was statutorily liable under RCM is not sustainable if tax has been paid by provider.
Issue 3 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court noted that the department's premise-that credit must be denied because the tax should have been discharged under RCM by the recipient-is untenable where provider has in fact paid tax and the recipient holds proper invoices evidencing the tax. The Court applied consistent authority that actual payment and documentary proof support availability of credit.
Issue 3 - Ratio vs. Obiter
Ratio: CENVAT credit is admissible to the recipient where the service provider has paid service tax and the recipient holds proper invoices evidencing such payment; denial solely on the ground that liability lay on the recipient under RCM is not sustainable. This is applied as binding ratio in the decision.
Issue 3 - Conclusion
The reversal of CENVAT credit on the basis that service tax should have been paid by the recipient under RCM is unsustainable where the provider paid tax and the recipient produced proper invoices; the disallowance is set aside.
Issue 4 - Interest and penalties consequent on unsustainable demands - Legal framework
Interest and penalties are consequential upon validly leviable tax demands; where the underlying tax demand is held unsustainable, ancillary charges lack foundation.
Issue 4 - Interpretation and reasoning
The Court held that if the substantive demands are set aside, the imposition of interest or penalties founded on those demands cannot stand; therefore, questions of interest and penalty do not arise once primary demands are quashed.
Issue 4 - Conclusion
No interest or penalty is payable in respect of the demands that have been held unsustainable; consequential relief follows.
Cross-references
The decision relies on and follows the Tribunal's prior order in the same matter and other Tribunal precedents and statutory Board clarifications; these authorities were treated as directly applicable and were followed rather than distinguished.
Levy of service tax - Manpower Supply Services received - Service provider had already charged and paid service tax, but department demands again under RCM - HELD THAT:- The issues involved in the present appeal have already been dealt with by this Tribunal in the appellant’s own case [2025 (7) TMI 1411 - CESTAT KOLKATA] wherein this Tribunal has allowed the appeal filed holding that 'any salary paid to the Directors of the Company for the service rendered by him as an employee of the company, is outside the scope of service, Hence, I hold that no service tax would be leviable on such amount. This issue has also been clarified by the Board Circular dated 31.07.2009, which is binding on the departmental authorities.'
The demands of Service Tax confirmed in the impugned order are not legally sustainable and consequently, the same are set aside - Since the demands itself are not sustainable, the question of charging interest or imposing penalties does not arise.
The impugned order is set aside - appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the product "Dhatri Brand Fairness Face Pack" was classifiable as an ayurvedic medicament under Chapter sub-heading 30049011 of the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985, or as a cosmetic under Chapter sub-heading 33049990.
Analysis: The classification turned on the common parlance test, the twin test for ayurvedic medicaments, and the primary use of the product. The product contained ingredients found in authoritative Ayurvedic texts, was manufactured under a drug licence, and was shown to be used for treating skin ailments. The Revenue did not lead contrary evidence to show that the product was understood in the market primarily as a cosmetic. The absence of a doctor's prescription or the existence of some beautifying effect was not ative, because what mattered was whether the curative use was primary and not merely subsidiary. On these facts, the product satisfied the accepted criteria for an ayurvedic medicament.
Conclusion: The product was correctly classifiable as an ayurvedic medicament under Chapter sub-heading 30049011 and not as a cosmetic under Chapter sub-heading 33049990.
Final Conclusion: The duty demand, interest, and penalties based on the Chapter 33 classification could not be sustained, and the assessee obtained relief from the impugned orders.
Ratio Decidendi: For tariff classification between a medicament and a cosmetic, the decisive consideration is the product's primary use as understood in common parlance, and a product with therapeutic ingredients and curative use is not displaced from Chapter 30 merely because it also has subsidiary beautifying effects or is sold without prescription.
Classification of manufactured goods - Dhatri Brand Fairness Face Pack - classifiable under Chapter sub heading 30049011 as ayurvedic medicament or under Chapter sub-heading 33049990 of CETA, 1985? - HELD THAT:- It is found that even though the appellant had produced overwhelming evidences to establish that the manufactured product is medicament, which is also sold as ayurvedic medicament mentioning effectively on the packing of the products. No contrary evidence has been placed by the Revenue.
It is found that the appellant has satisfied the twin tests laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of CCE, Hyderabad Vs. Richardson Hindustan Ltd. [2013 (8) TMI 467 - SUPREME COURT] and subsequently followed in a series of cases. In the result, the impugned orders are set aside.
The impugned orders are set aside - appeal allowed.
Direction for payment of interest on different rate whereas there is no provisions under the Act of payment of interest on the excess amount so deposited by the dealer against the security for issuance of form-31 - it was held by High Court that 'Since it is admitted to the State that the security amount deposited by the assessee was found excess, it would carry interest at the rate of 15% from the date of deposit to the date of refund.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground to interfere with the impugned order dated 10-8-2010 passed by the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad in Trade Tax Revision No.1615/2006.
Appeal dismissed.
Manufacture - Cleaning of used oil - classification - rate of sales tax - it was held by High Court that 'The old mobil oil before cleaning and mobil oil after cleaning remained same and was covered under the entry of "All kind of oil including used oil" liable to tax @ 4% under the Notification No. ST-II-5785/X-10(1)-80-U.P. Act XV-48-Order-81 dated 7-9-1981 at the point of manufacturer or importer, therefore, the provisions of Section 3AAAA of the Act prior to amendment in the 1998 was inapplicable.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground to interfere with the common impugned order passed by the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad in Trade Tax Revision Nos. 429/2002 and 161 of 2002 respectively.
Appeal dismissed.
Direction for payment of interest on different rate whereas there is no provisions under the Act of payment of interest on the excess amount so deposited by the dealer against the security for issuance of form-31 - it was held by High Court that 'Since it is admitted to the State that the security amount deposited by the assessee was found excess, it would carry interest at the rate of 15% from the date of deposit to the date of refund.'
HELD THAT:- There are no good ground to interfere with the impugned orders dated 10-8-2010 and 13-01-2010 respectively passed by the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad in Trade Tax Revision No. 1614/2006 and Trade Tax Revision No. 336/2002 respectively.
The Civil Appeals are, accordingly, dismissed.
ISSUES PRESENTED AND CONSIDERED
1. Whether a pre-deposit made by a taxpayer by utilising Input Tax Credit (ITC) in the Electronic Credit Ledger (ECL) towards an appealable tax demand under the earlier law is exigible to refund in cash where appellate/ revision/ judicial proceedings result in allowance of the appeal and extinguishment of the demand.
2. Whether transitional provisions in Section 142 of the KGST Act mandate cash refund of amounts found refundable under proceedings relating to the earlier law, irrespective of the mode (cash or ITC/ECL) by which the amount was originally deposited.
3. Whether Circulars or subordinate rules (specifically Circular dated 16.04.2018 and Rule 92(1A) of KGST Rules inserted w.e.f. 23.03.2020) can operate to require re-credit of refunded amounts to the electronic credit ledger instead of refund in cash where deposits were made prior to their effective date.
4. Whether the revenue is estopped from denying cash refund where it accepted pre-deposit by debiting ITC/ECL without objection and subsequently respondents failed to refund the admitted refundable amount.
5. Whether interest is payable on delayed refund of pre-deposit amounts found refundable and, if so, the legal basis and scope for awarding interest.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Issue 1 - Refundability in cash of amounts deposited by utilising ITC/ECL when appeals succeed
Legal framework: Section 142(3), (6)(a), (7)(b) and (8)(b) of the KGST Act provide transitional rules for disposal of claims/appeals/revision/adjudication under existing law (KVAT Act) and expressly state that amounts found admissible shall be refunded "in cash" under the said law; the 'appointed day' is 01.07.2017 and 'existing law' for present facts is the KVAT Act.
Precedent treatment: High Court decisions of coordinate jurisdiction and other High Courts have held that refunds of amounts found payable under transitional provisions are to be paid in cash even where deposits were made earlier by way of credit; authorities cited include decisions treating pre-deposit debited as ITC and still refundable in cash after adjudication in assessee's favour.
Interpretation and reasoning: A purposive and harmonious construction of Section 142 demonstrates a conscious and repeated legislative choice to use the expression "refunded to him in cash" in multiple sub-sections dealing with results of appeals/adjudications/revisions and refund claims. The statutory language makes no distinction between mode of original deposit; therefore, where an appeal leads to allowance and the deposit becomes refundable, the refund must be in cash irrespective of whether the pre-deposit was in cash or via ITC/ECL.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Section 142's explicit mandate that refundable amounts under transitional proceedings shall be refunded in cash governs the outcome and is binding on the parties. Obiter - peripheral observations about general policy of GST transition are explanatory.
Conclusion: Pre-deposit made by utilising ITC/ECL that becomes refundable on successful appeal under the existing law is payable back in cash in terms of Section 142(7)(b) and 142(8)(b).
Issue 2 - Effect of Circular dated 16.04.2018 permitting utilisation of ECL and its interplay with Section 142
Legal framework: Circular permits payment/recovery by way of Electronic Credit Ledger or Electronic Cash Ledger; but subordinate instruments cannot override statutory mandates in Section 142 which prescribes cash refund when amounts are found payable.
Precedent treatment: Courts have recognised that administrative circulars can explain procedures but cannot supplant express statutory provisions; where statute prescribes cash refund, circular cannot negate that right.
Interpretation and reasoning: Clause permitting payment via ECL merely recognises modes of payment but does not effect a legislative change on the mode of refund; given Section 142's clarity that refundable amounts are to be refunded in cash, the Circular cannot be read to require refunds to be credited back to ECL where statute mandates cash refund.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Circular cannot be invoked to deny cash refund when Section 142 prescribes cash refund. Obiter - discussion of administrative convenience and distinguishing payments of penalties/interest versus principal taxable amounts.
Conclusion: Circular dated 16.04.2018 does not entitle revenue to retain refundable amounts in ECL or to insist on re-credit rather than cash refund where Section 142 mandates cash refund.
Issue 3 - Applicability and temporal scope of Rule 92(1A) (inserted w.e.f. 23.03.2020) requiring proportionate cash refund and re-credit to ECL for amounts debited from credit ledger
Legal framework: Rule 92(1A) provides for sanctioning refund in cash proportionate to amount debited in cash and re-crediting the balance debited from ECL to the electronic credit ledger via FORM GST PMT-03; rule was inserted with prospective effect from 23.03.2020.
Precedent treatment: Delegated legislation is ordinarily prospective and cannot be applied retroactively to alter accrued rights where earlier statutory regime governed deposits/refunds.
Interpretation and reasoning: Rule 92(1A) being subordinate legislation introduced after the deposit date is prospective and cannot be applied to deposits made prior to its insertion (here, 20.07.2019). Section 142, operative at the material time, determines the entitlement; therefore Rule 92(1A) cannot displace the statutory right to cash refund for pre-2020 deposits.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Rule 92(1A) is prospective and does not govern deposits made before its commencement; it cannot be used to deny cash refund where Section 142 governs. Obiter - administrative practice after 23.03.2020 may follow Rule 92(1A) for subsequent deposits.
Conclusion: Rule 92(1A) is inapplicable to deposits made prior to 23.03.2020 and cannot impede cash refund of such earlier deposits determined refundable under Section 142.
Issue 4 - Estoppel arising from revenue's acceptance of ITC/ECL pre-deposit without objection
Legal framework: Principles of estoppel and legitimate expectation where revenue's acceptance of a mode of payment without objection, followed by adjudicatory process, precludes changing position to the prejudice of the taxpayer.
Precedent treatment: Courts have held that once the revenue accepts a mode of payment and proceeds without objection, it cannot later deny refund on the ground that the mode was impermissible; such conduct may estop revenue from asserting a contrary position.
Interpretation and reasoning: Respondents accepted the 70% pre-deposit by debiting ITC/ECL on 20.07.2019 without objection; appellate authorities and this Court disposed matters in favour of the taxpayer. Having accepted the deposit and adjudicated appeals, revenue cannot now rely on circulars or procedural rules to deny cash refund; such a stance would be inequitable and inconsistent with the statutory mandate of Section 142.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Acceptance of ITC/ECL pre-deposit without objection by revenue estops it from denying cash refund when statutory conditions for refund are met. Obiter - nuances of administrative irregularity do not override statutory direction.
Conclusion: Revenue is estopped from refusing cash refund of the ITC/ECL pre-deposit after having accepted it and after adjudication in taxpayer's favour.
Issue 5 - Entitlement to interest on delayed refund of pre-deposit amounts
Legal framework: Principles established by higher courts recognise that amounts lawfully due and retained by revenue attract interest by way of compensation; statutory and precedent authorities on interest on delayed refunds apply where revenue retains money without right.
Precedent treatment: Apex Court and High Courts have held that interest on delayed refunds is payable as compensation; rate and period depend on statutory provisions and facts; when refund becomes due on account of appellate order, interest from date it became payable to date of payment is appropriate unless statute prescribes otherwise.
Interpretation and reasoning: The withheld refundable deposit constitutes money retained by the State without right after adjudication in assessee's favour; equitable and legal principles require payment of interest for delayed refund. The statutory transitional provisions coupled with jurisprudence on interest support awarding interest on the total deposit from the date of deposit till date of payment.
Ratio vs. Obiter: Ratio - Taxpayer is entitled to interest on delayed refund of amounts found payable in its favour; the right to interest follows the right to refund. Obiter - precise rate may be governed by statutory rule or court discretion depending on circumstances.
Conclusion: Interest is payable on the refundable pre-deposit amounts for the period of retention by the revenue, and the taxpayer is entitled to interest on the entire deposited sum from the date of deposit to date of payment.
Final Conclusions
1. Section 142(7)(b) and 142(8)(b) mandate that amounts found refundable pursuant to proceedings under the existing law (KVAT Act) be refunded in cash irrespective of the mode (cash or ITC/ECL) by which the amount was originally deposited.
2. Administrative circulars and subordinate rules cannot negate the explicit statutory mandate in Section 142 nor operate retrospectively to deprive the taxpayer of a cash refund for deposits made prior to their effective date; Rule 92(1A) (w.e.f. 23.03.2020) is prospective and does not apply to deposits made on 20.07.2019.
3. Revenue is estopped from denying cash refund where it accepted ITC/ECL pre-deposit without objection and subsequently the appeals were allowed; equitable considerations and statutory text require refund in cash.
4. The taxpayer is entitled to interest on the delayed refund of the entire deposited amount from the date of deposit until the date of payment in cash.
Release of refund of the balance amount (70%) of pre-deposit to the Petitioner, alongwith interest - the balance 70% pre-deposit paid by the petitioner at the time of filing the appeal by utilizing the Input Tax Credit (ITC) available in its Electronic Credit Ledger (ECL) was not refunded back to the petitioner by the respondents - HELD THAT:- The undisputed material on record indicates that while 30% pre-deposit was made by the petitioner in Cash on 09.10.2017 and 10.10.2017 before First Appellate Authority, the balance/remaining 70% pre-deposit was made by the petitioner on 20.07.2019 through ITC/ECL in the appeals before the KAT; it is significant to note that this 70% pre-deposit made by the petitioner through ITC/ECL was consciously / voluntarily accepted, received and collected by the respondents from the petitioner without any demur and without raising any objections to the effect that the said 70% pre-deposit cannot be accepted through ITC/ECL and that it ought to have been made by the petitioner only through cash; it is an undisputed fact that the said 70% pre-deposit through ITC/ECL having been accepted by the petitioner without raising any objections, the KAT proceeded to dispose off the appeals in favour of the petitioner and was confirmed by this Court as stated supra as a consequence/result of which petitioner became entitled to refund of the entire 100% pre-deposit including 70% pre-deposit made through ITC/ECL by way of refund back in CASH in terms of in terms of Section 142(7)(b) and 142(8)(b) of the KGST Act; it follows there from that having accepted the 70% pre-deposit through ITC/ECL, respondents are estopped and not entitled to place reliance upon the aforesaid Circular dated 16.04.2018 to contend that the same cannot be refunded back in Cash, particularly in the light of the provisions contained in Section 142(7)(b) and 142(8)(b) of the KGST Act, which clearly contemplate that all types / kinds of amounts refundable/admissible are to be refunded back in CASH without there being any distinction drawn / made between cash deposit or ITC/ECL deposit and as such, the various contentions urged by the respondents cannot be accepted on this score also.
Rule 92(1A) cannot be relied upon or made the basis to come to the conclusion that the petitioner is not entitled to refund by CASH, especially in the light of the provisions contained in Section 142(7)(b) and 142(8)(b) of the KGST Act, which clearly contemplate that all types/kinds of amounts refundable/admissible are to be refunded back in CASH without there being any distinction drawn/made between cash deposit or ITC/ECL deposit and the claim of the petitioner deserves to be upheld on this score also.
In Tata Chemicals Ltd.,’s case [2014 (3) TMI 610 - SUPREME COURT], the Apex Court held that assessee is entitled to compensation by way of interest for the delay in payment of amounts lawfully due to the assessee. It was also held that refund due and payable to the assessee is debt owed and payable by the revenue and there being no excess amount/ tax collected by the revenue, it cannot shrug off its apparent obligation to reimburse the deductors lawful monies with the accrued interest for the period of undue retention of such monies; the State having received the money without right and having retained and used it, is bound to make the party good, just as an individual would be under like circumstances; the obligation to refund money received and retained without right implies and carries with it the right to interest and whenever money has been received by a party which ex ae quo et bono ought to be refunded, the right to interest follows as a matter of course.
The petitioner is entitled to the entire 70% pre-deposit made through ITC/ECL by way of refund in CASH from the respondents who are liable to repay/refund the entire 70% pre-deposit paid through ITC/ECL back to the petitioner together with interest due to delayed refund within a stipulated timeframe.
The respondents are directed to refund/release/repay the pre-deposit (70%) amounting to Rs. 16,11,19,226/- back to the petitioner in CASH within a period of six weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order - Petition allowed.
Issues: (i) whether the appellant had the authority to notify the Interim Coal Policy; (ii) whether the 20% increase in the notified price for linked consumers of the non-core sector violated Article 14; (iii) whether the respondents were entitled to refund of the 20% additional amount.
Issue (i): whether the appellant had the authority to notify the Interim Coal Policy.
Analysis: Price regulation of coal had been deregulated under the applicable control order, and the earlier decision striking down the e-auction mechanism did not divest the coal company of its statutory competence to notify interim prices. The direction to constitute an expert committee was directed to evolve a viable distribution policy, not to disable the coal company from fixing prices in the interregnum. Reading that judgment as imposing such a restriction would impermissibly override the statutory scheme and trench upon the separation of powers.
Conclusion: The appellant had the authority to notify the Interim Coal Policy.
Issue (ii): whether the 20% increase in the notified price for linked consumers of the non-core sector violated Article 14.
Analysis: The linked consumers of the core sector and the non-core sector were not similarly situated for the purpose of coal pricing. The linkage system was an administrative arrangement for supply logistics and did not create a constitutional entitlement to identical pricing. The classification between core and non-core linked consumers bore a rational nexus to the objective of sustaining coal supply and maintaining the financial capacity of the public sector undertaking to operate, maintain and develop coal mines. Reasonable profit, when directed to the common good and continued supply, was not forbidden; the policy was not shown to be a mere profiteering measure.
Conclusion: The 20% increase did not violate Article 14 and was valid.
Issue (iii): whether the respondents were entitled to refund of the 20% additional amount.
Analysis: The claim for refund could not succeed where the policy itself was upheld. In any event, the respondents failed to establish with complete and reliable material that they had not passed on the burden of the additional cost to end consumers. Refund of public money cannot be ordered on an incomplete evidentiary foundation, and the doctrine of unjust enrichment was applicable in principle to such a claim.
Conclusion: The respondents were not entitled to refund of the 20% additional amount.
Final Conclusion: The Interim Coal Policy was held valid, the challenge to the 20% price increase failed, and the refund claim was rejected.
Ratio Decidendi: Where coal pricing is deregulated by statute, the coal company may notify interim prices in the interregnum, and a differential price between core and non-core linked consumers is constitutionally valid if it rests on a rational nexus with the legitimate objective of maintaining supply and the common good rather than on arbitrary profiteering.
Dual pricing of coal - Authority of appellant to notify the Interim Coal Policy, in terms of the dictum of this Court in Ashoka Smokeless [2006 (12) TMI 516 - SUPREME COURT] - increase of 20% over and above the notified price introduced in the Interim Coal Policy for the linked consumers of the non-core sector was valid in terms of Article 14 or not - entitlement of refund of the 20% additional cost - principles of unjust enrichment.
Whether the appellant had the authority to notify the Interim Coal Policy, in terms of the dictum of this Court in Ashoka Smokeless? - HELD THAT:- In Ashoka Smokeless, it was held that the e-auction system, despite having the aim of regulating the supply of coal, was in effect a price regulation mechanism that enabled the coal companies to obtain the maximum possible price for coal based on the market forces. This Court, inter alia, held that the e-auction policy was illegal as the Central Government was not empowered to regulate the prices of coal in view of the deregulation of prices by virtue of the CCO, 2000. The said control order brought the regulation of prices into the realm of the powers enjoyed by the coal companies.
The respondents have only relied on the direction to the Central Government and the coal companies in Ashoka Smokeless to constitute an expert committee to evolve a viable policy for distribution of coal, to argue that the appellant was not empowered to decide interim prices till the time such a committee gave its recommendations. There are no force in the said submission as the dictum in Ashoka Smokeless is limpid insofar as the powers of the Central Government and coal companies respectively are concerned. Nowhere in the judgment was any restriction placed on the appellant company to notify prices. Even the direction for creation of an expert committee was made to provide suggestions in respect of a viable supply policy primarily. In continuation, the Court also granted liberty to the Central Government along with the coal companies to evolve a viable policy.
There are no qualms observing that this Court placed no restriction on the appellant’s powers to regulate prices through the process of price notification as the same was already governed by the CCO, 2000 and the appellant was competent to notify interim prices by way of the Interim Coal Policy.
Whether the increase of 20% over and above the notified price introduced in the Interim Coal Policy for the linked consumers of the non-core sector was valid in terms of Article 14? - HELD THAT:- The respondents relied on a judgment of the High Court at Patna in Maa Mundeshwari Carbon (P) Ltd. v. Central Coalfields Ltd. [2010 (4) TMI 1244 - PATNA HIGH COURT] wherein it was held that there was no cogent or valid explanation for charging the 20% excess amount over and above the prices notified in 2004, for the period prior to the introduction of the New Coal Distribution Policy. It was further observed that the 20% price hike was an innovation on part of the appellant herein to illegally compensate themselves for the outlay which they had to make by refunding 33.33% of the price differential paid by the private industries during the e-auction era.
It is not agreed with the reasoning assigned by the High Court in Maa Mundeshwari as the same was not substantiated by the single judge therein. In our opinion, the single judge mechanically stated that there was a lack of valid explanation without properly considering the objective of the Interim Coal Policy, the context in which it was introduced and the dictum of this Court in Ashoka Smokless and Pallavi Refractories [2005 (1) TMI 668 - SUPREME COURT]. It is due to a superficial study of the policy objectives and its effects that perhaps the argument of mala fide off-setting of compensation impressed upon the bench. Therefore, the respondents’ reliance on Maa Mundeshwari is of no avail to them in the case on hand.
Principles of unjust enrichment - HELD THAT:- The High Court, while dealing with Mafatlal [1996 (12) TMI 50 - SUPREME COURT] made no observations as regards the applicability of the concept of unjust enrichment and dismissed the argument of the appellant in a mechanical and non-speaking manner. Therefore, it is found apposite to refer to the same in great detail to determine whether the plea of unjust enrichment holds any water.
Thus, where there is an apprehension that the party who is seeking refund may have passed the adverse cost impact or burden of loss onto a third party, then in such cases, no refund ought to be granted. In such cases, the onus is on the State to retain such monies and use the same for public purposes in its role as parens patrea.
In the case on hand, the respondents did not provide any evidence, declaration or undertaking that they had not passed the burden of loss onto the end consumers before either the learned Single Judge or the Division Bench of the High Court. It is only at the stage of second appeal that they have sought to rebut the burden of proof in this regard despite raising the said plea before the Division Bench. It is trite law that generally, parties are not allowed to introduce new documents in a second appeal because at this stage, the focus is on questions of law rather than on new evidence. While we do not approve of the conduct of the respondents in not adducing relevant evidence before the High Court when they first prayed for the relief of refund, yet discretion may be allowed and such additional documents for the purpose of properly addressing this issue is allowed.
The High Court committed an egregious error in passing the impugned judgment. There are no other option but to set aside the impugned judgment and order dated 04.04.2012 passed by the High Court - the appeal succeeds and is hereby allowed.
Issues: (i) whether a criminal revision petition is maintainable against an order directing deposit under Section 148 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881; (ii) whether the facts disclosed a rare and exceptional case warranting waiver of the statutory deposit under Section 148.
Issue (i): whether a criminal revision petition is maintainable against an order directing deposit under Section 148 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Analysis: An order under Section 148 is not purely interlocutory where compliance may, in a given case, foreclose the appellant's right to pursue the appeal. The statutory setting, together with the Supreme Court's observation that deposit may be waived when it would amount to deprivation of the right of appeal, shows that such an order has consequences beyond a routine procedural direction. The Court also relied on the restoration of revision petitions in Jamboo Bhandari to conclude that a revision challenge is not barred by the interlocutory-order restriction.
Conclusion: The revision petitions were maintainable and the preliminary objection was rejected.
Issue (ii): whether the facts disclosed a rare and exceptional case warranting waiver of the statutory deposit under Section 148.
Analysis: The governing law, as explained through the sequence of decisions on Section 148, is that deposit is ordinarily to be directed, but a limited discretion survives for truly exceptional cases, including cases where deposit would be unjust, would deprive the appellant of the right to appeal, or where the conviction and sentence are, on a plain reading, so wholly incorrect or erroneous that deposit would be unnecessary. That discretion is only prima facie in nature and does not require a detailed reappreciation of evidence at the Section 148 stage. The trial court's order disclosed consideration of rival contentions and applicable law, and the petitioners' plea of financial hardship remained unsubstantiated.
Conclusion: No exceptional case for waiver was made out and the deposit direction was upheld.
Final Conclusion: The challenge to the deposit order failed, and the petitioners were required to comply with the appellate court's direction while their sentence remained suspended for the limited period granted.
Ratio Decidendi: A deposit order under Section 148 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is ordinarily warranted, but a High Court may interfere in revision only where the case on a prima facie reading discloses a truly exceptional situation, such as deprivation of the right of appeal or patent perversity in the conviction order; a detailed reappraisal of evidence is impermissible at that stage.
Dishonour of Cheque - cheques were issued as a security, and not for the discharge of any debt or liability - powers of an appellate court in its issuance of directions under Section 148 of the NI Act - deposit under Section 148 was interpreted to have a mandatory connotation - HELD THAT:- Applying the test to determine whether an order passed under Section 148 is barred by the application of Section 397(2) of the CrPC/ Section 438(2) of the BNSS, it is observable that when such an order calling for a deposit cannot be complied with by the appellant – the same may foreclose the appellant’s right to appeal, implying the termination of proceedings. Of course, such order can only be deemed to wrongly foreclose such right where the appellate court is satisfied that a deposit would be unjust. Such termination would definitely prejudice the rights of the appellant to institute an appeal. By this interpretation, an order under Section 148 cannot be interpreted as purely interlocutory in nature. Therefore, no bar seems to be attracted against its challenge vis-a-vis a revision petition before a High Court of competent jurisdiction.
The degree of scrutiny for the purpose of the application of the third exception (as laid down in Muskan [2024 (12) TMI 1528 - SUPREME COURT] to the ordering of a deposit under Section 148 is unequivocally stated to be of a prima facie nature, evident from the Hon’ble Supreme Court’s usage of the phrase “on a plain reading of the order”. This view is buttressed by the view adopted by a coordinate bench of this Court in Bandhu Baba Khad Bhandar, where the consideration of an argument as to the ledger account in question reflecting no outstanding dues was held to be an exercise involving a degree of scrutiny that exceeds the threshold laid down in Muskan.
No infirmity is to be observed in this exercise, as a plain reading by the learned ASJ revealed the learned Trial Court’s recording of rival contentions and discussion of applicable law thereto. As rightly observed thereafter, any scrutinization beyond this would require a detailed reappreciation of the learned Trial Court’s record.
This Court finds no merit in the present batch of revision petitions, which stand dismissed.
TaxTMI