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Issues: Whether the Tribunal erred in refusing to direct refund of the portion of a refund for Assessment Year 2005-06 which was wrongfully adjusted in excess of 20% of the demand for Assessment Year 2020-21 contrary to the Tribunal's earlier stay order, and whether the Respondents must be directed to refund the excess amount with interest.
Analysis: The Tribunal had on January 17, 2025 granted a conditional stay of recovery for AY 2020-21 directing that only 20% of the outstanding demand be adjusted from the refund due for AY 2005-06 and that the balance be stayed. Despite that order, the Respondents adjusted the entire refund on February 17, 2025. The Tribunal later extended the stay but declined to direct immediate refund of the excess adjustment. The High Court examined the record, including the challans evidencing the full adjustment, the Tribunal's stay order limiting adjustment to 20%, and the absence of any vacating or amendment of that order prior to the February 17, 2025 adjustments. The Court found the Respondents' action of adjusting the entire refund during the subsistence of the Tribunal's order to be contrary to and in violation of the Tribunal's conditional stay, and noted that the Tribunal gave no valid reason to refuse directing a refund of the excess adjustment.
Conclusion: The impugned portion of the Tribunal's order is set aside. The Respondents are directed to refund Rs. 28,55,26,240 (the amount adjusted in excess of 20% of the demand) for Assessment Year 2005-06, together with interest as per law, to the Petitioner within three weeks from the date of uploading of the High Court order. The Tribunal's stay of recovery for AY 2020-21 continues to operate with this modification.
Stay of Demand - conditional stay of recovery of the demand - Tribunal, after noting that a refund directed that such refund should be adjusted to the extent of 20% of the outstanding demand
HELD THAT:- The condition prescribed for the stay was that the refund for Assessment Year 2005-06 should be adjusted only to the extent of 20% of the outstanding demand for Assessment Year 2020-21, and the balance demand, i.e. 80% of the demand for the Assessment Year 2020-21, is stayed for a period of 180 days or the disposal of the Appeal, whichever is earlier.
Tribunal has clearly erred (while passing the impugned Order in not directing the Respondents to refund the amount along with interest as per law. We note that the Tribunal has not given any valid reason for refusing to direct the Respondents to refund the illegal adjustment of refund for the Assessment Year 2005-06 against the demand for the Assessment Year 2020-21, even though the Tribunal has accepted the fact that there has been no change in the legal and factual position and that the stay should be extended on the same terms as granted earlier. Hence, we set aside the impugned Order of the Tribunal to this limited extent and direct the Respondents to refund the amount of Rs. 28,55,26,240/- for Assessment Year 2005-06, along with interest as per law. The said refund shall be granted to the Petitioner within a period of three weeks from the date of uploading of this Order.
The impugned Order of the Tribunal in so far as its grants stay of recovery of the outstanding demand of the Assessment Year 2020-21, would continue to operate with the above modification.
Issues: Whether the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) could issue directions or record findings after a final assessment order under Section 144C(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 had been passed, and whether the DRP's findings regarding non-intimation to the Assessing Officer should be considered.
Analysis: Section 144C permits the DRP to issue directions "to enable" the Assessing Officer to complete the assessment (see Section 144C(5)) and contemplates consideration and issuance of directions while assessment proceedings are pending (see Section 144C(6), (7), (8), (11), (12) and (13)). Those provisions presuppose that the assessment is not finalised because the directions are for guidance to complete the assessment and are time bound. Where a final assessment order under Section 144C(4) has been passed, the statutory scheme shows that assessment proceedings have ended and the DRP's power to issue directions or make findings in relation to completing the assessment no longer subsists. Applying that statutory framework to the present facts, the DRP should have dismissed the objections as functus officio once the final assessment order was already passed and ought not to have recorded findings on whether intimation was given to the Assessing Officer.
Conclusion: The DRP had no power to issue directions or record findings after the final assessment order was passed; the DRP's findings regarding non-intimation to the Assessing Officer are unwarranted and shall not be considered by the appellate authority when deciding the pending appeal.
Directions by the Dispute Resolution Panel u/s 144C - Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) directions or record findings after a final assessment order u/s 144C(4)
HELD THAT:- After analyzing the provisions of Section 144C as well as the law laid down by this Court in Undercarriage and Tractor Parts Pvt.Ltd. [2023 (9) TMI 759 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] we are of the view that the DRP ought to have simplicitor dismissed the objections of the Petitioner on the sole ground that a final assessment order has already been passed and ought not to have given any finding in relation to any matters relating thereto. We, accordingly, direct that the findings given in relation to whether the objections filed by the Petitioner before the DRP were intimated to the AO, or otherwise, were wholly unwarranted in the facts of the present case.
We, accordingly, direct that those findings of the DRP shall not be considered when the CIT (Appeals) decides the Appeal filed by the Petitioner against the final assessment order - CIT (Appeals) shall decide the Appeal filed by the Petitioner without being influenced by any of the observations made by the DRP in the impugned order.
Issues: (i) Whether the notice issued under Section 148 (and related proceedings) by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer after 29 March 2022 was invalid as a jurisdictional defect in view of the decision in Hexaware Technologies Ltd., and whether the DRP was bound to follow that jurisdictional High Court precedent.
Analysis: The Court examined the procedural history including prior orders remitting objections to the DRP and the subsequent DRP order which declined to follow the jurisdictional High Court decision in Hexaware Technologies Ltd. The Court analysed Hexaware Technologies Ltd., which held that notices under Section 148 issued after 29 March 2022 must be issued by a Faceless Assessing Officer and that issuance by a jurisdictional Assessing Officer is a jurisdictional defect. The Court further considered the DRP's reasons, including reliance on decisions of the Gujarat High Court and a coordinate Bench decision purportedly deviating from Hexaware, and assessed the binding effect of a decision of the jurisdictional High Court on the DRP.
Analysis: The Court found that the DRP misconstrued the law by treating issuance by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer as merely a procedural irregularity and by relying on out-of-jurisdiction High Court decisions rather than following the binding decision of the jurisdictional High Court. The Court concluded that where a jurisdictional High Court has decided the question, the DRP and authorities are bound to follow that decision and cannot ignore it or prefer decisions of other High Courts on the same issue.
Conclusion: The notice dated 29.03.2023 under Section 148A(b), the order dated 04.05.2023 under Section 148A(d), the notice dated 04.05.2023 under Section 148, the order dated 30.12.2025 under Section 144C(5), the reassessment order dated 23.01.2026 under Section 147 read with Section 144C(13), and the Notice of Demand dated 23.01.2026 under Section 156 are quashed and set aside. The decision is in favour of the assessee.
Reopening Notice issued by non jurisdictional officer - objections to the draft assessment order were not intimated and/or filed before the AO - Section 148A notice was issued by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer instead of the Faceless Assessing Officer - first contention raised by the Respondent Revenue is that the above Writ Petition is barred by the principles of res judicata because the two earlier Petitions were not entertained, though the grounds of Hexaware Technologies Ltd. [2024 (5) TMI 302 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] were raised therein. HELD THAT:- We find absolutely no merit in the aforesaid contention. In the earlier two Writ Petitions, though the same were not entertained, the Petitioner was permitted to avail of the alternate remedy and raise the issue of Hexaware Technologies Ltd. (supra) before the DRP. This is clear not only from the orders passed in the first Writ Petition [2025 (4) TMI 1699 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] but also in the second [2025 (9) TMI 1317 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT].
Despite the issue of the Hexaware Technologies Ltd. (supra) being raised before the DRP, the DRP refused to follow the decision rendered by this Court in Hexaware Technologies Ltd. (supra). It is in these circumstances that the Petitioner has been constrained to approach this Court by filing the third Writ Petition [the present Petition]. In these circumstances, we do not believe that the principles of res judicata would bar the filing of this Petition. This contention of the Revenue is therefore rejected.
Contention raised by the Revenue is that the Petitioner has an alternate remedy to approach the ITAT to challenge the assessment order dated 23rd January 2026 - It is true that the Petitioner does have an alternate remedy to challenge the said assessment order. However, we find, and it is well settled that when a jurisdictional issue is raised, the Court can entertain a Writ Petition and need not relegate the party concerned to avail of the alternate remedy. In the facts of the present case, clearly a jurisdictional issue is raised, namely, that the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer had no power or jurisdiction to issue the notice u/s 148 - DRP also refused to follow the decision of this Court in Hexaware Technologies Ltd. (supra). Once these are the facts, we are of the clear opinion that there is no question of relegating the Petitioner to avail of the alternate remedy. This argument is therefore also rejected.
According to the Revenue, the Petitioner has suppressed in the Writ Petition that an interim order was passed by this Court - We fail to understand as to what is the sequitur to this argument. The interim order dated 11th March 2025 would no longer survive, as the same has merged in the final order disposing of the Writ Petition on 7th April 2025. It is not even the case of the Revenue that the order dated 7th April 2025 has been suppressed from this Court. We, therefore, find the above submission on suppression is clearly an argument of desperation to somehow try and ensure that this Writ Petition is not entertained by us. It is therefore rejected.
Notice issued u/s 148A(b) set aside. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether an order under Section 148A(d) and a notice under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for assessment year 2018-19 issued in the name of an entity that had ceased to exist due to conversion and subsequent amalgamation can be sustained.
Analysis: The proceeding examines the legal effect of issuing a notice/order in the name of an entity that no longer exists because it had been converted and subsequently amalgamated into another company, and whether such issuance is a mere procedural irregularity curable under general provisions or a jurisdictional defect amounting to substantive illegality. The relevant statutory provisions considered include Section 148 and Section 148A(d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 governing reassessment and the issuance of notice, as well as Section 292B concerning curable defects. Precedents addressing notices issued to non-existent or dissolved entities and the effect of amalgamation on tax proceedings were applied to determine whether the notice/order is void. The analysis applies the principle that issuance of assessment notices or framing of proceedings in the name of a non-existent entity, where the entity has been converted and amalgamated and the department had been informed, constitutes substantive illegality not remediable as a mere clerical or curable defect.
Conclusion: The impugned order under Section 148A(d) and the notice under Section 148 issued in the name of the non-existent entity are quashed and set aside; the petition is allowed and the impugned notice and consequential orders are invalid.
Reassessment order passed/issued in the name of a non-existent entity - assessment against entity that had ceased to exist due to scheme of amalgamation - HELD THAT:- It is not a case where the Income Tax Department was not aware about the amalgamation of the entity. Thus, we find force in the submissions advanced on behalf of the Petitioner that the Impugned Notice u/s 148 of the I.T. Act, issued in the name of the erstwhile entity cannot stand. This has now been consistently held not only in the case of Pr. CIT v. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd [2019 (7) TMI 1449 - SUPREME COURT] but several other decisions of this Court.
Issues: Whether the Competent Authority lawfully rejected the petitioner's application under Section 197 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 despite a binding judgment of the High Court holding that the petitioner's domain name registration charges were not taxable, and whether the impugned order and consequential certificate should be quashed with a direction to issue a nil rate certificate.
Analysis: The Court examined the impugned order dated 06.03.2025 and the consequential certificate dated 21.08.2025 in light of the earlier judgment of this Court dated 11.12.2023 which had held that the domain name registration charges constituted the right to use services and were not taxable under the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The Court found that the Competent Authority's sole stated reason for rejection-that the Department proposed to file a Special Leave Petition-did not constitute a legally sustainable reason. The Court reiterated the statutory obligation of the authority deciding applications under Section 197 to determine applications in accordance with the Act and applicable treaties, and that revenue targets or speculative departmental actions do not justify disregarding binding judicial decisions. The Court also considered procedural safeguards for future applications, including provision for issuing notice and recording a finding if a permanent establishment in India is alleged.
Conclusion: The impugned order dated 06.03.2025 and consequential certificate dated 21.08.2025 are quashed and set aside; the Competent Authority is directed to issue a certificate at nil rate within fifteen days and to issue nil-rate certificates for subsequent years on application within 30 days, subject to the authority recording a reasoned finding (after notice) if it concludes the petitioner has a permanent establishment in India. The relief is in favour of the assessee.
Rejection of application u/s 197 - certificate at ‘nil’ rate - as submitted domain name registration charges are essentially for granting the right to use the petitioner’s services and are not exigible to income tax as per the provisions of the Act of 1961 read with the terms of the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement - HELD THAT:- The Authority deciding application u/s 197 of the Act of 1961 has an obligation of deciding the application as per the provisions of the Act of 1961, while having due regard to the treaties between the two countries. He should not be driven or swayed by the Revenue targets/considerations.
For what we have stated hereinabove and following the reasoning which we have given in our order of even date in AECOM International Holdings UK Ltd. [2026 (2) TMI 711 - DELHI HIGH COURT] we hereby allow the present writ petition; quash and set aside the impugned order dated 06.03.2025 so also the consequential certificate dated 21.08.2025.
We hereby direct the Competent Authority to issue a certificate at ‘nil’ rate within a period of fifteen days from today with the additional directions, as below:
(i) The competent officer or any other authority who is supposed to consider the petitioner’s application under Section 197 of the Act of 1961, shall issue a certificate of nil rate of tax not only for the Financial Year 2025-26 (AY 2026-27), but also for the subsequent years in case an application is filed. The certificate(s) shall be issued within 30 days of the day when application is filed.
(ii) The competent authority dealing with petitioner’s subsequent application(s) under Section 197 of the Act of 1961 shall not be bound by direction given in clause (i) above, if he comes to a conclusion and records a finding that the petitioner is having a PE in India and the transactions which the company has carried out in India are liable to be taxed in India. However, before recording such finding, a notice in this regard shall be issued to the petitioner.
(iii) It will also be required from the petitioner-company to disclose truly and fully all facts in its applications to be filed each year. It shall be required of the petitioner to extend full cooperation when any such notice (as provided in clause (ii) above) is issued for the subsequent year(s).
Issues: Whether the reassessment notice issued beyond four years under section 147 read with section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is valid where reopening was founded on audit objections and materials already on record, and whether there was failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts necessary for assessment.
Analysis: The proviso to section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 bars action after four years from the end of the relevant assessment year unless income has escaped assessment by reason of the assessee's failure to disclose fully and truly all material facts. The Tribunal examined the factual matrix, the sequence of scrutiny assessment, appellate and revisionary proceedings (including orders under section 263 and giving effect thereof), and the reasons recorded for reopening which relied on audit objections and materials already on record. The Tribunal contrasted the reliance on internal/external audit notes with the requirement that the Assessing Officer must possess fresh tangible material or form his own subjective satisfaction that income has escaped assessment. Prior decisions cited by the parties (including authorities distinguishing mere audit opinion from fresh information and those where audit revealed previously unknown facts) were considered. Applying the statutory proviso and precedent, the Tribunal found no specification in the reasons or assessment order of any failure by the assessee to disclose material facts attributable to it; the reopening was based on the same materials already available and amounted to change of opinion rather than fresh tangible material establishing escapement of income due to the assessee's failure.
Conclusion: The reassessment proceedings under section 147/148 are invalid; the notice of reopening and the impugned assessment order are quashed and the appeals and cross-objections are dismissed in favour of the assessee.
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - Reassessment on basis of the return of income, tax audit report or annual report - notice beyond a period of four years - whether there was failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts?
HELD THAT:- In a subsequent decision by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Indian & Eastern Newspaper Society [1979 (8) TMI 1 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] held that the opinion on law rendered on the basis of audit report cannot be the basis for re-assessment rather it has to be the Ld. AO who should apply his mind not merely on the information by external agency but by evaluation of law, else it could lead to grave consequence of the external agencies taking the power of re-assessment rather than the Ld. AO.
Note put up by the internal audit party cannot be termed to be “information” within the meaning of section 147(b) of the Act per se where the provision emphasizes that the AO should first have information in his possession and in consequence of which he must have reason to believe that income has escaped assessment. The issue was decided in favour of the assessee after duly considering various decisions of the Hon’ble High Courts and also the earlier decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court itself.
As in the recent decision in the case of Adani Power Rajasthan Ltd [2026 (1) TMI 376 - SC ORDER] upheld the finding of the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court that reopening was merely on the basis of audit party opinion and not on the basis of the Ld. AO’s own conviction lacking in subjective satisfaction while issuing notice u/s 148 of the Act. It further held that reopening on the basis of the same materials tantamounts to change of opinion which is impermissible in law. Decided against revenue.
Issues: Whether the additions/disallowances of business expenditure of Rs. 31,80,000 (payments to S P Jindal Financial Services Limited), Rs. 3,00,000 (payments to Bigthink Media Pvt Ltd) and Rs. 18,50,000 (payments to S P Jindal Marketing Limited) can be sustained on the ground of excessiveness/unreasonableness where payments were made to unrelated independent parties and the books of account were not rejected under Section 145(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Analysis: The payments in dispute were made to unrelated and independent service providers for stock verification, MIS reporting and marketing services, with contract-based engagements and submitted stock verification / inventory reports. The statutory context includes provisions governing assessment proceedings (Section 143(1)(a), Section 143(2), Section 142(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961) and the rule that reasonableness review of payments to related parties is addressed by domestic transfer pricing (Section 92BA of the Income-tax Act, 1961). Section 40A(2)(b) concerns disallowance where payments lack business nexus or are to relatives; here the parties are unrelated. The books of account were not rejected under Section 145(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, so the AO did not proceed to best judgment assessment on that basis. Comparative payment levels to other service providers and factual differences in scope, location and complexity of assignments limit any mechanical inter-party comparison. Where nexus to business purpose is established and payments are to independent unrelated parties under contract, disallowance solely on the ground of alleged excessiveness is not justified absent application of Section 40A(2)(b) or specific findings rejecting accounts under Section 145(3).
Conclusion: The disallowances of Rs. 31,80,000; Rs. 3,00,000; and Rs. 18,50,000 are set aside and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Disallowance of expenses claimed towards contract charges - expenditure towards MIS reporting AND marketing services - Non rejection of books of accounts - Allowable business expenses - HELD THAT:- We observed that assessee has employed SP Jindals Financial Services Limited for internal audit/MIS reporting and we noticed that they were employed to services of stock verification and to submit the detailed MIS reports on monthly basis. Assessee has submitted details of stock inventory certificates.
Services rendered by the independent Chartered Accountant who were engaged in providing above said services for a stock verification on assignment basis. They also filed stock verification report. The above said entity is an unrelated and independent entity, the same are on the basis of contract between the parties involved, there is no measurement for dealing with such engagement. Since the assessee is involved on the basis of distribution of various kinds of alcohol and non alcohol beverages and it has several stores in order to control them they need an independent agencies. Accordingly they employed the services of unrelated and independent parties. Therefore, we cannot wear a cap of a businessman to determine disallowance of expenses particularly it is incurred for the purpose of business. Therefore, we are inclined to allow the same
Disallowance of payment made to Bigthink Media Pvt Ltd, in our considered view the issue involved is similar to the issue of payment of Rs. 18.5 lakhs made to SP Jindal. Therefore we observed that these payments were made towards providing market services to two outlets/HCRs and the same was disallowed on the basis of unreasonableness. Since these parties are unrelated and independent parties. We observed similar payments were made to the other parties who also provided similar services
We observed that assessee has paid to Shimpi Marketing Pvt Ltd of Rs. 1.80 crores for providing services in 13 shops/HCRs and the same amount was found to be reasonable. Even on comparison in the case of Shimpi Marketing a cost per shop comes to Rs. 13.85 lakhs per location whereas SP Jindal Marketing has claimed only Rs. 9.25 lakhs per location. We cannot apply same logic to compare the reasonableness of the expenses. Since, we do not know the location, nature and complexity involved in each assignments, it is only the assessee who is in this line of business for several years.
Thus, allow the grounds raised by the assessee on the basis of payment to independent and unrelated parties. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the delay of 1835 days in filing the appeal against the assessment order dated 15/11/2019 should be condoned; (ii) Whether the assessee is entitled to deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or whether bank interest should be taxed as income from other sources; (iii) Whether the addition of Rs. 2,380,000 under section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 relating to deposits during the demonetisation period is sustainable or requires adjudication.
Issue (i): Whether the delay of 1835 days in filing the appeal against the assessment order dated 15/11/2019 should be condoned.
Analysis: The appeal against the assessment order and the rectification order were substantially identical and the assessee filed an appeal against the rectification order within limitation; the subsequent delayed filing against the assessment order was explained as bona fide and precautionary because of concern over differential leverage between remedies; the lower appellate authority declined to condone delay.
Conclusion: Delay of 1835 days is condoned and the appeal is admitted (decision in favour of the assessee on the condonation point).
Issue (ii): Whether the assessee is entitled to deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and whether the bank interest is taxable as income from other sources.
Analysis: The question of mutuality and entitlement to deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) was examined in light of binding decisions of the jurisdictional High Court which favour cooperative societies on similar facts; the assessing officer treated certain interest income as taxable under income from other sources and disallowed deduction under section 80P.
Conclusion: Disallowance of deduction of Rs. 1,611,571 and taxation of the bank interest as income from other sources is not sustainable; deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) is allowed (decision in favour of the assessee on this substantive issue).
Issue (iii): Whether the addition of Rs. 2,380,000 under section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for deposits during the demonetisation period is sustainable without further inquiry.
Analysis: The appellate authority below had not adjudicated the addition under section 68; the assessee was directed to furnish requisite details and the matter requires fresh consideration with opportunity of hearing.
Conclusion: Grounds relating to the addition under section 68 are restored to the file of the lower appellate authority for fresh adjudication after granting opportunity to the assessee (decision to remit these grounds for fresh consideration).
Final Conclusion: The appeal is partly allowed: delay in filing the appeal is condoned, the disallowance under section 80P(2)(a)(i) is deleted in favour of the assessee, and the addition under section 68 is remitted to the lower appellate authority for fresh adjudication.
Ratio Decidendi: Where two substantially identical alternative appellate remedies exist and an assessee acted under a bona fide belief in pursuing one remedy, a long delay in filing a second, duplicative appeal may be condoned; entitlement to deduction under section 80P(2)(a)(i) must be determined in accordance with binding jurisdictional High Court precedent on mutuality.
Deduction u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) - cooperative societies and mutuality - treatment of interest income as income from other sources versus business income - HELD THAT:- Deduction u/s 80P (2) (a) (i) of the act is directly decided in favour of the assessee in the decision of Guttigedarara Credit Co-operative Society Ltd.[2015 (7) TMI 874 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT], Tumkur Merchants Souharda Credit Cooperative Ltd. [2015 (2) TMI 995 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] and Totagars Co-operative Sale Society [2017 (7) TMI 1049 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] - Therefore the disallowance made by the learned assessing officer treating the bank interest as income from other sources is not sustainable.
Addition u/s 68 - CIT (A) has not passed any order, we restore the appeal back to the fil of the CIT (A) with a direction to the assessee to furnish the requisite details, which may be considered and appeals on the grounds raised may be decided afresh.
Issues: (i) Whether additions made as unexplained cash in respect of gifts received by the assessee should be deleted; (ii) Whether additions made on account of professional receipts received in cash should be deleted; (iii) Whether additions made on account of cash withdrawals from the partnership firm should be deleted.
Issue (i): Whether gifts received from near relatives totalling Rs. 7,42,000 (in case of Ms. Gauri Kumari) and Rs. 4,92,000 (in case of Shri Ashish Agarwal) are to be treated as genuine and not assessable as unexplained cash.
Analysis: Gifts from parents and other near relatives were supported by details of relationship, quantum, addresses, affidavits and notarized gift deeds; the documentary formalization after the seizure did not, by itself, negate genuineness where identity and relationship of donors and amount gifted were established. The assessments and appellate orders rejected the gifts primarily because documents were produced post-survey and some gift deeds were notarized later.
Conclusion: The additions on account of the gifts are deleted and the claimed gift amounts are accepted as genuine and not assessable as unexplained cash in favour of the assessees.
Issue (ii): Whether professional receipts in cash amounting to Rs. 2,20,226 (in case of Ms. Gauri Kumari) and Rs. 4,68,200 (in case of Shri Ashish Agarwal) should be treated as bona fide professional income and not added as unexplained cash.
Analysis: The assessees, being chartered accountants engaged in tuition and professional services, produced period-wise breakups, names/identifiers of recipients and copies of income-tax return acknowledgments and client particulars; such corroborative records establish a plausible source for the cash professional receipts. Earlier non-production at the time of survey does not automatically render the receipts fictitious where supporting evidence is subsequently furnished.
Conclusion: The additions on account of professional receipts are deleted and the amounts are accepted as genuine professional income in favour of the assessees.
Issue (iii): Whether cash withdrawals from the partnership firm amounting to Rs. 5,40,000 (in case of Ms. Gauri Kumari) and Rs. 5,80,000 (in case of Shri Ashish Agarwal) should be treated as personal unexplained cash or accepted as withdrawals from the firm.
Analysis: Ledger extracts, payment vouchers, cashbook entries and partnership firm account statements were produced showing date-wise withdrawals and acceptance by revenue that withdrawals were from the partnership firm; there was no dispute that the firms had available cash. The documentary evidence supports that the amounts were withdrawals by partners rather than unexplained personal receipts.
Conclusion: The additions on account of cash withdrawals from the partnership firms are deleted and the amounts are accepted as withdrawals from the partnership in favour of the assessees.
Final Conclusion: The appeals are partly allowed by deleting the additions relating to gifts from near relatives, professional receipts in cash, and cash withdrawals from partnership firms; the overall effect is reduction of the unexplained cash additions made by the assessing authority.
Ratio Decidendi: Where relationship, quantum and corroborative documentary evidence establish gifts from near relatives, cash professional receipts and partnership withdrawals as identifiable sources, additions as unexplained cash under assessment cannot be sustained solely because supporting documents were produced after survey.
Addition of gifts receipts from relatives - HELD THAT:- Assessee has received gifts from her father, mother, brother in law and sister in law. We do not subscribe to the view that gifts from parents received by the Assessee could be subjected to any documentary evidence. The Assessee has submitted that the mother of the Assessee who also has a PAN number and after all the Assessee is also having the PAN number regularly assessed to tax have confirmed gift to the Assessee. Similarly, the brother in law and sister in law also confirmed the gift to the Assessee.
Lower authorities have merely rejected the gift deeds without any enquiry. It is also immaterial that when the Assessee received gift from her near relatives, the same can be disregarded on technical grounds. This cannot be the reason that as Assessee has not received any gifts in past, the gifts would not be genuine. Anyway, the Assessee would be receiving gifts at certain time in the first instance only. In view of the above facts, where the name, address, relationship, quantum of the gift and that too from the parents and near relatives is shown have no hesitation in directing the AO to delete the addition.
Addition of professional receipts received in cash - addition made as lower authorities stating that such sum cannot be accepted as a professional fee received by the Assessee because there is no receipt issued by the Assessee in cash and the name of the people from whom the same is received is not available - HELD THAT:- When the professional CA is showing the cash receipt as her professional fees giving the name and copies of the income tax return, so far as the professional services are concerned and further for the purpose of tuition fees received from CA students, ID numbers of the students are also submitted, such small amount of professional fees could not have been disbelieved. Accordingly, we direct the Ld. Assessing Officer to delete the addition and allow ground no. 3 of the Appeal.
Amount withdrawal from the partnership firm - During the survey, Assessee submitted the ledger extract of cashbook evidencing amount withdrawal from partnership firm during the time of survey itself - HELD THAT:- Before the Ld. CIT(A), complete details of withdrawal from partnership firm were shown wherein he confirmed the addition that the above sum would have been spent on household withdrawal. I find that Assessee has submitted the details of cash withdrawal from the partnership firm where she is a partner. Undoubtedly, the revenue accepted that the above amount is withdrawn by the Assessee from the partnership firm. It is not the case of the revenue that partnership firms were not having available cash as on the date of the withdrawal. Accordingly, have not hesitation in deleting the addition in the hands of the Assessee which is shown by the Assessee but have been withdrawn in cash from the partnership firm where she is a partner. Accordingly, ground of the Appeal is allowed.
Issues: Whether the assessee is entitled to claim deduction under Section 80IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 despite filing the audit report in Form No.10CCB after the due date for electronic filing but before processing/assessment, and whether such filing satisfies the statutory requirement for claiming the deduction.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined whether the statutory requirement to furnish the audit report in Form No.10CCB in relation to a claim under Section 80IB(10) is satisfied by filing the Form after the due date for return but before processing/assessment under Section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal considered precedent where coordinate benches and higher courts have distinguished exemption provisions from deduction provisions and have held that, for deductions under Chapter VIA, filing the requisite audit certificate before the final order of assessment/processing can cure non-filing with the return. The Tribunal noted that the Form was uploaded prior to processing of the return and relied on prior Tribunal decisions (including Sahyadri Farmers Producer Company Ltd. and Desai Infra Projects (I) Pvt. Ltd.) which allowed similar deductions where the audit report was available before completion of assessment processing.
Conclusion: The Tribunal concluded that since the audit report in Form No.10CCB was furnished before processing/assessment under Section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the assessee cannot be denied the deduction under Section 80IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961; the impugned order of the Commissioner (Appeals) is set aside and the claim is allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: For deductions under Chapter VIA (including Section 80IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961), filing the required audit report before the processing/final order of assessment suffices to satisfy the statutory filing requirement and entitles the assessee to the deduction even if the Form was not filed with the return by the due date.
Denial of deduction u/s 80IB(11A) - delayed filling of audit report in Form No.10CCB - assessee has not filed the audit report in Form No.10CCB one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1) however, the same has been filed before processing of the return.
HELD THAT:- As in the case of Sahyadri Farmers Producer Company Limited [2025 (10) TMI 1361 - ITAT PUNE] where the Tribunal allowed the claim of deduction u/s 80IB(11A) of the Act on the ground that since the audit report in Form No.10CCB was furnished prior to the furnishing of return
Since, admittedly the assessee has filed the audit report in Form No.10CCB prior to processing of the return, therefore, we are of the considered opinion that the assessee cannot be denied deduction u/s 80IB(10) of the Act. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
Issues: Whether the assessment order dated 08.12.2019 passed by ITO, Ward-2, Tiruvannamalai under section 144 is valid where jurisdiction over the assessee's PAN had vested with ITO, Ward-2, Vellore and no transfer order under section 127 had been placed on record.
Analysis: The PAN jurisdiction history and the chronology of proceedings show transfers and proceedings predominantly within the territorial jurisdiction of Vellore, including original return filing and subsequent rectification proceedings. The assessment was, however, passed by the officer at Tiruvannamalai without any recorded order under section 127 transferring jurisdiction prior to the assessment. Established legal principles require that an assessing officer must have jurisdiction to pass an assessment; absence of jurisdiction renders the order a nullity. Participation by the assessee in proceedings does not confer jurisdiction or cure absence of a valid transfer. The issue engages provisions governing assessment, transfer of proceedings, rectification, and statutory curability, and is governed by settled precedents holding that orders passed by non-jurisdictional authorities are void ab initio.
Conclusion: The assessment order dated 08.12.2019 passed under section 144 by ITO, Ward-2, Tiruvannamalai is void for lack of jurisdiction and the impugned order of the Commissioner (Appeals) sustaining that assessment is not maintainable. The appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Validity of order passed by a non-jurisdictional Assessing Officer - Defect in chronology of proceedings - transfer of jurisdiction u/s 127 - order passed u/s. 144 by ITO, Ward-2, Tiruvannamalai v/s ITO, Ward-2, Vellore
HELD THAT:- PAN jurisdiction of the assessee has undergone multiple transfers over a period of time. The detailed history of jurisdiction clearly demonstrates that, as per the transfer memo dated 15.05.2018 in relation to notice issued u/s. 148 for AY 2011-12, the jurisdiction vested with ITO, Ward-2, Vellore. Further, the assessee’s address throughout all proceedings has remained within the territorial jurisdiction of Vellore.
The chronology of proceedings also reveals serious inconsistencies. While the original return for AY 2017-18 was filed with ITO, Ward-2, Vellore, the assessment order u/s. 144 dated 08.12.2019 was passed by ITO, Ward-2, Tiruvannamalai. Interestingly, the subsequent rectification order u/s. 154 r.w.s.144 dated 21.07.2020 was again passed by ITO, Ward-2, Vellore, which further fortifies the assessee’s contention that jurisdiction, in fact, lay with Vellore.
Revenue has not been able to place on record any valid order passed u/s. 127 of the Act transferring jurisdiction from ITO, Ward-2, Vellore to ITO, Ward-2, Tiruvannamalai prior to the passing of the assessment order. In absence of such an order, the Assessing Officer at Tiruvannamalai could not have assumed jurisdiction merely on the basis of earlier proceedings or participation by the assessee.
It is a settled proposition of law that an order passed by a non-jurisdictional Assessing Officer is void ab initio. Jurisdiction cannot be conferred by consent, acquiescence, or participation of the assessee.
Thus, we hold that the assessment order passed u/s. 144 by ITO, Ward-2, Tiruvannamalai is without jurisdiction and void in law. Consequently, the impugned order of the ld. CIT(A) sustaining such assessment cannot be upheld. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the suo moto disallowance of expenses made by the assessee in the return can be withdrawn during assessment proceedings; (ii) Whether disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is permissible where the assessee has not earned any exempt income in the relevant assessment year.
Issue (i): Whether the suo motu disallowance of expenses made by the assessee in the return can be withdrawn during assessment proceedings.
Analysis: The Bench examined whether an assessee who had made a suo motu disallowance in the return may subsequently retract that disallowance during assessment and before appellate authorities, having regard to precedent of the Coordinate Bench permitting such withdrawal where appropriate. The Court considered the submissions and prior decisions addressing the ability of an assessee to rectify an incorrect self-disallowance in the assessment process.
Conclusion: The suo motu disallowance of Rs. 18,28,62,017/- made by the assessee in the return is deleted; the assessee is permitted to withdraw the suo motu disallowance during the assessment proceedings.
Issue (ii): Whether disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is permissible where the assessee has not earned any exempt income in the relevant assessment year.
Analysis: The Bench analysed applicability of section 14A and Rule 8D in the absence of exempt income and considered Coordinate Bench precedents holding that, where no exempt income is earned in the year, disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is not called for. The Court applied those precedents to the undisputed fact that the assessee did not earn exempt income in the relevant year.
Conclusion: The additional disallowance of Rs. 24,94,58,174/- made under section 14A read with Rule 8D is deleted; disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is not applicable in the assessee's case where no exempt income was earned.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed with deletions of the additions made under section 14A read with Rule 8D; consequential relief follows and the stay application is dismissed as infructuous.
Ratio Decidendi: In the absence of exempt income for the relevant assessment year, disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is not warranted; additionally, a suo motu disallowance made in the return may be withdrawn during assessment proceedings.
Disallowance u/s 14A r.w.r.8D - sum suo moto disallowed by the Appellant - HELD THAT:- This issue is squarely covered by the decision of M/s. Aditya Birla Nuvo Ltd. [2020 (3) TMI 942 - ITAT MUMBAI] wherein it was held that a suo motu disallowance of expenditure relatable to exempt income can be withdrawn during the assessment proceedings. Respectfully following the said decision, the addition accepted by the Ld. AO is deleted.
Additional disallowance of expenses - It is an undisputed fact that the assessee did not earn any exempt income during the relevant assessment year. Therefore, the provisions of section 14A read with Rule 8D(2) of the Rules are not applicable in the assessee’s case. In this regard, we respectfully follow the decision of M/s. HDFC Bank Ltd. [2016 (8) TMI 1415 - ITAT MUMBAI] Accordingly, the additional disallowance is hereby deleted.
Issues: Whether penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was leviable where the assessee's income was disclosed during reassessment and appellate proceedings, and the addition arose from a difference of opinion on the manner of taxation under the India-Germany DTAA.
Analysis: The assessee had filed its original return on the basis of its understanding of section 115A(5) and the Tribunal had already accepted that no obligation to file the return under section 139(1) arose on those facts. The income later brought to tax was either disclosed in response to reassessment notice or voluntarily offered during appellate proceedings. The quantum dispute turned on the proper characterization and rate of taxability of interest, commitment fees, and fees for technical services under the treaty, and not on any finding that the particulars furnished in the return were false or erroneous. Mere rejection of a legal claim, without proof of inaccurate particulars or concealment, does not attract penalty under section 271(1)(c).
Conclusion: Penalty under section 271(1)(c) was not leviable, and the deletion of penalty was /maintained in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: A penalty for concealment or furnishing inaccurate particulars cannot be sustained when the addition results from a bona fide legal dispute on taxability and the income has been disclosed without any finding of false or erroneous particulars.
Penalty u/s 271(1)(c) - difference of opinion on the manner of taxation of the interest income and commitment fees -applicability of the India-Germany DTAA - whether 'malafide' was involved or not? - HELD THAT:- We do not find any merit in the submissions of DR that since the assessee filed the return of income only after the notice issued u/s 148 the penalty is impossible, in terms of the provisions of Explanation-3 to section 271(1)(c) of the Act.
Commitment fees earned by DZ Bank AG were claimed as exempt under Article 5 read with Article 7 of the India-Germany DTAA. However, the AO vide order passed under section 143(3) read with section 147 of the Act disagreed with the submissions of the assessee and taxed the entire income at the rate of 40% by treating DZ Bank-India Representative Office as the Permanent Establishment of DZ Bank AG in India. In further appellate proceedings, the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal held the aforesaid two receipts to be taxable under Article 11 of the India-Germany DTAA at the rate of 10%. Therefore, we agree with the findings of the learned CIT(A), vide impugned order, that the penalty levied is entirely on account of a difference of opinion on the manner of taxation of the interest income and commitment fees.
We find that while examining the meaning of the term “particulars” in section 271(1)(c) of the Act, in CIT v/s Reliance Petroproducts (P) Ltd. [2010 (3) TMI 80 - SUPREME COURT] held that mere making of the claim, which is not sustainable in law, by itself, will not amount to furnishing inaccurate particulars regarding the income of the assessee.
As regards the income from fees for technical services, it is also evident that the same was voluntarily disclosed by the assessee before the learned CIT(A), and the assessee duly explained the circumstances for the delay in reporting the said income.
It is pertinent to note that the entire addition made by the AO, on the basis of which the impugned penalty was levied under section 271(1)(c) of the Act, was only pursuant to the assessee’s own disclosure. Further, the basis of not declaring the income in the original return filed on 29/09/2008 has already been accepted by the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal, and no fault was found in the claim of the assessee.
Therefore, we do not find any infirmity in the findings of the learned CIT(A) that no penalty u/s 271(1)(c) of the Act is warranted in the present case on the income voluntarily disclosed by the assessee during the reassessment proceedings as well as the appellate proceedings. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the sanction under Section 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for issuance of notice under Section 148 was validly recorded and whether the notice under Section 148 and consequent reassessment under Section 144B read with Section 147 are sustainable; (ii) Whether the addition of Rs. 5,40,000 made by the assessing officer on account of alleged unexplained investment/claim under Section 10(38) is sustainable on merits.
Issue (i): Validity of sanction under Section 151 and sustainment of notice under Section 148 and assessment under Section 144B r.w.s.147.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the sanction form and related records and found the sanction by the Pr. Commissioner of Income Tax/PCIT and Additional CIT to be undated and lacking any recorded satisfaction or reasons. Relying on precedents that require the approving authority's satisfaction to be discernible and not a mechanical endorsement or mere use of expressions like "Yes" or "Yes I am satisfied", the Tribunal held that mere signature without contemporaneous, discernible reasons or indication of application of mind does not meet the statutory requirement under Section 151. The sanction could not be shown to have been granted prior to issuance of notice and was therefore procedurally defective. Following established case law, the Tribunal concluded that absence of valid sanction vitiates the notice under Section 148 and the consequential reassessment under Section 144B r.w.s.147.
Conclusion: The sanction under Section 151 was not validly recorded; the notice under Section 148 and the resultant assessment under Section 144B r.w.s.147 are invalid and set aside.
Issue (ii): Sustainment of addition of Rs. 5,40,000 on merits as unexplained investment/claim under Section 10(38).
Analysis: On merits the Tribunal observed that the transaction recorded related only to purchase of shares and there was no sale or claim of exemption under Section 10(38) by the assessee for the relevant year. The addition treated the purchase amount as income despite absence of sale or any capital gain; consequently the addition lacked factual and legal basis.
Conclusion: The addition of Rs. 5,40,000 cannot be sustained on merits and is therefore deleted in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The impugned notice under Section 148 and the consequent assessment order are quashed for want of valid sanction under Section 151; alternatively, even on merits the addition is unsustainable and the appeal is allowed.
Ratio Decidendi: For a reassessment notice issued beyond the prescribed period, the sanction under Section 151 must reflect a discernible satisfaction and application of mind by the competent authority; a mere undated signature or mechanical endorsement without reasons does not constitute valid sanction and renders the notice and consequent reassessment void ab initio.
Validity of notice u/s.148 - notice issued without proper sanction in terms of section 151 - assessment was beyond the period of three years - PCIT while granting approval u/s.151 of the Act simply wrote “Yes”, without specifically noting his approval - Bogus LTCG - Denial of deduction or exemption u/s.10(38)
HELD THAT:- As per the provisions of section u/s.151 of the Act relevant for the A.Y.2013-14 when an assessment proposed to be reopened u/s.148 of the Act beyond the period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year, the competent authority to grant sanction u/s.151 of the Act is PCIT/CIT. In the case of the assessee it is observed that the Ld. PCIT who is the competent authority to grant sanction u/s.151 of the Act had simply signed without recording any satisfaction as to why he is granting sanction for issue of notice u/s.148 of the Act. It is further observed that such a sanction is also undated which means it is not known whether the sanction was granted prior to issue of notice u/s. 148 of the Act or after the issue of notice u/s.148.
Notice issued u/s.148 was without obtaining valid sanction u/s.151 of the Act and, therefore, such notice u/s. 148 and also the consequential assessment made u/s. 144B r.w.s. 147 pursuant to such notice is bad in law, nonest and void ab initio. Thus, the assessment order is hereby quashed.
Even on merits it is observed that the purchase transaction of the assessee was added as income of the assessee even though neither there was sale nor there was any gain to the assessee. The assessee did not claim any exemption u/s. 10(38) of the Act. Therefore, even on merits the addition cannot be sustained.
Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the long-term capital gains claimed on sale of shares of the alleged penny scrip are genuine or are to be treated as bogus and taxable under Section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961; (ii) Whether the estimated commission addition under Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is sustainable.
Issue (i): Whether the long-term capital gains arising from sale of shares of the alleged penny scrip are genuine or sham.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined documentary evidence of purchase and sale including contract notes, dematerialisation and delivery records, bank payment receipts, and the sequence of events including preferential allotment, share split and subsequent sales. The Tribunal considered investigatory material relied upon by the Assessing Officer including Directorate of Investigation report and SEBI orders identifying a broader market manipulation scheme, and compared those materials with the specific evidence available in the assessee's case. The Tribunal applied authorities on when documentary proof (demat entries, exchange transactions, banking channels and contract notes) establishes genuineness and when investigative reports require further linking evidence to connect the assessee to price-rigging or accommodation entry operators.
Conclusion: The long-term capital gains claimed are held to be genuine; the addition under Section 68 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is deleted in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the addition of estimated commission under Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in respect of the sale transaction is justified.
Analysis: The Tribunal reviewed the factual finding on the genuineness of the sale transactions and the material (or lack thereof) specifically substantiating the estimated commission claim. Having held that the sale transactions could not be doubted on the available evidence, the Tribunal considered whether independent material supported the commission addition and found it absent.
Conclusion: The addition under Section 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is deleted; the revenue's challenge on the commission addition is dismissed.
Final Conclusion: The Tribunal allows the assessee's appeal by deleting the additions relating to long-term capital gains and related estimated commission; the revenue's appeal is dismissed thereby resulting in an overall decision in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: Documentary evidence of purchase and sale through stock exchange mechanisms (contract notes, demat entries, delivery instructions and banking receipts), absent specific and direct material connecting the assessee to price-rigging or accommodation providers, is sufficient to establish the genuineness of share transactions and to negate additions under Sections 68 and 69C of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Addition u/s. 68 - long-term capital gain alleged to be a penny stock - Addition based on the Investigation Report of the Directorate of Investigation, Kolkata and SEBI action - addition on account of commission u/s. 69C towards the 2% on the total consideration of the sale of shares - lower authorities held that the transactions to be a pre-arranged method to evade tax with the connivance of the accommodation entry providers
HELD THAT:- As decided in Manisha Narpatkumar Chopra [2024 (8) TMI 1078 - ITAT MUMBAI] where on identical facts which was related to the same penny scrip CIT(A) was justified in deleting the addition of value of sale consideration arising on sale of shares of M/s. Pine Animation Ltd. Since we have confirmed the decision of Ld. CIT(A) in holding that the sale transactions of shares cannot be doubted with, the addition made by the AO with regard to estimated commission expenses is also liable to be deleted. Assessee appeal allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the impugned properties were benami properties purchased through the funds of the beneficial owner. (ii) Whether the transaction was protected by the fiduciary-capacity exception under Section 2(9)(A)(ii) of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988.
Issue (i): Whether the impugned properties were benami properties purchased through the funds of the beneficial owner.
Analysis: The record showed that the properties stood in the name of the benamidar, while the consideration was supplied by the other appellant, and the bank entries reflected fund movements from the beneficial owner's side before payments were made to the sellers. The purchase period, the financial profile of the benamidar, and the absence of independent means to acquire the lands supported the inference that the benamidar was only a name-lender and that the real purchaser was the beneficial owner.
Conclusion: The properties were benami in nature and were rightly proceeded against under the Act.
Issue (ii): Whether the transaction was protected by the fiduciary-capacity exception under Section 2(9)(A)(ii) of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988.
Analysis: The claimed exception was rejected because the benamidar was an employee-labourer and not shown to have held the property in a legally cognisable fiduciary capacity akin to trustee, agent, or similar notified relationship. There was no power of attorney, no clear recital in the sale deeds that the purchase was for the beneficial owner, and the transaction was used to avoid the restrictions governing transfer of tribal land. A broad reading of fiduciary capacity was held incapable of defeating the object of the statute.
Conclusion: The fiduciary-capacity exception did not apply and the appellants were not entitled to exemption.
Final Conclusion: The attachments and the adjudication confirming benami character were sustained, and the appeals failed on merits.
Ratio Decidendi: A purchase made in the name of another with the real consideration supplied by the alleged beneficial owner is benami unless the claimant establishes a genuine fiduciary relationship falling within the statutory exception; a mere employer-employee or trusted-person arrangement, especially when used to bypass another law, does not by itself attract the fiduciary-capacity exclusion.
Benami transaction - definition of ‘Benami Transaction’, subject to the exemption (ii) to Section 2(9)(A) - fiduciary exemption under clause (ii) of Section 2(9)(A) - transactions for purchasing of lands - Section 165(6) Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code - Relationship between the benamidar and the alleged beneficial owner - prohibition on non tribal acquisition of tribal land - Provisional attachment u/s 24(4) and confirmation u/s 26(3) of PBPT Act - Application of Section 88, Indian Trusts Act - fiduciary/trust relationship - HELD THAT:- The present case does not fall under the ‘fiduciary relation’ and is thus not liable to be exempted under clause (ii) of Section 2(9)(A) of the PBPT Act. There was no Special or General Power of Attorney executed by Sh. Dwarika Gupta in his favour. Hence, in absence of the same, question of execution of the sale deed in favour of Sh. Dwarika Gupta was not possible. The impugned sale deed is silent that Vendee Laxmi Chand Maravi purchased the land for the benefit of Sh. Dwarika Gupta or tendered the sale consideration on his behalf. Also, the appellant no.2 should have been present in-person at the time of execution of sale-deed, in absence of Power of Attorney, however, he was not present.
No permission from competent authority was taken before execution of said sale deed for granting permission in favour of Sh. Dwarika Gupta i.e., by a tribal in favour of non-tribal. Further, the details of the transactions in the bank account of the benamidar made by the beneficial owner and subsequent transfer made by the benamidar, to various sellers/ vendors of the tribal lands is clearly evident. Also, it is on record that only the appellant Late Laxmi Chand Maravi, had moved an application on 29.09.2021 seeking permission of the District Collector, Janjgir Champa (C.G.) for sale of certain parcels of lands in the name of Sh. Dwarika Gupta, a non-tribal person.
Thus, it fortifies our view that the matter is that of benami transaction and is covered under ‘Benami Transaction’ as the appellant Sh. Dwarika Gupta purchased the land through Benamidar with an end view to ultimately transfer it in the name of Dwarika Gupta, the beneficial owner for his future business use.
Further, the appellant no.1 cannot be considered as a trustee because he was an employee working as labourer with the beneficial owner. He was merely used for the task of purchasing the property on his behalf, to circumvent the stringent provisions of Section 165(6) under the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code for taking prior permission for purchasing the land of a tribal by a non-tribal. Mere entrustment of sale consideration does not give rise to the ‘trust’ and cannot be protected by invoking Section 88 of the Indian Trusts Act. Moreover, if the fiduciary capacity is taken to mean and include all persons who trust each other or hold a position of trust, all benami transactions would come into the ambit of exception (ii) to section 2(9)(A) of the Act. Hence, the term fiduciary relationship cannot be interpreted in a manner to frustrate the very purpose of the Act.
Moreover, the nature of said relation the fiduciary relationship was not notified by the Central Government and its nature is not akin to the relationship included in the statute. Further, section 56(1) of the PBPT Act, specifically states that Sections 81, 82 & 94 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, section 66 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and section 281A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 are hereby repealed. The repeal of the provisions vide section 56(1) is aimed at ensuring that trust relationships, even though property may appear to be held in a fiduciary capacity does not provide an automatic exemption from the provisions concerning benami transactions.
The object behind incorporating Section 165(6) under the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code is to provide social justice to the members of the backward tribe and save them from the harsh clutches of the socially and economically well-off persons. Further, sections 170A of the CLR Code provides for setting aside transfers made in violation of section 165(6) of the CLR Code, meaning thereby that the sale which is violative of section 165(6) of the code is absolutely barred under the law. In support of this contention, the Respondent has cited Pooran Singh [2015 (2) TMI 1425 - CHHATTISGARH HIGH COURT] decided by the High Court of Chhattisgarh which held that section 170 of the CLR Code provides for avoidance of transfer in contravention of Section 165 of the CLR Code.
Thus, we are of the view that the present appeals need to be dismissed on merits, as the appellants do not fall within the exemption clause of the Section 2(9)(A) of the PBPT Act. Further, since the matter already falls under Section 2(9)(A) of PBPT Act, the properties are rightly attached given that the same are benami properties, which the appellant (benamidar) has bought using the money given by the beneficial owner, Mr. Dwarika Gupta to defeat the provisions of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code.
Thus, the present appeals are hereby dismissed being devoid of any merits and thereby the Provisional Attachment Order dated 28.12.2023 passed by the Initiating Officer and confirmation order dated 24.10.2024 passed by the Adjudicating Authority, qua the properties mentioned in para no.1 above, is hereby upheld.
Special leave petitions - Seizure of gold - Show cause notice - Right to be heard / participation in adjudicatory proceedings - Validity of show cause notice - HELD THAT:- We do not find any infirmity in the impugned order [2025 (7) TMI 1977 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] calling for our interference. Hence, the special leave petitions are dismissed.
However, it is made clear that we have not expressed any opinion with regard to the show cause notice which is said to be now pending before the jurisdictional High Court and it is open for the High Court to consider the issues raised therein without being influenced by the observations made under the impugned order.
Issues: Whether redemption fine and personal penalty were sustainable in respect of import of J3 grade cold rolled stainless steel coils when the Technical Committee had clarified that the grade was outside the purview of the relevant quality control order.
Analysis: The appeal was decided by following an earlier Tribunal ruling on a comparable steel grade, where import was permitted after the concerned Ministry had clarified that the grade was not objectionable for import. The imported goods were identified by Customs as J3 grade, and the Ministry of Steel communication stated that grade J3 was presently outside the purview of Steel & Steel Products (Quality Control) Order, 2024 for the specified consignment. In that factual and legal setting, the basis for treating the goods as liable to redemption fine and personal penalty did not survive.
Conclusion: Redemption fine and personal penalty were held unsustainable and the appeal was allowed.
Final Conclusion: The appellant obtained relief against the penal consequences imposed on the import, on the basis that the imported grade was treated as permissible for the stated consignment.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the competent Ministry clarifies that a specified imported grade is outside the operative quality-control restriction, penal consequences based on treating that grade as objectionable import cannot be sustained.
Imposition of redemption fine and penalty - import of J3 grade Cold Rolled Stainless Steel - ministerial certificate permitting particular grade binding on other importers - identification of goods by declared grade - HELD THAT:- The advocate for the party is seeking to place reliance on the decision of Commissioner of Customs Mundra vs Shree Khatu Shyam Sales and Tubes LLP [2026 (2) TMI 302 - CESTAT AHMEDABAD] which though dealing with grade J2 but by seeking reliance on the certificate issued by the concerned Ministry that J2 Grade are not objectionable for import had allowed the benefit. The Division Bench after considering that the restriction cannot be allowed to be proceeded with, once the concerned Ministry, inter alia has agreed that the grade mentioned was permissible and has permitted the same to be imported by same or any other party, then it is to be applied for other parties as well, in this case also the same ratio applies.
Further the goods in this case have been also been identified by the customs as being J-3 grade as declared.
This court following the substance of ruling above is in agreement with the appellant that the appeal on aspects of Redemption Fine and Personal Penalty is allowable.
Issues: Whether the impugned order revoking the Customs Broker's licence was vitiated for having been passed beyond the ninety-day period prescribed after submission of the inquiry report under the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018.
Analysis: The inquiry report was submitted on 28.03.2022, while the order revoking the licence was passed on 16.08.2022. Regulation 17(7) required the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Customs to pass an order revoking suspension or revoking the licence within ninety days from the date of submission of the inquiry report. No saving clause was found in the Regulations to extend the prescribed time limit. The delay crossed the statutory period by more than thirty days and constituted a clear time violation.
Conclusion: The revocation order was unsustainable for breach of the mandatory ninety-day time limit and was set aside in favour of the appellant.
Final Conclusion: The appeal succeeded and the impugned order of revocation did not survive, leaving the appellant entitled to consequential relief according to law.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations prescribe a mandatory period for passing an order after submission of the inquiry report, non-compliance with that time limit vitiates the revocation order in the absence of any saving provision.
Revocation of customs broker's license - Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations, 2018 - time limit for passing order under Regulation 17(7) - non-compliance with statutory time limit - absence of saving clause for delayed orders - HELD THAT:- As per the timeline chart, we find that the Inquiry Report was submitted by the Assistant Commissioner Customs on 28-03-2022. The Adjudicating Authority at Para 11 of the impugned clearly states that Shri M. K. Rehman, Assistant Commissioner of Customs Calcutta and Inquiry Officer has submitted the Inquiry Report on 28-03-2022.
A careful reading of Regulation 17 (7) of the Customs Brokers Licensing Regulations 2018, shows that the Principal Commissioner is required to pass the Order of suspension / revocation within 90 days from the date of submission of the Inquiry report by the Deputy Commissioner. Admittedly, the Deputy Commissioner of the Assistant Commissioner has filed his report on 28-03-2022 as noted by the Principal Commissioner in the impugned order. Therefore, the OIO should have been passed within 90 days from 28-03-2022. We find that the present OIO has been passed on 16-08-2022, that is after more than 130 days from the date of inquiry report being submitted by the Assistant Commissioner. This is clear time-violation on the part of the Adjudicating authority. From the CBLR 2018, we do not find that there exists any saving clause if the time limit of 90 days is exceeded.
Thus, we set aside the impugned order and allow the appeal.
Issues: (i) Whether penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained against the appellant on the basis of alleged abetment without proof of knowledge of misdeclaration. (ii) Whether the Commissioner could impose penalty solely on the basis of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 without following the procedure under section 138B of that Act.
Issue (i): Whether penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962 could be sustained against the appellant on the basis of alleged abetment without proof of knowledge of misdeclaration.
Analysis: Penalty for abetment under section 112(a)(i) requires intentional aiding or active complicity, and mere facilitation without knowledge does not amount to abetment. The facts relied upon did not establish that the appellant had knowledge of the alleged misdeclaration or conscious participation in the offending import activity. In the absence of such knowledge, the statutory basis for penalty was not made out.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the appellant and against the Revenue.
Issue (ii): Whether the Commissioner could impose penalty solely on the basis of statements recorded under section 108 of the Customs Act, 1962 without following the procedure under section 138B of that Act.
Analysis: Statements recorded under section 108 become relevant in adjudication only when the conditions in section 138B are satisfied. Where clause (a) does not apply, the person making the statement must first be examined as a witness before the adjudicating authority, and the authority must then form an opinion on admissibility in the interests of justice. That mandatory procedure was not followed, so the statements could not be treated as relevant evidence for sustaining penalty.
Conclusion: The issue was decided in favour of the appellant and against the Revenue.
Final Conclusion: The penalty order could not be sustained because the essential element of knowing abetment was not established and the relied-upon statements were inadmissible in the manner used.
Ratio Decidendi: For penalty under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act, 1962, abetment requires knowledge and intentional participation, and statements recorded under section 108 of that Act cannot be relied upon in adjudication unless they are made relevant in accordance with the mandatory procedure prescribed by section 138B.
Abetment -Penalty u/s 112(a)(i) - Admissibility of statements recorded u/s 108 - Section 138B(1)(b) - requirement of examination before the adjudicating authority and formation of opinion for admission in evidence - Irrelevance of statements not admitted in accordance with statutory procedure -Whether the appellant abetted the doing or omission of an act resulting in imposition of penalty u/s 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act - HELD THAT:- In the instant case, there is no allegation against the appellant that he had knowledge of mis-declaration. Penalty under section 112(a)(i) could not have been imposed upon the appellant under the Customs Act.
Section 108 of the Customs Act deals with power to summon persons to give evidence and produce documents. It provides that any Gazetted Officer of customs shall have the power to summon any person whose attendance he considers necessary either to give evidence or to produce a document or any other thing in any inquiry which such officer is making under the Customs Act.
A Division Bench of this Tribunal in Surya Wires [2025 (4) TMI 441 - CESTAT NEW DELHI] after examining the aforesaid decisions of the High Court held that the statements made under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Customs Act shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence.
Both section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D(1)(b) of the Central Excise Act contemplate that when the provisions of clause (a) of these two sections are not applicable, then the statements made under section 14 of the Central Excise Act or under section 108 of the Customs Act during the course of an inquiry under the Acts shall be relevant for the purpose of proving the truth of the facts contained in them only when such persons are examined as witnesses before the adjudicating authority and the adjudicating authority forms an opinion that the statements should be admitted in evidence. It is thereafter that an opportunity has to be provided for cross-examination of such persons.
The provisions of section 138B(1)(b) of the Customs Act and section 9D of the Central Excise Act have been held to be mandatory and failure to comply with the procedure would mean that no reliance can be placed on the statements recorded either under section 108 of the Customs Act or under section 14D of the Central Excise Act. The Courts have also explained the rationale behind the precautions contained in the two sections. It has been observed that the statements recorded during inquiry/investigation by officers has every chance of being recorded under coercion or compulsion and it is in order to neutralize this possibility that statements of the witnesses have to be recorded before the adjudicating authority, after which such statements can be admitted in evidence.
As seen from the show cause notice and the order impugned, penalty upon the appellants has been imposed only on the basis of the statement made by the appellants under section 108 of the Customs Act. A statement made under section 108 of the Customs Act cannot be considered as relevant as the procedure contemplated under section 138B of the Customs Act was not followed.
Thus, the impugned order dated 31.03.2013 passed by the Commissioner insofar as it imposes penalty upon the appellant under section 112(a)(i) of the Customs Act cannot be sustained and is set aside and the appeal is allowed.
Issues: (i) Whether the appeal against the customs duty demand was correctly filed before the Commissioner (Appeals), Customs. (ii) Whether the demand of customs duty on the ground of non-fulfilment of NFE norms could be sustained when the NFE issue had already been adjudicated by the Development Commissioner and the penalty had been paid.
Issue (i): Whether the appeal against the customs duty demand was correctly filed before the Commissioner (Appeals), Customs.
Analysis: The duty demand was one of customs duty and the accompanying penalty arose in that context. The appellate forum could not be rejected on the ground that the matter belonged before the Commissioner (Appeals), Central Excise. The dismissal of the appeal on that jurisdictional ground was therefore erroneous.
Conclusion: The appeal was rightly maintainable before the Commissioner (Appeals), Customs, and the dismissal on that ground was unsustainable.
Issue (ii): Whether the demand of customs duty on the ground of non-fulfilment of NFE norms could be sustained when the NFE issue had already been adjudicated by the Development Commissioner and the penalty had been paid.
Analysis: The NFE default had already been dealt with by the Development Commissioner, who imposed a penalty that was subsequently paid. The Letter of Permission was thereafter renewed from time to time. In these circumstances, the Revenue had no basis to reopen the same NFE issue and sustain a customs duty demand on that footing.
Conclusion: The demand based on alleged non-fulfilment of NFE norms could not be sustained.
Final Conclusion: The impugned order was set aside and the appeal was allowed with consequential relief.
Ratio Decidendi: Where the substantive NFE issue has already been adjudicated by the competent authority and the prescribed penalty has been paid, a parallel customs demand on the same default cannot be sustained, and dismissal of the appeal on an incorrect appellate forum ground is impermissible.
Maintainability of appeal before Commissioner (Appeals) Customs - effect of prior adjudication by Development Commissioner on the same cause of action - non-fulfilment of NFE obligations - consequential relief - HELD THAT:- We find that prima facie the appellant cannot be faulted for having filed the appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) Customs, since the duty demanded was that of Customs Duty. Therefore, the Commissioner (Appeals) Customs is in error in dismissing the appeal. He should have decided the issue on merits. Since all the details towards closure of NFE issue has been provided by the appellant before us, we do not see any necessity to remand the matter to the Commissioner (Appeals) Customs.
We observe that the issue of non-fulfilment of NFE norms has already been taken up by the office of the Development Commissioner vide Order in Original dated 16.3.2017.
Thus, it is seen that the Dy Development Commissioner has adjudicated the issue of NFE and has imposed penalty of Rs.96,000/-, which has been paid by the appellant by way of the Demand Draft. After this, one renewal LOP was given vide letter dated 6.6.2014 till 30.11.2018 and second renewal LOP was given vide letter dated 29.11.2018 till 30.11.2023. These letters show that the Development Commissioner has given due consideration to the non-fulfilment of NFE and has imposed penalty, which has been paid by the appellant. Subsequently the appellant’s LOP has been renewed till 30.11.2023. Therefore, we find that the Revenue had no case to interfere in the issue of NFE and adjudicate the same demanding Customs Duty.
Thus, we set aside the impugned order and allow the appeal. The appellant would be eligible for consequential relief.
Issues: (i) Whether re-imported repaired aircraft parts are eligible for exemption from integrated goods and services tax (IGST) under Notification No.45/2017-Cus. dated 30.06.2017; (ii) Whether Notification No.36/2021-Cus. dated 19.07.2021 is clarificatory and retrospective so as to apply to periods prior to its date.
Issue (i): Eligibility of exemption under Notification No.45/2017-Cus. dated 30.06.2017 for IGST on re-imported repaired aircraft parts.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the statutory scheme defining 'duty' under Section 2(15) of the Customs Act, the charging and collection provisions for integrated tax under Section 5(1) and Section 2(12) of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, and the role of Section 3(7) and Section 3(9) of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 as procedural provisions for collection. The Tribunal analysed the language of the exemption notification and column (3) of the Table for Serial No.2, compared prior exemption practice and notifications, and considered precedents distinguishing duties leviable under the Customs Act from taxes levied under the IGST Act. The Tribunal concluded that the expression "duty of customs" in the exemption notification is to be read as duties leviable under the Customs Act and the Tariff schedules and does not, by omission, incorporate IGST or compensation cess which are levied under the IGST Act and collected under Tariff Act provisions.
Conclusion: The appellants are entitled to exemption from payment of integrated tax (IGST) under Notification No.45/2017-Cus. dated 30.06.2017 on re-import of repaired parts/aircrafts; the impugned assessment orders upholding IGST on re-imported repaired parts are set aside.
Issue (ii): Whether Notification No.36/2021-Cus. dated 19.07.2021 is clarificatory and retrospective so as to cover earlier periods.
Analysis: The Tribunal considered the effect and language of Notification No.36/2021 and the accompanying Board circular, evaluated whether the amendment merely clarified existing law or introduced an expansive substantive change, and reviewed subsequent tribunal and high court decisions addressing the retrospective character and constitutional validity of the amendment. The Tribunal followed authority concluding that the amendment expanded the tax net and was not merely clarificatory or retrospective in operation.
Conclusion: Notification No.36/2021-Cus. dated 19.07.2021 cannot be treated as clarificatory or retrospective to cover periods prior to its effective date; the amendment does not support imposing IGST for the earlier period covered by Notification No.45/2017.
Final Conclusion: The appeals filed by the assessee are allowed and the impugned assessment and appellate orders denying exemption from IGST on re-imported repaired aircraft parts under Notification No.45/2017-Cus. dated 30.06.2017 are set aside; the Revenue appeals are rejected.
Ratio Decidendi: For the purpose of exemption notifications under the Customs Act, the phrase "duty of customs" denotes duties leviable under the Customs Act as defined by Section 2(15) of the Customs Act, 1962, and does not include integrated tax levied under the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017; an amendment that substantively expands the tax net cannot be treated as a retrospective clarificatory change unless clearly expressed.
Exemption from integrated tax under Notification No.45/2017-Cus - meaning of "duty of customs" for the purpose of exemption notifications - integrated tax leviable under the IGST Act and its collection under the Customs Tariff Act - clarificatory versus substantive amendment and retrospectivity of Notification No.36/2021-Cus - challenge to vires of Notification No.36/2021-Cus - HELD THAT:- After analysing the definition of duty under the Customs Act and the definition of integrated tax under Section 2(12) of the IGST Act and levy and collection under Section 5 of the IGST Act, the Tribunal has concluded that the appellant therein are entitled to exemption under Notification No.45/2017-Cus. dated 30.06.2017 in relation to IGST.
The said judgment was also followed in a recent case viz. Air India Ltd. Vs. CC [2025 (2) TMI 320 - CESTAT NEW DELHI]. Besides, the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Interglobe Aviation Ltd. Vs. Principal Commissioner of Customs [2025 (3) TMI 347 - DELHI HIGH COURT] also held that the Notification No.36/2021-Cus dated 19.07.2021 is ultra vires.
Thus, we set aside the respective impugned orders upholding the assessment orders denying benefit of exemption to IGST under Notification No.45/2017-Cus dated 30.6.2017 and consequently, allow the appeals filed by the assessee-appellants; Revenue’s appeals are rejected. Cross objections are disposed of.
Issues: Whether the amounts paid by the investor for purchase/allotment of shares, later shown as deposits in the corporate debtor's accounts, constitute a "financial debt" within the meaning of Section 5(8) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code so as to permit filing a petition under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
Analysis: The payments were initially made as consideration for allotment/transfer of equity shares; subsequent management changes and communications evidenced an attempt to treat the amounts as deposits, and the corporate debtor's trial balance for the year ending 31.03.2018 described the amounts as long term liabilities/deposits. However, share subscription money is expressly excluded from the definition of deposit under Rule 2(c)(vii) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014. Where payments are in substance share-subscription money, they do not fall within the definition of "deposit" for the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules and, correspondingly, do not constitute "financial debt" under Section 5(8) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. The trial balance entry as "deposit" did not suffice to convert share-subscription money into a financial debt capable of sustaining a Section 7 petition.
Conclusion: The payments made for purchase/allotment of shares do not constitute a financial debt under Section 5(8) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code; consequently, the petition under Section 7 cannot be maintained. The appeal is dismissed (in favour of the respondent).
Financial debt u/s 5(8) of the IBC - share subscription money - deposit - exclusion of share subscription money from definition of deposit under Rule 2(c)(vii) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 - maintainability of a proceeding u/s 7 - acknowledgement in books as admission of liability - HELD THAT:- Very evidently, the appellant aims at a rear-guard action, but it is not without its fallacies. Is there a subsequent change of character of the money which the appellant had paid the respondent as to bring it within the definition of a financial debt? If the appellant’s payment were to be treated as share- subscription money, he straight away is driven beyond the IBC zone. If he were to give it a colour of deposit, then it would stand excluded in terms of Rule 2(c)(vii) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014. The point is how far the trial balance of the respondent referred to earlier will be of use to the appellant? It is true, the respondent goes silent on it in its pleading, but it may have least impact since it will still stand excluded from the definition of deposit in terms of Rule 2(c)(vii) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, which positively excludes share subscription amount from the definition of deposit. Therefore, even if there is no pointed finding of the Adjudicating Authority as to the existence of a financial debt, we have little hesitation in holding that there exists no financial debt which may enable the appellant to invoke IBC.
With the gates of IBC closed for the appellant to seek entry into it, we consider there is hardly any need to consider the point of limitation.
To conclude, we find no merit in the appeal, and accordingly we dismiss it.
Issues: Whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in rejecting the Section 9 application on the ground that a pre-existing dispute existed between the parties, thereby rendering the Section 9 application not maintainable.
Analysis: The Appellate Tribunal examined the record of communications, demand notices and emails exchanged between the parties and the submissions on whether the disputes pleaded by the Corporate Debtor existed prior to the issuance of the demand notice. The Tribunal considered the effect of Section 9(5)(ii)(d) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 regarding rejection where a notice of dispute has been received by the Operational Creditor or there is a record of dispute. The Tribunal evaluated whether the disputes raised by the Corporate Debtor were spurious or bona fide, having regard to the standard that a defence must truly exist and not be mere bluster or a moonshine defence; it found that the legal notice and correspondence constituted a pre-existing dispute and were not frivolous or merely evasive, and hence the Section 9 application could not be admitted.
Conclusion: The Adjudicating Authority correctly found a pre-existing dispute and rightly rejected the Section 9 application; the appeal is dismissed (decision in favour of the Respondent).
Pre existing dispute - Operational debt - Section 9(5)(ii)(d) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - Mobilox standard for spurious or moonshine defences - acknowledgement of debt - HELD THAT:- With respect to the issue of maintainability the Appellant claims that the instant application is maintainable as the amounts claimed are ‘Operational debt’ as per laws laid down by various Courts/Tribunals as the Commission for the business transacted during the currency of C & F to the tune of Rs. 2,22,221/- is due till the filing of application as also the rent to the tune of Rs. 3,30,300/- is due till filing of application.
The instant application has been filed on 24.02.2020, i.e. before the increase in the Pecuniary Jurisdiction owing to Covid-19, henceforth, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the matter is to the tune of Rs. 1.00 Lacs, as per which the matter squarely falls within the ambit of IB Code.
Perusal of the email and also the implications of the emails does not indicate that this is an acknowledgement of the debt. The email alongwith the subsequent demand notice indicates existence of pre-existing dispute. During the oral arguments the Appellant also claimed that an information was leaked from his office and Respondent took advantage of that and issued a demand notice. This court is not to look into the issues relating to the existence and the reasons of dispute.
We observe that Section 9(5)(ii)(d) provides that Adjudicating Authority shall reject the Application under Section 9, if notice of dispute has been received by the Operational Creditor or if there is a record of dispute in the information utility. In this case, we find a legal notice has been issued raising various disputes. We further find that the disputes raised are not moonshine or frivolous disputes which have been created to avoid admission of Section 9 Application. And for the above noted reasons, the judgements of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mobilox Innovations Pvt. [2017 (9) TMI 1270 - SUPREME COURT] and M/s Saraswati Wire and Cable Industries Vs Mohammad Moinuddin Khan [2025 (12) TMI 770 - SUPREME COURT] cited by the Appellant will not help his case.
Thus, we find that there is a pre-existing dispute between the Appellant and the Respondent basis which Section 9 proceeding could not have been initiated against the Respondent. We do not find any infirmity in the order of Adjudicating Authority and we find it has rightly rejected Section 9 Application.
Issues: (i) Whether a demand notice issued in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Insolvency Resolution Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules, 2019 can be treated as a notice invoking a continuing guarantee for the purpose of initiating proceedings under Section 95 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Analysis: The statutory scheme requires that an application under Section 95 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 be accompanied by particulars demonstrating (inter alia) the debt owed by the debtor, failure to pay within fourteen days of service of a notice of demand and relevant evidence of default. Rule 7(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Insolvency Resolution Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules, 2019 prescribes service of a demand notice under clause (b) of sub-section (4) of Section 95 in Form B. Rule 3(1)(e) of the 2019 Rules defines 'guarantor' as a person in respect of whom the guarantee has been invoked by the creditor and remains unpaid in full or part. The definitions of "debt" and "default" in Sections 3(11) and 3(12) of the Code indicate that debt must be due and default is non-payment when the debt is due and payable. The deed of guarantee in the case is a continuing on-demand guarantee which makes the guarantor liable only upon demand in terms of the guarantee deed. Coordinate decisions of this Tribunal have held that where the deed of guarantee makes liability contingent on a demand, default on the part of the guarantor arises only after invocation/demand as per the guarantee, and that notice in Form B under Rule 7(1) is not a separate substitute for a prior invocation when the guarantee requires an explicit demand. Applying these principles to the admitted facts that no separate invocation/demand preceded issuance of Form B, the requirement that the guarantor's liability be invoked before initiating Section 95 proceedings is not satisfied.
Conclusion: Issue (i) is answered in favour of the appellant. A demand notice in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the 2019 Rules cannot be treated as a notice invoking a continuing guarantee where the deed of guarantee requires a distinct invocation; in absence of prior invocation and resultant default by the guarantor, initiation of proceedings under Section 95 is impermissible.
Invocation of guarantee - demand notice in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the Personal Guarantor Rules, 2019 - definition of "guarantor" in Rule 3(1)(e) of the Personal Guarantor Rules, 2019 - requirement of default by guarantor at the time of issuance of Form B - interpretation of Section 95(4) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - continuing/demand guarantee and liability arising on demand
Invocation of guarantee - demand notice in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the Personal Guarantor Rules, 2019 - definition of "guarantor" in Rule 3(1)(e) of the Personal Guarantor Rules, 2019 - Whether a demand notice issued in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the Personal Guarantor Rules, 2019 can be treated as a notice invoking the guarantee for the purposes of initiating proceedings under Section 95 of the Code. - HELD THAT: - The Tribunal construed Section 95(4) read with Rule 7(1) and Rule 3(1)(e) of the 2019 Rules in light of the statutory definitions of "debt" and "default". Rule 3(1)(e) contemplates a "guarantor" as one in respect of whom the guarantee has been invoked and remains unpaid. The scheme requires that default by the guarantor exist on the date the Form B demand notice is issued. The terms of the guarantee deed-being a continuing/demand guarantee-make the guarantor's liability arise upon invocation (demand) in accordance with the deed. Reliance on precedents of coordinate Benches (including the decisions reproduced in the judgment) reinforced that a separate act of invocation, as per the guarantee's terms, is necessary and that Form B demand alone cannot be equated to invocation where the deed contemplates a distinct demand. Applying these principles to the facts, the Tribunal found no record of a distinct invocation of the guarantee prior to issuance of the Form B notice and held that Form B cannot be treated as an invocation of the guarantee. [Paras 35, 37, 38, 39, 44]
Notice in Form B under Rule 7(1) is not, by itself, a notice invoking the guarantee; invocation in accordance with the guarantee's terms must exist for a guarantor to be a "debtor" for the purposes of Section 95.
Interpretation of Section 95(4) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - requirement of default by guarantor at the time of issuance of Form B - consequences of non-invocation on maintainability of Section 95 petition - Whether the Adjudicating Authority erred in admitting the Section 95 application in absence of invocation of the guarantee, and the consequent relief to be granted. - HELD THAT: - Applying the conclusion that invocation must precede or be demonstrable at the time Form B is issued, the Tribunal examined the record and found it admitted by the parties that no separate invocation of the guarantee occurred prior to the Form B notice. Since default on the part of the guarantor had therefore not arisen as required by Section 95(4)(b) and the Rules, the admission of the Section 95 petition was contrary to the statutory scheme. The Tribunal concurred with coordinate Benches that non-invocation renders the insolvency application against the guarantor unsustainable and that the Adjudicating Authority's admission was a mistake. In view of this, the impugned order admitting the petition was set aside. The Tribunal also recorded concern at the Bank officials' conduct in filing the petition without invoking the guarantee and directed that a copy of the judgment be forwarded to the Chairman of the Bank for information. [Paras 45, 46]
Impugned admission of the Section 95 petition is set aside for lack of invocation/default by the guarantor; appeal allowed and the petition admitted by the Adjudicating Authority is quashed. A copy of this judgment is to be forwarded to the Chairman of UCO Bank.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed. The Tribunal held that a Form B demand notice under Rule 7(1) does not, by itself, constitute invocation of a continuing/demand guarantee; invocation in accordance with the guarantee's terms must be shown and default by the guarantor must exist at the time Form B is issued. In the absence of any distinct invocation on the record, the Adjudicating Authority erred in admitting the Section 95 petition; the impugned order is set aside and a copy of this judgment is to be forwarded to the Chairman of UCO Bank.
Issues: (i) Whether liquidated damages claim can be adjudicated in summary proceedings under the Code; (ii) Whether pre-existing disputes existed prior to the Section 8 demand notice and thereby barred admission of CIRP under Section 9; (iii) Whether the completion certificate issued by the corporate debtor amounted to an unqualified acceptance of work to the creditor's satisfaction.
Issue (i): Whether liquidated damages claim can be determined in summary proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Analysis: The Tribunal considered the Adjudicating Authority's finding that veracity of deductions on account of liquidated damages involves detailed examination not amenable to the summary admission process under the Code. The Code contemplates summary disposal at the admission stage and does not require the Adjudicating Authority to decide complex contractual disputes on merits.
Conclusion: The issue of liquidated damages cannot be decided in summary proceedings under the Code. Conclusion in favour of the Respondent.
Issue (ii): Whether there were pre-existing disputes regarding the contractual work prior to the demand notice under Section 8 of the Code, sufficient to preclude admission of CIRP under Section 9.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the record of communications and the Adjudicating Authority's reliance on multiple communications predating the demand notice. The Tribunal applied the statutory framework distinguishing Section 7 and Section 9 regimes and the requirement that the Adjudicating Authority satisfy itself at the admission stage whether a bona fide pre-existing dispute exists without conducting a full trial.
Conclusion: There existed pre-existing disputes prior to the Section 8 demand notice which were substantial for the purposes of admission under Section 9. Conclusion in favour of the Respondent.
Issue (iii): Whether the completion certificate operated as an unconditional acceptance of work to the creditor's satisfaction thereby negating disputes.
Analysis: The Tribunal noted the completion certificate contained express caveats, obligations to rectify defect liabilities and other qualifications. Considering the existence of prior communications raising defects and the conditional nature of the certificate, the certificate could not be treated as an unqualified acceptance resolving the disputes.
Conclusion: The completion certificate, being subject to caveats and continuing defect liabilities, does not constitute an unqualified acceptance that negates the pre-existing disputes. Conclusion in favour of the Respondent.
Final Conclusion: The Adjudicating Authority correctly held that (i) liquidated damages are not amenable to summary adjudication at the admission stage, (ii) bona fide pre-existing disputes existed prior to the demand notice, and (iii) the completion certificate was conditional; accordingly the Section 9 application could not be admitted and the appeal is dismissed.
Ratio Decidendi: Where a creditor's claim involves substantive contractual disputes (including bona fide pre-existing disputes or contested liquidated damages) and the completion certification is conditional, the Adjudicating Authority at the Section 9 admission stage need only determine existence of such disputes and must refuse admission rather than adjudicate those disputes on merits.
Pre-existing dispute u/s 5(6) of the Code - admission of CIRP application u/s 9(2) - completeness and absence of pre-existing dispute - liquidated damages not amenable to summary determination in CIRP admission proceedings - completion certificate issued subject to caveats does not preclude raising contractual disputes -
Liquidated damages not amenable to summary determination in CIRP admission proceedings - HELD THAT:- It is the case of the Appellant that since no payment was received by the Appellant, the Appellant issued Demand Notice under Section 8 of the Code on 26.09.2020 which was replied by the Respondent on 08.10.2020 raising issue of imposition of liquidated damages due to alleged delay in completion of work and also raised issue regarding pre-existing disputes. Unsatisfied with the reply of the Respondent, the Appellant filed Section 9 Application before the Adjudicating Authority on 22.12.2020 which was rejected by the Adjudicating Authority vide its Impugned Order dated 24.04.2024.
We note that the Adjudicating Authority has gone through the aspect of liquidated damages and concluded that the issue of liquidated damages cannot be dealt under summary trial under the Code.
Since, the Adjudicating Authority has held that liquidated damages issue cannot be decided in summary proceedings which seems logical. We do not find any error in the Impugned Order on this issue.
Pre-existing dispute under Section 5(6) of the Code - admission of CIRP application under Section 9(2) - completeness and absence of pre-existing dispute - HELD THAT:- The Respondent has been constantly raising issue regarding quality of work which tantamount to pre-existing disputes. It may also be kept in view that the Adjudicating Authority is conducting summary proceedings and is not expected to go in detailed scrutiny of evidence. The Adjudicating Authority should look into whether the dispute tantamount to be substantial, genuine and bona-fide and not spurious, speculative, illusory or misconceived. The Adjudicating Authority at the stage of admission of CIRP is not expected to hold a full trial in the matter and it must be decided whether the ground appears to be substantial. It is also a settled law that if such operational debt are bona-fide disputed on substantial ground, the Adjudicating Authority ought to dismiss the petition and such parties are required to seek other alternative legal recourse.
Above clearly support the cause of the Respondent. The Impugned Order also draws full support from above judgement. We note that the Respondent has indeed sent as many as 89 emails raising several issues or defects, which clearly indicates pre-existing disputes.
By no statute of imaginations, the Adjudicating Authority is expected to look into 89 said e-mail sent by the Respondent to the Appellant, before demand notice by received by the Respondent. Thus, we do not find any error in the Impugned Order on the issue regarding pre-existing dispute.
Completion certificate issued subject to caveats does not preclude raising contractual disputes - Looking into the completion certificate, we are conscious of the fact that completion of project in time, along with requisite quality, is the heart of the contract management. It can be no one’s case that extra-ordinary delay which changes viability of the project can be simply brushed aside and should not be taken into consideration while deciding Section 9 application under the Code by the Adjudicating Authority. Simultaneously, we also need to acknowledge the fact that in commercial world, occasional delay may happen and may be attributable to both parties. We also need to factor into consideration, if finally, project was completed to satisfaction of the Corporate Debtor and whether the same was accepted by the Corporate Debtor without any caveats and qualification. In the instant appeal we note carefully that the Corporate Debtor issued the completion certificate with many caveats. In such background, the alleged completion certificate, cannot be treated as acceptance of work to satisfaction the Corporate Debtor, ignoring 89 emails sent by the Respondent to Appellant on pre-existing dispute prior to receipt of Demand Notice. Thus, the above mentioned completion certificate cannot be treated as without any caveat or clear certification the work, as claimed by the Appellant and therefore, do not support cause of the Appellant.
We do not find any error in above finding by the Adjudicating Authority.
Appeal is devoid of any merit and stand rejected.
Issues: (i) whether the application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was barred by limitation; (ii) whether the debt claimed on the basis of the arbitral award was a financial debt and could be relied upon for admission of the insolvency application despite the challenge to the award.
Issue (i): whether the application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 was barred by limitation.
Analysis: The default arose out of the parties' arrangement and the arbitral award was passed on 20.02.2019. The application under Section 7 was filed on 30.05.2022. The period of limitation was held to be governed by the extension granted during the Covid-19 period by the Supreme Court. The subsequent dismissal of the challenge to the award also negatived the plea that the claim was stale.
Conclusion: The application was held to be within limitation and the plea of bar of limitation was rejected.
Issue (ii): whether the debt claimed on the basis of the arbitral award was a financial debt and could be relied upon for admission of the insolvency application despite the challenge to the award.
Analysis: The amount claimed was founded on the memorandum of understanding and the arbitral award, both of which acknowledged the liability. The award had already been upheld in the challenge before the District Court, the interim protection from the High Court stood vacated for non-compliance, and the further challenge before the Supreme Court did not succeed. In these circumstances, the award was treated as operative and executable, and the debt was treated as falling within the definition of financial debt.
Conclusion: The debt was held to be a financial debt and the insolvency admission was sustained.
Final Conclusion: No ground was found to interfere with the admission order, and the insolvency appeal was rejected.
Ratio Decidendi: An insolvency application based on an arbitral award may be treated as within limitation where the relevant period is saved by the Supreme Court's extension of limitation, and a debt acknowledged under the underlying transaction and confirmed by an executable award can form the basis for admission when the challenge to the award has failed.
Admission u/s 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - financial debt - date of default and limitation - finality and enforceability of arbitral award - ex parte proceedings - HELD THAT:- There is no dispute that MOU was executed between the parties on 24.01.2015 and the CD has acknowledged the entire receipt of amount of 75 lakhs. There is also no dispute that the CD continuously failed to honour the terms and conditions from the very beginning i.e from 10.02.2015 till the matter was referred to the arbitrator and statement of claim was filed on 20.02.2018. The Arbitrator gave his award on 20.02.2019 which is in the nature of a decree and is executable, therefore, if the application is filed on 30.05.2022 from the date of award dated 20.02.2019, the order passed by the Hon’ble Supreme court in Suo Motu Writ Petition No. 3 of 2020 would come to the rescue of the Appellant in so far as the limitation is concerned.
The non-appearance of the CD in the Tribunal in which it was proceeded against ex-parte would also indicate that the CD had scant respect for the judicial process because it was ex-parte before the Arbitrator as well.
The CD cannot be permitted to take the plea that the award dated 20.02.2019 has not attained finality despite the fact that the CD had lost one round of litigation up to the Hon’ble Supreme Court and has failed on merit in appeal before the District Court. Although we will refrain from commenting upon the act and conduct of the CD but suffice it to say that it had no intention, at any time, to make the payment of the Financial Creditor because it was already declared defaulter by the Bank when it obtained loan from the banks and committed default coupled with the fact that the CD at the time when it obtained the loan from the financial creditor and entered into MOU, did not disclose that the it had already been declared defaulter or NPA by the Banks.
Thus, we are of the considered opinion that there is hardly any merit in this appeal for the purpose of interference in the well-considered order of the Tribunal, hence, the appeal is dismissed though without any order as to costs.
Issues: Whether the corporate insolvency application was liable to be admitted when the contractual payment was stipulated on a back-to-back basis and the alleged default was said to have arisen before receipt of funds from the insurer.
Analysis: The parties were bound by the contractual terms providing that payment to the contractor would be made by the company only after receipt of payment from the insurer. The record did not show that the insurer's payment had been received by the respondent and then withheld from the appellant. The material placed, including the RTI-based information, only indicated payment by the Government to the insurer and did not establish remittance to the respondent. On that basis, the element of default necessary for proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was not proved.
Conclusion: The application under Section 9 was not maintainable on the facts proved because default was not established. The dismissal of the insolvency petition was and the appeal failed.
Default - operational creditor - debt and default requirement under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code - back-to-back payment obligation - pre-existing dispute - inadmissibility of Section 9 application where default not proved - Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) - HELD THAT:- Since, the parties are bound by the terms and conditions of the agreement in which it has been clearly stipulated that the payment shall be made by the company to the contractor back to back as per the payment received by the company from the Insurer. There is no evidence brought on record by the Appellant that the payment has been received by them from the insurer i.e. NIC except that the information collected under the RTI which is in regard to the payment by the Govt. to NIC but there is no evidence that it was further paid the respondent.
Thus, in view thereof, there was no default on the part of the Respondent and hence, the Tribunal has rightly dismissed the application of the Appellant because the application under Section 7 or 9 of the Code can be admitted only if the debt and default both are proved to be in existence.
We do not find any merit in the present appeal and the same is hereby dismissed, however, without any order as to costs.
Issues: Whether the applications filed by the personal guarantors under Section 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 were barred by limitation, and whether pendency of proceedings under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 or the principle applied in Sesh Nath Singh entitled them to exclusion of time.
Analysis: The applications under Section 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 are subject to the three-year period prescribed by Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963. In the present case, the relevant defaults and invocation of guarantees had occurred between 2013 and 2017, whereas the applications were filed only on 05.04.2023. The pendency of recovery proceedings before the DRT under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 did not extend limitation for the personal guarantors' insolvency applications, and the exclusion principle under Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 was held inapplicable on the facts.
Conclusion: The limitation objection was upheld. The applications under Section 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 were time-barred, and the reliance on Sesh Nath Singh did not assist the appellants.
Final Conclusion: The tribunal affirmed dismissal of the guarantors' insolvency applications because they were instituted beyond the prescribed limitation period and no exclusion of time was available on the facts.
Ratio Decidendi: An application by a personal guarantor under Section 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is governed by Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, and pendency of parallel SARFAESI or DRT proceedings does not, by itself, justify exclusion of time.
Application u/s 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 - limitation under Article 137 of the Limitation Act - invocation of guarantee - proceedings under the SARFAESI Act and exclusion u/s 14 of the Limitation Act - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that all the banks initiated proceedings under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 (‘Act, 2002’) by issuance of notice under Section 13(2) of the Act, 2002 and the proceedings initiated at the instance of the consortium banks are pending before the DRT, Chandigarh in which OA. No. 4524 of 2007 is filed by IDBI Bank, OA No. 5546 of 2017 is filed by State Bank of India and OA No. 4494 of 2017 is filed by Indian Bank (earlier Allahabad Bank).
No merit in the present appeals because, firstly, the application under Section 94 is filed when the debtor who had committed a default and is unable to pay the said amount can apply through RP to the AA for initiation of the insolvency but limitation period of three years, as envisaged in Article 137 of the Act, has to apply to the said application as well.
In the present case, not only that the NPA was declared in the year 2013 and 2014 but also the guarantee was invoked in the year 2016 and 2017. At that time, the Appellants who had extended guarantee to the CD which was already in CIRP, knew about the fact that such kind of application can be filed within a period of three years yet they chose to file the same on 05.04.2023 after the expiry of almost of six years.
In such circumstances, the Tribunal had not committed any error in dismissing the application.
Issues: (i) Whether the CIRP admitted under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 should be continued or closed in view of subsequent developments including settlement/conciliation and promoter funding for completion of the project; (ii) Whether construction of the real estate project may proceed funded by the promoter under the supervision of the interim resolution professional and related consequential directions.
Issue (i): Whether the CIRP admitted under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 should be continued or closed in view of subsequent developments including settlement/conciliation and promoter funding for completion of the project.
Analysis: The admissions under Section 7 were challenged in appeals where intervening events included a registered association of allottees entering into a conciliation agreement with the corporate debtor, affidavits indicating that certain petitioning allottees no longer wished to pursue Section 7 proceedings, and material placed on record showing promoter readiness to fund construction and requisite regulatory no objections. Status reports filed by the interim resolution professional record steps taken towards commencement of construction and regulatory clearances or applications for renewal. The combination of a settlement framework among stakeholders, promoter funding proposals, and supervisory involvement by the interim resolution professional formed the factual basis for reassessing continuation of CIRP.
Conclusion: The admission of CIRP under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is closed.
Issue (ii): Whether construction of the real estate project may proceed funded by the promoter under the supervision of the interim resolution professional and what consequential directions follow.
Analysis: The record includes promoter undertakings and documentation of regulatory clearances and applications, alongside status reports from the interim resolution professional describing preparatory steps and arrangements with a new developer. Given the nature of the asset as a real estate project and the expressed support of a significant body of allottees for completion, continued CIRP was not necessary to achieve completion. The interim resolution professional is directed to take appropriate steps to enable construction to proceed under supervision, and the IRP is to be paid fees and reasonable expenses incurred in the CIRP to date. Liberty is granted to requisite allottees to initiate fresh proceedings under Section 7 if grounds exist.
Conclusion: Construction may proceed funded by the promoter under the supervision of the interim resolution professional; IRP to be paid fees and reasonable expenses; liberty to eligible allottees to initiate fresh Section 7 proceedings is granted.
Final Conclusion: The appeals are allowed by closing the CIRP and permitting promoter-funded construction under IRP supervision, while preserving the right of eligible allottees to file fresh Section 7 proceedings if justified.
Ratio Decidendi: Where stakeholders effect a settlement framework and the promoter undertakes to fund completion of a real estate project with supervisory oversight by the interim resolution professional and necessary regulatory permissions, continuation of a CIRP admitted under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 may be closed and construction permitted to proceed under supervision, subject to payment of IRP fees and preservation of the right to initiate fresh proceedings by eligible creditors.
Closure of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process - funding of construction by promoter under supervision of Insolvency Resolution Professional - admission of Section 7 application - reverse CIRP - liberty to allottees to initiate fresh proceedings under Section 7 - threshold under proviso to Section 7 - HELD THAT:- As noted, the application under Section 7 filed by Meena Porwal and 65 other applicants. Reply Affidavit has been filed by Meena Porwal and certain other Respondents, as noted above. It is useful to notice the Reply Affidavit which was filed by Meena Porwal, Respondent No.2 herein.
Construction by the fund of Promoter under the supervision of IRP has already been directed by this Tribunal, as noted. A detailed Status Report and Affidavit have been brought on record which indicate that various necessary steps taken towards commencement of construction and obtaining no objection from various authorities. NOC dated 06.05.2025 from Greater Noida Authority has been brought on the record.
We see no reason to continue the CIRP any further. The construction of the project may continue with the funding by the Promoter as submitted before us. The CIRP is closed. We, however, grant liberty to the requisite number of allottees to initiate any fresh proceeding under Section 7, if any cause for initiating the proceeding is made out. IRP shall be paid his fees and reasonable expenses incurred in the CIRP process so far by the Corporate Debtor. With the aforesaid, both the appeals are disposed of.
Issues: (i) Whether the provisional attachment of the South Goa land parcel and connected bank balances of Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. was sustainable on the footing that the property represented proceeds of crime. (ii) Whether the attachment of the shares and other properties of Authentic Finance Pvt. Ltd., KJV Estates Pvt. Ltd. and the 5 LLP entities was justified on the basis of the alleged receipt and layering of proceeds of crime.
Issue (i): Whether the provisional attachment of the South Goa land parcel and connected bank balances of Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. was sustainable on the footing that the property represented proceeds of crime.
Analysis: The attachment could stand only if the property itself, or the traced value represented by it, had a nexus with the tainted funds. The record showed that the Goa land was acquired before the alleged diversion of homebuyers' funds commenced, and the lease premium had been paid from independent funds mobilised through a third party. The Tribunal also noted that the money from Unitech moved to other entities under the stated arrangements, but not to Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. for acquisition of the land. On that footing, the land parcel could not be treated as property derived from proceeds of crime. As to the bank balances, the Tribunal did not find sufficient basis to interfere completely and confined its interference only to the land parcel.
Conclusion: The provisional attachment of the Goa land parcel was unsustainable and was set aside, while the bank balance attachment was not wholly interfered with.
Issue (ii): Whether the attachment of the shares and other properties of Authentic Finance Pvt. Ltd., KJV Estates Pvt. Ltd. and the 5 LLP entities was justified on the basis of the alleged receipt and layering of proceeds of crime.
Analysis: The Tribunal accepted that the investigation established a money trail from Unitech to Authentic Finance Pvt. Ltd. and KJV Estates Pvt. Ltd. in relation to the share arrangements and related transactions, and held that the non-fulfilment of the agreed terms did not negate the receipt of tainted funds. The objection based on the date of inclusion of IPC offences in the PMLA Schedule was rejected because the relevant inquiry was the laundering process and projection of tainted money as untainted, not the date of the predicate acts. However, for the LLP entities, the Tribunal found that they came into existence much later than the relevant diversion period and that no reliable trail linked their assets to proceeds of crime. It further held that, if at all, only the corresponding share interests could have been attached, not the assets of the LLPs themselves.
Conclusion: The attachment of the shares and related properties of Authentic Finance Pvt. Ltd. and KJV Estates Pvt. Ltd. was upheld, while the attachment of the properties of the 5 LLP entities was set aside.
Final Conclusion: The appeals succeeded only to the limited extent of the Goa land parcel and the LLP properties, and failed in relation to the remaining attachments, leaving the impugned orders partly undisturbed and partly interfered with.
Ratio Decidendi: In a PMLA attachment challenge, the decisive test is whether the attached property has a traceable nexus with proceeds of crime or their equivalent value, and the relevant inquiry focuses on the laundering and projection of tainted funds rather than the date of the underlying predicate offence.
Provisional attachment of property under PMLA - proceeds of crime and money trail nexus - diverted the home buyer’s funds on non-mandated heads causing wrongful loss to the investors - relevant date for scheduled offence in relation to ECIR - use of forensic audit as guidance and its limitations - value equivalent attachment - distinction between attaching LLP property and attaching shares held by a third party -
Use of forensic audit as guidance and its limitations - HELD THAT:- The limitation indicated in the report shows that the complete record was not provided so as to hold the report to be conclusive and to be applied to address the issues raised by the appellants. The bare perusal of the disclaimer of M/s Grant Thornton makes it further clear that their results of work with respect to review of application of Homebuyer funds and misappropriation of collected amount should be considered as a guide.
The perusal of the report quoted above reveals disclosure to the effect that it is without any guarantee of its reliability or completeness and for that the report should be used for guidance purpose only. It should not form basis for any decision to a potential course of action without independent confirmation and its findings. The appellants have grossly relied on M/s Grant Thornton report ignoring the disclaimer and limitation spelt out therein and has been quoted by us. The reference of the report of M/s Grant Thornton by the respondents may be for the purpose of reference only. The ED has made independent investigation and collected the documents to show transfer of money to M/s KJV Estates and M/s AFPL out of the proceeds of crime which was nothing but the hard-earned money of home buyers cheated by M/s Unitech Ltd. by their deeds and accordingly transferred the amount for non-mandated purpose.
Relevant date for scheduled offence in relation to ECIR - HELD THAT:- The ECIR was recorded finding a case for an offence under Section 3 of the Act of 2002. The relevant time to find out the offence is the date when ECIR was recorded finding an offence under Section 3 of the Act and it can be taken up when there exists a scheduled offence which admittedly was existing at the time of recording the ECIR. The relevant date would not be the date of offence but when the appellants tried to project tainted money to be untainted and even concealed it coupled with the other acts to make out an offence under Section 3 of the Act of 2002. We may refer the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Dyani Antony Paul and Ors. vs. Union of India and Ors. [2020 (12) TMI 1296 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT]
The argument raised by the appellants in reference to Notification dated 01.06.2009 to add offence under Section 420,120-B IPC in the Schedule so as to question the provisional attachment for the commission of offence prior to it is not acceptable.
Proceeds of crime and money trail nexus - provisional attachment of shares and related assets - HELD THAT:-We find that the home buyers funds were not diverted to M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd under the MOU thus, provisional attachment of the 65% of the land parcel in South Goa acquired by M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. cannot be said to be proper. It is pertinent to state that the money traveled from M/s Unitech Ltd. to M/s AFPL, M/s CMPL and M/s KJV Estates Pvt. Ltd. but not to M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd under the agreement. It was further alleged by the counsel for the respondents that no shares were transferred by M/s AFPL to M/s Unitech Ltd. in terms of the MOU dated 15.06.2007 and the subsequent agreement dated 15.11.2007. The counsel for the appellant M/s AFPL has argued that physical delivery of 5000 shares belonging to M/s KJV Estates were transferred to M/s Unitech Ltd. We find that documents for share transfer is a part of record for transfer of 5000 shares to M/s Unitech Ltd. by M/s KJV Estates. The document has not been disputed by the respondents thus we find the argument of the appellants as substantiated by documentary evidence for transfer of 5000 shares to M/s Unitech Ltd. and if it was not transferred then could have been attached and not the land at Goa in the name of M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd.
The consequential effect relevant is even the bank account of M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. which is an amount of Rs. 1.33 lakhs in all. It seems to be connected with the advances and loan alleged to have been extended to M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. We find that the amount of Rs. 1.8 Crores was paid for completion of formality of the land parcel allotted by Goa Industrial Development Council and, therefore, the material has not been put to show receipt of the amount aforesaid by M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. The same is the position about the loan amount said to have been credited in the account of M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. In any case, we are not inclined to cause interference in the provisional attachment of the bank account to the extent of amount lying therein at the time of provisional attachment.
The issue now remains regarding attachment of the property of appellant 5 LLPs. The facts on record shows that those LLPs came into existence in the year 2014 and onwards i.e. much subsequent to the period for diversion of funds by M/s Unitech Ltd. It is coupled with the fact that the alleged diversion of funds was used and consumed by M/s Authentic Finance Pvt. Ltd. and M/s KJV Estates Pvt. Ltd. for the properties much prior to the constitution of the LLPs thus it could not be brought on record that the proceeds of crime was diverted even to the LLPs. The money trail for the aforesaid does not reflect and prove the case. If at all and for the sake of argument it is accepted that there was a diversion of fund by M/s Authentic Finance Pvt. Ltd. to acquire 10% shares of the LLPs what could have been attached is those shares instead of the property of the LLPs may be even to the extent of 10%. Accordingly, we cause interference in the attachment of the property of LLPs also.
In the conclusion, we cause interference in the impugned orders for the land parcel of M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd. in Goa and also the provisional attachment of the properties of 5 LLPs (appellants in these appeals) while we do not find any ground to cause interference in the impugned orders for the properties qua the other appellants.
For the clarity, we have not caused interference in the provisional attachment of shares of M/s Betul Hospitality Parks Pvt. Ltd., rather it is only for the land parcel. The appeals are disposed of with the aforesaid.
Issues: Whether rejection of refund of unutilized CENVAT credit on the grounds of absence of nexus and minor procedural defects is sustainable where the CENVAT credit, when availed, was not objected to by the department.
Analysis: The legal framework for the claim is Rule 5 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 read with Notification No. 05/2006-CE (N.T.) dated 14.03.2006 and Section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944, together with clarifications in Circular No. 120/01/2010-ST dated 19.01.2010. The authorities had not challenged the correctness or admissibility of the CENVAT credit at the time of its availment and no proceedings under Rule 14 of the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 were initiated to disallow the credit. Binding and persuasive precedents, including the Tribunal's earlier decision in the appellant's own case and the Qualcomm line of decisions, hold that where credit availed is not questioned at the time of availment, denial of refund under Rule 5 on grounds of nexus or minor procedural defects is impermissible; procedural infirmities such as absence of service tax registration number, PAN-based registration number or non-issuance on registered premises do not justify denial of refund if the receipt and use of input services for exported output services is established. Applying these principles to the facts, the input services involved correspond to recognized input services in prior decisions and the department raised no substantive objection at the stage of availment.
Conclusion: The impugned orders upholding rejection of refund are set aside and the appeal is allowed; the appellant is entitled to the refund of the unutilized CENVAT credit as claimed.
Refund of unutilized CENVAT credit - nexus between input service and output service - input service - CENVAT Credit Rules - Rule 5 refund - availment not to be reopened at refund stage - procedural infirmities not to defeat substantive refund claim - Whether the learned Commissioner (Appeals) is right in upholding rejection of refund of CENVAT credit due to absence of nexus and other grounds when the said CENVAT credit, when availed, was not objected. -HELD THAT:- As regards nexus, we find that each of the input service involved in the present case, was held to be ‘input service’ by various decisions of the Tribunal. In this regard, we may refer to the service-wise ‘input services’ and the decisions vide which it has been held to be ‘input service’.
Since the identical input services as involved in the present case, were also involved in the Appellant’s own case [2025 (7) TMI 564 - CESTAT CHANDIGARH] for the previous period, wherein this Tribunal has considered various case laws and has held that refund cannot be denied on the ground of nexus as well as minor procedural infirmities such as input service invoices are incomplete as the same are not bearing Service Tax Registration No., PAN based Service Tax Registration Number of the service provider, or not being issued on the address of registered premises of the Appellant etc.
Thus, we are of the considered opinion that the impugned order is not sustainable in law; consequently, we set aside the same and allow the appeal of the Appellant with consequential relief, if any, as per law.
Issues: Whether a service tax demand and invocation of the extended period of limitation can be sustained solely on the basis of entries in Income Tax Returns/Form 26AS without independent or corroborative evidence connecting the receipts to taxable services.
Analysis: The Tribunal examined the Show Cause Notice, the adjudicating order and the Commissioner (Appeals) order where the demand was confirmed on the basis of data obtained from the Income Tax Department (Form 26AS). The appellant produced the work order indicating that service tax was within the scope of the service recipient and submitted that they had a bonafide belief that no service tax was payable. The Tribunal reviewed its own and other Division Bench decisions and relevant precedents which hold that entries in income tax returns or Form 26AS, standing alone, do not constitute sufficient evidence to establish liability under the service tax law. The Tribunal emphasised the necessity of independent/corroborative evidence linking the receipts to taxable services and the need for identification of the service provider, service recipient and consideration. Applying these principles to the record, including the appellant's work order and the absence of corroborative service tax records, the Tribunal found that the extended period provisions could not be validly invoked merely on the basis of Form 26AS data.
Conclusion: The demand of service tax confirmed solely on the basis of Income Tax Department data/Form 26AS, without corroborative evidence, is unsustainable; the impugned order is set aside and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: A demand under the service tax provisions based solely on Income Tax Returns/Form 26AS is not sustainable and the extended period of limitation cannot be invoked unless independent or corroborative evidence is produced to establish rendition of taxable service and the consideration therefor.
Reliance on Form 26AS/Income Tax data for invocation of extended period - burden of corroborative evidence to establish rendition of taxable service - bona fide belief based on contractual work order negating service tax liability - HELD THAT:- Being merely a job worker undertaking fabrication, the appellant can be said to entertain bonafide belief that no Service Tax liability raises on him. Moreover the Work Order itself specifies that Service Tax is not applicable on the appellant but is within the scope of the receiver of the service. Therefore, the benefits of the appellant cannot be doubted. I also observe that the Show Cause Notice has been issued after more than four years after the amount were received by the appellant in 2015-16.
The Tribunals have been consistently holding that extended period provisions cannot be invoked based on the Income Tax Return alone.
This Tribunal in the case of Tabassum Enterprises vs. C, CGST & CX [2025 (9) TMI 1275 - CESTAT KOLKATA] held that " the demand of service tax confirmed in the impugned order, solely relying the data received from CBDT, without adducing corroborative evidence in support, cannot be sustained. "
Following the ratio of the cited case law, set aside the impugned order and allow the appeal filed by the appellant.
Issues: (i) Whether a demand for service tax can be sustained against one unit of a single legal entity where the same service tax has already been paid by another unit of the same legal entity; (ii) Whether extended period of limitation under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 is invocable where tax has already been paid by another unit of the same legal entity and whether consequent interest and penalties can be sustained.
Issue (i): Whether a second demand for the same service tax can be made when one unit of the same legal entity has already paid the tax under a different registration or accounting code.
Analysis: The matter involves application of the reverse charge liability framework under Section 66A of the Finance Act, 1994 read with Rule 2(1)(d)(iv) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 and authorities holding that payment of service tax by one unit of the same legal entity cannot be treated as non-payment for another unit. Precedents establish that internal remittance under a different registration or accounting code, where payment on the same taxable event has been made by another unit of the same legal entity, cannot justify a fresh demand and that departmental adjustment remedies are available instead of double recovery.
Conclusion: Demand in respect of tax already paid by another unit of the same legal entity is not sustainable and is set aside. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the extended period of limitation under Section 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994, and consequential interest and penalties under Sections 75, 76, 77 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994, are invocable where service tax on the same transaction has already been paid by another unit of the same legal entity.
Analysis: Where there is no suppression of facts or intention to evade tax because the service tax has already been paid by another unit of the same legal entity, invocation of the extended period under Section 73(1) is not justified. If the substantive demand for tax is unsustainable, consequential interest and penalties founded on that demand also cannot stand.
Conclusion: Extended period of limitation is not invocable and consequential interest and penalties are not sustainable. This conclusion is in favour of the assessee.
Final Conclusion: The appeal is allowed on the grounds that the tax demand is unsustainable both on merits due to prior payment by another unit of the same legal entity and on limitation grounds; consequential interest and penalties are set aside.
Ratio Decidendi: Payment of service tax by one unit of a single legal entity in respect of the same taxable event precludes a second recovery from another unit of the same legal entity; where such payment exists and there is no suppression or intent to evade, extended limitation and consequential interest and penalties cannot be invoked.
Double taxation - single legal entity and inter-unit tax adjustment - payment of service tax under different registration/accounting code - reverse charge mechanism - extended period of limitation u/s 73(1) of the Finance Act, 1994 - interest and penalties under Sections 75, 76, 77 and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 - HELD THAT:- The dispute in the present case is that the duty was discharged at Mumbai whereas as per the provisions of the law, the same should have been discharged at Vapi. At this stage, the Learned Advocate seeks to place reliance on the Division Bench decision of Kolkata, in the matter of Indian Oil Corporation Limited vs Commissioner of CGST & Central Excise-[2025 (6) TMI 850 - CESTAT KOLKATA], held that, " it is settled that merely because the service tax paid under different registration but by the same company, cannot tantamount to non- payment of service tax. The law does not permit the taxation authority to recover the tax again where the tax on the same taxable event has already been paid, albeit under a different head or accounting code. Hence, the demand of service tax which was already paid cannot be made twice. Accordingly, we hold that the demand of service tax confirmed in the impugned order is not sustainable and hence, we set aside the same.
Since the demand of service tax is not sustainable, the question of demanding interest under Section 75 and imposing penalties under Section 76, 77, and 78 of the Finance Act, 1994 does not arise and accordingly, the same imposed in the impugned order are set aside.”
Confronted with the decision given as the precedent, the Learned AR does not oppose and reiterates the findings of the lower authorities. In view of above stated decision, this court finds that the matter is already covered and appeal deserves to be allowed.
Appeal allowed.
Issues: Whether the extended period of limitation could be invoked to sustain recovery of duty where the show cause notice was issued by way of change of opinion and the dispute involved legal interpretation with conflicting views taken up to higher forums.
Analysis: The decision applies the principle that an extended period of limitation invoked by way of change of opinion is not maintainable where there is no condition precedent for such invocation. It further applies the legal principle that when the matter turns on interpretation of law and rival views are possible and have been taken up to the Supreme Court or a Larger Bench, the extended period cannot be invoked. The reasoning follows a Coordinate Bench decision in the appellant's own earlier matter which held the show cause notice to be unsustainable on the ground of limitation.
Conclusion: The extended period of limitation cannot be invoked; the entire period is barred by limitation and the appeal is allowed in favour of the assessee with consequential relief.
Extended period of limitation - change of opinion - interpretation of law involving conflicting views - invocation of extended period not maintainable where condition precedent is absent - HELD THAT:- The submission of the Learned Advocate was that though on merits, the matter is settled against the appellant but the very fact that the matter had to go right up to the Hon’ble Supreme Court indicates that the issue was contentious in nature and further para 6 of the decision of the Coordinate Bench in their own case, took the view that the duty was not sustainable at least due to extended period and also because legal interpretation was involved.
In view of the foregoing and following the decision in their own case and also the law that where interpretation of law is involved and two contrary views possible, which are taken right up to Supreme Court or Larger Bench, the extended period cannot be invoked. This court following the decision of the Coordinate Bench in their own case in the matter of Nangarjuna Construction Ltd. [2019 (3) TMI 775 - CESTAT NEW DELHI], allows the appeal. Appeal allowed with consequential relief.
Issues: (i) Whether short-paid duty arising on finalization of provisional assessment could be adjusted against excess duty already paid; (ii) whether the matter required remand for fresh computation of the short-paid duty amount.
Issue (i): Whether short-paid duty arising on finalization of provisional assessment could be adjusted against excess duty already paid.
Analysis: The assessments were provisional and were finalized after the disputed period. The Court found no statutory prohibition against adjusting excess duty paid in some clearances against short-paid duty in others, particularly when the adjustment was made immediately after finalization. The Court also noted that the Tribunal had previously accepted the same principle in similar factual settings.
Conclusion: Yes. The short-paid duty could be adjusted against the excess duty paid, and the contrary finding was set aside in favour of the assessee.
Issue (ii): Whether the matter required remand for fresh computation of the short-paid duty amount.
Analysis: A worksheet placing a different computation of the short-paid duty was produced for the first time at the hearing. The Court held that the correctness of the arithmetical computation had not been examined by the original authority and needed reconsideration at that stage.
Conclusion: Yes. The matter was remanded to the original authority for fresh determination of the correct duty amount after due consideration of the computation.
Final Conclusion: The assessee succeeded on the legal entitlement to set off excess duty against short-paid duty, but the quantum of short-paid duty was sent back for fresh adjudication.
Ratio Decidendi: In provisional assessment cases, where excess duty and short-paid duty arise from the same finalized assessment period, adjustment of one against the other is permissible absent any express statutory bar, and a remand may be ordered for recalculation of the correct duty quantum.
Adjustment of duty - provisional assessment under Rule 7 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002 - finalisation of provisional assessment - refund mechanism vis-a -vis adjustment of excess duty - principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Since there was excess paid duty in some of the cases and short-paid in other cases, the appellant had adjusted the short-paid duty from the excess paid duty. Such modus operandi adopted by the appellant was objected to by the Department on the ground that in respect of excess paid duty, they are only eligible for grant of refund by taking recourse of the provisions contained in the Central Excise statute.
With regard to short-paid duty, it was held by the authorities below, that under Rule 7 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002, the appellant is required to pay the differential duty along with interest and there is no provision prescribed under the statute for adjustment of the short-paid duty against the excess paid duty during the course of provisional assessment.
Though the refund provisions contained in the Central Excise statute are applicable for claiming the excess duty paid as refund, but the provision regarding adjustment of the excess paid duty vis-à-vis the short-paid duty, there is no restriction in statute to opt for such adjustment mechanism. Since the final assessment order was passed on 24.12.2014 and immediately thereafter the appellant had made the adjustment of the short-paid duty against the excess paid duty, such adjustment, in our considered view, can be termed as proper and justified.
Since the arithmetical accuracy about the computation was raised for the first time by the appellant at this juncture, we are of view that such aspect is required to be considered by the original authority. Therefore, the appeal, to the limited extent of computation of correct duty, is remanded to the original authority for passing of a fresh order.
Thus, the impugned order to the extent it has held that short-paid duty cannot be adjusted against the excess paid duty, is set aside and appeal to that extent is allowed in favour of the appellant. With regard to the limited purpose for computation of the short-paid duty amount as per the above referred work-sheet, the matter is remanded to the original authority for de novo adjudication. The principles of natural justice should be adhered to by the original authority while passing the order afresh.
Outcome: Delay condoned. The impugned order was modified to waive the costs imposed by the High Court, and the special leave petition was dismissed.
Condonation of delay - Modification of impugned order - Waiver of costs - Dismissal of special leave petition - HELD THAT:- Delay condoned.
Having heard the learned counsel appearing for the petitioner, we do not find any error in the impugned order except to the extent of imposition of costs. Hence, we modify the order and waive the costs imposed by the High Court under the impugned order.
Accordingly, the special leave petition stands dismissed.
Issues: Whether the assessment order for the assessment year 2000-2001 was barred by limitation under the second proviso to Section 14(1) of the Andhra Pradesh General Sales Tax Act, 1957.
Analysis: The assessment year in question fell within the period covered by the second proviso to Section 14(1), which prescribed a one-year period for completing the assessment. The final assessment order was passed after the expiry of that period, and the later omission of the proviso did not displace the applicable limitation regime for the relevant assessment year. The Court therefore found no basis to disturb the Tribunal's finding that the assessment was time-barred.
Conclusion: The assessment order was barred by limitation and the revision was decided against the petitioner-State and in favour of the respondent-Assessee.
Ratio Decidendi: The limitation applicable to an assessment must be determined by the provision in force for the relevant assessment year, and an assessment made beyond that period is void for being time-barred.
Limitation for assessment under second proviso to Section 14(1) of the Andhra Pradesh General Sales Tax Act, 1957 - period of limitation computed from end of relevant tax year - extension of limitation by tax audit report submission - bar of limitation precluding adjudication on merits - HELD THAT:- The assessment order involved in the instant case is of the year 2000-2001. The period of limitation prescribed for assessment of tax under 2nd proviso to Section 14(1) of the Act is one year.
The date of expiry of assessment for the year 2000-2001 or the period for passing the final assessment order gets expired on 31.03.2001. Thereafter, if at all an order under Section 14(1) was to be passed it ought to have been passed within one year from 31.03.2001, i.e., by 31.03.2002. However, no final assessment order was passed during the intervening period by the petitioner. The Assistant Commissioner had passed final assessment order for the Assessment Year 2000-2001 only on 18.03.2003. There was yet another period of limitation available with the petitioner, i.e., passing a final assessment order within (15) days from the tax audit report being submitted. In the instant case, the tax audit report was submitted on 25.01.2002 and in those circumstances the assessment order ought to have been passed within a further period of (15) days thereon, i.e., by 09.02.2002 during which time also the final assessment order was not passed, and ultimately the assessment order was passed on 18.03.2003.
In the absence of which, the findings arrived at by the Tribunal so far as the aspect of limitation is concerned, cannot be found fault, and therefore the order passed by the Tribunal stands affirmed. Since the assessment order, as held by the Tribunal, is hit by the law of limitation and the same being barred by limitation, this Bench does not find any good reason for entering into the merits of the case and test the veracity of the “F” Forms that have been submitted by the respondent-Assessee.
The Tax Revision Case preferred by the petitioner-State stands decided against the petitioner-State and in favour of the respondent-Assessee, by confirming the order passed by the Tribunal by holding that the assessment order passed by the assessing authority to be barred by limitation. Accordingly, the Tax Revision Case stands dismissed. No costs.
Issues: (i) Whether, in proceedings under Section 15(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the High Court could declare prior arbitral proceedings as a nullity on the ground that they were conducted during a moratorium under Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016; (ii) Whether transactions undertaken pursuant to the arbitral orders during the relevant period should be protected.
Issue (i): Whether, in proceedings under Section 15(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the High Court could declare prior arbitral proceedings as a nullity on the ground that they were conducted during a moratorium under Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Analysis: Section 15(2) contemplates only substitution of the arbitrator according to the rules applicable to the original appointment. Section 15(3) and Section 15(4) preserve the continuity of the arbitration and protect prior hearings and orders, unless the parties agree otherwise. The Court held that the High Court, while exercising jurisdiction under Section 15(2), could not travel beyond the limited statutory remit and could not set aside or nullify arbitral orders which the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 does not permit to be challenged in that manner. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is a self-contained code and the course prescribed by statute cannot be displaced by an alternate procedure.
Conclusion: The High Court lacked jurisdiction to declare the proceedings held between 17.03.2022 and 25.08.2022 a nullity, and that part of the impugned order was set aside.
Issue (ii): Whether transactions undertaken pursuant to the arbitral orders during the relevant period should be protected.
Analysis: The Court took note of the long lapse of time and the creation of third-party rights, including home buyers' interests, and exercised its constitutional power to avoid undoing completed commercial arrangements that had proceeded on the strength of the arbitral orders.
Conclusion: The transactions entered into pursuant to the arbitral orders were declared legally valid.
Final Conclusion: The appeal was partly allowed by removing the declaration of nullity, while preserving the transactions carried out in the interregnum and substituting the arbitrator for continuation of the arbitration from the existing stage.
Ratio Decidendi: In proceedings for substitution of an arbitrator, the court must confine itself to the limited power of appointing a substitute under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, and cannot nullify prior arbitral proceedings or orders, which remain protected by the statutory scheme of continuity.
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 - Termination and substitution of arbitrator u/s 15 - discretion to repeat hearings and validity of prior hearings on substitution of arbitrator - moratorium u/s 14 and its effect on ongoing proceedings - limited scope of judicial intervention and the self-contained code principle - preservation of continuity of arbitral proceedings and protection of third-party rights - Whether the High Court was justified in saying that the proceedings held by the Arbitral Tribunal on the seven relevant dates, i.e., from 17.03.2022 to 25.08.2022 were liable to be declared as nullity on the premise that those proceedings were undertaken during the period of moratorium u/s 14 of the IBC. - HELD THAT:-There is no doubt that the High Court assumed and exercised power which has clearly not been conferred by the Act, 1996, more particularly, wherein the statute itself envisages minimal judicial intervention.
We are of the view that the proper and legal course for the High Court acting under Section 15(2) of the Act, 1996, should have been to appoint a substitute arbitrator to continue from the existing stage of the proceedings. The impugned part of the judgment rendered by the High Court could be said to have resulted in a situation where the arbitration proceedings would have to be restarted de novo and the same would have a direct impact on the sale of flats made pursuant to the Section 17 orders of the Tribunal. This could be both inequitable and inefficient. This Court has time and again said that the object of speedy resolution of disputes by arbitration would best be subserved by a substitute arbitrator continuing at the point at which the earlier arbitrator has left off.
Thus, we are of the view that the part of the impugned order by which the High Court declared the proceedings undertaken between 17.03.2022 and 25.08.2022 as a nullity deserves to be interfered with.
In the result, this appeal succeeds in part. The impugned order to the extent it says that the proceedings held by the Arbitral Tribunal on the seven dates, i.e., from 17.03.2022 to 25.08.2022, are a nullity is hereby set aside.
Considering the long lapse of time and also the fact that third party rights have been created (home buyers rights have come into play) we, in exercise of our jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution of India declare these transactions to be lawfully valid.
The appeal stands disposed of accordingly.
TaxTMI